Sample Questions and Answers For All Subjects of MCA SEM 5 SMU

SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY ASP
Q.1.____ is a process of executing code on the basis of the actions that occur in an application (1) procedural programming (2) structure programming (3) event-driven (4) all of the above Q.2. This object has properties for the name & version of the browser being used (1) navigator (2) window (3) location (4) history Q.3. ______ object is the top-level object (1) navigator (2) window (3) location (4) history Q.4. ______ object has properties based on the URL (1) navigator (2) window (3) location (4) history Q.5. Every object has at least two properties _____ & ______ (1) name, action (2) action, value (3) name, value (4) none Q.6. The maximum length of prompt is ____ (1) 1000 (2) 255 (3) 1024 (4) d56 Q.7. Display a message in a dialog box (1) input box (2) msgbox (3) message box (4) all Q.8. Display warning message icon description is a constant of (1) vb warning (2) vb exclamation (3) vb question (4) vb critical Q.9. Vb retry constant return value (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7 Q.10. The second group (16, 32, 48, 64) of msgbox describe (1) type of buttons (2) describe icon style (3) button is default (4) modality of msgbox Q.11. Press _______ to view the help topics (1) F1 (2) F2 (3) F10 (4) F12 Q.12.ASP was born in November ______
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY

(1) 1997 (2) 1996 (3) 1995 (4) 1994 Q.13.______ is a server-side scripting environment that use to create & run dynamic,high performance web server application (1) vb script (2) XML (3) ASP (4) HTML Q.14.HTML files are ______ on the client side (1) assembled (2) compiled (3) interpreted (4) b & c Q.15. ASP code is contained inside special tags (1) <% (2) < (3) <& (4) # Q.16. ASP is built around files with the file name extension _____ (1) .as (2) .asp (3) .htm (4) .htmc Q.17. ______ command instruct your computer to do something (1) simple (2) script (3) value (4) run Q.18. A ______ is a series of script command (1) simple (2) script (3) value (4) run Q.19.A ______ is a character or sequence of characters that makes the beginning or end of a unit (1) special (2) tags (3) delimiters (4) none Q.20.______ & objects are the tools used to communicate with the servers environment (1) data (2) components (3) value (4) none Q.21. ______ component imports an order the pages on a site (1) dictionary object (2) content linking (3) voting (4) ad roater Q.22. ______ component creates a lookup reference (1) dictionary object (2) content linking (3) voting
ASP

(4) ad roater Q.23.______ component rotates several ads in a spot on the page (1) dictionary object (2) content linking (3) voting (4) ad roater Q.24.The request & response objects contain _____ (1) group (2) collection (3) array (4) stacks Q.25. ______ is a procedure that acts on an object (1) function (2) statement (3) method (4) group Q.26. _____ is useful to check different values for variable (1) do until .. loop (2) do while . loop (3) select case . End select (4)
ASP
Q.27 Find out error (a) <% (b) my number = 0 (c) do until m number = 10 response.write (hello<hr>) (d) m number = m number + 1 (e) %> (1) missing in 2 line (2) loop is missing in 3rd line (3) missing in 4th line (4) all Q.28 _____ object is used to access all information sent in a user request (1) response (2) request (3) information (4) none Q.29 Scripts in active server pages execute for ____ seconds by default (1) 80 (2) 75 (3) 60 (4) 90 Q.30 the IP address of the remote host maping the request is the description of variable (1) remote host (2) remote addr (3) query string (4) server port Q.31 the port number to which the request was sent is the description of variable (1) remote host (2) remote addr (3) query string (4) server port Q.32 query information stored in the string following the question mark (?) in the HTTP request

(1) remote host (2) remote addr (3) query string (4) server port Q.33.______ forms can be used for variety of purpose in ASP application (1) vb script (2) js script (3) java script (4) HTML
ASP
Q.34.To display the contents of each field in the form, type (1) <%= request . form (file name)%> (2) <%= response . form (file name)%> (3) <%= form (file name) %> (4) none Q.35. The ______ symbol is used to link key value pairs (1) # (2) + (3) & (4) @ Q.36.The ______ symbol is used to denote a space character in the value of an input element (1) # (2) + (3) & (4) @ Q.37.The query string is passed to the server with the rest of the user request through an _____ request (1) HTML (2) FTP (3) HTTP (4) UDP Q.38. ASP implements only ____ pre processing directives (1) #include (2) &include (3) <!-include (4) (1) & (2) Q.39.______ refers to the time duration which a specific user is connected to a particular web site (1) interval (2) session (3) time in (4) time out Q.40. _____ is a stateless protocol (1) FTP (2) TCP/IP (3) HTTP (4) (2) & (3) Q.41. ______ can maintain virtual list (1) interval (2) session (3) time in (4) time out Q.42. A ______ stores date related to a specific user session (1) session group

(2) session user (3) session variable (4) all Q.43.Server deletes all sessions calling the ______ (1) session on end (2) application on end (3) application on start (4) application on del Q.44.Server closes all application b (1) session on end (2) application on end (3) application on start (4) application on del Q.46.The script contained in the ______ file may be written in any supported scripting language (1) file.asa (2) global.asa (3) file.html (4) global.html Q.47. ________ store data from web sites in cookies file (1) browser (2) cookies (3) folder (4) asp file Q.48. A web server writes cookies to & ___ reads cookies from a browser through (1) FTP (2) HTTP (3) TCP/IP (4) all Q.49. _______ creates a new cookies (1) response.cookies (2) request.cookies (3) new request.cookies (4) new response.cookies Q.50. _______ method writes the given string to a text file & adds a new line character (1) write (2) write line (<string>) (3) close (4) write blank lines (<string>)
ASP
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY COLD FUSION

Q.1)Cold fusion is a ________ side scripting language (a)server (b)client (c )either a or b (d)none Q.2)A dynamic side for bookstore would allow customers (a)get suggestion for purchasing books (b)to order book online (c )write reviews of books (d)all Q.3)With the help of cold fusion one can develop (a)static site (b)dynamic site (c )both a & b (d)only b Q.4)Cold fusion lets we to create page based applications using (a)HTML (b)XML (c )CFML (d)none Q.5)The extension of cold fusion file is (a).htm (b).html (c ).cfm (d).xml Q.6)Which is not the edition of cold fusion (a)enterprise (b)learning (c )professional (d)express Q.7)________ edition ,you can build web applications that interact with desktop databases that support the ODBC standard (a)enterprise (b)professional (c )express (d)learning Q.8)Which is not the feature of cold fusion (a)Rapid development (b)open integration (c )Scalable deployment (d)none Q.9)Which is the cold fusion components (a)cold fusion studio (b)cold fusion server (c )cold fusion application page (d)cold fusion administrator Q.10)_______ is the development environment for cold fusion server (a)cold fusion studio (b)cold fusion server (c )cold fusion application page (d)none Q.11)Which is not the option related to the cold fusion administrator (a)server setting (b)Debugging output (c )cold fusion data source (d)CFML tag Q.12)LDAP stands for (a)Light weight directory protocol (b)Long weight dictionary procedure (c )Long weight dictionary protocol (d)none Q.13) Development process is as follows (a) write some code (b)Save the code to a document or page (c )view the page in browser (1) a,b,c (2)b,c,a (3) c,b,a (4)none Q.14)Displays whatever appears b/w the opening and closing (a)output tag (b)Cfoutput tag (c )out tag (d)none Q.15)________ stores data that can be used in application (a)module (b)data item (c )variable (d)function

Q.16)______ is used (a)Light weight directory protocol (b)Long weight dictionary procedure (c )Long weight dictionary protocol (d)none ___________ is the structure for storing Q.17. information (1) record (2) database (3) file (4) none Q.18. When the database processes the SQL it creates a data set that is returned to (1) cold fusion server (2) cold fusion studio (3) server (4) data base server Q.19. _________the property used for returning the total number of records by the query (1) record count (2) count (3) count record (4) none Q.20.________attribute to specify how the variable are submitted from the browser to action page on the server (1) action (2) method (3) attribute (4) entity Q.21.___________variable is passed for every form control that contain a value when the form is submitted (1) form (2) page (3) document (4) none Q.22. Which is true about form variables (1) a form variable scope is the action page (2)surround variable values with#sign for outp (3) are used for check boxes and radio buttons (4) all
Q.23.____________tells the database that the string that follows should be used for pattern matching (1) like (2) percent (3) dolor (4) ampersand Q.24. SQL is a (1) case sensitive (2) lower case (3) upper case (4) is not case sensitive Q.25.To test for its existence and optionally supply a default value if the variable does not already exist (1) cf query (2) cf par am (3) cf output

(4) none
COLD FUSION
Q.26. Use cf par am with_________attributes to test for the existence of an optional variable (1) NAME (2) DEFAULT (3) either (1) or (2) (4) both (1) &(2) Q.27. __________to check data types of query parameters and perform data validation (1) cf query par am (2) cf query (3) cf param (4) none Q.28. Dynamic SQL is implemented in cold fusion by using (1) CFIF (2) CFELSE (3) CFELSEIF (4) all
Q.29. Inserting data into a database is usually done by (1) insert form (2) an insert action page (3) both (1)or (20 (4) none Q.30. You can use a SQL INTERNET statement in a CF query tag instead of ___________ (1) CF INSERT (2) CINSERT (3) CF including (4) none Q.31. We can reuse common code with (1) cf include (2) cf insert (3) cf including (4) none Q.32. CFML custom tags support (1) required (2) optional (3) both (1) &(2) (4) none Q.33. For the tag that is nested within the calling tag the calling tag is (1) base tag (2) ancestor (3) parent (4) none Q.34. _________ is any tag that contains other tags b/w its start and end tag (1) base tag (2) ancestor (3) parent (4) none Q.35. Parent and child are synonyms for (1) ancestor (2) descendants (3) parent (4) none

Q.36. The default value for the data collection attribute is _____________ (1) assoc attribs (2) assoc attribute (3) attribute (4) none Q.37. Cold fusion invokes a custom tag template in (1) start fusion invokes (2) end tag execution (3) both(1) or(2) (4) none
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY 2017 (PUSA ROAD) DATA WAREHOUSING

1. Semantic integration of ________ genome database is the important task of DNA analysis. (a)Heterogeneous and distributed (b)Heterogeneous and Grid based (c) Both (d) None 2. Main advantage of following which method is its fast processing? (a)Grid based (b)Partioning based (c) Both (d) None
3 . .
With the widespread option of ________ real-time connection is viable for data warehousing
(a)TCP/IP (b)HTTP (c)both (d)none
4. ________ is responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse tables. (a)End users (b)dba (c) Both (d) None 5. Advantages of Wavelet transformation for clustering are:(a)Unsupervised clustering, Detection of cluster for accuracy, Clustering is fast (b)Unsupervised clustering, Clustering is fast, Decomposition of cluster for accuracy (c) Both (d) None
6. Query tool is meant for: (a)Data acquisition (b)Information delivery (c) Both (d) None 7. Which of the following function involves data cleaning, data standardizing and Summarizing? (a)Transforming data (b)Storing data
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY 2017 (PUSA ROAD)

(c) Both (d) None 8. Which of the following clustering analysis method uses multiresolution approach? (a)STING, Wave Cluster (b)Swing, Wave Cluster (c) Both (d) None 9. Which type of following clustering computes augmented cluster ordering? (a)OPTICS (b)CLQUE (c) Both (d) None 10. Time variant nature of the data in data warehouse: (a)Allows for analysis of the past, Relate information to the present, Enables forecasts for the future. (b)Allows for analysis of the past, Relate information to the present, Enables forecasts for the future. (c) Both (d) None 11. Question The Structure that brings all the components together is known as Architecture. (a)True (b) False (c) Both can be (d) None 12. Data compression is to compress the given data by encoding in terms of: (a)Association rule, Decision tree, Cluster (b)Bytes, Cluster (c) Both (d) None 13. Define the term Meta Data? The different definitions of metadata are: (a)Data about data, Catalog of data, Data warehouse roadmap (b)Data about data, Catalog of data, Data mining roadmap (c) Both (d) None 14. Data mining refers to extracting or mining knowledge from large amounts of data. A distinct feature of DB Miner is its data cube based online analytical mining. (a)True (b)False (c) Both (d) None 15. Question The architecture of a typical data mining system may have the major Components:-Association rules mining is based on:(a) Database ware house, repository
DATA WAREHOUSING
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY 2017 (PUSA ROAD) DATA (b) Database warehouse server
(c) Knowledge base (d)All of the above. 16. Question a distinguishing feature of Clementine is its object oriented extended module Interface. (a)True (b) False (c) Both (d) None 17. ________ includes Normalization and Aggregation as data preprocessing procedures. (a)Data information (b)Data transformation (c) Both (d) None 18. A relational database is a collection of tables, each of which is assigned a unique name:-To remove noise from data is called as Smoothing. (a)True (b) False (c) Both (d) None 19. 0 D cuboid, which holds the highest level of summazation, is called the apex cuboid Data updates are common place in an operational database. (a)True (b)True (c)both (d)none 20. OLAP provides a user -friendly environment for interactive data analysis. In decision Tree internal nodes are denoted by ovals and leaf nodes are denoted by rectangles (a)True (b)False (c) Both (d) None 21. Data reduction techniques can be applied to apply a reduced representation of data: (a)Data cube aggregation (b)Dimension reduction. (c)data compression (d)All of the above. 22. Smooting, Inb .physical design of data warehouse administration provides features like:(a)Aggregation (b)Generalization (c) All of the above.
WAREHOUSING

(d) None
DATA WAREHOUSING
(a)Data storage (b)Data searching (c) Both (d) None
23. ________ platform is the platform on which the data warehouse DBMS runs and database exist.
24. Question Following clustering method is classified as being agglomerative or divisive: (a)Grid based (b)Hierarchical Method (c) Both (d) None 25. ________ is the user who has system access privileges but no database administration privileges as well as not for table and views. (a)Network administrator (b)End user (c) None (d) Both 26. Data mining Functionalities are: (a)Characterization and Discrimination, Association Analysis, Cluster Analysis (b)Association Analysis, Cluster Analysis, Time series Data Analysis (c) None (d) Both 27. ________ dimension of database in which primitive level data are spatial but generalization Becomes non spatial. (a)Spatial to spatial (b)Spatial to non spatial (c) None (d) Both 28. Source Data Component may be grouped into following categories: (a)Production Data, Internal External Data (b)Internal External Data, Analyzed data, Non Analyzed data (c) None (d) Both 29. ________ technique is the statistical technique for analyzing data. (a)Time series (b) Date series (c) None (d) Both 30. The strategies for data reduction are: (a)Data aggregation, Dimension reduction, Numerocity reduction
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY 2017 (PUSA ROAD) DATA WAREHOUSING (b)Data aggregation, Dimension reduction, Numerocity reduction
(c) None (d) Both 31. Classification rules are extracted from (a)Decision Tree (b)Root-Node (c) None (d) Both 32. mach the following : (a)Data Mining (b)Metadata (c)Data storage (d)Data staging (a)a,b,c,d (b)b,a,c,d (c)a,b,d,c (d)d,b,c,a (a)Knowledge discovery (b)Roadmap for user (c)Data management (d)Workbench for data
33. Data cube stores multidimensional aggregate information. Is it true? (a)True (b) False (c) Can be (d) None 34. ________ is the method used to predict the value of response variable from one to more Variables. (a)Regression (b)Recollection (c) Both (d) None 35. ________ databases are one of the most popularly available and rich information Repositories. (a)Relational (b)Object oriented (c) Both (d) None 36. COBWEB is a method of incremental conceptual clustering. Is it true? (a)True (b) False (c) Can be (d) None

37. Many methods for data smoothingDATA WAREHOUSING are also methods for data reduction involving: (a)Discrimination (b)Clustering (c) Both (d) None 38. Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing:-
(a)Irrelevant attributes (b)relevant attributes (c)both (d)none 39. Effect of one attribute value on a given class is independent of values of other attribute is called (a)Value independence (b)Class Conditional independence (c) Both (d) None 40. Which from the following are special programs that are stored on database and fired when certain predefined action occurs? (a) Function (b)Triggers (c) Both d) None 41. A web server usually registers ________ entry for every access of a web page. (a)Web log (b)Log (c) Both (d) None 42. Bayes Theorem is:(a)P (H|X) =P (X|H) (P)/P(X) (b)P (H|X) =P (X|H) (P)/P(X) (c) Both (d) None
43. Visual display can help user to give clear impression and overview of the data characteristics in a database. (a)True (b) False 44. Question which of the following is based on set of density distribution function clustering? (a)DBSCAN (b)DBSCAP (c) Both

(d) None
DATA WAREHOUSING
45. Metadata in a data warehouse falls into following categories: (a)Operational Metadata, Extraction and Transformation metadata, End-user Metadata (b)Operational Metadata, Extraction and Transformation metadata, format user Metadata (c) both (d) None 46. Question Knowledge discovery process includes: (a)Data Cleaning, Data Integration, Data Selecting (b)Data mining, Data Integration, Data Selecting (c) Both (d) None 47. Human being has around ________ gene. (A) 100000 (b) 1000000 (c) Both (d) None 47. The main categories of Metadata in warehouse are: (a)Operational (b)Execution and Transformation Metadata (c)Extraction and transformation Metadata (d)All of the above 48. The ways of Intra query parallelization are: (a) Horizontal parallelization (b) Vertical Parallelization (c) Hybrid parallelization
(D) all of the above 49. Sequence of physical design of data warehouse is: A. Develop standards--Create aggregate plans--determine data partitioning scheme--establish clustering option--prepare indexing strategy--complete physical model B. Develop standards--determine data partitioning scheme--Create aggregate plans--establish clustering option--prepare indexing strategy--complete physical model C. Develop standards--prepare indexing strategy--Create aggregate plans--determine data partitioning scheme--establish clustering option---complete physical model D. Develop standards--Create aggregate plans--establish clustering option--determine data partitioning scheme--prepare indexing strategy--complete physical model 50. Data migration affects performance requiring multiple blocks to be read which can be adjusted by: (a)Block percent free (b)Block percent used (c)Block percent occupied (d)All of the above 51. The technique of_____________ enables concurrent input/output operations and improves file's access performance substantially.

(a) Data migration (b)File striping (c)Block utilization (d)All of the above 52. Effect of one attribute value on a given class is independent of values of other attribute is called (a)Value independence (b)Class Conditional independence (c) Both (d) None 53. Question DNA sequences are comprised of: (a)Gaunine, Thymine, Adenine (b)Gaunine, Adenine (c) both (d) None 54. Question Source Data component may be grouped into following categories: (a)Production Data, Internal External Data (b)Production Data, only External Data (c) Both (d) None True/False 55. Question Loan payment prediction and customer credit analysis are critical to business of bank. (a)True (b) False 56. Question preprocessing steps of data in order to help improve accuracy, efficiency and scalability of classification & prediction are: (a)Data Cleaning, Relevance Analysis, Data Transformation (b) Data storing, Relevance Analysis, Data Transformation (c) Both (d) None 57. The big difference between data warehouse and any operational system is its: (a)Usage (b) Function (c) Both (d) None 58. Data cleansing means removing noisy and inconsistent data. (a)True (b) False 59. Moving data into staging area and performing data transformation function is a part of data Acquisition. (a)True (b) False
DATA WAREHOUSING
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY 2017 (PUSA ROAD) DATA WAREHOUSING

60.________ Option of warehouse architecture provides incremental growth. (a)Cluster (b) Data Cluster (c) Both (d) None
61. Question For operational system, the stored data contains ________values. (a)Current data (b) Old data (c) Both (d) None 62. Question splitting of data into smaller partition decision tree induction is prone to: (a)Fragmentation, Replication, Repetition (b) Only Fragmentation (c) Both (d) None 63. ________ includes Normalization and Aggregation as data preprocessing procedures. (a)Data transformation (b)Data information (c) Both (d) None 64. Bitmapped indexes are more suitable for data warehouse environment than for an OLTP system (a)Bitmapped index (b)Clustered index (c) Both (d) None 65. Data updates are common place in an operational database. Is it true? (a)True (b) False 66. ________ is the type of pilot for early delivery with broader scope and may be integrated. (a)Broad business pilot (b)business pilot (c)both (d)none 67.Match the following (a)Data Mining (b)Metadata (c)Data storage (d)Data staging (a)Knowledge discovery (b)Roadmap for user (c)Data management (d)Workbench for data
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY 2017 (PUSA ROAD) DATA (a)a,b,c,d

(b)b,a,c,d (c)a,b,d,c (d)d,b,c,a
WAREHOUSING
68. A gene is usually comprised of hundreds of individual:(a)Nucleotides (b)cleotides (c)both (d)none 69. The Structure that brings all the components together is known as Architecture. (a)True (b)false 70. NUMA provides better scalability than SMP. (a) True (b) False 71. Deviation based outlier detection identifies outliers by: (a)Examining character of objects in groups (b)Examining distance between objects (c) Both (d) none 72. ________ is density based clustering method which computes on augmented clustering ordering for atomic ordering for automatic and interactive cluster analysis (a)DBSCAN (b)DBSCAP (c)both (d)none 73. Enterprise miner technique provides data mining algorithms including distinguishing feature as : (a)Advanced Statistical and advanced visualization tool (b)Advanced Statistical and classification tool (c)both (d)none 74.Match the following:(a)Load Image (a)to correspond to target files
(b)Constructive merge(b)new record supercedes (c)Initial Load (d)Incremental Load (c)Populating data warehouse table first time Populating data warehouse table first time Applying ongoing changes (d)Applying ongoing changes
(a)a,b,c,d (b)b,a,c,d (c)a,b,d,c

(d)d,b,c,a
DATA WAREHOUSING
75. Question Advantages of Wavelet transformation for clustering are : (a)Unsupervised clustering , Detection of cluster for accuracy , Clustering is fast (b)Unsupervised clustering , Clustering is fast (c)both (d)none 76.Question With the widespread option of ________ real-time connection is viable for data Warehouse. (a)TCP/IP (b)HTTP (c)both (d)none 77. A process of grouping a set of physical or abstract objects into classes of similar objects is called clustering (a)True (b)false 78. Development and deployment of your data warehouse is joint effort between : (a)IT staff and user representatives (b)IT staff and user management (c)both (d)none 79. Attribute construction is the part of : (a)Transformation (b)management (c)both (e)none 80. Which of the following data warehouse component includes dependent data marts, special multidimensional database and full range of query and reporting facilities? (a)Information Delivery component (b)IT staff and user Management (c)both (d)none 81. Which technique analyzes experimental data? (a)Analysis of variance (b)Analysis of severance (c)both (d)none 82.Question________ function of data staging component involves many forms of combining Pieces of data from different sources. (a)Data Transformation (b)Data Transformation (c)both

(d)none
DATA WAREHOUSING
83.QuestionMetadata is essential for IT for :(a)Source data structures (b) Data summarization both (d)none 84.QuestionMethods for outlier detection are categorized into following approaches :(a)Statistical (b)Distance based (c)Deviation based (d)all 85. ________ is responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse tables. (a) End users (b) Query tool specialist (c)both (d)none 86.Question ________ is the user who has system access privileges but no database administration privileges as well as not for table and views. (a)Network administrator (b)End user (c)both (d)none 87.QuestionData base miner provides multiple data mining algorithms including :(a)Discovery driven OLAP analysis (b)Association , Classification (c)both (d)none 88.QuestionKnowledge discovery process includes :(a)Data Cleaning (b)Data Integration , Data Selecting (c)both (d)none 89. In Linear regression data are modeled to fit a straight line. (a)True (b)false 90.Question Data in data warehouse cuts across application. (a)True (b)false 91. If many indexes are needed, then on which table which option is more preferable? (a)Splitting of tables (b) Rearranging of tables

(c)both (d)none 92.Which technique is used to predict categorical response variable? (a)Data analysis (b)Discriminate analysis (c)both (d)none 93.Following data transformation methods are used in analysis of time series data : (a)Scaling , Normalization , Windows Stitching (b)Searching , Normalization , Windows Stitching (c)both (d)none 94. Concept Description generates description for :(a)Characterization and Comparison (b)Characterization and Comparison (c)both (d)none 95. OLAP is used for : (a)Online Analytical Processing (b)offline Analytical Processing (c)both (d)none 96. ________ databases are one of the most popularly available and rich information repositories. (a)Relational (b)Management (c)both (d)none 97. Data Mining means :(a)Knowledge mining from database (b) Data /Pattern analysis (c)Data Archeology (d)all 98.What improves accuracy and speed of subsequent mining process? (a)Integration (b)manipulation (c)both (d)none 99.Data mining is applicable to :
DATA WAREHOUSING
(a)Relational Database , Data Warehouse , Transaction Database
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY 2017 (PUSA ROAD) DATA WAREHOUSING (b)Relational Database , Data Warehouse , Transaction Database
(c)both (d)none 100. ________ method of regression is useful when errors fail to satisfy normal conditions. (a)Robust (b)Rebuts (c)both (d)none 101. Data classification is two step process in which first step includes classification of model and in second step model describes set of data. (a)False (b)True 102.Question Data cleansing means removing noisy and inconsistent data. (a)True (b)false 103. Following factors play important role in financial analysis : (a)Data warehouse , Data cubes , Outliner analysis (b)Data warehouse , Data cubes , Data accuracy (c)both (d)none 104. Data matrix is : (a)Object by variable structure (b)Object by object structure (c)both (d)none 105. The dimensions of spatial data cube are : (a)Non-spatial dimension , Spatial to non spatial , Spatial to spatial (b)spatial dimension , Spatial to non spatial , Spatial to spatial (c)both (d)none 106.Query tool is meant for : (a)Data acquisition (b)Data command (c)both (d)none
ANSWERS 1 2 3 4 a a a b 5 6 7 8 a a a a 9 10 11 12 a a a a

13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 a a d
DATA WAREHOUSING 45 a
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 a d d b a d a a a a a a a a a a a a a a a a
b a
d c a a a a b a a a a a a a
77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106
a a a a a a c d a a c c a a a b a b a a d
a a a a a a a
a a a a a a a a a
a a a a a a a a
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY DATA WAREHOUSING

1 A priori algorithm operates in ______ method a. Bottom-up search method b. Breadth-first search method c. None of above d. Both a & b
2 A bi-directional search takes advantage of ______ process a. Bottom-up process b. Top-down process c. None d. Both a & b
3. The pincer-search has an advantage over a priori algorithm when the largest frequent item set is long. a. True b.false 4 MCFS stand for a. Maximum Frequent Candidate Set b. Minimal Frequent Candidate Set c. None of above 5 MFCS helps in pruning the candidate set a. True b.False 6 DIC algorithm stands for___ a. Dynamic item set counting algorithm b. Dynamic itself counting algorithm c. Dynamic item set countless algorithms d. None of above
7 If the item set is in a dashed circle, while completing a full pass it moves towards a. Dashed circle b. Dashed box c. Solid Box d. Solid circle
8 If item set is in dashed box then it moves into solid box after the completing a full pass a. True b.False 9 The dashed arrow indicate the movement of item set a. True b.False 10 The vertical arrow indicates movement of the item set after reaching the frequency threshold a. True b.False 11. Frequent set properties are: a. Downward closure property b. Upward closure property c. A &B d. None of these

12. Any subset of a frequent set is a frequent set is A. Downward closure property B. Upward closure property C. A and b
13. True / False a. Any superset of an infrequent set is an infrequent set is called as upward closure property .b. Association mining can be extended to correlation analysis, where the Absence or presence of correlated item can be identified. c. Priori Algorithm makes use of the downward closure property
a. b. c. d.
T,T,T T,F,T F,F,T T,T,F
14. The Fp-tree Growth algorithm was proposed by a. Srikant b. Aggrawal c. Han et al d. None of these 15. The main idea of the algorithm is to maintain a frequent pattern tree of the date set. An extended prefix tree structure starting crucial and quantitative information about frequent sets a. Priori Algorithm b. Pinchers Algorithm c. FP-Tree Growth algo. d. All of these 16. A frequent pattern tree (or fp-tree) is a tree structure consisting of a a. Item Prefix tree b.Frequent item header table 1. Only a 2. Only 3. either A OR B 4. Both a & b 17. In item prefix tree each on root node consists of three fields a.Item name, support count +node link b.Item name+ Node link+ Head of node link c.Item name, support count+ item prefix d.None of these (1.) Only a (2.)Only 2 (3.) only3 (4.) only 4
18 Frequent item headers table consists of 2 fields a. Item name b. Head of node link which points to the first node in the FP-tree carrying the item name c. Item name d. Node link 1)Both 3 & 4 (2) Both 1 & 2 (3) All of the above (4) both 2 & 3

19 Features of Fp tree are (i).It is dependent on support threshold (ii).It depends on the ordering of the items (iii).It depends on different values of trees (iv). It depends on frequent item sets with respect to given information a.(i) & (ii) b.(iii) & (iv) c.(i) & (iii) d.(ii)only
20 For a list T,wedenote head_t as its first element and body-t as the remaining part of the list(the portion of the list T often removal of head_t) thus t is a.{head} {body} b.{head_t} {body_t} c.{t_head}{t_body} d.None of these
21.Partition Algorithm executes in a. One phase b. Two Phase c. Three phase d. None of these 22.In first Phase of Partition Algorithm a. Logically divides into a number of non-overlapping partitions b. Logically diides into number of overlapping Partitions c. Not divides into partitions d. Divides into non-logically and non-overlapping Partitions
23.Functions of second phase of partition algorithm are a. Actual support of item sets are generated b. Frequent item sets are identified c. Both (a) & (b) d. None of these 24. Partition algorithm is based on the a. Size of the global Candidate set b. Size of the local Candidate set 26.Pincer-Search Method Algorithm contains (i) Frequent item set in bottom-up manner (ii) Recovery procedure to recover candidates
(iii) List of maximal frequent item sets (iv) Generate number of partitions a. (i) only b. (i) & (iii) only c. (i),(iii) & (iv) d. (i),(ii)&(iii) 27. Is a full-breadth search, where no background knowledge of frequent item sets is used for pruning? a. Level-crises filtering by single item b. Level-by-level independent c. Multi-level mining with uniform support d. Multi-level mining with reduced support
28.Disadvantage of uniform support is a. Items at lower levels of abstraction will occur as frequently. b. If minimum support threshold is set too high, I could miss several meaningful c. Both (a) & (b) d. None of these
associations

29. In item prefix tree each on root node WAREHOUSING DATA consists of three fields 1. Item name, support count +node link 2. Item name+ Node link+ Head of node link 3. Item name, support count+ item prefix 4. None of these (1.) Only 1 (2.)Only 2 (3.) only3 (4.) only 4
30. The pincer-search has an advantage over a priori algorithm when the largest frequent item set is long. A. True B. false 31. What are the common approaches to tree pruning? a. Prepruning and Postpruning approach. b. Prepruning. c. Postpruning. d. None of the above.
32. Tree pruning methods address this problem of ________________? a. Over fitting the branches . b. Over fitting the data . c. 1 and 2 both. d. None of the above.
33. What is the Full Form of MDL. a. Maximum Description Length b. Minimum Description Length c. Mean Described Length d. Minimum Described Length
34. State that the Statements are True / False: a. Postpruning approach Removes Branches from a Fully Grown Tree. a.True b.False b. The Best Pruned Tree is the one that maximum the number of encoding bits. a. True b. False 35. Upon halting, the node becomes a _______ A. Heap B. Subset C. Leaf D. Superset 36. The Leaf holds the most frequent class among the ________ samples. a. Superset b. Subset c. 1and2both d. none of the above
37. Prepruning and Post pruning may be __________ for a ________ Approach. a. Subset, Combined. b. Superset, Conjunction. c. Interleaved, Combined. d. None of the above.
38 Classification and Prediction are two forms of a. Data analysis b. Decision Tree

c. A and B d. None of these
DATA WAREHOUSING
39 Classification predicts a.Categorical labels b.Prediction models continued valued function c.AandB d.None of these
40. True / False a. Each Tuple is assumed to belong to a predefined class as determined by one of the attributes, called the class label attribute. b. The individual tuples making up the training set are referred to as training data set. c. Classification and Regression are the two major type of data analysis. d. All are true A. TTTT B. FFFF C. TFTF D. FTFT 41.True / False a. Classification and Regression are the two major type of data analysis. b. Classification is used to predict discrete or nominal values. c. Regression is used to predict continuous or ordered values. d. All are true 42. Classification and Prediction have numerous applications: a. Credit approval b. Medical diagnosis c. Performance prediction & selective marketing d. All of these 43. Class label of each training sample is provided this step is known as a. Unsupervised learning b. Supervised learning c. Training samples d. Clustering
44. Decision tree is based on a. Bottom-down technique b. Top-down technique c. Divide-and-conquer manner d. Top-down recursive divide-and-conquer manner
45. Recursive Partitioning stops in Decision Tree when a. All samples for a given node belong to same class. b. There are no remaining attributes on which samples may be further partitioned. c. There are no samples for the branch test. d. All the above.
46. To select the test attribute of each node in a decision tree we use a. Entity Selection Measure b. Data Selection Measure c. Information Gain Measure d. None of these
47.Test attribute for the current node in decision tree is chosen on the basis of a. Lowest entity gain b. Highest data gain

c. Highest Information Gain DATA d. Lowest Attribute Gain
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48. Advantage of Information theoretic approach of decision tree is a. Minimizes the expected number of tests needed b. Minimizes the number of Nodes c. Maximizes the number of nodes d. Maximizes the number of tests
49. Let is be the no. of samples of S in class Ci then expected information to classify a given sample is given by a. L(s1,s2,..sm)=log2(pi) b. L(s1,s2,..sm)=- pilog2(pi) c. L(s1,s2,..sm)=pilog2x d. L(s1,s2,..sm)=pilog2(pi)
50 Steps applied to the data in order to improve the accuracy, efficiency, and scalability are: a. Data cleaning b. Relevance analysis c. Data transformation d. All of the above
51. The process used to remove or reduce noise and the treatment of missing values a. Data cleaning b. Relevance analysis c. Data transformation d. None of above
52 Relevance analysis may be performed on the data with removing any irrelevant attribute from the process A. True B. False 53 Classification and prediction method can be affected by: a. Accuracy & Speed b. Robustness & Scalability c. Interpretability d. All of above
54 In a decision tree internal node denote a test on an attribute and Leaf nodes represent classes or class distributions (True/false) 55 _______ attempts to identify and remove branches, with Improving accuracy a.decision tree b.tree pruning c.both of them d.none of above
56. To deal with larger data sets, a sampling method, called _____________ a.Clara b.Dara c.Pam d.None
57. What is the Full Form of CLARA. a.Clustering Large Applicant. b.Close Large Applicant.

c. d. Clustering Large Applications. DATA WAREHOUSING None of the above.
58. What is the Full Form of CLARANS. a.Clustering Large Applications Based Upon Randomized Search. b.Close Large Applicant Based Upon Role Search. c.Clustering Large Applicant Based Upon Randomized Search. d.None of the above.
59. Which Algorithm was proposed that combines the Sapling Technique with PAM. a.CLARA b.CLARANS c.Both1and2 d.None of these.
60. Which are the two type of Hierarchical Clustering? a.Agglomerative Hierarchical Clustering and Density Hierarchical Clustering b.Agglomerative Hierarchical Clustering and Divisive Hierarchical Clustering. c.Divisive Hierarchical Clustering and Density Hierarchical Clustering. d.None of the above.
61. Cluster is a : a.The process of grouping a set of physical or abstract objects into classes of similar objects is called clustering. b.A cluster of data objects can be treated collectively as one group in many applications c.Cluster analysis is an important human activity. d.All of the above
62. Cluster analysis tools based on a.K-means b.K-medosis c.A and B d.None of these
63. S-Plus, SPSS, SAS software packages use for a.Data Mining b.Classification c.Clustering d.Prediction
64. Unsupervised learning is an example of a.Classification and prediction b.Classification and Regression c.clustering d.Data Mining
65. Requirement of Clustering in data Mining a.Scalability b.Ability to deal with different types of attributes c.Ability to deal with noisy data d.Discovery of clusters with arbitrary shape e.Minimal requirement for domain knowledge to determine input parameters f.Insensitivity to the order of input records g.High dimensionality

h. Constraint based clustering WAREHOUSING DATA (a). All of these (b). a,c,d,f (c.) None of these (d.) g,h
66. Clustering method can be classified a.Partitioning Methods b.Hierarchical methods c.Density based methods d.All of these
67. Hierarchical methods can be classified a.Agglomerative Approach b.Divisive Approach c.A and B d.None of these
68. Agglomerative approach is called as a.Bottom-up Approach b.Top-Down Approach c. A and B d. None of these
69. Top-Down Approach is a. Agglomerative Approach b. Divisive Approach c. Both of the above d. None of the above 70. Drawback of Hierarchical Methods
a. suffer form the fact that once a step is done, it can never by undone. b. A technique is that they cannot correct erroneous decision. c. Both a & b d. None of these
71. Two approaches to improving the quality of hierarchical clustering: a. Perform careful analysis of object linkages at each hierarchical partitioning,such as in CURE and Chameleon b. Integrate Hierarchical agglomeration and iterative relocation by first using a hierarchical agglomerative algorithm and refining the result using a iterative relocation c. Both a & b 72. Classical Partioning methods are a. k-means and k-median b. k-means and k-medoids c. k-modes only d. none of these 73. K-means technique is based on a. Centroid Object b. Reference object c. Representative object d. Partition Object 74. K-medoids technique is based on a. Centroid Object b. Representative object

c. Partition Object d. None of these
DATA WAREHOUSING
75. The k-means and the k-modes methods can be integrated to cluster data with mixed numeric and categorical values, resulting in a. k-median method b. k-partition method c. k-prototypes method d. k-medoids method
76. The squared-error criterion is used in k-means method defined as a. E=I=1tok pci [p-mi] b. E=I=1tok pci [mi]2 c. E=I=1tok pci [p]2 d. E= I=1tokp ci [p-mi]2
77. The Computational Complexity of k-means method algorithm is a. O(log x) b. (nkt) c. O(nkt) d. (log x)
78. Which Method is more Robust-k-means or k-medoids? a. The k means is more robust in the presence of noise b. The k-medoids method is more robust in the presence of noise and outliers c. The k-medoids method is more robust due to no. of partitions d. The k means is more robust due to its less complexity
79. First k-medoids algorithm introduced is a. Prototype Above Medoids b. Partition Below Medoids c. Prototype Around Medoids d. Partitioning Around Medoids
80. PAM stands for a. Prototype Above Medoids b Prototype Around Means c. Paritioning Around Medoids d. Paritioning Above Means
81.Which statements are true for k-means(i). It can apply only when the mean of cluster is defined.(ii). It is not suitable for discovering clusters with non-convex shapes(iii). This method is relatively efficient in processing only small data. a. (i) only b. (i) & (ii) only c. (iii) only d. All the above
82 DBSCAN stands for: a. Divisive Based Clustering Method b. Density Based Clustering Method c. Botha&b d. None of above
83: DBSCAN defines a cluster as a maximal set of density Connected points A. True B. False

84:For a non-negative value ,Ne(Oi)={ Oj A. True B. False 86.An object is said to be Core Object if a. Ne(O)MinPts b. N (O) MaxPts c. none of above d. botha&b D I d(Oi,Oj)}
87:
The density-reachability relation is transitive but not symmetric A. True B. False
88: Non-core objects are: a. border object b. noise object c. non object d. both a & b
89. DBSCAN algorithm can classified into: a. classified b. unclassified c. noise d. all of above
90. Unsupervised learning is an example of a Classification and prediction b Classification and Regression c clustering d Data Mining
91. Data can be classified as a. reference data b. transaction data and derived data c. derived data d. all of the above
92. Reference and transaction data originates from a operational system b Unnormalized data c data marts d all are true
93. Derived data is derived from a reference data b transaction data c reference and transaction data d none of the above
94. Unnormalized data, which is the basis for online analytical processing tools is prepared periodically but is directly based on detailed ----------.

a b c d reference data DATA WAREHOUSING transaction data reference and transaction data none of the above
95. The data mart is loaded with data from a data warehouse by means of a--a load program b process c project d all are valid
96. The chief considerations for a Load program are: a frequency and schedule b total or partial refreshment c customization and re-sequencing d all are true
97.Periodic maintenance of a data mart means a all are true b loading c refreshing d purging
98. Detailed level data, summary level , preprocessed and adhoc data are data in a data warehouse b data mart c both d none of the above
99.The software that can be found with a data mart is a all are true b DBMS c Access d Purging and archival software
100. ------Table help and enable the end-users of the data mart to relate the data to its expanded version. a data b reference c both1and2 d none of the above
101. Good performance can be achieved in a data mart environment by extensive use of a Indexes b creating profile records c volumes of data d all of the above
102.Data Mart administrator focus on a firewalls and logon/off b security and DBMS security c application based security and encryption description d all are valid statements
103. Multifact star schema is also known as a dimension schema

b snow flake schema DATA WAREHOUSING c star schema d all are valid 104 .FOCUS fusion from Information Builders Inc is a multidimensional database technology for OLAP and data warehousing.
A. True B. False
105.Data selection , data pre-processing and data transformation are steps of a b c d Data preparation data mining data mart all are true
106.CRM stands for a care relationship mgmt b customer relationship mgmt ccurrent relationship mgmt d none of the above
107.All the tools for data mining in the market can be classified into different categories : a b c d Commercial tools Public domain tools all are correct research prototype
108.The data warehousing and data mining technologies have extensive potential applications in the govt in various central govt sectors such as : a b c d Agriculture Rural Development Health and Energy all of the true
109. GISTNIC stands for General Information Service Terminal of national Informatics Center A. True B. False 110. Data conversion, data scrubbing, data transformation and web publishing are the process of : a Data mart b Information system c data sources d metadata
111.Data scrubbing is the process of checking the data, which is being imported into the data warehouse to ensure that the data is complete and accurate. a b valid statement Invalid statement

112. The ----client is a desktop DATA WAREHOUSING it is connected for majority of its computing power. that relies on the server to which a thin b none c thick d web server
113. ---------process extracts the data from the information repository and loads this clean and scrubbed data into MDDB server. a Data scrubbing b data transformation c data mining d all are correct
114.Data sources in data warehouse are referred to as . External data source . Operational data source a . External operational data source b . none of the above
115. Two major operations in data warehouse are a Initial loading of data b access of data c mining of data d both 1 and 2 are true
116. GISTNIC data warehouse is a web-enabled SAS software solution 1. Correct 2. Incorrect 117.The govt. of Tamil Nadu is the first one to perceive the need and importance of converting data into valuable information for better decision-making. 1. Correct 2. Incorrect
118. Relational Integration means the integration of 1. MOLAP 2. ROLAP 3. ROLAP and MOLAP 4. none of the above
119. The performance considerations in DSS environment are not very much different from those in OLAP environment. 1. True 2. False
120.Data Mining is the process of extracting : a unknown b valid c actionable information d all are true
121. A data warehouse is a all of the above b integrated ctime variant collection of data d Subject-oriented

122. POS stands for a Peer of sale b Point of sale c part of sale d none of the above
DATA WAREHOUSING
123. shelf life is the period after which the data will lose its attraction or usefulness. a True b False 124.clustering refers to the actual operation leading to formation of segments or clusters a b Correct Incorrect
125. demographic and neural clustering are methods of clustering based on a data types b methodology of calculation c Inter record distance d all of the above
126.Warehouse administrator responsible for a b c d Administrator maintenance both1and2 none of the above
127The data warehousing and data mining technologies have extensive potential applications in the govt in various central govt sectors such as : a b c d Agriculture Rural Development Health and Energy all of the true
128.ODS Stands for a External operational data sources b operational data source c output data source d none of the above
129. Good performance can be achieved in a data mart environment by extensive use of a Indexes b creating profile records c volumes of data d all of the above
130. Periodic maintenance of a data mart means a All are true b Loading c Refreshing d Purging

4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 A A A D A B A C A
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48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 A B D A A D A B A B A B B D C C C A D C A B C C B A B C D C B D C B B A A
C C D A B A B B A C A D D B C A A A B B A,B C B C A C
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C D A C A A D A B A B D D B B A B C D A B A A B C D A A C B D A B A B D C D A D A
D D B D D C
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1 A __________ is a relational database management system designed specifically to meet the needs of transaction processing systems. a. RDBMS b. Data warehouse c. Data mining d. All of the above e. ans)2 2 A data ware house system is not designed to a. Handle large queries dealing with large data sets b. Handle operational queries c. Handle user's requirements of information d. None of The above e. ans)1 3 A data warehose is a _______________ a. Centralized Data Repository b. RDBMS c. both d. None of The above e. ans)3 4 A data warehouse system is not designed to a. Handle large quries dealing with large data sets b. Handle operation queries c. Handle user's requirements of information d. None of The above e. ans)2 5 A project pilot must be limited to a. One subject area b. Any number of subject c. Max 5 subjects d. There is no such restriction e. ans)1 6 A query execution plan is selected by the a. CPU b. Optimizer c. query d. None of The above e. ans)2 7 A redo log is used _________ a. To repeat process b. Undo a process c. Record transaction in a file d. None of The above e. ans)3 8 A scope statement describes a. Key job and deliverables b. Expectations from project c. Role of top management d. None of The above e. ans)1 9 A significant reason for the failure of data warehouse & DDS projects are a. Lack of integration b. Lack of communication c. Lack of clear linkages to business objective d. All of the above e. ans)2 10 A typical warehouse transaction involves
DATA WAREHOUSING

a. Small amount of data b. Large amount of data c. Single order or transaction d. None of The above e. ans)2 A work breakdown structure describes a. Breakdown of all work that must be done b. Project goals c. List of criteria d. None of The above e. ans)1 Any approach to developing a business driven data warehouse should revolve around key a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. 4 e. ans)2 Bitmapped indexes are used for tables a. With little or no insert activity b. With high insert activity c. High cardinality d. None of The above e. ans)1 Characteristics of data warehouse a. Subject oriented b. Integrated c. Time variant d. All of the above e. ans)4 Data are not updated or changed in any way once they enter the data warehouse, but are only loaded and accessed. The applies to which of the following? a. Subject oriented b. Integrated c. Time variant d. None of The above e. ans)4 Data cleansing is a system a. To remove transactions that slow down query time b. To update data at regular intervals c. To check corrupt data d. None of The above e. ans)1 Data mining helps companies to _________ a. Retain useful data only b. Build easy to understand systems c. Locate required data from their corporate database d. None of The above e. ans)4 Data mining is also known as a. Data Discovery b. Knowledge Discovery c. both a and b d. Data Extraction e. ans)3 Data mining solutions can be used
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a. To asist the process of decision making b. In place of decision making process c. By top management only d. All of the above e. ans)1 Data mining systems can predict a. Profitability of a business move b. Unusual behavior patterns c. Audit frauds d. All of the above e. ans)2 Data modelling techniques are introduced to support a. Data warehouse design b. Data warehouse infrastructure c. User requirements d. None of The above e. ans)4 Data ware house is a. The product manufactured by company b. The inventory of personnel c. The collection of corporate information d. None of The above e. ans)3 Data warehouse can not deal with a. Data analysis b. Operational activities c. Information extraction d. None of The above e. ans)2 Data warehousing cannot deal with a. Data analysis b. Operational activities c. Information extraction d. None of The above e. ans)2 Data warehousing is the process of a. Extracting operational data b. Transforming operational data c. Loading d. All of the above e. ans)4 Each oracle database needs at least _______ redo logs a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. ans)2 Find the option that gives the correct EIS team a. Programmer, Tools specialist, PM and Enduser b. Enduser, Programmer, PM and Project Director c. Project Leader, PM, Project Director and Tools Specialist d. Programmer, Enduser, Project Leader, Background expert and DSS analyst e. ans)4 In _____ situations the users caught into risk a. 2 b. 3
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c. 4 d. 5 e. ans)2 KDD stands for a. Knowledge design database b. Knowledge domain data c. Knowledge data d. Knowledge discovery database e. ans)4 MDA stands for a. Multiple Dimensional Analysis b. Model Dimensional Analysis c. Multi Dimensional Analysis d. Media Description Analysis e. ans)3 Metadata is the information that describes a. Models and definition of source data b. Controls of warehouse c. Sources of data d. None of The above e. ans)1 Multi CPU machines are primarily of these classifications a. Symmetric Multiprocessing b. Massively Parallel processor c. both a and b d. None of The above e. ans)1 Operational systems are concerned with handling of a. Multiple transactions b. Single transaction c. Data analysis d. None of The above e. ans)2 Oracle index building process consists of how many steps a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. None of The above e. ans)1 Partitioning of data uses the construct a. Replace b. Select c. Union all d. None of The above e. ans)3 Performance monitoring of project is a function of a. Database administrator b. System administrator c. Project manager d. None of The above e. ans)2 Performance monitoring of project is function of a. Database administrator b. System administrator c. Project manager d. None of The above
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e. ans)2 Project estimation is done to know a. Time and efforts it will require b. Costs of project c. Funding requirements d. All of the above e. ans)4 Read Only Tablespace don't need backup because a. Their content never changes b. Their access is limited c. They have automatic backup d. None of The above e. ans)1 ROI stands for a. Return on investigation b. Return office income c. Return on investment d. None of The above e. ans)3 Stages of parallel computing are :a. Parallel I/O processing b. Symmetric multiprocessing c. Loosely coupled systems d. All of the above e. ans)4 Star schema a. Fact table b. Dimensional Table c. both a and b d. None of The above e. ans)3 The 3 domains which a data professional must manage does not include a. Development environment b. Execution environment c. Data warehouse d. Operational environment e. ans)3 The basic difference between a operation system & data warehouse lies in a. Their approach towards users b. Their infrastructure c. The environment d. None of The above e. ans)1 The biggest need for business today that data warehouse a. Provides right amount of information b. Offers database of past performance c. Offer information unasked for d. None of The above e. ans)1 The Bitmap Indexing is typically used for a. Query intensive applications b. Project monitoring c. Cleansing data d. None of The above e. ans)1 The data in a warehouse is organised according to
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a. Department b. Subject c. Process d. None of The above e. ans)2 The data warehouse does not retrieve data from a. External sources b. Operational databases c. End users d. None of The above e. ans)2 The feature that enables in the data warehouse is a. Single user access quality of data b. Multiuser access, mass user scalability c. Multiuser access, terabyte scalability d. None of The above e. ans)2 The feature that enables multiuser access of a data warehouse is a. Terabyte scalability b. Mass user scalability c. Quality of data d. None of The above e. ans)2 The integrated plan for project is not used to a. Monitor and control the project b. Combine various phases involved c. Cut costs d. None of The above e. ans)1 The intergrated plan for project is not used to a. Monitor & control the project b. Combine various phases involved c. Cut costs d. None of The above e. ans)4 The main compoents of the AS/400 information warehouse architectare are :a. Transformation/propagation b. DB server c. Analysis/end user tools d. All of the above e. ans)4 The main function of a data warehouse is to a. Support business decisions b. Support managerial systems c. Support operational activities d. None of The above e. ans)1 The metadata is _______________ a. Data about data b. Data dictonary c. System catalog d. All of the above e. ans)4 The most common cause of warehouse failure is a. Technical unfeasibility b. Inability to meet business objectives
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c. Financial constraints d. None of The above e. ans)2 The most common cause of warehouse failure is a. Technical unfeasibility b. Inability to meet business objectives c. Financial constrains d. None of The above e. ans)2 The OMNIDEX DB engine resides between the ________ and __________ a. Client, Server b. Database, Application c. ODBC, Database d. None of The above e. ans)2 The project manager is responsible for a. Communication b. Problem solving c. Administration d. All of the above e. ans)4 The star schema is preferred method is a. Analystic programming b. Parallel Programming c. both a and b d. None of The above e. ans)3 The three domains which a data professional must manage does not include a. Development environment b. Execution environment c. Data warehouse d. Operational environment e. ans)4 There are ______ levels of summarization of data inside the data warehouse a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. ans)3 There are generally _______ characteristics that describes a data warehouse a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. ans)3 There are______, ______ critical technology drivers for data mining a. Size of DB, Query Complexity b. Size of DB, Customer habit c. Multi-dimension, Customer habit d. None of The above e. ans)3 To use Parallel processing a computer must have a. <1GB b. >10GB c. both a and b d. None of The above
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e. ans)2 Unplanned adding of data leads to a. Failure of project b. Expanded capacity c. More efficient systems d. None of The above e. ans)1 VSAM stands for a. Video Storage Access Method b. Virtual Secure Access Method c. Virtual Storage Access Method d. Visual Sequence Access Method e. ans)4 Which are is not an environmental risk a. Technology changes b. Legal requirements c. Govt. decisions d. Office politics e. ans)4 Which are not considerations for building data ware house a. Operating efficiency b. Improved customer service c. Competitive advantage d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which aspect of project is taken care by data warehouse architect ? a. Documentation b. Content c. User requirements d. None of The above e. ans)1 Which elements are major in the breakdown of scope statements a. Projects title and description b. Project justification c. Project key deliverables, project objective d. All of the above e. ans)4 Which factor will not influence the cost and risk of the data warehouse project a. Number of business process b. Number of resources c. Size of Data base d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which of the following is not an element of metadata a. Structure of data b. Algorithm used c. Mapping d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which of the following is not an element of metadata? a. Structure of data b. Algorithm used c. Mapping d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which of these is an internal risk
DATA WAREHOUSING
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a. Customer expectaction b. Regularity c. Markset factor d. Monetary factors e. ans)1 Which of these is not used for user for user involvement ? a. Education and communication b. Training c. Understanding their expectations d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which one is not a characteristic of data warehouse? a. It's integrated b. It is non volatile c. It's subject oriented d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which one is not a consideration for building data warehouse ? a. Operating efficiency b. Improved customer service c. Competitive advantage d. None of The above e. ans)1 Which one is not a criteria for data warehouse RDBMS ? a. Query performance b. Load performance c. Load processing d. Credibility of sources e. ans)4 Which one is not a method to evaluate ROI of a data warehouse? a. Clear objectives b. Cost justification c. Multi user scalability d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which one is not a operational system? a. Order processing b. Inventory c. General Ledger d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which one is not a phase of project management process a. Initiation b. Planning c. Execution d. Feedback e. ans)3 Which one is not a tool for warehouse project a. Data cleansing b. Data mining c. Metadata d. None of The above e. ans)4 Which one is not a tool for warehouse project ? a. Data cleansing b. Data mining
DATA WAREHOUSING
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c. Meta data d. None of The above e. ans)4 Who is responsible for data security of project ? a. Project manager b. Database administrator c. Architect d. None of The above e. ans)2 Who is responsible for promoting vision of data warehouse ? a. Project Director b. Project Manager c. Chief Executive d. None of The above e. ans)1 Who is the guru of data warehouse a. Bill inmon b. John mcintyre c. Bill mcintyre d. John inmon e. ans)1 Who must control project scope creep a. Project Directors b. Project Managers c. Chief Executive d. None of The above e. ans)2 Who must control project scope creep ? a. Project Director b. Project Manager c. Chief Executive d. None of The above e. ans)2
DATA WAREHOUSING
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SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY DIGITAL IMAGING

Q.1.One of the two principal application areas of digital image processing methods (1) improvement of pictorial information for human interpretation (2) improvement on processing methods for transmitted digital pictures continued to be a made (3) took the continued advents of lare scale digital computers and the space program to bring into focus the potential of image processing concepts (4) none of above Q.2. The form ______ refers to a 2-D light intensity function (1) monochrome image (2) image (3) digital image (4) none of above Q.3. _______ is an image f(x,y) that has been discretized both in spatial coordinates and brightness. (1) a digital image (2) monochrome image (3) a simple image (4) none of above Q.4. The ______ consists of pieces of mail and the objective is to read the address on each piece (1) problem domain (2) image processing (3) theoretical underpinnings (4) none of above Q.5. The key function of preprocessing is to (1) Improve the image in ways that increase the chances for success of the other processes. (2) use general purpose system capable of performing the image processing operations (3) both of above (4) none of above Q.6.________ is compose of a matrix of photo sites and is therefore capable of capturing an image in the same manner as say a ridicon table (1) an area sensor (2) a line-scan sensor (3) quantization (4) none of above Q.7._____ that use mechanical motion of a CCD chip to achieve resolutions on the order of 2048x2048 elements are available at premium piece (1) specialty high and sensor (2) line-scan sensor (3) area-scan sensors (4) none of above Q.8. ____ of worm storage is now possible in a jukebox that occupies a volume of less than 50 ft. (1) one t byte (2) 10 g byte (3) 1 g byte (4) none of above Q.9. _______ involves procedures that are usually expressed in algorithmic form.

(1) processing of digital images (2) scanning of picture image (3) magnetic tape scanning (4) none of above
DIGITAL IMAGING
Q.10.______ in digital image processing primarily involves local communication between image processing systems andremate communication from one point to another (1) communication (2) display (3) storage and processing (4) none of above Q.11.Three membranes of eye are (1) corner (2) sclera (3) choroids (4) none of above Q.12. The no. of cones in each eye no. __________________ (1) between 1to 2 million (2) between 6 to 7 million (3) between 1.5to 3 million (4) none of the above Q.13. The density of cones in that area of the (1) 150,000 elements per mm. (2) 100,000 elements per mm. (3) 75,000 elements per mm. (4) none of above Q.14. The distance between the focal center of the lons and the retina various from approx. (1) 17 mm to about 14 mm (2) about 3mm (3) about 4mm (4) none of above Q.15. The transition from isotopic to photonic risi on is gradual over the approx range from _________ (1) 0.001 to 0.01 milli ambert (2) 0.001 to 0.1 milli ambert (3) 0.1 to 0.0001 milli ambert (4) none of above Q.16. The quantity ^/c /1 , is called_______________ (1) weibel ratio (2) weber ratio (3) vibrant ratio (4) none of above Q.17.We actually perceives a brightness pattern that is strongly scalloped especially near the boundariesis called______________ (1) grahm band (2) mach band (3) weive band (4) none of above Q.18. Digitization of the spatial coordinates (x,y)is called______________

(1) liuage sampling (2) amplitude digitization (3) gray level (4) none of above G =2m Q.19. , g denotes the no. of ___________levels (1) gray scale levels (2) gray level (3) both true (4) all false
DIGITAL IMAGING
Q.20.__________between pixels is an important concept used in establishing bound arises of object and components of regions in an image (1) connectivity (2) reflexivity (3) reflectivity (4) none of above Q.21. One of three types of connectivity (1) 4 connectivity (2) 8 connectivity (3) m connectivity (4) all of above Q.22. If R is an equivalence relation on set A, then A can be divided into K disjoint subsets called_____ (1) equivalence classes (2) equivalence sets (3) binary relation (4) none of above Q.23. The set containing symmetric transitive and reflexive relationships is called ____________ (1) transitive closure of R (2) Equivalent set (3) binary relation (4) none of above Q.24.The______distance between P and q is defined as, de(p,q)=[x-s]2+(-t)2]2r/2 (1) chess board (2) Euclidean (3) city block (4) all of above Q.25.Neighborhood processing typically is formulated in the context of so called mask operating terms____________ (1) template (2) image (3) filter (4) none of the above Q.26. Translation rotational scaling about z-axis of a point v is given b (1) v*=re (s(tv)) (2) none of above (3) v*=re (s(tv) ) (4) v*=re (s(av)) Q.27. __________has the image plan coincident with x-plan and the optical axis along the z axis

(1) camera coordinate system (2) coordinate system (3) image coordinate system (4) none of above
DIGITAL IMAGING
Q.28.A film________is twice as fast as a film of ASA 100 (1)ASA 400 (2) ASA200 (3) ASA 300 (4) None of above Q.29. The square of the Fourier spectrum is called as _________(as spectral density) (1) power spectrum (2) power density (3) spectrum density (4) none of above Q.30. f(x)e j dx (1) 2*x (2) 2*mx (3) 2*mx (4) none of above Q.31. F(x,y) is related to the Fourier transform of f(x,y) by (1) f(x,y) = 1/N f(0,0) (2) f(x,y) = 1/N f(1,2) (3) f(x,y) = 1/N f(0,1) (4) none of above Q.32. By the convolution theorem , to convolution in the ___________ (1) frequency domain (2) amplitude domain (3) phase domain (4) none of above H(x) = { 1 0<=x<=x Q.33.0 elsewhere this function is also called _________ (1) window (2) Fourier transform (3) sampling (4) none of above Q.34. Multiplication of FFT algo is (1) m(n) = .2n . log2 2n (2) m(n) = 1/3.2n . log2 2n (3) m(n) = 2n . log2 2n (4) none of above Q.35. Fast Fourier transform algorithm usually are formulated in a ________format. (1) base-3 (2) base-2 (3) base-1 (4) none of above Q.36. The forward kernel is said to be separable if (1) g(x,y,u,v)=g1(x,u)g2(y,v)

(2) g(x,,u,v)=g1(x,u)g2(,y,v) (3) h(x,y,u,v)=g1(x,u)g2(y,v) (4) none of above Q.37. G(x,u) = 1/n (1) fourier (2) (3) (4) Q.38. G(x,y)=t[f(x,y)] if f(x,y) is input image g(x,y) is (1) output image (2) processed image (3) transitive image (4) none of above Q.39. In s=c log (1+1r1), c is (1) scaling constant (2) transformation function (3) gray level slicing (4) none of above Q.40. Spatial filters can be classified as (1) smoothing (2) sharpening (3) low pass (4) (1)and (2) Q.41.__________is achieved in frequency domain by attenuating a specified range of high frequency components is the transform of a give image (1) blurring (2) enhancement (3) high pass filtering (4) none of above Q.42. The characteristics generally used to distinguish one color from another are (1) brightness (2) hue (3) both above (4) none of above Q.43. An ideal ____________suppresses all frequencies in a neighborhood of radius (1) band reject filter (2) low pass filter (3) high filter (4) none of above Q.44. Overlap in the individual period of the resulting convolution is avoided b choosing _________(1) M=A-B+1 (2) M>A+B-1 (3) M<A-B+1 (4) None of above
DIGITAL IMAGING
Q.45.The _________approach is a statistical procedure

(1) least mean square approach (2) mean time approach (3) degradation (4) none of above
DIGITAL IMAGING
Q.46. _________is a central issue in digital image compression (1) data redundancy (2) data compression (3) image compression (4) none of above Q.47. ____________transforms the input data into a format designed to reduce l (1) (2) quantize (3) (4) none of above
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: E Business Fundamentals 1. E-Commerce is known as buying and selling of ______________ and services over the internet. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) 2. Business Business transaction Data Protocols a) b) c) d) IDEA RSA MD5 none of the above
10. __________________ Encryption algorithm is used for one time session key generated by sender. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) IDEA RSA MD5 none of the above
Process Involved in traditional commerce is divided into _________________ and ____________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Manufacturers and consumers Cost and products Profit and reliable none of the above
11. __________________ Encryption algorithm is used for public key. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) IDEA RSA MD5 none of the above
3.
A certificate authority will accept merchant ________________ key. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Public Private Protected none of the above
12. __________________ Encryption algorithm is used to generate hash code. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) IDEA RSA MD5 none of the above
4.
Corresspondents can request for verification of merchant's ______________ key (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) public private protected none of the above
13. __________________ Encryption algorithm is used to generate encrypt message digest using sender's private key. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) IDEA RSA MD5 none of the above
5.
ONES digital certificate have ____________________ classes. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) 3 2 5 4
6.
Class _________________ includes user's driver's license, social security number and date of birth along with class ____________________. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) 2,1 3,4 2,3 1,2
14. There are two types of crypto-systems __________ and __________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) secret key,private key public key,private key secret key,public key none of the above
15. DES crypto-system use ___________ key. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) public private secret none of the above
7.
Class ________________ includes user's credit card, check is added in class ___________________. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) 2,3 4,3 3,2 2,1
16. Financila institutes play a key role in transferring ___________________ between buyers and sellers. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) data information funds none of the above
8.
Class ________________ includes user's position within the organization along with class ___________________. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) 3,2 4,3 3,4 3,2
17. E-commerce requires robust server to store & distribute large amount of _________________ to customers. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) data information instruction
9.
We use __________________ algorithms for Message encryption (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: E Business Fundamentals d) digital content c) d) private key none of the above
18. ____________________ are able to store the large information. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) warehouses data server server none of the above
27. ________________ bit key allows only 256 possible numric combinations (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) 2 4 6 8
19. The success of E-commerce depends on the ________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) data server information network none of the above
28. Data encrypted with public key can only be decrypted with ________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) secret key public key private key none of the above
20. How may layers are there in the TCP/IP model? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) 4 3 7 6
29. Data encrypted with private key can only be decrypted with ________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) secret key public key private key none of the above
21. The application layer uses _______, _______ protocols (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) TCP,UDP FTP,HTTP IR,ARP FTP,IP
30. SSL Handshake protocol was developed by which of the following companies? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Netscape Microsoft both of the above none of the above
22. The transport layer uses _________, ________ protocols (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) TCP,UDP FTP,HTTP IR,ARP FTP,IP
31. SSL handshake protocol supports ____________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) Server client both of the above none of the above
23. The network layer uses _________, ________ protocols (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) TCP,UDP FTP,HTTP IR,ARP FTP,IP
32. SSL Handshake protocol is application ______________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) dependent Independent both of the above none of the above
24. The data link layer uses _________, _________ protocols (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) TCP,UDP FTP,HTTP PPP FTP,IP
33. SSL protocols is allows protocols like ___________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) http ftp telnet all of the above
25. When encryption of Ram is tco then Sita is ________________? (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) ukjb ukva ukvc ujvk
34. The SSL protocol is able to negotiate ____________________ as well as ________________________. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) encryption,authentication server,client both of the above none of the above
26. In _________________ scheme both the sender and recipient possess the same key to encrypt and decrypt the data. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) secret key public key
35. The SSL protocol is able to maintains the ____________ and __________________of transmission. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: E Business Fundamentals a) b) c) d) encryption,authentication encryption,security sceurity, integrity none of the above c) d) master all of the above
45. During the Handshaking phase in SSL process RAS__________ key cryptosystem is used (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) public private master all of the above
36. Secure HTTP is used in which of the following? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) Browsers web servers internet applications all of the above
46. _______________ message digest algorithm is used in SSL. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) RC2 RC4 IDEA MD5
37. Which of the following are functions of Secure HTTP? (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) secure credit card transaction point to point encryption secure web transaction secure data packets at network layer
47. In SSL public key certificates follow the ____________ syntax. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) X.905 x 509 x.509 x 905
38. Which of the following are functions of SSL? (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) secure credit card transaction point to point encryption secure web transaction secure data packets at network layer
39. Which of the following are functions of S/WAN? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) secure credit card transaction point to point encryption secure web transaction secure data packets at network layer
48. A firewall enforces an access control policy between two __________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) LANs WANs MANs all of the above
40. Which of the following are Functions of SET? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) secure credit card transaction point to point encryption secure web transaction secure data packets at network layer
49. IBM's eNetworks features _________________ and ________________ (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) filtering proxy,circuit gatway filtering proxy,athuentication circuit proxy,athuentication none of the above
41. Which of the following are Application used by SSL? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) virtual private networking Browsers, web servers,internet application Smart Card,transaction servers electronic commerce all of the above
50. Firewall application protects information on the ____________ and __________. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) LAN,WAN WAN,MAN LAN,MAN none of the above
42. Which of the following are Application used by S/WAN? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) virtual private networking Browsers, web servers,internet application Smart Card,transaction servers electronic commerce all of the above
51. A ___________ is a network traffic-managing device that sits in between sub-networks. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) Switch Hub Router none of the above
43. Which of the following are Application used by SET? (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) virtual private networking Browsers, web servers,internet application Smart Card,transaction servers electronic commerce all of the above
52. __________ senses places to implement packet filtering . (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) Switch Hub Router none of the above
44. SSL at client Side generates the _______________ key (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) public private
53. Packet filtering _________ identify and control traffic by examining the source, destination and port. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: E Business Fundamentals a) b) c) d) Switch Hub Router Firewalls c) d) OSI all of the above
62. All Internet traffic from inside to outside and vice-versa, must pass through a ________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) Switch Hub Router Firewalls
54. A ____________ insulates a private network from a publc network (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) Switch Hub Router Firewalls
63. ____________ is a formal description of messages to be exchanged. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) protocols data all of the above none of the above
55. ______________ request for public web page will be honored and _______________ requests to a host behind the firewall may be dishonored. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) FTP,HTTP HTTP,FPT WWW,FPT HTTP,WWW
64. _____________ protocol suite referred to as the internet protocols. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) FTP TCP/IP OSI all of the above
56. Firewalls run ______________ to detect and thwart external attacks on the site. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) monitoring authentication all of the above none of the above
65. Packet consists of content data and information that protocol needs to do its work called ____________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) protocols body protocols head all none of the above
57. Firewall works as ____________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) application level gateways proxy server all of the above none of the above
66. _________ purpose of which is to provide basic host to host communication. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) TCP TCP/IP IP none of the above
58. ____________ is a mechanism used to protect a trusted network from an untrusted network. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) Switch Hub Router Firewalls
67. _________ attaches to the packet in a protocol header. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) TCP TCP/IP IP none of the above
59. __________ are currently deployed between the __________ and __________ (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) LAN,WAN WAN,MAN LAN,MAN none of the above
68. _________ is referred to as an unreliable datagram service. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) TCP UDP IP none of the above
60. Firewall's different components are ______________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) filtering proxy,circuit gatway filtering proxy,athuentication filters, screens none of the above
69. __________ always does its best to make the delivery to the requested end but if it fails for any reason, it just drops the packet. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) TCP UDP IP none of the above
61. All data transported is by the __________________ protocol suite. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) FTP TCP/IP
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: E Business Fundamentals 70. __________ uses the sequence numbers to reassemble the packets in the right order. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) TCP UDP IP none of the above d) X.125
79. ______________ looks at the address information in TCP/IP packets and directs them acordingly. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) Switch Hub Router Firewalls
71. _________ request retransmission of an packet that got lost along the way. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) TCP UDP IP none of the above
80. Router will direct the packets out from ______________ to the ISP. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) LAN WAN MAN all of the above
72. _________ is very reliable protocol. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) TCP UDP IP none of the above
73. TCP has prot range of ________________. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) 1 to 65355 1 to 65535 1 to 63555 none of the above
74. The port reserved for server application is ________________. (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) 1 to 1,203 1 to 1,032 1 to 1,023 none of the above
75. In TCP Higher port numbers are dynamically assigned to _______________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) client server both of the above none of the above
76. FTP program will connect to port________________. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) 21 31 41 51
77. ____________ transmissions differ from LAN communications which broadcast over a shared wire. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) TCP UDP IP TCP/IP
78. For remote location _______________ protocol was developed. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: E Business Fundamentals, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) X.905 x 509 X.25
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: IT Law and Practice 1. The first artificial satellite was- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) 2. space race sputnik cyberspace necromancer 10. Person who is authorized to issue a digital signature is- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Certifying Authority Central Government Deputy Commissioner All of the above
word cyberspace was given by- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) ARPA Rivest William Gibson None of the above
11. Which of the following category is not related with cyber crime(Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) person property government organisation
3.
Secure Sockets Layers provides- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) privacy Integrity Authentication All of the above
12. The production, distribution, marketing, sales or delivery of goods & services by electronic means is- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) EDI E-Commerce E-Auctions E-Procurement
4.
Asymmetric cryptography is also known as- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Public key private key both None of the above
13. Market of second hand goods is an approach- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) B2C C2B C2C B2B
5.
DES algorithm has emerged as- (Q TYPE:c) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) asymmetric cryptographic protocol symmetric crptographic protocol both None of the above
14. Payment and acceptance of virtual money is- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) Offline payment Online payment both None of the above
6.
Court does not includes- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) arbitrators judges Magistrates None of the above
15. SET stands for- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) Safe electronic target Safe electronic translation Secure electronic transaction All of the above
7.
Any proceeding or enquiry in which evidence is or may be given is known as- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) Bankers Book Certified copy Legal proceeding All of the above
16. Which of the following is not an advantage of e-commerce- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) Increased customer satisfaction Increased sales volumes Decrease costs of doing business All of the above
8.
_____ statement specify the practices that the certifying Authority employs in digital Certificates- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Certifying practice Digital Signature Legal All of the above
17. ARPANET was developed in- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) 1967 1968 1965 1969
9.
word not described in IT Act 2000 is- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) Address Computer network Access Public Interest
18. ______ covers all the aspects of transactions & activities concerning internet,www & cyberlaw (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) cyberspace cybercrime cyberlaw None of the above
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: IT Law and Practice 19. UNCITRAL is related with- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) Digital signature E-Commerce trademarks cyber crime 28. How many steps are involved in generating digital signature certificate- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) 4 5 6 7
20. Which of the following is not included in The Information Technology Act, 2000- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) contract Indian penal code evidence None of the above
29. Which of the following is not included in The Intellectual property law- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) Copyright protection legal rights releted with creative effort literary work None of the above
21. First cyberlaw introduced in India was- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) Indian penal code IT Act, 2000 Electronic Communication Act 2000 Indian Evidence Act, 1872
30. _____ is a sign represented graphically & distinguishing goods and services from others- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) patent copyright trademark registration
22. At the time of issuing the digital signature certificate, which key is associated with it for operational use (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Public key private key both None of the above
31. In terms of their manner of issuance, trademarks fall between patents & copyright.This is- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) false statement True statement sometimes false sometimes true
23. UNCITRAL is adopted by General assembly of United Nations on- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) january 31,1997 january 30,1997 january 29,1997 january 30,1998
32. ______ is a system for generating, sending, receiving, storing or otherwise processing data messages- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) computer system information system EDI protected system
24. IT Bill,1999 was based on- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) IT Act, 2000 UNCITRAL Indian Trust Act, 1882 Indian Evidence Act, 1872
33. In nonliteral copying of computer programs- (Q TYPE:c) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) program code itself is copied structure, sequence of operations, functions, interfaces are copied program is not directly copied both 2 and 3
25. IT Act 2000 was implemented on- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) October 17,2000 17 May, 2000 12 May, 2000 21-Dec-99
34. First trademark was issued in- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) 1877 1876 1888 1885
26. Section 38 of IT Act 2000 deals with (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) revocation of digital signature requisite requirements regarding digital signature certificate suspension of digital signature certificate None of the above
35. ARPANET stands for- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Advanced Research Projects Agency Network Artificial Research Projects Agency Network Advanced Research Program And Network Artificial Research Program Agency Network
27. Cyber Appellate Tribunals are established by- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) Central Government Certifying Authority Controller Adjudicating Officer
36. Encryption provides- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) Confidentiality and authentication Integrity and Non-repudiation
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS FOR: IT Law and Practice c) d) both None of the above b) c) d) 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. nonproved inproved Not proved
37. To ensure that the sender or originator cannot disown information at a later date encryption uses- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) Confidentiality non-repudiation Authentication integrity
Evidence meansa. statements produced for inspection of the court b. statements for reviewing c. statements for witnesses d. oral statements related to matters of fact under enquiry (Q TYPE:c) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 3 a) b) c) d) a only a,b and c only a,c and d only b and c only
38. Section 78 of IT Act 2000 is releted with (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) power of investigate offences penalty for misrepresentation power of controller direction of controller to subscriber
39. A person who is intended by the originator to receive the data message is- (Q TYPE:b) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 2 a) b) c) d) 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. intermediary adressee either 1 or 2 None of the above
Duties of subscriber includeA. acceptance of digital signature certificate. B. generate key pais using security procedures. C. issue digital signature certificate. D. publishing of digital signature certificate. (Q TYPE:c) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) a and b only a and c only b and c only c and d only
45. Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method is called- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. credit card ration card forgery digital signature
The subject matters of confiscation includesa. tape drives. b. floppies c. computer system d. compact disks. (Q TYPE:c) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) b) c) d) a and b only b and c only a,b and c only a,b, c and d all
51. power of investigate offences is given to- (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 1 a) b) c) d) DSP Controller Judge CCA
52. A fact is said to be_______ when it is neither proved nor disproved. (Q TYPE:a) TOPIC: IT Law and Practice, ANSWER: 4 a) proved
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY SECURED ECOMMERCE

Q.1.______________Reformat and transform data (1) Cryptography (2)Encryption (3)Decryptography (4) None Q.2. The standard internet e-mail protocol is (1) SMTP (2) SNMP (3)PPP (4) SLIP Q.3.____________is a collection of techniques that transform data in ways that are hard to mimic or reverse (1) Crypto (2) Cryptogram (3)Cryption (4) None Q.4. There are___________types of crypto systems (1) Secret (2) Public (3)Both(1)and(2) (4) Either(1)or(2) . Q.5. The secret key cryptography is also referred as (1)Symmetric cryptography (2) Asymmetric cryptographs (3)Both(1)and(2) (4) Either(1)or(2)
Q.6. In asymmetxic cryptography_____________ (1) Same key is used for encryption and decryption (2) Two key is used for encryption and decryption (3)One key is used for encryption and another key is used for decryption (4) None Q.7. The most popular secret key crypto system in use today s known as___________ (1)DED (2) FDEA (3)MDS (4) RSA Q.8. In______________cryptography,each user has a public key and private key (1) Public key tryptogaphy (2)Private key cryptography (3)Secret key cryptography (4) None Q.9. The most popular public crypto system is the (1)RSA (2)MD5 (3) IDEA (4) DES Q.10. The RSA is invented by

(1) Rivest,shamir and adleman (2) Rivest (3) Shamir (4) adleman
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.11. The encryption is the process of transforming (1) Meaningful in to nonmeaningful (2) Non meaningful to meaning (3)Both(1)and(2) (4) None Q.12. The encryption has ____________ (1) One part (2) Two (3)Three part (4) Four part Q.13._______________is a mathmatical funtion and _________ string of digit (1) Algorithm,key (2) key,algorithm (3)Method ,key (4) Key,method Q.14. Cryptographtic algorithm combines_________ (1) Plain text or other intelligible information with a string of digits called key (2) Random number and plain text (3)Unintelligible cipher text (4) None Q.15. ____________encrypt a digital data stream a bit a fime (1) Cipher (2) Stream cipher (3)Encryption (4) Done Q.16. Acrypro algorithm is a procedure that takes_____________and transforms it in to (1)Plain text ,cypher (2) Cypher text,plain text (3)Encrypt text,cypher text (4) None Q.17. Classical digital cipher is___________ (1) Vernam cipher (2) Vernam (3)Both(1)and(2) (4) None Q.18. The most wellknown stream ciphers is ____________ (1) RSA (2) IDEA (3)RCU (4) None
Q.19 In block cipher to encrypt the message, we take

(1) Block of particular size (2) Line of text (3)Whole messages (4) None
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.20. In secret key block ciphers of DES logf the data block size is 64 bits then the crypto key size will be (1) 56 bits (2) 64 bits (3)128 (4) 256 Q.21. In the SKIPJACK if the data block size of 64 bits then the key for encryption is (1)100bits (2) 80bits (3)120bits (4) 764bits Q.22. In IDEA algorithm the back size is ___________and key size is _____________ (1) 64 (2) 128,64 (3)100,50 (4) 50,100 Q.23. The possible modes of encryption are(a)ECB(b)CBC(c)CFB(d)OFB (1) Only(a) (2) Only(b)and(c) (3)All (4)None Q.24._____ mode hides pattern in plain text by systematically combining each plain text block with a cipher text (1) ECB (2) CBC (3) CFB (4) QFB Q.25. Like CBC however _____ messages do acquire a random initialization vector value (1) ECB (2) CBC (3) EFB (4) OFB Q.26. OFB mode is similar to ___ (1) ECB (2) EFB (3) CBC (4) none Q.27. of the algorithm is DFS and the no. of bits is 56 then the no. of keys will be (1) 1010 (2) 1016 (3) 1024 (4) 1033 Q.28. SKIPKACK of 80 bits need

(1) 1016 keys (2) 1020 keys (3) 1024 keys (4) 1033 keys
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.29. IDEA, RC4/128 needs ____ key for 128 bits (1) 1016 (2) 1024 (3) 1033 (4) 1038 Q.30. ______ a technique by which the DES algorithm is applied three times to each plain text (1) 2DES (2) 3DES (3) 4DES (4) none Q.31.RC4 is a stream cipher marketed by _____ (1) idea security (2) RSA data security (3) MD5 data security (4) none Q.32. Light weight crypto algorithm is (1) idea (2) RC4 (3) DES (4) none Q.33. Medium strength crypto algo. is (1) idea (2) RC4 (3) DES (4) none Q.34. The length of medium strength crypto is (1) 40 bits (2) 56 bits (3) 64 bits (4) 128 bits Q.35. Which is not the component of e-commerce business are (1) product catalog (2) a shopping cart (3) transaction securing (4) order processing Q.36. The full for of SET is (1) Secure Electronic Transfer (2) Source Electronic Transfer (3) Secure Electrical Transport (4) Secure Electrical Transfer Q.37. The gateways provide two major authentication method (1) user authentication and client authentication (2) user and server authentication

(3) user and server authentication (4) none
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.38. _____ enables an administrator to grant access privileges to specific user at a specific IP address (1) client authentication (2) user authentication (3) both (1) & (2) (4) either (1) or (2) Q.39. ______ protects an organization from security threads (1) access control (2) policy (3) rules (4) none Q.40. ______ and _____ are capable of providing multiple level user access (1) firewall-1, VPN-1 (2) VPN-2, firewall-2 (3) firewall-3, VPN-3 (4) none Q.41. Support access levels are defined as (1) read / write (2) user edit (3) read only (4) all (5) none Q.42. Which of the following attack is not related to gateways (1) IP spooling (2) DOS (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.43. Firewall-1 and VPN-1 gateways the security manager can use the ____ in _____ mode (1) log writer, active connection (2) active connection, log writer (3) log writer, passive connection (4) passive connection, log writer Q.44. _____ policy is a higher level issue specific policy (1) network service access policy (2) service access policy (3) service access facility (4) none Q.45. Encryption strength is measured in (1) bits (2) bytes (3) words (4) time Q.46. Firewall generally implement one of the two basic design policies (1) permit and service unless it is expressly denied (2) deny and service unless it is expressly denied

(3) deny all (4) (1) & (2) (5) (2) & (3)
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.47. Measures to make e-commerce security safe which method is used (1) firewall (2) encryption (3) both (1) & (2) (4) either (1) or (b) Q.48.______ is a barrier b/w two networks (1) firewall (2) gateway (3) key (4) router Q.49. RSA is a (1) Private Key Cryptosystem (2) Public Key Cryptosystem (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.50.Sequence of RSA algorithm is as follows (1) take two large primes (2) compute their product n (3) choose a number (4) e such that e<n (1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 1, 3, 2 (3) 2, 3, 1 (4) 3, 1, 2
Q.51. In the RSA algorithm the public key is the ____ and private key is the pair ____ (1) (n, e) , (n ,d) (2) (n, d) , (n ,e) (3) (n, e) , (d ,n) (4) (e, n) , (d ,n) Q.52. The SET protocol is developed by (1) visa (2) master card (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.53. A protocol that adds digital signature an encryption to the internet MIME (1) S/ MIME (2) MIME (3) I/ MIME (4) none Q.54. The SSL protocol was developed by _____ (1) microsoft (2) netscape (3) oracle (4) sun Q.55. The SSL protocol is

(1) application dependent (2) application independent (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.56. Limitation and weakness of e-commerce security measures (1) software for security flows & hardware (2) firewall and network configurations (3) hutment elements and companys threats (4) all (5) none Q.57. 3DES means good security ____ keys means weak security (1) 40 (2) 60 (3) 70 (4) 64 Q.58. _____ is better than 1024 bit RSA (1) 524 bits RSA (2) 2048 bits RSA (3) 1056 bits RSA (4) none Q.59. Which of the following key is needed all the time to verify transactions are (1) terminal keys (2) zone keys (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.60. PRNGs stands for (1) Psue do Random Number Generators (2) Psue do Real Number Generators (3) Psue do Real Number Generating Specification (4) none Q.61. The approach for generating random numbers (1) monitor hardware that generates random numbers (2) collect random data from user interaction (3) collect hard-to-Predict data from inside the computer (4) all (5) none Q.62. The generator is an ______ (1) software (2) electronic circuit (3) any device (4) none Q.63.The properties given by Don Knuth is/are (1) statistically the numbers should respect the desired distribution of values (2) the sequence should not repeat itself (3) only (1) (4) both (1) & (2) Q.64. Banks have generated sequences of random key values using ____

(1) idea (2) MD5 (3) DES (4) RSA
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.65.If you use 16 bits of randomness to produce an 80-bit key the attacker will never need to try more than ______ (1) 10000 keys (2) 65, 536 keys (3) 65,000 (4) none Q.66. PRNGs provide in (1) circuits (2) commercial s/w (3) series of string (4) none Q.67. Data keys are _____ (1) session keys (2) encryption key (3) secret key (4) none Q.68. Key encrypting keys are used to encrypt (1) message keys (2) data keys (3) random numbers (4) none Q.69. An essential objective of automatic rekeing is to limit the damage (1) if an attacker does manage to acquire a crypto key (2) if an attacker does not manage to acquire a crypto key (3) masquerade the message (4) none Q.70. IPSEC firewall must process (1) plain text (2) cipher text (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.71. An internal firewall protects a site while providing (1) inbound access (2) outbound access (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.72. Firewall control mechanism are (1) Packet Filtering (2) circuit filtering (3) application gateway (4) none Q.73. The remote terminal protocol ______ (1) telnet

(2) FTP (3) HTTP (4) none
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.74. Essential elements to the web are (1) browser (2) URL (3) servers (4) pages Q.75. In hyperlink http://data.host.com:80/spe.html the server name is (1) data.host.com (2) data.host (3) host.com (4) none Q.76. The web server runs a special program (1) CGI.script (2) CGI script (3) script.CGI (4) none Q.77. Transaction based on the web form generally need the following security services in priority order (1) customer authentication (2) transaction integrity (3) vendor authentication (4) transaction secrecy Q.78.The website vulnerabilities are (a) Host setup (b) CGI attacks (c) Buffer over run (1) only (A) (2) a, b (3) a, b, c (4) none
Q.79.Buffer over run is a situation in which (1) attacker exploits a bug in the s/w (2) attacker exploits a error in the h/w (3) attacker exploits s/w in the bug (4) none Q.80. Document trusted computing system implement a mechanism called (1) MLS (2) SLS (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.81. SKIP stands for (1) Simple Key-management for internet Protocol (2) Simple Key for Internet Protocol (3) Simple Key for Internet Purpose (4) none Q.82. MKID stands for

(1) Master Key Identification (2) Main Key ID (3) Master Key ID (4) either (1) or (3)
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.83. The term ______ is used instead of ______ since me skip protocol allows master key setup (1) master key ID, certificate ID (2) certificate ID, master key ID (3) secret key ID, master key ID (4) none Q.84. The way of deriving MKID is (1) to use some unique identifier as key ID (2) to use only one identifier as key ID (3) to use more than one identifier as key ID (4) none Q.85. ESP stands for (1) Encapsulating Security Payload (2) Encryption Source Payload (3) Encryption Secret Payload (4) none Q.86. The algorithm which specifies the interior protocol for encryption and authentication (1) crypt alg (2) mac alg (3) both (1) & (2) (4) either (1) or (2) Q.87._____ field specifies the algorithm that was used to compress packets prior to encryption or authentication (1) crypt alg (2) mac alg (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none Q.88. In crypt alg specifies a ____ bit encryption key length, the mac alg specifies a ____authentication (1) 64, 128 (2) 100, 200 (3) 200, 100 (4) none Q.89. In the SKIP header , field may not be relevant and its value is denoted as (1) RSVD (2) RSPD (3) RSGD (4) none Q.90. Crypt alg and mac alg are the (1) 1 byte fields (2) 2 byte fields (3) 3 byte fields (4) none Q.91. All non-reserved SKIP header field must be included in the

(1) source authentication header (2) domain authentication header (3) IP authentication (4) none
SECURED ECOMMERCE
Q.92. Perfect forward secrecy is not addressed by the (1) base protocol (2) SNMP protocol (3) any protocol (4) none Q.93. SKIP has been assigned the protocol number by the (1) FANA (2) INAA (3) NIAA (4) AAIN Q.94. TEK is received from (1) group manager (2) data multicast group (3) key manager (4) none Q.95. TEK stands for (1) Traffic Encryption Key (2) Travelling Encryption Key (3) Traffic Encrypted Key (4) none Q.96. Certificates are signed by a trusted third party called _____ (1) CA (2) PA (3) GA (4) none Q.97.The type of certificates are (a) central authority (b) hierarchical authority (c) web of trust (1) only (a) (2) only (a) & (b) (3) a, b, c (4) none
Q.98. CAW stands for (1) the Certification Authority Workstation (2) the Certification Adding Workstation (3) the Certification Authority Workshop (4) none Q.99. Email message must certain ______ (1) binary data (2) readable text (3) character code (4) none Q.100 The internet permits email to flow directly b/w any pair of internet hosts using the

(1) SMTP (2) SNTP (3) PPP (4) none
SECURED ECOMMERCE
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY WML (WAP)

Q.1.________ are designed for use in wireless narrow band networks. (1) WML (2) WML script (3) both (1)&(2) (4) either (1)or (2) Q.2. In order to meet the requirements of mobile network operator solutions must be (1) interoperable (2) scaleable (3) efficient (4) all Q.3. MMI stands for (1) man machine interfaces (2) man material interface (3) man money interface (4)none Q.4. Browser and origin server must communicate using (1) WAP protocol (2) HTTP protocol (3) internet protocol (4) none Q.5.The _______ offers developers an environment for creating testing and demonstrating WAP application (1) WAP toolkit (2) WAP (3 ) toolkit (4) none Q.6. WAE stands (1) wireless application environment (2) wireless applicable existence (3) wide area environment (4)none Q.7. WAE include the micro browser environment containing the functionality (1) WML (2) WML script (3) WTA (4) all Q.8.________ provide the application layer of WAP with a consistent interface for two session services (1) WSP (2) WAP (3) WSP (4) None Q.9. _______ is the connection less service that operates above a secure or non secure data gran service (1) WDP (2) WAP (3) WSP

(4) NONE
WML (WAP)
Q.10. ________runs on top of a data gram service (1) WTP (2) WSP (3) WAE (4) WTA Q.11._________ is a security protocol based upon the industry standard transport layer security protocol (1) WTLS (2) WTP (3) WSP (4) WAT Q.12. Which is not the feature of WTLS (1) data integrity (2) authentication (3) ALL (5) None (6) privacy Q.13. The transport layer in the WAP architecture is referred to as the (1) WAP (2) WTLS (3) WSP (4) WTA Q.14. WAP toolkit software include the following (1) WML and WML script (2) phone simulators (3) WAP application debugging (4) support Q.15.WML is based on the (1) HTML (2) XML (3) WML (4) none Q.16. Uniform resources locators are requested is sent to a web server via a (1) protocol (2) gateway (3) WAP gateway (4) none Q.17. Which is the component of WAP tool kit s/w (1) phone simulations (2) editors (3) debugging aids (4) none Q.18.To start the WAP toolkit (1) Q.19. The data type which many contain numeric or named character the text can be of

(1) C DATA (2) PC DATA (3) NM TOKENS (4) ID
WML (WAP)
Q.20. Text which may contain numeric or named characters the text can be of (1) C DATA (2) PC DATA (3) NM TOKENS (4) ID Q.21. _________ may be specified either as an integer representing the number of screen pixels (1) % length (2) % type (3) % string (4) none Q.22. _________ represents a string that may contain variable references (1) % vdata (2) %length (3) % layout (4) none Q.23. _______ indicates text that contain for matting (1) % text (2) % flow (3) % layout (4) none Q.24. __________indicates area where only pure text or variable references are handled (1) % inline (2)% layout (3) % flow (4) none Q.25. _________refers to the logical value of data (1) % Boolean (2) % bool (3) either (1) or (2) (4) none Q.26.A_______is a language element describe for (1)tag (2) syntax (3) markup (4)none Q.27. All WML information is organized into a connection of______ (1) cards (2) decks (3) both (1)&(2) (4) none Q.28. The operation on history stack are (1) reset (2) push

(3) pop (4) all
WML (WAP)
Q.29. A WML deck may contain a__________ (1) tag (2) template (3) URLs (4) none Q.30.WML data is structured as a collection of (1) cards (2) deck (3) either (1)or(2) (4) none Q.31. WML elements have core attributes (1) id (2) class (3) both (1)&(2) (4) none Q.32.A card can be presented as a (1) a single page (2) collection of page (3) screen (4) none Q.33. On timer events can specified inside the following elements (1) card (2) template (3) both (1)&(2) (4) none Q.34. ______events occurs when the user selects or deselects the item in which events is specified (1) onpick (2) in pick (3) both (1)or (2) (4) none Q.35._________specifies a field name and value for transmission to an origin server during a URL request (1) postfield (2) pre field (3) card (4) deck Q.36. The over ride rules are (1) a card level (2) a card level one event (3) a card level (4)
Q.37. Which is not the task

(1) go (2) refresh task (3) loop task (4)
WML (WAP)
Q.38. ________ element specifies that nothing should be done (1) go task (2) refresh task (3) loop task (4) Q.39. _________elements allow you to group related option (1) opt group (2) group element (5) contained element (6) none Q.40. ________element allows you to group related field and text (1) opt group (2) fieldest (3) input (4)output Q.41. ________ specifies the head of link (1) anchor element (2) image (3) timer (4) none Q.42. You can place images in the text flow by using (1) img element (2) anchor element (3) string (4) text Q.43. The _________ element establishers the beginning a new line (1) new line (2) br (3) end l (4) none Q.44. The p element establishes both the ______and_______ (1) line (2) page wrap,line wrap (3) alignment,page words (4) none Q.45. Space b/w words is a legal line break pint (1) any (2) pre determined (3) post specified (4) none
Q.46. ___________ element is used as the container to hold to hold a single table row

(1) tr (2)td (3) table (4)
WML (WAP)
SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY XML

Q.1) The full of XML is (a) Extensible markup language (b) Extension of markup language (c ) Executable making language (d) none Q.2) Which statement is not true about XML (a) It is a meta-markup language (b)It provides for describing structured data (c ) XML is subset of SGML (d) none Q.3) SGML stands for (a) Standard generalized markup language (b) Standard generated making language (c ) Standard generated making learning (d) none Q.4) SGML is subset of (a) XML (b) HTML (c ) ASP (d) none Q.5) Which is not the feature of XML (a) simple (b) an open standard (c ) extensible (d) none Q.6) XML is not (a) A replacement of SGML (b) replacement for html (c ) both a & b (d) none Q.7) XLL stands for (a)X- library language (b) Extensible linking language (c )extended linking language (d) none Q.8) XUA stands for (a) XML user agent (b) extensible user agent (c ) XML using agent (d) none Q.9) Which is not the XML specifications (a) XML (b) XLL (c ) XSL (d) none Q.10) Which is not the advantage of XML (a) Development of flexible web applications (b) more meaningful searches (c )both a & b (d) none Q.11)DOM stands for (a) Document object model (b) Developing object model (c ) developing oriented model (d) none Q.12) In XML (a)start tag and end tag must match (b) start tag and end tag must not match (c )either a or b (d) none Q.13) Which statement is true about

(a)XML tags are case sensitive (b) elements can not overlap (c )Empty elements can also be used (d) all Q.14) The syntax for empty element (a)<title/> (b) <title> </title> (c )both a & b (d) none Q.15) For described character In XML we use the character sequence (a)& quot (b) & apos (c )& amp (d) none Q.16) All information in XML is (a)binary text (b) ASCII (c )Unicode text (d) none Q.17) Unicode can be transmitted as (a)32 bit character (b) 16 bit character (c )20 bit character (d) none Q.18) XML system consist of (a)XML document (b) XML DTD (c )XML parser (d) all Q.19) Internet explorer 4.0 supports the following features of XML (a)A generalized XML parser (b) XML om (c )XML dso (d) none Q.20) Which task can not be performed through XML (a)XML can be used to hare data (b) XML can be used to exchange data (c )XML can be used to store data (d) none (e) all Q.21) XML extension such as _________ have been proposed for specifying queries within XML (a)XQL (b) SQL (c )MQL (d) XML Q.22) Which is not the XML editor (a)home site (b) CLIP (c )XML pro (d) none (e) all Q.23) Which of the following is not XML browser (a)amaya 3.11 (b) opera browser (c )expat (d) none Q.24) Which is not the XML parser (a)expat (b) sax (c )jumbo 2 (d) none Q.25) Xml document is composed of two parts (a)a prolog and document instance (b) code and function (c )loop and function (d) none Q.26) XML document are made up of storage units called (a)markup (b) object (c )entities (d) none Q.27) A software module called an ________ is used to read xml documents (a)xml processor (b) xml editor
XML

(c )xml compiler (d) none
XML
Q.28) The process of xml includes four steps (a)data integration (b) data delivery (c )data manipulation (d)data display Q.29) _________ allow developers to quality element names in a recognizable manner (a)attribute (b)name space (c )entity (d) none Q.30) _________ can read of xml data ,process it, generate a structured tree and expose all data elements as object s using dom (a)xml parser (b) xml decoder (c )xml encoder (d) none Q.31) XML parser displays the processed data of XML using (a)HTML (b) XML (c )CSS (d) none Q.32)Which is not the ruler for xml language (a)xml tags are case sensi tive (b) xml elements must have closing tag (c )all xml documents must have root tag (d) none (e) all Q.33) The part of xml document that precedes the first start tag is collectively known as (a)prolog (b) document (c )code (d) none Q.34) XML declaration components are (a)<? Xml (b) version (c )both a & b (d) none Q.35) The document type declaration is often referred to as (a)<!DOC TYPE> (b) <DOC TYPE> (c )<DOC TYPE!> (d) none Q.36) DTD stands for (a)document type declaration (b)document type definition (c )both a or b (d) none Q.37) ________ a section instructions the parser not to interrupt the data within it as markup (a)C data (b) C character (c )C string (d) none Q.38)C DATA stands for (a)character data (b)constant data (c )either a or b (d) none Q.39) comments can contain any data except the (a)& (b) , (c )- (d) $ Q.40)PI stands for (a)programming instructions (b) processing instructions (c )practical instructions (d) none Q.41) PIs begins with a less than sign and (a)$ (b) ?

(c ): (d);
XML
Q.42)XML document type declarations are (a)same as document type definition (b) different as document type definition (c )either a or b (d) none Q.43) If the dtd is the external then if is specified as (a)system (b) public (c )both a or b (d) none Q.44) XML is not a language but rather a (a)language of languages (b)system for defining language (c )specification (d) none Q.45. The rules for well formed document are (1) It must have a start and end tag for every element (2) it must have one end and one root element (3) start and end tags can be either upper case or lower case (4) none (5) all Q.46.Contents specification type can be (a) empty content ( b) any content ( c ) mixed content (d) element content (1) a,b,c (2) only a (3) a,b (4) all Q.47. A dtd can consist of the following declarations (1) element type declaration (2) attribute list declaration (3) all (4) none Q.48. Occurance character indicates which is not present (1) ?-> optional (3) + is used for repeating (2) * optional and repeatable(0 or more times) (4) is used for repeating man times _____ which is not the tpe of Q.49. xml declarations (1) C DATA (2) IDREF or IDREFS (3) ID (4) none Q.50. Pick out odd one (1) entity or entities (2) NM TOKENor NMTOKENS (3) attribute or attributes (4) IDREF or IDREFS Q.51. Pick out odd one (1) # required (2) # implied (3) # fixed (4) # ID

Q.52. Entity is xml can be (1) internal (2) external (3) both a & b (4) none
XML
Q.53.The steps involved in creating a valid xml document (1) writing a document type definition(3) Including a document type declaration (2) makes a xml declaration (4) writing valid xml (1) only 1 (2) only 1,2 (3) none (4) all Q.54. URI stands for (1) uniform resource identifier (2) uniform receiving indentification (3) unified recesource identification (4) none Q.55. MS xml stands for (1) Microsoft xml (2) micro saving xml (3) multi structured xml (4) none Q.56. Object model has the property as (1) node name (2) prefic (3) base name (4) none Q.57. Scheme is that the content models are (1) open b default (2) close (3) both a & b (4) none Q.58.Valid values ________________ include integers and indicates that an unrestricted number of elements (1) * (2) + (3) % (4) ?
Q.59. Max occurs is 1 when (1) content = mixed (2) content = not mixed (3) content = single (4) none Q.60._________ elements enable you to specific constraints on a specific set of sub elements (1) order (2) group (3) both a & b

(4) none
XML
Q.61. The group elements accepts (1) order (2) mini occurs (3) max occurs (4) none (5) all Q.62.The scheme using dt: type attribute indicates (1) <data> <type> (2) <data type> (3) <data-type> (4) none Q.63.In xsl transformations address some common needs in xml which statement is not true (1) Enabling display (2) directing browsing of xml files (3) content delivery to down level browsers (4) none Q.64. An xml transformations results in the creation of new (1)none (2) xml tree (3) xml node (4) xml root Q.65. Merging data templates is referred to as (1) template model (2) data model (3) template driven model (4) data driven tool
Q.66. To declare group operations to explicitly establish precedence we use (1) [] X (2) { } X (3) ( ) X (4) none Q.67. Subs script operator is (1) [] X (2) { } X (3) ( ) X (4) none Q.68. For filtering we use (1) ( ) (2) [] (3) { } (4) none Q.69. Path operations can be used b using (1) / || (2) || (3) || ||

(4) none
XML
Q.70. Finding multiple attributes we use symbol (1) none (2) @ X (3) $ X (4) & X Q.71._________ elements selects a specific child and then inserts the text content if that child into the template (1) <xsl : for-each> (2) <xsl : value-of> (3) both a & b (4) none Q.72. The syntax of the ______ attribute is an xsl pattern that points to a node (1) order by (2) both a & b (3) group by (4) none

Sample Questions and Answers For All Subjects of MCA SEM 5 SMU

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SIKKIM MANIPAL UNIVERSITY ASP

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T,T,T T,F,T F,F,T T,T,F

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The density-reachability relation is transitive but not symmetric A. True B. False

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103. Multifact star schema is also known as a dimension schema

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Q.45.The _________approach is a statistical procedure

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