Bancos ATPL

ATPL
subject/secparagraph wording Domanda 10

1 SWEDEN An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency that differs from the triangle semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 Declare an emergency 0 -1 0 0
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
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1 PORTUGA The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: 3 SWEDEN Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :
Red for miscellaneous equipment.
Blue for food and water. Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
Black for food and water.
-1
when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
on the initiative of the aircraft commander 2 minutes
at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions 3 minutes
as instructed by an air traffic control unit 4 minutes
-1
3 PORTUGA In order to meet the 1 minute wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
-1
Page 1 of 1247
subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

1 PORTUGA The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : 1 PORTUGA The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : 1 PORTUGA The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : 4 SWEDEN
rispostaA
240 KT IAS
rispostaB
Not applicable
rispostaC
250 KT IAS
rispostaD
250 KT TAS
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0 -1 0 0
250 KT TAS
Not applicable
240 KT IAS
250 KT IAS
-1
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
Not applicable
260 KT IAS
-1
If contact is lost with Turn 90 degrees If you have other visual the runway on the down- towards the runway and cues, continue with wind leg of a circling wait for visual conctact ground contact manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ? at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude
Initiate a missed approach
-1
3 PORTUGA When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for :
at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
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Page 2 of 1247

2 SWEDEN Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention 1500 feet
rispostaD
ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections 2000 feet
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0 0 -1 0
ICAO must be informed ICAO must be informed about changes in the about new flight crew national regulations licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses 1000 feet 500 feet
3 SWEDEN
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
-1
0 SWEDEN
Which of the following Annex 1 Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? Which of the following Annex 14 Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? Which of the following Annex 14 Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in : "Cabotage" refers to: flight identification and weather noted ;
Annex 2
Annex 3
Annex 4
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1 SWEDEN
Annex 6
Annex 11
Annex 10
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1 SWEDEN
Annex 6
Annex 17
Annex 11
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3 NETHERL
urgent messages
a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ; a national air carrier;
weather noted ;
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2 NETHERL
crop spraying
domestic air services ;
a flight above territorial waters;
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Page 3 of 1247

3 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
rispostaC
ATC will apply separation with other traffic
rispostaD
the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;
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0 0 -1 0
ATC will apply Which statement is separation only with correct ? other IFR-traffic During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Classe C): During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missedapproach instruction, in case the "towercontroller" has not issued a "landingclearance" at the moment the aircraft is : What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ? 1NM from touch-down;
3 NETHERL
3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from touch-down;
2 NM from touch-down;
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4 SWEDEN
Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
Request an amended clearance
Initiate a missed approach
Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
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3 PORTUGA In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ? 1 SWEDEN
medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
-1
Which of the following Visibility minima is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
OCH or OCA
DME-frequencies
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Page 4 of 1247

0 PORTUGA The prescribed reexamination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: 0 PORTUGA When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization: 1 SWEDEN Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?
rispostaA
Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
rispostaB
A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
rispostaC
Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
rispostaD
A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
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0 0 0 -1
Shall not extend beyond Is only considered for one year for ATPL and PPL. PCL.
Shall not extend beyond Depends on the the period of validity of regulations of the the licence. contracting sate which renders valid the licence. 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
-1
3 crossbars, centre line 5 crossbars, centre line 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per with 3, 2 and 1 lamp with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit per light unit light unit
-1
3 SWEDEN
The air traffic control The pilot does not have unit has reported 'radar to follow up the position contact', what does that of the aircraft mean to the pilot? 3 minutes
The aircraft is subject to positive control
Position reports may be The radar identity of the omitted aircraft has been established 15 minutes 5 minutes
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3 PORTUGA Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
10 minutes
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Page 5 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
On at least 20 occasions
rispostaC
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
rispostaD
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
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0 0 -1 0
On at least 20 days 3 PORTUGA Repetitive flight plans consecutively (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and : 3 PORTUGA Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by : 3 PORTUGA Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class : 0 NETHERL To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is : at least 30 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
at least 45 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
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C, D and E airspaces
E airspace
D and E airspaces
D airspace
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16 and 60 years
17 and 59 years
18 and 60 years
21 and 59 years
-1
3 PORTUGA A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
200 m (660 ft)
150 m (500 ft)
100 m (330 ft)
300 m (1000 ft)
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Page 6 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Less than 730 m
rispostaC
730 m
rispostaD
Less than 760 m
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0 0 0 -1
3 PORTUGA A separation minimum 760 m shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by : 3 PORTUGA A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is : 5 minutes
3 minutes
1 minute
2 minutes
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Page 7 of 1247

3 PORTUGA A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted : 3 PORTUGA Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that :
rispostaA
3.0 NM
rispostaB
5.0 NM
rispostaC
1.0 NM
rispostaD
2.0 NM
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-1 0 0 0
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25 (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach 15 degrees
-1
3 PORTUGA When independent 20 degrees parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than : 3 PORTUGA Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least : 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
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500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
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Page 8 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
3 minutes
rispostaC
1 minute
rispostaD
5 minutes
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-1 0 0 0
2 minutes 3 PORTUGA What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ? 1 NETHERL A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to: Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
-1
1 NETHERL
of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;
always of a straight row of flashing lights only; of lights towards the runway 5NM 1NM
of an arbitrary amount of green lights;
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3 NETHERL
Radar identification of a 3NM departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within : Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ? During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;
2NM
-1
3 NETHERL
If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft two way radiocommunication is not required.
Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ; a clearance is required.
An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ; a clearance and twoway radiocommunication is required.
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1 NETHERL
To perform a VFR flight a clearance and/or twoin airspace way classification E / radiocommunication is required.
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Page 9 of 1247

4 NETHERL On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is : Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?
rispostaA
40 degrees or less
rispostaB
20 degrees or less
rispostaC
10 degrees or less
rispostaD
30 degrees or less
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0 0 0 -1
4 NETHERL
the operator
the pilot-in-command ;
the "flight-operations" of the company
the state
-1
5 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
In a standard holding in a direction depending to the right pattern turns are made : on the wind direction Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than : Turning departures provide track guidance within : Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is : 2,5 NM 1,5 NM
to the left 3 NM
in a direction depending on the entry ; 5 NM
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
3 NETHERL
10 Km
5 Km
15 Km
20 Km
-1
4 NETHERL
7%.
8%.
6,5%.
5%.
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Page 10 of 1247

1 NETHERL What is a "barrette"?
rispostaA
a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
rispostaB
three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights. 150m
rispostaC
a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
rispostaD
a CAT II or III holding position.
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0 -1 0 0
1 NETHERL
What is the length of an 900m approach lighting system of a precisionapproach runway CAT II : Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than : An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ? An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ? 25 knots at any stage
300m
600m
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3 NETHERL
20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
15 knots at any stage
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1 NETHERL
1st freedom
3rd freedom
4th freedom
2nd freedom
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1 SWEDEN
When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
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Page 11 of 1247

3 SWEDEN A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is : Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ? When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at :
rispostaA
Medium
rispostaB
Poor
rispostaC
Good
rispostaD
Medium/poor
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0 -1 0 0
1 NETHERL
the Regional Air Navigation meeting
the Air Navigation Commission
the Assembly
the Council
-1
1 NETHERL
150 m from threshold
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3 NETHERL
When the transponder the flight can only appears to be continue in the most unserviceable prior to direct manner; departure and restorage is impossible, than : Black for food and water.
you are not allowed to commence the flight
departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight; Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
-1
1 PORTUGA The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: 3 NETHERL An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed :
Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
Red for food and water.
-1
the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight; during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground;
the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
the pilot is following the published approach procedure during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
all mentioned answers are correct
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3 NETHERL
during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
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Page 12 of 1247

4 NETHERL In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least : The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
rispostaA
decreasing from 984 to 492 ft
rispostaB
984 ft
rispostaC
1476 ft
rispostaD
492 ft
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0 -1 0 0
4 NETHERL
the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum
A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully; select code A7500 on your transponder.
the first part of the segment ;
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1 NETHERL
Your aircraft is follow ATC instructions. request ATC for other intercepted by a military instructions. aircraft The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions You should : The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that : The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of : Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only; 30 NM this aerodrome is using parallel runways
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
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1 NETHERL
taxiing need not be gliderflying is confined to the taxiways performed outside the ; landing area; 10 NM 15 NM
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2 NETHERL
25 NM
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1 NETHERL
at least 2000 feet within at least 2000 feet within at least 1000 feet within at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated 8 KM of the estimated 5KM of the estimated 8 KM of the estimated position position position position
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Page 13 of 1247

3 NETHERL We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within : When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case : Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published : The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called : Which statement is correct?
rispostaA
5 of the alignment of the runway centre-line
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan. information signs; orange background with black inscriptions. only in AIP
of an emergency.
the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
it is a deviation from the track.
-1
1 NETHERL
mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions. NOTAM, AIP and MAL
information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions. only in NOTAM
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1 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL
Essential separation
Composite separation
Combined separation
Reduced separation
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1 NETHERL
The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;
The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL; ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicule
The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL; An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ;
The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL; The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area;
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3 NETHERL
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
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Page 14 of 1247

1 NETHERL Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
rispostaA
The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received; 5 minutes or more.
rispostaB
The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of unlawful interference
rispostaC
Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this;
rispostaD
Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
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0 0 0 -1
3 NETHERL
The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is : An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
15 minutes or more
10 minutes
20 minutes
-1
1 NETHERL
outside the daylightwhile taxiing, but not period in flight, but not when it is being towed; on the ground when it is being towed; 6m. 3m.
outside the daylightperiod at engine-start. During the daylightperiod this is not applicable; 9m.
on the ground when the engines are running
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4 SPAIN
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
12m.
-1
1 PORTUGA The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
Red for food and water.
Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
Black for miscellaneous Blue for blankets and equipment. protective clothing.
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Page 15 of 1247

4 SPAIN In a procedure turn (45 /180 ), a 45 turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
rispostaA
1 minute 30 seconds.
rispostaB
2 minutes.
rispostaC
rispostaD
1 minute.
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0 0 -1 0
4 SPAIN
In an approach Based turn. procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will: Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
Racetrack pattern.
Procedure turn.
Shuttle.
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4 SPAIN
Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at Intersect the localizer at 30 and will not be 45 and will not be 30 and will not be 45 and will not be more 10 NM in length. more 10 NM in length. more 5 NM in length. more 5 NM in length.
-1
4 SPAIN
150m (492 ft).
300m (984 ft).
450m (1476 ft).
600m (1968 ft).
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4 SPAIN
Final approach segment.
Initial approach segment.
Intermediate approach segment.
Arrival segment.
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4 SPAIN
IF.
FAP.
FAF.
MAP.
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Page 16 of 1247

4 SPAIN Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:
rispostaA
At least 300m (984 ft).
rispostaB
150m (492 ft).
rispostaC
300m (984 ft).
rispostaD
At least 150m (492 ft).
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-1 0 0 0
4 SPAIN
Half a scale deflection.
One scale deflection.
A quarter of scale deflection.
One and a half of scale deflection.
-1
4 SPAIN
Where does the initial At the FAF. approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. 3.3%.
At the final en-route fix.
At the IAF.
At the IF.
-1
4 SPAIN
Arrival, intermediate and final. 5%.
Initial and final.
Initial, intermediate and final. 0.8%.
-1
4 SPAIN
2.5%.
-1
4 SPAIN
At the point where the climb is established.
At the missed approach At the first point where point. 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
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Page 17 of 1247

4 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
Visual manoeuvring (circling).
rispostaC
Visual approach.
rispostaD
Contact approach.
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0 -1 0 0
Aerodrome traffic The term used to pattern. describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: A circling approach is:
4 SPAIN
Prohibits circling within Permits circling only in the total sector in which VMC. the obstacle exists.
Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
-1
4 SPAIN
Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
For each category of Only for categories A aircraft, and it may be and B aircraft. different for each one of them.
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4 SPAIN
A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
A contact flight manoeuvre. 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
-1
4 SPAIN
In a precision approach 300m (984 ft) to 600m (ILS), generally glide (1968 ft). path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: What does the Obstacle identification abbreviation OIS mean? surface.
-1
2 SPAIN
Obstacle in surface.
Obstacle identification slope.
Obstruction in surface.
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Page 18 of 1247

0 NETHERL You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location indicators"? The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than : Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : In a procedure turn (45 /180 ), a 45 turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:
rispostaA
With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
rispostaB
With a CPL
rispostaC
With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating 6 months
rispostaD
With an ATPL
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0 0 -1 0
0 NETHERL
2 years
1 year
5 years
-1
1 NETHERL
AGA
ENR
AD
GEN
-1
0 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
17 years 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
0 NETHERL
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance : required ; No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance : not required
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance : not required ;
Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance : required ; 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ; 2 minutes.
-1
1 NETHERL
8 km visibility, and clear 5 km visibility, 1500 m of clouds ; horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ; 1 minute 15 seconds. 1minute 30 seconds.
-1
4 SPAIN
1 minute.
-1
Page 19 of 1247

0 FRANCE The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed: Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: What does the abbreviation DER mean? If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
rispostaA
31th of December the same year
rispostaB
15th of October the same year
rispostaC
30th of October the same year
rispostaD
30th of April the following year
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-1 0 0 0
5 SPAIN
15 .
20 .
5 .
10 .
-1
2 SPAIN
Depature end of runway. Distance end of route.
Departure end of route.
Distance end of runway.
-1
3 SPAIN
To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.
To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
-1
3 SPAIN
In general, which is the The terrain surrounding ATC requirements. main factor that the airport. dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure? In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: 35 ft. 0.8 % gradient.
Navigation aids.
Airspace restrictions.
-1
3 SPAIN
0 ft.
3.3 % gradient.
-1
Page 20 of 1247

3 SPAIN In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within:
rispostaA
15 .
rispostaB
30 .
rispostaC
45 .
rispostaD
12.5 .
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-1 0 0 0
4 SPAIN
In an offset entry into 1 minute. an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30 offset track is limited to: How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will : 4.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
-1
4 SPAIN
Up to 4.
Up to 5.
3.
-1
1 NETHERL
Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination ;
Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
-1
3 PORTUGA An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
+/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
-1
3 PORTUGA A VFR flight constitutes B, C, D and E. essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified as: 3 PORTUGA One minute separation 45 immediately after may be used between take-off. departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
B.
B and C.
B, C and D.
-1
30 immediately after take-off.
-1
Page 21 of 1247

3 PORTUGA Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: 3 PORTUGA When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than: 3 NORWAY The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
rispostaA
The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 0 -1 0
20 degrees.
30 degrees.
25 degrees.
15 degrees.
-1
2 NM.
5 NM.
2.5 NM.
3 NM.
-1
3 PORTUGA The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
-1
3 PORTUGA The tolerance value +/- 250 ft. used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
+/- 500 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
+/- 200 ft.
-1
Page 22 of 1247

4 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
FAF.
rispostaC
Final missed approach track.
rispostaD
Landing runway.
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0 0 0 -1
MAP. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: +/- 200 ft.
3 PORTUGA The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): 1 PORTUGA The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 3 PORTUGA An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: 3 PORTUGA The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
+/- 150 ft.
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
-1
20 NM.
10 NM.
5 NM.
20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. 300 ft.
-1
+/- 300 ft.
More than 200 ft.
More than 300 ft.
-1
1.5 NM.
3.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
2.0 NM.
-1
Page 23 of 1247

3 NORWAY Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
rispostaA
5 NM.
rispostaB
6 NM.
rispostaC
8 NM.
rispostaD
10 NM.
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0 0 -1 0
3 PORTUGA An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last: 3 PORTUGA When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
3 NM.
1 NM.
4 NM.
2 NM.
-1
2 NM from touchdown.
2.5 NM from touchdown.
-1
3 PORTUGA The radar controller 4 NM from the shall not request the threshold on final pilot to adjust the speed approach. where the aircraft has passed:
2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
-1
Page 24 of 1247

1 PORTUGA The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: 3 PORTUGA Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: 7 SPAIN
rispostaA
Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
rispostaB
Blue for blankets and protective clothing.
rispostaC
Black for food and water.
rispostaD
Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
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-1 0 0 0
5.0 NM.
3.0 NM.
10.0 NM.
3.5 NM.
-1
Pilots shall not operate Requested by ATC. the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: At what moment during When passing the the approach should transition altitude the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 5 NM.
They operate within controlled airspace.
They operate a transponder with Mode C.
They operate within non controlled airspace.
-1
6 SWEDEN
Within the transition layer
When passing 3000 FT When passing the AMSL or 1000 FT AGL transition level
-1
5 SPAIN
3 NM.
5 km.
3 km.
-1
6 SPAIN
The transition altitude 1500 ft. of an aerodrome should not be below: The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported : as hlight level.
1000 ft.
3000 ft.
2500 ft.
-1
6 SPAIN
according pilot's choice. as altitude.
as height.
-1
6 SPAIN
as altitude.
According to pilot's choice.
as flight level.
as height.
-1
Page 25 of 1247

7 SPAIN When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
rispostaA
At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace. 60 NM.
rispostaB
Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
rispostaC
Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
rispostaD
Only when directed by ATC.
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-1 0 0 0
7 SPAIN
Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC. 50 NM.
Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions. 80 NM.
-1
3 PORTUGA A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" waypoint. This minimum is: 7 SPAIN
20 NM.
-1
When an aircraft is 7700. subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-incommand shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to: 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
7600.
7000.
7500.
-1
3 PORTUGA The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 7 SPAIN
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. Read back the mode and code to be set.
20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. Use only the word ROGER.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. Use only the word WILCO.
-1
When acknowledging Read back only the mode/code setting code to be set. instructions, pilots shall:
-1
Page 26 of 1247

1 PORTUGA The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
rispostaA
10 minutes.
rispostaB
5 minutes.
rispostaC
15 minutes.
rispostaD
3 minutes.
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-1 0 0 0
1 PORTUGA The longitudinal 10 minutes. separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 1 PORTUGA The longitudinal 5 minutes. separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
15 minutes.
5 minutes.
3 minutes.
-1
6 minutes.
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
-1
Page 27 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
2 minutes.
rispostaC
5 minutes.
rispostaD
3 minutes.
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0 0 -1 0
10 minutes. 1 PORTUGA The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 1 PORTUGA The longitudinal 8 minutes. separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 1 PORTUGA When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: 5 SPAIN In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code: 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
-1
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
-1
Track.
Heading.
Course.
Bearing.
-1
7 SPAIN
7500.
7700.
7600.
2000.
-1
Page 28 of 1247

0 PORTUGA An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-incommand of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
rispostaA
50 hours and 10 hours
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
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-1 0 0 0
1 PORTUGA Flight Information C, D, E, F, and G Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes : 0 PORTUGA An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : 0 PORTUGA For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
F and G only
A, B, C, D, E, F and G
F only
-1
150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
-1
5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 3 takeoffs and 3 landings as pilot in command
-1
Page 29 of 1247

0 PORTUGA The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit : 0 PORTUGA Type ratings shall be established
rispostaA
the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority
rispostaB
50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
rispostaC
in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
rispostaD
in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
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0 0 -1 0
all the answers are correct
for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
-1
0 PORTUGA When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : 0 PORTUGA When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization 1 PORTUGA The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by :
12 months to 6 months
12 months to 3 months
24 months to 12 months none of the answers are correct
-1
shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
-1
ECAC
Each contracting state
ICAO
-1
Page 30 of 1247

0 PORTUGA In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed : 1 PORTUGA Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority : 0 PORTUGA The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of : 0 PORTUGA An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
rispostaA
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.
rispostaB
Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
rispostaC
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
rispostaD
in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
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-1 0 0 0
Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states
Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Shall be specified to ICAO
-1
100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
-1
100 hours of night flight 100 hours of night flight 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or only as pilot in as pilot in command or as co-pilot command as co-pilot
75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
-1
Page 31 of 1247

0 PORTUGA An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : 0 PORTUGA The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :
rispostaA
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
rispostaB
100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time
rispostaC
150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
rispostaD
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
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-1 0 0 0
250 hours and 10 hours 150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100 hours
-1
Page 32 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 -1 0 0
0 PORTUGA An applicant for an 150 hours and 75 hours 250 hours and 100 Airline Transport Pilot hours Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilotin-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively : 0 PORTUGA An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
200 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100 hours
15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
-1
Page 33 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
rispostaC
20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
rispostaD
10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
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0 0 -1 0
0 PORTUGA An applicant for a 15 hours and 540 km commercial pilot (300NM) licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are : 0 PORTUGA The duration of the the licence is issued or period of currency of a validated medical assessment shall begin on the date : 1 PORTUGA Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of 1 SWEDEN Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation? plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
the licence is issued or renewed
the licence is delivered to the pilot
the medical assessment is issued
-1
plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
-1
The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered 100 NM or more
The government of the state in which the accident took place
Operators of the same aircraft type
The aircraft manufacturer
-1
1 PORTUGA Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of
60 NM or more
75 NM or more
50 NM or more
-1
Page 34 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
A NOTAM
rispostaD
An En-Route Meteo Report
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-1 0 0 0
1 PORTUGA An information issued An AIRMET information A SIGMET information by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is 1 PORTUGA Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus 1 PORTUGA ATIS broadcast 30 seconds of UTC at all times 15 seconds of UTC at all times
10 seconds of UTC at all times
1 minute of UTC at all times
-1
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
Shall be transmitted on Shall not be transmitted Shall only be the voice channel of an on the voice of a VOR transmitted on a ILS, on a discrete VHF discrete VHF frequency frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR the unit as prescribed the states the air traffic services the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
-1
1 PORTUGA Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsability of 1 PORTUGA Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
both air traffic services and the meteorological office
-1
immediately a significant change occurs
at least every half an hour independently of any significant change
as prescribed by the meteorological office
as prescribed by the state
-1
Page 35 of 1247

0 PORTUGA An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
rispostaA
20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
rispostaB
15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
rispostaC
10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
rispostaD
20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. 25.0 NM on the route between 30 and 90 at and above FL 250
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0 0 -1 0
1 PORTUGA When on a RNP 1 22.5 NM between 30 route is indicated B235 and 90 at and abov e Y, means that all turns FL260 shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of : 0 PORTUGA The age of an applicant 17 years of age for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :
20 NM on the route 22.5 NM between 30 between 30 and 90 at and 90 at and abov e and above FL200 FL200
-1
16 years of age
18 years of age
21 years of age
-1
1 PORTUGA When on a RNP 1 25 NM on the route 15 NM on the route 15 NM on the route 22.5 NM on the route route is indicated A342 between 30 and 90 at between 30 and 90 at between 30 and 90 at between 30 and 90 at Z, means that all turns and below FL190 and below FL 190 and above FL 200 and above FL 250 shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of : 1 PORTUGA For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as : boarding after to all other passengers the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion the boarding has to be done at the state discretion boarding prior to all passengers
-1
-1
Page 36 of 1247

1 PORTUGA Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below : 1 PORTUGA When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon : 1 PORTUGA Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply :
rispostaA
None of the answers is correct
rispostaB
Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
rispostaC
Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
rispostaD
Deportees and inadmissible persons only
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0 -1 0 0
Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
Agreement between the Agreement between the state of embarcation state of embarcation and the state of and the airport of arrival destination
-1
to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
-1
Page 37 of 1247

1 PORTUGA When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed 1 PORTUGA Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken 1 PORTUGA The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
rispostaA
the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
rispostaB
the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
rispostaC
only the passengers are to be re screened
rispostaD
only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
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0 -1 0 0
The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
Correct.
The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings.
These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state.
-1
1 minute
2 minutes
3 minutes
30 seconds
-1
Page 38 of 1247

1 PORTUGA The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is 1 PORTUGA Which one of the statements is correct :
rispostaA
YELLOW
rispostaB
GREEN
rispostaC
ORANGE
rispostaD
RED
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0 0 0 -1
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew for a period of 12 hours
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew For a period to be established by that State
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers for a period of 24 hours
contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages
-1
1 PORTUGA An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty.
for a period of 48 hours
-1
Page 39 of 1247

1 PORTUGA In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received : 1 PORTUGA Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are :
rispostaA
at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
rispostaB
at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
rispostaC
at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
rispostaD
at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
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0 -1 0 0
2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list.
2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list
2 of each
3 of each
-1
Page 40 of 1247

1 PORTUGA A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) :
rispostaA
The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number
rispostaB
The air waybill number
rispostaC
The air waybill number; the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
rispostaD
The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
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0 0 -1 0
1 PORTUGA The informations on GEN holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP 1 PORTUGA The informations FAL concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP 0 PORTUGA The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be : to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
AD
MAP
ENR
-1
RAC
AD
GEN
-1
to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
none of the answers are correct
-1
1 PORTUGA The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are : 2 PORTUGA Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to :
GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment
GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
-1
cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo
cargo and is covered by a traffic document
-1
Page 41 of 1247

1 PORTUGA A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of : 1 PORTUGA A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of : 1 PORTUGA Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with :
rispostaA
No more than 15 days
rispostaB
Not more than 28 days
rispostaC
rispostaD
Not more than one month
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0 0 0 -1
Not more than 2 months Not more than one month
Not more than three months
-1
AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifical
AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number Six months or longer
AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC One year or longer
NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number Two months or longer
-1
1 PORTUGA Temporary changes on Three months or longer specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration. 1 PORTUGA In order to avoid At least 6 months after confusion, the cancellation of the area identification numbers to which they refer given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of 1 PORTUGA The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by : The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D
-1
At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
-1
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures
-1
Page 42 of 1247

1 PORTUGA An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
rispostaA
AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summuries ENR
rispostaB
AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
rispostaC
AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
rispostaD
AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 PORTUGA The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : 2 PORTUGA The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law 0 PORTUGA The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by : 0 PORTUGA The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than : 2 PORTUGA The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :
AGA
MET
GEN
-1
may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
may deliver such person to the competent authorities
may request such person to disembark
-1
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
the state of registry and the International accepted by the Telecommunication International Union Telecommunication Union 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
the state of registry
-1
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
-1
caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration
the above convention does not deal with this item
caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
-1
Page 43 of 1247

2 PORTUGA The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is 2 PORTUGA The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is :
rispostaA
the convention of Madrid the convention of Chicago
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
the convention of Rome
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0 -1 0 0
the convention of Tokyo the convention of Warsaw the convention of Tokyo the convention of Paris
the convention of Rome
-1
4 PORTUGA Any person who suffers the Chicago Convention the Warsaw Convention the Montreal Convention the Rome Convention damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by : 4 PORTUGA The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is : 2 PORTUGA In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states the Rome Convention the Warsaw Convention the Paris Convention the Tokyo Convention
-1
-1
may require him to in certain cases any obtain any other identity other identity may be document prior to the required commencement of his flight the other Contracting States
none of the answers are applicable
shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight to all States Members of United Nations
-1
2 PORTUGA Any contracting state International Civile may denounce the Aviation Organisation Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed
United Nations
-1
Page 44 of 1247

2 PORTUGA When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state where the unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator 2 PORTUGA Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect : 1 PORTUGA The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is : 1 PORTUGA The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is : 2 PORTUGA When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator :
rispostaA
shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator
rispostaB
shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator
rispostaC
shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
rispostaD
shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taes on thexes on the operator
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 months following the date ICAO is informed
4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements
6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
-1
annex 9
annex 8
annex 15
annex 16
-1
annex 6
annex 15
annex 9
annex 8
-1
is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
-1
Page 45 of 1247

2 PORTUGA The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : 2 PORTUGA Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when
rispostaA
has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
rispostaB
are accepted at the contracting state discretion the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
rispostaC
are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival
rispostaD
has to be typewritten
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0 0 -1 0
the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
-1
2 PORTUGA Contracting states shall in the Acts in force of carry out the handling, the Universal Postal forwarding and Union clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed : 0 PORTUGA An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold 4 PORTUGA The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : a current class I medical assessment
by IATA and accepted by IATA and accepted by the contracting states by ICAO
by the Regional Postal Office
-1
a current class II medical assessment
a current class III medical assessment
a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
-1
Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
-1
Page 46 of 1247

2 FRANCE The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :
rispostaA
Tokyo Convention.
rispostaB
Hague Convention.
rispostaC
Montreal Convention.
rispostaD
Warsaw Convention.
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0 0 0 -1
1 PORTUGA Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed 1 FRANCE Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft :
by regional air navigation agreements must give way to another aircraft.
by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements must land immediately and clear the landing area.
-1
must come back to land is cleared to land. and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
-1
Page 47 of 1247

3 FRANCE The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 1 FRANCE An air traffic control unit :
rispostaA
3-4-5
rispostaB
1-4
rispostaC
2-3-5
rispostaD
3-5
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0 0 0 -1
may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
may ask an aircraft to may require to change must not ask an aircraft temporarily change its the call sign for safety to change its call sign. call sign for safety reasons when there is a reasons when there is a risk of confusion risk of confusion between two or more between two or more similar call signs similar call signs. providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan. at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent. at transition level during only at transition climb and transition altitude. altitude during descent.
-1
6 FRANCE
Transition from altitude to flight level, and viceversa is done:
only at transition level.
-1
Page 48 of 1247

3 FRANCE The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time :
rispostaA
of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
rispostaB
required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. true air speed (TAS).
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 -1 0 0
required by the aircraft required by the aircraft from brake release at from the moment it moves by its own power take-off until landing. until it stops at the end of the flight (block time). estimated ground speed (G/S). indicated air speed (IAS).
3 FRANCE
The planned cruising true air speed at 65% speed for the first leg or power. all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) : it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services. make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
-1
1 FRANCE
its purpose is to supply it has the same ATC services but it is privileges and not a state organisation. prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular. transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights. A 0020 Mode C fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
-1
1 FRANCE
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must : Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code : The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes;
switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice. A 5300 Mode C
-1
7 FRANCE
A 7620 Mode C
A 7600 Mode C
-1
1 FRANCE
standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
-1
Page 49 of 1247

1 FRANCE An AIRAC is :
rispostaA
An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
rispostaB
A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
rispostaC
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations. The right to overfly without landing.
rispostaD
A package which consists of the following elements : AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
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-1 0 0 0
2 FRANCE
The first freedom of the The opportunity to air is: operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is : The second freedom of the air is the : Annex 12
The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state. Annex 1
The right to land for a technical stop.
-1
0 FRANCE
Annex 2
Annex 11
-1
2 FRANCE
right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. Montreal
right to land for a technical stop
right to overfly without landing
right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
-1
1 FRANCE
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :
Chicago
The Hague
Warsaw
-1
Page 50 of 1247

1 FRANCE An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an "X". This indicates : Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. -aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre -aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre -aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter The command of the situation is the responsibility of; 3 FRANCE For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
rispostaA
"Need mechanical assistance".
rispostaB
"Need medical assistance".
rispostaC
"Landing impossible".
rispostaD
"All occupants alive".
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0 -1 0 0
1 FRANCE
(1) until the completion of operations.
(1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
(1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations.
(1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
-1
will stop on the parking area.
will leave the initial will arrive overhead the approach fix to start the initial approach fix. final approach.
will land.
-1
Page 51 of 1247

3 SWEDEN Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of: When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than : In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
rispostaA
When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Above the transition altitude when applicable
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0 0 0 -1
only in airspace class A if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
3 SWEDEN
If the commander so requests
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes the pilot in command.
If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes the approach controller.
Only when leaving controlled airspace
-1
3 FRANCE
the airport controller.
the radar controller.
-1
1 FRANCE
air traffic control and flight information centers.
search and rescue coordination centres.
air traffic coordination centres.
control centres only.
-1
4 FRANCE
200 ft
250 ft
150 ft
100 ft
-1
4 FRANCE
the OCH
200 ft
350 ft
400 ft
-1
4 FRANCE
The width of the 12.5 NM corridor around a specified arrival route is : The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done : automatically at the control zone boundary.
2.5 NM
5 NM
10 NM
-1
1 FRANCE
with the pilot's consent.
through a central control unit.
by agreement with the receiving unit.
-1
Page 52 of 1247

1 FRANCE Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: 3 SWEDEN
rispostaA
FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
rispostaB
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 -1 0 0
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 FL 30 or 100 ft AGL. ft AGL.
If the crew on an The meteorological arriving aircraft visibility must not be approaching a less than 8 km controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of: A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach... 2.5%
The air traffic controller Continued approach The approach must be will provide separation will be according to VFR passing the FAF to other controlled traffic
-1
4 FRANCE
2%
5%
3.3%
-1
4 FRANCE
using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.
using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
using bearing, elevation and distance information.
-1
Page 53 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
rispostaC
must stop.
rispostaD
must return to its point of departure.
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0 -1 0 0
is cleared for take-off. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form... The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
1 FRANCE
must vacate the landing must stop. area in use.
must return to its point of departure.
-1
3 FRANCE
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport 7 000 kg.
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport. 14 000 kg.
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport. 20 000 kg.
-1
3 FRANCE
-1
3 FRANCE
030 magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track) 10 NM
030 true
030 true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
030 magnetic
-1
4 FRANCE
5 NM
25 NM
20 NM
-1
Page 54 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
at least 40 centimetres
rispostaC
rispostaD
at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
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-1 0 0 0
0 PORTUGA The height of the marks at least 30 centimetres on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be 5 SWEDEN Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
-1
7 SWEDEN
-1
4 FRANCE
During an instrument 90 m (295 ft) approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is : During an instrument 120 m (384 ft) approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is : During an instrument 30 m (98 ft) approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
120 m (384 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
30 m (98 ft)
-1
4 FRANCE
30 m (98 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
90 m (295 ft)
-1
4 FRANCE
50 m (164 ft)
90 m (295 ft)
120 m (384 ft)
-1
Page 55 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
300 m (984 ft)
rispostaC
210 m (690 ft)
rispostaD
120 m (394 ft)
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-1 0 0 0
150 m (492 ft) During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to : all limiting mass and centres of gravity
0 PORTUGA The loading limitations shall include :
all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings
-1
1 FRANCE
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
give way to another aircraft.
return to land and that not land for the moment not land because the clearance to land will be regardless of previous airport is not available communicated in due instructions. for landing. course.
-1
0 PORTUGA The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes :
over 5.700 kg maximum up to 5.700 kg certificate take-off and maximum certificate landing mass take-off mass
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
-1
Page 56 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Airspace A
rispostaC
Airspace E
rispostaD
Airspace D
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0 0 -1 0
1 PORTUGA An ATS airspace where Airspace B IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as 0 PORTUGA The height of the marks at least between 40 under the wings of centimetres and 50 heavier than air aircraft centimetres shall be 0 PORTUGA When letters are used RCC for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example 0 PORTUGA When letters are used RCC for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example 0 PORTUGA When letters are used LLL for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example 0 PORTUGA When letters are used four letter combinations for the registration mark beginning with Q combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
-1
LLL
XXX
DDD
-1
LLL
DDD
PAN
-1
TTT
FFF
RCC
-1
three letters letters used for ICAO five letter combinations combinations used in identification documents used in the international the international code of code of signals signals
-1
Page 57 of 1247

0 PORTUGA The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by : 0 PORTUGA The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated : 0 PORTUGA When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
rispostaA
the state of registry or common mark registering authority
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
the Internationnal Telecommunication Union
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-1 0 0 0
the state of registry only the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to state of the operator
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater +/- 10 kt.
to the state of registry to the State of registry by the International Civil by the International Aviation Organisation Telecommunication Union the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
-1
the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
-1
1 PORTUGA ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are : 3 PORTUGA Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
cumulonimbus
below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater +/- 15 kt.
below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater +/- 8 kt.
-1
+/- 20 kt.
-1
Page 58 of 1247

1 SWEDEN What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DMEdistances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :
rispostaA
10 km
rispostaB
6 NM
rispostaC
3 NM
rispostaD
2 km
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 SWEDEN
12 NM
15 NM
20 NM
10 NM
-1
1 SWEDEN 4 EAAPS
Geneva convention 1936 half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 off the centerline.
Chicago convention 1944 full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.
Warzaw convention 1929 half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
Geneva convention 1948 full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
1 PORTUGA The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :
250 KT TAS
260 KT IAS
Not applicable
250 KT IAS
-1
Page 59 of 1247

1 PORTUGA Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft :
rispostaA
Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
rispostaB
Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
rispostaC
Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
rispostaD
Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 PORTUGA An ATS airspace where Airspace F IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as 1 PORTUGA Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: C to G (inclusive)
Airspace C
Airspace E
Airspace G
-1
A to G (inclusive)
A to E (inclusive)
F and G
-1
1 PORTUGA An ATS airspace where Airspace D IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
Airspace F
Airspace G
Airspace E
-1
Page 60 of 1247

1 PORTUGA Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in : 1 PORTUGA The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
rispostaA
have to be as indicated by ICAO council
rispostaB
have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
rispostaC
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
rispostaD
has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
-1
1 PORTUGA A VFR flight when 5 km visibility, 1500 m flying inside an ATS horizontal and 300 m airspace classified as B vertical from clouds has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds 1 PORTUGA A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
-1
5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
-1
1 PORTUGA An ATS airspace where Airspace C IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
Airspace D
Airspace E
Airspace B
-1
Page 61 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Airspace B
rispostaC
Airspace C
rispostaD
Airspace D
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0 -1 0 0
1 PORTUGA An ATS airspace where Airspace E IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as 1 PORTUGA An ATS airspace where Airspace D IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as : 3 SWEDEN For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
Airspace B
Airspace E
Airspace A
-1
At the discretion of the air traffic controller
If the commander of the Only if the air traffic involved aircraft so controller has the requests involved aircraft in sight
-1
3 PORTUGA A strayed aircraft is :
only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
-1
1 PORTUGA Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Inform the ATC unit immediately
-1
Page 62 of 1247

1 SWEDEN
rispostaA
rispostaB
approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference Single-engine/inactive.
rispostaC
approve new international airlines
rispostaD
develop principles and techniqe for international aviation
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
One of the main approve the ticket objectives of ICAO is to prices set by : international airline companies The 'Standards' binding for all air line contained in the companies with Annexes to the Chicago international traffic convention are to be considered: The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________. The temporary, longterm modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows: The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.
1 SWEDEN
advice and guidance for binding for all member the aviation legislation states within the member states Multi-engine / Land/inactive. inoperative or simulated inoperative.
-1
0 SPAIN
-1
1 SPAIN
AIP Supplements
AIP Amendments
NOTAM
Trigger NOTAM
-1
1 SPAIN
IFPS
NOTAM
EATCHIP
AIRAC
-1
Page 63 of 1247

1 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
NAVTAM
rispostaC
VULTAM
rispostaD
ASHTAM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
GVATAM Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud. Which information is OCA or OCH not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic : When the local variation exceeds 10 East or 10 West.
1 SWEDEN
DME-frequencies
Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
-1
3 SWEDEN
In upper wind forecast When an aircraft on the Before landing and takefor areas north of lat request by a off 60 north or 60 south. meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP flight level on or below the transition altitude altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
-1
6 SWEDEN
In the vicinity of an flight level on or below aerodrome that is going the transition level to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: 25 or the bank angle giving a 3 /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-toland (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
-1
4 UNKNOW
25 or the bank angle giving a 3 /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-toland, and 15 for missed approach procedures.
The bank angle giving a 3 /s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
25 or the bank angle giving a 3 /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25 for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15 for missed approach procedures.
-1
Page 64 of 1247

1 PORTUGA (For this question use annex 010-9801A) Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
rispostaA
3
rispostaB
4
rispostaC
1
rispostaD
2
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0 0 -1 0
1 PORTUGA Aircraft "A" with an Aircraft "A" regardless ATC clearance is flying of the direction which in VMC conditions "B" is approaching within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? 1 PORTUGA The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: 1 PORTUGA While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? 2B.
Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right
-1
6D.
5E.
4F.
-1
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
Submit a detailed report Squawk 7700 to ATC within 24 hours
-1
Page 65 of 1247

1 UNKNOW A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
rispostaA
Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
rispostaB
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
rispostaC
Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
rispostaD
Crossing arms extended above his head 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 PORTUGA According to the 36 m up to but not "Aerodrome Reference including 52 m. Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: 1 PORTUGA Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? 1 PORTUGA "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: 1 PORTUGA "TODA" take-off distance available is: Code letter "D".
-1
Code letter "E".
Code letter "C".
Code letter "B".
-1
Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided). 23 m.
Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the stopway. 25 m.
Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the takeoff. The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). 18 m.
-1
-1
1 PORTUGA "Code letter D" shall be 15 m. chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
-1
Page 66 of 1247

1 UNKNOW An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
rispostaA
continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
rispostaB
descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
rispostaC
land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
rispostaD
adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNKNOW
Come back and land.
Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit. After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. after one calendar month of consecutive illness
-1
0 PORTUGA If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed : 1 PORTUGA Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 1 SWEDEN An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
-1
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
-1
As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency that differs from the triangle semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
Declare an emergency
-1
Page 67 of 1247

1 PORTUGA (For this question use annex 010-9802A) Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we have found all personnel" is : 1 PORTUGA (For this question use annex 010-9803A) What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ?
rispostaA
2
rispostaB
3
rispostaC
4
rispostaD
1
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0 0 0 -1
Require assistance
Landing here impossible Drop emergency supplies at this point
Require medical assistance
-1
1 PORTUGA (For this question use Proceding in the annex 010-9804A) direction shown The ground - air visual code illustrated means : 1 PORTUGA (For this question use annex 010-9805A) Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is : 1 PORTUGA (For this question use annex 010-9806A) What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ? 1 PORTUGA Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ? 4
Require medical assistance
Require assistance
Please indicate direction
-1
-1
operation completed
we have found all personnel
we have found only some personnel
we are returning to base
-1
121.5 MHz
243.0 MHz
2.182 KHz
2430 KHz
-1
Page 68 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
60
rispostaC
90
rispostaD
21
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
30 0 PORTUGA The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is : 1 PORTUGA The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz. uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. Precision Approach Path Index. Manoeuvring area.
Only by ATC units.
The Area Control Centres.
-1
1 PORTUGA The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: 1 PORTUGA The abbreviation PAPI stands for: 1 SPAIN The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called: A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. Precision Approach Path Indicator. Security program.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. Precision Approach Power Indicator. Terminal.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
-1
Precision Approach Power Index. Aeronautical part
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
1 UNKNOW
The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
-1
1 PORTUGA In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
Only the aircraft wing span.
The width of the aircraft The lenght of the wing. aircraft fuselage.
-1
Page 69 of 1247

1 SWEDEN What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
rispostaA
250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
rispostaB
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 420 metres
rispostaC
250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 1000 metres
rispostaD
250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels 1200 metres
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 SWEDEN
Within the Annex to the 900 metres ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? The transition level: Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome is calculated and decided by the commander
-1
6 SWEDEN
Is calculated by the commander
Will be distributed via NOTAM
Is calculated by ATS
-1
6 SWEDEN
The transition level:
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consusltations between the State where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft operator's State. Fixed lights showing blue.
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its departure is justified to protect lives. Fixed lights showing yellow.
for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
-1
1 SPAIN
Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said:
The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act.
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases. Fixed lights showing white.
-1
1 PORTUGA Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
Fixed lights showing green.
-1
Page 70 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
1.
rispostaC
2.
rispostaD
3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
None. How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) . A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
1 PORTUGA "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clearway. A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) .
The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
-1
1 PORTUGA The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: 1 PORTUGA According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: 3 PORTUGA The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
An aircraft taking-off or An aircraft can be landing can be stopped. stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
-1
1 500 m.
1 200 m.
1 800 m and over.
1 600 m.
-1
half NM
1 NM
1.5 NM
half mile
-1
Page 71 of 1247

1 PORTUGA In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: 4 UNKNOW
rispostaA
Fixed lights showing variable white.
rispostaB
Flashing lights showing variable white.
rispostaC
Fixed lights showing variable green.
rispostaD
Flashing lights showing variable green.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
During circling-to-land ( 120 kt with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is: until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway Direct.
125 kt
150 kt
135 kt
-1
3 PORTUGA If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction 5 PORTUGA You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052 . You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232 . Select the available entry procedure. 5 PORTUGA What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway Either "off set" or "parallel".
until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway Off set.
until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway Parallel.
-1
-1
2 minutes
1,5 minutes
30 secondes
1 minute
-1
Page 72 of 1247

5 PORTUGA Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? 5 PORTUGA Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ? 5 PORTUGA In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: 3 PORTUGA At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is :
rispostaA
First right and then to the left.
rispostaB
Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
rispostaC
To the right.
rispostaD
To the left.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
230 kt TAS.
240 kt IAS.
240 kt TAS.
230 kt IAS.
-1
maximum bank angle of rate of 3 per second or 25 . at a bank angle of 20 , which ever requires the lesser bank. 5 KT 3 KT
rate of 3 per second or at a bank angle of 25 , which ever requires the lesser bank. 10 KT
rate of 3 per second.
-1
8 KT
-1
Page 73 of 1247

3 PORTUGA Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 3 PORTUGA Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
rispostaA
3 minutes
rispostaB
10 minutes
rispostaC
2 minutes
rispostaD
5 minutes
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0 0 0 -1
2 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
-1
3 PORTUGA Longitudinal separation 40 NM minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is :
20 NM
10 NM
25 NM
-1
Page 74 of 1247

6 PORTUGA The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing: 3 UNKNOW A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
rispostaA
Transition altitude.
rispostaB
Transition layer.
rispostaC
Transition level.
rispostaD
The level specified by ATC.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used
-1
7 PORTUGA What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? 3 PORTUGA Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
Mode B code 7600.
Mode A code 7700.
Mode A code 7600.
Mode A code 7500.
-1
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
-1
Page 75 of 1247

3 PORTUGA At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is : 3 PORTUGA At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tailwind component significant change is :
rispostaA
8 KT
rispostaB
4 KT
rispostaC
10 KT
rispostaD
5 KT
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 KT
5 KT
3 KT
2 KT
-1
5 PORTUGA What will be your action a non-standard holding if you can not comply pattern is permitted. with a standard holding pattern?
it is permitted to deviate Follow the radio from the prescribed communication failure holding pattern at pilots procedure. discretion.
inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
-1
Page 76 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
2, 3.
rispostaC
1, 3.
rispostaD
1, 2, 3.
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0 0 0 -1
4 PORTUGA You are on an IFR flight 1, 2. executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until : 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct answers is : 4 PORTUGA A manoeuvre in which Reversal track. a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a : 4 PORTUGA In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: 4 PORTUGA If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to : Aerodrome elevation.
Procedure turn.
Base turn.
Race track.
-1
Mean sea level.
Aeredrome reference point. pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
Relevant runway threshold. follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
-1
pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.
leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.
-1
Page 77 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Base turn
rispostaC
Procedure turn
rispostaD
Reversal procedure
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0 -1 0 0
4 PORTUGA A turn executed by the Race track aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: 4 PORTUGA Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? 1 PORTUGA Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: When seems possible to land
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
When the aircraft has When the aircraft is in the control tower in sight contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
-1
need to file a flight plan
may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service. 70 NM
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified. 60 NM
-1
3 PORTUGA When the Mach 80 NM number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is :
100 NM
-1
Page 78 of 1247

1 PORTUGA Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: 1 SWEDEN
rispostaA
Only AIP and NOTAM's.
rispostaB
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC.
rispostaC
Only NOTAM's and Circulars.
rispostaD
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Within the Annex to the 50 metres ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? 4 NM from touchdown
45 metres
35 metres
40 metres
-1
3 PORTUGA Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :
5 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
3 NM from touchdown
-1
3 PORTUGA An aircraft making a 2 NM from the radar approach should touchdown be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
4 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
-1
Page 79 of 1247

3 PORTUGA An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the : 0 SPAIN
rispostaA
Last 5 NM of the approach
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
According to JAR-FCL, Two years single pilot singleengine class ratings are valid for :
One year
Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Five years after licence issuie.
-1
1 PORTUGA "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures. 0 SPAIN
Non precision approach Precision approach runways, precision runways category I, II approach runways and III. category I, II and III.
Precision approach runways in general.
-1
According to JAR-FCL, Of the skill test the validity of type ratings and multiengine class ratings will be one year from the date : According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has : According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including : A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
The application is received by the Authority.
Of the last medical certificate
Of issue
-1
0 SPAIN
A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
-1
0 SPAIN
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
All self.-sustaining gliders.
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
-1
Page 80 of 1247

0 SPAIN According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours :
rispostaA
Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-incommand of aeroplanes.
rispostaB
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-incommand of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. 2 minutes.
rispostaC
Cross country flight time as pilot-incommand in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. 2 minutes 30 seconds.
rispostaD
Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 PORTUGA What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? 0 SPAIN
1 minute.
-1
According to JAR-FCL, 150 hours of flight time an applicant for a CPL plus 10 hours of (A) who has instrument ground time satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
150 hours of flight time
200 hours of flight time
-1
3 PORTUGA When surveillance 4 NM from the radar approaches are to touchdown be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of : 0 SPAIN According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
1.5 NM from the touchdown
-1
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
-1
Page 81 of 1247

0 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
More than 12 hours
rispostaC
More than 12 days
rispostaD
More than one week
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0 -1 0 0
According to JAR-FCL, Any period licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for: According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
0 SPAIN
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. the security system at airports
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. limitation of the operators responsibility vis--vis passenger and goods transported 15 KT
-1
2 SWEDEN
The Warsaw the regulation of convention and later transportation of amendments deals with: dangerous goods 10KT
operators licence for international scheduled aviation 25 KT
-1
3 PORTUGA What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ?
20KT
-1
Page 82 of 1247

3 PORTUGA Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation : 1 PORTUGA A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: 1 PORTUGA A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: 1 PORTUGA In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas? 1 PORTUGA In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
rispostaA
At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
rispostaB
rispostaC
At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
An ATS NOTAM.
An Advisory NOTAM.
An AIRAC.
A NOTAM RAC.
-1
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
NOTAM.
AIRAC.
Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
-1
AGA.
ENR.
MAP.
GEN.
-1
AD.
FAL.
GEN.
SAR.
-1
Page 83 of 1247

1 PORTUGA In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? 0 SPAIN According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
rispostaA
RAC.
rispostaB
COM.
rispostaC
MET.
rispostaD
GEN.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
two years
The period of validity of the licence. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
Indefinitely
one year
-1
3 PORTUGA In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when: 3 PORTUGA Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time offblocks.
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time offblocks.
-1
3 000 feet.
1 500 feet.
4 000 feet.
2 000 feet.
-1
Page 84 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
With an intercept of at least 30 .
rispostaD
On the nearest way.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 PORTUGA Flying exactly on your With an intercept of 20 With an intercept of at current flight plan route, or more. least 45 . you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, continue heading 050 until further advised". Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to your current flight plan route: 3 PORTUGA Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: 3 PORTUGA The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is: 3 PORTUGA The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is: 3 PORTUGA What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
At least 15 separated At least 30 separated At least 45 separated At least 15 separated at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 or more from the facility. or more from the facility. or more from the facility. miles or more from the facility. 2000 feet (600 m). 1000 feet (300 m). 500 feet (150 m). 4000 feet (1200 m).
-1
-1
2000 feet (600 m).
500 feet (150 m).
2500 feet (750 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
-1
Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.
Time separation and track separation.
Composite separation.
-1
Page 85 of 1247

3 PORTUGA Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
rispostaA
the weather permits.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Standard rate turns if Decided on pilot's not otherwise instructed discretion. by ATC. Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.
3 PORTUGA The "VMC and own This procedure is not separation" ATC allowed. clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when: 3 PORTUGA If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: 3 PORTUGA Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: 3 PORTUGA Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: 1 PORTUGA Alert phase is defined as follows: The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned. At least 45 separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.
Requested by the pilot Requested by the pilot and during the day light. and authorized by the state overflown.
-1
He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request. At least 30 separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.
The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. At least 45 separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
-1
At least 30 separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.
-1
At least 45 separated At least 30 separated at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 or more from the facility. miles or more from the facility. A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency. Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification. A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted. Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
At least 30 separated At least 15 separated at a distance of 15 NM at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. or more from the facility.
-1
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants. Read back should be unsolicited.
An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger. Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
-1
3 PORTUGA A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
-1
Page 86 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Before penetrating the clouds.
rispostaC
When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. Z
rispostaD
After take-off.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
When advised by 3 PORTUGA During a take-off into IMC conditions with low Tower. ceiling the pilot should contact departure control: 3 PORTUGA Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR? 3 PORTUGA Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? I
-1
-1
3 PORTUGA Who is responsible for The air traffic service The pilot in command. an ATC clearance to be reporting office when safe in respect to accepting the flight plan. terrain clearance? 3 PORTUGA Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? 1 UNKNOW Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure. Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance. Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways. Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance. This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
The aircraft operator.
The ATC.
-1
Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance. This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA). This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
-1
-1
Page 87 of 1247

3 UNKNOW A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
rispostaA
Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
rispostaB
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. 2 and 4
rispostaC
Crossing arms extended above his head. 2 and 3
rispostaD
Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground. 1 and 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 UNKNOW
When, in air space 1 and 4 where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR") 2 He must request and obtain clearance. 3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan. 4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan. The correct combination of statements is: Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.
-1
3 PORTUGA If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.
Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times. 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
-1
3 PORTUGA A flight plan shall be 50 minutes prior to submitted prior to leave the blocks. departure for a controlled flight at least:
60 minutes prior to departure.
10 minutes prior to departure.
-1
Page 88 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
All IFR flights.
rispostaC
Only controlled IFR flights.
rispostaD
All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Controlled VFR flights 3 PORTUGA "ESSENTIAL and VFR flights. TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other. 3 UNKNOW The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers: is 5 minutes.
is 15 minutes.
depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights).
is 10 minutes.
-1
3 UNKNOW
limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.
limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
limits such flight to a does not permit such height sufficient to land flight in any safely if the engine fails. circumstances.
-1
3 PORTUGA Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure? 3 PORTUGA One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable. To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.
Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start approach at your ETA. To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
Maintain your assigned Return to the level and route and land aerodrome of departure. at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions. To conduct precision radar approach (PAR). To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
-1
-1
Page 89 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 500 feet or visibility is 1 PORTUGA Except when a less than 5 km clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than : 1 PORTUGA The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is: 1 PORTUGA Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ? The airliner operator
The commander
The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
The aircraft owner
-1
Emergency aircraft
Military aircraft
VIP (Head of state) aircraft
Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
-1
1 PORTUGA An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least: 1 PORTUGA The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are : 1 PORTUGA The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet MSL are : 6 SWEDEN During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
2 000 feet horizontally, 1 500 m horizontally, 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from 1000 feet vertically from 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility. clouds; 5 km visibility. clouds; 8 km visibility.
-1
1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 km visibility 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility flight level during descent
2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 8 km visibility 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb
1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 8 km visibility 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
-1
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 km visibility
-1
altitude above mean altitude above mean sea level during descent sea level during climb
-1
Page 90 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
3%
rispostaC
2%
rispostaD
10 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5% 1 PORTUGA A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: 3 PORTUGA What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway? Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
Radar Service is terminated.
-1
3 PORTUGA Which does ATC Term Your aircraft has been "Radar contact" signify? identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. 3 PORTUGA Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? 3 PORTUGA Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures: Code 2000.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost. Code 7500.
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost. Code 7700.
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. Code 7600.
-1
-1
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10 .
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45 .
To instruct the pilot to To instruct the pilot to execute one or more execute one or more changes of 30 or more. changes of 20 or more.
-1
Page 91 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
20 NM (37 km).
rispostaC
30 NM (55 km).
rispostaD
25 NM (46 km).
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
15 NM (28 km). 3 PORTUGA The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated: 3 PORTUGA Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: 3 PORTUGA "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft: 1 PORTUGA An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode "A" 3 PORTUGA When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: 3 NM.
2 NM.
4 NM.
5 NM.
-1
To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time.
To pass a specified point.
To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the approach sequence.
To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure.
-1
7 600
7 000
7 700
7 500
-1
not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
-1
Page 92 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz 1 PORTUGA An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: 3 PORTUGA The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: 3 PORTUGA One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: 3 PORTUGA Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? 3 PORTUGA The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain. 3 PORTUGA Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume own navigation". This phrase means that: To provide radar separation.
121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
To assist aircraft due to To assist aircraft on the To assist aircraft where failure of airborne location storms. navigation appears equipment. unsatisfactory. To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM. To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots. Code 7600.
-1
To conduct surveillance To apply a reduced radar approaches. vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights. Code 7000. Code 7700.
-1
Code 7500.
-1
Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
Correct, expect when Prevent collisions with an IFR flight is vectored terrain by radar. Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports. You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.
Do not prevent collisions with terrain
-1
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.
-1
Page 93 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS.
rispostaC
For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
rispostaD
To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 PORTUGA Alerting service shall be In so far as practicable provided: to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS.
3 PORTUGA Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:
Known to the relevant Known to the relevant air traffic services units. air traffic services units by a filed flight plan.
Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.
Provided with air traffic control services, only.
-1
3 PORTUGA When a runway is 2 45 metres. 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:
60 metres.
50 metres.
30 metres.
-1
3 PORTUGA In the event of a delay 60 minutes in excess of 60 minutes in excess of 30 minutes in excess of 30 minutes in excess of of a controlled flight, the estimated time off the estimated time of the estimated time off the estimated time of the submitted flight plan blocks. departure. blocks. departure. should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: 3 PORTUGA When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures: To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF". To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY". Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON". To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
-1
-1
Page 94 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway. Class D.
rispostaC
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway. Class E.
rispostaD
Fixed lights showing variable red.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 PORTUGA Runway end lights shall Fixed lights showing be: variable white.
1 PORTUGA ATS airspaces where Class A. IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: 1 PORTUGA A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: 1 PORTUGA A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: 1 PORTUGA Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: 1 UNKNOW Control zone.
Class B.
-1
Control area.
Air traffic zone.
Advisory airspace.
-1
Control area.
Control zone.
Advisory airspace.
Flight Information Region.
-1
Flashing yellow.
Fixed orange.
Fixed red.
Flashing red.
-1
When it becomes operational air traffic apparent that an aircraft control centres is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: Flashing white. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
flight information or control organisations
air traffic co-ordination services
search and rescue coordination centres
-1
1 PORTUGA High intensity obstacle lights should be: 3 PORTUGA The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
Flashing red. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
Fixed red. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
Fixed orange. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
Page 95 of 1247

1 PORTUGA In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? 1 PORTUGA The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: 1 PORTUGA Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: 1 PORTUGA Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? 1 PORTUGA Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: 1 PORTUGA Aerodrome traffic is:
rispostaA
2.
rispostaB
4.
rispostaC
5.
rispostaD
3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White colour identification given by Morse Code.
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
-1
Flashing green.
Fixed white.
Flashing white.
Fixed green.
-1
Switching on and off three times the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
-1
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
Flashing white.
-1
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
-1
1 PORTUGA Runway threshold lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed red or preferably blue. Fixed showing green.
Fixed unidirectional Fixed lights green lights showing white in colours. the direction of approach to the runway. Flashing blue. Flashing red or preferably yellow. Flashing showing blue.
-1
1 PORTUGA Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: 1 PORTUGA Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Fixed red or preferably orange. Fixed showing blue.
-1
Fixed showing yellow.
-1
Page 96 of 1247

1 PORTUGA In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: 1 PORTUGA In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: 1 PORTUGA The "PAPI" shall consist of:
rispostaA
By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter. Only on the approach slope.
rispostaB
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R". On or close to the approach slope.
rispostaC
By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways. Above the approach slope.
rispostaD
By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Below the approach slope.
-1
Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multilamp or paired units equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multilamp or paired units equally spaced.
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced. CAN NOT
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. CAN NOT COMPLY
-1
1 PORTUGA If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ? 1 PORTUGA A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
UNABLE TO COMPLY NOT POSSIBLE
-1
The airport is unsafe, do not land
The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling aircraft taking off or about to take off
Give way to other aircraft in emergency
Continue circling and wait for further instructions other converging aircraft
-1
1 PORTUGA On aerodromes aircraft all vehicles moving on taxying on the the apron except the manoeuvring area of an "follow me" vehicle aerodrome shall give way to:
other vehicles and pedestrians
-1
Page 97 of 1247

1 UNKNOW The runway edge lights shall be :
rispostaA
red
rispostaB
white
rispostaC
blue
rispostaD
green Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 -1 0 0 0 0
1 PORTUGA A double white cross Need special The aerodrome is being An area unit for the displayed horizontally in precautions while used by gliders and that movement of aircraft. the signal area means: approaching for landing. glider flights are being performed. 1 PORTUGA The aerodrome The longuest aeroplane The over-all length of category for rescue and maximum width only the longest aeroplane fire fighting is based on: normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width. 2 PORTUGA When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and: 2 PORTUGA The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination. 1 UNKNOW The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are: At least 30 minute prior to land. At least one hour prior to land. The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.
-1
At least immediately before landing.
-1
The stated above is correct.
The operator has no obligation.
The obligation is for the The obligation of the Contracting State of the operator terminates as operator. soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
-1
Area control centre, Rescue coordination flight information centre centre and rescue suband rescue centres. coordination centre.
Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
-1
Page 98 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Descend
rispostaC
Let down
rispostaD
You land
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0 -1 0 0
1 PORTUGA If radio communication Descend for landing is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ? 1 PORTUGA Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit. 150 m.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth. 200 m.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth. 250 m.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth. 300 m.
-1
1 PORTUGA In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: 1 PORTUGA The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service 1 PORTUGA The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
-1
An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing. Area Control Centre Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone. Area Control Centre Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre Approach Control Office and Tower.
An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone. Area Control Centre Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights. Area Control Centre Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
-1
-1
Page 99 of 1247

1 PORTUGA A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
rispostaA
15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
rispostaB
20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. Flight Information Service only.
rispostaC
5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
rispostaD
10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 PORTUGA Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: 1 PORTUGA Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? 1 PORTUGA Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
-1
The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control located within a Control located within a located within a Control Tower. Zone. controlled airspace. Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower. Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
-1
-1
1 PORTUGA Air Traffic Service unit means:
Air Traffic Control Air Traffic Control units units, Flight Information and Flight Information Centers or Air Services Centers. reporting offices. Providing advisory services If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued Providing alerting services Do not take off before 0920
Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices. Achieving separation between controlled flights The take off clearence is expected at 0920
Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices. Providing flight Information Service After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
-1
1 PORTUGA Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: 1 PORTUGA You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
-1
-1
Page 100 of 1247

1 PORTUGA When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?
rispostaA
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR ; otherwise hourly
rispostaB
Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 0 0 -1
Only when the ceiling Upon receipt of any and/or visibility changes official weather, by a reportable value regardless of content change or reported values Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern. Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
1 PORTUGA Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ? 1 PORTUGA Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: 1 PORTUGA A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
-1
Achieving separation between IFR flights 200 metres.
Providing flight Information Service 300 metres.
Providing advisory service 150 metres.
Achieving separation between controlled flights 500 metres.
-1
-1
21
11 NETHERL The function of a feed increase the fuel level box in the fuel tank is to at the boost pump location Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that: the air supply would automatically be stopped trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank the skin of the cabin would be overstressed distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling the pressure differential would go to the maximum value ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure -1 0 0 0
8 NETHERL
-1
1 GERMANY The crank assembly consists of
propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.
crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
-1
Page 101 of 1247

5 FRANCE When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide:
rispostaA
is disarmed automatically.
rispostaB
unfolds and becomes inflated.
rispostaC
unfolds but does not become inflated.
rispostaD
becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5 FRANCE
The advantages of a 1, 3, 5 gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. a greater autonomy, 2. no risk of explosion, 3. reversible functioning, 4. easy storage and maintenance, 5. possibility to regulate flow. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2, 4, 5
2, 3, 4
-1
5 FRANCE
The disadvantages of a 2, 4 chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. a flow which cannot be modulated, 2. a heavy and bulky system, 3. non reversible functioning, 4. risks of explosion, 5. poor autonomy. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 5
1, 3, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
-1
Page 102 of 1247

6 FRANCE An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 10 seats must be equipped with:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fireextinguishers in the passenger cabin.
rispostaD
one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
one fire-extinguisher in three fire-extinguishers the cockpit and two fire- in the passenger cabin only. extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
1 GERMANY Ignition systems of piston engines are : 5 NETHERL A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is : The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is Skip distance is the:
dependant on the DCGenerator. Grease
dependant on the ACGenerator. Water
independant from the electrical system of the aircraft. Halon
dependant on the battery. Nitrogen
-1
-1
5 NETHERL
Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.
Taxiing with a small turning radius.
Touch down with crosswind
Gear down selection
-1
5 ICELAND
highest critical frequency distance replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke. To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage. an AC generator.
wavelength distance of a certain frequency replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.
thickness of the ionosphere mark only the exits at the floor level.
range from the transmitter to the first sky wave to be used only at night.
-1
1 FRANCE
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to : The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is
-1
6 NETHERL
To reduce the probability of a trimrunaway
To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
Because there are two trim motors.
-1
3 GERMANY The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: 1 NETHERL A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is :
provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds. a transformer rectifier unit.
provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed. a thermistor.
feed cooling air to the engine cowling.
-1
an inverter.
-1
Page 103 of 1247

6 FRANCE In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system ? In computer technology, an input peripheral is a: In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is :
rispostaA
once the passengers are in the water.
rispostaB
when leaving the airplane.
rispostaC
immediately on the opening of the exits. manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible
rispostaD
immediately on ditching.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 NETHERL
the oxygen masks are if the automatic mask automatically presented presentation has been to flight crew members activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes
the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers
-1
4 FRANCE
keyboard
screen unit
hard disk drive
diskette drive
-1
4 FRANCE
hard disk drive
diskette drive
screen unit
keyboard
-1
1 FRANCE
intake
compression
exhaust
firing-expansion
-1
4 FRANCE
In computer 1,4 technology, an EPROM is: 1. a read-only memory 2. a write memory 3. erases its content when power supply is cut off 4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1,3
2,3
2,4
-1
Page 104 of 1247

6 FRANCE 3 FRANCE On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are : 1. the main landing gear wheel wells 2. the fuel tanks 3. the oil tanks 4. the auxiliary power unit 5. around the engines The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2 FRANCE Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type :
rispostaA
leading edge flap close to the wing root 1,2,3,4,5
rispostaB
leading edge flap close to the wing tip 1,4,5
rispostaC
leading edge flap 2,3
rispostaD
trailing edge flap 2,5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1 -1 0 0 0
optical or ionization
chemical
electrical
magnetic
-1
1 FRANCE
On four-stroke piston compression ratio engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the: A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called : Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a attenuation
piston displacement
engine r.p.m.
overall efficiency
-1
5 ICELAND
refraction
propagation
ducting
-1
1 NETHERL
worn oil pump
too large oil pump
restricted oil passage
too small scavenger pump.
-1
Page 105 of 1247

5 NETHERL The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are : Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin, the system is activated by The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
rispostaA
the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function. pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.
rispostaB
the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function. firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened.
rispostaC
the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heatdissipation function. activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.
rispostaD
the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed.
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0 0 0 -1
5 NETHERL
-1
5 NETHERL
by pilot action
automatically
at a certain low speed
the system is always armed
-1
1 NETHERL
the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum
the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time
these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way
-1
2 NETHERL
that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine. pushing the RPM lever forward. only portable oxygen bottles.
that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM
equal AC voltage from all generators.
-1
1 GERMANY In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by : 5 FRANCE Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with :
pulling the RPM lever backwards. two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.
pushing the power lever pulling the power levers forward. backwards. two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin. A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft. Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid overload of electric generators
-1
-1
2 NETHERL
Load shedding means .. To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits
Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief value
-1
Page 106 of 1247

4 FRANCE In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a: The survival oxygen is:
rispostaA
key board
rispostaB
screen unit
rispostaC
hard disk drive
rispostaD
printer
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0 0 -1 0
5 FRANCE
the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons. provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent following a depressurization.
the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide. provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.
a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers. supply all the passengers in case of depressurization.
the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental depressurization. provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization.
-1
5 FRANCE
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
-1
6 NETHERL
The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to : In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fireextinguisher must be conveniently located containing : In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes :
activate a radio survival settle an escalating beacon by cutting off conflict with the red coloured top unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety. special fluids. halon.
obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation. powder.
free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.
-1
4 FRANCE
water.
-1
5 FRANCE
a mixture of oxygen and pure oxygen under cabin air. pressure.
pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
cabin air under pressure.
-1
Page 107 of 1247

5 FRANCE The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. reduced weight and volume, 2. easy storage and maintenance, 3. greater autonomy, 4. no risk of explosion, 5. reversible functioning, 6. no maintenance. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 5 FRANCE The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the : An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:
rispostaA
2, 3, 5
rispostaB
1, 3, 4, 5
rispostaC
1, 2, 4, 6
rispostaD
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
30 minutes.
2 hours.
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
-1
5 FRANCE
cockpit only.
toilets only.
cabin only.
cockpit and the cabin.
-1
1 NETHERL
advancing ignition timing is constant whatever the altitude.
quick removal and installation is 100 %.
absorbing starting loads providing a retarded spark for engine starting. increases when the altitude increases. decreases when the altitude increases.
-1
5 FRANCE
-1
Page 108 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2, 4
rispostaC
3
rispostaD
2, 3
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-1 0 0 0
Oxygen systems are 1,4 systems used on pressurized airplanes in : 1. an emergency in the case of depressurization. 2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger. 3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin. 5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
9 NETHERL 6 FRANCE
The function of an air cycle machine is to : The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is : The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:
cool the bleed air. 4
decrease the pressure of the bleed air. 2
remove the water from the bleed air. 1
pump the conditioned air into the cabin. 3
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
0 0
6 FRANCE
-1
Page 109 of 1247

7 NETHERL The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to : A manual inflation handle:
rispostaA
ensure sufficient pump output
rispostaB
prevent overheating of the pump.
rispostaC
prevent vapour locking.
rispostaD
prevent cavitation in the pump
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0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails tyres.
serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails landing gear bays / wheel wells.
operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide cabin.
is generally not applied on slides. fuel tanks.
-1
3 GERMANY In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the: 6 FRANCE In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers, must be equipped with :
-1
no megaphone.
1 megaphone.
2 megaphones.
2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.
-1
3 GERMANY The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: 9 FRANCE
warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).
warning bell.
warning light.
gear warning.
-1
The advantages of 1,2 thermal anti-icing are : 1. Simple and reliable system 2. Profiles maintained 3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor 4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrust The combination of correct statements is:
3,4
1,3
2,4
-1
Page 110 of 1247

1 FRANCE On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type: 1. AC generator overvoltage 2. AC generator undervoltage 3. over-current 4. over-speed 5. under-frequency 6. undue vibration of AC generators The combination of correct statements is :
rispostaA
1,2,4,6
rispostaB
1,3,5,6
rispostaC
2,3,4,5,6
rispostaD
1,2,4,5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
The difference between (1)not resettable, (2) (1) a fuse and (2) a not resettable. circuit breaker is:
(1)not resettable, (2)resettable.
(1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
(1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker 60 life jackets, two 30seat life boats
-1
6 FRANCE
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations is : In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency descend is:
60 life jackets and three 60 life jackets 30-seat life boats
-1
4 FRANCE
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft.
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.
10 minutes or the entire 30 minutes. flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 ft, whichever is the greater.
-1
Page 111 of 1247

6 FRANCE In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a nonpressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:
rispostaA
plus 30 %.
rispostaB
in the case of a loss of two rafts.
rispostaC
in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
rispostaD
plus 10 %.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 FRANCE
12500 ft.
13000 ft.
14000 ft.
10000 ft.
-1
5 FRANCE
13000 ft.
10000 ft.
14000 ft.
15000 ft.
-1
5 FRANCE
In accordance with 10000 ft but not JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of exceeding 13000 ft the passengers in a minus 30 minutes. non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than:
13000 ft.
10000 ft.
10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
-1
Page 112 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
passengers by 30%.
rispostaC
seats by 10 %.
rispostaD
passengers by 10 %.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
seats by 30 %. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater than the number of: The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure oxygen system is to : The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly : A Continuous-LoopDetector-System is a: act as a manual shutoff valve
5 SWEDEN
maximize the charging pressure of the system
relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions
reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator a continuous flow system
-1
5 SWEDEN
a pressure demand system
portable equipment only an air recycle system
-1
3 SWEDEN
Fire detection system
Smoke detection system Carbon dioxide warning system
Fire fighting system
-1
Page 113 of 1247

6 FRANCE In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory when the airplane is : 1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure. 2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore. 3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem. 4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaB
1, 2
rispostaC
3, 4
rispostaD
2, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 GERMANY The power output of a lower losses during the normally aspirated gas change. piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the :
lower friction losses.
leaner mixture at higher altitudes.
lower back pressure.
-1
Page 114 of 1247

1 GERMANY In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
the left engine is the critical motor.
rispostaD
the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa. If there is an unbalanced propeller. high airspeeds with high power setting.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
the right engine is the the 'minimum control speed' is determined by critical motor. the failure of the right engine. Only for counterrotating Only if the 'constant propeller speed propeller' mechanism is broken. low airspeeds with low power setting. low airspeeds with high power setting. It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
1 GERMANY An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. 1 GERMANY The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:
If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack. high airspeeds with low power setting.
-1
-1
1 GERMANY What will happen to the It will increase geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed propeller" if the manifold pressure is increased ? 1 GERMANY The 'constant speed propeller' has its best efficiency during climb.
It will decrease so that It will remain the same the engine can increase
-1
only above and below in general a worse the design point a efficiency than the fixed better efficiency than propeller. the fixed propeller with the same design speed. blade is relatively high. blade is relatively small.
only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller. airfoil section is negative.
-1
1 GERMANY Which of the following blades reduces to zero. qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimized for cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :
-1
1 GERMANY The conditions which High manifold pressure Low manifold pressure Low manifold pressure can cause knocking are and high revolutions per and high revolutions per and high fuel flow. : minute. minute. 1 GERMANY During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the : Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases. RPM decreases. Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.
High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute. RPM increases.
-1
-1
Page 115 of 1247

1 GERMANY An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to : 1 GERMANY With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller? 1 GERMANY One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that : 1 GERMANY What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the waste gate is seized ?
rispostaA
control the fuel temperature.
rispostaB
assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.
rispostaC
control the cylinder head temperature.
rispostaD
control the carburator inlet air flow.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.
RPM and MAP indicator.
RPM and EGT indicator.
RPM indicator.
-1
there is no danger of knocking. The turbine shaft will break.
it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost. The turbine blades will separate.
it has a better propulsive efficiency.
there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
-1
The manifold air The power of the motor pressure (MAP) value will decrease. may exceed the maximum allowed value. emergency exits in the cabin. seats in the cabin.
-1
6 GERMANY The number of hand seat rows in the cabin. fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of : 1 GERMANY During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM indication and constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine : 1 GERMANY In general, in twinengine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller' stays constant.
passengers in the cabin.
-1
increases.
decreases.
only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward.
-1
the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
-1
Page 116 of 1247

1 GERMANY The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are : 1 GERMANY The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of the decreasing : 1 GERMANY The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: 1 GERMANY The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is : 1 GERMANY The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by :
rispostaA
cold and dry air at high pressure.
rispostaB
warm and humid air at low pressure.
rispostaC
cold and humid air at high pressure.
rispostaD
warm and dry air at high pressure.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
temperature.
air density.
engine temperature.
humidity.
-1
propeller blades.
accessory gear box.
camshaft.
gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller. Friction horse power.
-1
Heat loss power.
Indicated horse power.
Brake horse power.
-1
Torque times RPM.
Work times velocity.
Force times distance.
Pressure times arm.
-1
1 GERMANY The ignition occurs in before TDC at each each cylinder of an four- crankshaft revolution. stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Center) 1 GERMANY The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change lines 5 GERMANY The passenger oxygen mask will supply : 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution. 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.
before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution. 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.
-1
2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.
-1
a mixture of oxygen and a mixture of cabin air freon gas. and oxygen.
100 % oxygen.
a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen. opening the oxygenbottle valves.
-1
5 GERMANY The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :
switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.
switching the passenger oxygen ON.
switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
-1
Page 117 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit. oxygen bottles will explode.
rispostaC
mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask. oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug. Chemical compound.
rispostaD
deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 GERMANY The purpose of a diluter deliver oxygen flow only demand regulator in an above FL 100. oxygen system is to : 5 GERMANY If the maximum passenger oxygen operating pressure of masks will drop down. the oxygen system is exceeded the: 5 GERMANY The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is : 1 GERMANY The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes Gaseous or chemical compound..
oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers. Liquid.
-1
Gaseous.
-1
must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits.
must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes.
depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator.
must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.
-1
1 GERMANY The kind of compressor a hybrid compressor. normally used as a supercharger is : 4 FRANCE An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: 6 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved. ampere-hours.
a piston compressor.
a radial compressor.
an axial compressor.
-1
3 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease. volts.
5 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. a force will be exerted on the conductor.
4 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. the current will increase.
-1
1 UNITED KI If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field : 1 UNITED KI The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :
-1
watts.
internal resistance.
-1
Page 118 of 1247

1 UNITED KI A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve : 4 FRANCE In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of oxygen in: 1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft. 2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. 3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft. 4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load". 1,4.
rispostaB
checking the battery voltage "off-load".
rispostaC
comparing the "onload" and "off-load" battery voltages. 1, 2.
rispostaD
checking the level of the electrolyte.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1, 2, 3 et 4.
1, 2, 4.
-1
Page 119 of 1247

4 FRANCE In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a: An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
rispostaA
1,86 m.
rispostaB
1,89 m.
rispostaC
1,83 m.
rispostaD
1,80 m.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 FRANCE
crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment.
crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment.
crash axe and a crowbar in the passenger compartment.
-1
4 FRANCE
3 HALON 1211 fireextinguishers.
1 HALON 1211 fireextinguisher.
-1
4 FRANCE
7 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
-1
Page 120 of 1247

3 UNITED KI Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse blade section : 4 FRANCE An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least:
rispostaA
the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades . 5 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. control the acceleration time of the engine.
rispostaB
the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and drops across the rotor blades . 7 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed. 5 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 2 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 4 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 3 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
rispostaC
the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and rises constant across the rotor blades . 8 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting. 6 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 4 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 5 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 4 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
rispostaD
the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades . 6 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
-1
3 UNITED KI The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to : 4 FRANCE An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
-1
3 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 3 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 3 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 2 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 5 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 2 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 1 hand fireextinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
-1
4 FRANCE
-1
4 FRANCE
-1
4 FRANCE
-1
Page 121 of 1247

1 UNITED KI When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the : 1 UNITED KI When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
load as indicated by the loss of continuity will ammeter will increase. prevent its working components from functioning. an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field excitation current of the generators. an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
fuse or CB should component will operate isolate the circuit due to normally, but will not excess current drawn. switch off. carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures. the synchronous busbar.
-1
2 UNITED KI The services series, so that isolation connected to a supply of loads increases the bus-bar are normally in: bus-bar voltage.
parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current consumption. only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time. the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption. generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load. a rate of change selector.
parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage. one generator comes "on-line" before the other. the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane altitude. 8 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
-1
1 UNITED KI In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that : 8 UNITED KI In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by : 4 FRANCE An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled. the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and ambient barometric pressure. 6 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. contact breaker points closing.
-1
-1
5 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.
7 hand fireextinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. contact breaker points opening.
-1
1 UNITED KI The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the:
-1
Page 122 of 1247

3 UNITED KI The fan in a high bypass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: 3 UNITED KI At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature:
rispostaA
none of the thrust.
rispostaB
the greater part of the thrust. will fall.
rispostaC
half the thrust.
rispostaD
the lesser part of the thrust. will be unchanged.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.
will rise.
-1
4 UNITED KI The reason for having a heat the fuel only. low pressure fuelcooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to: 4 UNITED KI A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be caused by: an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter.
cool the oil and heat the cool the oil only. fuel.
cool both the oil and the fuel.
-1
compressor surging.
the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.
failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the starter.
-1
3 UNITED KI A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when:
the reverser doors are locked.
reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.
the reverser doors have the reverser doors are moved to the reverse unlocked. thrust position. volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead centre. sparking plugs. diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.
-1
1 UNITED KI The compression ratio area of the piston to the weight of the air of a piston engine is the cylinder volume. induced to its weight ratio of the: after compression.
-1
1 UNITED KI Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
oil pump.
fuel filter.
carburettor.
-1
Page 123 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:
rispostaA
ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system. complete negative system.
rispostaB
create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system. double pole circuit.
rispostaC
create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor jets. semi-negative system.
rispostaD
prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor. single pole circuit.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth, may be defined as a 1 UNITED KI The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute: 2 UNITED KI The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the : 1 UNITED KI The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:
-1
primary current to the sparking plugs. stator.
secondary current to the sparking plugs. oscillator.
primary current to the condenser. slip ring.
secondary current to the condenser. rotor.
-1
-1
pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure. an hydraulic motor.
-1
1 UNITED KI A turbocharger system is normally driven by: 1 UNITED KI A turbocharger consists of a : 3 UNITED KI In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is : 3 UNITED KI When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the : 4 UNITED KI For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the engine :
an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.
the exhaust system.
an electric motor.
-1
compressor and turbine compressor driving a on individual shafts. turbine via a reduction gear. the same as turbine rpm. pressure drops. independent of turbine rpm. pressure rises.
turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear. greater than turbine rpm. velocity decreases.
compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft. less than turbine rpm.
-1
-1
temperature increases.
-1
will run without any external assistance.
is designed to idle after starting.
operates most efficiently in the cruise..
will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
-1
Page 124 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded. the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
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0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI The primary reason for prevent damage to the jet pipe from a limitation being overheating. imposed on the temperature of gas flow is to : 3 UNITED KI In a gas turbine engine, oil pressure. compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to : 3 UNITED KI If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that : 1 UNITED KI The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: 2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 021-10164A) The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4. They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex. The repeating bell is activated when: EPR decreases and EGT increases.
prevent overheating and ensure that the subsequent creep of maximum acceptable the nozzle guide vanes. temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded. thermal expansion. blade creep.
-1
both EPR and EGT decrease.
EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.
EPR remains constant and EGT increases.
-1
moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control. the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.
altering the depression on the main discharge tube. the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.
varying the air supply to varying the fuel supply the main discharge to the main discharge tube. tube. the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke. only one sensor detects smoke.
-1
-1
Page 125 of 1247

1 UNITED KI In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from :
rispostaA
a TRU.
rispostaB
an inverter.
rispostaC
a rectifier.
rispostaD
a contactor.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 UNITED KI The measured output amperes and kilowatts. power components of a constant frequency AC system are : 2 UNITED KI "Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator : 2 UNITED KI If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current flowing in the circuit will : 2 UNITED KI Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
kVA and kVAR.
volts and amperes.
volts and kilowatts.
-1
output frequency is too low.
output frequency varies with engine speed.
output frequency is too high.
-1
decrease.
remain the same.
increase.
be zero.
-1
automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
controlling the generator field current.
carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time. Transformer Rectifier Unit.
monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator. static inverter.
-1
2 UNITED KI In an aeroplane utilising 3 phase current a constant frequency transformer unit. AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a: 2 UNITED KI On an aeroplane a Transformer Rectifier utilising AC as primary Unit. power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from : 4 GERMANY The most suitable water. means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is :
rotary converter.
-1
a static inverter.
a DC transformer and rectifier.
the AC bus via current limiters.
-1
carbon dioxide.
freon.
sand.
-1
Page 126 of 1247

2 UNITED KI When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each generator: 1 UNITED KI The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law is :
rispostaA
must be 90 out of synchronisation.
rispostaB
is unimportant.
rispostaC
must be synchronous.
rispostaD
must be in opposition.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
current in a circuit is Current in a circuit is inversely proportional to directly proportional to the electromotive force. the applied electromotive force.
The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current. on the ground only.
-1
2 UNITED KI Assuming a CSD fault during engine operation is indicated, the CSD only. should be disconnected : 1 UNITED KI When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the : 9 UNITED KI "Conditioned" air is air that has : 1 UNITED KI Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery : 1 UNITED KI Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be : 1 UNITED KI A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which : 2 UNITED KI The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: voltage to decrease under load.
at flight idle engine rpm. in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator. voltage to increase due to the current available. current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage. been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure. indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
-1
electrolyte to "boil".
-1
had the oxygen content increased. indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
had the oxygen content reduced. would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
had any moisture removed from it. indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
-1
-1
used only in AC circuits. used only in DC circuits. reset at any time.
used in AC and DC circuits.
-1
can be reset at any time. will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit. vary generator rpm in directly maintain a order to compensate for constant proportion various AC loads. between the rpm of engine and generator.
will not allow the is free from the normal contacts to be held CB tripping closed while a current characteristic. fault exists in the circuit. drive the generator at a constant speed. vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
-1
-1
Page 127 of 1247

2 UNITED KI The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the : 2 UNITED KI Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
rispostaA
field strength and the speed of the moving part. monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
rispostaB
number of individual poles only. adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit. "any or all" gate.
rispostaC
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part. carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time. "state indicator" gate.
rispostaD
number of individual poles and the field strength. controlling the generator field current.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
-1
4 UNITED KI Because of the "all or nothing" gate. input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the : 9 FRANCE In the pneumatic supply intermediate pressure system of a modern check-valve transport aircraft, the air pressure is regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
"inhibited" or "negated" gate.
-1
low pressure bleed air valve
high pressure bleed air valve
fan bleed air valve
-1
1 UNITED KI Connecting two 12 volt 24 volts, 80 ampere40 ampere-hour hours. capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of : 2 UNITED KI The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the : 2 UNITED KI The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to : 2 UNITED KI If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relationship of each generator: number of individual poles only. vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads. must be 240 out of phase.
12 volts, 80 amperehours.
-1
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor. drive the generator at a constant speed.
number of individual poles and the field strength.
field strength and the speed of the rotor.
-1
vary generator rpm in directly maintain a order to compensate for constant proportion various AC loads. between the rpm of an engine and a generator. must be synchronised. must be 120 out of phase.
-1
is unimportant.
-1
Page 128 of 1247

2 UNITED KI To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel : 1 UNITED KI A bus-bar is :
rispostaA
only reactive loads need to be matched.
rispostaB
only real loads need to be matched.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
both real an reactive the matching of loads is loads must be matched. unimportant.
the stator of a moving coil instrument. slight variation about the normal operating frequency.
a device which may only be used in DC circuits. low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.
a distribution point for electrical power. excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
a device permitting operation of two or more switches together. illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
-1
2 UNITED KI A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for disconnection are : 2 UNITED KI A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight : 4 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 021- 6660A) The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) :
-1
automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value. a NAND gate.
automatically resets at engine shut-down.
may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down. an EXCLUSIVE gate.
may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism. an INVERT or NOT gate.
-1
a NOR gate.
-1
2 UNITED KI When AC generators voltage and frequency. are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same: 1 UNITED KI When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter : 3 UNITED KI A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: 1 UNITED KI When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field : a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition. the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing. there will be no effect on the conductor.
amperage and kVAR.
voltage and amperage.
frequency and amperage.
-1
no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage. the high pressure turbine. the field will collapse.
the battery should be isolated.
the load condition is unimportant.
-1
airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor. current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.
the low pressure turbine. an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor.
-1
-1
Page 129 of 1247

1 UNITED KI In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that : 2 UNITED KI The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the : 1 UNITED KI A circuit breaker :
rispostaA
their voltages are almost equal.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
adequate voltage differences exists.
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-1 0 0 0
the synchronising bus- equal loads are bar is disconnected connected to each from the busbar system. generator busbar before paralleling.
batteries at varying loads.
generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads. is self resetting after the fault has been rectified. limit the current in the field circuit. prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals. 120 .
output of the TRU.
generator at varying loads and speeds.
-1
may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified. allow a short term overload before rupturing.
can only be reset after major maintenance. instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load. isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant. 60 .
can be reset on the ground only. limit the current in the armature. provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents. 45 .
-1
1 UNITED KI A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to :
-1
1 UNITED KI The primary purpose of provide a single earth bonding the metallic for electrical devices. parts of an aircraft is to : 2 UNITED KI A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at : 90 .
-1
-1
2 UNITED KI On the flight deck, an oil over-temperature oil operated CSD unit is and low oil pressure. normally provided with means of monitoring the: 2 UNITED KI An AC generator driven by a CSD unit :
oil temperature and synchronous speed.
output speed and oil pressure.
low oil temperature and low oil quantity.
-1
does not need a voltage requires a voltage controller since an AC controller to maintain generator voltage constant frequency. cannot alter under load. "any or all" gate.
requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load. "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage. "state indicator" gate.
-1
4 UNITED KI Because of the "all or nothing" gate. input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the :
-1
Page 130 of 1247

7 UNITED KI Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
always remain the same.
rispostaD
initially increase with system pressurisation.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
increase as ambient fluctuate with jack temperature decreases. displacement and accumulator pressure. there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft.
3 UNITED KI In a free turbine engine: the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected. 5 UNITED KI Tyre "creep" may be described as the : circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.
the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
-1
the increase in inflation the decrease in inflation gradual circumferential pressure due to drease pressure due to increase of tyre wear. in ambient temperature. increase in ambient temperature. remain the same. increase by 5 %. decrease by 5 %.
-1
11 UNITED KI In a compensated increase by 10 %. capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would : 7 UNITED KI The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for : 7 UNITED KI To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often incorporates undercarriage selection and automatic brake system. auxiliary hydraulic motors.
-1
flap extension only.
flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power. a stand-by hydraulic pump.
nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed. an accumulator.
-1
a high pressure relief valve.
-1
Page 131 of 1247

5 FRANCE The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is : 1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system, 2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system, 3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system, 4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 7 UNITED KI In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve : 7 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 021-6736A) The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout :
rispostaA
1, 3
rispostaB
2, 3
rispostaC
2, 4
rispostaD
1, 2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
regulates pump delivery allows two possible pressure. sources of pressure to operate one unit. a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place. since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces.
is a self-lapping nonreturn valve. the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.
allows two units to be operated by one pressure source. the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.
-1
-1
Page 132 of 1247

5 UNITED KI In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against : 7 UNITED KI An accumulator in a hydraulic system will : 3 UNITED KI Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature produces : 8 UNITED KI Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate : 5 FRANCE A passenger emergency mask is a :
rispostaA
high TGT only.
rispostaB
high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature.
rispostaC
high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.
rispostaD
overspeed and high oil temperature only.
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0 -1 0 0
reduce fluid temperature and pressure. a decrease in the reference current
reduce fluid temperature only. a decrease in pressure
store fluid under pressure.
increase pressure surges within the system.
-1
a decrease in resistance an increase in resistance
-1
a rate of climb.
a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
zero.
a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure. continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin. mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
-1
mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin. continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke.
-1
5 FRANCE
A smoke mask is a :
mask with flow on continuous flow mask request and covers only and covers only the the nose and the mouth. nose and the mouth.
-1
Page 133 of 1247

8 UNITED KI Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : 8 UNITED KI Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by : 6 FRANCE
rispostaA
the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
rispostaB
the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
rispostaC
the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.
rispostaD
a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
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0 0 0 -1
engine rpm.
inward relief valve(s).
regulating the pressurisation duct discharge of air through relief valve(s). the outflow valve(s). and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime. which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime.
-1
The pyrotechnic means and a smoke device used in case of an which are only used at emergency to indicate night. your position to the emergency teams are a flare: The portable 12 h emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or ditching have a duration of : has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes. used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night.
-1
6 FRANCE
72 h
48 h
24 h
-1
8 UNITED KI The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane :
has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure. compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.
is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes. passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
-1
9 UNITED KI In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first :
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat exchanger.
-1
Page 134 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
4000 psi.
rispostaC
3000 psi.
rispostaD
2000 psi.
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0 0 -1 0
1000 psi. 7 UNITED KI Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is precharged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be : 5 FRANCE The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as: An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with: the oxygen system would be contaminated.
these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark. 4 manual fireextinguishers in the passenger cabin.
these substances could these substances catch plug the oxygen masks fire spontaneously in filters. the presence of oxygen under pressure. 3 manual fireextinguishers in the passenger cabin. 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
-1
6 FRANCE
7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
-1
1 NETHERL
If the ground wire cannot be started with between the magneto the switch in the ON and the ignition switch position becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine If an engine fails to stop defective condenser with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be : An impulse magneto coupling A condenser in parallel with breaker points will advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting permit arcing across points
cannot be shut down by will not operate at the turning the switch to the left magneto OFF position.
will not operate at the right magneto
-1
1 NETHERL
fouled spark plugs
excessive carbon formation in cylinder head. gives a retarded spark at starting assist in collapse of secondary winding.
switch wire grounded
-1
1 NETHERL
gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation. assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up intensify current in secondary winding
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
Page 135 of 1247

1 NETHERL Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: An aircraft magneto is switched off by
rispostaA
faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced grounding the secondary circuit.
rispostaB
slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced grounding the primary circuit engine oil pressure
rispostaC
faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs opening the primary circuit a coil spring
rispostaD
faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is. opening the secondary circuit electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 NETHERL 4 NETHERL
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
An impulse coupling centrifugal force does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by
1 UNITED KI With respect to a piston will only form at OAT's engined aircraft, ice in below +10 C. the carburettor : 1 UNITED KI When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause : 5 UNITED KI A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification limitations) and on the ground : 1 UNITED KI The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted : low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water. high manifold pressure
will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel. high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
may form at OAT's higher than +10 C.
-1
high engine rpm
-1
air conditioning and electrical services.
air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.
air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up services (in the air).
-1
between the oil tank and the pressure pump
after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump
in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump
-1
Page 136 of 1247

1 FRANCE An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are inoperative the: 1. external door opening mechanism 2. internal door opening mechanism 3. door opening aid device 4. open door locking system 5. auxiliary means of evacuation 6. emergency lighting The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 3, 4, 5
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
rispostaC
1, 2, 5, 6
rispostaD
2, 3, 4, 6
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0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI To ensure that the fuel a diffuser flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with : 1 UNITED KI In a piston engine if the rich ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be : 1 UNITED KI Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine ? slightly retarding the ignition timing
a power jet
an accelerator pump
a mixture control
-1
weak
too weak to support combustion
normal
-1
using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio
the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating
using an engine with a low compression ratio
-1
Page 137 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed the : 3 FRANCE On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected:
rispostaA
reduction gear
rispostaB
crankshaft
rispostaC
piston
rispostaD
camshaft
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0 -1 0 0
only at an isolated point of the loops
only in a uniform way along the loops
on at least one loop
at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops
-1
4 FRANCE
Generally, when the fire 1,2,5,6 handle of the fireextinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are : 1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system 2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned 3. setting of extinguishing systems 4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves 5. isolation of the associated electric current generators 6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2,3,4,5
1,3,4
1,3,4,5
-1
Page 138 of 1247

4 FRANCE (For this question use annex 021-9377A) When fire is detected on engine n 2, the fire shutoff handle n 2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n 1 is discharged. This results in :
rispostaA
the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n 2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n 1 on engine n 1 and agent n 2 on engine n 2
rispostaB
the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n 1 and illumination of the DISCH (discharge) indicator lamp
rispostaC
the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n 1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n 1 on both engines
rispostaD
the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n 1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n 1 on engine no. and DISCH indicator lamp of agent n 2 on engine n 1 a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude. it fouls the spark plugs
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0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes : 1 UNITED KI In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : 1 NETHERL In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because : The primary purpose of a supercharger is to : An excessively rich mixture can be detected by :
a single warning light and a single alarm bell
both a warning light and a warning light for each an alarm bell unique to engine and a single each engine alarm bell common to all engines weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude. the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude. it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls
-1
prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude. it drains the carburettor float chamber
-1
-1
1 NETHERL
provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft black smoke from exhaust.
provide a richer mixture at high altitudes high cylinder head temperatures total volume to the clearance volume. a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
maintain power at altitude white smoke from exhaust.
increase quantity of fuel at metering jet a long purple flame from exhaust.
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
1 UNITED KI A piston engine swept volume to the compression ratio is the clearance volume. ratio of the : 1 UNITED KI Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when : the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre. low barometric pressure.
clearance volume to the total volume to the swept volume. swept volume. the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early. the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at the plug rich mixture.
-1
-1
1 UNITED KI Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively :
high barometric pressure.
weak mixture.
-1
Page 139 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as safe for continuous operation is termed : 1 UNITED KI A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned : 9 UNITED KI The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the : 1 UNITED KI Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : 1 NETHERL The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of the following relations?
rispostaA
maximum power.
rispostaB
take-off power.
rispostaC
critical power.
rispostaD
rated power.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
upstream of the needle valve. charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
between the needle valve and the metering jet. cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.
downstream of th discharge nozzle.
-1
source of the charge air. means by which pressurisation is controlled.
-1
maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft. the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is control the primary circuit of the magneto
mass of fuel required to designed fuel produce unit power for consumption for a unit time. given rpm. the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is connect the secondary coil to the distributor the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible compression ratio is. connect the battery to the magneto
quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions. compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
-1
-1
1 UNITED KI The purpose of an ignition switch is to :
connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil
-1
1 UNITED KI Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current :
from the booster coil.
directly from the aircraft from the aircraft from a self-contained batteries. batteries via an inverter. electro-magnetic induction system. manifold pressure the propeller setting is decreases as the constant at all indicated aircraft climbs at a fixed airspeeds. throttle setting. in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening the throttle.
-1
1 UNITED KI On a normally aspirated in a descent at a fixed aero-engine fitted with a throttle setting manifold fixed pitch propeller : pressure will always remain constant.
-1
Page 140 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator. both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 0 -1 0
enters at the periphery 1 UNITED KI The air in a piston and leaves via the eye engine turboof the impeller. supercharger centrifugal compressor : 1 UNITED KI In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by : both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.
enters the eye of the enters via the diffuser impeller and leaves at a and is fed to the tangent to the periphery. impeller at the optimum angle of attack. a manifold pressure gauge only. a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings. combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure. at the entry to the exhaust unit. velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
-1
4 UNITED KI An engine pressure compressor outlet jet pipe pressure to ratio (EPR) gauge pressure to compressor compressor inlet reading normally shows inlet pressure. pressure. the ratio of: 3 UNITED KI In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained: within the combustion chamber. across the turbine.
jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure. in the cooling airflow around the flame tube. pressure rises at a constant velocity.
-1
-1
3 UNITED KI Concerning the velocity rises and centrifugal compressor, pressure falls. the compressor diffuser is a device in which the: 6 FRANCE The emergency lighting 5 minutes system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least: compression induction, power, exhaust. the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the "OFF" position
pressure rises and velocity falls.
-1
30 minutes
10 minutes
90 seconds
-1
1 UNITED KI The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is : 1 NETHERL If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
induction, compression, induction, compression, induction, power, expansion, power. power, exhaust. compression, exhaust. a still operating engine will run down the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the "ON" position the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
0 0
Page 141 of 1247

4 UNITED KI In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of: 5 UNITED KI "Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as :
rispostaA
air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers. aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear. All bonding and earthing connections between ground equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed. the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
rispostaB
fuel supplied.
rispostaC
air entering the compressor.
rispostaD
air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves. the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect. Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground. Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing. Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers are readily available. pressure to the rudder pedals.
-1
11 UNITED KI Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are :
-1
5 UNITED KI On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from : 7 UNITED KI Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause : 7 UNITED KI Assuming an accumulator is precharged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read :
the master cylinders.
the brake actuators.
-1
an increased fluid temperature. 1000 psi.
fluid loss.
a decreased fluid temperature. 1500 psi.
an increased fluid pressure. 2500 psi.
-1
500 psi.
-1
Page 142 of 1247

7 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 021-6716A) In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale)
rispostaA
100 N.
rispostaB
1000 N.
rispostaC
20 N.
rispostaD
1 N.
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-1 0 0 0
8 UNITED KI A cabin pressure mass air flow into the controller maintains a cabin. pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the : 4 UNITED KI The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to : 1 NETHERL Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to :
position of the inward relief valve.
position of the duct relief valve(s).
position of the outflow valve(s).
-1
ensure the output invert the input signal signal is of the same such that the output is state as the input signal. always of the opposite state. use only high octane gasoline keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight
ensure the input signal is AC only.
ensure the input signal is DC only.
-1
keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use
drain tanks at end of each day's flight
-1
1 NETHERL
Fixed-pitch propellers cruising speed are usually designed for maximum efficiency at : Vapour lock is : vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor a properly functioning thermostat
idling
full throttle
take-off
-1
1 NETHERL
the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor a lean fuel/air mixture
vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor the circulation of lubricating oil
the formation of water vapour in a fuel system a rich fuel/air mixture
-1
1 NETHERL
For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on: The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are :
-1
1 NETHERL
exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.
intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.
both valves open.
both valves closed.
-1
Page 143 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
decrease the air supplied to the engine
rispostaC
increase the oxygen supplied to the engine float chamber and fuel inlet filter
rispostaD
decrease oxygen supplied to the engine accelerator pump and main metering jet difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The main purpose of adjust the fuel flow to the mixture control is to: obtain the proper fuel/air ratio
1 NETHERL
In which sections of the main air bleed and main venturi and the throttle carburettor would icing discharge nozzle valve most likely occur? The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the: automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
-1
1 NETHERL
increase in air velocity measurement of the in the throat of a venturi fuel flow into the causing an increase in induction system air pressure low volatility of aviation fuel vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor
-1
1 NETHERL
In an engine equipped compression of air at with a float-type the carburettor venturi carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of: Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat? mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder. it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
-1
1 NETHERL
volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture 3 halon fireextinguishers.
volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus enriching the fuel/air mixture no halon fireextinguisher.
mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture 2 halon fireextinguishers.
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
6 FRANCE
A public transport 1 halon firepassengers aircraft, extinguisher. with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fireextinguishers including: The skip zone of HFtransmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs : Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
-1
5 NETHERL
Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
-1
Page 144 of 1247

6 UNKNOW A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt. The chemical oxygen generator is a system: 1. which is inexpensive 2. requiring no external input 3. which is lightweight 4. requiring no maintenance 5. with adjustable flow rate 6. which is unsafe The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 4 GERMANY The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is: 1 UNKNOW In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
rispostaD
Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
The regulation does not Life jackets and rafts must be available for all require life jackets or occupants. rafts to be taken on board in this particular case.
5 FRANCE
1, 3, 4
2, 3, 6
1, 4, 6
2, 4, 5
-1
Water.
CO2.
Powder.
Freon.
-1
24
12
-1
Page 145 of 1247

1 UNKNOW In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD): 1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft. 2- may be disconnected from the generator. 3- is a hydromechanical system. 4- is an electronic system. 5- may not be disconnected in flight. 6- may be disconnected in flight. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 1 GERMANY A static inverter is a:
rispostaA
1, 2, 5
rispostaB
2, 3, 4
rispostaC
1, 4, 5
rispostaD
1, 3, 6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC. take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
device for reversing the polarity of the static charge. mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.
static discharger.
filter against radio interference. maintain a constant frequency.
-1
2 UNKNOW
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:
take part in the voltage regulation.
-1
Page 146 of 1247

3 UNKNOW When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated: 1. its resistance decreases. 2. its resistance increases. 3. the leakage current increases. 4. the leakage current decreases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 5 GERMANY The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts : 4 GERMANY If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire; the following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting: 3 GERMANY In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:
rispostaA
2, 3
rispostaB
1, 4
rispostaC
2, 4
rispostaD
1, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
After the system has been switched on by a crew member
after pulling the oxygen mask downwards
immediately
only above FL200
-1
Water type extinguishers
Dry and water type extinguishers
CO2 and water type extinguishers
BCF and CO2 type extinguishers
-1
stator - stator - rotor
rotor - stator
stator - rotor
rotor - rotor - stator
-1
Page 147 of 1247

6 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
120 minutes at cruising speed.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
30 minutes at cruising An operator shall not speed. operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than : When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the: The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are: 1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes. 2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment. 3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves. 4. Avoid greasy matter. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : frequency.
2 UNKNOW
voltage.
torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
energizing current.
-1
5 UNKNOW
2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 4.
1, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3.
-1
Page 148 of 1247

3 FRANCE The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the : 1. tacho-generator N1 2. tacho-generator N2 3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors 4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD) 5. oil pumps 6. hydraulic pumps 7. high pressure fuel pumps The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 1 GERMANY The correct formula to calculate the multicylinder engine displacement is : 1 GERMANY In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a : 1 GERMANY When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by : 1 GERMANY The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller 1 GERMANY A propeller blade is twisted, so as to
rispostaA
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
rispostaB
2, 4, 5, 6.
rispostaC
4, 5, 6, 7.
rispostaD
1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
cylinder length * cylinder diameter
piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders
piston area * piston stroke
cylinder volume * number of cylinders
-1
lighter construction.
lower fuel consumption. better piston cooling.
cheaper construction
-1
reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.
increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
-1
increases with increasing true air speed.
only varies with engine RPM.
decreases with increasing true air speed. allow a higher mechanical stress.
is independent of the true air speed. keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.
-1
avoid the appearance of decrease the blade sonic phenomena. tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.
-1
Page 149 of 1247

1 GERMANY A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during : 1 GERMANY When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller : 5 UNKNOW
rispostaA
Cruise.
rispostaB
Take-off.
rispostaC
Landing.
rispostaD
Take-off and landing.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
reduces.
increases.
stays constant.
stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
-1
A public transport jet 198 (110% of the aeroplane may be seating capacity). operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be: Diaphragm pumps.
270 (150% of the seating capacity).
240 (one additional mask per seat block).
210 (one additional mask per seat row).
-1
11 GERMANY On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: 11 UNKNOW On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to:
Centrifugal pumps.
Gear type pumps.
Piston pumps.
-1
electro-mechanical mechanically driven by wobble pumps, with the engine's accessory self-regulated pressure. gearbox. prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel. maintain and improve fuel heating power.
removable only after the centrifugal pumps, associated tank has driven by an electric been emptied. motor. ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity. prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.
-1
11 UNKNOW
-1
Page 150 of 1247

11 UNKNOW On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the following type: The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following range: In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: The fuel crossfeed system:
rispostaA
28 V DC
rispostaB
115 V DC
rispostaC
115 V AC
rispostaD
28 V AC
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 FRANCE
5 to 10 psi
3000 to 5000 psi
300 to 500 psi
20 to 50 psi
-1
4 UNKNOW
fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles. allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank. Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected. is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing. Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...). The return lines of the fuel pumps.
automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter. is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks. is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
-1
11 UNKNOW
-1
11 GERMANY The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:
Prevent overpressure in Prevent the fuel from the tank. flowing in the vent lines.
-1
11 GERMANY On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: 11 GERMANY The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are: 1 GERMANY The feathering pump of a hydraulic variablepitch propeller:
Bleed air from the engines.
Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
-1
Integral tanks.
Cell tanks.
Combined fuel tanks.
Fixed built-in tanks.
-1
is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil, when the engine is inoperative.
is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a constant speed.
controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails.
is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine problems.
-1
Page 151 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) is significant higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).
rispostaC
on all transport category aircraft.
rispostaD
on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
11 GERMANY Fuel dump systems are on aircraft with a required: Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.
1 GERMANY To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to : 11 GERMANY The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel: 9 UNKNOW In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:
gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering. vent system.
gain speed so as to use use the electric the engine unfeathering unfeathering pump. pump. tank drains. top off unit.
manually release the blade latch. dump system.
-1
-1
allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.
cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.
allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in operation.
cool bleed air.
-1
11 GERMANY On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are : 11 GERMANY The automatic fuelling shut off valve: 11 GERMANY During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when: 11 UNKNOW (For this question use annex 021-980A) The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuelflow measurement is carried out : The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:
Installed only in the center tank. stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached. the surge vent tank is filled.
not necessary at all.
Located on the engines. Installed in each tank. stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline. fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
stops fuelling as soon cuts off the fuel in case as a certain fuel level is of engine fire. reached inside the tank. there is fire. the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
-1
after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).
after low pressure valve after high pressure (item 1). valve (item 4).
in the fuel control unit (item 3).
-1
4 FRANCE
maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases.
reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.
-1
Page 152 of 1247

11 GERMANY The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is: 1 GERMANY If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: 11 GERMANY The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : 5 FRANCE
rispostaA
All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached. is unserviceable.
rispostaB
All up to a defined reserve quantity.
rispostaC
15 tons.
rispostaD
All fuel.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used. prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank. hectometric.
has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used. prevent fuel movement to the wing tip. myriametric.
has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used. damp out movement of the fuel in the tank. decimetric.
-1
close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
-1
The high Altitude Radio metric. Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the: When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to: The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction finder is a: The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths: ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit. 0.5
-1
5 FRANCE
ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.
ground power unit, the starting system.
ground power unit.
-1
5 FRANCE
0.1
-1
5 FRANCE
cathode-ray tube.
VHF transmitterreceiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range. centimetric.
VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range. hectometric.
VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range. myriametric.
-1
5 FRANCE
decimetric.
-1
5 FRANCE
The airborne weather centimetric. radar uses the following wavelengths: The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: metric.
metric.
hectometric.
myriametric.
-1
5 FRANCE
hectometric.
decimetric.
centimetric.
-1
Page 153 of 1247

5 FRANCE The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths: The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths:
rispostaA
metric.
rispostaB
hectometric.
rispostaC
decimetric.
rispostaD
centimetric.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5 FRANCE
hectometric.
metric.
centimetric.
decimetric.
-1
5 FRANCE
hectometric.
myriametric.
metric.
centimetric.
-1
1 GERMANY When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers are not moved) : 5 FRANCE
stays constant.
increases.
reduces.
first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.
-1
The Microwave Landing myriametric. System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths: Electrical bonding of an 1, 3, 4 aircraft is used to: 1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects. 2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt 3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems 4. set the aircraft to a single potential The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
centimetric.
metric.
hectometric.
-1
1 FRANCE
1, 2, 3
3, 4
2, 4
-1
Page 154 of 1247

5 FRANCE The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: A thermal circuit breaker:
rispostaA
decimetric.
rispostaB
metric.
rispostaC
centimetric.
rispostaD
myriametric.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 FRANCE
decimetric.
centimetric.
hectometric or kilometric.
metric.
-1
2 FRANCE
forbids any overcurrent. can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains.
protects the system in the event of overheating, even without exceeding the maximum permissible current. trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about one hundredth of a second.
-1
6 FRANCE
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
leading edge flaps close to the wing root
trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
-1
Page 155 of 1247

2 FRANCE As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said that: 1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage 2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure 3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release 4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts up The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 GERMANY Smoke detector systems are installed in the 2 FRANCE A magnetic circuitbreaker is:
rispostaA
2, 3
rispostaB
3, 4
rispostaC
2, 4
rispostaD
1, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
engine nacelles.
fuel tanks.
upper cargo compartments (class E). can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
wheel wells.
-1
a protection system that permits an overcurrent has a quick tripping limited in time. response.
is a system with a slow response time.
-1
Page 156 of 1247

5 FRANCE 1. which requires solid or branched wheels 2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations 3. whose mounting rim must be flawless 4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device 5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture 6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 1 FRANCE The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to: The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:
rispostaA
rispostaB
3, 4, 5.
rispostaC
1, 2, 5.
rispostaD
2, 3, 6.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1, 5, 6.
assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal tractioncompression stresses.
withstand the shear stresses.
provide sound and thermal isolation.
integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress. decimetric.
-1
5 FRANCE
centimetric.
metric.
hectometric.
-1
1 GERMANY For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:
oil temperature.
outside pressure.
oil pressure.
quantity of oil.
-1
9 GERMANY In an aircraft air pressure. conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
temperature.
humidity.
purity.
-1
Page 157 of 1247

1 GERMANY In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system 1 GERMANY For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release is : 1 GERMANY For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : 1 GERMANY On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by the adjustment of : 1 GERMANY To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to: 1 GERMANY When applying carburettor heating :
rispostaA
move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.
rispostaB
move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force.
rispostaC
move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.
rispostaD
move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(1) high (2) forward.
(1) low (2) forward.
(1) low (2) aft.
(1) high (2) aft.
-1
volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. air flow.
mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. fuel flow and air flow.
mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder. fuel flow, air flow and temperature.
volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. fuel flow.
-1
-1
decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air density. the mixture becomes richer.
increase the amount of increase the mixture fuel in the mixture to ratio. compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density. a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased. decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel. the mixture becomes leaner. volume of air entering the carburettor is increased. decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel.
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density. no change occurs in the mixture ratio. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced. constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel.
-1
-1
1 GERMANY When the pilot moves volume of air entering the mixture lever of a the carburettor is piston engine towards a reduced. lean position the : 1 GERMANY When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected because of a : increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel.
-1
-1
Page 158 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 metre.
rispostaC
1000 metres.
rispostaD
100 metres.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
10 metres. The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:
1 GERMANY Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : 4 FRANCE The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:
Cruising mixture setting. Full rich setting.
Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
Mass ratio of 1/15.
-1
the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. compression, then in tension.
the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure. tension, then in compression.
the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. tension.
the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure. compression.
-1
3 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
In an aircraft electrical power supply to the system where AC faulty AC generators generators are not busbar. paralleled mounted, the changover relay allows : Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the:
connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.
connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar. generator breaker opens.
-1
2 FRANCE
exciter control relay, the exciter control relay and exciter control relay generator breaker and the generator breaker opens. the tie breaker open. open.
-1
Page 159 of 1247

1 FRANCE The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are: 1. Weight saving 2. Easy fault detection 3. Increase of shortcircuit risk 4. Reduction of shortcircuit risk 5. Circuits are not single-wired lines The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 FRANCE
rispostaA
1, 2, 3
rispostaB
2, 3, 5
rispostaC
1, 3, 5
rispostaD
1, 2, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
The speed of an 12000 revolutions per asynchronous four-pole minute. motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is: As regards three-phase 1, 3, 5 AC generators, the following conditions must be met for paralleling AC generators: 1. Equal voltage 2. Equal current 3. Equal frequencies 4. Same phase rotation 5. Voltages of same phase The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
6000 revolutions per minute.
-1
2 FRANCE
1, 4, 5
1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4
-1
Page 160 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.
rispostaC
maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
rispostaD
maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
reduce the axial speed In the axial flow compressor of a turbo- in cruising flight. jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows: Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect : V decreases, Ps decreases.
3 FRANCE
V increases, Ps decreases.
V decreases, Ps increases.
V increases, Ps increases.
-1
2 FRANCE
fire.
overtemperature and fire.
smoke.
overtemperature.
-1
1 GERMANY The main advantage of higher efficiency in all a constant speed operating ranges. propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a : 1 GERMANY A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a lower cylinder head temperature.
constant efficiency in all operating ranges.
lower propeller blade stress.
higher efficiency in cruising range.
-1
higher efficiency.
slight loss of power.
higher torque.
-1
Page 161 of 1247

0 FRANCE For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts : 1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting. 2 No routine check is necessary. 3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle. 4 Certain components may not be accessible. 5 The principle is the redundancy of components 6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
2,5,6
rispostaB
1,5,6
rispostaC
2,3,4
rispostaD
1,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
A fault protection circuit inhibit the fire detector in a fire detection when the detection line system will: is connected to ground.
activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground. the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.
automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire. the fire alarm is triggered.
activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew. the power supply is cut off automatically.
-1
3 FRANCE
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault protection), if the line is accidently grounded:
there will be no effect on the system
-1
3 GERMANY When a wire type fire system is tested:
the wire is totally heated. the wiring and the warning are tested.
Only the warning function is tested.
a part of the wire is totally heated.
-1
Page 162 of 1247

5 UNKNOW In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:
rispostaA
protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
rispostaB
protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation. 230.
rispostaC
protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people. 200.
rispostaD
give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders. 180.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 UNKNOW
An aircraft is scheduled 220. to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness= 230 Number of seats on board= 200 Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180 The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin should be: From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? FL 300.
-1
5 UNKNOW
FL 390.
FL 100.
FL 250.
-1
5 GERMANY What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? 5 UNKNOW In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
Cabin air and oxygen or A mixture of oxygen 100% oxygen. and freon gas.
Cabin air and oxygen.
100% oxygen.
-1
HF
VHF
UHF
VLF
-1
Page 163 of 1247

5 UNKNOW The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
rispostaA
24.60 cm
rispostaB
2.46 cm
rispostaC
24.60 m
rispostaD
2.46 m
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 GERMANY The type of brake unit Belt brake. found on most transport aeroplanes is a: 1 UNKNOW DURALUMIN alloys : 1 have an aluminiumcopper base. 2 have an aluminiummagnesium base. 3 are easy to weld. 4 are difficult to weld. 5 have a good thermal conductivity. 6 have a poor air corrosion resistance The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 6 UNKNOW In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment: In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is: gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders. equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span 1,4,5
Multiple disk brake.
Drum type brake.
Single disk brake.
-1
2,4,5
1,3,6
2,3,6
-1
protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization. equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization. lowest at the wing root
protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases. highest at the wing root
-1
3 UNKNOW
-1
Page 164 of 1247

3 UNKNOW The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 1 Is a limitation set by regulation. 2 Is designed for a maximum load factor. 3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root. 4 Requires to empty external tanks first. 5 Requires to empty internal tanks first. The correct combination of true statements is : The trim tab :
rispostaA
2,4
rispostaB
1,3,5
rispostaC
1,2,3
rispostaD
2,5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 UNKNOW
reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency. lower manoeuvring control forces.
increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency. reduce or to cancel control forces.
increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency. trim the aeroplane during normal flight. control the wheels.
reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency. trim the aeroplane at low airspeed. lock the landing gear.
-1
6 UNKNOW
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
5 GERMANY A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : 5 GERMANY In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
avoid rotation of the absorb the spring piston rod relative to the tension. gear oleo strut. Mechanically driven. Pneumatically driven.
Electrically driven.
Hydraulically driven.
-1
5 GERMANY Generally, on modern Mechanically jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. 5 GERMANY If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be: Used on the nose wheel only.
Electrically.
Pneumatically.
By hydraulic accumulators.
-1
Repaired several times.
repaired once.
Never repaired.
-1
Page 165 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Elevator leading edges.
rispostaC
Slat leading edges.
rispostaD
Fin leading edges.
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-1 0 0 0
10 GERMANY Usually, electric heating Pitot tubes. for ice protection is used on: 5 UNKNOW For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band because: Its penetration power is higher.
It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.
It allows greater scanning rates.
It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power. drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air.
-1
9 UNITED KI The turbine in a cold air drives the compressor unit (air cycle machine): which provides pressurisation. 10 UNKNOW The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:
increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air.
-1
Used on a continual Harmful to the integrity basis as it reduces the of the windows in the thermal gradients which event of a bird strike. adversely affect the useful life of the components. 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
Only used when hot-air Used only at low demisting is insufficient. altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
-1
8 UNKNOW
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is placed:
12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
-1
9 UNKNOW
before the cooling turbine.
just after the heat exchangers.
after the cooling turbine. before the heat exchangers.
-1
Page 166 of 1247

9 FRANCE The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components: these include two heat exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
rispostaA
P: pre-cools the engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of the air used for airconditioning of cargo compartment (animals).
rispostaB
P: precools the engine bleed air S: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary exchanger or from the pack's compressor.
rispostaC
P: warms up engine bleed air S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
rispostaD
P: warms up engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack.
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0 -1 0 0
9 UNITED KI "Conditioned" air is air that has: 9 UNITED KI The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane:
oxygen content increased. has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure. increased.
oxygen content reduced. been controled in respect of temperature and pressure. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes. dependent on the degree of pressurisation. has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient pressure. unaffected.
oxygen content regulated to a preset value. is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.
-1
-1
9 UNITED KI When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is: 9 UNITED KI The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the: 9 UNITED KI In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
decreased.
-1
source of the charge air. means by which pressurisation is controlled.
charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
-1
compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion turbine.
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.
passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger.
-1
Page 167 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
rispostaC
6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
rispostaD
6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.
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0 0 -1 0
Some emergency exits 8 ft, aeroplane on the must be equipped with ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse. devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than:
9 UNITED KI Engine bleed air used compressor section. for air conditioning and pressurization in turbojet aeroplanes is usually taken from the: 5 GERMANY When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: only able to transmit.
fan section.
turbine section.
by-pass ducting.
-1
not able to do any radio communication. a compressor.
able to radiotelephone.
only able to receive.
-1
9 UNITED KI In large modern an expansion turbine. aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by: 9 UNITED KI In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to: 9 UNITED KI A turbo-fan cold air unit will: ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.
a condenser.
an evaporator.
-1
increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger. decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to rise in the heat exchanger. a fuel heater system.
maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
-1
not affect the charge air increase charge air pressure. pressure whilst causing hte temperature to drop in the heat exchanger. hot air coming from the engine's compressors. hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air. an electrical heater system.
-1
9 GERMANY The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from :
-1
Page 168 of 1247

9 GERMANY The pack cooling fan provides:
rispostaA
cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise. Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge).
rispostaB
cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation.
rispostaC
cooling air to the precooler.
rispostaD
air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
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0 -1 0 0
9 UNKNOW
In flight, the most commonly used antiicing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is: Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
Thermal (use of hot air). Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).
Electrical (electrical resistances).
-1
8 UNKNOW
The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a deicing device.
The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy to maintain. on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very often used for large surfaces de-icing.
The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an antiicing device.
The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular to the leading edges.
-1
9 UNKNOW
on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitotstatic, windshield...).
on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy.
on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports, windshield...
-1
Page 169 of 1247

9 FRANCE The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are: 1) engine air intake and pod. 2) front glass shield. 3) radome. 4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts. 5) leading edge of wing. 6) cabin windows. 7) trailing edge of wings. 8) electronic equipment compartment. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
rispostaA
1, 2, 4, 5
rispostaB
1, 4, 5, 7
rispostaC
1, 2, 5, 6
rispostaD
1, 2, 3, 8
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-1 0 0 0
5 GERMANY The reason for fitting release air from the tyre release air from the tyre prevent the brakes from prevent heat transfer thermal plugs to aircraft in case of overpressure. in case of overheating. overheating. from the brake disks to wheels is that they : the tyres. 9 UNITED KI In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the: 8 GERMANY On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the: secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit. Airflow entering the cabin. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit. RPM of the engine. turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet. Bleed air valve. compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet. Airflow leaving the cabin.
-1
-1
-1
8 UNITED KI The purpose of cabin regulate cabin pressure air flow control valves in at the maximum cabin a pressurization system pressure differential. is to :
Maintain a constant and regulate cabin pressure sufficient mass air flow to the selected altitude. to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.
discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
-1
Page 170 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
rispostaC
the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
rispostaD
the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
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-1 0 0 0
a constant mass air 8 UNITED KI Assuming cabin flow is permitted differential pressure through the cabin. has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: 8 UNITED KI Cabin pressure is controlled by : the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
delivering a controlling the flow of substantially constant air into the cabin with a flow of air into the cabin constant outflow. and controlling the outflow. Partially open. fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
the cabin air recirculation system.
-1
8 UNITED KI During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: 8 UNITED KI The purpose of a ditching control is to: 8 GERMANY The cabin pressure is regulated by the: 8 GERMANY The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : 8 GERMANY Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:
Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
At the pre-set position for take-off.
-1
achieve rapid depressurisation. Air cycle machine. The engine's bleed valves. actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.
open the outflow valve(s). Air conditioning pack.
direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.
close the outflow valve(s).
0 0 0
0 0 -1
0 0 0
-1 -1 0
Cabin inlet airflow valve. Outflow valve. The engine's RPM.
The cabin outflow valve. The cabin inlet airflow.
cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.
cockpit and passenger cabin.
cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL. 10000 ft
-1
8 GERMANY Under normal 8000 ft conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed: 5 GERMANY The operating principle Increased on the faster of an anti skid system turning wheels. is as follows : the brake pressure will be :
4000 ft
6000 ft
-1
Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
Increased on the slower Decreased on the turning wheels. slower turning wheels.
-1
Page 171 of 1247

8 GERMANY On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately: 8 UNKNOW During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:
rispostaA
7 - 9 psi
rispostaB
3 - 5 psi
rispostaC
13 - 15 psi
rispostaD
22 psi
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-1 0 0 0
the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft
cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
-1
8 GERMANY If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: 8 GERMANY The "cabin differential pressure" is: 8 GERMANY The cabin rate of descent is: 8 GERMANY The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is approximately: 8 GERMANY The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for: 9 GERMANY What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system? 9 GERMANY The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by:
Positive cabin Negative differential differential pressure at pressure at maximum maximum cabin altitude. cabin altitude.
-1
the pressure differential cabin pressure minus between the air entering ambient pressure. and leaving the cabin. a cabin pressure increase. 15.5 psi always the same as the airplane's rate of descent. 9.0 psi
approximately 5 psi at maximum. a cabin pressure decrease. 3.5 psi
approximately 15 psi at maximum. is not possible at constant airplane altitudes. 13.5 psi
-1
-1
-1
engine intakes.
wings.
pitot tubes.
propellers.
-1
Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.
Supplying the Cooling of the APU Passenger Service Unit compartment. (PSU) with fresh air.
Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation. piston compressors.
-1
roots type compressors. single radial compressors.
main engine compressors.
-1
Page 172 of 1247

9 GERMANY Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:
rispostaA
the second fan stage.
rispostaB
the low pressure compressor.
rispostaC
the high pressure compressor.
rispostaD
the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary. red. cabin pressure expressed as altitude. Vegetable oil.
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0 0 0 -1
7 FRANCE
Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:
purple. difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling. Water and glycol.
pink. flight level the aircraft is flying at. Synthetic oil.
blue. flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure. Mineral oil.
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
8 GERMANY Cabin altitude means the: 7 GERMANY In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are: 5 GERMANY Thermal plugs are installed in: 6 FRANCE The advantages of flyby-wire control are: 1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces 2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike 3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems 4. immunity to different interfering signals 5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
-1
cabin windows. 3 and 5
cargo compartments. 1 and 2
wheel rims. 1 and 5
fire warning systems. 2 and 3
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
0 0
Page 173 of 1247

6 UNKNOW An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: An artificial feel unit system:
rispostaA
the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units. is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.
rispostaB
the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs. must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servocontrol unit. 1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaC
there is a trimmable stabilizer.
rispostaD
the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
6 UNKNOW
must be mounted in is necessary on a series on an irreversible reversible servodyne servo-control unit. unit. 1, 2, 5, 7 2, 3, 4, 5
-1
7 UNKNOW
Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics: 1. thermal stability 2. low emulsifying characteristics 3. corrosion resistance 4. good resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility 6. high volatility 7. high viscosity The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
1, 3, 4, 6
-1
7 UNKNOW
In a hydraulic braking 1200 psi system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:
4200 psi
1800 psi
3000 psi
-1
Page 174 of 1247

7 GERMANY Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed? 7 GERMANY Hydraulic fluids :
rispostaA
At the pumps.
rispostaB
In the reservoirs.
rispostaC
At actuators.
rispostaD
At the coolers.
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-1 0 0 0
Cause high fire risk.
Do not require special care. Vegetable base fluids.
Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk. Mineral base fluids.
Are irritating to eyes and skin. Phosphate ester base fluids. Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure. 1000 psi
-1
7 GERMANY Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:
Water base fluids.
-1
9 UNITED KI Main cabin temperature controlled is: automatically, or by flight crew selection. 7 GERMANY Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately: 8 UNKNOW 3000 psi
controlled by individual passenger. 4000 psi
not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure. 2000 psi
-1
-1
(For this question use FL 230 annex 021-786A) In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude is:
FL 340
FL 280
FL 180
-1
7 GERMANY The type of hydraulic oil mixture of mineral oil used in modern and alcohol hydraulic systems is:
mineral oil
synthetic oil
vegetable oil
-1
Page 175 of 1247

7 UNKNOW In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is :
rispostaA
To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.
rispostaB
To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.
rispostaC
To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system.
rispostaD
To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
7 UNKNOW
In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:
prevent pump cavitation seal the system
keep the hydraulic fluid reduce fluid at optimum temperature combustibility Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump. Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure. Reduce pump loads.
-1
7 GERMANY The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:
Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure. Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply. as a pressure relief valve.
Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems. Shut down systems which are overloaded.
-1
7 GERMANY Shuttle valves will automatically:
Guard systems against overpressure.
-1
7 GERMANY In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used : 9 GERMANY In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion: 8 UNKNOW If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
for damping pressure surges in the system.
for fluid storage.
for pressure storage.
-1
of Freon in a heat exchanger. increases
of Freon in the turbine.
in the turbine.
in a pressure relief valve. decreases
-1
remains constant
may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.
-1
Page 176 of 1247

8 FRANCE The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following functions: 1. control of cabin altitude, 2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change, 3. limitation of differential pressure 4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude 5. cabin ventilation 6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 10 GERMANY On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by : 7 GERMANY Hydraulic power is a function of : 1 FRANCE The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the : The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if :
rispostaA
2, 6, 4
rispostaB
5, 6, 1
rispostaC
4, 5, 3
rispostaD
1, 2, 3
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0 0 0 -1
Vinyl coating.
Anti-icing fluid.
Rain repellent system.
Electric heating.
-1
Pump size and volume flow. reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation. the pump output pressure is insufficient.
System pressure and volume flow. propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow. the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.
Pump RPM only. propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller. there is a leak in the reservoir return line.
System pressure and tank capacity. propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow. the pump power accumulator is deflated.
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
7 FRANCE
-1
Page 177 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
its rotation speed
rispostaC
the strength of the excitation current is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator. a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
rispostaD
its load
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0 -1 0 0
The frequency of the its phase balance current provided by an alternator depends on... The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter. a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.
2 FRANCE
supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115200 V, 400 Hz AC.
is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.
-1
1 FRANCE
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates... When the magneto selector switch is set to "OFF" position, the piston engine continues to run normally. The most probable cause of this failure is that:
a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
-1
1 FRANCE
A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.
There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads).
On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.
There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
-1
1 FRANCE
During a power change high manifold pressure on an engine equipped and high RPM. with a constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...
low manifold pressure and low RPM.
high manifold pressure and low RPM.
low manifold pressure and high RPM.
-1
Page 178 of 1247

1 FRANCE When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90 , the propeller is said to be... The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula: A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to :
rispostaA
feathered.
rispostaB
windmilling.
rispostaC
transparent.
rispostaD
at zero drag.
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-1 0 0 0
1 FRANCE
Req = R1 + R2
Req = R1 x R2
1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
-1
5 FRANCE
make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20.
prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.
create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the nosewheel. alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust it's tread will deteriorate faster
-1
1 FRANCE
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the : In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:
battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases will wear at the shoulders
-1
2 FRANCE
compress the air in drive devices like order to provide a better pumps, regulator, charge of the generator. combustion chamber will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway
-1
5 FRANCE
-1
Page 179 of 1247

5 FRANCE An oxygen regulator has 3 controls : - a power lever : ON/OFF - an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100% - an emergency lever : ON/OFF Among the following statements, the correct proposition is : 4 FRANCE
rispostaA
the "O2" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate.
rispostaB
with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe.
rispostaC
the power lever on ON, and, the "O2" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.
rispostaD
the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
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0 0 -1 0
In very cold weather, is normal, if it is abnormal and the pilot notices during decreases after startup. requires the engine to startup, a slightly higher be shut down. than normal oil pressure. This higher pressure : Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that : Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by : The cross-feed fuel system enables: the same circuit is used the seals must be by the crew and the carefully greased to passengers. avoid sparks. a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself. the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank. the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential. the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit. the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing. the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
requires an oil change.
-1
5 FRANCE
the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen. a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew. the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank. the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the bypasses, and the fire shut-off valve.
with setting on "NORMAL", the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air. pressurized air from the air conditioning system. only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks. the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm).
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
11 FRANCE
-1
7 FRANCE
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is :
-1
Page 180 of 1247

2 FRANCE (Use the appendix to answer this question) The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type: 1 FRANCE In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in : The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized: "Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which:
rispostaA
free turbine and centrifugal compressor
rispostaB
free turbine and axial compressor
rispostaC
single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor
rispostaD
single shaft turbine and axial compressor
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-1 0 0 0
accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high voltage current at the moment the spark is generated. in flight only.
creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.
breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is distributed to the spark plugs. by an auxiliary system.
obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.
-1
7 FRANCE
by the air conditioning system.
by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine. water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime. the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.
-1
1 FRANCE
abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat.
burnt gas plugs forming heat produces vapour and remaining in the plugs in the fuel line. exhaust manifold following an overheat and thereby disturbing the exhaust. power is increased too abruptly. the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.
-1
1 FRANCE
Spark plug fouling is the aircraft descends more likely to happen if : without a mixture adjustment.
-1
Page 181 of 1247

4 FRANCE The use of igniters is necessary on a turbojet: 1 - throughout the operating range of the engine 2 - for accelerations 3 - for ground starts 4 - for in-flight relights 5 - during turbulence in flight 6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : 4 FRANCE The thrust of a turbojet, at the selection of full power : 1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity 2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air 3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving 4 - is independant of the outside air temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :
rispostaA
3-4-5-6
rispostaB
3
rispostaC
2-3-4
rispostaD
1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1-3
1-2
2-3
-1
Page 182 of 1247

4 FRANCE The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by: - a propeller control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine RPM - a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 - torque 6 - turbine temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : 3 FRANCE The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the : In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
rispostaA
3-4-6
rispostaB
2-4-5
rispostaC
1-5-6
rispostaD
1-3-5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
inlet guide vanes.
surge bleed valves.
variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.
Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
-1
5 FRANCE
emergency.
on demand.
100%
normal.
-1
3 FRANCE
For a fan jet engine, the external airflow mass by-pass ratio is the: divided by the internal airflow mass In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found : The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they : at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.
internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.
internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass at night and when raining.
fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass by day and when raining.
-1
5 FRANCE
-1
4 FRANCE
are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.
act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.
are electrical conductors.
-1
Page 183 of 1247

4 FRANCE With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge:
rispostaA
is automatic and immediate
rispostaB
is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
rispostaC
does not need the engine to be stopped increase
rispostaD
is the pilot's task
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
From the cruise, with all remain the same the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended: Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
decrease
-1
1 FRANCE
Reduce manifold Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the pressure and lean the mixture mixture provided that the grade is lower never
Increase manifold Increase manifold pressure and enrich the pressure and lean the mixture mixture provided that it is an aeronautical petrol provided that the grade is higher
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
3 FRANCE
has no influence on aircraft performance
increases aircraft performance
is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
decreases aircraft performance
-1
Page 184 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2-4
rispostaC
1-3
rispostaD
1-4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The installation and use 2 - 3 of on-board oxygen generators is such that: 1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used 2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow" passenger masks, no crew action is required 3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly 4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or graphite grease The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :
7 GERMANY The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is :
Synthetic fluid.
Mineral oil based fluid.
Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
Water and glycol based fluid.
-1
Page 185 of 1247

8 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1-3
rispostaC
1-4
rispostaD
2-3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Concerning the 2-4 sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge deicing devices, one can affirm that : 1 - They prevent ice formation. 2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds. 4 - There are more than ten cycles per second. The combination which regroups all the correct statements is :
9 SPAIN 5 NETHERL
The pneumatic system accumulator is useful : The function of a fusible plug is to
in emergency cases. protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system. negative pressure relief valve will close
to eliminate the fluid pressure variations. protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature. outflow valve open completely.
to eliminate the fluid flow variations. protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature. air cycle machine will stop.
to offset for the starting of some devices. function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system negative pressure relief valve will open.
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
8 NETHERL
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the :
-1
Page 186 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2,3
rispostaC
1,2,3,4
rispostaD
2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The operations of an 3,4 airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board. As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen: 1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler device. 2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m. 3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurization. 4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Page 187 of 1247

1 FRANCE Static dischargers : 1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential 2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge 3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts 4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the onboard radiocommunication systems to a minimum 5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 1 FRANCE The octane rating of a fuel characterises the : The vapor lock is :
rispostaA
2,4,5.
rispostaB
1,2,5.
rispostaC
1,3,4.
rispostaD
3,4,5.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
fuel volatility
quantity of heat generated by its combustion The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.
fuel electrical conductivity The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
the anti-knock capability
-1
11 SPAIN
A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor bubble.
The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor. A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.
-1
1 GERMANY 'Fail safe construction' is :
A simple and cheap type of construction.
A type of construction for small aircraft only.
-1
Page 188 of 1247

11 SPAIN The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...
rispostaA
Through the refueling cap of every tank
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
By means of the aircraft By means of the aircraft Through a unique point suction pumps. suction pumps through (an underwing refueling center). a unique point (an underwing refueling center). Hot air system. Pneumatic system with expandable boots. Liquid de-icing system.
9 GERMANY The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the 9 GERMANY During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect 9 GERMANY In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by 9 GERMANY The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is : 9 GERMANY The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works 8 GERMANY A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated .. 3 GERMANY A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by 4 FRANCE The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the:
Electrical de-icing system.
-1
leading edges only.
leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps. ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
the whole upper wing surface and the flaps. the APU.
slats and the leading edge flaps only. bleed air from the engines.
-1
turbo compressors.
-1
Thermal anti-icing.
Fluid de-icing.
Pneumatic boots.
Electrical heating.
-1
pneumatically.
with hot air.
with anti-icing fluid.
electrically.
-1
When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor. fire point
Only at take-off and during approach. checking the sensor with pressurized gas. self ignition point
When there is When entering areas approximately 1,5 cm of with icing conditions. ice on leading edges. heating up the sensor with test power connection. flash point checking the continuity of the system with a test switch. combustion point
-1
-1
-1
Page 189 of 1247

1 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
To change DC into AC.
rispostaC
To change the DC voltage.
rispostaD
To change AC into DC.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The reason for using To avoid a short circuit. inverters in an electrical system is .. A stage in an axial compressor: On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
3 FRANCE
is made of row of stator has a compression is made of a rotor disc blades followed by a ration in the order of 0.8 followed by a row of rotor disc stator blades a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre. a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve. the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre temperature.
has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1 water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
-1
5 FRANCE
-1
5 FRANCE
Compared to a tyre 2-3 fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics : 1 - high heating 2 - valve fragility 3 - lower risk of bursting 4 - better adjustment to wheels The combination containing all the correct statements is:
2-4
1-2-3-4
3-4
-1
3 FRANCE
When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase their efficiency
wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire
avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
allow temperatures to equalise
-1
Page 190 of 1247

5 SWEDEN The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the :
rispostaA
pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi
rispostaB
user breathes in
rispostaC
diluter control is in normal position
rispostaD
user requires 100 percent oxygen
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 FRANCE
The disadvantages of 2-3 axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors are : 1 - expensive to manufacture 2 - limited airflow 3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage 4 - limited compression ratio The combination of correct answers is :
2-4
1-3
1-2
-1
6 FRANCE
On an aeroplane, spoilers are :
upper wing surface lower wing surface upper wing surface devices, their deflection devices, their deflection devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical. is always asymmetrical. is symmetrical or asymmetrical. avoid the bubbles accumulation. feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure. they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries. feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine. they weigh less than lead-acid batteries.
lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical. avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure. their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries. that it does not require a de-icing system
-1
11 SPAIN
The fuel system boost pumps are used to :
-1
1 SPAIN
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because... The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is :
their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous. to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation
-1
4 FRANCE
to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence
to a have greater effectiveness at high speed
-1
Page 191 of 1247

1 SPAIN The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the: In an alternator rotor coil you can find : The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a : The cross-feed fuel system is used to :
rispostaA
induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil. AC. distribution valve.
rispostaB
induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil. Three-phase AC. shutoff valve.
rispostaC
alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies. Only induced current. check valve.
rispostaD
The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 SPAIN 7 SPAIN
DC. flow control valve.
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
11 SPAIN
automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.
feed every engine from any fuel tank.
allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency
allow the unusable fuel elimination. the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses. dielectric change between fuel and air.
-1
10 NETHERL
The correct statement the alcohol de-icing about rain protection for system for cockpit cockpit windshields is windows is also that : suitable for rain protection The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel .. The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the: To cool the pumps.
rain repellent should wipers are sufficient never be sprayed onto under heavy rain the windshield unless conditions to provide the rainfall is very heavy adequate view through the cockpit windows. To prime the pumps. Because their efficiency is greater. electrical resistance change.
-1
11 SPAIN
-1
11 SPAIN
density variation of the fuel.
resistivity variation of the fuel.
-1
Page 192 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1-2
rispostaC
1 - 2 - 3 -4
rispostaD
1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 - 2 -3 The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the battery: 1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory 2 - when there is a battery overheat condition 3 - in case of an internal short circuit 4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :
9 FRANCE
The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit : The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is : A tubeless tyre has : 1- a built-in-air tube. 2- no built-in-air tube. 3- a crossed side casing. 4- a radial side casing. The combination of correct statements is:
outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
outlet and uses an evaporation process.
inlet and uses an evaporation process.
-1
5 FRANCE
locked-down.
in the required position.
locked-down and its door is locked.
not in the required position.
-1
5 FRANCE
2, 3.
1,3.
2, 4.
1, 4.
-1
Page 193 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps "OFF".
rispostaC
impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.
rispostaD
possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps "OFF" and tank 2 pumps "ON".
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
impossible without (For this question use causing the APU stop. annex 021-4008A) Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in annex. In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2). Rebalancing of the two tanks is: An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads 200ft/min. Given that : DELTA P: Differential pressure Zc: Cabin altitude In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.
8 FRANCE
The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.
The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.
DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.
-1
5 FRANCE
an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.
a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.
designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent wheel blocking.
a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.
-1
Page 194 of 1247

8 FRANCE An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310. Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given : VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication Zc: Cabin pressure altitude DELTA P: Differential pressure This will result in a: 1 ICELAND 1 FRANCE Fuses are rated to a value by : Consider the variablepitch propeller of a turbo-prop. During deceleration :
rispostaA
VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P decrease
rispostaB
VZc decrease Zc increase DELTA P decrease
rispostaC
VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P increase
rispostaD
VZc decrease Zc decrease DELTA P increase
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
their wattage. when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power. gaseous.
their resistance measured in ohms. at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil. liquid.
the number of amperes they will carry. when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power. chemical.
the number of volts they will pass. with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power. chemical or gaseous.
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
0 0
5 GERMANY In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state:
-1
Page 195 of 1247

1 FRANCE Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the: 1. normal bending stresses 2. tangent bending stresses 3. torsional moment 4. shear stresses The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 3 FRANCE On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx are: A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when: The purpose of static wick dischargers is to :
rispostaA
2, 3, 4
rispostaB
1, 2, 4
rispostaC
1, 3, 4
rispostaD
1, 2, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
the ribs.
the webs.
the skin.
the spars.
-1
5 FRANCE
the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel. be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
the corresponding the strut is locked by an it is in the down position. indicator lamp is amber. overcentre mechanism. dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of static electricity. shunt wound. dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing. provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
-1
1 ICELAND
-1
1 ICELAND
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during commercial flight.
series wound.
series shunt wound.
compound wound.
-1
5 UNKNOW
490.
410.
300.
250.
-1
Page 196 of 1247

1 ICELAND The output of a generator is controlled by :
rispostaA
varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
rispostaB
the reverse current relay circuit breaker. 3, 4, 5.
rispostaC
varying the field strength. 1, 5.
rispostaD
varying the speed of the engine. 1, 3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 FRANCE
Consider a jet engine 2, 3, 4. whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR): 1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases 2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number 3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing. 4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet 5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
-1
3 FRANCE
An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place:
fully in the rotor.
in the stator and in the rotor.
in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.
fully in the stator.
-1
Page 197 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaC
2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaD
2, 4, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The detection of a 1, 3, 5 feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in: 1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar 2. opening of generator field current relay 3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker 4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators 5. lighting of an indicator lamp The combination of correct statements is: A feeder fault on a voltage coil and the direct current circuit series winding turn. results from a flux unbalance between the: On detection of a the exciter breaker and persistent overvoltage the generator breaker. fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens: When a persistent top the exciter breaker, the excitation limit fault on generator breaker and an AC generator the tie breaker. connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:
1 FRANCE
voltage coil and the series winding.
generator and the series winding turn.
shunt exciter and the series winding turn.
-1
2 FRANCE
the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
The generator breaker and tie breaker.
The generator breaker.
-1
2 FRANCE
the tie breaker.
the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
the generator breaker.
-1
Page 198 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
generator breaker and tie breaker.
rispostaC
exciter breaker and generator breaker.
rispostaD
exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
tie breaker. When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the protection device opens the : When an underspeed exciter breaker. fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the: A DC generator fitted to air tapped from the low a aircraft is cooled by : pressure compressor. A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the expected Flight Level on route ParisAlger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least: 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.
2 FRANCE
exciter breaker and generator breaker.
exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
generator breaker.
-1
1 FRANCE
air via a ram air intake.
water at 8 degrees centrigade from the airconditioning system. no first aid required.
a fan located before the generator. 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.
-1
5 UNKNOW
1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft.
-1
2 FRANCE
On starting, in a the stabilizer winding brushless AC generator jointly with the voltage with no commutator regulator. rings, the generator is activated by:
the auxiliary winding.
a set of permanent magnets.
the main field winding.
-1
Page 199 of 1247

5 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
take-off.
rispostaC
the aircraft reaches FL 100.
rispostaD
the aircraft reaches FL 140.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
As regards passengers the aircraft reaches FL 250. oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before : Landing gear torque links are used to: On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are: 1. low risk of thermal runaway 2. high internal resistance, hence higher power 3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating 4. wider permissible temperature range 5. good storage capability 6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing 7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging. The combination of correct statement is: maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
5 FRANCE
prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut. 3, 4, 6, 7
take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected. 3, 4, 5, 6
prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
Page 200 of 1247

1 FRANCE The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the : The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1. simple connection 2. high starting torque 3. flexibility in use 4. lighter weight of equipment 5. easy to convert into direct current 6. easy maintenance of machines The combination of correct statements is:
rispostaA
mass of fuel relative to the volume of air. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
rispostaB
volume of fuel relative to the volume of air. 1, 4, 6
rispostaC
volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air. 3, 4, 5, 6
rispostaD
real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 FRANCE
-1
11 FRANCE
Fuel pumps submerged centrifugal high in the fuel tanks of a pressure pumps. multi-engine aircraft are: Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when: 1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground 2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions This effect is overcome by means of: 3. the torque link 4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder The combination of correct statements is: 2, 4.
high pressure variable swash plate pumps. 2, 3.
centrifugal low pressure type pumps. 1, 3.
low pressure variable swash plate pumps. 1, 4.
-1
5 FRANCE
-1
Page 201 of 1247

5 FRANCE The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1. idle wheel speed (measured) 2. braked wheel speed (measured) 3. brake temperature (measured) 4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate 5. tire pressure The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 1 FRANCE The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in : (For this question use appendix ) On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked: 5 SPAIN
rispostaA
1, 3.
rispostaB
1, 2, 4.
rispostaC
1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
rispostaD
2, 4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
series with the shunt field coil. 1
series with the armature. 2
parallel with the shunt field coil. 3
parallel with the armature. 4
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
Which is (are) the Springs. damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft ?
Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
Nitrogen.
Oxygen.
-1
Page 202 of 1247

5 SPAIN In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of : A relay is :
rispostaA
A bolt.
rispostaB
A latch located in the landing gear lever.
rispostaC
An aural warning horn.
rispostaD
A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 ICELAND
a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy. A hydraulic pump.
a device which is used to increase electrical power. An accumulator.
a magnetically operated switch. A Pressure regulator.
another name for a solenoid valve. An actuator or jack.
-1
7 SPAIN
The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is called ...
-1
5 GERMANY A diluter demand oxygen regulator : 7 SPAIN The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: A relay is :
mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask. small pressure and large flow. A switch specially designed for AC circuits. The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend. maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
delivers oxygen flow when inhaling. small pressure and small flow. An electrical energy conversion unit. The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.
delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.
is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.
-1
high pressure and large high pressure and flow. small flow. An electromagnetically operated switch. The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract. An electrical security switch. The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract. change the direction of the excitation current.
-1
1 SPAIN
-1
6 SPAIN
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...
-1
1 SPAIN
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will : The function of the selector valve is to:
decrease the intensity increase the intensity of of the excitation current. the excitation current.
-1
7 SPAIN
select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
automatically activate the hydraulic system.
discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.
communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.
-1
Page 203 of 1247

1 FRANCE The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics; The global output of a piston engine is of: (global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced).
rispostaA
12 volt / 40 amp hours
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
0.50
0.75
0.90
0.30
-1
1 FRANCE
For a piston engine, the 1/9 th ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of:
1/10th
1/12th
1/15 th
-1
Page 204 of 1247

5 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
3, 4, 5, 6
rispostaC
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaD
1, 3, 4, 6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Consider the flight deck 2, 3, 4, 5 oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to: 1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system) 2. supply pure oxygen 3. supply diluted oxygen 4. supply oxygen at normal pressure 5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure 6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1 SPAIN
The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are:
directly connected to the battery.
kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.
automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
providing an alternative current.
-1
2 SPAIN
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
pilot must disconnect it, pilot can disconnect it and the generator is not to allow it to cool and available for the rest of use it again. flight.
pilot has to throttle back.
-1
Page 205 of 1247

5 FRANCE (For this question use appendix ) Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams : 2 SPAIN The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is : Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers? In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
rispostaA
1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
rispostaB
1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4dual wheels
rispostaC
1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels
rispostaD
1- half fork 2- fork 3cantilever 4- tandem
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
50 Hz.
60 Hz.
400 Hz.
200 Hz.
-1
6 SPAIN
Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection. The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR.
Angle of attack, flaps Angle of attack and deflection, EPR and N1. flaps and slats deflection. The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels. passengers. The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
-1
5 FRANCE
The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.
-1
5 UNKNOW
A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of :
seats exceeded by 10%. seats.
passengers exceeded by 10%.
-1
Page 206 of 1247

5 UNKNOW A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is : It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if : A Yaw Damper is :
rispostaA
12000 ft.
rispostaB
14000 ft.
rispostaC
15000 ft.
rispostaD
13000 ft.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 ICELAND
1,8 volts.
1,2 volts.
2,2 volts.
1,4 volts.
-1
1 ICELAND
there is heavy corrosion static noises can be on the fuselage skin heard on the radio. mountings. A rudder damper designed to avoid the "Dutch roll". Amperes.hours. An elevator augmentor.
a circuit breaker pops out.
there is interference on the VOR receiver.
-1
6 SPAIN
An elevator augmentor A roll trim tab. to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8. Watts. Ohms.
-1
1 ICELAND
Batteries are rated in :
Amperes/volts.
-1
22
2 FRANCE In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass : The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is the : close to the axis and with a low rotation speed. on the periphery and with a high rotation speed. close to the axis and with a high rotation speed. on the periphery and with a low rotation speed. 0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine block.
average temperature within the whole set of cylinders.
temperature of the exhaust gases.
temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the outside air temperature is between -5 C and 10 C.
-1
Page 207 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,3,4
rispostaC
1,5
rispostaD
3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
A transport airplane 2 has to be equipped with an altitude warning device. This system will warn the crew about : 1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both climb and descent. 2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb only. 3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach. 4 - a wrong landing configuration. 5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected altitude. The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
4 FRANCE
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:
height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
altitude of the aircraft.
height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
-1
Page 208 of 1247

3 FRANCE A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of : 1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS. 2 - dangerous ground proximity. 3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach. 4 - wrong landing configuration. 5 - descent below glidepath, within limits. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
rispostaA
2,5
rispostaB
2,3,4,5
rispostaC
2
rispostaD
1,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 209 of 1247

2 FRANCE The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope: 1 - with one degree of freedom. 2 - with two degrees of freedom 3 - the frame of which is supported by two return springs. 4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis. 5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis. 6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2 FRANCE An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of: The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from :
rispostaA
1-3-4
rispostaB
2-5
rispostaC
1-6
rispostaD
1-3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
18 .
12 .
36 .
30 .
-1
3 FRANCE
30 ft to 5 000 ft
the ground to 500 ft
50 ft to 2 500 ft
the ground to 1 000 ft
-1
1 FRANCE
On a modern aircraft, control panel of the the flight director flight director only. modes are displayed on the:
upper strip of the PFD upper strip of the ND (Primary Flight Display). (Navigation Display).
upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).
-1
Page 210 of 1247

1 FRANCE In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
underreads the altitude. overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.
overreads the altitude in keeps on providing reliable reading in all case of a side-slip to situations the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. by the VMO in still air initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
1 FRANCE
Considering the initially by theVMO, by the MMO maximum operational then by the MMO below Mach number (MMO) a certain flight level and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited : The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to : The purpose of Auto Throttle is: tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature ND (Navigation Display). trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
-1
5 SWEDEN
control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load to synchronize engines to avoid "yawing"
help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed PFD (Primary Flight Display)
-1
7 SWEDEN
-1
7 FRANCE
In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the crew will check the :
throttles position.
-1
1 SWEDEN
Mode "Localizer ARM" Localizer ALARM, Coupling has occurred active on Flight Director making localizer and system provides means: approach not authorized control data to capture the centerline
Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears
System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center line
-1
Page 211 of 1247

2 SWEDEN A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not ; and all other factors being equal... For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the .. Indication of Mach number is obtained from: An Air Data Computer (ADC) :
rispostaA
Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails At high speed the noncompensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude
rispostaB
Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning normally
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Only works of there is a Contains its own complete electrical separate gyro failure ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR At high speed, the noncompensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude
1 SWEDEN
-1
4 SWEDEN
Height indication is removed
DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments
DH lamp flashes red
Audio warning signal sounds
-1
1 SWEDEN
Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroid Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting
A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is blocked Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained
Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct altitude and speed information Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
-1
1 SWEDEN
-1
1 SWEDEN
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from: The Altitude Select System:
The difference between Measurement of absolute and dynamic outside air temperature pressure at the fuselage (OAT)
-1
2 SWEDEN
Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected altitude
-1
Page 212 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,2
rispostaC
1,2,4
rispostaD
1,2,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The indication of a fuel 4 float gauge varies with : 1- aircraft attitude 2- accelerations 3- atmospheric pressure 4- temperature The combination of correct statements is : The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the: In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake : The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a : The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is : time passed at a given altitude. breaking the rate-ofclimb indicator glass window
1 FRANCE
mach number of the aircraft. slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin
aircraft altitude.
static temperature.
-1
1 FRANCE
descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible
calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the instruments
-1
4 FRANCE
serviceable SSR transponder
serviceable weather radar
SELCAL system
DME system
-1
3 FRANCE
a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted
an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter
a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer
-1
Page 213 of 1247

3 FRANCE The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is :
rispostaA
a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer vibration period expressed in seconds
rispostaB
a DC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
rispostaC
an AC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g
rispostaD
an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted vibration frequency expressed in Hz
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
8 FRANCE
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the : The essential components of a flight director are : 1- a computer 2- an automatic pilot 3- an autothrottle 4- command bars The combination of correct statements is :
vibration amplitude at a given frequency
-1
1 FRANCE
2,4
2,3
1,4
1,2
-1
3 FRANCE
The transmitter of RPM 1,2,3 indicator may consist of : 1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage 2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage 3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage 4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage The combination of correct statements is :
1,2,3,4
2,3,4
1,4
-1
Page 214 of 1247

3 FRANCE The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a goaround : The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as : 1- the descent rate 2- the climb rate 3- the aircraft configuration 4- the selected engine rpm The combination of correct statements is : Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second level
rispostaD
DON'T SINK repetitive only
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
WHOOP WHOOP DON'T SINK always PULL UP repetitive only followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
3 FRANCE
2,3
1,3
1,2,4
2,4
-1
4 FRANCE
Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC in horizontal and vertical planes
No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder based on speed control
In one of the system In one of the system modes, the warning : modes, the warning : "TOO LOW TERRAIN" "PULL UP" is generated is generated only in the vertical plane only in the horizontal plane
-1
4 FRANCE
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions : In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give information such as :
-1
4 FRANCE
turn left/turn right
too low terrain
glide slope
climb/descent
-1
Page 215 of 1247

4 FRANCE The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of : Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error : The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively : Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on : According to the JAROPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multiengined aircraft, having been granted an airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998, shall start recording : The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:
rispostaA
F.M.S. (Flight Management System)
rispostaB
air traffic control radar systems
rispostaC
transponders fitted in the aircraft
rispostaD
airborne weather radar system
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 FRANCE
The airspeed, whatever the altitude
The equivalent airspeed, in all cases
The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all cases
The true airspeed
-1
1 FRANCE
(i) static pressure (ii) total pressure
(i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure
(i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - t
(i) total pressure (ii) static pressure
-1
1 FRANCE
temperature and the pressure.
pressure.
density.
temperature.
-1
8 FRANCE
Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the moment when the wheels touch the ground again.
From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until radio shutdown after the flight.
When the pilot selects the "CVR: ON" during engine start until the pilot selects the "CVR: OFF" during the engine shut down.
Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own power until flight completion when the aircraft is no longer able to move under its own power.
-1
1 FRANCE
allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45 intercept angle.
allowing him to return to allowing him to return to a desired path a desired path in an according to a 30 optimal way. intercept angle.
about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis.
-1
Page 216 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
experiencing rightside wind.
rispostaD
experiencing a leftside wind.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
located to the leftside of located to the rightside (For this question use the selected radial. of the selected radial. annex 022-9768A) An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is : The correction of the 1,2. control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the : 1- difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high. 2- rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high. 3- temperature is low. 4- pressure altitude is high. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4.
2 FRANCE
1, 2, 3.
2, 3, 4.
-1
Page 217 of 1247

2 FRANCE The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the : 1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high. 2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high. 3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is high. 4 - variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: 1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 022-9771A) The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" atmosphere is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 3 and 4.
rispostaB
1 and 2.
rispostaC
3 and 4.
rispostaD
1, 2 and 3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
781.85 hPa.
942.13 hPa.
1 013.25 hPa.
644.41 hPa.
-1
Page 218 of 1247

2 FRANCE A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly which always consists of : 1- a directional gyro 2- a vertical axis gyro 3- an earth's magnetic field detector 4- an azimuth control 5- a synchronising control The combination of correct statements is : All the anemometers are calibrated according to:
rispostaA
2,5
rispostaB
1,3,5
rispostaC
2,3,5
rispostaD
1,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 FRANCE
Bernouilli's limited formula which takes into account the air compressibility.
St-Venant's formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid. ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft 332 kt.
Bernouilli's limited formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid. self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft 661 kt.
St-Venant' formula which takes into account the air compressibility. self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft 1059 kt.
-1
4 FRANCE
A radio altimeter can be ground radio aid used defined as a : to measure the true height of the aircraft The velocity of sound at 644 kt. the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is : lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
1 FRANCE
equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
-1
Page 219 of 1247

3 FRANCE The GPWS calculator receives the following signals : 1 - vertical speed 2 - radio altimeter height 3 - pressure altitude 4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps position 6 - angle of attack The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 FRANCE An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot :
rispostaA
2,3,4,6
rispostaB
1,2,4,5
rispostaC
1,3,4,5,6
rispostaD
1,2,5,6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll
ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls the power altitude
and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out
and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the human pilot controls the power heading and to hold the altitude
-1
2 FRANCE
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the: A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate :
heading
heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function
-1
3 FRANCE
a sound alarm or a visual alarm
a sound and visual alarm
a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be
at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added
-1
Page 220 of 1247

8 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1
rispostaC
1,3,4,5
rispostaD
1,2,4,5,6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
According to the JAR1,2,3,4,5,6 OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multiengined aircraft having been granted the airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998 will record: 1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or received by the cockpit crew 2- the audio environment of the cockpit 3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via the interphone 4- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the interphone 5- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the public address system 6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or approach aids The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
Page 221 of 1247

1 FRANCE The QNH is by definition the value of the:
rispostaA
altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location for which it is provided. a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure. underread.
rispostaB
atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.
rispostaC
altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for which it is given. a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure. show the actual height above ground.
rispostaD
atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 FRANCE
A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to :
a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure. be just as correct as before.
a barometic aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure. overread.
-1
1 ICELAND
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will : The basis properties of a gyroscope are : 1. The gyro's weight. 2. The rigidity in space. 3. The inertia. 4. The high RPM. 5. The precession The combination of correct statements is :
-1
2 FRANCE
3,4
2,5
2,3,5
1,3,5
-1
Page 222 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,2,3,4,5,6
rispostaC
2,5,6
rispostaD
1,3,4,6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
The indication of the 1,3,4 directional gyro as an on-board instrument are valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are : 1. The earth's rotation 2. The longitudinal acceleration 3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth. 4. The mechanical defects of the gyro 5. The gyro's weight 6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings The combination of correct statements is : With a constant weight, calibrated airspeed. irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same : During a climb after decreases abruptly take-off from a towards zero contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed : The mach number is the: indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound
1 FRANCE
ground speed.
true airspeed.
equivalent airspeed.
-1
1 FRANCE
increases steadily
increases abruptly towards VNE
decreases stadily
-1
1 FRANCE
equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound (Pt - Ps) to Ps
true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound Pt to Ps
corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound (Pt - Ps) to Pt
-1
1 FRANCE
The principle of the (Pt + Ps) to Ps Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio :
-1
Page 223 of 1247

2 FRANCE The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass system are :
rispostaA
one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
rispostaB
two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
rispostaC
two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an erecting system.
rispostaD
one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 FRANCE
The reading of a Mach the outside temperature the static pressure indicator is independent of : The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS) : The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in : The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are : The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are : The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are : During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) : a compressibility and density correction. an instrument and position/pressure error correction.
the total pressure
the differential pressure measurement and instrument and density correction.
-1
1 FRANCE
an antenna and compressibility correction.
-1
1 FRANCE
true airspeed (TAS).
computed airspeed (COAS). VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. fluctuating speed.
calibrated airspeed (CAS). VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. decreasing speed.
equivalent airspeed (EAS). VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases. constant speed.
-1
1 FRANCE
VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
1 ICELAND
With a pitot probe increasing speed. blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a :
-1
Page 224 of 1247

1 ICELAND At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed : A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on : After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed : The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes : 1- excessive descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure 3- excessive angle of attack 4- too high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off 6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 7- excessive glidepath deviation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
+/-60 feet
rispostaB
+/-75 feet
rispostaC
+/-30 feet
rispostaD
+/-70 feet
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 FRANCE
an artificial horizon
a directional gyro unit
a turn indicator
a gyromagnetic indicator
-1
1 FRANCE
increases steadily
decreases abruptly towards zero
decreases steadily
increases abruptly towards VNE
-1
3 FRANCE
1,2,4,6,7
3,4,5,6
2,3,5,7
1,2,5,6,7
-1
Page 225 of 1247

1 FRANCE The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the: When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a: The density altitude is :
rispostaA
static temperature
rispostaB
Mach number of the aircraft
rispostaC
deformation of the aneroid capsule
rispostaD
aircraft altitude
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
too much nose-up and bank correct
too much nose-up and bank too high
attitude and bank correct
too much nose-up and bank too low
-1
2 FRANCE
too much nose-up and bank too high.
too much nose-up and bank too low.
attitude and bank correct.
too much nose-up and bank correct.
-1
1 FRANCE
in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
in ambiant atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point bimettalic strip
in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point return spring
in ambiant atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps second calibrated port
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
1 FRANCE
the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere
the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard temperature pressure altitude
the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point
the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point
-1
1 FRANCE
On board an aircraft the standard altitude altitude is measured from the:
density altitude
temperature altitude
-1
Page 226 of 1247

2 FRANCE Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with : Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is : The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by : The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: A laser gyro consists of : VLE is the maximum :
rispostaA
two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.
rispostaB
two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
rispostaC
one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
rispostaD
one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 FRANCE
equal to the standard altitude.
lower than the real altitude.
the same as the real altitude.
higher than the real altitude.
-1
6 ICELAND
dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.
dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure. reduce the effect of friction in the linkages 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety speed with flaps extended in a given position. which must never be exceeded with flaps extended in landing position.
multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure. inform the crew of a failure of the instrument a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom speed with flaps extended in a given position cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution. not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
-1
1 FRANCE
allow damping of the reduce the hysteresis measurement in the unit effect two moving cavities provided with mirrors speed authorized in flight a laser generating two light waves flight speed with landing gear down
-1
2 FRANCE 1 FRANCE
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
1 FRANCE
VLO is the maximum :
speed at which the flight speed with landing gear can be landing gear down. operated with full safety. at which the flight controls can be fully deflected which must never be exceeded. with flaps extended in landing position at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
-1
1 FRANCE
VNE is the maximum speed : VNO is the maximum speed :
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
Page 227 of 1247

1 FRANCE The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates : The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are : 1. Position/pressure error correction 2. Hysteresis error correction 3. Remote data transmission capability 4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a failure The combination of correct statements is : 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
- 300 ft/min
rispostaB
- 150 ft/min
rispostaC
- 250 ft/min
rispostaD
- 500 ft/min.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
1,2,3,4
2,3,4
1,2,3
1,3,4
-1
The altitude indicated equal to the standard on board an aircraft altitude. flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is: A failed RMI rose is 225 . locked on 090 and the ADF pointer indicates 225 . The relative bearing to the station is : A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from : a direct reading magnetic compass.
higher than the real altitude.
the same as the real altitude.
lower than the real altitude.
-1
2 UNKNOW
135 .
Impossible to read, due to failure RMI.
315 .
-1
2 ICELAND
the flight director.
the flux valve.
the air-data-computer.
-1
Page 228 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
rispostaC
higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
rispostaD
higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
lower True Airspeed For a constant (TAS) due to a Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, decrease in air density a fall in ambient temperature will result in a: When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will: If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will: decrease
1 UNKNOW
increase at a linear rate
remain constant
increase at an exponential rate
-1
1 UNKNOW
read zero
continue to indicate the under-read speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blocked an induction pick-off device over-read
over-read
-1
1 UNKNOW
continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured
gradually return to zero
-1
1 UNKNOW
The primary factor a sub-scale logarithmic which makes the servo- function assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of: If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a nonpressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to: gradually indicate zero
more effective temperature compensating leaf springs
combination of counters/pointers
-1
1 UNKNOW
under-read
indicate a height continue to display the equivalent to the setting reading at which the on the millibar subscale blockage occured
-1
1 UNKNOW
under-read.
over-read.
over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
-1
Page 229 of 1247

1 UNKNOW The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the : The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies: If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40 C, the local speed of sound is : Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be recorded during at least: The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking outside, to have:
rispostaA
total pressure plus static pressure.
rispostaB
dynamic pressure.
rispostaC
total pressure.
rispostaD
static pressure.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 FRANCE
the total pressure
the static pressure
the total pressure and the static pressure
the dynamic pressure
-1
1 FRANCE
686 kt.
596 kt.
247 kt.
307 kt.
-1
7 UNKNOW
20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.
48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns
-1
1 UNKNOW
a monitoring only during a synthetic view of the Cat III precision instrument procedure. approaches.
a flying and flight path control aid.
a monitoring of engine data.
-1
1 UNKNOW
Flight Director ADI Attitude Display Information supplied by Indicator. an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:
BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.
RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.
HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.
-1
Page 230 of 1247

5 UNKNOW Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) : 1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars. 2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display). 3- the PFD is the main flying instrument. 4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 4 FRANCE The data supplied by a radio altimeter: The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches: 1 operate in the 15401660 MHz range. 2 are of the pulsed type. 3 are of the frequency modulation type. 4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft. 5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft. The combination of the correct statements is :
rispostaA
1, 2.
rispostaB
2, 3.
rispostaC
3, 4.
rispostaD
1, 4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft. 3, 5
concerns only the decision height. 3, 4
is used only by the is used by the radio altimeter indicator. automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode. 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 5
-1
4 FRANCE
-1
Page 231 of 1247

4 UNKNOW In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to: The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as: The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of: The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is: (For this question use annex 022-3880A) The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex. For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the: The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:
rispostaA
change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.
rispostaB
compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables length. barometric error.
rispostaC
account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the reading. instrument error.
rispostaD
place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNKNOW
position pressure error.
hysteresis effect.
-1
8 FRANCE
2 accelerometers.
2 high and low frequency amplifiers.
2 high and low frequency filters.
a frequency converter.
-1
4 FRANCE
2700 MHz to 2900 MHz. 5 GHz.
4200 MHz to 4400 MHz. 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
-1
2 FRANCE
real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).
offset EPSILON at the computer input.
pilot command E.
aircraft response S.
-1
5 FRANCE
engines and alarms.
systems.
piloting.
weather situation.
-1
Page 232 of 1247

4 FRANCE Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
rispostaA
HF (High Frequency).
rispostaB
UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
rispostaC
SHF (Super High Frequency).
rispostaD
VLF (Very Low Frequency).
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 FRANCE
The fields affecting a 1, 2, 4 magnetic compass originate from: 1. magnetic masses 2. ferrous metal masses 3. non ferrous metal masses 4. electrical currents The combination of correct statements is: A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to: When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will: A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical when it is located : The principle of capacity gauges is based on the: 1 degree of freedom.
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4
-1
2 FRANCE
3 degrees of freedom.
2 degrees of freedom.
0 degree of freedom.
-1
2 FRANCE
an exceptional operating range. decrease
a forbidden operating range. increase at a linear rate
a special operating range. remain constant
a normal operating range. increase at an exponential rate
-1
1 UNKNOW
-1
3 FRANCE
reduce the vibration of each engine. on the equator
reduce the rpm of each engine. in the latitude 30
achieve optimum control of on-board voltages. in the latitude 45
set several engines to the same speed. on the North pole
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
5 FRANCE
capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor.
flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.
capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric.
current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.
-1
Page 233 of 1247

3 FRANCE The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is necessary to: While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system: The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros, -one is a roll gyro (noted 1) -one is a pitch gyro (noted 2) -one is a yaw gyro (noted 3) The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
influence of temperature on the indication.
rispostaD
high influence of line resistance on the indication.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
necessity of providing a generation of spurious power supply source. signals at the commutator. a single-wire metal winding.
2 FRANCE
two metal conductors of two metal conductors of a Wheatstone bridge different type the same type connected to a voltage connected at one point. connected at two points. indicator. Determine magnetic or true heading. Re-erect laser gyros.
-1
2 UNKNOW
Position the computing Check operation of trihedron with reference laser gyros. to earth.
-1
2 UNKNOW
without damping and a period of about 84 seconds
with damping and a period of 84 seconds
with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
without damping and a period of about 84 minutes
-1
2 UNKNOW
1C, 2B, 3A
1B, 2A, 3C
1A, 2B, 3C
1B, 2C, 3A
-1
Page 234 of 1247

2 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,2,3,5.
rispostaC
3,4,5.
rispostaD
1,2,4,5.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The indications on a 2,3,5. directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to: 1- rotation of Earth. 2- aeroplane motion on Earth. 3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles. 4- north change. 5- mechanical defects. Chose the combination with true statements only:
1 UNKNOW 2 FRANCE
Machmeter readings are subject to:
temperature error.
setting error. a forbidden operating range. yaw rate of the aircraft
position pressure error an exceptional operating range. pitch rate of the aircraft
density error. a normal operating range. roll rate of the aircraft
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
The yellow sector of the a frequent operating temperature gauge range. corresponds to: At a low bank angle, the angular velocity of the measurement of rate-of- aircraft turn actually consists in measuring the : An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is: an artificial horizon
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
a turn indicator
a fluxgate compass
a directional gyro
-1
8 UNITED KI In an engine vibration directly proportional to monitoring system for a engine speed. turbojet any vibration produced by the engine is :
fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering.
amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator.
inversely proportional to engine speed.
-1
Page 235 of 1247

2 FRANCE When, in flight, the needle of a needle-andball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is: When, in flight, the needle of a needle-andball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is : When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft is : When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is:
rispostaA
turning left with too much bank
rispostaB
turning right with not enough bank
rispostaC
turning right with too much bank
rispostaD
turning left with not enough bank
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
On the ground, during a needle to the left, ball to needle in the middle, left turn, the turn the left ball to the right indicator indicates : pitch axis only. roll and yaw axes only.
needle in the middle, ball to the left pitch roll and yaw axes.
needle to the left, ball to the right pitch and roll axes only.
-1
5 UNITED KI In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally effected about the : 2 FRANCE The rate-of-turn is the:
-1
pitch rate in a turn
change-of-heading rate of the aircraft a feedback control circuit.
yaw rate in a turn an autopilot.
aircraft speed in a turn a servomechanism.
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
2 UNITED KI A closed loop control an amplifier. system in which a small power input controls a much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as :
Page 236 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
high bank angles, in measuring the roll rate independent to the aircraft true airspeed an artificial horizon
rispostaC
low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate proportional to the aircraft weight a turn indicator
rispostaD
low bank angles , in measuring the roll rate inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed a flux gate compass
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
In a Turn-indicator, the high bank angles,in measurement of rate-of- measuring the yaw rate turn consists for : In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is: An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is : proportional to the aircraft true airspeed a directional gyro
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
An airborne instrument, fluxgate compass equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a : At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) : remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
directional gyro
turn indicator
gyromagnetic compass
-1
1 FRANCE
remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases decreases when the altitude increases 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis
decreases when the altitude increases remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis
increases when the altitude increases remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis
-1
1 FRANCE
At a constant calibrated increases when the airspeed (CAS), the altitude increases Mach number : The vertical reference 1 degree of freedom unit of a three-axis data and horizontal spin axis generator is equipped with a gyro with : When an aircraft has too much nose-up and turned 90 degrees with bank correct a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : On the ground, during a needle in the middle, right turn, the turn ball to left indicator indicates :
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
too much nose-up and bank too high
too much nose-up and bank too low
attitude and bank correct
-1
2 FRANCE
needle to the right, ball to left
needle to the right, ball to right
needle in the middle, ball to right
-1
Page 237 of 1247

6 FRANCE An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number : Mach Trim is a device to compensate for :
rispostaA
decreases.
rispostaB
remains constant.
rispostaC
decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.
rispostaD
increases.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 FRANCE
weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise 10%
backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to nose-up 3%
the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal tail 7%
the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach 5%
-1
6 FRANCE
In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory margins between stall and natural buffet. The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm. The required margin related to the stall speed is: The Mach number is :
-1
1 FRANCE
the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes
a direct function of temperature ; it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute temperature the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered
the ratio of the aircraft conventionnal airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered
-1
1 FRANCE
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :
the echos from the the echos of collision ground air traffic control avoidance radar system radar system especially installed on board
-1
Page 238 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
3,1,2
rispostaC
1,2,3
rispostaD
3,2,1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2,1,3 Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or high) Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable : 1- bellows type 2- Bourdon tube type 3- aneroid capsule type The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc) In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the : rating is the minimum usable in cruise
3 FRANCE
propeller efficency is minimum at this rating
propoller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden
rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode
-1
1 FRANCE
The airspeed indicator maximum speed in of a twin-engined operations, or VMO aircraft comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue line corresponds to the :
optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy
speed not to be exceeded, or VNE
minimum control speed, or VMC
-1
5 UNITED KI Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim system :
It only operates above a It operates to pre-determined Mach counteract the larger number. than normal forward movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.
It only operates when It operates over the full the autopilot is engaged. aircraft speed range.
-1
Page 239 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180
rispostaC
is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20
rispostaD
is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
cannot be centered The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to steer of 180 . Your aircraft holds a heading of 160 . The vertical bar of the FD: The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on: pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
4 FRANCE
a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
-1
Page 240 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 and 4.
rispostaC
2, 3 and 5.
rispostaD
1 and 2.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
A landing will be 3, 4 and 5. considered to be performed in the SEMIAUTOMATIC mode when: 1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically. 2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically. 3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare. 4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft. 5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Page 241 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2 and 3.
rispostaC
3.
rispostaD
1 and 3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 and 2. When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to: 1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator 2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator 3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot disengagement The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2 FRANCE
Among the following 1, 3, 4 and 5. functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are: 1- pitch attitude holding 2- horizontal wing holding 3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding 4- altitude holding 5- VOR axis holding 6- yaw damping The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3, 4 and 5.
1, 2, and 6.
1, 2, 3 and 6.
-1
Page 242 of 1247

2 FRANCE Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are: 1- pitch attitude holding 2- horizontal wing holding 3- displayed heading or inertial track holding 4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding 5- yaw damping 6- VOR axis holding The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 6 FRANCE All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) is the most advanced system ; it can be defined as a: The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the:
rispostaA
2, 4, and 5.
rispostaB
1, 2 and 5.
rispostaC
1, 2, 3 and 6.
rispostaD
3, 4, 5 and 6.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
management system optimized in the horizontal plane
global 2-D Flight Management System
global 3-D Flight Management System
management system optimized in the vertical plane
-1
1 FRANCE
speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus temperature
speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus altitude
maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude
maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature
-1
4 NETHERL
The yaw damper, which controls the ailerons, suppresses Dutch roll: with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal.
controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal.
controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.
-1
Page 243 of 1247

2 UNITED KI In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a : 2 FRANCE The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place :
rispostaA
thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.
rispostaB
wheatstone bridge circuit.
rispostaC
ratiometer circuit.
rispostaD
bourdon tube.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
according to an interception versus radio deviation law
according to an interception versus range and angular read a little low.
at a constant heading
at a constant magnetic course react like an altimeter.
-1
1 FRANCE
A pitot blockage of both read a little high. the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to : The heading reference 2 degrees of freedom unit of a three-axis data and horizontal spin axis generator is equipped with a gyro with: In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : Following 180 stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates : VFE is the maximum speed : a heading fluctuating about 090 .
freeze at zero.
-1
2 FRANCE
2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis
1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis
1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis
-1
3 FRANCE
an apparent turn to the South.
an apparent turn to the North.
a constant heading.
-1
2 FRANCE
too high pitch-up and too low banking
too high pitch-up and correct banking
attitude and banking correct
too high pitch up and too high banking
-1
1 FRANCE 2 FRANCE 2 FRANCE
at which the flaps can be operated.
with the flaps extended in take-off position. causes the heading indicator to precess erector system.
with the flaps extended in a given position. feeds the error detector system heading indicator.
with the flaps extended in landing position. is fed by the flux valve amplifier.
0 -1 -1
0 0 0
-1 0 0
0 0 0
The gyromagnetic causes the directional compass torque motor : gyro unit to precess The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the: error detector.
Page 244 of 1247

2 FRANCE The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device originates from the: During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
flux valve.
rispostaD
directional gyro unit.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
directional gyro erection error detector. device.
3 FRANCE
an apparent turn to the East.
an apparent turn to the West.
a heading fluctuating about 180 .
no apparent turn.
-1
1 FRANCE
A pitot tube covered by airspeed indicator, ice which blocks the altimeter and vertical ram air inlet will affect speed indicator. the following instrument (s) : In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon: no apparent turn.
airspeed indicator only.
altimeter only.
vertical speed indicator only.
-1
3 FRANCE
-1
4 UNKNOW
a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.
a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen.
a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured.
-1
Page 245 of 1247

1 FRANCE Given : - Ts the static temperature (SAT) - Tt the total temperature (TAT) - Kr the recovery coefficient - M the Mach number The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula : The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the : A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in 1. An inertial attitude unit 2. An automatic pilot 3. A stabilizing servo system 4. An inertial navigation system 5. A rate-of-turn indicator The combination of correct statements is :
rispostaA
Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M)
rispostaB
Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M)
rispostaC
Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M)
rispostaD
Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
4 FRANCE
weather radar.
primary radar.
radio altimeter.
high altitude radio altimeter.
-1
2 FRANCE
1,4.
1,2,3,4,5.
2,3,5.
2,3,4.
-1
Page 246 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2,4.
rispostaC
1,3.
rispostaD
1,2.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Under normal operating 3,4. conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument ; when it is associated with an attitude indicator it indicates : 1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis 2. The bank of the aircraft 3. The direction of the aircraft turn 4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical The combination of correct statements is :
2 FRANCE
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of : The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds : The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15 /hour :
a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft a torque motor on the sensitive axis in the latitude 30
an apparent weight and an apparent vertical 2 torque motors arranged horizontally in the latitude 45
too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring a levelling erection torque motor on the equator
the aircraft's track over the earth a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring on the North pole
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
Page 247 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
during ground roll.
rispostaC
during the flare.
rispostaD
at the decision height.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
at the outer marker. Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the autopilot and the autothrottle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew : A pilot wishes to turn 355 left on to a northerly heading with 10 ba nk at a latitude of 50 North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of : A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures : If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably; The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft: Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro : The total air temperature (TAT) is always : fuel pressure leaving the carburettor. leak in pressure gauge line.
3 FRANCE
330
015
030
-1
1 NETHERL
vacuum in the carburettor. too high float level.
absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve. fuel of too low volatility.
absolute airpressure entering the carburettor. ice in induction system.
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
4 NETHERL
passes over the outer marker.
descends below a preset barometric altitude.
passes over the ILS inner marker.
descends below a preset radio altitude.
-1
2 FRANCE
consumes a lot of power has a longer life cycle
is influenced by temperature higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
has a fairly long starting cycle lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
-1
2 FRANCE
higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).
higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).
-1
Page 248 of 1247

3 FRANCE The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a : The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a: During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
rispostaA
compass swinging curve
rispostaB
map showing the isogonal lines
rispostaC
map showing the isoclinic lines
rispostaD
deviation correction curve
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 FRANCE
deviation correction curve
map showing the isogonic lines
compass swinging curve
map showing the isoclinic lines
-1
3 FRANCE
an apparent turn to the East.
an apparent turn to the West.
no apparent turn.
-1
3 FRANCE
A pilot wishes to turn 010 right on to a northerly heading with 20 ba nk at a latitude of 40 North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on to an approximate heading of : The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the: yaw damper action on the rudder
330
350
030
-1
4 FRANCE
rudder displacement by the rudder pedals
yaw damper action only on the ground
rudder position
-1
3 FRANCE
A pilot wishes to turn 190 left on to a southerly heading with 20 ba nk at a latitude of 20 North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :
160
200
170
-1
Page 249 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
170
rispostaC
190
rispostaD
210
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
150 A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20 ba nk at a latitude of 20 North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of : Given : M is the Mach number Ts is the static temperature Tt is the total temperature The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure : The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of : The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by using : In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M)
2 FRANCE
Ts = Tt.(0.2. M)
Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M)
Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M)
-1
1 FRANCE 3 FRANCE
a flow rate. the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field magnetized needles
pressure. the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces soft iron pieces
temperature. the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field hard iron pieces
quantity. the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron pieces pairs of permanent magnets
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
3 FRANCE
-1
3 FRANCE
no apparent turn.
-1
3 FRANCE
no apparent turn.
-1
Page 250 of 1247

3 FRANCE The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass : An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed: Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors: A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction" and the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of the: The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that it: The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined powerplant is:
rispostaA
on any heading
rispostaB
on a given heading
rispostaC
at any latitude
rispostaD
at a given latitude
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
6 FRANCE
decreases.
increases if the static remains constant. temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.
increases.
-1
3 FRANCE
in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading cold junction is maintained constant.
due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headings hot junction is maintained constant.
due to Schler type oscillations
of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose hot junction is maintained at 15 C.
-1
2 FRANCE
cold junction is maintained at 15 C.
-1
2 FRANCE
is simple.
can operate without an electrical power supply.
is very accurate.
carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage. an aneroid capsule.
-1
1 FRANCE
a differential capsule.
a Bourdon tube.
a bellows sensor.
-1
Page 251 of 1247

1 FRANCE The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is: A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:
rispostaA
an aneroid capsule.
rispostaB
a bellows sensor.
rispostaC
a Bourdon tube.
rispostaD
a differential capsule.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 FRANCE
the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes. 1, 2 and 3.
the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only. 3 and 4.
the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only. 1 and 3.
a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
-1
4 FRANCE
The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of: 1- a specific dedicated screen 2- a screen combined with the weather radar 3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA) 4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3 and 4.
-1
Page 252 of 1247

6 FRANCE The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying with: 1- the angular position of a wind vane 2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and the path calculated by the inertial unit 3- a probe differential pressure depending on the variation of the angle of attack The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 6 FRANCE The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane receives information about the: 1- angle of attack 2- engine R.P.M. 3- configuration 4- pitch and bank attitude 5- sideslip The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 2 and 3.
rispostaB
1.
rispostaC
2 and 3.
rispostaD
1 and 3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1, 2, 3 and 4.
1 and 3.
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
1 and 5.
-1
Page 253 of 1247

3 FRANCE A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of: 1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain 2- a dangerous proximity to the ground 3- a loss of altitude following take-off or goaround 4- an abnormal flight attitude 5- an abnormal landing configuration 6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
rispostaC
1,2 and 4.
rispostaD
3, 4, 5 and 6.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 254 of 1247

2 FRANCE The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by: 1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number 2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number 3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode 4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding mode The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
2 and 4.
rispostaB
1 and 3.
rispostaC
2 and 3.
rispostaD
1 and 4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Page 255 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2 and 3.
rispostaC
1, 2 and 5.
rispostaD
1, 4 and 5.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
When an automatic 1, 3 and 4. landing is interrupted by a go-around : 1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Takeoff/Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust 2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane 3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag 4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane 5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Page 256 of 1247

5 FRANCE The advantages of an electric float gauge are: 1- ease of manufacture 2- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a ratiometer 3- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a galvanometer 4- independence of the indication relative to temperature variations The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 6 FRANCE An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed: The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 4
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaC
1, 3, 4
rispostaD
2, 3, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
increases.
decreases.
decreases if the outside remains constant. temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.
-1
5 FRANCE
twice that of air and varies directly with density.
the same as that of air and varies directly with density.
twice that of air and varies inversely with density.
the same as that of air and varies inversely with density.
-1
Page 257 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2, 3 and 5.
rispostaC
1 and 4.
rispostaD
3, 4 and 5.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
A landing will be 1 and 2. considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when: 1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically. 2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically. 3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare. 4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft. 5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Page 258 of 1247

2 FRANCE In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with : 1- resistance thermometers 2- thermocouple thermometers 3- reactance thermometers 4- capacitance thermometers 5- mercury thermometers The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 FRANCE An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory: (For this question use annex 022-10217A) After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram N 1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and :
rispostaA
1, 3, 4, 5
rispostaB
1, 2, 5
rispostaC
2, 3
rispostaD
1, 2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.
on multipilot airplanes.
for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.
on airplanes over 5.7 t.
-1
1 FRANCE
increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.
decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.
increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
-1
Page 259 of 1247

1 FRANCE The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an: The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a transport airplane has the following mode(s) : 1- capture and holding of speeds 2- capture and holding of Mach number 3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack 4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio) 5- capture and holding of flight paths The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 FRANCE From a flight mechanics point of view, the "guidance" functions of a transport airplane autopilot consist in: The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of :
rispostaA
HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)
rispostaB
RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)
rispostaC
ILS (Instrument Landing System)
rispostaD
ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
7 FRANCE
1, 2, 4
1, 2, 3, 5
2, 4
1, 4, 5
-1
stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.
monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space (path). stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.
stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.
monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space (path). monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.
-1
2 FRANCE
guiding the airplane path.
stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.
-1
Page 260 of 1247

2 FRANCE A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will : If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate: During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the :
rispostaA
restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.
rispostaB
maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
rispostaC
roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.
rispostaD
maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 FRANCE
a mass equal to the a mass of water mass of a same volume different from zero, but of fuel. inaccurate. altimeter. radio altimeter.
the exact mass of water a mass equal to zero. contained in the tanks.
-1
2 FRANCE
GPS (Global Positioning System).
encoding altimeter.
-1
5 FRANCE
The purpose of an rudder(s) airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of the : Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last : 10 hours.
elevator(s) and rudder(s)
elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
elevator(s)
-1
7 FRANCE
30 minutes.
60 minutes.
25 hours.
-1
6 FRANCE
An airplane is in steady remains constant. descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:
decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if above.
increases.
decreases.
-1
Page 261 of 1247

6 FRANCE The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes: 1- an angle of attack sensor 2- a computer 3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer 4- an independent pitot probe 5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
1, 4.
rispostaB
1, 2, 4, 5.
rispostaC
1, 2, 5.
rispostaD
1, 2, 4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Alarms are flashing red standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour: An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars), heading 270 , in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360 , is selected the vertical trend bar : deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10 off the new selected heading.
amber
red
green
-1
1 FRANCE
deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director.
deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading 360 .
disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.
-1
2 FRANCE
An automatic pilot is a piloting from take-off to system which can landing without any ensure the functions of: action from the human pilot.
piloting and guidance of piloting only. an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planes.
navigation.
-1
Page 262 of 1247

2 FRANCE When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables :
rispostaA
a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.
rispostaB
all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course lines. by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer control panel.
rispostaC
aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic trim. automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm.
rispostaD
aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
On an autopilot coupled by the pilot pushing a approach, GO button located on the AROUND mode is throttles. engaged:
if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the radio altimeter at a higher speed than the one selected. total pressure total pressure
-1
1 FRANCE 1 FRANCE
The altimeter is fed by : differential pressure The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by : An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number : An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed : An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature increases, the Mach number : differential pressure
static pressure static pressure
dynamic pressure dynamic pressure
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
6 FRANCE
increases if the static decreases. temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher.
increases.
remains constant.
-1
6 FRANCE
decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.
decreases.
increases.
remains constant.
-1
6 FRANCE
decreases.
decreases if the outside remains constant. temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if lower.
increases.
-1
Page 263 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
fuel pressure gauge.
rispostaC
oil thermometer.
rispostaD
manifold pressure gauge.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
oil pressure gauge. Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the : If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning "DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because : The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that: The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are: 1- Air Data Computer (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter 3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope) 4- NAV/VOR 5- Flap (position) 6- Angle of Attack 7- Landing Gear (position) The combination of correct statement is: the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected.
3 FRANCE
during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude.
the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retracted.
at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent.
-1
2 FRANCE
these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than that of the cold source.
these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than that of the cold source.
contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different metals.
these metals are not the same as those constituting the thermocouple.
-1
3 FRANCE
1,2,5,6,7
1,2,3,5,7
2,3,4,5,7
1,2,5,6,7
-1
Page 264 of 1247

2 FRANCE In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display devices, the following fundamental elements : 1- Airflow valve 2- Sensors 3- Comparators 4- Computers 5- Amplifiers 6- Servo-actuators The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 8 FRANCE The voice recorder records on four different channels the following information: 1- aural warnings 2- radio communications 3- conversations between the crew members through the cockpit interphone 4- announcements to the passengers The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 6 FRANCE The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears in the form of:
rispostaA
1, 3, 4, 6
rispostaB
1, 2, 6
rispostaC
2, 3, 4, 5, 6
rispostaD
2, 3, 4, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1, 2, 3, 4.
1, 3.
1, 4.
1, 2, 3.
-1
control stick vibrations simulating natural buffeting.
an orange light on the warning display.
a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated buffeting.
a bell type warning.
-1
Page 265 of 1247

2 FRANCE The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when: 1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply 2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off 3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel 4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unit The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 10 FRANCE In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management system: 1- releases an aural warning 2- lights up the appropriate pushbuttons on the overhead panel 3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display 4- processes the failure automatically The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 4.
rispostaB
2, 3, 4.
rispostaC
1, 3, 4.
rispostaD
1, 2, 3, 4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1, 2.
1, 2, 3.
1, 3, 4.
3, 4.
-1
Page 266 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2, 3.
rispostaC
1, 2.
rispostaD
1, 3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The disadvantages of a 2. single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are: 1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator 2- the importance of line resistance on the information value 3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer information The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3 FRANCE
The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are: 1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator 2- the importance of line resistance on the information value 3- the independence of the information in relation to the airborne electrical power supply 4- the ease of transmission of the information The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3.
1, 2, 3, 4.
2, 3, 4.
2, 4.
-1
Page 267 of 1247

3 FRANCE The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are: 1- easy transmission of the information. 2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical power supply. 3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2 FRANCE
rispostaA
2, 3.
rispostaB
1, 3.
rispostaC
1, 2.
rispostaD
1, 2, 3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The purpose of the airplane altitude is altitude alert system is equal to the decision to generate a visual and altitude. aural warning to the pilot when the:
proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.
altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.
airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.
-1
Page 268 of 1247

6 FRANCE The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal indicating: 1- the angular position of a wind vane 2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the angle of attack 3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the speed The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 5 FRANCE The purpose of the automatic trim is to: 1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator 2- ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged 3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 3.
rispostaB
1, 2.
rispostaC
1, 2, 3.
rispostaD
2, 3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1, 3.
2, 3.
1, 2, 3.
1, 2.
-1
Page 269 of 1247

3 FRANCE The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are: 1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance 2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power supply 3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations 4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a single transmitter The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 4 FRANCE When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel :
rispostaA
the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator. 1, 3, 4.
rispostaB
the rotor of a threephase A.C. generator. 1, 2, 3, 4.
rispostaC
a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet. 2, 3, 4.
rispostaD
a circular magnet with four poles. 1, 2, 4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 FRANCE
-1
temperature.
pressure.
dielectrical constant.
density.
-1
Page 270 of 1247

3 FRANCE If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals : The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases : 1- excessive rate of descent 2- excessive ground proximity rate 3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around 4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 5- excessive deviation under the glidepath 6- abnormal airbrakes configuration The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 FRANCE The flight director indicates the :
rispostaA
"DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"
rispostaB
"TERRAIN, TERRAIN" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)
rispostaC
"TOO LOW, TERRAIN" (twice) followed by "TOO LOW GEAR" (twice)
rispostaD
"SINK RATE, SINK RATE" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 FRANCE
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2, 4, 5, 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
3, 4, 5, 6
-1
optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial.
path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.
path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance.
optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.
-1
Page 271 of 1247

2 FRANCE In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two autopilots, the system is considered: In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is considered: When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is considered: The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the : The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are: The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators: The capacity fuel gauges provide information: The float type fuel gauges provide information on:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
"fail survival" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
rispostaD
"fail hard" or without failure effect and disconnection.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
"fail soft" with "fail passive" or without minimized failure effect. failure effect but with disconnection.
2 FRANCE
"fail survival" or without failure effect with function always ensured. "fail survival" or without failure effect with function always ensured. combustion chamber outlet.
"fail soft" or with "fail passive" or without minimized failure effect. failure effect but with disconnection. "fail safe" with failure effect without disconnection.
"fail hard" or with failure effect and disconnection.
-1
2 FRANCE
"fail soft" or with "fail passive" or without minimized failure effect. failure effect but with disconnection.
-1
2 FRANCE
combustion chamber intake.
high pressure chamber intake.
high pressure turbine outlet.
-1
2 FRANCE
thermocouples.
based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.
based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature. moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at the maximum value that has been reached. which is independent of the temperature of the fuel. volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
capacitors whose capacity varies proportionnally with temperature. shows the limit value not to be exceeded.
-1
3 FRANCE
allows the display of the shows the vibration parameter value to be level of the engine adopted during take-off. under consideration.
-1
5 FRANCE
on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel. mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel. mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
which varies with the temperature of the fuel.
-1
5 FRANCE
volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
-1
Page 272 of 1247

4 FRANCE A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by : A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a : An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying : The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions : 1- pitch attitude hold 2- pressure altitude hold 3- horizontal wing hold 4- heading hold The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 4 FRANCE On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory":
rispostaA
a blue or white full lozenge.
rispostaB
a red full square.
rispostaC
a blue or white empty lozenge.
rispostaD
an orange full circle.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 FRANCE
blue or white empty lozenge.
red full circle.
red full square.
blue or white full lozenge.
-1
4 FRANCE
a red full square.
a yellow full circle.
a blue or white empty lozenge.
a blue or white full lozenge.
-1
2 FRANCE
1, 4
1, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
-1
asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
which does not require asking the pilot to any action from the pilot modify the heading of but on the contrary his aircraft. asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rate.
asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
-1
Page 273 of 1247

6 FRANCE The stick shaker calculator receives the following informations : 1- mass of the airplane 2- angle of attack 3- wing flap deflection 4- position of the landing gear 5- total air temperature 6- pressure altitude The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 4 FRANCE
rispostaA
2, 3
rispostaB
2, 3, 5
rispostaC
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaD
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
When the intruding "traffic advisory", aircraft is equipped with vertical and horizontal a serviceable mode C "resolution advisory". transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a : When the intruding "traffic advisory" and aircraft is equipped with horizontal "resolution a transponder without advisory". altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a :
"traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
"traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
"traffic advisory" only.
-1
4 FRANCE
"traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
"traffic advisory" only.
"traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
-1
Page 274 of 1247

6 FRANCE The stall warning system receives information about the : 1- airplane angle of attack 2- airplane speed 3- airplane bank angle 4- airplane configuration 5- load factor on the airplane The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 4 FRANCE The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information : 1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder 2- from the radioaltimeter 3- specific to the airplane configuration 4- from the inertial units The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaB
2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaC
1, 3, 5
rispostaD
1, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1, 2, 4
1, 2
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
-1
Page 275 of 1247

4 FRANCE The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides : 1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory) 2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 4- ground proximity warning The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 4 FRANCE The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides : 1- traffic information 2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 4- ground proximity warning The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 3
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaC
1, 3
rispostaD
1, 2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2
-1
Page 276 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use appendix ) The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is: 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
2
rispostaB
3
rispostaC
4
rispostaD
1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
In a steep turn, the equal to 180 on a 090 none on a 270 heading none on a 090 heading equal to 180 on a 270 northerly turning error heading in a right turn. in a left turn. in a right turn. heading in a right turn. on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is: The position of a Flight indicates the repeats the ADI and Director command bars: manoeuvers to execute, HSI information to achieve or maintain a flight situation. The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of: A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially measures: The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the : On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory": compass north and the lubber line. compass north and magnetic north. enables the measurement of deviation from a given position. only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
3 FRANCE
compass north and true true north and magnetic north. north.
-1
4 FRANCE
volumetric flow by a tally of the impulses
mass flow by a tally of the impulses
volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed the variation in capacity of a condensor with the nature of the dielectric erecting system.
mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed the current variation in a Wheastone bridge
-1
5 FRANCE
the variation of capacity the variation of flow and by volumetric torque exercised in a measurement supply line exercised on the sensor amplifier. error detector.
-1
2 FRANCE
heading indicator.
-1
4 FRANCE
that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate.
asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
-1
Page 277 of 1247

5 FRANCE In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, generally, the fuel quantity is measured by "capacitor" gauges because these give : 1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature variations 2- indications almost independent of the airplane's attitude and accelerations 3- indications expressed in density The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 6 FRANCE
rispostaA
1, 3
rispostaB
1, 2
rispostaC
1, 2, 3
rispostaD
2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
An aeroplane is in decreases. steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature decreases, the Mach number : The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as the relationship between the : The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when the: computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.
increases if the outside remains constant. temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.
increases.
-1
2 FRANCE
input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control deflection signals. airplane clears the runway.
crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane).
computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.
-1
7 FRANCE
landing gear is extended and locked.
airplane cannot any longer move by its own power.
main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway.
-1
Page 278 of 1247

7 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
before the airplane is able to move by under its own power. 1
rispostaC
when taking-off.
rispostaD
when the landing gear is retracted. 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The flight data recorder when lining up. must start data recording automatically: The requirement to 1, 3 carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity : 1- turboprop-powered 2- piston-powered 3- jet-powered The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
3 FRANCE
1, 2, 3
-1
1 FRANCE
For this question use annex (022-10179A) Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is number :
-1
Page 279 of 1247

2 FRANCE An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the crew : 1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude 2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast 3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least by an aural warning) 4- in case of excessive vertical speed 5- when approaching the ground with the gear retracted The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 FRANCE
rispostaA
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaB
2, 4, 5
rispostaC
1, 3, 4
rispostaD
1, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
When an aircraft, remains always operating in the VOR coupled to the selected coupled mode, VOR radial. approaches the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot : A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and autothrottle ensure good performance from the final approach : The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures the : until the flare.
is temporarily disconnected.
temporarily switches over to the heading mode.
is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.
-1
2 FRANCE
until reaching decision height.
during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete stop.
until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically disconnected. "total" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static temperature.
-1
2 FRANCE
"static" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total temperature.
"total" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the static temperature.
"static" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total temperature.
-1
Page 280 of 1247

2 FRANCE A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically: An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL...." An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called "FAIL...: During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the:
rispostaA
on ground.
rispostaB
when going around.
rispostaC
at approximately 100 ft.
rispostaD
at the decision height.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
"OPERATIONAL"
"SAFE"
"REDUNDANT"
"PASSIVE"
-1
2 FRANCE
"REDUNDANT"
"OPERATIONAL"
"PASSIVE"
"SAFE"
-1
2 FRANCE
autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height.
glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landing.
autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter height.
Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until landing.
-1
Page 281 of 1247

6 FRANCE A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions : 1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring) 2- automatic starting sequence 3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments 4- thrust management and protection of operation limits 5- monitoring of the thrust reversers The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 5 FRANCE The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel in a transport airplane equipped with "capacitor" gauges is that the: The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to:
rispostaA
1, 3, 4, 5
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaC
2, 4, 5
rispostaD
1, 3, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.
capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its plates.
electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.
capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.
-1
5 FRANCE
reset the attitude, after set the attitude to an engaging (the autopilot). instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.
automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.
transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.
-1
Page 282 of 1247

7 FRANCE The autothrottle : 1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM 2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM 3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS) 4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilot The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 0 FRANCE When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the: The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes: 1. a microphone 2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards 3. an independent battery 4. a flight data recorder The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1 and 3
rispostaB
2 and 3
rispostaC
1 and 4
rispostaD
1, 3 and 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
true airspeed (TAS) is indicated airspeed maintained constant by (IAS) is maintained the auto-throttle system. constant by the autothrottle system.
indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
-1
8 FRANCE
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 4
1, 2
1, 4
-1
Page 283 of 1247

3 FRANCE The operating principle of the "induction" type of tachometer is to measure the: The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system : 1- enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement 2- enables the cancellation of rudder control signals 3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement 4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3 FRANCE The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure the:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator. 2, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
magnetic field electromotive force frequency of the (EMF) produced by a electric impulse created produced by a dynamo or an alternator. dynamo or an alternator. by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field. 3, 4 2, 4 1, 4
2 FRANCE
-1
rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
frequency of the electromotive force electric impulse created (EMF) produced by a by a notched wheel dynamo or an alternator. rotating in a magnetic field.
-1
Page 284 of 1247

3 FRANCE In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator : 1- the transmitter is a direct current generator 2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer 5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometer The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 6 FRANCE The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:
rispostaA
3, 5
rispostaB
1, 2
rispostaC
2, 5
rispostaD
1, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.
fan rotation speed (or high pressure turbine N1) or the EPR (Engine rotation speed or the Pressure Ratio). EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.
-1
Page 285 of 1247

8 FRANCE A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record : 1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew 2. the conversations between the crew members and voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio 3. the announcements made via the public address even if it has not been selected 4. the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit 5. the captain conversations only The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
rispostaA
1, 5
rispostaB
2, 4
rispostaC
3, 4
rispostaD
1, 2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 286 of 1247

5 FRANCE The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 1- easy construction 2- independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude 3- independence of indications with regard to the accelerations 4- independence of indications with regard to temperature variations 5- independence of indications with regard to vibrations The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaC
2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaD
2, 3, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 287 of 1247

5 FRANCE The disavantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 1- the design is complex 2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations 3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations 4- the indications are influenced by temperature variations 5- that an alternative current supply is necessary The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 FRANCE In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input :
rispostaA
1
rispostaB
2, 3, 4
rispostaC
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaD
2, 3, 4, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current heading but not exceeding a given value.
of a fixed value equal to of a fixed value equal to 27 . 20 .
proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value.
-1
Page 288 of 1247

3 FRANCE The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs defined by attitude control laws such as : 1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources 2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability 3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed 4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2 FRANCE A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon : 1 : bank angle 2 : aeroplane speed 3 : aeroplane weight The combination regrouping the correct statements is :
rispostaA
1, 3, 4
rispostaB
1, 2, 3
rispostaC
2, 3
rispostaD
1, 2, 3, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1, 2, and 3.
1 and 2.
1 and 3.
2 and 3.
-1
Page 289 of 1247

3 FRANCE Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible : A thermocouple can be made of: The flight data recorders must preserve the conversation and aural warnings of the last : A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. 1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars 2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz) 3- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a directional gyro 4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis 5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5% Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
rispostaA
acceleration.
rispostaB
deviation.
rispostaC
variation.
rispostaD
regulation.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
a three wire coil.
a single wire coil.
two metal conductors of two metal conductors of different nature fixed the same nature fixed together at two points. together at two points. flight
-1
8 FRANCE
48 hours of operation
30 minutes of operation 25 hours of operation
-1
3 FRANCE
2-3-5
1-3-4-5
3-5
1-4-5
-1
Page 290 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045 .
rispostaC
is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably above 045 .
rispostaD
will be nul if the wings are kept level.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
An aircraft takes-off on will be nul a runway with an alignment of 045 . The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0 . The compass deviation is O . On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error: During an acceleration nose-down attitude phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a : To permit turbine exit gas pressure temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle: The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle of these sensors is to measure the : Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at : di-electric resistivity of the fuel
2 FRANCE
constant attitude
nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude
nose-up attitude
-1
2 FRANCE
thermocouple
bi-metallic strip
liquid expansion
-1
5 FRANCE
height of the fuel
volume of the fuel
charge of condensors
-1
2 FRANCE
2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis
1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis
2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
-1
Page 291 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
7.5 /hour to the right.
rispostaC
7.5 /hour to the left.
rispostaD
10.5 /hour to the right.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
15 /hour to the right. Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45 N, this reference turns by... A "Bourdon Tube" is used in: When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic compass tends to "undershoot;" when turning onto a southerly heading it tends to "overshoot": 1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere. 2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south. 3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the compass. 4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass. The correct statements are : pressure sensors 2, 3, and 4.
1 FRANCE 3 FRANCE
vibration detectors 1 and 3.
smoke detectors 2 and 3.
turbine temperature probes 1, 2, and 4.
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
Page 292 of 1247

1 FRANCE The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change of: (Use the appendix to answer this question) The diagram which shows a 40 left bank and 15 nose down attitude is n 2 FRANCE The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft. This error... A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on : The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from: The static air temperature (SAT) is : On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator enables :
rispostaA
Kinetic pressure
rispostaB
Static pressure
rispostaC
Dynamic pressure
rispostaD
Total pressure
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
-1
is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track
shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15 per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere a directional gyro.
is dependent on the is, in spite of this, ground speed of the insignificant and may aircraft, its true track be neglected and the average latitude of the flight
-1
2 FRANCE
an artificial horizon.
a turn indicator.
a gyromagnetic compass. 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter. a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin
-1
3 FRANCE
50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter. an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius control of power.
50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin selection of engine RPM.
0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
3 FRANCE
on a twin-engine control of the propeller aeroplane, automatic regulator and the engine synchronisation. display of propeller RPM.
-1
Page 293 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 022-11232A) After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram N 1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must : The operating principle of Flowmeters, or "unit flow meters," the most commonly used at the present time, is to measure across their system the :
rispostaA
increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
rispostaB
increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
rispostaC
decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
rispostaD
decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 FRANCE
quantity of fuel movement
pressure and temperature of the fuel
volumetric mass and di- volume and viscosity of electric resistance of the fuel the fuel
-1
2 FRANCE
The maximum 180 /hour directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is: An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold," the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the: aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter corrected to standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa
5 /hour
15 /hour
90 /hour
-1
2 FRANCE
aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter
mode altitude hold will disengage
aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the static source
-1
Page 294 of 1247

2 FRANCE A directional gyro is: 1- a gyroscope free around two axis 2- a gyroscope free around one axis 3- capable of selforientation around an earth-tied direction 4- incapable of selforientation around an earth-tied direction The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: 2 FRANCE In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronisation : Torque can be determined by measuring the : The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are : 1- Mach Meter indication 2- Angle of Attack 3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS) 4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
rispostaA
1-4
rispostaB
2-4
rispostaC
2-3
rispostaD
1-3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged. oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearbox. 1,4
is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged. frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft. 2,4
intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.
-1
6 FRANCE
phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft. 1,2
quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft. 2,3
-1
6 FRANCE
-1
Page 295 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1-2-5
rispostaC
1-2-3-5
rispostaD
3-5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2-3-4 The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of : 1- vertical speed 2- altitude 3- attitude 4- bank 5- heading The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :
7 FRANCE
In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data recorder is to be located in the aircraft :
at the right or left wing tip
as far to the rear as practicable
as far forward as practicable
as near to the landing gear as practicable
-1
2 FRANCE
For an aircraft flying a depends only on the true track of 360 aircraft's ground speed between the 005 S and 005 N parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to: When the auto-pilot is relieve the pressure on engaged; the role of the the control column and automatic trim is to: return, the aircraft intrim at A.P. disconnect
0 /hour
+5 /hour
-5 /hour
-1
2 FRANCE
react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode
synchronize the longitudinal loop
relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
-1
Page 296 of 1247

1 FRANCE For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight director computer takes into account: 1- track deviation 2- rate of track closure 3- rate of change of track closure 4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 6 FRANCE A stall warning system is based on a measure of :
rispostaA
1,2,4
rispostaB
2,3,4
rispostaC
1,3,4
rispostaD
1,2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
groundspeed.
aerodynamic incidence. airspeed.
attitude.
-1
31
Page 297 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
35.5 %.
rispostaC
27.5 %.
rispostaD
16.9 %.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 30.4 %. annex 031-1580A) A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero reference point. At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point. The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to: Assume: Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kg Centre of gravity at station: 115.8 What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120? Station 117.69
3 EAAPS
Station 118.33
Station 120.22
Station 118.25
-1
Page 298 of 1247

2 EAAPS The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line. What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit? (For this question use annex 031-1581A) The loading for a flight is shown in the attached loadsheet, with the following data applying to the aeroplane: Maximum take-off mass: 150 000 kg Maximum landing mass: 140 000 kg Centre of gravity (cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum aft: 13.0 m aft of datum Estimated trip fuel: 55 000 kg
rispostaA
900 kg
rispostaB
30.0 kg
rispostaC
196 kg
rispostaD
300 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 NORWAY
Take-off cg is out of limits at 12.34 m aft of datum.
Landing cg is out of limits at 11.97 m aft of datum.
Landing cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.
Take-off cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.
-1
Page 299 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
280 kg
rispostaC
no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1
rispostaD
260 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 210 kg annex 031-12272A) For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading manual gives the following standard mass values for passengers. (These values include an allowance for hand baggage) Male 88 kg Female 70 kg Child 35 kg Infant 6 kg The standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per piece The loading manifest shows the following details : Passengers loaded Males 40 Females 65 Children 8 Infants 5 Baggage in hold number 4: 120 pieces Using the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix, select from the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1) which constitutes the remainder of the traffic load
Page 300 of 1247

2 NORWAY
rispostaA
rispostaB
73.5 kg.
rispostaC
62.5 kg.
rispostaD
65.8 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
68.9 kg. Given: Total mass: 7500 kg Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit station: 79.5 How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit? Given: Total mass 2900 kg Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0 Aft cg limit station: 116.0 The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is: Which one of the following is correct? 140 kg.
2 NORWAY
14 kg.
207 kg.
317 kg.
-1
1 NORWAY 1 NORWAY
Moment = Force / Arm
Arm = Force X Moment 34 300 Nm.
Arm = Moment / Force 343 000 Nm.
Arm = Force / Moment 1.43 Nm.
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
An aeroplane has its 7000 Nm. centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is: In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum? It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity.
1 NORWAY
It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point through which the weight of the component acts.
It is the point on the aeroplane designated by the manufacturers from which all centre of gravity measurements and calculations are made.
It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity.
-1
Page 301 of 1247

3 UNKNOW Given: Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg Trip fuel= 4 000 kg Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg The maximum traffic load is:
rispostaA
12 900 kg
rispostaB
13 300 kg
rispostaC
9 300 kg
rispostaD
14 600 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at 14% MAC ? 1 EAAPS The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
40.0
35.5
41.5
33..0
-1
60 %
10 %
16 %
41 %
-1
Page 302 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
It moves forward by 0.157 m.
rispostaD
It moves aft by 3.22 m.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
It moves aft by 0.157 m. It moves aft by 0.31 m. Given: Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m What is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg) from station 16 to station 23? Given: 121 300 kg Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg Trip fuel= 27 500 kg Block fuel= 35 500 kg Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg The maximum take-off mass is equal to: The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: The take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass. 113 900 kg
3 EAAPS
120 300 kg
120 900 kg
-1
1 EAAPS
The take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass. The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.
The take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass. The maximum landing mass.
The maximum take-off mass minus the takeoff fuel mass. The maximum take-off mass.
-1
2 EAAPS
Considering only The maximum zero fuel structural limitations, on mass. long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:
-1
Page 303 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
Actual landing mass.
rispostaC
Maximum zero fuel mass.
rispostaD
Maximum landing mass.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Maximum take-off Considering only structural limitations, on mass. very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by: If 390 Ibs of cargo are 463.7 moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A (forward), what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg). Given : Gross mass 116.500 Ibs Present cg station 435.0 Compartment A station 285.5 Compartment B station 792.5 7000 kg
2 ICELAND
506.3
436.7
433.3
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-12274A) An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kg Complete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load
8268 kg
655 kg
1830 kg
-1
Page 304 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
75,6%
rispostaC
85,5%
rispostaD
10,5%
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
18,14% 1 UNITED KI An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 134.5 inches. The leading edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the mass of the aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650 inches aft of the datum. 2 EAAPS An aeroplane with a two 4 meter. wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter. How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels? 51300 Kg and 20,8%
41.6 cm.
40 cm.
25 cm.
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-12267A ) Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of the following gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre of gravity (% MAC) at that mass.
46130 Kg and 20,8%
46130 Kg and 17,8%
41300 Kg and 17,8%
-1
Page 305 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
20.3 %
rispostaC
22.6 %
rispostaD
17.5 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
20.1 % 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-12268A) Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the following the correct values for the take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at that mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is given as - 0.9 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 52900kg and 19 % annex 031-12269A) Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index corrections (from ZFM index) are as follows 9500 kg - 0.9 6500 kg - 6.1 3500 kg - 4.7 3000 kg - 4.3 Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass of the aeroplane and the position of the centre of gravity for this condition ? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 35100 kg and 20.5 annex 031-12270A) Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the following correctly gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index at ZFM
52900 kg and 21.6 %
49130 kg and 21.8 %
49130 kg and 19 %
-1
48600 kg and 57.0
51300 kg and 57.0
46300 kg and 20.5
-1
Page 306 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
19 %
rispostaC
15 %
rispostaD
14 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
18 % 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-12271A) From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from the ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following is the correct value (percentage MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off Mass. 2 SWEDEN Which of the following statements is correct? The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel.
The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.
The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but including the crew.
The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-12273A) From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively : 1 NORWAY The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
66770 kg and 17320 kg 60425 kg and 10975 kg 61600 kg and 12150 kg 68038 kg and 18588 kg
-1
longitudinal axis.
lateral axis.
vertical axis.
horizontal axis.
-1
Page 307 of 1247

1 UNITED KI With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a datum point is used. This datum point is :
rispostaA
a point from which all balance arms are measured. The location of this point varies with the distribution of loads on the aeroplane.
rispostaB
a fixed point from which all balance arms are measured. It may be located anywhere on the aeroplane's longitudinal axis or on the extensions to that axis. 53 000 kg
rispostaC
the point through which the sum of the mass values (of the aeroplane and its contents) is assumed to act vertically.
rispostaD
a point near the centre of the aeroplane. It moves longitudinally as masses are added forward and aft of its location.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 FRANCE
Given the following : 48 400 kg - Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg - Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg -Taxi fuel: 600 kg -Contingency fuel: 900 kg -Alternate fuel: 800 kg -Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg -Trip fuel: 9 000 kg Determine the actual take-off mass:
47 800 kg
48 000 kg
-1
Page 308 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
25 %
rispostaC
28 %
rispostaD
37 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 34 % annex 031-11246A and 031-11246B) The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 31 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 1. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be: For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as: On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to: The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load.
1 FRANCE
The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage.
The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load. Wing loaded trip fuel.
The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel. Variable equipment for the flight.
-1
1 UNKNOW
The bending moment at Maximum Structural the wing root. Take-Off Mass.
-1
Page 309 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
120 900 kg.
rispostaC
121 300 kg.
rispostaD
120 300 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 GERMANY Given that: 146 000 kg. - Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg - Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg - Trip fuel: 27 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg - Contingency fuel: 1350 kg - Alternate fuel: 2650 kg - Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg Determine the actual take-off mass: 1 NORWAY Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero fuel mass? Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate. The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight.
The mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. The operating mass is the mass of the aeroplane without takeoff fuel.
Operating mass plus load of passengers and cargo.
Operating mass plus passengers and cargo.
-1
1 GERMANY At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for determining the mass of the aircraft: 1- Dry operating mass 2- Operating mass Which statement is correct:
The dry operating mass The operating mass includes take-off fuel. includes the traffic load.
-1
Page 310 of 1247

2 SWEDEN Which of the following statements is correct?
rispostaA
The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference point, normally the leading edge of the wing at MAC
rispostaB
The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the wing, where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage and the wing tip 4, 2, 6
rispostaC
If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal stability increases.
rispostaD
A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
The maximum zero-fuel 2, 5, 6 mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation 2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g 3- is due to the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root 4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first 5- imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first 6- can be increased by stiffening the wing The combination of correct statements is:
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 5
-1
Page 311 of 1247

2 NORWAY
rispostaA
rispostaB
A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m.
rispostaC
A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m.
rispostaD
A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The maximum load per A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m. The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly on the floor? The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the: total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing
2 NETHERL
strength of the wing root strength of the fuselage allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking
-1
3 FRANCE
Given an aeroplane 75000 kg and 20000 kg 77200 kg and 19400 kg 77200 kg and 22200 kg 75000 kg and 17200 kg with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg Dry Operating Mass : 48000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg, Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:
-1
Page 312 of 1247

3 FRANCE Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg. Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively: 1 FRANCE When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the: For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus
rispostaA
125500 kg and 21500 kg
rispostaB
125500 kg and 26500 kg
rispostaC
130500 kg and 26500 kg
rispostaD
130500 kg and 31500 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
basic mass plus variable equipment mass
basic mass plus standard empty mass special equipment mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus unusable fuel mass Ramp Fuel Mass. Trip Fuel Mass.
empty mass dry plus variable equipment mass
-1
3 FRANCE
Take-off Fuel Mass.
Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.
-1
Page 313 of 1247

3 FRANCE For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass
rispostaA
less the Operating Mass.
rispostaB
plus the Operating Mass.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
plus the Trip Fuel Mass. less the Trip Fuel Mass.
2 NORWAY
If nose wheel moves aft It will cause the cg to during gear retraction, move forward. how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane? The datum used for balance calculations is: chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at the fire-wall level
The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.
It will cause the cg to move aft.
It will not affect the cg location.
-1
1 FRANCE
chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not necessarily between the nose and the tail of the aircraft 74 000 kg
chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and necessarily situated between the nose and the tail of the aircraft 72 000 kg
chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and necessarily situated between the leading edge and trailing edge of the wing 70 400 kg
-1
3 GERMANY Given are: - Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg - Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 800 kg - Trip fuel: 18 000 kg - Contingency fuel: 900 kg - Alternate fuel: 700 kg - Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg Determine the actual take-off mass:
69 600 kg
-1
Page 314 of 1247

2 SWEDEN Which of the following statements is correct?
rispostaA
If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces beyond the limit
rispostaB
If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the aeroplane may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
rispostaC
The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle between the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity
rispostaD
A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 FRANCE
(For this question use appendix 031-11589A) Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG position of the helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to the right. - the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kg With the man on the winch, the mass and lateral CG-position of the helicopter are :
6 180 kg and 0.059m to 6 180 kg and 0.075m to 6 180 kg and 0.041m to the right the right the right
-1
Page 315 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use appendix 031-11590A ) Without the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg - the mass of the copilot is 100 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 80 kg With the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are : 1 FRANCE The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the helicopter without crew, :
rispostaA
6 270 kg and 4.796 m
rispostaB
6 270 kg and 5.012 m
rispostaC
6 270 kg and 4.61 m
rispostaD
6 270 kg and 4.594 m
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
without specific equipments for the mission, without payload, with fuel on board. moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and increases the stress in the rotor head
without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, with the unusable fuel and standard equipment. brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and decreases the stress in the rotor head
without payload, with specific equipment for the mission, without the unusable fuel.
without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, wthout unusable fuel. brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and increases the stress in the rotor head
-1
2 FRANCE
In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity:
moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and decreases the stresses in the head rotors
-1
Page 316 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 000 kg in cargo 1; 3 000 kg in cargo 4
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 2 000 kg in cargo 1; 2 annex 031-11247A and 000 kg in cargo 4 031-11247B) A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kg Basic corrected index: 118.6 Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg; cargo 2 = 2 000 kg; cargo 3 = 2 000 kg; The other cargo compartments are empty. Take-off mass: 200 000 kg Centre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) To maximize performance, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4, in order to take off with a new centre of gravity location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new load distribution between cargo 1 and cargo 4 is:
Page 317 of 1247

1 FRANCE The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass.
rispostaA
the operator should use the individual masses of the passengers or alter the standard masss
rispostaB
the operator may use the standard masses for the load and balance calculation without correction
rispostaC
the operator may use the standard masses for the balance but must correct these for the load calculation
rispostaD
the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each passenger
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 NETHERL
With respect to Reserve Fuel = TOM aeroplane loading in the Trip Fuel planning phase, which of the following statements is always correct ? LM = Landing Mass TOM = Take-off Mass MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass DOM = Dry Operating Mass
LM = TOM - Trip Fuel
MTOM = ZFM + maximum possible fuel mass
MZFM = Traffic load + DOM
-1
Page 318 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 000 kg
rispostaC
950 kg
rispostaD
1 500 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 450 kg The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg. The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of payload is: The take-off mass of an 71 000 kg aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass? The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: The centre of gravity of a body is that point Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero. low gross mass and forward centre of gravity. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
2 EAAPS
99 000 kg
53 000 kg
64 000 kg
-1
1 SPAIN
Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load which is always used as datum when computing moments.
Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act. high gross mass and forward centre of gravity. A decrease of the stalling speed.
-1
1 NORWAY
-1
2 NORWAY
The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a: With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
-1
2 NORWAY
A decrease in range.
A decrease in the landing speed.
-1
Page 319 of 1247

2 UNKNOW (For this question use annex 031-1569A) Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram? The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord. This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length of: Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off mass limitations: Flaps : 10 Runway: 4400 Climb: 4500 0 15 4100 4600 4700 4200
rispostaA
26.57 cm aft of datum.
rispostaB
rispostaC
26.57 cm forward of datum.
rispostaD
32.29 cm forward of datum.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 FRANCE
the aeroplane in relation the mean aerodynamic to the leading edge chord in relation to the leading edge
the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edge
the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datum
-1
2 FRANCE
4 100 kg
4 200 kg
4 700 kg
4 300 kg
-1
Masses are in kg Structural limits: takeoff/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kg The maximum take-off mass is :
Page 320 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
54 000 kg
rispostaC
55 000 kg
rispostaD
55 500 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The flight preparation of 61 500 kg a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg Knowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:
Page 321 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
500 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 3
rispostaC
1 000 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1
rispostaD
1 500 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 1 000 kg from cargo 1 annexes 031- 11205A to cargo 4 and 031-11205B) A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kg Basic corrected index: 118.6 Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg ; cargo 2: 2 000 kg ; cargo 3: 2 000 kg; other cargo compartments are empty Take-off mass: 200 000 kg; centre of gravity (C.G.) location: 32 % For perfomance reasons, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo loading between cargo compartments, in order to take off with a new C.G. location of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of:
Page 322 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
26 %
rispostaC
35.5 %
rispostaD
32 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
31.5 % (For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-11072B) The weight and balance sheet is available and contrary to the forecast, cargo compartment 1 is empty. The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) is located at: (For this question use 27.8 % annexes 031-11071A and 031-11071B) Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be seated in "compartment OC" and you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo compartment 5. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:
2 FRANCE
30.5 %
28.5 %
27.2 %
-1
Page 323 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annexes 031-11070A and 031-11070B) Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have : Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in compartment OA: 20 Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in compartment OB: 20 Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in compartment OC: 30 Cargo compartment 4: 2 000 kg Cargo compartment 5: 1 000 kg The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord), will be located at: 2 FRANCE (For this question use annexes 031-11069A and 031-11069B) Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1 is empty. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:
rispostaA
35.5 %
rispostaB
31.5 %
rispostaC
24.5 %
rispostaD
32.5 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
32.5 %
36 %
25 %
31 %
-1
Page 324 of 1247

2 FRANCE Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given : Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs Cargo Mass : 350 lbs Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal. Trip Fuel : 35 Gal. Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.
rispostaA
2449 lbs
rispostaB
2589 lbs
rispostaC
2659 lbs
rispostaD
2414 lbs
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 325 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
17 %
rispostaC
22 %
rispostaD
29 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The mass and balance 34 % information gives : Basic mass : 1 200 kg ; Basic balance arm : 3.00 m Under these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m. In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following information is given : Position Arm front seats : 2.5 m rear seats : 3.5 m rear hold : 4.5 m fuel tanks : 3.0 m The pilot and one passenger embark; each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140 litres of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied.Taxi fuel is negligable. The position of the centre of gravity at takeoff (as % MAC) is :
Page 326 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
27 %
rispostaC
31 %
rispostaD
33 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 25 % annex 031-11222A and 031-11222B ) The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 4. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be: The basic empty mass 30 300 kg of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following items are : - catering: 300 kg - safety and rescue material: nil - fly away kit: nil - crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg - fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg - unusable fuel: 120 kg - passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg The Dry Operating Mass is :
1 FRANCE
38 300 kg
30 665 kg
30 785 kg
-1
Page 327 of 1247

2 FRANCE The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2. It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side. It's maximum gross mass must not exceed: (assume g=10m/s2) To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a minimum of: (For this question use appendix 031-11605A) Without the crew, the weight and the CGposition of the aircraft are 7 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg - the mass of the copilot is 75 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kg With this crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft will be:
rispostaA
32 kg
rispostaB
320 kg
rispostaC
80 kg
rispostaD
800 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
3 points of support
2 points of support
1 point of support
4 point of support
-1
2 FRANCE
4,455 m
4,615 m
0,217 m
4,783 m
-1
Page 328 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11606A) Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG-position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the right. - the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kg With the man on the winch , the lateral CGposition of the aircraft will be: 1 SPAIN The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of :
rispostaA
0,062m to the right
rispostaB
0,016m to the left
rispostaC
beyond the limits
rispostaD
0,0633m to the right
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load does not create a longitudinal moment
The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment
The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load.
The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational items
-1
2 FRANCE
The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension:
creates a longitudinal creates a pitch-up moment in the direction longitudinal moment (pitch-up or pitch-down) determined by the type of landing gear
-1
Page 329 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
91.92 inches aft of datum
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 91.84 inches aft of annex 031-4742A or datum Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to a multiengine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG location at take off in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs. One pilot: 160 lbs. Front seat passenger : 200 lbs. Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total) One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs. Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs. Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs. Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs. Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
Page 330 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
cargo 1: 4 000 kg; cargo 4: 5 000 kg
rispostaC
cargo 1: 6 000 kg; cargo 4: 4 000 kg
rispostaD
cargo 1: 4 000 kg; cargo 4: 6 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use cargo 1: 5 000 kg; annex 031-11275A cargo 4: 4 000 kg and 031-11275B) A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg; the cargo load is distributed as follows: cargo 1: 3 000 kg; cargo 4: 7 000 kg. Once the cargo loading is completed, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at takeoff is located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. Following the transfer operation, the new load distribution is:
Page 331 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
3 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use It is not possible to annex 031-11273A and obtain the required 031-11273B) centre of gravity. A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. Following cargo loading, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits. The captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He asks for a transfer of:
Page 332 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-11258B) The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 26 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be: (For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031-11257B ) The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be:
rispostaA
23.0 %
rispostaB
21.8 %
rispostaC
20.0 %
rispostaD
30.2 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
31 %
25 %
33 %
27 %
-1
Page 333 of 1247

1 FRANCE The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg - Block fuel: 30 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 800 kg - Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg The traffic load available for this flight is:
rispostaA
55 000 kg
rispostaB
55 800 kg
rispostaC
25 800 kg
rispostaD
25 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Page 334 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
4 372
rispostaC
4 720
rispostaD
4 120
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 4 390 annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to multiengine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass (lbs) in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs Basic arm: 88.5 Inches One pilot: 160 lbs Front seat passenger : 200 lbs Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.
Page 335 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
3 600 kg
rispostaC
It is not possible to establish the required centre of gravity location.
rispostaD
4 600 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 5 600 kg annex 031-11219A) An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) is located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 35 % MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point respectively, the cargo load mass which needs to be transferred from the front to the rear cargo compartment is:
Page 336 of 1247

3 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
377 746
rispostaC
401 338
rispostaD
432 221
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 433 906 annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to a multiengine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total moment (lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs. One pilot: 160 lbs. Front seat passenger : 200 lbs. Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total) One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs. Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs. Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs. Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal. Total moment at takeoff: 432226 lbs.In
Page 337 of 1247

1 FRANCE The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Block fuel: 40 000 kg - Trip fuel: 29 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 800 kg - Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg - Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg - Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg The maximum traffic load for this flight is:
rispostaA
40 400 kg
rispostaB
32 100 kg
rispostaC
32 900 kg
rispostaD
18 900 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 338 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B and 03111251C) Knowing that: . Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg . Basic index: 119.1 . Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX) . Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex. . Fuel: 42 000 kg Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:
rispostaA
29.3 %
rispostaB
28.3 %
rispostaC
30.5 %
rispostaD
32.3 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Page 339 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B and 03111250C) Knowing that: . Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg . Basic index: 119.1 . Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX) . Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex. . Fuel: 40 000 kg Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:
rispostaA
30.5 %
rispostaB
27.4 %
rispostaC
29.3 %
rispostaD
28.0 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Page 340 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B and 03111249C) Knowing that: . Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg . Basic index: 119.1 . Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX) . Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex. . Fuel: 40 000 kg Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at:
rispostaA
30.5 %
rispostaB
28.0 %
rispostaC
29.3 %
rispostaD
27.4 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Page 341 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B and 03111248C) Knowing that: . Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg . Basic index: 119.1 . Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX) . Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex. . Fuel: 42 000 kg Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at: The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic chord:
rispostaA
30.5 %
rispostaB
32.5 %
rispostaC
28.0 %
rispostaD
31.5 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic centre of pressure
consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the leading edge
consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the trailing edge
consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic convergence point
-1
Page 342 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11227A) An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). The current cargo load distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg; rear cargo: 4 000 kg. For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 33 % MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point respectively. After the transfer operation, the new cargo load distribution is:
rispostaA
front cargo: 9 260 kg; rear cargo: 1 240 kg
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 343 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2659 lbs
rispostaC
2449 lbs
rispostaD
2589 lbs
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Determine the Landing 2799 lbs Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given: Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs Cargo Mass : 350 lbs Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal. Trip Fuel : 35 Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.
Page 344 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
56 160
rispostaC
433 906
rispostaD
30 888
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 9 360 annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to multiengine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs. One pilot: 160 lbs. Front seat passenger : 200 lbs. Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total) One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs. Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs. Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs. Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
Page 345 of 1247

2 EAAPS Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg). ___________________ ___________________ ___________________ __________ STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm) ___________________ ___________________ ___________________ __________ Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350 Crew 145 160 -23200 Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000 Freight 2 410 40 -16400 Fuel 6045 8 -48360 Oil 124 +40 +4960
rispostaA
60.16 cm aft datum.
rispostaB
53.35 cm aft datum.
rispostaC
56.53 cm aft datum.
rispostaD
56.35 cm aft datum.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Page 346 of 1247

1 SPAIN Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data: Distance datum centre of gravity: 12.53 m Distance datum leading edge: 9.63 m Length of MAC: 8 m The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:
rispostaA
63.4 % MAC
rispostaB
47.0 % MAC
rispostaC
23.1 % MAC
rispostaD
36.3 % MAC
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 SPAIN 1 SPAIN
Operating Mass plus all Basic Empty Mass plus Actual Landing Mass the traffic load. the fuel loaded. plus trip fuel. unusable fuel and full operating fluids. all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load.
Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load. all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment installed by manufacturer.
0 0
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
While making mass all the oil and fuel. and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term 'Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus Assuming gross mass, higher stall speed. altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.
2 SPAIN
lower optimum cruising speed.
reduced maximum cruise range.
increased cruise range.
-1
1 SPAIN
The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.
-1
Page 347 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
35 000 kg
rispostaC
62 500 kg
rispostaD
7 500 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 3 500 kg annex 031-2946A) The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of gravity limits are between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum. The loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4 m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the front to the rear hold in order to bring the out of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit: (For this question use 2548,8 annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4) With respect to a singleengine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions: Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs. Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs. Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs. Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total)
2 FRANCE
6675
2496,3
2311,8
-1
Page 348 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Given are the following 61.29 cm aft of datum. information at take-off ___________________ ___________________ ___________________ __________ STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm) ___________________ ___________________ ___________________ __________ Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350 Crew 145 160 -23200 Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000 Freight 2 410 40 -16400 Fuel 6045 8 - 48360 Oil 124 +40 +4960 Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour.
Page 349 of 1247

The specific density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96. Calculate the landing centre of gravity 2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 031-11632A ) The empty mass of your helicopter is 1 100 kg with a CG-position at 3.05m. The load is as follows: -total mass of pilot and co-pilot: 150 kg -total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kg In order not to exeed the limitations the minimum remaining fuel on board should be: 1 EAAPS Traffic load is the:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4
450 kg
350 kg
250 kg
125 kg
-1
Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load. allow steep turns.
Dry Operating Mass Take-off Mass minus minus the variable load. Zero Fuel Mass. avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage. a location in the aeroplane identified by a number. avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight. an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken.
Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass. prevent excessive 'g'loading during the landing flare. the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly.
-1
3 EAAPS
Loads must be adequately secured in order to: In mass and balance calculations the "index" is:
-1
1 EAAPS
the moment divided by a constant.
-1
1 EAAPS
Which is true of the It is dry operating mass aeroplane empty mass? minus traffic load.
It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.
It is a component of dry It is dry operating mass operating mass. minus fuel load.
-1
Page 350 of 1247

1 EAAPS The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes :
rispostaA
Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals. 30 cm.
rispostaB
Unusable fuel and reserve fuel.
rispostaC
Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo.
rispostaD
Passengers baggage and cargo.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 EAAPS
The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
34 cm.
33 cm.
40 cm.
-1
2 EAAPS
Given that the total 16 529 kg mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits:
8 680 kg
43 120 kg
29 344 kg
-1
Page 351 of 1247

2 FRANCE The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter : - front point : 220 kg - right rear point : 500 kg - left rear point : 480 kg The helicopter's datum is 3.40 m forward of the rotor axis. The front point is located 2.00 m forward of the rotor axis and the rear points are located 0.50 m aft of the rotor axis. The longitudinal CGposition in relation to the datum is: 1 FRANCE The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass of a helicopter :
rispostaA
3,36 m
rispostaB
0,04 m
rispostaC
3,44 m
rispostaD
1,18 m
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
including the crew,the fuel and the specific equipments for the mission but excluding payload
including the crew, the usable fuel and the specific equipments for the mission and payload
ready for a specific operation including the crew and traffic load, not including the usable fuel
excluding the crew but including specific equipments for the mission and not including the usable fuel
-1
Page 352 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2809 lbs
rispostaC
2659 lbs
rispostaD
2799 lbs
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Determine the Take-off 2764 lbs Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given : Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs Cargo Mass : 350 lbs Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal. Trip Fuel : 35 Gal. Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.
2 FRANCE
At a mass of 1 800 kg, 10.5 cm to the right a helicopter equipped with a winch has a lateral CG-position of 5 cm to the left. The CG of the load suspended from the winch is at a distance of 60 cm to the right. With a winch load of 200 kg the lateral CG-position of the helicopter will be:
10,5 cm to the right
1.5 cm to the right
1.5 cm to the left
-1
Page 353 of 1247

4 FRANCE During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe; The centre of gravity is the
rispostaA
rupture of one or more structural components
rispostaB
a permanent deformation of the structure
rispostaC
a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion
rispostaD
no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 FRANCE
centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line zero fuel mass
focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line landing mass
neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line Dry operating mass
point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated take-off mass
-1
1 FRANCE
By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:
-1
Page 354 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
165 kg
rispostaC
104 kg
rispostaD
110 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
183 kg Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 m The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MAC To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold? (For this question use annex 031-11619A ) A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg and the longitudinal CGposition is at 3.10 m. Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions : - pilot and front passenger : 150 kg - rear passengers : 150 kg - fuel : 500 kg 2.97 m
2 FRANCE
2.82 m
2.91 m
2.85 m
-1
Page 355 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 105 kg
rispostaC
585 kg
rispostaD
901 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 1 098 kg annex 031 11634A) Maximum allowed takeoff mass limit: 37 200kg Dry operating mass: 21 600 kg Take-off fuel: 8 500 kg Passengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5 Baggages: 880 kg The company uses the standard passenger mass systems (see annex) allowed by regulations. The flight is not a holiday charter. In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded is
2 FRANCE
The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter : - mass at front point: 300 kg - mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg - mass at left rear point : 950 kg It is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the longitudinal axis and the rear points are symmetricaly located 1.20 m from this axis. The helicopter's lateral CG-position relative to the longitudinal axis is:
11 cm left
4 cm right
4 cm left
11 cm right
-1
Page 356 of 1247

3 FRANCE To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn. allowed take off mass and operating mass does not influence longitudinal static stability
rispostaD
Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn. allowed take off mass and basic mass plus trip fuel not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Maximum landing mass Maximum zero fuel augmented by fuel on mass augmented by board at take-off. the fuel burn. operating mass and basic mass increase longitudinal static stability 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg
1 FRANCE
Allowed traffic load is allowed take off mass the difference between : and basic mass In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will: decrease longitudinal static stability
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
3 FRANCE
Given: 73 000 kg and 24 700 Dry operating mass = kg 38 000 kg maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg maximum landing mass = 65 000 kg maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg Fuel burn = 8 000 kg Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg The maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are respectively :
71 300 kg and 23 000 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg kg
-1
Page 357 of 1247

2 FRANCE After weighing a helicopter the following values are noted: forward point: 350 kg aft right point: 995 kg aft left point: 1 205 kg What is the longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum situated 4 m in front of the rotor axis, knowing that the forward point is at 2.5 m forward of the rotor axis and the aft points are 1 m aft of the rotor axis? 1 EAAPS
rispostaA
4.52 m
rispostaB
4.09 m
rispostaC
4.21 m
rispostaD
4.15 m
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
A location in the Station. aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as: An aircraft basic empty 2 150 kg mass is 3000 kg. The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg. The payload available is : extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
Moment.
MAC.
Index.
-1
1 FRANCE
1 600 kg
1 550 kg
2 200 kg
-1
1 UNITED KI When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be :
extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
-1
Page 358 of 1247

2 UNITED KI The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is : 1 UNITED KI The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as
rispostaA
maximum regulated take - off mass.
rispostaB
maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass.
rispostaC
maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.
rispostaD
maximum certificated take - off mass.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
the moment arm or balance arm.
the lever.
the moment.
the index.
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 158.3 kg must be off annex 031-9613 A or loaded. Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x 200 cm. Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo compartement. 1 UNITED KI During take-off you the centre of gravity is notice that, for a given too far forward. elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :
285.5 kg may be added. 28.5 kg must be off loaded.
28.5 kg may be added.
-1
the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
the aeroplane is overloaded.
-1
Page 359 of 1247

1 UNITED KI Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less
rispostaA
usable fuel.
rispostaB
traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals. Dry Operating Mass.
rispostaC
usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals. Zero Fuel Mass.
rispostaD
usable fuel and traffic load. Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNITED KI The total mass of the Maximum Zero Fuel aeroplane including Mass crew, crew baggage; plus catering and removable passenger equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as: 3 UNITED KI The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with 1 UNITED KI If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: 1 UNITED KI An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to: the commander.
-1
the authority of the state of registration.
the person compiling the weighing schedule.
the operator.
-1
tend to over rotate during take-off.
require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption. cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.
benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack. be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.
require less power for a given airspeed.
-1
be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.
be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.
-1
Page 360 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
13.12 kg per inch.
rispostaC
13.15 kg per inch.
rispostaD
14.65 kg per inch.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
7.18 kg per inch. 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is: 1 UNITED KI The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is 2 UNITED KI Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ? 1 UNITED KI If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will : 41455 kg
42545 kg
42000 kg
56200 kg
-1
Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties.
Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.
Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.
Lowering the landing gear.
-1
become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch. an increase in longitudinal stability.
become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch a reduction in power required for a given speed.
become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch. an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment
-1
1 UNITED KI An aeroplane is loaded a reduced fuel with its centre of gravity consumption as a towards the rear limit. result of reduced drag. This will result in :
-1
Page 361 of 1247

2 UNITED KI An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
rispostaA
whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed.
rispostaB
whenever a major modification is carried out.
rispostaC
9 years for each aeroplane.
rispostaD
4 years for each aeroplane.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 UNITED KI A flight benefits from a the approach path will strong tail wind which be steeper and was not forecast. On threshold speed higher. arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 68 kg per square foot. annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 9232 kg annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment has a maximum total load of :
the landing distance required will be longer.
the landing distance will the approach path will be unaffected. be steeper.
-1
150 kg per square foot.
68 Lbs per square foot.
68 kg per square metre.
-1
1568 kg
3062 kg
4187 kg
-1
Page 362 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs.
rispostaC
835.5 inches is 3062 kg.
rispostaD
835.5 inches is 6752 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
421.5 inches is 4541 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annexes 031-9631A or kg. Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid at : 1 UNITED KI A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10 m/s^2) The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is : 30000 Nm
130000 Nm
80000 Nm
50000 Nm
-1
1 UNITED KI Moment (balance) arms the focal point. are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as 1 UNITED KI In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excluding usable fuel and traffic load.
the axis.
the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.
the datum.
-1
usable fuel and crew.
potable water and lavatory chemicals.
usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
-1
Page 363 of 1247

4 UNITED KI Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice that 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 page 20) For the medium range twin jet the datum point is located
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
V1 will be increased.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
the aeroplane will rotate speed at un-stick will V1 will be reached much earlier than be higher than expected sooner than expected expected.
on the nose of the aeroplane.
at the leading edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC).
540 inches forward of the front spar.
540 cm forward of the front spar.
-1
1 UNITED KI The centre of gravity of at right angles to the an aeroplane is that flight path. point through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction 1 UNITED KI When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically 1 UNITED KI The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act 1 UNITED KI The centre of gravity of an aeroplane through its centre of gravity.
governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.
parallel to the gravity vector.
always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
-1
through its centre of pressure.
through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly. always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane.
through a point defined as the datum point.
-1
vertically through the centre of pressure.
vertically through the datum point.
vertically through the centre of gravity.
-1
is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
must be maintained in a can be allowed to move fixed position by careful between defined limits. distribution of the load.
may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's certificate of airworthiness.
-1
Page 364 of 1247

1 UNITED KI In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aeroplane structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aeroplane configuration. Its value is
rispostaA
printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel.
rispostaB
found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for modifications.
rispostaC
inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered in the loading manifest.
rispostaD
found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in closed systems.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI An aeroplane is 32505 kg weighed and the following recordings are made: nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is 2 UNITED KI If individual masses are at intervals of 9 years. used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter
30180 kg
28400 kg
31960 kg
-1
at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.
at regular annual intervals.
only if major modifications have taken place.
-1
Page 365 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in
rispostaA
the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'. 40 cm by 200 cm
rispostaB
the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'. 30 cm by 300 cm
rispostaC
the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of the aeroplane. 30 cm by 200 cm
rispostaD
the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aeroplane must be reweighed always. 40 cm by 300 cm
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 UNITED KI The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as 750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet that can be used ? 4 UNITED KI An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds 2 UNITED KI The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by :
-1
will not be achieved.
will be greater than required.
are unaffected but V1 will be increased.
will give reduced safety margins.
-1
bearing strength of the taxiway pavement.
taxi distance to take off point.
structural considerations.
tyre speed and temperature limitations.
-1
Page 366 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Forward limit 8.0% 2 UNITED KI (For this question use MAC aft limit 27.2% annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT MAC 1 Figure 4.11) At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: 2 UNITED KI At a given mass the 228.34 inches aft of CG position is at 15% datum MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to to the datum. 2 UNITED KI (For this question use Forward limit 8.5% annex 031-9598 A or MAC aft limit 26.1% Loading Manual MRJT MAC 1 Figure 4.11) The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: 2 UNITED KI When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aeroplane, which of the following is not required? drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.
-1
-1
removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.
drain all engine tank oil.
drain all useable fuel.
-1
Page 367 of 1247

3 UNITED KI An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ? 2 UNITED KI An aeroplane may be weighed
rispostaA
The commander of the aeroplane.
rispostaB
The Operator.
rispostaC
The appropriate Aviation Authority.
rispostaD
The aeroplane manufacturer or supplier.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance.
at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield. Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar. Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area. Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use Forward limit 8.2% annex 031-9603 A or MAC aft limit 27.0% Loading Manual MRJT MAC 1 Figure 4.11) A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use forward limit 7.6% aft annex 031-9604 A or limit 26.9% MAC. Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
-1
forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC
forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC
forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.
-1
Page 368 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
421.5 inches.
rispostaC
367.9 inches.
rispostaD
257 inches.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
314.5 inches. 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold centroid is: 4 UNITED KI Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.
lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low
heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
-1
Page 369 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
21220 kg
rispostaC
20870 kg
rispostaD
21080 kg
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0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI An aeroplane is to 21500 kg depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg. Certificated maximum masses are as follows: Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg MaximumLanding mass 71520 kg Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg Fuel on board at ramp: Taxi fuel 600 kg Trip fuel 17830 kg Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is 2 UNITED KI The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is : a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual.
a value which varies a value which varies with airfield only with airfield temperature and altitude. Standard altitude. Corrections are corrections are listed in listed in the Flight the Flight Manual. Manual.
a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature. Corrections are calculated from data given in the Flight Manual.
-1
Page 370 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
14383 kg.
rispostaC
18206 kg.
rispostaD
13647 kg.
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-1 0 0 0
1 UNITED KI The maximum quantity 11364 kg. of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's tanks is given as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is 1 UNITED KI Conversion of fuel volume to mass may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in the Operations Manual, if the actual fuel density is not known. has 20 or more seats.
may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in JAR - OPS 1.
must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.
must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP 4 as specified in JAR - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E. is carrying 30 or more passengers.
-1
1 UNITED KI Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the aeroplane 2 UNITED KI Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions on an aeroplane?
has 6 or more seats.
has 30 or more seats.
-1
Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions.
Location of the undercarriage.
The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed.
The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.
-1
Page 371 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
17 070 kg
rispostaC
16 570 kg
rispostaD
16 370 kg
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0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI A jet transport has the 16 430 kg following structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements: -Taxi fuel: 400 kg -Trip fuel: 8400 kg -Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg -Alternate fuel: 1100 kg If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance limited.
Page 372 of 1247

3 UNITED KI A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg. The landing mass at London is not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg Taxi fuel: 250 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:
rispostaA
14 331 kg
rispostaB
13 240 kg
rispostaC
16 770 kg
rispostaD
9 830 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 373 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes 1 UNITED KI An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is 4 UNITED KI If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will 1 UNITED KI An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only. 10080 kg.
rispostaD
the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel. 29280 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
traffic load plus useable traffic load only. fuel. 17080 kg 12200 kg.
-1
be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease. operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg.
be decreased, drag will remain constant, drag decrease and will decrease and endurance will increase. endurance will decrease. operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980 kg. operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 14780 kg.
remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
-1
operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg.
-1
4 UNITED KI When considering the Flight endurance will be Stalling speeds will be effects of increased increased. higher. mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
Stalling speeds will be lower.
Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
-1
Page 374 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is
rispostaA
29600 kg
rispostaB
26900 kg.
rispostaC
68400 kg
rispostaD
70700 kg
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0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI The following data 18200 kg applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: Certified maximum takeoff mass 141500 kg Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg Crew baggage in hold 110 kg Fuel on board 60700 kg From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.
17450 kg
78900 kg
78150 kg
-1
Page 375 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
13 950 kg
rispostaC
25 800 kg
rispostaD
17 840 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI A revenue flight is to be 18 170 kg made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg Taxi Fuel: 250 kg Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
Page 376 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
5 000 kg
rispostaC
100 kg
rispostaD
1 000 kg
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0 0 -1 0
500 kg The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2. It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m. Its maximum gross mass must not exceed: (assume g=10m/s2)
Page 377 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
17 810 kg
rispostaC
21 170 kg
rispostaD
21 070 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI A revenue flight is to be 20 420 kg made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg Taxi Fuel: 250 kg Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
Page 378 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
17 840 kg
rispostaC
19 100 kg
rispostaD
19 200 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI A revenue flight is to be 19 500 kg made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg Taxi Fuel: 500 kg Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
Page 379 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
The flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load.
rispostaC
The flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500 kg.
rispostaD
The flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use The flight may be safely annex 031-9685 A or operated with the stated Loading Manual MRJT traffic and fuel load. 1 Figure 4.14) The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination airfield has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as follows Taxi fuel 350 kg Trip fuel 9250 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg Alternate fuel 1000 kg Traffic load 18600 kg Check the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most appropriate answer.
Page 380 of 1247

4 UNITED KI The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest: Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg Fuel on board 16500 kg During the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not 'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing mass
rispostaA
must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.
rispostaB
is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal scheduled landing.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
is 87300 kg and excess is 83200 kg which is in structural stress could excess of the regulated result landing mass and could result in overrunning the runway
Page 381 of 1247

4 UNITED KI At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will be 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 4) For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel density value 0.78)
rispostaA
a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high aeroplane mass.
rispostaB
a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.
rispostaC
a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
rispostaD
a landing further along the runway than normal.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
11349 litres
8850 litres
11646 litres
5674 litres
-1
2 UNITED KI For a particular a variable value which aeroplane, the may limit the payload structural maximum carried. mass without any fuel on board, other than unusable quantities, is :
a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried.
a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual.
a variable value which is governed by the payload carried.
-1
Page 382 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on board. It is a limitation which is: 1 UNITED KI The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass 1 UNITED KI Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aeroplane) may be determined from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of
rispostaA
governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive 'wing bending'.
rispostaB
listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit.
rispostaC
governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of the aeroplane. differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.
rispostaD
tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature. differ by the mass of usable fuel. passenger seats available is less than 6.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
differ by the value of the are the same value. traffic load mass. passengers carried is less than 6.
-1
passenger seats passengers carried is available is less than 20. less than 20.
-1
Page 383 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
6350 kg.
rispostaC
3185 kg.
rispostaD
4530 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 5400 kg annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield limited. The following data applies: Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg Fuel on board at rampTaxi fuel 350 kg Trip fuel 9730 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg Alternate fuel 1600 kg Passengers on board 130 Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg Baggage per passenger 14 kg Traffic load Maximum possible Use the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the maximum cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass.
Page 384 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
20700 kg
rispostaC
23000 kg
rispostaD
19460 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 UNITED KI The empty mass of an 18400 kg aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 7730 kg annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane Dry Operational mass 60520 kg Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg Fuel on board at takeoff Trip fuel 12500 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg Alternate fuel 1700 kg Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried.
11730 kg
15730 kg
7010 kg
-1
Page 385 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
12700 kg
rispostaC
4800 kg
rispostaD
7100 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 6300 kg annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg Fuel requirements for flight Trip fuel 29300 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg Alternate fuel 2800 kg. The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is: 1 UNITED KI The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus unuseable and crew standard mass.
traffic load and crew standard mass.
traffic load and unuseable fuel.
traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass.
-1
Page 386 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
79000 kg
rispostaC
78000 kg
rispostaD
93000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI The take-off mass of an 65200 kg. aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is: 4 UNITED KI In order to provide an unaffected as Vs adequate "buffet always occurs at the boundary" at the same angle of attack. commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be 2 UNITED KI The maximum certificated take - off mass is : a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.
increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will remain the same.
increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease.
-1
a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature. 68 kg per square foot.
a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 . 3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment.
limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual. 150 kg per square foot.
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 7288 kg in forward annex 031-9609 A or compartment and 9232 Loading Manual MRJT kg in aft compartment. 1 Figure 4.9) Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is:
-1
Page 387 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
maximum certificated take - off mass.
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 0 0 -1
2 UNITED KI An aeroplane, which is maximum zero fuel mass. scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ? 1 UNITED KI On an aeroplane with a 76 kg seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is 1 UNITED KI The standard mass for a child is 1 UNITED KI On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an intercontinental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is 38 kg for all flights.
en route obstacle altitude and clearance requirements. temperature of the departure airfield.
84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).
88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).
84 kg
-1
30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights. 15 kg per passenger.
35 kg for all flights.
35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights. 14 kg per passenger.
-1
11 kg per passenger.
13 kg per passenger.
-1
Page 388 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
10730 kg
rispostaC
12700 kg
rispostaD
13230 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNITED KI The following data 15200 kg applies to a planned flight. Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg Performance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kg Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg Fuel required at ramp:Taxy fuel 400 kg trip fuel 8600 kg contingency fuel 430 kg alternate fuel 970 kg holding fuel 900 kg Traffic load 16600 kg Fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure is : 1 UNITED KI In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.
flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage.
flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance.
flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance.
-1
Page 389 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
13090 kg.
rispostaC
16470 kg
rispostaD
18040 kg
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0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI Prior to departure the 12840 kg medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following data Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg Taxi fuel 250 kg Trip fuel 9250 kg Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg Alternate fuel 700 kg The maximum permissible traffic load is
Page 390 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
13 655 kg
rispostaC
16 080 kg
rispostaD
14 470 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 15 815 kg annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 3.1) The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the maximum possible fuel load. Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel on board at start of take off. Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kg Landing airfield -not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg Fuel required for flight Taxi fuel: 715 kg Trip fuel: 8600 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg Alternate fuel 1500 kg Additional reserve 400 kg Traffic load for flight 11000 kg
Page 391 of 1247

3 UNITED KI An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be 1 UNITED KI 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as 1 UNITED KI In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is made to a datum. The datum is
rispostaA
19650 kg
rispostaB
121450 kg
rispostaC
39105 kg
rispostaD
141100 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat. an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be located anywhere on the aeroplane.
35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.
-1
calculated from the data derived from the weighing procedure carried out on the aeroplane after any major modification. at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system.
a reference plane which calculated from the is chosen by the loading manifest. aeroplane manufacturer. Its position is given in the aeroplane Flight or Loading Manual. at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane. at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aeroplane.
-1
1 UNITED KI The datum is a at or near the forward reference from which limit of the centre of all moment (balance) gravity. arms are measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located
-1
Page 392 of 1247

2 UNITED KI The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?
rispostaA
416.0 kg
rispostaB
1015.6 kg
rispostaC
41.6 kg
rispostaD
101.6 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
32
3 GERMANY The absolute ceiling is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5% independent from the centre of gravity position. increases the angle of the descent flight path. increases the best rate of climb. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min. lower with an aft centre of gravity position. is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero. higher with a forward centre of gravity position. increases the rate of descent. can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed lower with a forward centre of gravity position. increases the descent distance over ground. 0 0 -1 0
2 UNKNOW
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
-1
3 GERMANY A constant headwind 3 GERMANY A constant headwind component 1 GERMANY The speed V1 is defined as 1 GERMANY The speed VS is defined as
increases the angle of descent. decreases the angle of climb.
-1 0 -1 0
0 0 0 -1
0 0 0 0
0 -1 0 0
increases the maximum increases the angle of endurance. flight path during climb. speed for best angle of climb. safety speed for takeoff in case of a contaminated runway. engine failure speed. design stress speed.
take-off decision speed. take-off climb speed. speed for best specific range. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable. lift off speed.
1 GERMANY The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as 1 GERMANY The speed VLO is defined as
take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. long distance operating speed.
take-off decision speed. critical engine failure speed. landing gear operating speed. design low operating speed.
-1
lift off speed.
-1
Page 393 of 1247

1 GERMANY VX is
rispostaA
the speed for best angle of flight path.
rispostaB
the speed for best angle of climb. 74 064 kg
rispostaC
the speed for best rate of climb. 209 064 kg
rispostaD
the speed for best specific range. 101 596 kg
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0 0 -1 0 0 0 0 -1
3 GERMANY Given that the 286 781 kg characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s Drag = 72 569 N Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is: 1 GERMANY The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as 4 NETHERL Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct? VS.
VMC.
VSO.
VS1.
-1
Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx
Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed
Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.
-1
5 GERMANY The aerodynamic ceiling is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.
is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same.
depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.
-1
5 GERMANY The maximum is only certified for four- is the highest pressure operating altitude for a engine aeroplanes. altitude certified for certain aeroplane with a normal operation. pressurised cabin
is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
is dependent on the OAT.
-1
Page 394 of 1247

5 GERMANY Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
rispostaA
Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes; they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only. Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.
rispostaB
To respect ATC flight level constraints.
rispostaC
To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.
rispostaD
Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected. Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 SPAIN
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed (VREF): The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
Increasing VREF
Lowering VREF
-1
5 SPAIN
Depending on density altitude and mass.
Higher
Lower
Depending on the OAT and net mass.
-1
3 ICELAND
Field length is balanced take-off distance equals calculated V2 is less when accelerate-stop than 110% VMCA and distance. V1, VR, VMCG.
all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal. when flap retraction begins. V2 and VMCG
-1
3 ICELAND
The second segment begins Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : Take-off run is defined as the
when flaps are selected when acceleration when landing gear is up. starts from V2 to the fully retracted. speed for flap retraction. VR and VMCG V2 and VMCA VR and VMCA
-1
1 ICELAND
-1
1 ICELAND
horizontal distance distance to V1 and along the take-off path stop, assuming an from the start of the engine failure at V1. take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the takeoff surface.
distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
Distance from brake release to V2.
-1
Page 395 of 1247

1 ICELAND The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum control speed" by:
rispostaA
15%
rispostaB
20%
rispostaC
30%
rispostaD
10%
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 GERMANY The speed for best rate of climb is called 2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height. Given : O.A.T : 30 C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions) 1 ICELAND What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
VY. 2375 ft
VX. 1900 ft
V2. 1600 ft
VO. 2000 ft
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
The speed is unstable.
The aeroplane will not stall.
The altitude cannot be maintained.
The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.
-1
Page 396 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
3426 kg/h
rispostaC
3259 kg/h
rispostaD
3602 kg/h
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3787 kg/h Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is: (For this question use There is a built-in annex 032-3591A or safety measure. Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart? (For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) With regard to the takeoff performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30 C, pressure altitude 0? At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.
4 EAAPS
The climb limit The effect of the wind performances are taken must be taken from relative to the air. another chart.
There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.
-1
4 EAAPS
At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.
The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited.
-1
Page 397 of 1247

5 EAAPS (For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370? ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :
rispostaA
All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.
rispostaB
Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level.
rispostaC
Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes.
rispostaD
Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 ICELAND
75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
-1
5 ICELAND
90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative. 1.2 Vs
180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative.
180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
-1
1 FRANCE
The take-off safety speed V2min for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than: The take-off safety speed V2 for twoengined or threeengined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
1.2 Vs1
1.15 Vs
1.3 Vs
-1
1 FRANCE
1.3 Vs
1.15 Vs
1.15 Vs1
1.2 Vs
-1
Page 398 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : ISA+10 C Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry
rispostaA
65 and 75 KIAS
rispostaB
71 and 82 KIAS
rispostaC
73 and 84 KIAS
rispostaD
68 and 78 KIAS
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 399 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1550 ft
rispostaC
1020 ft
rispostaD
1400 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 880 ft annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ft O.A.T.: 5 C Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs Headwind component: 15 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: tarred and dry Landing gear: down
Page 400 of 1247

3 FRANCE (For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min). Given : O.A.T : + 15 C Pressure Altitude: Aeroplane Mass: Flaps: up Speed: 100 KIAS 4 EAAPS
rispostaA
1290 ft/min
rispostaB
1370 ft/min
rispostaC
1210 ft/min
rispostaD
1150 ft/min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
ISA
0 ft 3400 lbs
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.
holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
-1
Page 401 of 1247

3 FRANCE (For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions: Given : O.A.T. at takeoff: 25 C Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs Speed: 100 KIAS Wind component: 15 kts Headwind
rispostaA
18 832 ft
rispostaB
18 347 ft
rispostaC
21 505 ft
rispostaD
24 637 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 402 of 1247

3 FRANCE (For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions: Given : O.A.T at Takeoff: ISA Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs Speed: 100 KIAS Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind
rispostaA
16 665 ft
rispostaB
18 909 ft
rispostaC
18 073 ft
rispostaD
20 109 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 403 of 1247

3 UNITED KI On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient? 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
106425 kg
rispostaB
118455 kg
rispostaC
102150 kg
rispostaD
121310 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 1030 ft/min and 8,4% annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions: Given : O.A.T at Takeoff: ISA Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs Speed: 100 KIAS
1170 ft/min and 9,9%
1310 ft/min and 11,3%
1120 ft/min and 9,3%
-1
Page 404 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hr
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 annex 032-6584A or lbs/hr Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 13 C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft RPM: 2300
Page 405 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 13 C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft RPM: 2300
Page 406 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1) Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given : OAT: 3 C Pressure altitude: 6000 ft Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM (For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given : O.A.T.: ISA +16 C Pressure altitude: 4000 ft Power: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM 851 NM
3 FRANCE
911 NM
865 NM
739 NM
-1
Page 407 of 1247

3 EAAPS The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : (For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given : O.A.T.: ISA -15 C Pressure altitude: 12000 ft Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
rispostaA
the take-off run available. 908 NM
rispostaB
the take-off distance available. 902 NM
rispostaC
the landing distance available. 875 NM
rispostaD
the accelerate-stop distance available. 860 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 FRANCE
-1
Page 408 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : 38 C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Dry Grass Correction factor: 1.2
rispostaA
approximately : 4200 ft
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Page 409 of 1247

6 EAAPS (For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28) What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
rispostaA
2600 m.
rispostaB
2700 m.
rispostaC
2900 m.
rispostaD
3100 m.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Page 410 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1950 m.
rispostaC
2009 m.
rispostaD
2243 m.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 GERMANY During certification test 2096 m. flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance? 1 UNKNOW Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the takeoff .
is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
is the airspeed on the is always equal to VEF ground at which the (Engine Failure speed). pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
-1
Page 411 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
VR< VMCA< VLOF
rispostaC
VMU<= VMCA< V1
rispostaD
V2min< VMCA> VMU
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
VS< VMCA< V2 min 1 GERMANY Given: VS= Stalling speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure) V1= take-off decision speed VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum takeoff safety speed VLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is: 1 GERMANY Given that: V2min<= VEF<= VMU VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed V1= Take-off decision speed VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum takeoff safety speed The correct formula is: 1 SPAIN The speed V2 is
VMCG<=VEF < V1
1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
-1
the lowest safety the take-off safety airspeed at which the speed. aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure. has no change during take-off and climb.
that speed at which the the lowest airspeed PIC should decide to required to retract flaps continue or not the take- without stall problems. off in the case of an engine failure.
-1
2 SPAIN
How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust
decreases slightly while increases slightly while the aeroplane speed the aeroplane speed builds up. builds up.
varies with mass changes only.
-1
Page 412 of 1247

3 SPAIN The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed? Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach? (For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross weight at engine failure" ? The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
rispostaA
500 ft/min
rispostaB
100 ft/min
rispostaC
0 ft/min
rispostaD
125 ft/min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 SPAIN
Maximum transfer ceiling
Service ceiling
Absolute ceiling
Thrust ceiling
-1
3 SPAIN
No affect
Tailwind only effects holding speed.
The IAS will be increased.
The IAS will be decreased.
-1
6 ICELAND
Maximum Take-off Run Maximum use of is 0,5 x runway. clearway is 1,5 x runway.
Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10 C.
Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
-1
5 EAAPS
This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.
The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.
The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.
-1
1 UNKNOW
1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.
1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes.
1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
-1
Page 413 of 1247

2 SPAIN What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ? The Density Altitude
rispostaA
has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
rispostaB
decreases the take-off speed V1.
rispostaC
decreases the TAS for take-off.
rispostaD
increases the IAS for take-off.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 SPAIN
High temperature and high relative humidity
Low temperature and high relative humidity
High temperature and low relative humidity
Low temperature and low relative humidity
-1
1 SPAIN
is used to calculate the is used to determine FL above the Transition the aeroplane Altitude. performance. height above the surface pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature 0 ft / min.
is equal to the pressure altitude.
is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains. altitude read directly from the altimeter +1267 ft / min.
-1
1 SPAIN
Density altitude is the
altitude reference to the standard datum plane +3293 ft / min.
-1
4 FRANCE
(For this question use -1267 ft / min. annex 032-915A) What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N1) and a mass of 75 000 kg? Using the following: g = 10 m/s 1 kt = 100 ft/min SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight based on pressure altitudes.
-1
3 GERMANY In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is
the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.
the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor.
-1
Page 414 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
1720 m.
rispostaC
1779 m.
rispostaD
1978 m.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
During the certification 1547 m. flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real takeoff distances are equal to: - 1547 m with all engines running - 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be "wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not exceed: (For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2) With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set? 1339 m.
3 UNKNOW
1771 m.
1540 m.
1147 m.
-1
4 EAAPS
Yes, the chart has been It does not matter which No, the performance Performance will be made for this situation. take-off technique is will be worse than in the better than in the chart. being used. chart.
-1
Page 415 of 1247

3 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
c
rispostaC
d
rispostaD
a
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
b (For this question use annex 032-4744A) Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean" configuration? During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
3 SPAIN
increases the climb time.
decreases the climb time.
decreases the ground distance flown during that climb. approximately : 2000 feet
-1
2 FRANCE
(For this question use approximately : 1450 annex 032-6573A or feet Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : ISA +15 C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Headwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: short and wet grassfirm soil Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38
approximately :1794 feet approximately : 1300 feet
-1
Page 416 of 1247

6 EAAPS The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the : Which of the following statements is correct ?
rispostaA
aircraft mass decreases.
rispostaB
TAS decreases.
rispostaC
glide angle increases.
rispostaD
IAS increases.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 ICELAND
If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.
A stopway means an area beyond the takeoff runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted takeoff.
An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
-1
3 SPAIN
What is the influence of The ROC is affected by The ROC and the ROC The ROC speed the mass on maximum the mass, but not the speed are independant increases with rate of climb (ROC) ROC speed. of the mass. increasing mass. speed if all other parameters remain constant ? What margin above the 1,10 VSO stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF? VMCA x 1,2 1,30 VSO
The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
-1
6 ICELAND
1,05 VSO
-1
3 ICELAND
During take-off the third when acceleration when flap retraction is segment begins: starts from VLOF to V2. completed. Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? Which of the following will decrease V1? Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ? The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed. Increased outside air temperature. A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan.
when landing gear is fully retracted. The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
-1
1 ICELAND
-1
1 ICELAND 5 NETHERL
Increased take-off mass. Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3-g altitude.
Inoperative flight management system. In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.
Inoperative anti-skid. A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb.
0 -1
0 0
0 0
-1 0
Page 417 of 1247

2 ICELAND Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ? (For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : -7 C Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Tarred and Dry 1 GERMANY An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed takeoff mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
rispostaA
Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. approximately : 2050 ft
rispostaB
Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components. approximately : 1150 ft
rispostaC
Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. approximately : 2450 ft
rispostaD
Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components. approximately : 1260 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 FRANCE
-1
4500 metres.
6000 metres.
4000 metres.
5000 metres.
-1
Page 418 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : 30 C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs Tailwind component: 2.5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 032-1562A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 ) For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5 and 15 ) are certified. Given: Field length avalaible= 2400 m Outside air temperature= -10 C Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft The maximum allowed take-off mass is:
rispostaA
approximately : 2800 feet
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
52 000 kg
56 000 kg
55 000 kg
70 000 kg
-1
Page 419 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use approximately : 1480 annex 032-6572A or feet Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : 0 C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
approximately : 940 feet approximately : 1650 feet
Page 420 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use approximately : 1700 annex 032-6571A or feet Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : ISA Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
approximately :1150 feet approximately : 1500 feet
Page 421 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use approximately : 1300 annex 032-6570A or feet Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : ISA +15 C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Tailwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
approximately : 950 feet approximately : 1400 feet
Page 422 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use approximately : 1120 annex 032-6569A or feet Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : 27 C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
6 ICELAND
Required runway length is less then at an at destination airport for alternate airport. turboprop aeroplanes Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15 to flap 5 will normally result in : The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration: a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
is more than at an alternate airport. a shorter take-off distance and a better climb. 20%
is 60% longer than at an alternate airport. a longer take-off distance and a better climb. 10%
is the same as at an alternate airport. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb. 30%
-1
2 ICELAND
-1
6 ICELAND
15%
-1
Page 423 of 1247

1 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
V1
rispostaC
V2
rispostaD
VMCG
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Which take-off speed is VMCA affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ? smaller.
3 GERMANY The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is: 3 ICELAND For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided (For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass . Given : O.A.T : ISA Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry Factored runway length: 2000 ft Obstacle height: 50 ft
larger.
equal.
depends on type of aircraft.
-1
by banking not more than 15 between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation. 2900 lbs
by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation. > 3650 lbs
only by using standard turns.
by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
-1
2 FRANCE
3240 lbs
3000 lbs
-1
Page 424 of 1247

2 EAAPS Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
rispostaA
Lift-off IAS.
rispostaB
Lift-off TAS.
rispostaC
Lift-off EAS.
rispostaD
Lift-off groundspeed.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 FRANCE
Following a take-off, it will not clear the limited by the 50 ft obstacle screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of: How is V2 affected if V2 has the same value T/O flaps 20 is c hosen in both cases. instead of T/O flaps 10 ? The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off? Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the take-off mass? Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA? minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative. High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature. Nitrogen pressure in the strut and brake temperature. Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
105 m
90 m
75 m
-1
1 EAAPS
V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set. obstacle clearance in the approach area.
V2 has no connection V2 decreases if not with T/O flap setting, as restricted by VMCA. it is a function of runway length only. manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative. High field elevation, no obstacles in the climbout path, low ambient temperature and short runway. Tyre pressure and brake temperature. manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating. Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climbout path, short runway and a low ambient temperature. Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure.
-1
6 EAAPS
-1
3 EAAPS
Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature. Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy. High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
-1
2 EAAPS
-1
1 EAAPS
High take-off mass, low Low take-off mass, flap setting and high high flap setting and field elevation. low field elevation.
-1
Page 425 of 1247

2 EAAPS Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct? When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance: The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
rispostaA
V1 is increased.
rispostaB
V1 remains constant.
rispostaC
The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
rispostaD
The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 EAAPS
decreases / remains constant.
increases / increases.
remains constant / remains constant.
decreases / decreases.
-1
1 EAAPS
The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out at V1.
The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM. it is dark.
The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM. the runway is wet.
The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
-1
1 EAAPS
Reduced take-off thrust the runway is should normally not be contaminated. used when: During the flight By selecting a higher preparation the climb flap setting. limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5 flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles. Reduced take-off thrust windshear is reported should normally not be on the take-off path. used when: Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
-1
1 EAAPS
By selecting a higher V2.
By selecting a lower V2. By selecting a lower flap setting.
-1
1 EAAPS
it is dark.
the runway is dry.
the runway is wet.
-1
2 EAAPS
A high runway elevation A low runway elevation and tail wind. and a cross wind.
A high runway elevation A low runway elevation and a head wind. and a head wind.
-1
Page 426 of 1247

1 EAAPS The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than: Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure: (For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex. Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway Actual conditions are: pressure altitude: 1 500 ft outside tempereature: +18 C wind component: 4 knots tailwind For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be:
rispostaA
1.05VLOF.
rispostaB
1.3V1.
rispostaC
1.2Vs.
rispostaD
1.2VMCG.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 NETHERL
A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry runway
In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative. 525 m
Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating. 415 m
-1
6 NETHERL
minimum climb obstacle clearance in gradient in case of a go- the approach area. around with one engine inoperative. 440 m 615 m
-1
3 FRANCE
-1
Page 427 of 1247

1 FRANCE At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by: On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed: 3 FRANCE With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about : The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:
rispostaA
120 kt
rispostaB
130 kt
rispostaC
115 kt
rispostaD
125 kt
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0 -1 0 0
3 FRANCE
20 %
15 %
5%
10 %
-1
3 FRANCE
inferior to 95 kts
is between 95 and 125 kt
equal to 125 kt
equal to 95 kt
-1
3%
8%
-1
3 FRANCE
same speed and fuelburn/distance, but an increase in the fuelburn per hour.
an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.
same speed and an increase of the fuelburn per hour and fuelburn/distance.
an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuelburn per hour.
-1
Page 428 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
proportional to T
rispostaC
proportional to 1/T
rispostaD
proportional to 1/T
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
independent from T With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number and zero headwind,is as follows: Reduced take-off thrust the runway is wet. should normally not be used when: Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ? The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes. For a balanced field length the required takeoff runway length always equals the available runway length.
1 EAAPS
the OAT is ISA +10 C
anti skid is not usable.
it is dark.
-1
5 EAAPS
The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various weights and altitudes. A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths. use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes. A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure. postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists. A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.
The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings. A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation. make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible. The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
-1
3 EAAPS
-1
6 EAAPS
To minimize the risk of use maximum reverse hydroplaning during thrust, and should start landing the pilot should: braking below the hydroplaning speed. For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
-1
1 EAAPS
The greater the depth Dry snow is not of contamination at considered to affect the constant take-off mass, take-off performance. the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
-1
Page 429 of 1247

1 EAAPS When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
rispostaA
the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
rispostaB
the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.
rispostaC
the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine takeoff distance". V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.
rispostaD
the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1. V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 EAAPS
Which statement When determining the The V1 correction for regarding V1 is correct? V1, reverse thrust is up-slope is negative. only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines. Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct? Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct? Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass. The climb limited takeoff mass decreases with increasing OAT. The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10 . The climb limited takeoff mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb. Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
-1
3 EAAPS
A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition. 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass. Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass. On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited. Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
-1
3 EAAPS
-1
1 EAAPS
In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
-1
6 EAAPS
A jet aeroplane Never Exceed Speed descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first? A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached? The Minimum control speed air.
High Speed Buffet Limit Maximum Operational Mach Number
Maximum Operating Speed
-1
4 EAAPS
The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
The Maximum The Stalling speed. operating Mach number.
-1
Page 430 of 1247

1 EAAPS What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?
rispostaA
The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
rispostaB
The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest. To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
rispostaC
The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
rispostaD
The climb limited takeoff mass is the highest.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 EAAPS
Before take-off the To ensure that the temperature of the brake wear is not wheel brakes should be excessive. checked. For what reason? A runway is increased contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be: Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph? Which statement is correct? Aerodynamics.
Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off. very significantly decreased
-1
2 FRANCE
unchanged
decreased
-1
5 EAAPS
Theoretical ceiling.
Service ceiling.
Economy.
-1
1 EAAPS
The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited takeoff mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass.
The climb limited takeoff mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
The climb limited takeoff mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.
The climb limited takeoff mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
-1
Page 431 of 1247

6 EAAPS For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
rispostaA
The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.
rispostaB
When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry. The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
rispostaC
In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length. The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
rispostaD
An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 EAAPS
Which of the following statements is correct?
When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.
An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude as with all engines operating. VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
-1
2 EAAPS 1 EAAPS
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: Which of the following statements is correct?
V1 in kt ground speed. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane. It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net take off flight path".
VLOF in terms of ground speed. VR should not be higher than V1.
V1 in kt TAS.
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
VR should not be VR is the speed at higher than 1.05 VMCG. which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway. It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path". the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure. The climb limited takeoff mass is independant of the wind component. It should not be corrected for 30 bank turns in the take-off path.
3 EAAPS
Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.
-1
5 EAAPS
The drift down the landing mass limit requirements are based at the alternate. on: Which of the following statements is correct? The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the runway condition.
the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed. The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of the wind component.
the maximum flight path gradient during the descent. The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.
-1
1 EAAPS
-1
Page 432 of 1247

1 EAAPS During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1? Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
rispostaA
The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
rispostaB
V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
rispostaC
It may lead to overrotation.
rispostaD
The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 EAAPS
V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
-1
6 EAAPS
During a glide at remain constant. constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg. If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be: less than 4 000 m.
decrease.
increase.
increase at first and decrease later on.
-1
3 FRANCE
unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
only a new performance higher than 4 000 m. analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.
-1
4 EAAPS
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass.)
The drag remains almost constant.
The drag increases considerably.
The drag decreases.
The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
-1
Page 433 of 1247

3 EAAPS How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects.) With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ?
rispostaA
The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
rispostaB
Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
rispostaC
The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.
rispostaD
The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 EAAPS
An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude.
An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result.
An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight. The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag. The highest CL/CD ratio.
An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
-1
3 EAAPS
The maximum The thrust is equal to horizontal speed occurs minimum drag. when: With a jet aeroplane the 1.1 Vs maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately: What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ? Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed. The highest CL/CD ratio.
The thrust is equal to the maximum drag. 1.2 Vs
-1
4 EAAPS
-1
3 EAAPS
Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
-1
3 EAAPS
At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
-1
Page 434 of 1247

3 EAAPS Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.) Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Altitude and configuration.
rispostaD
Configuration and mass.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Configuration and angle Mass and altitude. of attack.
5 EAAPS
Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at gloads larger than 1. A better maximum range.
A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude. A better long range.
A step climb is A step climb is executed because ATC executed in principle desires a higher altitude. when, just after leveling off, the 1.3g altitude is reached. A higher cruise mach number. A lower cruise mach number.
-1
7 EAAPS
If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following will occur? During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
-1
5 EAAPS
decrease / decrease.
increase / decrease.
increase / increase.
decrease / increase.
-1
5 EAAPS
For a jet transport Longest flight duration. aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ? A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change? A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change? Decrease / decrease.
Minimum drag.
Minimum specific fuel consumption.
Minimum fuel flow.
-1
5 EAAPS
Increase / decrease.
Increase / increase.
Decrease / increase.
-1
4 EAAPS
Reduce / decrease.
Reduce / remain constant.
Remain constant / decrease.
Remain constant / become larger.
-1
Page 435 of 1247

2 EAAPS (For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 ) With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport? Given: Runway length: 1300 ft Runway elevation: MSL Weather: assume ISA conditions Mass: 3200 lbs Obstacle height: 50 ft During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will: The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached: Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at: An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
rispostaA
10 kt.
rispostaB
No wind.
rispostaC
5 kt.
rispostaD
15 kt.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
6 EAAPS
increase, because the decrease, because the lift coefficient increases. lift coefficient decreases. at the lowest possible altitude. at the optimum cruise altitude.
increase, because the lift coefficient decreases. at the service ceiling.
remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant. at the practical ceiling.
-1
3 EAAPS
-1
3 EAAPS
The speed for The speed for minimum The speed that maximum lift coefficient. drag. corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle. remains the same. may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane. decreases.
The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed. increases.
-1
3 EAAPS
-1
Page 436 of 1247

3 EAAPS An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio 3 EAAPS In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by: (T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
rispostaA
increases / increases / decreases
rispostaB
decreases / constant / decreases
rispostaC
increases / increases / constant
rispostaD
increases / constant / increases
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
T + W sin GAMMA = D T - W sin GAMMA = D
T - D = W sin GAMMA
T + D = - W sin GAMMA
-1
3 EAAPS
(For this question use Figure b annex 032-2211A) Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 < H2) An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects. Is constant in the first part; decreases in the second.
Figure c
Figure a
Figure d
-1
6 EAAPS
Decreases in the first part; increases in the second.
Increases in the first part; is constant in the second.
Increases in the first part; decreases in the second.
-1
Page 437 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
5 , both limitations are increased
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5 , the obstacle limit is Take-off performance increased but the data, for the ambient runway limit decreases conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10 selected: - runway limit: 5 270 kg - obstacle limit: 4 630 kg Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at: The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be: An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25 and 35. If a pilot chooses 35 instead of 25 , the aircraft will have: Improved
20 , the obstacle limit is 20 , both limitations are increased but the increased runway limit decreases
3 FRANCE
Unchanged
Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
Degraded
-1
3 FRANCE
an increased landing distance and better goaround performance
a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and better goaround performance
an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
-1
Page 438 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
755 m
rispostaC
715 m
rispostaD
555 m
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The take-off distance of 685 m an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressurealtitude. Using the following corrections: " 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation" "- 5 m / kt headwind" "+ 10 m / kt tail wind" " 15 m / % runway slope" " 5 m / C deviation from standard temperature" The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17 C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is: An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on takeoff performance: A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on takeoff performance: An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:
2 FRANCE
an increases take-off an increased take-off a reduced take-off a reduced take-off distance and degraded distance and improved distance and degraded distance and improved initial climb performance initial climb performance initial climb performance initial climb performance
-1
2 FRANCE
a reduced take-off an increased take-off a reduced take-off an increased take-off distance and improved distance and improved distance and degraded distance and degraded initial climb performance initial climb performance initial climb performance initial climb performance
-1
2 FRANCE
an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
-1
Page 439 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
970 m
rispostaC
890 m
rispostaD
870 m
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0 -1 0 0
The take-off distance of 810 m an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressurealtitude. Using the following corrections : " 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation " "- 5 m / kt headwind " "+ 10 m / kt tail wind " " 15 m / % runway slope " " 5 m / C deviation from standard temperature " The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21 C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :
3 FRANCE
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25 and 35. If a pilot chooses 25 instead of 35 , the aircraft will have:
a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
an increased landing distance and better goaround performance
a reduced landing distance and better goaround performance
-1
Page 440 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
3,9 %
rispostaC
4,3 %
rispostaD
4,7 %
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0 -1 0 0
The climb gradient of 4,9 % an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: " 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation" " 0,1 % / C from standard temperature" " - 1 % with wing antiice" " - 0,5% with engine anti-ice" The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17 C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is : A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway: Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds) increased
2 FRANCE
unchanged
reduced
substantially decreased
-1
4 EAAPS
Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.
Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
-1
Page 441 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
330 ft/min
rispostaC
3 300 ft/min
rispostaD
3,30 m/s
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0 -1 0 0
33,0 m/s A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately: A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure? The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ? With regard to a takeoff from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct? Straight flight
1 SPAIN
Straight flight and altitude
Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
Altitude
-1
5 NETHERL
engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance. The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude The take-off is not permitted.
weight during landing at obstacle clearance the alternate during descent to the net level-off altitude The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR. In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
-1
1 EAAPS
-1
1 EAAPS
When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length.
Screen height cannot be reduced.
-1
Page 442 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
(i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
rispostaC
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
rispostaD
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
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0 0 0 -1
Complete the following (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds statement regarding the (iii) Take-off distance take-off performance of available. an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) ......... Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'? Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? In order to achieve speed stability.
5 EAAPS
The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed. Headwind.
In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under. Tailwind.
It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed. Low mass.
-1
3 EAAPS
High mass.
-1
3 EAAPS
Increase of aircraft mass.
Decrease of aircraft mass.
Headwind.
Tailwind.
-1
3 EAAPS
1.2Vs.
The speed for maximum rate of climb.
The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP. The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
The speed for maximum climb angle Vx. IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
-1
4 EAAPS
What happens when an The "1.3G" altitude is aeroplane climbs at a exceeded, so Mach constant Mach number? buffet will start immediately.
The lift coefficient increases.
-1
Page 443 of 1247

3 EAAPS The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in : Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of: 1 GERMANY The take-off distance available is
rispostaA
The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane. 115 m
rispostaB
The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane. 100 m
rispostaC
The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane. 85 m
rispostaD
The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
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0 0 -1 0
3 FRANCE
It will not clear the obstacle
-1
the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists. increasing the angle of attack. a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased. is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction. is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.
the length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clearway available. increasing the TAS.
the runway length minus stopway.
the runway length plus half of the clearway.
-1
1 GERMANY The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by 3 GERMANY When flying the "Backside of Thrustcurve" means 5 GERMANY "Maximum endurance"
decreasing the 'noseincreasing the CAS. up' elevator trim setting. the thrust required is independent of the airspeed. a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
-1
a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
-1
can be flown in a steady climb only.
can be reached with the is achieved in 'best rate of climb' unaccelerated level speed in level flight. flight with minimum fuel consumption. is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range. is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
-1
5 GERMANY The speed for maximum endurance
can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
-1
Page 444 of 1247

5 GERMANY Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? 5 GERMANY Long range cruise is selected as
rispostaA
SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow the speed for best economy.
rispostaB
SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative. is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained. higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the takeoff surface. No.
rispostaC
SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow specific range with tailwind.
rispostaD
SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind. decreases as mass decreases.
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0 -1 0 0
-1
3 GERMANY The optimum altitude
is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum. equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative. No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway. No.
-1
3 GERMANY To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be 1 GERMANY The take-off run is
reduced to the gust penetration speed.
lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
-1
the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1. Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
-1
1 GERMANY Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ? 2 GERMANY May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane. Only for take-off.
-1
Only for landing.
Yes.
-1
Page 445 of 1247

5 EAAPS With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
rispostaA
the maximum lift.
rispostaB
the minimum drag.
rispostaC
the critical Mach number.
rispostaD
the minimum angle of descent.
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0 -1 0 0
1 GERMANY In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 5 GERMANY At speeds below minimum drag 2 GERMANY The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF. the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight. a higher V1.
a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance. a lower speed requires a higher thrust. a longer take-off run.
the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR. a higher speed requires a higher thrust. a shorter ground roll.
the take-off must be continued.
-1
the aeroplane can not be controlled manually. an increased acceleration. can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt. Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
-1
-1
1 GERMANY Reduced take-off thrust has the benefit of improving engine life.
can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass. Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind. decreases the take-off distance. increases the climb limited take-off mass. due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
-1
1 GERMANY How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ? 2 GERMANY A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature 2 GERMANY A higher outside air temperature (OAT) 2 GERMANY The take-off distance required increases
Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered. decreases the field length limited take-off mass. increases the field length limited take-off mass. due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
-1
increases the climb limited take-off mass. decreases the take-off distance. due to lower gross mass at take-off.
has no influence on the allowed take-off mass. decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass. due to slush on the runway.
-1
-1
-1
Page 446 of 1247

2 GERMANY Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be 2 GERMANY On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased 1 GERMANY Uphill slope
rispostaA
higher.
rispostaB
unaffected.
rispostaC
only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes. by low outside air temperature.
rispostaD
lower.
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0 0 0 -1
by uphill slope.
by headwind.
by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1. decreases the take-off distance only.
-1
increases the allowed take-off mass.
increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance. if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance. The clearway does not equal the stopway.
decreases the accelerate stop distance only. for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
-1
2 GERMANY Balanced V1 is selected if it is equal to V2.
for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass. The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
-1
2 GERMANY A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: 1 GERMANY In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available. the take-off must be rejected.
-1
the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
the take-off should only the take-off is to be be rejected if a stopway continued unless V1 is is available. less than the balanced V1. decreases and the remains unchanged but CAS decreases too the TAS increases. because of the lower air density.
-1
1 GERMANY On a reciprocating remains unchanged but increases at constant engined aeroplane, with the the CAS increases. TAS. increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag 4 EAAPS A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct? IAS decreases and TAS increases.
-1
IAS increases and TAS IAS decreases and decreases. TAS decreases.
IAS increases and TAS increases.
-1
Page 447 of 1247

5 EAAPS The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
rispostaA
Maximum endurance.
rispostaB
Holding.
rispostaC
Long range.
rispostaD
Maximum range.
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0 0 0 -1
1 GERMANY Which force the lift compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ? 1 GERMANY In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)? In level flight with constant IAS
the thrust
the drag
the resultant from lift and drag
-1
In accelerated level flight
In a climb with constant IAS
In a descent with constant TAS
-1
1 GERMANY The load factor in a turn the radius of the turn in level flight with and the weight of the constant TAS depends aeroplane. on 1 GERMANY The induced drag of an aeroplane is independent of the airspeed.
the bank angle only.
the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
the true airspeed and the bank angle.
-1
increases with increasing airspeed. minimum drag.
decreases with increasing airspeed. maximum specific range.
decreases with increasing gross weight. maximum endurance.
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
5 GERMANY The lowest point of the minimum specific drag or thrust required range. curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for
Page 448 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
69 000 kg / 15 deg
rispostaC
72 200 kg / 5 deg
rispostaD
69 700 kg / 25 deg
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-1 0 0 0
The determination of 67 700 kg / 15 deg the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5 , 15 and 25 flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values, with wind: Flap angle: 5 15 25 Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500 2nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800 Wind correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: 360kg / kt Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
1 GERMANY The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is 5 GERMANY The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum
the point where a the lowest point of the tangent from the origin drag curve. touches the drag curve. is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent. is the same as the minimum drag speed.
at stalling speed (VS).
on the "back side" of the drag curve.
-1
is always lower than the is always higher than minimum drag speed. the minimum drag speed.
-1
Page 449 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
rispostaC
is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
rispostaD
is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum. a lower angle of attack.
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0 -1 0 0
is the maximum drag 1 GERMANY The point at which a tangent out of the origin speed. touches the power required curve 5 GERMANY A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires 1 GERMANY On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass 1 GERMANY A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
a higher angle of attack. a lower coefficient of lift. a lower coefficient of drag. an increase in airspeed requires an increase in is required but power power and decrease in setting does not change. the airspeed. an increase in airspeed and power is required.
-1
a higher coefficient of drag is required.
-1
a higher coefficient of lift.
less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. increases but TAS remains constant.
more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.
-1
1 GERMANY On a reciprocating increases and the TAS engined aeroplane, with increases by the same increasing altitude at percentage. constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power required 5 GERMANY Moving the center of decreases the induced gravity from the forward drag and reduces the to the aft limit (gross power required. mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged) 5 GERMANY The centre of gravity improves the maximum near, but still within, the range. aft limit 1 GERMANY The critical engine inoperative does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
decreases slightly remains unchanged but because of the lower air the TAS increases. density.
-1
increases the power required.
affects neither drag nor power required.
increases the induced drag.
-1
increases the stalling speed. decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.
improves the longitudinal stabiity. increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
decreases the maximum range. increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect.
-1
-1
Page 450 of 1247

5 GERMANY The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet 5 GERMANY The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet 5 GERMANY Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating? 5 GERMANY At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine 5 GERMANY At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
is only limiting at low altitudes.
rispostaD
increases with increasing mass.
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-1 0 0 0
narrows with increasing decreases with mass and increasing increasing mass and is altitude. independent of altitude. can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
exists only above MMO. has to be considered at take-off and landing. Go-Around Thrust
limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes. Maximum Take-off Thrust decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.
-1
Maximum Cruise Thrust Maximum Continuous Thrust increases with decreasing OAT. increase with increasing altitude. increases slightly with increasing airspeed. are independent of outside air temperature (OAT). increases in proportion to the airspeed. in accelerated level flight.
-1
is independent of the airspeed.
-1
increase in proportion decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure to the ambient pressure at constant temperature. at constant temperature. does not change with changing altitude. in unaccelerated climb. is independent of the airspeed. in unaccelerated level flight.
-1
5 GERMANY The thrust of a jet is inversely proportional engine at constant RPM to the airspeed. 5 GERMANY The intersections of the in descent with thrust available and the constant IAS. drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane 1 GERMANY The speed VR is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated. the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
must be higher than V2. must be higher than VLOF.
must be equal to or lower than V1.
-1
1 GERMANY On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass 1 EAAPS The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.
the airspeed and the drag will be increased.
the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.
-1
the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
the lift-off point.
the point where V2 is reached.
the point half way between V1 and V2.
-1
Page 451 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1.1 VSO.
rispostaC
1.15 VR.
rispostaD
1.1 VMCA. VX is always below VY.
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0 0 0 0 0 0 -1 -1
1 GERMANY V2 has to be equal to or 1.15 VMCG. higher than 4 GERMANY As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb 4 GERMANY The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude. decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density. true airspeed to rate of climb.
VX is always above VY. VY is always above VMO.
increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density. rate of climb to true airspeed.
increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
is independent of altitude.
-1
3 GERMANY The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. VY and VX are increased.
the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage. VX is increased and VY is decreased.
-1
4 GERMANY Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas 3 GERMANY A higher outside air temperature 3 GERMANY A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant) 5 EAAPS A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. The speed corresponds to:
VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
VY and VX are decreased.
-1
increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. has no effect on rate of climb.
does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb. improves angle and rate of climb.
reduces the angle and the rate of climb. decreases angle and rate of climb.
-1
-1
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
the minimum drag.
the minimum required power.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the power required (Pr) versus TAS curve.
-1
Page 452 of 1247

5 EAAPS Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines the speed of: Which of the following statements is correct? If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases Which of the following statements is correct?
rispostaA
maximum endurance.
rispostaB
minimum power.
rispostaC
maximum specific range.
rispostaD
critical angle of attack.
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-1 0 0 0
3 EAAPS
the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
-1
1 EAAPS
Induced drag is independant of the speed. the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained. below which the takeoff must be continued.
Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack. the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained. at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
Induced drag increases with increasing speed.
-1
5 GERMANY If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight 1 EAAPS The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
the aeroplane the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the decelerates if the region of reversed altitude is maintained. command. below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued. at which the take-off must be rejected.
-1
-1
1 GERMANY The rate of climb
is angle of climb times true airspeed. the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
is the horizontal component of the true airspeed. the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.
is approximately climb is the downhill gradient times true component of the true airspeed divided by 100. airspeed. the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases. the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
-1
2 EAAPS
When the outside air temperature increases, then
-1
Page 453 of 1247

1 NETHERL Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?
rispostaA
When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines a decrease of both the field length limited takeoff mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
rispostaB
The correction for upslope on the balanced V1 is negative
rispostaC
VR may not be lower than V1
rispostaD
V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
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0 0 -1 0
2 EAAPS
The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:
an increase of both the field length limited takeoff mass and the climb limited take-off mass.
an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited takeoff mass. 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines. 115/100
a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited takeoff mass. V1 and 105% of VMCA.
-1
1 EAAPS
VR cannot be lower than:
105% of V1 and VMCA. 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane. 0.60
-1
6 NETHERL
By what factor must the 60/115 landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination). The length of a clearway may be included in: Which of the following answers is true? Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1? The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: the distance to reach V1. V1 <= VR Take-off run
1.67
-1
1 NORWAY
the take-off distance available. V1 > Vlof Accelerate Stop Distance only one engine operating.
the accelerate-stop distance available. V1 > VR Take-off distance
the take-off run available. V1 < VMCG All Engine Take-off distance
-1
1 NORWAY 1 NORWAY
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
0 0
1 NORWAY
all engines operating.
failure of critical engine. failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance.
-1
Page 454 of 1247

1 NORWAY Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:
rispostaA
nosewheel steering only.
rispostaB
primary aerodynamic control only.
rispostaC
primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.
rispostaD
primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking. 1, 4, 5, 10
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3 FRANCE
The minimum climb 1, 5, 8, 10 gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1 Gear up 2 Gear down 3 Wing flaps retracted 4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the takeoff thrust 6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust 7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9 Speed over the path equal to V2 10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
1, 4, 6, 9
2, 3, 6, 9
-1
6 NETHERL
Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.
No difference.
Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
-1
Page 455 of 1247

3 EAAPS With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement is correct?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.
rispostaD
The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.
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The minimum drag is is The minimum drag is a function of the density independant of the altitude. aircraft mass.
5 GERMANY Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ? 1 GERMANY The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at 1 GERMANY If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would 1 GERMANY If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would 3 GERMANY The first segment of the take-off flight path ends 1 GERMANY The take-off mass could be limited by
If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected. VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
-1
VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
VA (design manoeuvring speed)
VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
-1
have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. increase the required take-off distance.
decrease the required take-off distance.
increase the maximum mass for take-off.
decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
-1
have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. at completion of gear retraction. the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative. selecting a lower V2.
decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
increase the maximum mass for take-off.
-1
at 35 ft above the runway. the take-off distance available (TODA) only.
at completion of flap retraction. the maximum brake energy only.
at reaching V2.
-1
the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
-1
3 GERMANY The climb limited takeoff mass can be increased by
selecting a lower V1.
selecting a lower VR.
a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
-1
Page 456 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
rispostaD
25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
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15 degrees up to height 10 degrees up to a 3 GERMANY In the event that the of 400 ft. height of 400 ft. take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed 4 GERMANY You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ? 5 EAAPS In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with: During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero. No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve. higher.
The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS. the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
-1
the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve. lower.
the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve. unchanged.
-1
4 GERMANY If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is 5 GERMANY The optimum cruise altitude is
only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
-1
the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved. improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX. the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. higher than than VR.
the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum. improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY. the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. equal to or higher than V2.
the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained. decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb. the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude. equal to or higher than VMCG.
the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum. decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb. the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. equal to or higher than VMCA.
-1
1 GERMANY Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting, 5 GERMANY Below the optimum cruise altitude
-1
-1
1 GERMANY V1 has to be
-1
Page 457 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
ETOPS.
rispostaC
Long Range Cruise Descent.
rispostaD
Drift Down Procedure.
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5 GERMANY After engine failure the Emergency Descent Procedure. aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied? 5 GERMANY 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied after cabin depressurization.
to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate. fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached. The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available. the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration. The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent. A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude. fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
-1
5 GERMANY If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure 6 GERMANY Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? 6 GERMANY Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt. The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
-1
The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent. A headwind component increases the ground distance.
-1
A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.
-1
6 GERMANY The maximum mass for the climb requirements landing could be limited with one engine by inoperative in the landing configuration. 6 GERMANY The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus 43%
the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration. 92%
the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up. 67%
the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. 70%
-1
-1
Page 458 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
92%
rispostaC
43%
rispostaD
70%
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6 GERMANY The landing field length 67% required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus 5 GERMANY On a long distance The specific range and flight the gross mass the optimum altitude decreases continuously increases. as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is: 5 GERMANY With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is 1 GERMANY In unaccelerated climb reduced.
The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
-1
improved.
not affected.
first improved and later reduced.
-1
lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust Drag)/Weight) x 100
thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
lift is greater than the gross weight.
-1
1 GERMANY Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles? 5 GERMANY The optimum cruise altitude increases 1 NORWAY Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
-1
if the temperature (OAT) is increased. VREF
if the tailwind component is decreased. VR
if the aeroplane mass is if the aeroplane mass is increased. decreased. VMCA V2
-1
-1
Page 459 of 1247

1 NORWAY Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? Which statement is correct?
rispostaA
the field limited take-off mass. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated. VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1. An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range.
rispostaB
the obstacle limited take-off mass. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1. An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude. V2 + 10 kt.
rispostaC
the take-off run.
rispostaD
the climb limited takeoff mass. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure. VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1. An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy point of view.
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1 NORWAY
In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted. VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.
-1
1 NORWAY
Which statement is correct? Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct?
-1
5 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL
Which speed provides The speed for which maximum obstacle the ratio between rate clearance during climb? of climb and forward speed is maximum. At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? When gear retraction is completed. VMCG
The speed for maximum rate of climb.
V2.
-1
3 NORWAY
1500 ft above field elevation. VLOF
400 ft above field elevation. VMU
35 ft above ground.
-1
1 NORWAY
VR
-1
1 NORWAY
The required Take-off Decreased TOD Decreased TOD Increased TOD Increased TOD Distance (TOD) and required and decreased required and increased required and decreased required and increased the field length limited field length limited TOM. field length limited TOM. field length limited TOM. field length limited TOM. Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in takeoff position compared to zero flap position?
-1
Page 460 of 1247

1 UNKNOW During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: - 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1 - 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: 2 GERMANY In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: 2 NORWAY If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true? In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
rispostaA
2938 m
rispostaB
3050 m
rispostaC
3513 m
rispostaD
2555 m
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deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
reduce the engine thrust.
reverse engine thrust.
apply wheel brakes.
-1
The accelerate stop distance increases.
The accelerate stop distance decreases.
It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance. In the take-off run available.
Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted. In the accelerate stop distance available.
-1
2 NORWAY
In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
In the all-engine takeoff distance.
-1
1 NORWAY
Other factors remaining There is no effect on Allowable take-off mass Allowable take-off mass Allowable take-off mass constant and not allowable take-off mass. remains uninfluenced decreases. increases. limiting, how does up to 5000 ft PA. increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
-1
Page 461 of 1247

3 NORWAY Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climblimited TOM?
rispostaA
Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
rispostaB
Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
rispostaC
Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
rispostaD
High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
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5 NETHERL
In a given configuration speed, mass and fuel the endurance of a on board. piston engined aeroplane only depends on: not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.
altitude, speed and mass.
speed and mass.
-1
1 GERMANY The take-off decision speed V1 is:
a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the takeoff must be aborted. reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
sometimes greater than a chosen limit. If an the rotation speed VR. engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the takeoff must be aborted. increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). It will decrease the takeoff distance required.
-1
1 NETHERL
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope... What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
-1
1 UNKNOW
It will increase the takeoff distance required.
It will increase the takeoff ground run.
It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
-1
2 NETHERL
If the field length limited a greater field length take off mass has been limited take off mass calculated using a but with a lower V1 Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow
a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1
-1
Page 462 of 1247

3 EAAPS (For this question use annex 032-2929A) Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
rispostaA
maximum thrust.
rispostaB
critical angle of attack.
rispostaC
maximum specific range.
rispostaD
maximum endurance.
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3 NETHERL
The take-off mass of an The climb limited takeaeroplane is restricted off mass would by the climb limit. What increase. would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component? Which of the following The minimum value statements with regard according to to the actual regulations is 1000 ft. acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct? Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ? The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.
The climb limited takeoff mass would decrease.
None.
The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off flight path.
-1
3 NETHERL
There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path. The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
-1
3 NETHERL
There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height.
The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating.
-1
Page 463 of 1247

5 NETHERL Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?
rispostaA
The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
rispostaB
The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
rispostaC
An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude. 2.5%
rispostaD
When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.
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1 NORWAY
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by: A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. 7.5%
VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft. 5%
-1
5 UNKNOW
10%
-1
5 UNKNOW
giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
giving the highest Cd/Cl for long-range cruise. ratio.
of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
-1
Page 464 of 1247

3 UNKNOW A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s)
rispostaA
7.86%.
rispostaB
12.86%.
rispostaC
1.286%.
rispostaD
27%.
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1 NORWAY
How does runway slope Allowable take-off mass A downhill slope affect allowable take-off is not affected by decreases allowable mass, assuming other runway slope. take-off mass. factors remain constant and not limiting? Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the takeoff ground run? The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for: According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass. 2 engined aeroplane. Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.
A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
An uphill slope increases take-off mass.
-1
1 NORWAY
Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.
Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.
-1
3 NORWAY
the failure of two engines on a multiengined aeroplane.
the failure of the critical engine on a multiengines aeroplane.
the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
-1
6 NETHERL
Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.
The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop.
When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account. an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required. a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
-1
5 NORWAY
a specific range which a 1% higher TAS for is about 99% of maximum specific maximum specific range. range and higher cruise speed.
-1
Page 465 of 1247

3 EAAPS For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is : What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane? A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of: Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
rispostaA
that which givesthe minimum value of drag. There is no effect.
rispostaB
that which givesthe maximun value of lift The gliding angle decreases.
rispostaC
1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration. The lift/drag ratio decreases.
rispostaD
that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio. The speed for best angle of descent increases. 8.17 kg/NM.
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2 ICELAND
-1
5 UNKNOW
14 kg/NM.
11.7 kg/NM.
10.7 kg/NM.
-1
5 UNKNOW
3365 kg/h.
3578 kg/h.
3804 kg/h.
4044 kg/h.
-1
Page 466 of 1247

5 UNKNOW With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
rispostaA
equal to that maximum endurance.
rispostaB
equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag.
rispostaC
lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio.
rispostaD
equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio.
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6 GERMANY For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?
2 070 m.
1565 m.
1800 m.
2609 m.
-1
6 GERMANY A flight is planned with 1 250 m. a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway? 3 FRANCE A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose: If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct? the long range speed.
1 090 m.
1 655 m.
1 440 m.
-1
the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.
the speed at the maximum lift.
the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.
-1
3 NORWAY
increase.
decrease.
increase in the flaps extended case.
not be affected.
-1
3 NETHERL
The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.
The maximum traffic The traffic load can be load is not limited by limited by the desired the reserve fuel quantity. range.
-1
Page 467 of 1247

3 NORWAY 5 NORWAY A head wind will: (For this question use annex 032-1014A) Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust Required Curve .(M1>M2). For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range? Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant,
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
increase the rate of climb. a
rispostaD
shorten the time of climb. b
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-1 0 0 -1 0 0 0 0
increase the climb flight increase the angle of path angle. climb. d c
5 NORWAY
Decreases.
Does not change.
Increases only if there is no wind.
Increases.
-1
3 NORWAY
TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
both will increase with increasing altitude.
both will decrease with increasing altitude.
both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
-1
4 NORWAY
What is the effect of tail The time to climb does wind on the time to not change. climb to a given altitude? Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude? Weight and drag only.
The time to climb increases.
The time to climb decreases.
The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type. Weight, drag and thrust.
-1
3 NORWAY
Thrust and drag only.
Weight and thrust only.
-1
3 NORWAY
Best angle of climb Best angle of climb increases while best decreases while best rate of climb decreases. rate of climb increases.
Both decrease.
Both increase.
-1
Page 468 of 1247

1 UNKNOW What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
rispostaA
It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.
rispostaB
It will increase the takeoff distance.
rispostaC
rispostaD
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It will decrease the take- It will increase the takeoff distance. off distance available.
3 GERMANY An operator shall -90m + 1.125D ensure that the net takeoff flight path clears all obstacles. The halfwidth of the obstaclecorridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least: 5 UNKNOW The optimum longrange cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.
90m + D/0.125
90m + 0.125D
0.125D
-1
is independent of the aeroplane mass. Both will remain the same.
is only dependent on the outside air temperature. Both will decrease.
increases when the aeroplane mass decreases. Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
-1
4 NORWAY
Other factors remaining Both will increase. constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy: How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere? Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: TAS decreases.
-1
4 NORWAY
TAS increases.
TAS is constant.
TAS is not related to Mach Number. lower than that for clean configuration.
-1
4 NORWAY
higher than that for clean configuration.
same as that for clean configuration.
changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration. Larger.
-1
3 NORWAY
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
Smaller.
Not change.
-1
33
Page 469 of 1247

1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9562A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg. The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT 54.3 C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind.Using long range cruise procedure what fuel is required? 1 EAAPS Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air distance?
rispostaA
2350 kg
rispostaB
2050 kg
rispostaC
2150 kg
rispostaD
2250 kg
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0 0 -1 0
1125 NM
1143 NM
1463 NM
1491 NM
-1
2 EAAPS
511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
-1
Page 470 of 1247

1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9558A) Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400 kg/h. 1 UNKNOW A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for : On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1 quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information "80". This means that within this quadrant:
rispostaA
ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 0 -1 0
30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required.
20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.
30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.
15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation. the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft
-1
3 FRANCE
the floor of the airway is the minimum safe at 8 000 ft altitude is 8 000 ft
the minimum flight level is FL 80
-1
Page 471 of 1247

2 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1) A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft) to another in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL 110 is ISA - 10 C. The temperature at the departure aerodrome is -1 C. Calculate the fuel to climb with mixture rich. On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point TANGO at 350 kts at flight level 280, you write:
rispostaA
6 US gallon
rispostaB
9 US gallon
rispostaC
12 US gallon
rispostaD
3 US gallon
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 FRANCE
TANGO / KT350 F280
TANGO / N0350 F280
TANGO / K0350 FL280 TANGO / FL280 N0350
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route Manual STAR charts for PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (20-2)) The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is :
96 NM
83 NM
88 NM
73 NM
-1
Page 472 of 1247

1 UNKNOW The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel. What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
rispostaA
14500 kg.
rispostaB
13370 kg.
rispostaC
13220 kg.
rispostaD
13000 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNKNOW
The following fuel 74 800 kg consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane: -standard taxi fuel: 600 kg. -average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h. -holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h. -flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours -fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg. The minimum ramp fuel load is:
79 800 kg
77 200 kg
77 800 kg
-1
Page 473 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
IFR
rispostaC
VFR
rispostaD
IFR followed by VFR
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
On an ATC flight plan, VFR followed by IFR the letter "Y" is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the following flight rules. (For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.2) A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours and 12 minutes. Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full throttle), 2100 RPM, 20 C lean. Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11 C. The minimum block fuel is: 283 lbs
3 EAAPS
268 lbs
252 lbs
215 lbs
-1
Page 474 of 1247

1 UNKNOW A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of :
rispostaA
3500 kg.
rispostaB
8120 kg.
rispostaC
7380 kg.
rispostaD
1845 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 EAAPS
A multi engine piston At the destination there aeroplane is on an IFR will still be 30 US flight. The fuel plan gallons in the tanks gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ?
At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons
At destination the required reserves remain intact.
The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact
-1
Page 475 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
TAS 431 kt; 227 NAM
rispostaC
TAS 423 kt; 227 NAM
rispostaD
TAS 431 kt; 1163 NAM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
TAS 423 kt; 936 NAM (For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: long range cruise; outside air temperature (OAT) -45 C in FL 350; mass at the beginning of the leg 40 000 kg; mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg. Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM). (For this question use MEMMINGEN annex 033-9721A, INFORMATION 122.1 AERONAUTICAL MHz CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in position (47 59'N, 010 14'E).
4 EAAPS
MNCHEN MNCHEN FRANKFURT INFORMATION 126.95 INFORMATION 120.65 INFORMATION 128.95 MHz MHz MHz
-1
Page 476 of 1247

1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position TANGO VORTAC (48 37'N, 009 16'E) at FL 055 and magnetic course 090 , distance from VORTAC TANGO 20 NM. Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC.
rispostaA
422 kHz
rispostaB
118.80 MHz
rispostaC
112.50 MHz
rispostaD
118.60 MHz
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 GERMANY Find the distance from 342 NM waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical point. Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt, head wind component return 40 kt
375 NM
408 NM
403 NM
-1
Page 477 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11717A) The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NM Based on the wind charts at altitude the following components are found; FL50: -30kt; FL100: 50kt; FL180: -70kt The Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's performances Which of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best range performance: 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
FL 050
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
FL 100
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Either FL 050 or FL 100 FL 180
You must fly IFR on an 80 airway orientated 135 magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10 , the minimum flight level you must fly at is:
75
70
90
-1
Page 478 of 1247

3 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
852 NM
rispostaC
610 NM
rispostaD
602 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 752 NM annex 033-3327A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2) A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be 11000ft. The outside air temperature at FL is 15 C. The usable fuel is 123 US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power. An aircraft, following a 120 215 true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA 15 C, the minimum flight level will be:
3 FRANCE
130
150
140
-1
Page 479 of 1247

1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 12 000 kg, contingency approach and landing fuel 2 500 kg; elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft; elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft. Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and give the elevation which is relevant. (For this question use annex 033-3323A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C) Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600 NM; headwind component 50 kt; FL 330; cruise 0.78 Mach; ISA + 20 C; estimated landing weight 55000 kg . Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
rispostaA
1 180 kg; alternate elevation
rispostaB
2 360 kg; alternate elevation
rispostaC
1 180 kg;destination elevation
rispostaD
2 360 kg;destination elevation
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 EAAPS
11 400 kg. 04h 12 min
12 400 kg. 04h 12 min
11 400 kg. 03h 55 min
12 400 kg. 03h 55 min
-1
Page 480 of 1247

1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 14 500 kg; final reserve fuel 1200 kg; distance to alternate 95 NM; average true track 219 ; head wind component 10 kt Find : fuel and time to alternate.
rispostaA
800 kg; 40 min
rispostaB
1 100 kg; 25 min
rispostaC
1 100 kg; 44 min
rispostaD
800 kg; 24 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 EAAPS
(For this question use 4 800 kg; 01 : 45 annex 033-3321A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1.B) Given : estimated zero fuel mass 50 t; estimated landing mass at alternate 52 t; final reserve fuel 2 t; alternate fuel 1 t; flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true course (TC) 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: long range FL 330, outside air temperature -30 C. Find : estimated trip fuel and time
4 400 kg; 02 : 05
4 750 kg; 02 : 00
4 600 kg; 02 : 05
-1
Page 481 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
22 000 ft; 451 kt
rispostaC
25 000 ft; 435 kt
rispostaD
25 000 ft; 445 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
22 000 ft; 441 kt (For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B and 0333320C or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2) Given: estimated takeoff mass 57 000 kg; still air distance 150 NAM; outside air temperature (OAT) ISA -10K; cruise at 0.74 Mach. Find : cruise altitude and expected true airspeed To carry out a VFR that defined for VFR flight to an off-shore flights over land platform, the minimum increased by 10 % fuel quantity on board is: Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with: ((For this question use annex 033-9727A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Give the frequency of ZRICH VOLMET. magnetic course
1 FRANCE
identical to that defined at least equal to that for VFR flights over land defined for IFR flights
that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 % true headings
-1
2 EAAPS
magnetic headings
true course
-1
4 EAAPS
127.20 MHz
127.20 kHz
128.525 MHz
118.10 MHz
-1
Page 482 of 1247

1 ICELAND
rispostaA
rispostaB
157 NM
rispostaC
228 NM
rispostaD
193 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Flight planning chart for 128 NM an aeroplane states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind component of 60kt ? You are flying a constant compass heading of 252 . Variation is 22 E, deviation is 3 W and your INS is showing a drift of 9 right. True track is ? (For this question use annex 033-9730A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Which navigation aid is located in position 48 30'N, 007 34'E? (For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Which navigation aid is located in position 48 23'N, 008 39'E? 242
1 ICELAND
262
280
224
-1
4 EAAPS
NDB
VOR
TACAN
VOR/DME
-1
4 EAAPS
VOR
NDB
VOR/DME
VORTAC
-1
Page 483 of 1247

1 ICELAND The purpose of the decision point procedure is ? (For this question use annex 033-9722A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying from SAULGAU airport (48 02'N, 009 31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47 50'N, 010 53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance. (For this question use annex 033-9728A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Which navigation aid is located in position 48 55'N, 009 20'E ? (For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48 00.2'N 012 53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46 37.5'N 014 33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That means :
rispostaA
To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft. Magnetic course 282, distance 56 NM
rispostaB
To increase the safety of the flight.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
To increase the amount To reduce the minimum of extra fuel. required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load. Magnetic course 078, distance 82 NM Magnetic course 102, distance 56 NM
1 EAAPS
Magnetic course 102, distance 82 NM
-1
4 EAAPS
NDB
TACAN
VOR
VOR/DME
-1
2 EAAPS
VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used.
Only the DME with identification SBG can be used, for which frequency 113.8 MHz should be tuned, VOR is not available.
VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation.
ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation.
-1
Page 484 of 1247

4 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9726A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS. The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
rispostaA
112.250 MHZ
rispostaB
126.125 kHz
rispostaC
126.125 MHz
rispostaD
135.775 MHz
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 EAAPS
174 NM
203 NM
188 NM
193 NM
-1
1 EAAPS
(For this question use Magnetic course 093, annex 033-9724A, distance 41 NM AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48 05'N, 009 13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48 07'N, 009 46'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
-1
Page 485 of 1247

1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying from ERBACH airport (48 21'N, 009 55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48 33'N, 008 57'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 ICELAND
If CAS is 190 kts, 183 NM Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10 C, True Course (TC) 350 , W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance from departure to Point of Equal Time (PET) is : It is possible, in flight, to: 1 - file an IFR flight plan 2 - modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan 3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan 4 - close an active VFR flight plan Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 1-2-3-4
167 NM
203 NM
147 NM
-1
3 FRANCE
1-2-4
1-2-3
2-3-4
-1
Page 486 of 1247

1 ICELAND When using decision point procedure, you reduce the
rispostaA
reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%.
rispostaB
holding fuel by 30%.
rispostaC
contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination. the total usable fuel on board
rispostaD
contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination. the required fuel for the flight
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to: Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg; maximum landing mass 56200 kg; maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg; dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 14 500 kg; estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg; minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg. Find: maximum additional load
the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes
the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel
-1
2 EAAPS
4 000 kg
7 000 kg
5 600 kg
3 000 kg
-1
Page 487 of 1247

2 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11704A) True Air speed: 170 kt Wind in the area: 270 /40 kt According to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft performs a turn overhead BULEN to reroute to ARD via TGJ. The given wind conditions remaining constant. The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres. The total fuel consumption at position overhead ARD will be: 1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033 11702 A) The measured course 042 T. The variation in the area is 6 W and the wind is calm. The deviation card is reproduced in the annex. In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
rispostaA
1 545 litres
rispostaB
1 182 litres
rispostaC
1 326 litres
rispostaD
1 600 litres
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
040
044
052
058
-1
Page 488 of 1247

2 FRANCE In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capability is :
rispostaA
P
rispostaB
S
rispostaC
A
rispostaD
C
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 FRANCE
The maximum 2 700 kg permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is: (For this question use 20 NM annex 033-3302A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.6) A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude 3000 ft, in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The forecast OAT for the airport is -1 C. The cruising level will be FL 110, where OAT is -10 C. Calculate the still air descent distance for: 145 KIAS Rate of descent 1000 ft/min Gears and flaps up
5 700 kg
10 000 kg
7 000 kg
-1
2 EAAPS
29 NM
36 NM
25 NM
-1
Page 489 of 1247

3 FRANCE The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be: An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French aerodrome, spend the night there and return the next day. Where will he find the information concerning parking and landing fees ? The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is: For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:
rispostaA
176 l/h
rispostaB
235 l/h
rispostaC
206 l/h
rispostaD
220 l/h
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
0 FRANCE
in the FAL section of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
in the AGA chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
in the GEN chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
by telephoning the aerodrome's local chamber of commerce, this type of information not being published
-1
2 FRANCE
indicated air speed
ground speed
calibrated air speed
true air speed
-1
3 FRANCE
the estimated off-block time
the time at which the flight plan is filed.
the time of take-off.
the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off. 1-3
-1
1 FRANCE
When calculating the 2-4 fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account : 1 - the wind 2 - foreseeable airborne delays 3 - other weather forecasts 4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing The combination which provides the correct statement is :
1-2-3
1-2-3-4
-1
Page 490 of 1247

1 FRANCE For a flight to an offshore platform, an alternate aerodrome is compulsory, except if : 1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours 2 - during the period from two hours before to two hours after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half times the applicable minima 3 - the platform is available and no other flight either from or to the platform is expected between the estimated time of departure and one half hour after the estimated landing time The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : 1 ICELAND
rispostaA
1-2-3
rispostaB
1-2
rispostaC
1-3
rispostaD
2-3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
If CAS is 190 kts, 1213 UTC Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10 C, True Course (TC) 350 , W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at :
1221 UTC
1233 UTC
1203 UTC
-1
Page 491 of 1247

1 FRANCE Given the following: D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed out GSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is : 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
rispostaB
X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
rispostaC
X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr)
rispostaD
X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
On a ATC flight plan, to ROMEO / FL085 indicate that you will N0120 overfly the way-point ROMEO at 120 kt at flight level 085, you will write : On an instrument 15 NM approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to: (For this question use The minimum sector annex 033-3316A or altitude (MSA) is 13400 Route Manual chart ft. E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48 00.2'N 012 53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46 37.5'N 014 33.8'E). Which statement is correct ?
ROMEO / F085 N0120
ROMEO / N0120 F085
ROMEO / K0120 FL085
-1
3 FRANCE
10 NM
25 NM
20 NM
-1
2 EAAPS
The minimum obstacle The minimum grid safe clearance altitude altitude on this route is (MOCA) on this route is 13400 ft above MSL. 10800 ft above MSL.
The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft.
-1
Page 492 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 020 kg
rispostaC
1 200 kg
rispostaD
1 100 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 680 kg (For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: long range cruise: temp. -63 C at FL 330 initial gross mass enroute 54 100 kg; leg flight time 29 min Find: fuel consumption for this leg (For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude 8000 ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20 C lean of peak EGT Calculate the range. 547.5 NM
2 EAAPS
633 NM
844 NM
730 NM
-1
Page 493 of 1247

2 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome pressure altitude 2500 ft, OAT +10C , First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5C Find the time, fuel and still air distance to climb.
rispostaA
23 min, 7.7 GAL, 50 NAM
rispostaB
22 min, 6.7 GAL, 45 NAM
rispostaC
24 min, 7.7 GAL, 47 NAM
rispostaD
16.5 min, 4.9 GAL, 34.5 NAM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 GERMANY (For this question use OCK 115.3 MHz annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B or Route Manual STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London (Heathrow)) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow). Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.
BIG 115.1 kHz
BIG 115.1 MHz
EPM 316 kHz
-1
Page 494 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
120 NM
rispostaC
140 NM
rispostaD
110 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
In the cruise at FL 155 130 NM at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard. The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of: Given:maximum 11 100 kg allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56 200 kg maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg dry operating mass 35 500 kg estimated load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900kg minimum takeoff fuel 7 400 kg Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:
2 EAAPS
11 400 kg
14 400 kg
8 600 kg
-1
Page 495 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
40 NM
rispostaC
45 NM
rispostaD
48 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
An aircraft is in cruising 42 NM flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent? In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to : The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTC The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at: start-up
2 FRANCE
pass the departure beacon
go off blocks
take-off
-1
3 FRANCE
1755 UTC
1715 UTC
1725 UTC
1745 UTC
-1
2 FRANCE
When a pilot fills in a estimated take-off mass maximum certified flight plan, he must landing mass indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?
actual take-off mass
maximum certified takeoff mass
-1
Page 496 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
20 min
rispostaC
10 min 40 sec
rispostaD
16 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
24 min After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions : - dry operating mass : 2800 kg - trip fuel : 300 kg - payload : 400 kg - maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg - maximum landing mass : 3700 kg 500 kg
2 FRANCE
800 kg
1000 kg
700 kg
-1
3 EAAPS
A VFR flight planned 21.3 US gallons/hour for a Piper Seneca III. At a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.
30.3 US gallons/hour
-1
Page 497 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
80
rispostaC
100
rispostaD
90
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
An IFR flight is planned 85 outside airways on a course of 235 magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight level you must fly is: 2807 NAM/1000 kg
1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and using the following data. Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions 2 EAAPS
176 NAM/1000 kg
187 NAM/1000 kg
2994 NAM/1000 kg
-1
(For this question use 9 min. annex 033-4737A or 3,3 USG Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) Given: FL 75 OAT: +5 C During climb: average head wind component 20 kt Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs. Find: Time and fuel to climb.
10 min. 3,6 USG
7 min. 2,6 USG
9 min. 2,7 USG
-1
Page 498 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
18 NAM. 15 NM.
rispostaC
16 NAM. 18 NM.
rispostaD
18 NAM. 13 NM.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 14 NAM. annex 033-4738A or 18 NM. Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) Given: FL 75 OAT: +5 C During climb: average head wind component 20 kt Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs. Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using the graph "time, fuel, distance to climb". No segment shall be more than 30 minutes of flight time.
1 GERMANY Which of the following statements is relevant for forming route portions in integrated range flight planning?
Each reporting point requires a new segment.
A small change of temperature (2 C) can divide a segment.
The distance from takeoff up to the top of climb has to be known.
-1
1 GERMANY (For this question use 11000 ft annex 033-9550A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2) Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20 C, Trip distance=50 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
10000 ft
7500 ft
12500 ft
-1
Page 499 of 1247

1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2) Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20 C, Trip distance=150 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1) Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74 MACH 1 FRANCE (For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033-11226B) In standard atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 kg, in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at the optimum altitude, your Mach number should be:
rispostaA
30000 ft
rispostaB
25000 ft
rispostaC
21000 ft
rispostaD
27500 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
33800 ft
35300 ft
maximum operating altitude
34500 ft
-1
0.82
0.84
0.80
the same as for LRC (Long Range Cruise)
-1
Page 500 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
4%
rispostaC
1%
rispostaD
10 %
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
0% 3 GERMANY (For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033-9554B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1 and Figure 4.2.1) Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL . Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL 310 3 EAAPS For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 3h06min The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 8 kg Block fuel: 118 kg How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel.
39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.
30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel.
-1
Page 501 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, and 03311253C) Knowing that: . Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg . Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach . Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM . Cruise level: optimum . Air conditioning: standard . Anti-icing: OFF . Temperature: ISA . CG: 37 Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:
rispostaA
172 300 kg
rispostaB
170 400 kg
rispostaC
171 300 kg
rispostaD
176 100 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 502 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 03311254C and 03311254D) Knowing that: . Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg . Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach . Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM . Cruise level: optimum . Air conditioning: standard . Anti-icing: OFF . Temperature: ISA . CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:
rispostaA
169 200 kg
rispostaB
170 200 kg
rispostaC
174 800 kg
rispostaD
171 200 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Page 503 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
192 minutes
rispostaC
198 minutes
rispostaD
203 minutes
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 209 minutes annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 03311253C and 03311253D) Knowing that: . Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg . Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach . Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM . Cruise level: optimum . Air conditioning: standard . Anti-icing: OFF . Temperature: ISA . CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:
Page 504 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
389 minutes
rispostaC
400 minutes
rispostaD
383 minutes
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 394 minutes annex 033-11252A,03311252B and 03311252C) Knowing that: . Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg . Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach . Air distance: 3 000 NM . Cruise level: optimum . Air conditioning: standard . Anti-icing: OFF . Temperature: ISA . CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:
Page 505 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
4 820 NM
rispostaC
4 800 NM
rispostaD
4 940 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 4 580 NM annex 031-11231A) For a long distance flight at FL 370, "Long Range" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following specifications: - segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind component: 50 kt - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 30 kt - segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind component: 70 kt - segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 20 kt The total air distance is approximately: (For this question use 37400 ft annex 031-11229A ) For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a mass of 190 000 kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at flight level FL 370 is - 35 C, the optimum flight altitude calculated using the annex is:
1 FRANCE
37800 ft
34600 ft
38600 ft
-1
Page 506 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL160
rispostaC
FL200
rispostaD
FL250
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
FL140 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11021A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross GIBSO intersection (50 45'N 002 30'W) at or above: 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9553A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1) Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 MACH 1 FRANCE 36700 ft
maximum operating altitude
35500 ft
36200 ft
-1
(For this question use the time of flight plan annex 033-11261A) filing. Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 13: "Time" is:
estimated off-block time. planned take-off time.
planned engine start time.
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use VOR only, frequency annex 033- 11006A or 115.6 MHz Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG (48 30'N 007 34'E) is a:
DME only, channel 115.6
TACAN only, frequency VOR/TACAN, 115.6 MHz frequency 115.6 MHz
-1
Page 507 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Statement 2 only
rispostaC
Both statements
rispostaD
Statement 1 only
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Neither statement 2 UNITED KI Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel. 2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
Page 508 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
20 500 kg
rispostaC
23 000 kg
rispostaD
22 500 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 23 300 kg annex 033-11272A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: . Take-off mass: 168 500 kg . Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM . Flight level FL 370; "Long Range" flight regime . Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt . Total anti-ice set on "ON" . Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 000 kg . Ignore alternate fuel. The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption. The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for the flight leg is:
Page 509 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
31 340 kg
rispostaC
30 200 kg
rispostaD
39 750 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 31 840 kg annex 033-11271A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: . Take-off mass: 210 500 kg . Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM . Flight level FL 330; "Long Range" flight regime . Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt . Total anti-ice set on "ON" . Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 400 kg . Ignore alternate fuel. The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption. The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking area is:
Page 510 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11270A) A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following data: . flight level: FL 330, flight regime: "Long Range" (LR), mass: 156 500 kg . tailwind component at this level: 40 kt With a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at cruising speed is: (For this question use annex 033-11262A) Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: "Total estimated time" is the time elapsed from:
rispostaA
471 NM
rispostaB
518 NM
rispostaC
539 NM
rispostaD
493 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 FRANCE
taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.
take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.
taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing.
take-off until landing.
-1
1 GERMANY For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as:
Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel.
Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel.
Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel.
Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel.
-1
Page 511 of 1247

2 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3) Given: FL 75 OAT +10 C Lean mixture 2300 RPM Find: Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS.
rispostaA
11.6 GPH TAS: 143 kt
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 GERMANY The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. 05:20
-1
3 EAAPS
(For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5) Given: FL 75 Lean mixture Full throttle 2300 RPM Take-off fuel: 444 lbs Take-off from MSL Find: Endurance in hours.
-1
Page 512 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case
rispostaC
5 000 kg
rispostaD
8 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 10 000 kg annex 033-11260A and 033-11260B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt - Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt - Initially planned takeoff mass (without extra fuel on board): 195 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
Page 513 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
6 000 kg
rispostaC
10 000 kg
rispostaD
The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 4 000 kg annex 033-11259A and 033-11259B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt - Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt - Initially planned takeoff mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
Page 514 of 1247

1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9579A, B,C,D or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 4.5.3.2) Given: Estimated takeoff mass 57000 kg, Ground distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA 10 C, Cruise at .74 Mach Find: Cruise altitude and expected true air speed 1 EAAPS
rispostaA
24000 ft, 445 kt
rispostaB
33500 ft, 430 kt
rispostaC
33900 ft, 420 kt
rispostaD
25000 ft, 435 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use Still air distance, wind annex 033-4616A or component, zero fuel Flight Planning Manual mass. MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin jet aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered with: The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 3 kg Block fuel: 181 kg The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: 2h 04min
Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate.
Distance (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass.
Distance (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate.
-1
2 EAAPS
2h 52min
2h 49min
1h 35min
-1
Page 515 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
3h38min
rispostaC
3h34min
rispostaD
2h45min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2h49min The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 136 kg Flight time: 2h45min Calculated reserve fuel: 30% of trip fuel Fuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board) Taxi fuel: 3 kg The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: (For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033-11224B and 03311224C) Given: . Take-off mass: 150 000 kg . Planned cruise at FL 350 . Long range MACH . Standard Atmosphere (ISA) . CG: 37 % You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM. Your flight time will be: 359 minutes
1 FRANCE
304 minutes
288 minutes
298 minutes
-1
1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE OPERATING MANUAL shall be entered with:
distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass
distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, dry operating mass plus holding fuel
distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate
distance in nautical air miles (NAM), wind component, landing mass at alternate
-1
Page 516 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11186A) Which best describes be maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45 N 026 E) ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11194A) The wind direction and velocity ( /kt) at 40 N 040 E is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11193A) What is the mean temperature deviation ( C) from the ISA over 50 N 010 W ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11192A) The approximate mean wind component (kt) at Mach 0.78 along true course 270 at 50N from 000 to 010 W is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11191A) The wind direction and velocity ( /kt) at 60 N 015 W is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11190A) The wind direction and velocity ( /kt) at 50 N 040 E is:
rispostaA
Severe
rispostaB
Nil
rispostaC
Moderate
rispostaD
Light
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
150/75
300/75
330/75
330/85
-1
+2
+9
+13
-2
-1
55 kt headwind component
35 kt tailwind component
25 kt tailwind component
40 kt headwind component
-1
290/155
320/155
110/155
290/185
-1
200/70
020/80
020/70
350/70
-1
Page 517 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11189A) The wind velocity over ITALY is 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
a maximum of 110 kt at FL380
rispostaB
130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart 4 900 NM
rispostaC
a maximum of 160 kt at FL 380
rispostaD
110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart 4 630 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 5 040 NM annex 033-11228A) For a long distance flight at FL 390, "Long Range" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following characteristics: - segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind component: 50 kt - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 30 kt - segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind component: 100 kt - segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 70 kt The air distance of the entire flight is approximately: Light
5 120 NM
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11187A) Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32 N 020 E) ?
Moderate
Severe
Nil
-1
Page 518 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11197A) Which affects the visibility forecast for 0000 UTC at LAHORE (OPLA) ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11185A) Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67 N 014 E)
rispostaA
Haze
rispostaB
Mist
rispostaC
Smoke
rispostaD
Dust
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 to 7 oktas CU and CB 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB Nil base below FL100, tops base FL100, tops base below FL100, tops FL180 FL180 FL180
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use Nil annex 033-11184A) Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33 N 008 W) ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11183A) In the vicinity of PARIS (49 N 003 E) the tropopause is at about 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11182A) The surface weather system over England (53 N 002 W) is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11181A) Which describes the worst hazard, if any, that could be associated with the type of feature at 38N 015 E ? FL350
Severe
Moderate
Light
-1
FL380
FL400
FL340
-1
a warm front moving southeast
a cold front moving east an occluded front moving east
a depression moving north
-1
Engine flame out and windscreen damage
Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band
Reduced visibility
There is no hazard
-1
Page 519 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
32 657 kg
rispostaC
30 117 kg
rispostaD
27 577 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
30 371 kg (For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033-11074B, 03311074C and 03311074D) Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg. The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. ISA conditions. Fuel consumption will be: (For this question use 26 950 kg annexes 033-11073A, 033-11073B, 03311073C and 03311073D) Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg; the ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt; ISA conditions. Fuel consumption will be: 290/110
1 FRANCE
22 860 kg
24 900 kg
30 117 kg
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11188A) The maximum wind velocity ( /kt) shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48 N 012 E) is :
300/140
300/100
300/160
-1
Page 520 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
192 500 kg
rispostaC
193 000 kg
rispostaD
193 400 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 193 800 kg annex 033-11208A) A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%, Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is encountered and this requires an immediate descent. The aeroplane mass at start of descent is: (For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033-11223B and 03311223C) Given: . Take-off mass: 150 000 kg . Planned cruise at FL 350 . Long range MACH . Standard Atmosphere (ISA) . CG: 37 % Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from takeoff to landing will be: 20 260 kg
1 FRANCE
22 360 kg
19 660 kg
21 760 kg
-1
Page 521 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11216A) A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: . flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of 150 000 kg . temperature: ISA . head wind component: 100 kt . remaining flight time: 1 h 40 min The ground distance that can be covered during the cruise flight is: (For this question use annex 033-11215A) A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: . optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg . temperature: ISA . tailwind component: 100 kt The fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are:
rispostaA
445 NM
rispostaB
612 NM
rispostaC
841 NM
rispostaD
2031 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 FRANCE
105 NM/1000 kg; 6515 kg/h
86 NM/1000 kg; 6515 kg/h
71 NM/1000 kg; 5330 kg/h
105 NM/1000 kg; 5330 kg/h
-1
Page 522 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11214A) Assuming the following data: . Ground distance to be covered: 2 600 NM . Cruise flight level: FL 370 . Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) . Wind: zero wind during flight . Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg . Temperature: ISA + 15 C . CG: 37 % . Total anti-ice: ON . Air conditioning: normal Fuel consumption for such a flight is:
rispostaA
29 400kg
rispostaB
27 400 kg
rispostaC
31 500 kg
rispostaD
29 100 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Page 523 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033-11213B) Assuming the following data: . Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM . Cruise flight level: FL 350 . Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) . Tailwind component: 40 kt . Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg . Temperature: ISA . CG: 37% . Total anti-ice: OFF . Air conditioning: normal Fuel consumption for such a flight is:
rispostaA
27 800 kg
rispostaB
27 000 kg
rispostaC
28 300 kg
rispostaD
29 200 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 524 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033-11212B) Assuming the following data: . Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM . Cruise flight level: FL 310 . Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) . Head wind component: 40 kt . Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg . Temperature: ISA + 15 C . CG: 37 % . Total anti-ice: ON . Pack flow: HI Fuel consumption for such a flight is:
rispostaA
23 500 kg
rispostaB
21 500 kg
rispostaC
21 700 kg
rispostaD
19 900 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Page 525 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033-11211B ) Assuming the following data: . Ground distance to be covered: 2 000 NM . Cruise flight level: FL 330 . Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) . Head wind component: 30 kt . Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg . Temperature: ISA . CG: 37% . Total anti-ice: ON . Pack flow: HI Time needed to carry out such a flight is:
rispostaA
4 h 26 min
rispostaB
5 h 02 min
rispostaC
4 h 10 min
rispostaD
4 h 43 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 5 to 7 at 500 annex 033-11195A) What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ?
3 to 4 at 500
5 to 7 at 1200
5 to 7 at 2000
-1
Page 526 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033-11209B) Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: . Cruise flight level: FL 350 . Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM . Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 29 000 kg) . Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg . Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg . Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be:
rispostaA
0 kg
rispostaB
3 000 kg
rispostaC
2 000 kg
rispostaD
4 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 2200 annex 033-11196A) What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON LHR (EGLL) ?
5000
10,000
1500
-1
Page 527 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033-11207B) A turbojet aeroplane is prepared for a 1300 NM flight at FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimize its savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded on board is:
rispostaA
12 000 kg
rispostaB
14 000 kg
rispostaC
30 000 kg
rispostaD
42 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 528 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
51 860 kg
rispostaC
52 060 kg
rispostaD
46 340 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 41 950 kg annexes 033-11204A, 033-11204B and 03311204C) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg ground distance: 4 000 NM Flight level FL 370; "Long range" flight regime Effective wind at this level: head wind of 50 kt Temperature: ISA Centre of gravity (CG): 37 % Pack flow : LOW (LO) Anti ice: OFF Reference landing mass: 140 000 kg Taxi fuel: 500 kg Final reserve fuel: 2 400 kg The fuel quantity which must be loaded on board the aircraft is: FL290
1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11202A) Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53 N 10 W) to BERLIN (53 N 13 E) ?
None
FL250
FL 210
-1
Page 529 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11201A) What mean temperature ( C) is likely on a course of 360 (T) from 40 N to 50 N at 040 E ?
rispostaA
-49
rispostaB
-50
rispostaC
-47
rispostaD
-46
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI A METAR reads : day/month SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 = Which of the following information is contained in this METAR ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-11198A) What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 10 (21-8)) The ILS localizer course is : 0800
period of validity
temperature/dewpoint
runway in use
-1
0600
Nil forecast
1000
-1
268
088
100
118
-1
Page 530 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033-11210B) Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: . Cruise flight level: FL 350 . Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM . Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg) . Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg . Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg . Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be:
rispostaA
10 000 kg
rispostaB
20 000 kg
rispostaC
12 000 kg
rispostaD
15 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 337 /31 NM annex 033- 10994A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6 ) The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ 111.25 (49 00'N 006 43'E) to LINNA (49 41'N 006 15'E) on airway R7 is:
337 /58 NM
337 /46 NM
157 /58 NM
-1
Page 531 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
D, 44 NM
rispostaC
UG 21, 69 NM
rispostaD
UG 21, 26 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Direct route, 69 NM (For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) Given: Leg Moulins(N46 24.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47 16.3 E005 05.9). Find: Route designator and total distance WCA -2 , GS 426 kt
1 GERMANY Given: True course (TC) 017 , W/V 340 /30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS) 1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9578A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45 C at FL 350, Gross mass at the beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass at the end of the leg 39000 kg Find: True air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM) for a twin jet aeroplane
WCA +2 , GS 416 kt
WCA -2 , GS 396 kt
WCA +2 , GS 396 kt
-1
TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM
TAS 433 kt, 227 NAM
TAS 423 kt, 227 NAM
TAS 433 kt, 1163 NAM
-1
Page 532 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50 03' N008 38'E) to KOKSY (51 06'N 002 39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is :
rispostaA
UG108 SPI UG1
rispostaB
UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS
rispostaC
UG1
rispostaD
UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use UA6 LSA UG52 annex 033- 10990A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43 23'N 005 05'E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46 28'N 006 27'E) above FL245 is : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use UA34 annex 033-10991A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47 26'N 001 04'E) to AGEN AGN (43 53 'N 000 52'E) above FL200 is:
UB282 DGN UB46
UB284 VILAR UB28
UB28
-1
UB19 POI UB195
UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34
UB19 CGC UA25
-1
Page 533 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
400 MSW
rispostaC
338 MNW
rispostaD
108.6 DMS
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
112.3 MUN 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route Manual chart MUNICH NDB DME Rwy 26L approach (163)) The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the published approachs are: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49 09'N010 14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49 39'N011 09'E) on airway UR11 is; 1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280, average temperature during climb ISA -10 C, average head wind component 18 kt Find: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74 050 /47 NM
230 /97NM
133 /85 NM
052 /97 NM
-1
11 min
15 min
14 min
13 min
-1
Page 534 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1 (53 39'N 009 36'E) to LUNUD (54 50'N 009 19'E) on airway H12 is:
rispostaA
352 /72 NM
rispostaB
352 /96 NM
rispostaC
339 /80 NM
rispostaD
339 /125 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 024 / 20 NM annex 033- 10996A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The initial magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL 112.4 (53 10'N 006 40'E) to WELGO (54 18'N 007 25'E) on airway A7 is: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 349 /42 NM annex 033- 10997A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2) The magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50 14'N 003 09'E) to TALUN (49 33'N 003 25'E) on airway B3 is:
024 / 47 NM
024 / 73 NM
023 / 73 NM
-1
169 /42 NM
349 /26 NM
169 /68 NM
-1
Page 535 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
279 /85 NM
rispostaC
279 /114 NM
rispostaD
311 /114 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
311 /85 NM 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53 23N 003 28'W to LIFFY (53 29'N 005 30'W) on airway B1 is: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 297 /70 NM annex 033- 10999A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53 03'N 001 40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53 23'N 003 08W) on airway VR3 is: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5 (48 37'N 009 16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49 09'N 010 14E) on airway UR11 is: 052 /50 NM
117 /71 NM
297 /57 NM
117 /57 NM
-1
007 /60 NM
105 /105 NM
132 /43 NM
-1
Page 536 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
041 /78 NM
rispostaC
061 /37 NM
rispostaD
048 /46 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
061 /28 NM 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46 28'N 006 27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46 47'N 007 14'E) on airway UG60 is: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use UR12 MID UR8 SAM annex 033- 10992A or UB11 BARLU UW115 Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51 51'N 001 09'E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48 35'N 002 05'W) above FL245 is:
UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9
UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14
UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111
-1
Page 537 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 600 kg and 36 minutes.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 1 300 kg and 28 annexes 033-3911A minutes. and 033-3911B) or (Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6) Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7) Preplanning: The wind from London to Manchester is 250 /30 kt The distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM. Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is about 50 000 kg. Find the alternate fuel and the according time. On a VFR flight plan, the total estimated time is:
1 FRANCE
the estimated time from the estimated time from engine start to landing take-off to overhead at the destination airport the destination airport
the estimated time from the estimated time from take-off to overhead the take-off to landing at destination airport, plus the alternate airport 15 minutes
-1
Page 538 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
158.6 NM
rispostaC
222.1 NM
rispostaD
160.3 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
A helicopter is on a 150 224.5 NM NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt tailwind, its endurance is 3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it is asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in distress, on a track which gives a 15 kt tailwind. Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the helicopter can fly outbound for distance of: If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write: On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "H" for "Heavy" ////
2 FRANCE
ZZZZ
AAAA
XXXX
-1
1 FRANCE
requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass
is of the highest wake turbulence category
has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg 387 ft.
has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg 268 ft.
-1
2 EAAPS
(For this question use 217 ft. annex 033-3906A or Route Manual chart SID PARIS Charles-DeGaulle (20-3)) Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow). Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome.
2 ft.
-1
Page 539 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
177 ft.
rispostaC
100 ft.
rispostaD
80 ft.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
77 ft. (For this question use annex 033-3907A or Route Manual chart STAR LONDON Heathrow (10-2)) Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow). Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome. (For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). Find the average true course from Paris to London. 142 .
2 EAAPS
330 .
343 .
322 .
-1
1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA 10 C, Average headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280 Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74
1040 kg
1138 kg
1238 kg
1387 kg
-1
Page 540 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
2 250 kg.
rispostaC
48 675 kg.
rispostaD
48 125 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 49 250 kg. annex 033-3910A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London Heathrow for a twin - jet aeroplane. Preplanning: Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kg Traffic Load: 13 000 kg The holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation. The alternate elevation is 256 ft. The holding is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions. Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate Manchester. 71 NAM, 67 NM
1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9574A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA 10 C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280 Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the enroute climb 280/.74
62 NAM, 59 NM
59 NAM, 62 NM
62 NAM, 71 NM
-1
Page 541 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 900 kg.
rispostaC
1 450 kg.
rispostaD
1 740 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 1 550 kg. annexes 033-3912A and 033-3912B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A) Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. Preplanning: Powersetting: Mach= 0.74 Planned flight level FL 280 The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000 kg The trip distance used for calculation is 200 NM The wind from Paris to London is 280 /40 kt Find the estimated trip fuel.
Page 542 of 1247

1 EAAPS Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin jet aeroplane. Preplanning: Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg Assume the following preplanning results: Trip fuel: 1 800 kg Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg Traffic Load: 13 000 kg Catering: 750 kg Baggage: 3 500 kg Find the Take-off Mass (TOM):
rispostaA
55 765 kg.
rispostaB
51 425 kg.
rispostaC
52 265 kg.
rispostaD
51 515 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 GERMANY (For this question use 26 min, 1975 kg, 157 annex 033-9564A or Nautical Air Miles Flight Planning Manual (NAM), 399 kt MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10 C, airport elevation 3000 ft
26 min, 2050 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 kt
-1
Page 543 of 1247

1 GERMANY Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
rispostaA
2 h 43 min
rispostaB
2 h 51 min
rispostaC
3 h 43 min
rispostaD
2 h 59 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 GERMANY (For this question use 1100 kg annex 033-9571A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Find: Final fuel consumption for this leg Given: Long range cruise, Temperature 63 C, FL 330, Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29 min
1000 kg
1093 kg
1107 kg
-1
Page 544 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
345 NAM; 2006 kg
rispostaC
345 NAM; 1994 kg
rispostaD
349 NAM; 2000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 GERMANY (For this question use 345 NAM; 2000 kg annex 033-9572A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5 C. The take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
2 UNITED KI (For this question use an NDB, frequency 352 a TACAN, frequency annex 033- 11013A or kHz 113.3 kHz Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The radio navigation aid at SHANNON (52 43'N 008 53'W) is : 2 EAAPS (For this question use 207 NM. annex 033-3909A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). Determine the preplanning distance by calculating the direct distance plus 10%. The preplanning distance is: 188 NM.
a VOR only, frequency 113.3 MHz
a VOR/DME, frequency 113.3 MHz
-1
308 NM.
218 NM.
-1
Page 545 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
200 ft
rispostaC
400 ft
rispostaD
480 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
280 ft 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2)) The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straightin landing is : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 346 /64 NM annex 033- 11002A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48 00'N 012 54'E) to STAUB (48 44'N 012 38'E) on airway UB5 is: 3 EAAPS Minimum planned takeoff fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary? Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without reserve fuel.
166 /64 NM
346 /43 NM
346 /45 NM
-1
Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own responsability.
Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.
Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used completely.
-1
Page 546 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
37 US gallons.
rispostaC
60 US gallons.
rispostaD
470 US gallons.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 47 US gallons. annex 033-4622A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min. Powersetting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature 5 C. Find the minimum block fuel.
Page 547 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
76 US gallons.
rispostaC
118 US gallons.
rispostaD
91 US gallons.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 86 US gallons. annex 033-4623A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min. Powersetting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1 C. Find the minimum block fuel. 5 hours 45 minutes
1 UNITED KI Given : Distance A to B 3060 NM Mean groundspeed 'out' 440 kt Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt Safe Endurance 10 hours The time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
3 hours 55 minutes
5 hours 20 minutes
5 hours 30 minutes
-1
Page 548 of 1247

1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters: 1 GERMANY "Integrated range" curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is
rispostaA
pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with minimum drag airspeed
rispostaB
pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with minimum drag airspeed
rispostaC
pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with maximum range speed
rispostaD
pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with maximum range speed
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
to determine the flight time for a certain leg under consideration of temperature deviations.
to determine the still air distance for a wind components varying with altitude.
to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost as well as the time related cost of the aeroplane. 920 NM
to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air distance considering the decreasing fuel flow with decreasing mass. 1153 NM
-1
1 UNITED KI Given : 1130 NM Distance A to B 2050 NM Mean groundspeed 'on' 440 kt Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is : 2 UNITED KI Which of the following Statement 2 only statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight planning computers ? 1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan. 2. In the event of inflight re-routing the computer produces a new plan.
1025 NM
-1
Both statements
Neither statement
Statement 1 only
-1
Page 549 of 1247

1 UNITED KI Given : Distance X to Y 2700 NM Mach Number 0.75 Temperature -45 C Mean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwind Mean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwind The distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is : 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy 22 (11-6)) The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to an alitude of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ---------3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (111)) The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ILS is:
rispostaA
1350 NM
rispostaB
1313 NM
rispostaC
1425 NM
rispostaD
1386 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(i) 2000 ft (ii) 160
(i) 200 ft (ii) 223
(i) 3000 ft (ii) 160
(i) 3000 ft (ii) 223
-1
3500 ft
2067 ft
1567 ft
4000 ft
-1
Page 550 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X) The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is :
rispostaA
100 ft
rispostaB
88 ft
rispostaC
300 ft
rispostaD
188 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 405 ft annex 033- 11062A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1)) The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide slope out, is: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use Cross at FL80 descend annex 033- 11063A or to FL70 Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 27 (21-2)) The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are : 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4)) The ILS frequency and identifier are: 108.7 IMSW
275 ft
200 ft
480 ft
-1
Cross at FL60 and maintain
Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft
Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft
-1
108.3 IMNW
108.3 IMSW
108.7 IMNW
-1
Page 551 of 1247

2 FRANCE The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
rispostaA
213 kg/h
rispostaB
188 kg/h
rispostaC
267 kg/h
rispostaD
200 kg/h
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 UNITED KI Which of the following Both statements statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of computer flight plans ? 1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan. 2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the pilot. 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11044A or Route Manual SID chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-3)) Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for the Airport? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 (11-2)) The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable, aeroplane category A is: West sector 2100 ft within 25 NM
Neither statement
Statement 1 only
Statement 2 only
-1
West sector 2300 ft within 25 NM
East sector 2100 ft within 50 NM
East sector 2300 ft within 50 NM
-1
800m
1500m
720m
600m
-1
Page 552 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
frequency paired, and have different identifiers
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0 0 -1 0
NOT frequency paired, 2 UNITED KI (For this question use and have the same annex 033- 11014A or identifier Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52 12'N 008 17'E) are: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use Channel 440, BFO on annex 033- 11015A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The NDB at DENKO (52 49'N 015 50'E) can be identified on: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use an NDB callisign N annex 033- 11016A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56 18'N 015 16'E) is marked by: 3 UNITED KI From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ? AIP (Air Information Publication)
frequency paired, and NOT frequency paired, have the same identifier and have different identifiers
Channel 440, BFO off
Frequency 440 kHz, BFO off
Frequency 440 kHz, BFO on
-1
a TACAN callsign RON a fan marker callsign LP an NDB callsign LF
-1
SIGMET
ATCC broadcasts
NOTAM
-1
3 UNITED KI From which of the NOTAM and AIP (Air Only AIP (Air SIGMET following would you Information Publication) Information Publication) expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active
RAD/NAV charts
-1
Page 553 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
SIGMET
rispostaC
AIP (Air Information Publication)
rispostaD
ATCC broadcasts
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0 0 -1 0
NOTAM 3 UNITED KI From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ? 3 EAAPS For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 2h42min The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 9 kg Block fuel: 136 kg How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? 2 UNITED KI An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42 44'N 010 24'E) to SPEZI (43 49'N 009 34'E) on airway UA35 is: 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.
-1
the airway base is 3500 the airway is a low level the minimum ft MSL link route 2100 ft - 3500 obstruction clearance ft MSL altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft 332 /76 NM 152 /42 NM 322 /60 NM
the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft
-1
332 /118 NM
-1
Page 554 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route Manual STAR chart for MADRID BARAJAS (10-2A,B)) For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is :
rispostaA
CENTA
rispostaB
MOTIL
rispostaC
VTB
rispostaD
CJN
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0 0 -1 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use ALBIX 7S annex 033- 11046A or Route Manual SID charts for ZURICH (103)) Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 67 NM annex 033- 11047A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3B)) The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use Cross ANDIK below annex 033- 11048A or FL60 Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3)) Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L?
ALBIX 7A
ALBIX 6H
ALBIX 6E
-1
35 NM
59 NM
52 NM
-1
The distance to ANDIK is 25 NM
Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME
Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude
-1
Page 555 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
DKB 1T, IAF ROKIL
rispostaC
AALEN 1T, IAF ROKIL
rispostaD
AALEN 1T, IAF MBG
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0 0 -1 0
NDG 1T, IAF ROKIL 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route Manual STAR charts for MUNICH (102A,B)) The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08 L/R is: 1 UNITED KI Given : DxOxH X = Distance A to point X = ________ of equal time (PET) O+H between A and B E = Endurance D = Distance A to B O = Groundspeed 'on' H = Groundspeed 'back' The formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is: 1 UNITED KI Given : 1 hour 42 minutes Course A to B 088 (T) distance 1250 NM Mean TAS 330 kt Mean W/V 340 /60 kt The time from A to the PET between A and B is : 3 UNITED KI From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and health formalities ? AIP (Air Information Publication)
DxH X = _____ O+H
DxO X = _____ O+H
ExOxH X = ________ O+H
-1
1 hour 54 minutes
1 hour 39 minutes
2 hours 02 minutes
-1
NAV/RAD charts
ATCC
NOTAM
-1
Page 556 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Y
rispostaC
N/S
rispostaD
G
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0 -1 0 0
X 1 UNITED KI When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 17 800 kg annexes 033-12302A and 033-12302B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1) Given : Distance C - D : 3200 NM Long Range Cruise at FL 340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +12 C Tailwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at C : 55 000 kg The fuel required from C - D is : 1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is : P
17 500 kg
14 500 kg
14 200 kg
-1
-1
Page 557 of 1247

1 UNITED KI For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least :
rispostaA
50 occasions
rispostaB
10 occasions
rispostaC
20 occasions
rispostaD
30 occasions
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0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan TAS Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as : 1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the : 1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as : estimated take-off time
IAS
CAS
Groundspeed
-1
allocated slot time
estimated off-block time estimated time over the first point en route
-1
0470K
N470
N0470
KN470
-1
1 UNITED KI When an ATS flight 1 hour flying time or plan is submitted for a 500 km flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than : 1 UNITED KI In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as : FL320
30 minutes flying time or 370 km
-1
S3200
32000
F320
-1
Page 558 of 1247

1 UNITED KI In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant point at 41 35' north 4 15' east should be entered as :
rispostaA
N04135E0415
rispostaB
N4135 E00415
rispostaC
4135N00415E
rispostaD
41 35' N 04 15'E
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0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI An aircraft plans to EDDM 2H15 depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use TRA R247 outbound to annex 033- 11040A or EKRON int Route Manual STAR charts for ZURICH (102,10-2A,10-2B)) Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should follow the following route to EKRON int: 1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing : "TBN" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box
EDDM 0215
EDDM 1415
EDDM 1215
-1
WIL R018 outbound to EKRON int
HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int
BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to EKRON int
-1
the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank
an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded
the plan may not be filed until the information is available
-1
Page 559 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11023A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) The minimum enroute altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43 46'N 007 15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42 32'N 009 29'E) is:
rispostaA
FL250
rispostaB
FL200
rispostaC
FL210
rispostaD
FL260
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use placing a tick in the annex 033-12289A) relevant box In the ATS flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by : 5 UNITED KI When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the offblock time being delayed by : 2 FRANCE 45 minutes or more
listing the items carried crossing out the box on the "REMARKS" line relevant to any equipment not carried
circling the relevant box
-1
60 minutes or more
90 minutes or more
30 minutes or more
-1
Following in-flight at least equivalent to 30 depressurisation, a minutes flying time turbine powered aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be:
at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the event that weather conditions so require
laid down by the operator, with the quantity being specified in the operating manual
at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time
-1
Page 560 of 1247

4 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
123.9 MHz.
rispostaC
5649 kHz.
rispostaD
11336 kHz.
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0 0 -1 0
During a flight at night a 17286 kHz. position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to be used is: An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50 000 kg Trip fuel= 4 300 kg Contingency fuel= 215 kg Alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg Taxi= 500 kg Block fuel= 7 115 kg Before departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: 6 400 kg.
3 EAAPS
4 300 kg.
6 185 kg.
9 000 kg.
-1
Page 561 of 1247

1 EAAPS According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA?
rispostaA
8200 ft.
rispostaB
8800 ft.
rispostaC
8500 ft.
rispostaD
12800 ft.
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0 -1 0 0
3 EAAPS
During an IFR flight in a 44 minutes. Beech Bonanza the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel?
4 minutes.
12 minutes.
63 minutes.
-1
Page 562 of 1247

5 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes.
rispostaC
TAS 5% and time 3 minutes.
rispostaD
TAS 3% and time 3 minutes.
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0 0 -1 0
TAS 5 kt and time 5 During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to minutes. deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANSRAC, are: How many hours in 0:30 hours. advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? A "current flight plan" is flight plan with the a: correct time of departure.
3 EAAPS
0:10 hours.
3:00 hours.
1:00 hour.
-1
1 EAAPS
flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC.
filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.
filed flight plan.
-1
1 UNITED KI In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of : 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47 09'N 001 37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49 10'N 000 27'W) is:
VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles
VOR ident, true bearing VOR ident, magnetic and distance in bearing and distance in kilometres kilometres
full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres
-1
FL270
FL310
FL290
FL300
-1
Page 563 of 1247

3 UNITED KI An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semicircular height rules on a magnetic course of 200 is:
rispostaA
FL300
rispostaB
FL310
rispostaC
FL320
rispostaD
FL290
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0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI An appropriate flight FL90 level for IFR flight in accordance with semicircular height rules on a course of 180 (M) is: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49 24'N 005 08'E) to CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49 08'N 003 35'E) is : 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from CHEB OKG 115.7 (50 04'N 012 24'E) to RODING RDG 114.7 (49 02'N 012 32'E) is : FL40
FL95
FL105
FL100
-1
FL60
FL70
FL50
-1
FL80
FL40
FL50
FL70
-1
Page 564 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
720
rispostaC
690
rispostaD
1590
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0 -1 0 0
1440 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route Manual chart NAP) The distance (NM) from A (64 N006 E) to C (62 N020 W) is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average true course from A (64 N006 E) to C (62 N020 W) is 259
247
271
079
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 271 annex 033-12376A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial true course from A (64 N006 E) to C (62 N020 W) is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use 775 annex 033-12377A or Route Manual chart NAP) The distance (NM) from C (62 N020 W) to B (58 N004 E) is 2 FRANCE On a flight plan you are The estimated ground required to indicate in speed the box marked "speed" the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is:
275
267
246
-1
760
725
700
-1
The true airspeed
The equivalent airspeed The indicated airspeed
-1
Page 565 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
094 / 90 NM
rispostaC
067 / 122 NM
rispostaD
113 / 142 NM
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0 -1 0 0
046 / 70 NM 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (45 49'N 001 02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (45 47'N 003 11'E) on airway UG22 is: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 3100 kg annexes 033-12303A and 033-12303B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1)) Given : Distance C - D : 680NM Long Range Cruise at FL340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : 0 C Headwind component : 60 kt Gross mass at C: 44 700 kg The fuel required from C - D is :
4000 kg
3700 kg
3400 kg
-1
Page 566 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL170
rispostaC
FL80
rispostaD
FL60
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0 -1 0 0
FL50 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49 08'N 003 35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50 14'N 003 09'E) is : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12304A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given : Brake release mass : 58 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15 The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is : 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 from MENDENASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44 36'N 003 10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43 57'N 001 50'E) is : 1400 kg
1450 kg
1350 kg
1250 kg
-1
FL300
FL310
FL290
FL280
-1
Page 567 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL80
rispostaC
FL70
rispostaD
FL50
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0 0 -1 0
FL60 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11032A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from SUBI SUI 116.7 (52 23'N 014 35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE 114.5 (52 08'N 016 44'E) is: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (4939 'N 011 09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50 03'N 008 38'E) is : FL320
FL310
FL290
FL300
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use FL230 annex 033- 11030A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50 00'N 002 00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51 03'N 000 37'W) is:
FL250
FL260
FL240
-1
Page 568 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL60
rispostaC
1000ft
rispostaD
2500 ft
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-1 0 0 0
FL100 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11029A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway B65/H65 from DOXON (55 27'N 018 10'E) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55 04'N 014 46'E) is : 2 UNITED KI An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the : maximum authorised altitude (MAA)
minimum holding altitude (MHA) FL140
base of the airway (AGL) FL60
minimum enroute altitude (MEA) 2800 ft MSL
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 1000 ft MSL annex 033- 11027A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2) The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY JSY 112.2 (49 13'N 002 03'W) to LIZAD (49 35'N 004 20'W) is : 2 UNITED KI An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that:
-1
the minimum enroute the airway base is 1500 the airways extends altitude (MEA) is FL 80. ft MSL. from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80.
1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).
-1
Page 569 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL110
rispostaC
FL80
rispostaD
4100ft MSL
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0 -1 0 0
2900 ft MSL 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU 113.1 (52 00'N 005 02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51 43'N 003 16'W) is : 2 UNITED KI ((For this question use FL245 annex 033- 11024A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53 23'N 003 08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51 03'N 000 37'W) is : 3 EAAPS You have a flight plan You will get a separate IFR from Amsterdam to clearance for the London. In the flight deviation. plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight planned route. Which of the following statements is correct?
FL250
FL330
FL290
-1
It is not allowed to file such a flight plan.
The route according to the flight plan is accepted.
The filed deviation is not accepted.
-1
Page 570 of 1247

3 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours and 37 minutes. Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM, 20 C lean. Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5 C. The minimum block fuel is:
rispostaA
208 lbs
rispostaB
270 lbs
rispostaC
250 lbs
rispostaD
265 lbs
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0 0 0 -1
1 UNITED KI When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as : 1 EAAPS Which of the following statements regarding filing a flight plan is correct?
1H55
115M
0115
0155
-1
A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights.
In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in advance of the time of departure.
Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure.
A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed.
-1
Page 571 of 1247

1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given :FL 330; long range cruise; OAT 63 C; gross mass 50 500 kg. Find: true airspeed (TAS)
rispostaA
420 kt
rispostaB
433 kt
rispostaC
431 kt
rispostaD
418 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 EAAPS
(For this question use FL 320 annex 033-3312A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50 08.1'N 001 51.3'E) to Biggin (51 19.8'N 00 00.2'E). What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR flightplan ? (For this question use 64NM annex 033-3313A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50 08.1'N 001 51.3'E) to Biggin (51 19.8'N 000 00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg ?
FL 300
FL 310
FL 330
-1
2 EAAPS
62NM
100 NM
38 NM
-1
Page 572 of 1247

2 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
The magnetic great circle course from Biggin to Abbeville.
rispostaC
The magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin.
rispostaD
The average true course of the great circle from Biggin to Abbeville.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The radial, referenced (For this question use to true north, of Biggin annex 033-3314A or to fly inbound. Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50 08.1'N 001 51.3'E) to Biggin (51 19.8'N 00 00.2'E). At Biggin you can find : 141 . This is : (For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48 00.2'N 012 53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46 37.5'N 014 33.8'E). Which statement is correct ? The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends.
2 EAAPS
The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg.
The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to the north.
The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200.
-1
2 ICELAND
A descent is planned 15,0 NM from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is : neither SID nor STAR should be entered
11,7 NM
30,2 NM
27,1 NM
-1
1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist :
both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate
SIDs should be entered but not STARs
STARS should be entered but not SIDs
-1
Page 573 of 1247

1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined as : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12285A) In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier must always : 1 EAAPS
rispostaA
10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
rispostaB
20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
rispostaC
20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more
rispostaD
5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
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0 0 0 -1
be the RTF callsign to be used
include the aircraft registration marking
include the operating agency designator
include an indication of the aircraft type
-1
(For this question use 1040 kg annex 033-3309A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given : mass at brake release 57 500 kg; temperature ISA -10 C; average head wind component 16 kt initial cruise FL 280 Find: climb fuel Central European Time
1138 kg
1238 kg
1387 kg
-1
1 UNITED KI When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in :
UTC
Local mean time
local standard time
-1
Page 574 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
59 NAM;62 NM
rispostaC
67 NAM; 71 NM
rispostaD
71 NAM;67 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
62 NAM; 59 NM (For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given : brake release mass 57 500 kg temperature ISA -10 C; head wind component 16 kt initial FL 280 Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the climb LRC
1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with a start of diversion mass of 55000kg a diversion of 600 nautical miles should be achieved in 90 minutes. Using the above table, the only listed cruise technique to meet that requirement is : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12281A) Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes "NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT". In this case "NUMBER" means :
M/KIAS .74/330
M/KIAS .74/290
M/KIAS .70/280
-1
the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643
the number of aircraft flying in a group
the registration number of the aircraft
the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL)
-1
Page 575 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
"ZZZZ" followed by an entry in Item 18
rispostaC
"XXXX" followed by an entry in Item 18
rispostaD
the most descriptive abbreviation
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
"NONE" 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12280A) When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered : 1 UNITED KI For the purposes of unclassified "U" Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is : 1 UNITED KI An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12277A) In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered ? medium plus "M+"
medium "M"
heavy "H"
light "L"
-1
heavy "H"
heavy/medium "H/M"
medium "M"
-1
EQUIPMENT
ROUTE
AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
OTHER INFORMATION
-1
Page 576 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12276A) In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route : 1 FRANCE An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that calculation up of usable fuel for a flight for which no destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for:
rispostaA
the letters "DCT" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route
rispostaB
it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route
rispostaC
the words "as cleared" should be entered
rispostaD
it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in standard conditions
30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions
2 hours at normal cruise consumption
45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours whichever is less
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12275A) In the ATS flight plan Item 10, "standard equipment" is considered to be :
VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS
VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder
VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
-1
Page 577 of 1247

1 EAAPS (For this question use annex 033-9739A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from PEITING (47 48.0'N, 010 55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47 33.5'N, 010 13.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles.
rispostaA
5500 ft
rispostaB
6600 ft
rispostaC
5300 ft
rispostaD
6900 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 EAAPS
(For this question use 32 NM annex 033-9738A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from PEITING (47 48.0'N, 010 55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47 33.5'N, 010 13.0'E) determine the distance. X
46 NM
58 NM
36 NM
-1
1 UNITED KI In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters schould be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) :
N/S
-1
Page 578 of 1247

2 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Carles-de-Gaulle) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London. Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A. 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average magnetic course from A (64 N006 E) to C (62 N020 W) is 1 EAAPS
rispostaA
72.5 NM
rispostaB
56 NM
rispostaC
83 NM
rispostaD
74.5 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
259
247
279
271
-1
Mark the correct a destination alternate statement: is not required. If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning,
the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point.
the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point.
the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate.
-1
Page 579 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
345 NAM; 2000 kg
rispostaC
350 NAM; 2000 kg
rispostaD
345 NAM; 2100 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 437 NAM; 2100 kg annex 033-3306A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280 is 48 min. Cruise procedure is long range cruise (LRC). Temp. ISA -5 C Take-off mass 56 000 kg Climb fuel 1 100 kg Find: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption: (For this question use 14 min annex 033-3307A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: estimated takeoff mass 57 500 kg; initial cruise FL 280; average temperature during climb ISA -10 C; average head wind component 18 kt Find: climb time
1 EAAPS
13 min
11 min
15 min
-1
Page 580 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
MC 141 , GS 396 kt, WCA -3
rispostaC
MC 321 , GS 396 kt, WCA -3
rispostaD
MC 141 , GS 396 kt, WCA +3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 GERMANY (For this question use MC 319 , GS 396 kt, annexes 033-9710A, WCA -3 033-9710B and 0339710C or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow). Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5 W, enroute TAS 430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM. Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of descent. 2 GERMANY (For this question use MC 349 , GS 414 kt, annex 033-9709A or WCA -5 SID chart Paris Charles de Gaulle 20-3 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London. SID is ABB 8A. Assume Variation 3 W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and distance to top of climb 50NM Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from top of climb to ABB 116.6.
MC 169 , GS 414 kt, WCA +5
MC 349 , GS 414 kt, WCA +5
MC 169 , GS 450 kt, WCA +4
-1
Page 581 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
427 kt
rispostaC
417 kt
rispostaD
430 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
440 kt 1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation -10 C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74 Determine the TAS 2 GERMANY (For this question use 60 NM annexes 033-9707A, 033-9707B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, Instrument approach chart ILS DME Rwy 27R) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin VOR . Given: distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is 76 NM Determine the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD.
100 NM
55 NM
49 NM
-1
Page 582 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
320 kg
rispostaC
273 kg
rispostaD
263 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 GERMANY (For this question use 210 kg annex 033-9706A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280 /40 kt, Average True Course 320 , Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). 6 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280 /40 kt, Average True Course 320 , Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). 10 min
17 min
8 min
19 min
-1
Page 583 of 1247

1 EAAPS Given : true track 017; W/V 340/30; TAS 420 kt Find : wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
rispostaA
WCA -2 ; GS 396 kt
rispostaB
WCA +2 ; GS 396 kt
rispostaC
WCA -2 ; GS 426 kt
rispostaD
WCA +2 ; GS 416 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-deGaulle to top of climb 50 NM Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6. 5 EAAPS An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible?
36.5 NM
31 NM
24.5 NM
33 NM
-1
Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "cancelling my IFR flight".
No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan.
No, only ATC can order Yes, but only with you to do this. permission from ATC.
-1
Page 584 of 1247

1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Takeoff Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280 /40 kt, ISA Deviation -10 C, Average True Course 340 Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC) 1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Takeoff Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280 /40 kt, ISA Deviation -10 C, Average True Course 340 Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
rispostaA
1100 kg
rispostaB
1500 lbs
rispostaC
1000 kg
rispostaD
1000 lbs
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
15 min
11 min
3 min
12 min
-1
Page 585 of 1247

1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033-9699B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 5.1 and Figure 4.5.1) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Takeoff Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280 /40 kt, ISADeviation -10 C, Average True Course 340 Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC) 1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Elevation at destination aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft Find: Final reserve fuel
rispostaA
53 NM
rispostaB
47 NM
rispostaC
50 NM
rispostaD
56 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1180 kg
2360 kg
1150 kg
2300 kg
-1
Page 586 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
2360 kg, 30 min
rispostaC
2360 kg, 01 h 00 min
rispostaD
1180 kg, 45 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1180 kg, 30 min 1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL, Destination elevation 1500 ft Find: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time 1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg, Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component 10 kt Find: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with simplified flight planning (ALTERNATE PLANNING) 800 kg, 24 min
800 kg, 0.4 hr
1000 kg, 24 min
1000 kg, 40 min
-1
Page 587 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
12000 kg, 03 h 51 min
rispostaC
12400 kg, 04 h 00 min
rispostaD
11400 kg, 04 h 12 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
11600 kg, 04 h 15 min 1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C) Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to destination aerodrome is 1600 NM, Headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA Deviation +20 C and Landing mass 55000 kg Find: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight planning 1 GERMANY (For this question use 4750 kg, 02 h 00 min annexes 033-9494A and 033-9694B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 and Figure 4.3.1B) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg, Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel 2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination: Distance 720 NM, True course 030 , W/V 340 /30 kt, Long range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature -30 C Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planning
4600 kg, 02 h 05 min
4800 kg, 01 h 51 min
4400 kg, 02 h 05 min
-1
Page 588 of 1247

1 EAAPS Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kg Find: Maximum additional load Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kg Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel (For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise, Outside air temperature -63 C, Gross mass 50500 kg Find: True air speed (TAS)
rispostaA
7000 kg
rispostaB
5600 kg
rispostaC
3000 kg
rispostaD
4000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 EAAPS
11100 kg
11400 kg
14400 kg
8600 kg
-1
1 EAAPS
418 kt
420 kt
433 kt
431 kt
-1
Page 589 of 1247

6 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280 /40 kt, Average True Course 320 , Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the distance from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12367A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4) A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route Manual SID chart for MUNICH(103C,10-3D)) Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 26L ?
rispostaA
87 NM
rispostaB
97 NM
rispostaC
65 NM
rispostaD
76 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
140kg
150kg
290kg
278kg
-1
KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRA
KEMPTEN THREE ECHO
KEMPTEN THREE QUEBEC
KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER
-1
Page 590 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A
rispostaC
30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A
rispostaD
30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
In a flight plan when the 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above destination aerodrome aerodrome B is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: The Trip Fuel for a jet 12 700 kg aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
2 FRANCE
10 000 kg
13 000 kg
13 050 kg
-1
Page 591 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
79 200 kg
rispostaC
77 800 kg
rispostaD
76 100 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
For turbojet engine 80 500 kg driven aeroplane, given: Taxi fuel 600 kg Fuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/h Fuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/h Alternate fuel 10 200 kg Planned flight time to destination 6h Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m The minimum ramp fuel required is: If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of minutes is: 10
4 FRANCE
45
30
15
-1
Page 592 of 1247

2 FRANCE An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another. In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is I50 kt, true airspeed 180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows: 1 FRANCE A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: ParisOrly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of that flight to Limoges.
rispostaA
K0180
rispostaB
K0150
rispostaC
N0180
rispostaD
K0210
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before the planned time of arrival.
The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight plan has to be filed.
The airline's "Operations " Department has to tansmit a change in the RPL at the ATC office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure.
It is not possible to plan another destination and the fIight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not chartered).
-1
Page 593 of 1247

3 FRANCE From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan notification: I - Any Public Transport flight. 2 - Any IFR flight 3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue. 4 - Any cross-border flights 5 - Any flight which involves overflying water 1 FRANCE An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant. The duration of the flight will be:
rispostaA
3+4+5
rispostaB
2+4
rispostaC
1+5
rispostaD
1+2+3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2h 35min
3h 00min
2h 10min
2h 32min
-1
Page 594 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12352A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply : Tail wind component 25 kt Temperature ISA -10 C Cruise altitude 31000ft Landing mass 52000kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply : Tail wind 25kt Temperature ISA - 10 C Brake release mass 66000kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
rispostaA
(a) 13600kg (b) 6 hr 30 min
rispostaB
(a) 12000kg (b) 5 hr 15 min
rispostaC
(a) 14200kg (b) 5 hr 30 min
rispostaD
(a) 16200kg (b) 5 hr 45 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(a) 14600kg (b) 5hr 45 min
(a) 15000kg (b) 6hr 00 min
(a) 14000kg (b) 5hr 35 min
(a) 15800kg (b)6hr 20 min
-1
Page 595 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
3250 NM
rispostaC
3740 NM
rispostaD
3640 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 3500 NM annex 033-12350A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply : Tail wind component 10kt Temperature ISA +10 C Brake release mass 63000kg Trip fuel available 20000kg What is the maximum possible trip distance ? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use VOR/DME and NDB, annex 033- 11011A or identifier LXI Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47 41'N 006 18'E) is a:
VOR/DME only, identifier LUL
VOR only, identifier LUL VOR, identifier LUL, frequency paired with TACAN identifier LXI
-1
Page 596 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate, based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA. Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is :
rispostaA
735 NM
rispostaB
794 NM
rispostaC
810 NM
rispostaD
875 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use VOR/DME only, annex 033- 11010A or frequency 114.1 MHz Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45 04'N 012 17'E) is a: 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average magnetic course from C (62 N020 W) to B (58 N004 E) is 099
VOR/DME, frequency 114.1 MHz, and NDB frequency 408 kHz
VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN channel 408
VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN frequency 408 MHz
-1
118
119
109
-1
Page 597 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average true course from C (62 N020 W) to B (58 N004 E) is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial magnetic course from C (62 N020 W) to B (58 N004 E) is
rispostaA
119
rispostaB
099
rispostaC
120
rispostaD
109
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
098
113
116
080
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 116 annex 033-12371A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial true course from C (62 N020 W) to B (58 N004 E) is
080
278
098
-1
Page 598 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply : Temperature ISA -10 C Cruise altitude 29000ft Landing mass 45000kg Trip fuel available 16000kg What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted ? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply: Temperature ISA +15 C Brake release mass 62000kg Trip time 5hr 20 min What is the trip fuel ?
rispostaA
35 kt
rispostaB
15kt
rispostaC
70kt
rispostaD
0
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
13800kg
13500kg
13000kg
13200kg
-1
Page 599 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
(a) 19000 kg (b) 7hr 45min
rispostaC
(a) 18100 kg (b) 7hr 20 min
rispostaD
(a) 15800 kg (b) 6hr 00 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use (a) 21800 kg annex 033-12347A or (b) 9hr 25 min Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following apply : Tail wind component 50 kt Temperature ISA +10 C Brake release mass 65000kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are : 2 UNITED KI (For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply : Tail wind component 45kt Temperature ISA - 10 C Cruise altitude 29000ft Landing mass 55000kg The (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are : (a) 16000kg (b) 6hr 25 min
(a) 17100kg (b) 6hr 07 min
(a) 18000kg (b)5hr 50 min
(a) 20000kg (b) 6hr 40 min
-1
Page 600 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the data given, a temperature decrease of 30 C will affect the trip time by approximately : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by approximately : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial magnetic course from A (64 N006 E) to C (62 N020 W) is
rispostaA
-10%
rispostaB
+ 7%
rispostaC
+3%
rispostaD
-4%
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
+5.3%
+2.3%
-3.6%
+7.6%
-1
271
262
275
267
-1
Page 601 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) Given the following : Head wind component 50 kt Temperature ISA + 10 C Brake release mass 65000kg Trip fuel available 18000kg What is the maximum possible trip distance ?
rispostaA
2540 NM
rispostaB
2740 NM
rispostaC
3100 NM
rispostaD
3480 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 584 NM annex 033-12365A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of :
563 NM
603 NM
608 NM
-1
Page 602 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
177 (G)
rispostaC
194 (G)
rispostaD
172 (G)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
353 (G) 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) The initial great circle course from position A (80 00'N 170 00'E) to position B (75 00'N 011 E) is 177 (G). The final grid course at position B will be : 1 EAAPS (For this question use 356 annex 033-9734A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48 03.5'N, 008 27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48 28.0'N, 008 24.0'E) determine the magnetic course. (For this question use 24 NM annex 033-9735A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48 03.5'N, 008 27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48 28.0'N, 008 24.0'E) determine the distance.
176
004
185
-1
1 EAAPS
46 NM
28 NM
24 km
-1
Page 603 of 1247

1 EAAPS
rispostaA
rispostaB
1500 ft
rispostaC
3900 ft
rispostaD
2900 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
(For this question use 4200 ft annex 033-9736A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48 03.5'N, 008 27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48 28.0'N, 008 24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles. 16 300 kg
1 GERMANY Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33500 kg Load= 7600 kg Maximum allowable take-off mass= 66200 kg Standard taxi fuel= 200 kg Tank capacity= 16 100 kg The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
17 300 kg
15 900 kg
17 100 kg
-1
Page 604 of 1247

2 GERMANY Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Load= 7600 kg Trip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
rispostaA
Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.
rispostaB
Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg.
rispostaC
Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.
rispostaD
Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 GERMANY Given: 42312 kg. Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kg Load= 8110 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg The estimated landing mass at alternate should be : 2 GERMANY Given: 42195 kg. Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Load= 7600 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg The estimated landing mass at alternate should be : 1 GERMANY The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is: 60 min.
42195 kg.
41110 kg.
42210 kg.
-1
42093 kg.
42210 kg.
42312 kg.
-1
Variable with wind velocity.
30 min.
45 min.
-1
Page 605 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
6300 ft.
rispostaC
6000 ft.
rispostaD
6600 ft.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
7800 ft. 1 GERMANY How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: FL 75; departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft; QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1 hPa = 30 ft 1 GERMANY VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given: Distance to alternate 950 NM Head wind component 20 kt Mass at point of diversion 50000kg Diversion fuel available 5800kg The minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met is : 1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. 18000ft
2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft. 22000ft
500 ft above the heighest obstacle.
the heighest obstacle.
-1
20000ft
26000ft
-1
Page 606 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
(a) 3900kg (b) 1h 45min
rispostaC
(a) 6200kg (b) 2h 10min
rispostaD
(a) 4400kg (b) 1h 35min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use (a) 4800kg annex 033-12360A or (b) 2h 03min Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given: Diversion distance 650 NM Diversion pressure altitude 16 000 ft Mass at point of diversion 57 000 kg Head wind component 20 kt Temperature ISA + 15 C The diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are approximately :
2 UNITED KI (For this question use an NDB, frequency 420 an NDB, frequency 420 a TACAN, channel 420 annex 033- 11012A or kHz, continuous kHz, NOT continuous Route Manual chart operation operation E(LO)1) The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54 37'N 005 53'W) is :
a fan marker, frequency 420 kHz
-1
Page 607 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
(a) 1130 NM (b) 3h 30 min
rispostaC
(a) 860 NM (b) 3h 20 min
rispostaD
(a) 1000 NM (b) 3h 40 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use (a) 760 NM annex 033-12358A or (b) 4h 30 min Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given: Diversion fuel available 8500kg Diversion cruise altitude 10000ft Mass at point of diversion 62500kg Head wind component 50kt Temperature ISA -5 C The (a) maximum diversion distance, and (b) elapsed time alternate, are approximately :
Page 608 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12341A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following apply : Head wind component 10 kt Temperature ISA -5 C Trip fuel available 15000 kg Landing mass 50000kg What is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude) which may be planned ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64 00'N 022 36' W) to Vigra (62 33'N 006 02'E) measures 084 . On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000 meridian the initial grid course will be :
rispostaA
22000 ft
rispostaB
14000 ft
rispostaC
10000 ft
rispostaD
17000 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
080
096
066
106
-1
Page 609 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
(a) 262 (b) 1720 NM
rispostaC
a) 281 (b) 2730 NM
rispostaD
a) 244 (b) 1520 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
a) 281 1 UNITED KI (For this question use (b) 1877 NM annex 033-12354A or Route Manual chart NAP) On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52 43' N 008 53'W) to Gander (48 54'N054 32'W), the (a) average true course, and (b) distance, are : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) On airway PTS P from Vigra (62 334N 006 02'E), the initial great circle grid course is : 1 FRANCE An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48 C and the headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be: 350
344
353
347
-1
0.80
0.78
0.76
0.72
-1
Page 610 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL290
rispostaC
FL330
rispostaD
FL370
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
On a given path, it is FL270 possible to chose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60 C HWC = 15 kt FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60 C HWC= 5 kt FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55 C HWC = 15 kt FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43 C HWC = 0 The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
Page 611 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
SANTA MARIA
rispostaC
BERMUDAS
rispostaD
Either GANDER or BERMUDAS
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
A twin-jet aeroplane BERMUDAS or carries out the GANDER, or SANTA WASHINGTONMARIA PARIS flight. When it reaches point K (35 N 048 W) a nonmechanical event makes the Captain consider rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight conditions are: - from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind component=18 kt) - from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind component=120 kt) - from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind component=0). With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field selected will be that more rapidly reached:
1 GERMANY (For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2) Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following data. Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA conditions
2300 kg/h
1150 kg/h
2994 kg/h
1497 kg/h
-1
Page 612 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
TACAN, channel 84, and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only
rispostaC
TACAN, channel 84, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz only
rispostaD
VORTAC, frequency 113.7 MHz, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
TACAN only, channel 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 84, (frequency 113.7 annex 033- 11005A or MHz) Route Manual chart E(LO)1 ) The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54 12'N 001 22'W) is a: 2 FRANCE A public transport 30 minutes at holding aeroplane with speed reciprocating engines,is flying from PARlS to LYON. The final reserve corresponds to:
45 minutes at holding speed
2 hours at cruise consumption
1 hour at holding speed
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use VOR, frequency 114.0 annex 033- 11007A or MHz, and TACAN Route Manual chart channel 87 E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48 38N 004 53'E) is a: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use a VOR only, frequency annex 033- 11008A or 115.0 MHz Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47 36'N 008 49'E) is : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use a TACAN, on channel annex 033- 11009A or 386 Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid STAD (51 45'N 004 15'E) is:
TACAN, channel 114.0
TACAN, channel 87, and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz
TACAN, channel 87, frequency 114.0 MHz
-1
a VOR/DME, frequency an NDB only, frequency a TACAN, frequency 115.0MHz 115.0 kHz 115.0 MHz
-1
an NDB, frequency 386 a VOR, frequency 386 kHz MHz
a VOR/DME, on channel 386
-1
Page 613 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
20000ft
rispostaC
26000ft
rispostaD
16000ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 14500ft annex 033-12359A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given: Diversion distance 720NM Tail wind component 25kt Mass at point of diversion 55000kg Temperature ISA Diversion fuel available 4250kg What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met ? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 20 500 kg annexes 033-12306A and 033-12306B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3) Given : Distance B - C : Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature : - 52 C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at B: 64 500 kg The fuel required from B - C is :
20 800 kg
17 100 kg
16 800 kg
-1
Page 614 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12317A ) What is the temperature deviation ( C) from ISA over 50 N 010 E ?
rispostaA
+10
rispostaB
-10
rispostaC
-55
rispostaD
+2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 155/40 annex 033-12316A ) The W/V ( /kt) at 40 N 020 W is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12315A) What mean temperature ( C) is likely on a true course of 270 from 025 E to 010 E at 45 N ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12314A ) The W/V ( /kt) at 50 N015 W is: -48
310/40
334/40
135/40
-1
-52
-54
-50
-1
100/75
290/75
310/85
310/75
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 2900 kg annex 033-12313A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given : Distance to Alternate : 400 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 50 000kg Headwind component : 25 kt The alternate fuel required is :
2650 kg
2800 kg
2550 kg
-1
Page 615 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
(a) 15800 kg (b) 6hr 15 min
rispostaC
(a) 16200 kg (b) 6hr 20 min
rispostaD
(a) 18400 kg (b) 7hr 00 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(a) 17000 kg 2 UNITED KI (For this question use (b) 6hr 45 min annex 033-12340A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply : Head wind component 20 kt Temperature ISA + 15 C Brake release mass 64700 kg The (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 1125 kg annex 033-12311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) - HOLDING PLANNING) The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern, at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is : 2 UNITED KI (For this question use -7% annex 033-12343A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30 C will affect the trip time by approximately :
1635 kg
1090 kg
1690 kg
-1
-5%
+5%
+8%
-1
Page 616 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033-12309B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4) Given : Distance B - C : 350 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature : - 40 C Tailwind component : 70 kt Gross mass at B: 53 200 kg The fuel required from B - C is : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12318A) The W/V ( /kt) at 60 N015 W is
rispostaA
1810 kg
rispostaB
1940 kg
rispostaC
2800 kg
rispostaD
2670 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
320/60
115/60
300/60
300/70
-1
Page 617 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033-12307B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3) Given : Distance B - C : 1200 NM Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature Deviation from ISA : 14 C Tailwind component : 40 kt Gross mass at B : 50 200 kg The fuel required from B - C is :
rispostaA
7050 kg
rispostaB
6150 kg
rispostaC
5850 kg
rispostaD
7300 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 2750 kg annex 033-12312A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 45 000 kg Tailwind component : 50 kt The Alternate fuel required is :
3050 kg
2900 kg
2500 kg
-1
Page 618 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11245A and 033-11245B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 5 kt - Initially planned takeoff mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure; 0.315 $/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
rispostaA
8 000 kg
rispostaB
The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.
rispostaC
22 000 kg
rispostaD
15 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 619 of 1247

1 FRANCE (For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033-11244B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 50 kt - Initially planned takeoff mass (without extra fuel on board): 170 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure; 0.30 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
rispostaA
rispostaB
18 000 kg
rispostaC
32 000 kg
rispostaD
8 000 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Page 620 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
15 000 kg
rispostaC
8 000 kg
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 22 000 kg annex 033-11243A and 033-11243B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: - 55 kt - Initially planned takeoff mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure; 0.27 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander decides to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
Page 621 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
34 430 kg
rispostaC
32 480 kg
rispostaD
28 720 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 30 440 kg annex 033-11241A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime - Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg - Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM - Temperatures: ISA - CG: 37% - Headwind component: 30 kt - "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight - No requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumption The fuel consumption (from take-off to landing) is:
Page 622 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
0.30 $/l
rispostaC
0.24 $/l
rispostaD
0.28 $/l
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
(For this question use 0.29 $/l annex 033-11240A and 033-11240B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 55 kt - Initially planned takeoff mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destination The commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel than that which is necessary. For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at departure must be:
Page 623 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
0.26 $/l
rispostaC
0.28 $/l
rispostaD
0.33 $/l
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use 0.27 $/l annex 033-11239A and 031-11239B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 55 kt - Initially planned takeoff mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departure The commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8 000 kg in addition to that which is necessary. For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at arrival must be:
Page 624 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
20 900 kg
rispostaC
22 160 kg
rispostaD
29 440 kg
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
(For this question use 27 770 kg annex 033-11238A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime - (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500 kg - Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM - Temperatures: ISA - Headwind component: 70 kt - "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight - no requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumption The fuel required from take-off to landing is: 1750 kg
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given : Brake release mass : 62 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15 C The fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is :
1800 kg
1700 kg
1650 kg
-1
Page 625 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D)) The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are:
rispostaA
7000ft and 250kt
rispostaB
9000ft and 250kt
rispostaC
7000 ft and 220kt
rispostaD
9000ft and 220kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 UNITED KI (For this question use 4200 kg annexes 033-12308A and 033-12308B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4) Given : Distance C - D : 540 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +20 C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at C: 60 000 kg The fuel required from C to D is :
3350 kg
3680 kg
4620 kg
-1
Page 626 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply : Head wind component 15 kt Temperature ISA + 15 C Cruise altitude 35000 ft Landing mass 50000 kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12334A ) What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12333A ) Which best describes the weather, if any, at LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12332A) The surface wind velocity ( /kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DEGAULLE at 1330 UTC was
rispostaA
(a) 17600 kg (b) 6 hr 50 min
rispostaB
(a) 16200 kg (b) 6 hr 20 min
rispostaC
(a) 17000 kg (b) 6 hr 10 min
rispostaD
(a) 20000 kg (b) 7hr 00 min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1800
1300
0800
nil
-1
fog
nil
light rain associated with thunderstorms
frequent rain showers
-1
270/04
300/05
270/08
180/12
-1
Page 627 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
3 to 4 at 800
rispostaC
1 to 2 at 3000
rispostaD
1 to 4 at 3000
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 to 4 at 2000 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12331A ) The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNA C at 1330 UTC were 1 UNITED KI (For this question use nil annex 033-12335A ) Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNA C at 1000 UTC ? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use 1090 kg annex 033-12310A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) - HOLDING PLANNING The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is : 1 UNITED KI (For this question use 10 annex 033-12336A ) What maximum surface windspeed (kt) is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNA C at 1600 UTC ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12319A) The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true course 180 from 50 N to 40 N at 005 W is tail wind 55 kt
light rain
rain showers
heavy rain associated with thunderstorms
-1
1010 kg
1310 kg
2180 kg
-1
30
25
-1
tail wind 40 kt
tail wind 70 kt
headwind 55 kt
-1
Page 628 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12330A ) The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-DEGAULLE TAFs totals (hours)
rispostaA
27
rispostaB
9
rispostaC
18
rispostaD
20
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 2000m annex 033-12337A ) What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES-DEGAULLE at 2100 UTC ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use 5 to 7 at 800 annex 033-12329A ) What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JA N SMUTS at 0300 UTC? 1 EAAPS (For this question use 063 annex 033-9737A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from PEITING (47 48.0'N, 010 55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47 33.5'N, 010 13.0'E) determine the magnetic course.
6000m
10km
8000m
-1
3 to 4 at 400
5 to 7 at 400
3 to 4 at 800
-1
257
077
243
-1
Page 629 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12338A ) Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JA N SMUTS at 0400 UTC?
rispostaA
CAVOK
rispostaB
mist and/or fog
rispostaC
patches of fog
rispostaD
rain associated with thunderstorms
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI (For this question use 270 annex 033-12328A ) Over LONDON (51 N000 E/W), the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is: 1 UNITED KI (For this question use 250/85 annex 033-12327A ) The maximum wind velocity ( /kt) immediately north of TUNIS (36 N010 E) is 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12326A ) Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44 N001 E) ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12325A ) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over TOULOUSE (44 N001 E) ? light
310
360
230
-1
180/105
190/95
280/110
-1
nil
severe
moderate
-1
broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL270
well separated CB base isolated CB embedded FL100 tops to FL 270 in layer cloud, surface to FL270
5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270
-1
Page 630 of 1247

1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12324A ) In the vicinity of SHANNON (52 N009 W) the tropopause is at about FL 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12323A ) The surface system over VIENNA (48 N016 E) is a 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12322A ) Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 in the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44 N 01 E) ?
rispostaA
360
rispostaB
350
rispostaC
300
rispostaD
270
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
cold front moving east
warm front moving north stationary occlued front
cold front moving west
-1
moderate or severe
moderate
light
nil
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use moderate annex.033-12321A ) Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53 N013 E) ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 033-12320A ) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area east of Tunis (36 N010 E) ?
severe
light
nil
-1
5 to 7 oktas CU and AC 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops base below FL100 tops base FL100 tops base FL100 tops FL180 FL180 FL180 FL160
-1
40
Page 631 of 1247

3 GERMANY Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude 6 GERMANY The human performance is generally 6 GERMANY Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
of 10 000 FT
rispostaD
lower than 10 000 FT
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
of 15000 FT when above 10 000 FT breathing 100% oxygen
constant throughout the better when relaxed, day independent of the period of day frustration
better very early in the morning
always better in the evening than in the morning workload, because using checklists will increase the pilots workload prior take-off
-1
safety, because the stress, because time concentration on the pressure prior take-off check list items will is always present draw the pilots attention to flight related tasks, reducing distraction from personal stress Only 5 is false 1, 2 and 3 are correct
-1
1 GERMANY Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to hypoxia? 1. Fatigue. 2. Euphoria. 3. Lack of concentration. 4. Pain in the joints. 5. Sensation of suffocation. 2 GERMANY What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when flying in the clouds? 4 UNKNOW The "ideal professional pilot" is, in his behaviour,
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
4 and 5 are correct
-1
Fly straight and level and avoid head movements "person" and "goal" oriented
Switch strobe-lights off
Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections
Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds
-1
rather "person" than "goal" oriented
neither "person" nor "goal" oriented
rather "goal" than "person" oriented
-1
Page 632 of 1247

3 GERMANY Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)
rispostaA
is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may be lost 5 - 8%
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% oxygen is taken 20 - 25%
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
is approx. 0.3% per hour depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of alcohol 0.5 - 2% Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance
3 GERMANY Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?
-1
3 GERMANY A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day? 3 GERMANY Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:
12 - 18%
-1
a mild carbon monoxide a suppressed desire to poisoning increasing eat and drink the pilots tolerance to hypoxia
a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilots tolerance to hypoxia
a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's tolerance to hypoxia
-1
Page 633 of 1247

2 GERMANY Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision: 1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance 2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly 3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balaced diet containing sufficient vitamin A 4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision
rispostaA
1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct
rispostaB
1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
rispostaC
rispostaD
Only 4 is false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Page 634 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
rispostaC
3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.
rispostaD
Only 2 is false.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 GERMANY The consumption of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly for the following reasons: 1. The desease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification. 2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment. 3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety. 4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped. 3 GERMANY Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the following undesirable effects: 1. Drowsiness, dizziness 2. Dry mouth 3. Headaches 4. Impaired depth perception 5. Nausea 3 GERMANY When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention has to be payed to only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
2, 3 and 4 are correct
only 1 is correct
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
-1
the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep produced under the influence of those drugs compared to normal drug-free sleep
schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these medications
the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness
the effect they have on hearing
-1
Page 635 of 1247

3 GERMANY Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may 1 SPAIN One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation
rispostaA
increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood are the bends
rispostaB
intensify the effects of the drugs are the chokes
rispostaC
compensate for side effects of drugs is a shock
rispostaD
show undesired effects only during night flights are neurological damages to the CNS
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
-1
1 GERMANY Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating? 1. Dizziness 2. Muscular spasms 3. Visual disturbances 4. Cyanosis 1 GERMANY What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)? 1. Pressure breathing. 2. Anxiety or fear. 3. Overstress. 4. Strong pain. 5. Jogging. 1 GERMANY Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most effective measure against hyperventilation tetany is: 1 GERMANY Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?
1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
1 is false, all others are correct
2 and 4 are false
-1
1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
1and 5 are both false
1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false
Only 2 and 3 are correct
-1
avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres
speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly
breathe into a plastic or paper bag
hold breath
-1
Slow heart beat
Slow rate of breathing
Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
Dizzy feeling
-1
Page 636 of 1247

6 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
with flights towards the South
rispostaC
with flights towards the East
rispostaD
with flights towards the West
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The readjustment of the with flights towards the biological rhythms after North a time shift is normally more difficult The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is called feedback
4 SPAIN
redundancy
synchronization
transference
-1
4 SPAIN
Which combination of Coding. elements guarantee the understanding of a message without adding new information to it? Attitudes are defined as: the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about myopia
Synchronization.
Encoding.
Feedback.
-1
5 SPAIN
the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting hypermetropia
a synonym for behaviour tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either positively or negatively presbyopia astigmatism
-1
2 SPAIN
-1
1 GERMANY What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)?
Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva) are the rods
Increase rate of descent Stop climbing, start descent
Pilots should apply anticold remedies prior every flight to prevent barotrauma in the middle ear
-1
2 SPAIN
The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision
are the cones
are rods and cones
is the cornea
-1
Page 637 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
he is flying a tight turn
rispostaC
there is an increased blood flow to the brain
rispostaD
the pilot is emotionally aroused
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
there is a low CO1 GERMANY A pilot who is pressure in the blood hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: 1 GERMANY With hyperventilation, finger nails and lips will caused by high levels turn blue ("cyanosis") of arousal or overstress:
more oxygen will reach the brain
peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved
an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even unconsciousness a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood
-1
1 GERMANY When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:
a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes
the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia
less oxygen to be diffused into the cells
-1
1 GERMANY The most dangerous breathlessness and symptoms of hypoxia at reduced night vision altitude are 1 GERMANY Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately: 1 GERMANY A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will pass the "critical threshold" at approximately: 1 GERMANY Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight ? 10 000
euphoria and impairment of judgement 22 000 ft
hyperventilation
sensation of heat and blurred vision 38 000 ft
-1
45 000 ft
-1
16 000 ft
18 000 ft
38 000 ft
22 000 ft
-1
Lack of accomodation.
The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
Dizziness.
Lack of adaptation.
-1
Page 638 of 1247

1 GERMANY Hypoxia can also be caused by
rispostaA
a lack of nitrogen in ambient air
rispostaB
too much carbon dioxide in the blood
rispostaC
increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia
rispostaD
a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygen you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia there are great differences between the two
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 GERMANY Which statement applies to hypoxia?
it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in
sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given is sensitive to very low intensities of light are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded
-1
1 GERMANY A symptom comparison altitude hypoxia is very for hypoxia and unlikely at cabin hyperventilation is: pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft 2 SPAIN The fovea is an area in which cones predominate can be performed without any danger
-1
is an area in which rods is the area responsible predominate for night vision should be avoided because hypoxia may develop are forbidden
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
1 GERMANY Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth) 2 GERMANY A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to prevent vertigo?
Concentrate on the vertical speedometer
Depend on information Depend on the from the semicircular instruments canals of the inner ear, because those are the only ones giving correct information hypoxia hyperventilation
Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe normal again barotrauma
-1
1 GERMANY Disturbances of ebulism pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called: 1 GERMANY The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere
-1
frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses
middle ear and external atmosphere
sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere
-1
Page 639 of 1247

1 GERMANY Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to
rispostaA
cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)
rispostaB
sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 FT
rispostaC
emergency descents after a cabin pressure loss
rispostaD
fast flights from a highpressure zone into a low pressure area when flying an unpressurized aeroplane are flatulence and pain in the middle ear
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY Symptoms of decompression sickness 1 GERMANY In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms
are bends, chokes, skin are only relevant when manifestations, diving neurological symptoms and circulatory shock may develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin pressure altitude to 30000 FT flight altitude temperature in the cockpit will increase
can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT
-1
may develop when appear only in air crew, being decompressed previously engaged in from MSL to 15 000 FT diving activities
may affect people with defect tympanic membrane
-1
1 GERMANY After a decompression at high altitude
pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin
nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokes prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT 24 hours
automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
-1
1 GERMANY Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth)
is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia
can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT 12 hours
has no influence on altitude flights
-1
1 GERMANY You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms. How long should you wait until your next flight?
48 hours
36 hours
-1
Page 640 of 1247

1 GERMANY A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
rispostaA
excecute the valsalva manoeuvre
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
don an oxygen mask
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
close the eyes and relax talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously decompression sickness barotrauma
1 GERMANY Pain in the Joints ("bends"), which suddenly appear during a flight , are symptoms of 1 GERMANY What could cause hyperventilation ? 1 GERMANY After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately: 1 GERMANY The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness). It 1 GERMANY The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful Consciousness" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is: 1 GERMANY TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is:
hypoxia
air-sickness
-1
Abuse of alcohol 45-60 seconds
Extreme low rate of breathing 60-90 seconds
Fatigue 5-15 seconds
Fear, anxiety and distress 30-45 seconds
0 0
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude
is the same amount of time for every person
is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
varies individually and does not depend on altitude
-1
approximately 3 minutes approximately 5 minutes less than 20 seconds
between 30 and 60 seconds
-1
the time between the start of hypoxia and death
the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness; measured from the moment at which he is exposed to hypoxia
the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden pressure loss
the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness sets in
-1
Page 641 of 1247

1 GERMANY Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of:
rispostaA
38000 FT
rispostaB
45000 FT
rispostaC
60000 FT
rispostaD
80000 FT
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY Short term memory can 15000 FT already be affected when flying as low as: 1 GERMANY Where is the "critical threshold" at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone? It starts at: 1 GERMANY At what altitude ("threshold for compensatory reactions") does the human organism start with remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 when climbing? At about: 1 GERMANY Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because: 1 GERMANY Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo? It38000 FT
20000 FT
8000 FT
12000 FT
-1
22000 FT.
18000 FT
It25000 FT
-1
8000-9000 FT
9000-10000 FT
10000-12000 FT
6000-7000 FT
-1
not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs
oxygen saturation of the blood circulation to the blood is increased and brain is slowed down the brain will be supplied with more blood than normal Hypoxia does not cause Hypoxia improves a loss of control in vision at night, so the steering the plane. pilot will have no indication of danger.
oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased
-1
Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system)
The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen mask.
-1
Page 642 of 1247

1 GERMANY After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
rispostaA
30 -90 seconds
rispostaB
10-15 seconds
rispostaC
3-4 minutes
rispostaD
5 minutes or more
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY Breathing 100% oxygen 18 000 ft at 38000 ft is equivalent to breathe ambient air at : 1 GERMANY Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ? 1 GERMANY The following applies for the physical properties of gases: Pain in the joints
10 000 ft
8 000 ft
14 000 ft
-1
Low blood pressure
Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area at an altitude of 18 000 ft a gas volume is three times as large as it would be at sea-level is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach oxygen and carbon monoxide
Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
-1
at an altitute of 63 000 ft water will boil at temperature of 65 C
at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27000 ft is dependent on the present air pressure
a water vapor saturated gas at 34 000 ft has 6 times its volume as it would have at sea-level decreases with increasing altitude
-1
1 GERMANY The volume percentage increases with of oxygen in the increasing altitude atmosphere is 21% which 1 GERMANY Gases of physiological importance to man are: oxygen and carbon dioxide
-1
nitrogen and carbon dioxide
oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor
-1
Page 643 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
rispostaC
1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
rispostaD
1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 GERMANY The earth's atmosphere 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A consists of different gases in various concentration. Match the following: 1 nitrogen A 0,03% 2 oxygen B 0,92% 3 carbon dioxide C 20.95% 4 rare gas 78,10%
D 78% nitrogen, 21% 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon oxygen, 1% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases monoxide, rest: rare gases lower the tolerance to hypoxia increase the tolerance to hypoxia 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases do not affect hypoxia at all 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be increased -1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY The atmosphere contains the following gases: 1 GERMANY Fatigue and permanent concentration
-1
1 GERMANY When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin heating):
his need for oxygen will his oxygen need will not his oxygen need will be be increased as long as be affected reduced giving him a he stays conscious better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes
-1
1 GERMANY To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid decompression ?
Approximately 14 000 ft. Approximately 20 000 ft. Approximately 45 000 ft. Approximately 38 000 ft.
-1
Page 644 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of carbon monoxide
rispostaC
the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of nitrogen
rispostaD
the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and elimination of oxygen
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY The respiratory process the diffusion of oxygen consists mainly of through the respiratory membranes into the blood, transportation to the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body 1 GERMANY At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? 1 GERMANY Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.
22 000 ft
Approximately 35 000 ft. Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.
-1
Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless.
Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled.
Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood.
With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide poisoning will be compensated.
-1
1 GERMANY A certain amount of larger water vapor saturated air (i.e. intestinal gases) is transported from sealevel up to 34 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this gas is : 1 GERMANY The atmospheric gas pressure rises with altitude
smaller
constant
first larger, then smaller
-1
decreases linear with altitude
decreases slower at lower altitudes compared with higher levels and equivalent altitude changes
drops faster at lower altitudes in comparison to the same altitude changes at higher altitudes
-1
2 GERMANY Which part of the inner The eustachian tube ear is responsible for the perception of noise?
The cochlea
The semicircular canals The sacculus and utriculus
-1
Page 645 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
The sacculus and utriculus
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The eustachian tube 1 GERMANY Which part of the ear and the tympanic could be affected due to air pressure changes membrane (ear drum) during climb and/or descent? 2 GERMANY The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor 2 GERMANY Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus? 1 GERMANY The eustachian tube is the passage way between the 2 GERMANY The retina of the eye movements with constant speeds Gravity alone
The semicircular canals The cochlea
relative speed and linear accelerations Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
gravity
angular accelerations
-1
Angular acceleration
Gravity and linear acceleration
-1
nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for vision less time when flying from east to west
sinuses and the pharynx filters the UV-light
nasopharynx and the middle ear
nose, pharynx and inner ear
-1
is the muscle, changing only regulates the light the size of the that falls into the eye crystalline lens
-1
6 UNKNOW
In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require
more time when flying from east to west
about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift
about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift
-1
1 GERMANY When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into the blood, it is called: 1 GERMANY You can survive at any altitude, provided that 1 GERMANY Which statement is correct ?
external respiration
ventilation
hyperventilation
internal respiration
-1
21% oxygen is available pressure respiration is in the air you breath in guaranteed for that altitude Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial oxygen pressure gradient.
the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10" C
enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen pressure.
-1
The blood plasma is The gradient of transporting the oxygen. diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sealevel.
-1
Page 646 of 1247

1 GERMANY How can you determine if a person is suffering from a barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis) ? 1 GERMANY A pilot will get hypoxia
rispostaA
Barotrauma of the middle ear will not effect hearing
rispostaB
There is no difference
rispostaC
Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
rispostaD
Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
if he is flying an unpressurized airplane at an altitude of 15 000 feet and breathing 100 % oxygen
after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in time 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false
after decompression to 30 000 feet and taking 100 % oxygen via an oxygen mask 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min
-1
1 GERMANY Hypoxia can be caused 1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 by: are correct 1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen 2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon monoxide attached to the hemoglobin 3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz) 4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen (i.e. after a hangover) 1 GERMANY Hypoxia is caused by a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen
-1
reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung
reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung
an increased number of red blood cells
-1
Page 647 of 1247

1 GERMANY Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blood 1 GERMANY Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by 1 GERMANY How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ? 1 GERMANY The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the sitting pilot with inertia along : 1 GERMANY "Grey out" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than: 1 GERMANY The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is : 3 GERMANY Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification? 1 GERMANY In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
rispostaA
to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached to the hemoglobin at lung area the blood plasma
rispostaB
to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the hemoglobin
rispostaC
to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain
rispostaD
not to change at all
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma Take an upright seat position.
attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body forward. the transverse body axis to the left
the hemoglobin in the red blood cells Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure breathing. the vertical body axis upwards
-1
Tighten shoulder harness.
-1
the vertical body axis downwards
the transverse body axis to the right
-1
- 3 Gz
+ 3 Gx
+ 3 Gy
+ 3 Gz
-1
21%
5%
10,5%
42%
-1
High blood pressure only.
Blood pressure Low blood pressure problems cannot occur only. in aircrew because they always can be treated by in-flight medication. Nausea and barotitis. Dull headache and bends.
High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system. Dizziness, hypothermia.
-1
Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
-1
Page 648 of 1247

1 GERMANY In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs? 1 GERMANY The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by: 1 GERMANY An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to: 1 GERMANY Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?
rispostaA
Carbon monoxide.
rispostaB
Carbon dioxide.
rispostaC
Ambient air.
rispostaD
Oxygen.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood
the amount of nitrogen in the blood
the total atmospheric pressure
the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood a decrease of acidity in the blood
-1
a reduction of red blood an improving resistance shortness of breath cells to hypoxia
-1
It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen.
It is always present in the lungs.
It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's "physiological altitude". carbon dioxide White blood cells.
It combines 5 times faster to the hemoglobin than oxygen. carbon monoxide Plasma.
-1
1 GERMANY Affinity to hemoglobin is nitrogen best with: 1 GERMANY Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood? 1 GERMANY The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is Blood fat.
oxygen Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.
0 0
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
independent from the partial pressures of the participating gases
depending on the active dependent on the transportation of pressure gradient nitrogen into the alveoli between the participating gases during respiration Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation. High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy. Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning. Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.
the excess pressure caused by inhaling
-1
1 GERMANY Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning? 1 GERMANY In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.
The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning. Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness.
A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria. Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.
-1
-1
Page 649 of 1247

1 GERMANY Carbon monoxide poisoning
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied by coating the exhaust - 3.5 Gy
rispostaD
is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twinengines because of high engine efficiency + 3.5 Gz
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
only occurs in jet-driven occurs only above 15 aeroplanes degrees OAT
1 GERMANY "Tunnel vision" (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than: 2 GERMANY Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of angular acceleration? 2 GERMANY Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the:
- 3.5 Gz
+ 3.5 Gx
-1
The sacculus and utriculus
The eustachian tube
-1
photosensitive cells
eyeballs
optic nerve
cristalline lens
-1
2 GERMANY Vibrations within the interfere with the make the stomach and frequency band of 1/10 frequencies of the its contents vibrating at to 2 Hertz are a factor central nervous system the same frequency contributing to airsickness, because they 2 GERMANY What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should be aware that approaches over downsloping terrain will make him believe that he is higher than actual
upset the vestibular apparatus
interfere with those of the own blood thus causing circulation problems make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be induced
-1
make a visual approach be aware that and call the tower for approaches over water assistance always make the pilot feel that he is lower than actual height
-1
2 GERMANY The probability to suffer the passenger has the student ist from air-sickness is taken anti-motion motivated and adapted higher, when sickness remedies prior to the specific stimuli of flight flying
the student has good the passenger or outside visual reference student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly
-1
Page 650 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Only 4 is correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 GERMANY What could the crew do 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct in order to avoid airsickness with passengers? 1. Avoid turbulences. 2. Avoid flying through rough weather. 3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity. 4. Give pertinent information. 3 GERMANY Concerning the effects of drugs and pilots performance 2 GERMANY The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is the primary and the side effects have to be considered to believe the attitude indicator
the side effects only have to be considered
medication has no influence on pilots performance
only the primary effect has to be considered; side effects are negligable to rely on instruments when flying in and out of clouds
-1
a poor instrument cross- the lack of attention to check and permanently the vertical speed transitioning back and indicator forth between instruments and visual references Eustachian tube Cochlea
-1
1 GERMANY Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is changed? 2 GERMANY Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?
External auditory canal
Tympanic membrane
-1
Ossicles
Otoliths
Endolymph
Semicircular canals
-1
1 GERMANY Barotrauma caused by decompresion sickness barosinusitis gas accumulation in the stomach and intestinals can lead to: 2 GERMANY The vestibular organ reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity gives the impression of hearing
pressure pain or flatulence
barotitis
-1
reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
reacts to vibrations of the cochlea
-1
Page 651 of 1247

2 GERMANY Flying a coordinated level turn will
rispostaA
make the seat-of-thepants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body`s vertical axis The eustachian tube
rispostaB
make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s vertical axis The sacculus and utriculus
rispostaC
first give the impression of climb , then the impression of descent
rispostaD
make the blood being pooled in the head
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 GERMANY Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration? 2 GERMANY The fovea centralis is
-1
where the optic nerves come together with the pupil Fast speed
the area of best day vision and best night vision Oxygen deficiency
the area of best day vision and no night vision at all Acceleration
the area of the blind spot (optic disc) Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication) is quicker when used to it
-1
2 GERMANY What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells? 3 GERMANY The metabolisation of alcohol 6 UNKNOW Stress management programmes usually involve:
-1
can be accelerated even more by coffee only the removal of stress
can be influenced by easy to get medication only the prevention of stress
is a question of time
0 0
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
the use of psychoactive the prevention and/or drugs the removal of stress can only be detected when smoking tobacco and causes the autokinetic phenomena It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
1 GERMANY The effect of hypoxia to vision 2 GERMANY Hypoxia will effect night vision 2 GERMANY What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)? 3 GERMANY Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the following statement is correct: 2 GERMANY Which is the audible range to human hearing?
does not depend on the is stronger with the rods is usual stronger with level of illumination the cones and causes hyperventilation Objects seem to be closer than in reality at 5000 FT Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality less than day vision There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny day
0 0 0
-1 -1 0
0 0 0
0 0 -1
flying with up to 0.08 % blood alcohol is safe, since driving is safe up to this limit Between 16 MHz and 20 000MHz
no flying under the influence of alcohol
flying with up to 0.05 % blood alcohol
flying with up to 0.15 % blood alcohol
-1
Between 16 KHz and 20 KHz
Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz
Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz
-1
Page 652 of 1247

2 GERMANY Vertigo is the result of 1 GERMANY Hypoxia effects visual performance. A pilot may: 2 GERMANY The semicircular canals monitor 2 GERMANY The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is because 2 GERMANY A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may get: 2 GERMANY When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will 2 GERMANY Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to
rispostaA
"Oculogyral illusion"
rispostaB
"Autokinetic-illusion"
rispostaC
"Elevator illusion" have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL gravity the fluid (endolymph) will preceed the accelerated canal walls the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the airplane going down)
rispostaD
"Coriolis-effect" be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL angular accelerations the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds the illusion of climbing or descending
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1 0 0 -1 0
get blurred and/or get colour blindness accompanied by severe tunnel vision headache relative speed the fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags behind the accelerated canal walls the feeling of rotation horizontal and vertical accelerations the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression the illusion to turn
0 -1
0 0
0 0
-1 0
-1
give the illusion of banking
give the illusion of straight and level flight
give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)
-1
descent
turn into the opposite direction spinning into the same direction
increase the rate of turn climb into the same direction straight and level flight climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin
-1
2 GERMANY Without visual spinning into the reference, what illusion opposite direction could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of 2 GERMANY What is the name for "Seat-of-the-Pants" the sensation of illusions. rotation occuring during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time?
-1
Graveyard spin.
"Pilot's" Vertigo.
Sudden incapacitation.
-1
Page 653 of 1247

2 GERMANY "Pilot's vertigo":
rispostaA
the impression of climbing when banking
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to multiple irritation of the utriculus and sacculus at the same time An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
the impression of flying is a sensation of straight and level while rotation during flight due to multiple irritation the aircraft is spinning of several semicircular canals at the same time An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood An illness caused by reduced air pressure
2 GERMANY What is understood by air-sickness?
A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and fear banking
-1
2 GERMANY Which flightmaneouvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while 2 GERMANY When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be 2 GERMANY The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, when
climbing
descending
flying straight and level
-1
radial acceleration
linear acceleration
vertical acceleration
angular acceleration
-1
there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs
the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by his Seat-ofthe-Pants-Sense 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions
informations from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored
-1
2 GERMANY What do you do, when 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct you are affected by "pilot`s vertigo"? 1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check. 2. Believe the instruments. 3. Ignore illusions. 4. Minimize head movements.
Only 4 is false
-1
Page 654 of 1247

7 ICELAND One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in :
rispostaA
less experienced crews because of more transparent system details
rispostaB
complacency among the crewmembers
rispostaC
pilots disregarding the automatic equipment
rispostaD
constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring tasks announces the beginning of airsickness
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 GERMANY "Pilot's vertigo"
is the condition of is the sensation to keep dizziness and/or a rotation after tumbling sensation completing a turn caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous system (CNS) "Flicker-vertigo" "Oculogravic illusion"
is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
-1
2 GERMANY Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of
"Pilot`s vertigo"
"Nystagmus"
-1
2 GERMANY How can a pilot Only 4 is correct overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument flight? 1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check. 2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your sense of feeling. 3. Ignore arising illusions. 4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to "shake-off" illusions. 2 GERMANY How can a pilot prevent "pilots-vertigo"?
1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
-1
Avoid steep turns and Practise an extremely Use the autopilot and abrupt flight fast scanning technique disregard monitoring maneouvers and using off-center vision. the instruments. maintain an effective instrument cross check.
Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as possible and rely upon the senses of balance..
-1
Page 655 of 1247

2 GERMANY Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a coordinated level turn?
rispostaA
Flying straight and level
rispostaB
Climbing
rispostaC
Turning into the original direction
rispostaD
Descending and turning into the opposite direction makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level flight
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 GERMANY Being pressed into the will not stimulate the seat can cause "seat-of-the-pants" illusions and/or false sense reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the ground, because this sensation 2 GERMANY The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-thePants-Sense") 2 GERMANY With "vertigo" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . This is due to 1 GERMANY Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when: 2 GERMANY Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual, can be caused by 6 GERMANY What are easily observable indications of stress? 2 GERMANY Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments when approaching on a snowed up, foggy or cloudy winterday? Because give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing a level turn
corresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying straight and level or starting a descent
-1
is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude
can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC the coriolis effect in the semicircular canals
can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC tuned resonance caused by vibration
-1
conflicting information oxygen deficiency between the semicircular canals and the tympanic membrane you breath through the mouth barotrauma exists in the sinuses
-1
the eustachian tube is blocked
the nose is pinched
-1
acceleration along the longitudonal body axis
angular velocity
vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz
-1
Lowering of the blood pressure.
Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart. perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast
Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart. his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions
Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing. the danger of a "greying out" will make it impossible to determine the height above the terrain
-1
pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information
-1
Page 656 of 1247

2 GERMANY What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)? 2 GERMANY Orientation in flight is accomplished by 1. eyes 2. utriculus and sacculus 3. semicircular canals 4. Seat-of-the-pantsSense 6 GERMANY Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the 3. day? 2 GERMANY Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given by 2 GERMANY The so-called "Seat-ofthe-Pants" sense is
rispostaA
Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Avoid food containing Wait at least 60 high amounts of vitamin minutes to night-adapt A before he takes off 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct only 1 and 4 are correct
-1
LT (local time).
MEZ (middle european time).
ZT (zonal time).
UTC (universal time coordinated).
-1
pressure of the heart on the diaphragm
subcutaneous pressure blood rushing into legs receptors and kinesthetic muscle activity sensors the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC are important senses for flight training in IMC not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
acceleration of the stomach (nausea)
-1
useful for instrument and contact flight
only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC indicate the difference between gravity and Gforces
-1
2 GERMANY The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-thepants sense) are important for motor coordination. They
allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition
-1
2 GERMANY Illuminated anti-collision can cause colourlights in IMC illusions
will improve the pilots depth perception
will effect the pilots binocular vision
can cause disorientation
-1
Page 657 of 1247

1 GERMANY A barotrauma of the middle ear is
rispostaA
a dilatation of the eustachian tube
rispostaB
an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression
rispostaC
an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of the eardrum The source of light stands still
rispostaD
a bacterial infection of the middle ear
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 GERMANY A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot get? 2 GERMANY The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the 1 GERMANY The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur 1 GERMANY Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by 1 GERMANY Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur 1 GERMANY Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis). 1 GERMANY Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case?
The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is climbing
The source of light moves away from him
The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed
-1
muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts with colds and slow ascents
semicircular canals
utriculus and sacculus
skin of the breech only
-1
after a decompression
with colds and rapid descents
with colds and fast climbs
-1
pain in the joints
a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure in sudden steep turns
dizziness
noises in the ear
-1
when climbing
when descending rapidly Stop chewing and swallowing movements ("Valsalva")
during a long high altitude flight Use drugs against a cold
-1
Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate
Increase the rate of descent
-1
More frequent when At lower altitudes. flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft.
Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels.
During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude is exceeding 2 000 FT
-1
Page 658 of 1247

1 GERMANY A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)
rispostaA
is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during descent
rispostaB
is only caused by large pressure changes during climb
rispostaC
causes severe pain in the sinuses
rispostaD
is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent immediately following the decompression will eliminate the problem descend to lower altitude
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system available), a pilot gets severe flatulence due to trapped gases. The correct countermeasure is: 1 GERMANY Barodontalgia
climb to a higher altitude perform "valsalva maneouvre"
use supplemental oxygen
-1
arises only at higher altitudes and after decompression is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sport
even arises with healthy arises in combination teeth with a cold and very high rates of descent is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose sprays is only caused by colds and their effects
arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of a tooth is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and the ambient air very limited - only 3 items
-1
1 GERMANY Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis)
-1
1 UNKNOW
The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
about 30 items
unlimited
about 7 items
-1
2 GERMANY Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is achieved through
seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)
good visibility only
visual memory only
the "blind spot" at the retina
-1
Page 659 of 1247

2 GERMANY Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important physiological factors limiting the pilots performance if not taken into consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body 2 GERMANY A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a
rispostaA
are of no interest when performing aerobatics
rispostaB
change blood presssure and blood volume distribution in the body
rispostaC
will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the accelerative force acts across the body at right angles to the body axis
rispostaD
will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot
flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
compensatory glide path and land long
compensatory glide path and stall out
-1
3 GERMANY Alcohol, even when can make the brain taken in minor quantities cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia
will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia
will have no effect at all
may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are much better to be identified
-1
2 GERMANY Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades
can be neglected
can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on
should be avoided, can cause spatial because it may destroy disorientation and/or the optical nerve nausea, when looked at for a longer period of time greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot
-1
2 GERMANY A pilot is used to land greater height and the on wide runways only. impression of landing When approaching a short smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at a
lower height and the impression of landing slow
-1
Page 660 of 1247

2 GERMANY Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the pilot believe of beeing
rispostaA
lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
rispostaB
lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under
rispostaC
higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short ("ducking under")
rispostaD
higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 GERMANY Scanning at night scanning with one eye should be performed by: open
concentrated fixation on avoiding food an object (image must containing Vitamin A fall on the fovea centralis) Accomodation is destroyed Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the photosensitive cells
slight eye movements to the side of the object
-1
2 GERMANY Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness? 2 GERMANY The requirement of good sunglasses is to
Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity, absorb UV and IR radiation and absorb all colors equally
The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve impulse depends on vitamin A increase the time for dark adaptation
-1
fit to the pilots individual eliminate distortion in taste aircraft windshields
-1
2 GERMANY The "Seat-of-the-Pants- can be used, if trained, Sense" to avoid disorientation in space
can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and instrument meteorological conditions the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina
can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost
is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body position in space
-1
2 GERMANY Adaptation is
the reflection of the light at the cornea
the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination
the change of the diameter of the pupil
-1
Page 661 of 1247

3 UNKNOW When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may contribute: 1.obesity 2.distress 3.smoking 4.family history
rispostaA
Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 GERMANY What misjudgement Objects will appear may occur if an airplane bigger in size than in is flying into fog, snow reality or haze? 2 GERMANY Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses) are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects
Objects seem to move slower than in reality
Objects seem to be farther away than in reality
Objects will appear closer than they really are
-1
are advantageous for pilots
can have are generally forbidden disadvantages when for pilots used in the cockpit due to their dependence on ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glass approach is higher than to drop far below the normal and may result glide path in a long landing establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out impossible to detect objects may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short. no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
-1
2 GERMANY The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold. Possible danger is: 2 GERMANY A pilot approaching an upslope runway
approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long
to misjudge the length of the runway
-1
establishes a higher than normal approach speed
-1
2 GERMANY Which problem may improbable to get visual difficult to estimate the occur, when flying in an illusions correct speed and size environment of low of approaching objects contrast (fog, snow, darkness, haze)? Under these conditions it is: 2 GERMANY The time for dark adaptation is 1/10 sec 10 min
-1
30 min
10 sec
-1
Page 662 of 1247

2 GERMANY The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the dark is called 2 GERMANY A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to : 2 GERMANY Autokinesis is
rispostaA
"autokinesis"
rispostaB
"white out"
rispostaC
"oculogyral illusion"
rispostaD
"oculografic illusion"
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
a flatter than normal approach with the risk of "ducking under"
the risk to land short of the overrun
an early or high "round out"
a steeper than normal approach dropping low
-1
the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol
the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark
the automatical adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects situated at different distances
the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the dark look sideways to the source of light for better fixation
-1
2 GERMANY To prevent the "autokinetic phenomena", the following can be done: 2 GERMANY The time required for complete adaptation is
turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously
look out for additional fixate the source of references inside light, first with one eye, and/or outside the then with the other cockpit using peripheral vision also for day and night: 30 min for night 10 sec and for day 30 min
-1
for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of illumination 30 minutes only front-line operators are involved
for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min there is hardly ever a single cause responsible
-1
2 FRANCE
Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that :
only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation
failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns
-1
Page 663 of 1247

6 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
3,4
rispostaC
1,2
rispostaD
2, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1,2,4 Stress appears: -1 : only in a situation of imminent danger. -2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable phenomenon. -3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a situation or its outcome. -4 : because of the similarity with a formerly experienced stressful situation The correct statement(s) is (are):
6 FRANCE
What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation? The organism is mobilized by a process known as: What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome ?
The unexpected The subjective outcome of the situation. evaluation of the situation by the individual. NAS : Natural Adaptation Syndrome alarm, resistance, performance, GMS : General Mobilization Syndrome. alert, resistance, exhaustion
The time available to cope with the situation.
The objective threat of the situation.
-1
6 FRANCE
GAF : General Adaptation Function. Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
GAS : General Adaptation Syndrome Alert, resistance, performance.
-1
6 FRANCE
-1
Page 664 of 1247

6 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2,4,5
rispostaC
1,3,5
rispostaD
1,2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1,2 What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions? -1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion. -2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose. -3 : a decrease in stress resistance. -4 : activation of the digestive system. -5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention. The combination of correct statements is:
6 FRANCE
What is the effect of 1,2,3 stress on performance ? -1 : It always reduces performance. -2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal. -3 : Excessive stress weakens performance. -4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance. The combination of correct statements is:
1,3,4
1,2,4
2,3,4
-1
Page 665 of 1247

6 FRANCE The cognitive effects of stress may include : -1 : excessive haste. -2 : an improvement in memory. -3 : a complete block: action is impossible. -4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect. -5 : ease of decisionmaking. -6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes. The combination which brings together all correct statements is : 6 FRANCE
rispostaA
3,4,5
rispostaB
1,3,4,6
rispostaC
1,2,5
rispostaD
2,3,5,6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The behavioural effects 1,4 and 5 are correct of stress may include : -1 : manifestation of aggressiveness. -2 : a willingness to improve communication. -3 : a willingness for group cohesion. -4 : a tendency to withdrawl. -5 : inappropriate gestural agitation. The combination of correct statements is :
1 and 4 are correct
1,2 and 3 are correct
-1
6 FRANCE
In case of in-flight stress, one should : How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic stress?
use all available resources of the crew Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which approaches the entire body and improves wellness.
only trust in oneself; demonstrate beeing sure to know the aggressiveness to own limits stimulate the crew Use moderate administration of tranquillizers before flight.
always carry out a breathing exercise
-1
6 FRANCE
Ignore the particular Always consult a stressors and increase psychotherapist before your physical exercises. the next flight.
-1
Page 666 of 1247

6 FRANCE Which of the following statements is true? Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and pretty good, after methodical training Thinking on human reliability is changing.
rispostaA
Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances. 1 in 100000 times
rispostaB
People are capable of living without stress. 1 in 100 times
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Stressors accumulate Stressors are thus increasing the independent from each likelihood to exhaustion. other. 1 in 1000 times 1 in 10000 times
2 ICELAND
-1
3 FRANCE
Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are generally inescapable Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.
Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one's knowledge
The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety
It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future
-1
6 FRANCE
Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?
Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or reduces performance. flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable to mask this deficiency
Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural performance. unexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same task which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only
Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind encountered in aeronautics experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they know that routine causes mistakes plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in general aviation
-1
1 FRANCE
Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes differ from experienced pilots in the following way : As a cause of accidents, the human factor
task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's one
-1
2 FRANCE
is cited in approximately has increased 70 - 80 % of aviation considerably since accidents 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has been involved has more than tripled since this date The recovery of information from longterm memory is immediate and easy
-1
1 FRANCE
Long-term memory is Long-term memory an essential component stores knowledge on a of the pilot's knowledge temporary basis and expertise.
It is desirable to preactivate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it available when required
The capacity of longterm memory is limited
-1
Page 667 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
represents about fifty accidents around the world every year is independent of age
rispostaC
is approximatively 1 accident per million airport movements is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance speed
rispostaD
has improved considerably over the last fifteen years depends on long-term memory capacity
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The rate of accidents in is a long way short of the safety level of road commercial aviation transport (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism) : The quality of learning : is independent of the level of motivation
1 FRANCE
-1
1 GERMANY The human information independancy from processing system is attention highly efficient compared to computers because of its 1 GERMANY Motor programmes are: stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous conscious control
flexibility
working memory capacity
-1
stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous conscious control to remember a clearance long enough to write it down approximately linear increasing narrow the span of attention 1 hour
rules that enable us to deal with novel situations
rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations
-1
1 GERMANY Working memory to remember our own enables us, for example, name 6 GERMANY The relationship between arousal and flying performance is 6 GERMANY In a complex task high levels of arousal approximately the form of an inverted U reduce failures
to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds approximately exponential improve performance a couple of days
to ignore messages for other aircraft approximately sinusoidal
-1
-1
lead to better decisionmaking 20 seconds
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
1 GERMANY In the short-term5 minutes memory, information is stored for approximately 1 GERMANY The 'cocktail party effect' is the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world
the tendency not to perceive relevant information
the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
the ability to drink too much at social gathering
-1
Page 668 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language, tailored to minimize misunderstandings. 3 and 4 are correct
rispostaC
Professional communication means to exchange information as little as possible.
rispostaD
The syntax of communication is of little importance to its success. Only the words uttered are important. only 2 is correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Which of the following Communication must statements concerning take priority over any communication is valid? other flight activity under all circumstances
4 FRANCE
In order to make 1,2 and 3 are correct communication effective, it is necessary to: -1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal channels. -2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding abilities. -3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of the message only. -4 : avoid increasing the number of communication channels, in order to simplify communication. The correct statement(s) is (are):
2 and 4 are correct
-1
4 FRANCE
The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:
their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
it may be rejected since their execution must not their execution may be redundancy in the be done simultaneously done simultaneously following check list will with other actions with other actions serve as verification
-1
Page 669 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Which of the following 1, 4 and 5 are correct statements are correct with regard to the design of a check list? -1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts. -2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list. -3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other tasks. -4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied -5 : Critical points should have redundancies. The combination of correct statements is: Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct? The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is usually focused here
4 FRANCE
The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check
The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane
All the items of a check list are equally important; their sequence is of no importance
-1
Page 670 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 and 2 are correct
rispostaC
rispostaD
1 and 4 are correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
What are the 2,3 and 4 are correct communication qualities of a good briefing? A good briefing must: -1 : contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible. -2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type. -3 : be short and precise. -4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s). The correct statement(s) is (are):
4 FRANCE
In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:
will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about by technical improvements
are facilitated from the does not loose its non-verbal point of view importance owing to the increased availability wich results from technical lightening of the workload considerably improved all the communication facilities of the crew reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in interpersonal relations
will increase as a result of the increase of technical dissemination of information
-1
4 FRANCE
The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:
facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication on the flight deck
improved man-machine communication as a result of flight sensations
-1
Page 671 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
only 1 is correct
rispostaC
2 and 3 are correct
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Different non-technical 1, 2 and 4 are correct related opinions between pilots from different cultural backgrounds might be seen in connection with: -1 : the variations of technical training and skills. -2 : communication problems. -3 : conflicting ways of management. -4 : interpersonal problems. The combination of correct statements is:
Page 672 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
What are typical 2, 3 and 4 are correct consequences of conflicts between crew members? -1 The quality of work performance decreases as a result of the impoverishment of communications -2 A decrease in the quality of communications -3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in a deterioration in relations between the individuals -4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the flight deck The correct statement(s) is (are):
Page 673 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2 and 3 are correct
rispostaC
3 and 4 are correct
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The intended recipient 1 and 2 are correct of a message must: -1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's situation. -2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt. -3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication attempt if the pilot is too busy. -4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before starting a discussion. The combination of correct statements is:
4 FRANCE
With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:
communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element to be carried out at the same time
communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their number
all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc. are stable and are not much affected by changes in workload a shorter and less frequent exchange of information Listening errors.
communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress
-1
4 FRANCE
An increase in workload a shorter and more usually leads to: frequent exchange of information A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with ground-to-crew communication. Which of the following factors is the main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of a message? Radio failure.
a longer and more frequent exchange of information Mother tongue differing from working language.
a longer and less frequent exchange of information Errors in understanding clearance values.
-1
4 FRANCE
-1
Page 674 of 1247

6 FRANCE Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:
rispostaA
the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it
rispostaB
the evaluation of the situation and the the state of fatigue of the individual 1 and 3 are correct
rispostaC
the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time available 1 and 2 are correct
rispostaD
the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the environment 2 and 3 are correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 FRANCE
Which of the following 3 and 4 are correct statements regarding interpersonal interactions are correct? -1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she tends to reduce verbal redundancy content of his sentences -2 If the interlocuter is of non-native tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using more complicated words so as to optimize understanding -3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify the content of sentences -4 Simplification of check list in a crew who know each other essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal conflict The correct statement(s) is (are):
-1
Page 675 of 1247

6 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,3,5
rispostaC
1,3,4
rispostaD
3,4,5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2,3,5 Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions? -1 : noise. -2 : interpersonnal conflict. -3 : temperature. -4 : administrative problem. -5 : hunger. The combination of correct statements is:
4 FRANCE
Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires: Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
a form of the message, different codes which should not match between form and the expectation of the meaning receiver sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions
the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings working parallel to achieve one common objective
differences in contexts for the sender and the receiver working parallel to achieve individual objectives
-1
4 FRANCE
-1
4 FRANCE
Of the following 2,3 and 4 are correct statements, select those which apply to "information". -1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for receivers. -2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver. -3 : It is measured in bits. -4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a quarter. The correct statement(s) is (are):
only 1 is correct
2 and 3 are correct
1,2,3 and 4 are correct
-1
Page 676 of 1247

4 FRANCE What are the advantages of coordination?
rispostaA
Interaction, cognition, redundancy.
rispostaB
Redundancy, exploration, risky shift. 2 and 3
rispostaC
Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility. 1 and 4
rispostaD
Cooperation, cognition, redundancy. 1 and 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 FRANCE
Of the following 1,2 and 4 statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation? -1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot. -2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew. -3 : Communication in this mode has the function of synchronizing actions and distributing responsibilities. -4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on temporal and cognitive synchronisation. The correct statement(s) is (are):
-1
5 FRANCE
With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said that age: What triggers stress in humans?
has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight experience Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological activation (e. g. rapide heart rate)
sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting cognitive capabilities The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
has a major impact increases in impact as owing to the impairment speed of thought and of memory memory deteriorate
-1
6 FRANCE
Objective stimulation from the environment regards of subjective perceptions
Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise, the smell of smoke
-1
Page 677 of 1247

6 FRANCE What is a stressor?
rispostaA
A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger
rispostaB
The adaptation response of the individual to his environment
rispostaC
An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as beeing stressful
rispostaD
All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the internal equilibrium a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities 1 and 4 are correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 FRANCE
Stress may be defined as:
a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile personalities 1,2 and 3 are correct
a human reaction which a normal phenomenon one must manage to which enables an eliminate individual to adapt to encountered situations 2 , 3 and 4 are correct 3 and 4 are correct
-1
6 FRANCE
The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized by: -1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS). -2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be converted into sugar. -3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance. -4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged time. The combination of correct statements is: Acute stress quickly leads to
-1
6 FRANCE
a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower entirely on the sensory information we receive
the mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressor entirely on past experiences
a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the situation on both our past experiences and our motor programmes
a permanent state of incapacitation
-1
1 GERMANY Our mental model of the world is based
on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive
-1
Page 678 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
only 4 is correct
rispostaC
1 and 4 are correct
rispostaD
1 and 3 are correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Professional languages 2 and 3 are correct have certain characteristics, for example: -1 : They use a limited vocabulary . -2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes lead to ambiguities. -3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex. -4 : Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the risk of ambiguities. The correct statement(s) is (are):
4 GERMANY Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style: (1) dominant behaviour (2) examplary rolebehaviour (3) mastery of communication skills (4) "Laissez-faire" behaviour 2 GERMANY Once we have constructed a mental model we tend
2 and 3
1 and 4
1 and 3
2 and 4
-1
to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model
to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information
to alter that model to give undue weight to unnecessarily frequently information that confirms the model
-1
Page 679 of 1247

4 GERMANY Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative leadership style? If conflicts evolve, the leader 4 GERMANY Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?
rispostaA
tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
mainly tries to reconcile keeps a neutral position decides what to do and and does not pushes his own opinion all persons involved in through the conflict and tries to participate in arguing reestablish a nice and friendly atmosphere within the team
Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individual
The quality of crewperformance is not dependent on socialcompetence of individual team members characterize inefficient crews
The quality of crewperformance depends on the socialcompetence of individual team members
To be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with task demands
-1
4 GERMANY Informal roles within a crew
do not impair the captain's influence
evolve as a result of the are explicitely set out by interactions that take the crew place among crew members are always task oriented are always relationship oriented
-1
4 GERMANY Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is generally most efficient, if all crew members concerned 4 GERMANY Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?
always ask the captain what to do
adapt their management style to meet the situational demands
-1
Active listening.
Responding with counter-arguments.
Staying to the own point Giving up the own point of view. of view.
-1
4 GERMANY The team spirit of a both pilots having the cockpit-crew most likely same political and depends on ideological attitude
both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
both pilots wearing the same uniform
both pilots flying together very often for a long period
-1
Page 680 of 1247

4 GERMANY During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your problem', and continues smoking. What should the copilot do?
rispostaA
He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in the cockpit
rispostaB
He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit and should argue with the captain about this problem until the conflict is solved
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
He should report the He should not further chief pilot about this discuss this issue but behaviour of the captain should come back to this conflict during the debriefing
4 GERMANY How would you call the High task-orientation leadership style of a and high relationshipcaptain who primarily is orientation interested in a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of his crewmembers, and who leaves the crew freedom for own decisions, even if this makes the process more difficult? 4 GERMANY If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the captain in an unjustified way, then he should 4 GERMANY What does not apply to a constructive and helpful feedback? internally retire and think positive
Low task-orientation and low relationshiporientation
Low task-orientation and high relationshiporientation
High task-orientation and low relationshiporientation
-1
duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and clear the matter in a more appropriate occasion It should be formulated subjectively and personally ('I' instead of 'one')
freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate confrontation It should be actual and specify in regard to the concerned situation
speak up and point at consequencies if unfair behaviour persists
-1
It should be individually tailored to the receiver's background
Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of the receiver
-1
Page 681 of 1247

4 GERMANY Which statement is correct?
rispostaA
Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.
rispostaB
There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.
rispostaC
Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.
rispostaD
Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their communication process. to depart on schedule
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 GERMANY Doing a general briefing to avoid inadequate in the preflight phase handling of flight the captain should controls emphasize 4 GERMANY Metacommunication is defined as 3 GERMANY To maintain good situational awareness you should: (1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data (2) gather as much datas as possible from every possible source before making inferences (3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to make time to review the situation (4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct 3 SPAIN The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is
particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due to specific circumstances
complete delegation of all duties
-1
balancing the own having an assessment ideas and interests with conversation those of the interlocutor 2, 3 and 4 are correct all answers are correct
active listening
communicating about the communication 1 and 3 are correct
-1
1 and 4 are correct
-1
carbon monoxide
tar
the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide
nicotine
-1
Page 682 of 1247

4 GERMANY An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the following rules should a feedback comply with? 4 GERMANY Nonverbal communication 4 GERMANY How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'? 4 GERMANY Which elements of communication are prone to malfunctioning? 4 GERMANY Discussing private matters in the cockpit 3 GERMANY Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by 3 GERMANY To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be 3 GERMANY Which of the following is most true?
rispostaA
The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his behaviour.
rispostaB
The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation.
rispostaC
The feedback should always relate to a specific situation.
rispostaD
The feedback should only be given if requested by the captain.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
should be avoided by all supports verbal means in the cockpit communication You cannot influence your own communication. The statement above is a missprint.
is of no meaning in the cockpit Beeing silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express a meaning. Coding and decoding
is always used intentionally Each situation requires communication.
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
The receiver
The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding can improve team spirit the suddenness of onset of a noise
The sender
-1
decreases the captains role of leadership the duration of a noise but not its intensity avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose weight 1 - 1.5 hours a day
should be avoided by all is appropriate in any means in the cockpit phase of flight the intensity of the the duration and noise but not its duration intensity of a noise double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight 4 - 4.5 hours a day
0 0 0
-1 0 0
0 0 0
0 -1 -1
double the resting heart triple the resting heart rate for at least an hour, rate for 20 minutes, five times a week once a week Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption 2 - 2.5 hours a day Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate 3 - 3.5 hours a day
-1
6 GERMANY The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of about
-1
Page 683 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
the number of points you have in your 'credit/deficit' system because of limitations in our store of motor programmes He/she has not to adjust to the communication style of the communication partner. drug influence
rispostaC
the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been misunderstood.
rispostaD
the duration of your previous sleep because the capacity of the long term memory is limited There is no need to make up one's mind before starting to communicate.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 GERMANY The duration of a period the amount of time you of sleep is governed have been awake primarily by 1 GERMANY A selective attentional mechanism is required because of the limitations of the sense organs The receiver grasps quickly what the sender means.
-1
4 GERMANY What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate implicitly ('between the lines')? 1 GERMANY Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to 2 FRANCE
-1
maturation
practice and experience innate mechanisms
-1
According to creative errors Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skillbased control mode:
routine errors
knowledge errors
handling errors
-1
1 GERMANY Which of the following Read and listen tasks are possible to do attentively. simultaneously without mutual interference? 5 GERMANY Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision making most effective? 5 GERMANY Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high workload conditions in the cockpit? Friendliness.
Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem. Assertiveness.
Listen attentively and solve a problem.
Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory. General intelligence.
-1
Competitiveness.
-1
Mentally absent.
Sensitive.
Disciplined.
Jovial.
-1
Page 684 of 1247

5 GERMANY A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence is most likely? 1 FRANCE Working memory :
rispostaA
His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as a captain.
rispostaB
The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.
rispostaC
An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned psychological consequences. varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions
rispostaD
His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have to be incorporated. is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in complete safety Deciding means imposing one's point of view. representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is familiar with the procedure However, capacity of concentration is limited
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
is unlimited in size
is unlimited in duration
-1
1 FRANCE
Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in the pilot's work to maintain safety. Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making? Human errors are frequent and may take several forms :
A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance
However, excessive motivation leads to stress wich adversly affects performance Deciding means choosing between alternatives. an error of intention is an error of routine
-1
3 FRANCE
Deciding means applying an automatic procedure. an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her actions It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of concentration without limits
Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions. an violation is an error which is always involuntary
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
1 FRANCE
Concentration is essential for pilots.
Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive
All intellectual processes, including very routined ones, make demands on resources and therefore on one's concentration is absolute necessary for a safe flight operation It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination
-1
2 GERMANY An excessive need for safety 1 GERMANY Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of actions.
guarantees the right decision making in critical situations It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills
hampers severly the way of pilot decision making It is most important for selfcontrol
is the most important attribute of a line pilot It is more effective than training by doing
-1
-1
Page 685 of 1247

4 GERMANY During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?
rispostaA
The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments
rispostaB
The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his decisions
rispostaC
The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do
rispostaD
The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that needed
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY How can the process of By increasing the learning be facilitated? psychological pressure on the student 5 GERMANY Very high ambition and need for achievement disturbe the climate of cooperation
By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials fulfil the requirements of stress resistance at all levels of flying proficiency
By reinforcing errors
By reinforcing successful trials improves the coping process with personal failures only for instructor pilots
-1
always promote teamwork only for student pilots
-1
1 GERMANY Mental training is only at a certain level of helpful to improve flying flying experience skills 6 GERMANY A high level of motivation is related 2 GERMANY What is meant by the term 'complacency'? to monotony states To question possible solutions
-1
to high levels of arousal to high levels of intelligence
to complacency
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
An agreement between Physiological Careless negligence or captain and co-pilot due consequences on pilots unjustified selfto Crew Resources because of fear of flying confidence Management The tendency to The result of a poor sudden, imperceptible preflight planning errors shortly before the end of a flight The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in clouds
2 GERMANY What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') mean?
The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal tensions between captain and copilot
-1
Page 686 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
4 is correct
rispostaC
1 and 2 are correct
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 GERMANY 'Environmental capture' 2 and 3 are correct is a term used to describe which of the following statements? 1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is frequently exercised, even if it is inappropriate to do so 2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to do so 3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways in different social situations 4. The gaining of environmental skills 7 GERMANY A high degree of it is guaranteed that the cockpit automation may crew maqintains always alter the traditional situational awareness tasks of the pilots in a way, that 2 GERMANY It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in commercial aviation mainly because this reduces the amount of training required
Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromizing safety
the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an abnormal situation without monitoring the automatic systems such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances
the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of 'being out of the loop' this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection
-1
it makes the flight deck easier to design
-1
Page 687 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind
rispostaC
always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible
rispostaD
avoid making up his mind until the very last minute informing ATC thoroughly about the situation Communicational skills and social competence.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 GERMANY When a pilot is facing a make up his mind problem during flight he before consulting other should crew members 3 GERMANY The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly: 3 GERMANY Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the cockpit? the whole crew to focus on the problem
distribution of tasks and speed of reaction crew coordination Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view. the emergency checklist only find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be crosschecked as well pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents - 2 C every 1000 feet
-1
Ability to search for and Ability to think ahead examine all available and specify alternative information regarding a courses of action. situation. external factors only
-1
3 GERMANY The assessment of risk subjective perception in a particular situation and evalutation of will be based on situational factors
situational factors only
-1
3 GERMANY Once a pilot has find it difficult to stick to find it easy to interpret developed a certain way his/her interpretation of the data in different of thinking about a the data ways problem he will probably 7 GERMANY How can a pilot avoid automation complacency? Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-machine loop swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic membrane Nothing, because it is system-inherent
find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the data Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periods gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drum
-1
-1
3 UNKNOW
It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is: According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is approximately The semicircular canals detect
swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss
-1
1 SPAIN
2 C every 1000 metres constant in the troposphere
10 C every 100 feet
-1
2 SPAIN
sound waves
linear accelerations
changes in arterial pressure
angular accelerations
-1
Page 688 of 1247

1 SPAIN 1 SPAIN 1 SPAIN 1 SPAIN The first stage in the information process is The capacity of the short-term memory is Information stays in the short-term memory The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input channel is known as To prevent vertigo in flight we should
rispostaA
perception about 30 items less than 1 second perception
rispostaB
selective attention unlimited from 5 to 10 minutes sensation
rispostaC
the recognition of information about 7 items around 24 hours appreciation
rispostaD
sensory stimulation very limited - only one item about 20 seconds attention
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 -1 0 0 -1 0 -1 -1
2 SPAIN
look towards the sides when we make a turn
breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency
keep breathing normally not move the head suddenly while we are turning cochlea sense of balance
-1
2 SPAIN
When flying at night the proprioceptive sensitivity vision first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the The rate of absorption 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per of alcohol depends on hour many factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about A slight lack of 0.2 % blood alcohol coordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and precise movements occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
-1
3 SPAIN
0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour
0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
-1
3 SPAIN
0.05 % blood alcohol
0.1 % blood alcohol
0.15 % blood alcohol
-1
Page 689 of 1247

3 SPAIN The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to? Symptoms of decompression sickness The semicircular canals form part of the Anxiety and fear can cause The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs: Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation
rispostaA
nicotine
rispostaB
carbon monoxide
rispostaC
lead
rispostaD
tar
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 SPAIN
Carbonic anhydride
Tar
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
-1
1 SPAIN
always begin immediately after the decompression during the flight middle ear spatial disorientation on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear
normally take 2 or 3 disappear on landing days to appear after and never appear again exposure to a hypobaric atmosphere ear drum hypoglycemia on stimulating the cochlea intensely external ear hyperventilation when no semicircular canal is stimulated
sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on the ground inner ear hypoxia on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously
-1
2 SPAIN 1 SPAIN 3 SPAIN
0 0 0
0 0 0
0 -1 0
-1 0 -1
2 SPAIN
the cochlea
the semicircular canals
the tympanum
the saccule and the utricle of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
-1
2 SPAIN
of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft
that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
of turning in the same direction
-1
Page 690 of 1247

2 SPAIN When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct? If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of "optimum arousal" he/she will be: Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process of growing old. The effects of aging The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies The intensity of a sound is measured in The ozone-layer is situated in the
rispostaA
climb
rispostaB
descent
rispostaC
turn
rispostaD
spin
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 UNKNOW
A short exposure to Carbon monoxide is relatively high easily recognised by concentrations of odour and taste. carbon monoxide can seriously affect a pilots ability to operate an aircraft. in a confused mental state prepared best to cope with a difficult task
Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed to them for a long period of time.
When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body will adapt to it and no adverse physical effects are experienced
-1
6 UNKNOW
unprepared to handle a difficult situation
approaching a condition of complacency or fatigue noise induced hearing loss
-1
2 SPAIN
conductive hearing loss
presbycusis (eefects of aging)
a ruptured ear drum
-1
2 SPAIN
are to cut out all tones equally
will not affect a pilot's hearing if he is wearing ear-plugs all the time
are to cut out the high tones first
are to cut out the low tones first
-1
2 SPAIN
30 - 15000 dB
16 - 20,000 Hz
0 - 16 Hz
20,000 - 40,000 Hz
-1
2 SPAIN 1 SPAIN
cycles per second thermosphere
curies ionosphere
decibels stratosphere
hertz troposphere
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
Page 691 of 1247

1 FRANCE In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and expertise can be described as:
rispostaA
the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he can and cannot do
rispostaB
during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential knowledge of the machine
rispostaC
the pilot has a sphere of expertise wich is reduced to daily use of his skills
rispostaD
the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither have a great deal of confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system the outer ear
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 SPAIN
The group of tiny bones the maxillary sinus (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus leading to reduced human peformance? The heart muscle is supplied with blood from: At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of an adult is approximately: With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about: Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors: 1. Adrenalin 2. Cortisol 3. Physical exercise. 4. Glucose concentration in the blood Liveware - Software
the middle ear
the inner ear
-1
3 ICELAND
Liveware - Liveware
Liveware - Environment
Liveware - Hardware
-1
1 NETHERL
the coronary arteries
the auricles
ventricles
the pulmonary veins
-1
1 NETHERL
45 liters/min
75 liters/min
5 liters/min
450 ml/min
-1
1 NETHERL
6 liters/min
7 liters/min
8 liters/min
5 liters/min
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
Page 692 of 1247

1 NETHERL The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about: Someone who has anaemia has: Murphy's law states :
rispostaA
60 to 80 beats/min
rispostaB
30 to 50 beats/min
rispostaC
90 to 100 beats/min
rispostaD
110 to 150 beats/min
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 NETHERL 1 ICELAND
not enough white blood cells Expectation has an influence on perception
not enough functional hemoglobin
not enough platelets
not enough plasma Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one person to another stress is medium
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
Performance is If equipment is dependent on motivation designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will be stress and motivation are low can easily be changed stress is high
6 ICELAND
Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when : The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental model is, that it Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern" are : 1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed 2. when situations are characterised by medium workload 3. when situations are characterised by stress
stress and motivation are medium will only occur under conditions of stress
-1
2 ICELAND
is frequently extremely resistant to correction
will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation
-1
2 ICELAND
3.
2. and 3.
1. and 3.
1. and 2.
-1
1 ICELAND
The effect of can both be beneficial experience and habit on and negative performance The "gestalt laws "formulates : basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceived
is always negative
is never negative
is always beneficial
-1
1 ICELAND
basic principles basic principles governing the governing the effects of relationship between habit and experience stress and performance
basic principles regarding to the relationship between motivation and performance
-1
Page 693 of 1247

1 SPAIN The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial accelerations is The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an interface mismatch between
rispostaA
grey-out
rispostaB
loss of consciousness
rispostaC
black-out
rispostaD
red-vision
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 ICELAND
Liveware - Software
Liveware - Hardware
Liveware - Liveware
-1
1 SPAIN
The barometric 18 000 feet pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at Between which components is an interface mismatch responsible for deficiencies in conceptual aspects of warning systems? Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of interpretation by using an old three-point altimeter? Liveware - Hardware
10 000 feet
25 000 feet
30 000 feet
-1
3 ICELAND
Liveware - Liveware
Liveware - Software
-1
3 ICELAND
Liveware - Liveware
Liveware - Hardware
Liveware - Software
-1
2 ICELAND
Studies of human error 1 in 100 times rates during the performance of simple repetitive task have shown, that errors can normally be expected to occur about Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is : intense
1 in 250 times
1 in 10 times
1 in 50 times
-1
3 ICELAND
insinuating
obvious
sudden
-1
Page 694 of 1247

2 ICELAND What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease in hull loss rates in the eighties? Pilot stress reactions :
rispostaA
TCAS
rispostaB
GPWS
rispostaC
DME
rispostaD
SSR
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
6 ICELAND
seem to be always the same for most pilots
are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors where the topten items should be avoided by all means Impulsivity
do not change with the environment or different situations but mainly with the characters themselves Domination
differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular stressors
-1
5 ICELAND
Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude? The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related to :
Anti-authority
Macho
-1
4 ICELAND
the year of manufacture the crew
the manufacturer
the number of engines
-1
1 SPAIN
The type of hypoxia, Boyle Mariottes law which occurs at altitude is a explained by: Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on: 1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases 2. permeable membranes 3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air 4. acid-base balance in the blood Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because only 1 is correct
Henrys law
Grahams law
Daltons law
-1
1 SPAIN
2 and 3 are false
-1
3 SPAIN
it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane
it competes with oxygen it prevents the in its union with absorption of food from haemoglobin the digestive tract
it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys
-1
Page 695 of 1247

1 SPAIN 1 ICELAND
rispostaA
rispostaB
acidosis
rispostaC
hypochondria The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory. It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official languages of the ICAO.
rispostaD
a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory. The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the official aeronautical language of the destination country. 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1 0 0 -1 0
Hyperventilation causes an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
Which of the following The seperation of figure The intensity of the provides the basis of all and background. stimuli. perceptions? With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct? All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language. Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective management of any flight's communication. 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
4 FRANCE
-1
1 SPAIN
The chemical 78 % nitrogen, 21 % composition of the oxygen, 0,9 % argon, earths atmosphere (I C 0,03 % carbon dioxide A O standard atmosphere) is Concerning the relation A moderate level of between performance stress may improve and stress, which of the performance. following statement(s) is (are) correct? What means can be used to combat human error? -1 : Reducing errorprone mechanisms. -2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training. -3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error. -4 : Improving recovery from errors and its consequences. The combination of correct statements is: 2, 3 and 4
78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
-1
1 FRANCE
A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.
Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this type of stress on the ground. 3 and 4
A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly. 1 and 2
-1
2 FRANCE
1, 2 and 4
-1
Page 696 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2 and 3
rispostaC
1and 3
rispostaD
2, 3 and 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 and 4 What are the various means which allow for better error detection? -1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface. -2 : Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations. -3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures by the crew. -4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems. The correct statement(s) is (are):
2 FRANCE
How can man cope with By increasing error low error tolerant detection in all situations? circumstances
By randomly applying a combination of optimum detection, warning and monitoring systems the elimination of latent errors before they can effect performance
By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is low
By constantly complying with crossover verification procedures (cross monitoring) an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors committed
-1
2 FRANCE
Improvement of human reliability should entail:
in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line operators
the analysis of modes of human failures
-1
Page 697 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 and 4
rispostaC
2 and 3
rispostaD
3 and 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Why must flight safety 2 and 4 considerations consider the human error mechanism? -1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error. -2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc. -3 : It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and adapting future errors. -4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and
Page 698 of 1247

deal with it automatically in the future. The correct statement(s) is (are): 2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4
Once detected, an error have virtually no will result in cognitive interaction with consequences which: behaviour When can a system be said to be tolerant to error? When: To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to A system is all the more reliable if it offers good detectability. The latter is the result of: -1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors. -2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities. -3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and ManMachine links. -4 : the alerting capability of the ManMachine interface. The combination of correct statements is: the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safety correct the deviation
make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation its safety system is too permeable to error
destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the error its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errors report its malfunction
are prompted by inductive factors latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety report the deviation
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
tolerate the deviation
-1
2 FRANCE
3 and 4
2 and 4
1, 2 and 4
1 and 3
-1
Page 699 of 1247

2 FRANCE Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error? Latent errors:
rispostaA
are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are only detected after advanced problemsolving
rispostaB
rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in progress
rispostaC
have been present in the system for a certain lenght of time and are difficult to understand as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurence of the error 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
rispostaD
are rarely made by frontline operators, and are consequently readily identified and detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 FRANCE
Divided attention is the Only 3 is false ability : 1. to execute several mental activities at almost the same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel) 2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level) 3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation can be performed. 4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on the procedures
-1
Page 700 of 1247

2 FRANCE Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error? Active error is:
rispostaA
produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the action the only stress hormone is adrenaline
rispostaB
essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule by airplane designers stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and then acceleration of heart rate and increase in vision knows how to invest the maximum resources in the automation of tasks in real time
rispostaC
rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism and thereby slows down the heart rate is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the flight
rispostaD
produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it induces on the overall action stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting mental oerformance has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free his/her cognitive resources associative, autonomous and expert
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
The physiology of stress is now well known:
-1
1 FRANCE
A pilot can be is able to reduce described as being his/her arousal to a low proficient, when he/she: level during the entire flight
-1
1 FRANCE
The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages ( Anderson model): Mental schemes correspond to:
automatic, cognitive and knowledge
cognitive, associative and autonomous
cognitive, associative and knowledge
-1
1 FRANCE
daily planning of probable dangerous situations
memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can be reactivated by the pilot at will are virtually unlimited
the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a particular situation
memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly during change-over to a new machine are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time cognitive resources which are centered on action
-1
1 FRANCE
The available cognitive are limited but make it resources of the human possible to easily brain: perform several tasks at the same time According to Wicken's processing capabilities theory, the human brain which function at peak has: level when different tasks call for the same resources
allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness
-1
1 FRANCE
different reservoirs of unlimited informationresources depending processing resources on whether one is in the information-gathering, information-processing or action phase
-1
Page 701 of 1247

1 FRANCE The workload may be said to: -1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the crew resources. -2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew resources. -3 : depend on the pilot's expertise. -4 : correspond to the amount of resources available The combination of correct statements is: 4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
1 and 3 are correct
rispostaD
2 and 4 are correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
In order to overcome an 1 and 3 are correct overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to: -1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew. -2 : divide up tasks among the crew. -3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as much information as possible consciously. -4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities. The correct statement(s) is (are):
3 and 4 are correct
-1
Page 702 of 1247

1 FRANCE Pre-thought action plans may be said to: -1 : ease access to information which may be necessary. -2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to come. -3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the flight. -4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered situation. The combination of correct statements is: 4 FRANCE The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:
rispostaA
rispostaB
2 and 4 are correct
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or difficult during the flight
define general planning of the flight plan
allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situation
activate a collective mental schema with respect to nonprocedural actions to be carried out
-1
Page 703 of 1247

1 FRANCE The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible to: -1 : create a precise reference framework. -2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system. -3 : automate planned actions. -4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary for the period to come. The correct statement(s) is (are): 1 FRANCE In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisable to The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic):
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 and 2 are correct
rispostaC
2 and 4 are correct
rispostaD
3 and 4 are correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in real time) 80/20 mm Hg
plan a maximum of objectives and nonautomated actions 180/120 mm Hg
avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasks 220/180 mm Hg
plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in advance 120/80 mm Hg
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
Page 704 of 1247

2 FRANCE What are the main consequences of latent errors? They: -1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain lenght of time. -2 : may only manifest themselves under certainl conditions. -3 : are quickly detectable by the frontline operator whose mental schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors. -4 : lull the pilots into security. The correct statement(s) is (are): 1 UNKNOW Conscious perception
rispostaA
1 and 3
rispostaB
2, 3 and 4
rispostaC
1,2 and 4
rispostaD
1 and 2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
relates to the correct recognition of colours
is a mental process involving experience and expectations Henrys law
relies upon the involves the transfer of development of intuition information from the receptor to the brain only Boyle Mariottes law Daltons law
-1
1 SPAIN
Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure. The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in body tissues can be derived from: The normal rate of breathing is The main function of the red blood cells is
Gay Lussacs law
-1
1 SPAIN 1 SPAIN
32 to 40 cycles a minute 60 to 100 cycles a minute to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood the cellular defense of the organism
20 to 30 cycles a minute 12 to 16 cycles a minute to contribute to the immune response of the organism to transport oxygen
0 0
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
Page 705 of 1247

1 SPAIN Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase) The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the -1 Pilot in Command -2 Co-pilot -3 Navigator -4 Air traffic controller The correct statement(s) is (are): 1 SPAIN "The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of: Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes) for pilots to develop? In relation to the word stressas it affects human beings, which of the following responses is correct?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
up to 5 000 m
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
between 3 000 m and 5 between 5 000 m and 7 below 3 000 m 000 m 000 m
4 SPAIN
1 and 2
2 and 3
-1
pain in the thorax and a backing cough
CNS-disturbances
loss of peripheral vision
pain in the joints
-1
5 UNKNOW
Resignation, confidence, inattention
Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerabilty, resignation, machismo complex All forms of stress should be avoided.
Invulnerability, underconfidence, avoidance of making decisions, lack of situational awareness Reactive stressors relate purely to a pilots physical condition.
Machismo complex, resignation, confidence, self critcism
-1
6 UNKNOW
Stressis a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed upon him/her.
Self imposed obligations will not create stress.
-1
Page 706 of 1247

4 UNKNOW Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select the response below which could lead to such a hazard: Which of the following responses is an example of "habit reversion" (negative habit transfer):
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
anticipating the sequence of items on a check list.
rispostaD
mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-standard procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
anticipating that the anticipating that the weather may deteriorate flight will take longer time than planned
4 UNKNOW
Turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right
Incorrect anticipation of habitually missing an an air traffic controllers item on the checklist or instructions missing the second item when two items are on the same line
A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points forward for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position, when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON position flying an aircraft which you have flown recently
-1
4 UNKNOW
The relevance of check conducting a longer procedures during flight flight than you would becomes even more normally perform important when: Judgement is based upon: the development of skills from constant practice of flight manoeuvres
flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before the ability to interpret the flight instruments
flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure a process involving a pilots attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing the situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience
-1
3 UNKNOW
a decision making process involving physical sensations and their transfer to manually operate the aircraft controls
-1
Page 707 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
Only 1 is false
rispostaC
1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
rispostaD
1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Stress is a frequent 1, 2 and 3 are correct aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following circumstances does it occur? 1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does not immediately have a solution 2. Stress occurs with unexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual capabilities 3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for the problem he just is confronted with Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of: According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the following type(s) : Human behaviour is determined by: good maintenance of aircraft creative errors
3 UNKNOW
good judgement
physical skills
interpersonal relations
-1
2 FRANCE
errors of technical knowledge
routine errors
handling errors
-1
2 SPAIN
the social environment
cultural influences
biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
biological characteristics
-1
1 SPAIN
The cabin pressure in airline operation is
always equivalent to sea level
normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
-1
Page 708 of 1247

1 SPAIN The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases which compose the mixture corresponds to: A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctors prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is correct: It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
rispostaA
Daltons law
rispostaB
Grahams law
rispostaC
Henry`s law
rispostaD
Boyle Mariottes law
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 UNKNOW
The side effects of They will cause a these types of condition of over-arousal preparations are sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by pilots
A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from a flight surgeon if he intends to fly and self-medicate at the same time swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production resulting in hyperventilation
They have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during flight
-1
3 UNKNOW
the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents if the brain receives conflicting informations and the pilot does not believe the instruments the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state 3 hours after non decompression diving
although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen, gentle descents at high alltitude would result in damage to the ear drum when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross check respiration is very regular 36 hours after any scuba diving
because it will seriously affect peripheral vision
-1
2 UNKNOW
Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight: During paradoxical sleep In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed
when flying in light rain below the ceiling
when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer rapid eye movements can be observed 24 hours
-1
6 SPAIN
the rhythm of the heart is very regular 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made
-1
1 UNKNOW
-1
Page 709 of 1247

1 UNKNOW Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms: In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
blue finger-nails and lips dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart rate.
reduced heart rate and a state of increase in visual acuity overconfidence and reduced heart rate
1 UNKNOW
Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning
This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.
-1
6 SPAIN
A fatigued pilot
considerably increases will show signs of the ability to concentrate increased irritability 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
will get precordial pain
-1
1 FRANCE
An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms: 1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention 2. resignation, frustration, rage 3. deterioration in motor coordination 4. high pitch voice and fast speaking Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
-1
4 UNKNOW
making a flight over unfamiliar territory
they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are beeing observed and admired (e.g. air shows) distress
making decisions independently of others
they are not constrained by time
-1
6 NETHERL
If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:
eustress
adaptation
hypoxia
-1
Page 710 of 1247

3 NETHERL Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as: The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about:
rispostaA
relative humidity decreases 12 hours
rispostaB
altitude increases
rispostaC
altitude decreases
rispostaD
air pressure increases
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
6 NETHERL
48 hours
24 hours
1.5 hours
-1
6 NETHERL
Disturbance of the 1 and 3 are correct biological clock appears after a: 1. bad night's sleep 2. day flight Amsterdam - New York 3. day flight Amsterdam Johannesburg 4. night flight New York - Amsterdam The effects of sleep 1 and 3 are correct deprivation on performance: 1. increase with altitude 2. decrease with altitude 3. increase with higher workload 4. decrease with higher workload Sleeplessness or the 1 and 2 are both correct disruption of sleeping patterns 1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration 2. will make an individual more prone to make errors
2 and 4 are correct
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
6 NETHERL
1 is not correct, 2 is correct
1 is correct, 2 is not correct
1 and 2 are both not correct
-1
Page 711 of 1247

6 NETHERL Check the following statements: 1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be aware of personal performance degradation 2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)
rispostaA
1 is false, 2 is correct
rispostaB
1 and 2 are both false
rispostaC
1 and 2 are both correct
rispostaD
1 is correct 2 is false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 NETHERL
The sleep cycles repeat 1 is correct 2 is not during the course of a correct night's sleep. 1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REMsleep. 2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a human being in the long run. 1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night. 2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental and physical functions than all the other sleep stages are. A stress reaction is: 1 is correct 2 is not correct
1 is not correct 2 is correct
-1
6 NETHERL
1 and 2 are false
-1
6 NETHERL
the non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
the specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
-1
Page 712 of 1247

6 NETHERL A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive: Getting uneasy will effect: 1. attention 2. concentration 3. memory 4. prudence
rispostaA
coping stress
rispostaB
eustress
rispostaC
stressors
rispostaD
distress (stress reactions)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
6 NETHERL
1 and 2 are correct
1 and 3 are correct
-1
1 NETHERL
In an abnormal not applicable with old situation the pilot has and experienced pilots an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
decreasing
increasing
the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her mind
-1
Page 713 of 1247

6 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
only 1 is correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
According to the 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is different phases of the false "General Adaptation Syndrom" check the following statements: 1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing 2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol) assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for sustained operation. 3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have been generated excessively during the two preceeding phases, Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is because: hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen
3 NETHERL
carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli
carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract
-1
Page 714 of 1247

6 NETHERL 1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressful situation. 2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope with it will determine the type and strength of stress. Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of this type of stress are: 1. nervousness and chanellized attention 2. being rough at the controls 3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual 4. airsickness, lack of sleep The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 is correct, 2 is false
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
6 NETHERL
1 and 2 are false, 3 and 4 are correct,
-1
6 NETHERL
depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the situational demands
does not depend on his capacity to absorb information
depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the situational demands
depends on selfconfidence alone
-1
6 NETHERL
An identical situation the arousal level of both can be experienced by pilots will be raised one pilot as exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases:
both pilots will loose both pilots will their motor-coordination experience the same amount of stress
the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than the pilot looking forward to what may happen
-1
Page 715 of 1247

6 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 and 2 are both false Please check the following statements: 1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional stressors can be manifested in organic stress reactions. 2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is always followed by psychological stress. 1. Psychosomatic 1 and 2 are both not means that a correct physiological problem is followed by psychological stress. 2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because of the strict selection for this particular profession . Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the approach procedure, and you encounter no inexpected or new problems you show: skill based behaviour
6 NETHERL
1 is correct 2 is not correct
-1
1 NETHERL
coping behaviour
knowledge based behaviour skill based behaviour
rule based behaviour
-1
1 NETHERL
rule and skill based behaviour
knowledge based behaviour
-1
Page 716 of 1247

1 NETHERL The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is: The readiness for tracing information which could indicate the development of a critical situation An non-synergetic cockpit :
rispostaA
rispostaB
skill based behaviour
rispostaC
knowledge based behaviour
rispostaD
pressure based behaviour
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 NETHERL
is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway is not very dangerous as each person checks everything personally
is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication resistance phase exhaustion phase recovery phase
-1
4 FRANCE
is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating appropriately with the outside
always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere
-1
6 NETHERL
The biological reaction alarm phase to stress is identical resistance phase regardless of the cause exhaustion phase of stress. This mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General Adaptation Syndrome". The sequence is: Decompression symptoms are caused by: If you are disorientated during night flying you must: low oxygen pressure of inhaled air look outside
alarm phase - denial phase - exhaustion phase
exhaustion phase resistance phase adaptation phase
-1
1 NETHERL
release of locked gases dissolved gases from low carbon dioxide from joints tissues and fluids of the pressure of inhaled air body descend check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast relay on instruments
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
Page 717 of 1247

1 NETHERL A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him to: 1. unbuckle and massage the belly 2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines 3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated beverages before flight in the future 4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 and 3 not advisable
rispostaC
only 4 is correct
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
be absorbed by tissues and blood
expand 2,3 and 4 are correct
stay the same 1 and 2 are correct
shrink 1,3 and 4 are correct
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
Having a serious cold it 1,2 and 4 are correct is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of: 1. flatulence 2. pain in the ear during descent 3. pressure vertigo 4. pain in the nasal sinuses Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect: Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by: hypoxia
3 NETHERL
pain in the sinuses
bends
chokes
-1
1 NETHERL
increasing the rate of descent
using an oxygen mask
leveling off and possibly blocking the effected climbing ear with the palm of your hand
-1
Page 718 of 1247

1 NETHERL The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be explained by the principle that:
rispostaA
a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of this gas at constant temperature (Boyle's law)
rispostaB
the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the separate gases (Dalton's Law)
rispostaC
the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher concentration or partial pressure to an area of lower concentration or partial pressure (law of diffusion) leans
rispostaD
the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that gas above the fluid (Henry's Law)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called: Which symptom does not belong to the following list: The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are called: Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:
chokes
creeps
bends
-1
1 NETHERL
bends
chokes
creeps
leans
-1
1 NETHERL
bends
chokes
leans
creeps
-1
1 NETHERL
chokes
bends
creeps
leans
-1
3 NETHERL
Carbon monoxide in the 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct human body can lead to: 1. loss of muscular power 2. headache 3. impaired judgement 4. pain in the joints 5. loss of consciousness
1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct
-1
Page 719 of 1247

1 NETHERL Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by: 1. SCUBA-Diving 2. Obesity 3. Age 4. Body height CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to: 1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness 2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is: After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT the first action of the pilot shall be:
rispostaA
only 4 is correct
rispostaB
rispostaC
2 and 4 are correct
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA
transmit mayday call
carry out check for structural damage
don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow
-1
1 NETHERL
informing ATC
informing the cabin crew
preventing panic of the passengers
maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
-1
1 NETHERL
The following actions 1, 2 and 3 are correct are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression sickness: 1. climb to higher level 2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible 3. breathe 100 % oxygen 4. get medical advice about recompression after landing
1 and 4 are correct
1 and 3 are correct
-1
Page 720 of 1247

1 NETHERL Decompression sickness can be prevented by: 1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT 2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes 3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight 4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight What is the TUC at 20 000 FT? Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about: After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about: After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least: Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
only 3 is correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
1to 2 hours 1 to 2 minutes
5 to 10 minutes 3 to 5 minutes
about 30 minutes 5 to 10 minutes
1 to 2 minutes 10 to 12 minutes
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
0 0
1 NETHERL
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
30 to 60 seconds
15 seconds or less
-1
1 NETHERL
6 hours
12 hours
48 hours
24 hours
-1
1 NETHERL
stress
decompression hyperventilation sickness without having a decompression
hypoxia
-1
Page 721 of 1247

3 NETHERL Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal. 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
A small amount of An increase of altitude Judgement and decision making can be alcohol increases visual decreases the adverse acuity. effect of alcohol. affected even by a small amount of alcohol. 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
3 NETHERL
Which statement is 1,2 and 3 are correct correct? 1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from coronary heart disease 2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals pysiological altitude during flight 3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung cancer Haemoglobin is: Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of following answers is correct? Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression ? in the white blood cells You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression sickness. the high sensitivity of the retina
-1
1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
in the red blood cells
in the platelets
dissolved in the plasma This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
This symptom indicates This phenomenon is decompression treated by sickness and will physiotherapy. disappear when you take some exercise. binocular vision interactions between cones and rods
2 FRANCE
peripheral vision
-1
1 FRANCE
Headaches, articular pain, speeding-up of the respiratory rate, memory disorders
Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgement, memory disorders
Headaches, fatigue, somnolence, palpitations
Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature impairment of judgement
-1
Page 722 of 1247

1 FRANCE What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?
rispostaA
The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his available oxygen supply About 40 secods
rispostaB
The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The pilot's reaction time The period of time when faced with hypoxia between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes aware of it
1 FRANCE
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ? What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression? Which of the following statements is correct ?
More than 1 minute
About 12 seconds
Between 20 seconds and 1 minute
-1
1 FRANCE
Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency
Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man 2,3,4
Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft
First inform ATC
-1
2 FRANCE
70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel 1,2,4
40% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel 1,3
The kinesthetic channel provides the most important information for flying 2,4
-1
2 FRANCE
With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct ? -1: It is due to the functioning of rods -2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen -3: Its very active both during the day and at night -4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity
-1
Page 723 of 1247

2 FRANCE With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they:
rispostaA
originate from a conflict between instrument readings and external visual perceptions
rispostaB
are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively
rispostaC
are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning attitudinal perception between the various members of a crew 2,3,4
rispostaD
are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual system 1,2,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
Which of the following 1,4 statements are correct ? -1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which is satisfactory for the body -2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration -3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue -4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise be lost Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are : due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
2,3
-1
1 FRANCE
due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
solely induced in the absence of external reference points
associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
-1
Page 724 of 1247

2 FRANCE Autokinetic illusion is:
rispostaA
the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into the opposite direction of the acceleration it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining data 1, 2 and 3 are correct
rispostaB
a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations
rispostaC
poor interpretation of the surrounding world
rispostaD
an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of reference - appear to move it mainly contains procedural knowledge
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
With regard to shortterm memory, we can say that :
it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in terms of the time for which it retains data but not in its storage capacity 1and 3 are correct
it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any disturbance
-1
1 NETHERL
Check the following statements: 1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will be evaluated. 2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs. 3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the central decision maker (CNS). What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
1 and 2 are correct
2 and 3 are correct
-1
1 FRANCE
Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing
Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
-1
Page 725 of 1247

1 FRANCE Which of the following statements are correct: -1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction -2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with flight safety -3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying -4: Diet has no repercussion on health
rispostaA
rispostaB
2 and 3 are correct
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
To optimise one's night- 2,3,4 vision performance, it is necessary : - 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of illumination - 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting - 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed - 4 : to avoid blinding What is hypoxia ? A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the mask
1,3,4
1,2,4
-1
1 FRANCE
Any condition where the The total absence of oxygen concentration of oxygen in the air the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition
The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness
-1
Page 726 of 1247

1 FRANCE Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)? - 1: Decrease in heart rate - 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body - 3: Drop in blood pressure above heartlevel - 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for : Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous expansion after decompression at high altitude may be associated with the following part(s) of the body: 1 the digestive tract 2 the ears 3 the eyes 4 the sinuses
rispostaA
1,3,4
rispostaB
2,3,4
rispostaC
1,2,3
rispostaD
1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min) 1
good, virtually instantaneous nightvision (scotopic vision) 1,2,3
precise vision of contours and colours 2,3,4
red vision, both during the day and at night 2,4
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
Page 727 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2,3,4
rispostaC
1,3,4
rispostaD
1,2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Which of the following 2,4 statements are correct ? 1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities. 2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold. 3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot of energy 4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of less than 35C What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the pilot? What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations? The confirmation bias of decision making is Radial acceleration (+ Gz)
1 FRANCE
Linear acceleration (+ Gx)
Transverse acceleration (+ Gy)
Combined linear and transverse acceleration
-1
1 FRANCE
A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood available a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor; is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes
An improvement of peripheral vision
An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-level) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decision not intended to change the individual's attitude at all
Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before implementing one's decision intended solely to alter an individual's personality;
-1
3 FRANCE
a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement
-1
4 FRANCE
CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety and human relationship management
-1
Page 728 of 1247

5 FRANCE The effectiveness of the individual depends on: Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory ? - 1 : It is limited in time and size - 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size - 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances - 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:
rispostaA
the ability to go beyond one's own capabilities
rispostaB
the total independence with respect to the environment 2,3
rispostaC
the ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs and the demands of reality 1
rispostaD
the ability to repress the dictates of needs
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 FRANCE
3,4
1,3
-1
1 NETHERL
hyperventilation with increasing altitude
the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude red blood cells
the occurance of the occurance of decompression hypoxia with increasing sickness at high altitude altitude platelets blood plasma
-1
1 NETHERL
Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by The part of blood without cell is called :
white blood cells
-1
1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
serum
water 1 and 2 are correct
plasm 1 is correct and 2 is false
lymph 1 is false and 2 is correct
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
The circulatory system, both are false among other things, allows for : 1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide 2. transportation of information by chemical substances The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for : red blood cells
1 NETHERL
gases
platelets
protein
-1
Page 729 of 1247

1 NETHERL In the pulmonary artery there is :
rispostaA
oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
rispostaB
oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blond oxygen
rispostaC
oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood carbon dioxide
rispostaD
oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood carbon monoxide
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
Under normal nitrogen circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli: The body loses water 1 is correct and 2 is not via: correct 1. the skin and the lungs 2. the kidneys One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is : What is meant by metabolism ? protein
-1
3 NETHERL
1 is not correct and 2 is correct
both are false
1 and 2 are correct
-1
3 NETHERL
sugar
fat
water
-1
3 NETHERL
Transfer of chemical messages
Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood 2,3
The transformation by Information exchange which energy is made available for the uses of the organism 1,2,3,4 1,4
-1
3 NETHERL
Our body takes its energy from : 1: minerals 2: protein 3: carbonhydrates 4: vitamines Exchange of gasses between the body and the environment takes place at the: Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness occur? Dalton's law explains the occurance of :
1,3
-1
3 NETHERL
central nervous system
lungs
heart
muscles
-1
1 FRANCE
Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the symptoms to disappear before climbing again altitude hypoxia
Only medical treatment is of use
Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary
Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible
-1
1 NETHERL
bends
decompression sickness
creeps
-1
Page 730 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
rispostaC
The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's capabilities
rispostaD
An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude 3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
What is decompression A frequent disorder in sickness ? commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft
1 NETHERL
Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ? 1. Density 2. Pressure 3. Temperature 4. Humidity Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:
1,2 ,3
1, 2 ,4
2,3 ,4
-1
1 NETHERL
18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases remains constant, independent from altitude
-1
1 NETHERL
The volume percentage increases by expansion of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial pressure of oxygen :
decreases significantly decreases with with lower temperatures decreasing barometric pressure
-1
1 NETHERL
You climb from 0 to 10.000 and 15.000 feet 45.000 and 50.000 feet 0 and 5.000 feet 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between : The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure at sea level. In accordance with this statement,
5.000 and 10.000 feet
-1
1 NETHERL
the partial oxygen the partial oxygen the oxygen saturation of the oxygen percentage pressure at that altitude pressure at that altitude the blood at that altitude of the air at that altitude will be doubled will also drop to 1/2 of will drop by 50 % too will drop by one half also the pressure of oxygen at sea level
-1
Page 731 of 1247

3 FRANCE Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct ? The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety :
rispostaA
Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body temperature. is independent of the operational context, with the latter being identical for any flight operation is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle
rispostaB
Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high. has been evolving for 40 years and has now become independent of the social and technical system is limited to the foveal area of the retina
rispostaC
Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40 C or more. is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational context created by the system is limited to daytime using the rod cells
rispostaD
Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight. is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the main factor is almost equally shared by the entire retina
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision):
-1
1 FRANCE
Which of the following 2, 3 and 4 are correct statements about longterm memory are correct? -1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic knowledge. -2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which this same information is used. -3: It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time. -4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time.
2 and 4 are correct
1 and 4 are correct
1 and 2 are correct
-1
Page 732 of 1247

1 FRANCE Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful to: Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? Henry's Law explains the occurence of: If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man :
rispostaA
its mode of storing information is passive, making memory searches effective
rispostaB
its storage capacity is unlimited
rispostaC
it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but unlimted in terms of storage time
rispostaD
it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in terms of capacity learn and store data in a logical and structured way
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 FRANCE
structure irrelevant avoid to rehearse mentally rehearse information as much as information which we information before it is possible before know we will need soon needed committing it to memory Tilt your head to the side to get better informations from the semicircular canals. hyperventilation has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of considerable synergy 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Rely on the Seat-of-the- Get adapted to low Pants-Sense. levels of illumination before flying and use off-center vision all the time. hypoxia has less effective means of action (output) than the computer decompression sickness has less effective means of data collection than the computer
-1
2 NETHERL
Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
-1
1 NETHERL 7 FRANCE
diffusion is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of data collection or means of action are referred to 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
0 0
1 NETHERL
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia? 1. Blue lips and finger nails. 2. Euphoria. 3. Flatulence. 4 .Unconsciousness..
1, 2 and 3 are correct.
2, 3 and 4 are correct.
-1
Page 733 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,4
rispostaC
2,3
rispostaD
1,2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 We know that transverse accelerations (Gy) - 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs - 2 : are present during take-off and landing - 3 : are rare during routine flights - 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for : The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of the following ? The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the: the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data The retina
2 FRANCE
the acquisition of the binocular vision visual signal and the accommodation process The crystalline lens The rods
the analysis of visual signals
-1
2 FRANCE
The cones
-1
2 FRANCE
rods located in its central part
crystalline lens
rods located in its peripheral zone
cones located in its central part
-1
2 FRANCE
In order to get colour 1 vision, it is necessary : -1 : for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity) -2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15 -3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light -4 : to avoid white light
1,2,3
2,4
-1
Page 734 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,3
rispostaC
1
rispostaD
2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
4 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? - 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone - 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods - 3: The rods allow for night-vision - 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina The vestibular system is composed of -1: two ventricles -2 : a saccule -3 : an utricle -4 : three semicircular channels Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular system ? -1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft -2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving) -3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects -4 : Illusions of rotation 1,3,4
2 FRANCE
2,3,4
1,4
2,3
-1
2 FRANCE
1,4
2,3,4
3,4
-1
Page 735 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,3
rispostaC
3,4
rispostaD
1,2,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2,3,4 Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are : 1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC 2 - sensed via impressions of rotation 3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft 4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under IMC In the absence of somato-gravic illusion external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called : If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should: dim the cockpit lighting
1 FRANCE
illusion of relative movement
autokinetic illusion
cognitive illusion
-1
2 NETHERL
scan the surroundings
use your oxygen mask
continue on instruments
-1
Page 736 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,2,4
rispostaC
2,3
rispostaD
1,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The following course of 1,4 action must be taken if gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off : -1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight -2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor -3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly! -4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydration Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct? General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases : -1 : alarm -2 : alert phase -3 : resistance phase -4 : exhaustion phase -5 : vigilance phase It activates the senses and makes them function better. 2,3,4
1 NETHERL
It has little effect on the It is a potential threat to body, because the body safety. can always compensate for it. 1,2,4,5 2,3,4,5
It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft. 1,3,4
-1
6 FRANCE
-1
Page 737 of 1247

6 FRANCE Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurence of various stressors. Of these, which can be called physiological ? The individual's perception of stress depends on: Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation. This reaction Experiencing stress depends on:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Noise, temperature (low Noise, hunger, or high), humidity, sleep conflicts, a death deprivation
Heat, humidity, fatique, Temperature, hunger, administrative problems thirst, divorce
6 FRANCE
the objectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it can only be controlled by medical treatment
the pilot's increasing level of arousal
the conditions of the current situation only
the subjectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it is always linked to excessive fear
-1
6 FRANCE
is purely physiological and automatic
may include various psychological and physiological elements which one can learn to manage the environment of the situation which the individual will live through or is in the process of living through vestibular sense
-1
6 FRANCE
the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation
the individual's state of tiredness
the individual interpretation of the situation
-1
2 UNKNOW
During flight in IMC, the visual sense, most reliable sense interpreting the attitude which should be used indicator to overcome illusions is the: Stress is above all :
"Seat-of-the-pantsSense"
visual sense by looking outside
-1
6 FRANCE
a phenomenon which is the best adaptation specific to modern man phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the various situation which he may have to face
a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his performance
-1
Page 738 of 1247

1 FRANCE Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by external stimulations. This internal equilibrium is called : When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention against: Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:
rispostaA
Homeostasis
rispostaB
Heterostasis
rispostaC
Isothermy
rispostaD
Metastasis
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 NETHERL
autokinesis
oculogyral illusion
pressure vertigo
coriolis illusion
-1
2 NETHERL
normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age
simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres yawing
undergoing positive G
gazing in the direction of a flashing light
-1
2 NETHERL
Linear accelleration descending when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of: Which of the following 2,3,4,5 systems are involved in the appearance of motion sickness ? -1 : Hearing -2 : The vestibular system -3 : Vision -4 The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-thePants-Sense") -5 : The gastrointestinal system The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the: partial pressure of nitrogen
spinning
climbing
-1
2 FRANCE
1,2,5
2,3,4
1,2,3
-1
1 NETHERL
partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
total air pressure in the blood
pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
-1
Page 739 of 1247

1 NETHERL Which of the following statements is correct? The blood-pressure which is measured during flight medical checks is the pressure Blood-pressure depends on: 1. the cardiac output 2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance) The blood-pressure depends on: 1. the work of the heart 2. the peripheral resistance 3. the elasticity of the arterial walls 4. the bloode volume and viscosity Changes in bloodpressure are measured by: The pressoreceptors are located in
rispostaA
in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body) 1 is false 2 is correct
rispostaB
in the mussles of the upper arm
rispostaC
in the veins of the upper arm
rispostaD
in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
1 and 2 are correct
1 is correct 2 is false
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
arteriols
adrenal glands
pacemakers
pressoreceptors
-1
1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
the carotid and aortic arterial vessels
the intestines 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
the heart 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
the lungs 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
When the 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 pressoreceptors signal is false a lowering of the bloodpressure there are adaptation mechanisms which result in: 1. an increase of respiratory activity 2. the arteriols to constrict 3. an increase of cardiac output 4. the heart rate to rise
Page 740 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
1and 4 are correct, 3 is false
rispostaC
rispostaD
1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 The physiological effects of accelerations is false to the human body depend on: 1. the duration of the Gforces 2. the onset rate of the G-forces 3. the magnitude of the G-forces 4. the direction of the Gforces. Inertia in the direction remain constant head => feet will cause the bloodpressure in the brain to: During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is: Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a blackout during positive Gmanoeuvres? The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about: One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is: When exhaling, the expired air contains: grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision Hyperventilation.
1 NETHERL
increase
first increase, then decrease
decrease
-1
1 NETHERL
grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness. A tilt back seat.
unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out. Breathing oxygen.
black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness. Sit in upright position and keep relaxed.
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
72 cycles per minute
4 cycles per minute
-1
1 NETHERL
hyperventilation, causing emotional stress more nitrogen than the inhaled air
impaired judgement, reduced coordination of cyanosis, reducing then disabling the pilot to limb movements, pilots ability to hear recognize the symptoms causing the pilot to spin less water vapour than the inhaled air more oxygen than the inhaled air more carbon dioxide than the inspired air
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
Page 741 of 1247

1 NETHERL Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1. euphoria 2. decreased rate and depth of breathing 3. lack of concentration 4. visual disturbances The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be discribed by: The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by: The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is: The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of: The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a: A pressurized cabin helps to prevent: 1. decompression sickness 2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines 3. hypoxia 4. coronary desease Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
Dalton's Law
Henry's Law
the law of diffusion
Boyle's Law
-1
1 NETHERL
Dalton's Law
Henry's Law
the law of diffusion
Boyles Law
-1
1 NETHERL
almost the same as in the atmospheric air water vapour in the alveoli
higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood oxygen in the cells
lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air. carbon dioxide in the blood
lower than in the blood
-1
2 NETHERL
nitrogen in the air
-1
1 NETHERL
surplus of O2 in the blood 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
shortage of CO in the blood 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
shortage of CO2 in the blood 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
surplus of CO2 in the blood 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
15.000 feet
20.000 feet
25.000 feet
10.000 - 12.000feet
-1
Page 742 of 1247

1 NETHERL When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because: Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation decreases with: 1. decreasing air pressure 2. carbon monoxide poisoning 3. increasing altitude 4. increasing air pressure Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells The severity of hypoxia depends on the: 1. rate of decompression 2. physical fitness 3. flight level 4. individual tolerance Visual disturbances can be caused by: 1. hyperventilation 2. hypoxia 3. hypertension 4. fatigue The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about: Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:
rispostaA
the composition of the blood changes 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
rispostaB
the composition of the air is different from sea level 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
rispostaC
the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
rispostaD
the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level. 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
are saturated with oxygen 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
have a shortage of carbon dioxide 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
have a shortage of oxygen 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
are saturated with nitrogen 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
2 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
350 ml of air
150 ml of air
75 ml of air
500 ml of air
-1
3 NETHERL
reduced mobility of the ossicles
damage of the sensitive a blocked Eustachian membrane in the tube cochlea due to overexposure to noise
pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum
-1
Page 743 of 1247

2 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision
rispostaC
vertigo
rispostaD
pitching up
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
pitching down Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of: Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by: 1. anaemia 2. smoking in the cockpit 3. carbon monoxide poisoning 4. hypoxia 1,2 and 3 are correct
3 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
Glaucoma 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is 1. can lead to total false blindness 2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field 3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage Glaucoma is: Glaucoma is characterised by: 1. disturbed light adaptation 2. progressive narrowing of the visual field 3. insidious onset and concealed progression 4. an increase in intraocular pressure The peripheral vision is important for: disturbed adaptation 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false
1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
-1
2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
disturbed night vision 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
high intra-ocular pressure 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
disturbed colour vision 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
0 0
2 NETHERL
binocular vision
colour vision
detecting moving objects
visual acuity
-1
Page 744 of 1247

2 NETHERL Although we have a field of vision of more than 180 it is important during flight to use the scan ning technique, because
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good enough to see an object clearly 10 seconds
rispostaD
the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is due to a lack of vitamin A 25 - 30 minutes
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
it is tiring to look only in the foveal area continually in the same resolution is good enough to see an object direction clearly
2 NETHERL
The time an eye needs 5 minutes to adapt fully to the dark is about: The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night vision are called: the rods
10 minutes
-1
2 NETHERL
the fovea
the cones
the cones and the rods
-1
2 NETHERL
When flying through a a), b), c) and d) are thunderstorm with correct lightning you can protect yourself from flashblindness by: a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights b) looking inside the cockpit c) wearing sunglasses d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night? The mechanism of accomodation is caused by: Blink your eyes.
a), b) and c) are correct, d) is false
a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are false
c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false
-1
2 NETHERL
Look with one eye.
Look to the side (15 20 deg) of the object.
Look directly at the object.
-1
2 NETHERL
the functioning of the muscles of the eye
the diameter of the pupil the functioning of the the elasticity of the ciliary muscle aroud the optic nerves lens
-1
Page 745 of 1247

3 NETHERL Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 NETHERL
The ability of the lens to binocular vision change its shape is called: Excessive exposure to noise damages: A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences: Empty field myopia is caused by: the ossicles barotrauma
depth perception
adaptation
accomodation
-1
2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
the eardrum pressure vertigo
the sensitive membrane the semi circular canals in the cochlea coriolis illusion autokinetic illusion
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
ozone at altitude
flying over mountainous lack of distant focal terrain points the light is moving the size of the lightis varying
atmospheric perspective the intensity of the light is varying
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
When a pilot is starring the colour of the light is at an isolated stationary varying light for several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion that: When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an isolated star) you will find the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called: How is haze effecting your perception?
2 NETHERL
autokinetic phenomenon black hole illusion
coriolis illusion
leans
-1
2 NETHERL
Objects seem to be further away than in reality.
Objects will give better contrast.
Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity
Objects seem to be closer than in reality.
-1
Page 746 of 1247

2 NETHERL The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
rispostaA
being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal
rispostaB
being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short
rispostaC
being too close, landing long
rispostaD
climbing
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 NETHERL
high approach with undershoot
low approach with overshoot
low approach with undershoot
high approach with overshoot
-1
2 NETHERL
You fly VFR from your high approach with home base (runway undershoot width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: 1. In case of conflicting 1 is correct, 2 is false information you can always trust your Seat- of-the-PantsSense. 2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the instruments you must believe the instruments. How can spatial moving the head into disorientation in IMC be the direction of the avoided? By resultant vertical.
low approach with overshoot
low approach with undershoot
high approach with overshoot
-1
2 NETHERL
1 and 2 are false
1 and 2 are correct
-1
2 NETHERL
looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.
maintaining a good believing your body instrument cross check. senses only.
-1
Page 747 of 1247

1 NETHERL Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by : The Eustachian tube connects: Hyperventilation is:
rispostaA
disorientation
rispostaB
accelerations
rispostaC
increased atmospherical pressure the auditory duct and the inner ear a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain
rispostaD
decreased atmospherical pressure the semi circular canals a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
the middle ear and the inner ear an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure
the middle ear and the pharynx an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing bloodpressure
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
2 NETHERL
How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight? The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to: Angular accelerations are perceived by: The inner ear is able to perceive: 1. angular acceleration 2. linear acceleration 3. noise Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check. constant speed only the otholits 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
Always try to catch outside visual cues. linear acceleration and gravity the receptors in the skin and the joints 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false
Rely on good situational Rely on the kinaesthetic awareness believing sense. your natural senses. angular acceleration angular speed
-1
2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
0 0 0
-1 0 0
0 -1 -1
0 0 0
the semi circular canals the cochlea 1 and 2 and 3 are correct 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
1 NETHERL
Night vision.
Motor coordination.
Hearing.
Speech.
-1
1 NETHERL
You are crossing the the blood-pressure can Alps in a nonget too low pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:
you will get the bends
your judgement could be impaired
the blood-pressure can get too high
-1
Page 748 of 1247

1 NETHERL During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by:
rispostaA
closing one eye
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
scanning sectors of the dim the instrument field of vision lights
1 NETHERL
During flight all Glaucoma. crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms: 1. blue lips 2. mental disturbances 3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs 4. reduction of peripheral vision Which is the possible cause? Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia? 1. Descend below 10 000 FT. 2. Breathe 100 % oxygen. 3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT. 4. Reduce physical activities. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Hypothermia.
Hypoglycaemia.
Hypoxia.
-1
1 NETHERL
only 1 is correct
-1
1 NETHERL
Hypoxia can be will not exceed 20 000 prevented when the pilot FT cabin pressure altitude Hypoxia can occur because: Presbyopia is: you inhale too much nitrogen far sightedness linked with age
is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude short sightedness
is relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing any stage of hypoxia you are hyperventilating
is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method you are getting toomuch solar radiation high intraocular pressure
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
myopia
-1
Page 749 of 1247

1 NETHERL 2 NETHERL Hyperventilation is: Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is: 1. flying in IMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC into VMC 4. having a cold If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level in the blood. The consequence is:
rispostaA
a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
rispostaB
an increased lung ventilation 1, 3 and 4 are correct
rispostaC
a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood 1, 2 and 4 are correct
rispostaD
a decreased lung ventilation 1, 2 and 3 are correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0 0 -1 0 0
1 NETHERL
the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase)
the blood turns less more alkaline
the blood turns more acid
the acid-base balance of the blood will not change vertigo
-1
1 NETHERL
cyanosis
hypoxia
-1
1 NETHERL
During a final approach hypoxia under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate: During final approach under bad weather conditions you are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling sensations in your hands. When hyperventilating you should descend
carbon monoxide poisoning
hyperventilation
disorientation
-1
1 NETHERL
apply the Valsalva method
use the oxygen mask
control your rate and depth of breathing
-1
Page 750 of 1247

1 NETHERL A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:
rispostaA
controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
rispostaB
depending on instruments
rispostaC
increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide to reduce blood pressure
rispostaD
the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 NETHERL
You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is: Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means: Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by: The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his surroundings, but informs him of A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called: The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by: When focussing on near objects:
to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
-1
2 NETHERL
a lesser sensitivity
a greater sensitivity
a greater selectivity
a lesser selectivity
-1
2 NETHERL
environmental stressors the condition of the body itself
the pressure created on a touch on the skin the corresponding body indicating the true parts when sitting, vertical standing or lying down our surroundings the condition in the body itself
-1
2 NETHERL
the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
a touch on the skin
-1
2 NETHERL
change of stimulation level
reflex
data processing
control system
-1
2 NETHERL
the lens
the pupil
the ciliary body
the cornea
-1
2 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
the shape of lens gets flatter
the cornea gets smaller the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation
the pupil gets larger your blood-pressure is too low after blooddonation
the shape of lens gets more spherical your heart frequency is too low after blooddonation
0 -1
0 0
0 0
-1 0
You should not you are more despense blood without susceptible to hypoxia prior information from after a blood-donation. your flight surgeon. The most important reason for this advise is:
Page 751 of 1247

5 FRANCE Which of the following elements make up the personality of an individual ? 1. Heredity 2. Childhood environment 3. Upbringing 4. Past experience Habits and routine can influence decisionmaking in a way that:
rispostaA
1,2,3,4
rispostaB
1,2,4
rispostaC
2,3
rispostaD
2,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 FRANCE
professional pilots will never question established procedures
one always selects a choice in accordance with the company's usual practices
a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best possible result 1,2,4
one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by new decisions
-1
3 FRANCE
Which biases relate to 1,2 human decision making? 1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring 2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it 3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision 4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time pressure ? A strategy of preparing decisions
3,4
1,2,3
-1
3 FRANCE
A non-sequential strategy
A Laissez-faire strategy A strategy of no commitment
-1
Page 752 of 1247

3 FRANCE In terms of decisionmaking, the intention to become integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to : Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision?
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
rispostaD
an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
the improvement of the suggestion of a internal risk sequential solution in assessment capabilities which everyone can contribute what he/she knows
3 FRANCE
The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status
Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order to apply the decision prepared beforehand Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an increase of cooperation and efficiency
Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitment
Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilities
-1
4 FRANCE
What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck ?
A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is inassertive
In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing delayed responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effect A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
High group performance despite the strained relations
-1
4 FRANCE
What is synergy in a crew ?
The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective
The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performances an automated or automation-like act of applying defined procedures
The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a nonstandard task
-1
3 FRANCE
Decision-making is a concept which represents :
a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a given problem are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated with them
an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problem Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a situation
a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced with a defined problem form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be changed in an adult
-1
5 FRANCE
Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality
-1
Page 753 of 1247

1 FRANCE The needs of an individual lead to :
rispostaA
preservation from dangers only if social needs are beeing satisfied
rispostaB
no change in his motivation and conrequently to the persistence of the individuals behaviour in regard to the desired outcome The hierarchical position of the function and the associated behaviour While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group, status defines - via behaviourthe functions that must be performed by individuals 1
rispostaC
prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high selfactualization
rispostaD
a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the behaviour
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
4 FRANCE
What characterises the notion of role ?
The characteristic behaviour associated with the description of the various roles of a particular status While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals, status defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group 1,2,3
The function and behaviour associated with the particular role
Only the functions associated with role
-1
4 FRANCE
What distinguishes status from role ?
Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew
Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew
-1
4 FRANCE
What optimises crew co-operation ? 1. Sharing and common task 2. Confidence in each others capability 3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members role An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:
1,2
2,3
-1
4 FRANCE
the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew members
decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew members
-1
Page 754 of 1247

4 FRANCE Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct ?
rispostaA
The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities of one of the involved parties
rispostaB
Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an acceptable collective solution 3,4
rispostaC
Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional party if it is to be effective 2,3
rispostaD
Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of involved parties 1,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
What may be the 1,2 origins of representation errors ? 1. Perception errors 2. The catering for all available information 3. Incorrect information from the observed world 4. The receipt of a bad piece of information What are the main 2,3 characteristics of active errors ? They : 1. are detectable only with difficulty by firstline operators 2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress 3. are down to first-line operators 4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing may be affected significantly Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately : 15% oxygen
-1
2 FRANCE
1,2
3,4
1,4
-1
1 NETHERL
10% oxygen
21% oxygen
5% oxygen
-1
Page 755 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,3
rispostaC
2,4
rispostaD
1,2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The descriptive aspect 1,2,4 of errors according to Hollnagel's model describes various directly observable types of erroneous actions which are : 1. Repetition and omission 2. The forward leap and the backward leap 3. Intrusion and anticipation 4. Intrusion Errors which occur 1,4 during highly automated actions may result from : 1. the capture of a poor action subprogram 2. a mistake in the decision making process 3. the application of a poor rule 4. an action mode error Which of the following errors occur at rulesbased level ? 1.Omission 2.The application of a poor rule 3. Attentional capture 4. The poor application of a good rule Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rulebased level ? 3,4
2 FRANCE
1,2
3,4
2,3,4
-1
2 FRANCE
1,3
2,4
1,2
-1
2 FRANCE
When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the intended outcome
Failure of all the known rules
The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown and completely new
An automated cognitive check procedure
-1
Page 756 of 1247

3 FRANCE Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors: 1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to 2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors have made in the past 3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the expectations 4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on rational information What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved ? The DECIDE model is based on :
rispostaA
1,4
rispostaB
2,4
rispostaC
1,3
rispostaD
2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
A switch is made to knowledge- based mode in order to continue monitoring of the problem a prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method which seems most likely to come up with the solution The preparation of action and time management
A second monitoring rule must be applied
Actions return to an automatic mode
A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the results a statistical model based on observation of human decision-making
-1
3 FRANCE
a prescriptive generic model which is subject to mathematical logic
a normative generic model based on mathematical logic
-1
6 FRANCE
What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?
The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
The preparation of action and the application of procedures
The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
-1
Page 757 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in order to analyse their nature and modify ergonomic parameters
rispostaC
To put in place redundant alarm systems
rispostaD
To reduce the risks of the appearance or nondetection of errors entailing serious consequences
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
To eliminate the risk of What would be the latent errors occuring priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the creation of their application procedures for combatting problems associated with human error ? Decision-making results in: a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions
3 FRANCE
a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal 4
a choice always based on the experience of the PIC 1,2,3,4
an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a given end 1,2,4
-1
3 FRANCE
In decision-making, the 1,3 selection of a solution depends : 1. on objective and subjective criteria 2. on the objective to be achieved 3. on the risks associated with each solution 4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight deck ? A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
-1
3 FRANCE
A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time
A good decision can A group decision must always be reversed if always be established its result does not come prior to action up to expectations
-1
Page 758 of 1247

4 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,2
rispostaC
3,4
rispostaD
1,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2,3,4 What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced with a highly authoritarian captain ? 1. Self-assertion 2. A scapegoat feeling 3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies 4. Disengagement In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rulesbased activities to a knowledge-based activity ? What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ? 1. Decrease in sensory perception 2. Increase in selective attention 3. Sensation of muscular heaviness 4. Decrease in complacency What are the effects of distress (overstress) ? The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
2 FRANCE
Attentional capture
Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed
The unsuitability of the automated actions
-1
1 FRANCE
1,3
1,4
2,3
2,4
-1
6 FRANCE
It reduces vigilance and It activates resources focusses attention stored in memory
It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal
It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus attention It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of alertness and attention
-1
1 FRANCE
Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have on attention ?
It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)
Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness
-1
Page 759 of 1247

1 FRANCE Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day professional life ? 1. Beeing in control of one's own situation 2. Fear of punishment 3. Success (achievement of goals) 4. Social promotion, money Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?
rispostaA
2,4
rispostaB
1,2,3,4
rispostaC
1,2,3
rispostaD
3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
6 FRANCE
Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities
Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management capabilities 3,4
Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention
Motivation will reduce the task automation process
-1
1 FRANCE
What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance) ? 1. The monotony of the task 2. Tiredness,the need for sleep 3. A lack of stimulation 4. Excessive stress An autocratic cockpit is described by :
1,3
1,2,3
2,4
-1
4 FRANCE
The captain's excessive authority cosiderably reduces communications and consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crew
Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions correctly owing to his natural leadership
Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and in the belief that everyone is aware of what he is doing The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's attention being dispersed
The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete freedom to the various members of the crew Alternative management of several matters of interest
-1
1 FRANCE
What is "divided attention"?
Ease of concentrating Difficulty of on a particular objective concentrating on a particular objective
-1
Page 760 of 1247

1 FRANCE With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism, we know that :
rispostaA
the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees resources
rispostaB
the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees resources 1,2
rispostaC
the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees resources 1,3
rispostaD
the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it frees mental resources 3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
Which of the following 1,4 are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)? 1. Healthy living 2. Use of amphetamines 3. Reducing the intensity of the light 4. Organising periods of rest during the flight Which of the following 2,3,4 drawbacks are associated with automation ? 1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft 2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems 3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick 4. General decrease in technical reliability
-1
7 FRANCE
1,3
1,2
1,4
-1
Page 761 of 1247

7 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
a balanced combination between someone actively engaged in his work and automated systems which serve to control the pilot's workload coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more precise and more important information 1,2,3
rispostaC
a combination which must make the pilot available for the sphere in which he is most qualified, namely checking departures from the normal operating range communication and coordination have clearly improved in manman and man-machine relations 2,4
rispostaD
a combination in which the pilot must keep the main repetitive tasks and automated systems under his control in line with rule-based behaviour communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members 3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The performance of the a combination which is man machine system is based on decreasing above all : the pilot's workload and increasing his time for supervision
7 FRANCE
As a result of automation in cockpits,
man-man communication has been significantly improved
-1
7 FRANCE
Which of the following 2,3,4 operations are performed more effectively by automatic systems than by people ? 1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon 2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of trajectory) 3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded (e.g holding of flight path) 4. Qualitative decisionmaking
-1
Page 762 of 1247

7 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2,3,4
rispostaC
1,4
rispostaD
1,2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3,4 Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than by automatic systems ? 1. Qualitative decisionmaking 2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon 3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded 4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.) Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct ? Hypovigilance : What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance ? tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators' attention It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation
1 FRANCE
only affects certain personality types
may occur at any moment of the flight
essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase It causes muscular spasms
-1
6 FRANCE
It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain quickly leads to tension between the various crew members Inversion of authority
It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation, A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members Lack of communication
-1
4 FRANCE
What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit ?
Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other members about them Appearance of agressiveness
-1
4 FRANCE
What may become the main risk of a "laissezfaire" cockpit ?
Disengagement of the co-pilot
-1
Page 763 of 1247

4 FRANCE Which of the following statements best characterise a selfcentered cockpit ?
rispostaA
While decreasing communication, the independence of each member bolsters the crew's synergy
rispostaB
Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his own thing while at the same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or what is going on 2,3
rispostaC
The egocentric personality of the captain often leads to a synergetic cockpit
rispostaD
The communication between crew members always increases when the captain takes charge of a situation
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
4 FRANCE
Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit? 1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew 2. There is little delegating of tasks 3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the flight 4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadershipstyle, which fluctuate between authority and laissez-faire
1,3,4
2,4
1,4
-1
4 FRANCE
What elements Synergy is independent establish synergy within of the natural individual the crew ? characteristics of the group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)
It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew
Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)
Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to debriefing
-1
Page 764 of 1247

4 FRANCE Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to conflicts ? 1. Seeking arbitration 2. Actively listening to other people 3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a more emotional level 4. Becoming aware of cultural influences The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On the other hand, it may result in : What is the effect of tiredness on attention ?
rispostaA
2,3,4
rispostaB
2,4
rispostaC
1,2,4
rispostaD
1,2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
routine errors (slips)
mistakes
decision-making errors
-1
6 FRANCE
It increases the ability to manage multiple matters
It leads to one's attention being dispersed between different centres of interest The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary decisions Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and restoration of attention capabilities
It has no specific effects on attention
It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters
-1
1 FRANCE
What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism ? What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ?
The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant information
Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream phases and paradoxical phases
They always lead to routine errors
-1
6 FRANCE
It is confined to physical recuperation associated with fatigue
It essentially allows for physical recovery and the reconstitution of neuron energy reserves
-1
Page 765 of 1247

6 FRANCE Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the effects of adjustment to destination time : 1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights 2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights 3. vary little between individuals 4. may vary greatly between individuals
rispostaA
1,3
rispostaB
1,4
rispostaC
2,3
rispostaD
2,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
6 FRANCE
In order to minimize the 2,3 effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a layover more than 24 hrs, it is advisable to : 1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the arrival country 2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure country for as long as possible 3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping alternation and regular meal pattern ) 4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome negative arousal effects
1,3
2,4
1,4
-1
Page 766 of 1247

6 FRANCE Of the following statements concerning the effects of circadian rhythms on performance, we know that :
rispostaA
Sensorimotor performance is better in the morning whereas intellectual performance is better in the evening
rispostaB
Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the morning and are sensitive to the duration of the sleep state 2,3,4
rispostaC
Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the evening and very sensitive to the duration of the waking period 1,3,4
rispostaD
Sensorimotor performance is better in the evening whereas intellectual performance is better in the morning 1,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
What are the various 1,2 factors which guide attention ? 1. The level of automation of behaviour 2. Response time 3. The salience of the information 4. Expectations The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called : Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct ? Poikilothermy
-1
6 FRANCE
Homeostasis
Heterostasis
Homeothermy
-1
6 FRANCE
Tiredness is always the Tiredness is the result of an intellectual consequence of a overload diminution of performance
Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a reduction in attention capabilities due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and the ambient pressure 1 and 2 are both not correct
Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor management of intellectual capabilities caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen associated with a decrease in altitude 1 and 2 are both correct
-1
1 FRANCE
Which of the folllowing statements concerning barotrauma are correct? They are: 1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error.
more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid descent
mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability of the body to balance its internal pressures 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
-1
1 NETHERL
1 is correct, 2 is not correct
-1
1 NETHERL
Which phenomenon is Euphoria. common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?
Tingling sensations in arms or legs.
Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails).
Severe headache.
-1
Page 767 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
more alkaline
rispostaC
less satured with oxygen decide to divert if you think it is necessary.
rispostaD
more satured with carbon dioxide continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
If someone more acid hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get: You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you manage to land there at any case. What is your appropriate way of action? You will The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in their actions. This is called: Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up every time what they have to do. divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard
4 NETHERL
see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision
-1
1 NETHERL
knowledge-based behaviour
procedural confusion
procedural consistency
mental model
-1
1 NETHERL
this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation.
this has to be posetively this is dangerous for appreciated for it every situation is increases consistency different in action
this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply with
-1
Page 768 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
1 is not correct, 2 is correct
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 is correct, 2 is not 1. Lively information is correct easier to take into consideration for creating a mental picture than boring information. 2.The sequence in which information is offered is also important for the use the pilot makes of it. What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft ? The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must : Please check the following statements: 1. A stressor causes activation 2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it About 30 seconds
1 FRANCE
Between 3 and 5 About 18 seconds minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply of oxygen in order to prevent disorders due to hypoxia 1 and 2 are both correct make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the inhalation of 100 % oxygen 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
-1
1 FRANCE
allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the pilot becoming hypoxic
make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the sudden pressure changes 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
-1
6 NETHERL
-1
Page 769 of 1247

1 FRANCE Decompression sickness may occur as from : - 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft - 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft - 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding 18,000 ft - 4 : a temperature of more than 24C We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia :
rispostaA
2,3
rispostaB
1,3,4
rispostaC
2,4
rispostaD
1,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 FRANCE
a rapid fall in ambient temperature
greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere
reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37 C the appearance of intense shivering
a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas peripheral temperature at the skin is stable mental disorders, and even coma
-1
3 FRANCE
The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35 C : The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38 C :
profuse sweating
shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy
-1
3 FRANCE
impairment of physical apathy and mental performance
considerable dehydration
nothing signifiant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to appear at 39 C
-1
Page 770 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,4
rispostaC
2,3
rispostaD
1,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2,3,4 With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it : -1 : varies between 40 and 60% -2 : varies between 5 and 15% -3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of the crew -4 : has no special effects on crew members In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx): - 1 : do not exist - 2 : have slight physiological consequences - 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness - 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are): 2,4
2 FRANCE
3,4
-1
1 FRANCE
the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during the day, which comes to saturate it
the data storage time
Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information
the quantity of data which may be stored
-1
Page 771 of 1247

1 FRANCE What are the main limits of short-term memory ? It is : -1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference -2 : difficult to access -3 : limited in size -4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources : Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :
rispostaA
1,3 ,4
rispostaB
1,2 ,3
rispostaC
2 ,3
rispostaD
2,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 FRANCE
the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to rulesbased mode for the two tasks only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
the sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit philosophies the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the system 1,2,3,4
a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and performance will then tail off be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergy the pilot's knowledge
the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to knowledge-based mode for the two tasks be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the aircraft the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of flight, etc) 2, 3,4
-1
4 FRANCE
-1
6 FRANCE
Workload essentially depends on:
the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the system
-1
1 FRANCE
A pilot is skilled when 1,2,4 he : -1 : trains or practises regularly -2 : knows how to manage himself/herself -3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft -4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
1,2
-1
Page 772 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
sex is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three women being sensitive to it
rispostaC
physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of decompression sickness symptoms to appear 3,4
rispostaD
age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
scuba diving does not With regard to pose any problem for a decompression subsequent flight sickness associated with flight, we know that : Which of the following 2,3 mechanisms regulate body temperature when expored to extreme high environmental temperatures? -1 : Shivering -2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels -3 : Sweating -4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to : 1 : physical activity of the subjected crew 2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in question 3 : the strength and time of decompression 4 : the cabin temperature During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen pressure : The following may occur during gradual depressurisation between 12,000 and 18,000 ft : 4
3 FRANCE
1,3,4
-1
1 FRANCE
1,3
1,2
3,4
-1
1 FRANCE
an increase up to 10,000 ft followed by a sudden pressure drop above that altitude sudden visual hyperacuity associated with headache
an increase which is an identical decrease to inversely proportional to that for atmospheric the decrease in pressure atmospheric pressure a rapid decrease in blood pressure leading to considerable somnolence a loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache
a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in atmospheric pressure a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to headache and also to a loss of coordination
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
Page 773 of 1247

4 FRANCE Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:
rispostaA
expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as this doubt can not be rejected on the base of evidence
rispostaB
unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisions
rispostaC
abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely
rispostaD
the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's synergy
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
50
9 NETHERL Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal about 1000 metres tens of metres about 200 metres about 500 metres 0 -1 0 0
1 NETHERL
The cloud base, mean sea level reported in the METAR, is the height above The QNH is equal to the QFE if Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH? T actual < T standard QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation the elevation = 0 QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m) standard atmospheric conditions occur Less than 0 FT
the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station T actual = T standard QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
airfield level
-1
6 NETHERL 6 NETHERL
T actual > T standard QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
6 NETHERL
The pressure altitude is the indicated altitude is equal to the true altitude equal to the pressure if altitude You must make an 4000 FT emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20 C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the subscale?
the outside air the air pressure is temperature is standard 1013.25 hPa at the for that height surface 0 FT More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT
-1
6 NETHERL
-1
Page 774 of 1247

1 NETHERL The troposphere
rispostaA
is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
rispostaB
reaches the same height at all latitudes
rispostaC
has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh surface cooling.
rispostaD
contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 NETHERL
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels? The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is : Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG
Direction relative to true Direction relative to north and speed in magnetic north and knots speed in knots increasing surface wind an increasingly stable speed. atmosphere.
Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh a low level temperature inversion.
-1
2 SPAIN
-1
3 NETHERL
Visibility is reduced by water droplets
There is a distinct change in RVR observed
Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
RVR on runway 26R is increasing
-1
2 SPAIN
The geostrophic wind is centrifugal force is greater than the added to the pressure gradient wind around a gradient low pressure system because the In what hPa range is an 400 - 300 hPa upper weather chart for FL 340 situated? Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal QFF
coriolis force is added coriolis force opposes to the pressure gradient to the centrifugal force
centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
-1
5 NETHERL
500 - 400 hPa
600 - 500 hPa
300 - 200 hPa
-1
3 NETHERL
QFE
QNE
QNH
-1
Page 775 of 1247

3 SWITZERL Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z = Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? 3 SWITZERL In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest? 3 SWITZERL Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours? 3 SWITZERL Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours? 3 SWITZERL Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?
rispostaA
Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18 C.
rispostaB
Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.
rispostaC
Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15 C, gusts up to 35 knots.
rispostaD
Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind 250, temperature 18 C.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =
-1
1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS = 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG = BCFG
1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG = 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =
1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =
-1
05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =
23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 = FG
-1
SA
+RA
-1
Page 776 of 1247

3 SWITZERL Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway? 3 SWITZERL Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? 3 SWITZERL Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? 3 SWITZERL Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? 3 SWITZERL What does the term TREND signify?
rispostaA
MIFG
rispostaB
FG
rispostaC
HZ
rispostaD
+FZRA
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
SA
TS
SQ
DZ
-1
BR
MIFG
+SHSN
VA
-1
BCFG
FZFG
HZ
SN
-1
It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report a very strong temperature inversion
It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals
It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
-1
6 NETHERL
A wide body takes off low relative humidity on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere ? 3 C per 1000 m
sand/dust in the engines very pronounced downdrafts
-1
5 SPAIN
2 C per 1000 m
6.5 C per 1000 m
4.5 C per 1000 m
-1
Page 777 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
800 FT
rispostaC
500 FT
rispostaD
250 FT
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNITED KI Refer to the TAF for 500 m Amsterdam airport. FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use FL 340 annex 050-2506A) What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Munich and Helsinki? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-2505A) Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich? FL 320
FL 280
FL 300
FL 390
-1
FL 140
FL 220
FL 160
-1
Page 778 of 1247

3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2504A) What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart?
rispostaA
FL 160
rispostaB
FL 360
rispostaC
FL 220
rispostaD
FL 340
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 SWITZERL (For this question use 33000 FT annex 050-2503A) Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2496A) Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-2493A) Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200 ? 6 SPAIN LSZH
15000 FT
28000 FT
30000 FT
-1
ESSA
ENFB
EFHK
-1
Moderate turbulence, light icing
Severe turbulence, moderate icing
Severe turbulence, severe icing
Moderate turbulence, moderate icing
-1
The most frequent wind mountain during direction in a valley daylight hours. caused by thermal effects is toward the : The isobars drawn on a at height of observatory surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure What conditions are Humid stable air mass, most likely to lead to the wind blowing towards formation of hill fog? the hills.
mountain at night.
valley during daylight hours.
valley during daylight as much as at night.
-1
3 SPAIN
at a determined density altitude
reduced to sea level
at flight level
-1
2 SPAIN
High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range
-1
Page 779 of 1247

1 SPAIN What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ? How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause? The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation ?
rispostaA
88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 SPAIN
Increases
At first it increases and higher up it decreases
Remains constant
Decreases
-1
3 NETHERL
value representative of the touchdown zone rain starting at surface
average value of the A-, highest value of the A-, B- and C-position B- and C-position continuous updraughts continuous downdraughts Unstable conditions and high moisture content
lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position frequent lightning
-1
4 SPAIN
-1
4 ICELAND
Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
Stable conditions and high moisture content
-1
2 GERMANY Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered? 3 NETHERL 3 NETHERL The validity of a TAF is ATIS information contains
In the vicinity of Dakar
Near the Canary Islands At the latitudes of Gibraltar
At the latitudes of Algeria
-1
between 6 and 9 hours only operational information
9 hours from the time of issue meteorological and operational information
stated in the TAF only meteorological information
2 hours operational information and if necessary meteorological information any CB's have a base above 5000 FT a TAF
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
3 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
If CAVOK is reported then Runway visual range can be reported in
no low drifting snow is present a SIGMET
no clouds are present both a TAF and a METAR
low level windshear has not been reported a METAR
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
Page 780 of 1247

3 NETHERL SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to
rispostaA
all aircraft
rispostaB
light aircraft only
rispostaC
VFR operations only
rispostaD
heavy aircraft only
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 NETHERL
magnetic north
the 0-meridian
grid north
true north
-1
2 GERMANY Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator? 2 SPAIN An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from ? A SPECI is
SW monsoon and NW trade winds
NW monsoon and SW trade winds
SE trade winds and NE trade winds
SW monsoon and NW monsoon
-1
From the left and slightly on the tail
From the left and slightly on the nose
From the right and slightly on the nose
From the right and slightly on the tail
-1
3 NETHERL 2 SPAIN
an aviation routine weather report
a warning for special weather phenomena coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
a forecast for special weather phenomena centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient 0.5 hour
an aviation selected special weather report centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient 1 hour
0 0
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
The geostrophic wind is effect of coriolis is less than the gradient added to friction wind around an anticyclone because the On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals of Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ? 2 hours
3 NETHERL
3 hours
-1
4 SPAIN
Nimbostratus
Altocumulus lenticularis Stratocumulus
Cirrocumulus
-1
4 GERMANY What weather condition Thunderstorms would you expect at a squall line?
Strong steady rain
Fog
Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels
-1
Page 781 of 1247

3 ICELAND
rispostaA
rispostaB
a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
rispostaC
more than 10 km
rispostaD
not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
a maximum 5 km. Refer to TAF below. EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be : LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
3 SWITZERL Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) 3 SWITZERL Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
-1
LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
-1
Page 782 of 1247

3 SWITZERL In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest? 3 GERMANY In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? 3 SWITZERL What does the abbreviation "nosig" mean? 3 SWITZERL What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean? 3 ITALY What is a trend forecast?
rispostaA
00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
rispostaB
VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
rispostaC
22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
rispostaD
VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
GAFOR
TAF
METAR
SIGMET
-1
No report received
No weather related problems Nil significant cloud cover A routine report
Not signed by the meteorologist 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours Symbol c)
No significant changes
-1
3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered A route forecast valid for 24 hours
3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
-1
-1
2 GERMANY (For this question use Symbol a) annex 050-2422A) Which of the following symbols represents a tropical revolving storm? 2 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2421A) Which of the following symbols represents a squall line? 2 GERMANY Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level ? Symbol a)
Symbol b)
Symbol d)
-1
Symbol b)
Symbol c)
Symbol d)
-1
Surface chart
Significant weather chart
500 hPa chart
700 hPa chart
-1
Page 783 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
LOWW
rispostaC
LEMD
rispostaD
EDDL
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
LFPO 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2432A) At which airport, is the following weather development taking place? TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 = 4 GERMANY What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2433A) What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC? 1 GERMANY Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of : 1 GERMANY Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB? 4 SWITZERL What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south? 400 m
20 km
50 km
4 km
-1
26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA =
22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW = small supercooled water drops Between -20 C and 30 C
20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =
23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =
-1
water vapour
snow
large supercooled water drops Between -30 C and 40 C
-1
Between -2 C and 15 C
Close to the freezing level
-1
Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps
Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps
Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps
-1
Page 784 of 1247

2 GERMANY From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere? 6 ICELAND Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown ? Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves ?
rispostaA
SE
rispostaB
NE
rispostaC
SW
rispostaD
N
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Air temperature lower than standard.
Air temperature higher than standard
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.
-1
8 ICELAND
Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge. Turn right
Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge. Maintain FL 270
Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge. Descending
-1
2 ICELAND
An aircraft is Climbing approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by : Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer? The stability in a layer is increasing if Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct ? The layer is unstable for unsaturated air warm and moist air is advected in the lower part Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
-1
3 NETHERL
The wet adiabatic lapse The environmental rate is 0.65 C/100m lapse rate is less than 1 C/100m cold and dry air is advected in the upper part Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65 C per 100m
The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65 C/100m warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65 C per 100m
-1
3 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL
-1
Page 785 of 1247

2 NETHERL When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
rispostaA
wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere the same
rispostaB
wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere less
rispostaC
stability increases in the layer
rispostaD
stability decreases in the layer
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
9 GERMANY In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2513A) At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt? 2 ICELAND
in rain - below 1 km, in greater drizzle - more than 2 km
-1
FL 330
FL 300
FL 350
FL 240
-1
If you have to fly 5000 feet through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest ? Relative humidity is higher in warm air than in cool air
3000 feet
12000 feet
9000 feet
-1
1 NETHERL
is higher in cool air than decreases if the air is in warm air cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant Advection fog Radiation fog
increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant Steam fog
-1
2 ICELAND
Which type of fog is Frontal fog likely to form when air having temperature of 15 C and dew point of 12 C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5 C ?
-1
Page 786 of 1247

5 ICELAND What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars ? During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves toward the The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by The Bora is a
rispostaA
Greater density of the air at the surface
rispostaB
Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
rispostaC
Surface friction
rispostaD
Coriolis force
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
7 ICELAND
south and speed increases
north and speed decreases
south and speed decreases
north and speed increases
-1
7 ICELAND
a high-pressure centre at high level
long streaks of cirrus clouds.
dust or haze at high level
a constant outside air temperature
-1
4 NETHERL
cold catabatic wind with cold catabatic wind gusts associated with a always associated with maritime air mass clouds and heavy showers The weather conditions The surface wind that it originates is a usually has its direction combination between parallel to the front those of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front the same rate as if the air mass were dry.
cold catabatic wind with squally warm catabatic the possibility of violent wind which occurs gusts mainly in summer The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
-1
2 SPAIN
What characterizes a stationary front ?
-1
3 SPAIN
If a saturated air mass a lower rate than in dry descends down a slope air, as evaporation its temperature absorbs heat. increases at For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is 540 metres
a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat. 160 metres
a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat. 600 metres
-1
6 NETHERL
120 metres
-1
Page 787 of 1247

2 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is above ground level.
rispostaC
The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is above ground level.
rispostaD
The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
How are the air masses The coldest air in front distributed in a cold of and the less cold air occlusion ? is behind the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level.
3 SWITZERL Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports? 2 SPAIN In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature
The competent aviation The competent aviation The competent aviation The airspace in weather office will issue weather office will issue weather office will issue question, will be a SPECI a storm warning a SIGMET temporarily closed
-1
decreases with altitude
increases with altitude
increases at first and decreases afterward A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at halfhourly intervals the wind 8 km
is almost constant
-1
3 SWITZERL What does the term SIGMET signify?
A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily longitude 5 km
A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report rotation of the earth 3 km
A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions latitude 11 km
-1
1 SPAIN 4 SPAIN
The thickness of the troposphere varies with Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15 C and 13 C at 1000m. This layer of air is: The troposphere is the
0 -1
0 0
0 0
-1 0
2 SPAIN
stable
unstable
a layer of heavy turbulence
conditionally unstable
-1
1 NETHERL
part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere water vapour content is greatest
boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere pressure remains constant
part of the atmosphere below the tropopause vertical currents are strongest
-1
1 NETHERL
The tropopause is a level at which
-1
Page 788 of 1247

1 NETHERL The dewpoint temperature
rispostaA
can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant moisture content and pressure of the air can not be equal to the air temperature
rispostaB
can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant moisture content of the air only can be equal to the air temperature air with high temperature stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air conditionally stable
rispostaC
can not be equal to the air temperature
rispostaD
can not be lower than the air temperature
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Relative humidity depends on The dewpoint temperature
temperature of the air only
moisture content and temperature of the air
0 0 0
0 -1 0
0 0 0
-1 0 -1
is always lower than the is always higher than air temperature the air temperature air with low temperature dry air
The difference between moist air temperature and dewpoint is greater in A layer can be stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air conditionally unstable
2 NETHERL
unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air absolutely unstable
unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable absolutely stable
-1
3 NETHERL
In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1 C. This layer can be described as being
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use FL 140 annex 050-2509A) You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing? 7 SWITZERL Which of the following Equatorial jet stream / types of jet streams can polar front jet stream. be observed all year round? 4 GERMANY Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?
FL 260
FL 320
FL 180
-1
Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream.
Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream.
Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream.
-1
Thermal thunderstorms. Orographic thunderstorms.
Frontal thunderstorms.
Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes.
-1
Page 789 of 1247

4 SWITZERL Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by 4 SWITZERL Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ?
rispostaA
frontal occlusion.
rispostaB
thermal triggering.
rispostaC
frontal lifting (warm front). Halo.
rispostaD
frontal lifting (cold front).
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
AC castellanus.
AC lenticularis.
Red cirrus.
-1
4 GERMANY What is the main Temperature difference Cold air advancing from The equatorial jet energy source of a between equatorial low temperate latitudes. stream. tropical revolving storm? pressure trough and subtropical high pressure belt. 3 GERMANY Refer to the following Vertical visibility 100 m. TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean? 7 SWITZERL In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ? 4 GERMANY Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic because The cold air side of the core. of the low water temperature. Vertical visibility 100 FT. RVR less than 100 m.
Latent heat released from condensing water vapour.
-1
RVR greater than 100 m.
-1
The warm air side of the core.
Exactly in the centre of the core.
About 12000 FT above the core. the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere.
-1
there is no coriolis force of the strong southeast present. wind.
-1
Page 790 of 1247

2 SWITZERL A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures? 7 SWITZERL What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams ?
rispostaA
Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.
rispostaB
Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.
rispostaC
Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
rispostaD
Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Wind direction.
Vertical dimension.
Horizontal dimension.
Windspeed.
-1
7 SWITZERL In the month of August Tailwinds. you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19 N 73 E) to Bangkok (13 N - 100 E). What wind conditions can you expect?
Strong northerly winds.
Headwinds.
Light winds diagonal to the route.
-1
Page 791 of 1247

3 SWITZERL In the weather briefing room during the preflight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time: EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn = LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc = EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn = Which decision is correct?
rispostaA
You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be flown.
rispostaB
Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).
rispostaC
You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand too much of the passengers.
rispostaD
Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
4 GERMANY Where is the most Anywhere in the eye. dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?
In the centre of the eye.
About 600 km away from the eye.
In the wall of clouds around the eye.
-1
Page 792 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
With an easterly wave.
rispostaC
With a warm front.
rispostaD
With a cold front.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
7 SWITZERL A wind sounding in the With a ITCZ. region of a polar front jet stream gives the following windprofile (Northern hemisphere). 900hPa 220/20kt 800hPa 220/25kt 700hPa 230/35kt 500hPa 260/60kt 400hPa 280/85kt 300hPa 300/100kt 250hPa 310/120kt 200hPa 310/80kt Which system is the jet stream associated with? 2 FRANCE What type of clouds are Altostratus and stratus associated with snow showers ?
Nimbostratus
Cumulus and cumulonimbus 2000 m.
Cumulus and altostratus
-1
3 GERMANY Refer to the following Between 0 m and 1000 TAF extract: m. BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC? 3 GERMANY Refer to the following 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 TAF extract: m. BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
500 m.
Between 500 m and 2000 m.
-1
1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
-1
Page 793 of 1247

3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2511A) At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over nothern Scandinavia ? 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
FL 330
rispostaB
FL 360
rispostaC
FL 300
rispostaD
FL 280
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
At a weather station, at M00/M01 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5 C,Td = -1,5 C. In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the "temperature group" will be: At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is cirrus.
M01/M02
00/M01
M01/M01
-1
8 FRANCE
cumulus mediocris.
altocumulus lenticularis. cirrostratus.
-1
4 GERMANY During which months is July until November. the Hurricane season in the Caribbean? 7 SWITZERL You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes. 4 GERMANY How long does a typical microburst last? 3 SWITZERL What does the term METAR signify? You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no temperature difference between the two airmasses. About 30 minutes. A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
October until January.
January until April.
April until July.
-1
Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the instruments tested.
This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature differences are possible at these heights.
This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core.
-1
1 to 5 minutes. A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
Less than 1 minute. A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.
1 to 2 hours. A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in halfhourly intervals.
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
Page 794 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
rispostaC
The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT.
rispostaD
Change expected in less than 30 minutes.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Probability of 30%. 3 GERMANY Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean? 3 GERMANY How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid? 9 hours.
1 hour.
30 minutes.
2 hours.
-1
3 GERMANY Refer to the following Many long term TAF extract: changes in the original BECMG 1821 2000 weather. BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame? 3 ITALY Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428 What must you consider when making performance calculations? What is a SPECI? The friction coefficient is 0.28.
The new conditions are A quick change to new achieved between 1800 conditions between and 2100 UTC 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.
Many short term changes in the original weather.
-1
The braking action will be medium to good.
The runway will be wet.
Aquaplaning conditions.
-1
3 ITALY
An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours.
A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observed.
A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.
A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.
-1
Page 795 of 1247

4 NETHERL What is a microburst?
rispostaA
A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air. From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.
rispostaB
A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air. From the ground up to about FL 200.
rispostaC
An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
rispostaD
A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds. From the base of the clouds up to FL 200.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 GERMANY At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB? 2 GERMANY What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ? 7 SWITZERL Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found? 3 GERMANY What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
From the ground up to about FL 100.
-1
Monsoon.
Trade winds.
Doldrums.
Westerly winds.
-1
In the warm air mass.
In the cold air mass.
Just above the warmair tropopause.
Just below the cold-air tropopause.
-1
m/100 FT.
m/sec.
kt/100 FT.
kt.
-1
6 SWITZERL After landing at an 998 hPa. aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome? 3 ITALY In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?
1028 hPa.
1015 hPa.
1013 hPa.
-1
A sudden change in the Marked mountain weather conditions waves. contained in the METAR.
Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
-1
Page 796 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-2554A) Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220 ? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-2555A) Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160 ? 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2556A) To what extent is Munich covered by clouds ? 7 SWITZERL What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream? 3 GERMANY Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?
rispostaA
Scattered castellanus
rispostaB
Well separated cumulonimbus
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Overcast nimbo layered Scattered towering cumulonimbus cumulus
5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence
Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of 4 oktas broken cumulus Isolated cumulonimbus stratiform cloud in layers only
-1
3 to 5 oktas
5 to 8 oktas
1 to 4 oktas
5 to 7 oktas
-1
100 kt.
60 kt.
50 kt.
70 kt.
-1
SIGMET.
ATIS.
SPECI.
TAF.
-1
1 GERMANY Rime ice forms through small supercooled the freezing onto water drops. aircraft surfaces of 4 GERMANY At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan? January to May.
large supercooled water water vapour. drops. May to July. July to November.
snow.
-1
September to January.
-1
Page 797 of 1247

6 SWITZERL An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate : 6 SWITZERL During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that :
rispostaA
1105 FT.
rispostaB
1280 FT.
rispostaC
1375 FT.
rispostaD
1200 FT.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
one of the two QNH the air at Marseille is values may be incorrect. warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca.
the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested.
the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca.
-1
6 SWITZERL You plan a flight over a 15690 FT. mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is on an average 15 C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read? 6 SWITZERL What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level? 6 GERMANY What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level? QFE equals QNH.
14370 FT.
13830 FT.
16230 FT.
-1
No clear relationship exists.
QFE is greater than QNH.
QFE is smaller than QNH.
-1
Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
-1
Page 798 of 1247

3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2558A) What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ? 7 SWITZERL Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
rispostaA
-16 C
rispostaB
-28 C
rispostaC
-24 C
rispostaD
-20 C
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The polar night jet stream.
The equatorial jet stream. LOWW
The arctic jet stream.
The subtropical jet stream. LEMD
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use EKCH annex 050-3030A) To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable ? TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000 SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030 7 SWITZERL An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is tailwind.
LFPG
-1
headwind.
from the right
from the left.
-1
Page 799 of 1247

3 SWITZERL Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR ? 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 = 3 ITALY You receive the following METAR : LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG = What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC? Does the following report make sense? LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG
rispostaA
Meteorological visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2 C.
rispostaB
Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m, dew point 2 C, freezing fog.
rispostaC
RVR for runway 16 1000 m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2 C.
rispostaD
RVR for runway 14 1500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160 at 3 kt.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The RVR is unknown, because the "NOSIG" does not refer to RVR.
300 m.
700 m.
900 m.
-1
3 ITALY
The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the meteorological visibility is more than 2 km. possible but a very rare phenomenon.
The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported. not possible.
The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2 C and a dew point of 2 C there must be uniform fog. a common occurence.
The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye level.
-1
7 SWITZERL A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:
not unusual in polar regions.
-1
Page 800 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
13830 FT.
rispostaC
14370 FT.
rispostaD
15900 FT.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
6 SWITZERL You intend to overfly a 14100 FT. mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15 C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude? 7 SWITZERL What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream? 40000 FT.
50000 FT.
30000 FT.
20000 FT.
-1
6 GERMANY You are flying at FL ISA -20 C 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ? 7 SWITZERL What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section? 7 SWITZERL What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core? 1/1
ISA +/-0 C
ISA +20 C
ISA +12 C
-1
1/10
1/1000
1/100
-1
30000 FT.
40000 FT.
50000 FT.
20000 FT .
-1
Page 801 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
It increases.
rispostaC
It first increases, then decreases.
rispostaD
It remains constant.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
It decreases. 7 GERMANY An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight? 7 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-3017A) What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A) ? Equatorial jet stream.
Polar front jet stream.
Arctic jet stream.
Sub-tropical jet stream.
-1
1 GERMANY How does a pilot react He ascends to the cold to heavy freezing rain at air layer above. 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land? 2 FRANCE What type of clouds are Nimbostratus. associated with rain showers ?
He continues to fly at the same altitude.
He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
He descends to the warm air layer below.
-1
Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus. It falls.
Towering cumulus and altostratus. It rises.
Altostratus and stratus.
-1
7 GERMANY An aircraft is flying from It falls and then rises. south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced ? 4 GERMANY What is characteristic of the pamperos? 5 SPAIN A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America
It stays the same.
-1
Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
A marked advance of cold air in South America
Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
-1
In the lower layers of the pressure gradient the atmosphere due to increases friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure area because :
turbulence is formed turbulence is formed wind speed decreases and pressure increases and pressure decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases
-1
Page 802 of 1247

6 SPAIN What pressure is defined as QFE? What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion ? A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect ?
rispostaA
The pressure at field elevation Clear ice
rispostaB
The pressure of the altimeter Area of active storms
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The pressure reduced The pressure reduced to sea level using actual to sea level using ISA temperatures temperatures Stability Instability
2 SPAIN
-1
2 SPAIN
Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front.
Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours. At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front -5 C
Continous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours.
Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.
-1
2 SPAIN
What types of cloud will At some 500 km from you meet flying towards the front, groups of CB, a warm front ? later at some 250 km thickening AS The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is : -35 C
Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin 0 C
At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB -20 C
-1
5 NETHERL
-1
5 SWITZERL Generally northern A strong pressure hemisphere winds at gradient at higher 5000 FT/AGL are altitudes. southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions?
Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
The influence of warm air at the lower altitude.
Friction between the wind and the surface.
-1
Page 803 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-2550A) Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route between Munich and London ? 1 NETHERL 2 NETHERL Rising air cools because The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is
rispostaA
230 / 120 m/sec
rispostaB
220 / 120 kt
rispostaC
050 / 120 km/h
rispostaD
050 / 120 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
it contracts overcast and winds are strong
it expands clear and winds are weak
surrounding air is cooler at higher levels clear and winds are strong
it becomes more moist overcast and winds are weak the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
2 NETHERL
The radiation of the sun the air in the heats troposphere only directly if no clouds are present Subsidence is : Advection is : In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind vertically downwards motion of air
the surface of the earth, the air in the which heats the air in troposphere directly the troposphere horizontal motion of air vertically upwards motion of air vertical motion of air
-1
2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL 1 FRANCE
the same as convection the same as subsidence 0 to 11 km
-1 0 0
0 -1 0
0 0 -1
0 0 0
the same as convection horizontal motion of air 50 to 85 km
85 to more than 200 km 11 to 50 km
2 SPAIN
in the warm sector
in front of the warm front behind the cold front
at the apex of the wave
-1
Page 804 of 1247

3 UNITED KI Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ? 1 NETHERL
rispostaA
Light drizzle and fog
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Continuous moderate rain
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Moderate snow showers Heavy rain showers
The tropopause is lower south of the equator than north of it Position C, FL 200.
over the equator than over the South Pole Position D, FL 290.
over the North Pole than over the equator Position B, FL 270.
in summer than winter in moderate latitudes Position A, FL 200.
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2512A) At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds?
6 GERMANY The QNH of an airport 10210 FT. at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is 15 C below FL 100. What is the true altitude of FL 100? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2522A) Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL 280. 220 / 60
9790 FT.
11410 FT.
8590 FT.
-1
250 / 80
040 / 60
160 / 90
-1
Page 805 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
050/40
rispostaC
200/45
rispostaD
350/40
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
020/50 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2523A) What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome ? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2529A) The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be -57 C
-45 C
-39 C
-33 C
-1
3 UNITED KI Refer to the TAF for 5 km Amsterdam airport. FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam ? 7 SWITZERL (For this question use Equatorial jet stream annex 050-2541A) What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B) ?
5 NM
6 km
3 km
-1
Polar front jet stream
Arctic jet stream
Sub-tropical jet stream
-1
Page 806 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
300 / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI Refer to the TAF for 250 / 20 kt Amsterdam airport. FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ? 3 UNITED KI Refer to the TAF for 10 or more km Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ? 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2545A) What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris ? 030/40
120 / 15 kt gusts 25 kt 140 / 10 kt
8 km
8 NM
10 NM
-1
190/40
210/40
240/20
-1
Page 807 of 1247

3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2547A) What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris ?
rispostaA
-15 C
rispostaB
-25 C
rispostaC
-19 C
rispostaD
-23 C
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 SWITZERL (For this question use ISA -4 C annex 050-2548A) What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt ? 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2549A) What is the speed of the front located over France ? 5 NETHERL The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International Standard Atmosphere is : 10 kt
ISA -12 C
ISA +12 C
ISA +4 C
-1
30 kt
15 kt
25 kt
-1
0.5 C
variable
0.65 C
1 C
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 0502539A) The front labelled "Z" is a: 6 NETHERL Which statement is true ? The dry adiabatic lapse rate
Warm front occlusion
Cold front occlusion
Warm front
Cold front
-1
QNH is lower than QNH can be 1013.25 QNH can be lower as 1013.25 hPa at any time only for a station at MSL well as higher than 1013.25 hPa is greater in summer than in winter is greater during the night than during the day has a variable value
QNH can not be 1013.25 hPa has a constant fixed value
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
Page 808 of 1247

2 NETHERL An air mass is called stable when
rispostaA
the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents 0.65 C per 100m
rispostaB
the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears 1 C per 100m
rispostaC
the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height 0.5 C per 100m
rispostaD
the pressure in a given area is constant
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 NETHERL
In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere ?
0.6 C per 100m
-1
5 NETHERL
At MSL temperature is 10 C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 C per 100m
At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1 C per 100m
At MSL temperature is 15 C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
At MSL temperature is 15 C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 C per 100m It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere QNH can be equal to QFE absolutely stable slightly below +3 C.
-1
3 NETHERL
Which of the following It decreases with height It is higher in winter is true concerning than in summer atmospheric pressure ? When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates Which of the following statements is true ? An inversion is a layer of air which is zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere QNH is always lower than QFE absolutely unstable elevation while landing
It is higher at night than during the day zero while landing
-1
6 NETHERL
-1
6 NETHERL 2 NETHERL 2 FRANCE
QNH is always higher than QFE conditionally unstable
QNH is always equal to QFE conditionally stable significantly above +3 C.
0 0 0
0 0 0
0 0 0
-1 -1 -1
Around Paris on significantly below 0 C. slightly above +3 C. January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter, is 3 C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should be
Page 809 of 1247

2 FRANCE On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately An isohypse (contour)
rispostaA
half an hour before sunrise
rispostaB
at the moment the sun rises
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
one hour before sunrise half an hour after sunrise
3 FRANCE
is the limit between two air masses of different temperature the height of the aircraft's wheels above the runway. water vapour weight and humid air volume Stratus. pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere In October.
indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm
indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
is the longest slope line of a frontal surface the aircraft's altitude above the mean sea level. water vapour weight and dry air weight Cirrostratus. QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere In June.
-1
6 FRANCE
Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ? QNH is defined as
in standard the flight level. atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevation. dew point and air temperature Altostratus pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere In December. actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content Cumulus QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere In March.
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE 3 NETHERL
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
2 ITALY
In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
-1
1 GERMANY On the approach, the No, absolutely no icing surface temperature is will occur. given as -5 C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?
Yes, between ground Yes, but only between No, flights clear of level and 3000 FT/AGL. 3000 and 4000 FT/AGL. cloud experience no icing.
-1
Page 810 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL 80
rispostaC
FL 180
rispostaD
FL 220
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 SWITZERL Atmospheric soundings FL 150 give the following temperature profile : 3000 FT +15 C 6000 FT +8 C 10000 FT +1 C 14000 FT -6 C 18000 FT -14 C 24000 FT -26 C At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest? 7 ITALY Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence? In the core of the jet stream.
Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air.
Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core.
Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core.
-1
2 GERMANY What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? 7 SWITZERL While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind? 7 GERMANY What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23 S) at FL 350 in July ? 2 NETHERL The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of
Change of course.
Increase of speed.
Decrease of speed.
Change of flight level.
-1
Crosswind from the right
A headwind.
A tailwind.
Crosswind from the left
-1
A subtropical jet stream A polar front jet stream followed by a polar followed by a front jet stream. subtropical jet stream and later, a second polar front jet stream. 2 C/1000FT 0.65 C/100m
One subtropical jet stream.
A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.
-1
0.5 C/100m
1 C/100m
-1
Page 811 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
30 N.
rispostaC
80 N.
rispostaD
50 N.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
10 N. 1 SWITZERL At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies? 2 NETHERL The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ? has a fixed value of 0.65 C/100m Hydrogen
has a fixed value of 2 C/1000 FT Water vapour
varies with time
has a fixed value of 1 C/100m Oxygen
-1
1 NETHERL
Nitrogen
-1
1 NETHERL
The average height of 11 km the tropopause at 50 N is about The height and the 16 km and -40 C over temperature of the the poles tropopause are respectively in the order of An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature increases with height more than 1 C/100m increases with height
8 km
14 km
16 km
-1
1 NETHERL
16 km and -75 C over the equator
8 km and -40 C over the equator
8 km and - 75 C over the poles
-1
2 NETHERL
decreases with height more than 1 C/100m decreases with height at a constant rate
increases with height
remains constant with height
-1
2 NETHERL
increases with height at remains constant with a constant rate height
-1
3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 050-2510A) In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n 2?
From FL 250 to FL 320, From FL 220 to FL 400, From FL 240 to FL 370, From below FL 130 to moderate moderate light FL 270, light
-1
Page 812 of 1247

2 ITALY During July flights from Bangkok (13 N 100 E) to Karachi (25 N - 67 E) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What is the reason for this difference? A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of An inversion is Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct? Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
rispostaA
The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream.
rispostaB
The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system.
rispostaC
The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable conditions.
rispostaD
The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 NETHERL
advection fog
cumulus clouds
nocturnal radiation
the passage of cold front
-1
2 NETHERL 6 NETHERL
a decrease of temperature with height If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
an increase of temperature with height If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
an increase of pressure a decrease of pressure with height with height If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true altitude is increasing If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
4 NETHERL
They intensify rapidly after landfall
The diameter is 50-500 m
Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings Temperature at the airfield
-1
3 NETHERL
In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ? What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Carribean area?
Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL West in the earlier stages and later south east
Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield West in the earlier stages and later north east
Elevation of the airfield
-1
4 NETHERL
East
West deep into the U.S.
-1
Page 813 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
hoar frost
rispostaC
rime ice
rispostaD
cloudy ice
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
clear ice The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5 C is most likely to be Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an aircraft, form rime ice
1 NETHERL
hoar frost
cloudy ice
clear ice
-1
2 NETHERL
From which of the Environmental lapse following pieces of rate information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived? Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced ? Clear ice forms as a result of A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
Surface temperature
Dry adiabatic lapse rate Pressure at the surface
-1
7 NETHERL
A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
A curved jet stream near a deep trough
-1
1 NETHERL
supercooled droplets freezing on impact
supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
water vapour freezing to the aircraft
ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
-1
6 NETHERL
An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
It remains constant
Without knowing It decreases temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered.
It increases
-1
4 NETHERL
On a clear summer during the early day, turbulence caused afternoon by solar heating is most pronounced An airmass is stable when the lapse rate is 1 C per 100 m
immediately after sunset during early morning hours before sunrise
about midmorning
-1
1 NETHERL
the vertical motion of a temperature in a given rising parcel of air area drops off very tends to become rapidly with height weaker and disappears.
pressure is constant
-1
Page 814 of 1247

1 NETHERL An airmass is unstable when Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of A super-cooled droplet is one that Clear ice is dangerous because it
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing remains liquid at a below freezing temperature is translucent and only forms at the leading edges frozen water droplets A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air mass ice pellets melt
rispostaD
temperature increases with height small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft has frozen to become an ice pellet is not translucent and forms at the leading edges frozen minute snow flakes A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
an ascending parcel of temperature and air continues to rise to a humidity are not considerable height. constant water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface has a shell of ice with water inside it spreads out and contains many air particles freezing rain striking the aircraft is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces supercooled water droplets Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
1 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
Freezing fog consists of ice crystals A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
2 GERMANY Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ? 2 NETHERL Freezing rain occurs when
snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air
rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0 C
water vapour first turns into water droplets There is a cross wind from the left
-1
2 NETHERL
Which of the following There is a cross wind is true concerning an from the right aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant ? Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ? It decreases
Without knowing There is no cross wind temperature at FL 180 this question can not be answered
-1
2 NETHERL
It increases.
Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered.
-1
Page 815 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Cold air moving over warm water
rispostaC
Warm air moving over cold water
rispostaD
The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The coastal region of 2 GERMANY Which of the following conditions is most likely the sea cools at night to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)? 1 GERMANY How does freezing rain develop? Through melting of sleet grains
Through melting of ice crystals
Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0 C NS NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January NE trade winds
Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
-1
2 GERMANY What type of cloud can produce hail showers? 2 NETHERL Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
AC SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January
CB SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January SW winds throughout the whole year
CS SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans pressure altimeter will overread by 552 FT
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
3 NETHERL
In the central part of the SE trade winds Atlantic Ocean between 10 N and 20 N the prevailing winds are Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct? They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents
-1
2 NETHERL
They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents topography is 552 meters above MSL
-1
2 NETHERL
An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. This means that for all points on the isohypse the Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
topography is 552 pressure is 552 hPa decameters above MSL
-1
7 NETHERL
In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
-1
Page 816 of 1247

7 NETHERL Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct ?
rispostaA
It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core
rispostaB
It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core
rispostaC
It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient; the slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum -5 C
rispostaD
It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 NETHERL
If the surface temperature is 15 C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current of ascending unsaturated air is: Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to Below a low level inversion visibility is often An inversion is If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10 C and at the top of the layer is 8 C then this layer is A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1 C per 100m is A layer in which the temperature increases with height is A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is
0 C
5 C
-15 C
-1
3 NETHERL
experience little or no change in speed and direction moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
change significantly in speed and direction very good at night
change in speed but not in direction very good in the early morning a conditionally unstable layer neutral
change in direction but not in speed moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers. an unstable layer absolutely unstable
-1
9 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
a layer that can be an absolutely stable either stable or unstable layer absolutely stable conditionally unstable
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
3 NETHERL
absolutely stable
absolutely unstable
neutral for dry air
-1
3 NETHERL
neutral
absolutely stable
absolutely unstable
-1
3 NETHERL
neutral
absolutely stable
unstable
-1
Page 817 of 1247

3 NETHERL A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2 C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature change is called: A microburst In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered ? Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes? What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
rispostaA
less than 0.65 C per 100m
rispostaB
more than 1 C per 100m
rispostaC
between 1 C per 100m and 0.65 C per 100m
rispostaD
0.65 C per 100m
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
7 NETHERL
the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
-1
4 NETHERL
cumulus
cirrus
cumulonimbus
stratocumulus
-1
2 NETHERL
environmental lapse rate saturated adiabatic lapse rate
dry adiabatic lapse rate
normal lapse rate
-1
4 NETHERL 4 NETHERL
has a diameter up to 4 km Subtropical
has a life time of more than 30 minutes Temperate
is always associated with thunderstorms Tropical
occurs only in tropical areas Polar
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
4 NETHERL
Warm front thunderstorms
Cold mass thunderstorms
Occlusion thunderstorms
Airmass thunderstorms
-1
4 NETHERL
A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
Water vapour and high pressure
A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
-1
Page 818 of 1247

4 NETHERL A gustfront is
rispostaA
characterized by heavy lightning For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast are typically associated with severe thunderstorms Cumulus
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
another name for a cold formed by the cold air front outflow from a thunderstorm Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
3 NETHERL
Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ? Large hail stones
-1
2 NETHERL
only occur in thunderstorms of midlatitudes Stratus
are entirely composed of clear ice Nimbostratus
only occur in frontal thunderstorms Cumulonimbus
-1
5 NETHERL
With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated ? During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts? The diameter of a typical tornado is Vertical wind shear is The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?
-1
4 NETHERL
Anvil stage
Dissipating stage
Cumulus stage
Mature stage
-1
only a few metres horizontal variation in the horizontal wind during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
about 2 to 6 km horizontal variation in the vertical wind near valleys and at the windward side of mountains. The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
in the order of 10 km vertical variation in the horizontal wind
100 to 150 metres vertical variation in the vertical wind
0 0 0
0 0 0
0 -1 -1
-1 0 0
when strong ground in areas with layered inversions are present clouds and wind and near thunderstorms speeds higher than 35 kt The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter
2 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a
NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter
NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer
-1
Page 819 of 1247

2 NETHERL An easterly wave is a
rispostaA
disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
rispostaB
wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
rispostaC
wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough There are frequent occurrences of CB
rispostaD
small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in January February, March, April
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 NETHERL
Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true? The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air because: In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when
It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity
-1
2 NETHERL
September, October, November situated between 50 and 70 N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions Rain or hail at the surface
July, August, September a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia Continuous updraft
December, January, February a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50 N and 70 N Roll cloud
-1
2 NETHERL
quasi stationary/situated between 50 N and 70 N/a cold anticyclone Frequent lightning
-1
4 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
small and freeze rapidly of any size at temperatures below 35 C. water vapour doesn't water vapour absorbs cool as rapidly as dry air the incoming heat from the sun
large and at a temperature just below freezing heat is released during the condensation process
small and at a temperature just below freezing moist air is heavier than dry air
-1
3 NETHERL
-1
9 NETHERL
there is a low level inversion
the surface wind is strong and gusty
cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
-1
Page 820 of 1247

2 NETHERL Freezing precipitation occurs A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile
rispostaA
mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow SWC and SIGMET
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
only in the precipitation of a warm front TAF and SIGMET
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
mainly in the form of only in the precipitation freezing rain or freezing of a cold front drizzle TAF and METAR METAR and SIGMET
3 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
indicates temperatures below -40 C
indicates temperatures above 3 C
intersects the 0 C isotherm twice
-1
9 NETHERL
In unstable air, surface low stratus visibility is most likely to be restricted by The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 surface+15. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 FT.
showers of rain or snow haze
drizzle
-1
6 NETHERL
The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere.
The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely unstable
Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude.
-1
3 NETHERL
0.6 C
1 C
1.5 C
0.35 C
-1
Page 821 of 1247

4 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate neither added nor lost Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing. only in winter above 10000 FT small and at a temperature below freezing slowly and do not spread out clouds but not in precipitation
rispostaC
cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate added Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; light to moderate rime ice. only in winter at high altitude large and at a temperature below freezing slowly and spread out
rispostaD
warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate lost Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing. at any time of the year at a temperature below 60 C rapidly and spread out
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Thunderstorms can cold air is moist and the occur on a warm front if environmental lapse the rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate During an adiabatic process heat is added but the result is an overall loss Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing. in winter only in high clouds at a temperature below freezing rapidly and do not spread out clouds, fog and precipitation
3 NETHERL
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
1 GERMANY What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds? 2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL Supercooled droplets can be encountered Supercooled droplets are always During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze Supercooled droplets can occur in The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of Fallstreaks or virga are
0 -1
0 0
0 0
-1 0
1 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL 4 NETHERL
precipitation but not in clouds
clouds but not in fog
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
0 0
12 km and 5-10 minutes 4 km and 1-5 minutes
4 km and 30-40 minutes 8 km and 5-15 minutes
1 NETHERL
strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
gusts associated with a well developed Bora
-1
4 NETHERL
Which of the following statements describes a microburst ?
A small low pressure A high speed system where the wind downburst of air with a circulates at high speed generally lower temperature than its surroundings
A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
-1
Page 822 of 1247

4 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
Cumulus stage
rispostaC
Dissipating stage
rispostaD
In all stages
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Mature stage In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously? The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is 1 C
3 NETHERL
2 C
0.65 C
0.5 C
-1
3 GERMANY What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ? 1 ITALY When is the RVR reported at most airports?
2.0 C
1.5 C
3.5 C
3.0 C.
-1
When the When the RVR When the RVR meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m. decreases below 2000 decreases below 800 m. m. Troposphere. Tropopause.
When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m. Stratosphere.
-1
1 ITALY
In which layer is most Stratopause. of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ? Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH. -100 C
-1
4 GERMANY At FL 180, the air temperature is 35 C.The air density at this level is: 5 UNITED KI The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is : 4 SWITZERL Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ? 3 NETHERL In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180. -56.5 C
Less than the density of Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at the ISA atmosphere at FL 180. FL 180. -273 C -44.7 C
-1
-1
At sea level when the temperature is 0 C.
When the altimeter has no position error.
When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
At standard temperature.
-1
is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL.
is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.
remains constant at all levels.
is greater at higher levels than at lower levels.
-1
Page 823 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
FL 390.
rispostaC
FL 300.
rispostaD
FL 100.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
FL 50. 5 SWITZERL A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ? 3 SWITZERL What is the 15 m (50 FT). approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m ? 1 GERMANY How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere ? 2 GERMANY Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following contribute the most ? 1 SWEDEN In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing ? A layer is conditionally unstable if the air It remains constant from north to south.
8 m (27 FT).
32 m (105 FT).
64 m (210 FT).
-1
It increases from south to north.
It remains constant throughout the year.
It decreases from south to north.
-1
Solar radiation and conduction.
Absorption and vaporization.
Absorption and evaporation.
Convection and condensation.
-1
Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer. is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air. It depends upon the QFE.
Flying in heavy drizzle.
Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C. is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air. Higher than the starting temperature.
Flying in dense cirrus clouds.
-1
2 NETHERL
becomes stable by lifting it. The same as the starting temperature.
is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air. Lower than the starting temperature.
-1
3 GERMANY A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air? 3 GERMANY What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ?
-1
It promotes vertical windshear.
It promotes extensive It prevents vertical vertical movement of air. windshear.
It results in good visual conditions.
-1
Page 824 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
-15 C.
rispostaC
-6 C.
rispostaD
-18 C.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
-9 C. 2 SWITZERL The temperature at FL 140 is -12 C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? 6 GERMANY If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10 C in the lower troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120 ? 2 ITALY Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion ? 5900 FT.
5760 FT.
6240 FT.
6000 FT.
-1
Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. -54 C.
The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air. -50 C.
Heating of the air by subsidence
-1
2 ITALY
At a certain position, -58 C. the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48 C; according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350 ?
-56,5 C.
-1
2 GERMANY Which of the following Moist warm air moving conditions is most likely over a cold surface to lead to the formation of advection fog ? 3 NETHERL In order to calculate Elevation of the airfield. QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
-1
Temperature at the airfield.
Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
-1
Page 825 of 1247

4 SWEDEN What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe? Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct? The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
rispostaA
Typhoon.
rispostaB
Mistral.
rispostaC
Foehn.
rispostaD
Bora.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
4 SWEDEN
An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a "Faradays cage", which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock. The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.
Aircraft made by composite material cant conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.
Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.
An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
-1
2 SWEDEN
The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.
The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.
The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant.
-1
2 SWEDEN
A flight is to depart Depart runway 27 with from an airport with as steep an ascent as runways 09 and 27. possible. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure ?
Take-off is not possible Depart on runway 09 under these conditions. with a tailwind.
Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.
-1
Page 826 of 1247

1 SWEDEN What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region ?
rispostaA
Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the year
rispostaB
Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July.
rispostaC
Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January.
rispostaD
Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and OctoberNovember.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
7 SWEDEN
Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered ?
In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.
In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain.
Throughout the year to In summer from souththe south of the Azorian east Asia extending high. over southern India to central Africa.
-1
2 SWEDEN
What is the name of South-west monsoon. the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation? Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa? The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15 - 20 N in July
South-east trade wind.
Indian, maritime tropical Winter monsoon. air mass.
-1
2 SWEDEN
It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5 S in January
It oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and 10 degrees South.
It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10 degrees North.
-1
1 SWEDEN
the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter. 40 km
the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter. 16 km
the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows. 8 km
converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.
-1
1 SWITZERL What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?
11 km
-1
Page 827 of 1247

4 SWEDEN What are the characteristics of the Bora ?
rispostaA
It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a northwesterly direction in the Mediterranean The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots. freeze immediately and create rime ice.
rispostaB
It is a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation. The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots. freeze immediately and create clear ice.
rispostaC
It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust. The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour. travel back over the wing, creating rime ice.
rispostaD
It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland downwards to the Adriatic The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour. travel back over the wing, creating clear ice.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 ITALY
How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ? A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called: Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion ?
-1
1 SWEDEN
-1
1 SWEDEN
Mixed ice.
Frost.
Rime ice.
Clear ice.
-1
1 SWEDEN
Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.
Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.
Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.
Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
-1
Page 828 of 1247

1 SWEDEN Hoar frost is most likely to form when
rispostaA
flying inside stratiform clouds.
rispostaB
flying in supercooled drizzle.
rispostaC
taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion.
rispostaD
flying inside convective clouds.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 SWEDEN
Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft ? Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct ? A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect: Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets?
Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil
Relative humidity inside Cloud temperature and the cloud droplet size
Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
-1
1 SWEDEN
Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud. A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large droplets.
A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds.
Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds. Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C. Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals
-1
1 SWEDEN
-1
1 SWEDEN
Altostratus and cirrocumulus
Altocumulus and altostratus.
Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
Stratus and cumulonimbus
-1
4 SWEDEN
What is the name of Bora. the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather situation.
Scirocco.
Foehn.
Mistral.
-1
Page 829 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Sky clear
rispostaC
ST with drizzle
rispostaD
Fair weather CU
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
BKN CU and CB 2 GERMANY What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the summer ? 1 SWITZERL What is the meaning of 5 - 7 oktas. the abbreviation "BKN"? 7 GERMANY Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system? 7 GERMANY At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe? The polar front jet stream FL 500
3 - 4 oktas. The arctic jet stream
6 - 8 oktas. The subtropical jet stream FL 200
8 oktas. The equatorial jet stream FL 300
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
FL 400
-1
3 GERMANY A parcel of moist but Specific humidity not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes ? 2 SWITZERL In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ? 1 GERMANY In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate ? 2 GERMANY In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ? 2 GERMANY How do air masses move at a warm front ? Solid to gas
Relative humidity
Absolute humidity
Mixing ratio
-1
Liquid to gas
Gas to liquid
Solid to liquid
-1
Region of British Isles
Baltic Sea
Black Sea
East of Greenland
-1
Ahead of a cold front in the summer
Ahead of a warm front in the winter
Ahead of a cold front in the winter
Behind a warm front in the summer
-1
Cold air overrides a warm air mass
Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
Warm air overrides a cold air mass
-1
Page 830 of 1247

6 GERMANY At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude? 2 GERMANY What is the relative movement of the two airmasses along a cold front ?
rispostaA
In a cold low pressure region
rispostaB
At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013 hPa
rispostaC
In a warm high pressure region
rispostaD
At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPa
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
Cold air slides over a warm air mass
Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
-1
6 GERMANY A vertical spacing of Less than 1000 FT 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15 C), what would the true vertical separation be? 2 GERMANY Which of the following describes a warm occlusion? 2 GERMANY When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe? 2 GERMANY In which main direction does a polar front depression move? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2388A) What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
It remains 1000 FT
More than 1000 FT
Without QNH information, it can not be determined
-1
The air mass ahead of The warmer air mass is The coldest air mass is the front is drier than ahead of the original ahead of the original the air mass behind the warm front warm front front Winter and spring Summer Winter
The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front Autumn and winter
-1
-1
Across the front towards the north A rise in pressure
Across the front towards the south A drop in pressure
Along the front towards the east Irregular fluctuations
Along the front towards the west Approximately constant pressure
-1
-1
Page 831 of 1247

2 GERMANY How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ?
rispostaA
Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air Lifting
rispostaB
Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
rispostaC
In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases
rispostaD
Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 GERMANY What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ? 1 SWITZERL In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered? 2 GERMANY What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front? 2 ITALY (For this question use annex 050-2058A) What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?
Sinking
Convection process
Radiation
-1
CS
AS
CC
ST
-1
Within cloud of any type In Nimbostratus cloud
Below the freezing level in clear air
In clear air above the freezing level
-1
Showers associated with thunderstorms
Freezing rain
Light to moderate continuous rain
Drizzle
-1
The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400.
The lower limit of the tropopause.
The center of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is at FL 400.
The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa.
-1
2 GERMANY What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart? 2 GERMANY In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?
Positions with the same Positions with the same Positions with the same Positions with the same air density. wind velocity. height in a chart of thickness between two constant pressure. constant pressure levels. 300 hPa chart. Significant Weather Chart. 24 hour surface forecast. 500 hPa chart.
-1
-1
Page 832 of 1247

2 SWITZERL On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream? 3 ITALY
rispostaA
Significant weather chart.
rispostaB
Wind / temperature chart.
rispostaC
Surface chart.
rispostaD
Upper air chart.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
How may the correct By reading wind wind speed be found, direction and speed for a level, which is from the 300 hPa chart. between two upper air chart levels? (e.g. wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are available). Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics?
By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart.
By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts.
By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart.
-1
3 ITALY
The tropopause is The meteorological generally well above the services are unable to flight level actually provide such a chart. flown.
The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important. 120 minutes.
Tropopause informations are of no value.
-1
3 GERMANY In the TAF for Dehli, 20 minutes. during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ? 2 ITALY How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart? ISOL CB.
60 minutes.
10 minutes.
-1
OCNL CB.
EMBD CB.
FREQ CB.
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-2053A) What is the wind direction and speed at 3 000 FT overhead position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
270 15 kt.
240 25 kt.
240 20 kt.
270 30 kt.
-1
Page 833 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front 2
rispostaC
The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low over Iceland 1
rispostaD
The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
7 GERMANY What is the main cause Strong winds in the for the formation of a upper atmosphere polar front jet stream?
1 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2056A) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog: 2 NETHERL If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a
-1
warm high
cold low
cold high
warm low
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use Uniform pressure annex 050-2059A) pattern. Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart ? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa) 2 SWITZERL (For this question use Track D-A annex 050-2060A) Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left ? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2061A) Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B? 4
Cutting wind.
West wind condition.
Warm south wind condition (Foehn).
-1
Track C-A
Track B-A
Track B-C
-1
-1
Page 834 of 1247

2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-2064A) Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of movement, where will this polar frontal wave have moved ? 1 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-2065A) What is the classification of the airmass affecting position "Q" at 0600 UTC? 1 ITALY Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause? The 0 isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6 C?
rispostaA
Position 1
rispostaB
Position 2
rispostaC
Position 4
rispostaD
Position 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Polar continental.
Tropical continental.
Tropical maritime.
Polar maritime.
-1
It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere FL 100
-1
2 ITALY
FL 110
FL 80
FL 20
-1
3 GERMANY What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
Positions with the same Positions with the same Positions with the same Positions with the same temperature at a given wind velocity at a given relative pressure heights air pressure at a given level level level 3 4 2
-1
2 SWITZERL (For this question use 1 annex 050-2055A) The cold front is indicated with a number at position: 1 GERMANY Where does polar The region of continental air originate? Greenland.
-1
Siberian landmass.
Areas of arctic water.
The region of the Baltic sea.
-1
Page 835 of 1247

2 ITALY
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Low cloud base and poor visibility.
rispostaD
Severe thunderstorms at low altitude.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Extreme turbulence and High cloud base, good Which of the following conditions are you most severe lightning striking surface visibility, and the ground. isolated thunderstorms. likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front at medium to low level ? Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in: What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ? backing of the wind and veering of the wind and increase of wind speed increase of wind speed at the surface. at the surface. Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling. Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea. -75 C.
5 NETHERL
backing of the wind and veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed decrease of wind speed at the surface. at the surface. Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface. -55 C. Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
-1
2 SPAIN
-1
2 ITALY
What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
-25 C.
-35 C.
-1
6 GERMANY Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?
Warm depression.
Cold high.
Warm high.
Cold low.
-1
2 SWITZERL In the southern Tailwind with no drift. hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
Headwind with no drift.
Wind from the right.
Wind from the left.
-1
Page 836 of 1247

4 GERMANY What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100? 5 ITALY
rispostaA
Light turbulence in ST cloud.
rispostaB
Severe turbulence in CB cloud.
rispostaC
Moderate turbulence in NS cloud.
rispostaD
Light turbulence in CB cloud.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
You are flying at 2 500 South-southwest. FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)? up the slope during the day. The southern Balkan region and the Near East. Variable.
Southwest.
South.
South-southeast.
-1
6 SWITZERL A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows 1 GERMANY Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer? 6 SWITZERL A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon? 1 GERMANY In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
down the slope during the day. Southern Italy.
up the slope during the night. Southern France.
down the slope during the night. The Azores region.
0 -1
0 0
0 0
-1 0
Parallel to the coastline. Sea to land.
Land to sea.
-1
Arctic maritime air.
Polar continental air.
Polar maritime air.
Tropical continental air.
-1
Page 837 of 1247

2 SWITZERL With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated? 2 SWITZERL At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur? 2 GERMANY What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog? 2 GERMANY When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur? 2 ITALY What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature is 15 C and the dew point is 14 C?
rispostaA
Stratus.
rispostaB
Cumulonimbus.
rispostaC
Stratocumulus.
rispostaD
Nimbostratus.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Shortly after sunrise.
At sunset.
Late evening.
Shortly after midnight.
-1
2 000 FT.
5 000 FT.
10 000 FT.
500 FT.
-1
When very humid warm When very humid cold When very dry cold air air meets with dry cold air meets with dry warm meets with very dry air. air. warm air. Westerly, 10 kt variable. Easterly, 10 kt. Calm.
When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air. Northerly, 10 kt.
-1
-1
2 GERMANY Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog? 2 NETHERL The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called
Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.
Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.
Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
-1
trade wind inversion
subsidence inversion
friction inversion
radiation inversion
-1
1 SWITZERL What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia ?
The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-Russian air.
The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores.
The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the NorthRussian air.
The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores.
-1
Page 838 of 1247

1 SWITZERL Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer? 1 GERMANY Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes? 4 SWITZERL Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation? 1 GERMANY Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land? 1 GERMANY Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds? 1 GERMANY What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?
rispostaA
Altocumulus.
rispostaB
Cirrus.
rispostaC
Nimbostratus.
rispostaD
Stratus.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Moderate rain with large drops.
Heavy rain with large drops.
Hail.
Drizzle.
-1
Occlusions.
The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south. Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind. Frontal lifting within stable layers.
The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north. Unstable air.
Frontal zones.
-1
The release of latent heat.
Convection during the day.
-1
Subsidence.
Convection.
Radiation.
-1
Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain. SC, NS.
Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice. CI, SC.
Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice. CU, CB.
-1
1 SWITZERL Which of the following ST, CS. types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions? 1 GERMANY Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions ? AS, AC.
-1
SC, NS
CI, CC.
CS, ST.
-1
Page 839 of 1247

1 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-1914A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus? 2 NETHERL The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :
rispostaA
3.
rispostaB
1.
rispostaC
2.
rispostaD
4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
between 10 and 15 kt
between 5 and 10 kt
above 15 kt
below 5 kt
-1
1 SWITZERL A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? 2 ITALY During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to encounter ?
100 - 1500 FT above the terrain.
-1
Decreasing temperatures.
Strong, gusty winds.
A strong downdraught.
Increasing temperatures.
-1
2 SWITZERL Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ?
NS.
CS.
SC.
ST.
-1
Page 840 of 1247

2 ITALY What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very close together?
rispostaA
Strong and parallel to the isobars.
rispostaB
Moderate and parallel to the isobars.
rispostaC
Strong and flowing across the isobars.
rispostaD
Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 GERMANY Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds? 2 ITALY How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force. Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force. Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Severe.
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force. Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude. Violent.
Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force. Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily. Moderate.
-1
-1
4 SWITZERL Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description? "There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult."
Light.
-1
Page 841 of 1247

4 GERMANY For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
rispostaA
Thunderstorms.
rispostaB
Sand up to FL 150.
rispostaC
Hail.
rispostaD
Dust and poor visibility.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
4 GERMANY What is the strong Mistral. relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called? 6 NETHERL In a land- and seabreeze circulation the land-breeze blows : during the night and is weaker than the seabreeze. Water droplets.
Scirocco.
Bora.
Ghibli.
-1
during the day and is stronger than the seabreeze. Water vapour.
during the day and is weaker than the seabreeze. Ice crystals.
during the night and is stronger than the seabreeze. Supercooled water droplets.
-1
1 SWITZERL What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"? 4 GERMANY What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over land? 2 GERMANY What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0 C, and freezing rain starts to fall?
-1
Low temperatures, low humidity.
Subsidence, inversion.
High temperatures, high humidity.
High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.
-1
Cold fronts.
Warm fronts, warm occlusions.
Cold occlusions.
High level cold fronts.
-1
Page 842 of 1247

2 GERMANY In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?
rispostaA
NS.
rispostaB
Calm winds, haze.
rispostaC
TS, SH.
rispostaD
CB, TS.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 GERMANY At what time of the Summer. year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position? 1 SWITZERL What is the relationship The met. vis. is between meteorological generally less than the visibility (met.vis.) and RVR. RVR in homogeneous fog? 1 SWITZERL The wind indicator for a On a mast 8-10 m weather observation above the ground. receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed? 8 GERMANY You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12 C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable? In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice.
Spring.
Autumn.
Winter.
-1
The met. vis. generally The met. vis. generally There is no specific is greater than the RVR. is the same as the RVR. relationship between the two.
-1
1 m above the runway.
Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
On the roof of the weather station.
-1
Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice.
Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost.
In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice.
-1
8 SWITZERL You intend to carry out Mid-day. a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
Afternoon.
Early evening.
Morning.
-1
Page 843 of 1247

5 GERMANY At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
rispostaA
Spring, summer.
rispostaB
Summer, autumn.
rispostaC
Autumn, winter.
rispostaD
Winter.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 SWITZERL What is the correct Subsidence. term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area? 4 GERMANY During which stage of Cumulus stage. thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ? 3 GERMANY What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough? 4 GERMANY Where is a squall line to be expected? 4 ITALY What are squall lines? Divergence with descending air.
Convergence.
Advection.
Convection.
-1
Dissipating stage.
Cumulus stage and mature stage.
Mature stage.
-1
Divergence with lifting.
Convergence with descending air.
Convergence with lifting.
-1
In front of an active cold front. Bands of intensive thunderstorms. Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence.
Behind a cold front.
In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels. The surface weather associated with upper air troughs. Icing, huge mass of clouds.
At the surface position of a warm front. The paths of tropical revolving storms. Good visibility, turbulence.
-1
Unusual intensive cold fronts. Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing.
-1
4 SWITZERL Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south (Foehn)? 2 GERMANY What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves? 2 ITALY
-1
Continuous rain.
Clear skies.
Frontal weather.
Thunderstorms and rain. Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
-1
What winds are mainly Southeasterly winds associated with the carrying warm and winter monsoon in the humid air. monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent ?
Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
Southwesterly winds carrying warm and humid air.
-1
Page 844 of 1247

1 GERMANY Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere? 2 GERMANY What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high? 4 GERMANY On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
rispostaA
Cumulonimbus
rispostaB
Cirrostratus
rispostaC
Altocumulus
rispostaD
Altostratus
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Rising air
Instability
Divergence at higher levels
Sinking air
-1
SE coast
W coast
N coast
NE coast
-1
4 SWITZERL In Central Europe when Around midnight. is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts? 2 GERMANY In which of the 3 - 8 S. following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro? 2 ITALY What cloud formation is Cumulus. most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass? 1/150
Early morning.
Late morning.
Mid - afternoon.
-1
8 - 12 S.
7 - 12 N.
0 - 7 N.
-1
Altostratus.
Cumulonimbus.
Nimbostratus.
-1
2 SWITZERL The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is: 2 GERMANY What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
1/50
1/300
1/500
-1
A low on lee side of a mountain.
Heat low.
Polar front low.
A cold air pool.
-1
Page 845 of 1247

2 GERMANY In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
rispostaA
In the direction of the warm sector isobars.
rispostaB
In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front. Behind the front.
rispostaC
In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase. Ahead of the front.
rispostaD
In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front. At the surface position of the front.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 GERMANY Where is the coldest air At the junction of the to be found, in an occlusion. occlusion with cold front characteristics? 2 GERMANY What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest? 2 GERMANY Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter? Warm occlusion.
-1
Cold front.
Warm front.
Cold occlusion.
-1
CI, CS.
Fair weather CU.
CU, CB.
ST with drizzle.
-1
2 GERMANY What weather Rain covering a large conditions are prevalent area, 8 octas NS. during the summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front? 2 GERMANY What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter? 2 SWITZERL Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct? 2 SWITZERL Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation? A tendency for fog and low ST.
8 octas CS, AS without precipitation.
Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.
Showers and thunderstorms.
-1
Thunderstorms.
NS with continuous rain. The possibility of snow showers.
-1
Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ.
The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.
The ITCZ does not Frequent and change its position widespread during the course of the thunderstorms are to year. be expected within the area of the ITCZ. Solid direct to liquid Liquid direct to solid
-1
Liquid direct to vapour
Solid direct to vapour
-1
Page 846 of 1247

2 GERMANY What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India? 2 ITALY
rispostaA
Stratus clouds and drizzle.
rispostaB
Sandstorms.
rispostaC
Fog.
rispostaD
Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
After passing at right A backing in the wind angles through a very direction. active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature? March to May and October to November. The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.
An increase in tailwind.
A decrease in headwind.
A veering in the wind direction.
-1
2 GERMANY When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa? 2 ITALY Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ? What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?
December to February and July to October. The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.
March to May and August to October. The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere.
April to July and December to February. The zone where the Harmattan meets the northeasterly trade winds over Africa. West deep into the USA. Summer and autumn.
-1
-1
4 NETHERL
West in the earlier West in the earlier East then south. stages and later turning stages and later turning south east. north east. Winter. Winter and spring. All seasons.
-1
4 SWITZERL During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere? 3 GERMANY What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool? 3 GERMANY How do you recognize a cold air pool?
-1
Strong westerly winds.
Fine weather CU.
Nothing (CAVOK).
Showers and thunderstorms.
-1
As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.
A cold air pool may only As a low pressure area be recognized on the aloft (e.g. on the 500 surface chart as a high hPa chart). pressure area.
-1
Page 847 of 1247

2 GERMANY What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer? 2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Very poor (less than 1 km).
rispostaD
Good (greater than 10 km).
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Very good (greater than Moderate (several km). 50 km).
Geostrophic wind is the straight lines and wind when isobars are friction is involved. Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain? An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0 C through which rain is falling.
curved lines and friction straight lines and no is involved. friction is involved. Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0 C. friction
curved lines and no friction is involved
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
Water droplets falling Cold air aloft from from cold air aloft with a which hail is falling into temperature below 0 C. air that is warm.
2 NETHERL
The difference between curvature of isobars geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows The geostrophic wind depends on veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
horizontal temperature gradients
slope of pressure surfaces
-1
5 NETHERL
backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
backs in the friction layer and and backs above the friction layer
-1
6 NETHERL
during the day up from the valley
at night down from the mountains
at night up from the valley geographic latitude, centripetal force, height falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
during the day down from the mountains centripetal force, height, pressure gradient falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
-1
2 NETHERL
density, earth's rotation, earth's rotation, geographic latitude geographic latitude, centripetal force rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
-1
2 NETHERL
Divergence in the upper rising pressure and air results, near the likely formation of surface, in clouds
-1
Page 848 of 1247

2 NETHERL The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being the same) The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, the Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of The Chinook is a
rispostaA
higher if curvature is anticyclonic
rispostaB
always higher
rispostaC
always lower
rispostaD
higher if curvature is cyclonic
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 NETHERL
the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to the gradient force. surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoon a high risk of thunderstorms warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
contour lines are lines that connect points with the same windspeed in the upper air
the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure system
-1
5 NETHERL
wind tends to back from surface wind speed early morning until early tends to be highest afternoon during the early afternoon turbulence at and below poor visibility at surface the cloud level very cold wind with blowing snow downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes
-1
4 NETHERL
smooth flying conditions below the cloud level warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
-1
4 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
You are flying from east If the wind is from the to west in the northern north you are gaining hemisphere at the 500 altitude hPa pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct? In an area of converging air Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night The sea breeze is a wind from the sea convective clouds can be dissolved in unstable atmospheres blowing at night in midlatitudes
If you have a head wind If you have a tail wind you are gaining altitude you are losing altitude
-1
2 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
stratified clouds can be dissolved and early morning only in winter occurring only in midlatitudes and in daytime
clouds can not be formed and early morning only in summer occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
clouds can be formed in association with radiation inversions that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
0 0
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
6 NETHERL
-1
Page 849 of 1247

4 NETHERL 5 NETHERL The Foehn wind is a
rispostaA
warm fall wind
rispostaB
cold fall wind backs and decreases
rispostaC
warm anabatic wind veers and increases
rispostaD
cold anabatic wind backs and increases
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 -1 0 0 0 0
veers and decreases During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage) the wind normally Wind is caused by In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
2 NETHERL 5 NETHERL
the movements of fronts horizontal pressure differences counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area. The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker. warm moist air flows over a colder surface counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction
the rotation of the earth from a low pressure area to a high pressure area They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles
friction between the air and the ground clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually weaker.
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
5 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
Advection fog can be formed when
cold moist air flows over a warmer surface NS spread over a large area
warm moist air flows over a warmer surface Dense CI
cold moist air flows over warmer water Frequent SC
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
4 GERMANY What type of clouds, Excessive visible even at a long accumulation of CU distance, could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving storm? 4 NETHERL A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered In a warm front occlusion Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog? in an airmass with cold mass properties the warm air is lifted Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
behind of a stationary front the warm front overtakes the cold front Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
ahead of a cold front
at an occluded front
-1
2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
the warm front becomes a front aloft Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
the cold air is lifted Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
Page 850 of 1247

2 NETHERL Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog? Runway Visual Range (RVR) is Freezing fog exists if fog droplets Visibility is reduced by haze when The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air The greater the pressure gradient the The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be
rispostaA
It forms at night or the early morning
rispostaB
It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically usually better than meteorological visibility are frozen
rispostaC
It forms slowly and disappears rapidly
rispostaD
It can be formed suddenly by day or night
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 NETHERL
measured with ceilometers alongside the runway are supercooled
reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
reported in TAF and METAR
-1
1 NETHERL
are freezing very rapidly freeze when temperature falls below zero small waterdroplets are present dust particles are trapped below an inversion
-1
9 NETHERL
a light drizzle falls
a cold front just passed
-1
5 NETHERL
wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature with warm mass properties closer the isobars and the stronger the wind advection fog
roughness of surface, temperature, local time that is absolutely stable
temperature, local time, stability, wind speed, environmental lapse rate roughness of surface that is stable with cold mass properties further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature a cold front
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind good clear weather
closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures radiation fog
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
unlimited visibility
fog or low cloud
clear and cool
high scattered clouds
-1
Page 851 of 1247

2 NETHERL An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by Geostrophic wind
rispostaA
continuously backing
rispostaB
continuously veering
rispostaC
initially backing, then veering
rispostaD
initially veering, then backing
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 NETHERL
centripetal forces
the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis force veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere Khamsin
the curvature of the isobars
frictional forces
-1
2 NETHERL
always increases with increasing height Pampero
is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force Harmattan
is directly proportional to the density of the air Scirocco
-1
4 NETHERL
A dry, sand- and dustladen North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as a A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as a The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the Frontal fog is most likely to occur
-1
4 NETHERL
Foehn
Harmattan
Mistral
Bora
-1
2 NETHERL
density of the air
horizontal pressure gradient in winter in the early morning
curvature of isobars
sine of latitude
-1
2 NETHERL
in summer in the early morning
in advance of a warm front
in rear of a warm front
-1
Page 852 of 1247

1 GERMANY What does dewpoint mean?
rispostaA
The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation. raising the temperature
rispostaB
The temperature at which ice melts.
rispostaC
The freezing level (danger of icing).
rispostaD
The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same. expanding it adiabatically moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature relative humidity is not changed Atmosphere.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 NETHERL
A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by
lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant lifting the parcel to a higher level
compressing it adiabatically lowering the parcel to a lower level
-1
3 NETHERL
A moist but unsaturated moving the parcel to an parcel of air becomes area with higher saturated by pressure and equal temperature When water evaporates relative humidity is into unsaturated air decreased Tropopause.
-1
2 NETHERL
heat is absorbed Ionosphere.
heat is released Stratosphere.
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
1 SWITZERL What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called? 2 SWITZERL Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 FT pressure level (FL50)?
850 hPa.
700 hPa.
500 hPa.
300 hPa.
-1
2 SWITZERL An outside air 5 C colder than ISA. temperature of -35 C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level? 2 NETHERL Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in winter during the night and early morning.
10 C colder than ISA.
10 C warmer than ISA. 5 C warmer than ISA.
-1
summer during the winter in the afternoon. night and early morning. exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
summer in the afternoon. is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
-1
2 UNITED KI Absolute instability exceeds the dry exists whenever the adiabatic lapse rate. environmental lapse rate
-1
Page 853 of 1247

5 NETHERL In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from The polar front is the boundary between: Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ?
rispostaA
right and behind
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
left and behind
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
about 45 degrees to the directly ahead right of directly ahead
2 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
polar air and tropical air. arctic air and polar air. stratiform clouds with severe turbulence Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100 convective clouds with moderate turbulence Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100
arctic air and tropical air. stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
maritime polar air and continental polar air. convective clouds with little or no turbulence Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
1 ITALY
-1
1 SWITZERL The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it? 1 SWITZERL Relative humidity
It decreases with It is only influenced by increasing water vapour. temperature.
It increases with It is not influenced by increasing water vapour. changing water vapour.
-1
is not affected by does not change when temperature changes of water vapour is added the air. provided the temperature of the air remains constant. It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour.
changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.
is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
-1
1 SWITZERL How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated airmass influenced by temperature changes? 1 GERMANY How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?
It decreases with It is not influenced by increasing temperature. temperature changes.
It increases with increasing temperature.
-1
When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.
When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint increases.
When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.
When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains constant.
-1
Page 854 of 1247

1 SWITZERL When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?
rispostaA
rispostaB
It increases up to 100%, then remains stable. It must decrease by 5 C.
rispostaC
It decreases.
rispostaD
It increases.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 SWITZERL During the late It must decrease to afternoon an air +5 C. temperature of +12 C and a dew point of +5 C were measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation? 3 NETHERL A cold pool is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
It must decrease to +6 C.
It must decrease to +7 C.
-1
develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area. 100 to 200 FT
normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold northwesterly airstream
-1
2 ITALY
Which of the following is a common result of subsidence ? Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
An inversion over a large area with haze, mist. 500 to 1000 FT
Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation. the surface to 6500 FT
Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes . 1000 to 2000 FT
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL 6 NETHERL
Clouds, fog or dew will water vapour always be formed when: condenses. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience wind continually from water to the land
water vapour is present. relative humidity reaches 98%. from the land in daytime and from the water at night from the water in daytime and from the land at night
temperature and dew point are nearly equal. continually from land to water
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
Page 855 of 1247

1 NETHERL The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
risk of orographic thunderstorms instability in the middle troposphere Stratus
rispostaD
development of thermal lows strong convection at low height Altostratus
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
presence of valley winds presence of mountain waves stability in the higher troposphere subsidence in a large part of the troposphere Cirrostratus
1 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
What type of cloud is Nimbostratus being described ? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches. Cumulus clouds are an indication for The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a mountain range ? up and downdrafts
-1
1 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
stability
the approach of a cold front temperature at surface and air pressure Showers and thunderstorms
the approach of a warm front wind and dewpoint at the surface Areas of severe turbulence
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
0 0
wet adiabatic lapse rate temperature and and dewpoint at the dewpoint at the surface surface Stratified clouds Inversions
8 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
Precipitation in the form cirro-type clouds of showers occurs mainly from Which of the following are medium level clouds ? Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
clouds containing only ice crystals Cumulonimbus
convective clouds
stratified clouds
-1
1 NETHERL
All convective clouds
Altostratus and altocumulus
-1
Page 856 of 1247

2 NETHERL A super-cooled droplet is
rispostaA
a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
rispostaB
a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing warm air moving over a cold surface
rispostaC
a water droplet that is mainly frozen saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
rispostaD
a small particle of water at a temperature below 50 C saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 NETHERL
The main factor which reduction of outgoing contributes to the radiation due to clouds formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer contains The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by Altostratus clouds are classified as Convective clouds are formed is heated by expansion
-1
2 NETHERL
loses water vapour
is heated by compression the presence of a low level inversion only ice crystals
reaches warmer layers
-1
1 NETHERL
poor surface visibility
instability in the atmosphere only water droplets
the presence of warm air aloft a combination of ice crystals and water droplets a decrease in pressure low level clouds in stable atmosphere relative humidity
-1
1 NETHERL
a combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets subsidence high level clouds in summer during the day only
-1
2 NETHERL 1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
convection convective clouds in mid-latitudes only dewpoint
a decrease in temperature medium level clouds in unstable atmosphere air temperature
-1 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 -1 -1 -1
0 0 0 0
The maximum amount stability of the air of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the When isobars, for an area in the midlatitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be strong
2 NETHERL
blowing perpendicular to the isobars
changing direction rapidly
light
-1
Page 857 of 1247

1 NETHERL In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the
rispostaA
air pressure at the surface
rispostaB
pressure at different levels
rispostaC
thickness of the unstable layer
rispostaD
wind direction
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 SWITZERL During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ?
It will remain the same
It is not possible to give a definitive answer
It will decrease
It will increase
-1
5 SWITZERL If you are flying at FL -30 C 300 in an air mass that is 15 C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? 3 UNKNOW Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: 6 NM.
-45 C
-60 C
-15 C
-1
4 km.
10 km.
6 km.
-1
Page 858 of 1247

3 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 FT/AGL.
rispostaD
Winter: BKN base 2500 FT/AGL; summer BKN base 3500 FT/AGL.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Winter: SCT base 3000 Winter: OVC base 500 8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at FT/AGL; summer OVC FT/AGL; summer SCT base 500 FT/AGL. base 3000 FT/AGL. sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter? supercooling supersaturation
2 UNITED KI The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as 1 UNITED KI Dew point is defined as
radiation cooling
sublimation
-1
the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure Scirocco
the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure Harmattan
the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity Bora
the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat Chinook
-1
4 UNITED KI Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use overcast with drizzle annex 050-10803A) and hill fog The weather most likely to be experienced at position "R" is 3 UNITED KI (For this question use mainly overcast with annex 050-10802A) anticyclonic gloom The weather most likely to be experienced at position "R" is 6 SWITZERL You are flying at FL 21740 feet 200. Outside air temperature is -40 C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
fine and warm at first AC Castellanus and CB in late afternoon with thunderstorms fine and warm with little or no cloud
early morning fog lifting to low stratus
increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain
-1
early morning fog lifting to low stratus
increasing high and medium cloud cover and generally good visibility 20660 feet
-1
18260 feet
19340 feet
-1
Page 859 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
rispostaC
The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
rispostaD
Wind speed at A and at B is the same
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Wind speed at B is 6 SWITZERL (For this question use higher than at A annex 050-4249A) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? 6 SWITZERL (For this question use Wind speed at Madrid annex 050-4248A) is higher than at A An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
Wind speed at B is higher than at A
-1
6 SWITZERL (For this question use Wind speed at A and at The true altitude will be annex 050-4247A) B is the same higher at A than at B An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? 3 GERMANY The following weather 9 hour TAF. report EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is a : 24 hour TAF.
Wind speed at A is higher than at B
-1
SPECI.
METAR.
-1
Page 860 of 1247

6 SWITZERL During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure? 3 UNKNOW In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the
rispostaA
It will decrease
rispostaB
It will remain the same
rispostaC
rispostaD
It will increase
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.
QNH rounded up to the QFE rounded down to nearest hPa. the nearest hPa. It will increase It will remain the same
QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa. It will not be affected
-1
6 SWITZERL An aircraft is It will decrease descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ? 6 SWITZERL An aircraft is flying There is insufficient through the Alps on a information to come to warm summer's day. a conclusion The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?
-1
A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
-1
Page 861 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
rispostaC
A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
rispostaD
A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The same altitude as 6 SWITZERL An aircraft is flying the elevation of the through the Alps on a summit very cold winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit? 6 SWITZERL An aircraft is flying over It is warmer than ISA the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ? 6 SWITZERL An aircraft is flying over It is warmer than ISA the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ? 6 SWITZERL An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ? It is colder than ISA
Its average temperature It is colder than ISA is about ISA
There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
-1
There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
Its average temperature It is colder than ISA is the same as ISA
-1
It is warmer than ISA
Its average temperature There is insufficient is the same as ISA information to make any assumption
-1
Page 862 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
There is insufficient information to make any assumption
rispostaD
It is colder than ISA
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
6 SWITZERL During a flight over the Its average temperature It is warmer than ISA sea at FL 135, the true is the same as ISA altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? 6 SWITZERL During a flight over the The air at Marseille is sea at FL 100 from warmer than that at Marseille (QNH 1016 Palma de Mallorca hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this ? 6 SWITZERL During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken ? 6 SWITZERL An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that : 5 SWITZERL If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2 C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be? Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong One of the QNH values must be wrong
The altimeter is faulty
The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
-1
Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
Compensate by heading further to the left
None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around Marseille
-1
the air at Palma de the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille that at Marseille
the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
-1
FL 90
FL 110
FL 130
FL 150
-1
Page 863 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
col
rispostaC
trough of low pressure
rispostaD
depression
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
ridge of high pressure 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10850A) The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is a 6 SWITZERL (For this question use The true altitude will be annex 050-4246A) higher at B than at A An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4380A) If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? 2 UNITED KI Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4393A) The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport? Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence
Wind speed at A is higher than at B
Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B
-1
Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
CAT for the first half of the flight
Scattered thunderstorms
-1
There is no significant difference with change of latitude TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =
It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 =
It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
It is highest in middle latitudes TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =
-1
-1
Page 864 of 1247

3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4392A) Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4391A) Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central Europe ?
rispostaA
Westerly wind
rispostaB
Easterly wind
rispostaC
High pressure
rispostaD
Warm southerly wind
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Uniform pressure pattern
Cutting wind
Easterly waves
Westerly waves
-1
Page 865 of 1247

2 SWITZERL In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken: 160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG = 160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG = 160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG = 161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG = 161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS = 161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG = 161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG = What do you conclude based on these observations?
rispostaA
A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon
rispostaB
A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon
rispostaC
Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
rispostaD
A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoon
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Page 866 of 1247

2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4389A) This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4388A) On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 180? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4387A) Which of these statements is true? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4386A) If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4385A) Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT at FL 300? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4384A) Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?
rispostaA
TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
rispostaB
TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 = Zurich - Hamburg
rispostaC
TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =
rispostaD
TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 = Hamburg - Stockholm
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Zurich - Madrid
Zurich - Vienna
-1
Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid Constantly in the stratosphere
Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France Constantly in the troposhere
Freezing level above Madrid is higher than FL 120 First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
The front to the north of London is moving south
-1
In the stratosphere for part of time
-1
Paris - Bordeaux
Zurich - Rome
London - Zurich
Zurich - Copenhagen
-1
140 km/h
145 kt
340 kt
95 kt
-1
Page 867 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Scattered thunderstorms
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Cloud most of the way; 3 SWITZERL (For this question use little chance of CAT annex 050-4383A) If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? 3 UNKNOW Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is: 1500 m.
Out of cloud throughout Largely free of cloud; the flight moderate icing half way along the route
5000 FT.
1500 FT.
1000 FT.
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4381A) Which of the following statements is true?
The front to the north of Frankfurt is moving north-east at about 5 kt
The jet stream above Italy has a maximum speed of 120 km/h 995 hPa
Thunderclouds have formed over the Iberian peninsula extending to some 25000 meters 1005 hPa
There is no significant cloud above Rome
-1
3 SWITZERL If the QNH at Locarno 1000 hPa (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4379A) Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located? FL 280
1025 hPa
-1
FL 310
FL 350
FL 250
-1
Page 868 of 1247

3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4378A) On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4377A) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Geneva Stockholm at FL 260.
rispostaA
Tunis - Rome
rispostaB
Copenhagen - Helsinki
rispostaC
Rome - Frankfurt
rispostaD
Hamburg - Oslo
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
-51 C
-55 C
-63 C
-47 C
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use 030/70 annex 050-4376A) Select from the map the average wind for the route Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290. 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4375A) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200. -41 C
190/75
340/90
360/80
-1
-49 C
-33 C
-30 C
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use 020/20 annex 050-4374A) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240. 3 SWITZERL (For this question use 4 C warmer than ISA annex 050-4373A) What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?
200/15
260/25
230/20
-1
8 C warmer than ISA
12 C colder than ISA
8 C colder than ISA
-1
Page 869 of 1247

3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4372A) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 150.
rispostaA
-27 C
rispostaB
-14 C
rispostaC
-21 C
rispostaD
-11 C
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 SWITZERL (For this question use 260/40 annex 050-4371A) Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 160. 3 SWITZERL (For this question use 10 C colder than ISA annex 050-4370A) What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt - Rome route? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4369A) Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be found? FL 260
050/35
240/40
210/25
-1
10 C warmer than ISA
4 C colder than ISA
4 C warmer than ISA
-1
FL 100
FL 20
FL 180
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use 050/40 annex 050-4368A) Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL 170. 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4382A) On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL 340? Zurich - Athens
030/35
230/40
200/50
-1
Rome - Berlin
Shannon - Hamburg
Zurich - Rome
-1
Page 870 of 1247

5 UNITED KI In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate
rispostaA
030/28
rispostaB
340/20
rispostaC
030/20
rispostaD
340/28
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 SWITZERL If you are flying at FL +15 C 100 in an air mass that is 10 C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? 4 UNITED KI When, if at all, is a December to April tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia? 4 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10793A) The arrows labelled "u" represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from 4 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10792A) The arrows labelled "t" represents the mean track of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from 4 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10791A) The arrows labelled "s" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from May to July and are called cyclones
-10 C
-15 C
+5 C
-1
May to July
August to October
Not experienced at Darwin
-1
December to April and are called tornadoes
July to October and are called typhoons
January to March and are called willy-willies
-1
June to October and are called cyclones
December to April and are called hurricanes
June to October and are called tornadoes
June to October and are called hurricanes
-1
December to April and are called typhoons
May to November and are called cyclones
December to April and are called cyclones
May to November and are called hurricanes
-1
Page 871 of 1247

4 UNITED KI Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans? 3 UNITED KI Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere? 4 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10788A) The arrows labelled "r" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from 1 UNITED KI Considering the North Atlantic region between 30 N and 65N together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is
rispostaA
Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase of height It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense December to April and are called tornadoes
rispostaB
Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
rispostaC
Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
rispostaD
Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds`long sea passage It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense December to April and are called cyclones
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
It rapidly closes on, and It tends to maintain its merges with the primary position relative to the primary June to October and are called typhoons June to October and are called hurricanes
-1
-1
NE Canada, Iceland
Greenland, Iberian peninsula
Azores, Siberia
Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
-1
1 UNITED KI Considering the North weak low over NE Atlantic region between Canada and 30 N and 65 N and the Scandinavian high adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are 3 UNITED KI (For this question use secondary low annex 050-10784A) The pressure system at position "D" is a
Azores low and Icelandic high
Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
Scandinavian high and Azores high
-1
trough of low pressure
ridge of high pressure
col
-1
Page 872 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Azores
rispostaC
Iceland / Greenland
rispostaD
USA
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Siberia 1 UNITED KI Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30 N and 65N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10797A) The dotted line designated "Z" represents the 5 UNITED KI In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10798A) The dotted line labelled "Y" represents the 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10727A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "u" is in area of northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream during July
northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January
mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during July
mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during January
-1
060/12
060/18
075/12
045/12
-1
axis of the subtropical jet stream during January SW trade winds
mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July subtropical high pressure
mean position of the temperate/tropical front during July NE trade winds
mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January travelling depressions
-1
-1
Page 873 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10726A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10725A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "y" is an area of 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10724A) Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10723A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are applicable to zone 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10722A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "t" is an area of
rispostaA
w
rispostaB
u
rispostaC
t
rispostaD
v
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
SE trade winds
subtropical high pressure systems
travelling low pressure systems
NE trade winds
-1
disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain u and w
equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over central Australia
subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate low pressure t only
antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and Antarctica
-1
s and y
t and x
-1
SE trade winds
travelling low pressure systems
NE trade winds
subtropical high pressure systems
-1
Page 874 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10721A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone 1 UNITED KI In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30 N and 65 N and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer? 2 UNITED KI Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is
rispostaA
w
rispostaB
t
rispostaC
u
rispostaD
v
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada
Azores, SE USA, SW Europe
Greenland, Azores, NE Canada
Iceland, SW USA, Azores
-1
proportional only to the Coriolis force
greater than the geostrophic wind
less than the geostrophic wind
the same as the thermal component
-1
2 UNITED KI For the same pressure greatest at 40 N gradient at 60 N, 50 N and 40 N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be 2 UNITED KI For a similar pressure greater at 30 N than at gradient, the 60 N geostrophic wind speed will be 2 UNITED KI The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in freezing fog
the same at all latitudes
greatest at 60 N
least at 50 N
-1
greater at 60 N than at 30 N
the same at all latitudes north or south of 15
equivalent to gradient wind thermal component cirrus
-1
stratus
cumulus
-1
Page 875 of 1247

2 UNITED KI The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud: 3 SWITZERL The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
rispostaA
Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
rispostaB
Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
rispostaC
Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
rispostaD
Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate. QFF
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
QFE
QNH
QNE
-1
3 SWITZERL If the QNH at Locarno 1005 hPa (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? (Assume 1hPa = 8m) 3 SWITZERL If the QFE at Locarno 990 hPa (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH? 3 SWITZERL If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ? 3 SWITZERL The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? 1000 hPa
990 hPa
995 hPa
1000 hPa
-1
1035 hPa
1025 hPa
985 hPa
-1
1015 hPa
1010 hPa
1005 hPa
-1
Less than 1030 hPa
1030 hPa
More than 1030 hPa
-1
Page 876 of 1247

3 SWITZERL The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? 3 SWITZERL The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF? 3 SWITZERL The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF? 3 SWITZERL The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? 3 SWITZERL The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
rispostaA
1018 hPa
rispostaB
rispostaC
More than 1018 hPa
rispostaD
Less than 1018 hPa
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Less than 1022 hPa
More than 1022 hPa
1022 hPa
-1
Less than 1022 hPa
More than 1022 hPa
1022 hPa
-1
1009 hPa
Less than 1009 hPa
More than 1009 hPa
-1
Less than 1016 hPa
More than 1016 hPa
1016 hPa
-1
Page 877 of 1247

3 SWITZERL The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10 C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? 5 SWITZERL A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ? 5 SWITZERL A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ?
rispostaA
1016 hPa
rispostaB
Less than 1016 hPa
rispostaC
rispostaD
More than 1016 hPa
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
FL100
FL 300
FL 390
FL 50
-1
FL 100
FL 180
FL 300
FL 390
-1
1 UNITED KI (For this question use a westerly polar front jet variable in direction and light easterlies annex 050-10795A) stream, maximum less than 30 kt Considering that portion speed exceeding 90 kt of the route indicated from 30 E to 50 E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 are most likely to be 5 SWITZERL A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ? 2 UNKNOW Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if FL 300 FL 390 FL 100
a subtropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
-1
FL 50
-1
the cold air is convectively unstable.
the cold air is convectively stable.
the warm air is convectively stable.
the warm air is convectively unstable.
-1
Page 878 of 1247

2 SWITZERL What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
rispostaA
Inversion
rispostaB
Subsidence
rispostaC
Adiabatic
rispostaD
Advection
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 SWITZERL How would you High characterise an air temperature of -55 C at the 200 hPa level over western Europe? 2 SWITZERL How would you High characterise an air temperature of -30 C at the 300 hPa level over western Europe? 2 SWITZERL How would you Within +/-5 C of ISA characterise an air temperature of -15 C at the 700 hPa level over western Europe? 2 SWITZERL A temperature of +15 C 0 C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level? 2 SWITZERL The temperature at FL 0 C 160 is -22 C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
Low
Very high
Within +/-5 C of ISA
-1
Within +/-5 C of ISA
Low
Very low
-1
20 C below standard
Low
High
-1
-2 C
+2 C
+4 C
-1
+4 C
-8 C
-4 C
-1
Page 879 of 1247

2 SWITZERL The temperature at FL 110 is -5 C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? 2 SWITZERL The temperature at FL 80 is +6 C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? 1 SWITZERL Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
rispostaA
+3 C
rispostaB
0 C
rispostaC
-3 C
rispostaD
+7 C
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
0 C
+2 C
-4 C
-6 C
-1
Ionosphere
Troposphere
Lower stratosphere
Upper stratosphere
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use SW monsoon annex 050-10801A) Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10800A) Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 050-10799A) What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July? SW monsoon
NW monsoon
SE monsoon
NE monsoon
-1
NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
passage of frontal system generated in the south indian ocean
high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the persian gulf
-1
Generally clear skies NW trade winds
Reduced visibility due Wet and thundery due to the rising sand of the to the proximity of Harmattan intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system
-1
Page 880 of 1247

5 SWITZERL A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ? 1 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4319A) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:
rispostaA
FL 100
rispostaB
FL 390
rispostaC
FL 180
rispostaD
FL 160
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
-1
3 SWITZERL With a uniform Apparently nothing, pressure pattern and no because any changes thunderstorms around, would be small. what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use Ridge of high pressure annex 050-4333A) Which of the following best describes Zone A? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4332A) The warm sector is indicated by letter: 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4331A) A trough is indicated by letter: 2 SWITZERL When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ? C
Increase rapidly.
Show strong fluctuations.
Decrease rapidly.
-1
Depression
Trough of low pressure
Col
-1
-1
-1
700 hPa
850 hPa
300 hPa
500 hPa
-1
Page 881 of 1247

2 SWITZERL When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ? 2 SWITZERL If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ? 2 SWITZERL If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ? 2 SWITZERL Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 38662 FT pressure level (FL 390) ? 2 SWITZERL Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30065 FT pressure level (FL 300)? 2 SWITZERL Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 18289 FT pressure level (FL 180) ? 2 SWITZERL Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 9882 FT pressure level (FL 100) ?
rispostaA
500 hPa
rispostaB
300 hPa
rispostaC
850 hPa
rispostaD
700 hPa
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
850 hPa
300 hPa
500 hPa
700 hPa
-1
850 hPa
700 hPa
500 hPa
300 hPa
-1
200 hPa
300 hPa
500 hPa
700 hPa
-1
500 hPa
300 hPa
200 hPa
700 hPa
-1
200 hPa
700 hPa
500 hPa
300 hPa
-1
700 hPa
850 hPa
500 hPa
300 hPa
-1
Page 882 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Depression
rispostaD
Ridge of high pressure
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Col 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4335A) Which of the following best describes Zone C? 1 SWITZERL What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for? To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
To measure wind currents on the ground
To help provide 14-day forecasts
To locate precipitation zones
-1
2 SWITZERL (For this question use Anticyclone annex 050-4336A) Which of the following best describes Zone D? 1 SWITZERL When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ? 1 SWITZERL At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of course and altitude necessary" recommendation be followed? 1 SWITZERL At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course and/or altitude immediately" instruction be followed? 1 SWITZERL At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of course and/or altitude desirable" recommendation be followed? With gusts of at least 35 knots Light
Depression
Ridge of high pressure
-1
When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed Moderate
When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed Severe
With gusts of at least 25 knots Extreme
-1
-1
Severe
Light
Moderate
Extreme
-1
Moderate
Light
Severe
Extreme
-1
Page 883 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Diagram a)
rispostaC
Diagram d)
rispostaD
Diagram c)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Diagram b) 1 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4314A) Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following PE conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ? 1 SWITZERL In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? 1 SWITZERL In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-tosevere airframe icing? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-tosevere airframe icing? 1 SWITZERL In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's surface? 1 SWITZERL You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25 C. Which of the following statements is true? NS
+FZRA
GR
SHSN
-1
CS
AS
SC
-1
CU
CI
SC
NS
-1
It will not occur in clear- It always occurs in sky conditions altostratus cloud
It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation It will occur in clear-sky conditions
-1
It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation -20 C to -35 C
It always occurs in altostratus cloud
It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
-1
-35 C to -50 C
0 C to -10 C
+10 C to 0 C
-1
If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such cloud
In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5 C
Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
-1
Page 884 of 1247

1 SWITZERL Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4363A) Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC? 4 UNKNOW (For this question use annex 050-4725A) Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
rispostaA
Any cloud
rispostaB
Hail
rispostaC
Water vapour
rispostaD
Fog
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 =
26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =
21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG =
-1
SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African coast south of 15 N. increases and its temperature decreases
warm southerly dustbearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa.
localised depression giving squally winds.
NE wind affecting northwest Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dust. increases and its temperature increases
-1
1 UNKNOW
decreases and its temperature decreases
decreases and its temperature increases
-1
4 UNKNOW
All pilots encountering severe Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs :
extreme
moderate
light
-1
7 NETHERL
during the whole year in during the whole year in only in the summer of the southern the northern hemisphere the northern hemisphere hemisphere at approx. 45 000 FT
only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30 000 FT
-1
Page 885 of 1247

3 UNKNOW Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of : The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest
rispostaA
surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
rispostaB
surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline.
rispostaC
surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the USA. behind is colder than the cold air in front.
rispostaD
surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Runion. behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 UNKNOW
-1
2 UNKNOW
behind is less cold than in front of the surface the cold air in front, with position of front is only the warm air at a high at a high altitude. altitude. western Africa, where it is situated between the 10 N and 30N parallels, depending on the time of the year. QFE decreases and QNH increases. at the top of a marked surface-based inversion. western Africa between 10 and 20 N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July. QFE and QNH decrease. at the condensation level when there is no night radiation. FL 140
-1
2 UNKNOW
western Africa, at a the Atlantic ocean, latitude of 25 N in July. between latitudes 10 N and 30 N, depending on the time of year. QFE and QNH increase. at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction. FL 120 QFE increases and QNH decreases. at the top of the friction layer. FL 60
-1
2 UNKNOW
-1
3 UNKNOW
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use FL 20 annex 050-4367A) Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Shannon be found?
-1
Page 886 of 1247

3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4366A) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.
rispostaA
-12 C
rispostaB
-6 C
rispostaC
+5 C
rispostaD
-9 C
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 SWITZERL (For this question use Ridge of high pressure annex 050-4334A) Which of the following best describes Zone B? 3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4364A) Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4298A) Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave have moved ? LSZH
Depression
Col
-1
ENFB
EKCH
ESSA
-1
Position B
Position C
Position D
Position A
-1
Page 887 of 1247

3 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4362A) At which airport is the following weather development taking place? TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 = 3 SWITZERL Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice: TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS = What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports ? 3 SWITZERL Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ? SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc =
rispostaA
EKCH
rispostaB
EINN
rispostaC
ESSA
rispostaD
LSZH
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in the morning
That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF
That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
-1
Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC
The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR
-1
Page 888 of 1247

3 SWITZERL Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ? LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf = 3 SWITZERL Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
rispostaA
Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps
rispostaB
Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
rispostaC
Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
rispostaD
Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature 3 C, vertical visibility 100 metres
Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
-1
3 SWITZERL Which of the following Broken, cloudbase 600 statements is an feet and 1500 feet, interpretation of the temperature 18 C METAR ? 25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW = 3 SWITZERL Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? 3 SWITZERL Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
Wind 250, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18 C
Mean wind speed 2038 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23 C
-1
34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
-1
24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 =
29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG =
04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =
15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
-1
Page 889 of 1247

3 SWITZERL Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4340A) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4338A) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revolving storm? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4337A) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing ?
rispostaA
Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230 , cloudbase 500 feet
rispostaB
Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
rispostaC
Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
rispostaD
Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Symbol b)
Symbol c)
Symbol d)
Symbol a)
-1
Symbol b)
Symbol a)
Symbol d)
Symbol c)
-1
Symbol c)
Symbol d)
Symbol a)
Symbol b)
-1
3 SWITZERL (For this question use 230/10 annex 050-4365A) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110.
200/30
040/10
250/20
-1
Page 890 of 1247

3 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
1000 FT at Ajaccio and 2000 FT at Calvi
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Marseille Information 8000 FT at Ajaccio and gives you the following 9000 FT at Calvi meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 1600 UTC : Ajaccio: wind 360 /2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa. Calvi: wind 040 /2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa. The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore: Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe.
4 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4305A) Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely to apply? 7 SWITZERL Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found ? 3 SWITZERL Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems ?
Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps.
Radiation fog is unlikely Thunderstorms may in Central Europe in the occur in the summer winter. months over Central Europe.
-1
Close to the ground
In the stratosphere
Just below the tropopause
At about 5500 metres altitude
-1
25 - 35
10 - 15
55 - 75
35 - 55
-1
Page 891 of 1247

3 SWITZERL Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical highpressure belt ?
rispostaA
25 - 35 .
rispostaB
10 - 15 .
rispostaC
35 - 55 .
rispostaD
55 - 75 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 SWITZERL An aircraft flying in the Behind. southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure ? 2 SWITZERL Where are you likely to At the centre of a highfind the strongest winds pressure system close to the ground?
To the left.
To the right.
In front.
-1
Where there is little In the transition zone At the centre of a lowvariation in pressure between two air masses pressure system over a large area during the winter months The actual speed at the time of recording 15 m/sec The average speed of the previous 10 minutes 25 m/sec
-1
3 SWITZERL What is the wind speed The average speed of The strongest gust in given in a METAR the previous 30 minutes the previous hour report based on? 1 SWITZERL What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec? 1 SWITZERL What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots? 1 SWITZERL What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour? 30 m/sec 20 m/sec
-1
-1
50 kt
55 kt
60 kt
70 kt
-1
45 km/h
35 km/h
55 km/h
60 km/h
-1
Page 892 of 1247

6 SWITZERL After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level ?
rispostaA
2280 feet.
rispostaB
660 feet.
rispostaC
1200 feet.
rispostaD
1740 feet.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
6 SWITZERL An aircraft lands at an 1080 FT airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate ? 5 SWITZERL If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ? 08015KT
700 FT
380 FT
0 FT
-1
05020KT
08005KT
11020KT
-1
6 SWITZERL You are flying at FL 15630 feet 160. Outside air temperature is -27 C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude? 5 SWITZERL If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground? 2 FRANCE The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about 14020KT
16370 feet
16910 feet
15090 feet
-1
17015KT
19040KT
16030KT
-1
39 000 FT
30 000 FT
32 000 FT
34 000 FT
-1
Page 893 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
zones of precipitation, particulary liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity 1 - 2 oktas
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
all clouds An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of 5 - 7 oktas
stratocumulus and its cumulonimbus, but vertical development provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail 1 - 4 oktas 3 - 4 oktas
3 SWITZERL What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT" ? 1 UNKNOW While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message: RVR runway 23: 400m This information indicates the A microburst phenomenon can arise in the
-1
length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.
meteorological visibility on runway 23.
portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in service.
minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.
-1
4 FRANCE
downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage. 560 FT.
downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage. 20 FT.
updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage. 11 FT.
-1
6 UNKNOW
The barometric -10 FT. compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading on the altimeter on the ground will be: An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately 7650 FT.
-1
6 UNKNOW
8600 FT.
8350 FT.
8000 FT.
-1
Page 894 of 1247

6 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
948 hPa.
rispostaC
942 hPa.
rispostaD
967 hPa.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
961 hPa. In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is An altimeter adjusted to 2922 FT. 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow
6 UNKNOW
4278 FT.
4194 FT.
3006 FT.
-1
4 UNITED KI A Foehn wind occurs on the
leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side It forms over land in winter divergence and widespread ascent
leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud
windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
-1
3 UNITED KI Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression? 3 UNITED KI A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of
It forms over the ocean in winter divergence and subsidence
It forms over land in summer convergence and subsidence
It forms over the ocean in summer convergence and widespread ascent
-1
-1
Page 895 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
11250 feet
rispostaC
11790 feet
rispostaD
11520 feet
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
6 SWITZERL You are planning to fly 12210 feet across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10 C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4297A) Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected? 2 SWITZERL Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ? 2 SWITZERL What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing? CS
ST
SC
AS
-1
Track B-C
Track A-D
Track A-E
Track B-D
-1
Mainly towering clouds
Mainly layered clouds
Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed It will first decrease then increase.
Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
-1
It will first increase then It will remain decrease. unchanged.
-1
Page 896 of 1247

2 SWITZERL What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes? 2 SWITZERL What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front ?
rispostaA
It will remain unchanged.
rispostaB
It will be decreasing.
rispostaC
It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
rispostaD
It will be increasing.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
It will remain unchanged.
It will have increased.
It will show a small increase or decrease.
It will have decreased.
-1
2 SWITZERL Read this description: A warm front "After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is being described? 2 SWITZERL With what type of cloud SC is "+TSRA" precipitation most commonly associated? 2 SWITZERL With what type of cloud CB, ST is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months ?
A blizzard
Weather at the back of a cold front
A cold front
-1
NS
CB
AS
-1
NS, CC
AS, NS
SC, AS
-1
Page 897 of 1247

2 SWITZERL Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?
rispostaA
NS
rispostaB
CI
rispostaC
AS
rispostaD
CB
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 SWITZERL With what type of cloud CB is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated? 2 SWITZERL With what type of cloud ST is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated? 2 SWITZERL With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" precipitation most commonly associated? 5 SWITZERL If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ? 2 SWITZERL Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form? 2 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4339A) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels? SC
CC
CU
ST
-1
CC
CB
AS
-1
ST
NS
AC
-1
25025KT
22010KT
22030KT
16020KT
-1
Strong surface winds
Very low temperatures
Little or no cloud
Very dry air
-1
Symbol a)
Symbol c)
Symbol b)
Symbol d)
-1
AS
CU
CI
SC
-1
Page 898 of 1247

1 SWITZERL A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? 1 SWITZERL A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels ? 1 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4274A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
rispostaA
100 - 1500 FT above the terrain
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
7000 - 15000 FT above 15000 - 25000 FT ground above ground
1500 - 7000 FT above ground
100 - 1500 FT above ground
-1
ST
CI
CB
AC
-1
-1
Page 899 of 1247

1 SWITZERL (For this question use annex 050-4273A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis? 1 SWITZERL Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions? 1 SWITZERL Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
rispostaA
2
rispostaB
3
rispostaC
4
rispostaD
1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
ST, AS
CU, CB
NS, CU
CB, CC
-1
It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity Headwind
It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown Crosswind from the left
It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass Crosswind from the right
-1
6 SWITZERL An aircraft is Tailwind approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon ?
-1
Page 900 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Headwind
rispostaC
Crosswind from the right
rispostaD
Crosswind from the left
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Tailwind 6 SWITZERL An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon? 6 SWITZERL Which of the following It blows only at noon is true of a land breeze? 5 SWITZERL If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ? 2 SWITZERL Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog? 4 ICELAND 33025KT
It blows from land to water 23030KT
It blows from water to land 30025KT
It blows by day 27020KT
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
Dry, warm air passing over warm ground
The passage of fronts
Cold air passing over warm ground
-1
Continuous updraughts period in which occur in a thunderstorm precipitation is falling. during the With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is :
cumulus stage.
mature stage.
dissipating stage.
-1
3 ICELAND
strong wind with strong wind associated strong wind shear, subsidence at low levels with an almost clear sky convection and snow showers
light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
-1
2 ICELAND
The degree of clear air height of the aircraft turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the
stability of the air
intensity of the solar radiation
intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
-1
Page 901 of 1247

4 ICELAND Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion ? What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ? Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around highand low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart. What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?
rispostaA
mature stage.
rispostaB
cumulus stage.
rispostaC
dissipating stage.
rispostaD
period in which precipitation is not falling. a cold front has passed
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 ICELAND
there are thunderstorms in the area Cirrus clouds.
a warm front has passed Stratus clouds.
freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude Snow.
-1
1 ICELAND
Freezing rain.
-1
2 ICELAND
Advection.
Steam.
Orographic.
Radiation.
-1
2 ICELAND
When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.
Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars.
Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature.
When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds.
-1
2 ICELAND
Katabatic force
The pressure gradient force
Coriolis force
Surface friction
-1
1 ICELAND
The most dangerous dry ice. form of airframe icing is
rime ice.
clear ice.
hoar frost.
-1
61
2 UNITED KI When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn : anti-clockwise giving an clockwise giving an apparent turn toward apparent turn toward the south the north clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north 0 -1 0 0
Page 902 of 1247

3 UNKNOW Given: True Heading = 180 TAS = 500 kt W/V 225 / 100 kt Calculate the GS? Given: True heading = 310 TAS = 200 kt GS = 176 kt Drift angle 7 right. Calculate the W/V?
rispostaA
435 kt
rispostaB
600 kt
rispostaC
535 kt
rispostaD
450 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 UNKNOW
090 / 33 kt
180 / 33 kt
270 / 33 kt
360 / 33 kt
-1
1 UNITED KI On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the: 1 UNITED KI On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the: 1 UNITED KI The chart distance between meridians 10 apart at latitude 65 North is 3.75 inches. The chart scale at this latitude approximates: 1 UNITED KI A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels:
meridian of tangency
Equator, parallel of datum meridian and origin and prime vertical meridian perpendicular to it north and south limits of the chart standard parallels
prime meridian and the equator
-1
parallel of origin
Equator
-1
1 : 6 000 000
1 : 2 500 000
1 : 3 000 000
1 : 5 000 000
-1
shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
the scale is only correct shows all great circles along the standard as straight lines parallels
the scale is only correct at parallel of origin
-1
Page 903 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-2325A to 061-2325D) An aircraft takes off from Guam at 2300 Standard Time on 30 April local date. After a flight of 11 HR 15 MIN it lands at Los Angeles (California). What is the Standard Time and local date of arrival (assume summer time rules apply)? 5 UNITED KI Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial Reference System (IRS) display is correct?
rispostaA
1715 on 30 April
rispostaB
1215 on 1 May
rispostaC
1315 on 1 May
rispostaD
1615 on 30 April
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The positions from the It is not updated once two IRSs are compared the IRS mode is set to to obtain a 'best NAV position' which is displayed on the IRS under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
It is constantly updated from information obtained by the FMC
It is updated when 'goaround' is selected on take-off
-1
2 UNITED KI When turning right over-indicate the turn from 330 (C) to and liquid swirl will 040 (C) in the northern decrease the effect hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will: 2 UNITED KI An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330 , after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read: 060
over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
-1
more than 060
more or less than 060 depending on the pendulous suspension used
less than 060
-1
Page 904 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field: 1 UNITED KI A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an: 1 UNITED KI Isogonals converge at the: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-2326A to 061-2326D) When it is 0600 Standard Time in Queensland (Australia) the Standard Time in Hawaii (USA) is: 3 UNKNOW Given: Magnetic heading 311 Drift angle 10 left Relative bearing of NDB 270 What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft? The great circle distance between position A (59 34.1'N 008 08.4'E) and B (30 25.9'N 171 51.6'W) is: On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60 isogonal
rispostaD
is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50 N and 50S isotach
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
weakens with weakens with increasing distance increasing distance from the magnetic poles from the nearer magnetic pole agonic line aclinic line
-1
Magnetic equator
North magnetic pole only 0600
North and South magnetic poles only 1000
North and South geographic and magnetic poles 1200
-1
0200
-1
208
211
180
221
-1
2 FRANCE
2 700 NM
10 800 NM
5 400 NM
10 800 km
-1
2 UNKNOW
curves concave to the pole of projection
straight lines within the standard parallels
curves concave to the parallel of origin
straight lines regardless of distance
-1
Page 905 of 1247

1 FRANCE On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45 North, a certain length represents 70 NM. At latitude 30 North, the same length represents approximately:
rispostaA
57 NM
rispostaB
70 NM
rispostaC
81 NM
rispostaD
86 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 FRANCE
Given: 38 39'E Position A 45 N, ? E Position B 45 N, 45 15'E Distance A-B = 280 NM B is to the East of A Required: longitude of position A? On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70 S 065 E) to position B (70 S 025 W). The true course on departure from position A is approximately: 315
49 57'E
51 51'E
40 33'E
-1
3 FRANCE
225
250
135
-1
1 FRANCE
On a direct Mercator 1 : 4 750 000 projection, the distance measured between two meridians spaced 5 apart at latitude 60 N is 8 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60 N is approximately:
1 : 7 000 000
1 : 6 000 000
1 : 3 500 000
-1
Page 906 of 1247

3 FRANCE Given: Magnetic heading = 255 VAR = 40 W GS = 375 kt W/V = 235 (T) / 120 kt Calculate the drift angle? On a Mercator chart, the scale:
rispostaA
16 right
rispostaB
7 left
rispostaC
7 right
rispostaD
9 left
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNKNOW
is constant throughout the chart
varies as 1/2 cosine of the co-latitude -65 kt
varies as 1/cosine of latitude (1/cosine= secant) -55 kt
varies as the sine of the latitude -45 kt
-1
3 FRANCE
For a given track the: -35 kt Wind component = +45 kt Drift angle = 15 left TAS = 240 kt What is the wind component on the reverse track? As the INS position of 080 27.4'W the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35 32.7'N 139 46.3'W are input instead of 35 32.7'N 139 46.3'E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point 52 N 180 W, the longitude value shown on the INS will be: Given the following: 180 True track: 192 Magnetic variation: 7 E Drift angle: 5 left What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
-1
5 UNKNOW
099 32.6'W
099 32.6'E
080 27.4'E
-1
1 UNKNOW
190
194
204
-1
Page 907 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
072
rispostaC
056
rispostaD
064
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
048 Given the following: Magnetic heading: 060 Magnetic variation: 8 W Drift angle: 4 right What is the true track? An aircraft is following 192 kt, 7 right a true track of 048 at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind velocity is 350 / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are: Given: FL 350, Mach 0.80, OAT -55 C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)? 461 kt , LSS 296 kt
3 UNKNOW
200 kt, 3.5 right
192 kt, 7 left
225 kt, 7 left
-1
5 UNKNOW
461 kt , LSS 576 kt
237 kt, LSS 296 kt
490 kt, LSS 461 kt
-1
1 UNITED KI The total length of the 1 : 30 000 000 53 N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30 S? 3 FRANCE Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A (80 N 000 ) and B (70 N 102 W) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035 W. At point B, the true course is: 023
1 : 18 000 000
1 : 21 000 000
1 : 25 000 000
-1
247
305
203
-1
Page 908 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12584A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120 /35 NM. What is the aircraft position? 1 UNITED KI The value of magnetic variation: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annexes 061-2305A and 061-2305B) When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard Time in Algeria is: 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
N5250 W00950
rispostaB
N5230 W00800
rispostaC
N5300 W00945
rispostaD
N5225 W00805
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
must be 0 at the magnetic equator 1200
varies between a maximum of 45 East and 45 West 1300
cannot exceed 90
has a maximum of 180
-1
0700
0800
-1
On a Direct Mercator 124.2 NM chart at latitude 15 S, a certain length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10 N, a distance of :
118.2 NM
122.3 NM
117.7 NM
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 0930 annex 061-2304A) The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG (Canada) (49 50'N 097 30'W) is: 1 UNITED KI Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day? 66
0113
2230
1413
-1
68
72
62
-1
Page 909 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the convergence angle between longitudes 010 E and 030 W is 30 , is: 1 UNITED KI A ground feature appears 30 to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355 (M) and the magnetic variation is 15 East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is:
rispostaA
0.50
rispostaB
0.64
rispostaC
0.75
rispostaD
0.40
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
310
130
160
220
-1
1 UNITED KI The constant of cone of 68 25' a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955. At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12585A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 165 /36 NM. What is the aircraft position? N5210 W00830
21 35'
23 18'
66 42'
-1
N5208 W00840
N5315 W00915
N5317 W00908
-1
Page 910 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12586A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 232 /32 NM. What is the aircraft position? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12587A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 025 /49 NM. What is the aircraft position? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12588A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 048 /22 NM. What is the aircraft position?
rispostaA
N5228 W00935
rispostaB
N5303 W00810
rispostaC
N5220 W00930
rispostaD
N5305 W00815
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
N5155 W00915
N5200 W0925
N5330 W00830
N5328 W00820
-1
N5228 W00920
N5300 W0830
N5258 W00825
N5225 W00917
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use SHA 205 annex 061-12589A) CRK 321 Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7 Aircraft position N5220 W00910 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?
SHA 033 CRK 149
SHA 212 CRK 328
SHA 025 CRK 141
-1
Page 911 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
SHA 131 CRK 017
rispostaC
SHA 304 CRK 189
rispostaD
SHA 312 CRK 197
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
SHA 124 3 UNITED KI (For this question use CRK 009 annex 061-12590A) Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7 Aircraft position N5230 W00820 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? 1 UNKNOW In order to maintain an without damping and a accurate vertical using period of 84.4 SEC a pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device:
with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC
with damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use SHA 042 annex 061-12592A) CON 138 Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1 Aircraft position N5330 W00800 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? 2 UNITED KI On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a: curve convex to the equator
SHA 213 CON 310
SHA 033 CON 130
SHA 221 CON 318
-1
straight line
curve concave to the equator
complex curve
-1
Page 912 of 1247

2 UNITED KI An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the initial heading was 135 , after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read:
rispostaA
225
rispostaB
less than 225
rispostaC
more or less than 225 depending on the pendulous suspension used
rispostaD
more than 225
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNITED KI At 47 North the chart 1 : 8 000 000 distance between meridians 10 apart is 5 inches. The scale of the chart at 47 North approximates: 2 UNITED KI When accelerating on a clockwise giving an westerly heading in the apparent turn towards northern hemisphere, the north the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn: 2 UNKNOW On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a: small circle concave to the nearer pole
1 : 3 000 000
1 : 2 500 000
1 : 6 000 000
-1
clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
anti-clockwise giving an anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards apparent turn towards the north the south
-1
spiral curve
curve convex to the nearer pole
straight line
-1
Page 913 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12595A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 41 NM, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM, Aircraft heading 270 (M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position? 2 UNITED KI When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn :
rispostaA
N5225 W00810
rispostaB
N5215 W00805
rispostaC
N5205 W00915
rispostaD
N5215 W00915
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
anti-clockwise giving an clockwise giving an apparent turn towards apparent turn toward the north the south
anti-clockwise giving an clockwise giving an apparent turn towards apparent turn towards the south the north
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use SHA 137 annex 061-12593A) CON 046 Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1 Aircraft position N5320 W00950 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? 3 UNITED KI In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimised by: positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
SHA 317 CON 226
SHA 145 CON 055
SHA 325 CON 235
-1
using a vertically mounted gyroscope
mounting the detector unit in the wingtip
the use of repeater cards
-1
Page 914 of 1247

1 UNITED KI What is the chart distance between longitudes 179 E and 175 W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 5 000 000 at the equator?
rispostaA
167 mm
rispostaB
72 mm
rispostaC
133 mm
rispostaD
106 mm
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI At 60 N the scale of a 1 : 3 000 000 direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 000 000. What is the scale at the equator? 1 UNITED KI In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately: 1 : 7 000 000
1 : 3 500 000
1 : 1 500 000
1 : 6 000 000
-1
1 : 1 300 000
1 : 700 000
1 : 130 000
-1
2 UNITED KI The Great Circle 150 (T) bearing of 'B' (70 S 060 E), from 'A' (70 S 030 W), is approximately: 1 UNITED KI On a Lambert 1 : 2 000 000 Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5 apart along latitude 37 North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:
090 (T)
315 (T)
135 (T)
-1
1 : 6 000 000
1 : 5 000 000
1 : 3 750 000
-1
Page 915 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
SHA 060 CRK 138
rispostaC
SHA 240 CRK 137
rispostaD
SHA 248 CRK 325
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
SHA 068 3 UNITED KI (For this question use CRK 145 annex 061-12591A) Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7 Aircraft position N5230 W00930 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12594A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM, Aircraft heading 270 (M), Both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position? 3 UNKNOW The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces an error in the position given by this unit. "t" being the elapsed time. The total error is: N5235 W00750
N5200 W00935
N5215 W00940
N5215 W00745
-1
proportional to t/2
sinusodal
proportional to t
proportional to the square of time, t
-1
Page 916 of 1247

7 UNKNOW For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed "out" of 385 kt, a ground speed "back" of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:
rispostaA
1685 NM
rispostaB
1532 NM
rispostaC
930 NM
rispostaD
1865 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
7 UNKNOW
Two points A and B are 470 NM 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt. On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt. On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt. What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the the Point of Equal Time (PET)? Given: GD = (AD X GS)/TAS AD = Air distance GD = Ground distance TAS = True Airspeed GS = Groundspeed Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone? During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is north aligned by inputs from: horizontal accelerometers and the east gyro
455 NM
500 NM
530 NM
-1
7 UNKNOW
GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
GD = AD X (GS TAS)/GS
GD = TAS/(GS X AD)
-1
2 UNKNOW
the aircraft remote reading compass system
computer matching of measured gravity magnitude to gravity magnitude of initial alignment
vertical accelerometers and the north gyro
-1
Page 917 of 1247

5 ICELAND Given: TAS 487kt, FL 330, Temperature ISA + 15. Calculate the MACH Number? An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer: WPT 1: 60 N 030 W WPT 2: 60 N 020 W When 025 W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:
rispostaA
0.76
rispostaB
0.78
rispostaC
0.81
rispostaD
0.84
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 UNKNOW
60 00.0'N
59 49.0'N
60 11.0'N
60 05.7'N
-1
1 UNITED KI Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as "strapdown". This means that: 3 UNKNOW The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of 0.01 /HR. After a flight of 12 HR with a ground speed of 500 kt, the error on the aeroplane position is approximately :
only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure 6 NM
gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft 60 NM
gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference 12 NM
the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure 1 NM
-1
-1
Page 918 of 1247

6 FRANCE Given: A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian. Grid track 344 , Longitude 115 00'W, Calculate the true course? With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is: The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies: Given: Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000. The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres. Earth distance is approximately : On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45 N and 46 N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately: At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a direct reading compass :
rispostaA
099
rispostaB
279
rispostaC
049
rispostaD
229
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNKNOW
required to provide a W/V read out
not required
required for Polar navigation
required for rhumb line navigation
-1
1 FRANCE
inversely with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field 40 NM
directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field 74 NM
directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field 100 NM
inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field 4 NM
-1
1 FRANCE
-1
1 FRANCE
1 : 185 000
1 : 18 500 000
1 : 1 850 000
1 : 1 000 000
-1
2 FRANCE
underreads the heading indicates a turn to the south
indicates the correct heading
overreads the heading
-1
Page 919 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right angles to the local vertical by applying corrections for the effects of: 2 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation
rispostaD
aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
gyroscopic inertia, earth vertical velocities, earth rotation and real drift precession, centrifugal forces and transport drift
Given: 6 378.4 value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the Poles?
6 367.0
6 399.9
6 356.9
-1
3 UNITED KI Given: 31 kt Runway direction 230 (T), Surface W/V 280 (T)/40 kt. Calculate the effective cross-wind component? 3 UNKNOW The duration of civil twilight is the time: agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes Just after take-off
36 kt
21 kt
26 kt
-1
needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0 to the apparent height of 6 At top of climb
between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12 below the true horizon At top of descent
between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6 below the true horizon On final approach
-1
5 UNITED KI In which of the following situations is the FMC present position of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System likely to be least accurate?
-1
Page 920 of 1247

5 UNITED KI What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? 5 UNITED KI Which of the following can all be stored as five letter waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? 1 SWEDEN Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely correct?
rispostaA
Urgent and Routine
rispostaB
Priority and Alerting
rispostaC
Urgent and Advisory
rispostaD
Alerting and Advisory
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Waypoint names; navaid frequencies; runway codes; airport ICAO identifiers
Waypoint names; navaid positions; airport ICAO identifiers; airport names
Waypoint names; navaid identifiers; runway numbers; airport ICAO identifiers
Airway names; navaid identifiers; airport names; waypoint code numbers
-1
An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip
An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic connects places with the same magnetic field strength Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place bearing; along-track displacement; latitude and longitude
An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place distance; along/across-track displacement; latitude and longitude
An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the agonic line is the line of zero magnetic dip Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place bearing; latitude and longitude; waypoint name
-1
5 UNITED KI Which of the following lists all the methods that can be used to enter 'Created Waypoints' into the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
Identifier bearing/distance; place distance/place distance; along-track displacement; latitude and longitude
-1
Page 921 of 1247

3 ICELAND
rispostaA
rispostaB
340 /98 kt
rispostaC
155 /25 kt
rispostaD
160 /50 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
340 /25 kt Given: Compass Heading 090 , Deviation 2 W, Variation 12 E, TAS 160 kt. Whilst maintaining a radial 070 from a VOR station, the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN. What is the W/V (T)? Given: Pressure Altitude 29000 FT, OAT -55 C. Calculate the Density Altitude? 27500 FT
5 ICELAND
31000 FT
33500 FT
26000 FT
-1
6 UNKNOW
(For this question use 1344 annex 061-1829A and the data for 1300 UTC) 1300 UTC DR position 37 30'N 021 30'W alter heading PORT SANTO NDB (33 03'N 016 23'W) TAS 450 kt, Forecast W/V 360 /30kt. Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB? The angle between the 23.5 plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately :
1341
1354
1348
-1
1 FRANCE
25.3
27.5
66.5
-1
Page 922 of 1247

6 UNKNOW (For this question use annex 061-1828A and the data for 1215 UTC) 1215 UTC LAJES VORTAC (38 46'N 027 05'W) RMI reads 178 , range 135 NM. Calculate the aircraft position at 1215 UTC?
rispostaA
41 00'N 028 10'W
rispostaB
41 05'N 027 50'W
rispostaC
40 55'N 027 55'W
rispostaD
40 50'N 027 40'W
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNKNOW
On the 27th of 0523 UTC February, at 52 S and 040 E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52 S and 035 W, the sunrise is at: An aeroplane flies from varies by 10 A (59 S 142 W) to B (61 S 148 W) with a TAS of 480 kt. The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB track is active. On route AB, the true track: The rhumb-line 300 NM distance between points A (60 00'N 002 30'E) and B (60 00'N 007 30'W) is:
0743 UTC
0243 UTC
2143 UTC
-1
2 UNKNOW
decreases by 6
varies by 4
increases by 5
-1
5 UNKNOW
450 NM
600 NM
150 NM
-1
Page 923 of 1247

1 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
332
rispostaC
028
rispostaD
208
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
031 An aircraft is over position HO (55 30'N 060 15'W), where YYR VOR (53 30'N 060 15'W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31 W at HO and 28 W at YYR. What is the radial from YYR? Given: TAS = 485 kt, OAT = ISA +10 C, FL 410. Calculate the Mach Number? (For this question use annex 061-1818A) Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian. An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a distance of 480 NM along the 110 E meridian, then follows a grid track of 154 for a distance of 300 NM. Its position is now approximately: 0.87
5 UNKNOW
0.825
0.90
0.85
-1
6 FRANCE
70 15'N 080 E
80 00'N 080 E
78 45'N 087 E
79 15'N 074 E
-1
2 UNKNOW
The rhumb line track 345 between position A (45 00'N, 010 00'W) and position B (48 30'N, 015 00'W) is approximately:
315
330
300
-1
Page 924 of 1247

3 ICELAND
rispostaA
rispostaB
020 /95 kt
rispostaC
025 /47 kt
rispostaD
200 /95 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
025 /45 kt Given: M 0.80, OAT -50 C, FL 330, GS 490 kt, VAR 20 W, Magnetic heading 140, Drift is 11 Right. Calculate the true W/V? On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians: Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130 00E. Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of 225 (T). The coordinates of position B are: is zero throughout the chart
1 UNKNOW
varies as the secant of the latitude
equals earth convergency at the standard parallels 01 11'N 131 11'E
is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin 01 11'S 131 11'E
-1
2 UNKNOW
01 11'N 128 49'E
01 11'S 128 49'E
-1
2 UNKNOW
The maximum 90 North and South difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about: Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have: An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56 N 070 W to 62 N 110 E. The total distance travelled is? The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the: the same variation
0 North and South (equator)
45 North and South
60 North and South
-1
4 ICELAND
O magnetic dip
the same grivation
the same horizontal magnetic field strength 5420 NM
-1
2 ICELAND
1788 NM
2040 NM
3720 NM
-1
1 UNKNOW
scale at the equator
scale at the standard parallels
mean scale between pole and equator
mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone
-1
Page 925 of 1247

1 UNKNOW The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a: A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1 : 3 704 000. What is the scale at latitude 60 S? A chart has the scale 1 : 1 000 000. From A to B on the chart measures 1.5 inches (one inch equals 2.54 centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is :
rispostaA
Direct Mercator projection
rispostaB
Gnomonic projection
rispostaC
Lambert conformal projection
rispostaD
Stereographical projection
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNKNOW
1 : 3 208 000
1 : 185 200
1 : 1 852 000
1 : 7 408 000
-1
1 ICELAND
20.6
38.1
44.5
54.2
-1
1 UNKNOW
The standard parallels 0.42 of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07 40'N and 38 20' N. The constant of the cone for this chart is: Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points : having the same elevation above sea level
0.39
0.60
0.92
-1
3 ICELAND
with the same variation
having the same longitude 1 : 5 000 000
of equal latitude
-1
1 UNKNOW
A straight line drawn on 1 : 6 000 000 a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is: On a Polar 030 (T) Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70 N 060 W to B 70 N 060 E is approximately:
1 : 3 000 000
1 : 1 000 000
-1
3 UNKNOW
330 (T)
150 (T)
210 (T)
-1
Page 926 of 1247

2 ICELAND An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed? How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ? 730 FT/MIN equals: 265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80) Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:
rispostaA
209 kt
rispostaB
131 kt
rispostaC
160 kt
rispostaD
183 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 ICELAND
0 MIN 34 SEC
1 MIN 07 SEC
1 MIN 55 SEC
2 MIN 30 SEC
-1
2 ICELAND 2 ICELAND 4 NETHERL
5.2 m/sec 862 kg True North and Compass North
1.6 m/sec 895 kg the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field 67.20 NM
2.2 m/sec 940 kg Magnetic North and Compass North 3.69 NM
3.7 m/sec 803 kg True North and Magnetic North 36.30 NM
0 0 0
0 0 0
0 0 -1
-1 -1 0
1 UNKNOW
The distance measured 370.00 NM between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the chart is 1:1 600 000. The actual distance between these two point is approximately: Isogonic lines connect positions that have: the same angle of magnetic dip
-1
4 ICELAND 5 FRANCE
the same variation 284
0 variation 263
the same elevation 270
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
An aircraft travels from 277 point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The coordinates of A (45 S 010 W) and B (45 S 030 W) have been entered. The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is:
Page 927 of 1247

5 ICELAND
rispostaA
rispostaB
-66 C
rispostaC
-81 C
rispostaD
-50 C
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
What is the ISA -56 C temperature value at FL 330? When an aircraft on a lag behind the turning westerly heading on the rate of the aircraft northern hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to: When is the magnetic compass most effective? The diameter of the Earth is approximately: An Agonic line is a line that connects: What is the local mean time, position 65 25'N 123 45'W at 2200 UTC? In the region of the magnetic North Pole. 40 000 km positions that have 0 variation 2200
2 ICELAND
indicate a turn towards the south
to turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft
indicate a turn towards the north
-1
1 ICELAND
On the geographic equator 12 700 km positions that have the same variation 0615
About midway between the magnetic poles 6 350 km points of equal magnetic dip 0815
In the region of the magnetic South Pole. 18 500 km points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength 1345
-1
2 UNKNOW 4 ICELAND
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
3 ICELAND
-1
2 ICELAND
Parallels of latitude on a parallel straight lines Direct Mercator chart equally spaced are : The Local Mean Time at longitude 095 20'W, at 0000 UTC, is : 1738:40 same day
arcs of concentric circles equally spaced 0621:20 same day
straight lines converging above the pole 1738:40 previous day
parallel straight lines unequally spaced 0621:20 previous day
-1
3 ICELAND
-1
2 UNKNOW
In order to fly from the great-circle route position A (10 00'N, 030 00'W) to position B (30 00'N, 050 00'W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly: The circumference of the earth is approximately: 10800 NM
a straight line plotted on a rhumb line track a Lambert chart
the constant average drift route
-1
2 ICELAND
21600 NM
43200 NM
5400 NM
-1
Page 928 of 1247

4 ICELAND Given: true track is 348 , drift 17 left, variation 32 W, deviation 4 E. What is the compass heading? What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ?
rispostaA
033
rispostaB
007
rispostaC
359
rispostaD
337
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 ICELAND
1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres
1 litre equals 4.55 USGAL 4 HR 32 MIN
1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres 3 HR 12 MIN
1 litre equals 3.78 USGAL 3 HR 53 MIN
-1
2 ICELAND
Fuel flow per HR is 22 2 HR 15 MIN US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL. What is the endurance? What is the meaning of the term "standard time" ? A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes: A Rhumb line is : It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA is approximately a Great Circle
-1
3 ICELAND
It is an expression for local mean time
It is another term for UTC
It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country can only be a parallel of latitude
-1
2 ICELAND
is a Loxodromic line
is a Rhumb line
-1
2 ICELAND
a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection 75 00'
a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle 78 45'
the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection 80 05'
any straight line on a Lambert projection
-1
3 ICELAND
5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of:
81 10'
-1
1 UNITED KI The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/ Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to:
both gyro-stabilised platform and 'strapdown' systems
only gyro-stabilised systems
both gyro-stabilised and only to 'strapdown' laser laser gyro systems but gyro systems only when operating in the non 'strapdown' mode
-1
Page 929 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12603A) Given: CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739) What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12602A) Given: CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917) What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Castlebar aerodrome?
rispostaA
296 - 46 NM
rispostaB
304 - 47 NM
rispostaC
124 - 46 NM
rispostaD
116 - 47 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
265
- 17 NM
077
- 18 NM
257
- 17 NM
086
- 18 NM
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer 154 to annex 061-12601A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928) What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Connemara aerodrome?
- 38 NM
326
- 37 NM
146
- 38 NM
333
- 37 NM
-1
Page 930 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12600A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754) What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Birr aerodrome? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12599A) Given: CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4) What is the CRK radial and DME distance when overhead Kerry aerodrome? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12598A) Given: CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM, CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM, Aircraft heading 270 (M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position?
rispostaA
240 - 41 NM
rispostaB
068 - 41 NM
rispostaC
248 - 42 NM
rispostaD
060 - 42 Nm
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
119
- 44 NM
127
- 45 NM
299
- 42 NM
307
- 43 NM
-1
N5330 W00820
N5343 W00925
N5335 W00925
N5337 W00820
-1
Page 931 of 1247

3 NETHERL Given: TAS = 125 kt, True HDG = 355 , W/V = 320 (T)/30kt. Calculate the true track and GS?
rispostaA
002 - 98 kt
rispostaB
005 - 102 kt
rispostaC
345 - 100 kt
rispostaD
348 - 102 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12596A) Given: CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM, Aircraft heading 270 (M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12606A) What feature is shown on the chart at position N5311 W00637? 1 UNITED KI Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial Reference System that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes (RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is completely correct?
N5307 W00923
N5355 W00825
N5310 W00830
N5252 W00923
-1
Punchestown aerodrome
Connemara aerodrome
KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
Clonbullogue aerodrome
-1
The platform is kept stable relative to the earth mathematically rather than mechanically but it has a longer 'spin up' time
It does not suffer from 'lock in' error and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces
There is little or no 'spin There is little or no 'spin up' time and it does not up' time and it is suffer from 'lock in' error insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces
-1
Page 932 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The resultant of the first integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in NAV MODE is: 1 UNITED KI One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezoelectric motor, that is used to correct this error? 3 SPAIN The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the: Given: TAS = 370 kt, True HDG = 181 , W/V = 095 (T)/35kt. Calculate the true track and GS?
rispostaA
change of longitude
rispostaB
vehicle longitude
rispostaC
departure
rispostaD
velocity along the local parallel of latitude
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
cavity rotation
zero drop
beam lock
dither
-1
inclination of the ecliptic earth's rotation to the equator
relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth 192 - 370 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
189 - 370 kt
186 - 370 kt
176 - 370 kt
-1
3 UNITED KI A direct reading compass should be swung when:
the aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings
there is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude
there is a large change in magnetic longitude
the aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently moved
-1
Page 933 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12597A) Given: CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM, Aircraft heading 090 (M), Both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position?
rispostaA
N5255 W00815
rispostaB
N5250 W0030
rispostaC
N5305 W00930
rispostaD
N5310 W00820
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL370 is 1650 FT/MIN required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at FL120. If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is approximately: 3 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL140, 15 kt IAS 210 kt, OAT -5 C and wind component minus 35 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150 NM from the reporting point the IAS should be reduced by:
2400 FT/MIN
1000 FT/MIN
1550 FT/MIN
-1
20 kt
25 kt
30 kt
-1
Page 934 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12613A) Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5211 W00705? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12612A) Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5318.1 W00856.5? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12611A) Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5416.7 W00836.0? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12610A) Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5318.0 W00626.9? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12609A) Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12604A) What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 W00931?
rispostaA
VOR: NDB
rispostaB
civil airport: ILS
rispostaC
NDB: ILS
rispostaD
civil airport: NDB
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point
civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
civil airport: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
-1
civil airport: NDB: DME: compulsory reporting point
civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
VOR: DME: NDB: noncompulsory reporting point
-1
military airport: VOR: NDB
VOR: DME: danger area
military airport: VOR: DME
civil airport: VOR: DME
-1
VOR: DME: NDB:compulsory reporting point
VOR: DME: NDB: ILS
civil airport: VOR: DME: compulsory reporting point
civil airport: VOR: noncompulsory reporting point
-1
Connemara aerodrome
Punchestown aerodrome
Waterford NDB
-1
Page 935 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12607A) What feature is shown on the chart at position N5351 W00917? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12605A) What feature is shown on the chart at position N5212 W00612?
rispostaA
Brittas Bay aerodrome
rispostaB
Castlebar aerodrome
rispostaC
Connaught aerodrome
rispostaD
Connemara aerodrome
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Clonbullogue aerodrome TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDB
WTD NDB
-1
1 UNITED KI The resultant of the change latitude first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is: 1 UNITED KI On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the quoted scale is correct: 3 NETHERL Given: True HDG = 002 , TAS = 130 kt, Track (T) = 353 , GS = 132 kt. Calculate the W/V? along the prime meridian
latitude
velocity along the local meridian
groundspeed
-1
along the two standard parallels
in the area between the standard parallels
along the parallel of origin
-1
095/25kt
095/20kt
090/15kt
090/20kt
-1
3 NETHERL
Given: 4 L - 145 kt TAS = 190 kt, True HDG = 085 , W/V = 110 (T)/50kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS?
8 L - 146 kt
7 L - 156 kt
4 L - 168 kt
-1
Page 936 of 1247

3 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
4 R - 165 kt
rispostaC
2 R - 166 kt
rispostaD
4 L - 167 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 L - 166 kt Given: TAS = 132 kt, True HDG = 257 W/V = 095 (T)/35kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt. The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately: 4500 FT/MIN
2 UNKNOW
3900 FT/MIN
6500 FT/MIN
650 FT/MIN
-1
4 UNITED KI (For this question use HDG 064 - ETA annex 061-9442A) 1449 UTC Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'L' to 'M'. What is the HDG (M) and ETA? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12608A) What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417 W01005? 3 NETHERL Given: TAS = 90 kt, HDG (T) = 355 , W/V = 120/20kt. Calculate the Track ( T) and GS? Belmullet aerodrome
HDG 075 - ETA 1452 UTC
-1
Carnmore aerodrome
Clonbullogue aerodrome EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB
-1
358 - 101 kt
359 - 102 kt
346 - 102 kt
006 - 95 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
Given: 262 - 237 kt TAS = 270 kt, Track (T) = 260 , W/V = 275/30kt. Calculate the HDG ( T) and GS?
264 - 241 kt
264 - 237 kt
262 - 241 kt
-1
Page 937 of 1247

3 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
099 - 199 kt
rispostaC
121 - 207 kt
rispostaD
121 - 199 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
097 - 201 kt Given: TAS = 200 kt, Track (T) = 110 , W/V = 015/40kt. Calculate the HDG ( T) and GS? Given: 075 - 213 kt TAS = 200 kt, Track (T) = 073 , W/V = 210/20kt. Calculate the HDG ( T) and GS? Given: 358 - 428 kt TAS = 465 kt, Track (T) = 007 , W/V = 300/80kt. Calculate the HDG ( T) and GS? Given: 312 - 232 kt TAS = 227 kt, Track (T) = 316 , W/V = 205/15kt. Calculate the HDG ( T) and GS? Given: 002 - 173 kt TAS = 130 kt, Track (T) = 003 , W/V = 190/40kt. Calculate the HDG ( T) and GS? Given: TAS = 375 kt, True HDG = 124 , W/V = 130 (T)/55kt. Calculate the true track and GS? 126 - 320 kt
3 NETHERL
077 - 210 kt
077 - 214 kt
079 - 211 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
001 - 432 kt
000 - 430 kt
357 - 430 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
311 - 230 kt
313 - 235 kt
310 - 233 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
359 - 166 kt
357 - 168 kt
001 - 170 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
125 - 318 kt
123 - 320 kt
125 - 322 kt
-1
Page 938 of 1247

3 NETHERL Given: TAS = 485 kt, HDG (T) = 168 , W/V = 130/75kt. Calculate the Track ( T) and GS? Given: True HDG = 133 , TAS = 225 kt, Track (T) = 144 , GS = 206 kt. Calculate the W/V? Given: TAS = 132 kt, HDG (T) = 053 , W/V = 205/15kt. Calculate the Track ( T) and GS? Given: TAS = 190 kt, HDG (T) = 355 , W/V = 165/25kt. Calculate the drift and GS? Given: TAS = 230 kt, HDG (T) = 250 , W/V = 205/10kt. Calculate the drift and GS? Given: TAS = 250 kt, HDG (T) = 029 , W/V = 035/45kt. Calculate the drift and GS? The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
rispostaA
175 - 420 kt
rispostaB
175 - 432 kt
rispostaC
174 - 428 kt
rispostaD
173 - 424 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 NETHERL
075/50kt
075/45kt
070/40kt
070/45kt
-1
3 NETHERL
057 - 144 kt
052 - 143 kt
051 - 144 kt
050 - 145 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
1R - 165 kt
1L - 215 kt
1L - 225 kt
1R - 175 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
1L - 225 kt
1R - 221 kt
2R - 223 kt
2L - 224 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
1L - 205 kt
1R - 205 kt
1L - 265 kt
1R - 295 kt
-1
1 UNKNOW
the vertical and horizontal plane
any plane
the horizontal plane
the vertical plane
-1
Page 939 of 1247

3 NETHERL Given: TAS = 205 kt, HDG (T) = 180 , W/V = 240/25kt. Calculate the drift and GS?
rispostaA
4L - 195 kt
rispostaB
6L - 194 kt
rispostaC
7L - 192 kt
rispostaD
3L - 190 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 NETHERL
Given: 305 - 169 kt TAS = 155 kt, Track (T) = 305 , W/V = 160/18kt. Calculate the HDG ( T) and GS? Given: TAS = 465 kt, HDG (T) = 124 , W/V = 170/80kt. Calculate the drift and GS? 4L - 400 kt
309 - 170 kt
309 - 141 kt
301 - 169 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
6L - 400 kt
8L - 415 kt
3L - 415 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
Given: 179 - 220 kt TAS = 198 kt, HDG ( T) = 180, W/V = 359/25. Calculate the Track( T) and GS? Given: TAS = 135 kt, HDG ( T) = 278, W/V = 140/20kt Calculate the Track ( T) and GS? Given: TAS = 225 kt, HDG ( T) = 123 , W/V = 090/60kt. Calculate the Track ( T) and GS? 283 - 150 kt
181 - 180 kt
180 - 183 kt
180 - 223 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
279 - 152 kt
282 - 148 kt
275 - 150 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
134 - 178 kt
134 - 188 kt
120 - 190 kt
128 - 180 kt
-1
Page 940 of 1247

3 NETHERL Given: TAS = 480 kt, HDG ( T) = 040 , W/V = 090/60kt. Calculate the Track ( T) and GS? Given: TAS = 155 kt, HDG (T) = 216 , W/V = 090/60kt. Caslculate the Track ( T) and GS? Given: TAS = 170 kt, HDG(T) = 100 , W/V = 350/30kt. Calculate the Track ( T) and GS? Given: True HDG = 307 , TAS = 230 kt, Track (T) = 313 , GS = 210 kt. Calculate the W/V? Given: TAS = 440 kt, HDG (T) = 349 W/V = 040/40kt. Calculate the drift and GS? Given: True HDG = 233 , TAS = 480 kt, Track (T) = 240 , GS = 523 kt. Calculate the W/V?
rispostaA
032 - 425 kt
rispostaB
036 - 435 kt
rispostaC
034 - 445 kt
rispostaD
028 - 415 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 NETHERL
226 - 186 kt
231 - 196 kt
224 - 175 kt
222 - 181 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
098 - 178 kt
109 - 182 kt
091 - 183 kt
103 - 178 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
265/30kt
260/30kt
257/35kt
255/25kt
-1
3 NETHERL
5L - 385 kt
4L - 415 kt
2L - 420 kt
6L - 395 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
105/75kt
110/75kt
115/70kt
110/80kt
-1
Page 941 of 1247

3 NETHERL Given: TAS = 95 kt, HDG (T) = 075 , W/V = 310/20kt. Calculate the drift and GS? Given: TAS = 140 kt, HDG (T) = 005 , W/V = 265/25kt. Calculate the drift and GS? Given: True HDG = 145 , TAS = 240 kt, Track (T) = 150 , GS = 210 kt. Calculate the W/V? Given: True HDG = 054 , TAS = 450 kt, Track (T) = 059 , GS = 416 kt. Calculate the W/V? Given: True HDG = 206 , TAS = 140 kt, Track (T) = 207 , GS = 135 kt. Calculate the W/V? Given: True HDG = 074 , TAS = 230 kt, Track (T) = 066 , GS = 242 kt. Calculate the W/V?
rispostaA
8R - 104 kt
rispostaB
9R - 108 kt
rispostaC
10L - 104 kt
rispostaD
9L - 105 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 NETHERL
11R - 142 kt
11R - 140 kt
10R - 146 kt
9R - 140 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
360/35kt
180/35kt
295/35kt
115/35kt
-1
3 NETHERL
010/45kt
010/50kt
005/50kt
010/55kt
-1
3 NETHERL
180/10kt
180/05kt
000/05kt
000/10kt
-1
3 NETHERL
180/40kt
180/35kt
180/30kt
185/35kt
-1
Page 942 of 1247

2 UNITED KI At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80. For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt, the latest time at which to commence descent is: 3 NETHERL
rispostaA
0451
rispostaB
0454
rispostaC
0445
rispostaD
0448
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Given: 5R - 207 kt TAS = 235 kt, HDG (T) = 076 W/V = 040/40kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? Given: 9 R - 143 kt TAS = 140 kt, True HDG = 302 , W/V = 045 (T)/45kt Calculate the drift angle and GS? Given: True Heading = 090 TAS = 200 kt W/V = 220 / 30 kt. Calculate the GS? 180 kt
7R - 204 kt
7L - 269 kt
5L - 255 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
9 L - 146 kt
18 R - 146 kt
16 L - 156 kt
-1
3 UNKNOW
200 kt
220 kt
230 kt
-1
3 UNKNOW
An aeroplane is flying 85 NM at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090 . The W/V is 045 / 50kt. How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour?
88 NM
56 NM
176 NM
-1
Page 943 of 1247

3 UNKNOW The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt, True HDG 090 , Drift angle 5 right, TAS 480 kt. SAT (static air temperature) -51 C. The W/V being experienced is: The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240 /35 kt. Runway 30 (300 ). What is the cross-wind component? An aircraft passes position A (60 00'N 120 00'W) on route to position B (60 00'N 140 30'W). What is the great circle track on departure from A?
rispostaA
220 / 60 kt
rispostaB
325 / 60 kt
rispostaC
320 / 60 kt
rispostaD
225 / 60 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNKNOW
30 kt
24 kt
27 kt
21 kt
-1
2 FRANCE
279
288
261
270
-1
2 FRANCE
A great circle track It increases by 6 joins position A (59 S 141 W) and B (61 S 148 W). What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B?
It decreases by 6
It increases by 3
It decreases by 3
-1
Page 944 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
36 W
rispostaC
38 W
rispostaD
41 W
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
34 W 3 UNITED KI A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75. The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40 N 050 W) to B is 043 (T) at A; course at B is 055 (T). What is the longitude of B? 3 UNKNOW A pilot receives the +/- 2 NM following signals from a VOR DME station: radial 180 +/- 1 , distance = 200 NM. What is the approximate error? Given: 3 R - 470 kt TAS = 470 kt, True HDG = 317 W/V = 045 (T)/45kt Calculate the drift angle and GS? Given: 4 L - 314 kt TAS = 290 kt, True HDG = 171 , W/V = 310 (T)/30kt Calculate the drift angle and GS? Given: 9 R - 533 kt TAS = 485 kt, True HDG = 226 , W/V = 110 (T)/95kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS?
+/- 7 NM
+/- 3.5 NM
+/- 1 NM
-1
3 NETHERL
5 L - 475 kt
5 R - 475 kt
5 L - 470 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
4 R - 310 kt
4 R - 314 kt
4 L - 310 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
7 R - 531 kt
9 R - 433 kt
8 L - 435 kt
-1
Page 945 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
IDENT - RTE DEPARTURE
rispostaC
POS INIT - RTE DEPARTURE
rispostaD
IDENT - POS INIT RTE
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
POS INIT - RTE 5 UNITED KI Which of the following IDENT lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? 5 FRANCE An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain; its height is approximately: 3640 FT
2210 FT
680 FT
1890 FT
-1
1 UNITED KI Assuming mid-latitudes (40 to 50 N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
Spring equinox and autumn equinox
Summer solstice and spring equinox
summer solstice and winter solstice
Winter solstice and autumn equinox
-1
1 UNITED KI At what approximate Beginning of January date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)? 2 FRANCE What is the longitude of 093 53.1'W a position 6 NM to the east of 58 42'N 094 00'W? The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called : drift
End of March
Beginning of July
End of June
-1
094 12.0'W
093 48.5'W
093 54.0'W
-1
4 NETHERL
variation
deviation
compass error
-1
3 UNITED KI The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used when:
synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements
compensating for deviation
setting local magnetic variation
setting the 'heading' pointer
-1
Page 946 of 1247

3 UNITED KI The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by: 5 UNITED KI How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the B737400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? 1 NETHERL
rispostaA
using long magnets
rispostaB
pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
rispostaC
keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping wires DME ranges and/ or VOR/ADF bearings
rispostaD
using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
DME/DME
DME/DME or VOR/DME
VOR/DME range and bearing
-1
Given: 9 W True track 180 Drift 8 R Compass heading 195 Deviation -2 Calculate the variation? The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the: red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth's surface 294
21 W
25 W
5 W
-1
1 SWEDEN
blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth's surface 278
red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth's surface 306
blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth's surface 322
-1
1 NETHERL
Given: True course 300 drift 8 R variation 10W deviation -4 Calculate the compass heading? Given: True Heading = 090 TAS = 180 kt GS = 180 kt Drift 5 right Calculate the W/V?
-1
3 UNKNOW
360 / 15 kt
190 / 15 kt
010 / 15 kt
180 / 15 kt
-1
Page 947 of 1247

1 NETHERL Given: true track 070 variation 30W deviation +1 drift 10 R Calculate the compass heading?
rispostaA
089
rispostaB
091
rispostaC
100
rispostaD
101
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 UNKNOW
If an aeroplane was to 240 kt circle around the Earth following parallel 60N at a ground speed of 480 kt. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of: Deviation applied to magnetic track magnetic heading gives: At what approximate 30 latitude is the length of one minute of arc along a meridian equal to one NM (1852 m) correct? An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04 00'N 030 00'W : 600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM West. The final position of the aircraft is: 04 00'N 030 00'W
550 kt
480 kt
960 kt
-1
4 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
compass heading 45
true heading 0
magnetic course 90
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
5 NETHERL
03 58'N 030 02'W
04 00'N 029 58'W
04 00'N 030 02'W
-1
Page 948 of 1247

5 NETHERL What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed from position 60 00'N 030 00'W? South for 3600 NM, East for 3600 NM, North for 3600 NM, West for 3600 NM. The final position of the aircraft is:
rispostaA
59 00'N 090 00'W
rispostaB
60 00'N 090 00'W
rispostaC
60 00'N 030 00'E
rispostaD
59 00'N 060 00'W
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 NETHERL
Given: 6L - 256kt TAS = 270 kt, True HDG = 270 , Actual wind 205 (T)/30kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS? Given: 6 R - 259 kt TAS = 270 kt, True HDG = 145 , Actual wind = 205 (T)/30kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? 002 10'W
6R - 251kt
8R - 259kt
6R - 259kt
-1
3 NETHERL
6 L - 256 kt
6 R - 251 kt
8 R - 261 kt
-1
5 UNITED KI An aircraft at position 60 N 005 W tracks 090 (T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will be: 1 NETHERL Given: true track 352 variation 11 W deviation is -5 drift 10 R. Calculate the compass heading?
000 15'E
000 40'E
005 15'E
-1
018
025
358
346
-1
Page 949 of 1247

2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 1 UNITED KI At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)? 4 UNITED KI The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called: 3 UNITED KI Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass? 2 UNITED KI Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass? 3 UNITED KI Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote reading compass as compared with a standby compass?
rispostaA
1800 FT/MIN
rispostaB
1900 FT/MIN
rispostaC
1600 FT/MIN
rispostaD
1700 FT/MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
End of December
Beginning of January
End of September
Beginning of July
-1
compass deviation
compass error
magnetic variation
alignment error
-1
Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes
After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudes
Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes
After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has been struck by lightning Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes
-1
-1
It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by pendulously suspending the detector unit
It is more reliable because it is operated electrically and power is always available from sources within the aircraft
It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass sensitivity
It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it employs, apart from the detector unit, existing aircraft equipment
-1
Page 950 of 1247

1 UNITED KI Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation. The charted values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually due to: 2 UNITED KI On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are:
rispostaA
magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or decrease
rispostaB
magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase.
rispostaC
a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to decrease.
rispostaD
an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to increase.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
parallel, equally inclined, equally spaced, vertical straight spaced, straight lines lines that meet at the nearer pole 088 122
parallel, unequally inclined, unequally spaced, vertical straight spaced, curved lines lines that meet at the nearer pole 268 302
-1
1 UNITED KI An island is observed by weather radar to be 15 to the left. The aircraft heading is 120 (M) and the magnetic variation 17 W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island? 2 UNITED KI On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north or south poles? 3 UNITED KI Given: Runway direction 305 (M), Surface W/V 260 (M)/30 kt. Calculate the crosswind component?
-1
Transverse Mercator
Polar stereographic
Direct Mercator
Lambert's conformal
-1
21 kt
24 kt
27 kt
18 kt
-1
Page 951 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
009 36'E
rispostaC
008 E
rispostaD
019 E
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
011 E 3 UNITED KI A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53 N 004 W) to B is 080 at A; course at B is 092 (T). What is the longitude of B? 2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 2 UNITED KI The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately: 1800 FT/MIN
1900 FT/MIN
2000 FT/MIN
1700 FT/MIN
-1
136 kt
145 kt 30 NM
210 kt 40 NM
35 kt 50 NM
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
3 UNITED KI An aircraft obtains a 60 NM relative bearing of 315 from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the same position is 270 . Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840?
Page 952 of 1247

2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL330 is rerquired to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100. The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?
rispostaA
1850 FT/MIN
rispostaB
1950 FT/MIN
rispostaC
1650 FT/MIN
rispostaD
1750 FT/MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI The convergence factor 38 15' of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.78535. At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented? 3 UNITED KI The distance between 8 Right positions A and B is 180 NM. An aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60 NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at position B? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 118 annex 061-12400A) What are the average magnetic course and distance between INGO VOR (N6350 W01640) and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W 00115)? 440 NM
51 45'
52 05'
80 39'
-1
2 Left
4 Right
6 Right
-1
117
494 NM
130
440 NM
131
494 NM
-1
Page 953 of 1247

3 UNITED KI Given: Runway direction 210 (M), Surface W/V 230 (M)/30kt. Calculate the crosswind component?
rispostaA
19 kt
rispostaB
16 kt
rispostaC
13 kt
rispostaD
10 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 UNITED KI The 'departure' 170 W between positions 60N 160 E and 60 N 'x' is 900 NM. What is the longitude of 'x'? 4 UNITED KI A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12405A) Which of the following beacons is 185 NM from AKRABERG (N6124 W00640)? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12404A) An aircraft on radial 110 at a range of 120 NM from SAXAVORD VOR (N6050 W00050) is at position: fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is obtained
140 W
145 E
175 E
-1
fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained
set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railway
-1
KIRKWALL (N5858 W 00254)
STORNOWAY (N5815 SUMBURGH (N5955 W00617) W00115)
SAXAVORD (N6050 W00050)
-1
N6127 W00443
N6010 E00255
N6109 E00255
N6027 E00307
-1
Page 954 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12403A) An aircraft on radial 315 at a range of 150 NM from MYGGENES NDB (N6206 W00732) is at position: 4 UNITED KI The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's surface where: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12401A) What are the average magnetic course and distance between position N6000 W02000 and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W 00115)?
rispostaA
N6320 W01205
rispostaB
N6020 W00405
rispostaC
N6345 W01125
rispostaD
N6040 W00320
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
the value of magnetic variation equals 90
a freely suspended compass needle will stand vertical 105 480 NM
isogonals converge
a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal 091 480 NM
-1
091
562 NM
105
562 NM
-1
5 UNITED KI A flight is to be made 540 from 'A' 49 S 180 E/W to 'B' 58 S, 180 E/W. The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is approximately: 3 NETHERL Given: 7 R - 487 kt TAS = 472 kt, True HDG = 005 , W/V = 110 (T)/50kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? ellipses
804
1000
1222
-1
6 L - 487 kt
7 R - 491 kt
7 L - 491 kt
-1
2 UNITED KI On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are:
curves convex to the equator 0.5
straight lines 0.0
curves concave to the equator 1.0
0 0
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
2 UNITED KI What is the value of the 0.866 convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?
Page 955 of 1247

2 UNITED KI Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart? 2 UNITED KI Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole ? 2 UNITED KI On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Straight lines
rispostaD
Curves concave to the Pole
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Ellipses around the Pole Curves convex to the Pole
They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the Pole
They are curves convex The higher the latitude to the Pole the closer they approximate to a straight line
Any straight line is a great circle
-1
expands between, and reduces outside, the standard parallels
is constant throughout the chart
reduces between, and expands outside, the standard parallels
is constant between, and expands outside, the standard parallels
-1
2 UNITED KI Which one of the They are all curves following, concerning concave to the equator great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is correct? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12402A) What are the initial true course and distance between positions N5800 W01300 and N6600 E00200? 032 470 NM
They approximate to straight lines between the standard parallels
They are all curves convex to the equator
With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator 042 635 NM
-1
036
638 NM
029
570 NM
-1
Page 956 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
4 HR 59 MIN
rispostaC
5 HR 00 MIN
rispostaD
5 HR 08 MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5 HR 03 MIN Given: GS = 95 kt. Distance from A to B = 480 NM. What is the time from A to B? to ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft for ease of maintenance 268 - 91 NM
3 UNITED KI The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12576A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12575A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1)? 5 UNITED KI In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during preflight to: 1 NETHERL
by having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation effects caused by the aircraft strucure 272 - 89 NM
to minimise the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits 270 - 90 NM
to maximise the units exposure to the earth's magnetic field
-1
278
- 89 NM
-1
010
- 71 NM
358
- 72 NM
006
- 71 NM
002
- 72 NM
-1
manually initialize the IRSs, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information
manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information 4 HR 25 MIN
automatically initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information 3 HR 25 MIN
manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information 3 HR 26 MIN
-1
Given: GS = 435 kt. 4 HR 10 MIN Distance from A to B = 1920 NM. What is the time from A to B?
-1
Page 957 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
POS INIT
rispostaC
PERF INIT
rispostaD
IDENT
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 UNITED KI Which FMC/CDU page INITIAL normally appears on initial power application to the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? 4 FRANCE An aircraft equipped only inertial navigation with an Inertial system No. 1 is drifting Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units (CDU) sho shows: - XTK on INS 1 = 0 - XTK on INS 2 = 8L (XTK = cross track) From this information it can be deduced that: 156 - 136 NM
the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode
at least one of the inertial navigaton systems is drifting
only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12574A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)? 2 FRANCE Given: IAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT +20 C. What is the TAS?
164
- 138 NM
336
- 137 NM
344
- 139 NM
-1
120 kt
132 kt
141 kt
102 kt
-1
Page 958 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12573A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0 W00911.7)?
rispostaA
286 - 81 NM
rispostaB
294 - 80 NM
rispostaC
075 - 81 NM
rispostaD
277 - 83 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 UNITED KI (For this question use HDG 095 - ETA annex 061-9439A) 1155 UTC Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'E' to 'F'. What is the HDG (M) and ETA? 1 NETHERL Given: GS = 345 kt. 11 HR 00 MIN Distance from A to B = 3560 NM. What is the time from A to B? will accept a 10 error in initial latitude and initial longitude
-1
11 HR 02 MIN
10 HR 19 MIN
10 HR 05 MIN
-1
2 UNITED KI During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment: 1 NETHERL
will not accept a 10 error in initial latitude but will accept a 10 error in initial longitude 11 HR 15 MIN
will accept a 10 error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10 error in initial longitude 11 HR 10 MIN
will not accept a 10 error in initial latitude or initial longitude 11 HR 06 MIN
-1
-1
2 UNITED KI Which of the following INS/IRS can only be statements concerning aligned in NAV mode the alignment procedure for Inertial Navigation Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid-latitudes is correct?
INS/IRS can be aligned INS/IRS can only be in either the ALIGN or aligned in the ALIGN NAV mode mode
INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or ATT mode
-1
Page 959 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
HDG 337 - ETA 4 UNITED KI (For this question use 1422 UTC annex 061-9441A) Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'J' to 'K'. What is the HDG (M) and ETA? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12572A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12571A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)? 011 - 47 NM
HDG 320 - ETA 1412 HDG 337 - ETA UTC 1322 UTC
020
- 46 NM
348
- 46 NM
191
- 45 NM
-1
113
- 97 NM
293
- 98 NM
063
- 101 NM
071
- 100 NM
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 089 annex 061-12570A) What is the average track ( M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 262 annex 061-12569A) What is the average track ( M) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)?
- 95 NM
229
- 125 NM
237
- 130 NM
057
- 126 NM
-1
- 86 NM
128
- 99 NM
308
- 98 NM
316
- 96 NM
-1
Page 960 of 1247
rispostaA
- 71 NM
rispostaB
017 - 70 NM
rispostaC
025 - 70 NM
rispostaD
197 - 71 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
205 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12568A) What is the average track ( M) and distance between KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)? 2 UNITED KI The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using laser ring gyros is approximately: 5 MIN
10 MIN
20 MIN
2 MIN
-1
1 UNITED KI What is the name given Solid state to an Inertial Reference System (IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure? 1 UNITED KI What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout? 3 UNITED KI The main advantage of a remote indicating compass over a direct reading compass is that it: 3 UNITED KI The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to: Mach Number
Ring laser
Strapdown
Rigid
-1
TAS
IAS
Altitude and OAT
-1
requires less maintenance
is able to magnify the senses, rather than earth's magnetic field in seeks, the magnetic order to attain greater meridian accuracy reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earth's magnetic field
has less moving parts
-1
place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft
place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors
-1
Page 961 of 1247

2 UNITED KI Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from:
rispostaA
the combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earth's magnetic field
rispostaB
the effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms HDG 344 - ETA 1336 UTC
rispostaC
hammering, and the effect of the earth's magnetic field, whilst under construction HDG 354 - ETA 1326 UTC
rispostaD
exposure to the earth's magnetic field during normal operation HDG 034 - ETA 1336 UTC
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 UNITED KI (For this question use HDG 344 - ETA annex 061-9440A) 1303 UTC Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'G' to 'H'. What is the HDG (M) and ETA? 4 UNITED KI Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel? 1 NETHERL Given: True course A to B = 250 Distance A to B = 315 NM TAS = 450 kt. W/V = 200 /60kt. ETD A = 0650 UTC. What is the ETA at B? OFF - ALIGN NAV - ATT
-1
OFF - ON ALIGN - NAV
OFF - STBY ALIGN - NAV
OFF - ALIGN ATT - NAV
-1
0810 UTC
0716 UTC
0736 UTC
0730 UTC
-1
1 NETHERL
8 HR 04 MIN
7 HR 48 MIN
7 HR 49 MIN
-1
Page 962 of 1247

7 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is: 1 UNITED KI On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the: 2 SWEDEN What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS?
rispostaA
167 MIN
rispostaB
219 MIN
rispostaC
290 MIN
rispostaD
197 MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
meridians of tangency
equator and parallel of origin
meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude perpendicular to it Mach number increases; TAS remains constant
prime meridian and the equator
-1
Mach number remains constant; TAS increases
Mach number decreases; TAS decreases
Mach number increases; TAS increases
-1
1 NETHERL
Given: GS = 236 kt. 1 HR 40 MIN Distance from A to B = 354 NM What is the time from A to B? A course of 120 (T) is 66.7 cm drawn between 'X' (61 30'N) and 'Y' (58 30'N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1 : 1 000 000 at 60 N. The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:
1 HR 30 MIN
1 HR 09 MIN
1 HR 10 MIN
-1
3 FRANCE
33.4 cm
38.5 cm
36.0 cm
-1
Page 963 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
322
rispostaC
328
rispostaD
032
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Route 'A' (44 N 026 E) 038 to 'B' (46 N 024 E) forms an angle of 35 with longitude 026 E. Average magnetic variation between 'A' and 'B' is 3 E. What is the average magnetic course from 'A' to 'B'?
1 UNITED KI On a transverse straight lines Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as: 1 UNITED KI An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to produce: topographical maps of large east/ west extent
hyperbolic lines
parabolas
ellipses
-1
plotting charts in equatorial regions
charts of the great circle route between two points
radio navigational charts in equatorial regions plotting charts in equatorial areas 14 NM
-1
1 UNITED KI Transverse Mercator maps of large projections are used for: north/south extent 3 FRANCE Given: Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 200 000 at equator; Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator, 11 cm. What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'? 12 NM
maps of large east/west radio navigation charts extent in equatorial in equatorial areas areas 21 NM 22 NM
-1
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12577A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)?
327
- 124 NM
335
- 128 NM
325
- 126 NM
320
- 127 NM
-1
Page 964 of 1247

2 FRANCE A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this incident:
rispostaA
the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update
rispostaB
it can only be used for attitude reference
rispostaC
no useful information can be obtained from the INS
rispostaD
everything returns to normal and is usable
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI An island appears 45 329 to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215 with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21 W? 2 FRANCE Given: Position 'A' is N00 E100 , Position 'B' is 240 (T), 200 NM from 'A'. What is the position of 'B'? The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10 40'N and N41 20'. The cone constant of this chart is approximatively : N01 40' E101 40'
059
101
239
-1
S01 40' E097 07'
N01 40' E097 07'
S01 40' E101 40'
-1
1 FRANCE
0.90
0.66
0.18
0.44
-1
Page 965 of 1247

5 UNITED KI The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS). The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55 00'N 020 00'W) and No.4 (55 00'N 030 00'W). With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be:
rispostaA
266
rispostaB
270
rispostaC
274
rispostaD
278
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 UNITED KI The automatic flight 60 N to 60N control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference between initial track read-out and the average true course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of 10 ?
60 N to 50N
30 S to 30N
30 S to 25S
-1
Page 966 of 1247

5 UNITED KI The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from waypoint No. 2 (60 00'S 070 00'W) to No. 3 (60 00'S 080 00'W). Comparing the initial track ( T) at 070 00'W and the final track ( T) at 080 00'W, the difference between them is that the initial track is approximately:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
9 less than the final one
rispostaD
5 greater than the final one
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
9 greater than the final 5 less than the final one one
5 UNITED KI The following points are zero entered into an inertial navigation system (INS). WPT 1: 60 N 30W WPT 2: 60 N 20W WPT 3: 60 N 10W The inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route (1-2-3). The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately: 4 UNITED KI Gyrocompassing of an ON inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode selector switched to:
a 9 increase
a 4 decrease
a 9 decrease
-1
ALIGN
STBY
ATT/REF
-1
Page 967 of 1247

4 UNITED KI With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), the initial great circle track between computer inserted waypoints will be displayed when the control display unit (CDU) is selected to: 2 UNITED KI Which of the following statement is correct concerning gyrocompassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)?
rispostaA
HDG/DA
rispostaB
TK/GS
rispostaC
XTK/TKE
rispostaD
DSRTK/STS
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.
Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.
Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations. altitude, heading and position information
Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations. only attitude and heading information
-1
4 UNITED KI ATT Mode of the only attitude information navigation information Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a backup mode providing: 4 UNITED KI Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System (IRS) on the CDU is correct? 4 UNITED KI Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct? The positions will be the same because they are an average of three different positions The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been decoupled because of a detected malfunction
-1
The positions will only differ if an error has been made when inputting the present position at the departure airport
The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated from different sources
-1
NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the aircraft off the gate
NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to take-off
NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of passengers and/or freight
NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure is commenced
-1
Page 968 of 1247

1 SWEDEN Which of the following statements concerning the earth's magnetic field is completely correct?
rispostaA
Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component
rispostaB
The blue pole of the earth's magnetic field is situated in North Canada
rispostaC
At the earth's magnetic equator, the inclination varies depending on whether the geograhic equator is north or south of the magnetic equator 090 - 46 NM
rispostaD
The earth's magnetic field can be classified as transient, semipermanent or permanent
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 098 annex 061-12562A) What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5440 W00730? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 014 annex 061-12549A) What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5220 W00810? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 350 annex 061-12550A) What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5210 W00920? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 023 annex 061-12551A) What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230 W00750?
- 45 NM
278
- 44 NM
278
- 10 NM
-1
- 33 NM
220
- 40 NM
030
- 33 NM
048
- 40 NM
-1
- 22 NM
295
- 38 NM
170
- 22 NM
311
- 38 NM
-1
- 48 NM
017
- 43 NM
039
- 48 NM
024
- 43 NM
-1
Page 969 of 1247
rispostaA
- 39 NM
rispostaB
106 - 38 NM
rispostaC
113 - 38 NM
rispostaD
104 - 76 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
293 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12552A) What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140 W00730? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 309 annex 061-12553A) What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300 W00940? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 070 annex 061-12554A) What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5310 W00830? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 132 annex 061-12555A) What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5220 W00810? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12556A) What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5210 W00920? 354
- 33 NM
057
- 27 NM
293
- 33 NM
324
- 17 NM
-1
- 58 NM
207
- 31 NM
019
- 31 NM
035
- 30 NM
-1
- 36 NM
212
- 26 NM
139
- 35 NM
129
- 46 NM
-1
- 34 NM
198
- 37 NM
346
- 34 NM
214
- 37 NM
-1
Page 970 of 1247
rispostaA
- 26 NM
rispostaB
049 - 45 NM
rispostaC
169 - 35 NM
rispostaD
358 - 36 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
214 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12557A) What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5430 W00900? 7 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
290 MIN
219 MIN
197 MIN
209 MIN
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 320 annex 061-12558A) What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5400 W00800? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 311 annex 061-12559A) What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5340 W00820?
8 NM
094
- 64 NM
260
- 30 NM
088
- 29 NM
-1
- 22 NM
240
- 24 NM
140
- 23 NM
119
- 42 NM
-1
Page 971 of 1247

1 UNITED KI An island appears 30 to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 020 with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25 W?
rispostaA
325
rispostaB
145
rispostaC
195
rispostaD
205
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 320 annex 061-12561A) What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710? 2 NETHERL
- 44 NM
333
- 36 NM
236
- 44 NM
223
- 36 NM
-1
The angular difference, difference in longitude on a Lambert conformal conic chart, between the arrival and departure track is equal to: - 65 NM
map convergence
earth convergence
conversion angle
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 296 annex 061-12563A) What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5500 W00700?
126
- 33 NM
222 - 48 NM
315
- 34 NM
-1
Page 972 of 1247
rispostaA
- 91 NM
rispostaB
270 - 89 NM
rispostaC
098 - 90 NM
rispostaD
278 - 90 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
090 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12564A) What is the average track ( M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5)? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 177 annex 061-12565A) What is the average track ( M) and distance between CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)?
- 92 NM
357
- 89 NM
169
- 91 NM
349
- 90 NM
-1
3 UNITED KI Given: 8 right Distance A to B = 120 NM, After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course. What heading alteration should be made in order to arrive at point 'B'?
6 right
4 right
8 left
-1
Page 973 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1846
rispostaC
1721
rispostaD
1657
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
7 UNITED KI An aircraft was over 'A' 1744 at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM True airspeed 470 kt Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is: 7 UNITED KI An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM True airspeed 470 kt Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is: 2844 NM
2141 NM
1611 NM
1759 NM
-1
Page 974 of 1247

7 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM Groundspeed 'out' 420 kt Groundspeed 'back' 500 kt The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
rispostaA
193 MIN
rispostaB
163 MIN
rispostaC
173 MIN
rispostaD
183 MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
7 UNITED KI Given: 1630 NM Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
1940 NM
1908 NM
1736 NM
-1
Page 975 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1752
rispostaC
1756
rispostaD
1820
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
7 UNITED KI An aircraft was over 'Q' 1742 at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'. Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM True airspeed 480 kt Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is: 7 UNITED KI An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'. Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM True airspeed 480 kt Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt Safe endurance 10:00 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'Q' is: 1510 NM
2290 NM
2370 NM
1310 NM
-1
Page 976 of 1247

7 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
rispostaA
130 MIN
rispostaB
145 MIN
rispostaC
162 MIN
rispostaD
181 MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
7 UNITED KI Given: 1664 NM Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use 165 annex 061-12560A) What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5330 W00930? - 27 NM
1698 NM
1422 NM
1490 NM
-1
335
- 43 NM
025
- 38 NM
233
- 35 NM
-1
Page 977 of 1247

5 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
N40 00 E064 20
rispostaC
N40 00 E070 30
rispostaD
N40 00 E060 00
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
N40 00 E068 10 An aircraft departing A(N40 00 E080 00) flies a constant true track of 270 at a ground speed of 120 kt. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 HR? Given: GS = 510 kt. Distance A to B = 43 NM What is the time (MIN) from A to B? 6
1 NETHERL
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12614A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR/DME? 1 ICELAND
-1
What is the value of the 0 magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ? 6
90
45
60
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12615A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a DME?
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 206 annex 061-12567A) What is the average track ( M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9)?
- 71 NM
198
- 72 NM
026
- 71 NM
018
- 153 NM
-1
Page 978 of 1247
rispostaA
- 96 NM
rispostaB
322 - 95 NM
rispostaC
142 - 95 NM
rispostaD
315 - 94 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
135 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12566A) What is the average track ( M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0)? 1 UNITED KI An island appears 30 to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276 with the magnetic variation 12 W? 1 NETHERL 234
038
054
318
-1
Given: GS = 105 kt. 00 HR 58 MIN Distance from A to B = 103 NM. What is the time from A to B? Given: GS = 120 kt. 00 HR 43 MIN Distance from A to B = 84 NM. What is the time from A to B? 3
01 HR 01 MIN
00 HR 59 MIN
00 HR 57 MIN
-1
1 NETHERL
00 HR 44 MIN
00 HR 45 MIN
00 HR 42 MIN
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12616A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR?
-1
Page 979 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12617A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an NDB? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12618A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a basic, non-specified, navigation aid?
rispostaA
2
rispostaB
3
rispostaC
4
rispostaD
6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
-1
5 UNITED KI What indication, if any, A warning message is is given in the B737displayed on the Flight 400 Flight Management Director System System if radio updating is not available? 4 SPAIN The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called: isogrives
No indication is given so long as the IRS positions remain within limits
A warning message is displayed on the EHSI and MFDU
A warning message is displayed on the IRS displays
-1
isoclines
isogonals
isotachs
-1
1 UNITED KI An island appears 60 to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276 with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10 E? 2 SPAIN The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by:
086
226
026
046
-1
straight lines
parabolic lines
hyperbolic lines
arcs of concentric circles
-1
Page 980 of 1247

1 SPAIN The ICAO definition of ETA is the:
rispostaA
actual time of arrival at a point or fix
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
estimated time of arrival at destination 100 MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
estimated time of arrival estimated time en route at an en-route point or fix 80 MIN 50 MIN
2 SPAIN
An aircraft travels 100 90 MIN statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel 215 NM? Given: TAS = 220 kt; Magnetic course = 212 , W/V 160 (M)/ 50kt, Calculate the GS? 290 kt
-1
3 SPAIN
246 kt
250 kt
186 kt
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VORTAC?
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer 1 to annex 061-12621A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight Information Region (FIR) boundary? 1 NETHERL Given: GS = 135 kt. 3 HR 20 MIN Distance from A to B = 433 NM. What is the time from A to B? 2
-1
3 HR 12 MIN
3 HR 25 MIN
3 HR 19 MIN
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12623A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control Zone boundary?
-1
Page 981 of 1247

5 SPAIN Given: FL250, OAT -15 C, TAS 250 kt. Calculate the Mach No.? During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft: Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
rispostaA
0.44
rispostaB
0.39
rispostaC
0.40
rispostaD
0.42
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 SPAIN
drift
groundspeed
position
track
-1
2 SPAIN
16.0 NM
26.7 NM
19.2 NM
38.4 NM
-1
3 SPAIN
Given: 190 /63 kt Magnetic track = 315 , HDG = 301 (M), VAR = 5W, TAS = 225 kt, The aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN. Calculate the W/V( T)?
355 /15 kt
195 /61 kt
195 /63 kt
-1
Page 982 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
160
rispostaC
190
rispostaD
220
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
130 1 UNITED KI An island appears 30 to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 355 with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15 E? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12619A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a TACAN? 7 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt Safe endurance 9 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between 'Q' and 'R' is: 6
-1
1467 NM
1642 NM
1838 NM
1313 NM
-1
Page 983 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1044 UTC
rispostaC
1050 UTC
rispostaD
1115 UTC
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI An aircraft is planned to 1110 UTC fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs 'A' at 0900 UTC. After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'? 2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is: 1 FRANCE 860 FT/MIN
890 FT/MIN
920 FT/MIN
960 FT/MIN
-1
Assume a Mercator 60 N or S chart. The distance between positions A and B, located on the same parallel and 10 longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1 : 9 260 000. What is the latitude of A and B?
30 N or S
45 N or S
-1
Page 984 of 1247

2 FRANCE On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37 N and 65 N), with respect to the straight line drawn on the map between A ( N49 W030 ) and B (N48 W040 ), the: Given: aircraft height 2500 FT, ILS GP angle 3 . At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP? Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS = 150 kt. What is the approximate rate of descent? Given : ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC GS is 441 kt TAS is 491 kt At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC. The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
rispostaA
great circle and rhumb line are to the south
rispostaB
great circle and rhumb line are to the north
rispostaC
great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south
rispostaD
rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 SWEDEN
8.3 NM
7.0 NM
13.1 NM
14.5 NM
-1
2 SWEDEN
900 FT/MIN
1000 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
-1
3 FRANCE
75 kt
60 kt
40 kt
90 kt
-1
Page 985 of 1247

4 FRANCE The flight log gives the following data : "True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass heading" The right solution, in the same order, is : Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern hemisphere, it can be said that : At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310 radial at 40 NM of a VOR/DME station. At 0035 UTC the radial is 040 and DME distance is 40 NM. Magnetic variation is zero. The true track and ground speed are : A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM. The scale of this chart is approximately : From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is :
rispostaA
117 , 4 L, 121 , 1 E, 122 , -3 , 119
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
115 , 5 R, 120 , 3 W, 123 , +2 , 121
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
125 , 2 R, 123 , 2 W, 119 , 3 L, 122 , 2 E, 121 , -4 , 117 120 , +4 , 116
2 FRANCE
on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South 080 - 226 kt
on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South 088 - 232 kt
on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes an apparent turn to the North 085 - 226 kt
on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North 090 - 232 kt
-1
3 FRANCE
-1
1 FRANCE
1 : 5 000 000
1 : 7 000 000
1 : 3 500 000
1 : 6 000 000
-1
7 FRANCE
inversely proportional to inversely proportional to proportional to the sum ground speed back the sum of ground of ground speed out speed out and ground and ground speed back speed back
inversely proportional to the total distance to go
-1
Page 986 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
30 NM and 240
rispostaC
40 NM and 110
rispostaD
40 NM and 290
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
30 NM and 060 1 UNITED KI A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325 and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280 . The aircraft heading was 165 (M), variation 25 W, drift 10 Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280 , the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was: 7 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is: 2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is: 110 MIN
106 MIN
102 MIN
114 MIN
-1
69 NM
79 NM
49 NM
59 NM
-1
Page 987 of 1247

7 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NM Groundspeed 'out' 370 kt Groundspeed 'back' 300 kt The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is: 1 UNITED KI A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315 and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270 . The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt. What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature? 1 UNITED KI An island is observed to be 15 to the left. The aircraft heading is 120 (M), variation 17 (W). The bearing (T) from the aircraft to the island is:
rispostaA
238 MIN
rispostaB
263 MIN
rispostaC
288 MIN
rispostaD
323 MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
12 NM
3 NM
6 NM
9 NM
-1
268
302
088
122
-1
Page 988 of 1247

5 FRANCE Given: Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa. What is the approximate airport pressure altitude? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
rispostaA
1680 FT
rispostaB
320 FT
rispostaC
680 FT
rispostaD
- 320 FT
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 FRANCE
The circumference of 18 706 NM the parallel of latitude at 60 N is approximately: Civil twilight is defined by : sun altitude is 12 below the celestial horizon
20 000 NM
34 641 NM
10 800 NM
-1
3 FRANCE
sun altitude is 18 below the celestial horizon 1206
sun upper edge tangential to horizon 1203
sun altitude is 6 below the celestial horizon 1153
-1
3 UNITED KI An aircraft is planned to 1157 fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs 'A' at 1000 UTC. After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
-1
Page 989 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1340 UTC
rispostaC
1333 UTC
rispostaD
1401 UTC
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNITED KI An aircraft is planned to 1347 UTC fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'? 1 UNITED KI Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE give: 1 FRANCE velocity east/west
distance east/west
vehicle longitude
distance north/south
-1
Seasons are due to the: Earth's rotation on its polar axis 03 50'S
variable distance between Earth and Sun 02 00'S
inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane 12 15'S
Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun 22 00'S
-1
5 UNITED KI An aircraft at latitude 10 North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/HR. What will be its latitude after 3 HR? 5 FRANCE Given : Position 'A' N60 W020, Position 'B' N60 W021, Position 'C' N59 W020. What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C?
-1
52 NM and 60 NM
60 NM and 30 NM
60 NM and 52 NM
30 NM and 60 NM
-1
Page 990 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
052 and 154 kt
rispostaC
056 and 137 kt
rispostaD
055 and 147 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
036 and 151 kt Given: Required course 045 (M); Variation is 15 E; W/V is 190 (T)/30 kt; CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere. What are the heading ( M) and GS? 68 NM
2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence?
53 NM
58 NM
63 NM
-1
5 UNITED KI What is the validity 28 days period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical information stored in the FMC In the B737400 Flight Management System? 1 UNITED KI What is the highest 0 latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90 above the horizon at some time during the year?
one calendar month
3 calendar months
14 days
-1
23
45
66
-1
Page 991 of 1247

1 UNITED KI In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12583A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 143, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050. What is the aircraft position? 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12582A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 129, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047. What is the aircraft position? 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
June and December
rispostaB
April and August
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
February and November March and September
N5210 W00800
N5155 W00810
N5205 W00805
N5200 W00800
-1
N5220 W00750
N5215 W00755
N5210 W00750
N5205 W00755
-1
On a Direct Mercator 110 NM chart at latitude of 45 N, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30 N, a distance of :
73.5 NM
78 NM
45 NM
-1
Page 992 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12581A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033. What is the aircraft position? 2 UNITED KI Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in flight is correct? 5 UNITED KI The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12580A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 205, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317. What is the aircraft position?
rispostaA
N5230 W00800
rispostaB
N5225 W00805
rispostaC
N5220 W00750
rispostaD
N5240 W00750
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight
The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed outputs, is inoperative for the remainder of the flight continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance management N5215 W00917
The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a realignment carried out in flight manual navigation guidance and automatic performance management N5210 W00910
The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to NAV in order to obtain an in-flight realignment continuous automatic navigation guidance as well as manual performance management N5118 W00913
-1
both manual navigation guidance and performance management N5205 W00915
-1
-1
Page 993 of 1247

3 FRANCE Given: An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322 ); The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350 /20 kt.; TAS on approach is 95 kt. In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's heading ( M) should be :
rispostaA
328
rispostaB
322
rispostaC
316
rispostaD
326
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12579A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322. What is the aircraft position? 3 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature 30 C, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point five minutes later than planned. Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point Mach Number should be reduced to:
N5210 W00930
N5220 W00920
N5230 W00910
N5210 W00910
-1
M0.74
M0.76
M0.78
M0.80
-1
Page 994 of 1247

1 FRANCE On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60 N, the distance measured between W002 and E008 is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60 N is approximately: In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:
rispostaA
1 : 2 780 000
rispostaB
1 : 278 000
rispostaC
1 : 5 560 000
rispostaD
1 : 556 000
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 SWEDEN
from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)
from TAS and W/V from RNAV data
by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively 12 kt and 38 kt
by integrating measured acceleration
-1
3 UNITED KI Given: 18 kt and 50 kt For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60 , Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds? 3 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44 C, headwind component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the reporting point, what Mach Number is required? M0.73
20 kt and 40 kt
15 kt and 43 kt
-1
M0.75
M0.79
M0.81
-1
Page 995 of 1247

2 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is:
rispostaA
1340 FT/MIN
rispostaB
1390 FT/MIN
rispostaC
1240 FT/MIN
rispostaD
1290 FT/MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 UNITED KI Approximately how 130 many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000? 3 UNITED KI Given: Runway direction 083 (M), Surface W/V 035/35kt. Calculate the effective headwind component? 3 UNITED KI An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5 and wind component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to: 27 kt
150
329
43
-1
31 kt
34 kt
24 kt
-1
174 kt
159 kt
165 kt
169 kt
-1
Page 996 of 1247

2 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
2 HR 30 MIN
rispostaC
1 HR 15 MIN
rispostaD
1 HR 45 MIN
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 HR 00 MIN What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60 N between meridians 010 E and 030 W at a groundspeed of 480 kt? Given: Waypoint 1. 60 S 030 W Waypoint 2. 60 S 020 W What will be the approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude 025 W? 060 11'S
2 UNKNOW
059 49'S
060 00'S
060 06'S
-1
2 UNKNOW
The angle between the 7.8 true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60 S 165 W) B (60 S 177 E), at the place of departure A, is: An aircraft takes-off 115 NM from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090 (T), W/V 130 / 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is: How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt? 2.36
15.6
5.2
-1
7 FRANCE
105 NM
84 NM
97 NM
-1
2 ICELAND
3.25
39.0
3.94
-1
Page 997 of 1247

2 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
45 00'N 172 38'E
rispostaC
53 20'N 169 22W
rispostaD
45 00'N 169 22W
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
An aircraft departs from 53 20'N 172 38'E position A (04 10' S 178 22'W) and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of position B are? Multi-Function Control Display Unit
5 UNITED KI Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routeing and performance parameters? 3 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 325 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1130 UTC, 1205 UTC - fix obtained 165 NM along track. What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12631A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles?
Flight Management Computer
Inertial Reference System
Flight Director System
-1
375 kt
395 kt
335 kt
355 kt
-1
11
12
13
-1
Page 998 of 1247

4 FRANCE Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats. In which of the following formats can waypoints be entered into all INSs?
rispostaA
bearing and distance
rispostaB
hexadecimal
rispostaC
by waypoints name
rispostaD
geographic coordinates
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12632A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of lighted obstacles? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12633A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high unlighted obstacle? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12634A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high lighted obstacle? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12635A) What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 15? 2 FRANCE Given : A is N55 000 B is N54 E010 The average true course of the great circle is 100 . The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:
10
11
12
-1
11
13
14
-1
14
10
12
13
-1
Hazard to aerial navigation
Lighthouse
Aeronautical ground light
Visual reference point
-1
096
104
107
100
-1
Page 999 of 1247

1 FRANCE At latitude 60 N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1 : 5 000 000. The length on the chart between 'C' N60 E008 and 'D' N60 W008 is: Given: FL120, OAT is ISA standard, CAS is 200 kt, Track is 222 (M), Heading is 215 (M), Variation is 15 W. Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN. What is the W/V? Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are: At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation: Isogonals are lines of equal :
rispostaA
16.2 cm
rispostaB
35.6 cm
rispostaC
19.2 cm
rispostaD
17.8 cm
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 FRANCE
065 (T) / 70 kt.
050 (T) / 70 kt.
040 (T) / 105 kt.
055 (T) / 105 kt .
-1
2 FRANCE 1 FRANCE
Rhumb lines depends on the type of compass installed wind velocity. Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tide
Great circles depends on the magnetic heading magnetic variation. Off-shore lighthouse
both Rhumb lines and Great circles depends on the true heading compass deviation. Lightship
are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles varies slowly over time
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
1 FRANCE
pressure. Off-shore helicopter landing platform
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12636A) What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 16? 3 UNITED KI Given: Magnetic track = 075 , HDG = 066 (M), VAR = 11 E, TAS = 275 kt Aircraft flies 48 NM in 10 MIN. Calculate the true W/V ?
180 /45 kt
340 /45 kt
320 /50 kt
210 /15 kt
-1
Page 1000 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 061-12578A) What is the average track ( T) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and EKN NDB (N5423.6 W00738.7)? 5 UNITED KI An aircraft at latitude 10 South flies north at a GS of 890 km/HR. What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR? 3 NETHERL
rispostaA
035 - 80 NM
rispostaB
042 - 83 NM
rispostaC
036 - 81 NM
rispostaD
044 - 82 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
22 00'N
03 50'N
02 00'N
12 15'N
-1
Given: 25 kt Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt. Runway 06, RWY QDM 063 (M). Wind direction 100 (M) Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed? Given: Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 kt. Planned runway 05 (047 magnetic). The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210 . Variation is 17 E. Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed that can be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit? 18 kt
33 kt
31 kt
26 kt
-1
3 NETHERL
8 kt
15 kt
11 kt
-1
Page 1001 of 1247

3 NETHERL For a landing on runway 23 (227 magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt. VAR is 13 E. Calculate the cross wind component? Given: True course from A to B = 090 , TAS = 460 kt, W/V = 360/100kt, Average variation = 10 E, Deviation = -2 . Calculate the compass heading and GS?
rispostaA
20 kt
rispostaB
22 kt
rispostaC
26 kt
rispostaD
15 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 NETHERL
069 - 448 kt
068 - 460 kt
078 - 450 kt
070 - 453 kt
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12637A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an aeronautical ground light? 2 SWEDEN Given: TAS = 197 kt, True course = 240 , W/V = 180/30kt. Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM. What is the approximate rate of descent?
15
16
10
14
-1
800 FT/MIN
950 FT/MIN
1500 FT/MIN
1400 FT/MIN
-1
Page 1002 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lightship?
rispostaA
14
rispostaB
16
rispostaC
10
rispostaD
12
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
4 UNITED KI (For this question use HDG 193 - ETA annex 061-9438A) 1239 UTC Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'C' to 'D'. What is the HDG (M) and ETA? 4 UNITED KI (For this question use 268 - 1114 UTC annex 061-9437A) Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG'; positions 'A' to 'B'. What is the HDG (M) and ETA? 3 UNITED KI Given: 4 Left Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM, Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of course. What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'? 5 UNITED KI An aircraft at latitude 04 30'S 02 20'N tracks 180 (T) for 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
-1
282 - 1128 UTC
282 - 1114 UTC
268 - 1128 UTC
-1
8 Left
12 Left
16 Left
-1
09 05'S
03 50'S
04 10'S
-1
Page 1003 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
15 Right
rispostaC
9 Right
rispostaD
6 Right
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
18 Right 3 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM, Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course. What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12630A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted obstacle? 5 FRANCE The sensors of an INS measure: 9
10
11
12
-1
precession
acceleration
velocity
the horizontal component of the earth's rotation an apparent turn to the South
-1
2 FRANCE
In northern hemisphere, a heading of East during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
a decrease in heading
an increase in heading
-1
3 UNITED KI Given: 235 /50 kt Magnetic track = 210 , Magnetic HDG = 215 , VAR = 15 E, TAS = 360 kt, Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN. Calculate the true W/V? 5 FRANCE Given : True altitude 9000 FT, OAT -32 C, CAS 200 kt. What is the TAS? 215 kt
300 /30 kt
265 /50 kt
195 /50 kt
-1
200 kt
210 kt
220 kt
-1
Page 1004 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
greater than it was at 2254 UTC
rispostaD
randomly different than it was at 2254 UTC
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
less than it was at 2254 the same as it was at Given: UTC 2254 UTC An aircraft is flying a track of 255 (M), 2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360 from a VOR station, 2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330 from the same station. At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the station is : The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM, To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2 E magnetic variation instead of 2 W. Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off track distance be at the second waypoint? 14 NM 7 NM
3 FRANCE
0 NM
21 NM
-1
3 UNITED KI Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1000 UTC, 1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track. What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'? 1 FRANCE
340 kt
360 kt.
300 kt
320 kt.
-1
The scale on a Lambert is constant along a conformal conic chart : meridian of longitude
is constant across the whole map
varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
is constant along a parallel of latitude
-1
Page 1005 of 1247

1 FRANCE A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that is :
rispostaA
spherical
rispostaB
concentric
rispostaC
cylindrical
rispostaD
conical
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 FRANCE
Given: 14 720 FT Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport Elevation of airport 720 FT. QNH is 1003 hPa. OAT at FL150 -5 C. What is the true altitude of the aircraft? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT) An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32 C). Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately : Given: Distance A to B is 360 NM. Wind component A - B is -15 kt, Wind component B - A is +15 kt, TAS is 180 kt. What is the distance from the equal-timepoint to B? 6 400 FT
15 280 FT
15 840 FT
14 160 FT
-1
5 FRANCE
6 800 FT
6 000 FT
4 000 FT
-1
7 FRANCE
180 NM
170 NM
165 NM
195 NM
-1
Page 1006 of 1247

3 FRANCE Given: Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following information: TAS 360 kt, W/V 330 /80kt, Compass heading 237 , Deviation on this heading -5 , Variation 19 W. What is the average ground speed for this leg? (For this question use appendix ) Given: TAS is120 kt. ATA 'X' 1232 UTC, ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC, ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC. What is ETA 'Z'? A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that :
rispostaA
373 kt
rispostaB
360 kt
rispostaC
403 kt
rispostaD
354 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 FRANCE
1302 UTC
1257 UTC
1300 UTC
1303 UTC
-1
4 FRANCE
Compass North is East of Magnetic North 12
Compass North is True North is East of West of Magnetic North Magnetic North 9 10
True North is West of Magnetic North 11
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12629A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted obstacle? 3 NETHERL Given: True HDG = 035 , TAS = 245 kt, Track (T) = 046 , GS = 220 kt. Calculate the W/V?
-1
335/55kt
340/45kt
340/50kt
335/45kt
-1
Page 1007 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12628A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-point? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12627A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a compulsory reporting point? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12626A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-compulsory reporting point? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12625A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary of advisory airspace? 3 UNITED KI (For this question refer to annex 061-12624A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an uncontrolled route? 3 NETHERL Given: course required = 085 (T), Forecast W/V 030/100kt, TAS = 470 kt, Distance = 265 NM. Calculate the true HDG and flight time?
rispostaA
15
rispostaB
6
rispostaC
7
rispostaD
8
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
15
-1
15
-1
-1
-1
096 , 29 MIN
095 , 31 MIN
075 , 39 MIN
076 , 34 MIN
-1
Page 1008 of 1247

1 FRANCE Given: Course 040 (T), TAS is 120 kt, Wind speed 30 kt. Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of:
rispostaA
120
rispostaB
130
rispostaC
145
rispostaD
115
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 UNITED KI What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management System (FMS)? 2 FRANCE Given: The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are: N48 50' E002 16.5' The coordinates of the antipodes are :
Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading S41 10' W177 43.5'
Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS S41 10' E177 43.5'
The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve) positioned in the wingtip S48 50' W177 43.5'
The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position
-1
S48 50' E177 43.5'
-1
5 UNITED KI Where and when are the IRS positions updated?
During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC cancel out the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Goaround' button at the start of the take-off roll cancel out the effects of the magnetic fields found on board the aeroplane
Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or NDB) measure the angle between Magnetic North and Compass North
Only on the ground during the alignment procedure
-1
2 FRANCE
The purpose of compass check swing is to:
cancel out the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
-1
62
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9911A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 5 0 -1 0 0
Page 1009 of 1247

2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9912A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected? 5 UNITED KI Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI? 5 UNITED KI How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver? 1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
rispostaA
Figure 4
rispostaB
Figure 5
rispostaC
Figure 6
rispostaD
Figure 1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Flight Control Computer Navigation database
Symbol Generator
Flight Management Computer
-1
The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
The pointer flashes and It removes the a VOR 1 or 2 failure associated magenta warning bar appears deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
-1
the sky
engaged modes
the flight director bar(s)
flight envelope and system limits
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 097 (T) annex 062-9916A) What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
170 (M)
140 (M)
280 (T)
-1
Page 1010 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Figure 3
rispostaC
Figure 5
rispostaD
Figure 6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Figure 2 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9913A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9914A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected? Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 5
Figure 6
-1
2 UNITED KI Factors liable to affect static interference most NDB/ADF system station interference performance and latitude error reliability include: 5 UNKNOW The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is: 1300 Hz, blue
height error - station interference - mountain effect 400 Hz, amber
coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
static interference night effect - absence of failure warning system 3000 Hz, blue
-1
400 Hz, blue
-1
3 UNITED KI The maximum 204 NM theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately: 5 UNITED KI Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the SatelliteAssisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)? Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag
245 NM
163 NM
183 NM
-1
Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock
-1
Page 1011 of 1247

2 UNITED KI Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
rispostaA
long pulse length and narrow beam
rispostaB
short pulse length and wide beam
rispostaC
short pulse length and narrow beam
rispostaD
long pulse length and wide beam
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 UNITED KI Ignoring pulse length 330 and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of: 5 UNITED KI An aircraft carrying out 250 FT/MIN a 3 glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately: 2 UNITED KI The maximum pulse 713 pps repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
3000
6000
167
-1
50 FT/MIN
100 FT/MIN
150 FT/MIN
-1
1620 pps
3240 pps
610 pps
-1
Page 1012 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)........ ; the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)......... 3 UNITED KI The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features: 3 UNKNOW In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation: A VOR is sited at position 58 00'N 073 00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32 W. An aircraft is located at position 56 00'N 073 00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28 W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
rispostaA
(i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
rispostaB
(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
rispostaC
(i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
rispostaD
(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode
beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
when approaching coast-lines in polar regions
beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam
-1
at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
at both the VOR and aircraft
at the VOR
at the aircraft location
-1
3 UNKNOW
208
360
180
212
-1
Page 1013 of 1247

3 UNKNOW Given: Magnetic heading 280 VOR radial 090 What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a "TO" indication? An aircraft is flying on the true track 090 towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15 E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8 E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
rispostaA
100
rispostaB
090
rispostaC
270
rispostaD
280
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 FRANCE
262
285
255
278
-1
2 UNITED KI There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be: 4 UNITED KI What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same morse code identifier?
the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180 and 360
greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090 and 270
greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
-1
600 m
2000 m
60 m
300 m
-1
Page 1014 of 1247

3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9922A) What is the manually selected heading? 3 UNITED KI Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to: 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9910A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? 5 UNITED KI The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
rispostaA
272 (M)
rispostaB
280 (M)
rispostaC
300 (M)
rispostaD
260 (M)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range Figure 2
obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
detect the smaller cloud detect the larger water formations as well as droplets large
-1
Figure 3
Figure 4
Figure 6
-1
(i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies
(i) the same phases
(ii)
(i) different (ii) modulation frequencies
(i) different phases
(ii)
-1
Page 1015 of 1247

5 UNITED KI Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a SatelliteAssisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is: 5 UNITED KI Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
rispostaA
3
rispostaB
4
rispostaC
5
rispostaD
6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended centreline
At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown Fly right and fly down
On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centreline Fly left and fly down
At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline Fly right and fly up
-1
5 UNITED KI An aircraft carrying out Fly left and fly up an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show: 3 UNITED KI In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern. MAPPING
-1
CONTOUR
WEATHER
MANUAL
-1
Page 1016 of 1247

1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
rispostaA
engaged modes
rispostaB
cautions, abnormal sources
rispostaC
flight envelope and system limits
rispostaD
warnings
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 UNITED KI (For this question use right of the localizer and left of the localizer and annex 062-9923A) above the glidepath below the glidepath The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the: 2 UNITED KI Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF: FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
left of the localizer and above the glidepath
right of the localizer and below the glidepath
-1
EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP
FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
-1
2 UNITED KI A ground radar 27 NM transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
67 NM
135 NM
270 NM
-1
Page 1017 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
5
rispostaC
6
rispostaD
7
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 UNITED KI Signal reception is 4 required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a SatelliteAssisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is: 1 UNITED KI Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when: 1 UNITED KI Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions? both transmitter and receiver move away from each other
the transmitter moves away from the reciever
the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
the transmitter moves toward the reciever
-1
It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars
The equipment required It eliminates the is more complex in minimum target continuous wave radar reception range but this is offset by greater reliability and accuracy
A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used
-1
1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour white code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are coloured:
cyan
red
magenta
-1
Page 1018 of 1247

1 UNITED KI The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse: 2 UNKNOW An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
rispostaA
repetition rate
rispostaB
frequency
rispostaC
length
rispostaD
amplitude
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position
NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position
NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position
NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9920A) The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9919A) What is the instantaneous aircraft track? 1 UNITED KI For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of: 1 UNITED KI The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
VOR/DME
TACAN
VOR
Airport
-1
280 (M)
272 (M)
300 (M)
260 (M)
-1
16
-1
pulse recurrence rate
power output
size of parabolic receiver aerial
height of the transmitter above the ground
-1
Page 1019 of 1247

3 UNKNOW An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090 . The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135 . The available information from the VOR is:
rispostaA
Radial 315 , relative bearing unknown
rispostaB
Radial 135 , relative bearing unknown
rispostaC
Radial unknown, relative bearing 225
rispostaD
Radial unknown, relative bearing 045
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNITED KI Ignoring pulse length, 405 pps the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
782 pps
308 pps
375 pps
-1
4 UNITED KI ICAO specifications are + or - 0.5 NM or 3% of + or - 1.25 NM plus that range errors the distance measured 0.25% of the distance indicated by Distance whichever is the greater measured Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed: 1 UNITED KI Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range operation? 5 UNITED KI In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by: primary continuous wave centimetric pulse
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured
-1
millimetric pulse
secondary continuous wave
-1
the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in known positions 1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz
measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft's receiver 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz
measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites received in a specific sequential order 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz
measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz
-1
4 SPAIN
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
-1
Page 1020 of 1247

2 SPAIN Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
rispostaA
ATA
rispostaB
Elapsed time on route.
rispostaC
ETO
rispostaD
ETD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 SPAIN
The Doppler Navigation doppler VOR (DVOR) System is based on: Navigation System
phase comparison from radar principles using ground station frequency shift transmissions 299 (M) 272 (M)
radio waves refraction in the ionosphere 260 (M)
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use 280 (M) annex 062-9918A) What is the value of the selected course? 2 UNITED KI Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers? 5 UNITED KI The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25 glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately: 1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate: 2 UNITED KI In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct? 200 - 2000 kHz
-1
200 - 1750 kHz
255 - 455 kHz
300 - 3000 kHz
-1
670 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
850 FT/MIN
-1
warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes
warnings; flight envelope and system limits
flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
-1
When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off time
When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated Mach number
When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
-1
Page 1021 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown
rispostaC
represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it coincides with the desired track, wind influence is compensated for the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc) +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time a designated alternate airport
rispostaD
corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
indicates that the pilot 2 UNITED KI The track-line on the has made a manual Electronic Horizontal track selection Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System: 2 UNITED KI The Flight Management the same as that given Computer (FMC) on the No. 1 IRS position is:
another source of aircaft position; it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc) +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time an off-route airport
the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
-1
1 UNITED KI Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9921A) The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate: 1 UNITED KI ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
+/- 5NM or better throughout the flight the destination airport
+/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time an off-route VOR/DME
-1
-1
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of selfcontained aids, or a combination of these
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable selfcontained navigation aid 255 (M)/20KT
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable selfcontained navigation aid 285 (M)/20KT
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable selfcontained navigation aids 105 (M)/20KT
-1
3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9917A) What wind velocity is indicated?
030 (M)/20KT
-1
Page 1022 of 1247
rispostaA
(ii) 10
rispostaB
(i) 25 (ii) 17
rispostaC
(i) 35 (ii) 25
rispostaD
(i) 5 (ii) 8
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(i) 8 5 UNITED KI Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) .......... each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the threshold. 2 UNITED KI Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen. 3 UNITED KI In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is: 6 UNITED KI MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of: 5 UNITED KI Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3 ILS glidepath, will require an approximate: 2 UNITED KI In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:
(i) SHF (ii) 60 sometimes
(iii)
(i) EHF never
(ii) 30
(iii) (i) SHF always
(ii) 10
(iii) (i) EHF never
(ii) 100
(iii)
-1
unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment + or - 20 about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
permitted anywhere
totally prohibited
-1
+ or - 40 about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
-1
decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN sense aerial must be tuned separately
increase in the aircraft's decrease in the rate of descent of 100 aircraft's rate of FT/MIN descent of 50 FT/MIN mode selector should be switched to 'loop' BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'
increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
-1
-1
Page 1023 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
1.5 NM standard deviation or better Tropospheric
rispostaC
0.5 NM standard deviation or better Receiver noise
rispostaD
0.25 NM standard deviation or better Ionospheric
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI Precision RNAV (P1.0 NM standard RNAV) requires a track- deviation or better keeping accuracy of: 5 GERMANY Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies? 5 ICELAND Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of: The frequency range of a VOR receiver is : A DME that has difficulty obtaining a "lock-on": (NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, PPS = pulses per second) Multipath
-1
400 Hz
1300 Hz
2000 Hz
3000 Hz
-1
3 NETHERL 4 NETHERL
108 to 135.95 MHz stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmitted
108 to 117.95 MHz stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF
108 to 111.95 MHz stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds
118 to 135.95 MHz alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
4 NETHERL
Of what use, if any, is a It is of no use to civil military TACAN station aviation to civil aviation ? Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090 . From/To indicator indicates "TO". CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft? Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings? 265
It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing 095
It can provide a magnetic bearing 275
It can provide DME distance 085
-1
3 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
Quadrantal error
Precipitation interference
Local thunderstorm activity
Coastal effect
-1
Page 1024 of 1247

4 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
standby mode
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
search mode A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to: An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300 , the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly': What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL? An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of : The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can: An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of : left with 'FROM' showing
signal controlled search memory mode
3 NETHERL
left with 'TO' showing
right with 'TO' showing
right with 'FROM' showing
-1
1 NETHERL
FL50
FL80
FL100
FL60
-1
3 NETHERL
130 NM
142 NM
135 NM
123 NM
-1
2 FRANCE
only read the database
can modify the read and write at any database every 28 days time in database
insert navigation data between two updates
-1
3 NETHERL
100 NM
120 NM
110 NM
90 NM
-1
Page 1025 of 1247

5 NETHERL A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
rispostaA
the surface of the runway
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
a maximum height of a maximum height of a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway 100 ft above the runway 50 ft above the runway
5 GERMANY How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth? 5 GERMANY In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the: 5 GERMANY Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the correction of one of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and L2)? 5 GERMANY Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit geometric height above ground
Approximately 12 hours Approximately 24 hours 12 days (1/2 of a sidereal day) (one sidereal day)
-1
height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
flight level
height above the WGS84 ellipsoid
-1
The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies
The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies
The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared
The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared
-1
It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the satellites
It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations (ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light
It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information
It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground segment
-1
5 GERMANY The distance between a calculated, using the NAVSTAR/GPS WGS-84 reference satellite and receiver is: system, from the known positions of the satellite and the receiver
determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of light
calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
-1
Page 1026 of 1247

5 GERMANY In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a receiver: 5 GERMANY The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the: 5 GERMANY What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft? 5 GERMANY What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
rispostaA
is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best geometric coverage calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with another already being monitored movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
requires the signals of is receiving and all visible satellites for tracking the signals of navigation purposes all 24 operational satellites simultaneously
calculated range includes receiver clock error
measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code
-1
Sequential
Multiplex
Any hand held type
Multichannel
-1
24
-1
5 GERMANY The receiver aerial for a on the upper side of the NAVSTAR/GPS fuselage in the vicinity system should be of the centre of gravity mounted: 5 GERMANY In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by :
inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage
in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing
-1
offsetting satellite dithering the satellite atomic clocks by a clock predetermined constant amount
shutting off selected satellites
-1
Page 1027 of 1247

5 GERMANY In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ? 5 GERMANY In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation are selected by the receiver
rispostaD
It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the receiver is quicker
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
It degrades accuracy It degrades position by reducing the number accuracy by of available satellites manipulating satellite signals
can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals transmitted by the satellites orbital plane and the earth's axis
is corrected by using signals from four satellites
is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected
-1
5 GERMANY The influence of the negligible ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is: 5 GERMANY In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the: 5 SWEDEN GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation? horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
minimised by computing the average of all signals
only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon
-1
horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite
orbital plane and the equatorial plane
-1
L1-precise (P)
L2-for communications purpose
L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
-1
5 ICELAND
Assuming a five dot 2.0 degrees display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent :
0.5 degrees
1.5 degrees
2.5 degrees
-1
Page 1028 of 1247

2 ICELAND Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy? In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit? What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ? A Primary radar operates on the principle of: In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
rispostaA
Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night SHF
rispostaB
Frequency drift at the ground station
rispostaC
Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day UHF
rispostaD
Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5 ICELAND
EHF
VHF
-1
2 ICELAND
80 m
800 m
8000 m
8m
-1
1 ICELAND
continuous wave transmission VHF
pulse technique
transponder interrogation SHF
phase comparison
-1
3 ICELAND
UHF
EHF
-1
5 GERMANY How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS? 5 GERMANY Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe? 1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
18
12
30
24
-1
NAVSTAR/GPS
NNSS-Transit
COSPAS-SARSAT
GLONASS
-1
cautions, abnormal sources
the earth
the ILS deviation pointer engaged modes
-1
Page 1029 of 1247

3 ICELAND
rispostaA
rispostaB
3.5 NM
rispostaC
2.0 NM
rispostaD
2.5 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3.0 NM The VOR system is limited to about 1 of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of: An aircraft is "homing" left drift to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing : Figure 4
2 ICELAND
zero drift
a wind from the west
right drift
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9909A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected? 3 NETHERL If the reference phase differs 30 with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :
Figure 5
Figure 6
Figure 1
-1
030
330
210
150
-1
5 UNITED KI What approximate rate 950 FT/MIN of descent is required in order to maintain a 3 glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? 5 GERMANY Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix? 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120 from each other and an elevation of 45 above the horizon
600 FT/MIN
550 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
-1
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90 from each other and a low elevation above the horizon
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90 from each other and an elevation of 45 above the horizon
3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120 from each other together with a fourth directly overhead
-1
Page 1030 of 1247

5 SWEDEN Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)? Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
rispostaA
EUREF 92
rispostaB
WGS 84
rispostaC
ED 87
rispostaD
ED 50
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 SWEDEN
Latitude, longitude and time
Latitude, longitude and altitude
Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
Latitude and longitude
-1
5 SWEDEN
What approximate rate 450 FT/MIN of descent is required in order to maintain a 3 glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt? The ATC transponder four modes, each 4096 system,excluding Mode codes S, contains : A frequency of airborne 9375 GHz weather radar is : The maximum range of primary radar depends on : Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? pulse length
400 FT/MIN
600 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
-1
4 NETHERL
two modes, each 1024 codes 9375 kHz pulse recurrence frequency 109.15 MHz
two modes, each of 4096 codes 93.75 MHz wave length
four modes, each 1024 codes 9375 MHz frequency
-1
3 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
0 0
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
5 NETHERL
112.10 MHz
108.25 MHz
110.20 MHz
-1
5 GERMANY The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the: 5 GERMANY One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
control, space and user segments
main control station, the antenna, the receiver monitoring station and and the central control the ground antennas unit (CDU)
atomic clock, power supply and transponder
-1
manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix
grant and monitor user authorisations
monitor the status of the satellites
manufacture and launch the satellites
-1
Page 1031 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously
rispostaC
transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellite
rispostaD
to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
monitor the orbital 5 GERMANY The main task of the user segment (receiver) planes of the satellites of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
5 GERMANY One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity
compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position back to the user segment
monitor the satellites' orbits and status
-1
5 GERMANY The geometric shape of a geoid the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is: 3 SWEDEN Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system? 90 - 110 kHz
an ellipsoid
a mathematical model a sphere that describes the exact shape of the earth
-1
1750 - 1950 kHz
10.2 - 13.6 kHz
978 - 1213 MHz
-1
4 UNITED KI The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: 1 FRANCE
unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
an emergency
transponder malfunction radio communication failure
-1
In relation to radar delay after which the systems that use pulse process re-starts technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the: When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line appears on the screen. This means that the: receiver is faulty
the number of cycles per second
ratio of pulse period to pulse width
number of pulses per second
-1
3 FRANCE
scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
transmitter is faulty
scanner is not rotating
-1
Page 1032 of 1247

3 FRANCE The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
rispostaD
virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main beam 1000
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
simultaneously transmit have a wide beam and weather and mapping as a consequence beams better target detection
4 FRANCE
What is the maximum 760 number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes? Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar? snow; clear air turbulence
4096
3600
-1
3 FRANCE
dry hail; clear air turbulence
clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation
snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation
-1
3 FRANCE
Given: ahead of the aeroplane Aircraft heading symbol with the FROM 160 (M), flag showing Aircraft is on radial 240 from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250 . The HSI indications are deviation bar: If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a: line of constant bearing
ahead of the aeroplane behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag symbol with the FROM showing flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
-1
3 NETHERL
constant magnetic track great circle track
rhumbline track
-1
2 UNITED KI On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return? 3 UNITED KI A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
Aerodrome Surveillance Airborne Weather (approach) Radar Radar (AWR)
Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
-1
less power output is the larger water required in the mapping droplets will give good mode echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small
greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets
static interference is minimised
-1
Page 1033 of 1247

6 UNITED KI Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? 4 UNITED KI The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
rispostaA
It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter
rispostaB
The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to determine range
rispostaC
There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II EHF
rispostaD
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an ILS
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II VHF
-1
5 UNITED KI In which frequency UHF band do SatelliteAssisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft? 5 GERMANY Which one of the following is an advantages of a multisensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)? 3 UNITED KI Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct? The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
SHF
-1
The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS
The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracy
The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy
-1
It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position lines are obtained in sequence from up to eight ground stations
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase comparison
It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four ground stations
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by pulse technique
-1
Page 1034 of 1247

4 FRANCE DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
rispostaA
600 MHz
rispostaB
1000 MHz
rispostaC
300 MHz
rispostaD
110 MHz
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
4 UNITED KI The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: 4 UNITED KI The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
an emergency
unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight radio communication failure
transponder malfunction radio communication failure
-1
an emergency
transponder malfunction unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight beam width minimum measurable range target discrimination
-1
1 UNITED KI In a primary radar using target discrimination pulse technique, pulse length determines: 1 UNITED KI In a primary radar using minimum range pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines: 1 UNITED KI In a primary radar using pulse length pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of: 5 UNITED KI What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon? amber - white green
maximum measurable range beam width
-1
maximum theoretical range
-1
beam width
aerial rotation rate
Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
-1
white - amber blue
blue - green - white blue - amber white
-1
6 UNITED KI In which frequency VHF band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
UHF
SHF
EHF
-1
Page 1035 of 1247

1 UNITED KI In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position? 1 UNITED KI Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) letdown? 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
When contacting ATC to join controlled airapace from the open FIR
rispostaB
When declaring an emergency on any frequency
rispostaC
When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz
rispostaD
On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
It does not require any It only requires a VHF special equipment, radio to be fitted to the apart from a VHF radio, aircraft to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground 193
It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
-1
Given: 160 VOR station position N61 E025 , variation 13 E; Estimated position of an aircraft N59 E025 , variation 20 E. What VOR radial is the aircraft on? VHF radio
167
347
-1
1 UNITED KI What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF letdown may be flown?
VOR
none
VOR/DME
-1
1 UNITED KI Which of the following 1, 2, 3 and 4 radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
-1
Page 1036 of 1247

5 UNITED KI In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
rispostaA
the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position
rispostaB
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position
rispostaC
the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites
rispostaD
timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 FRANCE
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
higher definition echoes scanning of a large to be produced giving a ground zone producing clearer picture echos whose signals are practically independent of distance 046
better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea 224
a greater radar range to be achieved
-1
2 ICELAND
Given : 226 Compass heading 270 Deviation 2W Variation 30E Relative bearing 316 What is the QDR? The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine an error correction
044
-1
5 GERMANY In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver noise error
Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS ground station
Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft
-1
5 GERMANY Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision Approaches'
The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fix
A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix
-1
Page 1037 of 1247

5 GERMANY How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna? 5 GERMANY In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a: 5 GERMANY What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available? 4 UNITED KI Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
rispostaA
The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message
rispostaB
It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
rispostaC
The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
rispostaD
The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the horizon The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot monitors the GPSSystem manually
procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data available The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are again available
-1
-1
Magnetic heading
Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
Pressure altitude
VOR/DME radial/distance
-1
4 UNITED KI Which one of the VOR/DME following radial/distance sensors/systems is selfcontained and obtains no external information?
Pressure altitude
Magnetic heading
-1
Page 1038 of 1247

4 UNITED KI In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input? 3 UNITED KI Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
rispostaA
Doppler drift
rispostaB
True airspeed
rispostaC
rispostaD
VOR/DME radial/distance
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Airborne weather radar (AWR)
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
-1
4 UNITED KI Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Global Positioning equipments works on Radar (SSR) System (GPS) the interrogator/transponder principle? 4 UNITED KI In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to: 5 FRANCE The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be: The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of: A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the: 7600 7500
Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
-1
7000
7700
-1
right of centre
centred with the 'fail' flag showing
centred
left of centre
-1
4 FRANCE
phase differences
frequency differences
amplitude differences
pulses
-1
4 FRANCE
DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation
DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
-1
Page 1039 of 1247

4 UNITED KI Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the Transponder? 4 UNITED KI The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: 4 FRANCE A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
rispostaA
NORMAL
rispostaB
OFF
rispostaC
STBY (Standby)
rispostaD
IDENT (Identification)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight mode S
an emergency
transponder malfunction entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required mode A only mode C only
-1
all modes
-1
5 GERMANY Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system? 5 GERMANY Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions
The prescribed IFRThe prescribed IFRequipment must be equipment must be in installed and operational working correctly and the navigation information continuously displayed
The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation systems
-1
The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty system
It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
It may be continued It must be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; under VFR conditions prior to the next flight all systems must be checked
-1
Page 1040 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
increase in area and move to the top of the screen
rispostaC
increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
rispostaD
decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
decrease in area and A weather radar, set to move to the top of the the 100 NM scale, screen shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should: If using DifferentialGPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitude
5 GERMANY What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system? 5 GERMANY Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system? 5 FRANCE GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation uses:
Radar altitude
GPS altitude
Barometric altitude
-1
The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
GPS altitude
GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude
Barometric altitude
-1
only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes
only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code
the two carrier waves and one public code
only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code
-1
Page 1041 of 1247

3 FRANCE The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information? The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to: An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is :
rispostaA
1230 km
rispostaB
123 NM
rispostaC
123 km
rispostaD
12.3 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 FRANCE
hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
find the loop 'null' position
hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
stop loop rotation
-1
2 FRANCE
a beam rotating at 30 Hz omnidirectional
bi-lobal circular
-1
5 GERMANY What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? 1 UNITED KI The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the: 5 GERMANY Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals pulse recurrence frequency
It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
It may prevent the reception of signals
It causes multipath propagation
-1
transmission power
size of the aerial
transmission frequency
-1
Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
-1
Page 1042 of 1247

2 UNITED KI 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
rispostaD
interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
static activity increasing the effect of the Aurora Borealis at night particularly in the lower frequency band
2 UNITED KI The maximum range 200 NM obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately: 3 UNITED KI In Airborne Weather rotational speed of Radar (AWR), the main radar scanner; factors which range from cloud determine whether a cloud will be detected are: 3 UNITED KI In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5 ) 2.5 up
100 NM
400 NM
300 NM
-1
size of the water drops; wavelength/frequency used
range from cloud; wavelength/frequency used
size of the water drops; diameter of radar scanner
-1
2.5 down
5 up
-1
4 UNITED KI Which of the following 7600 Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?
4096
9999
0000
-1
Page 1043 of 1247

4 UNITED KI Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required? 3 UNITED KI Loran C coverage is:
rispostaA
5000
rispostaB
7000
rispostaC
0000
rispostaD
2000
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
unrestricted between unrestricted over the confined to certain latitudes 70 N and 70S oceans and adjacent limited areas of the coastlines but limited world over the major continental land masses Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2
global
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9905A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? 1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured: 1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipititation are coloured in the order:
Figure 3
-1
black
cyan
white or magenta
red
-1
green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
green, red, magenta, black
black, amber/yellow, magenta, red
amber/yellow, magenta, black
-1
Page 1044 of 1247

1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is coloured: 1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is coloured: 6 UNITED KI Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
rispostaA
cyan
rispostaB
magenta
rispostaC
green
rispostaD
yellow
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
white
yellow
magenta
green
-1
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
-1
5 GERMANY Which one of the Aircraft position in following lists latitude and longitude information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? 6 UNITED KI Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold? 5 GERMANY (For this question use annex 062-12409A) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DMEbased Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station'? A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters
Wind velocity
True airspeed; drift angle
Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation
-1
Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station 12 NM
Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions
Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft 10 NM
-1
11 NM
21 NM
-1
Page 1045 of 1247

5 GERMANY Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
when the Phantom Station is out of range
rispostaD
when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference station
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
when in the cone of because, under silence overhead the adverse conditions Phantom Station (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180 /360 ) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information south west
3 ICELAND
The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90 out of phase on magnetic:
north
east
-1
5 GERMANY Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the: 5 GERMANY Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers? 5 GERMANY In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite
correction of receiver clock error
fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
recognition wether Selective Availability (SA) is operative
-1
C/A- and P
P and Y
C/A
-1
PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver
PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites
PRN describes the continuous electromagnetical background noise that exists in space
PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from different directions (multipath effect)
-1
Page 1046 of 1247

5 GERMANY In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message? 5 GERMANY The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are: 5 GERMANY At what approximate height above the WGS84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth? 4 UNKNOW Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
rispostaA
UHF
rispostaB
VHF
rispostaC
EHF
rispostaD
SHF
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
inclined 55 to the equatorial plane
inclined 55 to the earth inclined 90 to the axis equatorial plane
parallel to the equatorial plane
-1
36000 km
19500 km
20200 km
10900 km
-1
A VOR station sited on the flight route
A DME station sited across the flight route
A DME station sited on the flight route
An ADF sited on the flight route
-1
1 UNITED KI What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL? 1 UNITED KI The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
150 NM
180 NM
220 NM
120 NM
-1
107 NM
114 NM
134 NM
158 NM
-1
Page 1047 of 1247

2 UNITED KI A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
rispostaA
Six
rispostaB
Eight
rispostaC
Two
rispostaD
Four
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour green code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are coloured: 2 UNKNOW Assuming sufficient 666 km transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/second) Figure 1
white
magenta
yellow
-1
1333 km
150 km
333 km
-1
2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9908A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
-1
Page 1048 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
Figure 1
rispostaC
Figure 2
rispostaD
Figure 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Figure 4 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9907A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected? 2 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9906A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? 3 UNITED KI Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C navigation system? 3 UNITED KI The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is: Figure 3
Figure 4
Figure 1
Figure 2
-1
Differential range by phase comparison
Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
Differential range by pulse technique
Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
-1
190 NM
230 NM
170 NM
151 NM
-1
2 UNITED KI A radar facility 27 NM transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
69 NM
135 NM
270 NM
-1
Page 1049 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
VOR/VOR
rispostaC
DME/DME
rispostaD
VOR/DME
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
NDB/VOR 4 UNITED KI Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes? 3 UNITED KI Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct? The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal
The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation + or - 75 FT
The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates
The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the allocated frequency each time it rotates + or - 25 FT
-1
4 UNITED KI When an aircraft is + or - 50 FT operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within: 3 UNITED KI In an Airborne Weather green to yellow to red Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from: 3 UNITED KI Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes? roll and yaw
+ or - 100 FT
-1
yellow to amber to blue
green to red to black
yellow to orange to red
-1
roll and pitch
roll, pitch and yaw
pitch and yaw
-1
Page 1050 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
6 UNITED KI The azimuth transmitter + or - 30 of the runway + or - 40 of the runway + or - 50 of the runway + or - 60 of the runway centre-line centre-line centre-line of a Microwave Landing centre-line System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually: 1 UNITED KI In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate? 5 UNITED KI What is the minimum number of satellites required for a SatelliteAssisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation? 5 GERMANY What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode? 4 UNKNOW The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: EHF VHF SHF UHF
-1
-1
5 NM
1 NM
2 NM
10 NM
-1
1090 MHz MHz
1030
1090 MHz MHz
1090
1030 MHz MHz
1030
1030 MHz MHz
1090
-1
Transmitter Receiver 4 UNKNOW When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is: flight level based on 1013.25 hPa altitude based on regional QNH aircraft height based on sub-scale setting height based on QFE -1 0 0 0
Page 1051 of 1247

5 FRANCE ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from: What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3 ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
rispostaA
spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles 3 above and below the glide path and 10 each side of the localiser centreline
rispostaB
back-scattering of antennas 1.35 above the horizontal to 5.25 above the horizontal and 8 each side of the localiser centreline
rispostaC
ground returns ahead of the antennas 0.45 above the horizontal to 1.75 above the glide path and 8 each side of the localiser centreline
rispostaD
multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane 0.7 above and below the glide path and 2.5 each side of the localiser centreline
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 UNKNOW
-1
4 UNKNOW
During a flight at FL altitude is too high 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the: A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately: The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies: An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because: 8 NM
range of a DME system aeroplane is below the is always less than 200 'line of sight' altitude NM
aeroplane is circling around the station
-1
4 FRANCE
6 NM
7 NM
11 NM
-1
4 UNKNOW
329 to 335 MHz
962 to 1213 kHz.
962 to 1213 MHz
108 to 118 MHz
-1
4 UNKNOW
the pulse recurrence rates are varied
DME uses the UHF band
they are not on the receiver frequency
DME transmits twin pulses
-1
Page 1052 of 1247

5 UNITED KI In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by: 5 GERMANY Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct? 5 GERMANY In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
rispostaA
Inertial Reference Systems Navigation radios True airspeed and drift inputs C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
rispostaB
Navigation radios Flight Management Computer Inertial Reference Systems
rispostaC
Inertial Reference Systems Aircraft Mapping Radar Navigation radios
rispostaD
Flight Management Computer Aircraft Mapping Radar Navigation radios The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
The higher frequency is The lower frequency is only used to transmit used to transmit both the P code the C/A and P codes
-1
12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
-1
5 GERMANY Which of the following data to correct receiver data, in addition to the clock error; almanac Pseudo Random Noise data (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? 5 GERMANY How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
time; positions of the satellites
almanac data; satellite status information
time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix
-1
The receiver detects Each satellite transmits the direction from its signal on a separate which the signals are frequency received and compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code
The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
-1
Page 1053 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
iso-echo areas which are coloured black
rispostaC
colour zones being closest together
rispostaD
blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 UNITED KI In an Airborne Weather large areas of flashing Radar that has a colour red colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by: 5 GERMANY Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation? 5 UNITED KI The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of: NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
-1
75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
-1
5 UNITED KI The outer marker of an 1400 FT ILS with a 3 glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is: 3 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 062-9915A) What drift is being experienced? 20 Right
1350 FT
1300 FT
1450 FT
-1
20 Left
12 Right
8 Left
-1
3 UNITED KI In the MAPPING fan shaped beam MODE the airborne effective up to a range weather radar utilises a: of 150 NM
pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
-1
Page 1054 of 1247

4 UNITED KI Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
rispostaA
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
rispostaB
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources NW
rispostaC
The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
rispostaD
The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources SE
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 ICELAND
An aircraft is flying on a NE heading of 270 (M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270 with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station? An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial? 10 or more
SW
-1
3 ICELAND
less than 10
1.5 or more
2.5 or more
-1
2 ICELAND
ADF bearings by an +/-10 aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of: What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix? In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz? 6
+/-2.5
+/-2
+/-5
-1
5 ICELAND
-1
3 ICELAND
Doppler
Loran C
GPS
Decca
-1
Page 1055 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
dashes and an amber light flashing
rispostaD
alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 UNITED KI The MIDDLE MARKER two dashes per second dots and a white light and a blue light flashing flashing of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of: 5 GERMANY The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on: 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane
6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
-1
3 UNITED KI The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to: 2 UNITED KI Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by: 5 GERMANY Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-LineComputer in a basic Area Navigation (RNAV) system?
give an indication of cloud tops
inhibit unwanted ground extend the mapping returns range
detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
-1
misalignment of the loop aerial
skywave/groundwave contamination
signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
-1
It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air 14 NM
It calculates cross track It transfers the information for NDB information given by a approaches VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint 8 NM 9 NM
-1
5 GERMANY (For this question use annex 062-12410A) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DMEbased Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'?
11 NM
-1
Page 1056 of 1247

5 GERMANY What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an 2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode? 3 UNKNOW
rispostaA
10 NM
rispostaB
0.5
rispostaC
10
rispostaD
0.5 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
A VOR is sited at 185 position A (45 00'N, 010 00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44 00'N, 010 00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10 W and at B is 15 W, the aircraft is on VOR radial: green
180
190
195
-1
1 UNITED KI Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured: 4 UNKNOW
magenta
amber/yellow
white
-1
A DME station is 17 NM located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of: 7600
16 NM
14 NM
15 NM
-1
4 UNITED KI In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
7700
7000
7500
-1
Page 1057 of 1247

4 UNITED KI In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
rispostaA
7700
rispostaB
7000
rispostaC
7500
rispostaD
7600
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1 UNITED KI An apparent increase in both transmitter and the transmitted receiver move towards frequency which is each other proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when: 5 GERMANY Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct? It is greatest at the equator
the transmitter moves towards the receiver
the transmitter moves away from the receiver
the receiver moves towards the transmitter
-1
It is greatest at the poles It varies, depending on the time and observer's location
It is the same throughout the globe
-1
3 UNITED KI An aircraft is required 244 with the FROM to approach a VOR flag showing station via the 244 radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to: 2 UNITED KI Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is: 3 UNITED KI The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: 3 UNITED KI Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions? inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
244 with the TO flag showing
064 with the TO flag showing
064 with the FROM flag showing
-1
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
-1
envelope matching
beat frequency discrimination UHF
difference in depth of modulation SHF
phase comparison
-1
VHF
HF
-1
Page 1058 of 1247

3 UNITED KI Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by: 3 UNITED KI If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by: 3 UNITED KI An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2 deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide) 3 UNITED KI An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5 . In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately: 3 UNITED KI Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
rispostaA
quadrantal error
rispostaB
uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces interference from other transmitters
rispostaC
static interference
rispostaD
night effect
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency 1.5
noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter 4.5
sky wave interference from the same transmitter
-1
3.0
6.0
-1
165 NM
210 NM
105 NM
50 NM
-1
altostratus
cumulus
cirrocumulus
stratus
-1
Page 1059 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
270
rispostaC
090
rispostaD
100
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
280 3 UNITED KI An aircraft on a heading of 280 (M) is on a bearing of 090 (M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is: 5 UNITED KI An aircraft tracking to may receive false intercept the Instrument course indications Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle: 3 UNITED KI What is the maximum 147 NM theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL? 4 UNITED KI A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is: 4 UNITED KI In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400? 4 UNITED KI Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the: 100 MHz
will not normally receive will receive signals signals without identification coding
can expect signals to give correct indications
-1
156 NM
184 NM
220 NM
-1
100 GHz
1000 MHz
10 MHz
-1
When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
-1
UHF band and is a VHF band and uses the UHF band and is a secondary radar system principle of phase primary radar system comparison
SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
-1
Page 1060 of 1247

4 UNITED KI For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds: 4 UNITED KI On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates: 4 UNITED KI The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because: 4 UNITED KI The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because: 4 UNITED KI The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should not exceed:
rispostaA
80
rispostaB
100
rispostaC
200
rispostaD
60
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
the airborne receiver is conducting a range search pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
airborne equipment failure
ground equipment failure
the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft
-1
aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each other
transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
-1
DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
aircraft transmitter and reflections are subject DME ground station are to doppler frequency transmitting on different shift frequencies + or - 3 NM + or - 0.25 NM
DME transmits twin pulses
-1
+ or - 1.5 NM
+ or - 1.25 NM
-1
Page 1061 of 1247

4 UNITED KI The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 microsecond. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
rispostaA
186 NM
rispostaB
296 NM
rispostaC
330 NM
rispostaD
165 NM
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 UNITED KI A Category 1 runway surface Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to: 5 UNITED KI The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is: 5 ICELAND
200 feet above the inner marker
200 feet above the runway threshold
50 feet above ILS reference point
-1
heavy precipitation may to increase distance disturb guidance signals from the runway during offset approach operations
to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions
aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
-1
In order to enter a does not have to be in waypoint that is range when entered or designated by a VOR used into an RNAV, the VOR: 284 with the TO flag showing
must be in range
has to be positively identified by one of the pilots 104 with the TO flag showing
does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used 104 with the FROM flag showing
-1
3 UNITED KI An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104 radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
284 with the FROM flag showing
-1
Page 1062 of 1247
subject/secparagraph wording Domanda 71

3 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
at FL 430
rispostaC
below FL 410
rispostaD
at FL 410
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
An aircraft operating above FL 410 within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90 (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if : 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
3 PORTUGA Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
-1
Page 1063 of 1247

3 PORTUGA Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
rispostaA
Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.
rispostaB
Flying above 3000 ft.
rispostaC
Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace. Between FL245 and FL410.
rispostaD
Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace. Below FL290.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 PORTUGA At which levels may Between FL290 and Reduced Vertical FL410. Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region? 8 SPAIN DOC 4444 (ICAO) 135 000 Kg or more establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of : In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a :
Between FL275 and FL400.
-1
less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg
146 000 Kg or more
136 000 Kg or more
-1
3 FRANCE
spherical flight segment straight map line
great circle line
rhumb line
-1
Page 1064 of 1247

3 FRANCE Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to : 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
15 /h.sin Lm
rispostaB
g.sin Lm
rispostaC
g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
rispostaD
g/2.sin Lm
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
You are the captain of a draft a bird strike commercial airplane hazard report upon and you notice, after arrival and within at take-off, a flock of most 48 hours. birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must:
immediately inform the appropriate ground station.
inform the other aircraft by radio.
inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.
-1
Page 1065 of 1247

3 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
below FL 410
rispostaC
at FL 430
rispostaD
at FL410
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
An aircraft operating above FL 410 within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level,and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90 (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if : Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The transport precession is equal to : 15 /h.sin Lm
3 FRANCE
g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
g/2.sin Lm
g.sin Lm
-1
Page 1066 of 1247

4 SPAIN In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noisesensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes :
rispostaA
no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.
rispostaB
turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.
rispostaC
turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20 (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
rispostaD
turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28 (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 FRANCE
In public transport, prior external surfaces are to take-off in icing still covered with anticonditions, the captain icing fluid. must check that:
possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual. operation manual.
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
-1
1 FRANCE
The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the : The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:
flight manual.
flight record.
JAR OPS.
-1
12 FRANCE
insurance certificate.
air carrier certificate.
registration certificate.
airworthiness certificate.
-1
1 FRANCE
A piece of equipment the flight manual. on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
the minimum equipment list.
the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".
the JAR OPS.
-1
Page 1067 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
the flight record.
rispostaC
the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".
rispostaD
the minimum equipment list.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
the JAR OPS. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is: The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are specified in the : In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a : air carrier certificate.
12 FRANCE
operation manual.
flight manual.
AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
-1
12 FRANCE
system to warn the transport document for crew in case of a leak hazardous materials. or of an abnormal increase in temperature.
representative of the company owning the materials.
specialized handling employee.
-1
Page 1068 of 1247

13 FRANCE In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 13 FRANCE
rispostaA
2, 3, 4
rispostaB
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaC
1, 3, 4
rispostaD
1, 3, 4, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Your flight manual does 18 % not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
20 %
17,6 %
15 %
-1
Page 1069 of 1247

13 FRANCE In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
rispostaA
it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
rispostaB
its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance. 4
rispostaC
surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
rispostaD
it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm. 1, 2, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
13 FRANCE
In the JAR OPS, a 1, 2 runway is considered wet when: 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. it bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3
-1
Page 1070 of 1247

3 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft
rispostaC
climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
rispostaD
climb or descend 1 000 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
An aircraft flying above climb or descent 500 ft flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90 (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and : When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence nonradar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be : 4 MIN
8 SPAIN
3 MIN
1 MIN
2 MIN
-1
Page 1071 of 1247

8 SPAIN According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :
rispostaA
to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
rispostaB
Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an oppositedirection runway for take-off MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
rispostaC
to LIGHT aircraft takingoff behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m
rispostaD
to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
8 SPAIN
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :
MEDIUM aircraft takingoff behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m 3 NM
LIGHT aircraft takingoff behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway 2 NM
-1
8 SPAIN
In accordance with 5 NM DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of : According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to : According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a : LIGHT aircraft takingoff behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway) MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 n (1 000 ft)
4 NM
-1
8 SPAIN
LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000.ft)
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
-1
8 SPAIN
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)
HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)
-1
Page 1072 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1.3
rispostaC
1.45
rispostaD
1.5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1.15 When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of: In accordance with E OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :
2 SPAIN
-1
Page 1073 of 1247

3 SPAIN In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :
rispostaA
500 ft
rispostaB
2000ft
rispostaC
1 500 ft
rispostaD
1 000 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 SPAIN
An aircraft flying at climb or descend 500 ft climb or descent 1 000 flight level 370 (FL 370) ft on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90 (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :
climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft
climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
-1
Page 1074 of 1247

9 FRANCE According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include: (For this question use appendix ) If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix it is : 5 FRANCE 7 FRANCE H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must : A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from : 90 % of bird strikes occur :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case of a depressurization in the compartment area. an infectious material
rispostaD
a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
a device preventing the distinctive red or yellow flight crew from being colored markings locked in the cockpit. indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).
12 FRANCE
a toxic material or gas
a corpse
an explosive material
-1
Class A fires take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.
Class B fires reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.
electrical source fires maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
special fires: metals, gas, chemical products reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
0 0
3 FRANCE
from 200 to 500 m.
from 0 to 150 m.
from 500 to 1200 m.
from 100 to 800 m.
-1
3 FRANCE
above 1 000 m
between 500 and 1 000 between 500 and 1 500 under 500 m m m
-1
Page 1075 of 1247

7 FRANCE While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a "microburst". You will expect to encounter:
rispostaA
supercooled water.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
wake turbulence .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
convection motion of air windshears (vertical mass. and horizontal).
11 FRANCE
If obliged to jettison part during final phase of of the fuel in flight, it approach. would be better to do so: If you encounter a 2,4 "microburst" just after taking-off, at the beginning you will have: 1 - a head wind 2 - a strong rear wind 3 - better climb performances 4 - a diminution of climb gradient 5 - an important thrust drop The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level. 1,4
in a holding stack, after control clearance. 4,5
under flight level 50 (FL50). 1,3
-1
7 FRANCE
-1
5 NETHERL
The system which must ventilation of the cargo be switched off in case compartment of a belly compartment fire is generally the :
pressurization
total airconditioning
trim air
-1
Page 1076 of 1247

2 FRANCE Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly: 1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination, 2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet, 3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel report, 4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator, 5 - notification for special loadings, 6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3 PORTUGA An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70 N between 5 W and 65 W, every:
rispostaA
1,3,5
rispostaB
2,4
rispostaC
2,3,4,5
rispostaD
1,2,3,4,5,6
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
15 of longitude.
10 of longitude.
5 of longitude.
20 of longitude.
-1
Page 1077 of 1247

3 FRANCE As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are: 1 - ATIS. 2 - NOTAMs. 3 - BIRDTAMs. 4 - Weather radar. 5 - The report by another crew. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 12 FRANCE Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :
rispostaA
2,5
rispostaB
1,2,5
rispostaC
1,2,3,4,5
rispostaD
1,3,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
national aviation administration permission has been granted 7600
government permission has been granted
no passenger is carried on the same flight
the airline complies with the Technical Instructions 7500 2-4
-1
9 FRANCE 5 FRANCE
7700 1-2-3
2000 1-2-3-4
0 0
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
A dry-chemical type fire 3 - 4 extinguisher is fit to fight: 1- class A fires 2- class B fires 3- electrical source fires 4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
Page 1078 of 1247

5 FRANCE The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halogen Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 5 FRANCE The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halogen Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
rispostaA
1
rispostaB
3-4
rispostaC
1-2-3-4
rispostaD
2-3-4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3-4
2-3-4
1-2-3-4
-1
3 PORTUGA An air traffic units may 10 of longitude. request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70 N between 10 W and 50 W, every: 3 PORTUGA Which errors in "estimates" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic? 3 PORTUGA The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is: 3 or more.
15 of longitude.
5 of longitude.
20 of longitude.
-1
5 or more.
10 or more.
2 or more.
-1
60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
-1
Page 1079 of 1247

8 FRANCE To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver : The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by: An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:
rispostaA
Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
rispostaB
Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
rispostaC
Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
rispostaD
Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 FRANCE
the manufacturer.
the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states. authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.
the airline operator.
-1
2 FRANCE
authorized, providing forbidden. both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir seat bel
authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.
-1
6 UNITED KI Following an explosive 14000 ft decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not impaired is : 5 FRANCE 5 FRANCE 10 FRANCE A class A fire is a fire of: A class B fire is a fire of: metal or gas or chemical (special fires) solid material usually of organic nature
2500 ft
8000 ft
25000 ft
-1
solid material, generally of organic nature electrical source fire an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
liquid or liquefiable solid electrical origin special fire: metal, gas, chemical product an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority liquid or liquefiable solid a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
0 0 0
-1 0 0
0 0 -1
0 -1 0
The correct definition of a voluntary landing on a safe forced landing is: land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by: the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
1 FRANCE
-1
Page 1080 of 1247

1 FRANCE The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by: For stable clouds: 1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0 C and 10 C 2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0 C and 15 C 3- icing becomes rare at t < -18 C 4- icing becomes rare at t < -30 C 5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm 6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mm Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements? 7 FRANCE Wind shear is:
rispostaA
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
the manufacturer, and it the operator, and it is is inserted in the appended to the flight operations manual manual
2 FRANCE
2-3-5
1-4-6
1-3-5
2-4-6
-1
a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance
a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance
a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
-1
Page 1081 of 1247

10 FRANCE Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1 - remain on the runway, 2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway, 3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on, 4 - turn off all systems. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2 FRANCE
rispostaA
2,3.
rispostaB
2,4.
rispostaC
1,4.
rispostaD
1,3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Supplemental oxygen is assist a passenger with provide people on used to : breathing disorders board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation A category III B 150 m precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ? if the flight lasts more than 3 hours. 250 m
protect a crew who fights a fire
provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation 75 m
-1
2 FRANCE
200 m
-1
2 FRANCE
never.
if the aircraft is a twinengine.
if part or all the flight is done at night.
-1
Page 1082 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The validity period of a three years. "certificate of airworthiness" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is: The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 1 - the training 2 - the test results 3 - a log of flying hours 4 - a summary of the training by reference period Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers? 3-4
three years for public three years if the transport aircraft and aircraft has not five years for the others. undergone major modifications.
2 FRANCE
1-2-3-4
1-2-3
2-3
-1
Page 1083 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The aircraft is a single No, visibility being engine, IFR, category A below 1 200 metres. with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres. The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet. Is take-off possible?
Yes, if there is an Yes, visibility being accessible airport higher than the within 75 NM. horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.
3 PORTUGA In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should :
If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
-1
Page 1084 of 1247

3 PORTUGA In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should: 3 PORTUGA In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
rispostaA
If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
rispostaB
If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
If at FL410, climb 1000 If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards ft or descend 500 ft, the alternate aerodrome. while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.
Descend below FL275.
-1
Page 1085 of 1247

8 FRANCE The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of: 1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices). 2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts). 3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 13 FRANCE A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: (For this question use appendix ) For the two labels represented in the appendix, the principal and secondary risks are respectively: 7 FRANCE One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :
rispostaA
2 and 3.
rispostaB
1, 2 and 3.
rispostaC
1.
rispostaD
3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
flooded.
damp.
contaminated.
wet.
-1
12 FRANCE
corrosive material, toxic
corrosive material, infectious
infectious material, corrosive
toxic material, corrosive
-1
can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane green flashing light
occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane green steady light
can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane red steady light
-1
1 FRANCE
During a night flight, an white steady light observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the :
-1
Page 1086 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
green flashing light
rispostaC
red steady light
rispostaD
green steady light
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
During a night flight, an white steady light observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will first see the : The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of : 70 .
1 FRANCE
220 .
110 .
140 .
-1
5 FRANCE
You will use a halon 1,2,3,4 extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...) 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2,3,4
1,2,4
1,2,3
-1
13 FRANCE
The braking efficiency combination of the is a piece of information terms: poor, medium, presenting itself in the good. form of a : When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends : Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established : not to change its trajectory
percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.
zero followed by two decimals.
letter falling between A and E.
-1
7 FRANCE
to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength drag
to descend
to climb
-1
8 FRANCE
lift
spin up
lift destruction
-1
Page 1087 of 1247

5 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
3
rispostaC
3 and 4
rispostaD
1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
You will use a water fire- 2 extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of : 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...) 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (sodium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
8 FRANCE
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :
Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration 0.7
Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration 0.5
Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration 0.8
-1
1 FRANCE
For turbo-jet aircraft, in 0.6 the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :
-1
9 UNITED KI Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to :
the Autority of the State the Authority of the of the operator only State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference
both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
the local authority only
-1
Page 1088 of 1247

8 UNITED KI For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
rispostaA
4 minutes
rispostaB
5 minutes
rispostaC
2 minutes
rispostaD
3 minutes
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
8 UNITED KI In accordance with M ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg : 8 UNITED KI For purpose of wake 3 minutes turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
-1
4 minutes
5 minutess
2 minutes
-1
Page 1089 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 8 UNITED KI For purpose of wake minutes turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ? 8 UNITED KI For the purpose of 11.1 km (6 NM) wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ? 7 UNITED KI In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full goaround power, in coordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to : slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
3.7 km (2 NM)
7.4 km (4 NM)
9.3 km (5 NM)
-1
increase the pitch angle climb away at Vat + 20 until the stick shaker is kt felt and hold at slightly below this angle
reduce speed to V2 and hold
-1
Page 1090 of 1247

7 UNITED KI Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is :
rispostaA
medium
rispostaB
null
rispostaC
substantial
rispostaD
small
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 UNITED KI The minimum 15000 ft requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is : 6 UNITED KI Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ? 32000 ft
25000 ft
13000 ft
14000 ft
-1
25000 ft
14000 ft
8000 ft
-1
Page 1091 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
can only do so after having consulted the operator. 50 NM
rispostaC
must do so, within a reasonable period of time. 100 NM
rispostaD
can request a delay of 48 hours.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The captain is asked by can refuse to present the authority to present them. the documents of the aircraft. He A life jacket is 400 NM mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than : An aircraft having leaving the icing zone. undergone an anti-icing procedure must be antiicing fluid free at the latest when : A category III A 200 m precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : A category I precision 800 m approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : When the weather 2 hours of flight at conditions require an cruising speed with 1 alternate aerodrome to engine inoperative be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :
1 FRANCE
200 NM
-1
2 FRANCE
it is rotating (before taking-off).
releasing the brakes in order to take-off.
it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
-1
2 FRANCE
100 m
250 m
50 m
-1
2 FRANCE
500 m
550 m
350 m
-1
3 FRANCE
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating
-1
Page 1092 of 1247

3 FRANCE When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twinengined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding : A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :
rispostaA
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
rispostaB
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
rispostaC
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
rispostaD
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
a runway visual range of at least 350 m
no runway visual range limits
-1
2 FRANCE
A category II precision a decision height of at approach (CAT II) is an least 200 ft approach with : On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during : On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during : The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft is : 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
a decision height of at least 50 ft 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
no decision height
a decision height of at least 100 ft 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
-1
3 FRANCE
2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
-1
3 FRANCE
30 minutes at cruising speed
45 minutes at cruising speed
30 minutes at holding 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft flight speed and 1500 ft
-1
3 FRANCE
forbidden in all cases
authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems
authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space
authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller
-1
Page 1093 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
On overwater flights, an 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed. operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to : The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is : The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least : 110
1 FRANCE
70
220
140
-1
1 FRANCE
30 minutes.
60 minutes.
15 minutes.
2 hours.
-1
Page 1094 of 1247

2 FRANCE When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1 - an increase in the take-off distance 2 - a diminution of the take-off run 3 - an increase in the stalling speed 4 - a diminution of the stalling speed 5 - a diminution of the climb gradient The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2 FRANCE The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a :
rispostaA
1, 3, 5
rispostaB
2, 4, 5
rispostaC
1, 2, 3
rispostaD
2, 3, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
24 hours protection time.
certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature. 90 minutes
3 hours protection time.
certain time of protection depending on its concentration. 30 minutes
-1
11 UNITED KI In what period of time 60 minutes must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :
15 minutes
-1
Page 1095 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
120 seconds
rispostaC
60 seconds
rispostaD
90 seconds
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
132 seconds 10 UNITED KI For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in : 9 UNITED KI The flight deck door should be capable of being : remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment
locked from within the compartment
directly locked from outside the compartment code 7500
remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment code 7600
-1
9 UNITED KI What transponder code code 7700 should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference : 9 UNITED KI Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued ? The : J.A.A.
code 2000
-1
Commander of the aircraft
aeroplane's operator
contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
-1
Page 1096 of 1247

3 FRANCE With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following information : - Desired track (DTK) = 100 - Track (TK) = 120 You can conclude that the : 3 FRANCE A minimum time track is a : A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :
rispostaA
Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course
rispostaB
Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)
rispostaC
Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)
rispostaD
Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
rhumb line
spherical capable flight segment increased manoeuvring limits
track determined according to weather conditions increased flight envelope
great circle track
-1
3 FRANCE
reduced range
increased Mach number stability
-1
5 FRANCE
CO2 type extinguishers 1 - 2 - 4 are fit to fight: 1 - class A fires 2 - class B fires 3 - electrical source fires 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical product Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
2-3-4
1-3-4
1-2-3
-1
Page 1097 of 1247

2 FRANCE An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres : Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres : The pilot may start the final approach... 3 FRANCE During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately. Following this incident the pilot :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.
rispostaD
if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
if the ceiling transmitted whatever the ceiling given by ATC. by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.
is not obliged to report this incident
must file a Bird Strike report
must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning
must file a airworthiness report
-1
13 FRANCE
The tire pressure of an 87 kt aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning phenomenon will appear is approximately:
145 kt
112 kt
56 kt
-1
Page 1098 of 1247

11 UNITED KI From the following list : 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests : 12 UNITED KI In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :
rispostaA
1 and 4
rispostaB
2 and 3
rispostaC
1,2,3 and 4
rispostaD
1,3 and 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
English
French
Spanish
English, French or Spanish
-1
Page 1099 of 1247

12 UNITED KI From the following list : 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons : 13 UNITED KI The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is : 2 FRANCE During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is: A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an inflight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency :
rispostaA
3,4 and 5 only
rispostaB
2,3 and 4 only
rispostaC
1,2 and 3 only
rispostaD
1,2 and 5 only
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
24 hours the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
12 hours the outer marker (OM).
6 hours the FAF.
3 hours the middle marker.
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
0 0
11 FRANCE
until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at landing touchdown
in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning system
in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length
unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative
-1
Page 1100 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
rispostaC
30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
rispostaD
30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
60 minutes at cruising For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard speed all engines running. operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than: 129 kt
13 UNITED KI Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is :
114 kt
100 kt
80 kt
-1
13 UNITED KI Item D of a it is not reported SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported : 13 UNITED KI A braking action of 0.25 good and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :
by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metres
as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM
in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
-1
poor
unreliable
medium
-1
Page 1101 of 1247

7 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,4.
rispostaC
2,4.
rispostaD
2,3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
1,3. After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the climbout path 2- flies below the climbout path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :
7 FRANCE
During a landing 1,3. approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the glide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed the combination of correct statements is :
1,4.
2,3.
2,4.
-1
Page 1102 of 1247

7 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2,4.
rispostaC
1,3.
rispostaD
1,4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2,3. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below theglide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :
7 FRANCE
During a landing 2,4. approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the gilde path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :
2,3.
1,3.
1,4.
-1
Page 1103 of 1247

7 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1,3
rispostaC
1,4
rispostaD
2,4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2,3 During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1. flies above the glide path 2. flies below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :
12 FRANCE
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :
the captain.
the handling agent.
the shipper.
the operator.
-1
3 FRANCE
For a long-range fourabout the optimum jet aircraft in cruising altitude flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly : For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
about the lock-on altitude
between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
just below the optimum altitude
-1
1 SPAIN
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
-1
Page 1104 of 1247

12 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
It is not specified.
rispostaD
The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods. 1,3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
The captain, always The operator. Who makes sure that the air transportation of using the list of prohibited aircraft items. an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited? We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if : 1. threre is a change in environnemental sounds. 2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise. 3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior becomes equal. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 2,3. 1,2,3.
6 SPAIN
1,2.
-1
5 SPAIN
If smoke appears in the Determine which air conditioning, the system is causing the first action to take is to : smoke.
Cut off all air conditioning units.
Put on the mask and goggles.
Begin an emergency descent.
-1
Page 1105 of 1247

4 SPAIN Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances : 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 4 SPAIN
rispostaA
2,3.
rispostaB
1,2,3.
rispostaC
1,2.
rispostaD
1,3.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
About procedures for They prohibit the use of noise attenuation during reverse thrust . landing: If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be: Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I) Dependent on the temperature.
Such procedures do not exist.
They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust . Equal to the actual.
-1
2 SPAIN
Greater than the actual. Less than the actual.
-1
1 SPAIN
Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.
With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).
As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.
As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.
-1
Page 1106 of 1247

1 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
The country where the aircraft was manufactured.
rispostaC
The country where the aircraft is operated.
rispostaD
It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The country of the The operator will operator. include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6, Part I) The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a nonprecision direct IFR approach with the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller... One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I) A category I precision approach (CAT I) has : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I) flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for precision approaches.
2 FRANCE
the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.
the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and midrunway RVR are higher than 750 metres.
the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.
-1
1 SPAIN
At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
-1
2 FRANCE 1 SPAIN
a decision height equal to at least 100 ft. The operator.
a decision height equal to at least 50 ft. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
no decision height. The company's cargo technicians.
a decision height equal to at least 200 ft. The captain.
0 0
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
Page 1107 of 1247

8 FRANCE When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible : When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever possible : In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you : In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. a dry powder fire extinguisher 2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fireextinguisher 4. a CO2 fireextinguisher to the maximum The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 10 FRANCE An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :
rispostaA
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path.
rispostaB
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.
rispostaC
identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
rispostaD
distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
8 FRANCE
different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path.
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path.
identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
-1
5 FRANCE
carry out a damp cranking.
pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fireextinguishers. 2, 3, 4
fight the nozzle fire with a water fireextinguisher. 3, 4
carry out a dry cranking.
-1
5 FRANCE
1, 2
1, 4
-1
reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing
maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain
increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer
-1
Page 1108 of 1247

2 FRANCE The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is :
rispostaA
1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number of passenger seats is less than 9
rispostaB
2 pilots for any turboprop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft
rispostaC
2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats
rispostaD
2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
The aircraft is of 300 m. Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for take-off is: The information to 1-3 consider for a standard straight-in approach is : 1 - the horizontal visibility 2 - the ceiling 3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA) 4 - the decision altitude (DA) Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
150 m.
200 m.
-1
2 FRANCE
1-4
1-2-3
1-2-4
-1
Page 1109 of 1247

1 SPAIN
rispostaA
rispostaB
Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
rispostaC
All the flight crew be on board.
rispostaD
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
When refueling is being The aircraft's stairs be completely extended. performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I) During an aircraft deicing/anti-icing procedure: Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is : In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You 1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps) 2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4- avoid excessive attitude change The combination of correct statements is : the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot. subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not) 1,4
2 FRANCE
the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot. not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled 2,3
the anti-icing and deicing fluids are applied hot. subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed 2,4
the anti-icing and deicing fluids are applied cold. subject to a mandatory clearance
-1
3 FRANCE
-1
7 FRANCE
1,3
-1
Page 1110 of 1247

9 SWEDEN What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :
rispostaA
7500
rispostaB
7600
rispostaC
7700
rispostaD
7800
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5 FRANCE
After landing, in case of apply the parking brake high temperature of the and you approach the brakes you: wheels either from fore or aft. The anti-icing fluid when the temperature protecting film can wear of the airplane skin is off and reduce close to 0 C. considerably the protection time: The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. the type and intensity of the showers 2. the ambient temperature 3. the relative humidity 4. the direction and speed of the wind 5. the temperature of the airplane skin 6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3, 4, 5
apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards. when the airplane is into the wind.
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore. during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards. when the outside temperature is close to 0 C.
-1
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
1, 2, 4, 6
1, 3, 5, 6
-1
12 FRANCE
The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the :
aircraft's flight manual.
IATA document "Dangerous products transportation".
JAR-OPS documentation.
ICAO document named "Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products"
-1
Page 1111 of 1247

5 FRANCE A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 FRANCE The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : A 1211 halon fireextinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a fabric fire 3. an electric fire 4. a wood fire 5. a hydrocarbon fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 12 FRANCE
rispostaA
2, 3, 4
rispostaB
2, 4, 5
rispostaC
1, 3, 5
rispostaD
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
the aircraft state of registry. 1, 3, 5
the manufacturer.
the operator.
the aircraft manufacture'rs list. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
-1
5 FRANCE
2, 3, 4
2, 4, 5
-1
ICAO (International the noise pollution of Civil Aviation aircraft Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with : During a de-icing/antiicing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts: at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
the technical operational use of aircraft
the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
the air transport of live animals
-1
2 FRANCE
at the end of the second stage (antiicing stage).
a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
at the beginning of the second stage (antiicing stage).
-1
Page 1112 of 1247

10 FRANCE In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will : 1. evacuate women and children first. 2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts. 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability. 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 10 FRANCE Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:
rispostaA
2, 3, 4
rispostaB
2, 3
rispostaC
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaD
1, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
a plastic fire.
a fast depressurization.
a slow depressurization. an electrical fire.
-1
Page 1113 of 1247

10 FRANCE The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor, 2. head resting against the back of the front seat, 3. forearms on the armrests, 4. seat belt very tightly fastened, 5. head resting on the forearms. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 9 FRANCE In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
rispostaA
2, 3, 4
rispostaB
2, 4, 5
rispostaC
1, 4, 5
rispostaD
1, 2, 3, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
you carry out an you climb to the emergency descent to maximum flight level reach the safety altitude. which does not need the use of pressurization.
you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.
-1
Page 1114 of 1247

13 FRANCE In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain : 1. you increase your approach speed, 2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear, 3. you decrease your approach speed, 4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices, 5. you land as smoothly as possible, 6. you brake energically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 5 NETHERL The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is : The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
rispostaA
3, 5
rispostaB
2, 3, 4
rispostaC
1, 4, 5, 6
rispostaD
1, 2, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes. 5 minutes.
Water may only be used for minor fires.
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire. 30 seconds.
Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide. 1 minute.
-1
6 FRANCE
12 seconds.
-1
2 FRANCE
An aircraft having need not to undergo a undergone an anti-icing new anti-icing procedure and having procedure for take-off. exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
must only undergo a de- must undergo a deicing procedure for take- icing procedure before off. a new application of anti-icing fluid for takeoff.
must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
-1
Page 1115 of 1247

5 FRANCE A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
2, 3, 4
rispostaB
2, 4, 5
rispostaC
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
rispostaD
1, 3, 5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
On board a pressurized 10 000 ft. aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than : For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of : A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in : 0.6
11 000 ft.
12 000 ft.
13 000 ft.
-1
1 FRANCE
0.5
0.8
0.7
-1
12 NETHERL
Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.
the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
the technical Annex 18 to the instructions for the safe Chicago convention. transport of dangerous goods by air.
-1
Page 1116 of 1247

2 NETHERL Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the : According to the JAROPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :
rispostaA
operational flight plan.
rispostaB
operation manual.
rispostaC
flight manual.
rispostaD
journey logbook.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 NETHERL
120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
-1
3 FRANCE
During a flight to in random airspace Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Spcification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30 W meridian at 2330 UTC ; you will normally be : During a flight to in random airspace. Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30 W meridian at 1000 UTC ; you will normally be :
in a day flight route system
in a night flight route system
out of the organized route system
-1
3 FRANCE
in a day flight route system.
in a night flight route system.
out of the organised route system.
-1
Page 1117 of 1247

1 FRANCE Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last : The abbreviation MNPS means : For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last : Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within :
rispostaA
48 hours of operation.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
flight.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 FRANCE
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification flight.
Main Navigation Performance Specification 48 hours of operation.
Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
-1
1 FRANCE
30 minutes of operation. 25 hours of operation.
-1
3 FRANCE
flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole
flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole
-1
1 FRANCE
On board a non10 000 ft and 12 000 ft pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between : Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over the North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew :
11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
-1
3 FRANCE
keeps flying deviating carries out a holding its course by 30 pattern nautical miles from that of the air-filed flight plan
returns to base immediately
keeps flying in accordance with the airfiled flight plan
-1
Page 1118 of 1247

2 FRANCE The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account : 1. equipment available for navigation 2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. composition of the flight crew 4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 1 FRANCE For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than : A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than :
rispostaA
2,4,5
rispostaB
2,3,5
rispostaC
1,2,3,4,5
rispostaD
1,2,4,5
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
13 000 ft
29 000 ft
10 000 ft
25 000 ft
-1
1 FRANCE
14 000 kg
20 000 kg
27 000 kg
5 700 kg
-1
Page 1119 of 1247

3 PORTUGA The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is :
rispostaA
121.5 MHz.
rispostaB
243 MHz.
rispostaC
118.5 MHz.
rispostaD
131.8 MHz.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 PORTUGA A check on the Prior entering the NAT operation of the region. SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done : 3 PORTUGA If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the FPL by : 2 FRANCE The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the: using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.
When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.
At or prior entering the NAT region.
-1
inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10 of longitude.
the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.
-1
tuck under
roll rate
stalling speed
value of the stall angle of attack
-1
2 FRANCE
The reference the Washington document dealing with Convention air transport of hazardous materials is : The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : the aircraft manufacturer's list
Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957
ICAO Appendix 18
ICAO Appendix 8
-1
1 FRANCE
the aircraft state of registry
the operator
the manufacturer
-1
Page 1120 of 1247

1 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
11 000 ft
rispostaC
10 000 ft
rispostaD
13 000 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
12 000 ft On board a nonpressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than : During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30 W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be : within the organized night-time flight track system.
3 FRANCE
in a random space.
out of the organized flight track system.
within the organized daytime flight track system.
-1
5 GERMANY Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with: 1 FRANCE 4 FRANCE
all available extinguishers simultaneously.
all available liquids.
all available extinguishers in sequence. The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets. A JAA guideline
-1
The JAR-OPS is based ICAO Appendix 6 on : Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is : for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.
The air transport rules for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport. pressure of the hydraulic fluid.
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
different for a same different according to airplane type, according airports and airplane to airports. types. pressure of the pneumatic tyres. temperature of the brakes.
5 FRANCE
Following a heavy mass temperature of the landing on a short hydraulic fluid. runway, you should check the :
-1
Page 1121 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
take an intermediate flight level
rispostaC
descend below the MNPS space
rispostaD
return to departure airport
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
land at the nearest If both precision airport navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you : During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least : The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is : 20 minutes
3 FRANCE
5 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
-1
3 FRANCE
90 NM.
120 NM.
60 NM.
30 NM.
-1
3 FRANCE
The minimum 15 minutes. longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
20 minutes.
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
-1
Page 1122 of 1247

3 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
003 .
rispostaC
334 .
rispostaD
328 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
An aircraft leaves point 345 . P (60 N 030 W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000 . The aircraft arrives at point Q (62 N 010 W) on a true heading equal to 095 . On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be : During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30 W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ; within the organized daytime flight track system
3 FRANCE
within the organized night-time flight track system
in a random space
out of the organized flight track system
-1
Page 1123 of 1247

3 UNKNOW A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045 . After switching to "magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220 . The INS position at this moment is 76 N 180 W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10 E. The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is: The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is :
rispostaA
-5 .
rispostaB
+5 .
rispostaC
-15 .
rispostaD
+15 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
3 FRANCE
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
-1
Page 1124 of 1247

3 FRANCE The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is : To fight a fire in an airconditioned cargo hold:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
5 NETHERL
Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden.
you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.
Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.
Extinguish fire only.
-1
8 NETHERL
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when :
when just before the during cruise the landing a much lighter vertical separation is aeroplane has landed reduced to 1000 ft. with a strong crosswind on a long runway.
a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway.
a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used. 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
-1
3 FRANCE
According to the JAROPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least : When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :
1 hour before to at least 2 hours before to at 1 hour after the least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival expected time of arrival
3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
-1
4 FRANCE
600 m (2000 ft)
300 m (1000 ft)
450 m (1500 ft)
150 m (500 ft)
-1
Page 1125 of 1247

2 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude
rispostaC
2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude
rispostaD
4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
4 m (14 ft) above the During a conventional approach, the Minimum airdrome altitude Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than : If a pilot has connected rhumb line. the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a: The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to : rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)
3 UNKNOW
curve of some type or other.
spherical flight segment. great circle.
-1
3 FRANCE
Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace
the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
-1
3 FRANCE
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least : In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
Three inertial navigation One inertial navigation units. unit.
Two inertial navigation units.
Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.
-1
3 UNKNOW
indicated airspeed.
Mach number.
ground speed.
true airspeed.
-1
Page 1126 of 1247

5 GERMANY To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
rispostaB
useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions. 180 .
rispostaC
useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions. 000 .
rispostaD
possible and recommended.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
At 18h40min UTC, a 035 . complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDONANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315 . The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure is : NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole.
325 .
-1
Page 1127 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
240 .
rispostaC
060 .
rispostaD
110 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
340 . In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian. The aircraft position is 80 S 130 E, its true route is 110 , the grid route at this moment is : On a polar 4.0 NM. stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60 N is 20 , the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :
3 UNKNOW
30 NM.
4.0 NM.
9.2 NM.
-1
Page 1128 of 1247

3 UNKNOW The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device. The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59 57'N 010 30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120 . A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off. The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be :
rispostaA
+32.5 .
rispostaB
+13 .
rispostaC
+73.5 .
rispostaD
-32.5 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
13 GERMANY The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of: 13 GERMANY Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
dynamic hydroplaning.
rubber reversion hydroplaning.
rubber steaming hydroplaning.
viscous hydroplaning.
-1
is very smooth and clean.
is rough textured.
the tyre treads are not in a good state.
is very smooth and dirty.
-1
Page 1129 of 1247

6 UNITED KI (For this question use annex 071-10645A) Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately : 3 FRANCE
rispostaA
8600 ft
rispostaB
2900 ft
rispostaC
20750 ft
rispostaD
12000 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The observations and about two seconds studies conducted on beforehand the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away : The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is : 110
about ten seconds beforehand
as soon as they hear the engines noise
from the beginning of the takeoff roll
-1
1 FRANCE
140
70
220
-1
2 FRANCE
A category C aircraft 1600 m can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to : MNPS is the abbreviation for: Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
1500 m
2400 m
3600 m
-1
3 FRANCE
Maximum North-atlantic Military Network Precision System. Performance Structure.
Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
-1
Page 1130 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
260 .
rispostaC
080 .
rispostaD
100 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The chart is a South 000 . polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned with meridian 180 , the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid). The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280 , the position is 80 S 100 E. The true course followed at this moment is : On a polar 295 . stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle linking point 62 N 010 E to point 66 N 050 W is 305 . The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :
3 FRANCE
298 .
301 .
292 .
-1
Page 1131 of 1247

3 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
164 .
rispostaC
136 .
rispostaD
276 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
316 . A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054 W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330 . At position 80 N 140 E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be : When leaving the take the Mach number MNPS oceanic control provided for this type of area for a domestic flight by his airline. controlled area, the pilot has to: maintains the hydroplaning speed.
3 FRANCE
maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.
take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.
take any Mach number.
-1
13 GERMANY For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will: 3 UNKNOW
maintains or increases increases the the hydroplaning speed. hydroplaning speed.
decreases the hydroplaning speed.
-1
When a course is wind at K. plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK' which is equal to:
mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.
wind at K'.
-1
Page 1132 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
066 .
rispostaC
085 .
rispostaD
076 .
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
You plan to fly from 080 . point A (60 N 010 E) to point B (60 N 020 E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to : (For this question use annex 071-2070A) On the diagram where : Nt = True North Nm = Magnetic North Ng = Grid North If the magnetic variation is equal to 65 W and if the grid variation is equal to 4 E, the correct arrangement of the different north is : 4
3 UNKNOW
-1
Page 1133 of 1247

3 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes.
rispostaC
Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.
rispostaD
Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
(For this question use Track C , time 8 hours annex 071-2083A) 15 minutes. In order to meet the "twin-engine" flight standards authorised by the official departments of his company (1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time. Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
Page 1134 of 1247

6 FRANCE A slow decompression may be caused by: 1. a slight airtightness defect 2. a bad functioning of the pressurization 3. the loss of a window 4. the loss of a door The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 12 FRANCE A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her checked luggage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1, 2, 3
rispostaB
1, 2
rispostaC
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaD
3, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1, 2
2, 3
1, 2, 3
-1
Page 1135 of 1247

2 FRANCE In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off by: 1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turboprops wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2 FRANCE Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off: When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again: The wake turbulence:
rispostaA
3, 4
rispostaB
2, 3
rispostaC
1, 4
rispostaD
1, 2
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
separate to the right side. You must operate the aircraft de-icing/antiicing devices before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid. starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.
separate to the left side. separate on each side of the runway. you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid. starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the ground. First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer of antiicing fluid. starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.
stagnate on the runway.
-1
2 FRANCE
You can apply directly the new layer of antiicing fluid without previous de-icing. starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.
-1
8 FRANCE
-1
Page 1136 of 1247

8 FRANCE In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at :
rispostaA
high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
rispostaB
low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals. 3,4
rispostaC
low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals. 1,2,3
rispostaD
low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals. 2,3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
5 FRANCE
You will use a CO2 fire- 1,2,3,4 extinguisher for : 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
-1
5 FRANCE
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
2, 3
1, 4
-1
2 FRANCE
A category A aircraft 1600 m can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
3600 m
1500 m
2400 m
-1
Page 1137 of 1247

6 FRANCE A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 FRANCE
rispostaA
1, 2, 3, 4
rispostaB
2, 3, 4
rispostaC
1, 2, 3
rispostaD
1, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
The Master Minimum the operator and is Equipment List (MMEL) specified in the defines the equipment operation manual on which certain inflight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by : In accordance with 75 m JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no less than :
the operator and approved by the certification authority
the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
-1
2 FRANCE
150 m
100 m
50 m
-1
Page 1138 of 1247

2 FRANCE In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be : JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a copilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless :
rispostaA
5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.
rispostaB
5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.
rispostaC
5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days. he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days 3 000 ft
rispostaD
3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. he has carried out aspilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 days he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days 2 000 ft
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless :
he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days 1 000 ft
he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days 1 500 ft
-1
0 FRANCE
According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :
-1
Page 1139 of 1247

4 FRANCE According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport : In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least :
rispostaA
is procedure B
rispostaB
is procedure A
rispostaC
is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distribution
rispostaD
depends on the wind component
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 FRANCE
24 months
3 months
12 months
15 months
-1
5 FRANCE
An engine fire warning fire is no longer will switch on the detected. relevant fire shut offhandle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when: A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than : 10 micro-tesla
the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.
the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.
all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.
-1
3 FRANCE
6 micro-tesla
17 micro-tesla
38 micro tesla
-1
Page 1140 of 1247

7 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
1, 2, 4
rispostaC
1, 3, 5
rispostaD
2, 3
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
In case of an 3, 5 unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. keep the airplane's current configuration 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2 FRANCE
An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
the aircraft equipment report (logbook).
a copy of the weight and balance sheet.
a copy of the calculated take-off performances.
-1
Page 1141 of 1247

3 UNKNOW (For this question use annex 071-2084A) The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71 55.1'N 094 55.3'W Drift: 6 L (left) The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used: RESOLUTE BAY (74 43.6'N 094 55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian. The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole). The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box) 2 FRANCE
rispostaA
2
rispostaB
3
rispostaC
4
rispostaD
1
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
A category D aircraft 1600 m can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
1500 m
3600 m
2400 m
-1
Page 1142 of 1247

3 FRANCE
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Astronomic precession : causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere Astronomic precession : causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to : 15 /h.sin Lm
is zero at the North pole is zero at the South pole causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere g.sin Lm is zero at the North pole is zero at the South pole
3 FRANCE
-1
3 FRANCE
g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
g/2.sin Lm
-1
3 FRANCE
Astronomic precession is :
depending on the chart used
zero when the aircraft is on the ground grid North for any chart
existing whether the independent of the aircraft is on the ground latitude or flying true North for a given chart true North for any chart
-1
3 FRANCE
During a transoceanic grid North for a given and polar flight, the chart chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the : During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the: true North
-1
3 FRANCE
grid North
magnetic North
compass North
-1
Page 1143 of 1247

2 SWEDEN
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly 2, 3, 4
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
The aircraft shall before Which of the following requirements should be flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid met when planning a flight with icing conditions: To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. a water fireextinguisher 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. a halon fireextinguisher 4. a CO2 fireextinguisher The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3, 4
The aircraft shall be A meterologist shall equipped with approved decide whether the flight may be performed ice-protection systems without ice-protection systems 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2
5 FRANCE
-1
2 FRANCE
After an accident, the 90 days. operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: The time needed for the 30 seconds. dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about: An operator must operation flight plan. ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :
45 days.
60 days.
30 days.
-1
8 FRANCE
1 minute.
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
-1
2 FRANCE
ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
flight plan processing.
flight route sheet.
-1
Page 1144 of 1247

12 FRANCE In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the : The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
rispostaA
sender.
rispostaB
captain.
rispostaC
station manager.
rispostaD
aerodrome manager.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 FRANCE
the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them. 15%.
the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments. 20%.
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft. 10%.
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft. 5%.
-1
13 UNKNOW
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:
-1
12 UNKNOW
Products or materials The UNO document are considered to be entitled "Dangerous dangerous goods if the Goods Regulations". products or materials in question are defined as such by: Only the pitot and static probes.
The directives of the Community Union.
The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air".
The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air". The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
-1
2 GERMANY The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on : 13 GERMANY The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :
The aircraft front areas. The upper and lower wingsurfaces.
-1
amount of the lift off speed.
depth of the standing water on the runway.
aircraft's weight.
strength of the headwind.
-1
Page 1145 of 1247

1 FRANCE The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain inflight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by : A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
rispostaA
the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
rispostaB
the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
rispostaC
the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
rispostaD
the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 FRANCE
3600 m
2400 m
1600 m
1500 m
-1
2 FRANCE
During a flight, the chief authorizes its use steward informs the except during take-off crew that a passenger and landing phases. is using a portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:
authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.
may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.
must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.
-1
3 UNITED KI Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?
short gang-mown grass long grass
edible rubbish
an area liable to flooding
-1
Page 1146 of 1247

13 FRANCE For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 104 kt. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 96 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements i : 13 FRANCE For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 96 kt. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 127 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
rispostaA
1 and 4.
rispostaB
2 and 3.
rispostaC
3 and 4.
rispostaD
1 and 2.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 and 3.
3 and 4.
1 and 2.
1 and 4.
-1
Page 1147 of 1247

13 FRANCE For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as : 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 132 kt. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 117 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 8 FRANCE 8 FRANCE An airplane creates a wake turbulence when : The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip : When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off : An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of :
rispostaA
2 and 3.
rispostaB
3 and 4.
rispostaC
1 and 2.
rispostaD
1 and 4.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
generating lift. from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing. in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down. 20 kt.
flying at high speed. clockwise.
using a high engine R.P.M. counterclockwise.
flying with its gear and flaps extended. from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
8 FRANCE
at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway . 80 kt.
at the point where the beyond the point where aircraft's wheels have the aircraft's wheels touched the ground and have touched down. on the underwind side of the runway . 40 kt. 60 kt.
-1
7 FRANCE
-1
Page 1148 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
rispostaC
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
rispostaD
State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
9 UNITED KI In addition to informing State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the : 2 UNITED KI The holdover time frost following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of : 2 GERMANY The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated : 6 UNITED KI If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure : 2 GERMANY The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing? when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
freezing fog
rain on a cold soaked wing
steady snow
-1
during climb and descent.
in each cabin section if during take off and oxygen is being carried. landing. increases remains constant
-1
attains its maximum decreases permitted operating limit
-1
Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : 10 C Dew point (DEWP) : 15 C
Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10 C Dew Point (DEWP) : +7 C
Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15 C Dew Point (DEWP) : 5 C
Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25 C Dew Point (DEWP) : +5 C
-1
Page 1149 of 1247

2 UNITED KI If after anti-icing has been completed a predeparture inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct action is to :
rispostaA
switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne
rispostaB
complete departure provided that the recommended antiicing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditons and type of fluid used has not been exceeded 3 and 4.
rispostaC
carry out a further deicing process
rispostaD
complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezing
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0 0 -1 0
13 FRANCE
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 114 kt. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 83 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
2 and 3.
1 and 2.
1 and 4.
-1
3 FRANCE
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
285 and 420.
280 and 400.
280 and 390.
275 and 400.
-1
Page 1150 of 1247

4 UNITED KI Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the :
rispostaA
operator
rispostaB
state of the operator
rispostaC
state in which the aeroplane is operating
rispostaD
commander
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-1 0 0 0
4 UNITED KI Which one of the It has a tail wind following factors should component of any value prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC) ? 5 UNITED KI A fire occurs in a wheel CO2 (carbon dioxide) and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is : 3 FRANCE An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least : 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.
It has a tail wind It has no ILS or visual component of 3 kts and approach slope a cross wind, including guidance gusts, of 12 kt
Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt
-1
foam
dry powder
water
-1
300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.
300 ft/min with one 500 ft/min with all engine inoperative and engines operating at all the others operating maximum cruise power. at maximum continuous power.
-1
3 UNITED KI The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is :
the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
broadcasting of recorded distress calls
firing shellcrackers
various visual methods
-1
Page 1151 of 1247

2 UNITED KI At a high ambient temperature (+ 30 C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing : 3 FRANCE In the event of an enroute HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is :
rispostaA
is possible at any setting
rispostaB
can occur, but only at a low power setting
rispostaC
cannot occur
rispostaD
can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
128.800 MHz.
131.800 MHz.
118.800 MHz.
121.800 MHz.
-1
2 UNITED KI For a given ambient Steady snow temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?
Freezing fog
Frost
Freezing rain
-1
6 UNITED KI An aeroplane suffers to put on oxygen masks disconnect the autopilot transmit a MAYDAY an explosive message decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?
place the seat belts sign to ON
-1
Page 1152 of 1247

6 UNITED KI When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate : 3 FRANCE The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from : The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is : 1. slow 2. heavy 3. in a clean configuration 4. flying with a high thrust The combination of correct statement is:
rispostaA
a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
rispostaB
a rate of climb
rispostaC
a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
rispostaD
zero
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0 -1 0 0
30 North to 70 North. 27 North to 90 North. 30 North to 90 North. 27 North to 70 North.
-1
8 FRANCE
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
1, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
-1
3 UNITED KI Which one of the a refuse tip in close following sets of proximity conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ? 6 FRANCE During an explosive to put on the oxygen decompression at flight mask level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be :
mowing and maintaining the grass long
a modern sewage tip in close proximity
the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel
-1
to set the transponder to 7700
to warn the ATC
to comfort your passengers
-1
Page 1153 of 1247

3 FRANCE In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
rispostaA
change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.
rispostaB
continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.
rispostaC
return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.
rispostaD
join one of the so-called "special" routes.
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0 -1 0 0
5 GERMANY After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres: 1 FRANCE
only from left or right side.
from any side.
under no circumstances.
only from front or rear side.
-1
The term decision an indirect approach. height (DH) is used for : The minimum time track is a track defined for : a period of 12 hours
a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver. a period of 24 hours
a precision approach.
a conventional approach. a given travel
-1
1 FRANCE
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
-1
10 GERMANY The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened,
head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you.
head down as far as cross the arm in front possible, grasp the legs of the face. with your arms. The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway. The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh. The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
-1
8 GERMANY In a 5 kt right crosswind The runway will be component behind a clear of any hazard taking off aircraft: turbulence.
-1
Page 1154 of 1247

13 FRANCE For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 123 kt. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 95 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3 UNKNOW For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
rispostaA
3 and 4.
rispostaB
2 and 3.
rispostaC
1 and 2.
rispostaD
1 and 4.
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0 0 -1 0
One Inertial Navigation System (INS).
Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
-1
7 NETHERL
Which one of the Pitch angle. following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ? Owner of the aircraft.
Vertical speed.
Groundspeed.
Indicated airspeed.
-1
1 GERMANY Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?
ATS authority of the state of registry.
Aircraft operator.
Aircraft producer.
-1
Page 1155 of 1247

1 GERMANY Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
rispostaA
while at their station.
rispostaB
only during take off and landing.
rispostaC
only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. 60% of the landing distance available.
rispostaD
from take off to landing.
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-1 0 0 0
1 GERMANY Selecting an alternate 80% of the landing aerodrome the runway distance available. of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within: 1 FRANCE The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than : 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days
50% of the landing distance available.
70% of the landing distance available.
-1
6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days
6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.
-1
5 GERMANY Beneath fire a big bunch of fire extinguishers the extinguishing blankets. following equipment for fire fighting is on board:
crash axes or crowbars. water and all type of beverage.
-1
Page 1156 of 1247

12 FRANCE (For this question use annex 071-9199A) Considering the two holds of an aircraft : Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate freight pallets or luggage containers. You are asked to load : 2 pallets of live animals marked "AVI" 2 luggage containers marked "BAG" 1 mortal remains marked "HUM" 1 pallet of food product marked "EAT" 1 pallet of radioactive materials marked "RRY" 1 pallet of toxic materials marked "RHF" The locations still vacant shall be marked "XXX" According to the table of compatibility of special freight and hazardous materials given in the appendix, the most operational distribution in the holds shall be :
rispostaA
Hold 1 : EAT - BAG RRY - RHF Hold 2 : BAG - AVI AVI - HUM
rispostaB
Hold 1 : EAT - BAG AVI - AVI Hold 2 : BAG - HUM RRY - RHF
rispostaC
Hold 1 : BAG - BAG RRY - HUM Hold 2 : AVI - AVI XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked)
rispostaD
Hold 1 : BAG - RHF HUM - RRY Hold 2 : AVI - AVI BAG - EAT
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0 0 0 -1
4 FRANCE
According with the 500 ft "noise abatement takeoff and climb procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :
1 500 ft
3 000 ft
1 000 ft
-1
Page 1157 of 1247

8 FRANCE The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
rispostaA
low weight and low speed
rispostaB
low weight and high speed when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off. MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m
rispostaC
high weight and low speed when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind. MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
rispostaD
high weight and high speed if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind. MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
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0 0 -1 0
8 NETHERL
Wake turbulence risk is following a preceding highest : aircraft at high speed.
-1
2 FRANCE
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are : JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :
MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m
-1
2 FRANCE
for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud) 27000 ft
special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least 24500 ft
for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least
-1
6 UNITED KI Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :
29000 ft
22500 ft
-1
Page 1158 of 1247

2 FRANCE In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less than : A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNONGANDER great circle. The flight must be planned to take place :
rispostaA
250 m
rispostaB
230 m
rispostaC
300 m
rispostaD
200 m
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0 0 0 -1
3 UNKNOW
at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.
at flight level FL 280 or less.
outside scheduled flight at a Mach number of times. 0.70 or less.
-1
2 FRANCE
In accordance with NDB facility, lowest JAR-OPS 1.430 MDH=300 ft (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for "nonprecision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft
VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
-1
Page 1159 of 1247

3 UNKNOW
rispostaA
rispostaB
request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
rispostaC
set a different heading approximately 45 from the previous one.
rispostaD
immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
In the MNPS (Minimum notify Control and wait for a reply within a Navigation reasonable time. Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
81
8 UNKNOW On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch up" phenomenon: (For this question use annex 081-1331A) An A 310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL 350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its flight Mach range between low-speed buffeting and highspeed buffeting goes from: Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce: "Flutter" may be caused by: is caused by wingtip stall. never occurs, since a swept wing is a "remedy" to pitch up. M= 0.65 to M higher than 0.84 is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices. M= 0.74 to M= 0.84 is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings. M= 0.69 to M higher than 0.84 -1 0 0 0
2 UNKNOW
M= 0.72 to M higher than 0.84
-1
9 UNKNOW
no pitching moment.
a nose-up pitching moment.
a force which reduces drag.
a nose-down pitching moment.
-1
1 UNKNOW
roll control reversal.
high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.
low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
-1
Page 1160 of 1247

1 FRANCE The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately: Low speed pitch up is caused by the: There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that : The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:
rispostaA
Wcos.gamma.
rispostaB
W(1-sin.gamma).
rispostaC
W(1-tan.gamma).
rispostaD
W/cos.gamma.
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-1 0 0 0
8 NETHERL 11 ICELAND
wing tip vortex. it has less tendency to separate from the surface
Mach trim system. it is thinner
spanwise flow on a swept back wing. skin friction drag is less
spanwise flow on a swept forward wing. energy is less
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
0 0
3 NETHERL
speed is low.
C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit. move forward.
flaps are down.
C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit. remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.
-1
2 NETHERL
On an asymmetrical, remain unaffected. single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a conventional transport aeroplane) : The lift coefficient (CL) 1.71 of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be :
move aft.
-1
3 NETHERL
0.74
1.49
2.49
-1
Page 1161 of 1247

5 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
Anhedral.
rispostaC
Dihedral.
rispostaD
High wing.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Increased wing span. Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane? Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral stability ? In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber of the aerofoil? Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.
5 NETHERL
Fuselage mounted Sweep back, under engines, dihedral, T-tail. wing mounted engines, winglets. Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack. No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack. Balance tab
High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin. Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack. Anti-balance tab
-1
3 NETHERL
Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.
-1
6 ICELAND
Which kind of ''tab'' is Servo tab commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered flight controls ? The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows : (1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional) The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of : Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? Critical Mach-number is the : 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive
Spring tab
-1
5 NETHERL
1 : positive, 2 : negative, 3 : negative
1 : negative, 2 : positive, 3 : positive
1 : no effect, 2 : positive, 3: negative
-1
2 ICELAND
uncontrolled changes in compressibility effects stabilizer setting on the stabilizer
changes in the position of centre of pressure
increased drag due to shock wave formation
-1
5 NETHERL
Pitching and yawing.
Pitching and rolling.
Pitching and adverse yaw. speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.
Rolling and yawing.
-1
2 ICELAND
highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.
speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraaeroplane Mach number < 1).
highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).
-1
Page 1162 of 1247

4 ICELAND Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of : The following unit of measurement: kgm/s is expressed in the SIsystem as : What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide ? For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is :
rispostaA
CLand S (wing surface)
rispostaB
CL and AR (aspect ratio)
rispostaC
CL and CD
rispostaD
CL and b (wing span)
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0 -1 0 0
1 ICELAND
Newton
Pascal
Joule
Watt
-1
1 ICELAND
The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW.
The wind and the aeroplane's mass
The wind and CLmax
The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the weight just another symbol for the rough air speed
-1
2 ICELAND
the maximum speed in smooth air
the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor
-1
8 ICELAND
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall :
leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
tip stall will occur first, wing root stall will occur tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch- first, which produces a which produces a noseup moment. rolling moment down moment
-1
2 NETHERL
When the C.G. position larger. is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1 will be: Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is correct? An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive. (spiral instability)
smaller.
unchanged.
dependent on trim position.
-1
6 NETHERL
The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of each other because they take place about different axis.
An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to "Dutch roll".
Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.
-1
Page 1163 of 1247

2 ICELAND When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of : What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with corotating propellers: The static pressure is acting: Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)? Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall change as follows : The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are:
rispostaA
Higher critical Mach number
rispostaB
Greater strength
rispostaC
Increased longitudinal stability
rispostaD
Lower stalling speed
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-1 0 0 0
3 SWEDEN
The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.
The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.
Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
-1
1 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
only perpendicular to only in the direction of the direction of the flow. the total pressure. m=F.a a=F. m
in all directions. F=m / a
only in direction of the flow. F=m. a
0 0
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
8 NETHERL
(1) increases (2) decreases.
(1) decreases (2) increases.
(1) decreases (2) decreases.
(1) increases (2) increases.
-1
1 NETHERL
(I) N / m3, (II) kg / m.
(I) kg / m, (II) N / m.
(I) N / m, (II) kg.
(I) N / m, (II) N / m.
-1
1 NETHERL
The units of the density (I) N / kg, (II) kg. of the air (I) and the force (II) are: The angle of attack of a the chord line and the two dimensional wing camber line of the section is the angle aerofoil. between :
(I) kg / m3, (II) N.
(I) kg / m, (II) kg.
(I) N / m3, (II) N.
-1
1 NETHERL
the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.
the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.
the fuselage core line and the free stream direction.
-1
Page 1164 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow.
rispostaC
bottom surface and the horizontal
rispostaD
bottom surface and the relative airflow.
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0 -1 0 0
bottom surface and the The angle of attack chord line. (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle between the: Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct? The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The load factor will be : When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be: The lift formula is: The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and: The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point. 1.45
1 NETHERL
The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases. 0.9
The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases. 0.45
The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero. 1.9
-1
3 FRANCE
-1
7 NETHERL
77%.
59%.
130%.
169%.
-1
3 NETHERL 1 SWEDEN
L= W Aeroplane heading.
L= CL 2 RHO V S Principal direction of propeller blade.
L= n W Local air speed vector.
L= CL 1/2 RHO V S Direction of propeller axis.
0 0
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
Page 1165 of 1247

1 SWEDEN Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?
rispostaA
Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at some parts of propeller blade occurs. A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane
rispostaB
geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolution Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with centre of gravity location, the need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only. (I) increase, (II) increase.
rispostaC
Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller axis
rispostaD
Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line and propeller vertical plane
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0 -1 0 0
8 SWEDEN
Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position ?
A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane.
At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum Nose Down to obtain maximum elevator authority at take off rotation. (I) increase, (II) decrease.
-1
1 NETHERL
In a stationary subsonic (I) decrease, (II) streamline flow pattern, increase. if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ... : The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is: same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis.
(I) increase, (II) decrease.
-1
1 NETHERL
angle of attack.
glide path angle.
climb path angle.
-1
3 NETHERL
The aerodynamic pitching moment centre of the wing is the coefficient does not point, where: vary with angle of attack. With increasing angle (I) up, (II) aft. of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant. (I) down, (II) aft.
aerodynamic forces are constant.
the aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity. (I) down, (II) forward.
-1
2 NETHERL
(I) up, (II) forward.
-1
Page 1166 of 1247

1 UNKNOW Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is: On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic centre : On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which Cl=0 is: The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase of angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will be : Lift is generated when:
rispostaA
equal to zero.
rispostaB
infinite
rispostaC
positive (pitch-up).
rispostaD
negative (pitch-down).
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
1 UNKNOW
remains unchanged.
slightly shifts forward.
shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.
shifts aft by about 10%.
-1
1 UNKNOW
negative (pitch-down)
zero
equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack. 1.09
positive (pitch-up)
-1
3 FRANCE
3.18
2.13
2.0
-1
2 NETHERL
a certain mass of air is the shape of the accelerated downwards. aerofoil is slightly cambered. climb path angle. angle of incidence.
an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream. glide path angle.
a certain mass of air is retarded. angle of attack.
-1
1 NETHERL
The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:
-1
1 NETHERL
Consider a certain increase the mass flow. not affect the mass flow. increase the mass flow stream line tube. The when the tube is velocity of the stream in divergent in the the tube is V. An direction of the flow. increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will:
decrease the mass flow.
-1
Page 1167 of 1247

3 NETHERL The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph: Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack? Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?
rispostaA
in the origin.
rispostaB
below the origin.
rispostaC
nowhere.
rispostaD
above the origin.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
8 NETHERL
lower side leading edge. upper side trailing edge. upper side leading edge. lower side trailing edge.
-1
8 NETHERL
The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.
The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer. pt = ps / q
The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer. pt = ps + q
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer. pt = ps - q
-1
1 NETHERL
Bernoulli's equation can pt = q - ps be written as: (pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure) In a two-dimensional increase initially, then flow pattern, where the decrease. streamlines converge the static pressure will : The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the: induced drag is lowest.
-1
1 NETHERL
decrease.
increase.
not change.
-1
5 NETHERL
parasite drag is equal to the induced drag. x 0.5
parasite drag equals twice the induced drag. x 4.0
induced drag is equal to zero. x 0.25
-1
7 NETHERL
An aeroplane maintains x 2.0 straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be: During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight: the stall speed increases.
-1
9 NETHERL
the total boundary layer becomes laminar.
the centre of pressure moves aft.
the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.
-1
Page 1168 of 1247

1 NETHERL Dihedral of the wing is:
rispostaA
the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon. in front of the hinge.
rispostaB
the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis. below the hinge.
rispostaC
the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis. above the hinge.
rispostaD
the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis. behind the hinge.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
7 NETHERL
When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface: VA is:
-1
2 NETHERL
the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed. The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.
the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb. The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip direction.
-1
4 NETHERL
Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?
The flow direction at Tip vortices can be the upper side of the diminished by vortex wing has a component generators. in wing root direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction. weight. load factor.
-1
1 NETHERL
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
TAS.
wind.
-1
2 NETHERL
Which statement is turn indicator left of correct about an neutral, slip indicator aeroplane, that has left of neutral. experienced a left engine failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level ?
turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral.
turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.
turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
-1
Page 1169 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
turn at a smaller turn radius.
rispostaC
turn at a higher turn rate.
rispostaD
turn at the same turn radius.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
turn at a bigger turn A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and radius. 150 kt TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will: The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is left of neutral. To coordinate the turn: Increase of wing loading will: a higher turn rate is required.
1 NETHERL
more right bank is required.
more right rudder is required.
less right bank is required.
-1
decrease the minimum gliding angle.
increase CLmax. decrease at decreasing altitude. The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed. Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
decrease take off speeds. increase at decreasing temperature. The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure. Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
increase the stall speeds. increase at increasing air density. The blade angle increases with increasing speed. Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.
0 0 0
0 -1 0
0 0 0
-1 0 -1
The difference between decrease at increasing IAS and TAS will: speed. Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct? The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.
1 NETHERL
How will the density Density will increase, and temperature temperature will change in a supersonic increase. flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it ? Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)? Which statement is correct? increasing air density.
-1
8 NETHERL
increasing load factor.
decreasing weight.
increasing altitude.
-1
2 NETHERL
The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.
The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the centre of pressure is not. Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.
As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile moves downwards. Yes slightly.
The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading edge where the airflow splits up. Yes strongly.
-1
1 NETHERL
Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence?
No.
-1
Page 1170 of 1247

4 NETHERL An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: Differential aileron deflection: If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents: A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:
rispostaA
Left aileron: 2 down Right aileron: 5 up
rispostaB
Left aileron: 5 up Right aileron: 2 down
rispostaC
Left aileron: 2 up Right aileron: 5 down
rispostaD
Left aileron: 5 down Right aileron: 2 up
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
4 NETHERL
equals the drag of the right and left aileron. nose-left.
is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected. nose-down.
increases the CLmax.
is required to achieve the required roll-rate. nose-up.
-1
8 NETHERL
neutral.
-1
3 NETHERL
a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off. decreases the static lateral stability. the centre of gravity.
an increasing static longitudinal stability.
a better recovery an unacceptable low performance in the spin. value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g). is the only way to increase the static lateral stability. the aerodynamic centre of the wing. is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings. the centre of pressure of the wing.
-1
5 NETHERL
Dihedral of the wing:
increases the static lateral stability. the neutral point of the aeroplane.
-1
1 NETHERL
If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about: A normal shock wave:
-1
2 NETHERL
is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface. is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. lift coefficient and the drag.
can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight. is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level. stall speed.
is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly. is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. lift and the drag.
is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly. increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises. maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
-1
1 NETHERL
The Mach number:
-1
9 NETHERL
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the : Spoiler deflection causes :
-1
10 SPAIN
an increase in lift only
decrease in lift and drag an increase in drag and decrease in lift
an increase in lift and drag
-1
Page 1171 of 1247

8 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.
rispostaC
The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B.
rispostaD
The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
The load factor A is Two identical aeroplanes A and B are larger than the load flying horizontal steady factor B. turns. Further data are: A: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20 TAS= 130 kt B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20 TAS= 200 kt Which of the following statements is correct?
6 NETHERL
What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll? Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow ? 1- The density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind. 2- The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
A forward movement of the centre of gravity. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
An increased anhedral.
An increased static lateral stability. 1 and 2 are correct.
An increased static directional stability. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
-1
1 NETHERL
1 and 2 are incorrect.
-1
6 NETHERL
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface.
balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.
mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
-1
Page 1172 of 1247

8 NETHERL How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a speed decrease ? The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration is: Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance remaining constant) ? 1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases. 2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases. 1 NETHERL Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are correct? 1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal. 2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
rispostaA
The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards deflected trimtab. 4.4
rispostaB
The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected trimtab. 2.5
rispostaC
The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser. 3.8
rispostaD
Nothing changes in the exterior view.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 NETHERL
6.0
-1
3 NETHERL
1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
1 and 2 are correct.
-1
1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
1 and 2 are correct.
1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
-1
Page 1173 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
The local airflow and the chordline. 1 and 2 are correct.
rispostaC
The undisturbed airflow and the mean camberline. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
rispostaD
The undisturbed airflow and the chordline. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
The angle of attack of a The local airflow and wing profile is defined the mean camberline. as the angle between : Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow ? 1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it. 2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
1 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL
An advantage of lighter wing locating the engines at construction. the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is : Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection? An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the elevator jams during flight ? Sensitivity for spiral dive.
less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.
easier maintenance of the engines.
a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.
-1
4 NETHERL
Turn co-ordination.
Adverse yaw.
Aileron reversal.
-1
6 NETHERL
Pitch control reverses direction.
Pitch control has been lost.
The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.
The pitch control forces double.
-1
Page 1174 of 1247

8 NETHERL Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the maximum allowable forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the maximum allowable AND (Aeroplane Noise Down) position. Which statement is correct?
rispostaA
The rotation will require extra stick force.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Nothing special will happen.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Early nose wheel If the THS position is raising will take place. just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system will be activated.
9 NETHERL
Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only the TAS has to be taken into account. is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord. All phases of the takeoff are equally critical.
Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent angle. is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span. The last part of the rotation.
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces.
Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease.
-1
1 NETHERL
The aspect ratio of the wing: In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical? Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ? Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?
is the ratio between chord and root chord. The take-off run.
is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord. During climb with all engines operating.
-1
12 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
Doubles if the temperature increases from 9 to 36 Centigrade.
Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.
Increases always if the Is independent of density of the air altitude. decreases. The CL/CD ratio is minimum. Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
-1
1 NETHERL
Propeller aeroplanes The gliding angle is fly at that speed at max. minimum. endurance.
-1
Page 1175 of 1247

3 NETHERL From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read: An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is: The induced angle of attack is the result of: A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose: Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ? What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabilizer of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim ? The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is:
rispostaA
the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag. 200 kt
rispostaB
the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient. 141 kt
rispostaC
the minimum drag and the maximum lift. 282 kt
rispostaD
the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift. 70 kt
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
8 NETHERL
-1
4 NETHERL
downwash due to tip vortices. to prevent flutter.
a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow. to obtain mass balancing.
downwash due to flow separation. to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.
change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack. to decrease stick forces.
-1
6 NETHERL
-1
5 NETHERL
the required lateral control force increases.
the required lateral the required lateral control force decreases. control force does not change.
the stick force per g decreases.
-1
8 NETHERL
The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero.
At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is deflected downward.
The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining flare capability. 3.75
The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position of the centre of gravity.
-1
2 NETHERL
1.5
2.5
2.0
-1
Page 1176 of 1247

8 NETHERL The following factors increase stall speed :
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
rispostaD
a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
an increase in load a higher weight, factor, a forward c.g. selecting a higher flap shift, decrease in thrust. setting, a forward c .g. shift. 1 and 2 are correct. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
3 NETHERL
Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance being constant) ? 1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase the gust load factor. 2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor.
-1
6 SPAIN
What will happen in ground effect ? The induced drag:
the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases. the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon. static pressure and wing surface area
an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices increases as the lift coefficient increases.
a significant increase in thrust required
the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases
-1
4 NETHERL
increases as the aspect has no relation to the lift ratio increases. coefficient. the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow. square root of surface and wing loading decreases if the CG is moved aft CL is lower than CD
-1
1 SPAIN
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as: The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are: The critical angle of attack: Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:
the angle formed by the the angle for maximum longitudinal axis of the lift/drag ratio aeroplane and the chord line of the wing static pressure and dynamic pressure dynamic pressure and the area of the wing increases if the CG is moved forward CL has approximately the same value as CD
-1
3 SPAIN 3 SPAIN
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
changes with an remains unchanged increase in gross weight regardless of gross weight CL is much lower than CD CL is much greater than CD
3 SPAIN
-1
Page 1177 of 1247

1 SPAIN Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?
rispostaA
for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0 Angle of attack and CL
rispostaB
for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
rispostaC
for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0 CL and CD
rispostaD
for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
3 SPAIN
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :
CD and angle of attack
TAS and stall speed
-1
1 SPAIN
The Mean Aerodynamic the chord of a Chord (MAC) for a rectangular wing with given wing of any same moment and lift planform is The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from : Induced drag may be reduced by: The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is: Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is: What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed changes ? the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge
the chord of a large rectangular wing
the average chord of the actual aeroplane
the wing area divided by the wing span
-1
4 SPAIN
beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge
the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge
beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip
-1
4 SPAIN
a decrease of the aspect ratio induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio value 1.20 VS.
the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag 1.30 VS.
an increase in aspect ratio a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag 1.12 VS.
an increase in the taper ratio of the wing there is no relationship
-1
4 SPAIN
-1
8 UNKNOW
greater than VS.
-1
5 SPAIN
induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced drag decreases with increasing weight
induced drag increases with increasing speed and induced drag increases with decreasing weight
induced drag increases with decreasing speed and induced drag increases with increasing weight
induced drag decreases with increasing speed and induced drag decreases with decreasing weight
-1
Page 1178 of 1247

1 NETHERL Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ? Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur : Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer :
rispostaA
At constant IAS the TAS decreases when a higher than normal angle of attack is used friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
rispostaB
At constant Mach number the IAS increases at a speed approaching the stall
rispostaC
At constant TAS the Mach number decreases when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
rispostaD
At constant IAS the Mach number increases when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases does not depend on weight increases increases with flap extension 2.00
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
6 SPAIN
-1
8 SPAIN
friction drag will be equal in both types of layers the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases increases with an increased weight remains the same increases with the load factor squared 1.07
-1
8 SPAIN
After the transition point the mean speed between the laminar increases and the and turbulent boundary friction drag decreases layer The stall speed : At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed : increases with the length of the wingspan decreases decreases with increasing bank angle
the mean speed and friction drag increases
-1
8 SPAIN 2 SPAIN 8 SPAIN
decreases with an increased weight decreases until the tropopause increases with the square root of load factor 1.30
0 0 0
-1 0 0
0 0 -1
0 -1 0
8 SPAIN
The stall speed in a 60 1.41 banked turn increases by the following factor: The trailing edge flaps when extended : When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be: Deflection of leading edge flaps will: worsen the best angle of glide dependent on c.g. location.
-1
9 SPAIN
increase the zero lift angle of attack nose down.
significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift nose up.
significantly lower the drag zero.
-1
9 SPAIN
-1
9 SPAIN
increase critical angle of attack.
decrease CLmax.
decrease drag.
not affect critical angle of attack.
-1
Page 1179 of 1247

9 SPAIN Slat extension will:
rispostaA
increase critical angle of attack.
rispostaB
reduce tip vortices.
rispostaC
create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles. less sensitivity to gust effects 4.
rispostaD
decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing. a decrease in stall speed 8.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
4 SPAIN 3 NETHERL
A high aspect ratio wing produces:
an increase in induced drag
a decrease in induced drag 2.
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
A body is placed in a 1.4 . certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor : The aerofoil polar is:
3 NETHERL
the relation between the a graph, in which the horizontal and the thickness of the wing vertical speed. aerofoil is given as a function of the chord. degrees cross section tail angle. Rudder limiter. % chord.
a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient. camber.
a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack. meters.
-1
1 NETHERL
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"?
-1
6 NETHERL
Yaw damper.
Roll spoilers.
Spoiler mixer.
-1
3 NETHERL
The lift- and drag vary linearly with the forces, acting on a wing angle of attack. cross section: How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature ? increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
depend on the pressure are normal to each distribution about the other at just one angle wing cross section. of attack. increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.
are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack. decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
1 NETHERL
The (subsonic) static pressure:
decreases in a flow in a is the total pressure tube when the diameter plus the dynamic decreases. pressure.
-1
Page 1180 of 1247

1 NETHERL The total pressure is:
rispostaA
can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
rho V
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
static pressure plus the static pressure minus dynamic pressure. the dynamic pressure.
8 NETHERL
A laminar boundary the vortices are weak. layer is a layer, in which: The boundary layer of a the normal shock wave wing is caused by: at transonic speeds.
the velocity is constant.
the temperature varies constantly.
no velocity components exist, normal to the surface. a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction. lb/gal
-1
8 NETHERL
a turbulent stream suction at the upper pattern around the wing. wing side.
-1
1 NETHERL
The unit of measurement of pressure is: The unit of density is: VMO :
kg/dm
psi
kg/m
-1
1 NETHERL 1 UNKNOW
kg/m should be chosen in between VC and VD
psi is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity. the suction point of the wing. Elliptical.
kg/cm
Bar
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
is the calibrated should be not greater airspeed at which MMO than VC. is reached at 35 000 ft. the centre of pressure. the c.g. location.
2 NETHERL
The point, where the the point of maximum aerodynamic lift acts on thickness of the wing. a wing is: Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local profile lift coefficient at the wingroot ? A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor : Rectangular.
-1
4 NETHERL
Tapered.
Positive angle of sweep.
-1
3 NETHERL
16 .
4.
8.
12 .
-1
Page 1181 of 1247

3 NETHERL The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst others on:
rispostaA
The weight of the body.
rispostaB
The c.g. location of the body.
rispostaC
The airstream velocity.
rispostaD
The specific mass of the body.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 NETHERL
The frontal area of a 9. body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor : When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this: The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant) The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with: The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as.... In case the Mach trimmer fails: can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab. minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
6.
1.5 .
3.
-1
6 NETHERL
ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column. spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
makes trimming superfluous.
makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless. weight decreases.
-1
8 NETHERL
pulling up from a dive.
-1
4 NETHERL
CL
square root (CL)
CLmax
CL
-1
8 NETHERL
the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.
there is a nose-down attitude.
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs. the speed must be kept constant. increase of aeroplane weight
the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.
-1
3 NETHERL 1 NETHERL
the Mach number must be limited.
try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft. headwind
the aeroplane weight must be limited. decrease of aeroplane weight
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
Which of the following tailwind factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide ?
Page 1182 of 1247

8 NETHERL In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because : What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ? The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at increasing angle of attack will:
rispostaA
trim tab deflection increases Mcrit
rispostaB
effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes
rispostaC
the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all
rispostaD
mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
8 NETHERL
choose a higher landing choose a lower landing speed than normal speed than normal. and/or use a lower flapsetting for landing. shift aft. shift in spanwise direction.
if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin. shift forward.
use the Mach trimmer until after landing.
-1
2 NETHERL
not shift.
-1
2 GERMANY Compared with an higher total temperature. lower static oblique shock wave at temperature. the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a 2 NETHERL What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at n=1, when flying at constant IAS ? The value of Mcrit: increases. remains constant.
higher loss in total pressure.
higher total pressure.
-1
is independent of the angle of attack.
decreases.
-1
2 GERMANY The application of the skin friction drag. area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the 3 GERMANY Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will decrease the shock wave induced separation.
induced drag.
form drag.
wave drag.
-1
decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.
-1
Page 1183 of 1247

2 GERMANY Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done to 2 GERMANY The critical Mach number can be increased by 2 GERMANY To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should
rispostaA
improve the low speed characteristics.
rispostaB
apply area rule.
rispostaC
increase the strength of the wing root junction.
rispostaD
fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
a T-tail.
an increase in wing aspect ratio. have a large leading edge radius.
sweepback of the wings. have a low thickness to chord ratio.
positive dihedral of the wings. have a large camber.
-1
be used with a high angle of attack.
-1
2 GERMANY Should a transport No, this is not aeroplane fly at a higher acceptable Mach number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number? 2 GERMANY In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the 2 GERMANY Shock induced separation results in first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the wing. decreasing drag.
Yes, this causes no problems.
Yes, but only during approach.
Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.
-1
appearance of the bow wave. decreasing lift.
separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves. constant lift. stays all the time at the same position.
attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing. increasing lift. disappears.
-1
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
2 GERMANY If an aeroplane is flying moves into trailing edge moves into leading at transonic speed with direction. edge direction. increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper side of the wing 2 GERMANY Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at the 2 GERMANY The high speed buffet is induced by upper side of the wing. lower side of the wing.
leading edge of the wing.
trailing edge of the wing.
-1
a shift of the centre of gravity.
boundary layer boundary layer control. separation due to shock waves.
expansion waves on the wing upper side.
-1
Page 1184 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
small but still supersonic.
rispostaC
high (supersonic).
rispostaD
lower than 1.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
exactly 1. 1 GERMANY In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is 8 GERMANY The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the wing tip stalling first.
aft movement of the centre of gravity.
forward movement of the centre of gravity.
wing root stalling first.
-1
2 GERMANY Compared with an smaller expansion. oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a 1 GERMANY When the air is passing stay constant. through an expansion wave the static temperature will 1 GERMANY When the air is passing decrease. through an expansion wave the Mach number will 1 GERMANY When the air is passing decrease. through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will 2 GERMANY The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that 1 GERMANY If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the shock wave angles will the static pressure decrease is comparatively high. increase.
higher compression.
higher expansion.
smaller compression.
-1
decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. stay constant.
decrease.
increase.
-1
decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. stay constant.
increase.
-1
increase.
decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. the speed reduction is too high.
-1
the friction in the kinetic energy in the boundary layer is higher. flow is changed into heat energy. stay constant. decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
-1
decrease.
-1
Page 1185 of 1247

2 GERMANY When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound is
rispostaA
increased.
rispostaB
not affected
rispostaC
decreased.
rispostaD
decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again increase.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 GERMANY When the air is passing decrease. through a shock wave the density will 2 GERMANY When the air is passing decrease and beyond a through a shock wave certain Mach number the static temperature start increasing again will 2 GERMANY When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is lower than before but still greater than 1.
stay constant.
decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again decrease.
-1
increase.
stay constant.
-1
equal to 1.
higher than before.
less than 1.
-1
1 GERMANY The flight Mach number 500 kts is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is: 2 GERMANY The regime of flight transonic range. from the critical Mach number up to M = 1.3 is called the 8 ICELAND One advantage of a it is a more powerful movable-stabilizer means of trimming system compared with a fixed stabilizer system is that: The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when : velocity and RPM increase
320 kts
480 kts
600 kts
-1
supersonic range.
hypersonic range.
subsonic range.
-1
the structure weighs less
it leads to greater stability in flight
the system's complexity is reduced
-1
1 ICELAND
forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing 60 000 N
velocity and RPM decrease
RPM increases and forward velocity decreases 80 000 N
-1
1 ICELAND
What is the 70 000 N approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn ?
50 000 N
-1
Page 1186 of 1247

2 ICELAND 8 SWEDEN Load factor is : The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
rispostaA
Lift/Weight May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
rispostaB
Weight/Lift May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing
rispostaC
1/Bank angle Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft
rispostaD
Wing loading Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 -1 0 0 0 0 0 0
8 SWEDEN
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Increase with increased Increase during turn, load factor, more flaps increased mass and but will not increase forward c.g. location due to the bank angle in a turn
Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
-1
8 SWEDEN
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location
Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin to the structural limitations
Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps
-1
3 SWEDEN
Which of the following statements is true?
Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence the centre of pressure will move aft which will increase the margins to the structural limits Increased air density
Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence it is possible to reduce the speed and increase the margins to the structural limits Vertical gusts
By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence the stall speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased Increased aeroplane mass
-1
3 ICELAND
Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other relevant factors being constant)
Rearward CG location
-1
1 ICELAND
What is the unit of N/m measurement for power ?
Nm/s
kgm/s
Pa/m
-1
Page 1187 of 1247

9 ICELAND What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of :
rispostaA
spoilers
rispostaB
fuselage mounted speed-brakes Horn-balanced controls
rispostaC
slats
rispostaD
flaps
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 ICELAND
How is adverse yaw Differential aileron compensated for during deflection entry into and roll out from a turn ? above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack. 91 KCAS
Anti-balanced rudder control
Servo tabs
-1
2 GERMANY Tuck under will happen
only above the critical Mach number.
only at the critical Mach number.
only below the critical Mach number.
-1
8 ICELAND
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5000 Ibs ?
78 KCAS
57 KCAS
67 KCAS
-1
4 GERMANY Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as 3 ICELAND Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades ? "A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil". This definition is applicable for : What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence : High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of :
flaps and elevator.
ailerons and flaps.
ailerons and elevator.
flaps and speed brakes.
-1
Increased noise
Less power can be absorbed by the propeller the camber line
Higher tip-speed
decrease propeller efficiency
-1
1 ICELAND
the upper camber line
the chord line
the mean aerodynamic chord line
-1
3 ICELAND
straight wings
wing dihedral
winglets
swept wings
-1
4 ICELAND
Increasing lift and drag
Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack
Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack
Increasing lift and critical angle of attack
-1
Page 1188 of 1247

2 ICELAND Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ? A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g incremental the pilot must : An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ?
rispostaA
The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic fly at a larger angle of attack
rispostaB
The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil fly at a lower altitude and the same Machnumber
rispostaC
The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic extend the flaps to the first selection
rispostaD
The airflow changes direction fly at a higher Machnumber
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
2 ICELAND
-1
1 ICELAND
It remains constant
It increases as temperature increases
It decreases as pressure increases
It decreases as altitude decreases
-1
1 ICELAND
An aeroplane performs lift is less than drag a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this condition: The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is smaller.
drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is larger.
weight is greater than lift lift is equal to weight
-1
2 GERMANY What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down?
The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is larger.
The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is smaller.
-1
1 GERMANY If a symmetrical aerofoil aft to the mid chord. is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed the centre of lift will move
aft to the trailing edge.
forward to the leading edge.
forward to the mid chord.
-1
Page 1189 of 1247
rispostaA
rispostaB
only the outboard aileron are active.
rispostaC
the inboard and outboard ailerons are active.
rispostaD
only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
only the inboard 4 GERMANY A jet aeroplane ailerons are active. equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In this case 6 ICELAND Which statement is correct about a spring tab ? At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator Body d
Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g Body c
At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab Body a
At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab Body b
-1
5 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6239A) Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag? 3 GERMANY An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects) 6 GERMANY Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance : 6 GERMANY If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect 1 GERMANY Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the
-1
the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
the TAS at both altitudes is the same
the TAS at the higher altitude cannot be determined
the TAS at the higher altitude is lower
-1
does not change.
increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended. drag and lift are reduced. relative wind/airflow.
increases.
decreases.
-1
the induced angle of attack is increased. horizon.
the lift is increased and the drag is decreased. chord line.
the effective angle of attack is decreased. longitudinal axis.
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
Page 1190 of 1247

2 GERMANY Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur ? 2 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6253A) How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?
rispostaA
In the stagnation point
rispostaB
Upper side
rispostaC
Lower side
rispostaD
In front of the stagnation point
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
V1 > V2 and V2 < V
V1 = 0 and V2 > V
V1 < V2 and V2 < V
V1 = 0 and V2 = V
-1
5 GERMANY (For this question use the parasite drag. annex 081-6250A) The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows 5 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6249A) Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane? 5 GERMANY The interference drag is created as a result of 4 GERMANY Winglets 4 GERMANY Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag ? 8 GERMANY Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall? Line c
the induced drag.
the total drag.
the lift force.
-1
Line a
Line b
Line d
-1
separation of the induced vortex. create an elliptical lift distribution. Wing root junction
the addition of induced and parasite drag. decrease the induced drag. Landing gear
interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage). decrease the static lateral stability. Wing tip
downwash behind the wing. increase the manoeuvrability. Engine cowling
-1
0 0
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
Swept wings.
A low horizontal tail.
A T-tail.
A canard wing.
-1
Page 1191 of 1247

3 GERMANY Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant) : 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6263A) Which point in the diagram gives the best glide condition?
rispostaA
The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
rispostaB
The drag increases.
rispostaC
This has no effect.
rispostaD
The drag decreases.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Point c
Point d
Point b
Point a
-1
8 GERMANY Which kind of boundary Laminar boundary layer layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface? 1 GERMANY Bernoulli's equation can pt = q - ps be written as : (pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure) 1 GERMANY If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow) 1 GERMANY The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible flow inside is rho1 = rho2
No difference
Transition boundary layer
Turbulent boundary layer
-1
pt - q = ps
pt = ps - q
pt + ps = q
-1
rho1 < rho2
rho1 > rho2
The density depends on the change of the tube area.
-1
sonic.
decreasing.
not changing.
increasing.
-1
Page 1192 of 1247

2 UNKNOW The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which:
rispostaA
sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
a "supersonic bell" appears on the upper surface.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
the maximum operating a shock-wave appears temperature is reached. on the upper surface.
3 NETHERL
Which part of an The horizontal tailplane. The engine. aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ? Which statement about stick force per g is correct? The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft. The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value. Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground. 19%
The fuselage.
The wing.
-1
3 NETHERL
If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for control of an aeroplane.
The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure acceptable control characteristics. Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.
-1
2 NETHERL
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?
Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.
-1
8 NETHERL
By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45 ? An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
52%
31%
41%
-1
8 NETHERL
141 kt.
82 kt.
150 kt.
122 kt.
-1
Page 1193 of 1247

1 NETHERL The true airspeed (TAS) is:
rispostaA
higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane. The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
rispostaB
equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level. The drag increases.
rispostaC
lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane. This has no effect.
rispostaD
lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below sea level. The drag decreases.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 GERMANY Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and TAS are constant): 8 NETHERL How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for speed increase ? The buffet margin :
-1
Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab
The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabiliser decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number. balance tab.
The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO. antibalance tab.
-1
2 NETHERL
increases during a is always greatest after descent with a constant a stepclimb has been IAS. executed. balance panel. differential aileron.
-1
4 GERMANY One method to compensate adverse yaw is a 9 GERMANY A slat will
-1
provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.
increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack. smaller or larger depending on flap deflection.
increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge. smaller.
increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing. larger.
-1
9 GERMANY Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is 9 GERMANY During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant)
unchanged.
-1
yaw.
climb.
bank.
sink suddenly.
-1
Page 1194 of 1247

9 GERMANY During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant) 9 GERMANY A plain flap will increase CLmax by 9 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6272A) The high lift device shown in the figure below is a 9 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6271A) The high lift device shown in the figure is a 9 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6270A) Which type of flap is shown in the picture? 6 NETHERL Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct ?
rispostaA
sink suddenly.
rispostaB
bank.
rispostaC
climb.
rispostaD
yaw.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
boundary layer control. Slot or slat
centre of lift movement. Krueger flap
increasing the camber of the aerofoil. Fowler flap
increasing angle of attack. Slotted flap
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
Krueger flap
Slat
Fowler flap
Slotted flap
-1
Plain flap
Split flap
Single slotted flap
Fowler flap
-1
The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind. Point c
The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.
The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection. Point a
Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller. Point b
-1
3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6261A) Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed? 1 NETHERL
Point d
-1
At what speed does the The true air speed of front of a shock wave the aeroplane. move across the earth's surface?
The ground speed of the aeroplane.
The speed of sound at ground level.
The speed of sound at flight level.
-1
Page 1195 of 1247

3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6262A) Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate? 4 NETHERL Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?
rispostaA
Point d
rispostaB
Point c
rispostaC
Point a
rispostaD
Point b
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.
Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.
In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.
In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum deflection. Landing gear extended.
-1
4 NETHERL
When are outboard ailerons (if present) deactivated ?
Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.
Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value.. Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.
Landing gear retracted.
-1
2 NETHERL
What is the influence of Mcrit decreases as a decreasing aeroplane result of flying at a weight on Mcrit at greater angle of attack. constant IAS ? Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when :
Mcrit increases as a Mcrit decreases. result of compressibility effects. the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper. is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers. the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak. has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS) curve for a fully hydraulic controlled aeroplane. Double slotted flap
-1
6 NETHERL
the static directional the static lateral and stability is negative and directional stability are the static lateral stability both negative. is positive. corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers. increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers.
-1
3 NETHERL
A Machtrimmer:
-1
9 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6269A) Which type of flap is shown in the picture? 3 GERMANY Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the
Plain flap
Split flap
Fowler flap
-1
distance for climb up to a certain altitude.
glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind.
glide distance from a given altitude.
distance for horizontal flight.
-1
Page 1196 of 1247

1 GERMANY If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will 1 GERMANY If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will 1 GERMANY What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS) for minimum sink rate (VR/Dmin) and best glide angle (VBest glide) at a given altitude? 3 GERMANY (For this question use annex 081-6264A) Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in horizontal flight? 8 GERMANY The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the 6 NETHERL Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
rispostaA
increase and the rate of descent will increase.
rispostaB
decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
decrease and the rate increase and the rate of of descent will increase. descent will decrease.
decrease and the rate increase and the rate of of descent will increase. descent will increase.
increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
-1
VR/Dmin < VBest glide
VR/Dmin = VBest glide
VR/Dmin > VBest glide
VR/Dmin > VBest glide or VR/Dmin < VBest glide depending on the type of aeroplane.
-1
Point b
Point c
Point d
Point a
-1
centre of lift.
transition region.
centre of gravity.
stagnation point.
-1
Fowler flaps, upper and seal between wing's lower rudder trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance 52%. 41%.
upper and lower rudder, weight in the nose of seal between wing's the control surface, trailing edge and horn balance leading edge of a control surface 19%. 31%.
-1
1 NETHERL
By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45 angle of bank, compared to straight and level flight?
-1
Page 1197 of 1247

9 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: no devices
rispostaC
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats
rispostaD
Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L.E. flaps
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Wing roots: slats An aeroplane with Wing tips: no devices swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is: Which of the following slats only extended, series of configurations clean wing, flaps only has an increasing extended. critical angle of attack ? The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to: What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ? allow space for vibration of the slat.
9 NETHERL
slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.
flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.
clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended. cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer. assist the ailerons during rolling.
-1
9 NETHERL
reduce the wing loading. slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing. provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off. ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the "ground" position. increase or decrease depending on type of flap.
-1
9 NETHERL
extend automatically when a certain value of angle of atttack is exceeded. decrease.
-1
9 NETHERL
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will:
remain constant.
increase.
-1
9 NETHERL
A slotted flap will increasing the camber increase the CLmax by: of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer. Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will: What is the most effective flap system? just turn down. Fowler flap.
decreasing the skin friction.
increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
increasing the critical angle of attack.
-1
9 NETHERL 9 NETHERL
move aft, then turn down. Split flap.
turn down, then move aft. Plain flap.
just move aft. Single slotted flap.
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
Page 1198 of 1247

9 NETHERL Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct? Trailing edge flap extension will:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not. increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax. vary as the square of IAS.
rispostaD
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not. decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax. increase.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
Deploying a slat will Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not. angle of attack, deploying a slat does not. increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax. decrease. decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax. remain the same.
9 NETHERL
-1
9 NETHERL
When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will: When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually :
-1
9 NETHERL
decrease.
first increase and then decrease.
remain the same.
increase.
-1
9 ICELAND
The use of a slot in the it delays the stall to a leading edge of the higher angle of attack wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because : In a turn, the load factor n greater than 1, VS n and the stalling speed higher than in straight VS will be: and level flight. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ? Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation. Excessive wing drop and deep stall.
the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air
it changes the camber of the wing
-1
8 NETHERL
n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight. Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. pitch down and yaw.
n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight. Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. pitch down and minor wing drop.
n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight. Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED. pitch down and increase in speed.
-1
9 NETHERL
-1
8 NETHERL
Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include:
-1
Page 1199 of 1247

8 NETHERL The function of the stick pusher is:
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
to activate and push the to activate and push the to vibrate the controls. stick forward prior to stick forward at or stick shaker. beyond a certain value of angle of attack. nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response. nose down tendency.
8 NETHERL
A strongly swept back tendency to increase wing stalls. If the wake speed after initial stall. of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be: Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall? The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is: Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines
increase sensitivity of elevator inputs.
-1
8 NETHERL
Swept back wings and a T-tail.
Straight wings and a Ttail.
Swept back wings and wing mounted engines.
-1
8 NETHERL
idle power and stick roll- idle power and stick neutral nose-down and neutral, waiting for the no other corrections. natural nose-down tendency.
full power and stick rollneutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with rudder. centre of pressure.
full power and stick rollneutral nose-down, correction for angle of bank with stick. centre of gravity.
-1
8 NETHERL
The vane of a stall point of lowest pressure. stagnation point. warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the: Which of the following are used as stall warning devices? Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct? During an erect spin recovery: Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator. Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator.
-1
8 NETHERL
Angle of attack sensor and stallstrip. The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing. the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank. An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root.
Stick shaker and stallstrip . Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have a nose-down tendency. the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank. In the spin, airspeed continuously increases.
-1
8 NETHERL
Buffeting is the result of The nose down effect flow separation on the is the result of tail plane. increasing downwash, due to flow separation. the control stick is pulled to the most aft position. the ailerons are held in the neutral position.
-1
8 NETHERL
-1
8 NETHERL
Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?
Every aeroplane should During spin recovery be designed such that it the ailerons should be can never enter a spin. kept in the neutral position.
-1
Page 1200 of 1247

8 NETHERL Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ? If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move: On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the "Full extended" position will produce:
rispostaA
Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed. to a position near the leading edge.
rispostaB
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. to a position near the trailing edge.
rispostaC
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. to the mid chord position.
rispostaD
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed.. forward.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 NETHERL
-1
9 UNKNOW
an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack.
an increase in wing area only.
an increase in wing area and camber.
an unaffected wing area and increase in camber.
-1
4 NETHERL
A propeller turns to the roll the aeroplane to the right, seen from behind. right. The torque effect in the take-off will: The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that altitude: Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack? A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates? Mach buffet will occur immediately.
pitch the aeroplane nose up.
roll the aeroplane to the left.
pitch the aeroplane nose down.
-1
2 NETHERL
turbulence may induce Mach buffet.
turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.
a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.
-1
8 NETHERL
Low speed stall.
Deep stall.
Shock stall.
Accelerated stall.
-1
8 NETHERL
Shock stall.
Deep stall.
Accelerated stall.
Low speed stall.
-1
Page 1201 of 1247

2 NETHERL The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be : (assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight) When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur: Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack? Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values?
rispostaA
an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up.
rispostaB
engine unbalance and buffeting.
rispostaC
buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.
rispostaD
buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 NETHERL
on the underside of the wing.
somewhere on the fin.
somewhere on the hoizontal tail.
at the wing root segment, upperside.
-1
2 NETHERL
shockstall.
high-speed stall.
low-speed stall.
deep stall.
-1
2 NETHERL
(1) thick and (2) large.
(1) thick and (2) small.
(1) thin and (2) large.
(1) thin and (2) small.
-1
2 NETHERL
Mcrit is the free stream shockstall occurs. Mach Number at which: What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart? How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
the critical angle of attack is reached.
somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally. The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.
Mach buffet occurs.
-1
2 NETHERL
The values of the Mach The values of MMO at Number at which low different weights and speed and Mach Buffet altitudes. occur at different weights and altitudes. It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects. It remains constant.
The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different weights and altitudes. It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.
-1
2 NETHERL
It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
-1
Page 1202 of 1247

1 NETHERL A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect in the climb will: A deployed slat will:
rispostaA
VMO.
rispostaB
VA.
rispostaC
MD.
rispostaD
MMO.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
4 NETHERL
yaw the aeroplane to the left.
roll the aeroplane to the left.
yaw the aeroplane to the right.
roll the aeroplane to the right.
-1
9 NETHERL
increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack. pitching and rolling.
increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. increasing RPM and yawing. Flaps from 0 to 15 .
increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. increasing RPM and rolling. Flaps from 15 to 30 .
decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack. pitching and yawing.
-1
4 NETHERL
Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by:
-1
9 NETHERL
An aeroplane has the The slats. following flap settings : 0 , 15 , 30 and 45. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio? Increasing the number of propeller blades will: When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position: increase the maximum absorption of power. the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.
Flaps from 30 to 45 .
-1
3 NETHERL
increase the propeller efficiency.
increase the noise level at maximum power.
decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power. the windmilling RPM is the maximum.
-1
2 NETHERL
the drag of the propeller the propeller produces is then minimal. an optimal windmilling RPM.
-1
Page 1203 of 1247

2 NETHERL An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a non rotating (2) propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct?
rispostaA
(1) is larger than (2).
rispostaB
(1) is equal to (2).
rispostaC
(2) is larger than (1).
rispostaD
impossible to say which one is largest.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 NETHERL
Propeller efficiency may the usable (power be defined as the ratio available) power and between: the maximum power. If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?
the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.
usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power. increase and the rate of descent will increase.
the thrust and the maximum thrust.
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
increase and the rate of descent will increase.
-1
1 NETHERL
To ensure that the root produces most thrust.
To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.
Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the aeroplane.
Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers.
-1
2 NETHERL
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :
increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.
is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
is maximum at an angle is mainly caused by of attack of 2 degrees. suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.
-1
Page 1204 of 1247

6 NETHERL Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend on: During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection: When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes: Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing: Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?
rispostaA
elevator deflection, static pressure. downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.
rispostaB
stabilizer position, total pressure. upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.
rispostaC
elevator deflection, dynamic pressure. on the upgoing wing only.
rispostaD
stabilizer position, static pressure. on the downgoing wing only.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 FRANCE
-1
10 UNKNOW
at same angle of attack, at same angle of attack, CLmax of the polar CL remains unaffected. CD is increased and curve is not affected. CL is decreased. CD is increased and CL is decreased. Spiral dive. only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected). Buffeting. both CL and CD are increased. Dutch roll.
they do not affect wheel braking action during landing. CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected. Tuck under.
-1
10 UNKNOW
-1
6 NETHERL
-1
4 NETHERL
A propeller is turning to high angles of attack. the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by: The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the: When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be: angle of attack.
high speed.
large angles of yaw.
large angles of climb.
-1
5 NETHERL
square of the angle of attack.
square of the speed.
speed.
-1
2 NETHERL
zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.
downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of gravity.
downwards.
upwards.
-1
Page 1205 of 1247

1 UNKNOW A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to: A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will:
rispostaA
increase thrust and angle of attack.
rispostaB
increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
rispostaC
increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
rispostaD
increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
8 NETHERL
improve the lift improve the low speed coefficient of the trailing characteristics. edge flap. Decreasing.
improve the high speed characteristics. Increasing.
increase the critical Mach Number. Increasing, then decreasing.
-1
5 NETHERL
How does the total drag Decreasing, then vary as speed is increasing. increased from stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight? Vortex generators: transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
-1
9 NETHERL
change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer. spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices.
reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing. interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage. Flying at high angles of attack. aeroplane weight.
take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation. separation of the boundary layer over the wing. Extending the flaps.
-1
4 NETHERL
Induced drag is created propeller wash blowing by the: across the wing. Which of the following will reduce induced drag? Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with:
-1
4 NETHERL
Elliptical lift distribution. Low aspect ratio.
-1
4 NETHERL
angle between wing chord and fuselage centre line. V
engine thrust.
aeroplane wing location.
-1
4 NETHERL
1/V
1/V
-1
Page 1206 of 1247

4 NETHERL If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually : (flap span less than wing span) Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors constant) In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing speed? Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will: An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:
rispostaA
increase.
rispostaB
remain the same.
rispostaC
increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
rispostaD
decrease.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
4 NETHERL
Circular.
Elliptical.
Rectangular.
Tapered.
-1
5 NETHERL
(1) decreases and (2) increases.
(1) increases and (2) increases.
(1) decreases and (2) decreases.
(1) increases and (2) decreases.
-1
8 NETHERL
(1) not move (2) move forward.
(1) move aft, (2) not move.
(1) move aft, (2) move forward.
(1) move aft, (2) move aft.
-1
5 NETHERL
(i) 1/2 (ii) 1/16
(i) 4 (ii) 1/2
(i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4
(i) 1/4 (ii) 2
-1
2 NETHERL
An aeroplane, with a upwards. C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is:
zero.
downwards.
upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.
-1
Page 1207 of 1247

1 NETHERL 5 NETHERL The correct drag formula is: At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and profile drag Dp? Di/Dp= If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes: Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the: Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct?
rispostaA
D= CD 1/2 RHO V S 2/1
rispostaB
D= CD 2 RHO V S 1/2
rispostaC
D= CD 1/2 RHO V S 1/1
rispostaD
D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V S It varies between aeroplane types.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0 0 -1 0 0
5 UNKNOW
a roll to starboard (right). horizon.
a roll to port (left).
a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing. relative wind/airflow.
an increase in lift on the port (left) wing. chord line.
-1
1 NETHERL
longitudinal axis.
-1
5 NETHERL
At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero. 2381 metres.
The lift/drag ratio The highest value of always increases as the the lift/drag ratio is lift decreases. reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft weight. 4743 metres. 9000 metres.
-1
1 FRANCE
An aeroplane is in a 3354 metres. steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45 . Its turning radius is equal to: (given: g= 10 m/s) The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows:
-1
5 UNKNOW
Negative dihedral effect Its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loading No effect
Zero dihedral effect
Positive dihedral effect
-1
4 UNKNOW
The effect of a positive Stabilizing effect wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:
Destabilizing dihedral effect
Negative dihedral effect
-1
Page 1208 of 1247

2 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
I is incorrect, II is correct
rispostaC
I is incorrect, II is incorrect
rispostaD
I is correct, II is correct
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
I is correct, II is Which of the following statements is correct ? incorrect I When the critical engine fails during takeoff the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection. Which of the following I is correct, II is correct statements is correct ? I When the critical engine fails during takeoff the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate Which of the following I is incorrect, II is statements is correct ? incorrect I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate The speed for minimum CLmax glide angle occurs at a certain angle of attack. Which are the corresponding aerodynamic coefficients(s) ? What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's wing on induced drag? It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and induced drag.
2 NETHERL
I is incorrect, II is incorrect
I is correct, II is incorrect
-1
2 NETHERL
I is correct, II is incorrect
I is correct, II is correct
-1
3 NETHERL
(CL/CD^2)max
(CL^3/CD^2)max
(CL/CD)max
-1
4 NETHERL
It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater downwash.
It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is reduced.
It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal area.
-1
Page 1209 of 1247

3 NETHERL The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the:
rispostaA
maximum elevator deflection.
rispostaB
too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane. (1) decrease (2) increase.
rispostaC
minimum value of the stick force per g.
rispostaD
maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane. (1) increase (2) increase.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
6 NETHERL
With increasing altitude (1) decrease (2) and constant IAS the decrease. static lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with sweptback wing will: Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct? The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitchup. The "effective dihedral" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of that component to the static lateral stability.
(1) increase (2) decrease.
-1
3 NETHERL
A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number. Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4chord line and the lateral axis of the aeroplane.
A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO. Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability.
A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers. Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slipfree turns.
-1
5 NETHERL
Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?
-1
2 NETHERL
"Tuck under" is caused (i) aft (ii) increasing by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer. "Tuck under" may happen at: "Tuck under" is: low Mach numbers. the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.
(i) forward (ii) increasing (i) aft (ii) decreasing
(i) forward (ii) decreasing
-1
3 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
all Mach numbers.
only at low altitudes.
high Mach numbers. the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.
0 -1
0 0
0 0
-1 0
the tendency to nose up shaking of the control when speed is column at high Mach increased into the Number. transonic flight regime.
Page 1210 of 1247

3 NETHERL One of the requirements for dynamic stability is: A statically unstable aeroplane is: An aeroplane that has positive static stability: The "short period mode" is an: Which one of the following statements about the dynamic stability of a conventional aeroplane about the lateral axis is correct? After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant amplitude. The aeroplane is: In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero ? Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the:
rispostaA
a small C.G. range.
rispostaB
effective elevator.
rispostaC
positive static stability.
rispostaD
a large deflection range of the stabilizer trim. sometimes dynamically unstable. is never dynamically stable. unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot. Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 NETHERL 3 NETHERL
never dynamically stable. is always dynamically unstable. oscillation about the lateral axis. An aft C.G. position shortens the period time of the phugoid.
always dynamically stable. can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable. oscillation about the vertical axis. Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.
sometimes dynamically stable. is always dynamically stable. oscillation about the longitudinal axis. Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid.
-1 0
0 -1
0 0
0 0
3 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL
Statically stable Dynamically neutral
Statically unstable Dynamically stable
Statically stable Dynamically unstable
Statically unstable Dynamically neutral
-1
2 NETHERL
It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.
Down.
Up.
No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged.
-1
3 NETHERL
centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing.
wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface.
aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range.
centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
-1
Page 1211 of 1247

1 NETHERL
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
In which situation would Aft centre of gravity and Forward centre of idle thrust. gravity and take-off the wing lift of an thrust. aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value ? For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located: at the neutral point of the aeroplane. between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane. 150 N.
Aft centre of gravity and Forward centre of take-off thrust. gravity and idle thrust.
3 NETHERL
with a sufficient aft of the neutral point minimum margin ahead of the aeroplane. of the neutral point of the aeroplane. 225 N. 375 N.
-1
3 NETHERL
The value of the 450 N. manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the load factor of 2.5 is: The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected by: The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed location. Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct? (1) aft C.G. position (2) aft CG. position.
-1
3 NETHERL
(1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim. Stick force stability is not affected by trim.
(1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position. Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force than increasing 10 kt trimmed at high speed.
(1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim. Increase of speed generates pull forces.
-1
3 NETHERL
Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.
-1
4 NETHERL
An aeroplane has static nose of the aeroplane directional stability; in a will remain in the same side-slip to the right, direction. initially the:
nose of the aeroplane nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left. tends to move to the right.
right wing tends to go down.
-1
Page 1212 of 1247

3 NETHERL Which of the following statements is correct?
rispostaA
Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically satble about the relevant axis.
rispostaB
Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation. longitudinal axis. slipping. up and the C.G. is fully forward.
rispostaC
A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.
rispostaD
Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
Rolling is the rotation of wing axis. the aeroplane about the: Rotation about the lateral axis is called : yawing.
vertical axis. pitching. fully down and the C.G. is fully aft.
lateral axis. rolling. up and the C.G. is fully aft.
0 0 -1
-1 0 0
0 -1 0
0 0 0
During landing of a low- fully down and the C.G. winged jet aeroplane, is fully forward. the maximum elevator up deflection is normally required when the flaps are: In a mechanically wing surface, stabilizer controlled aeroplane, surface. the most forward allowable position of the centre of gravity could be limited by the: If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane: The centre of gravity moving aft will: would be difficult to control.
2 NETHERL
elevator capability, elevator control forces.
engine thrust, engine location.
trim system, trim tab surface.
-1
1 NETHERL
would fly a path with a constant curvature.
would not be affected because the situation is normal. not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
would experience an angular acceleration about that axis. increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location. have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.
-1
2 NETHERL
increase the elevator up decrease the elevator effectiveness. up effectiveness.
-1
1 NETHERL
Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they:
produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.
have a higher maximum produce a greater efficiency than a fixed- maximum thrust than a pitch propeller. fixed-pitch propeller.
-1
Page 1213 of 1247

3 NETHERL Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once it has been displaced the : The Mach trim system will: Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will: To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the:
rispostaA
tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of decreasing amplitude.
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
initial tendency to move is away from its equilibrium position. keep the Mach Number automatically constant.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
initial tendency to move tendency will be to move with an oscillating is towards its equilibrium position. motion of increasing amplitude. adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.
2 NETHERL
pump the fuel from tank adjust the elevator trim to tank, depending on tab, depending on the the Mach Number. Mach Number. decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation. Mach Number. increase the critical Mach Number. EAS.
-1
3 NETHERL
decrease the span wise increase the magnitude flow at high Mach of the shock wave. Numbers. TAS. IAS.
-1
1 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
In transonic flight the behind the shock wave ailerons will be less pressure is lower. effective than in subsonic flight because: In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are: The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by: The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence of : Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will: The Mach trim system will prevent:
aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.
aileron deflection only aileron deflection only affects the air in front of partly affects the the shock wave. pressure distribution around the wing. in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number. vortex generators. outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number. control deflection
-1
1 NETHERL
in front of the aeroplane. very weak and negligible. dihedral of the wings. sweep back of the wings.
-1
2 NETHERL
-1
2 NETHERL
buffet.
shock wave.
supersonic flow.
local sonic flow.
-1
1 NETHERL
first increase, then decrease. dutch roll.
increase.
remain constant.
decrease.
-1
2 NETHERL
buffeting.
shock stall.
tuck under.
-1
Page 1214 of 1247

1 FRANCE For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade, measured at the reference section: Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number? Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number? In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by: Shock stall is:
rispostaA
decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).
rispostaB
is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).
rispostaC
is always positive during idling descent.
rispostaD
is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
2 NETHERL
Shock stall.
Dutch roll.
Tuck under.
Mach buffet.
-1
2 NETHERL
Elevator stall.
Mach buffet.
Dutch roll.
Speed instability.
-1
2 NETHERL
the IAS.
the CAS.
the Mach Number.
the TAS.
-1
2 NETHERL
separation of the flow behind the bow wave.
separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach Numbers. irregular.
separation of the flow at separation of the the trailing edge of the boundary layer behind wing at high Mach the shock wave. Numbers. triangular. the same as in subsonic flight. increase the static lateral stability.
-1
1 NETHERL
In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is: The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the transonic flight regime will: Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing: When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is:
rectangular.
-1
1 NETHERL
decrease the static lateral stability.
increase the static longitudinal stability.
decrease the longitudinal stability.
-1
3 NETHERL
increase critical Mach Number. increased.
decrease critical Mach Number. unchanged.
decrease wave drag.
increase wave drag.
-1
1 NETHERL
decreased.
decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.
-1
Page 1215 of 1247

2 NETHERL By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%? The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are: The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is: What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram? What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA ? The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed:
rispostaA
4.36% lower.
rispostaB
no change
rispostaC
19% lower.
rispostaD
10% lower.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
8 NETHERL
increase of CLmax and decrease of drag.
decrease of CLmax and decrease of CLmax and increase of CLmax and increase of drag. decrease of drag. increase of drag.
-1
8 NETHERL
increase in drag.
blocking of control surfaces.
reduction in CLmax.
increase in weight.
-1
2 NETHERL
3.75
2.5
1.5
-1
2 NETHERL
It may suffer permanent It may break if the deformation if the elevator is fully elevator is fully deflected upwards. deflected upwards VC Vflutter
It may suffer permanent It will collapse if a turn deformation because is made. the flight is performed at too large dynamic pressure. VMO VD
-1
3 NETHERL
-1
3 NETHERL
Which combination of 50 ft/sec and VC. speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration) ? The formula for the Mach Number is: (a= speed of sound) M= TAS / a
66 ft/sec and VD.
65 ft/sec at all speeds.
55 ft/sec and VB.
-1
1 NETHERL
M= a / TAS
M= TAS*a
M= IAS / a
-1
Page 1216 of 1247

2 NETHERL 1 NETHERL Which load factor determines VA? If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will: The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula: (SQRT= square root)
rispostaA
manoeuvring ultimate load factor. not change.
rispostaB
gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust. increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.
rispostaC
manoeuvring flap limit load factor. increase.
rispostaD
manoeuvring limit load factor. decrease.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 0 0 -1 -1 0
2 NETHERL
VS= VA SQRT(3.75)
Va= VA SQRT(3.75)
VA= VS SQRT(2.5)
VS= VA SQRT(2.5)
-1
1 NETHERL
A commercial jet MMO. aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are: The bow wave will appear first at: Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct? thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing. M= 1.3 The pressure decreases.
VMO.
VNE.
VD.
-1
2 NETHERL
positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the wing. M= 1.0 The temperature decreases.
thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing. M= Mcrit The velocity increases.
thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing. M= 0.6 The temperature increases.
-1
1 NETHERL 2 NETHERL
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
1 NETHERL
The additional increase wave drag. of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number is due to:
increased angle of attack.
increased interference drag.
increased skin friction.
-1
Page 1217 of 1247

2 NETHERL When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach Number the centre of the pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires: The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration) : The speed of sound is affected by the:
rispostaA
much more thrust from the engine.
rispostaB
a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect.
rispostaC
a pitch up input of the stabilizer.
rispostaD
a stability augmentation system.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
3 NETHERL
25, 55, 75
35, 55, 66
25, 50, 66
15, 56, 65
-1
1 NETHERL
pressure of the air.
humidity of the air.
temperature of the air.
density of the air.
-1
91
0 ITALY An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot: Which abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal time"? What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ? How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight: Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET: Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication Return to the airport of departure Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit -1 0 0 0
2 ITALY
COUT.
UTC.
CUT.
GMT.
-1
2 ITALY 2 ITALY
Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR VOLMET
Voice channel of an ILS NDB frequencies ATIS AFIS
DME voice channel SIGMET
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
0 0
2 ITALY
SIGMET
Runway reports
Aviation routine weather SPECI and TAF reports (METAR) of specific airports
-1
Page 1218 of 1247

1 ITALY When the term "Scattered" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : "Wait and i will call you"? What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ?
rispostaA
No clouds below 5000 feet/GND
rispostaB
Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)
rispostaC
More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)
rispostaD
Sky entirely covered (8 octas)
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
0 ITALY
It is requesting immediate level change Wilco.
It is about to make a forced landing Standby.
It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure Go ahead.
It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome Roger.
-1
5 ITALY
-1
0 ITALY
Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations
Divert to the alternate airport
Squawk mode A code 7500
Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight
-1
0 ITALY
A message preceded On the frequency by the phrase presently in use "Transmitting blind due receiver failure" shall be transmitted: If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ? Which Q-code is used to report altitude ? QBI
On the regional guard frequency
On the international emergency frequency
On all available aeronautical stations
-1
3 ITALY
QFE
QNH
QDM
-1
3 UNKNOW 3 UNKNOW
QFF
QNJ
QNH
QFE True heading to the station (no wind)
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
What does QDM mean? True bearing from the station
Magnetic heading to the Magnetic bearing from station (no wind) the station
Page 1219 of 1247

3 ITALY
rispostaA
rispostaB
Twenty.
rispostaC
Two zero this hour.
rispostaD
Nine twenty A.M.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
Two zero. The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour ? What is the transponder code for radio communication failure: What does the abbreviation "HX" mean? What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"? During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point : 7600
0 ITALY
6700
7500
7700
-1
2 ITALY
No specific working hours. QFE
Sunrise to sunset.
Sunset to sunrise.
Continuous day and night service. QDM
-1
3 UNKNOW
QTE
QDR
-1
2 ITALY
The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
The term DECIMAL The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if must always be followed by three digits. transmitted.
The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
-1
4 ITALY
The message A flight safety message. A meteorological addressed to an Area message. Control Center "request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather" is: Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of: The clearance : "cleared for immediate take-off runway 03" is: The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: Flight safety messages. Class B messages.
An urgency message.
A message relating to direction finding.
-1
4 ITALY
Flight regularity messages.
Service messages.
-1
4 ITALY
An urgency message.
An unauthorized message. Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.
A flight regularity message. Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.
A flight safety message.
-1
4 ITALY
Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.
Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.
-1
Page 1220 of 1247

4 ITALY The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
rispostaA
Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.
rispostaB
Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message. Same as "latest QNH 1018". Visibility 1200 feet Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M. Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND
rispostaC
Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message. Greater than "turn left heading..." Visibility 1.2 nautical miles No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND
rispostaD
Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message. Less than "request climb to flight level..." Visibility 1.2 kilometres Co-ordinated universal time (UTC) Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
4 ITALY
The priority of the pilot's Less than "descend to message "request flight level..." QDM" is: What is the correct way Visibility 1200 metres of expressing visibility ? When transmitting time, which time system shall be used? When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are: When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: When the term "Broken" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: Local time (LT), 24hour clock Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND
-1
1 ITALY 3 UNKNOW
-1 0
0 0
0 0
0 -1
1 ITALY
-1
1 ITALY
50% or more
Less than 50%
No clouds but poor ground visibility
100%
-1
1 ITALY
1 to 4 octas
8 octas below 10000 feet
No clouds below 5000 feet
5 to 7 octas
-1
5 ITALY
Which phraseology is "Backtrack clearance". to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction opposite to that in use ?
"Request backtrack on runway".
"Clearance to backtrack".
"To enter back runway".
-1
Page 1221 of 1247

0 ITALY
rispostaA
rispostaB
"Transmitting blind"
rispostaC
"Read you one, read you one"
rispostaD
"How do you read?"
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, If all attempts to establish radio contact PAN PAN with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase: Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service? Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call: An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal: Urgency is defined as:
0 ITALY
118.000 - 136.975 MHZ 108.000 - 117.975 MHz 1810 - 2850 KHz
11650 - 13200 KHz
-1
2 ITALY
Any frequency at pilot's discretion
The air-ground frequency in use at the time PAN PAN, spoken three times
The international emergency frequency
The regional guard frequency
-1
2 ITALY
ALERFA, spoken three times
URGENCY,spoken three times
MAYDAY, spoken three times
-1
2 ITALY
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance When following a SID
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance When flying within controlled airspace
A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance When passing the transition level
A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach In distress
-1
1 ITALY
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ? An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
-1
1 ITALY
7500
7700
6700
7600
-1
1 ITALY
Which of the following 121.050 MHz frequencies is an international emergency frequency:
121.500 MHz
122.500 MHz
6500 KHz
-1
Page 1222 of 1247

1 ITALY The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details: The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be: An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony: Distress is defined as:
rispostaA
Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level The distress frequency 121.5 MHz
rispostaB
Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
rispostaC
rispostaD
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
Aircraft call sign, nature Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination of distress, pilot's airport intention, present position, level and heading Any frequency at pilot's discretion The frequency currently in use
1 ITALY
Any other international emergency frequency
-1
1 ITALY
DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
URGENCY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, URGENCY, URGENCY MAYDAY
-1
1 ITALY
A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance When entering a FIR during an IFR flight
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome
-1
0 ITALY
When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals ? Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ? What is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?
When flying VFR above When the aircraft is clouds entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport
-1
0 ITALY
In case of radio communication failure
When entering bad weather areas
When approaching a prohibited area
When flying over desert areas
-1
3 ITALY
QTE.
QDM.
QDR.
QNE.
-1
4 ITALY
Which of the messages Radio teletype listed below shall not be messages. handled by the aeronautical mobile service?
Meteorological messages.
Flight safety messages. Urgency messages.
-1
Page 1223 of 1247

1 ITALY How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language:
rispostaA
Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
rispostaB
In feet and nautical miles
rispostaC
In nautical miles only
rispostaD
Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
3 UNKNOW 3 UNKNOW
What does QDR mean? True heading to the station What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"? A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is: What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean: When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also: A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called: In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made: The message to an aeronautical ground station "please call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045" is: QDR
Magnetic bearing from the station QTE
Magnetic heading to the True bearing from the station (no wind) station QDM QFE
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
0 0
4 ITALY
An urgency message.
A flight safety message. A flight security message.
A flight regularity message.
-1
5 ITALY 0 ITALY
Pass me the following information... Return to the airport of departure
Yes Advise the time of its next intended transmission
Proceed with your message Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing
Taxi on Land at the nearest airfield/airport
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
0 0
4 ITALY
Urgency message.
Class B message.
Distress message.
Flight safety message.
-1
0 ITALY
During VFR flights only
Twice on the designated frequency
Only once on the designated frequency
On the emergency frequency only
-1
4 ITALY
An urgency message.
An unauthorized message.
A flight regularity message.
A flight safety messages.
-1
Page 1224 of 1247

4 ITALY The priority of the instruction "taxi to runway 05" is:
rispostaA
Less than "cleared to land".
rispostaB
Same as "line-up runway 07 and wait". Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie three five zero zero
rispostaC
Greater than "transmit for QDM". Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie three five hundred
rispostaD
Greater than "caution, construction work left of taxiway". Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo three five double zero
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNKNOW
What is the correct way Hotel Bravo India of spelling out HB-JYC Yankee Charlie in a radio message? What is the correct way three thousand five of transmitting the hundred number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height ? What is the correct way QNH one double "O" of transmitting 1001 as one a QNH ? What does QTE mean? Magnetic bearing from the station. Flight safety messages are: Messages relating to direction finding.
-1
2 UNKNOW
-1
2 UNKNOW
QNH one thousand and QNH one double zero one one True heading to the station (no wind). Air traffic control messages.
QNH one zero zero one
-1
3 ITALY 4 ITALY
Magnetic heading to the True bearing from the station. station. Operation messages concerning non-routine landings. Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person. Turn right to avoid other traffic Problem to understand
0 0
0 -1
0 0
-1 0
5 ITALY
What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ? On the readability scale what does "Readability 5" mean: On the readability scale what does "Readability 3" mean: Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:
Right-hand circuits are in use Readable but with difficulty Loud and clear
Leave the runway to the Make 360 turns to the right right Perfectly readable Unreadable
-1
9 ITALY
-1
9 ITALY
Unreadable
Readable but with difficulty Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7
No problem to understand Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC preflight check
-1
9 ITALY
Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check
Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check
-1
Page 1225 of 1247

8 ITALY
rispostaA
rispostaB
One two zero decimal three seven
rispostaC
One twenty decimal three seven
rispostaD
One two zero decimal three seven five
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0 -1 0 0
What is the correct way One two zero three seven to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 KHz): How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder: Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ? When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ? Negative transponder
11 ITALY
No SSR
Transponder not available
Negative squawk
-1
8 ITALY
118.7 X-BC
Will change to TOWER X-BC
Changing over X-BC
Stephenville TOWER X-BC
-1
7 ITALY
Only after satisfactory communication has been established
Provided no confusion is likely to result
In dense traffic
After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station Cherokee X-ABC
-1
7 ITALY
Which of the following Cherokee BC abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct: Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct: When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted ? ABC
Cherokee XY-BC
Cherokee X-BC
-1
7 ITALY
BC
X-BC
XY-BC
-1
6 ITALY
Never
Only after the In dense traffic during aeronautical station has rush hours used the abbreviated call sign
When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do so
-1
Page 1226 of 1247

6 ITALY
rispostaA
rispostaB
GROUND
rispostaC
APPROACH
rispostaD
TOWER
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0 -1 0 0
CONTROL What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area: What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service: Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ? FLIGHT CENTRE
6 ITALY
CONTROL
INFORMATION
FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
-1
10 ITALY
Time check, runway-inuse, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes
Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions Hold position on the left side of the runway Will contact 123.25 XBC
Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings
Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and speed instructions Give way to aircraft from the left Monitoring 123.25 X-BC
-1
5 ITALY
What does the instruction "Vacate left" mean ? Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ? What does the instruction "Go around" mean ? Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a missed approach:
Clear the runway immediately Changing to 123.25 XBC
Turn left to leave the runway Checking 123.25 X-BC
-1
8 ITALY
-1
5 ITALY
Make a 360 turn
Proceed with your message Overshooting
Carry out a missed approach Will make another approach
Overtake the aircraft ahead Pulling up
-1
5 ITALY
Going around
-1
Page 1227 of 1247

5 ITALY How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for takeoff: Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes": Which phrase shall be used if you want to say:"I understand your message and will comply with it": Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required: Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...": Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly: Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...":
rispostaA
Ready for take-off
rispostaB
Ready to line-up
rispostaC
Ready to go
rispostaD
Ready for departure or ready
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
5 ITALY
Yes
Roger
Affirmative
Affirm
-1
5 ITALY
Roger
Will comply with your instruction
OK, will do it
Wilco
-1
5 ITALY
Repeat your message
What was your message?
Repeat your last transmission
Say again
-1
5 ITALY
QNH 1017, negative 1016
QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016
QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016
QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016
-1
5 ITALY
That is right
Affirm
That is affirmative
Correct
-1
5 ITALY
Report
Request
Say again
Check
-1
5 ITALY
Which phrase shall be Request used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."?
Report
Acknowledge
Confirm
-1
Page 1228 of 1247

5 ITALY What does the phrase "Read back" mean:
rispostaA
Did you correctly receive this message?
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Let me know that you have received and understood this message Continue on present heading and listen out
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0 0 -1 0
Check and confirm with Repeat all, or the originator specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received Permission granted for action proposed Wait and I will call you
5 ITALY
Which of these Select STANDBY on statements best the SSR transponder describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ? What does the phrase "Roger" mean: What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service: RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean: A direct answer in the affirmative CONTROL
-1
5 ITALY 6 ITALY
A direct answer in the negative AERODROME
Cleared for take-off or cleared to land APRON
I have received all of your last transmission TOWER
0 0
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
11 ITALY
X-BC should operate the IDENT-button
Radar identification has X-BC is not visible on been achieved the radar screen
X-BC should perform an identification turn
-1
4 ITALY
What is meant by good Speak very loudly into microphone technique ? the microphone.
Keep the microphone far away since it improveds the readability. Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level No specific working hours. X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015
Make large use of hesitation sounds as "er". Use the words twice method Continuous day and night service. X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)
Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly. Stress the end of message Sunrise to sunset.
-1
4 ITALY
My message will be more effective and understandable if I : What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC recycle 1015". What does this mean: What does the abbreviation "FIR" mean?
Stress every beginning of message Sunset to sunrise.
-1
2 ITALY
-1
11 ITALY
X-BC is requested to set new code 1015
X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015
-1
2 ITALY
Flow information received.
Flight information radar. Flight information region.
Flight information required.
-1
Page 1229 of 1247

2 ITALY What does the abbreviation "AFIS" mean? RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean? Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"?
rispostaA
Aerodrome flashing identification signal. X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy
rispostaB
Aerodrome flight information service. X-BC is requested to switch to standby position
rispostaC
Automatic flight information service. X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency
rispostaD
Aeronautical flight information system. X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
11 ITALY
-1
2 ITALY
CTZ.
CTA.
CTR.
CZ.
-1
8 ITALY
How should aircraft XY- TOWER XY-ABC ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ? RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean: Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:
Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC
Stephenville TOWER X-BC X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code
Stephenville XY-ABC
-1
11 ITALY
Radar identification has X-BC should perform been achieved by an identification turn of correlating an observed at least 020 degrees radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned
X-BC shall operate the IDENT button
-1
10 ITALY
No, if the ATC route No, if the clearance is transmitted communication channel in a published form is overloaded (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station. A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.
No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
-1
1 ITALY
What does the term "blind transmission" mean?
A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
-1
Page 1230 of 1247

0 ITALY To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ? Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band: Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: "X-BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for takeoff".What is the correct read back: An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet.TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response:
rispostaA
Low frequency
rispostaB
Medium frequency
rispostaC
Very high frequency
rispostaD
Very low frequency
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
0 ITALY
75 KHz
250 KHz
25 KHz
50 KHz
-1
10 ITALY
Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BC
Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC
Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC
Wilco, cleared for takeoff, X-BC
-1
11 ITALY
Heading 045 at 2500 feet
Heading north-east at level 25
Heading 45 at 2500 feet 045 and 2500
-1
10 ITALY
How should a pilot With his own aircraft terminate the read-back call sign of an ATC clearance ? Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50: What does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean: About 8 NM
With the word "wilco"
With the ATC ground station call sign About 150 NM
With the word "roger"
-1
0 ITALY
About 15 NM
About 85 NM
-1
11 ITALY
Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder
Give a short count for DF (direction finder)
Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz
-1
Page 1231 of 1247

0 ITALY Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of theTOWER frequency 118.2 MHz: Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100: Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ? An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ? What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:
rispostaA
Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
rispostaB
Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill About 120 NM
rispostaC
Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
rispostaD
Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 -1 0
0 ITALY
About 12 NM
About 300 NM
About 30 NM
-1
0 ITALY
Level of aircraft and terrain elevations
The ionosphere
Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms Wilco
Day- and night effect
-1
10 ITALY
Roger
Will stop before
Holding short
-1
0 ITALY
Practically straight-line similar to light waves
The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-waves
The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influence
Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance
-1
92
3 ITALY On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: Acknowledge the message immediately Impose radio silence on Change the frequency, the frequency in use because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if required 0 0 0 -1
5 ITALY
What does the phrase "Verify" mean:
Check and confirm with Repeat your last originator transmission
Read back VDF bearing Consider that transmission as not sent
-1
Page 1232 of 1247

5 ITALY What does the word "acknowledge" mean ?
rispostaA
Repeat all of your last transmission.
rispostaB
Let me know that you have received and understood this message. The aircraft is in distress That is correct.
rispostaC
Pass me the following information.
rispostaD
Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received. The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable I repeat for clarity or emphasis. A regional UHF frequency The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required Aborting take-off
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
2 ITALY
An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that: What does the word "approved" mean ? The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as: A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre: The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on: What does "Friction coefficient 20" in a runway report mean: Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: "Consider that transmission as not sent":
There is a sick passenger on board Permission for proposed action granted. An airline operation frequency Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
The aircraft is being hijacked Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified. A frequency for air-toair communication An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
-1
5 ITALY
-1
2 ITALY 3 ITALY
An international emergency frequency The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance Stopping
0 0
-1 0
0 0
0 -1
5 ITALY
Cancelling take-off
Abandoning take-off
-1
2 ITALY
The air-ground frequency in use at the time Braking action unreliable My last transmission is cancelled
The emergency frequency in any case
The regional guard frequency
The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned Braking action good
-1
1 ITALY
Braking action poor
Braking action medium
-1
5 ITALY
Disregard
Cancel my last message
Forget it
-1
Page 1233 of 1247

2 ITALY A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means: When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase: When shall the phrase "Take-off" be used by a pilot : If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean: Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "Unreliable": What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control (no radar service) ?
rispostaA
The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehicle RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metres
rispostaB
The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight
rispostaC
The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
rispostaD
Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
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0 0 0 -1
1 ITALY
The values of the RVR at the beginning transmissometer are: ... of runway 16 is ... metres and ... metres metres
RVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres
-1
5 ITALY
Never, it is used only by To inform TOWER the control tower when ready for departure Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC Runway covered with ice
Only when the aircraft To acknowledge takehas already moved onto off clearance only the active runway Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature Runway covered with dry snow Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
-1
1 ITALY
-1
1 ITALY
Runway covered with wet snow and slush
Runway conditions normal
-1
6 ITALY
ARRIVAL
RADAR
CONTROL
APPROACH
-1
5 ITALY
What is the correct way We have the ATIS Golf for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received: What does "Friction coefficient 45" in a runway report mean: Braking action poor
Information Golf
Weather Golf received
We have the Information
-1
1 ITALY
Braking action not measurable
Braking action good
Braking action medium
-1
Page 1234 of 1247

5 ITALY Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message ? What does the abbrevation "MLS" mean: Which of the following statements is correct ?
rispostaA
Break.
rispostaB
Stop.
rispostaC
I say again.
rispostaD
Over.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
2 ITALY
Minimum sector level
Microwave landing system The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except distress ...CONTROL
Minimum safe level
Mean sea level
-1
3 ITALY
ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications
The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications
There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency communications ...APPROACH
-1
6 ITALY
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar):
...RADAR
...CENTRE
-1
5 ITALY
Which phrase should a Going around pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure: Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out: Unable to comply
Missed approach
Pulling up
Overshooting
-1
5 ITALY
Negative instruction
Impossible to make it
Disregard
-1
5 ITALY
Fastair 345 has been Stephenville ARRIVAL instructed to contact Fastair 345 Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
118.0 Fastair 345
Changing over Fastair 345
Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
-1
Page 1235 of 1247

5 ITALY What does the instruction: "Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER" mean: What does the word "Monitor" mean: What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean: What does the abbrevation "RNAV" mean: What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals: What does "SELCAL" mean:
rispostaA
Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further communications Wait and I will call you Runway visibility report
rispostaB
Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being broadcast Establish radio contact with... Recleared via route...
rispostaC
Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9
rispostaD
Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
5 ITALY 2 ITALY
Examine a system or procedure Runway visual range
Listen out on (frequency). Radar vectors requested Radar aided navigation
0 0
0 0
0 -1
-1 0
2 ITALY
Route navigation
Radio navigation
Area navigation
-1
6 ITALY
...APPROACH
...RADAR
...DIRECTOR
...ARRIVAL
-1
2 ITALY
A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft Fastair 345
A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only
A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously 2345
A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units
-1
7 ITALY
What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 ? What does the abbrevation "INS" mean: What is meant by the phrase " readibility 4"?
Fastair 45
No abbreviated form
-1
2 ITALY
International NOTAM system Perfectly readable.
International navigation service Readable but with difficulty.
Inertial navigation system Readable.
Instrument navigation system Readable now and then.
-1
9 ITALY
-1
Page 1236 of 1247

1 ITALY What does the term "way point" mean:
rispostaA
A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation
rispostaB
A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system
rispostaC
A signal indicating the direction of the runwayin-use
rispostaD
A general term meaning the taxiwayand the runway-system of an international airport
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

-1 0 0 0
1 ITALY
An "Automatic Terminal Routine information to Information Service" arriving and departing provides: aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast . What does the term "clearance limit" mean: The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-inapproach The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated
Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation.
Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR.
Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR). The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance
-1
1 ITALY
The point to which an The time of expiry of an aircraft is granted an air air traffic control traffic control clearance clearance
-1
1 ITALY
When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "Visual approach" ?
An approach by an IFR An approach executed flight when either part by an IFR flight unable or all of an instrument to maintain VMC approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
-1
1 ITALY
What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean:
-1
Page 1237 of 1247

1 ITALY What does the term "broadcast" mean?
rispostaA
A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations. Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth
rispostaB
A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
rispostaC
A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight.
rispostaD
A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
1 UNKNOW
What does the term "air-ground communication" mean?
One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth
One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth
Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN) Search and surveillance radar PAN PAN TRANSPORT
-1
2 ITALY
What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean: A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal: An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
Surface strength of runway PAN PAN MEDICAL
Standard snow report
Secondary surveillance radar PROTECTED TRANSPORT
-1
1 ITALY
MEDICAL TRANSPORT
-1
0 ITALY
Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
Squawk IDENT and Continue the flight to proceed to the alternate destination aerodrome aerodrome in any case
Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival Land at the destination aerodrome
-1
0 ITALY
An aircraft on an IFR Land at the nearest flight in VMC suitable aerodrome experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to :
Return to the Land at the alternate aerodrome of departure aerodrome
-1
Page 1238 of 1247

0 ITALY An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:
rispostaA
Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged
rispostaB
Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
rispostaC
Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
rispostaD
Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 0 0 -1
0 ITALY
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome: An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received): An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within: Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:
Under no circumstances
5 minutes in any case
-1
0 ITALY
Immediately after reaching in any case
After 3 minutes, if an At, or as close to, the expected approach time ETA resulting from the is not acknowledged current flight plan
5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged
-1
0 ITALY
30 minutes after 30 minutes after waiting 15 minutes after noticing the radio failure for the EAT vacating the transition layer
30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later
-1
0 ITALY
Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then climb in accordance with the flight plan
Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan
Land at the departure aerodrome in any case
Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan
-1
Page 1239 of 1247

0 ITALY A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:
rispostaA
Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
rispostaB
Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner
rispostaC
Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan Continue the flight in VMC
rispostaD
Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

0 -1 0 0
0 ITALY
In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall: What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures: What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?
Squawk 7600
-1
6 ITALY
...APPROACH
...DEPARTURE
...CONTROL
...RADAR
-1
1 ITALY
The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport
The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony
The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.
The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land
-1
4 ITALY
Before transmitting the pilot should...:
Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time. The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur. The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).
Always write the message and read it during the transmission.
-1
3 ITALY
QNH is the Q-code to indicate:
The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.
The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
-1
Page 1240 of 1247

3 ITALY QFE is the RTF Qcode to indicate:
rispostaA
The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height. Aircraft identification, position, next position
rispostaB
The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum. Aircraft identification, position, time Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345
rispostaC
The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold). Aircraft identification, position, time, level Descending to 80, Fastair 345
rispostaD
The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome. Aircraft identification, position, level Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345
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0 0 -1 0
12 ITALY
Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted ?
-1
12 ITALY
ATC clears Fastair 345 Leaving 100 to 80, to descend from FL Fastair 345 100 to FL 80. What is the correct readback by the pilot: What shall the pilot's readback be for "climb to 2500 feet": What shall the pilot's readback be for "Climb to FL 280": Climbing to two point five Climbing to flight level two eight zero
-1
12 ITALY
Climbing to two thousand five hundred Climbing to flight level two eighty QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability In all calls
Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet Climbing two eight zero
Up to two thousand five hundred Climbing to two eighty
-1
12 ITALY
-1
10 ITALY
Which elements of ATC clearance, speed instructions or instructions, runway information shall always state information be read back ? When shall an aircraft in the heavy-waketurbulence category include the word "Heavy" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy: What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes: Never
SSR code, QNH, takeoff clearance, speed instructions In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit
QNH, weather information, runway-inuse In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
-1
7 ITALY
-1
7 ITALY
Fastair 345 widebody
Fastair 345 heavy
Heavy Fastair 345
Fastair 345
-1
Page 1241 of 1247

0 ITALY
rispostaA
rispostaB
Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight Disregard last instruction. One six one five
rispostaC
Inform FIS for relay to AIS
rispostaD
Insert under item 18 of the flight plan "transponder unserviceable" Permission not granted.
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0 -1 0 0
In case the transponder Inform ATC after departure fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall: What does the word "negative" mean ? Proposed action granted.
5 ITALY
Consider that transmission as not sent. Four fifteen P.M.
-1
3 UNKNOW
The time is 4:15 P.M. Four fifteen in the What is the correct way afternoon of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour ? The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details : Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight
Sixteen fifteen
-1
3 ITALY
Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required
Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading
Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading ... cancel distress
-1
2 ITALY
When an aircraft is no ... MAYDAY, resuming longer in distress, it normal operations shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include ? What is meant by the phrase "readability 2"? On the readability scale what does "readability 1" mean ? Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence ? Readable but with difficulty. Readable but with difficulty. Stop transmitting, MAYDAY
... MAYDAY cancelled
... distress condition terminated
-1
9 ITALY 9 ITALY
Readable now and then. Readable. Unreadable. Readable.
Unreadable. Perfectly readable.
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
2 ITALY
Stop transmitting, DISTRESS
Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY
All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic
-1
Page 1242 of 1247

2 ITALY
rispostaA
rispostaB
rispostaC
rispostaD
Disregard distress communication, OUT
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-1 0 0 0
Distress traffic ended The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include ? Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : ''Communication is difficult. Please send every word or group of words twice'' ? What does the word "recleared" mean ? What does the abbreviation "IMC" mean? What does the word "negative" mean ? Say again, say again
Emergency MAYDAY traffic ended communication finished
5 ITALY
Repeat twice
Message second time
Words twice
-1
5 ITALY
An error has been made in my last transmission. In most cases.
Consider that transmission as not sent.
A change has been made to your last clearance.
Permission for proposed action granted. Instrument meteorological conditions. That is not correct.
-1
2 ITALY
International In meteorological meteorological channel. conditions. Annul the previously transmitted clearance. one eighteen one I say again.
-1
5 ITALY
Consider that transmission as not sent.
-1
2 UNKNOW
What is the correct way one one eight decimal of transmitting the one number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ? What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ? What does the word "disregard" mean ? Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message ? How do you read ?
one one eight one
one one eight point one
-1
5 ITALY
Read back .
Report readability .
Read you loud and clear .
-1
5 ITALY
Consider that transmission as not sent. Correction.
An error has been made in this transmission. Correct.
Annul the previously transmitted clearance. Negative.
Wait and I will call you.
-1
5 ITALY
Disregard.
-1
Page 1243 of 1247

5 ITALY What does the word "correct" mean ?
rispostaA
An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ... . I say again .
rispostaB
Permission for proposed action not granted. Confirm .
rispostaC
Negative, the correct version is ... .
rispostaD
That is correct.
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0 0 0 -1
5 ITALY
Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ? What does the word "contact" mean ? Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc ? Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions ? What does the word "check" mean ? Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof ? What does the abbreviation "AIS" mean? What does the word "cancel" mean ?
Read back .
Verify .
-1
5 ITALY 5 ITALY
That is correct . Verify.
Establish radio contact with ... . Confirm.
Radar contact established . Correct.
Listen out on (frequency) . Acknowledge.
0 0
-1 -1
0 0
0 0
5 ITALY
Approved.
I say again : proceed.
Cleared.
Go ahead.
-1
5 ITALY 5 ITALY
Confirm your last transmission. Cleared.
Read back my last instruction. Approved.
I understand your message. Break break.
Examine a system or procedure. Recleared.
0 0
0 0
0 0
-1 -1
2 ITALY
Aerodrome identification signalarea. Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
Airport information system. A change has been made to your last clearance.
Aerodrome information service. Wait and I will call you.
Aeronautical information service. Consider that transmission as not sent.
-1
5 ITALY
-1
Page 1244 of 1247

4 ITALY What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched "on") ? What does the phrase "break break" mean ?
rispostaA
Readability will improve for all stations.
rispostaB
The frequency can not be used by others.
rispostaC
None.
rispostaD
Other stations will have to use the "words twice" technique.
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0 -1 0 0
5 ITALY
My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment. "Please listen"
It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station. "All stations"
The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected. "General broadcast"
-1
9 FRANCE
When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with : The expression " transmitting blind due to receiver failure" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be used by:
"Message to all aircraft on this frequency"
-1
0 FRANCE
An aircraft station being An aircraft station doing A radar controller aware of receiver failure blind transmissions at a performing a PAR or "non-towered" airfield SRE final approach.
A ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.
-1
10 FRANCE
Which of the following 1, 2, 3, 5 messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back? 1 - "descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet" 2 - "wind 240 , 15 knots, gusts 30 knots" 3 - "turn right heading 210" 4 - "reduce speed to 160 knots" 5 - "squawk 1723" 6 - "braking action poor"
1, 3, 4, 5, 6
1, 3, 4, 5
all
-1
2 FRANCE
Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of :
Distress traffic.
Urgency communication.
Overload of the frequency.
Technical difficulties.
-1
Page 1245 of 1247

2 FRANCE During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360. The correct read back of this instruction is :
rispostaA
Heading three six zero, X-BC.
rispostaB
Heading north, X-BC.
rispostaC
Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC.
rispostaD
A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified
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-1 0 0 0
5 FRANCE
To indicate that he is Runway cleared. no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller : Blind transmission shall On regional guard be made: frequencies only Must a "general call" be Yes, from all stations in acknowledged"? a random sequence.
Runway free.
Clear of runway.
Runway vacated.
-1
0 ITALY
During IFR flights only
On the designated To all available frequency (frequency in aeronautical stations use) Yes, but only from the station first called. one three five hundred Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been adressed. one three five zero zero
-1
9 ITALY
No.
-1
2 SWITZERL What is the correct way thirteen thousand five of transmitting the hundred number 13.500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height ? 2 ITALY What does the abbreviation "SAR" mean? What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean? Surveillance airport radar. Automatic terminal information system.
one three thousand five hundred
-1
Standard arrival route.
Secondary altimeter responder. Automatic terminal information service. To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity.
Search and rescue.
-1
2 ITALY
Air traffic information service. To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR.
Airport terminal information service. Acknowledge receipt of this message.
-1
2 ITALY
When an aircraft Discontinue station receives the call communication with "ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR. Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended" it is requested :
-1
Page 1246 of 1247

2 ITALY When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY" it is requested : What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery ? What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar service (in general) ? What does the word "wilco" mean ? Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : "Reduce your rate of speech" ? What does the word "report" mean ? What does the abbreviation "H24" mean?
rispostaA
To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic.
rispostaB
To leave the frequency in use.
rispostaC
rispostaD
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0 0 -1 0
Not to interfere with the To continue normal distress communication. communication on the frequency in use.
6 ITALY
CLEARANCE.
CLEARANCE DELIVERY.
RADIO.
DELIVERY.
-1
6 ITALY
RADAR-CONTROL.
RADAR-SERVICE.
RADAR.
CONTROL.
-1
5 ITALY
I understand your message and will comply with it. Speak slower.
I have received all of your last transmission. Words twice.
I read you five.
As communication is difficult, I will call you later. Say again.
-1
5 ITALY
Repeat.
-1
5 ITALY
Examine a system or procedure. Sunrise to sunset.
Pass me the following information. Sunset to sunrise.
Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received. No specific working hours. YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YXCDE Stephenville CONTROL.
Say again.
-1
2 ITALY
Continuous day and night service. YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.
-1
9 ITALY
Which of the following YX-EFG, YX-FGH over. ALL STATIONS calls is a "general call" ? Stephenville CONTROL.
-1
Page 1247 of 1247

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subject/secparagraph wording Domanda 10

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Red for miscellaneous equipment.

Black for food and water.

when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC

on the initiative of the aircraft commander 2 minutes

at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions 3 minutes

as instructed by an air traffic control unit 4 minutes

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

Initiate a missed approach

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

domestic air services ;

a flight above territorial waters;

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from touch-down;

Request an amended clearance

Initiate a missed approach

medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

The aircraft is subject to positive control

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

200 m (660 ft)

150 m (500 ft)

100 m (330 ft)

300 m (1000 ft)

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

of an arbitrary amount of green lights;

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

the "flight-operations" of the company

in a direction depending on the entry ; 5 NM

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold

10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold

15 knots at any stage

When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70

subject/secparagraph wording Domanda

ck1 ck2 ck3 ck4

the Regional Air Navigation meeting

the Air Navigation Commission

150 m from threshold

450 m from threshold

600 m from threshold

300 m from threshold

you are not allowed to commence the flight

Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.

Red for food and water.