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Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2501:toxicity of K-sparing diuretics?

5001

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hyperkalemia; antiandrogenic effects

5002

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2502:mechanism of ACE inhibitors?

5003

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

inhibit ACE; reducing angiotensin II and preventing inactivation of bradykinin. Results in increased renin release

5004

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2503:major toxicities of ACE inhibitors?

5005

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

cough; increased renin; hyperkalemia

5006

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2504:What are the ACE inhibitors?

5007

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Captopril; Enalapril; Lisinopril

5008

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2505:mechanism of Losartan

5009

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

angiotensin II receptor inhibitor (does not produce cough)

5010

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2506:What are podocytes?

5011

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

visceral epithelial cells

5012

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2507:What are the spaces between the podocytes called?

5013

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

split pores

5014

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2508:Which cells synthesis the glomerular BM?

5015

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

visceral epithelial cells (podocytes)

5016

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2509:What keeps albumin out of urine?

5017

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

strong negative charge of Glomerular BM

5018

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2510:What is responsible for charge of GBM?

5019

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Heparan Sulfate (strong negative charge)

5020

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2511:damage to visceral epithelial cell results in what?

5021

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

damage to BM and leaking of albumin into urine --> nephrotic syndrome

5022

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2512:linear pattern outlining BM on Immunofluorescence

5023

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

goodpasture syndrome

5024

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2513:subendothelial immune complex deposits in glomeruli on EM (granular)

5025

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

lupus

5026

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2514:subepithelial immune complex deposits in glomeruli EM (granular)

5027

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

post-strep glomerulonephritis

5028

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2515:only glomerulonephritis one can diagnose with IF

5029

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgA glomerulonephritis

5030

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2516:granular pattern on IF. what does it mean?

5031

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

immunocomplex type III disease

5032

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2517:anti BM antibodies is what type of immune complex disease?

5033

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II

5034

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2518:RBC casts in urine is unique to what class of diseases

5035

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

nephritic syndromes

5036

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2519:serum ANA shows rim pattern. what does that mean?

5037

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

anti-DNA --> lupus

5038

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2520:crescentic glomerulonephritis is most commonly seen in what syndrome?

5039

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

goodpasture's syndrome

5040

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2521:cholesterol casts in urine that when polarized look like maltese crosses. what is the diagnosis?

5041

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

nephrotic syndrome

5042

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2522:why does lipoid nephrosis occur (Minimal change disease)?

5043

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

loss of negative charge of GBM

5044

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2523:Nephrotic syndrome associated with HIV

5045

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

FSGS

5046

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2524:glomerular problem in HBV

5047

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

diffuse membraneous glomerulonephritis

5048

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2525:glomerular problem in HCV

5049

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

5050

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2526:vasculitis associated with HBV

5051

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

polyarteritis nodosa

5052

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2527:large golf-ball appearing glomeruli on H&E

5053

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

diabetic nephropathy

5054

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2528:what happens to the GFR and creatinine clearance in early diabetic nephropathy?

5055

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hyalinization of efferent arterioles; so Cr clearance and GFR increase. Also nonenzymatic glycosylation of BM cause microalbuminuria

5056

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2529:ACE inhibitors do what to glomerular arterioles?

5057

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

less angiotensin II dilates efferent arteriole

5058

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2530:mesangial cells split BM on EM. C3 deposited adjacent to but not within dense deposits. serum C3 is very low. what is the diagnosis?

5059

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

5060

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2531:properties of BUN

5061

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

blood urea nitrogen - secreted and reabsorbed in PCT

5062

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2532:properties of Creatinine

5063

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

end-product of creatine - only filtered in kidney; neither reabsorbed nor secreted in kidney (can be in other places in very high levels)

5064

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2533:normal BUN and Cr levels

5065

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BUN - 9-10;Cr - 1 mg/dl

5066

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2534:normal BUN/Cr

5067

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

10

5068

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2535:pre-renal azotemia

5069

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

normal kidneys; but reduced Cardiac Output (e.g. CHF); ergo; GFR decreases. BUN/Cr >15

5070

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2536:renal failure (oliguria; renal tubular casts)

5071

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

affects BUN and Cr equally (increased BUN and Cr in equal proportion) BUN/Cr normal (10/1)

5072

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2537:most common cause of acute renal failure

5073

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ischemic acute tubular necrosis

5074

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2538:Cardiac output decreases and oliguria; what do you worry about most?

5075

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ischemic acute tubular necrosis

5076

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2539:most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis

5077

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

not treating pre-renal azotemia

5078

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2540:BUN:Cr ~ 10:1 with oliguria and renal tubular casts

5079

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acute tubular necrosis

5080

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2541:Why does acute tubular necrosis have such a bad diagnosis?

5081

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ischemic cause also destroys basement membrane --> loss of structure --> can't regenerate renal tubular cell w/o BM. Even if one recovers; can never recover normal function

5082

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2542:What parts of nephron is most susceptible to ischemia?

5083

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

straight portion of proximal tubule and thick ascending limb (medullary part). Affects Na/K/Cl co-transport

5084

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2543:Nephrotoxic drugs;what are they and where do they affect? prognosis?

5085

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

gentamicin (aminoglycocides); dye from IV pyelograms; damages proximal tubule. prognosis good because they don't damage BM.

5086

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2544:How do you separate pyelonephritis from low UTIs?

5087

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acute pyelonephritis is infection of kidney proper and has fever with flank pain (CVA tenderness) and WBC casts

5088

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2545:what is the mechanism of all UTIs

5089

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ascending infection from introitus of urethra.

5090

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2546:scarred kidney with blunted calyces (beneath scarring)

5091

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

chronic pyelonephritis

5092

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2547:fever with rash; oliguria; eosinophiluria after starting drug

5093

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis (methicillin)

5094

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2548:what kinds of hypersensitivity are associated with acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis?

5095

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

combination of type I and type IV hypersensitivities

5096

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2549:empty space on IV pyelogram

5097

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

analgesic nephropathy from acetaminophen and aspirin combo therapy long-term

5098

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2550:what is the mechanism of analgesic nephropathy?

5099

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acetaminophen --> produces free radicals that damage tubular cells of medulla;aspirin blocks PGE2 so Angiotensin II is unopposed and peritubular capillaries have decreased blood flow causing ischemia in renal papillaries

5100

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2551:causes of renal papillary necrosis

5101

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

aspirin/acetaminophen long-term; diabetes; sickle-cell disease; acute pyelonephritis (from abscess formation)

5102

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2552:BUN/Cr >10 for more than 3 months. what is the diagnosis?

5103

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chronic renal failure

5104

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2553:results of chronic renal failure

5105

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

anemia; anion-gap metabolic acidosis; osteoporosis; osteomalacia; secondary hyperparathyroidism

5106

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2554:uncontrolled essential hypertension (over ten years) causes what?

5107

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

nephrosclerosis --> hyaline arteriolosclerosis (cobblestone appearance of kidney)

5108

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2555:person with uncontrolled HTN; wakes up with bad HA; dizzy; blurred vision; BP 240/140; papilledema and flamed hemorrhages; hard and soft exudates; BUN/Cr 80/8. what is diagnosis?

5109

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

malignant hypertension (shows petechia visible on surface of kidney)

5110

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2556:Treatment of malignant hypertension?

5111

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IV nitroprusside

5112

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2557:pale; depressed-looking lesions on gross examination of kidney. what do you see on LM?

5113

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pale infarction --> coagulation necrosis

5114

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2558:causes of pale infarcts in kidneys in a patient with irregular irregular pulse?

5115

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

A-fib; causes thromboemboli

5116

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2559:little white dots and microabscesses on gross exam of kidneys probably caused by what?

5117

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pyelonephritis

5118

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2560:hydronephrosis and increased pressure have what affect on renal cortex and medulla?

5119

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

compression atrophy

5120

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2561:staghorn calculi; alkaline urine and smells of ammonia; what is the cause?

5121

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

urease (+) bacteria: proteus; klebsiella; staph

5122

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2562:most common cause of compression atrophy?

5123

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

stone

5124

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2563:what is the composition of staghorn calculi

5125

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

magnesium ammonium phosphate

5126

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2564:mass in kidney adult what is it?

5127

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

renal adenocarcinoma

5128

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2565:mass in kidney in kid with hypertension?

5129

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

wilm's tumor

5130

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2566:cause of renal adenocarcinoma?

5131

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

derived from proximal tubule; most common cause is smoking

5132

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2567:what are results of renal adenocarcinoma?

5133

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

produce ectopic EPO; PTH-like peptide; and like to invade renal vein

5134

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2568:why hypertension in kid with Wilm's tumor?

5135

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

the tumor makes renin

5136

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2569:findings in Wilm's tumor?

5137

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

embryonic kidney structures; aniridia and hemi-hypertrophy of an extremity --> sign that Wilm's tumor has genetic basis

5138

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2570:genetic abnormality in Wilm's tumor?

5139

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

WT-1 tumor-suppressor gene on chrom 11. AD

5140

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2571:most common organism in cystitis?

5141

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

E. coli

5142

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2572:patient with increased urinary frequency; has positive leukocyte esterase; dysuria; neutrophils in urine; negative bacterial culture; negative nitrites. what is diagnosis?

5143

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chlamydia

5144

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2573:causes of sterile pyuria?

5145

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

chlamydia; TB

5146

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2574:most common cause of transitional cell carcinoma of bladder?

5147

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

smoking

5148

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2575:cyclophosphamide is used to treat what?

5149

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Wegener's

5150

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2576:cyclophosphamide toxicity is prevented by what?

5151

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mesna

5152

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2577:hypospadias is caused by what?

5153

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

failure of closure of urethral folds

5154

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2578:most common cancer of penis is what? What is most common cause?

5155

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

squamous cell carcinoma due to lack of hygiene in uncircumcised penis. (shmegma)

5156

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2579:what are two phases of testicular descent?

5157

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

tans-abdominal migration caused by mullerian inhibitory factor; and shortening of gubernaculum due to testosterone and dihydrotestosterone

5158

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2580:undescended testicles before 2 years increased risk for what?

5159

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

seminomas in both testicles (even if appears normal)

5160

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2581:streak ovaries put woman at risk for what?

5161

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

dysgerminomas

5162

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2582:epididymitis at age <35 due to what?

5163

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

neisseria gonorrhea; chlamydia

5164

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2583:epididymitis at ages >35 due to what?

5165

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pseudomonas; E. coli

5166

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2584:vericocoeles on what side and why?

5167

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

left; due to the spermatic vein on left is connected to left renal vein.

5168

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2585:most common cause of male infertility

5169

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

vericocoele

5170

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2586:what would happen if you block left renal vein?

5171

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

increases pressure on spermatic vein and causes vericocoele.

5172

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2587:torsion of spermatic cord causes what?

5173

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

shortens the cord; so the testicle ascends into inguinal canal; pain; loss of cremasteric reflex

5174

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2588:what is cremasteric reflex?

5175

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

scratching of scrotum causes the cremaster muscle to contract

5176

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2589:hydrocoele is what?

5177

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

persistence of tunica vaginalis

5178

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2590:painless enlargement of testicle has what on it's differential?

5179

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

cancer; cancer; cancer; cancer

5180

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2591:most common cause of testicular cancer

5181

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

seminoma --> highly responsive to radiation

5182

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2592:where do seminomas metastacize?

5183

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

para-aortic LNs

5184

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2593:most common testicular tumor in kid? what's the tumor marker?

5185

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

yolk sac tumor (Alpha fetoprotein)

5186

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2594:25 y/o male presents with unilateral gynecomastia and dyspnea. X-ray of lung shows numerous nodular masses. Where is the primary tumor and what kind?

5187

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

choriocarcinoma of testicle

5188

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2595:why do choriocarcinomas develop gynecomastia?

5189

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

B-HCG is a leutinizing hormone analog --> acts like leutenizing hormone; so stimulates progesterone and causes duct growth in breast tissue

5190

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2596:most common cause of testicular cancer in older men?

5191

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

malignant lymphoma metastaces

5192

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2597:where in prostate gland does hyperplasia occur?

5193

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

periurethral area

5194

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2598:where in prostate gland is cancer located?

5195

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

periphery (that's why you can feel it with your finger on rectal)

5196

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2599:75 y/o man has urinary retention and massive bladder with dribbling urine. what is cause?

5197

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BPH.

5198

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2600:what hormone is totally responsible for prostate?

5199

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

dihydrotestosterone

5200

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2601:BPH and prostate cancer is under the control of what hormone?

5201

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

dihydrotestosterone

5202

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2602:how do you treat prostate cancer and BPH

5203

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

5-alpha-reductase inhibitor

5204

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2603:most common cancer in men?

5205

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

prostate cancer

5206

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2604:What is prerenal azotemia?

5207

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

selective rise in BUN during early renal failure

5208

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2605:Define segmental. (kidney pathology)

5209

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

involving part of the glomerular tuft

5210

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2606:hematuria; hypertension; oliguria; azotemia = ?

5211

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nephritic Syndrome; "I" = inflammation

5212

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2607:LM findings in post-strep glomerulonephritis?

5213

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

lumpy bumpy and hypercellular w/ neutrophils

5214

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2608:EM findings in post-strep glomerulonephritis?

5215

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

subepithelial humps (from deposition of cationic antigen)

5216

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2609:IF findings in post-strep glomerulonephritis?

5217

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

granular

5218

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2610:Goodpasture's is what type of hypersensistivity?

5219

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

type II (IgG binding directly to BM)

5220

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2611:Goodpasture's IF?

5221

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

linear

5222

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2612:Symptoms of Goodpasture's?

5223

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hemoptysis; hematuria

5224

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2613:Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis EM?

5225

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

subendothelial humps; "tram track"

5226

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2614:Course of crescentic glomerulonephritis?

5227

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

rapid (the Red Crescent is the Islamic Red Cross; an organization that provides relief during emergencies; like crescentic glomerulonephritis)

5228

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2615:Course of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

5229

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

slow

5230

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2616:IgA nephropathy IF and EM?

5231

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

mesangial deposits of IgA (Mes"A"ngium)

5232

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2617:Which can be post infectious; IgA nephropathy or Goodpasture's?

5233

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgA nephropathy

5234

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2618:Signs of nephrotic syndrome?

5235

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

massive proteinuria; hypoalbuminemia; generalized edema; hyperlipidemia (think "erotic" = an erection(edema) and ejaculate(massive proteinuria)

5236

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2619:LM of membranous glomerulonephritis?

5237

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

diffuse capillary and basement membrane thickening

5238

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2620:IF of membranous glomerulonephritis?

5239

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

granular

5240

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2621:EM of membranous glomerulonephritis?

5241

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

spike and dome ("if you have a spike in your dome; you must be insane in the "membran"e;" -Chirag)

5242

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2622:Minimal change disease EM?

5243

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

foot process effacement

5244

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2623:Most common cause of childhood nephrotic syndrome?

5245

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

minimal change disease

5246

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2624:Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis LM?

5247

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis

5248

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2625:Diabetic nephropathy LM?

5249

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions

5250

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2626:SLE (5 patterns of renal involvement) LM?

5251

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

wire-loop appearance w/ extensive granular BM depsits in membranous glomerulonephritis pattern

5252

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2627:What is the most common kidney stone?

5253

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Calcium (with either oxalate of phosphate)

5254

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2628:What kidney stone is associated with a bacterial infection?

5255

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ammonium magnesium phosphate (struivte) stones are associated with urase positive bugs that make ammonium

5256

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2629:What are the two most common stone-forming bacteria?

5257

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

proteus vulgaris and Staph.

5258

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2630:What stones are associated with gout?

5259

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Uric acid stones

5260

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2631:What else can cause uric acid stones?

5261

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Any disease with high cell turnover (remember that uric acid is a by-product of DNA formation); so leukemia and myeloproliferative disease

5262

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2632:What stones are associated with cystineuria?

5263

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

cystine stones

5264

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2633:What two stones are radiolucent?

5265

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Uric acid and cystine (the two purely metabolic causes)

5266

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2634:What are the complications of stones?

5267

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hydronephrosis and pyelonephritis

5268

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2635:What causes calcium stones?

5269

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anything that increases calcium in the blood; so high PTH; malignancy (bone breakdown; PTH production); vitamin D overdose.

5270

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2636:Renal Cell Carcinoma: Is this a common renal cancer?

5271

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Yes; the most common

5272

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2637:Renal Cell Carcinoma: Who is prone to this?

5273

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

males; ages 50-70; smokers; gene deletions on chromosome 3

5274

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2638:Renal Cell Carcinoma: This is a cancer of what cell type?

5275

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

renal tubule cells; histologically they appear clear.

5276

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2639:Renal Cell Carcinoma: What are the clinical signs of this cancer?

5277

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

flank pain; fever; hematuria; palpable mass; secondary polycythemia

5278

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2640:Renal Cell Carcinoma: How does it spread?

5279

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

It invades the renal veins and IVC; to spread hematogenously

5280

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2641:Renal Cell Carcinoma: What hormones can it produce?

5281

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ACTH; prolactin; Parathyroid-like hormone; gonadotropins and renin.

5282

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2642:Wilm's Tumor: Who gets this cancer?

5283

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Children 2-4 years

5284

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2643:Wilm's Tumor: Is it common?

5285

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

The most common renal cancer in children

5286

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2644:Wilm's Tumor: What is the chromosomal abnormality that leads to this?

5287

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

deletion of tumor suppressor gene WT1 on chromosome 11

5288

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2645:Wilm's Tumor: What tetrad is it associated with?

5289

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

WAGR - Wilm's; Anirida (lack of an iris); Genitourinary malformation; and Retardation

5290

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2646:Wilm's Tumor: How does it present?

5291

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

huge palpable mass and hemihypertrophy

5292

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2647:Wilm's Tumor: What is the histological appearance?

5293

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

mixed - with stromal; mesenchymal; tubular; glomerular and fibrous elements

5294

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2648:Transitional Cell Carcinoma: Where does this cancer occur?

5295

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Urinary spaces (tract; calyces; pelvis; bladder)

5296

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2649:Transitional Cell Carcinoma: Does it recur?

5297

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

yes; often

5298

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2650:Transitional Cell Carcinoma: How does it spread?

5299

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Local invasion

5300

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2651:Transitional Cell Carcinoma: What can predispose you to it?

5301

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pee SAC toxins - Phenacetin; Smoking; Aniline dye (benezenes); and Cyclophsophimide.

5302

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2652:Transitional Cell Carcinoma: How does it present?

5303

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hematuria

5304

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2653:Dx;Bilateral renal Agenesis; limb deformities; facial deformities; pulmonary hypoplasia; oligohydraminos

5305

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Potter's syndrome;[Potters can't Pee in utero]

5306

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2654:where does a horseshoe kidney fuse?;what does it get trapped under?

5307

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fuse: Inferior poles;trapped under;Inferior Mesenteric Artery

5308

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2655:Cast in urine;RBC cast;(3)

5309

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nephritic syndromes;;Ischemia;;Malignant HTN

5310

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2656:Cast in urine;WBC casts

5311

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute Pyelonephritis

5312

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2657:Cast in urine;Granular casts

5313

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute Tubular Necrosis

5314

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2658:Cast in urine;Waxy cast

5315

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chronic Renal Failure

5316

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2659:what is seen in urine w/ acute cystitis?;Bladder CA?

5317

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cystitis = WBCs;;Bladder CA = RBCs

5318

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2660:Definition;Hypoalbuminemia; Edema; Hyperlipidemia; massive Proteinuria

5319

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nephrotic syndrome

5320

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2661:(6) Nephrotic syndromes

5321

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Membranous Glomerulonephritis;Minimal change;Focal Segmental Glomerular sclerosis;Diabetic Nephropathy;Renal amyloidosis;SLE nephropathy

5322

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2662:Definition;Oliguria; Azotemia; HTN; hematuria; RBC casts

5323

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nephritic syndromes

5324

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2663:Nephritic syndrome;"lumpy-bumpy" LM; subepithelial humps; granular pattern

5325

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute Poststrep Glomerulonephritis

5326

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2664:Nephrotic syndrome;granular pattern w/ "spike and dome" on EM

5327

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Membranous GN

5328

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2665:Nephritic syndrome commonly seen in children w/ pre-orbital and peripheral edema

5329

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute Poststrep GN

5330

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2666:MC type of kidney stone

5331

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Calcium

5332

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2667:Radiopaque Kidney stone caused by infection and cause staghorn calculi;(3) bugs causing stones

5333

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ammonium Magnesium Phosphate;(Struvite stones);Bugs;Proteus;Staph;Klebsiella

5334

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2668:Kidney stone seen w/ leukemia and myeloproliferative disorders

5335

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Uric acid stone

5336

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2669:Dx;nephritis; nerve deafness; lens dislocation or cataracts

5337

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alport syndrome

5338

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2670:Nephritic syndrome;splitting of the lamina densa

5339

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alport syndrome

5340

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2671:(3) causes of renal Papillary Necrosis

5341

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Diabetes;Acute Pyelonephritis;Chronic Phenacetin/NSAID use

5342

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2672:when is the most critical time for Acute Tubular necrosis?;why?

5343

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Initial Oliguric phase;can cause cardiac arrest from HyperK

5344

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2673:(3) causes of Acute Tubular Necrosis

5345

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Renal Ischemia;Crush injury;Toxins

5346

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2674:Dx;PCT reabsorption defect leading to protein and glucose in the urine w/ systemic acidosis

5347

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Falconi syndrome

5348

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2675:Definition;Impaired tubular reabsorption of Tryptophan leading to Pellagra-like symptoms

5349

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hartnup Dz

5350

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2676:Dx;coarse and asymmetric corticomedullary scarring of kidney; interstitial fibrosis; tubular atrophy; thyroidization; eosinophilic casts

5351

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chronic Pyelonephritis

5352

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2677:(3) tests to look for to determine patient has Pre-Renal ARF;(and results)

5353

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Urine Osmolality;(>500);Urine Na;(<10);FeNa;(<1%)

5354

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2678:What test is good to Dx Intrarenal ARF?

5355

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BUN/creatinine ratio < 15

5356

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2679:(2) tests to help Dx Post-renal ARF

5357

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Urine Na;(>40);FeNa;(>4)

5358

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2680:Dx;flank pain; palpable mass; hematuria

5359

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Renal cell CA

5360

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2681:what cell has cancer in Renal cell CA?;what ectopic hormones can be produced?;(4)

5361

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Polygonal Clear Cell;hormones;EPO; ACTH; PTH; Prolactin

5362

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2682:(4)* causes of Transitional cell CA of bladder

5363

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pee SAC;Phenacetin;;Smoking;;Anline dyes;;Cyclophosphamide

5364

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2683:Dx;child with Aniridia; GU malformation; Retardation; flank mass

5365

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Wilms Tumor - MC kidney tumor of kids;(WT1 on chrom 11);WAGR complex

5366

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2684:What is the primary disturbance in Metabolic acidosis?

5367

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

a decrease in bicarbonate

5368

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2685:What is the compensation?

5369

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

A drop in CO2 by hyperventilation

5370

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2686:What are common causes?

5371

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

diabetic ketoacidosis (production of ketone acids); diarrhea (loss of GI bicarb); salisylate overdose; acetazoleamide (diuretic) OD; lactic acidosis; renal failure (can't excrete organic acids); ethylene glycol ingestion

5372

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2687:What is the primary disturbance in respiratory acidosis?

5373

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

A build-up in CO2

5374

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2688:What is the compensation?

5375

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased bicarb reabosrobtion from the kidney

5376

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2689:What are some common causes?

5377

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

COPD; airway obstruction; opiates and sedatives; guillan-barr or ALS;

5378

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2690:What is the primary disturbance in metabolic alkalosis?

5379

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

increased bicarbonate

5380

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2691:What is the compensation?

5381

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased CO2 by decreased respiration

5382

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2692:What are some common causes?

5383

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vomiting; hyperaldosteronism (increased H+ secretion); loop or thiazide diuretics (volume contraction)

5384

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2693:What is the primary disturbance in respiratory alkalosis?

5385

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

A drop in CO2

5386

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2694:What is the compensation?

5387

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

increased excretion of bicarb by the kidney

5388

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2695:What are some common causes?

5389

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hyperventilation; high altitude; pneumonia and pulmonary embolus (hypoxemia causes hyperventilation_

5390

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2696:What is the Henderson Haselbach equation?

5391

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pH = pKa + Log (HCO3-)/(.03*pCO2)

5392

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2697:Is there an awesome graph on page 277 that you should know?

5393

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Yes

5394

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2698:Low pH; low pCO2 (low HCO3-)

5395

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

metabolic acidosis

5396

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2699:Low pH; high pCO2 (high HCO3-)

5397

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

chronic respiratory acidosis

5398

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2700:High pH; low pC02 (low HC03-)

5399

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acute respiratory alkalosis

5400

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2701:High pH; high pCO2 (high HCO3-)

5401

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

metabolic alkalosis

5402

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2702:pH < 7.4

5403

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acidosis

5404

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2703:pH > 7.4

5405

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

alkalosis

5406

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2704:Within acidosis: P (CO2) > 40

5407

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Respiratory acidosis

5408

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2705:Within acidosis: Hypoventilation or Hyperventilation

5409

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HYPO

5410

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2706:Within acidosis: Causes

5411

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

chronic lung disease; Acute lung disesae; Drugs (opioids; narcotics; sedatives); Weakening of Resp. muscles

5412

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2707:Within acidosis: P (CO2) < 40

5413

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Metabolic acidosis with compensation

5414

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2708:Within acidosis: What should you do next?

5415

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Check Anion Gap

5416

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2709:Within acidosis: What is the normal anion gap?

5417

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

8-12 mEq/L

5418

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2710:Within acidosis: Increased Anion Gap - 4 Causes

5419

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Renal Failure; Lactic acidosis; Ketoacidosis; Aspirin ingestion

5420

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2711:Within acidosis: Normal anion gap (4)

5421

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Diarrhea; Sniffin' Glue; Renal Tubular acidosis; Hyperchloremia

5422

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2712:pH > 7.4 pH > 7.4

5423

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

alkalosis

5424

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2713:pH > 7.4 pCO2 < 40

5425

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Respiratory alkalosis

5426

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2714:pH > 7.4 Causes (2)

5427

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HYPERventilation; aspirin ingestion (early)

5428

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2715:pH > 7.4 pCO2 > 40

5429

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

metabolic alkalosis w/ compensation

5430

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2716:pH > 7.4 Causes (4)

5431

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

vomiting; diuretic use; antacid use; hyperALDOsteronism

5432

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2717:Anion gap acidosis: How do you calculate it

5433

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Na - Cl - HCO3

5434

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2718:Anion gap acidosis: What is normal?

5435

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

8-12 mEq/L

5436

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2719:Anion gap acidosis: What is the mnemonic

5437

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MUD PILES

5438

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2720:Anion gap acidosis: M

5439

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Methanol

5440

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2721:Anion gap acidosis: U

5441

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Uremia

5442

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2722:Anion gap acidosis: D

5443

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DKA

5444

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2723:Anion gap acidosis: P

5445

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paraldehyde or Phenformin

5446

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2724:Anion gap acidosis: I

5447

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Iron tablets or INH

5448

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2725:Anion gap acidosis: L

5449

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lactic Acidosis

5450

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2726:Anion gap acidosis: E

5451

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ethanol; Ethylene Glycol

5452

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2727:Anion gap acidosis: S

5453

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Salicylates

5454

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2728:Acid Base Compensations: Metabolic acidosis

5455

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pCO2 = 1.5(HCO3) + 8 +/- 2

5456

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2729:Acid Base Compensations: Metabolic alkalosis

5457

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pCO2 increases 0.7 mm Hg per 1 mEq/L HCO3 increase

5458

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2730:Acid Base Compensations: Respiratory acidosis (acute)

5459

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HCO3 increases by 1 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg increase of pCO2

5460

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2731:Acid Base Compensations: Respiratory acidosis (chronic)

5461

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HCO3 increases by 3.5 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg increase of pCO2

5462

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2732:Acid Base Compensations: Respiratory alkalosis (acute)

5463

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HCO3 decreases by 2 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg decrease of pCO2

5464

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2733:Acid Base Compensations: Respiratory alkalosis (chronic)

5465

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HCO3 decreases by 5 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg decrease of pCO2

5466

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2734:The deep inguinal ring lies lateral or medial to the inferior epigastric artery?

5467

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lateral

5468

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2735:What is unusual about Chlamydia's cell wall?

5469

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lacks muramic acid

5470

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2736:Symptoms of congenital CMV infection?

5471

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatosplenomegaly; periventricular brain calcification; petechial hemorrhages; and hydrops;Sensorineural deafness

5472

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2737:Induction of hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients are most often caused by which medications? (make a mnemonic)

5473

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sulfonamides; nitrofurantoin; dapsone; primaquine; and quinine

5474

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2738:What is unusual about Chlamydia's cell wall?

5475

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lacks muramic acid

5476

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2739:What is unusual about Chlamydia's cell wall?

5477

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lacks muramic acid

5478

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2740:Induction of hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients are most often caused by which medications? (make a mnemonic)

5479

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sulfonamides; nitrofurantoin; dapsone; primaquine; and quinine

5480

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2741:Intranuclear inclusion bodies surrounded by halos?

5481

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CMV - "owl eyes"

5482

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2742:Symptoms of congenital CMV infection?

5483

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatosplenomegaly; periventricular brain calcification; petechial hemorrhages; and hydrops;Sensorineural deafness

5484

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2743:What is located about 1/2 inch above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament?

5485

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Deep inguinal ring

5486

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2744:Toxoplasma gondii is capable of crossing the placenta in which stage of it's lifecycle?

5487

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tachyzoite

5488

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2745:What are important causes of post-gonococcal urethritis?

5489

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chlamydia; mycoplasma; and ureaplasma

5490

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2746:Frothy yellow vaginal discharge

5491

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Trichomonas

5492

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2747:Incomplete fusion of the processus vaginalis in males leads to?

5493

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hydrocele of the spermatic cord

5494

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2748:Pleomorphic gram-negative rods in parallel short chains causing painful ulcer on penis?

5495

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Haemophilus ducreyi

5496

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2749:This space contains the sphincter urethrae muscle and the bulbourethral gland in the male?

5497

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Deep perineal space

5498

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2750:Granulomatosis infantiseptica?

5499

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lysteria monocytogenes in pregnancy

5500

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2751:Which STD organisms induce endocytosis by epithelial cells?

5501

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia

5502

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2752:The vagina of prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women is colonized by?

5503

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Colonic and skin bacteria; including staph epidermidis

5504

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2753:Herpes simplex virus 2 lays dormant in which cells?

5505

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neurons of the sacral ganglia

5506

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2754:The filamentous gram-positive rod produces yellow granular deposits (sulfur granules) in the areas of its tissue invasion?

5507

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Actinomyces israelli

5508

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2755:Testes determining factor does what?

5509

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Causes the indifferent gonad to develop into a testis with Sertoli cells; which secrete MIF; suppressing the paramesonephric ducts; thus preventing the formation of femal internal reproductive organs

5510

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2756:Males with hyperprolactinemia have what affect on sexual function?

5511

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

interference with testosterone production causing a decrease in sperm count

5512

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2757:Hydatiform mole progresses to choriocarcinoma at a rate of?

5513

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

2%

5514

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2758:What is adenomyosis?

5515

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Presence of endometrial glands within the myometrkjm of the uterus in addition to their normal location in the endometrium

5516

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2759:Most spontaneously aborted fetuses in the first trimester are due to?

5517

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

chromosomal abnormalities

5518

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2760:Ovarian metastasis of a mucin-producing adenocarcinoma?

5519

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Krukenberg tumor

5520

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2761:Hydatiform moles produce high levels of?

5521

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hCG

5522

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2762:Which type of breast cancer has the best progrnosis?

5523

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tubular carcinoma

5524

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2763:XY male born with feminized external genitalia; testes retained within the abdominal cavity and otherwise normal male internal reproductive tracts;what could cause this?

5525

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

5 alpha reductase deficiency

5526

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2764:How to diagnose chronic abacterial prostatitis?

5527

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

>10 leukocytes per high-power field;no bacteria are isolated from cultures of prostatic secretions

5528

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2765:Flutamide? Mechanism?

5529

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chemo;Antiandrogen; inhibits the actions of androgens in target tissues. Used in prostate cancer

5530

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2766:Ovarian tumor - Cystic sac containing thick mucinous fluid within a thin wall;Epithelial lining shows malignant features in the absence of stromal invasion?

5531

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Borderline mucinous tumor

5532

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2767:Presence of individual adenocarcinoma cells within the squamous epithelium of the skin near the nipple?

5533

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paget disease

5534

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2768:Uterine tumor - Well demarcated borders and a whorled pattern on cut surface

5535

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leiomyoma

5536

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2769:Classical presentation of a germ cell tumor in a 23 year old man?

5537

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Non-painful swelling of the testis

5538

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2770:T or F? Condyloma acuminatum contains koilocytes?

5539

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

5540

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2771:Most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?

5541

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Escherichia

5542

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2772:This drug acts by inhibiting 5 alpha reductase to treat BPH

5543

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Finasteride

5544

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2773:T or F? Maturation of germ cells within the seminiferous tubules occurs in a concentric pattern with the less mature spermatogonia near the tubule center and the mature forms near the basal lamina

5545

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

FALSE - the opposite

5546

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2774:Mature teratoma;aka?

5547

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dermoid cyst

5548

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2775:Most common causes of maternal death in preeclampsia?

5549

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cerebral hemorrhage and ARDS

5550

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2776:Sclerosing adenosis?

5551

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

A type of proliferative fibrocystic disease that is often seen with other variants of fibrocystic disease. Proliferation of small ducts; distorts glands and lobules into a whorled pattern. Increased risk for breast cancer

5552

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2777:Type of endometrium bearing long; narrow; coiled glands lined by a single layer of columnar epithelium showing regular; uniform; small nuclei and clear apical vesicles

5553

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Secretory endometrium

5554

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2778:Tumor with endodermal sinuses that resemble primitive glomeruli?

5555

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Yolk sac tumor

5556

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2779:Differentiation of the male external genitals is dependent on?

5557

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dihydrotestosterone (via action of 5 alpha reductase on testosterone)

5558

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2780:Key differences between seminomas in men and dysgerminomas in women?

5559

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Seminomas are most common in the fourth decade; dysgerminomas in the third decade;2. Seminomas are relatively common; while dysgerminomas are rare

5560

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2781:These agents induce the formation of surfactant lipids in the prevention of RDS in preterm babies;

5561

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Corticosteroids

5562

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2782:Pseudomyxoma peritonei is a potential complication of this tumor?

5563

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mucinous cystadenoma

5564

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2783:T or F? Elevation of LDH is common in seminomas.

5565

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True

5566

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2784:Koilocytotic atypia is commonly observed with infection with?

5567

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HPV

5568

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2785:Most cases of male pseudohermaphrodites are due to?

5569

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Testicular feminization syndrome

5570

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2786:Most common variant of breast adenocarcinomoa?

5571

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Invasive ductal carcinoma

5572

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2787:Which phase accounts for most of variability in the length of the menstrual cycle?

5573

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Follicular phase

5574

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2788:T or F? Basal body temperature falls precipitously a few days prior to menstruation

5575

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True

5576

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2789:Intraductal papillomas - describe the favorable pathology?

5577

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Presence of fibrovascular core; and both epithelial and myoepithelial cells in thepaipllary fronds

5578

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2790:Alpha fetoprotein is a good marker for which cancers?

5579

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testes; endodermal sinus (yolk sac) ovarian tumors; hepatocellular carcinomas

5580

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2791:Malignant mixed mullerian tumor?

5581

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tumor with 2 components (stromal and epithelial (endometrial glands)

5582

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2792:Maternal blood levels of ; are dependent on a viable fetus?

5583

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Estrioll

5584

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2793:This tumor; in combination with ascites and hydrothorax; is referred to as Meigs' syndrome

5585

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Thecoma-fibroma

5586

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2794:Serous paipllary cystadenocarcinomas of the ovaries express which marker?

5587

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CA-125

5588

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2795:Three stages of spermatogenesis?

5589

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Spermatocytogenesis; meiosis; and spermiogenesis

5590

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2796:What are two types of ovarian tumors that can produce large amounts of steroid hormones?

5591

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sertoli-Leydic cell tumors (testosterone); and granulosa cell tumors (estrogen)

5592

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2797:36 y/o man with painless enlargement of right testis. Biopsy - Round nests of cells with conspicuous nucleoli and clear cytoplasm; nests are separated by delicate fibrous septa containing numerous lymphocytes;

5593

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Seminoma

5594

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2798:Causative organism of lymphogranuloma venereum?

5595

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chlamydia

5596

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2799:Bright reddish-pink; acellular ring around the ovum?

5597

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Zona pellucida

5598

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2800:Forms of penile carcinoma in situ?

5599

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bowen's disease; Bowenoid papulosis; and erythroplasia of Queyrat

5600

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2801:Describe the lesions of Bowenoid paulosis?

5601

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Multiple reddish-brown pauplar lesions

5602

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2802:Most cases of dysfunctional uterine bleeding are due to?

5603

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anovulatory cycles

5604

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2803:Histology of inflammatory breast cancer?

5605

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dermal lymphatic invasion by cancer cells; can cause orange peel appearance

5606

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2804:Koilocytic?

5607

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

The characteristic nuclear and cytoplasmic changes shown by squamous epithelial cells infected by HPV

5608

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2805:Name the mutations of the following syndromes: LiFraumeni; Cowden; and ataxia-telangiectasia

5609

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LiFraumeni - p53;Cowden - gene of chromosome 10;Ataxiatelangiectasia - ATM gene

5610

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2806:Gynecomastia; golden-brown testicular tumor; large uniform cells with indistinct cell borders; and rod-shaped crystals

5611

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cell tumor (crystals of Reinke)

5612

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2807:Struma ovarii?

5613

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Monodermal teratomas can develop an appearance of mature thyroid tissue

5614

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2808:T or F? Ductal carcinoma in situ can produce Paget disease?

5615

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True

5616

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2809:The first set of lymph nodes to which lymph from the testes drain?

5617

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Para-aortic nodes; near where the testicular artery arises

5618

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2810:First event in preeclampsia is thought to be?

5619

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Placental ischemia

5620

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2811:Condyloma acuminatum

5621

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Verrucous wartlike lesions on vulva; perineum; vagina and cervix associated with HPV serotypes 6 and 11

5622

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2812:Pelvic inflammatory disease

5623

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vaginal discharge (cervicitis); vaginal bleeding (endometritis); bilateral lower abdomainal and pelvic pain (salpingitis). Caused by n. gonorrhea and/or chlamydia. Complications: tubo-ovarian abscess; tubal scarring (granulomatous inflamation) with infertility and ectopic pregnancies

5624

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2813:Cervical cancer risk factors

5625

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Early age of first intercourse; multiple sexual partners; multiple pregnancies; oral contraceptives; smokking

5626

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2814:Cervical cancer clinical features

5627

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

45 years old. Asymptomatic or postcoital bleeding; dyspareunia (painful intercourse); malodorous discharge. Caused by HPV types 16; 18; 31 and 33. Precursor lesion is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

5628

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2815:Endometriosis

5629

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus in ovaries; ligaments and pouch of Douglas. Presents with chronic pelvic pain; dysmenorrhea; dyspareunia (painful intercourse); rectal pain; constipation; infertility

5630

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2816:Endometrial carcinoma risk factors

5631

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Early menarche; late menapause; nulliparity; hypertension; diabetes; anovulation; estrogen-producing tumors; estrogenreplacement therapy; endometrial hyperplasia

5632

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2817:Endometrial carcinoma clinical features

5633

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

55 year old with postmenopausal vaginal bleeding

5634

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2818:Polycystic ovarian disease

5635

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Females of reproductive age; oligomenorrhea; hirsutism; infertility. Lab: elevated LH; low FSH; high testosterone. Predisposes to endometrial cancer

5636

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2819:Ovarian cystadenocarcinoma

5637

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

65 year old with malignant bilateral ovarian enlargement. Risk factors: BRCA-1. Marker: CA125

5638

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2820:Metastatic tumors to the ovary primary sites

5639

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Breast; colon; endometrial; gastric "signet-cell" Krukenberg tumor

5640

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2821:Hydatidiform mole

5641

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tumor of placental trophoblastic tissue/ Excessive uterine enlargement; vaginal bleeding; high B-HCG. Complete mole: fertilization of an ovum without chromosomes. Partial mole: fertilization by two sperms (one 23X; one 23Y)

5642

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2822:Choriocarcinoma

5643

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Malignant germ cell tumor derived from the trophoblast

5644

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2823:Fibrocystic change presentation

5645

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bilateral painful mass in young woman with menstrual variation

5646

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2824:Fibroadenoma

5647

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Movable mass that changes with mentrual cycles

5648

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2825:Breast carcinoma risk factors

5649

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BRCA-1; BRCA-2; p53; prior breast cancer; old age; nulliparity; obesity

5650

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2826:Breast carcinoma clinical features

5651

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Solitary painless mass in old woman with nipple retraction or skin dimpling or fixation to chest wall. Calcification on mamogram. MC variation is invasive ductal carcinoma

5652

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2827:Benign prostatic hyperplasia

5653

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased caliber and force of stream; urgency; frequency; nocturia; dysuria. PSA is elevated. Rx.: 5-alpha reductase inhibitor

5654

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2828:Prostate cancer

5655

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Asymptomatic or lower back pain secondary to metastasis. High PSA. Metastasis to pelvic lymph nodes and lumbar spine with high alkaline phosphatase

5656

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2829:The Adrenal cortex derives from what embryonic tissue?

5657

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mesoderm

5658

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2830:The Adrenal medulla derives from what embryonic tissue?

5659

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neural creast

5660

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2831:The Adrenal Zona Glomerulosa produces what?

5661

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Aldosterone

5662

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2832:The Adrenal Zona Fasciculata produces what?

5663

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cortisol; and some sex hormones

5664

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2833:The Adrenal Zona Reticularis produces what?

5665

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sex hormones (androgens)

5666

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2834:The Adrenal Medulla produces what?

5667

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Catecholamines (Epinephrine and Norepinephrine)

5668

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2835:What do beta islet cells produce?

5669

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Insulin

5670

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2836:What do alpha islet cells produce?

5671

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glucagon

5672

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2837:What do delta islet cells produce?

5673

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Somatostatin

5674

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2838:What is the neurohypophysis?

5675

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Posterior pituitary

5676

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2839:What is the adenohypophysis?

5677

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anterior pituitary

5678

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2840:What is the posterior pituitary derived from?

5679

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neuroectoderm

5680

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2841:What is the anterior pituitary derived from?

5681

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Oral ectoderm

5682

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2842:What anterior pituitary cells are acidophils?

5683

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

The ones that produce GH or prolactin

5684

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2843:What anterior pituitary cells are basophils?

5685

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

"B-FLAT";The ones that produce FSH; LH; ACTH; TSH

5686

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2844:What hormones share a common alpha-subunit?

5687

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TSH; LH; FSH and hCG

5688

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2845:What regulates TSH release?

5689

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased by TRH;Decreased by Somatostatin

5690

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2846:What regulates Prolactin release?

5691

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased by TRH;Decreased by Dopamine

5692

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2847:What regulates ACTH release?

5693

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased by CRH

5694

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2848:What regulates GH release?

5695

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased by GHRH;Decreased by Somatostatin

5696

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2849:What regulates FSH release?

5697

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased by GnRH

5698

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2850:What regulates LH release?

5699

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased by GnRH

5700

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2851:What is the most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

5701

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

21-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

5702

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2852:How many carbons do mineralocorticoids have?

5703

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

21 carbons

5704

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2853:How many carbons do glucocorticoids have?

5705

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

21 carbons

5706

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2854:How many carbons do androgens have?

5707

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

19 carbons

5708

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2855:How many carbons do estrogens have?

5709

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

18 carbons

5710

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2856:Where is PTH secreted from?

5711

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chief cells of parathyroid

5712

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2857:What is the active form of Vitamin D

5713

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1;25-(OH)2 vitamin D

5714

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2858:What is the inactivated form of Vitamin D

5715

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

24;25-(OH)2 vitamin D

5716

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2859:How is Vitamin D activated?

5717

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

The liver converts Vitamin D to 25-OH Vitamin D(storage form) and the kidney then converts it to 1;25(OH) Vitamin D

5718

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2860:What is the storage form of Vitamin D?

5719

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

25-OH Vitamin D

5720

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2861:Where is calcitonin secreted from?

5721

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Parafollicular cells(C cells) of thyroid

5722

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2862:What is the role of calcitonin?

5723

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Oppose the actions of PTH;Secreted when serum Ca increases and it decreases bone resorption of calcium

5724

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2863:What hormones are steroid hormones?

5725

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

"PET CAT";Progesterone; Estrogen; Testosterone; Cortisol; Aldosterone; Thyroxine and T3

5726

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2864:Secretion and cell type of;Somatotrope cells

5727

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Secretes GH;Acidophil

5728

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2865:Secretion and cell type of;Mammotrope cells

5729

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Secretes Prolactin;Acidophil

5730

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2866:Secretion and cell type of;Corticotrope cells

5731

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Secretes ACTH;Basophil

5732

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2867:Secretion and cell type of;Gondadotrope cells

5733

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Secretes LH & FSH;Basophil

5734

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2868:Secretion and cell type of;Thyrotrope cells

5735

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Secretes TSH;Basophil

5736

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2869:What is the main form of thyroid hormone secreted by the thyroid?

5737

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

T4-Tetraiodothyronine

5738

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2870:What is the most active form of thyroid hormone?

5739

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

T3-Triiodithyronine

5740

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2871:What condition leads to increased Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)?

5741

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pregnancy;Increased estrogen leads to increased TBG

5742

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2872:What condition leads to decreased Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)?

5743

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatic failure

5744

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2873:What is Conn's syndrome?

5745

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Primary hyperaldosteronism- an aldosterone secreting tumor

5746

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2874:What is the most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in adults?

5747

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pheochromocytoma

5748

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2875:What is the most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in children?

5749

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neuroblastoma

5750

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2876:What is a/w pheochromocytomas?

5751

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neurofibromatosis; MEN types II & III

5752

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2877:What is Wermer's syndrome?

5753

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN type I

5754

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2878:What is Sipple's Syndrome?

5755

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN type II

5756

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2879:Which type of MEN?;Pancreatic; parathyroid & pituitary tumors

5757

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN type I

5758

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2880:Which type of MEN?;Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid; pheochromocytoma & parathyroid tumors

5759

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN type II

5760

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2881:Which type of MEN?;Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid; pheochromocytoma; & oral & intestinal ganglioneuromatosis

5761

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN type III

5762

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2882:Which thyroid cancer?;Most common

5763

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

5764

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2883:Which thyroid cancer?;"Ground-glass" nuclei

5765

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

5766

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2884:Which thyroid cancer?;From parafollicular "C cells"

5767

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

5768

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2885:Which thyroid cancer?;Produces calcitonin

5769

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

5770

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2886:Which thyroid cancer?;a/w MEN types II & III

5771

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

5772

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2887:Which thyroid cancer?;usually only in older patients

5773

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Undifferentiated/anaplastic cancer of the thyroid

5774

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2888:Which thyroid cancer?;a/w Hashimoto's thyroiditis

5775

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lymphoma of the thyroid

5776

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2889:ret gene mutations are a/w what?

5777

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN types II & III

5778

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2890:Type I or Type II DM?;Viral or Immune destruction of beta-cells

5779

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I DM

5780

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2891:Type I or Type II DM?;a/w HLA-DR3 & DR4

5781

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I DM

5782

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2892:Type I or Type II DM?;Ketoacidosis more common

5783

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I DM

5784

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2893:Type I or Type II DM?;"Classic" symptoms of Diabetes more common

5785

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I DM;Classic symptoms-polyuria; polydipsia; thirst; weight loss

5786

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2894:Type I or Type II DM?;a/w obestity

5787

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II DM

5788

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2895:Type I or Type II DM?;Strong genetic predisposition

5789

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II DM

5790

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2896:What drug class?;Lispro

5791

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Insulin- short acting

5792

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2897:What drug class?;NPH

5793

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Insulin-intermediate acting

5794

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2898:What drug class?;Lente

5795

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Insulin-long acting

5796

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2899:What drug class?;Tolbutamide

5797

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

First generation sulfonylurea

5798

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2900:What drug class?;Chlorpropamide

5799

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

First generation sulfonylurea

5800

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2901:What drug class?;Glyburide

5801

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Second generation sulfonylurea

5802

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2902:What drug class?;Glimepiride

5803

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Second generation sulfonylurea

5804

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2903:What drug class?;Glipizide

5805

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Second generation sulfonylurea

5806

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2904:What drug class?;Metformin

5807

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Biguanides

5808

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2905:What drug class?;Pioglitazone

5809

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glitazones

5810

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2906:What drug class?;Rosiglitazone

5811

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glitazones

5812

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2907:What drug class?;Acarbose

5813

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

5814

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2908:What drug class?;Miglitol

5815

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

5816

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2909:What diabetes drug type is;Lispro

5817

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Short-Acting Insulin

5818

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2910:What diabetes drug type is;Insulin

5819

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Short-Acting Insulin

5820

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2911:What diabetes drug type is;NPH

5821

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Intermediate-Acting Insulin

5822

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2912:What diabetes drug type is;Lente

5823

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Long-Acting Insulin

5824

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2913:What diabetes drug type is;Ultralente

5825

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Long-Acting Insulin

5826

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2914:What diabetes drug type is;Tolbutamide

5827

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

First generation sulfonylurea

5828

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2915:What diabetes drug type is;Chlorpropamide

5829

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

First generation sulfonylurea

5830

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2916:What diabetes drug type is;Glyburide

5831

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Second generation sulfonylurea

5832

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2917:What diabetes drug type is;Glimepiride

5833

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Second generation sulfonylurea

5834

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2918:What diabetes drug type is;Glipizide

5835

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Second generation sulfonylurea

5836

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2919:What diabetes drug type is;Metformin

5837

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Biguanide

5838

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2920:What diabetes drug type is;Pioglitazone

5839

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glitazones

5840

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2921:What diabetes drug type is;Rosiglitazone

5841

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glitazones

5842

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2922:What diabetes drug type is;Acarbose

5843

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

5844

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2923:What diabetes drug type is;Miglitol

5845

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

5846

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2924:What structure contains the ovarian vessels?

5847

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Suspensory ligament of ovaries

5848

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2925:What structure contains the uterine vessels?

5849

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transverse cervical(cardinal);ligament

5850

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2926:What structure contains the round ligament of the uterus & the uterine tubules & vessels

5851

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Broad ligament

5852

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2927:What does the acrosome of sperm derive from?

5853

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Golgi apparatus

5854

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2928:What is the food supply of sperm?

5855

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fructose

5856

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2929:What kind of DNA do Spermatogonium have?

5857

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

2N diploid

5858

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2930:What kind of DNA do Primary spermatocyte have?

5859

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

4N diploid

5860

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2931:What kind of DNA do Secondary spermatocyte have?

5861

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

2N haploid

5862

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2932:What kind of DNA do Spermatid have?

5863

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1N haploid

5864

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2933:What course do sperm take from production to ejaculation?

5865

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

SEVEN UP;Seminiferous tubules; Epididymis; Vas deferens; Ejaculatory ducts; (Nothing); Urethra; Penis

5866

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2934:FSH stimulates which cells in the male?

5867

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sertoli cells;Aid in development of sperm

5868

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2935:FSH stimulates which cells in the female?

5869

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Granulosa cells;Aromatization of androgens

5870

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2936:LH stimulates which cells in the male?

5871

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cells;Testosterone release

5872

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2937:LH stimulates which cells in the female?

5873

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Thecal cells;Produces androgens

5874

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2938:Which cell; leydig or sertoli; is found in interstitium between seminiferous tubules?

5875

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cells

5876

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2939:Which cell; leydig or sertoli; is found in the seminiferous tubules at the edge of the basement membrane?

5877

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sertoli cells

5878

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2940:What converts testosterone to DHT?

5879

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

5-alpha-reductase

5880

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2941:What inhibits 5-alpha-reductase?

5881

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Finasteride;Blocks conversion of testosterone to DHT

5882

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2942:What is the most potent androgen?

5883

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dihydrotestosterone(DHT)

5884

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2943:Which androgen cannot be aromatized to an estrogen?

5885

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DHT;Both Testosterone and androstenedione can be converted to estrogens

5886

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2944:Which is the most potent estrogen?

5887

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Estradiol

5888

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2945:Which estrogen increases the most during pregnancy?

5889

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Estriol

5890

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2946:In what stage of the cell cycle do eggs arrest in for most of their life?

5891

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prophase of meiosis I

5892

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2947:In what stage of the cell cycle do eggs arrest in after ovulation and until fertilization?

5893

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Metaphase of meiosis II

5894

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2948:How many days after fertilization does hCG become detectable in the urine?

5895

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

8 days

5896

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2949:What is a/w Epispadias?

5897

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Exstrophy of the bladder

5898

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2950:What is the genotype of a complete mole?

5899

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

46; XX w/ all genes coming from the father

5900

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2951:What is the genotype of an partial mole?

5901

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Usually triploid

5902

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2952:What strains of HPV are a/w cervical dysplasia?

5903

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

16 & 18

5904

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2953:Which ovarian tumor;Equivalent to male seminoma

5905

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dysgerminoma

5906

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2954:Which ovarian tumor;Sheets of uniform cells

5907

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dysgerminoma

5908

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2955:Which ovarian tumor;Aggresive malignancy in ovaries & sacrococcygeal area of young children

5909

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumor

5910

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2956:Which ovarian tumor;Large; hyperchromatic syncytiotrophoblastic cells

5911

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Choriocarcinoma

5912

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2957:Which ovarian tumor;90% of ovarian germ cell tumors

5913

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Teratoma

5914

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2958:Which ovarian tumor;Contains cells from 2 or 3 germ layers

5915

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Teratoma

5916

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2959:Which ovarian tumor;May contain struma ovarii

5917

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Teratoma;Struma ovarii- contains functional thyroid tissue

5918

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2960:Which ovarian tumor;20% of ovarian tumors

5919

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Serous cystadenoma

5920

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2961:Which ovarian tumor;50% of ovarian tumors

5921

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Serious cystadenocarcinoma

5922

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2962:Which ovarian tumor;Frequently bilateral & lined w/ fallopian tube-like epithelium

5923

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Serous cystadenoma

5924

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2963:Which ovarian tumor;Multilocular cyst lined by mucus-secreting epithelium

5925

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mucinous cystadenoma

5926

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2964:Which ovarian tumor;a/w Pseudomyxoma peritonei

5927

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

5928

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2965:Which ovarian tumor;Resembles bladder epithelium

5929

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Brenner tumor

5930

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2966:Which ovarian tumor;Bundles of spindle-shaped fibroblasts

5931

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ovarian fibroma

5932

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2967:Which ovarian tumor;Part of Meig's syndrome

5933

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ovarian fibroma;Meig's syndrome- triad of ovarian fibroma; ascites & hydrothorax

5934

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2968:Which ovarian tumor;Can lead to precocious puberty

5935

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Granulosa cell tumor

5936

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2969:Which ovarian tumor;Secretes estrogen

5937

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Granulosa cell tumor

5938

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2970:Which ovarian tumor;Can cause endometrial hyperplasia/carcinoma in adults

5939

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Granulosa cell tumor

5940

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2971:Which ovarian tumor;Call-exner bodies

5941

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Granulosa cell tumor;Call-exner bodies- small follicles filled w/ eosinophilic secretions

5942

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2972:What is Pseudomyxoma peritonei

5943

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous material from ovarian or appendiceal tumor;a/w Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

5944

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2973:What breast condition?;Most common tumor in women under 25

5945

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibroadenoma

5946

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2974:What breast condition?;Lump w/ increased size and tenderness w/ pregnancy

5947

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibroadenoma

5948

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2975:What breast condition?;Benign tumor of lactiferous ducts

5949

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Intraductal papilloma

5950

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2976:What breast condition?;Presents w/ serous or bloody nipple discharge

5951

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Intraductal papilloma

5952

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2977:What breast condition?;Large; bulky mass of connective tissue & cysts

5953

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cystosarcoma phyllodes

5954

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2978:What breast condition?;"Leaflike" projections

5955

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cystosarcoma phyllodes

5956

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2979:What breast condition?;Early malignancy w/o basement membrane penetration

5957

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ductal carcinoma in situ

5958

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2980:What breast condition?;Worst and most invasive breast cancer

5959

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Invasive ductal carcinoma

5960

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2981:What breast condition?;Cheesy consistency due to central necrosis

5961

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Comedocarcinoma

5962

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2982:What breast condition?;Fleshy; cellular; lymphocytic infiltrate

5963

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Medullary carcinoma

5964

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2983:What breast condition?;Eczematous patches on nipple

5965

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paget's disease of the breast

5966

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2984:What breast condition?;Large cells w/ clear halo

5967

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paget's disease of the breast;Cells are called paget cells

5968

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2985:What breast condition?;MCC of breast lumps age 25menopause

5969

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrocystic disease

5970

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2986:What breast condition?;Diffuse breast pain & multiple lesions; often bilateral

5971

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrocystic disease

5972

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2987:What breast condition?;Increased number of epithelial cell layers in terminal duct lobule

5973

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Epithelial hyperplasia- Fibrocystic disease

5974

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2988:What breast condition?;Increased acini & intralobular fibrosis

5975

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sclerosing type of Fibrocystic disease

5976

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2989:What breast condition?;Hyperplasia of breast stroma

5977

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrosis type of Fibrocystic disease

5978

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2990:What breast condition?;Breast abscess during breast feeding

5979

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute mastitis

5980

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2991:What breast condition?;Benign painless lump that forms due to injury to breast tissue

5981

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fat necrosis

5982

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2992:Risk factors for Breast tumors

5983

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gender; age; early 1st menarche(<12 y.o.); delayed 1st pregnancy(>30 y.o.); late menopause(>50 y.o.); family history of 1st degree relative w/ breast cancer at young age

5984

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2993:Most common pathogen in acute mastitis

5985

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

5986

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2994:What testicular tumor?;Painless testicular enlargement

5987

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Seminoma

5988

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2995:What testicular tumor?;Most common testicular tumor

5989

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Seminoma

5990

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2996:What testicular tumor?;Worst prognosis

5991

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Embryonal carcinoma of the testicle

5992

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2997:What testicular tumor?;Reinke crystals

5993

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cell tumor

5994

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2998:What testicular tumor?;Androgen producing tumor

5995

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cell tumor

5996

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q2999:What testicular tumor?;Causes gynecomastia in men & precocious puberty in boys

5997

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cell tumor

5998

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3000:What testicular tumor?;Androblastoma from sex cord stroma

5999

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sertoli cell tumor

6000

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3001:What testicular tumor?;Most common testicular cancer in older men

6001

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Testicular lymphoma

6002

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3002:What is the typical age of presentation of a seminoma?

6003

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

15-35 years old

6004

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3003:What penile tumor?;Solitary crusty plaque on shaft or on scrotum

6005

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bowen disease- type of penile carcinoma in situ

6006

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3004:What penile tumor?;Peak incidence in 5th decade of life

6007

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bowen disease- type of penile carcinoma in situ

6008

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3005:What penile tumor?;Becomes invasive SCC in <10% of cases

6009

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bowen disease- type of penile carcinoma in situ

6010

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3006:What penile tumor?;Red velvety plaques; usually involving the glans

6011

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Erythroplasia of Queyrat- type of penile carcinoma in situ

6012

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3007:What penile tumor?;Similar to Bowen disease

6013

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Erythroplasia of Queyrat- type of penile carcinoma in situ

6014

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3008:What penile tumor?;Multiple papular lesions

6015

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bowenoid papulosis- type of penile carcinoma in situ

6016

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3009:What penile tumor?;Affects a younger age group than other penile tumors

6017

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bowenoid papulosis- type of penile carcinoma in situ

6018

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3010:What penile tumor?;a/w HPV

6019

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Penile squamous cell carcinoma

6020

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3011:What penile tumor?;Rare in circumcised men

6021

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Penile squamous cell carcinoma

6022

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3012:What are the three layers of the skin

6023

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Epidermis; dermis; subcutaneous tissue

6024

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3013:What types of cells compose the epidermal layer of the skin

6025

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stratified squamous epithelium

6026

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3014:What are the four layers of the epidermis

6027

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stratum Corneum;Stratum Granulosum;Stratum Spinosum;Stratum Basalis;Cocky Guys Save Babes

6028

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3015:Hyperkeratosis affects which layer of the epidermis

6029

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stratus corneum

6030

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3016:What types of cells compose the stratum basalis

6031

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Columnar basal cells

6032

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3017:What is a plaque

6033

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Raised area of skin >1cm in diameter

6034

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3018:What is a papule

6035

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Raised area of skin <1cm in diameter

6036

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3019:What is a macule

6037

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Flat; discolored area of skin <1cm in diameter

6038

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3020:What is a vesicle

6039

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

A raised; fluid-filled blister measuring <0.5cm in diameter

6040

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3021:What are the small; encapsulated sensory receptors found in the dermis of the palms; soles; and digits of the skin (Hint: they are also involved in light discriminatory touch of hairless skin)

6041

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Meissners corpuscles

6042

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3022:What is the name of tactile disks that mediate light crude touch

6043

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Merkel corpuscles

6044

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3023:What are the large encapsulated sensory receptors found in deeper layers of skin that are involved in pressure; coarse touch; vibration; and tension

6045

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pacinian corpuscles

6046

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3024:Where are pacinian corpuscles found

6047

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Deep layers of skin;Joint capsules;Serous membranes;Mesenteries

6048

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3025:What structures prevent diffusion across intracellular spaces

6049

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Zona occludens (tight junctions)

6050

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3026:What structures allow adjacent cells to communicate rapidly

6051

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gap junctions

6052

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3027:What structure connects cells to underlying extracellular matrix

6053

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemidesmosomes

6054

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3028:What are structures that join adjacent cells together and provide anchoring points for intermediate filaments

6055

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Desmosomes (macula adherens)

6056

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3029:What is the function of Langerhans cells

6057

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Antigen-presenting cells; Main inducers of antibody response

6058

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3030:From where does the epidermis regrow after trauma or removal

6059

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hair follicles and sweat glands in the dermis

6060

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3031:What is the term that describes the replacement of one adult cell type by another; often secondary to irritation and/or environmental exposure

6061

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Metaplasia (reversible)

6062

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3032:Which term describes an increased number of cells

6063

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyperplasia (reversible)

6064

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3033:What do you call the change of a cell to a less differentiated form

6065

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anaplasia

6066

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3034:What is the term for abnormal growth with loss of orientation; shape; and size compared to normal cells

6067

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dysplasia (reversible)

6068

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3035:Which enzymes do malignant cells use to metastasize

6069

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Collagenases and hydrolases

6070

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3036:Which rash is often described as a target lesion that has a red center; pale zone; and a dark outer ring

6071

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Erythema multiforme

6072

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3037:What are common causes of erythema multiforme

6073

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Infections;Antibiotics;Radiation;Chemicals;Malignancy

6074

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3038:What is the term for dilated; superficial blood vessels

6075

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Telangiectasia

6076

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3039:Which test is designed to ascertain whether a skin lesion will blanch as a result of pressure

6077

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Diascopy. Used to determine whether a red lesion is bloodfilled or hemorrhagic

6078

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3040:What are the most common causes of nonscarring alopecia

6079

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Telogen effluvium;Androgenic alopecia;Alopecia areata;Tinea capitis;Traumatic alopecia

6080

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3041:What are the most common causes of scarring alopecia

6081

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cutaneous lupus;Lichen planus;Folliculitis planus;Linear scleroderma

6082

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3042:What is the easiest and quickest way to determine if a skin condition is fungal

6083

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

KOH preparation

6084

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3043:An 8-month old presents with large; easily ruptured flaccid bullae; with large areas of desquamation of skin and a positive Nikolskys sign. What is the most likely diagnosis

6085

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

6086

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3044:What is the infectious agent that causes scalded skin syndrome

6087

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

6088

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3045:What condition is described as having thin-walled vesicles or pustules that rupture to form golden-yellow crusts (honey crusts)

6089

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Impetigo

6090

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3046:What is the most common bacterial infection of the skin in children

6091

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Impetigo

6092

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3047:What bacteria cause impetigo

6093

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Staph aureus or Strep pyogenes

6094

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3048:What test is helpful to determine the organism involved in impetigo

6095

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Culture and catalase tests

6096

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3049:A sexually active 23 year old patient presents with painful vesicles on his penis and a slight fever. He refers to having the same type of vesicles multiple times a year. Multinucleated giant cells and ballooning of nuclei are seen microscopically. What is the likely diagnosis

6097

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Herpes simplex infection

6098

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3050:What is the treatment for herpes simplex type I

6099

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Oral and topical acyclovir;Valacyclovir;Famciclovir

6100

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3051:What infection causes unilateral; painful vesicles along a dermatome of the face or trunk

6101

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Shingles (Herpes Zoster)

6102

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3052:Which test can be used to assist in the diagnosis of herpes virus infection

6103

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tzank smear

6104

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3053:Which disease of childhood presents with acute vesicular eruptions that occur in successive crops; so that the rash typically consists of vesicles at different stages of resolution

6105

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Varicella or chicken pox

6106

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3054:A 16 year old presents with multiple dome-shaped; umbilicated; waxy papules on the face and chest. What is the most likely diagnosis

6107

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Molluscum contagiosum

6108

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3055:How does molluscum contagiosum appear microscopically

6109

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Epidermal hyperplasia producing a basin with moluscum bodies (Henderson-Patterson bodies)

6110

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3056:What type of virus causes molluscum contagiosum

6111

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pox virus

6112

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3057:A 35 year old patient with AIDS presents with multiple brownish/purplish macules on the trunk and lower extremities. What is the most likely diagnosis

6113

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Kaposis sarcoma (HHV8)

6114

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3058:A 7 year old present with multiple hard; roughsurfaced papules on his fingers and elbows. Diagnosis?

6115

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Verruca vulagris (common wart)

6116

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3059:What is the causative agent of verruca vulgaris

6117

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HPV

6118

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3060:What is the typical primary syphilis skin manifestation

6119

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Painless indurated genital or lip ulcer (chancre)

6120

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3061:What are the typical secondary syphilis skin manifestations

6121

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cutaneous lesions that are maculopapular or erythematosquamous; lesions on palms and soles; warts (condylomata lata) on anogenital region; and alopecia

6122

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3062:What HPV serotypes cause the common wart

6123

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HPV-1;2;4;7

6124

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3063:A 24 year old man from the Northeast; visits the physician because of a centrifugally spreading; erythematous lesion on his right leg. The patient noticed the rash after he went hiking. Diagnosis?

6125

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Erythema chronicum migrans (Lyme disease)

6126

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3064:A mother brings her 5 year old son to the physician because she noted her son scratching a pinkish lesion on his neck. Upon examination; the physician notes a ring-shaped scaling plaque with central clearing and elevated borders. Diagnosis?

6127

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tinea corporis (ringworms)

6128

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3065:How is ringworm acquired

6129

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tinea corporis is not due to a worm but due to a fungal infection

6130

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3066:Skin infections are typically caused by what bacterium

6131

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

S. aureus

6132

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3067:A 22 year old man presents with a rash that first appeared on his palms and soles; and then spread to his face and trunk. Diagnosis?

6133

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

6134

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3068:What type of rash is seen in spotted fever

6135

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

An inward or centripetal spreading rash

6136

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3069:What is used to test for typhus and Rocky mountain spotted fever

6137

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Weil-Felix reaction

6138

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3070:What is the treatment for Rocky mountain spotted fever

6139

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tetracyclines or chloramphenicol

6140

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3071:A 26 year old female from Texas complains of small hypopigmented spots on her upper back that usually disappear in the winter months. Diagnosis?

6141

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tinea versicolor

6142

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3072:What is the confirmatory test for tinea versicolor

6143

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

KOH preparation

6144

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3073:Which diseases cause hand and foot lesions

6145

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Syphilis;Hand-foot-and-mouth disease;Rocky Mountain spotted fever

6146

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3074:A 25 year old sexually active male presents with a painful; nonindurated genital ulcer; and tender regional lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis?

6147

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chancroid

6148

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3075:A 35 year old homeless woman visits a shelter physician because of multiple; extremely pruritic papules in her axilla; groin; and finger webs. The patient indicates her husband also has the same lesions. Diagnosis?

6149

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scabies

6150

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3076:A 15 year old male on the school swim team visits the dermatologist because of itchiness on both his feet. He states he is not on any medication and has not had it before. Upon inspection; the physician notes erythematous; dry scaling lesions on both feet. Diagnosis?

6151

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tinea pedis

6152

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3077:What is the treatment for tinea pedis

6153

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Topical or oral antifungals

6154

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3078:What is the rapid developing infection of the skin and fascia that may lead to death if not treated quickly

6155

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Necrotizing fasciitis

6156

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3079:What are the organisms responsible for necrotizing fasciitis

6157

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Group A streptococci or Clostridium perfringens

6158

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3080:A 67 year old Caucasian woman visits her dermatologist because of small reddish papules/pustules predominantly on her cheeks; nose; chin; and forehead. She states that her face becomes worse if she uses hot water or is in warm weather. Diagnosis?

6159

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Rosacea

6160

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3081:What is the treatment for Rosacea

6161

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Avoid precipitating factors;Topical metronidazole;Sulfur lotions;Oral tetracyclines;Isotretinoin

6162

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3082:A 12 year old male visits his physician because of a slap-like red mark on his cheek and a rash on his arms that appeared 1 day after the cheek rash. Upon physical examination; the physician notes malar erythema and a maculopapular rash on his extremities. Diagnosis?

6163

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fifth diseas (erythema infectiosum)

6164

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3083:What causes fifth disease

6165

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Parvovirus B19

6166

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3084:What are the other complications of fifth disease

6167

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nonimmune fetal hydrops (virus infects and destroys fetal red blood cells);More severe anemia in patients with other type of chronic anemia (like aplastic crisis in sickle cell patient)

6168

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3085:Which bacteria cause erythrasma

6169

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Corynebacterium

6170

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3086:What bacterium causes scarlet fever

6171

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

S. pyogenes (group A -hemolytic)

6172

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3087:What type of rash is seen in typhus

6173

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

An outward or centrifugal-spreading rash

6174

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3088:How do the rickettsiae cause severe tissue damage

6175

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Organisms infect endothelial cells and cause vascular leakage; which results in hypovolemic shock; pulmonary edema; renal failure; and CNS damage

6176

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3089:What does disseminated disease of coccidioidomycosis manifest as on the skin

6177

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Verrucous plaques (usually on face);Subcutaneous abscesses;Pustular lesions

6178

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3090:A 23 year old farmhand presents to the dermatologist with multiple red-violaceous nodules on the hand; fever; and history of diarrhea. During the examination; the patient states he is in charge of the cows on the farm. Diagnosis?

6179

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Milkers nodules

6180

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3091:What causes milkers nodules

6181

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paravaccinia virus

6182

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3092:What group is paravaccinia in

6183

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Double-stranded parapoxvirus

6184

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3093:What disease may follow paravaccinia infection

6185

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bullous pemphigoid

6186

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3094:A 16 year old female complains of fatigue; fever; sore throat; and lymphadenopathy. She leaves with a prescription for medication. Two days later she returns with a cutaneous rash on her face. What did the physician prescribe the patient

6187

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ampicillin

6188

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3095:What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient who develops a rash after treatment with ampicillin

6189

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mononucleosis

6190

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3096:What is the etiologic agent for mononucleosis

6191

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

EBV (HHV 4)

6192

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3097:What are the classic criteria for diagnosing mononucleosis

6193

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lymphocytosis; presence of at least 10% atypical lymphocytes on peripheral smear; and a positive serologic test for EBV

6194

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3098:What organism is responsible for tinea versicolor

6195

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Malassezia furfur

6196

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3099:What is used to treat tinea versicolor

6197

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Topical miconazole;Selenium sulfide

6198

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3100:A 45 year old rancher visits a dermatologist because of a black 2-cm lesion on his hand. He states that the lesion was itchy and had a reddish color a day or two ago. What is the most likely diagnosis

6199

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anthrax

6200

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3101:What is the causative agent of anthrax

6201

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bacillus anthracis

6202

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3102:A 36 year old migrant worker from Mexico visits the physician because of small disfiguring nodules forming on his ears and hands. The patient also states that he is losing sensation in the affected areas. Diagnosis?

6203

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leprosy

6204

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3103:What is the causative agent of leprosy

6205

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mycobacterium leprae

6206

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3104:What agent causes hand-foot-and-mouth disease

6207

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Coxsackie virus type A-16

6208

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3105:What are the signs and symptoms of hand-foot-andmouth disease

6209

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fever and malaise with small oval vesicles along creases of palms; soles; and lips

6210

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3106:What is the most common type of bacterial infection in burn victims

6211

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections

6212

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3107:Dermatophytes include members of which genera

6213

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Trichophyton; Microsporum; Epidermophyton

6214

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3108:An inner-city child is brought to the physician because of patches of hair loss. His mother states that he has had this problem for at least a month. The lesions are painless and have some scaling. Diagnosis?

6215

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tinea capitis

6216

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3109:What is the most likely etiologic organism of tinea capitis

6217

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Trichophyton tonsurans

6218

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3110:What is the treatment for tinea capitis

6219

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Griseofulvin;Terbinafine

6220

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3111:Which form of M. furfur generally causes disease

6221

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyphal form

6222

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3112:What is the most common type of skin cancer

6223

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Basal cell carcinoma

6224

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3113:What is the neoplasm that is often described as a pearly; red macule; papule; or nodule that is found on sunexposed areas of the head or neck

6225

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Basal cell carcinoma

6226

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3114:What skin cancer is microscopically characterized by nests of palisading cells

6227

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Basal cell carcinoma

6228

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3115:Which neoplasm is often described as a red papule; nodule; or plaque that may be hyperkeratotic or ulcerated on sun-exposed skin

6229

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

6230

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3116:Arsenic causes which type of skin cancer

6231

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

6232

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3117:Which neoplasm is microscopically characterized by nest of atypical squamous epithelial cells and keratin

6233

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

6234

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3118:Which type of skin cancer results as a complication of severe burns 20-40 years later and has a higher risk of metastasis compared to its regular skin version

6235

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

6236

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3119:Actinic keratosis lesions may transform into what type of skin cancer if left untreated

6237

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

6238

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3120:What are some risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma

6239

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sun exposure;Ionizing radiation;Actinic keratosis;Immunosuppression;Arsenic;Industrial carcinogens

6240

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3121:A 54 year old male visits the dermatologist because of a dark brown-black 5mm freckle in between his third and fourth toe. The patient stated that he noticed the freckle about a year and a half ago. The dermatologist biopsies the lesion and under the microscope; sees atypical confluent melanocytes with asymmetrical proliferation. Diagnosis?
6241

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melanoma

6242

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3122:Which stains are used to test for melanoma

6243

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

S-100;HMB-45;MART-1

6244

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3123:What is the most sensitive stain that could be used to test for melanoma and is almost always positive

6245

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

S-100

6246

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3124:Large congenital nevi and dysplastic nevi may be precursor lesions for what type of cancer

6247

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melanoma

6248

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3125:Which clinical criteria are used to help diagnose melanomas

6249

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Aysmmetry;Border irregularity;Color variation;Diameter;ABCDs of melanoma

6250

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3126:What is the term for a lesion that is a precursor or marker to melanoma

6251

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dysplastic nevus

6252

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3127:How is dysplastic nevus syndrome inherited

6253

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal dominant inheritance

6254

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3128:What chromosome is dysplastic nevus syndrome located on

6255

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chromosome 1

6256

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3129:What are the peak ages for melanoma

6257

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

40-70 years of age

6258

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3130:What are risk factors for melanoma

6259

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sunburns;Chronic sun exposure;Fair skin;Dysplastic nevi

6260

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3131:What is the most common subtype of melanoma

6261

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Superficial spreading melanoma

6262

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3132:Which type of melanoma has the best prognosis

6263

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lentigo maligna melanoma

6264

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3133:Which type of melanoma has the worst prognosis

6265

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nodular melanoma

6266

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3134:What is the most common type of melanoma in darkskinned individuals

6267

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acral-lentiginous melanoma

6268

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3135:What is the most important prognostic parameter for melanoma

6269

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Depth (Breslows thickness)

6270

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3136:In what condition would you find cytoplasmic Birbeck granules through electron microscopy

6271

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Histiocytosis X (Langerhans cell histiocytosis)

6272

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3137:In histiocytosis X; proliferations of which cells is usually found in the epidermis

6273

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Langerhans cells (macrophages)

6274

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3138:What term describes full-thickness epithelia atypia with an intact basement membrane in a cancer biopsy

6275

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Carcinoma in situ

6276

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3139:A 40 year old male has rash of scaly red patches on his trunk; face; and extremities. A biopsy is taken and superficial dermal infiltrates of T-lymphocytes and a collection of atypical lymphocytes are seen within the epidermis. Diagnosis?

6277

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphomas)

6278

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3140:What is mycosis fungoides called where there is blood involvement

6279

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sezary syndrome

6280

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3141:Skin carcinogenesis is thought to be caused by the accumulation of mutations in which tumor suppressor gene

6281

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

p53

6282

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3142:What type of carcinoma microscopically resembles metastatic small cell carcinoma from the lung or certain lymphomas

6283

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Merkel cell carcinoma

6284

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3143:Which HPV serotypes cause condyloma acuminatum

6285

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HPV 6 and 11

6286

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3144:What are tan/brown plaques or papules that have a stuck on appearance and may be found anywhere on the body of adults; except the palms and soles

6287

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Seborrheic keratosis

6288

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3145:What is the most common type of collagen in a keloid

6289

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type III collagen

6290

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3146:What are the risk factors for keloid formation

6291

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

African-American race; <30 years of age; and increased skin tension in a wound

6292

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3147:Single or multiple bright red papules measuring a few millimeters in diameter that occur predominantly on the trunks and limbs of patients over 40 years are what type of lesions

6293

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Senile angiomas (cherry angiomas)

6294

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3148:A 59 year old male visits his family physician because of loss of appetite; weight loss; and fatigue. During the physical examination; the physician notes dark; rough-looking skin in the axilla region. What should the physician suspect

6295

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Internal cancer or an endocrine disorder

6296

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3149:What skin condition is described as dark; roughlooking or velvety skin in the axilla or on the back of the neck

6297

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acanthosis nigricans

6298

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3150:Which autosomal recessive disease is characterized by defective DNA repair and photosensitivity

6299

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Xeroderma pigmentosa

6300

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3151:Patients with xeroderma pigmentosa usually develop which skin lesions

6301

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Basal cell carcinoma;Squamous cell carcinoma;Actinic keratosis;Melanoma in childhood

6302

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3152:Exposure to UV light causes what type of dimmers in the skin

6303

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Thymine-thymine dimmers

6304

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3153:What are the multiple; light-brown; freckle-like lesions found in neurofibromatosis

6305

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Caf au lait spots

6306

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3154:Caf au lait spots usually grow along what structures

6307

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Peripheral nerves

6308

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3155:Hypopigmented macules or ash-leaf spots on the trunk or lower extremities are associated with what disease

6309

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tuberous sclerosis

6310

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3156:What is the tuberous sclerosis triad

6311

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mental retardation;Epilepsy;Multiple angiofibromas

6312

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3157:A unilateral port-wine stain of the forehead and upper eyelid is associated with what condition

6313

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sturge-Weber syndrome (encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis)

6314

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3158:Which nerve is associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome

6315

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve

6316

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3159:What condition has whitish-red nodules especially on digits and over joints; and is associated with uric acid accumulation

6317

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gout

6318

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3160:A 39 year old man comes to the physician because he has noted a bluish-black color on his ears; nose; and sclera. The patient also states that his urine is sometimes very dark. Diagnosis?

6319

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alkaptonuria

6320

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3161:How is alkaptonuria inherited

6321

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive inheritance

6322

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3162:What accounts for the discoloration of the skin and urine in alkaptonuria

6323

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Deposition of homogentisic acid

6324

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3163:Hemochromatosis has what manifestation in the skin

6325

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyperpigmented bronze skin

6326

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3164:Which connective tissue disorder is associated with hyperextensible fragile skin; loose joints; and a tendency toward easy bruising and bleeding

6327

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

6328

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3165:What is the cause of death for a patient with EhlersDanlos disease

6329

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Arterial or intestinal rupture

6330

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3166:What is the name of the group of autosomal recessive diseases of premature aging

6331

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Progeria

6332

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3167:Marfan syndrome is due to a defect in which gene

6333

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrillin-1 (FBN-1)

6334

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3168:On which chromosome is the defect for Marfan syndrome

6335

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

15q21

6336

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3169:What is the most common cause of death in a Marfan patient

6337

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ascending aortic dissection

6338

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3170:How is albinism generally inherited

6339

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive inheritance

6340

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3171:What is lacking in the epidermis of albino patients

6341

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melanin

6342

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3172:A 35 year old woman visits her physician because she recently noticed multiple small nodules on the back of her ankle. The patients vital signs are normal and she has no prior clinical illnesses. A blood test is taken that reveals Na 142; glucose 100; creatinine 1; BUN 17; cholesterol 310; triglycerides 412. What do the small nodules likely represent
6343

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Xanthomas

6344

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3173:What is the most likely cause of xanthomas

6345

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyperlipidemia

6346

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3174:A mother brings her 7 year old son to the physician because of two small masses on his right chest. The mother states that the child is adopted and does not know the childs family history. A 4 and 3 cm mass is palpated on his right pectoral; small tan lesions are seen on his back and right arm; and a small growth is seen on his iris. Diagnosis?
6347

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neurofibromatosis 1

6348

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3175:On what chromosome is NF type 1 found

6349

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chromosome 17

6350

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3176:What are other manifestations associated with NF type 1

6351

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Optic gliomas;Bone abnormalities;Freckling of the axillary or genital area

6352

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3177:What is the most common neurocutaneous disorder

6353

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neurofibromatosis

6354

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3178:What condition is associated with multiple neuromas on the eyelid; lips; distal tongue; and/or oral mucosa

6355

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN; Type 2b (III)

6356

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3179:Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita (EBA) is associated with which disease

6357

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Inflammatory bowel disease; especially Crohns disease

6358

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3180:What haplotype is frequently found in patients with EBA

6359

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HLA-DR2

6360

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3181:Which drugs cause erythema multiforme or target lesions

6361

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Aspirin;Penicillin;Sulfonamides;Phenytoin;Corticosteroids;Ci metidine;Allopurinol;Oral contraceptives

6362

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3182:Which drugs cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome

6363

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sulfa drugs;Carbamazepine;Phenytoin;Valproic acid;Phenobarbital;Quinolones;Cephalosporins;Allopurinol;C orticosteroids;Aminopenicillins

6364

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3183:Which drugs induce acne

6365

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lithium;Steroids;Androgens;Oral contraceptive pills

6366

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3184:Which marker is associated with a genetic susceptibility to fixed-drug reactions

6367

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HLA-B22

6368

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3185:A 16 year old male with a clinical history of acne visits his family physician because he has a red rash on his face and various exposed parts. During the exam; he states the rash occurred after he spent a couple of hours outside playing football. What medication is he most likely taking

6369

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tetracyclines

6370

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3186:A 75 year old female heart patient visits her dermatologist because her skin has begun to turn a light blue color. She is embarrassed to go in public because children say she looks like a smurf. What medication did her cardiologist most likely give her

6371

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Amiodarone

6372

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3187:What type of drug is Amiodarone

6373

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Class III antiarrhythmic

6374

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3188:What do you call a symmetrical; hyperpigmented lesion of the forehead and cheeks that occurs in women who are on oral contraceptives or pregnant

6375

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melasma

6376

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3189:What are some common drugs that are associated with hyperpigmentation

6377

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bleomycin; Minocycline; Miodarone; Chloroquine; Gold; Chlorpromazine; 5-Fluorouracil; Daunorubicin; Busulfan

6378

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3190:Which groups of patients have an increased risk of adverse drug reaction

6379

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Women;Patients with Sjogrens syndrome;AIDS patients

6380

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3191:Which drug causes red man syndrome usually during rapid IV infusion

6381

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vancomycin

6382

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3192:A 24 year old female presents to the dermatologist because of target-like lesions on her right arm. The patient states she is taking some type of antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. What drug class most likely caused the lesions

6383

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sulfonamides

6384

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3193:What is the most common cause of burns in children

6385

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scalds from hot liquids

6386

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3194:What is the most common cause of burns in adults

6387

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Accidents with flammable liquids

6388

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3195:Which kind of burn affects only the epidermis

6389

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

First-degree burn

6390

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3196:Which kind of burn usually blisters and affects the dermis and adnexal structures

6391

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Second-degree burn

6392

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3197:Which type of burn involves the entire thickness of the skin; including variable amount of underlying fat and causes loss of sensation in affected area

6393

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Third-degree burn

6394

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3198:The scar that follows a deep second and third degree burn is composed of what

6395

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyalinized collagen

6396

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3199:Sharply demarcated; silvery-white plaques on a patients elbows and knees are most likely what disorder

6397

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Psoriasis

6398

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3200:What conditions can trigger psoriasis

6399

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Trauma; Infection; Drugs

6400

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3201:Which major histocompatibility markers are associated with psoriasis

6401

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HLA-CW6;B13;B17;B27

6402

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3202:What disorder has scaly; thickened plaques that develop in response to persistent rubbing of pruritic sites

6403

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lichen simplex chronicus

6404

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3203:Which disease results from the deposition of collagen in skin that causes a hardened and thickened appearance and is associated with Raynauds phenomenon

6405

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scleroderma

6406

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3204:Which antibodies are associated with scleroderma

6407

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scl-70 (diffuse);Anticentromere antibodies (localized)

6408

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3205:What other conditions are associated with scleroderma

6409

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypertension;Gastrointestinal disease;Pulmonary fibrosis;Kidney disease

6410

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3206:Which type of collagen is defective in osteogenesis imperfecta

6411

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I collagen

6412

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3207:Which disease is associated with a rash on the face; particularly the malar areas

6413

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Systemic lupus erythematosus

6414

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3208:Atopic dermatitis is associated with what conditions

6415

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Asthma and allergic rhinitis

6416

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3209:Which test is often helpful in the evaluation of patients with chronic contact dermatitis

6417

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Patch test

6418

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3210:What is the most common presentation of contact dermatitis

6419

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hand eczema; most likely due to occupational exposure

6420

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3211:Contact dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

6421

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type IV-delayed hypersensitivity

6422

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3212:Eruptive forms of what condition may be associated with Reiter syndrome

6423

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Psoriasis

6424

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3213:Touch normal-appearing skin with a sliding motion and having the epidermis layer separated from the basal layer is what skin test

6425

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nikolskys sign

6426

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3214:Which HLA types are increased in frequency in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis

6427

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HLA-B8; DR3; DQW2

6428

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3215:Which rheumatologic disease is associated with a diffuse red rash of trunk; periungual telangiectasis; proximal weakness; myositis on muscle biopsy; and elevated CPK and aldolase

6429

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dermatomyositis

6430

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3216:Vitiligo is most commonly associated with what conditions

6431

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Thyroid disease;Pernicious anemia;Addisons disease;Diabetes mellitus type 1

6432

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3217:What are some clinical manifestations of type I hypersensitivity reactions

6433

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anaphylaxis;Urticaria;Exanthema;Angioedema

6434

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3218:Urticaria is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

6435

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgE-mediated; type I hypersensitivity reaction

6436

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3219:Autoantibodies to the intercellular junction of epidermal cells are found in which disease

6437

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pemphigus vulgaris

6438

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3220:Pemphigus vulgaris is associated with which antibody

6439

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgG

6440

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3221:What do the autoantibodies in pemphigus vulgaris target

6441

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Desmocollins and desmogleins (transmembrane desmosomal glycoproteins)

6442

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3222:Patients with pemphigus vulgaris have an increased incidence of which haplotypes

6443

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HLA-DR4; DRw6

6444

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3223:What do the autoantibodies in bullous pemphigoid target

6445

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BP1 and BP2 in basement membrane

6446

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3224:Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that rarely affects which part of the body in contrast to pemphigus vulgaris; which affects it frequently

6447

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Oral mucosa

6448

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3225:Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with what condition

6449

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gluten-sensitive enteropathy

6450

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3226:TB skin test; transplant rejection; and contact dermatitis are what type of hypersensitivity reaction

6451

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Delayed type hypersensitivity reaction; type IV

6452

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3227:What is the most likely vitamin deficiency that manifests as petechiae; echymoses; abnormal hair growth; bleeding gums; and poor wound healing

6453

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vitamin C (scurvy)

6454

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3228:A 45 year old patient presents with intense hyperpigmentation; areas of epithelial desquamation; diarrhea; and confusion. What is the most likely deficient vitamin

6455

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Niacin (nicotinic acid)

6456

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3229:Which vitamin deficiencies have cutaneous manifestations

6457

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vitamin C;Vitamin A;Nicotinic acid;Riboflavin;Pyridoxine

6458

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3230:What are some skin manifestations of kwashiorkor

6459

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dry skin;Patches of hypopigmentation;Skin peeling;Peripheral edema;Thin hair shafts

6460

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3231:What condition would cause an increase in skin glycogen and acid -glucosidase in cultured fibroblasts

6461

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pompes disease (type II)

6462

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3232:A 3 year old male presents to the physician with a photosensitive rash; cerebellar ataxia; mental disturbances; and aminoaciduria. Niacin levels are within normal range. What is the most likely diagnosis

6463

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hartnup disease

6464

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3233:How is Hartnup disease inherited

6465

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive inheritance

6466

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3234:What are the cutaneous manifestations in Whipples disease

6467

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyperpigmentation of scars and sun-exposed skin

6468

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3235:A 32 year old woman visits her family physician because of rapid weight gain; profuse sweating; sudden abnormal hair growth; and easy bruising. Upon physical examination; the physician notes purplish striae on the abdomen; telangiectasia; thin skin; and an increase of fatty tissue on her back at the level of C6. What is the most likely diagnosis
6469

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cushings syndrome

6470

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3236:Which test is used to diagnose Cushings disease

6471

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dexamethasone suppression test and 24 hour urinary measurement for cortisol

6472

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3237:What is the most common cause of Cushings syndrome

6473

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Iatrogenic

6474

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3238:What hormone is increased in Cushings syndrome

6475

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cortisol

6476

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3239:Patients with carcinoid syndrome may have which skin manifestation

6477

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Episodes of flushing of the head; neck; and sometimes trunk

6478

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3240:What are the metabolic causes of hyperpigmentation

6479

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Porphyria cutanea tarda;Hemochromatosis;Vitamin B12 deficiency;Folic acid deficiency;Pellagra;Mallabsorption;Whipples disease

6480

Q3241:A 56-year-old man experienced chest pain and was admitted to the hospital suffering from an acute myocardial infarction. Five days later; he developed ventricular tachycardia; which progressed to ventricular fibrillation; and could not be resuscitated. The microscopic section shows an area of myocardium between an established infarct and normal myocardium. The myocytes in the figure show ;A. cell injury with undetermined ultimate fate ;B. early coagulation necrosis ;C. early liquefaction necrosis ;D. irreversible injury and will die within hours
6481

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (cell injury with undetermined ultimate fate) is correct. The cells show vacuolation due to loss of the ability to synthesize ATP via aerobic respiration. This; in turn; shuts down the Na+-K+ pump of the cell membrane. Sodium is no longer excluded from the cytosol; and water follows it into the cell; causing swelling and vacuolation. This is a reversible process.
6482

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3242:. A 31-year-old woman has a mass on the right side of the neck lateral to the larynx. The mass is determined to be a well-differentiated tumor containing psammoma bodies. The tumor is most likely classified as a;A. follicular adenoma ;B. follicular carcinoma ;C. papillary adenoma ;D. papillary carcinoma
6483

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (papillary carcinoma) is correct. The presence of psammoma bodies is virtually diagnostic of papillary carcinoma; because these bodies are rarely seen in other thyroid neoplasms. Papillary carcinoma occurs most frequently in women between the ages of 20 and 50 years. Papillary carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer and spreads via the lymphatic system. This type of thyroid cancer is more common in patients with a history of radiation exposure.
6484

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3243:A total thyroidectomy is performed on a 42-year-old woman with a thyroid mass that appears to be encapsulated. There is evidence of both recent and past hemorrhage and numerous small; follicle-like structures composed of very uniform-appearing cells. Which of the following distinguishing features would suggest that this tumor is malignant?;A. Absence of papillary growth ;B. Absence of psammoma bodies ;C. Extension through the capsule ;D. Microfollicular pattern ;E. Presence of hemorrhage
6485

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (extension through the capsule) is correct. Invasion through the capsule of the tumor is one of the core characteristics used to determine if a follicular neoplasm of the thyroid is benign or malignant. Another characteristic is invasion of the tumor into the vasculature.

6486

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3244:A 61-year-old man with chronic renal failure is being considered for a renal transplant. His serum calcium level is 7.6 mg/dL. Which of the following findings is most likely to be typical in this patient?;A. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia ;B. Enlargement of all four parathyroid glands ;C. Functional parathyroid adenoma ;D. Hyperplasia of the adenohypophysis ;E. Hyperplasia of the thyroid follicular cells
6487

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (enlargement of all four parathyroid glands) is correct. The patient has secondary hyperparathyroidism associated with chronic renal failure. In such cases; the hypocalcemia caused by renal retention of phosphate leads to compensatory hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands. Typically; all four parathyroid glands are enlarged.
6488

Q3245:Two months ago; a 19-year-old man was brought to Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts the emergency department following an automobile accident in which he sustained severe lacerations and a ruptured spleen. He immediately received four units of packed red blood cells. He now has developed mild jaundice. Except for vague symptoms of fatigue; he is generally asymptomatic. Both his ALT (alanine aminotransferase) and AST (aspartate aminotransferase) are 40 U/L. His alkaline phosphatase is within normal limits. Which of the following types of hepatitis is most likely to have caused this infection?;A. Hepatitis A (HAV) ;B. Hepatitis B (HBV) ;C. Hepatitis C 6489 (HCV) ;D. Hepatitis D (HDV) ;E. Hepatitis E (HEV)

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (hepatitis C) is correct. HCV has become the major cause of transfusion-related hepatitis since adequate screening methods for HBV have been developed. HCV was previously referred to as non-A; non-B hepatitis or chronic active hepatitis.

6490

Cell Q3246:For the pastBiology andweeks; aFlash Facts several Pathology 39-year-old woman has experienced fatigue; weakness; poor appetite; and weight loss. Physical examination shows hyperpigmentation of the skin and dark patches on the mucous membranes. Laboratory studies show her serum sodium level is 125 mEq/dL; and her serum potassium level is 6.0 mEq/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?;A. Atrophic adrenals with dense lymphocytic infiltrate ;B. Carcinoid tumor of the vermiform appendix ;C. Functional follicular adenoma of the thyroid ;D. Granulosa cell tumor of the right ovary ;E. Hyperplasia of all 6491 four parathyroid glands

Option A (atrophic adrenals with dense lymphocytic infiltrate) is correct. This patient has Addison's disease; as suggested by the fatigue; weakness; poor appetite; and weight loss. Other characteristics include hyperpigmentation of the skin and dark patches on the mucous membranes. In developed countries; the most common cause of Addison's disease is autoimmune destruction of the adrenals; suggested by lymphoid infiltrates in the adrenal glands plus circulating antiadrenal antibodies. In developing countries; tuberculosis would also be a major cause.
6492

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3247:For the past 6 months; an 18-year-old woman has had diarrhea; a fever; and cramping and left lower quadrant pain. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows mucosal ulceration in the sigmoid colon. A biopsy shows transmural inflammation with occasional granulomas. Which of the following would differentiate Crohn's disease from ulcerative colitis?;A. History of fever ;B. History of prolonged diarrhea ;C. Involvement limited to the colon ;D. Presence of gross mucosal ulcerations ;E. Presence of transmural inflammation with granular formation
6493

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option E (presence of transmural inflammation with granular formation) is correct. Ulcerative colitis is essentially a disease of the mucosa; whereas Crohn's disease involves all layers of the bowel wall. A biopsy shows that this patient has transmural inflammation with occasional granulomas.

6494

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3248:A 56-year-old man with a history of gastric ulceration and Helicobacter pylori infection has a lesion involving the stomach wall. A biopsy shows that the lesion is a mucosaassociated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma. Which of the following is the most likely source of this tumor?;A. B cells ;B. Histiocytes ;C. Natural killer (NK) cells ;D. T cells
6495

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (B cells) is correct. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphomas are low-grade B-cell lymphomas. Gastric MALT lymphoma has a strong association with H. pylori infection.

6496

Q3249:. A 18-year-old woman with mildly icteric sclerae has a total bilirubin of 5.5 mg/dL and a direct bilirubin of 0.4 mg/dL. She has no associated symptoms; and no history of exposure to hepatotoxins; blood products; or persons with known hepatitis. A brother is unaffected; but an uncle has a similar condition. This patient most likely has which of the following congenital hyperbilirubinemias? ;A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome; type I ;B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome; type II ;C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome ;D. Gilbert syndrome ;E. Rotor's syndrome
6497

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (Gilbert syndrome) is correct. Patients with this mild; inherited form of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia are healthy and have no functional or structural evidence of liver disease; except for an increase in unconjugated bilirubin.

6498

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3250:A 51-year-old man with an 8-year history of cirrhosis has a mass lesion in the left lobe of the liver. A needle biopsy determines the lesion is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). In the United States; development of HCC is most commonly associated with which of the following?;A. Alcoholism ;B. Exposure to aflatoxin ;C. Hepatitis C (HCV) infection ;D. Microvesicular steatosis ;E. Neonatal hepatitis
6499

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (hepatitis C infection) is correct. HCV infection is most commonly associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. There is a marked reduction of cases of hepatitis B (HBV) in the United States due to the screening of blood used for transfusions.

6500

Q3251:A 12-year-old girl has metabolic acidosis and severe ketosis. Her blood glucose level is 460 mg/dL. Serologic studies for antibodies against b cells show a high titer of anti b cell antibodies. Which of the following is most significant concerning the finding of a high titer of these antibodies?;A. Are a serum marker for the destruction of b cells ;B. Are an indication of the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus ;C. Have caused the destruction of the b cells in the pancreatic islets;D. Form a complex with insulin that causes hyperglycemia
6501

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (are a serum marker for the destruction of b cells) is correct. It is currently thought that anti b cell antibodies arise from antigens released into the blood by the destruction of b cells; probably by cytotoxic T cells. Thus; they are a marker; not a cause; of b cell injury.

6502

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3252:A 62-year-old woman with bilateral palpable masses in her abdomen has a creatinine level of 3.7 mg/dL and her blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 32 mg/dL. During the past year; she has had hematuria with occasional small blood clots in her urine. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?;A. Medullary sponge kidney ;B. Nephronophthisis ;C. Polycystic kidney disease; autosomal dominant ;D. Polycystic kidney disease; autosomal recessive ;E. Renal dysplasia
6503

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (polycystic kidney disease; autosomal dominant) is correct. This clinical scenario of bilateral palpable abdominal masses and marked increase in creatine and BUN represents a fairly classic presentation of autosomal dominant (adult) polycystic disease.

6504

Q3253:A 24-year-old woman has painful urination with frequency and urgency. A physical examination shows an increase in heart rate and a temperature of 39.2\\'b0C (102.5\\'b0F). She appears ill and somewhat diaphoretic. A urine specimen is grossly red; and red blood cells (RBCs) are seen on microscopic examination. A urinalysis shows bacteria; polymorphonuclear leukocytes; and leukocyte casts. A nitrite test on a urine dipstick is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?;A. Acute pyelonephritis ;B. Acute tubular necrosis ;C. Cystitis ;D. Nephrotic syndrome
6505

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (acute pyelonephritis) is correct. Leukocyte casts are formed only in the kidneys; and the presence of these casts is ample evidence of an infection of the renal parenchyma; characteristic of acute pyelonephritis.

6506

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3254:A urinalysis of an asymptomatic 59-year-old man shows microscopic hematuria and mild prostatic hypertrophy. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a large mass in the left kidney. A needle biopsy confirms a diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma; clear-cell type. Radical nephrectomy indicates that the tumor appears to have invaded the man's left renal vein. If the tumor has metastasized; the most likely site of metastasis is;A. adrenal glands ;B. bones ;C. liver ;D. lungs ;E. regional lymph nodes
6507

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (lungs) is correct. Renal cell carcinoma is angioinvasive and tends to disseminate via the vascular system early in its history. If metastases occur; the lungs are involved in more than 50% of cases.

6508

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3255:A 16-year-old girl whose mother was given diethylstilbestrol (DES) during her pregnancy because of threatened abortion wants to be evaluated in anticipation of problems associated with her mother's medical history. Which of the following conditions would represent a risk as a result of maternal use of DES?;A. Adenocarcinoma of the Bartholin's glands ;B. Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium ;C. Adenocarcinoma of the vagina ;D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix ;E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva
6509

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (adenocarcinoma of the vagina) is correct. A small percentage of female children born to women treated with DES (< 0.14%) eventually develop adenocarcinoma of the vagina. The tumor is usually detected between 15 and 20 years of age. The tumor cells contain abundant glycogen producing a so-called clear-cell carcinoma.
6510

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3256:A 30-year-old woman fears that she will develop ovarian cancer because of her family history and is tested for the BRCA1 gene. This gene has a strong association with which of the following ovarian neoplasms?;A. Dysgerminoma ;B. Mixed M\\'fcllerian tumor ;C. Serous cystadenocarcinoma ;D. Yolk sac tumor
6511

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (serous cystadenocarcinoma) is correct. In women who are positive for the BRCA1 gene; the vast majority of ovarian tumors are serous cystadenocarcinomas. A woman who has a family history of ovarian cancer would be at risk for carrying the BRCA1 gene.

6512

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3257:A 50-year-old woman with an infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast has a lumpectomy; followed by adjuvant radiation and chemotherapy. Tissue is sent to the laboratory to determine if any prognostic factors might be present in this woman. Which of the following findings would be associated with an extremely poor prognosis for this patient?;A. Estrogen receptors ;B. HER-2 neu amplification ;C. Mutated p53 oncoprotein ;D. Progesterone receptors
6513

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (HER-2 neu amplification) is correct. Tumors with oncogene amplification (HER-2 neu) tend to have a less favorable prognosis than those without this factor.

6514

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3258:A 55-year-old slightly obese woman has had several bouts of intense right upper quadrant pain and now has scleral icterus. A cholecystectomy shows numerous spongy; laminated brown stones in the gallbladder. Brown gallstones are almost always associated with which of the following conditions?;A. Alcoholic cirrhosis ;B. Escherichia coli infection of the gallbladder ;C. History of mild b-thalassemia ;D. Hypercholesterolemia
6515

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (Escherichia coli infection of the gallbladder) is correct. Brown gallstones are almost always associated with E. coli cholecystitis. Bacteria may secrete b-glucuronidase; which hydrolyzes conjugated bilirubin to unconjugated bilirubin. The increase in concentration of unconjugated bilirubin is believed to produce the stones.
6516

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3259:An endometrial biopsy of a 47-year-old woman with a history of irregular vaginal bleeding shows a welldifferentiated adenocarcinoma of the endometrium. A hysterectomy confirms tumor involvement of the corpus of the uterus and the cervix. Which of the following is a known risk factor for the development of endometrial carcinoma?;A. History of anovulatory menstrual cycles ;B. History of cervical human papillomavirus (HPV) infection ;C. Multiple pregnancies ;D. Thin body habitus
6517

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (history of anovulatory menstrual cycles) is correct. A history of irregular vaginal bleeding corroborates anovulatory menstrual cycles and is strongly associated with the development of endometrial cancer; probably because of prolonged estrogen stimulation.

6518

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3260:A 40-year-old woman has enlarged lymph nodes in the axillae; groin; and cervical triangles. Biopsy of an axillary node shows complete effacement of the architecture of the nodes by nodular aggregates of lymphoma cells. Which of the following is the cell line of origin of this type of lymphoma?;A. B cell ;B. CD4+ T cell ;C. CD8+ T cell ;D. Histiocyte ;E. Natural killer (NK) cell
6519

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (B cell) is correct. The woman has follicular (nodular) lymphoma; a non-Hodgkin's (NHL) lymphoma that expresses B cell cluster of differentiation (CD) markers. All follicular (nodular) lymphomas are of B cell lineage.

6520

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3261:A 64-year-old woman with a saccular aneurysm of the ascending aorta has ataxia and loss of joint position sense. She confabulates when the physician attempts to obtain a history. Which of the following organisms is capable of producing this constellation of findings?;A. Chlamydia trachomatis ;B. Haemophilus ducreyi ;C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae ;D. Treponema pallidum ;E. Trichomonas vaginalis
6521

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (Treponema pallidum) is correct. An aortic aneurysm with ataxia and impaired proprioception are characteristic of the tertiary stage of syphilis. The primary stage involves a painless genital ulcer and regional lymphadenopathy; and the secondary stage involves skin and mucosal lesions as well as possible meningeal; hepatic; renal; bone; and joint invasion.
6522

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3262:When asked to speak to a women's group about risk factors for the development of breast cancer; the physician should tell the group that the histopathologic finding that carries the strongest risk factor for developing breast cancer is;A. apocrine metaplasia ;B. atypical lobular hyperplasia ;C. epithelial hyperplasia ;D. sclerosing adenosis
6523

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (atypical lobular hyperplasia) is correct. Atypical lobular hyperplasia is a moderate risk factor for the development of breast cancer.

6524

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3263:A 51-year-old man has adenocarcinoma of the lesser curvature. Which of the following is the most important prognostic factor when evaluating a patient with this type of tumor?;A. Degree of differentiation ;B. Depth of invasion ;C. Gross growth pattern ;D. Histologic subtype of the carcinoma ;E. Presence of Helicobacter pylori
6525

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (depth of invasion) is correct. The morphologic feature with the greatest effect on clinical outcome in adenocarcinoma of the lesser curvature is depth of tissue invasion. Patients with carcinoma in the early stages (limited to the mucosa and submucosa) have a far better prognosis (90% survival with surgery) than patients with advanced carcinoma (<10% survival with surgery).
6526

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3264:Individuals taking phenobarbital may be more susceptible to free radical injury by toxins such as carbon tetrachloride (CCl4). Phenobarbital induces which of the following subcellular changes? ;A. Additional receptor sites for CCl4 on the cell membrane of the hepatocytes;B. Atrophy of the Golgi zone within the hepatocytes ;C. Atrophy of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) within the;hepatocytes ;D. Increased formation of G proteins within the hepatocytes ;E. Marked hypertrophy of the SER within the hepatocytes
6527

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option E (marked hypertrophy of the SER within the hepatocytes) is correct. Phenobarbital induces hypertrophy of the SER and hence a marked increase in cytochrome p450 activity. The conversion of CCl4 into the toxic free radical CCl3 by the cytochrome p450 system causes the injury.

6528

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3265:A 67-year-old retired airline pilot slipped on the ice; striking his head on the sidewalk. His history is unremarkable. A CT scan of the head shows no sign of hematoma; but does show atrophy of the cerebral hemispheres. The atrophy is most likely due to;A. decreased daily workload ;B. diminished blood supply ;C. inadequate nutrition ;D. loss of endocrine stimulation ;E. loss of innervation
6529

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (diminished blood supply) is correct. Atherosclerosis leads to reduced blood flow to the brain and is thought to be the major culprit in the etiology of cerebral atrophy in the elderly.

6530

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3266:A 50-year-old man who has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years has squamous metaplasia of the respiratory epithelium. His physician tells him that smoking is a major cause of metaplasia; but there are other causes for this change. Which of the following may also cause squamous metaplasia of bronchial mucosa?;A. Deficiency of folate ;B. Deficiency of vitamin A ;C. Excess vitaminB2 ;D. Excess vitamin C ;E. Excess vitamin D
6531

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (deficiency of vitamin A) is correct. Vitamin A and retinoids are necessary in maintaining the differentiation of epithelial cells. Deficiency of vitamin A causes squamous metaplasia of the respiratory tract epithelium as well as impaired vision; night blindness; and xerophthalmia.

6532

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3267:When an acute inflammatory reaction develops in response to an injurious stimulus; endothelial cells and macrophages produce nitric oxide (NO). During acute inflammation; NO functions to ;A. cause pain ;B. induce smooth muscle contraction ;C. opsonize bacteria ;D. produce fever ;E. promote vasodilation
6533

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option E (promote vasodilation) is correct. NO is produced by nitric oxide synthase and is somewhat cytotoxic. NO causes the relaxation of vascular smooth muscle; leading to vasodilation.

6534

Q3268:A 61-year-old woman with a lengthy history of hypertension dies of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). At autopsy; the heart shows gross hypertrophy of the left ventricle. The adaptive mechanism responsible for the increase in the mass of the ventricle is most likely;A. fusion of individual muscle fibers into larger; stronger units ;B. increased cycling of cells out of G 0 ;1 phase ;C. increased individual cell size; with no mitotic activity ;D. increased mitotic rate and the production of more cells ;E. primarily an increase in individual cell size; with normal mitotic activity
6535

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (increased individual cell size; with no mitotic activity) is correct. The increase in cardiac and skeletal mass is due to an increase in the size of individual muscle fibers. These cells are not capable of significant mitotic activity.

6536

Q3269:Several weeks after sustaining a gunshot wound; the bullet is surgically removed from the shoulder of a 20-year-old man. Histologically; the lesion resembles a chronic inflammatory infiltrate; with numerous macrophages surrounding the bullet. In the chronic inflammatory response; macrophages are especially important because they are;A. capable of local proliferation ;B. easily recruited from the circulation ;C. involved in the production of numerous biologically active substances ;D. permanently localized to the site of inflammation
6537

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (involved in the production of numerous biologically active substances) is correct. Macrophages produce an abundance of biologically active substances (e.g; toxic free radicals; proteases; cytokines; growth factors; and angiogenesis factor); and all are involved in chronic inflammation.
6538

Q3270:A 30-year-old black woman who resides in North Carolina develops increasing shortness of breath. A physical examination shows lymphadenopathy in the axillae and groin. X-ray film of the chest shows a marked degree of hilar lymph node enlargement. A biopsy of an enlarged axillary lymph node shows numerous noncaseating granulomas. No organisms are identifiable; and acid-fast stains are negative. These findings are most likely caused by which of the following?;A. Coccidioidomycosis ;B. Cryptococcosis ;C. Histoplasmosis ;D. Sarcoidosis ;E. Tuberculosis
6539

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (sarcoidosis) is correct. Sarcoidosis typically produces noncaseating ("hard") granulomas; rather than lesions characterized by central caseous necrosis. In addition; multisystem involvement; including skin; lungs; lymph nodes; liver; spleen; eyes; and the small bones of the hand and feet; is typical. Sarcoidosis occurs mainly in individuals between the ages of 20 and 40 years; risk is higher in the black population.
6540

Q3271:A 63-year-old man has a history of congestive heart failure due to severe arteriosclerosis of the coronary arteries. He now has pitting edema of the ankles that extends about halfway up the lower part of his legs. The edema in this patient is most likely caused by which of the following mechanisms?;A. Decreased oncotic pressure in the vascular compartment ;B. Impaired lymphatic drainage of the legs ;C. Increased hydrostatic pressure in the vascular compartment ;D. Increased oncotic pressure in the extracellular compartment ;E. Increased vascular permeability
6541

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (increased hydrostatic pressure in the vascular compartment) is correct. In this patient; the increased pressure is the main cause of dependent edema. The failing right side of the heart (right atrium and ventricle) has led to an increase in intravascular hydrostatic pressure; which eventually causes a net movement of fluid from the vascular space to the extravascular space.
6542

Q3272:An 18-year-old man scheduled to undergo surgery to repair a hernia has a history of easy bruising and a tendency to bleed for an abnormally long time after an injury. Laboratory studies show prolonged bleeding time; normal prothrombin time; and slightly prolonged partial thromboplastin time. Which of the following is the most specific laboratory test that would confirm the suspected diagnosis of von Willebrand's disease?;A. Clot retraction test ;B. Factor VIII assay ;C. Ristocetin aggregation test ;D. Thrombin time
6543

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (ristocetin aggregation test) is correct. Ristocetin binds to platelets; activating von Willebrand's factor (vWF) receptors on the surface. If vWF is present; it forms a bridge between receptors on different platelets; causing platelet aggregation.

6544

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3273:A 40-year-old man who was involved in an automobile accident is being treated for a fracture of the pelvis. The man is at increased risk of developing pulmonary emboli because of relative stasis of venous flow in his legs. Which of the following most accurately describes these emboli?;A. Most are clinically silent ;B. They are rare ;C. They commonly cause chronic pulmonary hypertension ;D. They typically cause pulmonary infarction ;E. They usually cause immediate death
6545

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (most are clinically silent) is correct. The majority of pulmonary emboli (60\\'9680%) are small; thus; they are clinically silent. Autopsy series are the source of most of the data; and the frequency of finding emboli tends to be related to the diligence of the pathologist.

6546

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3274:A 54-year-old woman with severe right upper quadrant pain; fever; and jaundice is in shock when brought to the emergency department. A blood culture grows Escherichia coli. The presumptive diagnosis is acute cholecystitis. The most likely cause of shock is ;A. anaphylactic reaction ;B. cardiogenic shock ;C. endotoxemia ;D. hemorrhage ;E. neurogenic shock
6547

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (endotoxemia) is correct. Endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide); a component of the cell walls of gramnegative bacteria; binds to CD14 receptors. It causes a cascade of events that result in shock; metabolic failure; disseminated intravascular coagulopathy; and eventually multiple organ failure.
6548

Q3275:A 46-year-old woman delivers a newborn with the physical features associated with Down's syndrome (trisomy 21). A FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization) assay shows the presence of three number 21 chromosomes. The most common mechanism causing trisomy 21 is;A. failure of lyonization ;B. formation of a ring chromosome ;C. meiotic nondisjunction of chromosome 21 in the ovum ;D. mitotic nondisjunction of chromosome 21 early in embryogenesis ;E. robertsonian translocation of the long arm of chromosome 21 to an acrocentric chromosome
6549

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (meiotic nondisjunction of chromosome 21 in the ovum) is correct. Down's syndrome typically affects children born of women over 35 years of age; and is of maternal origin but of undetermined etiology. The most common mechanism of trisomy 21 (>90% of cases) involves the meiotic nondisjunction of chromosome 21.
6550

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3276:A 27-year-old man is a diagnosed with a diffuse large cell lymphoma. Genetic analysis of DNA from the lymphoma cells shows rearrangement of the immunoglobulin genes. Which of the following is the most likely origin of this lymphoma? ;A. B-cell lymphoma ;B. Histiocytic lymphoma ;C. Natural killer (NK) cell lymphoma ;D. T-cell lymphoma
6551

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (B-cell lymphoma) is correct. Somatic rearrangement of the immunoglobulin genes marks this lesion as a lymphoma of B cell origin. Lymphoma is a monoclonal lesion; so all of the tumor cells exhibit identical patterns of immunoglobulin gene rearrangement.

6552

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3277:A 32-year-old woman has a family history of a high incidence of neoplasia involving multiple organ systems. She undergoes genetic screening for several tumor suppressor genes and oncogenes and is found to have Li-Fraumeni syndrome. The genetic defect associated with this syndrome is loss of one allele of which of the following genes?;A. bcl-2 ;B. NF-1 ;C. P53 ;D. RB ;E. WT1
6553

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (P53) is correct. Loss of one of the alleles of the P53 gene is the basis of the Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Patients with this syndrome have an increase in the development of malignant neoplasms arising in various anatomic locations. P53; a tumor suppressor gene that also has oncogene-like properties when mutated; produces an abnormal gene product that is not degraded with normal speed. Patients with a mutated or missing P53 gene have an increased risk of developing malignancies in various tissues.
6554

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3278:The mechanism thought to be responsible for the increasingly aggressive behavior of malignant tumors is that they;A. are genetically labile ;B. cause the production of tumor necrosis factor-a (TNF-a) ;C. induce angiogenesis ;D. produce paraneoplastic syndromes

6555

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (are genetically labile) is correct. Malignant tumors are constantly mutating and forming new clones. Many of the clones die; but some will have a selective advantage with regard to growth; invasion; or metastasis.

6556

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3279:A 32-year-old man has had vague abdominal discomfort; bloating; and diarrhea since returning from a camping trip 2 weeks ago where he routinely drank mountain stream water. Stool smears show triangular-shaped organisms containing two nuclei. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the diarrhea?;A. Balantidium coli ;B. Entamoeba histolytica ;C. Giardia lamblia ;D. Vibrio cholerae
6557

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (Giardia lamblia) is correct. G. lamblia is the most prevalent pathogenic intestinal protozoan. It attaches to the mucosa rather than invading it; thus; it tends to cause irregular (intermittent) watery diarrhea rather than dysentery. In some patients; it causes constipation; in others; it causes steatorrhea. Symptoms of giardiasis generally occur 1\\'963 weeks after infection.
6558

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3280:A 50-year-old woman who has been taking estrogen daily; without interruption; for a long period of time is at significant risk for the development of ;A. endometrial adenocarcinoma ;B. endometrial atrophy ;C. enlarged corpora lutea ;D. ovarian teratoma

6559

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (endometrial carcinoma) is correct. The risk for development of endometrial adenocarcinoma is about 1.7\\'962.0 times the normal rate in patients who take unopposed estrogen on a continuous basis; without interruption.

6560

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3281:A 17-year-old girl with Hodgkin's disease was treated successfully with aggressive chemotherapy; and the disease has been in remission for 2 years. She is now at increased risk for the development of a second malignant tumor. Which of the following changes is most likely caused by antineoplastic agents?;A. Depression of immune surveillance ;B. Depression of the mononuclear phagocyte system ;C. Induction of nonlethal mutations ;D. Induction of telomerase ;E. Promotion of tumor angiogenesis
6561

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (induction of nonlethal mutations) is correct. Most antineoplastic agents act on dividing cells at some specific point in the cell cycle. In damaging the reproductive function of the cell; accumulating nonlethal mutations may occur; which may result in the formation of a second neoplasm.

6562

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3282:An 18-year-old college student who was seen drinking heavily at a party is found in his room completely unresponsive. When he is admitted to the emergency department; his blood alcohol level is 325 mg/dL. In a nonhabituated drinker; this level of blood alcohol is associated with;A. coma and respiratory collapse ;B. congestive cardiomyopathy ;C. development of acute yellow atrophy of the liver ;D. Korsakoff's syndrome ;E. Wernicke's encephalopathy
6563

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (coma and respiratory collapse) is correct. Alcohol acts as a central nervous system (CNS) depressant via mechanisms that are still unclear; but possibly by action on GABA receptors. At alcohol levels of 300\\'96400 mg/dL; coma and respiratory collapse are likely. Individuals who chronically abuse the substance will tolerate higher levels.
6564

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3283:A 47-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being exposed to an unknown dose of radiation due to malfunction of the industrial radiographic unit he operates. His coworkers think he may have received whole-body radiation exposure. Which of the following would be most sensitive to radiation exposure?;A. Bladder epithelium ;B. Cartilage ;C. Hair follicles ;D. Kidney ;E. Lymphoid tissue
6565

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option E (lymphoid tissue) is correct. Lymphoid tissue; hematopoietic tissue; spermatogonia; and ovarian follicles are all highly sensitive to radiation.

6566

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3284:A 24-year-old man has a history of fever; weight loss; hypertension; and abdominal pain. Stool and urinalysis are positive for the presence of blood. Several nodular skin lesions are found. A biopsy shows necrotizing arteritis involving medium-sized muscular arteries. This constellation of findings is most suggestive of;A. Kawasaki disease ;B. polyarteritis nodosa ;C. syphilis ;D. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) ;E. Takayasu's arteritis
6567

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (polyarteritis nodosa) is correct. Necrotizing inflammation of affected arteries is characteristic of polyarteritis nodosa; a disease that typically involves medium-sized muscular arteries. This disease may involve fever and weight loss; and hypertension is common. Gastrointestinal lesions are the source of the abdominal pain. The disease may affect individuals of any age.
6568

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3285:A 52-year-old man complains of general malaise. Physical examination shows an enlarged liver; and an MRI shows a mass in the left lobe of the liver. A liver biopsy confirms the mass as an angiosarcoma. The patient most likely has been exposed to which of the following toxins?;A. Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) ;B. b-naphthylamine ;C. Nickel carbonyl ;D. Organophosphates ;E. Polyvinyl chloride
6569

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option E (polyvinyl chloride) is correct. Polyvinyl chloride; a known carcinogen; is associated with the development of hepatic angiosarcoma.

6570

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Q3286:A 48-year-old man comes toFacts emergency the department because of severe chest pain. He is 5 ft 8 in tall and weighs about 90 kg (200 lb). He describes the pain as sudden in onset; producing a sensation of "tearing." Nitroglycerin spray provides no relief. An ECG shows no changes suggestive of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Angiography shows a dissecting aneurysm of the aorta. The most likely antecedent condition associated with development of a dissecting aneurysm is;A. hypertension ;B. Marfan's syndrome ;C. severe atherosclerosis ;D. syphilis ;E. systemic 6571 lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (hypertension) is correct. Over 90% of patients who develop a dissecting aneurysm; and who have neither Marfan's syndrome nor a localized connective tissue disorder; are hypertensive.

6572

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3287:A 29-year-old woman has a soft midsystolic click on auscultation of the heart. Ultrasound examination shows a mitral valve prolapse. The most likely eventual outcome of this condition is ;A. embolism by platelet aggregates ;B. mitral valve incompetence ;C. mitral valve stenosis ;D. normal life

6573

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (normal life) is correct. A mitral value prolapse generally is benign. About 97% of female patients with the condition experience no significant untoward effects.

6574

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3288:As a result of the decreased incidence of patients with chronic rheumatic fever; consequent damage to the cardiac valves has diminished. The most common antecedent condition leading to infectious myocarditis presently is;A. congenital heart disease;B. endocardial trauma;C. hypercoagulable state;D. leukemia;E. mucin-producing adenocarcinoma
6575

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A(congenital heart disease) is correct. Rheumatic heart disease was once considered the most common condition that could lead to infectious endocarditis. Presently; congenital lesions; particularly those that produce a "jet" effect such as a small ventricular septal defect; are more common and are a risk factor for infective endocarditis.
6576

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3289:A 63-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and an increasing exercise limitation is admitted to the hospital with severe influenza pneumonitis. She subsequently develops adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and dies 4 days after admission. Autopsy shows the heart encased in a 1-cm dense collagenous scar. Which of the following is the most likely cause of constrictive pericarditis?;A. Cryptococcosis ;B. Histoplasmosis ;C. Idiopathic ;D. Oat cell carcinoma ;E. Tuberculosis
6577

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (idiopathic) is correct. A well-defined history of a previous suppurative; hemorrhagic; or caseous pericarditis is often absent in the patient who dies of constrictive pericarditis.

6578

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3290:A 72-year-old woman complains of feeling weak. Laboratory studies show a hematocrit of 18%; macrocytosis; hypersegmentation of neutrophils; and occasional giant platelets. Her lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is 2950 U/L; and her serum vitamin B12 is 27 pg/mL. Which of the following conditions most likely caused the increase in LDH? ;A. Cardiomyopathy ;B. Hypersplenism ;C. Ineffective erythropoiesis ;D. Intravascular hemolysis ;E. Liver failure
6579

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (ineffective erythropoiesis) is correct. Patients with vitamin B12 deficiency have hyperplasia of the red blood cell (RBC) elements in the bone marrow; but the developing RBCs are destroyed in the marrow before they can be released into the circulation. When RBCs are destroyed; they release their large quantity of LDH into the plasma.
6580

Q3291:A 22-year-old medical student volunteers for a hematology research project and is found to be lacking one of four a-globin genes. Previously; he had several hematologic studies that were within normal limits. The significance of this unexpected finding suggests that the student;A. has a moderate degree of erythroid hyperplasia in bone marrow ;B. has an abnormal hemoglobin concentration ;C. has numerous target cells in the peripheral blood ;D. is an asymptomatic carrier of a-thalassemia ;E. may develop severe hemolytic anemia if exposed to oxidant drugs
6581

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (is an asymptomatic carrier of a-thalassemia) is correct. Deletion of one of the four a-globin genes produces a silent carrier state; and no hematologic abnormalities are evident. One of the chromosome 16 genes carries this deficiency. If such an individual has offspring with another carrier; the children could have the a-thalassemia trait. There are four functional a-globin genes; thus; there are four possible degrees of a-thalassemia (based on the loss or one to four genes). This individual has the mildest form; the most severe form is associated with fetal death in utero.
6582

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3292:A 36-year-old man has generalized lymphadenopathy. A histologic examination of a lymph node shows a marked degree of follicular hyperplasia. Which of the following findings would best determine that this condition is a benign reactive process rather than neoplastic?;A. Polyclonality on DNA hybridization studies ;B. Presence of broad increase in IgG on high-resolution electrophoresis ;C. Presence of surface IgG on the cell membrane of the proliferating cells ;D. Presence of translocation t (14;18)(q32;q21)
6583

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (polyclonality on DNA hybridization studies) is correct. Polyclonality is a sign of a benign process. Lymphoma is the result of monoclonal expansion of a single cell that has become malignant.

6584

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3293:A patient has vague symptoms of weakness and fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 11;000/mm with 7% blasts on the peripheral smear. Bone marrow aspirate shows 40% myeloblasts. Acute myeloblastic leukemia is suspected. This patient is most likely between the ages of;A. birth to 2 years;B. 2-10 year;C. 10-15 years;D. 15-40 years;E. >40 years
6585

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D is correct. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) is primarily a disease of young adults.

6586

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3294:A 67-year-old woman with a 15-year history of severe coronary artery disease and multiple infarcts of the left ventricle and interventricular septum is hospitalized with acute pulmonary edema. Which of the following conditions is the primary physiologic event leading to pulmonary edema?;A. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure ;B. Left-sided congestive heart failure ;C. Lymphatic obstruction ;D. Rightsided congestive heart failure ;E. Volume overload
6587

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (left-sided congestive heart failure) is correct. Failure of the left ventricle causes increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation; which leads to a net movement of fluid from the vascular to the extravascular compartment (Starling's hypothesis).

6588

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3295:A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining third-degree burns over 60% of his body. Twenty-four hours later; he develops adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following physiologic features would suggest a diagnosis of restrictive lung disease in this patient?;A. Decreased PaO2 ;B. Decreased pulmonary elastic recoil ;C. Decreased total lung volume ;D. Increased PaCO2;E. Increased pulmonary blood flow
6589

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (decreased total lung volume) is correct. All of the restrictive lung diseases; including ARDS; have a unifying physiologic abnormality\\: reduction in total lung capacity. This is often due to parenchymal lung disease; but it can also be the result of neuromuscular disease; skeletal diseases; pleural disease; and acute trauma such as bilaterally fractured ribs that produce a flail chest.
6590

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3296:A 12-year-old child develops wheezing and dyspnea after petting a cat. The child is suffering from which of the following forms of asthma?;A. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis ;B. Atopic asthma ;C. Intrinsic nonreaginic asthma ;D. Intrinsic pharmacologic asthma ;E. Occupational asthma
6591

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (atopic asthma) is correct. Atopic; or allergic; asthma involves a type I hypersensitivity reaction. The binding of an inhaled specific allergen; such as cat dander; to IgE on the surface of a mast cell induces an attack of typical atopic asthma.

6592

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3297:A 17-year-old boy works for a contractor sandblasting painted concrete surfaces during his summer vacation. In a dusty environment such as this; which of the following sizes of potentially inhaled dust particles has the greatest capacity for causing pulmonary injury?;A. <1 mm ;B. 1mm ;C. 5mm ;D. 10mm ;E. >20mm
6593

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (1 mm) is correct. Dust particles within the size range of 1mm have great potential for causing pulmonary injury. Bacteria fit nicely into this size range. Shape is also an important factor in considering capacity for pulmonary injury. Although objects such as asbestos fibers are quite long; they can also gain access to the terminal airways and alveoli because they are thin.
6594

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3298:A 67-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with symptoms of pleuritic chest pain; cough productive of rusty looking sputum containing innumerable neutrophils; and a temperature of 39.2\\'b0C (102.5\\'b0F). She is an alcoholic. X-ray film of the chest shows that most of the right middle lobe is opacified. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the infection?;A. Haemophilus influenzae ;B. Klebsiella pneumoniae ;C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ;D. Staphylococcus aureus ;E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
6595

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option E 9Streptococcus pneumoniae) is correct. The x-ray film of the chest shows the presence of an intra-alveolar exudate with lobar or segmental consolidation;S. pneumoniae (pneumococcus) accounts for 90-95% of cases of lobar pneumonia. Alcoholism is a major risk factor for pneumonia and can lead to increased morbidity and mortality.
6596

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3299:A 69-year-old man sees his physician because of increasing shortness of breath. X-ray film of the chest shows that most of the right lung is encased by a thick layer of moderately dense tissue. Pleural fluid is blood-tinged with numerous atypical cells. The patient is most likely to have a history of occupational exposure to which of the following substances?;A. Asbestos ;B. Formalin ;C. Hematite ;D. Nickel carbonyl ;E. Silica
6597

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (asbestos) is correct. About 90% of malignant mesotheliomas are related to occupational exposure to asbestos. Individuals who have been exposed to asbestos have an 8% risk of developing malignant mesothelioma. There is a long latent period; with the tumor appearing from about 20-40 years after exposure to the substance.
6598

Q3300:A 65-year-old woman is undergoing a physical examination when the physician notices her mucous membranes are somewhat pale and her tongue is beefy red to magenta colored. There is slight cracking of the skin around the angles of her mouth; and her fingernails are slightly spoonshaped. She has difficulty swallowing. Laboratory studies show a red blood cell count of 12 mL/kg and a hematocrit of 30%. The most likely cause of this patient's condition is a deficiency of;A. iron ;B. niacin ;C. pyridoxine ;D. riboflavin ;E. vitamin B12
6599

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (iron) is correct. The history and physical findings suggest that the woman has Plummer-Vinson syndrome; which is characterized by iron-deficiency anemia; glossitis; cheilosis; and dysphagia due to formation of upper esophageal webs.

6600

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3301:A 43-year-old woman sees her physician because of a swollen gland on the left side of her neck. Examination shows a firm mass in the left parotid gland. On palpation; the mass does not move with the overlying skin. The most likely diagnosis is;A. acinic cell carcinoma ;B. adenoid cystic carcinoma ;C. mucoepidermoid carcinoma ;D. pleomorphic adenoma ;E. Warthin's tumor
6601

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (pleomorphic adenoma) is correct. This benign tumor accounts for about 50% of salivary gland tumors. The location of the tumor (in the left parotid gland) and the sex of the patient (female) increase the likelihood of the tumor being a pleomorphic adenoma.

6602

Q3302:A 54-year-old man with a history Facts Cell Biology and Pathology Flash of gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD) is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor. He says he cannot afford the medication and is unable to adhere to the recommended treatment regimen; but instead relies on over-the-counter medications such as antacids and herbal remedies. Brush cytology of the esophagus shows marked reactive changes of the squamous cells as well as the presence of reactive glandular cells consistent with origin in the body of the stomach. This patient is most seriously at risk of developing ;A. adenocarcinoma ;B. esophageal candidiasis ;C. esophageal stenosis ;D. esophageal varices ;E. 6603 ulceration of the esophageal mucosa

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (adenocarcinoma) is correct. The presence of glandular cells in the esophageal brushing indicates that the patient has glandular metaplasia of the esophageal mucosa; or Barrett's esophagus (metaplastic columnar epithelium); a complication of chronic GERD. Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus is 30-40 times more likely to occur in patients with Barrett's esophagus.
6604

Q3303:A 42-year-old man has a boring midepigastric pain and occasional tarry stools. Over-the-counter antacids relieve the pain; and aspirin or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) generally aggravate it. X-ray film of the upper gastrointestinal tract shows the presence of a 1- to 2cm erosion in the duodenal mucosa about 4-cm distal to the pylorus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?;A. Gastrinoma ;B. Helicobacter pylori infection ;C. Insulinoma ;D. NSAID ingestion ;E. Vitamin B12 deficiency
6605

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (Helicobacter pylori infection) is correct. Infection with ;H. pylori causes the development of most duodenal and many gastric ulcers. The mechanism by which the organism causes peptic ulcer disease is not well understood.

6606

Q3304:An autopsy of a 7-year-old boy who died of irreversible heart failure shows a patchy but focally dense infiltrate of chronic inflammatory cells; predominantly lymphocytes; in the myocardium. Cardiac myocytes in the vicinity of the lymphoid aggregates show focal necrosis. No abnormalities of the cardiac vasculature are evident. Light microscopy shows no organisms. Which of the following is most commonly associated with these findings?;A. Chronic toxoplasmosis ;B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae ;C. Lyme disease ;D. Recent acute viral illness ;E. Rubella
6607

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (recent acute viral illness) is correct. Infectious myocarditis is most often associated with an acute viral illness of recent occurrence (possibly with the past 5-30 days) involving an organ other than the heart. Offending organisms are typically coxsackievirus; echovirus; poliovirus; and influenza. Diagnosis of the etiologic agent often requires demonstration of a rising titer of antibody against the suspected virus.
6608

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3305:Meckel's diverticulum is an uncommon congenital malformation that is usually a clinically silent condition. In some cases; Meckel's diverticulum can be confused with appendicitis in the presence of;A. heterotopic gastric tissue ;B. heterotopic pancreatic tissue ;C. obstruction of the small intestine ;D. roundworm infestation ;E. ulcerative colitis
6609

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (heterotopic gastric tissue) is correct. Meckel's diverticulum is a congenital malformation of the small intestine; and occurs in about 2% of the population. It is uncommon; but not rare. If the diverticulum contains heterotopic gastric mucosa; it may ulcerate and cause significant bleeding. It can produce symptoms similar to appendicitis (e.g; right lower quadrant pain).
6610

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3306:A 4-year-old boy develops hemarthrosis of the right knee with no known preceding traumatic episode. He has not shown any previous abnormal bleeding tendencies associated with the usual childhood trauma. The patient's history suggests an X-linked recessive trait on his mother's side of the family. Which of the following studies would most likely be abnormal?;A. Bleeding time ;B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) ;C. Prothrombin time (PT) ;D. Thrombin time
6611

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (partial thromboplastin time) is correct. PTT is a measure of the intrinsic clotting pathway and is abnormal if factor VIII or factor IX activity is reduced. Although PTT is generally adequate to screen for hemophilia; factor VIII or factor IX assay are required to confirm the diagnosis. Hemophilia A and hemophilia B are not clinically distinguishable.
6612

Q3307:A febrile 23-year-old woman complains of fatigue; Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts right upper quadrant pain; and difficulty swallowing. Physical examination shows exudative tonsillitis; palatal petechia; tender cervical lymphadenopathy; splenomegaly; and tender hepatomegaly. A complete blood cell count shows mild microcytic anemia; lymphocytic leukocytosis with ~20% of the lymphocytes having atypical features; and a mild thrombocytopenia. Which of the following laboratory findings is expected in this patient?;A. Low total iron-binding capacity ;B. Normal serum ferritin ;C. Normal serum transaminases ;D. Positive hepatitis B surface antigen ;E. Positive heterophile 6613 antibody test

Option E (positive Biology and Pathology Flash test) is correct. The Cell heterophile antibody Facts patient most likely has infectious mononucleosis (IM); which is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The virus infects B cells initially by attaching to CD 21 receptors on the cell surface. Circulating T lymphocytes interact with the infected B cells and become antigenically stimulated; resulting in atypical lymphocytosis. The key screening test for IM is the Monospot test; which detects heterophile antibodies in the patient's serum. Heterophile antibodies unique to IM are IgM antibodies directed against horse red blood cells (RBCs). An agglutination reaction against horse RBCs is the basis for a 6614 positive Monospot test.

Q3308:A routine physical examination of an asymptomatic; normotensive 21-year-old African American woman is Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts normal; however; a urinalysis shows red blood cells (RBCs) with no casts. The patient says that she occasionally has had blood in her urine in the past. A urine culture is negative. Laboratory studies show;Serum blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 10 mg/dL ;Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL ;Hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL ;Mean corpuscular volume 78 ;Reticulocyte count; corrected 2% ;The peripheral smear shows occasional hypochromatic RBCs. Renal ultrasonography is normal. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?;A. Bone marrow examination ;B. Cystoscopy ;C. 6615 Renal biopsy ;D. Sickle cell preparation ;E. No further investigation is necessary

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (sickle cell preparation) is correct. The patient most likely has sickle cell trait; which causes recurrent microscopic hematuria. Although the percentage of sickle hemoglobin in sickle cell trait is only ~40%; with the remainder representing hemoglobin A; the oxygen tension in the renal medulla is low enough to induce sickling of the RBCs in the peritubular capillaries. This results in microinfarctions in the renal medulla and the potential for renal papillary necrosis and loss of both concentration and dilution of urine.
6616

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Q3309:A 72-year-old man complains of Facts sudden onset of left flank pain and dizziness when he stands up quickly. When he is lying down; his blood pressure is 100/80 mm Hg; and his pulse is 110/min. When he is moved to a sitting position; his blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg; and his pulse is 160/min. A pulsatile mass is palpated in the abdomen. The pathogenesis of the patient's flank pain and hypotension is most closely attributed to structural weakness of the aorta due to ;A. genetic defect in collagen ;B. genetic defect in fibrillin ;C. immunocomplex-mediated disease ;D. normal changes associated with aging6617 severe atherosclerosis ;E.

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option E (severe atherosclerosis) is correct. The patient has the classic triad of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm: sudden onset of left flank pain; hypotension; and a pulsatile abdominal mass. Atherosclerotic damage of the abdominal aorta weakens the vessel wall; leading to outpouching of the aorta and the potential for rupture as the expansion increases wall stress.
6618

Q3310:An afebrile Biology and Pathology Flash Factswho is living in a Cell 35-year-old sheepherder Basque community in southern Arizona complains of recurrent right upper quadrant pain. The sheepherder says that he and his dog spend their days together tending the sheep. A complete blood cell count shows a marked increase in the percentage of eosinophils. An ultrasound of his liver shows a cystic mass with calcifications in the lining of the cyst. Which of the following most accurately describes the epidemiology of this patient's liver disease;;A. The dog ate infected sheep ;B. The dog is an intermediate host ;C. The sheep is a definitive host ;D. The sheepherder ate infected 6619 sheep ;E. The sheepherder is a definitive host

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (the dog ate infected sheep) is correct. The patient has echinococcosis due to the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosis or E. multilocularis. In the normal developmental cycle of the Echinococcus species; adult worms mate and lay eggs that develop into larvae. The larvae mature into adult worms; and the cycle repeats. Hosts containing the larval form are called intermediate hosts; while hosts containing the adult worms are called definitive hosts.
6620

Q3311:A 24-year-old professional weight lifter develops sudden onset of abdominal pain while bench-pressing 550 pounds. Within 10 minutes of the onset of pain; he becomes hypotensive and collapses. During emergency surgery; the surgeon finds clotted and unclotted blood filling the peritoneal cavity. Which of the following best explains the likely origin of the patient's intra-abdominal bleeding?;A. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm ;B. Ruptured cavernous hemangioma of the liver ;C. Ruptured liver cell (hepatic) adenoma ;D. Ruptured splenic artery aneurysm
6621

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option C (ruptured liver cell adenoma) is correct. Professional weight lifters commonly use anabolic steroids to increase muscle mass and strength. One of the complications of anabolic steroids is the development of liver cell (hepatic) adenomas; which are benign tumors arising from hepatocytes. These tumors tend to rupture and produce intraperitoneal hemorrhage. Women taking estrogen-containing medications are subject to the same complication.
6622

Q3312:An 84-year-old man complains of lower back pain and inability to void urine over the past 24 hours. Physical examination shows point tenderness over the lower lumbar vertebrae and an enlarged bladder extending to the level of the umbilicus. The physician suspects metastatic prostate cancer. Which of the following is indicated as the first step in the management of this patient?;A. Digital rectal examination ;B. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) ;C. Radionuclide bone scan ;D. Serum alkaline phosphatase ;E. Transrectal ultrasound with biopsy
6623

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option A (digital rectal examination) is correct. Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men. Point tenderness over the vertebral bodies in an elderly patient is highly suggestive of metastatic prostate cancer; especially coupled with clinical evidence of urinary retention. Because prostate cancers develop in the peripheral zone of the prostate; they are palpated easily by digital rectal examination; especially if they have already spread beyond the gland.
6624

Q3313:A 35-year-old pharmacist complains of recurrent episodes of forgetfulness and tiredness. Physical examination is essentially unremarkable. Laboratory studies show a serum glucose level of 20 mg/dL. Additional studies on the same serum sample show a high serum insulin level and a low Cpeptide level. Based on these findings; which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?;A. Benign tumor involving b-islet cells in the pancreas;B. Ectopic secretion of an insulinlike factor ;C. Malignant tumor involving a-islet cells in the pancreas ;D. Surreptitiously injected human insulin
6625

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option D (surreptitiously injected human insulin) is correct. Normally; b-islet cells first synthesize preproinsulin in the rough endoplasmic reticulin. Preproinsulin then is delivered to the Golgi apparatus; where proteolytic reactions generate insulin and a cleavage peptide called C peptide. Hence; C peptide is a marker for endogenous synthesis of insulin. In this case; the patient has been injecting himself with insulin. This increases the serum insulin level; however; serum C peptide is decreased due to suppression of the b-islet cells by the exogenously administered insulin.
6626

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3314:An autopsy performed on a 40-year-old man with dementia shows atrophy of the frontal and temporoparietal lobes of the brain. Histologic examination shows senile plaques. The pathogenesis of the dementia in this patient is most closely related to which of the following?;A. b-amyloid protein ;B. Decreased dopamine levels ;C. Slow virus disease ;D. Triplet repeat mutation
6627

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Option A (b-amyloid protein) is correct.Facts Senile plaques are characteristic of Alzheimer's disease (AD); which is the most common cause of dementia in patients over 65 years of age. Senile plaques contain a core of A-b-amyloid surrounded by neurites. The explanation for the age disparity in this case is that the patient has Down syndrome with three functioning chromosome number 21 (e.g; trisomy 21). Chromosome 21 codes for an Alzheimer precursor protein (APP); part of which is amyloid-b (A- b) protein. This protein is toxic to neurons; hence the extra chromosome 21 codes for more of the 6628 protein; which results in AD at an early age.

Cell Biology and Pathology Q3315:A 30-year-old woman states Flash Factsoften burns her that she hands without feeling any pain. Physical examination shows decreased pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities; atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the hands; and abnormal deep tendon reflexes in the upper extremities. The pathogenesis of this patient's neurologic problems is most closely associated with which of the following?;A. Autoimmune destruction of myelin ;B. Fluid-filled cavity in the cervical spinal cord ;C. Superoxide free radical destruction of upper and lower motor neurons ;D. Tumor in the cervical 6629 spinal cord ;E. Vitamin B12 deficiency

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Option B (fluid-filled cavity in the cervical spinal cord) is correct. The patient has syringomyelia; the development of an expanding fluid-filled cavity in the cervical spinal cord. This results in destruction of the crossed lateral spinothalamic tracts (loss of pain and temperature sensation); anterior horn cells (loss of the intrinsic muscles of the hand); and other tracts as the cavity expands. It is often confused with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS); however; in ALS there are no sensory abnormalities.
6630

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3316:Common congenital malformations

6631

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Heart defects;Hypospadias;Cleft lip;Congenital hip dislocation;Spina bifida;Anencephaly;Pyloric stenosis

6632

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3317:Congenital malformation associated with projectile vomitting

6633

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pyloric stenosis

6634

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3318:Right to left shunts (early cyanosis) blue babies name 3 causes

6635

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

3 T's;Tetralogy of Fallot;Transposition of great vessels;Truncus arteriosus

6636

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3319:Child may squat to increase venous return - what type of shunt?

6637

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Right to left

6638

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3320:Left to right shunts (late cyanosis) - blue kids - name 3 causes

6639

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

VSD;ASD;PDA

6640

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3321:Close with indomethacin

6641

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PDA

6642

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3322:Most common congenital cardiac anomaly

6643

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

VSD

6644

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3323:Loud S1; wide; split; fixed S2

6645

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ASD

6646

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3324:Uncorrected VSD; ASD or PDA leads to progressive pulmonary hypertension. As pulmonary resistance increases shunt changes from Lto R to R to L which causes late cyanosis (clubbing and polycythemia);Diagnosis

6647

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eisenmengers syndrome

6648

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3325:Name 4 parts of tetralogy of Fallot

6649

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PROVe;Pulmonary stenosis;Right ventricular hypertrophy;Overriding aorta;VSD

6650

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3326:What do you see on xray in patient with tetralogy of Fallot

6651

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Boot shaped heart due to RVH

6652

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3327:Cause of tetralogy of Fallot

6653

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anterosuperior displacement of infundibular septum

6654

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3328:Patient suffers from "cyanotic spells"; x ray shows boot shaped heart - diagnosis?

6655

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tetraology of Fallot

6656

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3329:Aorta leaves RV (anterior) and pulmonary trunk leaves LV (posterior) --> separation of systemic and pulmonary circulation. Not compatible with life unless a shunt is present to allow adequate mixing of blood (VSD; PDA or patent foramen ovale);Diagnosis?

6657

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transposition of great vessels

6658

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3330:Cause of transposition of great vessels

6659

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Failure of aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

6660

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3331:Prognosis for transposition of great vessels

6661

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Without surgical correction infants die within 1st month of life

6662

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3332:In infantile type of coarctation of aorta - aortic stenosis is proximal or distal to insertion of ductus arteriosus?

6663

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Proximal (preductal);INfantile = IN close to heart

6664

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3333:In adult type of coarctation of aorta stenosis is distal or proximal to ductus arteriosus

6665

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Distal (postductal);ADult= Distal to Ductus

6666

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3334:This condition is associated with notching of ribs; hypertension in upper extremities and weak pulses in lower extremities

6667

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Coarctation of aorta

6668

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3335:What should you check in physical exam if suspect coarctation of aorta

6669

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Femoral pulses

6670

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3336:Male to female ratio for coarctation of aort

6671

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

3:01

6672

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3337:In fetal period shunt is right to left (normal). In neonatal period; lung resistance decreases and shunt becomes left to right with subsequent RVH and failure (abnormal). Associated with a continuous "machine like" murmur - Name condition

6673

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Patent ductus arteriosus

6674

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3338:Patency of ductus arteriosus is maintained by?

6675

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PGE synthesis and low O2 tension

6676

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3339:What drug is used to close PDA

6677

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Indomethacin

6678

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3340:Name drug used to keep PDA open which may be necessary to sustain life in conditions such as transposition of great vessels

6679

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PGE

6680

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3341:Name defect associated with 22q11 syndromes

6681

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Truncus arteriosus; tetralogy of Fallot

6682

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3342:Name congenital cardiac defect associated with Down syndrome

6683

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ASD;VSD

6684

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3343:Name congenital cardiac defect associated with congenital rubella

6685

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Septal defects;PDA

6686

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3344:Name congenital cardiac defect associated with Turners syndrome

6687

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Coarctation of aorta

6688

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3345:Name congenital cardiac defect associated with offspring of a diabetic mother

6689

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transposition of great vessels

6690

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3346:Most common chromosomal disorder and cause of congenital mental retardation

6691

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Down syndrome

6692

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3347:GI defect associated with Downs

6693

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Duodenal atresia

6694

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3348:Which cancer is in increased risk for patients with Downs

6695

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ALL

6696

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3349:Most common cardiac malformation in patients with Downs - cause?

6697

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Septum primum type ASD due to endocardial cushion defects

6698

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3350:Decreased levels of alpha fetoprotein;Increased beta HCG;Increased nuchal translucency - diagnosis

6699

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Downs

6700

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3351:Mental retardation; flat facial profile; prominent epicantal folds; simian crease - diagnosis?

6701

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Downs trisomy 21

6702

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3352:95% of Downs are caused by _ ;4% ?;1%

6703

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nondisjunction;4% - Robertsonian translocation;1% mosaicism

6704

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3353:Edwards syndrome is also called?

6705

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Trisomy 18 (Election age)

6706

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3354:Baby is born with severe mental retardation; rocker bottom feet; low set ears; micrognathia (small jaw); congenital heart disease; clenched hands and prominent occiputdiagnosis + prognosis

6707

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Edwards syndrome - trisomy 18;Death within 1 year

6708

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3355:Pataus syndrome is also called

6709

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Trisomy 13

6710

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3356:Baby is born with severe mental retardation; microphthalmia; cleft lip/palate; abnormal forebrain structures; polydactyly; congenital heart disease - diagnosis + prognosis

6711

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pataus trisomy 13;Death within 1 year

6712

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3357:Klinefelters genotype

6713

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

XXY

6714

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3358:Testicular atrophy; eunuchoid body shape; tall; long extremities; gynecomastia; female hair distribution; presence of inactivated X chromosome (Barr body)

6715

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Klinefelter syndrome

6716

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3359:Common cause of hypogonadism see in infertility workup

6717

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Klinefelter syndrome

6718

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3360:Genotype for Turners syndrome

6719

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

XO

6720

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3361:Short stature; ovarian dysgenesis (streak ovary); webbing of neck; coarctation of aorta; no Barr body

6721

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Turners

6722

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3362:Most common cause of primary amenorrhea

6723

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Turners

6724

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3363:Phenotypically normal; very tall; severe acne; antisocial behavior; observed with increased freuency among inmates of penal institutions

6725

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Double Y males XYY

6726

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3364:What type of mutation is Duschennes

6727

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Frameshift mutation --> deletion of dystrophin gene --> accelerated muscle breakdown

6728

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3365:Inheritance for Duschennes

6729

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

X linked

6730

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3366:Where does weakness begins in patients with Duschennes

6731

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pelvic girdle and moves superiorly

6732

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3367:5 year old male presents with pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles and cardiac myopathy - name condition and cause

6733

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Duschennes - replacement of muscle by fibrofatty tissue

6734

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3368:7 year old male requires assistance of the upper extremities to stand up (proximal lower limb weakness) name phenomenon and condition

6735

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gowers maneuver - Duschennes muscular dystrophy

6736

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3369:How do you diagnose muscular dystrophies

6737

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

By increased CPK and muscle biopsy

6738

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3370:Disagreement between phenotypic (external genitalia) and gonadal (testes vs ovaries) sex

6739

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pseudohermaphroditism

6740

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3371:Ovaries are present but external genitalia are virilized or ambiguous - name condition + cause

6741

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Female pseudohermaphroditism;Due to excessive and inappropriate exposure to androgenic steroids during early gestation (congenital adrenal hyperplasia or exogenous administration of androgens during pregnancy)

6742

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3372:Testes present but external genitalia are female or ambiguous - name condition + cause

6743

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Male pseudohermaphroditism - androgen insensitivity syndrome (testicular feminization)

6744

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3373:Both ovary and testicular tissue present; ambiguous genitalia - very rare;Possible genotypes?

6745

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True hermaphrodite;46 XX or 47 XXY

6746

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3374:Defect in androgen receptor resulting in normal appearing female; female external genitalia with rudimentary vagina; uterus and uterine tubes are absent. develops testicular tissue(often found in labia majora; surgically removed to prevent malignancy);Name condition + genotype + what happens to levels of estrogen; testosterone and LH
6747

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Androgen insensitivity syndrome;46 XY;Levels of testosterone; estrogen and LH are all high

6748

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3375:Unale to convert testosterone to DHT; ambiguous genitalia until puberty; when increased testosterone causes masculinization of genitalia;Name condition + what happens to levels of estrogen; testosterone and LH

6749

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

5 alpha-reductase defficiency;Testosterone and estrogen levels are normal; LH normal or increased

6750

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3376:Congenital deletion of short arm of chromosome 5 leads to _

6751

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cri-du-chat syndrome

6752

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3377:Microcephaly; severe mental retardation; high pitched crying/meowing; epicanthal folds; cardiac abnormalities

6753

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cri-du-chat syndrome

6754

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3378:2nd most common cause of genetic mental retardation

6755

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fragile X

6756

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3379:X linked defect affecting methylation and expression of FMR1 gene; associated with macro-orchidism (enlarged testes); long face with large jaw; large everted ears and autism

6757

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fragile X

6758

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3380:What type of mutation is in Fragile X

6759

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Triple repeat disorder (CGG) that may show genetic anticipation (germlike expansion in females)

6760

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3381:Cleft palate;Abnormal facies;Thymic aplasia;Cardiac defects;Hypocalcemia;2 types of disorders

6761

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

22q11 syndromes - DiGeorge syndrome (thymic; parathyroid and cardiac defects) or velocardiofacial syndrome (palate; facial and cardiac defects)

6762

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3382:Adult polycystic kidney disease - unilateral or bilateral

6763

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ALWAYS bilateral

6764

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3383:Patient presents with pain; hematuria; hypertension; progressive renal failure; 90% of mutations are due to mutation in APKD1 (chromosome 16)

6765

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Adult polycystic kidney disease - massive enlargement of kidneys due to multiple large cysts

6766

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3384:Name conditions associated with adult polycystic kidney disease

6767

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Polycystic liver disease;BERRY ANEURYSMS;Mitral valve prolapse

6768

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3385:What is the inheritance for adult form of polycystic kidney disease? ;juvenile?

6769

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Adult - autosomal dominant;Juvenile - autosomal recessive

6770

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3386:Patient has high cholesterol (heterozygotes 300; homozygotes - rare- 700); severe atherosclerotic disease early in life and tendon xanthomas (classically in Achilles tendon); MI may develop before age 20;Name disease and cause

6771

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Familial hypercholesterolemia (hyperlipidemia type IIa);Elevated LDL owing to defective or absent LDL receptor

6772

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3387:Cause of Marfans disease

6773

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrillin gene mutation -> connective tissue disorders

6774

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3388:Skeletal abnormalities in Marfans syndrome

6775

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tall with long extremities; hyperextensive joints; and long; tapering fingers and toes

6776

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3389:Cardiovascular abnormalities in Marfans syndrome

6777

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cystic medial necrosis of aorta --> aortic incometence and dissecting aortic aneurysms;Floppy mitral valve

6778

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3390:Occular abnormality in Marfans syndrome

6779

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Subluxation of the lens

6780

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3391:Findings in neurofibromatosis type I (von Riecklinghausen disease)

6781

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cafe-au-lait spots;Neural tumors;Lisch nodules (pigmented iris hamartomas);Also marked by skeletal disorders (scoliosis) and increased tumor susceptibility

6782

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3392:Gene coding for NFT type I (von Riecklinghausen disease) located where?

6783

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Long arm of chromosome 17 (17 letters in Recklinghausen)

6784

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3393:Gene coding for NFT type II is located where?

6785

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

On chromosome 22

6786

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3394:Patient presents with bilateral acoustic neuromas; optic pathway gliomas; juvenile cataracts - diagnosis?

6787

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II NFT

6788

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3395:Findings: facial lesions (adenoma sebaceum); hypopigmented "ash leaf spots" on skin; cortical and retinal hamartomas; seizures; mental retardation; renal cysts; cardiac rhabdomyomas. Incomplete penetrance; variable presentation

6789

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tuberous sclerosis

6790

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3396:Findings: hemangioblastomas of retina/cerebellum/medulla; about half of affected individuals develop multiple bilateral renal cell carcinomas and other tumors - name disease; which gene affected and inheritance

6791

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Von Hippel Lindau disease;Deletion of VHL gene (tumor suppressor) on chromosome 3 (3p);Autosomal dominant

6792

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3397:Findings - depression; progressive dementia; choreiform movements; caudate atrophy and decreased levels of GABA and Ach in brain; symptoms manifest between 20 and 50 - name disorder; what type of disorder; inheritance + which chromosome affected

6793

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Huntingtons;Triplet repeat disorder;Autosomal dominant;Gene on chromosome 4

6794

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3398:Colon becomes covered wiith adenomatous polyps after puberty. Progresses to cancer unless resected - name disease and chromosome on which deletion occurs+ inheritance pattern

6795

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Familial adenomatous polyposis - deletion on chromosome 5; autosomal dominant

6796

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3399:Spheroid erythrocytes; hemolytic anemia; increased MCHC - name disease + what is curative + inheritance pattern

6797

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hereditary spherocytosis;Splenectomy is curative;Autosomal dominant

6798

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3400:Autosomal dominant cell-signalng defect of fibroblast growth factor (FGF) receptor 3. Results in dwarfism; short limbs but head and trunk are normal size - name disease

6799

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Achondroplasia

6800

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3401:Inheritance pattern for cystic fibrosis

6801

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive

6802

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3402:Inheritance pattern for albinism

6803

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive

6804

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3403:Inheritance pattern for alpha1-antitrypsin defficiency

6805

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR

6806

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3404:Inheritance pattern for PKU

6807

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR

6808

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3405:Inheritance pattern for thalassemias and sickle cell anemias

6809

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR

6810

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3406:Inheritance pattern for glycogen storage disorders

6811

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR

6812

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3407:Inheritance pattern for mucopolysaccharidoses ?;EXCEPT - >

6813

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR;EXCEPT Hunters

6814

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3408:Inheritance pattern for sphingolipidoses- ?;EXCEPT?

6815

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR;EXCEPT Fabrys

6816

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3409:Inheritance pattern for infant polycystic kidney disease

6817

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR

6818

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3410:Inheritance pattern for hemochromatosis

6819

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR

6820

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3411:Infertility in males with cystic fibrosis is due to?

6821

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Absence of vas deferens

6822

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3412:Which vitamins are defficient in patients with cystic fibrosis

6823

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fat soluble ADEK

6824

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3413:Cystic fibrosis can present as _ in infancy

6825

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Failure to thrive

6826

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3414:Most common lethal genetic disease of Caucasians

6827

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cystic fibrosis

6828

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3415:Treatment of cystic fibrosis

6829

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

N-acetylcysteine to loosen mucous plugs

6830

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3416:Cause of cystic fibrosis + how it presents

6831

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive defect in CFTR gene on chromosome 7. Defective Cl channel -->secretion of abnormally thick mucus that plugs lungs; pancreas and liver --> recurrent pulmonary infections (Pseudomonas and S aureus); chronic bronchitis; bronchiectasis; pancreatic insufficiency (malabsorption and steatorrhea); meconium ileus in newborns
6832

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3417:Diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis

6833

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased concentration of Cl ions in sweat

6834

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3418:Associated with low folic acid intake during pregnancy; elevated alpha fetoprotein in amniotic fluid and maternal serum

6835

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neural tube defects

6836

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3419:Failure of bony spinal canal to close but no structural herniation; usually seen at lower vertebral levels

6837

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Spina bifida occulta

6838

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3420:Meninges herniate through spinal canal defect

6839

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Meningocele

6840

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3421:Meninges and spinal cord herniate through spinal canal defect

6841

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Meningomyelocele

6842

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3422:Mechanism of fetal alcohol syndrome

6843

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Inhibition of cell migration

6844

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3423:Newborn presents with postnatal developmental retardation; microcephaly; facial abnormalities; limb dislocation and heart and lung fistulas - probable cause?

6845

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fetal alcohol syndrome

6846

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3424:# 1 cause of congenital malformation in USA

6847

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fetal alcohol syndrome

6848

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3425:Increase in number of cells (reversible)

6849

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyperplasia

6850

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3426:One adult cell type is replaced by another (reversible) - often secondary to irritation and/or environmental exposure

6851

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Metaplasia

6852

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3427:Abnormal growth with loss cellular orientation; shape; and size in comparison to normal tissue maturation; commonly preneoplastic (reversible)

6853

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dysplasia

6854

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3428:Abnormal cells lacking differentiation; like primitive cells of same tissue; often equated with undifferentiated malignant neoplasms; tumor giant cells may be formed

6855

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anaplasia

6856

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3429:Clonal proliferation of cells that is uncontrolled and excessive

6857

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neoplasia

6858

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3430:S-100

6859

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Marker for melanoma; neural tumors; and astrocytomas

6860

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3431:Gastric Adenocarcinoma markers

6861

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CEA and bombesin

6862

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3432:HCC markers

6863

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AFP and alpha-1-AT

6864

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3433:Plummer-Vinson syndrome triad

6865

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dysphagia (due to webs in the upper esophagus); atrophic glossitis; iron-deficiency anemia

6866

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3434:Pulseless disease

6867

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Takayasu arteritis - stenosis of aortic arch and its large branches with ischemia to upper part of the body

6868

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3435:Trousseau Sign

6869

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Migratory thromophlebitis associated with tumors of pancreas; lung; and colon

6870

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3436:Colon Cancer tumor suppression genes

6871

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

APC; DCC; p53

6872

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3437:Pancreatic Cancer tumor suppression gene

6873

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DPC

6874

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3438:Stomach Cancer tumor suppressor gene

6875

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DCC

6876

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3439:Peripheral nerve tumor suppressor gene

6877

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

NF-1 (neurofibromatosis 1)

6878

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3440:Inadequate oxygenation is called _

6879

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HYPOXIA

6880

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3441:Most common cause of hypoxia is _

6881

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Coronary artery atherosclerosis

6882

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3442:CO and CN both inhibit _

6883

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cytochrome oxidase

6884

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3443:How do you treat CO poisoning ?

6885

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

100% O2

6886

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3444:Most adversely affected cell in tissue hypoxia _

6887

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

NEURONS

6888

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3445:What do you see on ECG in subendocardial ischemia

6889

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ST segment depression

6890

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3446:Cytochrome C activates _

6891

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Apoptosis

6892

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3447:Most common cause of drug induced fulminant hepatitis

6893

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ACETAMINOPHEN

6894

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3448:Reperfusion injury can be caused by ?

6895

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

O2 and increase in cytosolic Ca

6896

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3449:What is the difference between dystrophic and metastatic calcification

6897

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dystrophic calcification - calcification of necrotic tissue;Metastatic calcification - calcification of normal tissue

6898

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3450:Decrease in size of tissue or organ is called _

6899

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ATROPHY

6900

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3451:Increase in cell size is called _

6901

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HYPERTROPHY

6902

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3452:Increase in number of cells _

6903

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HYPERPLASIA

6904

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3453:One cell type replaces another - this is called _

6905

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

METAPLASIA

6906

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3454:Disordered cell growth is called _

6907

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DYSPLASIA

6908

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3455:In cerebral infarction - what type of necrosis?

6909

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LIUEFACTIVE (NOT coagulative)

6910

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3456:Most common cause of caseous necrosis

6911

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tuberculosis

6912

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3457:What type of necrosis in acute pancreatitis

6913

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Enzymatic fat necrosis

6914

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3458:Programmed cell death is called _

6915

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Apoptosis

6916

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3459:Name apoptosis gene

6917

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BAX

6918

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3460:Name anti apoptosis gene

6919

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BCL2

6920

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3461:These cells release preformed histamine

6921

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mast cells

6922

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3462:Primary leukocytes in acute inflammation

6923

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neutrophils

6924

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3463:Responsible for "rolling" of neutrophils

6925

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Selectins

6926

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3464:Neutrophil adhesion molecules

6927

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Beta 2 integrins

6928

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3465:Directed migration of neutrophils is called _

6929

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CHEMOTAXIS

6930

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3466:Name 2 opsonins

6931

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgG and C3b

6932

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3467:In Butons agammogloblinemia there is a defect in _

6933

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

OPSONIZATION

6934

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3468:In Chediak Higashi syndrome patient cannot form _

6935

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PHAGOLYSOSOMES

6936

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3469:Most potent microbicidal system

6937

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

O2 dependent MPO system

6938

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3470:End product of O2 dependent MPO system

6939

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BLEACH

6940

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3471:In chronic granulomatous disease there is absent _

6941

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

NADPH OXIDASE AND RESPIRATORY BURST

6942

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3472:Most important chemical mediator of acute inflammation

6943

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HISTAMINE

6944

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3473:Most common cause of skin abscess

6945

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Staph aureus

6946

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3474:Most common cause of chronic inflammation

6947

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

INFECTION

6948

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3475:Primary leukocytes in chronic inflammation

6949

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Monocytes and macrophages

6950

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3476:Granulation tissue is converted to _

6951

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scar tissue

6952

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3477:Key adhesion glycoprotein in ECM

6953

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibronectin

6954

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3478:cell types in granuloma

6955

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

macrophages and CD4 helper T cells

6956

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3479:Macrophages activated by gamma interferon from CD4 Th cells are called _

6957

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Epithelioid cells

6958

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3480:Most variable stage in cell cycle

6959

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

G1

6960

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3481:Most critical phase in cell cycle

6961

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

G1 to S

6962

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3482:Genes controlling G1 to S phases of cell cycle

6963

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

RB and TP53

6964

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3483:Key adhesion glycoprotein in basement membrane

6965

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LAMININ

6966

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3484:IN Ehlers Danlos syndrome which collagen is defective

6967

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I and type III

6968

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3485:Cofactor in collagenase

6969

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Zn

6970

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3486:Most common cause of impaired wound healing

6971

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Infections

6972

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3487:In which vitamin defficiency is there decreased cross linking of collagen

6973

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vitamin C defficiency

6974

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3488:Which drugs prevent scar formation

6975

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glucocorticoids

6976

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3489:In keloids which type collagen is in excess

6977

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

type III

6978

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3490:In lung injury which cell is repair cell

6979

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TYPE II PNEUMOCYTE

6980

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3491:What happens in brain with injury

6981

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Proliferation of astrocytes and microglial cells

6982

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3492:With peripheral nerve transection which cell is key cell in reinnervation

6983

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Schwann cell

6984

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3493:Predominant immunoglobulin in acute inflammation

6985

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgM

6986

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3494:Predominant immunoglobulin in chronic inflammation

6987

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgG

6988

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3495:Corticosteroid effect in blood

6989

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased neutrophils;Decreased lymphocytes and eosinophils

6990

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3496:Marker of necrosis and disease activity

6991

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CRP

6992

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3497:Marker of acute inflammation

6993

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgM

6994

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3498:Sign of chronic inflammation

6995

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Polyclonal gammopathy; increased IgG

6996

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3499:Large granular lymphocytes in peripheral blood

6997

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Natural killer cells

6998

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3500:When does IgM and IgG synthesis begin

6999

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

After birth

7000

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3501:Class I MHC is present on which cells

7001

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

All nucleated cells

7002

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3502:Name antigen presenting cells

7003

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

B cells;Macrophages;Dendritic cells

7004

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3503:Which HLA protein is associated with ankylosing spondylitis

7005

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HLA B27

7006

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3504:IgE activation of mast cells happens in which type of hypersensitivity

7007

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I

7008

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3505:Name potentially fatal type I hypersensitivity reaction

7009

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anaphylactic shock

7010

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3506:Antibody dependent cytotoxic reactions are what type of hypersensitivity

7011

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II

7012

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3507:Activation of compliment by circulating antigenantibody complexes is what type of hypersensitivity

7013

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type III

7014

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3508:Name antibody activated hypersensitivity reactions

7015

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I; II; III

7016

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3509:Which type of hypersensitivity has to do with cellular immunity

7017

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type IV

7018

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3510:What is the most important requirement for successful transplantation

7019

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ABO blood group compatibility

7020

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3511:Type of transplant with best survival rate

7021

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autograft (self to self)

7022

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3512:Hyperacute rejection of transplant - is it reversible? what type of hypersensitivity?

7023

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Irreversible; type II hypersensitivity

7024

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3513:Most common type of transplant rejection - what typ of hypersensitivity?

7025

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute rejection - type IV and type II hypersensitivity

7026

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3514:Is chronic rejection of transplant reversible

7027

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Irreversible

7028

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3515:What are symptoms and signs of graft versus host reactions

7029

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Jaundice;Diarrhea;Dermatitis

7030

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3516:Most common cardiac finding in SLE

7031

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrinous pericarditis with effusion

7032

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3517:Most common drug associated with drug induced lupus

7033

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Procainamide

7034

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3518:What type of antibodies are present in drug induced lupus

7035

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Antihistone antibodies

7036

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3519:What two tests can confirm SLE

7037

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anti double stranded DNA;Anti Smith antibodies

7038

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3520:In systemic sclerosis there is excess _

7039

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Collagen deposition

7040

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3521:Most common initial sign of systemic sclerosis

7041

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Raynaud phenomenon

7042

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3522:What type of antibodies are present with systemic sclerosis

7043

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anti-topoisomerase antibodis

7044

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3523:What does CREST syndrome stand for

7045

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Calcinosis;Raynauds phenomenon;Esophageal dysfunction;Sclerodactyly;Telangiectasia

7046

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3524:In dermatomyositis and polymyositis there is increased _

7047

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Serum creatine kinase

7048

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3525:Im MCTD (mixed connective tissue disease) what kind of antibodies are present

7049

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anti RNP antibodies

7050

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3526:Most common congenital immunodefficiency

7051

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgA defficiency

7052

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3527:Most common acquired immunodefficiency disease worldwide

7053

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AIDS

7054

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3528:Pediatric AIDS is mostly due to _ transmission

7055

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vertical (mother to child)

7056

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3529:HIV is cytotoxic to what type of cells? which immunity is lost?

7057

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CD4 T cells;Loss of cell mediated immunity

7058

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3530:Which protein is detected in ELISA test screen for HIV

7059

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

anti gp 120

7060

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3531:Which test confirms HIV

7061

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Western blot

7062

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3532:Which cells are reservoir cells for HIV

7063

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Follicular dendritic cells in lymph nodes

7064

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3533:Most common CNS fungal infection in AIDS

7065

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cryptococcosis

7066

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3534:Most common malignancy in AIDS

7067

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Kaposis sarcoma

7068

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3535:Most common cause of blindness in AIDS

7069

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CMV

7070

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3536:In hereditary angioedema there is defficiency of what?

7071

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

C1 esterase inhibitor

7072

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3537:Which protein exhibits apple green birefringence in polarized light

7073

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Amyloid

7074

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3538:Which protein is associated with Alzheimers disease in Down syndrome

7075

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Beta amyloid

7076

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3539:Major cation of extracellular fluid

7077

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Na

7078

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3540:Major cation of intracellular fluid

7079

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

7080

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3541:Water movement between extracellular and intracellular fluid compartments is called? What is it controlled by?

7081

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

OSMOSIS - controlled by serum Na

7082

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3542:Formula for calculating serum Na

7083

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Total body Na/ Total body water

7084

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3543:What is the sign of volume depletion

7085

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased total body Na

7086

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3544:In which conditions would you see increase in total body Na

7087

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pitting edema;Body cavity effusions

7088

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3545:What happens to Na in isotonic loss or gain

7089

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Serum Na normal

7090

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3546:What two signs describe hypotonic disorders

7091

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyponatremia;ICF expansion

7092

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3547:In which conditions would you see pitting edema

7093

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Right sided heart failure;Cirrhosis;Nephrotic syndrome

7094

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3548:Which signs describe hypertonic disorders

7095

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypernatremia or hyperglycemia;ICF conraction

7096

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3549:What happens to Posm and Na in hyperglycemia

7097

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased Posm;Decreased serum Na

7098

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3550:What happens to K in alkalosis

7099

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Shifts into cell

7100

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3551:What happens to K in acidosis

7101

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Shifts out of cell

7102

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3552:Most common cause of hypokalemia

7103

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Loop and thiazide diuretics

7104

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3553:What does ECG show in hypokalemia

7105

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

U wave

7106

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3554:Most common cause of hyperkalemia

7107

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Renal failure

7108

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3555:What does ECG show in hyperkalemia

7109

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Peaked T waves

7110

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3556:What does PaCO2 have to be to diagnose respiratory acidosis

7111

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

>45 mm Hg

7112

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3557:What does PaCO2 have to ne to diagnose respiratory alkalosis

7113

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

< 33 mmHg

7114

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3558:What happens in increased anion gap metabolic acidosis

7115

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anions of acid replace HCO3

7116

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3559:What happens in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

7117

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cl anions replace HCO3

7118

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3560:What is the level of HCO3 have to be to diagnose metabolic acidosis

7119

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

< 22 mE/L

7120

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3561:Most common cause of metabolic alkalosis

7121

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Loop and thiazide diuretics

7122

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3562:What does HCO3 have to be to diagnose metabolic alkalosis

7123

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

> 28 mEq/L

7124

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3563:With _ intoxication there is often mixture of primary metabolic acidosis and primary respiratory alkalosis

7125

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

SALICYLATE

7126

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3564:Excess fluid in interstitial space is called _

7127

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

EDEMA

7128

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3565:Protein poor and cell poor fluid is called _

7129

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TRANSUDATE

7130

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3566:Protein rich and cell rich fluid is called _

7131

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

EXUDATE

7132

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3567:Is there transudate or exudate in pitting edema? What happens to hydrostatic and oncotic pressures?

7133

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transudate;Increased hydrostatic pressure ;Decreased oncotic pressure

7134

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3568:Most common site for venous thrombosis

7135

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Deep vein of lower extremity under knee

7136

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3569:Name anticoagulants that are used for prevention of venous thrombosis

7137

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Warfarin and Heparin

7138

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3570:Prevents formation of arterial thrombi

7139

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Aspirin

7140

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3571:How do you prevent mixed thrombus

7141

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Aspirin + anticoagulant therapy

7142

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3572:Majority of pulmonary thromboembolism originate in _

7143

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Femoral veins

7144

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3573:Majority of systemic embolisms originate in _

7145

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Left side of the heart

7146

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3574:Most common cause for fat embolism

7147

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fracture of long bones

7148

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3575:Signs and symptoms of amniotic fluid embolism

7149

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Abrupt onset dyspnea;Hypotension;Bleeding (DIC)

7150

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3576:What happens in decompression sickness

7151

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nitrogen gas bubbles occlude vessel lumens

7152

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3577:Two serious potential complications of scuba diving

7153

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pneumothorax and pulmonary embolism

7154

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3578:Most common cause of hypovolemic shock

7155

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Blood loss

7156

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3579:Most common cause of cardiogenic shock

7157

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acute MI

7158

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3580:What happens to cardiac output in hypovolemic shock? Cardiogenic shock? septic shock?

7159

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypovolemic shock - decreased CO;Cardiogenic shock decreased CO;Septic shock - increased CO

7160

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3581:What happens to left ventricular end-diastolic pressure in hypovolemic shock? cardiogenic shock? septic shock?

7161

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased in hypovolemic and septic shock; increased in cardiogenic shock

7162

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3582:What happens to peripheral vascular resistance in hypovolemic shock? cardiogenic shock? septic shock?

7163

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased in cardiogenic and hypovolemic shock; decreased in septic shock

7164

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3583:Most common cause of death in shock

7165

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Multiorgan failure

7166

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3584:What type of mutation occurs with sickle cell disease/trait

7167

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Missense mutation

7168

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3585:With beta thalassemia major what type of mutation

7169

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nonsense mutation with stop codon

7170

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3586:In Tay Sachs disease what type of mutation

7171

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Frameshift mutation

7172

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3587:Additional trinucleotide repeats increases disease severity in future generations - this is called _

7173

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ANTICIPATION

7174

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3588:Most common type of mendelian disorder

7175

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive

7176

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3589:Both parents must have mutant gene - what type of inheritance

7177

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autosomal recessive

7178

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3590:Enzyme defficiencies disorders usually involve what type of inheritance

7179

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AR

7180

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3591:In PKU what is increased and what is decreased

7181

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Phenylalanine increased;Tyrosine decreased

7182

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3592:What is defficient in Von Gierkes disease

7183

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glucose 6 phosphatase

7184

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3593:Most common AR disorder

7185

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemochromatosis

7186

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3594:Heterozygotes with dominant mutant gene express disease - type of inheritance

7187

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

AD

7188

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3595:Individual with mutant gene doesnt express disease this is called

7189

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Reduced penetrance

7190

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3596:Most common AD disorder

7191

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Von Willebrand disease

7192

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3597:Asymptomatic female carrier transmits mutant gene to 50% of sons - what type of inheritance

7193

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

XR

7194

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3598:Most common x linked disorder

7195

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fragile X syndrome

7196

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3599:In which x linked inheritance femaler carriers are symptomatic

7197

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

XD

7198

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3600:Number of Barr bodies?

7199

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Number of chromosomes - 1

7200

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3601:Unequal separation of chromosomes in meiosis is called _

7201

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nondisjunction

7202

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3602:Nondisjunction of chromosomes in mitosis is called _

7203

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mosaicism

7204

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3603:Which chromosomal defect is present in cri du chat syndrome

7205

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Deletion short arm chromosome 5

7206

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3604:Most cases of Down syndrome occur due to _

7207

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nondisjunction

7208

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3605:Most common genetic cause of mental retardation

7209

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Down syndrome

7210

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3606:Most important risk factor for bearing offspring with trisomy syndromes

7211

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Advanced maternal age

7212

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3607:45; x caryotype is present in which condition

7213

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Turner syndrome

7214

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3608:Most common genetic cause of primary amenorrhea

7215

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Turners syndrome

7216

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3609:"Menopause before menarche"

7217

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Turners syndrome

7218

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3610:Which hormones are decreased and which are increased in Klinefelters syndrome

7219

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Testosterone and inhibin decreased;LH and FSG increased

7220

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3611:Which chromosome determines genetic sex of individual

7221

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Y chromosome

7222

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3612:Most common cause of pseudohermaphroditism? What is defficient in this disease?

7223

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Testicular feminization;Androgen receptors

7224

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3613:Most common pathogen causing congenital infection

7225

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CMV

7226

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3614:Name TORCH infections

7227

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Toxoplasmosis;Other agents;Rubella;CMV;Herpes simplex

7228

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3615:Most common cause of stillbirth

7229

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Abruptio placentae

7230

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3616:Common cause of spontaneous abortions

7231

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Trisomy 16

7232

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3617:Most common cause for large for gestational age babies

7233

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Maternal diabetes

7234

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3618:Most common cause of neonatal morbidity/mortality

7235

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prematurity

7236

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3619:Triple marker for Down syndrome

7237

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased AFP;Increased hCG;Decrease in unconjugated urine

7238

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3620:Most important preventable cause of disease and death in US

7239

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Smoking

7240

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3621:Do women or men have less gastric alcohol dehydrogenase and therefore reach hight alcohol levels

7241

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Women

7242

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3622:Most common cause of thiamine defficiency

7243

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alcohol abuse

7244

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3623:Increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by _

7245

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lactic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid

7246

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3624:Most common systemic complication of intravenous drug use

7247

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatitis B

7248

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3625:Oral contraceptives decrease risk for which cancers

7249

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Endometrial and ovarian

7250

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3626:Most common cause of hypertension in young woman

7251

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Oral contraceptives

7252

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3627:Most common cause of death in burn victims

7253

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

sepsis caused by Pseudomonas

7254

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3628:Least sensitive tissue to radiation

7255

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bone

7256

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3629:First hematological sign of total body radiation

7257

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lymphopenia

7258

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3630:Most frequent type of cancer caused by radiation

7259

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute leukemia

7260

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3631:Which UV light is most damaging and how

7261

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

UVB - increase in pyrimidine dimers distorts DNA helix

7262

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3632:Most common UVB related skin cancer

7263

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Basal cell carcinoma

7264

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3633:Where does carbohydrate digestion begin

7265

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mouth

7266

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3634:Where does protein digestion begin

7267

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stomach

7268

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3635:Where does fat digestion begin

7269

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Small intestine

7270

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3636:What is characteristic feature of kwashiorkor

7271

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pitting edema

7272

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3637:What is characteristic feature of marasmus

7273

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Extreme muscle wasting

7274

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3638:Most common cause of death in anorexia nervosa

7275

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ventricular arrythmia

7276

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3639:What is the complication caused by vomitting in bulimia nervosa

7277

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

7278

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3640:Which gene is usually defective in obesity

7279

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leptin gene

7280

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3641:First sign of vitamin A defficiency

7281

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Night blindness

7282

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3642:Most common cause of vitamin D defficiency

7283

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Renal failure

7284

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3643:Vitamin E toxicity causes _

7285

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased synthesis of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors

7286

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3644:Most common cause of vitamin K defficiency in hospital

7287

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Broad spectrum antibiotics

7288

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3645:Rat poison contains _ derivatives

7289

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Coumarin

7290

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3646:People on corn based diets are defficient in _

7291

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tryptophan and niacin

7292

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3647:Three D's of pellagra

7293

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dermatitis ;Diarrhea;Dementia

7294

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3648:Most common cause of vitamin B12 defficiency

7295

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Perncious anemia

7296

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3649:Most common cause of folate defficiency

7297

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alcohol abuse

7298

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3650:Defficiency of ascorbic acid is called _

7299

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scurvy

7300

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3651:Poor wound healing; poor taste and perioral rash are signs of what defficiency

7301

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Zn

7302

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3652:Iodide defficiency results in _

7303

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Multinodular goiter

7304

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3653:Benign tumors are of what origin

7305

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Epithelial or connective tissue

7306

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3654:Tumor that has derivatives of ectoderm; endoderm and mesoderm is called_

7307

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Teratoma

7308

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3655:Carcinomas derive from?

7309

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous;Glandular (adenocarcinoma);Transitional epithelium

7310

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3656:Sarcoma derives from?

7311

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Connective tissue

7312

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3657:Non neoplastic overgrowth of tissue is called _

7313

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hamartoma

7314

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3658:Which cancer invades tissue but doesnt metastasize

7315

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Basal cell carcinoma of skin

7316

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3659:Which metastasis have greater prognostic significance nodal or extranodal

7317

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Extranodal (liver; etc)

7318

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3660:Name 3 routes of metastasis

7319

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lymphatic;Hematogenic;Seeding of body cavities

7320

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3661:2 types of bone metastasis

7321

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteoblastic (radiodense);Osteolytic (radioluscent)

7322

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3662:Most common cause of cancer deaths in adults

7323

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lung cancer

7324

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3663:Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma

7325

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Actinic (solar) keratosis

7326

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3664:How can you reduce risk for developing gastric lymphoma and adenocarcinoma

7327

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Treat H pylori

7328

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3665:Most common type of mutation in cancer

7329

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Point mutation

7330

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3666:Which genes protect from unregulated cell growth? Which are involved in normal growth and repair?

7331

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Suppressor genes;Proto- oncogenes

7332

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3667:What is the most effective host defense against cancer

7333

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cytotoxic CD8 T cells

7334

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3668:What is the most common cause of death in cancer

7335

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gram negative sepsis

7336

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3669:What is the most common paraneoplastic syndrome

7337

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypercalcemia

7338

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3670:Diet derived triglyceride

7339

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chylomicron

7340

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3671:Liver derived triglyceride

7341

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

VLDL

7342

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

#NAME?

7343

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LDL

7344

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3673:Removes cholesterol from plaques for disposal in the liver

7345

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HDL

7346

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3674:Pathognomonic lesion of atherosclerosis

7347

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrous cap

7348

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3675:Excellent marker of disrupted fibrous plaques

7349

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CRP

7350

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3676:Most common site for atherosclerosis

7351

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Abdominal aorta

7352

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3677:2 conditions associated with hyaline arteriosclerosis

7353

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DM;Hypertension

7354

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3678:Most common aneurysm in men>55 years of age

7355

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

7356

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3679:Rupture of aneurysm triad

7357

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Left flank pain;Hypotension;Pulsatile mass

7358

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3680:2 conditions of aortic arch aneurysm

7359

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tertiary syphillis;Vasculitis of vasa vasorum

7360

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3681:Most common cause of death in Marfan syndrome and EDS

7361

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Aortic dissection

7362

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3682:Most common cause of death with aortic dissection

7363

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cardiac tamponade

7364

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3683:Symptoms and signs of small vessel vasculitis

7365

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Palpable purpura

7366

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3684:Symptoms and signs of medium sized vessel vasculitis

7367

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Thrombosis;Aneurysm formation

7368

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3685:Most common type of hypertension

7369

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Essential hypertension

7370

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3686:Most common cause of secondary hypertension

7371

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Renovascular hypertension

7372

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3687:Ventricular hypertrophy occurs due to_

7373

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased afterload or increased preload

7374

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3688:Pulmonary edema is seen in which heart failure

7375

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Left

7376

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3689:First cardiac sign of LHF

7377

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

S3

7378

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3690:Increases intensity for left sided heart murmurs and abnormal heart sounds

7379

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Expiration

7380

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3691:Increases intensity of right sided heart murmurs and abnormal heart sounds

7381

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Inspiration

7382

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3692:Inrease in venous hydrostatic pressure occurs in which heart failure

7383

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Right

7384

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3693:Most common manifestation of CAD

7385

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Angina pectoris

7386

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3694:Subendocardial ischemia with ST segment depression is what type of angina

7387

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable

7388

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3695:Vasospasm with transmural ischemia and ST segment elevation is what type of angina

7389

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prinzmetals angina

7390

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3696:Most common cause of death in acute MI

7391

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ventricular fibrillation

7392

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3697:Most common cause of death in CHF

7393

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ventricular aneurysm

7394

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3698:Gold standard for diagnosis of acute MI

7395

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cardiac troponin I and T

7396

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3699:ECG findings in acute MI

7397

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Inverted T waves; elevated ST segments; Q waves

7398

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3700:Stimuli for EPO

7399

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypoxemia;Left-shifted OBC;High altitude

7400

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3701:Where is EPO synthesized?

7401

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

In endothelial cells of peritubular capillaries

7402

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3702:Measure of effective erythropoiesis; corrected for the degree of anemia

7403

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Reticulocyte count

7404

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3703:Extramedullary hematopoiesis most often occurs where?

7405

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

In liver and spleen

7406

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3704:What happens to Hb; Hct and RBC count in thalassemia

7407

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hb; Hct decreased;RBC count increased

7408

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3705:What happens to RDW in iron defficiency

7409

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased

7410

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3706:End product of heme degradation in macrophage

7411

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Unconjugated bilirubin

7412

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3707:What is the main source of energy in mature RBC

7413

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anaerobic glycolysis

7414

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3708:Serum ferritin is _ in iron defficiency anemia

7415

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased

7416

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3709:Serum ferritin is _ in ACD; iron overload disease

7417

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased

7418

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3710:Serum iron is _ in iron defficiency; ACD

7419

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased

7420

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3711:Serum iron is _ in iron overload disease

7421

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Increased

7422

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3712:If serum total iron binding capacity is decreased it means that transferin is _

7423

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Decreased

7424

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3713:In microcytic anemia there is defect in _

7425

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Synthesis of Hb (heme + globin chain)

7426

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3714:Iron defficiency most often caused by _

7427

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bleeding

7428

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3715:Most common anemia in hospitalized patients

7429

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ACD - anemia of chronic disease

7430

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3716:With sideroblastic anemia there is defect in _

7431

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Heme synthesis in mitochondria; ringed sideroblasts

7432

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3717:Most common cause of sideroblastic anemia

7433

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alcohol

7434

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3718:Most common cause of pyridoxine defficiency

7435

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Isoniazid

7436

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3719:In lead poisoning where does lead deposit

7437

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Epiphyses

7438

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3720:Most common cause of vitamin B12 defficiency

7439

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pernicious anemia

7440

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3721:Which drug inhibits intestinal conjugase

7441

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Phenytoin

7442

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3722:Monoglutamate reabsorption is inhibited by _

7443

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alcohol and oral contraceptives

7444

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3723:Most common cause of folate defficiency

7445

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Alcohol

7446

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3724:McArdle

7447

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

glycogen storage disease;muscle

7448

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3725:von Gierke

7449

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

glycogen storage disease;liver and kidneys

7450

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3726:Wilson

7451

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Copper metabolism #;liver and brain

7452

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3727:Galactosemia

7453

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

galactose metabolism #;liver; lens; brain

7454

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3728:Turcot

7455

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CNS: gliomas;GI tract: adenomas

7456

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3729:Caroli

7457

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

congenital malformation bile ducts

7458

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3730:May-White

7459

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

familial progressive myoclonus epilepsy with lipomas; deafness; ataxia

7460

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3731:Crigler-Najjar

7461

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Unconjugated bili- severe

7462

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3732:Gilbert

7463

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Unconjugated bili- mild

7464

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3733:Dubin-Johnson

7465

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

conjugated bili- mild

7466

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3734:Rotor

7467

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

conjugated bili- mild

7468

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3735:Sturge-weber

7469

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

leptomeningial angiomatosis; port-wine stain; mental retardation; seizures; hemiplegia

7470

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3736:Von hippel lindau

7471

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

capillary hemangioblastoma;retinal angiomas;renal ca ;cysts or ang# any organ

7472

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3737:Gardner

7473

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

fam. colon ca; and osteomas; epidermal cysts; fibromatosis; abnormal teeth; thyroid ca; duodenal ca; pigmented ocular fundus; desmoid tumors

7474

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3738:Menkes

7475

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

copper deficiency -> #collagen crosslinking -> depigmented lusterless hair; facial/ocular/vascular/cerebral #

7476

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3739:Milroy

7477

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

congenital lymphatic malformation / lymphedema

7478

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3740:Wermer

7479

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN 1;parathyroid (hypercalcemia; kidney stones);pituitary;pancreas (ulcers)

7480

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3741:Sipple

7481

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN 2a;pheochromo;parathyroid;thyroid

7482

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3742:shy-drager

7483

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ANS failure -> orthostatic hypotension and parkinsonism

7484

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3743:Budd-Chiari

7485

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IVC or hepatic vein occlusion (caused by malignancy or congenital IVC webs)

7486

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3744:Bloom's

7487

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

auto rec = small body size; immunodeficiency; light-sensitive facial erythema; predisp cancer

7488

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3745:Rett

7489

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

only females; severe impairment; characteristic hand wringing movements

7490

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3746:Churg-Strauss

7491

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

allergic granulomatosis and angiitis -> asthma and eosinophilia and vasculitis

7492

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3747:Reye

7493

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

postviral/aspirin -> enlarged distorted mitochrondria -> esp. liver (disruption biochemical pathways -> microvesicular steatosis); brain (edema). 75% mild; 25% coma; liver failure or cns#; incr ammonia

7494

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3748:Wiskott-Aldrich

7495

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

thrombocytopenia; eczema; recurrent sinopulmonary infections;low IgM; high IgE; IgG; IgA; defective response to polysaccharide antigens (defect T cells prevents binding to B cells);12% chance of non-hodgkin lymphoma!

7496

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3749:Chediak-Higashi

7497

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

no lysosomal enzymes in phagosomes -> giant inclusions -> infections (neutropenia); albinism; nerve deficits; bleeding diathesis

7498

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3750:Tuberous sclerosis

7499

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MR; seizures; hypopigment (!!); angiofibromata (adenoma sebaceum); large cortical hamartomas; renal angiomyolipomas; cardial rhabdomyomas

7500

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3751:de Quervain

7501

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

postviral destruction thyroid causing hyper than hypo

7502

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3752:Nelson

7503

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

extreme hyperpigmentation after adrenalectomy

7504

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3753:Eisenmenger

7505

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

shift from L-R shunt to R-L dus to pulm HT

7506

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3754:Dressler's

7507

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

complication MI -> autoimmune fibrinous pericarditis with fever and peripleural chest pain (several weeks after MI)

7508

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3755:Peutz-jeghers

7509

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

polyps (complex branching pattern; benign); melanin spots and incr risk breast/pancreas/overy/uterus/lung ca

7510

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3756:Potter

7511

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

bilateral renal agenesis -> oligohydramnios

7512

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3757:Lesch-Nyhan

7513

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

purine metabolism# (no HGPRT);aggressive; self-mutilation; gout; gouty nephropathy; yellow-orange crystals of uric acid in diaper

7514

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3758:maple syrup disease

7515

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

branched chain amino acid #;motor abnormalities and seizures

7516

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3759:phenylketonuria

7517

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

aromatic amino acid metabolism #;mental retardation

7518

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3760:orotic aciduria

7519

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pyrimidine metabolism #;retarder growtha nd development and megaloblastic anemia

7520

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3761:homocystinuria

7521

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

sulfur containing amino acid #;mental retardation; dislocation of lenses; osteoporosis; thrombosis

7522

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3762:Binswanger

7523

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

subcortical leukencephalopathy ;Diffuse loss of deep white matter - ass hypertension

7524

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3763:Albinism

7525

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

copper-dependent tyrosinase deficiency -> block production melanin from aromatic amino acid tyrosine

7526

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3764:Pickwickian syndrome

7527

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

= obesity hypoventilation syndrome;obesity and sleep apnea

7528

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3765:What are the risk factors for HTN?

7529

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

increased age;obesity;diabetes;smoking;genetics;blacks > whites > Asians

7530

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3766:What does HTN predispose?

7531

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

atherosclerosis;stroke;CHF;renal failure;retinopathy;aortic dissection

7532

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3767:Monckeberg atherosclerosis

7533

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

calcification of the arteries; esp. radial or ulnar;usually benign

7534

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3768:atreriolosclerosis

7535

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hyaline thickening of small arteries in essential HTN;hyperplastic "onion-skinning" in malignant HTN

7536

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3769:atherosclerosis

7537

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

disease of elastic arteries and large and medium-sized muscular arteries

7538

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3770:What are the risk factors in developing atherosclerosis?

7539

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

smoking;HTN;diabetes mellitus;hyperlipidemia;family history

7540

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3771:What are the complications of atherosclerosis?

7541

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

aneurysms;ischemia;infarcts;peripheral vascular disease;thrombus;emboli

7542

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3772:Where do atherosclerotic plaques tend to form?

7543

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

abdominal aorta > coronary artery > popliteal artery > carotid artery

7544

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3773:What is the progression of atherosclerosis?

7545

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

fatty streaks -> proliferative plaque -> complex atheromas

7546

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3774:stable angina

7547

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

most common form of angina;pain precipitated by exertion and is relieved by rest or vasodilators (e.g; nitroglycerine)

7548

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3775:Prinzmetal's angina

7549

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

intermittent chest pain at rest;caused by vasospasm

7550

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3776:unstable/cresendo angina

7551

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

prolonged or recurrent pain at rest;often indicative of imminent MI

7552

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3777:Which type of angina has pain that is relieved by rest?

7553

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

stable angina

7554

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3778:Which type of angina has pain that gets worse during rest

7555

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prinzmetal's angina;unstable/cresendo angina

7556

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3779:Which type of angina has intermittent chest pain at rest?

7557

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prinzmetal's angina

7558

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3780:Which type of angina is caused by vasospasms?

7559

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prinzmetal's angina

7560

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3781:Which type of angina is relieved by vasodilators?

7561

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

stable angina

7562

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3782:Which type of angina is indicative of imminent MI?

7563

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

unstable/cresendo angina

7564

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3783:Which type of angina is a result of severe narrowing of atheroscclerotic coronary vessels?

7565

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

stable angina

7566

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3784:What is the most common form of angina?

7567

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

stable angina

7568

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3785:Where do red (hemorrhagic) infarcts occur?

7569

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

loose tissue w/ collaterals (e.g; lungs; intestine) or following reperfusion

7570

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3786:Where do pale infarcts occur?

7571

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

in solid tissues w/ single blood supply (e.g; brain; heart; kidney; spleen)

7572

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3787:Which coronary arteries are occluded the most? the least?

7573

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LAD > RCA > circumflex

7574

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3788:When is an MI maximally yellow and soft?

7575

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

10 days post-MI

7576

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3789:When are contraction bands visible on an MI?

7577

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

4 hours post-MI

7578

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3790:When is ECG the best method of diagnosis of an MI?

7579

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

w/in the first 6 hours post-MI

7580

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3791:When does cardiac troponin I begin to rise? How long does it stay elevated?

7581

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

rises after 4 hours;elevated for 7-10 days

7582

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3792:What is the test of choice for MI in the first 24 hours post-MI?

7583

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CK-MB

7584

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3793:How long does LDH stay elevated post-MI?

7585

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

2-7 days

7586

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3794:Is AST specific for liver?

7587

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

no;can also be found in cardiac; liver and skeletal muscle cells

7588

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3795:ST elevation

7589

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

transmural infarct

7590

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3796:ST depression

7591

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

subendocardial infarct

7592

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3797:Q waves

7593

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

transmural infarct

7594

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3798:What are the complications of an MI?

7595

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

cardiac arrhythmia;LV failure and pulmonary edema;cardiogenic shock;rupture of ventricular free wall; interventricular septum; papillary muscle; cardiac tamponade;thromboembolism - mural thrombus;fibrinous pericarditis (friction fub);Dressler's syndrome (autoimmune pheenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis)
7596

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3799:What is the most common cardiomyopathy?

7597

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy - 90%

7598

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3800:What type of cardiomyopathy causes systolic dysfunction?

7599

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

7600

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3801:What type of cardiomyopathy causes diastolic dysfunction?

7601

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

7602

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3802:hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

7603

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

walls of LV are thickened (esp. the ventricular septum) and chamber becomes banana shaped;cause of sudden death in young athletes;50% inheriited as autosomal dominant trait;characterized microscopically by disoriented and tangled myocardial fibers

7604

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3803:dilated cardiomyopathy

7605

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

most comon form of cardiomyopathy;characterized by dilation of both ventricles and by both right- and left-sided heart failure

7606

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3804:restrictive cardiomyopathy

7607

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

caused by infiltrative processes w/in myocardium that results in stiffening of the heart muscle -> interferes w/ pumping action;exemplified by cardiac amloidosis -> right- and leftsided heart failure

7608

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3805:mitral regurgitation

7609

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

holosystolic high-pitched "blowing murmur";loudest at apex

7610

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3806:aortic stenosis

7611

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following ejection click;LV >> aortic pressure during systole;radiates to carotids/apex

7612

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3807:VSD

7613

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

holosystolic murmur

7614

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3808:mitral prolapse

7615

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

late systolic murmuc w/ midsystolic click;most frequent valvular lesion

7616

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3809:aortic regurgitation

7617

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

immediate high-pitched "blowing" diastolic murmur;wide pulse pressure

7618

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3810:mitral stenosis

7619

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

follows opening snap;delayed rumbling late diastolic murmur;LA >> LV pressure during diastole

7620

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3811:patent ductus arteriosus

7621

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

continusos machine-like murmur;loudest at time of S2

7622

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3812:What are the causes of serous pericarditis?

7623

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

SLE;rheumatoid arthritis;infection;uremia

7624

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3813:What are the causes of fibrinous pericarditis?

7625

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

uremia;MI;rheumatic fever

7626

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3814:What are the causes of hemorrhagic pericarditis?

7627

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TB;malignancy

7628

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3815:What are the findings in hemorrhagic pericarditis?

7629

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

pericardial pain;friction rub;ECG chances (diffuse ST elevations in all leads);pulsus paradoxus;distant heart sounds

7630

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3816:syphilitic heart disease

7631

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

tertiary syphilis disrupts the vasa vasorum of the aorta -> dilation of the aorta and valve ring;"tree bark" appearance of the aorta

7632

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3817:Buerger's disease;(aka thromboangiitis obliterans)

7633

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acute inflammation involving small to medium size arteries of the extremities; extending to adjacent veins and nerves;clearly assoc. w/ smoking

7634

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3818:What is the treatment for Buerger's disease?

7635

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

quit smoking

7636

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3819:Takayasu's arteritis

7637

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

inflammation and stenosis of medium and large sized arteries w/ freq. involvement of the aortic arch and its branches -> arotic arch syndrome;assoc. w/ elevated ESR;primarily affects young Asian females

7638

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3820:What are the clinical symptoms of Tayakasu's arteritis?

7639

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

(FAN ON MY SKIN On Wednesday);Fever;Arthritis;Night sweats;MYalgia;SKIN nodules;Ocular disturbances;Weak pulses in upper extremities

7640

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3821:Takayasu's arteritis primarily affects what population?

7641

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

young Asian females

7642

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3822:Buerger's diease affects what vessels?

7643

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

small and intermediate vessels of the extremities

7644

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3823:Takayasu's arteritis involves what vessels?

7645

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

medium and large arteries w/ frequent involvement of the aortic arch and its branches

7646

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3824:temporal arteritis;(giant cell arteritis)

7647

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

most common vasculitis that affects medium and small arteries; usually branches of carotid artery

7648

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3825:What are the clinical symptoms of temporal arteritis?

7649

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

unilateral headache;jaw claudication;imparied vision (occlusion of opthalmic artery -> blindness)

7650

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3826:What population does temporal arteritis affect most?

7651

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

elderly females

7652

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3827:Temporal arteritis is associated w/ what lab finding?

7653

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

elevated ESR

7654

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3828:polyarteritis nodosa

7655

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

necrotizing immue complex inflammation of medium-sized muscular arteries; typically involving renal and visceral vessels

7656

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3829:What is the treatment for polyarteritis nodosa?

7657

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

corticosteroids;cyclophosphamide

7658

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3830:Wegner's granulomatosis

7659

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

characterized by focal necrotizing vasculitis and necrotizing granulomas in the lung and upper airway and by necrotizing glomerulonephritis

7660

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3831:What is a strong marker for Wegner's granulomatosis?

7661

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

C-ANCA

7662

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3832:What is the treatment for Wegner's granulomatosis?

7663

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids

7664

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3833:microscopic polyangiitis

7665

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

similar to Wegner's granulomatosis but lacks granulomas;P- or C-ANCA

7666

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3834:Churg-Strauss syndrome

7667

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

granulomatous vasculitis w/ eosinophilia

7668

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3835:What organs are involved in Churg-Strauss syndrome?

7669

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

lung; heart; skin; kidneys; nerves

7670

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3836:Kawasaki's disease

7671

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

acute; self-limiting disease of infants/kids;acute necrotizing vasculitis of small/medium-sized vessels

7672

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3837:People w/ Kawasaki's disease may develop what?

7673

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

coronary aneurysms

7674

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3838:what does uremia do to the bone marrow?

7675

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

makes it less responsive to EPO

7676

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3839:what is hydroxyurea used for?

7677

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

increases production of fetal hemoglobin HbF

7678

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3840:what are Howell Jolly bodies?

7679

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

inclusions of nuclear chromatin remnants seen in RBCs of pts with hypoactive splenic function

7680

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3841:why should sickle cell patients consider prophylactice cholecystectomy?

7681

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

70% of sickle cell patients develop symptomatic cholelithiasis

7682

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3842:why does hepatosplenomegaly develop in thalassemia pts?

7683

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

increased hemolysis of abnormal RBCs by macrophages in the spleen and liver; extramedullary hematopoiesis

7684

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3843:where is dietary iron absorbed and in what form?

7685

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

absorbed in proximal duodenum; we eat Fe+++ and absorb as Fe++

7686

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3844:why do pts with chronic disease develop anemia?

7687

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. chronic inflammation leads to more cytokines in blood and resulting increase in phagocytic activity destroying RBCs;2. cytokines inhibit renal secretion of EPO;3. lactoferrin released by inflammatory cells binds serum iron and makes it unavailable for erythropoiesis

7688

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3845:what's the big picture problem in anemia of chronic disease and iron?

7689

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

high iron stores; but unavailable to the body

7690

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3846:what does B12 do?

7691

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. catalyzes conversion of homocysteine to methionine;2. catalyzes conversion of methyltetrahydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate;3. converts methylmalonic acid to succinyl CoA

7692

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3847:what is tetrahydrofolate?

7693

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

form of folic acid used in DNA synthesis

7694

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3848:what is G6PD?

7695

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

the rate-limiting step in HMP pathway for NADPH production

7696

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3849:what is glutathione?

7697

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

after reduction by NADPH; it combats oxidatative damage in cells

7698

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3850:what is primary hemostasis?

7699

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

production of the temporary platelet plug

7700

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3851:how does tPA work as a clot buster?

7701

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

it's an enzyme that activates plasminogen; converting it to plasmin which cleaves fibrin strands

7702

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3852:how does heparin work?

7703

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

stimulates antithrombin III; which inhibits thrombin (factor II)

7704

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3853:what is microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

7705

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

hemolytic anemia due to intravascular fracture of RBCs

7706

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3854:E. coli 0157 and Shigella species are known for causing what heme dysfunction?

7707

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TTP or HUS

7708

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3855:what's the main problem in TTP or HUS?

7709

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

endothelial damage leads to platelet consumption

7710

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3856:what does desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) do?

7711

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

stimulates the liver to produce plasma clotting factors

7712

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3857:what are 2 common causes of acquired platelet dysfunction?

7713

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

uremia and NSAIDs

7714

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3858:how do clopidogrel and ticlopidine work?

7715

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

these 2 antiplatelet drugs block platelet-ADP receptor activation

7716

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3859:how do abciximab; eptifibatide and tirofiban work?

7717

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

inhibit platelet GpIIb-IIIa receptor which mediates aggregation via a "fibrinogen bridge"

7718

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3860:what anticoagulant can cause thrombocytopenia?

7719

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

heparin in 1-3% of pts;;can cause 2 syndromes;HITS: heparin induced thrombocytopenia syndrome;HITT: heparin induced thrombocytopenia thrombosis

7720

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3861:how can ITP be treated?

7721

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

prednisone to slow the immune-mediated destruction of platelets

7722

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3862:What is the term for an abnormal amount of collagen type III that produces a large bulging scar; seen primarily in blacks?

7723

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Keloid

7724

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3863:True or false? Klinefelter syndrome cannot be diagnosed until puberty.

7725

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True

7726

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3864:What form of sunlight is the most carcinogenic?

7727

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight

7728

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3865:What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of the glomerular capillary wall; granular appearance under the microscope; and effacement of foot processes?

7729

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Membranous glomerulonephritis

7730

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3866:What enveloped RNA retrovirus infects CD4 T cells and uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

7731

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HIV

7732

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3867:What enzyme is deficient in chronic granulomatous disease of childhood?

7733

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

NADPH oxidase

7734

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3868:What rare disorder presents as a large; hard; irregular thyroid gland due to fibrous proliferation of connective tissue in the thyroid gland and extends to adjacent structures?

7735

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Riedel thyroiditis

7736

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3869:Rheumatic fever most commonly follows pharyngeal infections with what bacteria?

7737

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Group A beta -hemolytic streptococci

7738

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3870:What benign cardiac tumor is associated with tuberous sclerosis?

7739

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Rhabdomyoma

7740

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3871:What are the rules of 10 regarding pheochromocytoma?

7741

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

10% are bilateral; 10% malignant; and 10% familial; 10% in children; 10% outside the adrenal gland; and 10x more likely to be seen on the USMLE than in real life

7742

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3872:What vascular pathology is associated with HTN in the upper extremities; hypotension in the lower extremities; and a radial-femoral delay?

7743

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)

7744

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3873:What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27positive young females and presents with the triad of conjunctivitis; urethritis; and arthritis affecting the knees and ankles?

7745

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Reiter syndrome

7746

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3874:What AD disease involves hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles in association with esophageal carcinoma?

7747

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tylosis

7748

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3875:A 20-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease goes to the ER with a tender; painful; swollen; and erythematous knee (monoarticular). What organism is the likely culprit?

7749

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)

7750

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3876:What vasculitis is characterized by systemic vasculitis in small to medium- size vessels (except the lung); affecting young males; 30% HBsAg-positive; P-ANCA and autoantibodies against myeloperoxidase?

7751

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Polyarteritis nodosa

7752

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3877:What malignant bone tumor is associated with familial retinoblastoma?

7753

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteosarcoma

7754

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3878:What bilateral AR disorder seen in infancy as progressive renal failure has multiple small cysts at right angles to the cortical surface?

7755

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Polycystic kidney disease of childhood

7756

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3879:In what syndrome does the patient have angiomatosis; renal cell carcinomas; pheochromocytomas; retinal; cerebellar; medulla; or spinal cord hemangioblastomas; and epidermal cysts?

7757

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

7758

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3880:What is the term for hyperextension of the PIP and flexion of the DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis?

7759

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Swan-neck deformities

7760

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3881:What is the term for white retinal spots surrounded by hemorrhage? In what condition are they seen?

7761

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Roth spots; and they are seen in bacterial endocarditis.

7762

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3882:A 70-year-old man complains of urinary urgency; nocturia; hesitancy; postvoid dribbling; urinary retention; and a PSA result of 6.5 ng/mL. What is your diagnosis?

7763

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

BPH. Although an argument can be made for prostatic cancer (you should expect a much higher PSA result); these are buzzwords for BPH. Prostatic cancer is usually silent until late in the disease; when obstructive symptoms begin to occur.

7764

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3883:What triad consists of endothelial injury; changes in laminar flow; and hypercoagulation?

7765

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Virchow triad; associated with the formation of a thrombus.

7766

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3884:What bone cell has receptors for PTH?

7767

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteoblasts (Remember; they modulate the function of osteoclasts.)

7768

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3885:What type of peptic ulcer disease is characterized by the onset of burning epigastric pain immediately after eating?

7769

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gastric ulcer

7770

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3886:What is the term for normal cellular genes associated with growth and differentiation?

7771

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Proto-oncogenes

7772

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3887:Blue sclera is seen in what hereditary bone disorder?

7773

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteogenesis imperfecta

7774

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3888:What form of anemia is diagnosed with sucrose lysis test and Ham test?

7775

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

7776

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3889:In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia; defective degranulation; and delayed microbial killing due to a problem in chemotaxis and migration?

7777

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chdiak-Higashi syndrome

7778

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3890:What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit; blood viscosity; basophils; and eosinophils; intense pruritus; and gastric ulcers due to histamine release from basophils; increased left atrial pressure; and plethora?

7779

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Polycythemia vera (Remember; polycythemia vera is a risk factor for acute leukemias.)

7780

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3891:If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary emboli; is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or perfusion side?

7781

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ventilation of an unperfused lung segment is highly suspicious for pulmonary embolism.

7782

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3892:What transports iron in the blood?

7783

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transferrin

7784

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3893:What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?

7785

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ALL (nearly 1520 times the normal risk)

7786

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3894:What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia; epiphyseal enlargements; and costochondral widening; with the endochondral bones being affected?

7787

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Rickets

7788

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3895:A Japanese man has weight loss; anorexia; early satiety; epigastric abdominal pain; and a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node. On endoscopy you find a large; irregular ulcer with elevated margins on the lesser curvature of the stomach. What is your diagnosis?

7789

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gastric carcinoma

7790

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3896:What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia; can impair motor activity; and can cause lung problems?

7791

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Marijuana

7792

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3897:What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with a cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with full recovery?

7793

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transient ischemic attack

7794

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3898:What is the name of the tumor when gastric carcinoma spreads to the ovaries?

7795

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Krukenberg tumor

7796

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3899:What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme hexosaminidase A?

7797

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Tay-Sachs disease

7798

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3900:Which cerebral herniation results in compression of the anterior cerebral artery?

7799

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)

7800

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3901:What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout the body via increased fibroblast activity; occurs in women more than men; and is most commonly seen in the third to the fifth decade?

7801

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scleroderma

7802

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3902:What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly; ascites; and abdominal pain due to hepatic vein thrombosis?

7803

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Budd-Chiari syndrome

7804

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3903:What form of angina is characterized by;? Coronary artery vasospasm; symptom occurrence at rest; ST segment elevation (during episode); and no signs on ECG?

7805

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prinzmetal variant angina

7806

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3904:What form of angina is characterized by;? Coronary artery luminal narrowing; symptom occurrence during exertion; ST segment depression on ECG?

7807

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable angina

7808

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3905:What form of angina is characterized by;? Coronary artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence with increasing frequency; duration; intensity; and decreasing activity; frequently at rest?

7809

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Unstable (crescendo) angina

7810

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3906:What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytes presenting as small; oval; light brown macules?

7811

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Benign lentigo

7812

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3907:What is the term for nonneoplastic abnormal proliferation of cell size; shape; and cellular organization?

7813

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dysplasia

7814

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3908:What diagnosis ensues from finding well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees; elbows; and scalp along with nail bed pitting and discoloration?

7815

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Psoriasis

7816

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3909:What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of capillaries around the mesangial nodules?

7817

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease

7818

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3910:What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by affecting a middle-aged woman with jaundice; pruritus; fatigue; xanthomas; increased direct bilirubin levels; and antimitochondrial Abs?

7819

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Primary biliary cirrhosis

7820

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3911:What cell in chronic inflammation is derived from blood monocytes?

7821

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Macrophages

7822

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3912:True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results in vitamin B12 malabsorption.

7823

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum.

7824

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3913:What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess serotonin; is associated with diarrhea; flushing; bronchospasms; wheezing; and is diagnosed by findings of elevated urinary 5-HIAA levels?

7825

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Carcinoid tumor

7826

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3914:What tumor constitutes 40% of testicular tumors in children?

7827

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Teratoma

7828

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3915:What urinary metabolite is elevated in pheochromocytoma?

7829

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

7830

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3916:A 25-year-old black woman presents with nonproductive cough; shortness of breath; fatigue; and malaise; she has bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest radiography and elevated ACE levels. What do you diagnose?

7831

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sarcoidosis

7832

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3917:What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low MCV?

7833

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e; porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) ;2. Thalassemia ;3. Iron deficiency ;4. Lead poisoning

7834

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3918:What is characterized by an intense inflammatory reaction; an increase in the amounts of granulation tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts?

7835

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Healing by secondary intention

7836

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3919:What thyroiditis presents as a tender; enlarged; firm thyroid gland; usually preceded by an upper respiratory viral illness?

7837

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

de Quervain thyroiditis

7838

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3920:What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the TSH receptor?

7839

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Graves disease

7840

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3921:What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive; mental retardation; motor incoordination; and stunted growth?

7841

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Iodine; resulting in congenital hypothyroidism

7842

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3922:What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with MEN I syndrome?

7843

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gastrinoma

7844

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3923:What type of PUD is classically described by the onset of burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after eating that is relieved by food?

7845

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Duodenal ulcer

7846

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3924:What disease arises from the adrenal medulla; displaces and crosses the midline; metastasizes early; is the most common solid tumor; and is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group?

7847

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neuroblastoma

7848

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3925:What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?

7849

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Familial hypercholesterolemia

7850

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3926:A 20-year-old woman goes to the ER with ptosis; diplopia; weakness in her jaw muscles when chewing; and muscle weakness with repeated use. What is your diagnosis?

7851

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Myasthenia gravis

7852

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3927:What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the surface of their membrane; commonly seen in uremia?

7853

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Burr cells (echinocytes)

7854

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3928:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Beta-hCG

7855

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors

7856

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3929:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? CA-125

7857

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ovarian cancer

7858

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3930:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? CA-19.9 and CEA

7859

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pancreatic cancer

7860

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3931:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? alphaFetoprotein

7861

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors

7862

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3932:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Calcitonin

7863

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

7864

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3933:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase

7865

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prostate cancer

7866

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3934:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Placental alkaline phosphatase

7867

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Seminoma

7868

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3935:Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.);? CEA

7869

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cancer of the lung; stomach; colon; and breast

7870

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3936:What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27positive young men; involves the sacroiliac joints; has no subcutaneous nodules; and has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?

7871

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ankylosing spondylitis

7872

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3937:What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count; prolonged PT and PTT; decreased fibrinogen; and increased fibrin split products (D-dimers)?

7873

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

7874

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3938:What spirochete is responsible for Lyme disease?

7875

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Borrelia burgdorferi

7876

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3939:What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early and is associated with smoking and paraneoplastic syndromes?

7877

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)

7878

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3940:What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors; bone pain; deformities; and fractures due to excessive PTH?

7879

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)

7880

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3941:What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies?;? Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)

7881

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pompe's disease

7882

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3942:What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies?;? Muscle phosphorylase

7883

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

McArdle's syndrome

7884

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3943:What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies?;? Glucose-6-phosphatase

7885

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

von Gierke's disease

7886

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3944:What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?

7887

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Serocystadenocarcinoma

7888

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3945:What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most common precursor of choriocarcinoma?

7889

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hydatidiform mole

7890

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3946:In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?

7891

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pyelonephritis

7892

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3947:What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis;? Overall?

7893

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus

7894

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3948:What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis;? In neonates?

7895

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Streptococcus agalactiae

7896

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3949:What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis;? In patients with sickle cell disease?

7897

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)

7898

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3950:What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis;? In drug addicts?

7899

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pseudomonas

7900

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3951:What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur; pelvis; and tibia; and chromosome 11;22 translocation?

7901

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ewing's sarcoma

7902

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3952:What lymphoma is characterized by CD19; CD20; CD5; CD23-negative; and chromosome 11;14 translocations?

7903

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mantle cell lymphoma

7904

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3953:What components of the complement cascade form the MAC?

7905

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

C5bC9

7906

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3954:True or false? HPV infection increases the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.

7907

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma.

7908

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3955:What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome?

7909

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Preductal (infantile)

7910

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3956:True or false? An elevated serum osteocalcin level is a marker for increased bone formation.

7911

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are associated with increased bone formation.

7912

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3957:What is the most common opportunistic infection of the CNS in HIV?

7913

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Toxoplasmosis

7914

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3958:What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased osteoclast function; resulting in thick; sclerotic bones that fracture easily?

7915

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteopetrosis (Albers-Sch?nberg disease)

7916

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3959:True or false? Pancreatic delta-cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion; leading to gallstones and steatorrhea.

7917

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Delta-Cell tumors produce excess somatostatin; which inhibits CCK; gastrin (hypochlorhydria); and insulin secretion (diabetes).

7918

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3960:What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in patients with Down syndrome?

7919

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Brushfield spots

7920

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3961:What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral body due to TB?

7921

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pott disease

7922

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3962:What organ must metastasize for carcinoid heart disease to occur?

7923

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Liver

7924

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3963:Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following?;? Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid; pheochromocytoma; and mucocutaneous neuromas

7925

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN III (or IIb)

7926

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3964:Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following?;? Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid; pheochromocytoma; and parathyroid adenomas (or hyperplasia)

7927

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)

7928

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3965:Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following?;? Parathyroid; pancreatic; and pituitary gland tumors and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

7929

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN I (or Wermer syndrome)

7930

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3966:What X-linked recessive disease involves mental retardation; self-mutilation; choreoathetosis; spasticity; a decrease in HGPRT; and an increase in uricemia?

7931

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

7932

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3967:What disorder is associated with spider angiomas; palmar erythema; gynecomastia; testicular atrophy; encephalopathy; abnormalities in clotting factors; and portal HTN?

7933

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cirrhosis

7934

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3968:What is your diagnosis of a young; thin asymptomatic female with a midsystolic click on cardiac auscultation?

7935

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mitral valve prolapse

7936

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3969:What infection is associated with ring-enhancing lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an HIV-positive individual?

7937

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)

7938

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3970:What is the term for a reversible change in one cell type to another?

7939

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Metaplasia (usually to a more protective cell type)

7940

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3971:What liver tumor is associated with oral contraceptive pill use?

7941

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatic adenomas

7942

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3972:What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?

7943

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2

7944

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3973:What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated and humoral immune responses that can be either X-linked or AR?

7945

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

7946

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3974:What condition results in the following CSF results?;? Opening pressure 70 to 180 mm H2O; 010 WBCs (monocytes); glucose 45 to 85; protein 15 to 45

7947

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Normal values

7948

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3975:What condition results in the following CSF results?;? Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels

7949

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Brain abscess

7950

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3976:What condition results in the following CSF results?;? Opening pressure 100 mm H2O; 120 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose levels; protein 17

7951

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Viral meningitis

7952

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3977:What condition results in the following CSF results?;? Opening pressure 250 mm H2O; WBCs 250 (90% lymphocytes); glucose 35; protein 100

7953

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TB meningitis

7954

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3978:What condition results in the following CSF results?;? Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120

7955

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bacterial meningitis

7956

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3979:True or false? Removal of the ileum results in vitamin B12 deficiencies.

7957

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. The ileum is the site where vitamin B12 is absorbed.

7958

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3980:What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200; protein level 2.5; and a specific gravity below 1.020?

7959

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and has an elevated cellular content.

7960

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3981:What is the term for thickened; hyperpigmented skin in the axillae; groin; and skin folds associated with malignancies; obesity; and DM?

7961

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acanthosis nigricans

7962

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3982:How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hours to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

7963

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

>3.5 g/day of protein; along with generalized edema; hypoalbuminemia; and hyperlipidemia

7964

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3983:What illicit drug can cause amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?

7965

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Heroin

7966

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3984:What catecholamine-hypersecreting tumor; a secondary cause of HTN; results in headache; diaphoresis; anxiety; tachycardia; and palpitations?

7967

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pheochromocytoma

7968

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3985:What is the term for flattened nose; low-set ears; and recessed chin seen in patients with bilateral renal agenesis?

7969

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Potter facies

7970

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3986:What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical incision?

7971

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Primary intention

7972

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3987:What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?

7973

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CMV retinitis and HSV-2

7974

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3988:What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak barium swallow result?

7975

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)

7976

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3989:Does Cushing syndrome or Cushing disease have elevated ACTH levels and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone?

7977

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone; whereas Cushing's syndrome (adrenal adenoma) has decreased ACTH and no cortisol suppression with dexamethasone.

7978

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3990:What CD4 T-cell receptor does the HIV virus bind to?

7979

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

gp120

7980

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3991:What is the term for RBC fragments?

7981

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Schistocytes

7982

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3992:What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?

7983

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Albinism

7984

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3993:What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

7985

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal Abs

7986

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3994:What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is associated with PUD and chronic gastritis?

7987

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Helicobacter pylori; which is also associated with an increased risk of gastric carcinoma

7988

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3995:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Alkylating agents

7989

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leukemias and lymphomas

7990

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3996:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Aromatic amines and azo dyes

7991

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatocellular carcinoma

7992

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3997:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Arsenic

7993

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma (skin; lung) and angiosarcoma of the liver

7994

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3998:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Asbestos

7995

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma

7996

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q3999:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Naphthylamine

7997

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bladder cancer

7998

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4000:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Benzenes

7999

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leukemias

8000

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4001:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Vinyl chloride

8001

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Angiosarcoma of the liver

8002

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4002:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Chromium and nickel

8003

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bronchogenic carcinoma

8004

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4003:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

8005

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bronchogenic carcinoma

8006

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4004:Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.);? Nitrosamines

8007

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gastric cancer

8008

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4005:What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?

8009

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Autoimmune hypersplenism ;2. Trauma ;3. Anemia ;4. Spherocytosis ;5. Sickle cell anemia

8010

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4006:What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with hypoglycemia; sweating; hunger; confusion; and increased Cpeptide levels?

8011

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Insulinoma

8012

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4007:What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with von Willebrand disease?

8013

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ristocetin

8014

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4008:What X-linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality in the dystrophin gene; has onset by age 5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness; calf pseudohypertrophy; and elevated CPK levels?

8015

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Remember; Becker's is slower in progress; less severe; later in onset; and lacks cardiac involvement.)

8016

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4009:What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the terminal bronchioles and/or alveolar walls?

8017

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma

8018

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4010:What estrogen-producing tumor of the female genital tract is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?

8019

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary

8020

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4011:What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps; most commonly affects the colorectal area; and is associated with chromosome 5q21?

8021

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Familial polyposis coli

8022

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4012:What is the term for osteophyte formation at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints in osteoarthritis? In the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints?

8023

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in the DIP joints.

8024

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4013:What prostaglandin is associated with maintaining patency of the ductus arteriosus?

8025

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PGE (along with low oxygen tension)

8026

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4014:What is the term for dilated veins within the spermatic cord?

8027

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Varicocele

8028

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4015:What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space consists of fibrin; platelets; RBCs; and WBCs?

8029

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Thrombus

8030

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4016:What is the most common primary malignant tumor in bone?

8031

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteosarcoma

8032

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4017:What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?

8033

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pneumocystis carinii

8034

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4018:What myeloid disorder is characterized by dry bone marrow aspirations; splenomegaly; leukoerythroblastosis; teardrop RBCs; and hyperuricemia due to increased cell turnover?

8035

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia

8036

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4019:What disease that involves mental retardation; flat face; muscle hypotonia; and a double-bubble sign on radiograph poses an increased risk of Alzheimer's disease and ALL?

8037

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

8038

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4020:What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs against Rh antigens; positive direct Coombs test; and splenomegaly?

8039

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

8040

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4021:What urinary metabolite is increased in patients with carcinoid syndrome?

8041

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

8042

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4022:What chronic liver disease has a beaded appearance of the bile ducts on cholangiogram?

8043

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

8044

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4023:What three LTs are associated with bronchospasms and an increase in vessel permeability and vasoconstriction?

8045

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LC4; LD4; and LE 4

8046

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4024:What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?

8047

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Big ;2. Bilateral ;3. Berry aneurysm

8048

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4025:What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7; causing a defect in Cl- transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?

8049

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)

8050

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4026:What law states that an enlarged; palpable gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone obstruction?

8051

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Courvoisier's law

8052

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4027:What is the term for air in the pleural space?

8053

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pneumothorax

8054

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4028:What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick; weak bones and is associated with high-output cardiac failure?

8055

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

8056

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4029:What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the increase in cell size and function?

8057

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypertrophy

8058

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4030:What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly females is associated with psammoma bodies?

8059

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Meningioma

8060

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4031:True or false? Ethyl alcohol induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.

8061

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True

8062

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4032:What are the five components of portal HTN?

8063

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Caput medusae ;2. Esophageal varices ;3. Ascites ;4. Splenomegaly ;5. Hemorrhoids

8064

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4033:What syndrome results when there is a deletion to paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?

8065

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome; respectively

8066

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4034:What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?

8067

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Craniopharyngioma

8068

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4035:What is the triad of Reiter syndrome?

8069

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Conjunctivitis;2. Nongonococcal urethritis ;3. Peripheral arthritis ;Can't see; can't wee; can't kick with your knee

8070

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4036:Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholesterol gallstones: pregnancy; OCP use; female gender; hemolytic anemia; cirrhosis; and obesity? (May be more than one answer.)

8071

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cirrhosis and hemolytic anemia; which are risk factors for pigmented gallstones.

8072

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4037:Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining;? Mesangial deposits of IgA and C3

8073

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

8074

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4038:Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining;? Smooth and linear pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM

8075

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Goodpasture disease

8076

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4039:Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining;? Granular deposits of IgG; IgM; and C3 throughout the glomerulus

8077

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Postinfectious GN

8078

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4040:What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each other through the use of fibrinogen?

8079

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

GP IIb/IIIa; which is why GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors are used in the treatment of acute coronary syndromes

8080

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4041:What virus is associated with body cavity large B-cell lymphomas?

8081

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HHV-8

8082

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4042:What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15-to 35-year-old age group; peaks when the person is 35 years of age; and is a bulky mass that spreads via the lymphatic system?

8083

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Seminoma

8084

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4043:What transmural inflammatory bowel disease can be found from the mouth to anus; has noncaseating granulomas; is discontinuous (skip lesions); and has a cobblestone appearance; thickening of the bowel wall; linear fissures; and aphthous ulcers with normal mucosa between?

8085

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Crohn disease

8086

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4044:Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a patient is HIV-positive?

8087

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the diagnosis.

8088

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4045:What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C infections?

8089

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)

8090

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4046:What is the term for squamous to columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to chronic inflammation?

8091

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.

8092

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4047:What is the term for excessive amounts of granulation tissue that can block re-epithelialization and wound healing?

8093

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Proud flesh

8094

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4048:What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?

8095

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cytochrome c

8096

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4049:How much of a vessel must be stenosed to cause sudden cardiac death?

8097

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

More than 75% of the vessel

8098

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4050:Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G-6-PD deficiency?

8099

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Heinz bodies

8100

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4051:What syndrome that is due to an adrenal gland adenoma produces excess aldosterone resulting in HTN; hypokalemia; and low rennin levels?

8101

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

8102

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4052:What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?

8103

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

EBV

8104

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4053:What normochromic; normocytic AD anemia has splenomegaly and increased osmotic fragility?

8105

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hereditary spherocytosis

8106

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4054:What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead to?

8107

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gigantism

8108

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4055:What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?

8109

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Homogentisic oxidase

8110

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4056:What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty; masculinization; gynecomastia in adults; and crystalloids of Reinke?

8111

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cell tumor

8112

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4057:Name four major risk factors for atherosclerosis.

8113

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DM; hypercholesterolemia; smoking; and HTN are major risk factors. Being male; obesity; sedentary lifestyle; homocysteine elevation; oral contraceptive pills; and genetics are minor risk factors for atherosclerosis.

8114

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4058:Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in which the patient has long extremities; lax joints; pigeon chest; and posterior mitral leaflet prolapse and is prone to developing dissecting aortic aneurysm.

8115

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Marfan syndrome

8116

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4059:What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN; RVH; and cyanosis due to right-to-left reversal of the shunt?

8117

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eisenmenger syndrome; which can also occur with any left-toright shunt

8118

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4060:Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?

8119

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

G-6-PD deficiency

8120

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4061:What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and due to a deficiency in factor VIII?

8121

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemophilia A

8122

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4062:What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3 months of fever; fatigue; generalized lymphadenopathy; CNS involvement; hepatosplenomegaly; bleeding; and platelet count below 100; 000?

8123

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ALL

8124

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4063:What protein deficiency results in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?

8125

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Deficiency in surfactant

8126

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4064:What are the three components of amyloid?

8127

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Fibrillary protein ;2. Amyloid protein ;3. Glycosaminoglycans

8128

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4065:What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to ACh receptors at the NMJ?

8129

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Myasthenia gravis

8130

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4066:What are the three left-to-right shunts?

8131

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. VSD ;2. ASD ;3. PDA

8132

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4067:What protein causes fibrinolysis?

8133

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Plasmin

8134

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4068:What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with watery diarrhea; hypokalemia; and achlorhydria?

8135

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

VIPoma

8136

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4069:True or false? Obesity; DM; HTN; multiparity; early menarche; and late menopause are all risk factors for endometrial carcinoma.

8137

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

False. They are all risk factors for endometrial carcinoma except multiparity. Nulliparity; estrogen-producing tumors; and estrogen replacement therapy are also risk factors for endometrial carcinoma.

8138

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4070:What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1?

8139

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lisch nodules

8140

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4071:What GI pathology is associated with a positive string sign; an increase in the number of bloody stools; RLQ pain; skip lesions; terminal ileum most commonly affected; occurrence in women more than men; and an increased thickness of the bowel?

8141

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Crohn disease

8142

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4072:What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?

8143

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Candida

8144

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4073:True or false? GERD is a cause of asthma.

8145

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Don't forget this in your differential diagnosis of an asthmatic.

8146

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4074:Name the product or products of arachidonic acid;? Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium

8147

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PGI2

8148

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4075:Name the product or products of arachidonic acid;? Vasodilation

8149

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PGD2; PGE2; and PGF 2

8150

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4076:Name the product or products of arachidonic acid;? Pain and fever

8151

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PGE2

8152

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4077:Name the product or products of arachidonic acid;? Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produced by platelets

8153

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TXA2

8154

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4078:Name the product or products of arachidonic acid;? Chemotactic for neutrophils

8155

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LTB4

8156

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4079:Name the product or products of arachidonic acid;? Vasodilation; bronchospasm; and increased vascular permeability

8157

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

LTC4; LTD4; and LTE4

8158

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4080:Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low transmissibility?

8159

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HBeAb

8160

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4081:What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials?;? Miners; metal grinders; and sandblasters

8161

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Silicosis;Note: Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is synonymous with black lung disease; an upper lobe occupational disorder

8162

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4082:What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials?;? Aerospace industry; nuclear reactors

8163

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Berylliosis

8164

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4083:What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials?;? Shipyards; brake linings; insulation; and old building construction

8165

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Asbestosis

8166

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4084:What is the term for calcification of the gallbladder seen on radiograph due to chronic cholecystitis or adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder?

8167

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Porcelain gallbladder

8168

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4085:What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell size and function usually associated with disuse?

8169

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization; ischemia; aging; and a host of other causes.

8170

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4086:Which B-cell neoplasm has the following cell surface markers: CD19; CD20; CD5 (T-cell marker); CD23; and are CD10-negative?

8171

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CLL (B-cell origin)

8172

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4087:What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur; humerus; and tibia?

8173

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Caisson disease

8174

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4088:What are the four DNA oncogenic viruses?

8175

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. HPV ;2. EBV ;3. Hepatitis B ;4. Kaposi sarcoma

8176

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4089:Is the AD or AR form of osteopetrosis malignant?

8177

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.

8178

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4090:What carcinoma produces hematuria; flank pain; and a palpable mass?

8179

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma

8180

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4091:Name at least three causes of metastatic calcification.

8181

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT;P; (hyper) Parathyroid/ Paget disease;A; Addison's disease;M; Milkalkali syndrome/metastatic cancer;S; Sarcoidosis;M; Multiple myeloma;I; Immobilization/idiopathic;D; Vitamin D intoxication;T; Tumors

8182

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4092:What is the only subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma that is most commonly seen in females?

8183

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nodular sclerosis

8184

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4093:What is the leading cause of preventable premature death and illness in the United States?

8185

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Smoking

8186

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4094:What prion-associated CNS pathology produces rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus; involuntary movements; and death within 6 to 12 months?

8187

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

8188

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4095:What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the nipple and areola with crusting; fissuring; and oozing?

8189

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paget disease of the breast

8190

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4096:What breast pathology involves malignant cells with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?

8191

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paget disease of the breast

8192

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4097:Macro-ovalocytes in the peripheral blood smear are formed from what cell in the bone marrow?

8193

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Megaloblasts

8194

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4098:Name the type of exudate; given the following examples;? Sunburn

8195

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Serous exudates

8196

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4099:Name the type of exudate; given the following examples;? Uremic pericarditis

8197

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrinous exudates

8198

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4100:Name the type of exudate; given the following examples;? Parasitic infection

8199

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosinophilic exudates

8200

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4101:Name the type of exudate; given the following examples;? Diphtheria infection

8201

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pseudomembranous exudates

8202

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4102:Name the type of exudate; given the following examples;? Meningococcal infection

8203

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Purulent exudates

8204

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4103:Name the type of exudate; given the following examples;? Rickettsial infection

8205

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemorrhagic exudates

8206

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4104:What parasite is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?

8207

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Schistosoma haematobium

8208

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4105:What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal distention; bloating; flatulence; diarrhea; steatorrhea; and weight loss shortly after eating bread products?

8209

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Celiac sprue (gluten-sensitive enteropathy)

8210

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4106:What herpes virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?

8211

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HHV 8

8212

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4107:What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?

8213

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Kayser-Fleischer rings

8214

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4108:Name the six vitamin Kdependent coagulation factors.

8215

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Factors II; VII; IX; and X and proteins C and S.

8216

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4109:What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?

8217

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cystadenocarcinoma

8218

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4110:A marfanoid patient presents with tearing retrosternal chest pain radiating to her back. What is your first diagnosis?

8219

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list; but these are buzzwords to look for dissection.

8220

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4111:What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?

8221

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

8222

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4112:Name four chemotactic factors for neutrophils.

8223

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

N-formyl-methionine;LTB4;C5a;IL-8

8224

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4113:What is the term for granuloma at the lung apex in TB?

8225

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Simon focus

8226

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4114:What are the three platelet aggregating factors?

8227

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. ADP ;2. PG ;3. TXA2

8228

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4115:What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of the adrenal glands?

8229

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

8230

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4116:What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?

8231

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever

8232

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4117:What is the leading cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

8233

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chief cell adenoma (80%)

8234

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4118:In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in the HMP shunt; along with Heinz body formation?

8235

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

G-6-PD deficiency

8236

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4119:What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?

8237

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Target cell

8238

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4120:True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has no underlying pathology.

8239

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

False. The disease has no associated pathology; the phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an underlying disease.

8240

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4121:What benign solitary papillary growth within the lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces bloody nipple discharge?

8241

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Intraductal papilloma

8242

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4122:What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and is due to a deficiency in factor IX?

8243

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemophilia B

8244

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4123:What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?

8245

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency

8246

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4124:Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?

8247

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung; esophagus; ureter; and kidney; just to name a few.

8248

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4125:What disease has multiple schwannomas; caf-au-lait spots on the skin; and Lisch nodules and is associated with chromosome 17q?

8249

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)

8250

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4126:What syndrome is due to Abs directed to presynaptic calcium channels and causes axial and girdle muscle weakness that improves with repeated use?

8251

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

8252

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4127:In what rare lung malignancy have 90% of patients had an occupational exposure to asbestos?

8253

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Malignant mesothelioma

8254

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4128:What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in RBCs; seen in lead poisoning?

8255

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Basophilic stippling

8256

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4129:What is the triad of fat embolism?

8257

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Petechiae ;2. Hyperactive mental status ;3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g; long bone fracture)

8258

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4130:Upon seeing negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals from a joint aspiration of the great toe; what form of arthritis do you diagnose?

8259

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gout

8260

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4131:What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands; submaxillary gland; and submandibular gland with posterior uveal tract involvement?

8261

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mikulicz syndrome

8262

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4132:What female genital tract disorder is characterized by obesity; hirsutism; infertility; amenorrhea; elevated LH and testosterone levels; and low FSH levels?

8263

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Polycystic ovary disease (Stein-Leventhal syndrome)

8264

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4133:What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an elevated level of Ca2+; involves keratin pearls; occurs in men more than women; is associated with smoking; occurs in the major bronchi; and is seen in the central areas of the lung?

8265

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

8266

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4134:What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?

8267

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PKU

8268

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4135:True or false? Being a white male increases your risk factor for testicular cancer.

8269

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Oddly enough; it is true. Cryptorchidism; Klinefelter syndrome; testicular feminization; and family history of testicular cancer are all risk factors.

8270

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4136:Can an acute MI be diagnosed only by looking at an ECG?

8271

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

No. Remember; tests do not diagnose; they confirm or refute your diagnosis. Also; diagnosis of MI requires two of three criteria: chest pain consistent and characteristic of MI; elevated cardiac enzymes consistent with MI; and ST segment elevation of 2 mm or more in at least two contiguous leads.

8272

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4137:What autoimmune syndrome is characterized by keratoconjunctivitis; corneal ulcers; xerostomia; and an increased risk of high-grade B-cell lymphomas? What two Ab tests are used in making the diagnosis?

8273

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sj?gren's syndrome; SS-A (Ro) and SS-B (La)

8274

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4138:True or false? Sickle cell anemia; Caisson disease; chronic steroid use; and Gaucher disease are causes of avascular necrosis of bone.

8275

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Fractures and trauma; however; are the most common causes.

8276

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4139:What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is unable to be done?

8277

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

p-53

8278

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4140:Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

8279

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ulcerative colitis

8280

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4141:What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?

8281

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ELISA test

8282

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4142:How many caf-au-lait spots are necessary for the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?

8283

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

At least six

8284

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4143:What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting resulting in linear lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction?

8285

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

8286

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4144:What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?

8287

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Metastatic calcification

8288

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4145:What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around its vascular axis resulting in intestinal obstruction?

8289

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Volvulus

8290

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4146:What form of poisoning is associated with bitter almondscented breath?

8291

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cyanide

8292

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4147:Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties;? Circulating Ab-Ag immune complexes deposited in the tissue result in neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal enzymes.

8293

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)

8294

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4148:Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties;? IgE-mediated release of chemical mediators from basophils and mast cells; need prior exposure to Ag in the past; eosinophils amplify and continue reaction; can be system or localized.

8295

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)

8296

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4149:Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties;? IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue; complement-dependent or ADCC.

8297

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)

8298

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4150:Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties;? Reaction-mediated by sensitized Tcells

8299

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated)

8300

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4151:What highly undifferentiated aggressive CNS tumor of primordial neuroglial origin develops in children and is associated with pseudorosettes?

8301

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (i.e; medulloblastomas and retinoblastomas)

8302

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4152:What syndrome is due to anti-GBM Abs directed against the lung and kidneys?

8303

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Goodpasture syndrome

8304

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4153:What pathway of the coagulation cascade is activated when it is in contact with foreign surfaces?

8305

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.

8306

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4154:What tumor is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli; tubules; and stroma; and metastasizes late to the lungs?

8307

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Wilms tumor

8308

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4155:What CNS tumor commonly produces tinnitus and hearing loss?

8309

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Schwannoma

8310

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4156:True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in diagnosing CREST syndrome.

8311

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse scleroderma.

8312

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4157:What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood with gait ataxia; loss of deep tendon reflexes; impaired vibratory sensation; hand clumsiness; and loss of position sense?

8313

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Friedreich ataxia

8314

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4158:What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?

8315

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TXA2

8316

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4159:Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?

8317

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Transtentorial (uncal)

8318

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4160:What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch and causes obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum?

8319

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Syphilitic

8320

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4161:What is the main type of cell involved in cellular immunity?

8321

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

T lymphocyte

8322

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4162:What skin condition has irregular blotchy patches of hyperpigmentation on the face commonly associated with OCP use and pregnancy?

8323

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melasma

8324

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4163:What is the classic triad of TB?

8325

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fever; night sweats; and hemoptysis

8326

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4164:True or false? Blood clots lack platelets.

8327

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. A thrombus has platelets; but clots do not.

8328

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4165:What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with Birbeck granules?

8329

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Histiocytosis X

8330

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4166:What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in intrinsic factor?

8331

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)

8332

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4167:What cancer is particularly likely to affect English chimney sweeps?

8333

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scrotal cancer; due to the high exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

8334

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4168:What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity greater than 0.5 cm that lies between the layers of the skin?

8335

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bulla

8336

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4169:What virus is associated with the endemic form of Burkitt lymphoma?

8337

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

EBV

8338

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4170:With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level associated?

8339

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

GH-producing adenoma

8340

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4171:What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or carcinoma?

8341

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Less than 3 cm ;2. Clean base ;3. Level with the surrounding mucosa

8342

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4172:Name the four right-to-left congenital cardiac shunts.

8343

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Truncus (1) arteriosus;Transposition of the (2) great vessels;Tri(3)cuspid atresia;Tetra(4)logy of Fallot;They all begin with T

8344

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4173:What do low levels of Ca2+ and PO4- along with neuromuscular irritability indicate?

8345

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypoparathyroidism

8346

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4174:Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

8347

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: wPeT and hPiTT; which means warfarin; extrinsic; PT; heparin; intrinsic; PTT)

8348

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4175:What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?

8349

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Adult T-cell leukemia

8350

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4176:What ring is a weblike narrowing of the gastroesophageal junction?

8351

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Schatzki ring

8352

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4177:With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of the skin and the kidneys?

8353

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Henoch-Sch?nlein purpura

8354

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4178:What rapidly progressive and aggressive T-cell lymphoma affects young males with a mediastinal mass (thymic)?

8355

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lymphoblastic lymphoma

8356

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4179:What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?

8357

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)

8358

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4180:True or false? Psammoma bodies are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.

8359

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma bodies are seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and ovaries; as well as meningiomas.

8360

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4181:What is the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?

8361

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

<2

8362

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4182:What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes; muscle weakness; and ascending paralysis preceded by a viral illness?

8363

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Guillain-Barr syndrome

8364

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4183:What form of endocarditis do patients with SLE commonly encounter?

8365

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

8366

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4184:What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon associated with laxative abuse?

8367

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melanosis coli

8368

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4185:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Fever

8369

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Minor

8370

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4186:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Migratory polyarthritis

8371

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Major

8372

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4187:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Subcutaneous nodules

8373

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Major

8374

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4188:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Elevated acute phase reactants (e.g; ESR)

8375

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Minor

8376

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4189:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Arthralgias

8377

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Minor

8378

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4190:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Pericarditis

8379

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Major

8380

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4191:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Erythema marginatum

8381

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Major

8382

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4192:Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?;? Sydenham chorea

8383

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Major

8384

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4193:What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria?

8385

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bcl-2

8386

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4194:Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV-infected cells?

8387

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatitis D

8388

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4195:What are the three main components of amyloid?

8389

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrillary protein; amyloid protein; and glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly)

8390

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4196:What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia chromosomal translocation (9;22); massive splenomegaly; peripheral leukocytosis (commonly > 100; 00); decreased LAP levels; and nonspecific symptoms of fatigue; malaise; weight loss; and anorexia?

8391

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CML

8392

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4197:What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon complex?

8393

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle; whereas a Ghon complex is a focus with hilar lymph node involvement.

8394

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4198:In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys; rockerbottom feet; low-set ears; micrognathia; and mental retardation?

8395

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)

8396

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4199:What parasitic infection is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?

8397

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Clonorchis sinensis

8398

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4200:What disorder is associated with loss of polarity; anaplasia; pleomorphism; discohesiveness; increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio; hyperchromasia; and increase in the rate of mitosis?

8399

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Malignancy

8400

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4201:What is the term for telescoping of the proximal bowel into the distal segment presenting as abdominal pain; currant jelly stools; and intestinal obstruction?

8401

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Intussusception

8402

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4202:What mushroom poisoning is associated with fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?

8403

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Amanita phalloides

8404

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4203:What type of erythema do you see in;? Ulcerative colitis?

8405

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Erythema nodosum

8406

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4204:What type of erythema do you see in;? Rheumatic fever?

8407

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Erythema marginatum

8408

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4205:What type of erythema do you see in;? StevensJohnson syndrome?

8409

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Erythema multiforme

8410

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4206:What benign bone tumor is associated with Gardner syndrome?

8411

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteoma

8412

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4207:What renal calculus is associated with urea-splitting bacteria?

8413

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)

8414

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4208:What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and cryoglobulin precipitation at low temperatures; headache and confusion due to hyperviscosity; IgM M-protein spike on serum electrophoresis; and Russell bodies?

8415

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Waldenstr?m's macroglobulinemia

8416

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4209:What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?

8417

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mercury

8418

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4210:What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?

8419

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Oligodendroglioma

8420

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4211:Goodpasture Ag is a component of what type of collagen?

8421

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type IV collagen

8422

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4212:If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes; reticulocytes; and thrombocytopenia; is it more commonly seen in patients with ITP or TTP?

8423

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

TTP; thrombocytopenia with megathrombocytes is more characteristic of ITP.

8424

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4213:After traveling in a plane across the Atlantic Ocean; an obese male goes to the ER with swollen right leg and sudden onset of shortness of breath. What do you immediately diagnose?

8425

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not absolute but a classic description.

8426

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4214:What cell type involves humoral immunity?

8427

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

B lymphocyte

8428

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4215:What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?

8429

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypersegmented neutrophils

8430

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4216:What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with severely burned or traumatic patients?

8431

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Curling ulcers (think curling iron = burn)

8432

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4217:What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) on chromosome 15q21?

8433

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Marfan syndrome

8434

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4218:What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy; chorea; dementia; and personality changes?

8435

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Huntington disease

8436

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4219:What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold agglutinin titers?

8437

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

8438

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4220:What is the triad of Felty syndrome?

8439

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neutropenia; splenomegaly; and rheumatoid arthritis

8440

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4221:What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of cells toward a chemical mediator released during inflammation?

8441

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chemotaxis

8442

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4222:What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor associated with sun exposure that presents as tan-to-brown colored and has sharply defined well-circumscribed borders?

8443

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Benign nevus (mole)

8444

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4223:What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a 35-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presenting with claudication symptoms in the upper and lower extremities?

8445

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)

8446

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4224:What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of the fallopian tubes?

8447

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Salpingitis

8448

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4225:What disease with familial mental retardation produces large; everted ears and macro-orchidism?

8449

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fragile X syndrome

8450

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4226:What type of skin carcinoma occurring on sunexposed sites has a low level of metastasis?

8451

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma

8452

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4227:What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?

8453

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

VSD; RVH; overriding aorta; and pulmonary stenosis

8454

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4228:What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with Kartagener syndrome?

8455

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bronchiectasis

8456

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4229:What is an elevated; fluid-filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?

8457

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vesicle (e.g; poison ivy)

8458

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4230:What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary to ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?

8459

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sheehan syndrome

8460

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4231:What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and anti-SCL-70 antibodies?

8461

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scleroderma

8462

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4232:What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing ectodermal; endodermal; and mesodermal elements (i.e; skin; hair; teeth and neural tissue)?

8463

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Teratoma (dermoid cyst)

8464

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4233:What syndrome is seen in iron-deficient middle-aged women with esophageal webs?

8465

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

8466

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4234:What are the three causes of transudate?

8467

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CHF; cirrhosis; and nephrosis

8468

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4235:A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with weakness; a sore; beefy red tongue; loss of vibration and position sense; arm and leg dystaxia; elevated levels of methylmalonic acid in the urine; and anemia with an MCV above 105 fL. What is your diagnosis; and how will you monitor his response to treatment?
8469

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is treated with IM vitamin B12 injections. If treatment is working; you will see an increased reticulocyte count on the peripheral smear in about 5 days.

8470

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4236:What form of GN is characteristically associated with crescent formation?

8471

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

8472

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4237:What vitamin deficiency may result in sideroblastic anemia?

8473

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Vitamin B6

8474

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4238:What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node involved?

8475

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Scrofula

8476

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4239:Influx of what ion is associated with irreversible cell injury?

8477

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Massive influx of calcium

8478

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4240:What pathology is associated with elevated levels of Ca2+; cardiac arrhythmias; bone resorption; kidney stones; and metastatic calcifications?

8479

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Primary hyperparathyroidism

8480

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4241:What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation; somnolence; convulsions; and encephalopathy?

8481

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lead

8482

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4242:What syndrome is rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis?

8483

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Caplan syndrome

8484

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4243:True or false? All of the following are risk factors for cervical cancer: multiple pregnancies; early age of intercourse; multiple sexual partners; OCP use; smoking; HIV; and STDs.

8485

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Don't forget this list; you will be asked.

8486

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4244:What is the term for precipitation of calcium phosphate in dying or necrotic tissue?

8487

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dystrophic calcification

8488

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4245:What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?

8489

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Meckel diverticulum

8490

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4246:What type of crystals are associated with gout?

8491

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Monosodium urate crystals

8492

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4247:What is the term for transverse bands on the fingernails seen in patients with chronic arsenic poisoning?

8493

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mees lines

8494

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4248:What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts?

8495

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Klatskin tumor

8496

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4249:IgE-mediated mast cell release; C3a and C5a; and IL-1 all trigger the release of what vasoactive amine?

8497

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Histamine

8498

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4250:What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age group; is more prevalent in women than men; involves diarrhea with or without bloody stools; starts in the rectum and ascends without skipping areas; includes pseudopolyps; and has a thickness of the bowel that does not change?

8499

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ulcerative colitis

8500

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4251:What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens with repetitive motion; crepitus; effusions; and swelling and commonly affects the knees; hips; and spine?

8501

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteoarthritis

8502

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4252:What condition is characterized by a 46XY karyotype; testes present; and ambiguous or female external genitalia?

8503

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Male pseudohermaphrodite (dude looks like a lady!)

8504

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4253:What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear chromatin in asplenic patients?

8505

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Howell-Jolly bodies

8506

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4254:What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with increased intracranial pressure?

8507

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cushing's ulcers

8508

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4255:What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?

8509

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

8510

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4256:Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with osteoporosis or osteomalacia?

8511

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium; phosphorus; and alkaline phosphatase.

8512

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4257:What vascular tumor associated with von HippelLindau syndrome involves the cerebellum; brainstem; spinal cord; and retina?

8513

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemangioblastoma

8514

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4258:How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus are necessary for it to be called hypersegmented?

8515

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

At least 5 lobes

8516

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4259:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Epidermis

8517

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Labile

8518

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4260:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Skeletal muscle

8519

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Permanent

8520

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4261:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Pancreas

8521

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable

8522

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4262:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? CNS neurons

8523

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Permanent

8524

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4263:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Fibroblasts

8525

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable

8526

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4264:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Hematopoietic cells

8527

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Labile

8528

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4265:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Liver

8529

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable

8530

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4266:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Smooth muscle

8531

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable

8532

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4267:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Cardiac muscle

8533

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Permanent

8534

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4268:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Mucosal epithelium

8535

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Labile

8536

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4269:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Kidney

8537

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable

8538

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4270:Name the type of regeneration (i.e; labile; stable; or permanent) based on the following examples;? Osteoblasts

8539

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Stable;(Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent cells as the name states; do not proliferate.)

8540

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4271:What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)?

8541

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Astrocytoma

8542

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4272:True or false? Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels are associated with poststreptococcal GN.

8543

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

False. ASO titers are elevated; but serum complement levels are decreased.

8544

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4273:What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to von Willebrand factor?

8545

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

GP Ib

8546

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4274:What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?

8547

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

8548

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4275:Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local edema in organs (e.g; GI; skin; respiratory tract). What enzyme deficiency causes increased capillary permeability due to a release of vasoactive peptides?

8549

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)

8550

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4276:Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent infection?

8551

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti-HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.

8552

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4277:Which integrin mediates adhesion by binding to lymphocyte function associated Ag 1 (LFA-1) and MAC-1 leukocyte receptors?

8553

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) 1

8554

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4278:Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies;? Subarachnoid hemorrhage

8555

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis

8556

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4279:Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies;? Subdural hemorrhage

8557

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus

8558

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4280:Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies;? Epidural hemorrhage

8559

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Middle meningeal artery

8560

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4281:True or false? Live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with SCID.

8561

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True

8562

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4282:What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions containing-synuclein found in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?

8563

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lewy bodies

8564

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4283:In which form of emphysema; panacinar or centriacinar; is the effect worse in the apical segments of the upper lobes?

8565

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Centriacinar worse in upper lobes; panacinar worse in base of lower lobes

8566

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4284:What syndrome results if the enzyme -1-iduronidase is deficient? L-iduronate sulfatase deficiency?

8567

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome; respectively

8568

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4285:What percentage of the bone marrow must be composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?

8569

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

At least 30% blast in the bone marrow

8570

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4286:What is the term for the heart's inability to maintain perfusion and meet the metabolic demands of tissues and organs?

8571

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CHF

8572

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4287:What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory disease ascends to surround the liver capsule in violin string adhesions?

8573

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

8574

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4288:True or false? Patients with Turner syndrome have no Barr bodies.

8575

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. Remember; the second X chromosome is inactivated; and so is the Barr body. Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome.

8576

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4289:What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs?

8577

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Auspitz sign

8578

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4290:What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?

8579

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hgb F

8580

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4291:What vasculitis affects a 30-year-old Asian female having visual field deficits; dizziness; decreased blood pressure; and weakened pulses in the upper extremities?

8581

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Takayasu arteritis (medium-size to large vessels)

8582

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4292:A 20-year-old college student has fever; grey-white membranes over the tonsils; posterior auricular lymphadenitis; and hepatosplenomegaly. What is your diagnosis? What test do you order to confirm your diagnosis?

8583

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

EBV infections resulting in infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the Monospot test. (Remember; it may be negative in the first week of the illness; so retest if you have a high index of suspicion.)

8584

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4293:What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?

8585

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosinophil

8586

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4294:What pathology is associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years?

8587

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pseudogout

8588

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4295:What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and arises from the parafollicular C cells?

8589

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

8590

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4296:What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis; MI; cerebral infarct; and lethal cardiac arrhythmias?

8591

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cocaine

8592

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4297:What AA is substituted for glutamic acid at position 6 on the Beta-chain in patients with sickle cell anemia?

8593

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Valine

8594

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4298:What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?

8595

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melanin

8596

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4299:What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?

8597

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Placental alkaline phosphatase

8598

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4300:What type of GN; associated with celiac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis; has mesangial deposits of IgA; C3; properdin; IgG; and IgM?

8599

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)

8600

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4301:What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus; dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles; and signs of extrapyramidal lesions?

8601

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Huntington disease

8602

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4302:What pattern of inheritance is G-6-PD deficiency?

8603

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

X-linked recessive

8604

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4303:What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of acid phosphatase; dihydrotestosterone; PSA; and bone pain?

8605

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prostatic carcinoma

8606

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4304:Is Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated with black pigmentation of the liver?

8607

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia; but DubinJohnson syndrome is differentiated from Rotor by the black pigmentation of the liver.

8608

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4305:What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-) to produce hypochlorous acid?

8609

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Myeloperoxidase

8610

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4306:What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?

8611

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Cholesterolosis

8612

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4307:What three chemical agents are associated with angiosarcomas of the liver?

8613

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Arsenic; thorotrast; and vinyl chloride

8614

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4308:What is the term for programmed cell death?

8615

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Apoptosis (Remember; there is a lack of inflammatory response.)

8616

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4309:What potentially fatal disease occurs in children who are given aspirin during a viral illness?

8617

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Reye syndrome

8618

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4310:What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling?

8619

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lead poisoning

8620

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4311:What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous; with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps; and is associated with HLA-B27?

8621

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ulcerative colitis

8622

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4312:What is the pentad of TTP?

8623

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neurologic symptoms;Renal failure;Thrombocytopenia;Fever;Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia;(Don't forget it. When I was an intern; my senior resident asked me this question more times than I would like to remember.)

8624

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4313:Which hepatitis B Ag correlates with infectivity and viral proliferation?

8625

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HBeAg

8626

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4314:What disease involves cold skin abscesses due to a defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE level higher than 2000?

8627

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Job syndrome

8628

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4315:What female pathology is associated with endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?

8629

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Endometriosis

8630

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4316:What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?

8631

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

45XO

8632

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4317:What is the term for a congenital absence of the ganglionic cells of the Auerbach and Meissner plexus in the rectum and sigmoid colon?

8633

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)

8634

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4318:What syndrome is associated with gastrin-producing islet cell tumor resulting in multiple intractable peptic ulcers?

8635

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

8636

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4319:What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?

8637

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type III

8638

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4320:The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with what cause of megaloblastic anemia?

8639

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)

8640

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4321:What is the term for ascending bacterial infection of the renal pelvis; tubules; and interstitium causing costovertebral angle tenderness; fever; chills; dysuria; frequency; and urgency?

8641

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pyelonephritis

8642

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4322:How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?

8643

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

It causes a buildup of dATP; which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate; a precursor of DNA; resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.

8644

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4323:Which phenotype of osteogenesis imperfecta is incompatible with life?

8645

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type II

8646

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4324:With what is cherry red intoxication associated?

8647

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute CO poisoning

8648

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4325:What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?

8649

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

1. Steroids ;2. Alcohol ;3. Scuba diving ;4. Sickle cell anemia

8650

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4326:What are the four signs of acute inflammation?

8651

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Rubor (red); dolor (pain); calor (heat); tumor (swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function

8652

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4327:Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values;? Increased iron; decreased TIBC; increased percent saturation; increased ferritin

8653

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sideroblastic anemia

8654

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4328:Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values;? Decreased iron; TIBC; and percent saturation; increased ferritin

8655

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Anemia of chronic disease

8656

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4329:Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values;? Decreased iron; percent saturation; and ferritin; increased TIBC

8657

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Iron deficiency anemia

8658

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4330:Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values;? Normal iron; TIBC; percent saturation; and ferritin

8659

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Thalassemia minor

8660

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4331:Which form of emphysema is associated with an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?

8661

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Panacinar

8662

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4332:An 80-year-old woman presents to you with rightsided temporal headache; facial pain and blurred vision on the affected side; and an elevated ESR. Your diagnosis?

8663

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)

8664

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4333:What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?

8665

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type 2

8666

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4334:What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?

8667

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gaucher disease

8668

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4335:What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?

8669

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Boutonnire deformities

8670

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4336:True or false? Atelectasis is an irreversible collapse of a lung.

8671

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

False. Atelectasis is a reversible collapse of a lung.

8672

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4337:What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in aplastic crisis?

8673

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Parvovirus B 19

8674

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4338:What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?

8675

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Klinefelter syndrome

8676

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4339:What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?

8677

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2

8678

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4340:What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?

8679

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Onion skinning

8680

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4341:A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with menstruation and have cyclical pain and engorgement. What is your diagnosis?

8681

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer; which is commonly unilateral; single nodule; no variation with pregnancy.

8682

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4342:What disease is X-linked recessive; is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections; involves a decrease in serum IgM and in the T cell-dependent paracortical areas of the lymph nodes; and means that the patient is likely to develop malignant lymphoma?
8683

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

8684

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4343:Which form of melanoma carries the worst prognosis?

8685

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Nodular melanoma

8686

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4344:Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk for infection from what type of organisms?

8687

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Encapsulated bacteria

8688

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4345:How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

8689

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Two major or one major and two minor

8690

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4346:What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?

8691

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)

8692

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4347:What Hgb-derived endogenous pigment is found in areas of hemorrhage or bruises?

8693

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemosiderin

8694

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4348:What is a palpable; elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?

8695

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Papule

8696

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4349:True or false? Monocytosis is seen in TB.

8697

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True

8698

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4350:What pathology is associated with podagra; tophi in the ear; and PMNs with monosodium urate crystals?

8699

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gout

8700

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4351:What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium difficile; ischemia; Staphylococcus; Shigella; or Candida infection?

8701

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pseudomembranous colitis

8702

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4352:What do the risk factors late menopause; early menarche; obesity; nulliparity; excessive estrogen; genetic factor p53; and brc-abl characterize?

8703

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Breast cancer

8704

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4353:What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation exposure; psammoma bodies; and Orphan Annie eye nuclei?

8705

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

8706

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4354:Name three opsonins.

8707

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fc portion of IgG; C3b; and mannose-binding proteins

8708

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4355:What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?

8709

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Beryllium

8710

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4356:Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG; HBcAb IgM; HBeAg; HBsAb IgG; HBsAg; HBV-DNAare associated with the following periods?;? Window period

8711

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HBcAb IgM

8712

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4357:Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG; HBcAb IgM; HBeAg; HBsAb IgG; HBsAg; HBV-DNAare associated with the following periods?;? Immunization

8713

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HBsAb IgG

8714

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4358:Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG; HBcAb IgM; HBeAg; HBsAb IgG; HBsAg; HBV-DNAare associated with the following periods?;? Prior infection

8715

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HBcAb IgG and HBsAb IgG

8716

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4359:Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG; HBcAb IgM; HBeAg; HBsAb IgG; HBsAg; HBV-DNAare associated with the following periods?;? Acute infection

8717

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HBcAb IgM; HBV-DNA; HBeAg; HBsAg

8718

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4360:Which hepatitis B serology markersHBcAb IgG; HBcAb IgM; HBeAg; HBsAb IgG; HBsAg; HBV-DNAare associated with the following periods?;? Chronic infection

8719

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HBcAb IgG; HBV-DNA; HBeAg; HBsAg

8720

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4361:Name the type of necrosis;? The most common form of necrosis; denatured and coagulated proteins in the cytoplasm

8721

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Coagulative necrosis

8722

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4362:Name the type of necrosis;? Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis

8723

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gangrenous necrosis

8724

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4363:Name the type of necrosis;? Seen as dead tissue with liquefactive necrosis?

8725

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Liquefaction necrosis

8726

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4364:Name the type of necrosis;? Due to lipase activity and has a chalky white appearance

8727

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fat necrosis

8728

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4365:Name the type of necrosis;? Soft; friable; cottagecheese appearing; characteristically seen in TB

8729

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Caseous necrosis

8730

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4366:Name the type of necrosis;? Histologically resembles fibrin

8731

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Fibrinoid necrosis

8732

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4367:Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from oxygen-derived free radicals.

8733

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Superoxide dismutase; glutathione peroxidase; catalase

8734

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4368:What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?

8735

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

2% of population; 2 cm long; 2 feet from ileocecal valve; 2 years old; and 2% of carcinoid tumors

8736

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4369:What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated with polycystic kidney disease?

8737

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Berry aneurysm

8738

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4370:A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with nonspecific joint pain; fever; and a malar rash over the bridge of her nose and on her cheeks. This is a classic example of what autoimmune disease? What are three autoantibody tests you could order to make the diagnosis?

8739

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

SLE; ANA; anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm (anti-Smith)

8740

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4371:True or false? Excess lead deposits in the oral cavity.

8741

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True. It deposits at the gingivodental line; known as the lead line.

8742

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4372:What is the term for increased iron deposition resulting in micronodular cirrhosis; CHF; diabetes; and bronzing of the skin?

8743

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemochromatosis

8744

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4373:What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in glycoprotein IIb-IIIa; resulting in a defect in platelet aggregation?

8745

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Glanzmann syndrome

8746

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4374:What protein-losing enteropathy has grossly enlarged rugal fold in the body and fundus of the stomach in middleaged males; resulting in decreased acid production and an increased risk of gastric cancer?

8747

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mntrier's disease

8748

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4375:What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic abnormalities; red cell aplasia; and muscle weakness?

8749

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Myasthenia gravis

8750

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4376:Which subtype of AML is most commonly associated with Auer rods?

8751

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)

8752

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4377:What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and female internal organs with virilized external genitalia?

8753

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Female pseudohermaphrodite

8754

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4378:Two weeks after her son has a throat infection; a mother takes the boy to the ER because he has fever; malaise; HTN; dark urine; and periorbital edema. What is your diagnosis?

8755

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Poststreptococcal GN

8756

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4379:What X-linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections; severe thrombocytopenia; and eczema?

8757

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

8758

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4380:What form of arthritis is associated with calcium pyrophosphate crystals?

8759

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pseudogout

8760

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4381:What is the term for excessive production of collagen that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site of the injury?

8761

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypertrophic scar

8762

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4382:What is the term for inflamed; thickened skin on the breast with dimpling associated with cancer?

8763

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Peau d'orange

8764

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4383:What rare vasculitis has the following characteristics: males aged 40 to 60; affecting small arteries and veins; involving nose; sinuses; lungs; and kidneys; C-ANCA and autoantibodies against proteinase 3?

8765

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Wegener granulomatosis

8766

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4384:What retrovirus is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?

8767

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HTLV-1

8768

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4385:What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of age and is characterized by X-linked recessive cardiac myopathies; calf pseudohypertrophy; lordosis; protuberant belly; an increase then a decrease in CPK; and death commonly in the second decade of life?

8769

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

8770

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4386:What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?

8771

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)

8772

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4387:What nephrotic syndrome has effacement of the epithelial foot processes without immune complex deposition?

8773

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Minimal change disease

8774

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4388:What is the term for tissue-based basophils?

8775

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mast cells

8776

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4389:What malignant bone tumor is characterized by Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on radiograph?

8777

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteosarcoma

8778

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4390:Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?

8779

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver; it results in hepatomegaly.

8780

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4391:What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?

8781

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Prostatic carcinoma

8782

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4392:What stromal tumor in males is characterized histologically with crystalloids of Reinke?

8783

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Leydig cell tumor

8784

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4393:What pulmonary disease; most commonly associated with smoking; results in enlarged; overinflated lungs owing to the destruction of the alveolar walls with diminished elastic recoil?

8785

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Emphysema

8786

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4394:What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?

8787

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway

8788

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4395:What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive; symmetric arthritis affecting the hands; wrists; knees; and ankles that improves with increased activity?

8789

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Rheumatoid arthritis

8790

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4396:Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis;? Retinal emboli

8791

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Roth spots

8792

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4397:Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis;? Painful subcutaneous nodules on fingers and toes

8793

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osler nodes

8794

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4398:Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis;? Painless hyperemic lesions on the palms and soles

8795

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Janeway lesions

8796

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4399:What two CD cell surface markers do Reed- Sternberg cells stain positive for?

8797

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CD15 and CD30

8798

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4400:What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red spots on the retina?

8799

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs diseases

8800

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4401:True or false? Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is associated with CML.

8801

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

False. Increased LAP is seen in stress reactions and helps differentiate benign conditions from CML; which has low LAP levels.

8802

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4402:What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic polyps and CNS gliomas?

8803

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Turcot syndrome

8804

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4403:What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial system?

8805

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.

8806

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4404:Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?

8807

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Embolic

8808

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4405:What is the name for the following RBC indices?;? The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume

8809

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)

8810

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4406:What is the name for the following RBC indices?;? Average mass of the Hgb molecule/RBC

8811

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

8812

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4407:What is the name for the following RBC indices?;? Average volume of a RBC

8813

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

8814

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4408:What is the name for the following RBC indices?;? Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed RBCs

8815

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

8816

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4409:What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow obstruction as a result of septal hypertrophy and leads to sudden cardiac death in young athletes?

8817

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic subaortic stenosis; or IHSS)

8818

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4410:Which HPV serotypes are associated with condyloma acuminatum?

8819

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HPV serotypes 6 and 11

8820

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4411:Which form of melanoma carries the best prognosis?

8821

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lentigo maligna melanoma

8822

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4412:What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?

8823

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyperplasia

8824

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4413:A 60-year-old man has back pain (compression spinal fracture); hypercalcemia; increased serum protein; BenceJones proteinuria; and monoclonal M-spike on serum electrophoresis. What is your diagnosis?

8825

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Multiple myeloma

8826

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4414:What is the term for pus in the pleural space?

8827

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Empyema

8828

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4415:What is flat; circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented change up to 1 cm?

8829

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Macule (e.g; a freckle)

8830

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4416:Name the macrophage based on its location;? Liver macrophages

8831

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Kupffer cells

8832

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4417:Name the macrophage based on its location;? Bone macrophages

8833

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Osteoclasts

8834

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4418:Name the macrophage based on its location;? Brain macrophages

8835

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Microglia

8836

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4419:Name the macrophage based on its location;? Lung macrophages

8837

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages

8838

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4420:Name the macrophage based on its location;? Connective tissue macrophages

8839

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Histiocytes

8840

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4421:Name the macrophage based on its location;? Epidermal macrophages

8841

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Langerhans cells

8842

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4422:What is the term for a large; immature RBC that is spherical; blue; and without a nucleus?

8843

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Reticulocyte

8844

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4423:What testicular tumor of infancy is characterized by elevated-fetoprotein levels and Schiller-Duval bodies?

8845

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Yolk sac tumor

8846

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4424:Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what lymphoma?

8847

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Burkitt lymphoma

8848

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4425:In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary infarcts seen?

8849

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lower lobe

8850

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4426:For what disease are SS-A(Ro); SS-B(La); and R-ANA diagnostic markers?

8851

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Sj?gren disease

8852

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4427:What HPV serotypes are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer?

8853

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

HPV serotypes 16; 18; 31; and 33

8854

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4428:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Nuclei

8855

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hematoxylin

8856

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4429:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Nucleoli

8857

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hematoxylin

8858

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4430:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Cytoplasm

8859

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosin

8860

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4431:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Collagen

8861

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosin

8862

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4432:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? RBCs

8863

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosin

8864

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4433:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Calcium

8865

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hematoxylin

8866

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4434:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Bacteria

8867

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hematoxylin

8868

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4435:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Fibrin

8869

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosin

8870

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4436:Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin?;? Thyroid colloid

8871

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosin

8872

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4437:What commonly encountered overdose produces headache; tinnitus; respiratory alkalosis; metabolic acidosis; confusion; vomiting; and tachypnea?

8873

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

ASA (salicylate)

8874

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4438:What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib; resulting in a defect in platelet adhesion?

8875

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

8876

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4439:What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations of the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the fifth decade with abdominal masses; flank pain; hematuria; HTN; and renal insufficiency?

8877

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Adult polycystic kidney disease

8878

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4440:Based on the following information; is the renal transplantation rejection acute; chronic; or hyperacute?;? Months to years after transplantation; gradual onset of HTN; oliguria; and azotemia; seen as intimal fibrosis of the blood vessels and interstitial lymphocytes

8879

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Chronic rejection

8880

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4441:Based on the following information; is the renal transplantation rejection acute; chronic; or hyperacute?;? Immediately after transplantation; seen as a neutrophilic vasculitis with thrombosis

8881

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hyperacute rejection

8882

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4442:Based on the following information; is the renal transplantation rejection acute; chronic; or hyperacute?;? Weeks to months after transplantation; abrupt onset of oliguria and azotemia; seen as neutrophilic vasculitis and interstitial lymphocytes

8883

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Acute rejection

8884

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4443:What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?

8885

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Type I (makes sense; since they have a predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is associated with bones and tendons)

8886

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4444:What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness; conjunctivitis; maculopapular rash; and lymphadenopathy?

8887

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Kawasaki disease

8888

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4445:What disease has IgG autoantibodies; occurs in women more than men; and includes exophthalmos; pretibial myxedema; nervousness; heart palpitations; and fatigue?

8889

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Graves disease

8890

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4446:What condition is defined by both testicular and ovarian tissues in one individual?

8891

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

True hermaphrodism

8892

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4447:A mother takes her 2-week-old infant to the ER because the baby regurgitates and vomits after eating and has peristaltic waves visible on the abdomen and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is your diagnosis?

8893

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pyloric stenosis

8894

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4448:What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated with bronchial asthma; granulomas; and eosinophilia?

8895

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Churg-Strauss syndrome

8896

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4449:What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?

8897

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Laminin

8898

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4450:What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive splenomegaly; produces dry tap on bone marrow aspirations; and stains positive for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)?

8899

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hairy cell leukemia

8900

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4451:What form of nephritic syndrome is associated with celiac sprue and Henoch- Sch?nlein purpura?

8901

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

IgA nephropathy

8902

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4452:What syndrome is characterized by embryologic failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches resulting in hypocalcemia; tetany; and T-cell deficiency?

8903

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

DiGeorge syndrome

8904

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4453:What is the treatment for physiologic jaundice of newborns?

8905

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Phototherapy

8906

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4454:How many months in how many years must a person cough with copious sputum production for the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?

8907

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years

8908

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4455:What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE-mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?

8909

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Eosinophils

8910

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4456:What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa?

8911

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

8912

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4457:What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin platelet plug to stop bleeding?

8913

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hemostasis

8914

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4458:True or false? All of the following are risk factors for breast cancer: early menses; late menopause; history of breast cancer; obesity; and multiparity.

8915

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

False. All except multiparity are risk factors for breast cancer. Nulliparity; increasing age; and family history in first-degree relative are also risk factors. Memorize this list!

8916

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4459:Is jugular venous distention a presentation of isolated left or right heart failure?

8917

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Right-sided

8918

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4460:Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information;? Small circular RNA virus with defective envelope

8919

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatitis D

8920

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4461:Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information;? Enveloped RNA flavivirus

8921

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatitis C

8922

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4462:Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information;? Naked capsid RNA calicivirus

8923

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatitis E

8924

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4463:Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information;? Enveloped DNA hepadnavirus

8925

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatitis B

8926

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4464:Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information;? Naked capsid RNA picornavirus

8927

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Hepatitis A

8928

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4465:What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase; massive organomegaly; zebra bodies; and foamy histiocytes and is associated with chromosome 11p?

8929

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Niemann-Pick disease

8930

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4466:What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving only the inner layers?

8931

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mural infarct

8932

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4467:What are the three causes of normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?

8933

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Marrow failure; cancer; and leukemia

8934

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4468:Notching of the ribs; seen on chest radiograph in patients with postductal coarctation of the aorta; is due to collateralization of what arteries?

8935

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Dilation of the internal mammary arteries results in erosions on the inner surface of the ribs and is seen as notching.

8936

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4469:What is the physiologic storage form of iron?

8937

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Ferritin

8938

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4470:What is the term for occlusion of a blood vessel due to an intravascular mass that has been carried downstream?

8939

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Embolism

8940

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4471:What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by Kayser- Fleischer rings; decreased ceruloplasmin levels; and increased urinary copper excretion and tissue copper levels?

8941

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Wilson disease. (Remember; patients commonly present with psychiatric manifestations and movement disorders but may be asymptomatic.)

8942

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4472:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? c-myc

8943

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Burkitt lymphoma

8944

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4473:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? L-myc

8945

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Small cell cancer of the lung

8946

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4474:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? hst-1 and int-2

8947

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melanoma; cancer of the stomach and bladder

8948

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4475:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? et

8949

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

MEN II and III syndromes

8950

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4476:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? Ki-ras

8951

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Pancreas and colon

8952

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4477:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? cyclin D

8953

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Mantle cell lymphoma

8954

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4478:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? N-myc

8955

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Neuroblastoma

8956

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4479:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? CDK4

8957

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Melanoma

8958

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4480:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? abl

8959

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

CML and ALL

8960

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4481:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? hst-1; int-2; erb-2; and erb-3

8961

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Breast cancer

8962

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4482:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? sis

8963

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Astrocytoma

8964

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4483:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? Ki-ras and erb-2

8965

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Lung cancer

8966

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4484:Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer);? erb-1

8967

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

8968

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4485:What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps; osteomas; fibromas; and epidural inclusion cysts?

8969

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Gardner syndrome

8970

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4486:What disease involves microcephaly; mental retardation; cleft lip or palate; and dextrocardia?

8971

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

8972

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4487:What type of GN occurs most commonly in children after a pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune complex mediated; and is seen as lumpy-bumpy subepithelial deposits?

8973

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Postinfectious GN

8974

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4488:What are the three most common sites for left-sided heart embolisms to metastasize?

8975

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Brain; spleen; and kidney

8976

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4489:With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?

8977

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Asbestosis and silicosis

8978

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Q4490:What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 results in normal-size vertebral column and skull and short; thick extremities?

8979

Cell Biology and Pathology Flash Facts

Achondroplasia

8980