1

4. The following statements are CORRECT about a muscarinic antagonist Atropine : A. Atropine structure contain piperidine a pyridines rings. B. Piperidine and pyrrolidine C. Pirmidine and pyrrolidine D. Quasi ring structure but not tertiary amine E. Pyridine and Quasi rings structure. 5. If a structure of drug contain 3 sterogenic centers chiral centers, their will be how many isomers possible for this structure? A. B. C. D. E. groups have 8 21 3 2 12

Jan. 2005

1. which of the following functional groups are tertiary hydroxyl group A. B. C. D. E. .. .. .. .. ..

2. which of the following geometrical isomers: A. B. C. D. E.

6. 1-propanol and 2-propanol they are: A. B. C. D. E. Conformational Isomer Geometric Isomer Constitutional Isomer Diasteroisomers Isomer Enatiomers Isomer

Hexane and cyclohexane Pentane and pentene Butene and 2-Butene Benzene and hexane Non of the above

3. Which of the following statements concerning cytochrome enzyme are CORRECT? I. The CYP7, CYP11, CYP27 are cytochrome enzyme responsible for cholesterol metabolism. II. CYP3A is most common metabolizing enzyme in the body. III. CYP3A does phase I reductive reactions. A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

7. hexane and 2-methyl pentane are: A. B. C. D. E. Conformational Isomer Geometric Isomer Constitutional Isomer Diasteroisomers Isomer Enatiomers Isomer

8. All the following statements are CORRECT about Enatiomers EXCEPT: A. Enatiomers are optical isomers that are mirror images of another B. Enatiomers are rotate pan of polarized light in clockwise direction are know as dextrorotatory (D) or (+) C. Enatiomers have identical physical and chemical properties

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2 D. Enatiomers are rotate plan polarized light in anticlockwise direction are know as levorotatory. E. 100% mixture of (D) or (L) Enatiomers is called racemic mixture. 9. All of the CORRECT EXCEPT: following about statements are Diasteroisomers 13. Metabolic reactions that may be affected by a protein deficiency diet include: I. Oxidative Reaction II. Hydrolysis III. Glycine Conjugation A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

A. Diasteroisomers are neither mirror image no superimposible images B. Diasteroisomers must contain at least two chiral centers C. Diasteroisomers differ in properties such as solubility, volatility and melting point D. Diasteroisomers contain different physical and chemical properties E. Diasteroisomers contain non superimposible mirror images 10. Conversion of tetracycline to tetracycline process in known as: A. Isomerization B. Epimerization C. Conversion D. Substitution E. Chemical reaction 4-epi

14. In amino acid conjugation which of the following reactions are involved: A. B. C. D. E. Amino acid + Alcohol Amino acid + Amino acid Amino acid + Glycine Glycine + Alcohol Amino Acid + Glutamine

15. Which is strongest Base: A. ---B. ---C. ---D. --E. --16. CYT P450 is :

11. D(+) Lactic acid and L (-) Lactic acid are: A. B. C. D. E. Diasteroisomers Enatiomers Constitutional isomers Geometrical isomers Stereoisomer

A. B. C. D. E.

Enzyme Vitamin Neurotransmitter Catalyst Amino acid

12. Result of restriction around double bond a result in the following isomers: A. B. C. D. E. Diasteroisomers Enatiomers Constitutional isomers Conformational isomers Geometrical isomers

17. Where is the hydrolysis occur: A. B. C. D. E. 18. Where is the hydrolysis occur: A. E

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3 B. C. D. E. E E e E 24. Grapefruit juice inhibit the following enzyme: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A4 CYP 2A1 CYP 450

19. All the following are metabolic enzymes EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 450 CYP 3A4 CYP 0 CYP 1A4 CYP 2A1

25. Smoking induces the following Cytochrome enzyme: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A CYP 2A1 CYP 450 does glucourdiation

20. All the following are cytochrome enzymes metabolize drug xenobiotics (Biological Product) EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 450 CYP 3A4 CYP 17 CYP 1A4 CYP 2A1

26. Which enzyme reaction: A. B. C. D. E. UDPGA . . . .

21. Antidepressants are metabolized by: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 450 And CYP 1A2 CYP 3A4 And CYP 1A2 CYP 2D6 And CYP 1A2 CYP 1A4 And CYP 1A2 CYP 2A1 And CYP 1A2

22. Statins are metabolized by: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A CYP 2A1 CYP 450

27. What characteristics of an organic compound allow it to undergo conjugation with glutathione? A. B. C. D. E. Electrophilic functional groups involve the

23. Benzodiazepines Are metabolized be: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A CYP 2A1 CYP 450 28. Amino acids conjugation following group: A. B. C. D. Amino acid and glycin Amino acid and glutamine Amino acid Activated amino acid

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4 E. Amino acid and glutamine 29. Glutamine Conjugation very important in preventing toxicity of variety of drugs, toxic products are excreted as: A. B. C. D. E. S-adonozyl transferase Glutamic acid Mercaptoric acid Amino acid Sulfadryl groups A. B. C. D. E. Oxidation Hydrolysis Conjugation Reduction Sulforation

34. To protect integrity of the cell. Which of the following is most important: A. B. C. D. E. Phospholipids CYT P 450 CYT P 410 Lysosomal Enzyme Non of the above

30. which of the following statements about drugs metabolism correct: A. drug metabolizing enzyme are found only in liver B. all metabolites are pharmacologically inactive C. phase I metabolite can cross cell membrane D. all drugs are catalyzed by cytochrome E. commonly one metabolite is excreted for each drug administered

35. Metabolism is enhanced by: I. Passive reaction II. Excretion III. Tubular secretion A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

31. Imidazoline ring present in the following class of structure: A. Thiazide diuretics B. COX II inhibitors C. Direct 2 agonist (Clonidin) D. Direct 1 agonist E. Direct 2 antagonist 32. the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to antihypertensive daiazoxide: A. B. C. D. E. Chlorothiazide Furosemide Mannitol Spironolactone .

36. Indol ring: I. Histamine II. Serotonin III. Tryptopahn A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

37. conversion of histidine to histamine is catalyzed be: I. L.Histidine Decarboxylase II. L.Histidine Carboxylase III. L.Histidine Hydoxylase A. I Only

33. The above reaction is :

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5 B. C. D. E. III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 41. All of the following are side effect of Atropine EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Dry mouth Urinary retention Constipation Blurred vision Diarrhea

38. H1 Receptors function on the following symptoms: I. Allergies II. Gastric secretion III. Bronchodilation A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

42. which of the following drugs decrease stomach acid secretions, Mechanistically blocking of H2 Histamine receptors: A. B. C. D. E. Hydroxyzine Cetrazine Fluxazine Omeprazole Ranitidine

39. the following drugs are contraindicated in first trimester of pregnancy: I. Meclizine II. Cyclazine III. Cetirizine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

43. Serotonin A. B. C. D. E. Histidine Tryptophan Dopa Epinephrine

44. Sumatriptan are medication used in migraine therapy is act on the following receptors; A. B. C. D. E. 5HT 1D 5HT T2 5HT T3 5HT T4 5HT T5

40. The following groups are essential for antihistamine pharmacological activity: I. Aromatic and heteroaromatic rings structure II. Tertiary amine in structure III. Chain of alkyl group in structure A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

45. What is HT , 5 HT receptors: A. B. C. D. E. Hydroxyl amine 5-hydroxyl tryptamine 5-hydroxyl tryptophan

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6 46. Which of the following is COX II inhibitor: A. B. C. D. E. Aspirin Ibuprofen Celocoxib Nalaxone Naltraxone A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

51. What is the prevention for NSAID induced GI ulcers: A. B. C. D. E. Omeprazole Zantac Misopristol Cetrizine Calcium hydroxide

47. Aspirin is : I. COX I inhibitor II. COX II inhibitor only III. COX I and COX II inhibitor A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

52. The following drug is indicated to induce cervical ripening in pregnancy: A. B. C. D. E. Latanoprost (Xalatan) Travoprost (Travatan) Bimatoprost (Lumigan) Misopristol (Cytotec) Dinoprostone

48. All the following re correct side effect of Aspirin EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Salicylism Hemorrhage Hypoglycemia Nausea GI irritation

53. Which of the following PG inhibitors indicated in treatment of open angle Glaucoma? A. B. C. D. E. Latanoprost (Xalatan) Timolol Bimatoprost (Lumigan) Misopristol (Cytotec) Dinoprostone

49. All the following re correct side effect of enteric coated Aspirin EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Salicylism Hemorrhage Hyperglycemia Nausea GI irritation

54. PG Structure contain fragment in the structure:

the

following

50. Misopristol CYTOTOEC is used for prevention of NSAID induced ulcers, is classified as: I. PG I II. PG II III. PGE1

I. Cyclopentane ring contain carbonyl and hydroxyl group II. Long chain alkyl group III. Keto and hydroxyl position indicate subscript of PG analogs A. I Only B. III Only

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7 C. I and II Only D. II And III Only E. All Of the above 55. Which of the following is mechanism of action fro Tylenol (acetaminophen): A. B. C. D. E. Revisable PG synthesis Inhibits COX I synthesis Inhibit COX II synthesis Inhibit central PG synthesis Irreversible inhibits PG Synthesis D. 5HT1D inhibitors E. Antihistamines 60. Nitroglycerines are classified as: I. Nitrates II. Nitrites III. Nitro group A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

56. Which of the following preparation require only written prescriptions: A. B. C. D. E. Tylenol 1 Tylenol 2 Tylenol 3 Tylenol 4 Tylenol 3 and 4

61. All of the following are propionic acid derivatives EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Naproxen Ibuprofen Ketoprofen Aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) Caprofen

57. Which of the following preparation require prescriptions: A. B. C. D. E. Tylenol 1 Tylenol 2 Tylenol 3 Tylenol 4 Tylenol 2, 3 and 4 62. Pyrazole ring is present in the following structure: A. B. C. D. E. Aspirin Acetaminophen Celocoxib Ibuprofen Ketotofen

58. Which of the following drugs does not have sulfa allergy? A. B. C. D. E. Celecoxib Aspirin Sulfamethoxazole Hydrochlorothiazide Cortimoxazole (TMP/SMX)

63. All the following conditions are essential for thiazide structure: I. Sulfonamide group benzene ring II. Chloro or trifluromethyl group on position 6 III. Double bond on position 3 and 4 a. b. c. d. e. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

59. Which is the mechanism of action of montelukast (Singulair) A. Leukotrines inhibitors B. LTC4 and LTD4 inhibitors C. Cyclooxygenase inhibitors

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8 64. All the following drugs contain sterol in their structure, EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Spiranolactone Estrogen Progesterone Androgen Stilbesterol I. Heme II. Same proteins III. Prophyrin ring A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

65. Cholesteramine is a: A. B. C. D. E. Bile acid resin Water insoluble Water soluble Hydrophobic Bind to the bile acids in the intestine 70. All of the following are antiplatelets agent EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Aspirin Ticlopidine Fab Fragment Clopidogrel Warfarin

66. All of the following are LMWH EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Enoxaprin Dalteprin Tinzaparin Adreparin Heparin

71. Which of the following is produced by biotechnology methods: I. Fab Fragment II. Altiplase III. tPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activators) A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

67. Which of the following molecular structure contain quinoline structure: A. B. C. D. E. Warfarin Heparin LMWH Vitamin K Niacin

72. Which of the following parenteral iron dose form: A. B. C. D. E. Ferrous Sulfate Ferrous Gluconate Ferrous Fumarate Iron Dextran Elemental Iron

68. Which phase I Metabolism reoccur in stomach: A. B. C. D. E. Hydroxylation Hydrolysis Oxidation Reduction Demethylation

73. In the oral treatment of Iron Deficiency anemia, choice of administration of iron is: I. Elemental Iron II. Iron complex form III. Ferrous Iron

69. What is similarity between hemoglobin and Cytochrome P450:

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9 a. b. c. d. e. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

78. Lack of cyanocobalamine causes: 74. The correct statements about Vitamin B12 : I. Contain prophyrin ring II. Contain cyanide ion III. Tetravalent cobalt ion A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above I. Megaloplastic anemia II. Deficiency of Vitamin B12 III. Intrinsic factor A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

75. An antienemic agent folic acid contain the following nucleus that bonded to folate enzyme: I. Pteridine nucleus II. PABA III. Glutamic acid A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

79. Which of the following cardiovascular medications chemically classified as glycoside: A. B. C. D. E. Digixin Warfarin Nitrates Nitrites Cholesteramine while

80. Avoid the following vitamin anticoagulants medication: A. B. C. D. E. Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin C Vitamin D Vitamin K

76. Folic acid absorbed in: A. B. C. D. E. Liver GI tract Tissue Kidney Colon

81. Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin has the following properties: I. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II, VII, IX and X II. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor I, II, IX and X III. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II, VII, IX and X

77. Folic acid deficiency Causes: I. Megaloplastic anemia II. Nurologic impairment III. Microcytic anemia

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10 A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above D. Cisparide E. Fexofenadine

86. Which of the Carbonmonoxide

following

bind

to

82. Which of the following prolonged the clotting time of both in vivo and in vitro I. Heparin II. LMWH III. Warfarin a. b. c. d. e. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

I. Hemoglobin II. Myoglobin III. Cytochrome oxidase A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

87. Vitamin A is a mixture of : I. Retinol II. Retinal III. Retinoic acid A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

83. Protamine sulfate is an anticoagulant of heparin because: A. B. C. D. E. Chelating action Acid base interaction Plasma protein binding displacement Inhibits GI absorption of heparin Prothrobin like activity of protamine

84. A 38 years old bus operator with history of arrhythmias suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the following is the best choice for his condition: A. B. C. D. E. Meclizine Fexofenadie Famotidine Diphenhydramine Dimenhydrinate

88. The following is precursor of vitamin A: I. Retinal II. Retinol III. Carotenoids a. b. c. d. e. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

85. Which of the following drug decrease pain associated with GERD without appreciably changing gastric pH: A. Ranitidine B. Omeprazole C. Any H2 Antagonist

89. Which of the following drugs is the isomer of vitamin A: I. Retinoic acid II. Retinol III. Isotrentinoin

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11 A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 94. 5 subjects given a single oral dose of drug have the following elimination half lives 4,5,6,6 and 9 hours, the mean half life is : A. B. C. D. E. 5.4 5.0 4.5 6 10

90. Type I error (Falls Positive error): A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is Falls B. Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is true C. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is falls D. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is true 91. Influenza season in Canada: A. B. C. D. E. Start in November to April Start in December to April Start in October to April Start in September to April Start in August to April

95. In given data 3,5,7,9 and 7 what is the median: A. B. C. D. E. 6 7 3 9 5

96. Normal population 99% of values fall within: A. B. C. D. E. 3 standard Deviations 2 standard Deviations 1 standard Deviations 4 standard Deviations 5 standard Deviations

92. Epidermology studies are carried out in the following categories: A. Hospital patient B. Certain population and defined geographical area C. Pharmacy and patients of defined geographical area D. Certain hospital and their patients E. Hospital doctors and infected populations 93. All the following activities meet the criteria of primary prevention Except: A. Tetanus vaccination for teenagers B. Measles / Mumps / Rubella (MMR) vaccination for first time C. Pap smear screening D. Sex education E. .

97. 5,3,8,5 and 9 days, calculate the mean: A. B. C. D. E. 5 6 7 8 9

98. For the above Question Median is: A. B. C. D. E. 5 6 7 8 9

99. For the above question the mode is: A. 5

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12 B. C. D. E. 6 7 8 9 A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false B. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is false C. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is true D. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is true 105. All of the following are statistical test except: A. B. C. D. E. Student t test F distribution test Chi-Square test Distribution test ANOVA analysis of variance

100. What is the standard deviation of the following numbers 3,5,4 and 8: A. B. C. D. E. 5 2.1 8 51 10

101. 20, 23, 24, 26 and 28 standard deviation is 5 what is the percent of coefficient variation A. B. C. D. E. 24 21 23 28 29

106. The 4 groups A, B, C and AB were studied to compare the quantitative hematological differences among their hemoglobin structure. The most appropriate statistical test to make determination is: A. B. C. D. E. Paired t Test F test (ANOVA) (Quantitative) Regression analysis Student t test Chi-Square Test

102. IF the standard deviation of an experiment is 2 and sample size is 8 what is the standard error of mean: A. B. C. D. E. 103. 0.81 0.71 0.61 0.51 0.41 Type II error ( error)

A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false B. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is false C. Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is True D. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is true 104. Correct decision:

107. In the clinical trial at Toronto Hospital conducted over 4 years, a specific serious side effect with a therapy X is seen in 0.5 % of the study sample in patients who receive a newly discovered drug Y. Only 0.45 % experiences the same side effects. Based on results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of the side effect in at least one patient is: A. B. C. D. E. 1000 2000 3000 4000 5000

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13 108. In clinical trials conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome with a new drug is achieved in 25 % of the study sample. In the patients who received a placebo, only 15 % obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the period is: A. B. C. D. E. 50% 100% 40% 10% No difference D. II And III Only E. All Of the above 112. For patent expired brand drug product can be marketed as generic drug product if: I. Therapeutically equivalents II. Same amount of drug and same dosage form III. Different strengths A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

109. When standard error compared with standard deviation (SD) A. B. C. D. Its smaller than SD Its Bigger than SD Equal To SD Non of the above

113. The generic product may differs with brand product: I. Shape II. Color III. Type of excipients in tablet only A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

110. Healthy human volunteers are tested in the following phase of clinical trials I. Preclinical trials II. Phase I testing III. Generic drug development ANDA submission A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

for

114. A generic product must have the same as brand name product: I. Bioequivalent II. Rate of absorption III. Extent of absorption A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

111. A product line extension contain the new drug and : I. New therapeutic indication II. New dosage strengths III. New dosage form A. I Only B. III Only C. I and II Only

115. A test measures what it was originally designed to measure is said to have:

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14 A. B. C. D. E. Reliability Precision Validity Accuracy Specificity B. C. D. E. III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

116. In choosing an instrument to measure the health related Quality of life, attention should be paid to the following: I. Length of instrument (life time) II. Sensitivity and specificity instrument III. Reliability and validity instrument A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above of of

119. The loading dose of drug always based on: II. Apparent volume of distribution and desired plasma concentration III. Plasma concentration curve IV. Fraction of free drug excreted in urine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

117. A pharmacist did not counsel patent about side effect of drug, considering that patient may not take this drug, which of the following ethical principle has been violated? A. B. C. D. E. Veracity Beneficently Fidelity Autonomy Nonmaleficiency

120. The time it take to infuse drug to reach plasma steady state concentration (Css) depends on: I. Elimination half life of the drug II. Fraction of free drug excreted in urine III. Plasma concentration curve A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

118. At a significance level of p < 0.01, the null hypothesis states: I. Null hypothesis says there is no difference between experimental and observed values II. Null hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values III. Alternate hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values A. I Only

121. A 40 years old patient weight 70 Kg needs IV infusion of amoxicillin. The desired Css of drug is 19 mg/dl. The physician ordered antibiotic infused for 10 hours. Amoxicillin has t1/2 = 1 hour and Vd = 9L. What rate of IV is recommended for this patient? (No loading dose was given) A. 135 mg/hr B. 936 mg/hr

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15 C. 1000 mg/hr D. 333 mg/hr E. 400 mg/hr 122. What is recommended loading dose in the above patient: A. B. C. D. E. 1350 mg 1200 mg 1.350 mg 13.50 mg 135.0 mg D. Variation of response in different individual occurs with drug showing a large therapeutic response E. In selecting drug, a drug potency is more important than efficacy 126. A drug with half life of 12 hours is administrated by continuous intravenous infusion. How long will it take for drug to reach 90 % of final steady state level A. B. C. D. E. 80 hrs 20 hrs 40 hrs 100 hrs 24 hrs zero order

123. Which of the following results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of drug: A. B. C. D. Tripling the rate of infusion Quadrupling the rate of infusion Doubling the rate of infusion Doubling the concentration of infused drug and rate of infusion E. Doubling loading dose 124. Which of the following most closely describe as clearance rate of drug that is infused at rate of 4 mg/min and produces a steady state concentration of 6 mg/L in plasma A. B. C. D. E. 1200 ml/min 667 ml/min 300 ml/min 132 ml/min 67 ml/min

127. Drugs that show elimination kinetics is:

A. Show a constant fraction of drug elimination per unit of time B. Decrease concentration exponentially with time C. Have half life independent of dose D. Show plot of drug concentration versus time, that is linear E. Zero order kinetic are more common than first order kinetic 128. Non linear pharmacokinetic do not depend on the following I. First order kinetic II. Concentration and time III. Michels Menten kinetics A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

125. Which of the following statements is correct: A. A competitive antagonist increase ED50 B. The greater the efficacy and greater the potency of drug C. If 10 mg of drug A produces the same response as 100 mg of drug B, drug A is more effective than B

129. Drug that show non linear model pharmacokinetics have which of the following properties: A. All doses follow first order elimination

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16 B. Michels Menten kinetic are used in non linear kinetic C. AUC increase indirectly proportional to dose D. At steady state drug concentration increase with direct proportion to dosing rate E. A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the dose increase 130. If aspirin pH 6.5 and pKa 6.5 what is the ionization of drug is unionized? A. B. C. D. E. 100 0 50 40 30 134. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of drugs A. B. C. D. 135. Large intestine Duodenum Jejunum Ileum Ficks law describe the following: I. Predicts the rate of moments of molecules across membrane II. Predicted the percent of ionized and unionized drugs III. Predict the absorption of drugs in epithelial cells A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

131. Atropine (base) solution pH is 4.5 and pKa 5.5 what percent of solution is unionized? A. B. C. D. E. 90 % 91 % 9 % 1 % 99 %

136. Determine the F value of a capsule AUC 20 mg / dl / hrs with 50 mg dose when I.V. of the same drug AUC is 25 mg/dl/hr with 100 mg dose : A. B. C. D. E. 20 % 60 % 40 % 80 % 100 % drugs are

132. Aspirin (acid) solution pH is 4.5 and pKa 5.5 what percent of solution is unionized? A. B. C. D. E. 90 % 91 % 9 % 1 % 99 %

137. The following bioequivalent:

133. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of dug: A. B. C. D. E. Large intestine Stomach Small intestine Esophagus Mouth

I. Drugs with the same bioavailability II. Drugs with same AUC III. Drugs with same rate of absorption A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

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17 138. The following factors effects the drugs that cross into breast milk I. Plasma protein binding II. Partition coefficient III. Membrane permeability A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. C. D. E. 100 200 300 600 900

143. A dose was given, after 2 hrs, the plasma concentration was 64 mg, t1\2 =0.7 hr, after 7 hours from the initial dose, what is the drugs concentration? A. B. C. D. E. 0.0 mg 1.0 mg 2.0 mg 3.0 mg 4.0 mg

139. Albumin is major plasma protein and has strongest affinity to the following protein: A. B. C. D. E. Acid drugs S S S S

144. Which of the following is used as standard to measure GFR: A. B. C. D. E. Inulin Creatinin Glucose Insulin Fructose

140. Plot of log of concentration against time produces a straight line with a: A. B. C. D. E. Slope of K/2.303 Slop of K/t1/2 Slope of K0 Slope of K/2.303 Slope of K/0.693

145. Renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of: A. B. C. D. E. Active renal secretion Effective renal blood flow Rate of renal drug excretion GFR Intrinsic renal activity

141. 100 mg a drug with 2 hr of half life, to eliminate 90 mg of it take how many hours? A. B. C. D. E. 7.7 5.6 6.6 4.6 2.6

146. Renal clearance of Creatinin is used as a measurement of: A. B. C. D. E. Active renal secretion Effective renal blood flow Rate of renal drug excretion GFR Intrinsic renal activity

142. A drug was found to have Zero order kinetics 100 mg after 6 days 99 mg How long it will take to eliminate the entire drug from the body?

147. Which of the following forms of nitroglycerine that are minimally affected by the first pass effect include?

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18 I. Sublingual II. Transdermal Patches III. Intravenous A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

152. The difference between peak and trough concentration is greater when a drug is given at dosing intervals A. B. C. D. E. 153. Equal to half life of drug Longer than half life of drug Shorter than half life of drug Equal to Css Equal to half life serum creatinin Lethal dose LD50 is classified as I. Dose cause 50 % of toxic response in tests II. Dose cause 50 % of effect response in tests III. Dose cause 50 % of death response in tests A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

148. Which of he following likely t increase in elderly (Geriatric) Patients: A. B. C. D. E. Plasma protein albumin level Enzymatic metabolism Vd of water soluble drugs Vd of lipophilic drugs Hypervolimia

149. In dosing drugs that are primarily excreted by the kidney, one must have some idea of the patient renal function. Which of the following pharmacokinetics parameter gives the estimate of renal function: A. B. C. D. E. BUN Serum Creatinin Urine Creatinin Creatinin clearance Free water clearance

150. if the rate of elimination of drug is reduced because renal insufficiencies, the effect on drug half life and Css will be: A. B. C. D. Half life and Css decrease Half life and Css increase Increase in Half Life and Decrease in Css Decreasing in Half Life but increase in Css E. No change in both 151. Which of the following statement are correct? I. Increase Vd increase Css II. Increase loading dose increase Css III. Decrease in Vd increase Css

154. The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by: A. Comparing AUC`s and total drug urinary excretion B. Comparing plasma concentration and total drug urinary excretion C. Comparing elimination and plasma concentration D. Non of the above E. sss

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19 155. The excretion of weakly acidic drug will become more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because: A. The drug will exist primarily in ionized form which cannot easily reabsorbed B. Q C. Q D. Q E. Q 156. The following are bioequivalent in Canada: I. Same color, physical appearance II. Same dose and same dosage form III. Same rate and same extent A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above used in A. B. C. D. E. Succinylcholine Pancuronium Atracurim Nicotine Mivcurium 159. The following are the amino acid and neurotransmitters: I. Glutamic acid II. Tryptophan III. Glycine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

160. All of the following are side effects symptoms of isoflurophate EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Convulsion Increase HR Miosis Skeletal muscle paralysis Increase bronchial secretion Are

161. All of the following neuromuscular blockers EXCEPT:

157. Sumatriptan is mainly migraine treatment acting as: A. B. C. D. E. 5HT1D / 1B agonist GABA A B2 1 Enkephelin Dopamine

162. All of the following drugs have diarrhea as side effect EXCEPT: I. Neostigmine II. Bethanechol III. Atropine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

158. The following is /are catechole amine neurotransmitter: I. Dopamine II. Nor epinephrine III. Epinephrine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

163. Which of the following is used in long term treatment of myasthenia Gravies A. Neostigmine

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20 B. C. D. E. A A A A I. Stop smoking from the day when start using nicotine products II. Can continue smoking for 1 to 2 weeks when non nicotine (Zyban) products III. Start 21 mg of nicotine patches and slowly taper the dose to 14 mg after 4 -6 weeks A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

164. All of the following drugs can be used in open angle and closed angle Glaucoma: I. Timilol II. Methyldopa III. Pilocarpine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

165. Chemical mediator that is released from the end nerve of parasympathetic system : I. Adrenalin II. Nor adrenalin III. Acetylcholine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

168. Mary 33 years old pregnant woman she smokes 1 pack a day, she is seeking your help in quitting her smoking habits, which of the following would be your recommend? I. Suggest to use non pharmacological steps to reduce smoking habits II. Suggest nicotine patches, to use every day III. Suggest Zyban oral drug smoking cessation A. B. C. D. E. 169. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

166. The following products can be used in smoking cessation: I. Nicotine Gums II. Zyban III. Buspirone A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. C. D. E.

Pancuronium is : Ganglionic blocker Depolarizing NMJ blocker Non depolarizing NMJ blocker Cholinergic antagonist Anti cholinesterase

170. The following drug most closely resembles atropine in its pharmacological action EXCEPT A. Acetylcholine

167. The following statements are correct about smoking cessation:

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21 B. C. D. E. Benzotropine Scopolamine Ipratropium Tropicamide 174. Epinephrine is combined with local anesthetic 1 in 100,000 parts for the following effect of epinephrine I. Vasoconstriction II. Reduced distribution of anesthetic in blood flow III. Increase the localized effect A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above local

171. Which of the following drugs does not produce miosis: A. B. C. D. E. Scopolamine Carbachole Pilocarpine Neostigmine Isoflurophate

172. Which of the following drugs with little change in heart rate but increases cardiac output. This drug indicated in CHF does not increase O2 demand. I. Isoproteronolol II. Methyldopa III. Dobutamine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

175. The action of acetylcholine in motor endoplate and in the celiac ganglia is described as: A. B. C. D. E. Nicotinic stimulation Muscarinic stimulation Dopaminic stimulation Adrenergic stimulation Serotonin stimulation

176. Drug commonly used with local anesthetic to decrease the absorption and increase the time of action of anesthesia include: A. B. C. D. E. Epinephrine Adrenaline SC Isoproterenol Aminophiline Salmeterol

173. The following medications are used is asthma emergencies I. Albuterol II. Ipratropium III. Salmeterol A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

177. Which one of the following in characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation A. Increase Heart rate B. Contraction of sphincter urinary bladder C. Inhibition of bronchial secretion D. Miosis effect contraction of iris E. Decrease intestinal motility

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22 E. All Of the above 178. Which of the following statement about the parasympathetic system is correct A. The parasympathetic system control the secretion of adrenal medulla B. The parasympathetic system involved in movement of food and urination and accommodation of near vision C. Parasympathetic system uses nor epinephrine as neurotransmitter D. Post Ganglionic fiber of parasympathetic system are long compared to sympathetic system E. Aa 179. Which of the following is the correct action of sympathomemitic I. Increase the drainage of aqueous humor in the eye II. Decrease in aqueous humor in the eye III. Increase of IOP Intra Ocular Pressure A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 181. Which of the following is atenolol side effect: I. Hypotension II. Tremor III. Visual disturbance A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

182. A patent currently on Blockers and sildenafil which of the following side effect can be seen I. Hypotension II. Tremor III. Visual disturbance A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

183. Nitrates and sildenafil cannot be used together because I. Enhance hypotension nitrates II. Enhance hypotension sildenafil III. Enhance hypertension nitrates A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above effect effect effect of of of

180. adrenergic blockers causes syncope as a side effect, in order to manage syncope effect, the following precaution should be taken: I. Take medication at bed time II. Reduce first dose to one fourth III. Take medication with full glass of water A. B. C. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only

184. A patient currently on phenelzine Nardil for his depression disorder, he

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23 should avoid all of the following food EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Age old cheese Wine Yogurt Orange Margarine E. All Of the above 188. Mary, 33 years old pregnant woman, requiring about the safer drug for hypotension condition, which of the following she can use: I. Methyldopa II. Hydralazine III. Labetolol A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

185. A patient currently on phenelzine Nardil for his depression disorder, he should avoid all of the following Medication EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. 186. Fluoxetine Sertarline Fluoxamine Meperidine Amoxicillin Serotonin involved in all EXCEPT: I. Sleep disorder II. Motor activity (physical Activity) III. Mood disorder A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

189. All of the following are the side effect of blockers EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Lower heart rate Lower blood pressure Higher blood pressure Fatigue Avoid driving after medication for a few hours

187. Which of the following statement are correct about Lithium I. Lithium effect seen after two weeks II. Before lithium has effect, patient are treated with benzodiazepine for manic depression III. Lithium is drug of choice for manic depression A. B. C. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only

190. Mr. Brown 55 years old asthmatic patient have difficulty in urination and goes frequent urination wakes us several time in night. His blood pressure indicate 160/95 mmHg. Which of the following medication would be appropriate to treat Mr. Brown condition A. B. C. D. E. Acebutolol Labetolol Hydralazine Doxazocine Yohimbine

191. All of the following are side effect of antagonist EXCEPT A. A B. A

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24 C. A D. Sexual dysfunction E. Urinary retention 192. The following drugs can be used to reduce male impotency I. Sildenafil II. Yohimbine III. Phentolamine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 195. The following are common side effect of TCA`s and MAO inhibitors I. Serotonin syndrome II. Psychological and dependence III. Postural hypotension A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above physical

196. All of the following are side effects have observed in patients using antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Orthostatic hypotension Constipation Increase blood pressure Sexual dysfunction Change in endocrine hormone function

193. Which of the following statements are correct about TCA`s I. TCA shows immediate effects II. Orthostatic hypertension is common side effect III. All TCA shows similar therapeutic effects A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

197. Second generation antipsychotic such as resperidone have the following advantage over traditional antipsychotics: I. Have high extrapyrimidal side effects than traditional antipsychotics II. Have less weight gain side effect than traditional antipsychotics III. Have less EPS than traditional antipsychotic A. B. C. D. E. 198. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

194. The following drugs can be used with caution to correct internal sphincter of bladder bed wetting I. Amitriptyline II. Thixamine III. Imipramine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

The following is protype of opioid A. Morphine B. A C. A

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25 D. A E. A 199. The following narcotic metabolite exhibit analgesic activity A. B. C. D. E. Meperidine Glucuronide Fentanyl Morphine Codeine active D. Codeine E. Fentanyl 203. by: Parkinson patients are characterized

I. Increase ratio of dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum II. Most commonly occurs in elderly over 40 years of age patients III. Decrease ratio dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

200. Activation of witch of the following principal opioid receptor does NOT cause significant respiratory depression I. Mu II. Delta III. Kappa A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

204. All of the following are withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Anxiety Insomnia Intestinal cramps Restlessness Craving

201. Witch of the following is / are the most common side effect of opioids: I. Constipation II. Respiratory depression III. Sedation A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 205. Opioid overdose presents with the following symptoms I. Pinpoint pupil II. Coma III. Respiratory depression A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

202. Which of the following opioid has toxic metabolite that may accumulate in renal dysfunction: A. Morphine B. Meperidine C. Methadone

206. The following anesthetics produce paraaminobenzoic acid PABA upon metabolism : I. General anesthetic

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26 II. Amide type of local anesthetics III. Ester Type of local anesthetics A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above II. Acetazolamide III. Furosemide A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All of the above

207. All of the following statement about Methadone are correct EXCEPT: A. It is effective by oral administration B. Has longer half life than morphine C. Has less analgesic activity than morphine D. Has greater action on mu receptors E. Methadone used in opioid withdrawal to reduce withdrawal symptoms 208. Witch of the following metabolic acidosis as side effect: I. Carbonic anhydrase diuretics II. Potassium sparing diuretics III. Thiazide diuretics A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above have

211. All of the following correct about spironolactone EXCEPT: A. It renders with distal tubular aldosterone mediated sodium, potassium exchange B. Cause alkaline urine C. Cause hyperkalemia D. Cause gynecomastia and menstrual irregularities E. The principle site of action is at thick ascending loop 212. All of the following are correct about Furosemide Except: A. The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending loop B. It is useful in treating pulmonary edema and ascites C. Useful in reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure D. Cause metabolic alkalosis E. Cause ototoxicity 213. What are the following characteristics of mannitol are correct: I. Freely filtered, limits the tubular reabsorption of water II. Useful in treatment of brain tumor III. Cause hyperkalemia A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

209. All of the following causes metabolic alkalosis EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Hydrochlorothiazide Acetazolamide Furosemide Bumetanide Chlorithalidone

210. Thrombocytopenia is side effect of the following drugs: I. Hydrochlorothiazide

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27 214. All of the following are the withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Anxiety Insomnia Intestinal cramps Restless Craving A. B. C. D. E. Fab fragments Ticlopidine Clopidogrel Aspirin Warfarin

219. Which of the following are produced by biotechnicological methods: I. Fab fragments II. Ateplase III. tPA A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

215. Rhabdomyolisis is the side effect of all of the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Simavastatin Lovastatin Gemfibrozil Colestipol Atrovastatin

216. Which of the following is mechanism of action of ezetimibe A. Lowering LDL,TG and increase HDL with anti-inflammatory effect B. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of cholesterol C. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist that inhibit platelet aggregate D. HMG Co A inhibitors E. Anion exchange resin 217. Which of the following can be used in treatment of DVT I. Warfarin II. Streptokinase III. Heparin A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

220. Which of the following medication can be used in pulmonary edema and DVT I. Heparin II. Warfarin III. Streptokinase A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

221. In order to measure effectiveness of warfarin therapy the following monitoring test are used I. INR must be 2-3 II. Prothrombin test (PT) III. aPTT A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

218. All of the following are anti platelet agent EXCEPT

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28 222. Which of the following is / are the ischemic heart disease A. B. C. D. E. 223. MI Angina Arrhythmias CHF A and B only Pulmonary edema causes Because of I. Left sided heart failure II. Right sided heart failure III. Ischemic condition A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above C. Fab fragment D. Quinidine E. Potassium supplement 227. Which of the following drugs or disease induce arrhythmias A. B. C. D. E. Diabetes Digitalis Quinidine Lidocaine Hypertension

228. Which of the following not appropriate with potassium sparing diuretics: I. Captopril II. Enalopril III. Bezopril A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

224. Which of the following drugs has lowering LDL, TG and increase HDL with anti inflammatory effects A. B. C. D. E. Simavastatin Clopidogrel Ezetimibe Ticofiban Enoxapril

229. All of the following statement are correct about nitroglycerin EXCPT: A. B. C. D. E. It can cause postural hypotension It can cause reflex tachycardia It has first pass metabolism It has IV formulations and spray It significantly decrease AV conduction

225. Which of the following side effect associated wit nitroglyceride A. B. C. D. E. Hypertension Trobbing headache Anemia Bradycardia >>>

226. All of the following are used in digitalis toxicity except A. Phenytoin B. Lidocaine

230. A patient with megaloblastic anemia requires Vit. B12 supplement. Which of the following is true about Vit. B12 supplement? I. 50 mg of oral B12 supplements helps to recover his anemic condition II. Folic acid supplement helps to acquire Vit. B12 III. Vit. B12 IV supplement helps to recover his anemic condition

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29 A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above D. Coating a layer on ulcers E. Blocking protein pump 235. Which of the following inhalers require shaking before use: A. B. C. D. E. Servant Salmeterol Ventolin Albuterol Atrovent Ipratropium Pulmicort Budesonide All of the above

231. A patient with constipation condition may require the following ant acids: I. Calcium anti acids II. Al (OH)3 Anti acids III. Mg (OH)2 Anti acids A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

236. Which of the following inhalers require rinsing mouth after use: F. G. H. I. J. Servant Salmeterol Ventolin Albuterol Atrovent Ipratropium Pulmicort Budesonide All of the above

232. Which of the following anti acids have cathartic side effects A. B. C. D. E. Al (OH)3 Mg (OH)2 CaHCO3 Sodium bicarbonate Non of the above

233. Alginic acid is used in the following condition: A. B. C. D. E. Heartburn symptom relief Heartburn prophylaxis Heartburn treatment Peptic ulcer treatment <<<<<<<

237. Which of the following are correct about beclomethasone patient counseling I. Do not rinse mouth if used spacer with oral inhalants II. Rinse mouth after use of all corticosteroids inhalants III. Mouth rinse after corticosteroids inhalant reduce the systemic side effects A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

234. Which of the following is most important method in peptic ulcer treatment: A. Neutralizing gastric acidic content B. Inhibiting receptor activation of gastric acid secretions C. Eradication of H. pylori infection

238. Which of the following is most appropriate treatment for emergency asthma A. B. C. D. E. Albuterol Ipratropium Beclomethasone Albuterol + Ipratropium Fluticasone

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30 E. All Of the above 239. All of the following asthmatic medications are useful in pregnancy EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. 240. 2 Agonist Coromolyn Inhaled corticosteroids Thyophyllin Zafirlukast Emphysema is characterized by: I. Permanent enlargement of small sacs in lungs II. Permanent damage of alveolar in lungs III. Shortness of breath A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 243. Ipratropium bromide in COPD is more effective when combined with: I. adrenergic II. Has less side effect tat atropine III. When administrated inhalation A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

244. Which of the following condition limit the use of Thyophyllin in treatment of COPD: A. B. C. D. E. Peptic ulcer disease All age CHF Diabetics All of the above

241. All of the following pituitary hormones secreted from anterior pituitary gland EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. LH FSH MSH ADH ACTH

245. Corticosteroids are used in the treatment of COPD: I. In patient who have the response to bronchodilator therapy II. In patient with no wheezing effect III. Before maximum Thyophyllin therapy received A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

242. All of the following statement are correct about hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT: I. Causes deficiency of Vit. D II. Decrease Ca ion in blood III. Increase Ca ion reabsorption from renal tubules A. B. C. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only

246. In hyperparathyroidism condition, the following statements are correct EXCEPT: A. Hypercalcimia B. High production of PTH C. Hyperphosphetemia

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31 D. Muscle ache E. Muscle atrophy 247. Which of the following is not the correct match: A. Hypothyroidism --- Hypocalcemia B. Hpoparathyroidism ---Hyperphosphetemia C. Hyperparathyroidism --Hypercalcimia D. Hyperparathyroidism --cause deficiency phosphates E. Hyperparathyroidism --cause deficiency of Ca ions 248. Hypocalcimia occurs in the following condition: I. Vomiting II. Hypoparathyroidism III. Vit. D deficiency A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above B. C. D. E. III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

251. Which of the following statement is correct? A. Protamine is added to insulin decrease the rate of absorption B. Protamine is added to insulin increase the rate of absorption C. Insulin can be administrated orally D. Insulin administered IV only E. Insulin administrated IM only to to

252. Which of the following statement about oral hypoglycemic is / are correct A. Chlorpropamide blocks insulin receptors B. Glipizide increase glucagons secretion C. Sulfonylureas increase release of insulin and increase sensitivity of target tissues D. <<<< E. <<<< 253. Which of the following increase during Ovulation? I. Progestin II. hCG III. LH and FSH a. b. c. d. e. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

249. Which of the following drugs does not cause hypoglycemia A. B. C. D. E. Metformin Repaglinide Acarbose Glyburide Chlorpropamide

250. Which of the following hormones play important rules in male reproductive system? I. FSH II. LH III. TSH A. I Only

254. Which of the following hormones secreted by corpus leutum to maintain pregnancy A. Estrogen B. Progestin

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32 C. Testosterone D. LH and FSH E. GnRH 255. Hormone that increase permeability in collecting tubules: I. Vasopressin II. Oxytocin III. Spironolactone A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above that sustained after water II. It occurs mainly in post menopausal women III. Is characterized by frequent bone fractions A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

259. Do not lay dawn for 30 after taking aldendronate that may cause: I. Esophageal ulcers II. Mouth ulcers III. Stomach ulcers A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

256. Hormone pregnancy: I. Estrogen II. Progestin III. Androgen A. B. C. D. E.

I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

260. Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by: I. Corticosteroids II. Menopause III. Graves disease A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

257. Hypothyroidism is related to the following: I. Graves disease II. Hashimoto syndrome III. I131 treatment A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above of

261. Osteoporosis is characterized by loss of bone mass and may predispose by the following factors: I. Race II. Family history III. Smoking A. I Only B. III Only

258. Osteoporosis is a condition skeletal muscle fragility due to: I. Progressive loss of bone mass

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33 C. I and II Only D. II And III Only E. All Of the above 262. Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland which stimulate the release of Calcitonin? A. B. C. D. E. Hypercalcimia Hypocalcemia Hypophosphetemia Hyperphosphetemia High concentration of Vit. D C. CBC D. Leukotrienes counts E. Liver function test 266. E Coli is the most common causative microorganism for UTI, classified as: A. B. C. D. E. Gram +ve cocci Gram ve cocci Gram +ve bacilli Gram ve bacilli Non of the above

263. The following estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) increase women bone density without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer: I. Misopristol II. Tamoxifen III. Ralaxifen A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

267. Which of the following is / are viral infection: I. Rabies II. Poliomyelitis III. Legiomores disease A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

264. Which of the following drugs are classified as receptor modulator (SERM): I. Misopristol II. Tamoxifen III. Ralaxifen A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above require therapy

268. Chloramphenicol is one of the drugs of choice in all EXCEPT: A. Typhoid B. Salmonella infection C. Meningitis when a lactam antibiotics cannot be used D. Rectisial infection responding to tetracycline or in which tetracycline cannot be used E. S. aures infection 269. Metronidalzole is first choice in all EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. Bacterial infection Clostridium difficile colitis Trichomaniasis Typhoid

265. All of the following monitoring for methotrexate EXCPT: A. Chest X-Ray B. Creatinin level

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34 E. Only anaerobic bacteria 270. What treatment: is true about influenza B. Erythromycin is alternate therapy in tooth extraction C. Cephalosporin 500 mg once daily for 3 days D. Aminoglycosides 250 mg once daily for 3 days E. <<<<<<<<< 274. -lactams antibiotics are ineffective in the treatment of the following infection: A. B. C. D. E. S. aures Gram +ve bacteria Group A strep. Mycolpasma pneumonia Streptococcus species

I. Amantadine indicated in influenza A and B II. Rimantadine indicated in influenza A only III. Oseltamivir indicated n influenza A and B A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

271. Lyme disease commonly occur in Mississippi river valley, this infection caused by: A. B. C. D. E. Tick bite Mosquito bite Dog bite Human bite Cockroach bite correct about

275. The lower part gut contain the following microorganism: A. B. C. D. E. 10 - 50% anaerobic bacteria 90 95% anaerobic bacteria 10 50% aerobic bacteria 90 95% aerobic bacteria lower part of gut does not have any microbes

272. Which is not trepenema palladium A. B. C. D. E.

276. Most common causative organism of community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is: A. B. C. D. E. S. pneumonia M. pneumonia H. influenza S. aureus E. coli

Treated by penicillin G Causative organism of syphilis Spread by lymphatic Causative organism of typhoid <<<<< about tooth

273. What is / are correct antibiotics regimen used in extraction:

277. The following organism least likely causative pneumonia: A. B. C. D. E. S. pneumonia M. pneumonia H. influenza S. aureus E. coli

A. Amoxicillin 500 mg tablets one hour before appointment and 5 tablets 6 hours after tooth extraction

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35 278. Metronidalzole following EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. indicated in the B. C. D. E. Penicillin G Methicillin Oxacillin <<<<<<<< is/ are

C. difficile Giardiasis Trichomaniasis S. aureus Anaerobic infection only

283. The following aminopenicillin: I. Amoxicillin II. Ampicillin III. Penicillin G A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

279. All of the following are DNA virus EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. 280. A. B. C. D. E. Adenovirus Papilloma virus Poxyvirus Orthomyxovirus Poliovirus German measles: Mumps Rubella Endocarditis Vericella Zoster

284. Which of the following is fourth generation cephalosporin: A. B. C. D. E. Cefaxitine Cefatoxine Cefipine Cefuroxime <<<<<

281. All of the following are penicillin resistant ( lactamase ) antibiotics EXCEPT: I. Amoxicillin II. Methicillin III. Naficillin A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

285. Which of the following clinical condition is the prophylactic use anti bacterial is NOT required: A. B. C. D. Preoperative treatment of GI condition Frequent respiratory disease Preoperative treatment of hip surgeries Prevention of meningitis among individual in close contact with infection patient E. Patient with tooth surgeries or tooth removed 286. Which of the following only antibiotic which is effective against Methicillin resistant S. aureus (MARS)

282. Which of the following is acid sensitive and lactamase resistant antibiotic: A. Amoxicillin

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36 A. B. C. D. E. Vancomycin ,, ,, ,, ,, Gonorrhea infection in male treated A. B. C. D. E. Vancomycin Metronidalzole Ceftrixone IM Penicillin G Cotrimoxazole C. I and II Only D. II And III Only E. All Of the above 291. All of the following are anti DNA viral agent EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. 292. A. B. C. D. E. Rimantadine Acyclovir Ribavirin Foscarnet Famciclovir Acacia is classified as: Suspending agent Natural emulsifying agent Semi synthetic emulsifying agent Flocculating agent Tablet filler

287. by:

288. Pregnant woman have UTI infection, what is the oral antibiotic? A. B. C. D. E. 289. Ampicillin Tetracycline Cotrimoxazole Clotrimazole Cefadroxil Aminoglycosides are indicated in: I. Gram +ve bacterial infection II. Gram ve bacterial infection III. Prophylaxis in preoperative procedure A. B. C. D. E. 290. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

293. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use approximately weight: A. B. C. D. E. 10 gram 5 gram 2 gram 1 gram 0.5 gram

294. In a dispensing pharmacy, pharmacist usually mix active powder with large amount of diluents by: A. B. C. D. E. Levigation Geometrical dilution Tituration Sifing Pulverization

Sulfonamide are indicated in: I. Gram +ve and certain gram ve II. Gram ve and certain gram +ve III. Mainly a typical bacteria A. I Only B. III Only

295. The shell of soft gelatin capsule may made by addition of plastic-like substance: A. Polyethelenglycol PEG B. Povidone

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37 C. Lactose D. Sorbitol E. Methyl cellulose 296. A. B. C. D. E. 5 10 0 1 000 Which is the smallest size of capsule 300. Aseptic technique decontamination of: include

I. Undesirable particles II. Decontamination of pyrogen III. Decontamination of pathogen A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

297. In extemporaneous preparation of suspensions, Levigation is used: A. B. C. D. E. Reduce particle size Reduce viscosity Increase practical size increase sedimentation rate reduce sedimentation rate Sterility or sterile I. Pyrogen free II. Particulate free III. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free ) A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

301. A vertical laminar flow hood is the best choice when preparing solution of: A. B. C. D. E. Penicillin Doxacillin Cytotoxic agent Nicotine formulation Aminoglycosides

298.

302. The size of HEPA used in Laminar air flow hood is: A. B. C. D. E. 0.22 micron 0.33 micron 0.44 micron 0.55 micron 0.66 micron

303. What is the suitable form of water can be used in parenteral preparations; I. Sterile water for injection USP II. Water for injection USP III. Purified water USP A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

299. Sterile preparations of parenteral solution: IV. Pyrogen free V. Particulate free VI. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free ) A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

304. Which of he following id the output of Albuterol inhalation aerosol:

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38 I. Dry mist II. Wet mist III. Stable foam A. B. C. D. E. 305. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. C. D. E. Mass spectrophotometers << << << <<

RX Phenol 0.5 % Cimetidine HCl Water for injection USP What is the rule of phenol in this script? A. B. C. D. E. Preservative <<< <<< <<< <<< Which detector is used in HPLC?

309. A changed particle passing through a magnetic field is detected along circular path on a radius that is proportional to mass to charge ratio, m/e. This principle is basis of the following instrument: A. B. C. D. E. UV analysis Nuclear magnetic resonance analysis Magnetic Mass spectrometry <<

310. Correct statement regarding Glossists include which of the following: I. Inflation of the tongue II. Presence of pinkish red central lesions on the dorsal surface of the tongue III. It can be chronic condition of the tongue seen in pernicious anemia A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

306. A. B. C. D. E.

UV detectors << << << <<

307. What is true about reversal phase of HPLC: I. Stationary phase is hydrophobic II. Mobile phase is polar III. Mobile phase is aqueous buffer A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

311. Patient with allergy to sulfonamides, can take all of the following EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Penicillin Lidocaine Celecoxib Clindamycin Tetracycline

308. To find out molecular weight of drug molecule which of the following instrument is used :

312. All of the following are example of DMRA Disease Modifying Anti rheumatic Agent EXCEPT:

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39 A. B. C. D. E. Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Organic Gold compound Sulphapyrazone Penicillamine 316. Oral chelating agent that used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Allopurinol B. Sulphinpyrazone C. Indomethacine D. Penicillamine E. Methotrexate 317. In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates: A. Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement B. Specifically reverse the cause of disease C. Provide only analgesic effect D. Are effective because they are uricosuric agents E. Are more effective when given with allopurinol 318. Importance of Vit. D in osteoporosis: I. Increase absorption of calcium from the small intestine II. The best Vit D analog to treat osteoporosis Calcitonin III. Ant acids containing Al and Mg interfere with proper activity of Vit D A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

313. Which statement are right regarding Calcitonin I. Its secretion stimulated during feeding, particularly of high calcium meals II. Prevents Hypercalcimia by inhibiting the transport of calcium into extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of Calcitonin III. It is a vitamin D derivative A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

314. The level should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol: I. Mercapturic acid II. Theophyllin III. Anticoagulants A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

315. Uricosuric agent used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid reabsorption in the proximal tubules, the best example of uricosuric agent is: A. B. C. D. E. Allopurinol Sulphinpyrazone Indomethacine Penicillamine Methotrexate

319. Drug that inhibit xanthine oxidase and affect the metabolism of 6mercaptopurine: A. B. C. D. E. Sulphinpyrazone Allopurinol Penicillamine Purinethil Celecoxib

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40 III. Not effective at increased bone mass that has already been lost 320. Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by: I. Syonvial cells proliferation inside of a joint II. Normally occurs in patients with Rheumatoid arthritis III. An immunologic complication A. B. C. D. E. 321. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

324. Ant malarial drug used in the treatment o rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA drug A. B. C. D. E. Chloroqine Quinine Sulfasalazine Hydroxychlorquine Primaquine of of

Gout characteristics include: I. Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints II. The joints inflammation caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals III. It is a type of osteoporosis A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

325. Correct administration Penicillamine in the treatment rheumatoid arthritis include: A. B. C. D. E. With meal In empty stomach With plenty of water With orange juice Before bed time

326. Asthmatic patient with RA with Aspirin sensitivity. The drug of choice is: A. B. C. D. E. Ibuprofen Acetaminophen Gold therapy Azathioprine Cyclophosphamide

322. Al of the following are Allopurinol side effects, EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. 323. Increase PT Hypersensitivity rashes GIT intolerance Peripheral neuritis Necrotizing vasculitis The use of estrogen in osteoporosis; I. Enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss II. Useful in treatment of osteoporosis associated to menopause

327. Diflunisal is most likely to prescribed for the treatment of: A. B. C. D. E. Wilsons disease Rheumatoid arthritis Cystinuria Psariasis Hansens disease

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41 328. The anti body with longest serum half life is: A. B. C. D. E. IgA IgG IgD IgE IgM 332. An example of type IV hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by IgE : I. Cytotoxicity II. Bronchial constriction III. Contact dermatitis A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

329. T cells that are released from thymus gland into circulation are: I. Memory B cells II. TH cells III. T virgin cells A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above anti bodies enter fetal

333. Preventive vaccine available for the following condition I. Hepatitis B II. Influenza A III. Influenza B A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

330. Which type of (immunoglobulin) can circulation A. B. C. D. E. IgA IgG IgD IgE IgM

334. As a result of zwitter ion amino acid solution. In solution zwitter ion exhibit the following properties : I. Anionic II. Cationic III. Ampiphilic A. B. C. D. E. 335. DNA fragment: A. B. C. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above contain the following

331. The oxidative release of which of the following substance causes formation of toxic hypochlorous acid : I. H2O2 II. Peroxidase III. Oxygen A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

Nucleotide with deoxyribose (sugar) Nucleoside with deoxyribose (sugar) Nucleoside with Ribose Nucleotide with ribose

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42 E. Non of the above 336. HIV viruses has special enzymes that form DNA in host, which of the following is that enzyme: A. B. C. D. E. c DNA recombinant DNA reverse transcriptase restrictive endonulease <<<< 340. Parenteral calcium used as antidote for which of the following: I. Hyperkalemia II. Verapamil III. Hypokalemia A. B. C. D. E. 341. How treated: I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above is acetaminophen toxicity

337. Genetic information storage place of eukaryotics is: A. B. C. D. E. Lysosome Nucleus Vacuoles Mitochondria Chromosomes

I. Gastric lavage within 2 hours II. Activated charcoal administration III. Administration of N-acetylcystein for hepatotoxicity A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

338. Which of the following vaccines are given in geriatrics: I. Influenza II. Pnumoccocus III. Meningoccocus A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

342. Charcoal used as antidote in overdose of chemicals and drugs, charcoal effects as: I. Increase the enzymatic degradation of the chemicals in GIT II. Increase the clearance of the drugs and chemicals from GIT III. Decrease absorption of the drugs by adsorption A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

339. An unconscious patient is bought into the emergency department. The patient is given 50 ml of 50% dextrose in water, thiamine 100 ml IV followed by nalaxone 1mg , the patient most likely overdose on which of the following: A. B. C. D. E. Heroin << << << <<

343. How do you treat benzodiazepine toxicity?

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43 I. Perform gastric lavage II. Administration of activated charcoal III. Administration flumzenil, a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 347. What are the common storage land of most biotechnological products such as tPA, Streptokinase, and lyrokinase A. Cool pace 2-8 C 348. Glycoproteins are linked to:

344. Salicylates toxicity of drug are treated by alkaline diuresis because: I. Decrease absorption of salicylates II. Increase absorption of salicylates because acid and base make neutral solution III. Enhance salicylates excretion

I. Insulin II. Gonadotropin III. Interleukin A. B. C. D. E. 349. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

Most common antibody:

A. B. C. D. E.

I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

A. B. C. D. E.

IgM IgD IgG IgE IgA are

345. Salicylates toxicity of drug are treated by alkaline diuresis because: I. Decrease absorption of salicylates II. Decrease re absorption III. Enhance salicylates excretion A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 350. All of the following biotechnological products EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Alteplase Abciximab Interleukin-3 Beta serum Warfarin

346. What is not found in deoxyribose nucleic acid A. B. C. D. E. Uracil Adenine Cytosine Guanine Thyamine

351. Enzyme that clears DNA at a specific site called: I. Tyrosine II. Restrictive ribonuclease III. Restrictive endonuclease A. I Only B. III Only

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44 C. I and II Only D. II And III Only E. All Of the above 352. Which is recombinant DNA: 356. Which deficiency; I. Isoniazide II. Sulfonamide III. Methotrexate A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above drugs cause folic acid

I. R-DNA II. C-DNA III. rDNA A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above menton constant)

353. Km (Michael lower that V max: A. B. C. D. E. 354. First order Second order Zero order Second order kinetic << Lecithins are:

357. Lack of intrinsic factor cause: A. Vit B12 deficiency B. << C. << D. < E. << 358. Which of the following molecules form free radicals: I. Fatty acid peroxidation result in free radicals II. H2O2 and other peroxide produce free radicals III. Oxygen producing free radicals A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

I. Carbohydrates II. Proteins III. Blood fats A. B. C. D. E. 355. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

Which drug cause Vit B6 deficiency

359. Which of the following is / are free radical: I. H2O2 II. O2 III. OH

I. Isoniazide II. Penicillamine III. Methotrexate A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

A. B. C. D. E.

I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

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45 360. Which of the following can form free radical: I. H2O2 II. O2 III. OH A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. C. D. E. Eosinophil Neutrophil Basophil Platelet Monocytes

361. Which of the following vitamins contain aminolone I. Vit. B12 II. Vit. C III. Vit. K A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

365. A 33 years old woman receive long term and her dose treatment of sulfamethoxazole after 2 weeks of treatment she has low grade of fever, rash, muscle and joint pain. These symptoms indicate which of the following type of hypersensitivity reactions? A. B. C. D. E. Type I Type II Type III Type IV Type V

366. The antibody with the longest serum half life: A. B. C. D. E. IgA IgG IgD IgE IgM

362. All of the following are immune system related organs EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Lymph Thymus Thyroid Appendix Spleen

367. Local anesthetic benzocaine with caffeine form the following products: A. B. C. D. E. Dipole Dipole Ion Dipole Complexation Ion Ion Non of the above

363. A patient with inflammation and infection his WBC count is: A. B. C. D. E. < 4000 to 11000 > 4000 to 11000 Equal to 400 to 11000 << <<

368. All are business forms in Canada EXCEPT: A. Incorporation B. Private ownership

364. Which of the following is the major WBC?

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46 C. Leasing D. Cooperative E. << 369. The following is most important factor in an effort to start pharmacy: A. B. C. D. E. Financial assessment Site of pharmacy Parking space Geographical location Neighborhood 374. The most important factors in location analysis should be focused on a: A. B. C. D. E. Market area analysis Region analysis Trading area, and finally a site Parking area School area A. B. C. D. E. Salaries distribution Utilities Job distribution Product stock management OTC product price

370. Balance sheet, is the financial statement mainly contain the following information: I. Profit II. Sales report III. Liabilities A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

375. Which form of business enterprise is most preferable: A. B. C. D. E. Incorporation < < < <

376. Which form of business enterprise is most profitable A. B. C. D. E. Sole proper ship << << ,< <<

371. What is POS means; A. Point of sale B. XX C. XX D. XX E. XX 372. A. B. C. D. E. What is QALY means:

377. Which is the fastest and the effective way of promotion A. Advertisement B. Direct mailing C. Direct contact with customer in high frequency hours D. << E. << 378. Which is the most effective media of promotion?

Quality adjusted life years 11 11 11 11

373. Responsibility of pharmacy manager EXCEPT:

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47 A. B. C. D. E. TV Radio Billboards Flyers Direct mailing C. Duodenum D. Colon E. Rectum 383. pH of the stomach is decreased by:

379. Drugs that are converted to salt form I. Alter drug bioavailability II. Alter pharmacological effects III. Increase potency A. B. C. D. E. 380. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

I. HCl (hydrochloric acid) II. << III. << A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

384. Which structure is not found in the dermis: A. B. C. D. E. Nerves Fats Melanin Blood vessels << Hyperdermolysis:

Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant agent (FK506 or Prograft), main side effects:

I. Nephrotoxicity II. Nuerotoxicity III. Osteoporosis A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

385. A. B. C. D. E.

Entry of IV fluids in the dermis << << << << Necrosis:

381. In which type of seizure there is break in the action of patient activity for long period: A. B. C. D. E. Tonic clonic << << << << Chron`s Disease is disease of :

386.

A. Dead area of tissue surrounded by healthy tissue B. << C. << D. << E. << 387. Necrosin:

382.

A. Small intestine B. Stomach

A. Substance obtained from inflamed tissue which induce inflammatory changes in normal tissue:

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48 B. C. D. E. 388. A. B. C. D. E. << << << << Necrobiosis: Gradual degradation in depth of tissue << << << << 393. to: 392. Correct statement of mycrocytic anemia: I. Decrease in RBC size II. Decrease in RBC III. Caused by iron deficiency A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

389. Which vitamin is not present in neonate( new born): A. B. C. D. E. Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin K Vitamin C Vitamin E What is true about cystic fibrosis:

pernicious anemia (PA) caused due

I. Folic acid II. Vitamin B12 III. Thyroid disorder A. B. C. D. E. 394. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

390.

I. Genetic etiology II. Effects lungs and digestive system III. Cause by deficiency of vitamins A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

pernicious anemia can be treated by:

A. Diet higher in vitamin B12 B. Oral supplement of Vitamin B12 C. Parenteral supplement of folic acid D. Oral supplement of iron E. Parenteral supplement of vitamin B12 395. Sickle cell anemia: I. Thalassemia II. Main etiology is hereditary III. Deficiency of iron causes sickle cell anemia A. B. C. D. E. 396. I. Spine I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

391. La Places law describe the tension achieves in blood vessel wall to: I. The interluminal pressure II. The radius of blood vessels III. The length of the blood vessels A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

Shoulder joint contain:

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49 II. Humerous III. Scapula A. B. C. D. E. 397. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above I. II. III. 400. The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea: Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclin Cotrimoxazole Pepto - Bismol A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above

What is azotemia?

I. Excess of BUN in blood II. Excess of creatinin clearance III. Decrease of BUN A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

401. Which of the following most common causative organism for traveler diarrhea A. B. C. D. E. E coli Aeromonas Sp. Salmonella Sp. Shigella Sp. Vibro cholera

398. The following pathogens commonly cause travelers diarrhea: I. E coli II. Shigella sp. III. Bacteroid fragillis A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

402. The following unsafe food could cause traveler diarrhea I. Cooked and unpeeled fruits II. Fresh soft cheese III. Fresh vegetable salad A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above

399. The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea I. Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclin II. Cotrimoxazole III. Erythromycin A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

403. Preferred laxative used in elderly patients? I. Doucsate sodium (emollient laxative) II. Lactulose III. Glycerin suppositories A. B. C. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only

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50 E. All of the above D. Hospital E. Society 408. Which is include in standard data: 404. What is the advantages of antacids over H2 Antagonists: A. B. C. D. E. F. Longer duration of action Antacids are indicated for treatment Antacids have faster onset of action Antacids have better absorption Antacids have slower absorption Antacids have more effectiveness

I. Coefficient of variance II. Range III. Standard deviation A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above

405. Which of the following counseling for permethrin 5%, indicated in scabies treatment: I. Thoroughly, massage into skin from head to soles of feets II. Remove cream by washing III. Use for all family members A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above factors

409. When standard error of the mean decrease: A. B. C. D. The size of the sample increase The size of the sample decrease The size of the sample does not change Non of the above

410. The visual impulse is associated with photochemical transformation of: A. B. C. D. E. Retinal Retinol Retinoic acid Rhodopsin Non of the above

406. Which of the following aggravate osteoporosis: I. Race II. Estrogen use oral contraceptive III. Estrogen deficiency A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above

411. Pharmacist advice the patient with eye problems to see the doctor in which of the following case: I. Red eye II. Blurred vision III. Ocular pain A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above

407. In pharmacoeconomics considerations, the following aspects is the most important: A. Pharmacist B. Doctor C. Patient

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51 412. Patient taking diphenhydramine as a sleep help should be advised : I. To take tablet every day II. To take 30 min before bed time III. Increasing the dose will increase the induction of sleep A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above D. To do no harm E. Act with fairness 416. If a pharmacist dispensed a drug with different brand name than the prescription, what ethical principle is violated? A. B. C. D. E. Autonomy Beneficency Justice Veracity Honesty

413. When concerning the parents of a 10 years old child with a prescription for Bacterioban to treat impetigo, all should be said EXCEBT: A. Impetigo is common among children in this age B. S. Pyrogen is one of the agents that cause impetigo C. Impetigo is very communicable D. Oral medication do not work in impetigo treatment 414. A prescription contains a drug, which gives side effects to a patient. Pharmacist does not inform the patient regarding it and continue to dispense the prescription. What are the following ethical principle violated: A. B. C. D. E. Autonomy Beneficency Justice Veracity Honesty

417. All of the following pharmacoeconomics methods used to assess in term of cost and consequences EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Cost benefit analysis Cost utilizing analysis Cost minimization analysis Cost of illness Cost effective analysis

418. Ampicillin prescription changed to amoxicillin by doctor, this substitution is called: A. B. C. D. E. Generic substitution Pharmaceutical substitution Therapeutic substitution Pharmaceutical alternate Brand name alternate a a a a

419. 420. 421. 422. 423.

415. Ethical principal of nonmaleficiency requires: A. Act with truthfulness B. Act with honesty C. To do good

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