Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 357

SV I 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 III ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )

Page No

II 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( G

Governor and overspeed protection Governor Maintenance

67 70

Marine Control Systems and Instru Ship Construction, Repairs and Re Pipes and valves

Automation, Instrumentation Power transmission, Gears and Clutches

78 81

Lubrication and anti - friction bering

Miscellaneous Questions SAFETY,ENVIRONMENTAL

86 211

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )


Page No

164 172 187

204

SV I ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )


Page No

II 1

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )


Page No

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Governor and overspeed protection 13 Governor Maintenance 14 15 16 Automation, Instrumentation 17 Power transmission, Gears and Clutches 18 19 20 Miscellaneous Questions

67 70

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Marine Control Systems and Instrumentation 13 Ship Construction, Repairs and Regulations 14 15 Pipes and valves 16 17 18 Lubrication and anti - friction berings

164 172

78 81

187

204

86

III SAFETY,ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION,SHIP CONTRUCTION AND NAVAL ARCHITECTURE

211

I 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

AKS ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )


Page No

II 1 21 35 42 47 51 53 54 59 62 66 67 70 71 75 78 81 84 85 86

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )


Page No

Design,Components Operation Mainteneance Starting and reversing Lubrication systems Lubrication - Maintenance Fuel systems, Maintenance Auxiliary boiler Auxiliary boiler - Maintenance Scavenging,Supercharging and Aircooling Turbocharger and Aircooler - Maintenance

Four stroke engine - Design, components and operation 15 Four stroke engine - Maintenance 16 17 18 Cooling Systems 19 Cooling Systems - Maintenance 20 Miscellaneous Questions

1 Workshop practice, Soldering, Brazing,Welding and Gas cutting 2 3 4 Compressed air systems 5 Propeller,Shafting and Sterntube Bearing 6 Metallurgy and Non - Destructive Testing 7 Steam,Heat and Thermodynamics 8 Bilge System 9 Sanitary and Sewage system 10 Heat Exchangers 11 Fuel oil properties and Purifiers 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

89 103 131 144 150 153 154 159 160 161 163 164 172 178 187 190 194 204

CONTENTS JKD II
Page No

JKD ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )


Page No

4 Refrigeration and Airconditioning 5 Pumps and Eductors

98 125

14 Distilling System and Potable Water Systems 16 Steering 17 Hydraulics and deck machinery

170 183 186

IV

ELECTRO -TECHNOLOGY

285

CONTENTS

I 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )


Page No

II 1 21 35 42 47 51 53 54 59 62 66 67 70 71 75 78 81 84 85 86

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )


Page No

Design,Components Operation Mainteneance Starting and reversing Lubrication systems Lubrication - Maintenance Fuel systems, Maintenance Auxiliary boiler Auxiliary boiler - Maintenance Scavenging,Supercharging and Aircooling Turbocharger and Aircooler - Maintenance Governor and overspeed protection Governor Maintenance Four stroke engine - Design, components and operation Four stroke engine - Maintenance Automation, Instrumentation Power transmission, Gears and Clutches Cooling Systems Cooling Systems - Maintenance Miscellaneous Questions

1 Workshop practice, Soldering, Brazing,Welding and Gas cutting 2 Refrigeration and Airconditioning 3 Pumps and Eductors 4 Compressed air systems 5 Propeller,Shafting and Sterntube Bearing 6 Metallurgy and Non - Destructive Testing 7 Steam,Heat and Thermodynamics 8 Bilge System 9 Sanitary and Sewage system 10 Heat Exchangers 11 Fuel oil properties and Purifiers 12 Marine Control Systems and Instrumentation 13 Ship Construction, Repairs and Regulations 14 15 16 17 18 Distilling System and Potable Water Systems Pipes and valves Steering Hydraulics and deck machinery Lubrication and anti - friction berings

89 103 131 144 150 153 154 159 160 161 163 164 172 178 187 190 194 204

III SAFETY,ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION,SHIP CONTRUCTION AND NAVAL ARCHITECTURE

211

IV

ELECTRO -TECHNOLOGY

297

MEO CLASS IV MMD Question Papers

361

VI

Sample Letter Writing

394

Page 7

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE - MOTOR


1 MOTOR - DESIGN, COMPONENTS Precision engine bearing inserts are manufactured with a small The method of piston cooling in which oil is delivered through the 2 portion of the bearing ends extending beyond the bearing housing connecting rod to a compartment within the piston, then distributed or caps. The installation process of these bearings requires by the motion of the pistons, and allowed to drain to the crankcase sufficient ________. via one or more holes or pipes, is termed ________ A. B. C. D. Ans: 3 overlap crush lap or lead protrusion B The piston rod scraper box incorporated in a two-stroke/cycle, crosshead diesel engine serves to _____________. eliminate the necessity for an oil scraper ring prevent side thrust and cylinder scoring prevent sludge and dirty oil from entering the crankcase scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls C The main advantage of unit injectors (combined fuel pump and injector) over other fuel injection systems is _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 4 quaker shaker circulation spray B In a large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the parts listed is under tension when the engine is running? Bed plate Column Entablature Tie rod D Passages are drilled in the crankshafts of diesel engines to provide lubricating oil to the _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 5

A. B. C. D. Ans: 6

A. B. C. D. Ans: 7

the lack of high pressure fuel lines their relatively low injection pressures reduced wear of spray orifices the lessened chance of fuel leaks into the engine sump A When may the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes of two or more engines be connected? A. Propulsion engines under 1000 shaft horsepower may share a common crankcase vent provided the oil drains remain separate. B. In most cases it is desirable and cost effective for propulsion engines to share a common crankcase ventilation and monitoring system.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 8

main bearings connecting rod bearings piston pin bushings All of the above D The main function of tie rods in the construction of large, low speed diesel engines is to ____________. A. stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the engine's longitudinal strength B. accept most of the tensile loading that results from the firing forces developed during operation

C. No interconnection may be made between the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes. D. None of the above are correct. Ans: C On most modern diesel engines, the main and connecting rod 9 bearings receive their lubricating oil by ____________. A. banjo feed B. splash feed C. gravity feed D. pressure feed Ans: D Lubricating oil is supplied to the crankpin bearings in a marine 11 diesel engine by _____________. A. internal crankshaft passages B. immersion in oil C. spclearance lubrication D. injection lubrication Ans: A The camshaft drive is designed to maintain proper camshaft speed 13 relative to crankshaft speed. In maintaining this relationship, the camshaft drive causes the camshaft to rotate at _____________. A. one-half crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine B. crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine C. two times crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine D. one-fourth times crankshaft speed in a four-stroke cycle diesel engine Ans: B The opening of an exhaust valve on a modern, large, low- speed, 15 main propulsion diesel engine, may be actuated by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: direct action of cam shaft compressed air pressure hydraulic "push rods" direct action of the main piston moving down C

C. mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft coupling misalignment D. connect the crosshead solidly to the piston rod Ans: B Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle 10 requires the use of a ___________. A. crosshatched design B. lapped plunger and barrel C. variable stroke D. variable cam lift Ans: B gudgeonpin bearings are difficult to lubricate because of their 12 oscillating motion and _____________. A. their free-floating design B. their relatively small size C. the reciprocating motion of the piston D. their position in the lubrication system Ans: D Engines having a bore exceeding 250 mm, but not exceeding 300 14 mm are to have at least _________.

A. three compression rings per piston and the minimum of two oil scraper rings B. one intake and one exhaust valve per cylinder provided no other means of scavenging is used C. one explosion relief valve in way of each alternate crank throw, with a minimum of two valves D. one crankshaft except in cases where an opposed piston design is required Ans: C Shaker, circulation, and spray are the three general methods used 16 in _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: pre-injection fuel oil treatment lube oil filtration lube oil purification piston cooling D

Page 8

17 A. B. C. D. Ans: 19

The speed of the camshaft in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, running at 950 RPM, is _____________. 475 RPM 950 RPM 1900 RPM 2400 RPM B A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperaturewill be lower than a four stroke diesel engine of the same displacement because the ___________. I. scavenging air is cooling the exhaust gases II. exhaust cycle time is longer I only II only both I and II neither I nor II A Where is the fuel delivery check valve located in a jerk pump fuel injection system? In the cylinder head On the suction side of the delivery pump In the injection pump housing discharge On the inlet side of the spray valves C Which of the air intake systems listed will result in the lowest specific fuel consumption? Natural aspiration Turbocharged

18 A. B. C. D. Ans: 20

Explosion relief valves on diesel engine crankcases should relieve the pressure at not more than _________. 0.1 bar 0.2 bar 1.0 bar 2.0 bar B The sealing surfaces of a diesel engine piston ring are considered to be the faces in contact with the cylinder wall, in addition to the ring groove ___________. bottom back top side A How many crankcase relief valves are required for a 325mm bore, eight cylinder in-line engine? 2 4 6 8 D In which of the following areas of a crosshead engine is a permanently connected fire extinguishing system required? Exhaust manifolds in excess of eight inches in diameter. Crankcases having a gross volume in excess of 21 cubic feet.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 21 A. B. C. D. Ans: 23 A. B.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 22 A. B. C. D. Ans: 24 A. B.

C. Roots blower D. Piston blower Ans: B Camshafts are usually driven by timing gears or ___________. 25 A. B. C. D. Ans: 27 push rods chain drives rocker arms flywheels B The arrangement and shape of the cams on a diesel engine camshaft directly control which of the listed groups of operating conditions? Speed, torque, and horsepower production Firing order, valve timing, and valve lift Fuel consumption, efficiency, and cylinder pressure Scavenge pressure, compression ratio, and exhaust pressure

C. Turbocharger inlet piping in excess of twelve inches in diameter. D. Scavenging spaces in open connection to the cylinders. Ans: D The valve cam slope angle determines the _____________. 26 A. B. C. D. Ans: 28 opening and closing points of the valve opening and closing rate of the valve height of valve opening amount of time the valve remains open B Carbon deposits building up, in, and around the injection nozzle tip are least likely to occur when using which of the listed types of fuel injector nozzles? Hole Multi-hole Pintle Multi-pintle

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Ans: B A port-and-helix fuel injection pump having upper and lower plunger helixes is designed to _____________. A. vary fuel delivery and return pressure B. vary the beginning and ending of injection C. operate with residual fuels only D. provide maximum fuel delivery rate Ans: B Some fuel injection systems utilize port-and-helix metering. Which 31 of the following statement describes a system "timed for port closing"? 29 A. B. C. D. Injection has a variable beginning and a constant ending. Injection is metered by an external delivery valve. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending. Injection will not occur until the helix closes the delivery valve.

Ans: C Which of the following statements describes a fuel injection pump marked "timed for port closing"? A. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending. B. The pump stroke determines the amount of fuel injected. C. Fuel is metered by the pump's delivery valve. D. Timing reference marks should be changed. Ans: A An individual injection pump is designed for variable beginning and 32 constant ending of injection. For diesel engines operating at constant speeds, the start of injection will _____________. 30 A. B. C. D. advance as the load increases retard as the load increases remain unchanged regardless of load always occur at top dead center

Ans: C A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is said to be __________. A. dynamically balanced B. statically balanced C. counter balanced D. resonantly balanced Ans: B The small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a 35 _____________. A. crankpin B. sliding wedge 33

Ans: A The amount of fuel injected in a particular time, or degree, of crankshaft rotation is termed _____________. A. metering B. timing C. rate of injection D. rate of distribution Ans: C At dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually 36 coincides with the _____________. A. angularity of the piston motion B. inertia moment from the piston 34

Page 9

C. gudgeon pin D. torque bushing Ans: C Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the 37 _____________. A. engine to the bed B. rocker arm to the camshaft C. crankshaft to the gear train D. piston to the crankshaft Ans: D The purpose of a heat dam used in some diesel engine cast iron 39 pistons is to ____________. A. concentrate all heat in the piston crown B. increase the distance of travel for heat from the crown to the top ring groove C. ensure that all heat in the piston crown is conducted to the top ring D. provide a short direct path for heat to flow from the crown to the top ring Ans: B A diesel engine with a full speed of 1000 RPM drives a propeller at 41 300 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? A. 0.3 to 1 B. 3.33 to 1 C. 33 to 1 D. 300 to 1 Ans: B Why is the ring belt narrower in diameter than the skirt of a piston 43 designed for a diesel engine? A. To allow for greater expansion due to higher operating temperature. B. To seal the cylinder against leakage of combustion gases. C. To provide an additional surface for oil cooling. D. To provide additional strength for the crown and lower structure. Ans: A The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt, in order to ______________. A. facilitate the installation of piston rings B. allow for the expansion of the piston during operation C. prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber

C. centerline of the cylinder D. centerline of the king pin Ans: C Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using 38 individual plunger-type pumps _____________. A. changes the position of the fuel inlet ports B. changes the length of the pump stroke C. varies the quantity of fuel delivered D. varies the compression of the delivery valve spring Ans: C Diesel engines are classified as reciprocating internal combustion 40 engines because they ______________. A. use energy from fuel burned outside their cylinders B. burn fuel in a combustion chamber that moves back and forth C. burn fuel in a chamber where its energy moves a piston back and forth D. use a continuous combustion process to impart rotary motion to the pistons Ans: C Which of the listed design features is most common to a two42 stroke/cycle low-speed main propulsion diesel engines? A. Crosshead construction B. Cross-scavenging air flow C. Trunk type pistons D. Single reduction gearing Ans: A Which statement about diesel engine combustion is true? 44 A. Combustion does not begin until the piston starts down on the power stroke. B. Maximum combustion pressure is reached before TDC. C. Turbulence in the cylinder causes a delay in ignition. D. Maximum cylinder firing pressure is not developed until the piston passes TDC. Ans: D Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing surface with porous chromium? A. The chromium will not wear out the piston rings. B. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper rings. C. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging air ports. D. Pores in the plating aid in maintaining the lube oil film. Ans: D What type of fitting is to be used on diesel engine fuel injection line piping? A. Mild steel B. Hardened steel C. Extra heavy D. Double extra heavy Ans: C Theoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by-products of _____________. A. aldehydes and carbon dioxide B. water vapor and carbon monoxide C. nitrogen and carbon monoxide D. water vapor and carbon dioxide Ans: D The piston gudgeon pin used in some diesel engine pistons is prevented from contacting the cylinder wall by a __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 54 A. B. C. D. Ans: 56 piston relief groove piston pin cup snap ring bronze bushing C The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in a/an ____________. two-stroke/cycle engine four-stroke/cycle engine reverse cycle engine double acting engine A The main operating characteristic of diesel engines which distinguishes them from other internal combustion engines is the _____________.

45

46

D. reduce wearing of the upper cylinder liner Ans: B The fuel injection pumps on a diesel engine are controlled by a 47 linkage system attached to the _____________. A. camshaft B. crankshaft C. governor D. flywheel Ans: C The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the combustion chamber 49 before burning is called _____________. A. penetration B. permanence C. turbulence D. atomization Ans: A The function of the window cast into the housing of an individual 51 jerk pump is to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 53 A. B. C. D. Ans: 55 allow the pump to be timed to the engine check for sludge on the pump barrel check that the fuel return passages are clear set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters A Turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is of major importance in providing _____________. proper fuel metering complete fuel/air mixing minimal fuel penetration proper fuel timing B Cavitation erosion in the cooling water system of a diesel engine usually occurs at the pump impeller, and on the waterside of the _____________.

48

50

52

Page 10

A. B. C. D. Ans: 57 A. B. C. D. Ans: 59 A. B. C. D. Ans: 61

fuel nozzle holders exhaust valve guides engine cylinder liners engine exhaust manifold C Which term describes piston pins having bearing surfaces in both the piston bosses and connecting rod eye? Stationary Full floating Semi-floating Free rolling B Piston cooling fins are located _____________. on top of the piston crown underneath the piston crown at the base of the piston skirt inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket B Besides the use of piston cooling fins to assist in cooling,they also provide extra strength for the piston ___________. skirt crown gudgeon pin oil rings B A thrust bearing is used with a propulsion diesel engine to _____________. control axial movement of the crankshaft transmit engine thrust to the propeller shaft absorb vibrations in the propeller shafting prevent propeller thrust from being transmitted to the hull A Which of the following statements pertains to propulsion engines with bores exceeding 200 mm? There shall be a means to display the cooling water outlet temperature of each cylinder. All engines connected to controllable pitch propellers shall be of the direct reversible type. The engines will be fitted with a means to display the exhaust gas temperature of each cylinder. All of the above are correct.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 58 A. B. C. D. Ans: 60 A. B. C. D. Ans: 62

method of supplying air cooling system method of igniting fuel valve operating mechanism C Compared to other fuel injection systems, unit injectors operate with virtually no _____________. injection lag ignition delay moving parts control A A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________. prevent piston ring wear shorten the ring break-in period prevent cylinder liner glazing appear slick and glazed B The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for efficient injection depends primarily on the ______________. degree of cylinder air turbulence maximum pressure in the engine cylinders during injection quantity of the fuel to be injected duration of the ignition delay period B The two strokes of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are ____________. power and intake intake and exhaust exhaust and compression compression and power D Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame arrestor is fitted ____________. at the supply inlet to the starting air manifold for non-reversing engines on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbocharger

A. B. C. D. Ans: 63 A. B. C. D. Ans: 65 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 64 A. B. C. D. Ans: 66 A. B.

Ans: C What is the function of the main thrust bearing? A. Prevents lateral movement of the slow speed gear. B. Transmits propeller thrust to the hull. C. Keeps spring bearings in line. D. Prevents main reduction gear axial movement. Ans: B The function of diesel engine piston compression rings is to 69 ____________. A. prevent piston side thrust B. prevent engine friction losses C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner D. remove oil from the cylinder combustion space Ans: C Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel 71 injection operate on a combustion phase within the cycle which is _________. 67 A. B. C. D. entirely constant pressure entirely constant temperature a combination of constant volume and constant pressure a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure

C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or lubrication system vapors D. in way of the control valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines having a main starting manifold Ans: A The main function of piston compression rings is to _______. 68 A. prevent excessive cylinder liner wear B. reduce friction losses in the engine C. seal the space between the piston and the liner D. limit upward flow of lube oil into the combustion space Ans: C Diesel engine piston ring gaps can be straight or angle cut. In 70 comparison, the angle cut ring ____________. A. allows piston ring expansion B. controls piston ring tension C. increases ring wearing quality D. decreases combustion gas leakage Ans: D Which of the listed designs is effectively used to provide the 72 turbulence necessary for proper combustion in a diesel engine cylinder? A. B. C. D. Masked exhaust valves Special piston rings Turbocharger Precombustion chamber

73

Ans: C The purpose of counterboring the top of the cylinder liner, extending down to the top point of travel of the top compression ring, is to _____________.

74

Ans: D The most rapid period of fuel combustion in a diesel engine cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and ____________.

A. increase cylinder turbulence B. prevent wear of the liner from occurring C. prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of ring travel D. decrease compression ratio for easier starting Ans: C Exhaust gas pyrometers are useful for ____________. 75

A. when fuel injection has been completed B. when fuel vaporization has been completed C. should efficiently continue through the after burning period in all properly designed engines D. should be completed shortly after passing top dead center Ans: D Oil control rings function to _____________. 76

Page 11

A. detecting faulty combustion in individual cylinders B. adjusting fuel racks to maintain equal loading between cylinders C. adjusting the load limit setting of the governor at idle conditions D. calculating engine horsepower Ans: A In the construction of a diesel engine, what is the purpose of end 77 plates? A. To provide accessibility to the cylinder liners. B. To add rigidity to the block and a surface for attaching other parts. C. To add stability to the engine block. D. To make a surface for the base. Ans: B What is commonly used to create turbulence in a diesel engine 79 combustion system? A. Shape of the piston crowns. B. Increasing the compression ratios. C. Increasing the effective plunger stroke. D. Increasing the turbocharger gear ratio. Ans: A To shut down a diesel engine after it exceeds the set maximum 81 speed, which type of device listed should be used? A. Speed limiting governor B. Overspeed governor C. Overspeed trip D. Overspeed relay Ans: C To function properly, oil control rings used on a diesel engine piston 83 must distribute sufficient oil to all parts of the cylinder wall and must also _____________. A. prevent any lubricant from reaching the compression rings B. prevent excessive lubrication from reaching the combustion space C. provide metal-to-metal contact to seal the cylinder against blow-by D. assure a positive means of scraping carbon accumulation from the cylinder Ans: B In some modern large diesel engines, which of the followingis used 85 as the support for the main bearings? A. B. C. D. Ans: 87 Bedplate Block Base Sump A In an internal combustion engine, which of the devices listed will force the compression rings to seal the compression gases in the space above the piston? Use of bimetallic piston rings Ring gap pretensioning Thermal increase in ring-end clearance Gas pressure acting against the back of the ring D The size of the exhaust valve opening is ____________.

A. allow proper lubrication of cylinders and compression rings B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber C. scrape excess lube oil from the liner on the downstroke D. all of the above Ans: D The main purpose of the piston oil scraper rings is to 78 _____________. A. seal the space between the piston and the liner B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner D. damp out fluctuations of the piston side thrust Ans: B How many power strokes per crankshaft revolution are there in an 80 eight cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine? A. One B. Two C. Four D. Eight Ans: D Turbulence is created in the cylinders of a diesel engine to 82 _____________. A. obtain injection lag B. help mix fuel and air C. increase combustion pressure D. utilize higher injection pressures Ans: B An important design characteristic of an explosion relief valve for a 84 diesel engine is the ability to _________. A. close quickly in order to prevent an inrush of air B. open quickly against crankcase pressure to prevent a possible implosion C. open slowly to permit a gradual reduction of crankcase pressure D. close slowly to permit proper seating of the valve disc and neoprene sealing surfaces Ans: A Turbulence in the cylinder of a two-stroke/cycle main propulsion 86 diesel engine is mainly created by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 88 directional intake valve ports masked intake valves precombustion chambers intake port design D The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine is _____________. 0.334027778 0.418055556 0.500694444 0.584027778 C Provision is to be made for ventilation of an enclosed diesel engine crankcase by means of a small ________. aperture not exceeding 25mm diameter fan to develop a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water vent line attached to the upper most area of the crankcase near the center of the engine breather or by means of a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water D In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the crosshead is ______________. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the crosshead during the compression stroke against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the crosshead during the power stroke against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes

A. B. C. D. Ans: 89

A. B. C. D. Ans: 90 A. B. C. D. Ans: 92 A. B. C.

A. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine B. most critical in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine C. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if it is turbocharged D. of equal importance in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine as in a fourstroke/cycle diesel engine Ans: B Which of the general advantages listed does the electrical 91 pyrometer have over the mechanical pyrometer? A. When heated, it will move proportional to the amount the metal has lengthened or expanded. B. The pointer associated with the pyrometer scale can be made to also measure engine RPM. C. It can be utilized in exhaust manifolds and heat exchangers interchangeably. D. It can indicate temperature at a distant point from the source of heat. Ans: D

D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes Ans: C

Page 12

93

A diesel engine is driving an alternator required to run at1800 RPM. The overspeed governor is normally required tobe set within a range of ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1980 to 2070 RPM 2100 to 2200 RPM 2200 to 2300 RPM 2300 to 2400 RPM A A six cylinder 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke. What indicated power per cylinder will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 15.3 kg/cm2 at a speed of 120 RPM?

94

A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is said to be __________. I. staticly balanced II. dynamically balanced A. B. C. D. Ans: I only II only both I and II neither I nor II A Using a diesel engine indicator P-V diagram, the cylinder mean effective pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm2. What is the scale of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46 cm2 with a length of 13 cm? 0.9 1 1.25 1.5 D A built-up exhaust valve is one in which _____________. the stem and heads are made of different material the self-centering action comes from motion of the valve stem in the guide a replaceable valve disk is welded to the head low-alloy steel is used throughout A A seven cylinder, 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 750 mm bore and a 2000 mm stroke. What indicated power will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 14.8 kg/cm2 at a speed of 96 RPM? 1,959 kW 3,906 kW 7,182 kW 14,363 kW D The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the water jacket is called a _____________. dry liner wet liner jacket liner corrugated liner B The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust valve is to ________. I. seat the valve quickly II. break up seat deposits I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C Open combustion chambers are designed to _____________. eliminate carbon buildup improve piston cooling prevent air charge turbulence provide proper fuel/air mixing D Critical speeds occurring within the operating speed range of a main propulsion diesel engine may be changed, or have their damaging effects reduced by a/an _____________. engine support vibration isolator detuner or viscous fluid damper lightened crankshaft flywheel spherically seated crankshaft bearing B Which bearing half will receive the greatest load in a twostroke/cycle diesel engine?

95

96

A. B. C. D. Ans: 97

1,348 kW 2,696 kW 4,044 kW 8,088 kW A Diesel engine valve springs function to _____________. A. hold the valves open B. keep the valves off their seats until the exhaust stroke is completed

A. B. C. D. Ans: 98 A. B. C. D. Ans: 100

C. close the valves D. open inlet valves when the air injection cycle begins Ans: C A six cylinder, two stroke/cycle diesel engine is 83% efficient and 99 has a cylinder constant of 0.998 while operating with a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100 RPM. What is the metric brake horse power developed? A. B. C. D. Ans: 101 A. B. C. D. Ans: 103 5,559 kW 6,698 kW 7,455 kW 8,982 kW C Between the periods of injection and ignition of the fuel, a diesel engine crankshaft rotates through the ____________. detonation period firing period delay period advance period C The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to rotate the valve II. seat the valve quickly I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B One function of diesel engine lubricating oil is to _______. induce carbon formation on cylinder walls improve fuel penetration in the combustion space form a friction reducing film between mating surfaces lubricate the fuel injectors C In a diesel engine, exhaust valves open before the intakeports are uncovered to ___________. I. reduce pumping losses II. reduce back pressure I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C The amount of fuel injected into a diesel engine cylinder by a unit injector, is controlled by _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 102 A. B. C. D. Ans: 104

A. B. C. D. Ans: 105 A. B. C. D. Ans: 107

A. B. C. D. Ans: 106 A. B. C. D. Ans: 108

A. B. C. D. Ans: 109 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 110 A. B. C. D.

the firing pressure in the cylinder a metering helix inside the pump varying the physical length of the plunger stroke varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector rocker arm Ans: B A diesel engine operating at a light load, when compared to 111 operating at heavy load has a fuel/air ratio that is __________. A. higher B. less

All bearing halves share an equal load. Upper half of the main bearing. Lower half of the piston pin bearing in the connecting rod. Lower half of the connecting rod bearing at the crankshaft end of the rod. Ans: C A safety cover differs from other diesel engine access doors in that 112 it is fitted with a __________. A. spring-loaded pressure plate B. handwheel

Page 13

C. equal D. directly proportional Ans: A In an opposed piston engine, which of the following events would 113 happen if the lower crank lead were reduced from 12 to 0? A. B. C. D. The exhaust ports would open before the scavenging ports. The scavenging ports would open before the exhaust ports. Neither the exhaust nor the scavenging ports would open. The exhaust and scavenging ports would open simultaneously.

C. nut-operated clamp D. large gasket Ans: A Which of the following relationships should occur between the 114 temperature developed in a combustion space, and the compression ratio of the engine? A. B. C. D. Higher compression ratios create higher temperature. Higher temperatures create higher compression ratios. Lower temperatures create higher compression ratios. Higher compression ratios create lower temperatures.

Ans: D The valve stem expansion associated with engine warm-up is allowed for by the ____________. A. valve springs B. hydraulic governor C. tappet clearance adjusters D. cooling system Ans: C A dry-type spark arrestor removes sparks from a diesel engine 117 exhaust by _____________. A. increasing the linear velocity of the exhaust gases B. changing directions of exhaust gas flow C. decreasing the temperature of the exhaust gases D. accelerating the exhaust gas through a reduced size orifice Ans: B When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks 119 and the other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with tangential flanks will cause___________. 115 A. B. C. D. Ans: 121 A. B. C. D. Ans: 123 A. B. C. D. Ans: 125 greater valve lift more abrupt valve action less valve seat wear less valve gear wear B The average pressure exerted on a piston during each power stroke is termed _____________. indicated horsepower mean effective pressure exhaust back pressure compression pressure B Wet-type exhaust silencers, used with some diesel engines, have which of the following design features in common? The silencer is equipped with a water seal. The exhaust gases are not mixed with cooling water. The internal baffles break up the exhaust gas pulsation. The exhaust noise is completely eliminated. C In a diesel engine, after ignition of the fuel occurs, but before the piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder _____________.

Ans: A Which of the bearing types listed is commonly used for main bearings in small internal combustion engines? A. Precision-type with shims B. Poured-type consisting of babbitt C. Poured-type with shims D. Replaceable precision-type Ans: D The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine 118 exhaust pressure is the _____________. A. pyrometer B. bourdon gauge C. pneumercator D. manometer Ans: D Which of the following types of engines have a combustion 120 chamber located between a cylinder head and the crown of a piston? 116 A. B. C. D. Ans: 122 A. B. C. D. Ans: 124 A. B. C. D. Ans: 126 Horizontal opposed Opposed Single acting None of the above C The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by the _____________. shape of the combustion chamber fuel injection spray pattern cylinder swept volume degree of penetration of the fuel oil droplets A The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust gases and to _____________. power the Roots-type exhauster remove the emission of exhaust smoke pollutants power a reciprocating supercharger muffle exhaust noise D Most practical diesel engines today operate on a cycle which is a combination of the Diesel and Otto cycles. In this process, compression ignition _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 127

volume pressure temperature energy A Main propulsion diesel engines having a bore exceeding 300 mm are to have at least _________. A. two independent means of starting the engine B. two engine driven lube oil pumps capable of parallel operation

A. B. C. D. Ans: 128

begins on a constant volume basis begins on a constant pressure basis ends on a constant volume basis begins and ends on a constant volume basis A In an opposed piston engine, the term "crank lead" refers to _____________. A. one crankshaft turning faster than the other B. the two crankshafts turning in different directions

C. one (explosion relief) valve at the position of each main crank throw D. five air starting valves to permit the admission of starting air at any crank angle Ans: C A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates 129 the need for ____________. A. friction clutches B. disconnect clutches C. reversing gears D. reduction gears Ans: C Mist detectors used on large low-speed main propulsion diesel 131 engines monitor and check for the presence of ____________.

C. the piston in one cylinder reaching inner dead center several crankshaft degrees before the other piston D. the piston in one cylinder reaching dead center when the other reaches outer dead center Ans: C Which of the events listed does NOT occur during the instant the 130 piston just reaches top dead center? A. Intake B. Ignition C. Power D. Combustion Ans: A A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking 132 sufficient "crush", will _____________.

Page 14

A. B. C. D. Ans: 133 A. B. C. D. Ans: 135

fuel oil vapor at the sludge tank vent unburned fuel vapors in the scavenge air receiver lube oil vapors in the crank case lube oil vapors in the engine room C A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to _____________. meter the fuel produce the proper fuel oil pressure atomize the fuel all of the above D The closing of the exhaust valves used on a modern, large, lowspeed, main propulsion diesel engine may be directly provided by _____________. large conical springs compressed air pressure hydraulic pressure exhaust gas pressure

A. B. C. D. Ans: 134 A. B. C. D. Ans: 136

pound under load be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush tend to rotate with the journal have its back forced against the seat under load C The intake valves in a diesel engine are reseated by _____________. cam followers push rods combustion gases valve springs D A characteristic of a bearing material which permits small dirt particles to become embedded in it's surface is ________________. desirable, as it will prevent damage to the journal surface desirable, as it will assist in keeping the lube oil filters clean undesirable, since the embedded particles will score the journal undesirable, since the particles will interfere with lube oil flow

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

137

139

141

143

145

Ans: B A diesel engine crankcase ventilation system ______________. A. prevents spark generation B. removes combustible gases C. determines the level of combustible gases D. provides inert gas generation in crankcase Ans: B The bearings used to support the crankshaft are generally called __________. A. line shaft bearings B. connecting rod bearings C. main bearings D. support bearings Ans: C Internal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be equipped with ______. A. hinged rain guards B. corrosion resistant flame screens C. dipsticks for measuring oil levels D. crankcase ventilation fans Ans: B Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed main propulsion diesel engines is admitted to each cylinder during _____________. A. the power stroke B. the compression stroke C. low load operation only D. periods of standby Ans: B Which of the following listed construction details of internal combustion engines is required?

138

140

142

144

146

Ans: A Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by _____________. A. fuel oil pressure B. a cam operated follower C. a spring-loaded pressure plate D. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft Ans: A Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by _____________. A. engine speed B. varying the fuel pump piston stroke C. varying the injector needle valve clearance D. a bypass valve Ans: D What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its cylinder bore exceeds 200mm? A. Crankcase vapor monitors B. Engine exhaust silencers C. Constant pressure type turbochargers D. Explosion relief valves Ans: D What is the purpose of the "window" installed in the housing of an individual jerk pump? A. To allow the pump to be timed to the engine. B. To check for sludge on the pump barrel. C. To check that fuel oil return passages are clear. D. To set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters. Ans: A Which statement regarding the arrangement and location of explosion relief valves used on an internal combustion engines is true_____________?

A. A warning notice to caution against the opening of a hot crankcase for a specified period of time after shut down. B. The use of end block construction for engines developing over 1000 brake horsepower. C. Removable cylinder liners must be used for engines developing over 1000 brake horsepower. D. All engines shall be provided with an exhaust gas pressure monitoring system. Ans: A The term "proper metering", as applied to a diesel fuel injection 147 system, can be best defined as _____________. A. delivering the same quantity of fuel to each cylinder for each power stroke according to engine load B. maintaining the metering adjustment for a reasonable period under all load conditions C. timing fuel injection to obtain maximum power and good fuel economy D. distributing the fuel to all parts of the combustion chamber for proper combustion Ans: A The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder depends 149 primarily on _____________. A. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle B. timing of the pump C. supply pressure to the pump

A. They may be omitted on all engines having a cylinder bore of nine inches or less B. They may be omitted provided the engine utilizes a crankcase monitoring system C. The type of engine and operating cycle must be considered by the designer D. Minimizing the danger from emission of flame is a key consideration Ans: D One function of the fuel pump delivery check valve is to 148 _____________. A. prevent carbon deposits from forming on the injector nozzle B. help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at the nozzle holes C. provide a prolonged pressure drop in the high pressure steel piping to the injector D. ensure a fuel leakoff between the plunger and barrel which provides lubrication for relative movement Ans: B Fuel injection systems meter fuel, atomize fuel, and 150 _____________. A. create turbulence in the combustion chamber B. aid in completing cylinder scavenging C. inject fuel at the proper time

Page 15

D. shape of the combustion chamber Ans: A The valve cam slope angle determines the _____________. 151 A. engine torque characteristics B. acceleration rate of valve opening and closing C. engine fuel efficiency D. diameter of intake and exhaust valves Ans: B Cylinders diameters greater than 230 mm require additional safety 153 devices when the scavenging spaces are openly connected to the cylinders. Which of the following devices will be used to protect such spaces? A. B. C. D. Ans: 155 A. B. C. D. Ans: 157 Tri-knock fittings Explosion relief valves Quick release expansion joints Stacked plate type inlet check valves B Fuel injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are usually provided with cooling to reduce _____________. cold corrosion of the nozzles fuel viscosity for better atomization carbon accumulation on the nozzles fuel detonation in the cylinders C Increasing the load on an engine using a double-helix type injection pump varies the effective stroke of the pump to start _____________. earlier and end later later and end earlier and end later and end earlier A The duration of fuel injection developed by an individual port-andhelix fuel injection pump, is determined by the ____________. total pump stroke pump plunger diameter plunger helix angle effective pump stroke D When the lower edge of the spiral begins to uncover the release port in a jerk pump, the _____________. pumping continues until the plunger travels its full stroke effective pumping stroke of the plunger ends pressure drops slowly until the full stroke is attained plunger rotates to the zero delivery position until the next stroke B Which of the following will occur when the lower edge of the spiral, on the plunger of a jerk pump, uncovers the spill port? The plunger immediately reverses direction. The pressure drops and fuel delivery stops. The plunger rotates to the no fuel position. The barrel rotates to the zero effective stroke position. B Which of the components listed is NOT found in a single acting engine? Exhaust valves Scavenging ports Combustion chambers Double crankshafts D Cast iron pistons used in large propulsion diesel engines are constructed with ____________. no taper what so ever the skirt being tapered and smaller than the crown the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown the crown being tapered and smaller than the skirt D Successful combustion inside the cylinders of a diesel engine is dependent upon _____________. fine atomization high temperature good mixing of fuel and air all of the above D

D. minimize fuel penetration into the cylinder Ans: C Engine displacement is equal to the cylinder _____________. 152 A. area times the stroke B. area times the stroke, times the number of cylinders C. volume times the stroke D. volume times the stroke, times the number of cylinders Ans: B A loop or cross scavenged engine utilizes the motion of its pistons 154 and a turbocharger to provide scavenging air. Which of the listed mechanical designs prevents the air under the pistons from being pumped back through the scavenge ports during the piston A. B. C. D. Ans: 156 A. B. C. D. Ans: 158 Masked intake ports Length of the piston skirt Positive pressure from the blower Lower liner seals B The possibility of damage from operating a diesel engine at critical speeds is reduced by the use of ______________. an isochronous governor elastic engine mounts a vibration damper a cast iron bed plate with good flexible qualities C The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is converted to the rotary motion required to drive gears, propeller shafts, and generators by the _____________. flywheel crankshaft journal bearings camshaft B The plunger in a jerk pump is rotated until the release port is uncovered. If the port remains uncovered all of the time, which of the listed operations will occur? No fuel will be delivered. The maximum effective stroke will be attained. The fuel delivered to the cylinder will be excessive. The injection nozzle will overheat and carbonize. A The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump is controlled by _____________. varying the pump discharge pressure varying the pump return pressure rotation of the pump plunger rotation of the pump barrel C In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by _____________. push rods clearance adjusters connecting rods piston guides C In diesel engines designed with a crosshead, the motion of the piston rod can be described as _____________. reciprocating at the piston pin, rotary at the crank pin reciprocating at the crank pin, rotary at the piston pin straight reciprocation straight rotation C Which of the following manufacturing methods is recommended for diesel engine fuel injection line piping? Cold rolled Electric resistance welded Seamless drawn Straight seam C Which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel engine, but NOT related to the injection system? Atomization Metering Effective stroke Penetration C

A. B. C. D. Ans: 159

A. B. C. D. Ans: 160

A. B. C. D. Ans: 161 A. B. C. D. Ans: 163 A. B. C. D. Ans: 165 A. B. C. D. Ans: 167 A. B. C. D. Ans: 169 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 162 A. B. C. D. Ans: 164 A. B. C. D. Ans: 166 A. B. C. D. Ans: 168 A. B. C. D. Ans: 170 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 16

171 A. B. C. D. Ans: 173

Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is _____________. dependent on air turbulence reduced by finer atomization increased by finer atomization nonexistent in the precombustion chamber system B What is required for crosshead type engines that have a scavenging space in open connection to the cylinder?

172 A. B. C. D. Ans: 174

Proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine combustion chambers will _____________. affect the injection pressure improve combustion reduce compression pressure decrease power output B Which of the following statements is an accurate description of fuel injection piping used on diesel engines with a cylinder bore of 250 mm and above?

A. The air flow from the scavenging space must always be protected by plate type check valves and under no circumstance may other devices be used. B. A suitable gasket for the interface of both manifolds is necessary to prevent recirculation of scavenging gases, while additionally minimizing exhaust gas leakage. C. The scavenging space is to be permanently connected to an approved fire extinguishing system, entirely separate from the fire extinguishing system of the engine room. D. The required equipment for a crosshead type engine is totally dependent upon manufacturer's ability to placate market demands Ans: C In a diesel engine mechanical-type fuel pump, the delivery check valve is opened by ____________. A. push rod action B. cam action C. hydraulic action D. spring action Ans: C Differential needle valves used in fuel injectors are directly closed 177 by _____________. A. cam action B. spring force C. fuel oil pressure D. firing pressure Ans: B Injection lag can be caused by ____________. 179 A. improper timing of the intake valves B. setting of the pump plunger C. compressibility of the fuel D. position of the needle valve Ans: C A diesel engine with a combustion chamber located between the 181 crowns of two pistons is known as a/an _______________. 175 A. B. C. D. Ans: 183 A. B. C. D. Ans: 185 double-acting engine opposed pistons engine single-acting engine horizontal acting engine B An exhaust pipe from a internal combustion engine may not need to be insulated when _________. installed on fishing vessels it is of the water jacketed type it is used as an emergency generator special provision is made by the Chief Engineer B In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, power and exhaust) are performed once in _______________. two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine one power stroke in a two-stroke/cycle engine two piston strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine D The main reason for using bimetallic piston rings is to ______________. increase engine thermal efficiency reduce specific fuel consumption reduce the probability of ring fracture allow for ring expansion C The device used to limit engine torque at various engine speeds is called a ______________. speed limiting governor

A. The piping shall be so arranged to allow for uncomplicated removal of the fuel injection equipment and other associated components located on the cylinder head. B. All high pressure piping shall be of the double lined type, with the outer leakoff line suitably channeled to a dedicated tank. C. All storage tanks connected to the leakoff piping of fuel injection systems shall be provided with high level alarms and sufficient means for emptying. D. The piping is to be effectively shielded and secured to prevent fuel or fuel mist from reaching a source of ignition on the engine or its surroundings. Ans: D What is the term given to the process of breaking up fuel oil into very fine particles for better combustion? A. Settling B. Straining C. Spraying D. Atomizing Ans: D Diesel engine fuel oil leakage should be drained and additional 178 precautions provided to __________. A. return this oil to the proper storage tank B. prevent contamination of lubricating oil by fuel oil C. ascertain an accurate measurement of this leakage D. drain cooling water system components Ans: B When is fuel injected into a cylinder of diesel engines? 180 A. Before air in the cylinder is compressed. B. After air in the cylinder is compressed. C. After combustion gases in the cylinder have expanded. D. As air is taken into the cylinder. Ans: B The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition 182 process in a diesel engine, is influenced chiefly by the ____________. 176 A. B. C. D. Ans: 184 A. B. C. D. Ans: 186 percent of CO2 range of inflammability theoretical fuel/air ratio length of the ignition delay period D The driving force of a propeller is transmitted to the hull through the_____________. bevel gear teeth helically cut gear teeth sleeve bearings thrust bearing D Fuel supplied by each unit injector on a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is directed into each cylinder at a very high pressure through the ____________. high pressure fuel line spill deflector check valve spray tip of the injector D The time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as _____________. turbulence lag after burning ratio preignition lag ignition delay D Which characteristic of the Otto cycle occurs in the actual diesel cycle but NOT in the theoretical diesel cycle? No pressure increase during combustion.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 187 A. B. C. D. Ans: 189 A.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 188 A. B. C. D. Ans: 190 A.

Page 17

B. C. D. Ans: 191 A. B. C. D. Ans: 193 A. B.

variable speed governor constant speed governor load limiting governor D What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the cylinder of an operating diesel engine? Spark plug Heat of compression Carburetor Glow plug B The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of a diesel engine is to __________. produce the heat for ignition decrease injection lag

B. C. D. Ans: 192 A. B. C. D. Ans: 194

Rapid pressure increase during combustion. Rapid volume increase during combustion. No volume increase during combustion. D The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel engine is dependent upon the _____________. temperature of compression atomization of the fuel penetration of the fuel all of the above D The blower type crankcase ventilation system ____________.

A. removes combustible gases from the crankcase B. prevents the formation of combustible gases in the crankcase C. cools lubricating oil D. improves cold weather starting Ans: A A diesel engine which is rated for normal operation at a crankshaft 196 speed of 800 RPM, is commonly classed as a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 198 A. B. C. D. Ans: 200 A. B. C. D. Ans: 202 A. slow-speed diesel medium-speed diesel high-speed diesel constant-speed diesel B Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the ________. return seating type spring centered type spring opened type duplex double acting type A Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine? Temperature of the intake air Friction within the engine Mechanical condition of the supercharger Mechanical condition of the turbocharger B Which of the following statements is correct concerning available astern power for diesel main propulsion systems? The astern power of the main propelling machinery is to provide for continuous operation astern at 60% of the ahead rpm at rated speed.

C. increase ignition delay D. aid in exhausting burnt gases Ans: A The most important factor in engine performance is the actual 195 power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 197 A. B. C. D. Ans: 199 A. B. C. D. Ans: 201 A. indicated horsepower brake horsepower net horsepower friction horsepower B The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the ________. swept volume of the cylinder inside diameter of the cylinder piston displacement in the cylinder length of the piston stroke B Diesel engine exhaust valve springs are under compression when they are __________. wide open only partially open only closed only in any position D Which of the following statements describes the operating characteristics of a precombustion chamber? When fuel oil is injected into the precombustion chamber, it does not need to be as finely atomized as the fuel oil in diesel engines having direct injection.

B. When operating correctly, combustion should not occur in the precombustion chamber. C. Engines which are designed with precombustion chambers are more likely to suffer blocked nozzle holes, due to fuel oil impurities, than engines designed with direct injection. D. Engines with precombustion chambers, which do not have an increased compression ratio, are not as difficult to start when cold, as engines with direct injection. 203 Ans: A A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with which of the listed types of combustion chamber? A. B. C. D. Ans: 205 A. B. C. D. Ans: 207 Open combustion chamber Precombustion chamber Turbulence chamber Energy cell A The flywheel reduces speed fluctuations by _____________. maintaining a constant rack setting storing kinetic energy maintaining equal exhaust pressure maintaining even camshaft speed B In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs ____________. 204

B. Astern power is to be provided in a sufficient amount to secure proper control of the ship in all normal circumstances. C. For main propulsion systems without reversing gears, controllable pitch propellers or electric propulsion drive, running astern is not to lead to overload conditions. D. Astern power available will be equal to ahead power when controllable pitch propellers are utilized, thus discounting the need for increased operating parameters. Ans: B Combustion gases formed in the cylinder of a diesel engine are prevented from blowing past the piston by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 206 A. B. C. D. Ans: 208 cylinder valves compression rings piston skirts oil rings B Opposed piston diesel engines are classified as __________. two-stroke/cycle single acting two-stroke/cycle double acting four-stroke/cycle single acting four-stroke/cycle double acting A In an operating diesel engine, the sealing of the cylinder is the result of the compression rings being forced against the cylinder walls by _____________.

A. once every crankshaft revolution B. once every two crankshaft revolutions

A. oil pressure acting behind the ring B. compression pressure acting beneath the ring

Page 18

C. once every piston stroke D. twice every piston stroke Ans: A In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying 209 part of the engine is referred to as the _________. A. bedplate or base B. sump or oil pan C. cylinder block D. frame Ans: A The purpose of piston ring end clearance is to ____________. 211 A. allow the combustion gases to press the ring down on the land B. allow the combustion gases to get behind the ring and press it against the cylinder liner C. prevent buckling and breaking of the ring D. aid in protecting the oil film Ans: C What is the swept volume per cylinder per revolution of a six213 cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke operating at 100 RPM? A. B. C. D. Ans: 215 A. B. C. D. Ans: 217 0.45 cubic meters (450 L) 0.90 cubic meters (900 L) 2.7 cubic meters (2700 L) 5.4 cubic meters (5400 L) B The intake and exhaust valves used in a diesel engine are returned to their seats by _____________. push rod pressure spring force combustion pressure exhaust pressure B In a diesel engine, an integral liner is one in which thecooling water __________. I. flows through the cylinder liner jackets II. touches the outer side of the liner I only II only both I and II neither I nor II A Which of the listed bearing types is an example of a solid bearing? Piston gudgeon pin bushing Turbine bearing Spring bearing Diesel engine main bearing A A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the proper ring seating and lubrication is known as ____________. ribbed honing angled honing cross hatch honing doubled honing C The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition in a diesel engine is influenced by the length of the ignition delay period due to the ______. valve overlap volumetric efficiency turbulence of the air change fuel efficiency C Which of the devices listed is installed on a diesel engine to isolate some of the crankshaft vibrations caused by rotational and reciprocating forces? Planetary gear set Torsional vibration damper Friction clutch Air bladder clutch B Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel injection operate on a combustion cycle which is _________.

C. ring expansion from the heat of combustion D. combustion gas pressure acting behind the ring Ans: D In diesel engines, hydraulic valve lifters are used to 210 ____________. A. reduce valve gear pounding B. increase valve operating clearance C. obtain greater valve lift D. create longer valve duration Ans: A What is the purpose of a hydraulic tappet clearance adjuster? 212 A. Insures proper pressure in a hydraulic system. B. Allows for constant contact between the valve stem and the rocker arm regardless of whether the engine is cold or warm. C. Eliminates need to remove valve springs. D. Provides far easier removal of the valve cage. Ans: B In a unit injector the amount of fuel that will be forced through the 214 spray nozzle on each stroke of the plunger depends on _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 216 A. B. C. D. Ans: 218 the pump supply pressure the slope of the fuel cam how the plunger is rotated the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack C Valve cages are used on some large diesel engines to _____________. reduce wear on the valve stem permit the use of alloy valve seat materials reduce heat transfer from the valve seat facilitate valve removal for servicing D A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area of 22 cm2 and a length of 12.5 cm. If the scale of the indicator spring is 1 mm = 1 kg/cm2, what is the cylinder mean effective pressure? 17.6 kg/cm2 27.5 kg/cm2 34.5 kg/cm2 36.0 kg/cm2 A In which of the scavenging methods listed will the exhaust valve be located in the cylinder head? Return-flow Uniflow Crossflow Direct flow B The device most commonly used to measure exhaust gas temperature of cyclinders is a _____________. pyrometer calorimeter dynamometer tachometer A The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must allow for liner axial movement. This seal is most commonly a _____________. neoprene O-ring soft copper gasket precision ground flange joint flexible metallic seal ring A Differential type fuel oil nozzles in a diesel engine areclosed directly by _____________. I. spring pressure II. fuel oil pressure I only II only either I or II neither I nor II A An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on many diesel engines is obtained with _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 219 A. B. C. D. Ans: 221 A. B. C. D. Ans: 223

A. B. C. D. Ans: 220 A. B. C. D. Ans: 222 A. B. C. D. Ans: 224

A. B. C. D. Ans: 225

A. B. C. D. Ans: 226

A. B. C. D. Ans: 227

A. B. C. D. Ans: 228

Page 19

A. B. C. D.

entirely constant pressure entirely constant volume a combination of constant volume and constant pressure a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure

A. B. C. D.

graphite packing sealing compound lubricating oil gaskets

229

Ans: C For a four-stroke/cycle medium-speed diesel engine, fuel injection commences from 7 to 26 crankshaft degrees before top dead center. After fuel injection commences, how many degrees does the camshaft rotate before the exhaust valve push rod moves up? A. B. C. D. Ans: 21-31 45-55 66-76 106-115 C Poor timing of the fuel injection system is similar to the effects of poor _____________. metering of the fuel flow control of the rate of fuel injection atomization of the fuel distribution of the fuel B The exhaust ports of a diesel engine using the crossflow scavenging method are opened and closed by the ____________. reciprocating motion of exhaust valves rotary motion of the camshaft reciprocating motion of the piston developed differential C Valve rotators are commonly used on which of the listed diesel engine cylinder head valves? Air starting Cylinder relief Exhaust Blowdown C Piston cooling fins are located _____________. atop the piston crown beneath the piston crown at the base of the piston skirt inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket B In the cylinder head of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, valves are used for _____________. air intake a fuel outlet cooling water inlets exhausting combustion gas D The intake ports of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are opened and closed by the action of the _____________. camshaft piston movement exhaust valves vertical drive B Which of the listed conditions will affect the mean effective pressure the most in the cylinders of a diesel engine? TBN of the lubricating oil Temperature of the lube oil Completeness in the mixing of the fuel and air Temperature of the cooling (sea) water C The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel engines is to _____________. improve piston cooling stratify the fuel charge prevent carbon buildup provide a place for combustion D Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing? Piston pin bushing Turbo-generator turbine bearing Spring bearing

230

Ans: D Oil for piston cooling is delivered through the connecting rod to a compartment in the piston head, then distributed as a result of piston motion, and finally drained to the crankcase through one or more holes or pipes. This procedure is known as the A. B. C. D. Ans: splash method spray method shaker method throw off method C The "breaking-up" of fuel as it enters a diesel engine cylinder is known as _____________. airification vaporization atomization gasification C Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a modern high-speed diesel engine? Steel-lined Poured babbitt, self-aligning Split roller Precision insert D Exhaust valve openings in a diesel engine cylinder head are made as large as practical to _____________. increase back pressure during the exhaust process facilitate periodic replacement of the valves reduce the pumping loss associated with scavenging reduce tension on valve springs C Diesel engine mufflers reduce noise by ______________. packing muffler chambers the use of long head pipes the use of zinc electrodes changing exhaust gas direction D Which of the listed characteristics is common to both wet and dry type diesel engine exhaust mufflers? Both mufflers contain moving parts. They never require any maintenance. They function as spark arresters. Both have a dust collecting chamber. C Compared to four-stroke/cycle engines, two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have the disadvantage of _____________. less even torque higher cylinder head temperatures fewer power strokes per revolution greater weight/size requirements B In comparing engines of equal horsepower, higher exhaust gas temperatures occur in a/an _____________. opposed-piston engine double-acting engine two-stroke/cycle engine four-stroke/cycle engine D Which of the bearings listed are most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a diesel engine? Roller Sleeve Precision insert Mechanical lubricators C The upper section of a piston is called the _____________. land skirt crown

231 A. B. C. D. Ans: 233

232 A. B. C. D. Ans: 234

A. B. C. D. Ans: 235 A. B. C. D. Ans: 237 A. B. C. D. Ans: 239 A. B. C. D. Ans: 241 A. B. C. D. Ans: 243 A. B. C. D. Ans: 245 A. B. C. D. Ans: 247 A. B. C.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 236 A. B. C. D. Ans: 238 A. B. C. D. Ans: 240 A. B. C. D. Ans: 242 A. B. C. D. Ans: 244 A. B. C. D. Ans: 246 A. B. C. D. Ans: 248 A. B. C.

Page 20

249

251

253

255

D. Thrust bearing Ans: A In a diesel engine, the main bearings are used between the _____________. A. connecting rod and the crankshaft B. gudgeon pin and the connecting rod C. camshaft and the engine block D. crankshaft and the engine block Ans: D Which of the bearings listed is most widely used for main and connecting rod bearings of modern diesel engines? A. Steel-lined B. Poured babbitt, self-aligning C. Split roller D. Precision insert Ans: D Fuel is admitted to a diesel engine cylinder through the _____________. A. intake valves B. carburetor C. exhaust ports D. scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls Ans: D Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine are designed to prevent __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: excessive crankcase pressure excessive lube oil temperature contamination of the lube oil by water All of the above are correct. C A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water to directly cool the _____________. cylinder heads exhaust valves scavenging air injectors C One method of constructing large marine diesel engines and reducing the total engine frame weight is through ____________. casting interlocking components welding plates to form sections for assembly forging integral components main shaft flexible coupling B Concerning diesel propelled vessels, the astern power is to provide for continuous operation astern ___________. equal to that available for ahead operation at 70 percent of the ahead rpm at rated speed while underway and under all normal conditions at 70 percent of the ahead rpm of average continous sea speed

250

252

254

256

D. plate Ans: C Which of the listed bearing installations is subjected to swinging motion? A. Crankshaft journal B. Crankpin bearings C. gudgeon pin bearings D. aluminum piping with expansion loops Ans: C The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is _______________. A. in the region of the load bearing surface B. as a side relief where the two shells meet C. at the bottom of the bearing D. halfway between bottom and where shells meet Ans: B Directional intake ports in diesel engines are used to _____________. A. reduce air charge turbulence B. induce air swirl C. deflect hot combustion gas away from the valves D. lock all safety interlock switches closed Ans: B How are hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters on diesel engine rocker arm assemblies lubricated? A. B. C. D. Ans: Cup-fed grease Sealed self-lubricators Metered hydraulic oil supply losses to escaping exhaust gases D The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to warn of ____________. excessive mist density in the crankcase excessively high crankcase vacuum excessively high bearing temperatures excessive carbon buildup in the lube oil A Which of the fuel injection systems listed uses a spring loaded differential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each cylinder? Common-rail injection Air injection Jerk pump injection Distributor injection C The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vacuum by the ______________. scavenging action of the piston crankcase exhaust fan gland exhausting manometer piston type vacuum pump taking suction off a differential manometer B In a unit injector, an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the lower part of the plunger for _____________. facilitating plunger rotation positioning the control sleeve accurate metering of the fuel oil eliminating injection lag C In a diesel engine, internal combustion causes the piston to be moved by _____________.

257 A. B. C. D. Ans: 259

258 A. B. C. D. Ans: 260

A. B. C. D. Ans: 261 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 262 A. B. C. D. Ans: 264 A. B. C. D. Ans: 266

Ans: B Which of the fuel systems listed combines the injection pump and the injection nozzle in one housing? A. Common rail B. Unit injector C. Air injection D. Hydraulic governing Ans: B Regarding a Diesel engine crankcase, the general arrangement 265 and installation should preclude the possibility of ________. 263 A. free entry of air to the crankcase B. water entering the crankcase while engine washdowns are being performed C. excessive oil leakage during periods of increased blowby D. all of the above Ans: A What function is provided by the crankcase ventilation system on 267 some diesel engines? A. Increases the sludge forming tendency of lube oil. B. Prevents the accumulation of combustible gases. C. Improves lube oil cooling. D. Improve cold weather starting

A. the pressure of gases developed B. the simple admission of fuel and air into the combustion space only C. specially designed parts connected to a shaft D. the concept of reciprocity Ans: A For diesel engine piston cooling, lubricating oil can be supplied to 268 the pistons by a/an ____________. A. oil spray B. oil bath C. oil control rings D. drilled passage through the camshaft

Page 21

Ans: B The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel injection jerk pump is to _____________. A. assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection B. allow oil backflow from the injector to the helix C. reduce fuel oil pressure between injection strokes D. meter the quantity of fuel delivered Ans: A The primary function of a fuel delivery check valve assembly is to 271 _____________. A. deliver proper fuel quantity to the injection nozzle B. provide rapid fuel injection cutoff C. control fuel quantity entering the pump body D. control fuel pressure delivered to the combustion chamber Ans: B The upper piston rings in large, slow-speed, two-stroke/ cycle diesel 273 engines are most effectively lubricated by oil _____________. 269 A. B. C. D. Ans: 275 A. B. C. D. Ans: 277 fed from mechanical lubricators thrown off from the main bearings supplied from wick fed drip lubricators flow from a centrifugal or banjo oiler A The delivery valve installed in a port and helix fuel injection pump is designed to ____________. maintain constant pressure in the discharge line maintain a column of fuel in the line accurately meter the quantity of fuel injected close with hydraulic action B Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of the crankcase such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives when the __________.

Ans: A In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at _____________. A. twice the crankshaft speed B. half the crankshaft speed C. the same speed as the crankshaft D. a speed independent of the crankshaft Ans: C For any piston ring to operate smoothly without scuffing, the ring 272 must be _____________. A. of a material harder than the cylinder liner B. properly lubricated C. prevented from compressing D. prevented from rotating during engine operation Ans: B Fuel injector nozzles are usually of the multi-orifice type with the 274 number and placement of the holes arranged according to the _____________. 270 A. B. C. D. Ans: 276 A. B. C. D. Ans: 278 type of piston rings pressure of the fuel system size of the pump plunger spring design of the combustion chamber D The shape of a diesel engine cam determines the ___________. points of opening and closing of the valve velocity of opening and closing of the valve amount of the valve lift from its seat all of the above D If all other conditions such as bore, stroke, speed, and mean effective pressures are equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will develop approximately _____________.

A. gross volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6+D340 cubic meters B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter Ans: A In order to reverse the rotation of a two-stroke/cycle loop 279 scavenged, direct reversing, propulsion diesel engine, the cam positions must be changed for the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 281 starting air and fuel pumps piston cooling pumps exhaust valves all of the above A The rotary motion of a diesel engine crankshaft is obtained from the up and down motion of the piston via the _________. camshaft reduction gears rocker arm connecting or piston rod D Diesel engine main and connecting rod precision bearings are made in halves. Each half exceeds one-half the bearing circumference by a small amount. The small amount is termed _____________. clearance crush pitch thrust B The end of fuel injection in a port-and-helix metering pump can be controlled by _____________. uncovering a fuel port in the pump barrel covering a fuel port in the pump barrel closing the fuel pump delivery valve opening the fuel pump delivery valve A For a given size engine, the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will deliver more power than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine because ____________.

A. the same indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine B. one half the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine C. twice the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine D. one power stroke for every two crankshaft revolutions Ans: C A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel, is a sealed 280 precision built device which dampens the torsional vibrations in the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 282 camshaft flywheel crankshaft thrust shaft C Indirect cooling of fuel injector nozzle holders for diesel engines is accomplished primarily by ____________. heat conduction into the injected fuel oil heat conduction into the water jacket wall water circulation through passages in the holder fuel oil circulation through passages in the holder B The port-and-helix metering pumps, used in diesel fuel injection systems, are usually designed to produce a constant beginning and a variable ending of fuel injection. These pumps are usually _____________. timed for port opening timed for port closing controlled by rack movement controlled by plunger stroke B The main reason counterweights are added to crankshafts is to _____________. reduce piston side thrust reduce crankshaft end thrust provide uniform loading and wear of main bearings increase the strength of the crank webs C In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the spray nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 283

A. B. C. D. Ans: 284

A. B. C. D. Ans: 285 A. B. C. D. Ans: 287

A. B. C. D. Ans: 286 A. B. C. D. Ans: 288

Page 22

A. B. C. D. Ans: 289

it has a longer power stroke more air gets into the cylinder each stroke it develops twice as many power strokes at the same speed higher combustion pressure is developed C Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injectors operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure B. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure

A. B. C. D. Ans: 290

the pump supply pressure the slope of the fuel cam how the plunger is rotated the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack C The amount of fuel delivered by a unit injector is controlled by the _____________. A. camshaft B. main spring

C. entirely constant pressure D. entirely constant volume Ans: A The diesel engine valve subjected to most severe conditions of 291 service is the ____________. A. cylinder exhaust valve B. air starting valve C. air inlet valve D. cylinder relief valve Ans: A The lower section of a piston is called the _____________. 293 A. land B. skirt C. crown D. plate Ans: B Fuel oil discharged to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the 295 _____________. A. turbocharger B. injector nozzle tip C. carburetor D. fuel oil pump Ans: B In a diesel engine, crosshatch on the liner surface aids 297 in___________.I. rapid ring seating II. the retention of lube oil A. I only is correct B. II only is correct C. both I and II are correct D. neither I or II are correct Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning a closed type fuel 299 injection nozzle is true? A. The hole type of a closed nozzle is self-cleaning. B. Multi-hole type nozzles are only suitable for use in engines with precombustion chambers. C. Most closed nozzles open inward under the pressure acting on the differential area of the needle valve. D. The pintle type nozzles are most susceptible to carbon deposits building up in and around the orifice. Ans: C Turbulence of the compressed air charge in a diesel engine cylinder 301 increases _____________. A. ignition lag B. piston side thrust C. the efficiency of the engine D. compression pressure Ans: C In the Otto cycle, the fuel/air mixture is ignited at what point and by 303 what means? A. At TDC by heat generated by compression. B. Just before TDC by heat generated by compression. C. Just before TDC by spark ignition. D. At TDC by spark ignition Ans: C A diesel engine piston ring face is in direct contact with the 305 _____________. A. top of the ring groove B. cylinder liner oil film C. bottom of the ring groove D. back of the ring groove

C. rack position D. nozzle orifice size Ans: C For a given fuel, a change in the compression ratio will affect the 292 ignition lag by which of the listed means? A. An increase in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag. B. An increase in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag. C. A decrease in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag. D. A decrease in ignition lag will increase the compression ratio Ans: B What is the function of an engine's stationary parts? 294 A. To add power to the engine. B. To keep the engine firmly attached to its supporting base. C. To keep moving engine parts in their proper relative positions. D. To rotate the crankshaft. Ans: C Proper dispersion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder is dependent 296 upon the _____________. A. injection pressure B. shape of combustion space C. turbulence in combustion space D. all of the above Ans: D Why is it necessary to compress the air charge in the cylinders of a 298 diesel engine? A. To ignite the fuel. B. To insure pumpimg losses are held to a minimum. C. To increase fuel consumption. D. To keep exhaust temperature low. Ans: A Many diesel engine exhaust valves are being constructed with 300 hollow stems filled with sodium in order to _____________. A. increase overall valve strength due to the high gas pressures B. provide added wear protection against today's corrosive quality of fuel C. assist in dissipating heat due to the extreme operating temperatures D. reduce the overall weight of the valve thus helping eliminate valve spring surge and hammering Ans: C Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of some chromium plated 302 piston rings to _____________. A. promote piston ring seating in the cylinder B. prevent rapid wear on the ring face C. provide better lubrication of the piston ring D. produce an even glaze on the cylinder Ans: A Critical speed in diesel engines occurs when engine torque 304 pulsations become _____________. A. opposed to the crankshaft rocking couple B. resonant with the crankshaft natural frequency C. critical fore and aft crankshaft vibrations D. horizontal whipping motions of the crankshaft Ans: B A secondary function of diesel engine piston rings is to 306 _____________. A. reduce friction losses in the engine B. absorb the piston side thrust C. prevent cylinder liner wear D. prevent excess lubricant from reaching the combustion space

Page 23

307

Ans: B Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: a spark plug injectors the heat of compression increasing jacket water temperatures C Injectors for use with heavy fuel oil must be cooled by either water or light oil to _____________. prevent heat corrosion to internal components increase fuel delivery rate and economy prevent preignition avoid carbonisation of the nozzle tips D In a diesel engine, the time taken to heat the fuel particles, turn them into vapor, and bring about combustion is called _____________. injection lag ignition delay compression ignition turbulance lag B The thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is transformed into ______________. combustion energy internal energy external energy mechanical energy D Oil control rings are designed with slotted holes to _____________. decrease ring contact area and cut down heat transfer decrease contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall increase contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall permit excess oil to drain back to the sump D The primary purpose of oil control rings on a diesel engine piston is to _____________. provide a reservoir for cylinder lubrication pump oil into the combustion space for cylinder cooling

309 A. B. C. D. Ans: 311

Ans: D Barrel face, taper face, grooved, and chrome plated are all types of diesel engine _____________. A. pistons B. piston rings C. piston skirts D. cylinder liners Ans: B Which of the equal power diesel engines listed, running at the same 310 speed, is least affected by exhaust back pressure? A. A four-stroke/cycle "V" type engine B. A two-stroke/cycle "V" type engine C. An in-line two-stroke/cycle engine D. An opposed piston engine Ans: A In a diesel engine, the contact surfaces of the piston compression 312 rings are those in contact with the___________. I. back of the ring groove II. bottom of the ring groove 308 A. B. C. D. Ans: 314 A. B. C. D. Ans: 316 A. B. C. D. Ans: 318 A. B. I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B The reason some two-stroke/cycle, diesel engine piston rings are pinned to prevent rotation, is _____________. cylinder lubricant is spread more evenly on the cylinder wall less blow-by as the pin seals the end gap to keep the ring ends from catching in the scavenging ports to promote more even ring wear C Precombustion chambers differ from turbulence chambers in that precombustion chambers _____________. allow fuel injection directly into the space above the piston do not contain the fuel injector nozzle tip contain the major portion of the total clearance volume contain a smaller portion of the total clearance volume D The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between the _______________. piston area to connecting rod length cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom dead center

A. B. C. D. Ans: 313 A. B. C. D. Ans: 315 A. B. C. D. Ans: 317 A. B.

C. prevent excessive lubricating oil consumption D. allow hydraulic oil film formation on the cylinder Ans: C In describing basic diesel engine operation, the term "event" refers 319 to _____________. A. the production of high pressure gases B. the removal of expended combustion gases C. the admission of air to the cylinder D. All of the above Ans: D Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scraper ring to 321 _____________. A. decrease piston side thrust pressure B. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring land C. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine sump D. make it more flexible for scraping cylinder surfaces Ans: C How are the pressure and temperature affected in a diesel engine 323 cylinder during compression? A. Pressure and temperature decrease B. Pressure and temperature increase C. Pressure decreases and temperature increases D. Pressure increases and temperature decreases Ans: B If the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine, 325 _____________. A. the expansion ratio will decrease B. combustion will be slowed down C. thermal efficiency will decrease D. thermal efficiency will increase Ans: D

C. engine cylinder size to piston size D. the number of compression strokes for a given horsepower Ans: B The ratio of the brake horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a 320 diesel engine is its ______________. A. thermal efficiency B. mechanical efficiency C. brake thermal efficiency D. volumetric efficiency Ans: B The function of the piston compression rings used in a diesel 322 engine is to _____________. A. seal the space between the piston and liner B. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner C. reduce the amount of combustion gas blow-by D. All of the above. Ans: D Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injection, 324 operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure B. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure C. entirely constant pressure D. entirely constant volume Ans: A Piston compression rings used in a diesel engine function to 326 _____________. A. transfer heat from the cylinder to the piston B. scrape oil from the sides of the piston C. seal the combustion space from the crankcase D. prevent any piston contact with the cylinder liner Ans: C

Page 24

327 A. B. C. D. Ans: 329 A. B. C. D. Ans: 331

At bottom dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually coincides with the _____________. angularity of the piston motion inertia moment from the piston centerline of the cylinder centerline of the king pin C A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is ______. opening the exhaust ports placed on top of the engine along its centerline farthest from the cylinder head nearest to the cylinder head D A seven cylinder, two-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine with a cylinder indicated horsepower calculated as 1350 kW and brake horsepower measured at 7466 kW has a mechanical efficiency of ______________. 0.18 0.55 0.79 0.83 C In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by _____________. push rods piston rods connecting rods piston guides C Vibrations from diesel engines and engine driven equipment are isolated from the hull structure by _____________. torsional-vibration dampers harmonic balancers a detuner flywheel

328 A. B. C. D. Ans: 330 A. B. C. D. Ans: 332

A diesel engine exhaust valve spring is under compression when _____________. the valve is open the piston is at top dead center the valve is closed all of the above D The purpose of the flywheel is to ______________. provide energy to operate the engine between power impulses neutralize the primary inertia force of the crankshaft reduce the shock of starting loads on the main bearings prevent the engine from operating at critical speed A What is the metric brake horse power developed per cylinder by an 83% efficient, six cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a cylinder constant of 0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at 100 RPM? 1,497 kW 1,242 kW 1,116 kW 926 kW B One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the _____________. lower thermal expansion rates than wet liners greater heat transfer rate than wet liners greater wear resistance than wet liners procedure to replace dry liners is simpler than for wet liners D Which of the following statements concerning fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder is correct? The greater the atomization, the greater the penetration. The greater the atomization, the lesser the penetration. The degree of atomization has nothing to do with the degree of penetration. Atomization and penetration are one and the same. B When comparing different fuels for different engines, the ignition quality of diesel fuel oils becomes a less critical consideration as ______________. the amount of lube oil additives increase piston speeds increase injection pressures decrease engine speeds decrease D An indicator card or pressure-volume diagram, shows graphically the ____________. relationships between pressure and volume during one stroke of the engine relationships between pressure and volume during one cycle of the engine volume of the engine compression ratio of the engine B One end of a diesel engine cylinder is sealed by the cylinder head and the other end by the _____________. crankcase piston cylinder liner crank cheek B Maximum power of a diesel engine is attained ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 333 A. B. C. D. Ans: 335 A. B. C.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 334 A. B. C. D. Ans: 336 A. B. C. D. Ans: 338

D. flexible engine mountings Ans: D The most rapid period of fuel combustion occurring in a diesel 337 cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 339 when fuel injection has been completed when fuel vaporization has been completed should continue through the afterburning period should be completed after the top dead centre D The power developed by a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine is dependent upon the ______________. A. quantity of air it takes in and retains in the cylinders during a given time period B. proportion of trapped air that is utilized in the combustion process

A. B. C. D. Ans: 340 A. B. C. D. Ans: 342

C. thermodynamic efficiency of the engine cycle D. all of the above Ans: D Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block, are 341 characterized by which of the following disadvantages? A. B. C. D. Ans: 343 A. B. C. D. They conduct heat poorly. They are expensive. They cannot be replaced. They require special tools for removal. C Where is the charge for an air starting system stored? Air compressor Pressurized tank Distributor assembly cylinder check valve

A. B. C. D. Ans: 344 A. B. C. D.

345

Ans: B Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams, which serve to _____________. A. keep piston crown temperatures elevated for smoother combustion

when the engine RPM is pulled down by overload at rated engine RPM at 95% of rated engine RPM at 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM with the engine under full load Ans: B During the fuel injection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder 346 gas pressure to _____________. A. ensure penetration and distribution of the fuel in the combustion chamber

Page 25

B. reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression ring C. help retain the heat of compression to prevent ignition delay D. help retain the heat of compression to prevent combustion knock Ans: B The difference in crank lead between the upper and lower cranks of an opposed piston engine causes the lower crankshaft to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 349 A. B. C. D. Ans: 351 A. B. C. D. Ans: 353 A. B. C. D. Ans: 355 A. B. receive less power than the upper shaft receive more power than the upper shaft operate the fuel oil booster pump rotate faster than the upper shaft B The exhaust system for a turbocharged two-stroke/cycle diesel engine functions to _____________. discharge exhaust gases and smoke furnish energy to the turbocharger reduce engine room noise all of the above D When monitoring diesel engine performance, the most useful instrument to use is the _____________. dwell-tachometer exhaust gas pyrometer fuel flow rate meter exhaust gas analyzer B A water jacket is placed around the exhaust manifoldsof propulsion diesel engines to ________. reduce heat radiation to the engine room aid in preventing turbocharger overheating condense and drain moisture from exhaust gases dampen exhaust gas pulsations in the manifold A Diesel engine mufflers or silencers reduce the engine exhaust noise by ________________. passing the exhaust through long head pipes diffusing exhaust vibrations through activated carbon baffles

B. ensure the needle valve is flushed clean during each injection C. prevent combustion gas blowback into the open needle valve D. prevent reflected pressure waves when the needle valve closes Ans: A Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow speed main propulsion diesel engine are designed to prevent _________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 350 A. B. C. D. Ans: 352 A. B. C. D. Ans: 354 A. B. C. D. Ans: 356 A. B. excessive crankcase pressure excessive lub oil temperature contamination of the lub oil by water contamination of the cooling watyer by the lub oil C Which of the diesel engine exhaust mufflers listed is usually equipped with a spark arrestor? A wet-type exhaust muffler A constant pressure muffler A dry-type exhaust muffler A constant velocity muffler C The exhaust system of a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust gases and to _____________. provide exhaust back pressure prevent exhaust smoke emissions power a reciprocating supercharger muffle exhaust gas noise D In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust gases are expelled from the cylinder by the ______________. exhaust manifold valve bridge pressure of the fresh air charge valve adjusting gear C The exhaust gases in a supercharged two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are expelled from the cylinder by __________. pumping action of the piston pressure of the fuel charge

347

348

C. increasing the exhaust gas velocity D. reducing the exhaust gas velocity Ans: D Exhaust gases in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are discharged 357 through _____________. A. the air valves B. a roots-type blower C. exhaust ports or valves D. direct to the atmosphere Ans: C Many diesel engines have pistons with concave heads to 359 _____________. A. decrease air turbulence and improve fuel mixing B. increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing C. prevent fuel afterburning when injection ends D. prolong fuel afterburning when injection ends Ans: B Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of 361 the crankcase, such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives, when the _______. A. overall volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6 cubic meters B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning the factors affecting 363 ignition delay is correct? A. An increase in intake air temperature will increase ignition delay. B. An increase in coolant temperature will decrease ignition delay. C. An increase in combustion chamber turbulence will increase ignition delay. D. An increase in compression ratio will increase ignition delay. Ans: B

C. vacuum developed in the manifold D. pressure of the fresh air charge Ans: D A disadvantage of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is 358 ___________. A. more power strokes per revolution B. the use of scavenge air C. more complicated valve gear D. higher working temperatures of the piston and cylinder Ans: D In a single-acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most 360 difficult to lubricate is the ______________. A. major thrust side B. minor thrust side C. top circumference D. bottom circumference Ans: C Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of 362 overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piston? A. The top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possible. B. The inside surface of the piston head is rounded into the ring belt. C. A nickel-bearing insert is cast into the top ring groove. D. A heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston head Ans: D Which of the following statements is a description of the combustion 364 cycle? A. The mechanics of engine operation. B. The number of piston strokes involved. C. The heat process which produces the force to initiate the movement of the engine parts. D. The mechanical equivalent of heat. Ans: C

Page 26

365

In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the piston is ______________. A. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the crosshead during the compression stroke B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the crosshead during the power stroke C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes

366

One of the advantages in the use of a dry liner over a wet liner is _____________. A. it is fitted with neoprene O-ring seals B. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film C. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion space

D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes Ans: C Which of the construction techniques listed is used on new piston 367 rings to facilitate run-in or seating? A. Special ring facings, such as a thin bearing surface of antifriction metal. B. The oil control ring face is machined at an angle of 10 degrees. C. The ring diameter, when free, is machined slightly smaller than the cylinder bore to allow for expansion at high combustion temperatures. D. Oil control rings maintain continuous oil film. Ans: A The intake air ducting to a diesel engine should not draw from an 369 area on deck where flammable vapors released from tanks are present, because ____________. A. flammable vapors will accelerate corrosion of the turbocharger B. the engine may overspeed and the normal governor or overspeed trip will not be able to secure the engine C. the flammable vapors will result in an excessively rich mixture which will increase the brake horsepower output D. all of the above Ans: B The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel 371 injection jerk pump is to _____________. I. assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection II. prevent fuel oil backflow from the injection pump A. B. C. D. Ans: 373 I only II only both I and II neither I nor II A A large low-speed main propulsion engine must be operated with one cylinder secured. When the engine was stopped, the affected cylinder ended in a position preventing the engine from being restarted. Which of the following actions should be taken

D. it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the composite wall Ans: C In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, 368 power, and exhaust) are performed once in ______________. A. one complete crankshaft revolution in a two-stroke/cycle engine B. two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine C. two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine

D. two piston strokes in a four-stroke/cycle engine Ans: A In a two-stroke/cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft 370 operates several crank angles in advance of the other crankshaft to _____________. A. allow the exhaust ports to open and close before the inlet ports close B. allow the scavenge ports to open and close simultaneously with the exhaust ports C. prevent the exhaust piston from reaching TDC and BDC before the intake piston D. prevent scavenge air pressure buildup in the cylinders Ans: A In a diesel engine, what is the advantage of 372 precombustionchambers over the open type of combustion chamber? I. Precombustion chambers permit coarser fuel atomization. II. Precombustion chambers allow lower fuel injection pressure. A. B. C. D. Ans: 374 I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C The average exhaust temperature of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a turbine-driven supercharger is lower than a similar four-stroke/cycle diesel engine at equal loads because ____________.

A. Turn the shaft with the turning gear while applying starting air. B. Increase starting air pressure by small amounts until the air pressure is high enough to crank the engine over. C. Admit starting air in the direction opposite to the desired direction, then restart in the desired direction. D. Open the indicator cocks on those cylinders on compression and apply increased starting air pressure. Ans: C Oil control rings used in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines are located near the bottom of the piston skirt in order to _____________. A. increase the liner area covered by the oil film B. maintain an oil film on the lower liner where scuffing is prevalent C. keep excess oil away from intake and exhaust ports D. help cushion piston skirt side thrust by providing a hydrodynamic oil wedge Ans: C In a diesel engine, the time period between fuel injection and 377 ignition is usually defined as _____________. A. injection duration B. ignition timing C. precombustion lag D. ignition delay

A. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a higher M.E.P. than fourstroke/cycle diesel engines B. four-stroke/cycle diesel engine exhaust is cooled by scavenging air C. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a lower M.E.P. than fourstroke/cycle diesel engines D. the opening of the two-stroke/cycle diesel exhaust ports or valves occurs much later than in four-stroke/cycle diesel engines Ans: C Which of the following statements represents the function of the compression rings installed at the top of a diesel engine piston? A. Transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner. B. Control the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber. C. Prevent damage to ring groove inserts by acting as a heat dam. D. Dissipate combustion chamber gas pressure by channeling it through the ring gap. Ans: A

375

376

Page 27

Ans: D 378 A. B. C. D. Ans: 380 A. B. C. D. Ans: 382 A. B. C. D. Ans: 384 MOTOR - OPERATION A loose crosshead plunger assembly in a metering or 379 proportioning pump will cause _____________. rapid wear on the crosshead A. damage to the stroke adjustment arm B. rapid wear on the plunger packing C. damage to the pressure compensator valve D. C Ans: A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake 381 manifold pressure ____________. slightly less than atmospheric pressure A. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times B. that is widely fluctuating C. constantly decreasing as engine load increases D. A Ans: On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is 383 maintained by the ______________. piston rod guides A. engine thrust bearing B. crosshead bearing C. main shaft flexible coupling D. B Ans: Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all 385 times is not recommended due to the possibility of the ________________. air charge density becoming too high piston crown surfaces becoming too cold formation of excessive quantities of condensate compression pressure being greatly reduced C An indication of a diesel engine air intake being partially clogged, is ____________. low firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures low firing pressure and normal exhaust temperatures high firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures high firing pressure and high exhaust temperatures B Operating a diesel engine for prolonged periods, with a closed freshwater cooling system, at temperatures lower than the normal design temperature can cause _____________. the formation of sulphuric acid a decrease in lube oil viscosity a decrease in cooling water pH a thermostat failure A Fuel droplets injected into a diesel engine cylinder must have adequate penetration to _____________. prolong the ignition delay period ensure the beginning of fuel injection thoroughly utilize the air charge allow controlled fuel combustion C The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is controlled by _____________. the firing pressure in the cylinder a metering helix varying the length of the plunger stroke varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector rocker arm B The amount of fuel delivered for each cycle must be in accordance with the engine load, and the same quantity of fuel must be delivered to each cylinder for each power stroke at that load. Which of the following statements describes this requirement? A. B. C. D. Ans: 387 A. B. C. D. Ans: 389 In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly related to engine ________________. compression ratio valve size fuel pressure cylinder clearance volume B An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will result in a/an ____________. decrease in maximum cylinder pressure increase in ignition lag decrease in fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour decrease in exhaust manifold pressure C The crankcases of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vacuum to _____________. improve fuel economy increase the air charge velocity reduce the risk of explosion all of the above C On a turbocharged, medium-speed, diesel engine, which of the following problems is an indication of a restricted air intake passage? engine is hard to start engine misses surges at governed RPM coolant temperature is too low A Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished by _____________. regulating the speed of the turbocharger rotating the fuel injector pump plunger regulating the speed of the fuel oil transfer pump changing engine timing B The air supplied to a diesel engine is compressed to___________.I. provide heat for the ignition of the fuel II. decrease injection delay

A. B. C. D. Ans: 386 A. B. C. D. Ans: 388

A. B. C. D. Ans: 390 A. B. C. D. Ans: 392 A. B. C. D. Ans: 394

A. B. C. D. Ans: 391 A. B. C. D. Ans: 393 A. B. C. D. Ans: 395

I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I or II are correct A Loss of lubricating oil pressure to the main propulsion diesel engine will actuate a/an _____________. overspeed trip audible/visual alarm the ships/boats general alarm reserve oil storage tank B The dripping of fuel from an injector nozzle after injection terminates, often results in ____________. early combustion incomplete combustion and decreased fuel consumption coking and blocking of the fuel nozzles decreased cylinder wall temperatures and increased exhaust gas temperatures C The knock occurring when a cold diesel engine is started and continues while running at low speed, but stops when the engine reaches normal operating speed and temperature, is _________________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 396

Proper timing Accurate metering Suitable injection rate Suitable atomization rate B The most crucial time for any bearing with regards to lubrication is _____________. A. during low loads B. after proper oil viscosity is reached

A. B. C. D. Ans: 397

caused by retarded injection timing caused by a mechanical defect in one cylinder caused by high fuel injection pressures normal for these conditions D Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be checked immediately after any diesel engine is started? A. Exhaust temperature B. Lube oil level

Page 28

C. during starting D. after cleaning filters Ans: C If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through 398 the internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors may be damaged by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 400 A. B. C. D. Ans: 402 A. B. C. D. Ans: 404 A. B. C. D. Ans: 406 A. B. C. D. Ans: 408 A. B. C. D. Ans: 410 A. B. C. D. Ans: 412 water condensation in the fuel corrosion of the nozzle tip carbon deposits on the leakoff inlet over lubrication of the needle valve B The effective pump stroke of an individual port-and-helix fuel injection pump is determined by the ________________. fuel delivery pressure pump plunger diameter plunger control rack position total pump stroke C Which of the following conditions will develop if the flow of "raw" cooling water to a diesel engine is obstructed? Air will enter the cooling system. Carbon will plug the water cooled exhaust manifolds. The jacket water temperature will rise. The lube oil viscosity will increase. C Which of the listed conditions will occur if a diesel engine exhaust valve is leaking? Loss of compression for that cylinder Misfiring or rough running Damage to the valve All of the above D Exhaust pyrometer readings provide an indication of the _____________. effectiveness of water-cooled exhaust elbows distribution of the load between engine cylinders amount of fuel penetration into the engine cylinders indicated horsepower of the engine cylinders B Diesel fuel oil having a low cetane rating can result in _____________. improved cold weather starting smoother engine operation combustion knock reduce ignition lag C High exhaust temperature and black smoke exhausting from an auxiliary diesel engine can be caused by _____________. engine overload low combustion temperature plugged fuel nozzle holes excessive compression pressure A Which of the following problems can cause fluctuating pressures in the closed cooling system of a main propulsion diesel engine? Defective temperature controls in the system. Cavitation in the cooling water pump. Opened vent in the cooling system. Restricted water passages in the engine. B Individual cylinder performance in a diesel engine is routinely determined by exhaust gas _____________. chemical analysis pressure readings pyrometer readings infrared analysis C The injection pressure of a hydraulic fuel injection nozzle can be increased by _____________. increasing fuel oil booster pump pressure increasing the injector nozzle orifice size removing shims from under the nozzle spring increasing compression on the pressure spring D

C. Lube oil pressure D. Water level in the expansion tank Ans: C What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder 399 shortly after ignition and before the piston reaches TDC? A. B. C. D. Ans: 401 A. B. C. D. Ans: 403 A. B. C. D. Ans: 405 A. B. C. D. Ans: 407 A. B. C. D. Ans: 409 A. B. C. D. Ans: 411 A. B. C. D. Ans: 413 Rapid increase in temperature with constant pressure. Rapid increase in pressure with constant temperature. Rapid increase in pressure and temperature. Rapid increase in volume and decrease in pressure. C The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger type fuel injection pump is controlled by _____________. rotation of the pump plunger rotation of the pump barrel varying the pump supply pressure varying the pump return pressure A The effective stroke of a constant-stroke, individual, fuel injection pump is varied by the _____________. control rack delivery valve governor speed plunger crossbar A High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel engine may result from _____________. decreased piston to cylinder head clearance increased exhaust system back pressure early fuel injection timing low scavenge air temperature C A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder has the greatest effect on the ____________. cylinder air turbulence fuel spray angle fuel injection rate combustion in that cylinder D To successfully reduce an excessively high diesel engine exhaust gas temperature, you should _____________. reduce the engine driven fuel pump outlet pressure retard the fuel injector timing to reduce power increase the fuel rack setting reduce the load on the engine D Combustion gas venting through the expansion tank can be caused by a _____________. leaking oil cooler cracked cylinder head leaking exhaust valve worn piston ring B A fuel leak occurs in the high pressure fuel piping between the injection pump and fuel nozzle. This requires immediate repair because of the _____________. high cost of fuel serious fire hazard possibility of pollution poor combustion which will occur in that cylinder B Excessive diesel engine cylinder exhaust back pressure will be caused by _____________. slight timing discrepancies heavy fuel injection an obstruction in the exhaust silencer a fouled intake manifold C Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. excessive fuel penetration prolonged injection lag reduced ignition lag prolonged ignition lag D

A. B. C. D. Ans: 414 A. B. C. D. Ans: 416 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 415 A. B. C. D. Ans: 417 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 29

418

Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans: Reduced lubrication Poor fuel economy Combustion knock Crankcase explosion D Which of the listed reasons is the most likely cause of a sudden drop in compression pressure in one diesel engine cylinder? Missing filter segment of an intake filter Malfunctioning valves Leaking fuel injector nozzle Excessively early fuel injection B Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of shutdown, prior to starting may result in _______. an air bound fuel system damage to cylinder heads and pistons excessive fuel injection excessive air valve lift B If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors can be damaged by ________________. water condensation in the fuel corrosion of the nozzle tip carbon deposits on the nozzle tip inadequate lubrication of the needle valve B The overspeed trip installed on most diesel engines will stop the engine by shutting off the ____________. water supply fuel oil supply lube oil supply exhaust damper B Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine can be caused by _____________. fuel dribbling from leaking fuel injectors burning fuel with a high carbon content burning fuel with a high vanadium content burning fuel with a lower sulphur content A Which of the following conditions can cause oil to accumulate in the cooling system of a diesel engine? Excessive valve train lubrication. Defective oil cooler core. Excessive lube oil pressure. Overfilled lube oil system. B When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is greater than that specified by the engine manufacturer, the _____________. quantity of fuel injected is decreased quantity of fuel injected will always be increased start of injection is advanced duration of injection will always be greater A The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder normally occurs _____________. at TDC before TDC after TDC during air starting C A broken pintle in a fuel injector usually causes _________. corrosion of the spray nozzle clogging of the orifices

419

One problem resulting from a diesel engine fuel injector opening pressure being lower than specified by the engine manufacturer, is that the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: start of injection will always be retarded duration of injection will always be reduced quantity of fuel injected will always be decreased quantity of fuel injected tends to be increased D A sudden drop in diesel engine cylinder compression pressure can be caused by ____________. a leaking fuel injector nozzle a clogged air filter excessively early fuel injection malfunctioning valves D Which of the listed conditions is most likely to cause a crankcase explosion? A high cooling water temperature Fuel dilution of the lube oil Excessive engine speeds Improper lube oil viscosity B A diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperatures at all cylinders. To correct this condition, you should FIRST _____________. reduce the engine load increase the cooling water flow increase the lube oil pressure adjust the fuel rack A White smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine may indicate _____________. a cracked liner burning lube oil an overloaded engine insufficient combustion air A A device which functions to bring a diesel engine to a full stop to protect it from damage is known as a/an ___________. torque limiter overspeed trip overspeed governor load limit governor B Lube oil accumulating in the cooling water system of a diesel engine will result in _____________. lube cooler failure poor heat transfer mechanical lubricator failure camshaft seizure B Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine is an indication of poor combustion which may be caused by _____________. water in the fuel insufficient fuel for combustion clogged air intake passages burning lubricating oil C Diesel engine lube oil diluted with fuel oil is indicated by _____________. decreased viscosity decreased pour point increased fclearance point increased viscosity A Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________. check cylinder lubrication prior to starting engine connect exhaust gas analyzers to determine engine efficiency

420

421

A. B. C. D. Ans: 422 A. B. C. D. Ans: 424

A. B. C. D. Ans: 423 A. B. C. D. Ans: 425

A. B. C. D. Ans: 426 A. B. C. D. Ans: 428

A. B. C. D. Ans: 427 A. B. C. D. Ans: 429

A. B. C. D. Ans: 430 A. B. C. D. Ans: 432

A. B. C. D. Ans: 431 A. B. C. D. Ans: 433

A. B. C. D. Ans: 434 A. B. C. D. Ans: 436 A. B.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 435 A. B. C. D. Ans: 437 A. B.

C. distortion of the spray pattern D. erosion of the valves Ans: C

C. pressure test cylinder heads to check for leaks D. remove moisture accumulations from cylinders prior to starting Ans: D

Page 30

438

A practical way of checking for excessive fuel injection in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine is to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: feel the high pressure fuel line check the cylinder exhausts for white smoke frequently check the cylinder exhaust temperature isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector C Which of the following problems could cause misalignment between the needle valve and nozzle in a fuel injection nozzle? A bent fuel needle. A defective nozzle tip seat. A distorted valve body. All of the above. D In the common rail system, excessive pressure in the header may be caused by _____________. improper adjustment of the bypass valve a dribble in the fuel injection nozzle insufficient leakoff through injection nozzle packing a malfunctioning injection nozzle A If the diesel engine fuel injection timing is changed to delay the start of injection until the pistons are at top dead center, the engine will _____________. backfire through the air intake develop less power under load have high firing pressures lift its cylinder relief valves B If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine, you should FIRST __________. place standby cooler in operation reduce engine load check thermostatic valve clean sea water strainer B In an operating diesel engine, preignition can be caused by _____________. excessively late fuel injection oil in the air charge water in the fuel injection continuing after the fuel charge is ignited B When fuel is injected late into a diesel engine cylinder, _____________. the exhaust will be clear fuel consumption will be low all the fuel will be burned at top dead center fuel consumption will be high D If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently while the engine is running, the cause may be an _____________. excessively late injection timing for each cylinder incorrectly adjusted intake valve timing incorrectly adjusted fuel injector incorrectly adjusted intake valve clearance C A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel engine to have _____________. higher firing pressure more power output lower fuel pressure less power output D A diesel engine fails to start because of water in the fuel. In order to start the engine, you should ____________. turn engine with jacking gear drain filters and strainers and bleed off water at each injection pump use ether to start the engine with blowdown valves open blow through the cylinders and fuel lines with a drying agent B

439

A diesel engine emits blue exhaust smoke as a result of _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: cold intake air excessive compression pressure excessive cylinder lubrication a light load C A diesel engine is operating under a normal load with low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures. The most probable cause of this condition is ________________. a missing air intake filter a restricted exhaust manifold the fuel rack being too far in the fuel rack being too far out B The highest loads applied to the diesel engine crankshaft main bearings are ____________. axial loads firing loads inertia loads centripetal loads B Increasing the compression ratio of a diesel engine while maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in ____________. increased horsepower reduced efficiency increased heat loss lower cylinder pressures A During which of the listed piston strokes of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, is the piston moving downward? Intake stroke Compression stroke Exhaust stroke Pumping stroke A Significant retardation of a diesel engine fuel injection timing will result in _____________. smoother engine operation advanced fuel ignition increased fuel economy reduced engine power D Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with _____________. high exhaust temperature low exhaust temperature fuel knock in each cylinder mechanical knock in each cylinder A When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher exhaust gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders, which of the conditions listed will be indicated? Advanced ignition Clogged air intake Leaky exhaust valve High exhaust pressure C If a few injector spray holes become plugged, the result could be _____________. excessive surging at governed speed combustion knock under load poor fuel combustion all of the above D A diesel engine piston crown can crack from ____________.

440

441

A. B. C. D. Ans: 442 A. B. C. D. Ans: 444

A. B. C. D. Ans: 443 A. B. C. D. Ans: 445

A. B. C. D. Ans: 446 A. B. C. D. Ans: 448 A. B. C. D. Ans: 450 A. B. C. D. Ans: 452

A. B. C. D. Ans: 447 A. B. C. D. Ans: 449 A. B. C. D. Ans: 451 A. B. C. D. Ans: 453

A. B. C. D. Ans: 454 A. B. C. D. Ans: 456 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 455 A. B. C. D. Ans: 457

A. excessive piston to liner clearance B. excessive dirt beneath the piston crown that reduces heat transfer. C. faulty nozzle spray D. all of the above Ans: D

Page 31

458 A. B. C. D. Ans: 460 A. B. C. D. Ans: 462 A. B. C. D. Ans: 464 A. B. C. D. Ans: 466 A. B. C. D. Ans: 468 A. B. C.

Permitting a diesel engine fuel oil day tank to run dry can cause _____________. overheated injection pumps water condensation in the cylinders fuel dilution of the lube oil air in the fuel system D Which of the following problems will occur if the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks in the open position? Fuel injection timing will change Nozzle operation will be unaffected Fuel will leak into the drain line Fuel will not be delivered A Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________. check cylinder lubrication connect the pressure indicator pressure test cylinder heads connect the exhaust gas pyrometers B Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at which excessive engine vibration is created? Non-harmonic speed. Critical speed. Maximum speed. Design maximum speed. B Which of the conditions listed would cause simultaneous high cylinder firing pressure and low exhaust temperature? Improper fuel rack positioning. Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve. Excessively early injection timing. Extended light load operation. C If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine will lose power because the _____________. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder ignition will be delayed due to low compression pressure maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke

459 A. B. C. D. Ans: 461 A. B. C. D. Ans: 463 A. B. C. D. Ans: 465 A. B. C. D. Ans: 467 A. B. C. D. Ans: 469 A. B. C.

Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will cause the engine to _____________. burn excessive amounts of lube oil overheat without smoking operate with reduced power or stop run away without load C A dry-type exhaust muffler clogged with soot, will cause _____________. low exhaust temperature loss of engine power burned intake valves engine racing B Air may be bled from the fuel system by _____________. blowing down the air tanks loosening the compression nuts at the injectors changing fuel filters pumping down the day tanks B If the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks open, _____________. fuel will leak into the nozzle drain line no fuel will be delivered through the nozzle the nozzle will overheat injection lag will be increased C Early fuel injection timing is indicated by the cylinder pressure being _____________. above normal with a below normal exhaust temperature above normal with a normal exhaust temperature below normal with a normal exhaust temperature below normal with an above normal exhaust temperature A Diesel engine air start valve timing is controlled by _____________. engine operating speed an air manifold a hydraulic distributor

D. fuel will ignite after top dead center Ans: B A diesel engine fails to start due to excessive water in the fuel. 470 Before the engine can be started, the water should be removed from the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 472 fuel lines lube oil filter crank case pump rocker arm reservoir A An increase in the load on a turbocharged diesel engine operating at constant speed will result in an increase in _____________. exhaust temperature air box pressure brake mean effective pressure all of the above D Air in the fuel can cause _____________. high lube oil temperature blue smoke the engine to stop piston seizure C Which of the following operating procedures should be carried out immediately after any diesel engine is started? Take all exhaust temperature readings. Check the sump oil level. Verify proper lube oil pressure. Check the water level in expansion tank C If sludge accumulates on the underside of a diesel engine piston, it will ______________. cause blow-by chemically attack the piston skirt

D. individual cams and valve gear Ans: D If you suspect a diesel engine is misfiring due to air leakage into 471 the fuel system, you should begin looking for the leak at the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 473 fuel line connections to the cylinder injection valves gasket surfaces of the fuel oil filters discharge fittings of the fuel injector pumps suction side of the fuel oil transfer pump D When a diesel engine is operated at partial load, as compared to full load, a decrease will occur in the average _____________. air quantity aspirated fuel injection pressure combustion pressure on the power stroke compression pressure on the compression stroke C Early injection timing is indicated by ____________. high exhaust temperature and low firing pressure high exhaust temperature and high firing pressure low exhaust temperature and low firing pressure low exhaust temperature and high firing pressure D The most common diesel engine fuel system problems are caused by _____________. incorrect adjustments dirty fuel broken fuel lines excessive vibration B Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be a direct cause of ______________. excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling sediment in the fuel supply

A. B. C. D. Ans: 474 A. B. C. D. Ans: 476 A. B. C. D. Ans: 478 A. B.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 475 A. B. C. D. Ans: 477 A. B. C. D. Ans: 479 A. B.

Page 32

C. form an emulsion of lube oil and water D. raise the piston temperature Ans: D Low cylinder compression pressure and a high exhaust 480 temperature may indicate ______________. A. early fuel injection timing B. leaking valves C. a continuously open scavenge air port D. low cooling water temperature Ans: B The loss of the diesel engine cylinder air charge through leaky 482 valves, piston rings, worn or scored liners, would be indicated by which of the following sets of conditions? A. B. C. D. Ans: 484 A. B. C. D. Ans: 486 A. B. C. D. Ans: 488 Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature Low firing pressure and high exhaust temperature Low compression pressure and low exhaust temperature Low firing pressure and low exhaust temperature A Worn cylinder head valve seats in a diesel engine will cause ____________. less cold tappet clearance more cold tappet clearance excessive pressure in hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters broken valve springs A If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine, you should FIRST __________. call the chief engineer reduce engine load check thermostatic valve clean sea water strainer B Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a large, low-speed, diesel engine is operated with one cylinder secured?

C. distortion of the fuel spray pattern D. improper atomization of the fuel Ans: B Fuel oil injected into the cylinder of a diesel engine just after the 481 piston passes top dead center, will _____________. A. increase engine power B. increase engine load C. decrease engine power D. improve fuel economy Ans: C During diesel engine warm-up, which type of tappet clearance 483 adjuster listed allows for the change in length of the exhaust valves? A. B. C. D. Ans: 485 A. B. C. D. Ans: 487 A. B. C. D. Ans: 489 Mechanical Hydraulic Pneumatic Electrical B Which operating condition of a diesel engine is indicated by excessive firing pressures? Overspeeding Overload Low exhaust temperature High crankcase pressure B A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of a/an _____________. worn cylinder liner faulty cylinder relief valve excessive lube oil pressure excessive scavenge air pressure A The most practical way of detecting an overload in one cylinder of an operating large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to _____________.

A. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increased. B. Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increased. C. Only the turbocharger speed should be reduced. D. Engine speed should be reduced. Ans: D A diesel engine could fail to start because of ____________. 490 A. B. C. D. Ans: 492 incorrect injection timing low exhaust back pressure floating exhaust valves excessive cranking speed A If you notice smoke coming from the crankcase exhaust fan outlet of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect ___________. a cracked cylinder liner clogged intake ports broken piston rings a faulty head gasket C A restricted diesel engine exhaust manifold operating under a normal load is indicated by ______________. low firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures high firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures B What color exhaust will be exhibited when a slow speed twostroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine, designed to operate on light and heavy fuel oil, is operated on insufficiently preheated heavy fuel oil?

A. check the cylinder exhausts for black smoke B. engage the starter motor with the flywheel C. isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector D. check the cylinder exhaust temperature frequently Ans: D One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow-by is _________. 491 A. B. C. D. Ans: 493 reduced scavenging high exhaust temperatures excessive lubrication floating piston pins C Which of the following conditions may need to be reduced when operating a large, low-speed, main propulsion, diesel engine at low loads? Injection pressures Control air supply pressure Cooling water flow through aftercoolers Lube oil temperature C Excessive exhaust temperatures in a two-stroke/cycle dieselengine can be caused by a/an ____________. high injection pressure high firing pressure overheated air starting line carbon build up in the exhaust ports D Immediately after starting a diesel engine, normal raw waterand jacket water pressures are indicated. However, thejacket water temperature continues to rise. If there is nochange in the sea temperature, you should suspect _________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 494 A. B. C. D. Ans: 496

A. B. C. D. Ans: 495 A. B. C. D. Ans: 497

A. B. C. D. Ans: 498

White Black Blue Clear B Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil pump, the engineer should _____________. A. open the bypass line

A. B. C. D. Ans: 499

overloading in all cylinders a jammed three-way thermostatic valve chromate pH too low a high level in the surge tank B Collapsed hydraulic valve lifters in a diesel engine will result in ____________. A. excessive rocker arm movement

Page 33

B. C. D. Ans: 500

cut in the lube oil cooler pressurize the lube oil system top off the expansion tank C Prolonged operation of a diesel engine with a closed cooling water system, at lower than normal designed operating temperatures can _____________. increase power output decrease lube oil viscosity eliminate fuel knock cause sulphuric acid formation D Immediately after any diesel engine is started, the engineer should check the ____________. crankcase pressure lube oil pressure saltwater pressure exhaust temperature B Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by ______________. high compression pressure low intake air temperature low exhaust pressure high scavenge air pressure B Which of the following problems may occur if the opening pressure of a fuel injection nozzle is greater than specified by the engine manufacturer? The amount of fuel injected will be increased. The start of injection will be retarded. The nozzle will permit fuel to dribble. The spray pattern will be distorted. B Insufficient piston cooling for a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine burning heavy fuels, can result in _____________.

B. C. D. Ans: 501

little or no valve clearance excessive valve clearance collapsed or stacked valve springs C A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine may becomeoverloaded by_______________. I. a heavily fouled hull II. strong head winds and heavy seas I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following parts should be lubricated first? Camshaft bearings Main bearings Piston crowns Cylinder walls B Diesel engine exhaust gas temperatures can be used to determine individual cylinder _____________. performance horsepower output fuel consumption scavenge effect A All of the diesel engine cylinder firing pressures are normal, yet all of the exhaust temperatures are low. Which of the following situations is responsible for this condition? Excessively early injection timing Combustion knock Leaking piston rings Light load D Which of the following factors tends to increase scale formation on the saltwater side of a heat exchanger used in a diesel engine cooling water system?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 502 A. B. C. D. Ans: 504 A. B. C. D. Ans: 506

A. B. C. D. Ans: 503 A. B. C. D. Ans: 505 A. B. C. D. Ans: 507

A. B. C. D. Ans: 508

A. B. C. D. Ans: 509

A. excessive crosshead temperatures B. dangerous thermal expansion of the piston skirt C. high temperature corrosion and burning off of piston crown metal D. change in fuel cetane number Ans: C High exhaust back pressure will result in an increase in ______________. A. turbocharger efficiency B. engine power output C. carbon deposits on fuel injectors D. cylinder scavenging Ans: C In a diesel engine, blow-by _____________. A. increases exhaust back pressure B. causes excessive crankcase pressure C. can only be detected by a compression check D. decreases fuel consumption Ans: B A cracked cylinder head on a diesel engine may be indicated by _____________. A. excessive lube oil consumption B. water draining from the fuel leak off valves C. combustion gases venting at the expansion tank D. excessive fuel oil consumption Ans: C Crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines result from _____________. A. the spclearanceing of lubrication oil by the crankshaft B. the dilution of crankcase oil with particles of combustion C. broken fuel lines spraying oil on the crankcase D. the ignition of unburned fuel and air in the crankcase Ans: D Persistent knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. This problem may be a result of ______________. A. low loading of that cylinder B. faulty combustion in that cylinder

510

511

512

513

514

515

516

517

518

519

A. Baffle plates that have been bent during prior removal. B. Leaks in the cooler tube nest. C. Operating the engine while maintaining a high sea water outlet temperature. D. A punctured sea water strainer supplying cooling water to the heat exchanger. Ans: C Any increase in the exhaust back pressure of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine will _____________. A. reduce engine power output B. aid in silencing the exhaust noise C. increase the mean effective pressure D. contribute to effective cylinder scavenging Ans: A A crack in a cylinder liner can be caused by _____________. A. worn piston rings B. installation of undersized sealing rings C. operating the engine at low loads D. restricted cooling water passages Ans: D The direct cause of a crankcase explosion can be attributed to ______________. A. extremely hot scavenge air B. excessive cooling water temperature C. an overheated bearing D. excessive lube oil in the crankcase Ans: C Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by ________________. A. low coolant temperature B. insufficient fuel C. high ambient temperature D. carbon buildup on the injector tips Ans: A Which of the conditions listed may occur in an operating diesel engine if air pockets form within the cylinder head circulating water passages? A. Hydraulic stress and distortion will develop. B. Hot spots will develop.

Page 34

520

522

524

526

C. sluggish piston ring action D. excessive piston cooling Ans: B If a diesel engine's exhaust temperature is abnormally high, the cause could be ____________. A. too light of a load B. injection timing is too early C. overloading of the engine D. too low of a compression ratio Ans: C A main propulsion diesel engine is normally shut down by _____________. A. shutting off the air supply B. overspeeding the engine C. securing the fuel supply D. securing the ignition system Ans: C White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can result from ____________. A. high exhaust temperature B. high lube oil temperature C. low turbocharge speed D. low cooling water temperature Ans: D By comparing the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel engine, one method of determining if the engine load is balanced is by the use of a ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: tachometer calorimeter pedometer pyrometer D A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapour is noted in the exhaust, this could indicate _____________. excessive cylinder lubrication a lugging engine a leaking cylinder liner overloading of one cylinder C Oil accumulating in the exhaust piping or manifold of a diesel engine can be caused by ________________. collapsed hydraulic valve lifters worn valve guides excessive crankcase vacuum excessive lube oil pressure B If a diesel engine is smoking excessively under load, the cause could be _____________. low exhaust back pressure early fuel injection in one of the cylinders compression pressure in one of the cylinders plugged injector holes D Which of the following conditions can cause excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine? Low lube oil temperature Dirty lube oil strainer Low lube oil pressure High lube oil temperature D Which of the following conditions is likely to develop if the thermocouple element of a pyrometer becomes coated with excessive amounts of combustion by-products? Indicated exhaust pressure readings will increase. Pyrometer responses will be retarded. Indicated cylinder temperature readings will increase. Indicated firing pressure readings will increase. B Late fuel injection occurring at, or after TDC in a diesel engine is indicated by excessive exhaust smoke and _____________. low exhaust temperature low firing pressure fuel knock in each cylinder mechanical knock in each cylinder

C. Fuel oil viscosity will increased. D. An increase in trapped deposits of scale and dirt. Ans: B Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles can be prevented by avoiding 521 _____________. A. excessive fuel oil temperature B. long periods of engine overload C. metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads D. hard carbon deposit and varnish on the nozzles Ans: B Excessive diesel engine back pressure may be an indication of 523 __________. A. carbon buildup in the exhaust manifold B. overcooling of the exhaust manifold C. eroded muffler baffle plates D. high injection pressure Ans: A What is the best way of stopping an overspeeding diesel engine? 525 A. B. C. D. Ans: 527 Disconnect the battery cables from the starting motor. Drain the hydraulic fluid from the governor sump. Block the flow of cooling air to the radiator. Secure the fuel supply and block the air intake D One cylinder of a diesel engine is persistently knocking and does not cease when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. Which of the following problems may be the cause? Low loading of the cylinder Excessive cooling of that piston Sluggish ring action on the piston A mechanical defect in a working part D A smoking exhaust from an operating diesel engine could be caused by ______________. low sulphur content in the fuel a loose injector inlet connection late fuel injection high injection pressure C Diesel engine operating conditions are indicated by the color of the exhaust smoke. Blue smoke can indicate _____________. low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature an overloaded engine clogged drain holes in the oil control rings complete combustion C Sticking of diesel engine piston compression rings may be caused by _____________. high compression pressure excessive ring action excessive cylinder lubrication improper ring rotation C Late fuel oil injection in a diesel engine can result in _____________. fuel knock increased power low compression pressure high exhaust temperature D When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is greater than that specified by the engine manufacturer, which of the following problems can be expected? Quantity of fuel injected tends to be decreased. Quantity of fuel injected will always be increased. Start of injection tends to be advanced. Duration of injection will always be greater. A In a diesel engine, late fuel injection is indicated by black or gray exhaust smoke with ______________. low firing pressure low exhaust temperature mechanical knock in each cylinder fuel knock in each cylinder

A. B. C. D. Ans: 529 A. B. C. D. Ans: 531

528 A. B. C. D. Ans: 530

A. B. C. D. Ans: 532 A. B. C. D. Ans: 534 A. B. C. D. Ans: 536

A. B. C. D. Ans: 533 A. B. C. D. Ans: 535 A. B. C. D. Ans: 537

A. B. C. D. Ans: 538

A. B. C. D. Ans: 539

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 35

540

Ans: B If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, you should stop the engine and _____________. A. immediately open all crankcase relief ports B. allow the engine to cool naturally C. increase crankcase exhauster speed to draw cool air into the engine D. increase crank case scavenge air to remove unburned gases Ans: B Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur when unburned fuel contaminates the crankcase of a diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans: Lube oil is diluted and its viscosity is reduced. sulphuric acid is formed. Bearings become pitted and immediately fail. Valve stems develop sludge deposits. A The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as ______________. the amount of lube oil additives increase piston speeds increase injection pressures decrease engine speeds decrease D When a fuel injection nozzle overheats, which of the problems listed can be expected? The fuel metering will vary. The fuel will explode. The cylinder head will crack. The engine will stop. A If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier than the design start of injection, ignition may be delayed because the _____________. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough cylinder compression temperature may be too high scavenge and purge process is incomplete B A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will result in _____________. late fuel injection early fuel injection high exhaust temperature from that cylinder decreased effective stroke from that injector B Water in the fuel can prevent the engine from starting, prevent it from developing full power, or ____________. run at an irregular speed create high lube oil temperature cause the engine to overspeed cause blue smoke in the exhaust A Before starting a diesel engine, you should always _____________. check the pyrometer readings check the crankcase oil level change the fuel oil strainers clean the air filter B If cooling water flow through the aftercooler is interrupted, the power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop because the _____________. turbocharger will stall density of the air charge will decrease scavenge effect will increase exhaust pressure will increase B Diesel engine fuel oil contamination often results in _____________. governor malfunctions fuel injection system malfunctions high cylinder lube oil temperatures low intake temperatures

541

Ans: A A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too late in the cycle, because the ______________. A. fuel droplets will burn as they leave the fuel injector B. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder C. maximum expansion of the burned fuel cannot take place in the cylinder D. compression pressure will be too low to cause fuel ignition Ans: C Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated byblack or gray exhaust smoke with a _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: low firing pressure low exhaust temperature mechanical knock in each cylinder fuel knock in each cylinder A Higher than normal temperature air passing through the intake of a diesel engine will result in _____________. greater overall efficiency greater fuel economy lower horsepower lower compression ratio C An increase in the fuel injection pump discharge pressure can be caused by a/an _____________. leaking delivery valve increase in engine load plugged injector spray hole increased plunger stroke C Prior to starting, the purpose of turning over a main propulsion diesel engine with the cylinder test cocks open, is to _____________. test the starting system remove condensation from the cylinders check the compression check for proper lube oil pressure B Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be directly caused by _____________. water in the fuel oil supply excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling a distorted fuel spray pattern leakage past the plunger into the oil drain A Air in the fuel lines of a diesel engine can cause _____________. ignition failure oxygen corrosion of the fuel lines the pistons to seize blue smoke A Dirt in a fuel oil system of a diesel engine can cause _____________. damage to strainers overspeeding of the engine excessive cooling of the engine injector damage D Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of designed normal load for prolonged periods will result in ____________. decreased fuel consumption per brake horsepower more complete cylinder scavenging extended valve life carbon formation on combustion chamber surfaces D Operating a diesel engine under light loads and at low temperatures for an extended period can result in _________. formation of carbon on the intake and exhaust ports high water jacket temperatures overheated pistons and cylinders an increase in lube oil viscosity due to fuel dilution

542

543

544 A. B. C. D. Ans: 546 A. B. C. D. Ans: 548

545 A. B. C. D. Ans: 547 A. B. C. D. Ans: 549

A. B. C. D. Ans: 550 A. B. C. D. Ans: 552 A. B. C. D. Ans: 554 A. B. C. D. Ans: 556

A. B. C. D. Ans: 551 A. B. C. D. Ans: 553 A. B. C. D. Ans: 555 A. B. C. D. Ans: 557

A. B. C. D. Ans: 558

A. B. C. D. Ans: 559

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 36

560

Ans: B Which of the conditions listed occurring in a diesel engine would cause carbon deposits to develop in the piston ring belt? A. B. C. D. Ans: Faulty combustion Excessive ring temperatures Over lubrication All of the above. D The burning of fuel oil in a diesel engine having a high sodium content, will cause ____________. corrosion and grooving of exhaust valves corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump salt deposits in the exhaust manifold slag deposits in the fuel injection equipment A If the relief valve on a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be due to _____________. liquid in the cylinder low compression in the cylinder high exhaust temperature poor fuel penetration A An indication of an overloaded main propulsion diesel engine is _____________. white smoke in the exhaust high exhaust gas pyrometer readings sparks in the exhaust blue smoke in the exhaust B A dark exhaust from a running diesel engine can be caused by _____________. late ignition water in the fuel high compression temperature starting valve stuck open A The color of the exhaust from a diesel engine should be___________. clear hazy light brown hazy light blue hazy light grey A A restricted air intake to a diesel engine may result in the engine _____________. failing to reach rated speed knocking under maximum load hunting or surging under light load overspeeding and running away A With regards to a diesel engine crankcase explosion, the most violent is the _____________. I. primary explosion II. secondary explosion I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from all cylinders begins to rise above normal, you should suspect _____________. increased blow-by in all cylinders incomplete combustion in all cylinders overloading in all cylinders insufficient fuel delivery to all cylinders C A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit _____________. increased starting difficulty in cold weather increased oil consumption thickening at higher operating temperatures minimal friction losses

561

Ans: A If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, which of the listed actions should be taken? A. B. C. D. Ans: Open the crankcase immediately to check for damage. Apply fire fighting water through the crankcase breather. Allow the engine to cool before opening the crankcase. Assume that there is no damage to the crankshaft. C The longer the ignition delay period resulting from improper use of low cetane fuel, the ____________. less fuel will enter the cylinder higher the cylinder combustion temperature more complete the fuel combustion more rapid the rise in combustion pressure D A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of _____________. excessive lube oil pressure the proper seating of new rings a worn cylinder liner a malfunctioning cylinder relief valve C A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause _____________. low exhaust temperature loss of engine power burned intake valves engine racing B Partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause _____________. overheating of the engine high exhaust temperatures sluggish engine operation all of the above D Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the color of the exhaust smoke. Black smoke could indicate ____________. an insufficient speed droop setting an overloaded engine clogged drain holes in the oil control rings complete combustion B The color of the engine exhaust from a diesel propelled ship should be ______________. clear hazy light brown hazy light blue hazy light grey A You are operating a main propulsion diesel engine at a constant load when the jacket water temperature begins to rise. This could be caused by ____________. a piston about to seize dirty fuel oil filters fuel oil being too heavy (viscous) high water level in the expansion tank A Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from an individual cylinder begins to rise, you should suspect _____________. overloading of adjacent cylinders overloading of that cylinder increased blow-by in that cylinder incomplete combustion in that cylinder B One result of operating a diesel engine at light load with excessively low cooling water temperatures is a/an _______. decrease in ignition lag increase in fuel economy reduction in lube oil viscosity increase in cylinder misfiring

562 A. B. C. D. Ans: 564 A. B. C. D. Ans: 566 A. B. C. D. Ans: 568 A. B. C. D. Ans: 570

563 A. B. C. D. Ans: 565 A. B. C. D. Ans: 567 A. B. C. D. Ans: 569 A. B. C. D. Ans: 571

A. B. C. D. Ans: 572 A. B. C. D. Ans: 574

A. B. C. D. Ans: 573 A. B. C. D. Ans: 575

A. B. C. D. Ans: 576

A. B. C. D. Ans: 577

A. B. C. D. Ans: 578

A. B. C. D. Ans: 579

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 37

580

Ans: A Which of the following conditions will tend to increase the ignition delay period of combustion in a compression ignition engine? A. B. C. D. Ans: Using a fuel oil with a higher cetane number. Decreasing the air charge temperature. Reducing the injected fuel oil droplet size. increasing the compression ratio B A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would most greatly affect _____________. air turbulence fuel penetration fuel spray angle fuel injection rate B Diesel engine exhaust temperatures may be used to indicate _____________. leaking exhaust valves an overloaded cylinder a clogged injector nozzle all of the above D Combustion knock can occur in the cylinders of a diesel engine under any condition permitting _____________. a shortened ignition delay period a lean fuel/air mixture excess fuel in the combustion chamber rapid vaporization of injected fuel droplets C A cracked cylinder head in an operating engine may be indicated by _____________. a steady flow of water from the expansion tank vent combustion gases venting at the expansion tank lower temperature at the cylinder head water discharge water draining from the fuel leakoff lines B When oil vapor, oxygen and hot spots are present at the sametime within a crankcase, which of the following hazards could develop? Explosion Implosion Misfire Dieseling A An automated diesel engine should normally shut down due to _____________. low lube oil temperature high ambient air temperature low lube oil pressure high exhaust system back pressure C One remedy for a high firing pressure, in addition to a high exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine, is to ____________. increase scavenge air pressure reduce fuel booster pump pressure adjust the fuel rack retard fuel injector timing C A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause _____________. high firing pressure corrosion of the nozzle tip low fuel pressure loss of power D White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. low combustion temperature a leaking fuel nozzle check valve late fuel injection plugged oil scraper ring holes A

581

Ans: D In a diesel engine, excessive cylinder liner wear willcause ___________.I. increased blowby II. wear between the piston ring and groove A. B. C. D. Ans: I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I or II are correct C The longer the ignition delay period occurs in a diesel engine, the _____________. less fuel will enter the cylinder lower will be cylinder compression temperatures more complete will be fuel combustion more rapid will be the rise in combustion pressure D Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will result in _____________. the elimination of valve wear improved atomization a decrease in cylinder blow-by an increase in cylinder blowby B Persistent knocking in one cylinder of an eight cylinder diesel engine would MOST likely be caused by _____________. using fuel oil with low cetane number a badly worn piston pin a loose flywheel key a loose bedplate bolt B Coolant can be lost from a diesel engine jacket cooling water system by leakage from _____________. cylinder head cracks piping joints pump seals leaking all of the above D A possible cause for an individual piston to knock when at TDC on a slow-speed, two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine could be due to ____________. early fuel injection excessive bearing play within the running gear overloading of the cylinder all of the above D Routine monitoring of a diesel engine should include _____________. checking for leaks checking temperatures and pressures listening for abnormal noises all of the above D If a diesel engine is difficult to start and operates with the engine temperatures lower than normal, you should suspect that the _____________. compression pressures are below normal lube oil is diluted with fuel oil cranking speed is too low exhaust system is partially restricted A White smoke issuing from the exhaust of an auxiliary diesel engine could mean _____________. the engine is overloaded the engine is cold there is too much lube oil in the cylinders the turbocharger is fouled B Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating diesel engine can be caused by ______________. an overheated engine a scored cylinder liner water leaking into a cylinder low combustion temperature B

582 A. B. C. D. Ans: 584 A. B. C. D. Ans: 586 A. B. C. D. Ans: 588 A. B. C. D. Ans: 590

583 A. B. C. D. Ans: 585 A. B. C. D. Ans: 587 A. B. C. D. Ans: 589 A. B. C. D. Ans: 591

A. B. C. D. Ans: 592 A. B. C. D. Ans: 594

A. B. C. D. Ans: 593 A. B. C. D. Ans: 595

A. B. C. D. Ans: 596 A. B. C. D. Ans: 598 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 597 A. B. C. D. Ans: 599 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 38

600

One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can beput on a modern marine diesel engine is the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: governor sensitivity exhaust temperature fuel injection pressure speed of the cam shaft B If a diesel engine runs roughly, which of the systems listed is most likely to be at fault? Fuel Lubricating Cooling Ignition A Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out prior to starting a crosshead type diesel engine after an overhaul? Prelube cylinders with hand cranks. Open all air space drain cocks. Open all indicator valves. all of the above D Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with _____________. low exhaust temperature low exhaust pressure mechanical knock in each cylinder black or gray exhaust smoke D An incorrect spray pattern produced by a diesel engine fuel injection nozzle can be directly caused by _____________. overheating of the nozzle overcooling of the nozzle carbon blockage of the spray holes excessive lube oil tempertures B A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause __________. prolonged maintenance intervals improved atomization greater fuel economy incomplete combustion D When fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle, it may cause the engine to have _____________. high fuel economy smoky exhaust early detonation and a loss of power

601

White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by a ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: high combustion temperature high compression pressure cracked cylinder liner fuel with a high vanadium content C One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of _______________. injection pump plungers stuck or worn low compression solenoid stuck open fuel tank too full A Plugged spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector will cause excessive smoking at idling speed, in addition to _____________. damage to pistons or cylinder heads detonation throughout the load range preignition throughout the load range excessive smoking when the engine is under load D Distortion of the spray pattern of a nozzle or injector may be indicated by a/an _____________. high firing pressure overload of that particular cylinder smoky exhaust cooling water temperature rise C High cylinder firing pressure, accompanied by low exhaust temperature, can result from _____________. improper fuel rack positioning lengthy exhaust valve duration extended operation at light load excessively early injection timing D Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by _________. poor cooling of cylinder walls improper cooling of the piston insufficient piston lubrication all of the above D A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early because the _____________. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder ignition will be delayed due to low ignition temperature maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke

602 A. B. C. D. Ans: 604

603 A. B. C. D. Ans: 605

A. B. C. D. Ans: 606 A. B. C. D. Ans: 608 A. B. C. D. Ans: 610 A. B. C. D. Ans: 612 A. B. C.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 607 A. B. C. D. Ans: 609 A. B. C. D. Ans: 611 A. B. C. D. Ans: 613 A. B. C.

D. high exhaust temperatures Ans: C When fuel is injected in a diesel engine cylinder too early, 614 _____________. A. ignition may be delayed B. fuel economy is not affected C. exhaust gas temperature will be unchanged D. the exhaust will be clear Ans: A When high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures occur 616 simultaneously in a diesel engine, this may be a result of ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 618 decreased piston-to-cylinder head clearance increased exhaust back pressure early timing of fuel injection low scavenge air temperature C Which of the following statements represents the reason for rolling over a diesel engine with the cylinder indicator cocks open prior to starting?

D. fuel will ignite before top dead centre Ans: B Which of the following should always be checked prior to starting a 615 diesel engine? A. Air filters B. Fuel oil strainers C. Crank case oil level D. Pyrometer readings Ans: C If the firing pressures in a diesel engine are high, although the 617 exhaust temperatures are normal, the cause may be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 619 early injection timing worn orifices in the injection nozzles worn or scored cylinder liners using a fuel with too low of a cetane number B In order to start a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on high viscosity fuel after an extended shutdown, the ____________. fuel must be preheated intake air should be preheated none of the above lube oil outlet temperature should be increased 20 above normal

To test the starting system. To remove air bubbles from the jacket water. To ensure that the lube oil system delivers pressure. To ensure foreign material ( water, etc ) is not present in the cylinders Ans: D A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Ans: A

Page 39

620 A. B. C. D. Ans: 622 A.

After starting a diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions should be checked FIRST? Air box pressure Lube oil pressure Exhaust temperatures Raw water pressure B A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long periods of time because _____________. heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the valves and in the exhaust

621 A. B. C. D. Ans: 623 A.

What harmful condition can result if a diesel engine is operated at very light loads for long periods of time? Increased carbon buildup. Burning of intake valves. Excessive firing pressures. Increased fuel consumption. A The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be increased by operating an engine ____________. equipped with a crankcase exhaust blower which vents to fresh air

B. fuel dilution is increased at low load C. exhaust valves may be damaged D. all of the above Ans: D The main propulsion diesel continues running after you try to shut 624 down. You should now attempt to _____________. A. stop the air supply B. engage the jacking gear C. secure the lube oil pump D. shut off the fuel at the day tank Ans: A If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due 626 to severe overheating, the crankcase _____________. A. inspection covers should not be opened until the engine has cooled B. ventilation system should be continued in operation for one hour for cooling C. scavenge pump should be immediately secured to prevent loss of lube oil D. explosion covers should be opened slightly to provide extra ventilation Ans: A Following an overhaul of a crosshead type diesel engine, the 628 engine is jacked over with the turning gear as part of the pre-start procedure. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out? A. B. C. D. Ensure proper cylinder lube oil flow. Open all air space drain cocks. Open all indicator valves. all of the above

B. with a leaking crankcase inspection cover gasket C. with a crankcase vacuum between 38mm and 50mm of water D. equipped with a turbocharger which utilizes a gear drive Ans: B Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by 625 ______________. A. carbon deposits in the combustion space B. carbon deposits on the piston crown C. leaking cylinder liner seal rings D. carbon deposits on the piston Ans: D Which of the following conditions indicates the dilution of diesel 627 engine lube oil by fuel oil? A. Water discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier. B. Fuel oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier. C. Lube oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier. D. A change in the lube oil viscosity. Ans: D A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is operating at rated load and speed while the vessel is in calm seas. As the intensity of the seas increase, the engine speed governor maintains the same RPM, although the load indicator indicates an in A. B. C. D. Increase the load limit setting. Decrease the load limit setting. Increase engine RPM. Ignore this situation as the engine can handle the load increase.

629

630

Ans: D A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: a leaking fuel injection nozzle a clogged air filter early fuel injection burned valves D An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates _____________. worn connecting rod bearings worn engine cylinder liners high cylinder firing pressure stuck spring loaded manhole covers B If a diesel engine were running at 20% overload with a smoky exhaust, you should _____________. stop the engine immediately to prevent damage increase lube oil pressure slow the engine allowing it to gradually cool decrease the cooling water temperature to the water jacket C If a diesel engine turned over at normal cranking speed but failed to start, the cause could be late fuel injection or _____________. excessive fuel pressure high lube oil viscosity inadequate fuel injection excessive starting air pressure

631

Ans: B Which of the conditions listed could cause the cylinder relief valves on a large, low-speed, propulsion diesel engine to lift? A. B. C. D. Ans: Plugged injector nozzles Excessive fuel injection Very late injection timing Incorrect crankshaft clearances B An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates excessive _____________. compression pressure lube oil header pressure scavenge air pressure piston ring blow-by D The starting air rotates a diesel engine at the proper speed, but the engine fails to start. You should check _____________. the overspeed trip for an obstructed air filter for air-bound fuel lines all of the above D An increase in power output of a turbocharged diesel engine operating at a constant engine speed results in _____________. higher exhaust temperature increased turbocharger speed higher air box pressure All of the above are correct.

632 A. B. C. D. Ans: 634

633 A. B. C. D. Ans: 635

A. B. C. D. Ans: 636

A. B. C. D. Ans: 637

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 40

638

Ans: C An accumulation of carbon on one of its thermocouples of an exhaust gas pyrometer will ______________. A. read low for that location due to the insulation effect of the deposits

639

B. read high for that location due to the hot spots formed by the deposits C. fluctuate due to the conductance of carbon D. respond quickly to temperature changes Ans: A Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine indicates 640 _____________. A. proper fuel injection B. water in the fuel C. incomplete combustion D. burning of lube oil Ans: C Combustion knock will most likely occur as a result of using a fuel 642 with _____________. A. low ignition quality B. a high volatility C. low ignition delay D. a high cetane number Ans: A If a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is overspeeding due to leakage 644 of lube oil into the cylinders, what should you do to stop the engine?

Ans: D Which of the listed set of conditions indicates early fuel injection timing? A. Lower than normal compression pressure and high exhaust temperature B. Higher than normal firing pressure and low exhaust temperature

C. High fuel consumption and high exhaust temperatures D. Loss of engine power and high exhaust temperatures Ans: B Clogged or partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can 641 cause _____________. A. overspeeding of the engine B. failure of the engine to shut down C. no effect of engine performance D. high exhaust temperatures Ans: D Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine may be caused by 643 _____________. A. excessive scavenging air pressure B. high coolant temperature C. insufficient fuel D. a clogged air cleaner Ans: D A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine operates erratically, overspeeds, 645 and fails to restart when cranked at normalspeed. Which of the following problems is the most likelycause for the engine failing to restart? A. B. C. D. Ans: 647 Improper governor operation due to excess oil pressure Damage to the governor due to excessive speed Failure to reset the overspeed trip Failure to reposition the fuel rack C If it becomes necessary to cutout an individual cylinder of a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, the fuel to that cylinder should be secured and its ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 646

Move the fuel control mechanism to the no fuel position. Block the fuel supply by closing the master fuel valve. Shut off the fuel supply and block the flow of intake air. Relieve all pressure in the fuel system. C When running a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on heavy fuel, which of the following precautions should be observed when switching back over to diesel oil?

A. The diesel oil must never be allowed to mix with the heavy fuel. B. The temperature of the fuel from the preheater should be gradually reduced after switching over the three-way valve. C. The heating steam to the preheater should be secured as soon as the diesel fuel passes through the three-way valve. D. The heating steam must be secured before the diesel oil passes through the three-way valve. Ans: B Late fuel injection timing is indicated by ____________. 648 A. lower than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature B. lower than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature C. higher than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature D. higher than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature Ans: B 649 A. B. C. D. Ans: 651

A. fuel pump should be removed and all connections blanked off B. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased slightly above that used at normal sea speed C. cylinder oil feed rate should be reduced D. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased to the maximum flow capable of the metering pump Ans: C

MOTOR - MAINTENANCE Bearing wear on a split sleeve type bearing is measured with a Wear occurring at the tips of the reduction gear teeth is usually the 650 ____________. result of _____________. ball anvil micrometer A. surface fatigue pair of outside calipers and a dial indicator B. fretting corrosion pair of inside calipers C. heavy overloading depth micrometer D. gear misalignment A Ans: D While inspecting the main bearings on a diesel engine you find When a nozzle tester is being used to test a "closed" type fuel 652 impregnated dirt and scratches in the bearing surface. You would, injection nozzle, a clogged nozzle orifice will be indicated by a therefore, suspect that ___________. ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 654 distorted spray pattern chattering sound when the nozzle closes squealing sound midway in the pump stroke popping sound when the nozzle opens A When disassembling or assembling an injection pump plunger and barrel you should _____________. A. keep the parts immersed in diesel fuel B. always keep the plunger and barrel together C. work over a linoleum-type surface

A. B. C. D. Ans: 653

the bearing had been overheated water was present in the oil the lube oil was not being properly filtered the maximum allowable bearing pressure had been exceeded C The spray holes in diesel engine fuel valves should be cleaned using carbon solvent and _____________. A. diesel fuel B. a special cleaning wire C. a copper wire brush

Page 41

D. a shaved wooden dowel Ans: B Visual inspection of a fuel injector valve, removed during overhaul, 655 shows heat discoloration of the lower end of the valve. This is indicative of ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 657 A. B. C. D. Ans: 659 A. B. C. D. Ans: 661 A. B. C. D. valve leakage insufficient valve lift choking of nozzle holes return check valve leakage A Uneven bolt tightening during the installation of a fuel injection pump can result in _____________. binding of pump moving parts ignition delay high torsional shock to fuel lines improper pump-to-engine timing A If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes damaged, _____________. the entire pump must be replaced the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced either the barrel or plunger must be replaced the barrel and plunger must be lapped and blued. A Cracking of a diesel piston crown can result from ____________.

D. all of the above Ans: D A visual inspection of the chrome plated piston compression rings 656 at the liner ports reveals vertical brown streaks on the face of the rings. This condition indicates __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 658 A. B. C. D. Ans: 660 A. B. C. D. Ans: 662 A. B. C. D. Ans: 664 A. a broken ring normal conditions ring blow-by a leaky fuel injector C In a diesel engine, a cylinder liner should be replaced if it is ______________.I. scuffed II. scored I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I or II are correct B Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring grooving tool? Steel brush Fine emery cloth or steel wool A section of the removed compression ring A case hardened scraper C It is easier to replace a dry cylinder liner than a wet one because ____________. of the thin wall thickness honing makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film water seals are not required it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the composite wall C Insufficient end clearance on newly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine will cause the rings to ______________. jam in the least worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand

excessive piston to liner clearance all of the above faulty nozzle spray the underside of the piston crown being excessively dirty, lowering the rate of heat transfer Ans: D To facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings, while 663 still providing extended ring wear, __________. A. inlaid rings can be utilized in which the chrome center of the ring face slightly protrudes beyond the cast iron edges B. the cylinder surface is honed to the smoothest surface attainable C. a taper faced ring can be used D. rings with increased back clearance are provided Ans: C Heavy fuel oils generally have an upper average ash content of 665 0.1% by weight. Which of the following conditions could be expected if the ash content increases above this amount? A. Glazing of the cylinder liners B. Increased valve wear C. Excessive oil pumping D. Increased fuel consumption Ans: B To determine the main bearing clearance of a propulsion diesel 667 engine, you should measure the main bearing shell using a ball anvil outside micrometer and measure the crankshaft journal using a/an _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 669 A. B. C. D. telescoping gauge ring "snap" gauge inside vernier caliper outside micrometer D The consistent burning of fuel oil with a high sulphur content in a diesel engine will result in _____________. clogged fuel injection pumps increased cylinder liner wear intake valve stem corrosion varnish deposit on pistons

B. break in the most worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand C. wear eccentrically on the side opposite the end gap D. overheat and jam at the top center on the combustion stroke Ans: A The face surface appearance of a shallow groove, stainless steel, 666 chrome plated compression ring should exhibit through its operating life a ____________. A. smooth, shallow groved, chrome surface B. smooth surface of stainless steel C. smooth surface displaying areas of stainless steel and chrome D. surface of gradually deepening grooves Ans: A Visual inspection of chrome-plated piston compression rings 668 reveals a black ring face at the position of the cylinder liner ports. This condition indicates a ring which ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 670 A. B. C. D. has a crown-face exceeds wear limits through normal wear has excessive blow-by is in good condition C Burning fuel with a high sulphur content in a diesel engine will _____________. increase thermal efficiency cause clogging of the fuel system increase the ability of the engine to start in cold weather produce corrosion in the cylinder and exhaust system at low loads

671

Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear is true? A. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder. B. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston ring and groove. C. Excessive, but uniform liner wear will not cause wear between piston ring and groove. D. Liner wear is distributed equally between the upper and lower portions of the cylinder.

672

Ans: D Generally, where should you expect to find the greatest amount of wear on a cylinder liner? A. Adjacent to the piston skirt when the crank is on TDC. B. Along the lower part of the liner wall opposite the oil control ring. C. Opposite the top ring shortly after piston travel has ended the compression stroke. D. Opposite the oil control ring when the crank is on bottom dead center.

Page 42

673

Ans: B Worn main bearings will cause the compression ratio of an auxiliary diesel engine to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: increase decrease remain the same increase on compression; decrease on expansion B Diesel engine crankshaft deflection readings are generally taken at four crank positions. Good engineering practice requires the deflection gauge or indicator to be ___________. placed as near the crankpin axis as possible removed each time the crankshaft is repositioned left in place for all four readings reset to zero for all four readings C Small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are an indication of _____________. corrosion fretting insufficient lubrication abnormal wear fatigue failure D Diesel engine piston ring blow-by is usually caused by excessive ring clearance at the ring ____________. back side gap bottom C Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine due to the ____________. side thrust skirt making the greatest amount of contact highest pressures being exerted tremendous acceleration rate C Failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder when replacing the piston rings, will result in ____________. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands scored piston walls damaged cylinder liners deformed piston skirts A Water accumulation in the cylinder of a secured engine is an indication that the _____________. fresh water pump was not secured along with the engine jacket water thermostat has failed cylinder liner may be cracked sea water pump is overspeeding just prior to engine shutdown

674

Ans: C The insertion of shims between the foot of a marine type connecting rod and a bearing box would result in __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: increased compression ratio decreased compression ratio increased bearing clearance decreased bearing clearance A An acceptable method of measuring for the correct rotational force applied to the connecting rod and main bearing bolts, is to use a _____________. torque wrench monkey wrench pipe wrench slugging wrench A If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine, the cause may be due to _____________. a cracked cylinder head a leaky cylinder head gasket a cracked cylinder liner all of the above D Diesel engine "blow-by" into the crankcase is caused by excessive ring ____________. back clearance side clearance gap clearance taper clearance C Which of the following operations will have a direct impact on the rate of wear in a cylinder liner ____________. amount of scavenge air to the cylinder quality of fuel injected viscosity of the lube oil compression ratio of the piston B Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result from _____________. starting the engine while hot knurling the piston skirt operating the engine overheated scuff resistant piston rings C The formation of carbon monoxide in diesel exhaust gases is reduced by ____________. spraying water into the exhaust pipe keeping the exhaust system free of carbon deposits maintaining proper combustion and scavenging avoiding light load operation

675

676

A. B. C. D. Ans: 677 A. B. C. D. Ans: 679 A. B. C. D. Ans: 681 A. B. C. D. Ans: 683

A. B. C. D. Ans: 678 A. B. C. D. Ans: 680 A. B. C. D. Ans: 682 A. B. C. D. Ans: 684

A. B. C. D. Ans: 685 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 686 A. B. C. D.

687

Ans: C The amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be accurately determined by comparing the data from a previous reading to the present readings taken with a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: dial indicating outside caliper telescoping gauge ball anvil outside micrometer screw thread outside micrometer C The amount of wear on a split, fixed sleeve-type, main diesel bearing can be accurately determined with a ________. dial indicating outside caliper spider gauge ball anvil outside micrometer screw thread outside micrometer C Improper cooling of a diesel engine cylinder liner due to the accumulation of scale deposits, may cause _____________. low compression pressure increased piston wear increased cylinder lube oil consumption

688

Ans: C On a diesel engine equipped with individual jerk type fuel pumps, adjustments should be made to the tappets (push rods) of the pumps to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: equalize effective delivery strokes regulate combustion pressures regulate exhaust temperatures change from light to heavy fuel A Friction, engine wear, and oil consumption in a diesel engine are directly related to the ____________. acidity of the oil pour point of the oil fclearance point of the oil viscosity of the oil D The nuts of main bearings, connecting rod bolts and all other moving parts are to be secured by ________. hardened steel nut locks cotter pins made of spring steel split pins or other effective means

689 A. B. C. D. Ans: 691 A. B. C.

690 A. B. C. D. Ans: 692 A. B. C.

Page 43

D. poor contact between compression rings and liner Ans: B The easiest way to locate a defective diesel engine exhaust valves is by _____________. A. taking compression readings B. inspecting the valves visually C. comparing exhaust pyrometer readings D. listening to the engine Ans: C If it becomes necessary to clean the spray holes in a diesel engine 695 fuel injector, you should use a suitable size piano wire and ______________. 693 A. B. C. D. Ans: 697 gasoline carbon solvent degreasing compound strong detergent B An acceptable means of tightening connecting rod and mainbearing cap bolts is to measure the ___________. I. torque applied to each nut and bolt assembly II. stretch of each nut before and after tightening I only II only both I and II neither I nor II A Problems with the diesel engine fuel injection pump are usually caused by _____________. improper adjustment contaminated fuel kinked fuel lines excessive engine vibration B When a diesel engine is operated with a piston ring having a cold gap clearance less than that recommended by the manufacturer, the ring will ____________. seize and buckle seat in more slowly slap in the groove stick in the groove A Failure to remove the carbon ridge at the top of the cylinder when removing a piston may result in ___________. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands scored piston walls damaged cylinder liners deformed piston skirts A When inspecting piston rings through the ports of a twostroke/cycle diesel engine, black areas on the sealing surfaces are the result of ______________. insufficient lubrication improper piston cooling blow-by overload operation C Excessive side clearance between a piston ring and its groove will cause the ring to ______________. expand excessively under operating temperatures scuff the cylinder liner excessively hammer the piston land above the ring hammer the piston land below the ring D One method of determining crankshaft misalignment is by ______________. laying a straight edge across the crank webs at the crankpin and measuring the distance to the crankpin in two places measuring the crank drop on either side of each crank throw while the crankshaft is slowly rotated through one revolution

D. hydraulic nuts as commonly found on large low speed engines Ans: C Engine coolant accumulating in the diesel engine lubricating oil can result from a _____________. A. low oil pressure B. high coolant pressure C. leaking fuel injector D. cracked cylinder head or liner Ans: D While overhauling a jerk-type fuel pump it is necessary to replace 696 the pump plunger. Which of the parts listed below must also be replaced? 694 A. B. C. D. Ans: 698 Delivery check valve Pump barrel Tubing to the injector Cam follower B In a diesel engine, when refitting piston rings youshould__________. I. check the ring gap at the smallest diameter of the cylinder II. remove carbon from the ring groove I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C Dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzle will cause _____________. erosion and cratering of the nozzle orifices fuel leakage into the nozzle drain line fuel leakage before and after injection insufficient fuel delivery through that nozzle C Due to excessive water in the fuel, a diesel engine fails to start. Before the engine can be started, the water must be removed from the ____________. fuel pumps cylinders fuel strainers all of the above D If the piston ring gap remains insufficient when installing new rings, you should ___________. install oversized rings hone the cylinder liner to allow ring installation compress the rings tighter with a compressing tool file the ends of the rings D An examination of the piston compression rings of an efficiently operating diesel engine, should appear with a ___________. shiny face and bottom, black back and top shiny face, black top, back and bottom shiny face, bottom, back and top black face, bottom, back and top A In certain cases, a cylinder liner can be refinished rather than replaced. When properly honed, the _____________. cylinder should be cleaned with kerosene cylinder liner should have a glazed appearance liner surface should have a crosshatch pattern counterbore is slick and smooth C Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear in a single acting diesel engine is correct? Uniformly excessive liner wear will not cause wear on the piston rings and grooves. Liner wear is distributed equally between upper and lower portions of the cylinder.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 699 A. B. C. D. Ans: 701

A. B. C. D. Ans: 700 A. B. C. D. Ans: 702

A. B. C. D. Ans: 703 A. B. C. D. Ans: 705

A. B. C. D. Ans: 704 A. B. C. D. Ans: 706

A. B. C. D. Ans: 707 A. B. C. D. Ans: 709 A. B.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 708 A. B. C. D. Ans: 710 A. B.

C. rotating the crankshaft through one revolution, pausing each 90 of rotation to measure bearing clearances, top and bottom D. taking micrometer readings between the crank webs opposite the crankpin every 90 of crank angle rotation

C. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston rings and grooves. D. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder.

Page 44

711

Ans: D On a large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, lower main bearing wear is usually measured by using a/an ______. A. B. C. D. Ans: dial indicator outside caliper bridge gauge tram rod C Abnormal crankpin bearing and piston skirt surface wear indicate _____________. a restricted air intake a clogged connecting rod oil passage incorrect connecting rod alignment high cylinder firing temperatures C The ring lands on a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine piston may crack due to _____________. insufficient cylinder liner wear contaminated lubricating oil high main lubricating oil system temperature insufficient ring groove clearance D If the compression rings on a diesel engine piston become stuck in the ring groove, the cause may be due to ______________. excessive ring action excessive ring temperature improper ring rotation excessive ring face wear B Low compression in a diesel engine could be caused by ________________. worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings high cooling water temperature worn or broken piston rings low fuel oil pressure C Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. improperly seating intake valves leaking cylinder liner seal rings late fuel injection timing carbon deposits on the piston A Low compression pressure in a diesel engine may be the result of ______________. insufficient fuel supply due to fuel pump valves sticking or leaking

712

Ans: C The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: quality of air filtration effectiveness of lubrication type of fuel used all of the above D To determine the main bearing clearances in a dieselengine, you should use _____________. a depth micrometer an anvil faced micrometer plasti-gauge a vernier caliper C Incomplete combustion in a running diesel engine can cause piston rings to become stuck as a result of _____________. residual carbon deposits lube oil viscosity breakdown uneven heat expansion of the rings uneven heat expansion of the piston A A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring ____________. gap side back radial B Low compression pressure in a diesel engine is caused by ___________. low water in the expansion tank improperly seated valves low fuel oil pressure worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings B Which of the listed problems can be a cause of low compression pressure in a diesel engine? Clogged air filter Leaky valve cage Burned exhaust valves All of the above D When a nozzle tester is used to check the spray pattern of an injection nozzle, _____________. the nozzle should operate within plus or minus 500 pounds of the specified opening pressure the nozzle should not make any noise when pressure is applied

713 A. B. C. D. Ans: 715 A. B. C. D. Ans: 717

714 A. B. C. D. Ans: 716 A. B. C. D. Ans: 718

A. B. C. D. Ans: 719 A. B. C. D. Ans: 721 A. B. C. D. Ans: 723 A.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 720 A. B. C. D. Ans: 722 A. B. C. D. Ans: 724 A. B.

B. excessive mechanical clearance between the piston crown and cylinder head C. excessively worn fuel pump plunger D. excessive exhaust back pressure Ans: B When a piston is removed from a diesel engine for maintenance, the piston should be examined for ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 727 scoring cracks and burned spots gummy deposits and sticking rings all of the above D After removing an old set of rings, which of the following conditions is indicated if a bright spot is found on each end of a broken piston ring?

725

C. the valve should pop at 1/2 the actual set pressure D. the oil spray could cause blood poisoning if the spray penetrates the skin of the operator Ans: D To reduce load during jacking operations, which of the listed 726 devices should be opened? A. B. C. D. Ans: 728 Fuel line Expansion tank Cylinder test valves Sea valve C After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit, the drive gear, or pinion disengages from the flywheel due to ______________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 729

Improper lubrication Excessive diametrical tension Insufficient ring pressure Insufficient gap clearance D Bearing "crush" as applied to diesel engine main bearings, will result in _____________. A. positive seating of the bearings in their housings B. above normal operating temperatures C. damage to the journals

A. B. C. D. Ans: 730

the action of a spring rotation of the starting cam the higher rotating speed of the flywheel Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter. C Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of ____________. A. worn main bearing journals B. torsional stress deformation C. slack thrust bearings

Page 45

D. damage to the bearings Ans: A When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two731 stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to avoid carbon _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 733 A. B. C. D. Ans: 735 entering the cylinder particles becoming lodged under the intake valves entering the water jacket particles entering lube oil A A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal ____________. firing pressure exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder cooling water temperature compression pressure B The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of diesel engine wet cylinder liners normally occurs ____________. throughout the lower one-half of the liner throughout the upper one-half of the liner at TDC opposite the thrust side of the liner near the middle of the thrust side of the liner D Which of the listed cylinder liner surface conditions indicates proper lubrication? Dull black appearance. Bright appearance. Thin layer of lacquer. thick oil film B To minimize the formation of carbon deposits on fuel injection nozzles, you should _____________. avoid using liquid-cooled nozzles whenever possible avoid low cooling water temperatures avoid prolonged overloading of the engine make certain the gasket seal between the nozzle and cylinder head is tight C You are inspecting the lower main precision bearings on a diesel engine. You observe that about half the thin babbitt linings are of a milky white color. This condition is caused by _____________. large dirt particles in the oil supply insufficient lubricating oil and overheating normal wear water contamination of the lube oil D Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil pumps, a worn plunger requires _____________. grinding the spare plunger to the barrel replacing the plunger and the barrel highly polishing both the plunger and barrel replacing plunger only B When inspecting pistons, liners, and rings of a large twostroke/cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports, a wet piston crown would indicate a ____________. faulty piston lubricator leaky fuel injector broken compression ring faulty oil ring B If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes damaged, _____________. only the replacement of the entire pump would be acceptable the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced either the barrel or plunger must be replaced the barrel and plunger must be replaced as a unit D The side clearance of the compression rings on diesel engine pistons is necessary to _____________. permit gas pressure behind and on top of the rings prevent carbon accumulation behind the rings

D. bearing shells shim dimensions Ans: A The replacement piping for diesel engine high pressure fuel 732 systems must be the same length and diameter as the original piping to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 734 A. B. C. D. Ans: 736 avoid unnecessary parts inventory keep torsional vibration constant use existing supports and braces lube oil system D In a diesel engine, a leaking exhaust valve can cause _____________. misfiring preignition interrupted scavenging reduced scavenging A Exhaust valve grooving and corrosion is caused by certain components of residual fuel oil. These components are sodium, sulphur, and _____________. vanadium carbon copper ash A A well-lubricated bearing surface always appears __________. well knurled slightly streaked lightly glazed highly polished D The principal hazard to personnel when a diesel nozzle tester is in use is _____________. electrical shock toxic fumes explosion blood poisoning

A. B. C. D. Ans: 737 A. B. C. D. Ans: 739 A. B. C. D. Ans: 741

A. B. C. D. Ans: 738 A. B. C. D. Ans: 740 A. B. C. D.

742

Ans: D You are testing a non-popping closed fuel injection nozzle using a nozzle tester. A pressure slightly less than design valve opening pressure is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip, the _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: nozzle orifices are too small nozzle orifices are eroded needle valve is defective needle valve is seating properly D Which of the fuel nozzles listed requires the LEAST maintenance? Pintle Single hole Multi-hole open A Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring grooving tool used to remove hard carbon deposits from piston ring grooves in preparation for installing new rings? Steel brush Fine emery cloth or steel wool A section of the removed compression ring A case hardened scraper C Surface irregularities, such as erosion and pitting on injection pump plungers, will _____________. increase ignition delay affect fuel oil metering affect engine performance at low speed only disappear due to fuel oil abrasion B If lost motion is present in an individual fuel injection pump, which of the following problems will occur? Fuel injection will be increased. Fuel injection will remain unchanged.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 743 A. B. C. D. Ans: 745

744 A. B. C. D. Ans: 746

A. B. C. D. Ans: 747 A. B. C. D. Ans: 749 A. B.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 748 A. B. C. D. Ans: 750 A. B.

Page 46

C. allow for lube oil drainage behind the rings D. prevent combustion gases burning the ring grooves Ans: A In a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, if the injectors 751 have formed carbon around the nozzle holes, which of the following would help avoid further buildup? A. B. C. D. Ans: 753 Increase fuel injection pressure. Increase fuel preheat temperature. Decrease load limit on the governor. Increase injector cooling water temperature. D In a diesel engine, when installing new piston rings it isimportant to check _____________. I. ring gap clearance II. side clearance I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a twostroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to avoid carbon particles _____________. entering the lube oil entering the cylinder entering the water jacket become lodged under the intake valves B A defective injector nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause _____________. engine power losses smoking due to unburned fuel high exhaust temperature readings all of the above D When turning a new cylinder head stud on a lathe, the minimum effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the _____________. stud length stud diameter head nut diameter stud material B In a large low-speed diesel engine excessive piston clearance can be restored by ____________.

C. Fuel injection will occur earlier. D. Fuel injection will occur later. Ans: D A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the 752 ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring ____________. I. gap II. side A. B. C. D. Ans: 754 I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to rotate the valve II. break up seat deposits I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B You are installing new piston rings on a single acting diesel engine piston. To check the ring gap clearance, the rings should be placed at the ____________. point of minimum cylinder wear center of the cylinder point of maximum cylinder wear point of maximum ring wear A Which of the following problems is the main source of fuel pump and injection system malfunctions? Air in the fuel system Improper adjustments Coated fuel lines Excessive vibration B If you determine that entrained air in the fuel oil system is causing a diesel engine to stall, you should first check for _____________. fuel leakage in the injector pump's discharge lines worn gaskets in the transfer pump discharge lines partially clogged fuel oil discharge strainers loose fittings in the booster fuel pump suction piping D Which of the following procedures should be carried out to permit the use of a crosshead engine with an inoperable aftercooler?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 755

A. B. C. D. Ans: 756

A. B. C. D. Ans: 757 A. B. C. D. Ans: 759

A. B. C. D. Ans: 758 A. B. C. D. Ans: 760

A. B. C. D. Ans: 761

A. B. C. D. Ans: 762

A. decreasing the thickness of the cylinder head gasket B. inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot C. replacing the complete bearing set D. rotating the crankpin bearing until the proper end clearance is obtained Ans: B A faulty injector in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine can be 763 located by ____________. A. cutting out individual injectors and noting engine performance B. C. D. Ans: 765 A. B. C. D. Ans: 767 A. B. C. D. Ans: 769 checking lube oil temperature checking cam position using a timing light A A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector would be caused by a/an ______________. increase in engine speed increase in cylinder turbulence leaking needle valve reduction in cylinder turbulance C A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine greatly affects the _______________. air turbulence fuel penetration fuel spray tip angle fuel injection rate B Black areas on the sealing surfaces of piston rings indicate _____________.

A. Bypass the aftercooler to operate at sea speed. B. Run at reduced speed until the cooler can be repaired or renewed. C. Switch to diesel fuel and run at reduced speed. D. Nothing needs to be done due to the low heating value of heavy fuel Ans: B Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposits to 764 form in the piston ring belt of a diesel engine? A. Faulty combustion B. C. D. Ans: 766 A. B. C. D. Ans: 768 A. B. C. D. Ans: 770 Excessive ring temperature Over lubrication All of the above D When installing rings on a diesel engine piston, you should check the ring _____________. diametrical tension gap clearance radial thickness face thickness B Which of the following problems may occur if the clearance between a piston and cylinder liner is insufficient? Excessive wear Scuffing of the liner Piston seizure All of the above D A bright shiny appearance of the sealing surfaces on diesel engine compression rings indicates _____________.

Page 47

A. B. C. D. Ans: 771

lube oil pumping rotating rings gas pressure behind the ring passage of hot gases D The best tool to use for removing the carbon ridge at the top of an engine cylinder, prior to removing the piston, is to use ____________. an electric grinder a metal scraper a reamer a three wing hone B Which of the following conditions can result in the cracking of the piston lands? High lubricating oil temperature Dirty lubricating oil Minimal cylinder liner wear Insufficient ring groove clearance D If the back clearance of a piston ring is excessive, _____________. compression pressure in the cylinder will be higher carbon will accumulate behind the ring combustion gases will penetrate beneath the ring land piston side thrust will be increased B A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________. prevent piston ring wear shorten the ring break-in period prevent cylinder liner glazing appear slick and glazed B Which of the following operating conditions can occur when shims are removed from the joint between the foot of a marine type diesel engine connecting rod and the bearing box? Decreased connecting rod bearing clearance Increased connecting rod bearing clearance Decreased compression ratio Increased compression ratio C Crank lead can be adjusted to change which of the listed operating conditions? Longer combustion events. Exhaust events starting before scavenging events. Exhaust events lasting longer than scavenging events. Higher combustion temperatures A In a diesel engine, blow-by is generally the result of worn _____________. valve guides oil control rings valve seats compression rings D Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result from _____________. chromium plating piston rings knurling the piston skirt extended maximum power operation applying load to a cold diesel engine D When a diesel engine compression pressure is checked, the indicator is connected to the _____________. cylinder exhaust ports injection line cylinder indicator cock banjo oiler line

A. B. C. D. Ans: 772

combustion gas blow-by excessive lubrication properly functioning rings insufficient cylinder cooling C Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the clearances between the main engine bearings and the crankshaft? Plasti-gauge Depth gauge Copper shims wooden gaging pegs A Which of the following problems may occur when using fuel oil with a high sulphur content? Injection lag Lube oil dilution Preignition Corrosion D Which of the following conditions could contribute to the cracking of a diesel engine cylinder head? Leaking seal ring Insufficient heat transfer from the exhaust valves Blocked cooling water passages to the head Excessive scavenging air provided to the engine C A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause __________. high firing pressure abnormally high cooling water temperature rapid wearing of piston rings combustion gases in the cooling water C After a long period of operation, a wear ridge, caused by piston ring action, will develop near the top of the cylinder liner. This ridge must be removed when piston rings are renewed in order to prevent ______________. excessive wear during the seating period excessive lubrication of the top ring improper spreading of lubrication on the cylinder wall breaking of the top ring, ring land, or both D When a hydraulic valve lifter is on the base circle of the cam, "zero" tappet clearance is maintained by the ______________. valve spring plunger spring oil pressure rocker arm B Which of the listed conditions can cause lacquer to be deposited on a piston skirt? High sulphur content fuel High lube oil temperatures High vanadium content fuel Excessive piston slap B If a diesel engine driving a generator turns over freely but fails to fire properly, the cause could be ____________. excessive compression pressure air in the fuel lines high fuel pressure excessive load B In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases below their dew point, will result in ____________. increased engine back pressure sulphuric acid corrosion surface pitting of the turbocharger compressor blades moisture impingement on the turbocharger compressor blades

A. B. C. D. Ans: 773 A. B. C. D. Ans: 775 A. B. C. D. Ans: 777 A. B. C. D. Ans: 779

A. B. C. D. Ans: 774 A. B. C. D. Ans: 776 A. B. C. D. Ans: 778 A. B. C. D. Ans: 780

A. B. C. D. Ans: 781

A. B. C. D. Ans: 782

A. B. C. D. Ans: 783 A. B. C. D. Ans: 785 A. B. C. D. Ans: 787 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 784 A. B. C. D. Ans: 786 A. B. C. D. Ans: 788 A. B. C. D.

789

Ans: C Which of the following statements is true regarding the installation of piston rings on two-stroke/cycle, diesel engines as compared to four-stroke/cycle, diesel engines?

790

Ans: B In a large, low-speed diesel engine the clearance between the piston crown and cylinder head is found to be excessive. In order to correct for this, you should ______________.

Page 48

A. In a two-stroke/cycle engine, the rings run hotter, requiring the end gap to be greater. B. Some provision must be made in a two-stroke/cycle engine to keep the rings from binding in the ports. C. No gap is required to exist between the ends of the ring when cold in a two-stroke/cycle engine, but a small gap is required in a fourstroke/cycle engine. D. The end gaps should be staggered on either side of a piston in a two-stroke/cycle engine, while staggering is not necessary in a fourstroke/cycle engine. 791

A. build up the piston crown by metal spraying B. build up the cylinder head by metal spraying C. insert shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot D. install a thinner head gasket

Ans: B Ans: C Bouncing of the valve gear in a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. A. prolonged high speed operation B. spring surge C. worn valve seats D. excessively tightened spring retainers Ans: B MOTOR - STARTING AND REVERSING SYSTEMS Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame What may be used to protect starting air mains against explosions 792 793 arrester is to be fitted ___________. arising from improperly functioning starting valves? A. at the supply inlet to the control air manifold for non- reversing engines B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbochargers C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or lubrication system vapors D. in way of the starting valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines having a main starting manifold Ans: D The total air capacity for non-reversible main engines is to be 794 sufficient for _______. A. B. C. D. Ans: 796 six consecutive starts eight consecutive starts ten consecutive starts twelve consecutive starts A A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed, but fails to fire. This can occur from _____________. low lube oil temperature low starting air temperature air in the fuel injection system water in the starting air system C In the starting process of a diesel engine, the main object is to attain the compression conditions sufficient to ______________. turn the flywheel reduce friction overcome inertia ignite the fuel D A six-cylinder, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a rotary distributor type air starting system. The speed of the rotating distributor disc is _____________. one-half engine speed the same as engine speed twice engine speed four times engine speed A The reversing mechanism on a direct reversing large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, operated by means of oil pressure, can serve to _____________. A. The starting air main shall be protected by the use of a rupture disc. B. No protection is necessary because all starting air valves are designed similar to check valves. C. An isolation non-return valve is to be installed at the starting air supply connection to each engine. D. The materials used in the construction of the starting air mains will contain any explosion. Ans: C Starting a large propulsion diesel engine using diesel fuel during 795 cold weather conditions can be made easier by ______. A. B. C. D. Ans: 797 increasing the quantity of starting air increasing the lube oil pressure heating the engine fuel supply heating the engine jacket water D Which of the following methods is used to prevent throttling of compressed air through the diesel engine air starting valves? Holding the valve open for a long period Increasing the starting air pressure used Opening the starting air valve quickly Reducing the starting air valve size C Fluid type starting motors used for starting auxiliary diesel engines may either be of the piston type or the _____________. gear type vane type impeller type accumulator type B In addition to a main engine driven starting air compressor, another air compressor, driven by a separate power source, is installed to _____________. provide air for engine scavenging provide air for engine supercharging supply a backup source of starting air supply the independent source of reversing air C When the quick acting valve to admit starting air to an air start motor is activated, the valve should be opened rapidly to ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 798

A. B. C. D. Ans: 799

A. B. C. D. Ans: 800

A. B. C. D. Ans: 801

A. B. C. D. Ans: 802

A. B. C. D. Ans: 803

A. B. C. D. Ans: 804

bring the respective cam under the fuel pump roller rotate or displace the camshaft according to engine design bring the respective cam under the air distributor pilot valves all of the above D Which of the listed diesel engine starting systems is most susceptible to difficulties in cold weather? A. Direct cylinder admission air start B. Hydraulic C. Electric

A. B. C. D. Ans: 805

prevent damage to the air line lubricator ensure proper operation of the Bendix pinion prevent damage to the valve seat increase the air charge density to the motor B Before any diesel engine hydraulic starting system is opened for servicing or repair, you must _____________. A. place all control levers in the "HOLD" position B. ensure that the hydraulic fluid reservoir is full C. block all hydraulic hoses using high pressure covers

Page 49

D. Air motor starting Ans: C The minimum speed an engine must attain before ignition can 806 occur depends upon __________. A. the type and size of the engine B. the condition of the engine C. ambient temperature D. all of the above Ans: D If an auxiliary diesel engine equipped with an electric starting 808 system cranks very slowly after repeated attempts to start, the cause could be a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 810 A. B. C. D. Ans: 812 low lube oil viscosity low compression pressure ring gear with broken teeth overheated motor winding D Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating diesel engine is indicated by _____________. noise coming from the air starting valve an overheated air supply pipe to the cylinder head continuous operation of the starting air compressor zero air pressure in the air starting system B If control air systems are supplied from starting air receivers, the capacity of the receivers should be sufficient _________.

D. bleed off all hydraulic pressure from the system Ans: D A diesel engine fails to start, even though it can be barred over, but 807 not cranked over. The probable cause is _______. A. a seized piston B. an improperly fitted bearing C. a closed or obstructed air starting line valve D. insufficient compression Ans: C During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too 809 slowly and fails to start. This problem is most likely the result of ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 811 A. B. C. D. Ans: 813 high fuel oil viscosity low fuel oil temperature high lube oil viscosity energized glow plugs C Vessels having main engines arranged for air starting are to be provided with at least _________. one automatic drain serving both containers two air starting containers of approximately equal size one control air container and one starting air container one additional means of starting the main engine B Cold weather starting of a diesel engine is more difficult than warm weather starting due to _____________.

A. to provide for intermittent starting procedures B. for continued operation of these systems after capacity for the required number of consecutive starts has been used C. to provide a nonreversible engine a minimum of twelve consecutive starts D. to enable six consecutive starts of a reversible engine Ans: B Starting aids such as glow plugs, are installed on _____. 814 A. large, direct drive diesel engines B. diesel engines designed to burn residual fuels C. medium-speed, four-stroke/cycle diesel engines D. small diesel engines utilizing electric starting equipment Ans: D An eight cylinder, air started, two-stroke/cycle direct reversing, 816 marine diesel engine can be started from any crankshaft position only if it has ____________. A. at least three cylinders equipped with air start valves B. a minimum of five cylinders equipped with air start valves C. each upper cylinder head equipped with reversible air start valves D. the cylinders on opposite ends equipped with air start valves Ans: A If a diesel engine starts firing, but is unable to come up to normal speed, either without load or even under a small load, the cause may be ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 820 insufficient fuel supply faulty governor high exhaust back pressure all of the above may cause this problem D While underway, which of the following would be the FIRST step in reversing a direct reversing large, low-speed, main propulsion, diesel engine? Manually trip the overspeed device. Interrupt the fuel flow to the engine. Disengage the safety interlock. Slide the camshaft to the neutral position. B When starting a diesel engine at temperatures below 20C, the frictional resistance to turning will be _____________. reduced by increasing lube oil pressure controlled by reducing the compression ratio proportional to the lube oil viscosity eliminated by heating the intake air C Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are generally the type known as a/an ____________. vane motors

A. use of low viscosity oil in cold weather B. higher compression pressures reached due to smaller clearances existing in the engine during cold weather C. increased drag of pistons and bearings due to increased oil viscosity D. increased moisture content of inlet air in cold weather Ans: C A diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________. 815 A. low air charge temperature B. high cranking speed C. excessive fuel dilution of lube oil D. high compression pressure Ans: A On a diesel engine, using a distributer type air startingsystem, that 817 is not running, which of the following methods may be used to detect leaking air starting valves? A. Open the cylinder test cocks and check for blowing air. B. Check the position of the air start valve cams. C. Stop the air compressor and check for pressure drop throughout the system. D. Feel each air supply line to see which is warm from leaking air. Ans: A After changing out the fuel filters the diesel engine fails to restart. The most probable cause for this condition is a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 821 low compression air-bound fuel system improper spark change in viscosity B A ship is propelled by a direct reversing large, slow-speed, diesel engine. One step in reversing the direction of propeller rotation for this vessel is by ______________. properly inflating the air operated clutch reversing the reduction gears changing the gear ratio reversing the servomotor D The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally produced by a/an _____________. exhaust powered turbocharger Roots-type blower air pump centrifugal air compressor multistage reciprocating air compressor D Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the possibility of ________________. dust entering the high pressure stage

818

819

A. B. C. D. Ans: 822 A. B. C. D. Ans: 824 A.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 823 A. B. C. D. Ans: 825 A.

Page 50

B. C. D. Ans: 826 A. B. C. D. Ans: 828 A. B. C. D. Ans: 830

plunger motors gear motors accumulator motors A Starting air valves are held firmly on their seats by ____________. cam rollers on the camshaft spring force air pressure on top of the valve differential piston air pressure on the bottom of the valve differential piston B Diesel engine air start system check valves are opened by _____________. an air start cam cylinder compression pressure starting air pressure valve springs C When an air started, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is being cranked, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during what would normally be the _____________. intake stroke compression stroke power stroke exhaust stroke C An auxiliary diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________.

B. C. D. Ans: 827 A. B. C. D. Ans: 829 A. B. C. D. Ans: 831

lube oil carbonization discharge pulsations interstage vapor lock B Starting systems for large, low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines are usually _____________. hydraulic starting motor electric starting motor direct air admission vane type air motors C In a hydraulic starting system, oil to the starting motor flows from the _____________. accumulator reservoir hand pump electric pump A If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is started by injecting air into the cylinders, the pistons receiving the charge of starting air must be _____________. on the power stroke on the exhaust stroke at the end of the power stroke at the start of the intake stroke A If a diesel engine rotates slowly when cranked, but does not fire, the ___________________. fuel control rack had admitted excessive fuel engine speed does not match the fuel rack setting engine has failed to reach its firing speed starter pinion and ring gear contact is not correct C Which of the following problems can occur if you continually fail to drain off condensate from a starting air receiver? Corrosion and eventual failure of the tank. Gumming of the tank relief valves. Immediate failure of components downstream of the compressed air system. Boiling of the water oil mixture as pressure is reduced. A A four-stroke/cycle, 1000 horsepower diesel engine fails to start at normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient temperature. The reason for the failure could be _______________. glazed liners or pistons high lube oil pressure excessive compression ratio worn valve seats and valves D When starting air is admitted, a diesel engine turns over very slowly without firing. The cause may be ______________. an obstruction in an engine cylinder water accumulation in some engine cylinders low starting air pressure low scavenge air pressure C Hydraulic starters are installed on many lifeboat diesel engines instead of comparable air start systems, because ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 832 A. B. C. D. Ans: 834

A. B. C. D. Ans: 833 A. B. C. D. Ans: 835 A. B. C. D. Ans: 837

low exhaust back pressure high lube oil temperature insufficient cranking speed excessive fuel atomization C Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air receivers? A. Frequent draining of accumulated moisture. B. Frequent testing of relief valves. C. A close watch on temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure.

D. Frequent cleaning to remove oil and foreign matter. Ans: A When attempting to start a main propulsion diesel engine, the 836 engine turns at the proper speed but will not start. You should check the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 838 starting air pressure scavenge air pressure overspeed trip banjo oiler line C Which of the listed items should be secured before performing any maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve? Electric power Lube oil standby pump Hydraulic switch Motor drain A A pilot-operated, main air starting valve begins leaking in one cylinder while the engine is operating. This malfunction is indicated by ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 839

A. B. C. D. Ans: 840

A. B. C. D. Ans: 841

A. an increase in the exhaust temperature reading for that cylinder B. an increase in the starting air manifold pressure C. high exhaust pressure D. an overheated air supply line to that cylinder Ans: D If a diesel engine fails to start, one of the likely causes is 842 _____________. A. low compression temperature B. low ambient air pressure C. high lube oil pump pressure D. high fuel oil booster pump pressure Ans: A

A. hydraulic starters are the least expensive of all starting systems B. the system does not require high pressure piping C. hydraulic systems turn diesel engines at higher rates of speed than air starters D. the system can be manually recharged Ans: D A diesel engine may fail to start when being cranked, due to 843 _____________. A. high cetane number B. insufficient compression C. low lube oil viscosity D. high lube oil pressure Ans: B

Page 51

844 A. B. C. D. Ans: 846

If a hydraulic starting motor turns, but the diesel engine does not, the most likely cause is ____________. excessive viscosity in the hydraulic fluid a malfunctioning overrunning clutch loss of accumulator precharge air in the hydraulic system B A diesel engine electric starting motor is operated under a no-load condition. Continuing to operate the motor unloaded will _______________. disengage the throw out bearing overspeed and cause serious damage fail to develop normal speed cause the pinion to fail B During maneuvering operations for a direct reversing large, lowspeed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the following actions is used to stop the shaft from turning prior to reversing the engine rotation? Flywheel inertia Admission of starting air The way of the vessel securing of fuel to the cylinders B A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine _____________. has little or no internal friction has a lower effective compression ratio operates with scavenge air under a positive pressure operates without energy absorbing intake and exhaust strokes

845 A. B. C. D. Ans: 847

A bendix drive starting motor disengages the drive gear from the flywheel by ______________. spring force rotating of the starting cam the high rotating speed of the flywheel applying accumulator pressure C If the diesel engine starter-drive mechanism fails to disengage after the engine starts, which of the following situations will occur? The engine will stall. The starter motor will have reverse current. The engine flywheel will be burred. the starter motor will overspeed D The pilot valves in an air pilot starting system for a two-stroke/cycle, direct-reversing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by either a ported distributor disc or a/an _____________. regulator valve quick opening main air valve pilot air start check valve individual cam for each pilot valve D Which of the listed types of starting systems is often used on large, low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 848

A. B. C. D. Ans: 849

A. B. C. D. Ans: 850

A. B. C. D. Ans: 851

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Electric Hydraulic Air all of the above

Ans: D The timing of diesel engine air starting valves is controlled by _____________. A. the air start valve timing gears and rods B. a cylinder check valve C. individual cams and valve gear D. an air manifold poppet valve Ans: C An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally 854 located between the _____________. A. pump and the compressor B. storage tank and the pump C. starting motor and the reserve tank D. pump and the starting motor Ans: D The pinion of an electric starting motor used with a diesel engine 856 engages the flywheel ring gear by a/an ____________. 852 A. B. C. D. Ans: 858 automatic follow-up muff coupling and release friction-type clutch bendrix drive or similar mechanism D In a starting motor equipped with a Bendix drive, the pinion moves and meshes with the flywheel ring gear due to __________. the mechanical linkage the threaded sleeve's rotation centrifugal force electromotive force B In a medium-speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct air starting valves, the cylinders without air starting valves fire first because the ____________.

853

Ans: C Which of the types of motors listed is used in a hydraulic starter? A. B. C. D. Ans: Piston Gear Turbine centrifugal A The device used to store a charged pressure for an hydraulic starting system is called the _____________. reservoir hand pump accelerator accumulator D Auxiliary diesel engine electric starting motors use ____________.

855 A. B. C. D. Ans: 857

A. B. C. D. Ans: 859

alternating current 400 cycle per second motor-generators low amp, high voltage AC direct current D A large two-stroke/cycle direct reversing diesel engine is to be reversed. Prior to the admission of starting air you must ____________. line up the engine for restarting with light diesel oil reposition the fuel injection cam change the intake and exhaust valve cam positions place the starting cam in the intermediate position B Two air compressors are provided for the starting air system and should be capable of ______.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 860

A. B. C. D. Ans: 861

A. operation is under higher compression B. fuel is admitted only to these cylinders during cranking C. compression is released during starting by opening the exhaust valve D. cylinders are not chilled by the expansion of the starting air Ans: D If cranking a diesel engine is too slow while attempting to start, it will 862 result in _____________. A. insufficient heat of compression

A. charging the starting air containers within one hour B. providing the minimum quantity of starting air at all times C. supplying all the air necessary to start both the main engine and an auxiliary at the same time D. topping of all receivers at the required design pressures Ans: A In an operating diesel engine, which of the following conditions is 863 an indication of a leaking air starting valve? A. Noise coming from that air starting valve.

Page 52

B. C. D. Ans: 864

fouling of the air intakes improper injection timing high exhaust temperatures A Each receiver in a starting air system which can be isolated from a relief valve _______________. A. is to be provided with a suitable fusible plug to relieve the pressure in case of fire B. will incorporate the use of an automatic unloading device

B. C. D. Ans: 865

Continuous operation of the starting air compressor. Zero air pressure in the air starting system. Overheated starting air pipe to the cylinder head. D Air receivers installed in starting air systems are to be ________.

C. will not be approved for classification purposes D. and satisfy classification regulations shall be approved Ans: A A diesel engine may be hard to start if the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 868 A. B. C. D. Ans: 869 A. B. C. D. Ans: 871

A. cylindrical in shape with service connections located at the top and bottom B. opened and made available for inspection during biannual inspections C. provided with automatic drain traps for the removal of moisture D. so installed as to make the drain connections effective under extreme conditions of trim Ans: D The total starting air capacity required for reversible main engines is 867 to be sufficient for a least __________. A. six consecutive starts B. eight consecutive starts C. ten consecutive starts D. twelve consecutive starts Ans: D

866

air intake is restricted engine is cranked too fast vibration dampener is faulty exhaust back pressure is low A What preventative maintenance should be done frequently to diesel engine starting air receivers? Drain the accumulated moisture. Test the relief valves. Watch the temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure. Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter. A LUBRICATING SYSTEMS Heat exchangers are most commonly found in a small auxiliary One advantage of vacuum feed type cylinder lubricators over the 870 diesel engine ____________. liquid sight glass type is ______________. fuel oil system A. there are fewer moving parts governing system B. adjustment is not required air starting system C. better metering accuracy lube oil system D. a lower grade of oil may be used D Ans: C Which of the following devices controls the discharge flow rate of an Mechanical lubricators for diesel engine cylinders are usually small 872 attached, positive displacement, rotary gear, diesel engine, lube oil reciprocating pumps which are _____________. pump? A pressure regulating valve A pressure relief valve The engine speed An orifice C Which of the following statements is true concerning an oil cooler? A. B. C. D. Ans: 874

A. B. C. D. Ans: 873

A. The oil temperature is less than the cooling water temperature. B. The oil pressure is less than the cooling water pressure. C. The oil pressure is greater than the cooling water pressure. D. The oil flow control valve is always installed in the oil input line Ans: C Which of the following devices is normally provided to prevent oil starvation in a diesel engine lubrication system utilizing the "full flow" principle? A. B. C. D. Ans: 877 Duplex strainer Three-way valve Pressure relief bypass line around the filter Mechanical straining filter C Many lube oil filters have pressure gauges installed on both the inlet and outlet in order to indicate the pressure drop across the filter. In normal operation, the pressure drop will _____________.

operated manually once each hour operated until the engine has started placed into operation only at maximum load adjustable to meet lubrication requirements D Lubrication for the main reduction gears used with diesel engines is usually supplied by _____________. A. oil from the main engine sump

B. an independent lube oil system C. the stern bearing head tank D. the stern bearing sump tank Ans: B A large, low-speed, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine using residual fuel oils must have a cylinder oil having a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 878 low TBN value high alkaline reserve low fclearance point high pour point B The rate of cylinder lubricating oil metered to each cylinder of a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is ______________.

875

876

A. B. C. D. Ans: 879

slowly increase slowly decrease remain the same have no effect on filter operation A Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if its ____________. A. viscosity is too low B. temperature is too low C. pump discharge pressure is higher than the system's pressure

A. B. C. D. Ans: 880

the same, whether at sea, or during maneuvering adjusted during each hour of operation while at constant RPM higher at sea than while maneuvering lower at sea than while maneuvering C A dirty lube oil strainer can result in _____________. A. crankcase dilution B. low lube oil temperature C. excessive oil consumption

Page 53

881

883

885

887

889

D. pump capacity is greater than the system's needs Ans: B Lube oil filters remove contaminants more efficiently if the oil being filtered is _____________. A. under high pressure B. under low pressure C. heated to reduce viscosity D. cooled to increase viscosity Ans: C Lube oil in the fresh water cooling system of a diesel engine may result from a _____________. A. camshaft seizure B. lube oil pump failure C. lube oil cooler failure D. lube oil sump overflow Ans: C Which harmful consequence may be the result of lube oil sludge accumulation? A. Clogged oil pump suction screens. B. Increased oil operating temperatures. C. Sticking piston rings. D. All of the above Ans: D A dirty fuel oil filter is can be detected by ________. I. fuel oil analysis II. observing the pressure drop across the filter A. I only B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I nor II Ans: B Two important considerations for the proper lubrication ofa diesel engine include, the delivery of the oil insufficient amount, and the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: cetane number pour point viscosity temperature quality of the oil D Lubricating systems for diesel engines are usually designed to initially provide lube oil to the engine _____________. camshaft bearings main bearings piston crowns cylinder walls B A spring-loaded relief valve is located on some lube oil filters in full flow systems to _____________. prevent overpressurization of the filter cartridge prevent overpressurization of the filter casing bypass the filter should it become clogged limit the lube oil outlet pressure C Lubricating oil used in a diesel engine serves to _________. reduce the wear of bearing surfaces cool the bearing surfaces assist in sealing bearing surfaces all of the above D In a diesel engine, the function of lubrication oil is to provide _____________. a film between the shafts and bearings cooling of the pistons and bearings for removal of dirt or metal particles resulting from wear all of the above D When fuel enters the crankcase of a diesel engine, it _____________. dilutes the lube oil and reduces its viscosity forms sulphuric acid in the lube oil causes pitting and failure of the bearings causes sludge deposits on valve stems A Maximum lube system operating pressure for a diesel engine is normally regulated by a/an _____________. orifice in the pump suction special filter design

882

884

886

888

890

D. low bearing oil pressure Ans: D The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter should be checked to _________. A. determine the need for filter changing B. measure any change in oil viscosity C. prevent damage to the filter D. determine the need for batch filtration Ans: A Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex lube oil strainer to _____________. A. decrease the time required between cleanings B. remove water contamination C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice Ans: C The TBN value of diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to _____________. A. resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature B. resist emulsification C. neutralize acids D. resist oxidation at high temperatures Ans: C Sludge formation in a diesel engine lube oil system is caused by ____________. A. carbonization of oils from the combustion chambers B. emulsions of lube oil and water C. coagulation of unburned fuel below the piston rings D. All of the above. Ans: D The adverse effects of burning high sulphur fuel can be compensated for by using a cylinder oil having sufficient ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: dispersant additives floc point depressive additives alkalinity ignition quality C The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for _____________. the filter to operate more efficiently the lube oil cooler to be bypassed positive lube oil pump suction to be assured galvanic action in the cooler to be minimized A Lube oil filters remove contaminants from oil more efficiently if the oil being filtered is _____________. heated to reduce viscosity cooled to increase viscosity pumped rapidly through the filter pumped through the filter under high pressure A A diesel engine should use which type of lubricating oil? Nondetergent oil Cutting oil High grade vegetable oil Detergent oil D A diesel engine exposed to widely varying ambient temperatures should use a lubricating oil with ____________. a high viscosity index a low viscosity index extreme pressure additives no additives A The thickness of the oil film to be developed in a diesel engine main bearing, depends upon the _____________. bearing pressure viscosity of the oil rpm of the shaft all of the above D For a continuous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement because _____________. changing filter elements would not interrupt engine operation filtering occurs twice in each pass of oil through the system

891 A. B. C. D. Ans: 893 A. B. C. D. Ans: 895 A. B. C. D. Ans: 897 A. B. C. D. Ans: 899 A. B. C. D. Ans: 901 A. B.

892 A. B. C. D. Ans: 894 A. B. C. D. Ans: 896 A. B. C. D. Ans: 898 A. B. C. D. Ans: 900 A. B. C. D. Ans: 902 A. B.

Page 54

C. pressure drop through the filter D. relief valve Ans: D The highest indicated lube oil pressure in a diesel engine should be expected when the engine oil is ________. A. cold at idle B. warm at idle C. warm at full speed D. warm at full speed and no fuel dilution exists Ans: A With respect to the flow of lubricating oil through a diesel engine, 905 the lube oil coolers are located after filters in order to _____________. 903 A. B. C. D. Ans: 907 allow filtration of less viscous oil decrease the pressure drop across the filter improve overall filtration All of the above D Which of the following characteristics of lube oil helps to reduce the amount of deposits in the piston ring belt during the combustion process in a diesel engine? Low viscosity index Low carbon forming tendencies High film strength High noncorrosive qualities B Motor vessels usually have independent lube oil systems for main engine and main reduction gears because ______________.

C. clogging will not occur D. dropping in pressure is half of that through a single stage filter unit Ans: A In a diesel engine, maximum lube oil system pressure isnormally controlled by _____________. A. the capacity of the lube oil pump B. the speed of the lube oil pump C. the outlet pressure of the lube oil pump D. a relief valve Ans: D Lubricating oil systems for diesel engine journal bearings are 906 usually lubricated by which of the following types of lubricating oil systems? 904 A. B. C. D. Ans: 908 splash Gravity Pressure bypass C Which lubricating oil additive is used in diesel engines to reduce the tendency for sludge and varnish to form on the engine parts? Fclearance point improvers Pour point improvers Inhibitors Foam suppressors C Where may a strainer be located in a diesel engine lubricating oil system?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 909

A. B. C. D. Ans: 910

A. coolers are not needed for the gear system A. Suction line B. contaminants produced by the engine could harm the reduction B. Discharge line gears C. non-additive oils are used in the main engine system C. Supply line D. different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and D. In any combination of the above reduction gear lube systems Ans: B Ans: D LUBRICATION - MAINTENANCE To routinely clean a metal-edge type lube oil strainer, you should When excessive fuel dilution is noted in the lube oil, the oil should 911 912 _____________. be _____________. A. remove the disc element and immerse it in gasoline A. centrifuged B. remove the disc element and immerse it in kerosene B. filtered C. rotate the disc element and drain off the sediment C. strained D. rotate the knife-edge cleaner blades and drain off the sediment D. changed Ans: C If a used lube oil analysis indicates excessive fuel dilution, the lube oil should be _____________. A. changed B. centrifuged C. filtered D. settled Ans: A Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after 915 filtering? A. Acid sludge B. Fuel oil C. Sediment D. Water Ans: B Which of the following test points should be considered a 917 determining factor as to whether or not a diesel generator's lube oil should be drained and renewed? 913 A. B. C. D. Ans: 919 A. B. C. D. Ans: An extremely low neutralization number. An extremely high precipitation number. The oil appears black in color. A minor increase in fclearance point. B A magnetic strainer is used in the diesel engine reduction gear oil system to remove small particles of _____________. water babbitt iron or steel acids C Ans: D A "detergent-type" lube oil, used in a diesel engine, should be replaced when _____________. A. fuel oil dilution is 5% B. it begins to turn black C. the exhaust shows traces of blue smoke D. all of the above Ans: A Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex 916 lube oil strainer to _____________. A. decrease the time required between cleanings B. remove all large and small foreign objects C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice Ans: C In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating 918 oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the ______________. 914 A. B. C. D. Ans: 920 A. B. C. D. Ans: metal particles loosened by wear air when no air cleaners are used condensation of water vapors breakdown of the lubricating oil itself D A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by _____________. visual inspection of the elements the pressure drop across the filter high lube oil sump temperature decrease in oil viscosity from the filter B

Page 55

921 A. B. C. D. Ans: 923 A. B. C. D. Ans: 925 A. B. C. D. Ans: 927 A. B. C. D. Ans: 929

What could cause the bypass valve in a full-flow lubrication system to open? Clogged filter element Bypass valve setting is too high Check valve stuck open Fuel dilution of the lubricant A To properly clean the disks of a metal-edge type strainer in a diesel engine lube oil system, you should _____________. remove the disks and soak them in kerosene rotate the T-handle spindle one turn wire brush the disks to remove sludge blow compressed air through the disks B When fuel oil has seriously contaminated a diesel engine lubricating oil, you should ____________. filter to remove the fuel oil use the settler to remove the fuel oil remove the fuel oil by centrifuging drain and then renew the lube oil supply D If the detergent type lubricating oil being used in a diesel engine is black, the oil _____________. must be centrifuged must be filtered must be changed is holding finely dispersed carbon in suspension D Oil oxidation, as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is harmful to a diesel engine because _____________. oil foaming will occur large quantities of oil are consumed lube oil viscosity is always decreased corrosive by-products are usually formed D If the analysis of used lube oil indicates a high content of iron particles, this could indicate _____________. corrosive deterioration of a bearing inadequate air filtration excessive ring and liner wear excessive cooling of lubricating oil C One simple laboratory analysis of used lube oil that can be carried out aboard ship is called the _____________. paraffin test blotter test stability test spectrographic test B Which of the listed conditions can be used to determine if lube oil has been diluted by fuel? Viscosity is lowered. Octane number is altered. Pump speed is decreased. Blowers' speed is decreased. A Which of the following faults would allow lube oil to enter the cooling system of a diesel engine? Excessive valve train lubrication Leaking standby oil cooler core Excessive lube oil pressure Excessive lube oil in the system B If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from adiesel engine indicates an increased neutralization number the _________.

922 A. B. C. D. Ans: 924 A. B. C. D. Ans: 926 A. B. C. D. Ans: 928 A. B. C. D. Ans: 930

The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter should be checked to _________. determine the need for filter cleaning measure any change in oil viscosity prevent damage to the filter determine the need for batch filtration A A "Blotter test" is performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine to determine the _________. percent of fuel dilution of lube oil fclearance point relative detergency remaining TBN number C How often should the lubricating oil of a diesel engine be changed? After every trip Every 4000 hours According to manufacturer's instructions Every time they are shutdown C Which of the following operational conditions will occur to the diesel engine lube oil at extremely high temperatures? The oil oxidizes and forms carbon deposits. The viscosity increases. Engine oil consumption decreases. Lubricating qualities of the oil are enhanced. A Metal particles accumulated from the wearing of components in a diesel engine can result from lube oil that has been contaminated with _____________. abrasive particles metallic oxides corrosive acids any or all of the above D If a used lube oil analysis indicates an excessive chromate content, this means _____________. air filtration is inadequate engine coolant is leaking into the lube oil fuel oil is leaking into the lube oil the piston rings are excessively worn B A decrease in the fclearance point of the diesel engine lube oil indicates the lube oil is _____________. diluted with fuel oil diluted with water contaminated with carbon contaminated with sludge A A sudden decrease in the diesel engine lube oil viscosity could be an indication of ____________. loss of additives from the lube oil carbon deposits in the lube oil excessive centrifuging excessive fuel dilution D The color of the diesel engine detergent type lube oil in an operating diesel engine is black, this indicates _____________. "worn out" oil fuel dilution water dilution normal oil condition D Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is harmful to a diesel engine because _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 931 A. B. C. D. Ans: 933 A. B. C. D. Ans: 935 A. B. C. D. Ans: 937

A. B. C. D. Ans: 932 A. B. C. D. Ans: 934 A. B. C. D. Ans: 936 A. B. C. D. Ans: 938

A. B. C. D. Ans: 939

A. B. C. D. Ans: 940

A. B. C. D. Ans: 941

acidity has increased viscosity has decreased demulsibility has improved foaming is guaranteed to occur A Unusually low oil pressure in the lube oil header of a diesel engine is the result of a/an ____________. A. pressure regulating valve being stuck in the closed position

A. B. C. D. Ans: 942

oil foaming will always occur large quantities of oil are consumed lube oil viscosity is always decreased corrosive by-products are usually formed D To manually bypass a strainer or filter in a shunt type lube oil filtering system, _____________. A. first, parallel the drain lines

Page 56

B. C. D. Ans: 943 A. B. C. D. Ans: 945 A. B. C. D. Ans: 947

restricted lube oil passage in the engine air leak in the lube oil cooler air leak in the oil pump suction line D In a full flow type lube oil system, the bypass relief valve will lift due to _____________. a clogged filter element excessive lube oil pump discharge pressure excessive lube oil flow excessively hot lube oil A A decrease in flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates lube oil has become __________ . contaminated with sludge contaminated with carbon diluted with fuel oil diluted with water C Which of the following conditions is indicated when the lubricating oil of a diesel engine turns dark after a few hours of use?

B. C. D. Ans: 944 A. B. C. D. Ans: 946 A. B. C. D. Ans: 948

turn the three-way valve open the bypass valve and then close the isolation valves close the isolation valves and then open the bypass valve B To determine if the lube oil filter elements need changing, ________________. open the filter and inspect the elements check the lube oil pump discharge pressure check the lube oil header pressure check the pressure and drop across the filter D Which of the listed conditions can cause a diesel engine to use too much lube oil? Dirty lube oil filter Too much piston ring wear High lube oil viscosity low lube oil temperature B When a leak has developed in the lube oil cooler of an operating diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions can be expected to occur?

A. The oil should be purified. B. The lubricating quality of the oil has dangerously deteriorated.

A. Lube oil contaminated with saltwater B. Lube oil level decreases Lube oil contaminated with fresh water coolant lube oil level increases B Under normal conditions, the main source of crankcase oil contamination is attributed to ______________. metal particles loosened by wear air when air cleaners are not used condensation of water vapors breakdown of the lubricating oil D One device used to determine the amount of fuel dilution of diesel engine lube oil is a/an ____________. autogenous ignition indicator viscosity-dilution chart precipitation number indicator modified neutrality chart B Diesel engine lube oil can become contaminated as a result of _____________. the water produced during combustion the sulphur in the fuel unburned fuel oil all of the above D The Total Base Number(TBN) value of diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to _____________. resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature resist emulsification neutralize acids resist oxidation at high temperatures C The light and medium fuels utilized in internal combustion engines provide a source of ________. lubrication for pistons and rings food for microbiological organisms gases most detrimental to the ozone layer of the atmosphere all of the above B The growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some fuel supplies will __________. increase in direct proportion to an increase in temperature decrease if bleaches are added to the fuel on a regular basis

949

951

953

955

957

959

C. The oil is functioning normally. C. D. Normal engine operating temperatures have been reached D. Ans: C Ans: The oxidation by-products forming in diesel engine lube oil can 950 cause _____________. A. pitting A. B. sludge B. C. hard varnish C. D. All of the above. D. Ans: D Ans: A condition that can increase the foaming tendency of lube oil is 952 ________. A. excessively high oil temperatures A. B. water or moisture contamination B. C. fuel dilution C. D. carbon suspension D. Ans: B Ans: Fuel oil contamination of an auxiliary diesel engine lube oil can 954 result in _____________. A. an increased fclearance point A. B. higher lube oil pressures B. C. an increased viscosity C. D. lower lube oil pressures D. Ans: D Ans: Lubricating oil viscosity in an operating diesel engine can be 956 reduced by _____________. A. increasing cooling water flow A. B. increasing lube oil flow B. C. dilution by fuel oil C. D. Adding SAE 70 oil D. Ans: C Ans: FUEL SYSTEMS To prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line of a diesel 958 engine, you may use ____________. A. a short length of heavy duty clear plastic tubing A. B. a length of approved flexible nonmetallic hose B. C. welded flange connections for all joints C. D. aluminum piping with expansion loops D. Ans: B Ans: Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence 960 that can be ________. A. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating processes A. B. prevented by maintaining proper storage temperatures B. C. removed from emulsified fuel oil during the centrifuging processes

D. All of the above are correct. Ans: A Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile, however, 961 contamination can occur as fuels are ________. A. stored at the refinery B. stored on the vessel

C. remain unchanged provided complete consumption of the fuel occurs monthly D. All of the above Ans: A In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is 962 necessary for ________. A. high temperatures to exist B. low temperatures to exist

Page 57

963

965

967

969

C. transported to the distribution sites D. All of the above are correct. Ans: D Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial contamination? A. Objectionable odors B. Increased air filter changes C. Occurrences of flow restrictions D. Increased corrosion of tank plating Ans: B A dirty fuel oil filter element can be detected by ________. A. visual inspection of the element B. the pressure drop across the filter C. high fuel oil tank temperature D. increase flow rate from the filter Ans: B In diesel engineering practice, the term used to express the ignition quality of a particular fuel is _____________. A. cetane number B. octane number C. ignition index number D. volatility point Ans: A Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number rating of diesel fuel? A. The cetane number is obtained by comparing the fuel with cetane, a colorless liquid hydrocarbon. B. The higher the cetane number, the shorter the ignition lag. C. The highest cetane number of fuel is 100.

964

966

968

970

C. small amounts of water to be present D. large amounts of water to be present Ans: C Which of the substances listed is satisfactorily removed from the fuel by a centrifugal oil purifier? A. Carbon particles B. Lube oil C. Gasoline D. Diesel fuel Ans: A Fuel oil having a low cetane rating could result in _______. A. improved cold weather starting B. excessive fuel oil consumption C. reduced ignition lag D. smoother engine operation Ans: B With respect to diesel fuel, the ease with which a cold engine will start is dependent upon the _____________. A. ignition quality of the fuel B. high heating value of the fuel C. amount of carbon residue after combustion D. internal flow resistance in the injectors Ans: A Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection? A. Heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which prevent the formation of these growths. B. Most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of fungi and other bacteria. C. Microbiological infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the personnel who are involved with the handling, storage and purification of the fuel. D. The necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex form and not available for microbial degradation.

D. All of the above.

971

Ans: D Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: bacteria fungi yeasts All of the above D Which of the following statements describes the unchecked growth of microbiological organisms within a fuel system? The dying bacteria will cause a coating to be formed on the sides of the tank thereby decreasing corrosion. The fuel in the tank will loose its fluidity, solidify, and be the cause of an expensive removal process. Corrosion of various metal components will occur due to the formation of hydrogen sulfide gas. All of the above are correct. C An indication of microbial contamination is ______. stripping of paint in tanks reduced corrosion in fuel tanks usually discovered during normally scheduled strainer cleaning

973 A. B. C. D. Ans: 975 A. B. C.

Ans: D Fuel oil strainers should be made of ____________. I. copper II. brass A. I only B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I nor II Ans: D When fuel oil heaters are required for main engine operation, 974 ____________. A. each heater shall have the capacity to supply the main engine at full power B. at least two heaters of approximately equal size are to be installed 972 C. the system shall be designed to permit series or parallel operation D. none of the above Ans: B One cause of diesel engine fuel ignition delay is _______. 976 A. mechanical flexibility in the pump mechanism B. late fuel injection C. early fuel injection D. ignition quality of the fuel oil Ans: D A substance found in residual fuels which tends to cause exhaust 978 valve corrosion and grooving, is ____________. A. carbon B. vanadium C. calcium D. hydrogen Ans: B To minimize corrosion, fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper 980 blades are made of _____________. A. brass B. copper C. iron D. monel metal or stainless steel Ans: D

D. yellow slime or fibrous sludge Ans: A The desirable properties of a marine fuel oil should include 977 _____________. A. high flash point and high viscosity B. low flash point and high viscosity C. low heating value and high sulphur content D. high heating value and low sulphur content Ans: D Which of the listed factors will indicate the most about the ability of 979 a fuel to ignite in a diesel engine? A. Viscosity B. sulphur content C. Pour point D. Cetane number Ans: D

Page 58

981

A mixture of 45% cetane and 55% alpha-methyl-naphthalene is found to have the same ignition delay as a sample of diesel oil. The sample can be described as having a/an __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: cetane number of 55 cetane number of 45 octane number of 55 octane number of 45 B Injection lag in a diesel engine may be caused by _________. a higher cetane number of fuel oil the diesel fuel used having a high viscosity mechanical rigidity in the lube pump mechanism a decrease in the fuel pump delivery pressure B Automatically fired auxiliary boilers use fuel oil strainer arrangements of either the simplex type or _____________. filter bag type metal disc type absorbent type duplex type D The fuel oil strainers located in the fuel oil service system of an automatic auxiliary heating boiler are either the duplex type or the _______________.

982

The sludge tank installed in the diesel engine room is used to collect _____________. I. sludge from the fuel oil settling tanks and centrifuge II. water that has been collected in the settling tank. A. B. C. D. Ans: I only II only both I and II neither I or II C Diesel engine injection lag is caused by _____________. compressibility of the fuel high fuel oil supply flow scored plunger and barrel packing excessive air turbulence A Piping from booster pumps to injection systems are to be at least ________. schedule 60 schedule 80 standard seamless steel none of the above C Which of the following represents the significance the fuel oil cetane number?

983 A. B. C. D. Ans: 985 A. B. C. D. Ans: 987

984 A. B. C. D. Ans: 986 A. B. C. D. Ans: 988

A. filter bag type B. Perry filter type C. simplex type D. absorbent type Ans: C Proper filtering and straining of diesel fuel is important because the _____________. A. fuel oil pump will overspeed if dirt is not removed B. fuel oil transfer pumps cannot tolerate small amounts of grit in the oil C. fuel injectors may be damaged by foreign particles in the fuel oil

A. The cetane number has no affect on injection lag. B. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity. C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number. D. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion process. Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane 990 number of diesel fuel? A. The cetane number affects the amount of injection lag. B. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion process. C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number.

989

D. dirty fuel will clog the intake air filter D. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity. Ans: C Ans: C If a diesel engine runs out of fuel, you can expect trouble from The cetane number rates fuels for diesel engines according to its 991 992 _____________. _____________. A. overheated injector pumps A. antiknock characteristics B. water condensed in the cylinders B. ignition qualities C. fuel dilution of the lube oil C. rates of vaporization D. air in the fuel system D. viscosity Ans: D Ans: B The cetane rating of diesel fuel is an indication of the The ignition quality of a fuel oil is an important operational 993 994 ______________. consideration because it _____________. A. ignition quality of the fuel A. indicates the amount of abrasive material in the fuel B. calorific value of the fuel B. affects the starting ability of a cold engine C. fclearance point of the fuel C. determines the amount of fuel penetration D. rate of fuel consumption D. affects the compression ratio of an operating engine Ans: A Ans: B FUEL SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE When cleaning a duplex strainer, it is important for Which chemical listed is utilized to prevent and correct most 995 996 _____________. microbial infections occurring within fuel storage systems? A. the pressure to be bled prior to opening the compartment cover A. Bleaches B. the lube oil to be allowed to cool before removing the basket C. the cleaning fluid used to be more viscous than the lube oil D. a new cover gasket to be installed when reassembling the unit Ans: A The metal edge type filters used in diesel engine fuel oil and lube oil systems are normally cleaned in place by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 999 back flushing the system and draining the filter opening the drain plug and blowing through the filter manually operating a built-in scraper and draining the filter flushing with any approved solvent then draining the system C Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial contamination of the fuel supply? B. Banalities C. Biocides D. Benzene additives Ans: C Proper housekeeping to prevent the formation of microbiological growths within a fuel system includes the prevention of water accumulations and the use of _______. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1000 steam coils fuel oil centrifuges fuel oil discharge filters chemical additives called biocides D An increased pressure differential between the inlet and outlet of a strainer usually indicates the strainer is _____________.

997

998

Page 59

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1001

Evidence of corrosion Pitting of metal surfaces Presence of green slime Brightening of copper bering metals D Small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological organisms found in some marine fuels. Some sources of water contamination are _________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1002

holed fouled clean dry B Which of the following statements describes the results of excessive microbiological growths within a fuel system?

A. tank surface leakage

A. All excessive amounts of growth will cause the main engines of the vessel to stall due to the inability to supply the proper quantities of fuel to satisfy the existing load. B. The deposits produced by these growths form blockages and flow restrictions ultimately leading to improper atomization of the fuel into the cylinders. C. Eventually the growth of these organisms will deplete the supply of food available to them, which in turn will cause their demise. D. If continual growth is permitted, a sweet odor similar to that associated with baking will be noticed when system components are opened for inspection. 1004 Ans: B The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location to another by _________. roaches and other insects air, solids, or liquids other non-hydrocarbon fuels all of the above B The major cause of fuel pump and injection system problems is _____________. improper adjustments contaminated fuel kinked fuel lines excessive engine vibration B Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to _____________. allow impurities to settle out of the fuel allow air to escape from the fuel make fuel available for immediate use all of the above D

B. humidity and condensation

C. improper tank washing procedures

D. All of the above

1003

Ans: D The major cause of problems occurring with fuel injection equipment is _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:

1005 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1007 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1009 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1010 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1012

incorrect replacement of barrels and plungers of jerk pumps A. overheating of the nozzle orifices B. cracked pump housings C. dirt in the fuel D. D Ans: Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will 1006 result in _____________. lower compression pressures A. overheating without smoking B. failure to start C. a runaway without load D. C Ans: Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned 1008 at regular intervals in order to remove ___________. sludge A. water B. micro-organism growth C. all of the above D. D Ans: Clogged diesel engine fuel oil filters can cause __________, loss of power misfiring low fuel oil pressure all of the above D AUXILIARY BOILER Generating tubes in waste heat boilers are finned to 1011 ____________. reduce gas flow turbulence A. prevent exhaust gas corrosion increase the rate of combustion increase the rate of heat transfer D A failure to any component of a flame safeguard control for an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, will result in ______________. the prevention of automatic restart an immediate furnace explosion uncontrolled firing automatic restart A The flame safeguard control system of a large automatic auxiliary boiler will provide fuel shut off in the case of high ____________. water voltage fuel pressure steam pressure D Prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should _____________. B. C. D. Ans: 1013

It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and reseat quickly to __________. give warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat prevent valve pounding provide sufficient blowdown B The amount of oil consumed by a return flow-type fuel atomization system, fitted with both supply and return meters, can be determined by the ____________. supply meter reading only return meter reading only sum of the supply and return meter readings difference between the supply and return meter readings D If the fire goes out in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler and the burner continues to supply fuel, there is a potential danger of ______________. overpressure and dry firing a severe furnace explosion spalling damage to the brickwork heat damage to the atomizer B When an automatically fired boiler has a flameout, which of the following actions should occur FIRST?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1014

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1015

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1016

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1017

Page 60

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1018

check and regulate the water level close the air cock once fires are lit blowdown the gauge glass crack the steam stop to assure protective steam flow A Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler when the desired steam pressure is obtained?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1019

The fuel valve should be de-energized. The purge cycle should begin. An alarm should ring. The fuel oil pump should stop. A Which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic auxiliary boiler is prepurged?

A. A temperature sensing device opens the circuit breaker in the burner motor. B. The high limit control secures power to the entire oil firing system.

A. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the closed position. B. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low fire position. C. The damper is moved to the closed position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low fire position. D. The damper in the uptakes is moved to the wide open position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low firing rate position. Ans: B Fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces in waste heat boilers to ____________. A. prevent soot fires in the exhaust system B. prevent exhaust gas erosion of the tubes C. increase the velocity of exhaust gas flow D. increase the rate of heat transfer Ans: D Subtracting the return flow meter reading from the supply flow meter 1023 reading on a boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system, determines the amount of oil ____________. 1021 A. B. C. D. circulated by the system burner throughput returned to the settler discharged from the pump

C. The stack relay actuates the low limit control which breaks the ignition circuit. D. The stack relay secures power to the high voltage side of the ignition transformer. Ans: B Which of the following conditions could cause the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler to lose suction? A. Increased suction head pressure B. Decreased feedwater temperature C. Pump recirculating line being open too much D. Excessive feedwater temperature Ans: D The purpose of a temperature sensing device installed in the stack 1022 of a small automatically fired auxiliary steam boiler is to secure the oil burner _______________. 1020 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1024 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1026 in the event of a flame failure in the event of a stack fire when the water level reaches the crown sheet when the feed pump discharge pressure drops to a preset minimum A Variations in the amount of fuel oil burned in a return flow type burner, are controlled by the ____________. atomizing steam pressure size of the whirling chamber back pressure in the fuel oil return line area of the tangential slots C A burner responsible for producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler, would be caused by a __________.

Ans: B When there is a flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the ____________. A. air supply is shut off B. fuel supply is shut off C. water supply is shut off D. safety valve lifts Ans: B Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to 1027 _____________. 1025 A. remove suspended and precipitated solids from the boiler water B. C. D. Ans: 1029 completely drain the boiler in an emergency situation prevent hardened scale deposits in the water drum remove floating impurities from the oiler water surface A The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by ______________. a decrease in feed temperature high furnace air pressure high steam pressure low steam pressure C If the fuel/air ratio in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is insufficient, the result could lead to __________. inefficient combustion dark smoke automatic shutdown all of the above D High stack temperature occurring in an auxiliary boiler could be a result of ____________. insufficient air for combustion complete combustion in the furnace secondary combustion in the uptake high fuel oil temperature C The maximum pressure developed by a waste heat boiler is determined by the main engine exhaust ____________.

A. defective solenoid valve B. C. D. Ans: 1028 dirty fuel nozzle grounded high tension lead faulty ignition cable connector B A pulsating flame, accompanied by a burner developing black smoke in an auxiliary boiler, is an indication that the _____________. electrode setting is incorrect ignition current is too low fuel oil pressure is too low fuel nozzle is correctly positioned C Failure of the feed pump to deliver feedwater to an auxiliary boiler could be caused by _______________. a low pump suction lift abnormally low water temperature grounded probes in the water level control a high pump suction head C The diesel engine exhaust gas bypass, as fitted with some waste heat boilers, is installed to ____________. prevent engine back pressure at heavy loads increase total engine efficiency at low loads prevent boiler corrosion at low engine loads improve engine fuel consumption at any load C A waste heat boiler is installed on some diesel propelled vessels to _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1030 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1032 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1034

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1031 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1033 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1035

Page 61

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1036 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1038

provide steam for emergency propulsion provide steam for the turbogenerator heat the waste water tanks steam for warming engines B Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _____________. completely drain the boiler in an emergency prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface remove settled solids from the water drum D With which of the following types of diesel engine arrangements is a waste heat boiler most likely to produce the maximum steam pressure, temperature, and flow conditions? Supercharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine Supercharged, loop scavenged diesel engine Turbocharged, crossflow scavenged diesel engine Turbocharged, return flow diesel engine A Which of the following methods is typically employed in the design of waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer, while maintaining low overall weight?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1037 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1039

gas composition gas temperature pressure timing B When an auxiliary boiler is panting and emitting black smoke, you should _____________. increase the fuel oil temperature decrease the fuel oil temperature decrease the fuel oil supply pressure increase the air supply D The purpose of the separating nozzle in the accumulator of a watertube, coil-type, steam generator is to separate _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1040

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1041

dry steam from the steam and water mixture condensate from feedwater superheated steam from saturated steam sludge accumulations from feedwater A Within the cycle of a forced ciculation auxiliary water-tube boiler, part of the water flashes into steam, and the remaining hot water is ____________

A. Feedwater is preheated in a separately fired economizer. B. An external superheater unit is located above the boiler in the gas passages. C. An unfired exhaust gas preheater is added to increase the heat transfer rate. D. Steel fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces to increase the effective surface area. Ans: D A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to 1042 ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1044 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1046 A. B. C. maintain a constant fuel temperature provide a wide range of combustion provide a constant fuel return pressure maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization B In an auxiliary boiler steam and water system, the highest pressure will be in the ____________. steam stop valve dry pipe feedwater system generating tubes C Large steam drums are not required in the design of a coil-type auxiliary water-tube boiler because _____________. steam and water are separated in the accumulator (fclearance chamber) the heat of combustion is sufficient to remove all moisture from the steam the volume of steam is small at low pressures

A. collected in the lower portion of the steam accumulator for recirculation back to the heating coil or water tank B. returned to the lower drum via downcomers due to density difference for reheating C. passes through the domestic heating system return line steam traps to the auxiliary feed supply tank D. automatically dumped into auxiliary feed heater and reheated by auxiliary exhaust back pressure Ans: A The firing range of a variable capacity, return flow-type fuel atomizer 1043 is regulated to meet steam demand by varying the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1045 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1047 A. fuel oil damper setting fuel oil return pressure burner register opening atomizer orifice setting B Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes used in waste heat boilers to ____________. decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes increase the rate of heat transfer reduce accumulations of carbon deposits direct the flow of gases B A horizontal fire-tube package boiler, incorporating a two-pass design, is basically constructed with ____________. the rear of the boiler being used as a combustion chamber

B. extensive fireside baffling used to its fullest, enabling increased heat transfer rates C. removable spiral metal gas retarders being inserted in the tubes to decrease the gas velocity to a minimum, thus extracting the maximum caloric heat value D. all of the above Ans: C Waste heat boilers may be equipped with vents on the feed water 1049 heater heads to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1051 prevent air binding release excess pressure allow for feedwater treatment remove sediment A A distorted furnace in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler may be the result of ____________. firing for extended periods in the low fire mode overheating, due to waterside deposits varying the water level above the crown sheet carrying excessive alkalinity in the boiler water B

D. automatic burner cycling controls steam volume and quality Ans: A Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected 1048 from direct contact with hot gases by ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1050 refractory and insulation several rows of screen tubes steel baffles water wall tubes A Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off? To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. To check for a tight bonnet seal. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. To check the valve packing. C

A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 62

1052

Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to _____________.

1053

Which of the following conditions is responsible for the fuel oil to atomize when using a steam atomizer in an auxiliary boiler? A. B. C. D. Ans: Expansion of the steam in the furnace. Expansion of the steam in the whirling chamber. Expansion of the steam in the orifice plate. All of the above. A The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to _______________. cool the furnace to prevent preignition remove explosive vapours from the furnace evaporate accumulated unburned fuel oil provide sufficient air in the furnace to allow ignition of the fuel

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1054 A. B. C. D.

provide a means of draining the boiler warn the engineer of low water level cool the crown sheet at high firing rates open the burners' electrical firing circuits B A feed pump for an auxiliary boiler might lose suction if the ____________. boiler water level is low feedwater is too hot boiler steam demand is low feedwater is too cold

1055 A. B. C. D.

1056

Ans: B After undergoing extensive repairs, an auxiliary boiler, with a maximum allowable working pressure of 10 kg/cm2, should be hydrostatically tested at a pressure of ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 10 kg/cm2 12.5 kg/cm2 15 kg/cm2 20 kg/cm2 C The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer casings, to maintain a pressure seal protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank C Excessive vibration of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can be caused by _____________. air or water in the furnace combustion pulses fuel oil pump failure flame failure B An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to ____________. recycle exhaust gas to the turbocharger

1057

Ans: B When preparing to light off a cold boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system, the recirculating valve directs the flow of oil ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: directly to the fuel oil heater inlet for further warm-up back to the fuel oil settler for further filtration back to the suction side of the service pump directly to the deep tanks C The purpose of designing some waste heat boilers with sinuous fire tubes, is to ____________. increase exhaust gas velocity through the boiler reduce accumulations of carbon deposits on the heat transfer surfaces eliminate exhaust gas pulsations and noise increase the rate of heat transfer to the waterside D The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly controlled by the ____________. header supply valve burner root valve oil micrometer valve fuel oil back pressure D In the event of a flame failure in an auxiliary water-tube boiler, you must ______________. relight the boiler immediately to prevent loss of steam pressure

1058 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1060 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1062 A.

1059 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1061 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1063 A.

B. bypass a portion of the exhaust gas at peak loads for better efficiency C. bypass exhaust gas at high loads to prevent excessive back pressure D. minimize moisture condensation in the boiler gas passages at low loads Ans: D A properly adjusted safety valve for an auxiliary boiler will 1064 ____________. A. attain maximum lift when it pops below its set pressure B. open with a sharp, clear pop at its set pressure C. close sharply when the pressure drops to its set pressure D. operate most effectively when it has zero blowdown Ans: B Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to 1066 meet a wide variation in steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1068 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1070 automatically supplied with warmer air on demand automatically supplied with more fuel on demand equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers cycled on and off in response to steam demand D The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the ______________. heating coil inlet and outlet surge chamber accumulator water softener C In comparison to straight flow mechanical atomizers, return flow atomizers provide relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing range due to the ____________.

B. relight the fire off the brickwork as long as the bricks are cherry red C. purge the furnace of any combustible gases before attempting to relight the fire D. speed up the feed pump to prevent dry firing when the burner flame is reestablished Ans: C An auxiliary boiler is equipped with a return flow fuel atomization 1065 system, which uses a/an _____________. A. constant fuel supply pressure B. constant fuel return pressure C. variable fuel supply pressure D. all of the above Ans: A The constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burners 1067 designed to meet a wide variation in the steaming loads of an auxiliary boiler, are ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1069 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1071 automatically cycled on and off in response to demand automatically supplied with more fuel on demand equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers equipped with fuel nozzles having variable orifices A Excessive vibration from an auxiliary boiler could be caused by ____________. combustion pulses insufficient air to the burner loose hold-down bolts all of the above D Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a coiltype forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct?

Page 63

A. back pressure regulation resulting in more complete combustion at high firing rates B. oil supply pressure not having to be reduced at low loads to the point where poor atomization occurs C. return flow atomizer being designed for best combustion at low firing rates D. rotational motion imparted by the tangential slots being greater in the return flow atomizer Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is 1072 correct? A. Combustion gases flow through the tubes. B. Flames impinge on the tubes. C. Combustion occurs in the tubes. D. Water flows through the tubes. Ans: A Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a 1074 fire-tube type auxiliary boiler approaches the crown sheet? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1076 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1078 The fusible plugs will melt. The furnace will explode. Excess steam will be generated. The furnace will overheat. A Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes, used in waste heat boilers, to ____________. decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes reduce the accumulation of soot deposits on the tubes create turbulence increase the heat transfer surface area D When a waste heat boiler is installed in the exhaust of a main propulsion diesel engine, the exhaust gas bypass would be used ____________. at high loads to prevent overheating at low loads to prevent corrosion in the boiler during periods of high steam demand when the turbochargerisinoperation B Which of the following items is necessary for all waste heat boiler installations, regardless of design or manufacturer? Control of evaporation A separate means to prevent feedwater contamination Power circulating pump exhaust gas bypass A When lighting off an auxiliary boiler, which of the problems listed could cause the burners to sputter? Cold fuel oil Low fuel oil pressure Low atomizing steam pressure Water in the fuel oil D Which of the following statements describes how the fueloil enters the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates usedin a auxiliary boiler return flow fuel oil system? Through the outer barrel tube. Through the sprayer plate drilled passages. Through tangential slots in the sprayer plate. Through baffles in the orifice plate. C The PRIMARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. reduce engine exhaust noise reduce engine back pressure recover heat which otherwise would be lost increase turbocharger efficiency C A SECONDARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. reduce engine exhaust noise reduce engine back pressure increase engine cycle efficiency increase turbocharger efficiency

A. Water is continuously circulated through a preheater before it enters the fclearance chamber. B. Steam is generated in the heating coils and is force fed to an accumulator. C. Unevaporated boiler water collects in the bottom of the accumulator. D. Moisture is removed from generated steam in a radiant superheater. Ans: C Which of the following statements about a coil-type forced 1073 circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct? A. Steam is generated in the fclearance chamber. B. Steam is recirculated to the heating coils. C. Response to steam demand is comparatively rapid. D. Unevaporated feedwater drains to the bilge. Ans: C Excessive return oil pressure from a variable capacity return flow 1075 fuel oil burner system on an automatic auxiliary boiler, will cause ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1077 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1079 flame failure burner smoking ignition failure burner failure B An auxiliary boiler equipped with a return flow fuel atomization system, has a _____________. constant fuel combustion rate constant fuel return pressure variable fuel supply temperature variable fuel return pressure D The amount of oil atomized by the return flow variable capacity atomizer, used with some automatically fired boilers, is controlled by the _______________. amount of air admitted to the atomizer oil pressure in the oil return line quantity of oil delivered by the service pump proportioning device in the atomizer fuel valve B Throttling a burner air register on an auxiliary boiler could result in ____________. smoky boiler operation decreased fuel consumption improved fuel combustion fewer soot deposits A Diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the firetube or _____________. cyclone furnace boiler type dry back boiler type water-tube type critical circulation boiler type C The variation in the amount of fuel oil burned in the operation of an auxiliary boiler, utilizing a return flow type atomization system, is a function of the _____________. fuel oil recirculating valve fuel oil back pressure fuel supply pressure regulating valve automatic steam atomizer assembly B Auxiliary boilers can be classified as ________________. water-tube natural circulation boilers fire-tube boilers water-tube forced circulation boilers all of the above D In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler _____________. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler hot water fclearancees to steam in the fclearance chamber unevaporated feedwater is lost through the atmospheric vent response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1080 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1082 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1084

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1081 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1083 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1085

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1086 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1088 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1087 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1089 A. B. C. D.

Ans: A

Ans: B

Page 64

1090 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1092 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1094 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1096 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1098 A.

The purpose of the safety relief valves installed on an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. relieve excess fuel oil pressure during the "off" fire cycle admit water to the dry pipe throttle the forced draft fan output for proper combustion reduce excess steam pressure in the boiler D The safety valve installed on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is located on the ____________. thermostat tube topmost coil water tank fclearance chamber D Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is ______________. water-tube supercritical circulation water-tube forced circulation fire-tube controlled circulation fire-tube express circulation B In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, ____________. steam demand response is comparatively rapid steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler unevaporated feedwater is discharged through the skim tube steam demand response is slow A The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank

1091 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1093 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1095 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1097 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1099

In a forced circulation auxiliary boiler, steam is formed in the ____________. heating coils steam accumulator (fclearance chamber) hotwell thermostat tube B Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is _____________. fire-tube controlled circulation fire-tube supercritical circulation water-tube natural circulation water tube express circulation C The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by ____________. girder stays fire-tubes and stay-tubes external boiler plating separate crown sheets B Which type of pump is typically used to supply fuel to a unit type auxiliary boiler? Centrifugal Propeller Reciprocating Rotary D In a coil-type auxiliary water-tube circulation boiler _____________.

B. direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer casings, to maintain a pressure seal C. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss D. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels Ans: C 1100

A. unevaporated feedwater collects in the bottom of the fclearance chamber B. all generated steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler C. heated water fclearancees to steam in the boiler heating coils D. response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler

Ans: A AUXILIARY BOILER - MAINTENANCE Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically 1101 Which of the following procedures decreases the total dissolved fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________. solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler? block all control system relays closed allow the boiler to cool completely close all manually operated fuel valves lock all safety interlock switches closed C How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feedwater of an auxiliary boiler maintained at acceptable limits? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1103 Hydrazine treatment of condensate Frequent compounding Chemical cleaning Bottom blowing D A sprayer plate used in a return flow fuel oil atomizer is correctly installed if the oil __________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1102

A. Feedwater is cycled through a DC heater. B. Feedwater is treated with phosphates. C. Oxygen is liberated in the three-stages of feedwater preheating. D. Oxygen is liberated by maintaining the highest practical feedwater temperature. Ans: D A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler, 1104 would be caused by a/an ______________. A. incorrect electrode setting B. defective solenoid valve C. grounded high tension lead D. incorrect primary air setting Ans: D The water in an auxiliary boiler should be tested for chloride 1106 content to determine ______________. A. total dissolved solids B. salt contamination C. water hardness D. chlorine contamination Ans: B The procedures recommended for auxiliary boilers having high 1108 salinity include ____________.

A. passes through the whirling chamber before passing through the tangential slots B. passes through the tangential slots before passing through the whirling chamber C. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the primary flow of combustion air D. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the swirling atomizing steam Ans: B The water in an auxiliary boiler should be chemically tested daily for 1105 alkalinity and _________________. A. soap hardness B. nitrogen content C. chloride content D. dissolved CO2 Ans: C For proper operation, auxiliary boiler feedwater must have which of 1107 the following characteristics? A. High oxygen concentration B. Low pH C. Proper alkalinity D. All of the above Ans: C The concentration of dissolved solids in the boiler water of an 1109 auxiliary boiler could increase as a result of ___________.

Page 65

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1110

treating with oxygen scavengers securing the boiler and giving it a bottom blow increasing the pH reducing the phosphate level B If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water, you should ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1111

phosphate treatment zero water hardness dissolved oxygen deaeration frequent bottom blows A When checking for the presence of sulphite in the feedwater of an auxiliary boiler, you are in essence checking ____________.

A. secure the fires and maintain feedwater to boiler to keep up the water level B. not secure the fires until water level falls out of sight in the gauge glass C. secure both the fires and the feed inlet valve D. secure the fires when the pressure drops to 50% of the maximum allowable working pressure Ans: C A coil-type automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to be laid up wet for 1112 an indefinite period. The boiler water should be treated to ensure that ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1114 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1116 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1118 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1120 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1122 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1124 the manufacturer's recommended pH is maintained there is no excess of oxygen scavenging chemicals sludge formation cannot occur in the steam separator waterside blowdown will not be required A If an operating auxiliary boiler has a water pH reading of 7, you should ______________. bottom blow the boiler treat the water with caustic soda treat the water with chemical scavengers reduce the water alkalinity to recommended readings B Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by _____________. water in the fuel oil excessive cycling high fuel oil pressure improper burner maintenance D Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would probably be a result of ______________. water in the fuel oil broken high tension leads incorrect electrode setting full fuel pressure at the nozzle A The water in an operating auxiliary boiler should be tested for alkalinity and chloride content each __________. hour day week month B The most common cause of scale formation in an auxiliary boiler is ______________. concentrations of calcium sulfate in the boiler water fuel oil in the feedwater improper treatment of the feedwater with calcium sulfate excessive feedwater alkalinity A Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off? To check the valve packing. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. To check for a tight bonnet seal. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. D Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation? Clean all duplex oil strainers Observe general boiler performance Lift the safety valves by hand Inspect and clean burner oil solenoid valves B Flame failure in an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from a _____________.

A. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for controlling dissolved oxygen B. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for control of pH C. the hardness of the makeup feed water D. to ensure the automatic or manual blowdown rate and frequency is adequate for control of total dissolved solids Ans: A A safety valve on an auxiliary boiler simmers constantly and can not 1113 be stopped by several quick blow-offs using the hand relieving gear. The problem may be __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1115 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1117 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1119 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1121 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1123 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1125 loose dirt on the seat exposed valve springs a clogged drain line a damaged seat D The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for ______________. dissolved oxygen chlorides sludge dissolved nitrogen B Which of the following actions should be taken when an auxiliary boiler is operation? Clean all electrical connections. Lift the relief valves by hand. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves. Inspect for oil and water leaks. D Improper maintenance of an automatic auxiliary boiler oil burner could result in ______________. fuel pump failure fan motor failure increased feedwater consumption decreased boiler efficiency D In a fire-tube auxiliary boiler, you should expect to find the thickest scale on the waterside of the ____________. crown sheet through stays hydrokineter belly plug A If the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler fails to deliver the feed water to the boiler, the cause may be ____________. high steam pressure in the boiler abnormally high feedwater temperature abnormally high boiler water temperature steam demand exceeding feed pump capacity B Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operation? Test boiler water alkalinity Inspect and clean burner fuel oil solenoid valves Lift the safety valves by hand Blowdown the water gauge glass D An automatically fired auxiliary boiler with carbon deposits formed on its burner electrodes, will experience _________. flame failure ignition failure panting of the furnace sputtering of the burner flame B Oxygen corrosion in auxiliary boilers is prevented by treating the boiler feed tank with either sodium ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1126 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1128

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1127 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1129

Page 66

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1130 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1132 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1134

broken electrode insulator A. sulfite or hydrazine faulty steam pressure signal to the trial for ignition circuit B. sulfite or hygroscopic sulfite broken 2000 volt supply lead C. bromide or hydrazine clogged fuel nozzle D. bromide or hygroscopic sulfite D Ans: A A firebox explosion in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler may be 1131 Why should handhole gaskets not be allowed to leak on an auxiliary the result of ______________. boiler? excessive purging before lighting off A. Water circulation in the boiler will be disrupted. insufficient trail for ignition period B. The gasket and its seating surface may become wire drawn. a faulty transformer in the ignition circuit C. The gasket material will become hardened. insufficient purging before lighting off D. Scale and sediment will form on the gasket. D Ans: B After lighting off a cold, automatically fired, auxiliary boiler, as steam 1133 During maintenance inspections of a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you begins to form, you should ___________. should check for _____________. close the air cock A. weaking of the tubes at the tube sheet give the boiler a bottom blow B. burning of tube ends test the safety valve C. fireside corrosion completely open the steam stop D. all of the above A Ans: D If poor combustion occurs in an auxiliary boiler due to an air damper 1135 Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically linkage being out of adjustment, you would adjust the linkage and fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________. then _____________. reset the pressure limit controls test the high and low fire solenoids check the photocell window for carbon deposits check the burner ignition electrode gap C The pH value of water in a diesel engine closed cooling water system should be maintained between _____________. 6.0 to 7.5 8.0 to 9.5 10.0 to 11.5 12.0 to 13.5 B The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxiliary boiler should be maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to _________________. precipitate silica from solution reduce corrosion in the heating coil prevent clogging and erosion in the coil maintain zero water hardness B The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxiliary boiler can be reduced by ____________. adding hydrazine blowing down the boiler adding phenolphthalein adding a sulfite chloride scavenger B In readying an auxiliary water-tube boiler for a routine hydrostatic test, which of the following procedures should be undertaken prior to filling the boiler with fresh water? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1137 allow the boiler to cool completely close all manually operated fuel valves lock all safety interlock switches closed block all control system relays closed B A dirty atomizer sprayer plate in the burner of an auxiliary boiler, would be indicated by ____________. carbon on the register doors a dazzling white atomizer flame fluctuating pressure in the windbox an unevenly shaped burner flame D A bypass line provided around a waste heat auxiliary boiler in a diesel engine exhaust system, may be used to avoid boiler ____________. corrosion at low engine loads erosion at high engine loads overload at high engine loads scaling at all exhaust temperatures A Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation? Clean the flame scanner photocell window. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves. Lift the safety valves by hand. Inspect for oil or water leaks D The correct procedure for giving an auxiliary boiler a bottom blow, is to begin _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1136

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1138

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1139

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1140 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1142

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1141 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1143

A. The safety valve escape piping should be disconnected from the valve body and a blank inserted. B. The boiler vent valves should be opened. C. All handhole/manhole covers should be tightened up as much as possible to preclude any leaks. D. All of the above. Ans: B The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an 1144 auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of __________. A. seawater contamination B. frequent surface blows C. dissolved oxygen deaeration D. frequent bottom blows Ans: A Before an auxiliary boiler is shutdown for an extended period of 1146 time, the water in the boiler should have a pH value of ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 10 7 4 1 A

A. when the boiler has been secured long enough for most solids to settle B. when the boiler has been cooled to ambient temperature C. only after raising the water level to within 1/2 inch of the high water cutout D. only after bypassing the low pressure pressostat Ans: A When an auxiliary boiler is secured and you expect to relight the 1145 unit within six hours, you should _____________. A. maintain a head of steam not less than 1kg/cm2 B. completely fill the boiler with feedwater C. flush the boiler and close the waterside airtight D. maintain steam pressure 1kg/cm2 below normal boiler load Ans: A Improper maintenance of the fuel oil burners in an automatically 1147 fired auxiliary boiler, could result in ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: increased fuel consumption increased feedwater consumption fuel pump failure combustion control system failure A

Page 67

1148 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1150 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1152

Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxiliary boiler can cause ____________. caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal acidic corrosion of the boiler metal hard scale deposits on the boiler tubes etching of the heat exchange surfaces A The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of ___________. seawater contamination frequent surface blows dissolved oxygen deaeration frequent bottom blows A Which of the following conditions could cause black smoke to be discharged from the stack of an auxiliary boiler equipped with turbine-driven rotary cup atomizers?

1149 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1151 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1153

Flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from a/an ______________. incorrect electrode setting incorrect nozzle position clogged fuel nozzle broken high tension lead C The daily inspection of an operating auxiliary boiler should include ____________. lifting of all safety valves an examination of the boiler firesides checking for external fuel and water leaks measuring steam quality C Waterside scale in a fire-tube boiler may cause ___________.

A. Insufficient steam supply to the fuel oil heater. B. Excessive opening of the dampers in the combustion air inlet.

A. increased heat transfer B. fireside erosion

1154

1156

1158

1160

1162

1164

C. Improper turbine shaft speed in the atomizer assembly. C. high steam demand D. high drum water level D. overheated tubes Ans: C Ans: D A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler, is an 1155 Which of the following conditions would cause "panting" in a indication that the ______________. steaming auxiliary boiler? A. fuel oil supply temperature is normal A. Insufficient combustion air B. burner electrode is incorrectly positioned B. Low water level C. fuel/air ratio is incorrect C. Flame failure D. ignition current is too low D. Faulty flame scanner Ans: C Ans: A If oil is dripping from the burner of a coil-type auxiliary steam Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired 1157 generator, the cause may be _____________. auxiliary boiler, you should always ___________. A. the oil valve not seating properly A. block all control valves B. a loose burner nozzle B. allow the boiler to cool completely C. carbon on the burner nozzle causing deflection of oil spray C. lock all safety interlock switches closed D. all of the above D. close all manually operated fuel valves Ans: D Ans: D SCAVENGING,TURBOCHARGING AND AIRCOOLING Which of the two events listed occurs simultaneously in a twoScavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is 1159 stroke/cycle diesel engine? accomplished ___________. A. Exhaust and scavenging A. during the valve overlap period B. Scavenging and compression B. with only the exhaust valve open C. Ignition and expansion C. at a pressure below atmospheric D. Exhaust and compression D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons Ans: A Ans: A Air scavenging of a diesel engine cylinder _____________. A diesel engine is supercharged in order to _____________. 1161 A. blows out the exhaust gases A. lower the no-load RPMs B. supplies oxygen for combustion B. provide more air for combining with the fuel C. cools the valves and cylinder walls C. increase the no-load RPMs D. all of the above D. provide more fuel for combining with the air Ans: D Ans: B One characteristic of a pulse type turbocharging system is Which of the listed types of superchargers will NOT have a 1163 _____________. volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed? A. high average exhaust manifold pressure A. Exhaust gas turbocharger B. greatly fluctuating inlet manifold pressure B. Roots blower C. constant exhaust manifold pressure C. Piston type blower D. multiple exhaust pipes to the turbocharger D. Vane type blower Ans: D Ans: A Which of the following turbocharging systems channels the exhaust 1165 A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve gases of each individual cylinder directly into the turbine rotor overlap than a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, in blades? order to increase the ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: Reaction Pulse Constant Pressure Variable pressure B Which of the following statements is correct regarding a turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel generator? At zero load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust manifold pressure. At full load the intake manifold pressure and exhaust manifold pressure are equal. At full load the intake manifold pressure is less than the exhaust manifold pressure. At full load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust manifold pressure. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1167 temperature of the exhaust gases energy supplied to the turbocharger air pressure to the intake manifold purge of exhausted gases from the cylinders D Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if excessive additional load is applied too quickly? A. Exhaust energy would draw excess air.

1166 A. B. C. D.

B. The inertia of the turbocharger rotor causes a time lag which delays the turbocharger speed increase. C. Exhaust gas pumping losses are increased due to turbine windage. D. Exhaust gas back pressure falls slightly due to increased nozzle action.

Page 68

1168

Ans: D A turbocharged diesel engine will have an intake manifold pressure _____________. A. constantly decreasing as engine load increases B. constantly increasing as the amount of supercharging increases C. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times D. approximately equal to atmospheric pressure at all times Ans: B Which of the diesel engine components listed increases air density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? A. Impeller B. Compressor C. Aftercooler D. Exhaust diffuser Ans: C What is the function of the aftercoolers installed in the diesel engine air intake system? A. Decrease the air density B. Increase the exhaust temperature C. Decrease the lube oil temperature D. Increase the air density Ans: D In a turbocharger, inlet air velocity is increased in the _____________. A. inlet nozzle ring B. stationary diffuser passages C. compressor outlet volute D. rotating impeller vanes Ans: D A Roots-type blower installed on some diesel engines, serves to _____________.

1169

1170

1171

1172

1173

1174

1175

1176

1177

Ans: B A Roots-type blower installed on a direct reversible engine _____________. A. is engaged only when turning ahead B. is geared so that air flow through the blower is always in the same direction C. reverses rotation along with the engine D. exhausts to atmosphere when turning astern Ans: C Which of the engine components listed increases air charge density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? A. Intake manifold B. Water-cooled exhaust system C. Aftercooler D. Exhaust diffuser Ans: C Which of the designs listed will keep the lobes from making contact in a Roots-type blower? A. Drive chain B. Blower timing gears C. Air trapped between blower lobes D. Oil filter between blower lobes Ans: B In a Roots-type rotary blower, the volume of air delivered is directly proportional to _____________. A. engine speed B. engine load C. brake horsepower D. brake specific fuel consumption Ans: A In a turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve remains open until after top dead center and the intake valve opens before top dead center to __________. A. produce a scavenging effect in the combustion space B. equalize cylinder and exhaust manifold pressures C. alleviate the difference in valve size between the intake and exhaust D. flush out condensate that collects after each compression stroke Ans: A Which of the following conditions may contribute to the formation of deposits on the blades of the turbocharger turbine? A. B. C. D. Ans: Poor combustion High cylinder oil consumption Leaking exhaust valves All of the above. D If the turbocharger of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine fails to operate, which of the following statements best describes the probable effect? Intake manifold pressure will be high. Intake manifold pressure will be unaffected. Exhaust temperatures will be high. Exhaust temperatures will be low. C Leaking oil seals on a diesel engine turbocharger can cause _____________. the engine to run after the fuel has been secured the engine to overspeed a fire all of the above D Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a twostroke/cycle diesel engine by ______________. natural aspiration masked intake valves air cells scavenging air D The principal difference between loop scavenging and crossflow scavenging, as used in single acting diesel engines, is the _____________.

A. heat the cylinder for hotter compression B. push out exhaust gases and replace them with fresh air C. force cool air across the radiator, lowering the jacket water temperature D. maintain a positive charge of fresh air in the crankcase thus eliminating the chances of a crankcase explosion Ans: B The small clearances existing between each of the blower lobes, 1178 and between the lobes and casing of a Roots-type blower, must be maintained to ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1180 provide for normal timing prevent blower oil leakage provide adequate blower lubrication prevent abnormal air leakage D Which of the following conditions can cause below normal air pressure in the intake manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine? Excessive piston blow-by to the manifold. Insufficient cooling water flow. Accumulated water in the air boxes. Clogged air intake filters. D A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine is an indication of a/an ______________. turbocharger malfunction or failure crankcase exhauster overload overload on the intercooler obstruction in the engine cylinders A Which of the following terms best describes the Roots-type blower used to supercharge a diesel engine? Rotary vane Positive displacement Axial flow centrifugal B The speed of the turbocharger for a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine driving a generator at constant speed depends on the _____________.

1179

1181

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1182 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1184 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1186

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1183 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1185 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1187

A. engine speed B. kilowatt load

A. direction of air flow within the cylinder B. sequence of port opening

Page 69

C. fuel injection pressure D. air intake manifold temperature Ans: B Scavenging in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine occurs during the 1188 _____________. A. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first part of the intake stroke B. last part of the intake stroke only C. early part of the injection stroke only D. early part of the power stroke Ans: A Cooling the intake air supplied to a diesel engine will 1190 _____________. A. reduce mean effective pressure B. decrease average compression pressure C. decrease air charge density D. increase power output Ans: D Forcing the exhaust gases from the cylinder of an operating diesel 1192 engine with the aid of a blower is known as ________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1194 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1196 scavenging forced draft turbocharging aspiration A The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to _____________. power the aftercoolers power the turbocharger reduce the cylinder scavenge effect cool the turbocharger B Which of the following conditions is realized by the turbocharging of a previously naturally aspirated diesel engine? Ignition lag increases. Lube oil system pressure increases. Brake specific fuel consumption increases. Mechanical efficiency increases. D The process of scavenging a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine serves to _____________. improve fuel flow volume cool the exhaust valves reduce the intake air charge density increase the temperature of exhaust gases B When used in conjunction with a turbocharger, the main function of an aftercooler is to ___________. increase the density of the cylinder air charge prevent turbocharger overheating eliminate the need for a precooler remove moisture from air compressed by the turbocharger A Some diesel engines are supercharged with a _____________. slam charger turbocharger fuel atomizer fuel injector B Most Roots-type blowers have two rotors which _____________. are extremely quiet at high speed rotate in the same direction rotate in opposite directions decrease objectionable turbulence in the cylinders C In a diesel engine, a positive displacement type blower isusually ____________.

C. method of opening exhaust ports D. volume of air admitted to the cylinder Ans: A The term "diesel engine scavenging" means ____________. 1189 A. delivering more air into the cylinder than it would normally receive during an ordinary charging process B. forcing the products of combustion out of the cylinder with the fresh air charge C. collecting the air charge at the air cleaner D. combustion and expansion of hot gas Ans: B Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of 1191 water in the scavenging air receiver? A. Leaking cylinder head gaskets B. Leaking aftercooler C. Excessively low scavenge air temperature D. Auxiliary blower failure Ans: B "Loop," "uniflow," "crossflow," and "return-flow" are terms used to 1193 describe various types of _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1195 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1197 control air circuits supercharging turbochargers scavenging D Which of the following beneficial results can be expected from supercharging a previously naturally aspirated engine? Increased turbulence Increased mechanical efficiency Increased brake mean effective pressure All of the above. D Which of the turbocharging systems listed operates with the least average back pressure in the exhaust manifold? Constant volume Constant pressure Pulse pressure Radial flow C Which of the turbocharging methods listed directs the exhaust gases to the turbine at fairly uniform velocity and pressure? Constant pressure Pulse pressure Constant velocity Axial flow A Intake air flow from a diesel engine turbocharger is directly proportional to engine __________. exhaust gas pressure exhaust gas temperature speed load D The purpose of an aftercooler is to _____________. reduce the turbocharger operating temperature increase the pressure of the inlet air increase the density of the inlet air reduce the blower operating temperature C As engine RPM is increased from idle speed to full load speed, which of the conditions listed will decrease? Compression ratio Fuel/Air ratio Compression pressure Lube oil pressure B The high air velocity leaving the compressor of an exhaust gas turbocharger is converted to pressure in the __________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1198

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1199

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1200 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1202 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1204 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1206

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1201 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1203 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1205 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1207

A. gear driven by the engine B. driven by an exhaust gas turbine

A. inlet nozzle ring B. turbine wheel blading

Page 70

1208

1210

1212

1214

C. driven by a camshaft D. driven by separate motor Ans: A Turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engines utilize valve overlap for _____________. A. improving cylinder scavenging B. preheating the combustion chamber C. reducing air charge density D. preventing valve wear Ans: A If the turbocharger failed on an auxiliary diesel engine, which of the following conditions would probably occur? A. Full power cannot be developed. B. The exhaust will contain black smoke. C. Complete combustion will be impossible. D. All of the above. Ans: D A thin film of oil on the lobes of a Roots-type blower indicates _____________. A. proper lubrication B. timing out of adjustment C. excessive cylinder lubrication D. leaking rotor bearing oil seals Ans: D During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine must be less than the intake manifold pressure to ensure ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: effective cylinder scavenging and cooling constant pressure from the turbochargers cooler operation of the exhaust system effective constant pressure for turbocharger operation A In a multi-cylinder, constant pressure, turbocharged diesel engine, the combined exhaust temperature at the turbocharger inlet reads higher than the individual cylinder exhausts. This means the _____________. combined exhaust pyrometer is defective combined exhaust pyrometer is reading normally turbine blades are coated with carbon turbine is overheating B In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the process of scavenging begins as the ________. piston nears and passes TDC early part of the upstroke piston passes BDC early part of the downstroke B The power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop if the cooling water flow through the aftercooler is interrupted because the _____________. turbocharger stalls exhaust pressure increases air charge density decreases scavenge effect increases C If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant the turbocharger speed will _____________. decrease until the engine speed increases increase as the load increases decrease as the load increases remeins unchanged as the load decreases B Which of the following devices will increase the power output of a diesel engine without increasing its frictional load? Positive displacement blower Roots-type rotary blower Gear-driven centrifugal blower turbine-driven centrifugal blower D Which of the Roots blower rotors listed below, will supply air to a two-stroke/cycle, medium-speed, diesel engine with the least amount of turbulence and pulsation?

1209

1211

1213

1215

C. diffuser passages D. inlet volute Ans: C The compression of air in a positive displacement rotary supercharging blower, occurs only _____________. A. between the rotating blower lobes B. between the casing and blower lobes C. after the engine reaches operating speed D. as air moves into the discharge passage Ans: D The power consumed during the scavenging process of a diesel engine is known as the _____________. A. scavenging loss B. valve loss C. back pressure loss D. pumping loss Ans: D In a main propulsion turbocharged diesel engine, the speed of the turbocharger varies according to the _____________. A. governor droop B. speeder spring tension C. fuel rack lag D. load on the engine Ans: D Large, two-stroke/cycle, main propulsion, diesel engine cylinders can be successfully pressure charged during normal operation, by using the ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: exhaust gas temperature system exhaust load system constant or pulse pressure system constant volume system C When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a twostroke/cycle diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas turbocharger, resulting in the incorrect amount of air for combustion? During operation at low speed During operation at rated speed, but low power output During acceleration All of the above D The process of supplying a diesel engine cylinder with air at a pressure greater than atmospheric is called _________. engine displacement super-aspirating air injection supercharging D A supercharged diesel engine, when compared to a similar naturally aspirated diesel engine, will develop an increase in _____________. ignition lag engine horsepower lube oil system pressure specific fuel consumption B Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine, a supercharged diesel engine has _____________. a cylinder air charge of higher pressure increased pumping losses less valve overlap educed blowby A The relative air pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine is usually _____________. greater than the average exhaust manifold pressure less than the average exhaust manifold pressure greater at the turbine wheel than at the impeller greater at reduced engine speed A The function of the aftercooler installed between the turbocharger and intake manifold on some diesel engines, is to _____________.

1216

1217

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1218 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1220

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1219 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1221

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1222 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1224

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1223 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1225

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1226

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1227

A. Three-helical lobes B. Two-helical lobes

A. increase the density of the intake air B. decrease turbocharger power usage

Page 71

1228

1230

1232

1234

C. Three-cylindrical lobes D. Two-cylindrical lobes Ans: A Performance of a turbocharged engine can be improved by _____________. A. decreasing the amount of valve overlap B. preheating the air intake C. aftercooling the intake air D. preheating light fuels Ans: C The air supplied to the cylinders by a turbocharger is often reduced in volume by a/an ______________. A. air compressor B. diffuser C. aftercooler D. venturi Ans: C Some diesel engines are equipped with a Roots-type blower to provide ______________. A. more air to combine with the fuel B. more amps per kilowatt hour C. higher no-load RPMs D. higher voltage output Ans: A When the load is increased on a turbocharged diesel engine, the amount of increased air supplied by the turbocharger will _____________. A. lag behind the increased fuel supplied to the engine B. enter the engine along with the increase in fuel C. enter the engine before the increased fuel supply

1229

1231

1233

1235

C. reduce exhaust gas temperature D. compensate for turbocharger RPM fluctuations Ans: A Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _____________. A. higher torque but lower brake horsepower B. lower torque but higher brake horsepower C. higher torque and higher brake horsepower D. lower torque and lower brake horsepower Ans: C The lobes of a Roots-type blower are sometimes twisted into a spiral formed around the axes of rotation to ____________. A. decrease air losses around the lobes B. decrease maintenance C. allow for higher blower operating speeds D. produce a more constant airflow Ans: D An aftercooler installed between the turbocharger and the cylinder air inlet _____________. A. increases the density of the air B. decreases the density of the air C. increases the specific heat of the air D. decreases the specific heat of the exhaust Ans: A The large number of mechanical and pulsating vibrations developed in a diesel engine may damage an attached _____________. A. scavenged air pump because it is designed for steady state operation rather than pulsating gas load B. reciprocating scavenge pump because of its direct linkage to the crankshaft C. rotary blower because it operates at close tolerances over a small range of speeds and delivers its air charge at a certain resonant frequency D. gas driven turbocharger because it has a wide speed range and high temperature materials that are subject to resonant vibration

D. leave the turbocharger as a negative pulse

Ans: A 1236

Ans: D TURBOCHARGER AND AIRCOOLER - MAINTENANCE When the timing gear backclearance for a Roots-type blower has If over a period of weeks the air-box pressure of a turbocharged, 1237 become excessive, the problem is properly repaired by diesel engine, operating at full load, appears to be dropping off, the _____________. cause can be _____________. renewing the drive gear renewing the driven gear renewing both driving and driven gears as a set shimming and pinning the gears with proper backclearance C Which of the following conditions would require the removal of a turbocharger for repair? Nicked blades Broken blades Stretched blades All of the above D Following the failure of one turbocharger on a large, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine, fitted with multiple turbochargers, which of the following actions should be taken prior to further operation of the engine? Blank off the exhaust gas inlet to the damaged turbocharger. Secure cooling and lubrication to the damaged turbocharger. Lock the rotor of the damaged turbocharger. All of the above. D An operating turbocharged diesel engine that suddenly loses power, is due to a/an _____________. restricted turbocharger air intake oil leak into the turbocharger dribbling injector low fuel viscosity A Which of the following precautions should be taken when cleaning the air filter on a diesel engine equipped with a turbocharger? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1239 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1241 open air-box drains loss of cooling water to the diffuser gradual fouling of the air filters improperly timed exhaust valves C If you observe smoke coming from the turbocharger of an auxiliary diesel engine, you should ______________. check the air filter for obstruction check for an exhaust leak check the exhaust temperature secure the engine D Corrosion and grooving on the blading of an exhaust driven turbocharger is caused by certain components of residual fuel oils. These components are vanadium, sodium, and ________________. copper carbon hydrogen sulphur D While maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming from the turbocharger casing, you should ____________. check the air filter for dirt check for an exhaust leak check the cooling water temperature notify the bridge that you are going to shut the engine down D Which of the listed adjustments must be made to a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if a turbocharger is to be installed?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1238 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1240

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1242 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1244

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1243 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1245

A. Reduce engine speed to idle before removing the filter. B. Soak the dirty filter in kerosene only. C. Blow out the air inlet with compressed air.

A. Increase the compression ratio. B. Increase the exhaust and intake valve overlap. C. Increase the ignition lag.

Page 72

D. cover the air inlet after removing the filter Ans: D Which of the following problems can cause an above normal air 1246 temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine? A. Faulty turbocharger turbine diffuser ring B. C. D. Ans: 1248 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1250

D. Decrease the amount of exhaust and intake valve overlap Ans: B Which condition indicates the air side fouling of an aftercooler on a 1247 turbocharged diesel engine?

A. An increased air temperature differential between the cooler inlet and outlet. Faulty turbocharger compressor ring B. A decrease in the air pressure differential across the cooler. Insufficient cooling water flow C. Excessive condensate forming in the air box. Clogged air intake filters D. A decrease in the temperature differential between the cooler inlet and outlet C Ans: D A turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine can overspeed due Which of the following conditions may be attributed to a fouled 1249 to _____________. turbocharger compressor inlet screen or filter? air in the hydraulic governor A. Decreasing scavenge air pressure. high ambient air temperature B. Increasing exhaust temperatures before the turbine. oil leaking into the turbocharger compressor end C. Reduction in engine speed. insufficient piston ring blow-by D. All of the above C Ans: D GOVERNOR AND OVERSPEED CONTROL Diesel engines driving alternators operating in parallel must Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a constant speed 1251 maintain a set frequency regardless of load changes. The governor mechanical governor, will cause the engine speed to initially characteristic used to accomplish this is known as ____________. ___________. actuation sensitivity compensation promptness C How is the diesel engine operating RPM affected when a "ZERO DROOP" setting is selected on the governor? The RPM will drop to low idle when load is applied. The RPM must be manually controlled by the load limit knob. The governor has no control over RPM in this mode. The RPM will remain the same with or without load. D On a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous governor, if the "speed droop" control is reduced to the "zero" setting, the engine _____________. speed will drop drastically with any increase in load will stop due to zero fuel supply will stall upon application of load speed will remain fairly constant despite load changes D Air bubbles in a hydraulic governor can cause _____________. sluggish response speed droop variations isochronous governing sensitivity increase A Governor hunting is caused by _____________. governor undercontrol excessive speed droop insufficient speed droop governor overcontrol D A direct acting, pneumatically controlled governor for a diesel engine operates in a range of 0.7 to 3.5 bar. The fuel rack position is at 20 mm when the governor air pressure is 2.1bar. If the governor air pressure changes to 1.4 bar, the fuel rack is at 13 millimeters 17 millimeters 22 millimeters 24 millimeters A An overspeed trip stops a diesel engine when the engine _____________. runs out of fuel has low lubricating oil pressure exceeds a set maximum speed has high cooling water temperature C A. B. C. D. Ans: 1253 increase decrease fluctuate remain constant B If the main propulsion diesel engine governor works irregularly with a jerking motion, a possible cause can be _____________. a sticking fuel control linkage a malfunctioning overload cam an unlocked overspeed trip floating valves A The required amount in the change of speed necessary before a governor will make a corrective movement is known as _____________. speed droop sensitivity stability promptness B Which of the listed governor operating characteristics is considered to be isochronous? Zero speed droop Positive speed droop Negative speed droop Varying speed droop A A continuous fluctuation of the speed, due to overcontrol by the governor, is known as _____________. hunting sensitivity promptness speed droop A After each speed change, the compression of the diesel engine governor speeder spring is returned to a constant value, regardless of the amount of movement of the fuel control mechanism and engine load. Hence, this results in ____________. speed droop governing isochronous governing high sensitivity governing relay-type governing B In a simple hydraulic governor with speed droop, oil under pressure is maintained ready for use in the _____________. power piston governor sump spring-loaded piston accumulator pressure pilot valve assembly C

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1252

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1254

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1255

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1256 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1258 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1260

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1257 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1259 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1261

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1262 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1263 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 73

1264

Internal combustion engines are to be fitted with governors to prevent the engines from exceeding the rated speed by more than ______. A. B. C. D. Ans: 10 percent 15 percent 20 percent 25 percent B When the prime movers of two paralleled generators are equipped with mechanical-hydraulic governors, and are operating within their designed range, the unit with the least amount of speed droop will ____________. pick up more of any increase in load pick up less of any increase in load share an equal amount of any increase in load drop an equal amount of any decrease in load A The direct acting mechanical governor used with some small diesel engines, controls fuel flow to the engine by _____________.

1265

Which of the listed governor characteristics will greatly affect the load sharing relationship between paralleled diesel generators? A. B. C. D. Ans: Sensitivity Power Speed droop Compensation C A change in engine speed is required before a governor is able to make a corrective movement of fuel rack. This aspect of governing is commonly expressed as a percent and is known as _______________. governor sensitivity governor promptness speed droop isochronous governing A Sensitivity for a diesel engine governor is described as the _____________.

1266

1267

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1268

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1269

A. governor flyweight action on a pilot valve which controls fuel injection B. governor flyweight motion acting on fuel controls through suitable linkage C. positioning a butterfly valve in the fuel delivery system D. positioning a servomotor piston attached to the fuel controls Ans: B The ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed 1270 is termed _____________. A. sensitivity B. stability C. promptness D. speed droop Ans: B For most diesel propulsion and generator engines, the overspeed 1272 trip device will stop the engine by ____________. A. moving the governor control to stop B. shutting off the lubricating oil supply C. tripping the governor emergency stop lever D. shutting off the fuel supply Ans: D An AC diesel generator incapable of being paralleled with the main 1274 bus normally employs an isochronous governor in order to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1276 increase speed droop in proportion to load maintain a frequency of 60 cycles per second increase or decrease engine speed upon load demand prevent attempts to parallel B In a simple mechanical governor, the _____________. A. centrifugal force rotates the ball-head B. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by spring force C. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by hydraulic pressure

A. percent of speed change necessary for corrective action by the fuel control B. ability to maintain desired engine speed without speed fluctuation C. governor's speed of response to variations in engine load D. ability to maintain constant speed regardless of engine load Ans: A An overcorrecting and unstable engine governor operation is known 1271 as ____________. A. droop B. dead banding C. dash potting D. hunting Ans: D A directly connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine 1273 should be fitted with a/an ____________. A. constant speed governor B. variable speed governor C. isochronous hunting governor D. nutating disk governor Ans: B Which of the speeder springs listed is more suitable for a governor 1275 installed on an engine operating over a wide speed range? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1277 Spiral Conical Cylindrical Helical B An overspeed trip serves to _____________. A. stop the engine by cutting off the cooling water supply B. stop the engine by closing the air intake C. slow the engine but not stop it

D. speeder spring alone actuates the fuel control rod Ans: B If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor 1278 breaks while operating at full load, the engineRPM will __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1280 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1282 increase until the overspeed trip actuated hunt until stabilized by the droop rod decrease to a slightly lower value remain the same until manually changed C The hunting of a diesel engine may be caused by ___________. excessive speed droop insufficient speed droop excessive sensitivity low governor power D Which of the following statements best describes the operational characteristics of an isochronous governors?

D. slow the engine to half of normal load Ans: B A diesel engine is equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor. 1279 A decrease in load will cause the engine speed to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1281 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1283 decrease only increase only decrease slightly then returned to original speed remein constant D If an engine operates at 900 RPM at no load, and at 870 RPMat full load, the speed droop is _____________. 0.031 0.034 0.037 0.04 B A diesel engine is fitted with a pneumatically actuated governor, having an operating range of 0.7 to4.2 bar. The current fuel rack setting is 15 mm at 2.1bar. If the air pressure to the governor is increased to 2.8 bar, the fuel rack position is

Page 74

1284

1286

1288

1290

A. They are suitable for use on main propulsion units. B. They strive to maintain a constant prime mover speed for all values of steady load. C. They cause a proportional drop in prime mover speed as the load is increased. D. They have poor sensitivity at low RPM Ans: B Governors used on diesel engines to limit the load must be equipped with _____________. A. a fixed maximum fuel stop B. a variable maximum fuel stop C. pivotless centrifugal flyballs D. a proportional action compensation mechanism Ans: B Which of the following devices is common to both mechanical and hydraulic governors? A. Direct linkage between the ball-head and fuel rack B. A servomotor C. A compensating device D. Flyweights Ans: D On most diesel engines, the governor controls the output speed by _____________. A. controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders B. varying the speed of the turbocharger C. adjusting the compression ratio D. changing the timing of the fuel injection camshaft Ans: A Which of the items listed causes a direct acting mechanical governor to operate the engine fuel control linkage? A. B. C. D. Ans: Hydraulic oil pressure Servomotor action Flyweight centrifugal force Relay motion C A diesel generator has just been paralleled with an AC turbogenerator, but the load can not be properly divided. This could be caused by _____________.

A. 10 mm B. 14 mm C. 15 mm D. 20 mm Ans: D The principal characteristic of an isochronous governor is it will _____________. A. slow the machine down as the load is increased B. shut down the engine if it overspeeds C. display excessive speed droop D. maintains a constant speed with variation of loads Ans: D Which of the following devices is a common basic element with nearly all mechanical governors? A. Power piston B. Control rack C. Weights acted on by centrifugal force D. Isochronous droop spring Ans: C The governor controlling a diesel engine modulates crankshaft RPM by adjusting the _____________. A. intake air supply B. turbocharger speed C. fuel injection pumps D. engine speed droop Ans: C A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor responds to reduced engine load with an immediate increase in _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1293 pilot valve oil pressure speeder spring force compensation needle valve clearance centrifugal force on the fly weights D In addition to the normal governor, each main engine havinga maximum continuous output of 300 hp and over, which canbe declutched or which drives a controllable pitchpropeller, ______________.

1285

1287

1289

1291

1292

A. an incorrect diesel generator governor speed droop adjustment B. a faulty reverse power relay within the main circuit breaker assembly C. unsynchronized isochronous load distribution adjustments

A. is not required to have any additional overspeed protection provided a hydraulic governor is used B. and is a direct reversible engine, is required to have an overspeed trip set to secure the fuel to the engine when its rated speed is exceeded by more than 15 percent C. is to be fitted with a separate overspeed device so adjusted that the speed cannot exceed the maximum rated speed by more than 20 percent D. will not require any additional overspeed protection provided a mechanical type governor is used Ans: C

D. a different speed setting on each unit

Ans: A The overspeed trip device installed in some diesel engines is automatically actuated by _____________. A. spring force B. hydraulic pressure C. centrifugal force D. mechanical linkage Ans: C GOVERNOR - MAINTENANCE The most common contaminate of governor hydraulic fluid is The purpose of the compensating adjustment used in a diesel 1295 1296 ____________. engine hydraulic governor is to _____________. A. moisture A. compensate for low oil level B. dirt B. increase governor promptness C. acid C. prevent governor hunting D. air D. limit engine load Ans: B Ans: C During a routine round of a diesel engine generator, you observe a A large change in ambient temperature, or using an oil of a viscosity 1297 1298 low oil level in the governor sump. If there is no visible sign of different than the one recommended by the manufacturer in a external leakage, you should suspect the cause to be a/an mechanical hydraulic governor, will result in the need to adjust the ________. ____________. 1294 A. B. C. D. Ans: leakage through the governor drive shaft oil seal leakage through the power piston oil seal uncovered sight glass ventilation orifice defect in the sight glass gasket A A. B. C. D. Ans: pilot valve opening compensating needle valve compensating spring tension accumulator spring tension B

Page 75

1299

Where one or more diesel driven AC generators are operating in parallel, reducing the value of the speed droop to "zero" on one unit will allow that unit to ____________. A. B. C. D. gradually reduce its speed as load is applied change load without changing speed automatically divide and balance the loads effectively anticipate the amount of fuel necessary to bring the engine up to the proper output to accept the increased load

1300

Which of the following adjustments is always required whenever the diesel engine governor oil has been drained and renewed? A. B. C. D. Speed droop Compensation Idle speed setting Load limit control

1301

Ans: B If the compensating needle valve of a hydraulic governor is opened more than necessary the governor will _____________.

1302

Ans: B If the load on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor is increased, after compensation is performed by the governor, the engine speed will __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: remain the same increase decrease fluctuate A If a hydraulic governor has been refilled with oil, the engine should be operated until it reaches normal temperature, then the air should be purged, and the _______.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1303

have a larger than normal dead band produce excessive speed response to a load change respond slowly to any change in engine load stabilize engine speed at the new governor setting B Trapped air was bled from the hydraulic system of a diesel engine governor while it had been operating at idle speed. Oil was added to restore the correct level and the air vent plug tightened. The compensating needle valve should then be gradually ______

1304

A. opened until hunting is eliminated B. closed until it is approximately 1/16 of a turn open C. closed to cause the engine to hunt in order to purge trapped air from the new oil D. closed until engine hunting is eliminated Ans: D Friction developing between the moving parts of a governor, 1305 governor linkage and control valve will cause the governor to _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1307 react with insufficient speed droop fail to react to small speed changes have excessive sensitivity to small speed changes remain in the neutral position B The major cause of trouble in a mechanical-hydraulic governor is contamination of the hydraulic fluid by _____________. dirt fuel oil governor cooling water fuel oil tars A On a diesel engine equipped with a hydraulic speed control governor, hunting in many cases can be corrected by adjusting the _____________.

A. rack position should be adjusted B. compensating needle valve should be opened fully C. compensating needle valve should be adjusted to stabilize operation D. speed limiting device should be adjusted Ans: C If the operating speed of a diesel engine increases without an 1306 apparent change in the engine control settings, you may suspect a ________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1308 clogged intake air intercooler control air leak leaking air starting valve malfunctioning governor D Adjustments to the compensating needle valve in a hydraulic governor should be made with the engine at _____________. maximum power at a normal load maximum power and load under normal conditions half speed and normal temperature normal operating temperature without a load D A diesel generator governor is hunting. After changing the oil the governor is flushed and the compensation needle valve is adjusted; but the hunting persists. You should NOW _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1309

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1310

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1311 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1313 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1315 A. B. C. D.

accumulator spring compression A. check air intake manifold pressure balance piston B. calibrate the fuel pump rack settings compensating needle valve C. set the speed droop adjustment to zero proportional piston D. carefully check for binding in the governor linkage C Ans: D Compensating needle valve adjustments to a hydraulic governor If a main propulsion diesel engine hunts excessively at idle speed, 1312 should be made with the engine _____________. you should ____________. running at normal operating temperature without load A. adjust the idle speed control running at half speed and at normal temperature B. drain and flush the governor and replace the oil running at maximum power and load under normal conditions C. adjust the compensating needle valve developing maximum power at normal load D. adjust the load limit A Ans: C FOUR STROKE ENGINES - DESIGN,COMPONENTS AND OPERATION Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate Clearance volume scavenging in a turbocharged, four1314 bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine? stroke/cycle diesel engine is accomplished ___________. Spclearance lubrication A. during the valve overlap period Pressure lubrication B. with only the exhaust valve open Sight feed lubricators C. at a pressure below atmospheric Mechanical lubricators D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons B Ans: A Trunk-type diesel engine pistons are most effectively cooled by The reversing cams of some four-stroke/cycle diesel engines are 1316 heat _____________. brought into position by ____________. conducted through the engine block A. sliding the camshaft along its axis conducted to water cooled cylinder walls B. rotating the cam 180 conducted through the piston crown C. rotating the cam followers 180 losses to escaping exhaust gases D. moving the idler sprockets in the drive chain

Page 76

1317

Ans: B Which of the following conditions can cause above normal air temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a fourstroke/cycle, turbocharged, diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans: Clogged air intake filters Piston blow-by A defective aftercooler Faulty exhaust valves C Trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is ____________. radiated through the engine block transferred to water cooled cylinder walls conducted through the piston crown transferred to escaping exhaust gases B Broken intake valve springs on one cylinder of a diesel engine can cause the engine to _____________. overspeed fire improperly lose oil pressure overheat rapidly B When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the engine manufacturer, the diesel engine valves will _____________. open earlier than normal close earlier than normal remain open for a shorter duration fail to open when the valves are warm A Excessive lube oil consumption can result from worn or broken _____________. piston rings valve guides valve seals all of the above D Excessive lubricating oil consumption in a running diesel engine can be caused by _____________. clogged lube oil piping excessive valve-guide clearance high lube oil viscosity low lube oil temperature B The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to operate the _____________. fuel injectors exhaust valves intake valves all of the above D The force exerted by a valve spring to close the diesel engine valves, is proportional to _____________. spring compression engine speed the natural frequency of vibration spring surge A Spring surge in diesel engine valve springs can result in _____________. increasing effective spring force bouncing of the valve gear splitting of the valve keeper collars failure of the valve to open B The angular distance a flywheel rotates between the firing of the cylinders of a V-16, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is _____________. 22.50 33.75 45.00 90.00 C

1318

Ans: A How much will the jacket water temperature normallyincrease between the inlet and outlet of medium orhigh-speed diesel engines? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1 to 3C 3 to 5C 5 to 10C 15 to 25C C Ring groove inserts are occasionally used on aluminum alloy pistons to ____________. reduce the ring groove wear rate seal against crankcase vapors lessen the wear on aluminum parts of the cylinder allow for the greater expansion rate of aluminum A Excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. late combustion plugged oil wiper rings low lube oil temperature low lube oil pressure B During the power stroke of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, most of the side thrust of a trunk-type piston is absorbed by the _____________. piston skirt pinion crosshead compression rings A Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause _____________. high lube oil viscosity increased lube oil consumption low lube oil temperatures high firing pressures B In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guides can cause excessive ____________. exhaust pressure exhaust temperatures cooling water temperatures lube oil consumption D A diesel engine valve spring is under compression when thevalve is _________. I. open II. closed I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C Exhaust pipes for separate diesel engines can be combined only when _____________. space limitations prevent separately run pipes the engines are small auxiliary units they are arranged to prevent gas backflow to each engine a waste heat boiler is installed C The satisfactory operation of diesel engine exhaust valves usually depends on ______________. the proper back pressure the cooling water temperature correct timing and proper seating accurate metering and the exhaust temperature C On a medium-speed main propulsion diesel engine, the crankpin or crank journal bearings receive lubricating oil from _____________. a spindle lubricator an oil jet internal spclearanceing drilled passages in the crankshaft D

1319 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1321 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1323

1320 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1322 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1324

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1325 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1327 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1329 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1331 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1333 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1335

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1326 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1328 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1330 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1332 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1334 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1336

A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 77

1337

In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because _____________. A. the beveled edges of the intake valves provide for self-centering during seating B. intake valves utilize stellite-coated valve seat inserts which reduce wear

1338

Multiple concentric valve springs are often used with diesel engine valves to ____________. A. enable research and development of cam contour to be simplified B. operate the valve gear where a larger force is normally required, but space limitations restrict the use of a single large spring C. allow for easier valve replacement

C. the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the volume of air passing through exhaust valves D. intake valves are less affected to the corrosive action of exhaust gases Ans: D Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop a medium or high-speed 1339 diesel engine, why is it necessary to allow the engine to idle for a few minutes? A. To let the waste heat boiler reduce it's rate of steam generation. B. C. D. Ans: 1341 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1343 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1345 To ensure the fuel nozzles are flushed clean. To clear the smoke stack. To prevent internal damage from local overheating. D In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at _____________. twice the crankshaft speed half the crankshaft speed the same speed as the crankshaft a speed independent of the crankshaft B A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine makes four strokes during each __________. crankshaft revolution mechanical cycle of operation period of two combustion cycles cycle of two events B Regarding jerk-type fuel pumps as used on some auxiliary diesel engines, the delivery cutoff point is controlled with a _____________. delivery valve spring spill port for leakoff check valve in the guide helical groove on the plunger D The firing order of an in-line, four-stroke/cycle, six cylinder, auxiliary diesel engine is 1-5-3-6-2-4. When the #1 cylinder is firing at top dead center, the #3 piston is ____________. on the intake stroke on top dead center on the power stroke at bottom dead center A Which of the following statements represents the advantage of a precombustion chamber used in an auxiliary diesel engine? Timing of injection does not need to be exact. Turbulence is eliminated. Lower mean effective pressures are developed. Excellent control of combustion can be attained. A The exhaust valve opens before bottom dead center in a four stroke engine to___________. I. allow for blow down II. reduce pumping losses

D. enable a total smaller valve spring force to keep the valve tight on its seat Ans: B Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are 1340 usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to ____________. A. provide cooling water flow when the engine is running either ahead or astern B. provide the greatest pump efficiency C. prevent pump clogging from marine growth D. prevent cavitation at the pump outlet Ans: A Fuel oil begins injection into the cylinder of a four-stroke/cycle diesel 1342 engine during the _____________. A. intake stroke B. exhaust stroke C. power stroke D. compression stroke Ans: D What is the speed of the crankshaft in a four-stroke/cycle engine 1344 when the camshaft is turning at 750 rpm? A. 375 RPM B. 500 RPM C. 750 RPM D. 1500 RPM Ans: D What is the crank angle between any two crank throws in the firing 1346 order of a four-stroke/cycle, in line, eight cylinder diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1348 45 60 90 100 C Precombustion chambers, air cells, and energy cells in high- speed, small bore diesel engines all serve to increase _____________. firing pressure ignition quality of fuel fuel/air ratio during compression turbulence D In a full floating gudgeonpin, the pin is prevented from sliding against the cylinder walls by _____________. snap rings seal welding a press fitting a tongue-and-groove A A V-12 four-stroke/cycle 500 horsepower diesel engine is operating under a normal load, the firing pressures are low and the exhaust temperatures are high. Which of the following problems is the most probable cause of this condition? Fuel pump rack setting is too far out. The air intake filter is missing. The exhaust back pressure is too high. The fuel pump rack setting is too far in. C One advantage obtained from the use of a precombustion chamber in a diesel engine is _____________. increased engine thermal efficiency higher peak cylinder pressures higher developed BMEP smoother combustion

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1347

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1349

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1350

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1351

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1352

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1353 A. B. C. D.

I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C In order to keep excess oil from the intake ports in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines, ______________. wide compression rings are used oil rings are located above the piston pin dense chromium plating is used on all piston rings oil rings are located near the bottom of the piston skirt

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1354 A. B. C. D.

Page 78

1355

Ans: D The use of push rods are necessary in a diesel engine when _____________. A. the camshaft is located some distance below the rocker arms B. the rocker arms are pivoted near their centers C. two or more valves must be opened and closed at the same time

1356

Ans: D When attempting to restart a warm high-speed engine, which of the following reactions can you expect? A. Excessive fuel use B. Higher than normal temperatures for start up C. Longer starting periods

D. hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters are used Ans: A Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a 1357 single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a single acting two-stroke/cycle diesel engine because ____________. A. bearing pressure in a four-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed B. bearing pressure in a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed C. the maximum bearing pressure is higher in a single acting twostroke/cycle diesel engine D. two-stroke/cycle diesel enginesrequire more complicated lubrication piping Ans: A In a diesel engine, with the valves set to specification, the shape of 1359 the cam determines the valve _____________. A. point of opening B. speed of opening C. lift from its seat D. all of the above Ans: D A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve 1361 overlap than a naturally aspirated, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine in order to increase the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1363 temperature of the exhaust gases energy supplied to the turbocharger air pressure to the intake manifold cooling effect on the exhaust valves D Valves in the cylinder head of a diesel engine are opened by the direct action of the _____________. exhaust pressure valve spring pressure rocker arm movement gudgeon pin movement C A four-stroke/cycle six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 153624. When cylinder #6 is firing at top dead center, piston #4 is ____________. at top dead center on the compression stroke at bottom dead center on the intake stroke D In an auxiliary diesel engine bypass type lubricating oil system, the main lube oil pump forces _____________. all of the oil used by the engine through a filter some of the oil used by the engine through a filter some of the oil used by the engine through a centrifuge cylinder clearance volume B An inline engine having a 225mm bore and more than eight cylinders will _________. incorporate the use of two explosion relief valves have three explosion relief valves have at least eight explosion relief valves not be required to have explosion relief valves B An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to _____________. raise lube oil viscosity for easier starting in cold weather increase air inlet temperature increase compression ratio increase jacket water temperature for easier starting in cold weather D

D. Higher than normal lube oil pressure Ans: B Cams used to activate mechanically operated air starting valves on 1358 four-stroke/cycle diesel engines should have which of the valve lift profiles listed? A. Abrupt lift with a short open period, and abrupt valve seating. B. Gradual lift with a short fully open period, and accelerated valve closing. C. Abrupt lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual valve seating. D. Gradual lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual valve seating. Ans: C Which type of gudgeon pin uses bearings in the piston bosses, but 1360 is fixed to the small end of the connecting rod? A. Semi-floating B. Full floating C. Solid D. Fixed Ans: A To reduce the weight of the reciprocating parts, pistons of high1362 speed engines are made considerably shorter. This results in _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1364 less piston slap and quieter running increased crankshaft bearing wear slightly greater piston wear decreased side pressures C High-speed, multi-cylinder, diesel engines commonly use counterweights placed opposite to the crankpins to ________. prevent bearing loads provide dynamic balance by equalizing centrifugal force counteract inertia forces provide a balance of rocking couples around the crankshaft B In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system employing a radiator, proper water temperature can be obtained by _____________. adjusting the radiator louvers passing cooling water through a space heater passing cooling water through the lube oil cooler piping exhaust gases across the radiator front A If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is running at 1550 RPM, the speed of the camshaft will be _____________. 525 RPM 775 RPM 1550 RPM 1800 RPM B An advantage of aluminum pistons, when compared to cast iron pistons is _____________. greater high temperature strength better heat conductivity greater weight per cubic cm increased resistance to wear B In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel engine, the lube oil bypassing the filter __________. returns directly to the suction side of the pump returns directly to the sump flows to the engine bearings flows through a second-stage strainer, reheater, and returns to the sump C

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1365

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1366

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1367 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1369 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1371 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1368 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1370 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1372 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 79

1373 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1375

The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine provides a means to operate the _____________. fuel injectors exhaust valves intake valves all of the above D If fuel injection to a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine begins earlier than designed, ignition may be delayed because the ____________. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough cylinder compression temperature may be too high fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough scavenge and purge process is incomplete A One of the most common methods in preventing a diesel engine piston pin from contacting the cylinder wall is by the use of ____________. non-floating pin tape rod bosses snap rings offset drilling C Exhaust pipes of multiple engine installations are not to be interconnected, but are to be run separately to the atmosphere _______.

1374 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1376

In a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs ____________. once every crankshaft revolution once every two crankshaft revolutions once every piston stroke twice every piston stroke B Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine cylinder to improve air fuel mixing, and is known as _____________. supercharging scavenging turbulence swept volume charging C In the operating cycle of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, blowdown to exhaust manifold pressure must occur before the piston begins the exhaust stroke to avoid _____________. pressure losses exhaust pulsations excessive scavenging pumping losses D Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a twostroke/cycle diesel engine because __________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1377

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1378

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1379

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1380

A. unless arranged to prevent the return of gases to an idle engine

A. the direction of pressure on the journals in four-stroke engines is continuously reversing, whereas in two-stroke engines it is constant B. positive feed lubricators are installed on all bearings of four-stroke engines, whereas as a spclearance feed system is used on twostroke engines C. four-stroke engines usually utilize a heavier grade of fuel oil than two-stroke engines D. two-stroke engines usually consume less lube oil than four-stroke engines Ans: A Auxiliary diesel engines can be automatically shut down as a result of __________. A. low lube oil temperature B. low lube oil pressure C. high exhaust temperature D. high cooling water pressure Ans: B Prior to starting most medium-speed propulsion diesel engines, which of the procedures listed should be observed? A. The expansion tank should be topped off. B. The fuel filters should be changed. C. The thermostatic water regulating valves should be manually opened. D. The engine should be turned over slowly with the indicator cocks open. Ans: D High lube oil temperatures developing in a diesel engine can result from _____________. A. high oil pressure B. excessive bearing end play C. plugged oil control rings D. engine overload Ans: D The shape of a cam on a diesel engine determines the valve's __________.

B. to a point not lower than the highest load line

C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device Ans: A During the power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a result of the angle ____________. A. formed by the connecting rod and the cylinder center line B. formed by the piston in relation to the piston pin C. between the crankarm and crankpin D. between the master and link connecting rods Ans: A An emergency diesel generator should automatically shut down in 1383 the event of __________. A. dangerous overspeeding B. a loss of lube oil pressure C. the activation of the fixed CO2 system for the emergency generator space D. All of the above. 1381 Ans: D During warm-up the expansion of valve stems due to engine heat, is allowed for by the _____________. A. valve springs B. hydraulic governor C. tappet clearance D. cooling system Ans: C In a medium speed diesel engine, a trunk type piston may becooled 1387 by ____________.I. oil circulation though passages in the piston crown II. heat transfer through piston rings and liner wall 1385 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1389 I only II only either I or II neither I nor II C One end of a cylinder for a medium or high-speed diesel engine is sealed by the piston and rings, the other end is sealed by the ____________.

1382

1384

1386

1388

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1390

point of opening speed of opening lift from its seat All of the above are correct. D The side pressure per unit of area, resulting from the angularity of the motion of the connecting rod, depends primarily on the ____________.

A. crankcase B. cylinder head

A. weight of the piston B. length of the piston

Page 80

1391

1393

1395

1397

C. valve cover C. length of the cylinder liner D. engine frame D. speed of the engine Ans: B Ans: B In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, after the completion of the During the diesel engine power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk 1392 power stroke, the piston will move _________________. type piston is a result of the angle _____________. A. up and draw in a fresh air charge A. formed by the connecting rod and cylinder center line B. down to burn off fuel B. of the bevel on the piston oil control rings C. down to compress the fuel air charge C. formed by the crank arm and crank pin D. up and force out the exhaust gases D. formed bythe master and link connecting rods Ans: D Ans: A Which of the listed design features is found in an exhaust valve and 1394 A connecting rod in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is subject to NOT in an intake valve? ____________. A. Hard alloy steel construction A. tension load twice each crankshaft revolution B. Beveled edges on the valve head B. compression load during power and compression strokes C. Low alloy steel construction C. inertia load once every four crankshaft revolutions D. Poppet type design D. bending loads at bottom and top dead center Ans: A Ans: B A disadvantage of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine the intake valves open 1396 _____________. _______. A. higher working temperature of piston and cylinder A. before TDC and close after BDC B. the use of scavenge ports B. after TDC and close after BDC C. fewer power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft C. before TDC and close before BDC D. part of the fuel is burned as the piston is moving away from top D. after TDC and close before BDC dead centre Ans: C Ans: A FOUR STROKE ENGINE - MAINTENANCE Increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rocker If the oil control rings were installed upside down on a diesel engine 1398 arm, will result in the valve _____________. piston, which of the following conditions would result? A. B. C. D. Ans: closing later opening sooner staying open for a shorter period of time staying open for a longer period of time C Which of the listed problems would be indicated by an accumulation of water in one cylinder, in addition to the crankcase of an idle diesel engine? Excessive condensation in that cylinder. Water in the fuel system. Cracked cylinder liner. Leaking lube oil cooler. C If there is a "clicking" sound in the valve compartment of adiesel engine, the cause may be _____________. a worn gudgeon pin excessive tappet clearance worn connecting rod bearings all of the above B A sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. a leaking fuel injector nozzle bourdon gauge excessively early fuel injection malfunctioning valves D If you increase the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm, which of the listed conditions will occur? Valve will open later. Valve will close later. Amount of fuel injected will be increased. Amount of fuel injected will be decreased. A A loud clicking noise occurring from within the valve compartment of an operating diesel engine would indicate _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1400 Excessive oil pumping would occur. The rings would tend to overheat. The ring grooves would be blocked. Tendency for ring breakage is increased. A If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment of a diesel engine, the cause may be __________. a loose valve stem and guide excessive tappet clearances a stuck valve all of the above D Water accumulating in the crankcase of a diesel engine could indicate _____________. a cracked cylinder liner excessive water in the fuel a leaking intercooler excessive moisture in the scavenge air A If the piston groove drain holes for the oil control rings become clogged, which of the following is likely to occur? The oil control rings will seat improperly and wear rapidly. The piston will overheat due to insufficient lubrication. Excessive oil will remain on the cylinder wall. Light brown smoke will emanate from the engine exhaust. C Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be measured using _____________. gauge blocks plasti-gauge feeler gauges round solder wire B On small diesel engines, a noticeable decrease in the time interval between the replacement of the lube filter cartridge indicates ____________.

1399

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1401 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1403 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1405 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1407

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1402 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1404 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1406 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1408

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1409

worn valve seats tight rocker arm springs excessive tappet clearance weak rocker arm springs C To check the setting of the overspeed trip on a diesel powered generator, you would use a _____________. A. tachometer B. torsion meter C. dynamometer

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1410

piston ring blow-by dirty air filter excessive oil pressure excessive oil temperature A Immediately after starting a small high-speed diesel engine, you should check the _____________. A. cooling water temperature B. lube oil temperature C. fuel pressure

Page 81

D. pony brake Ans: A Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine 1411 will result in the exhaust valve opening __________. A. later and closing earlier B. later and closing later C. earlier and closing earlier D. earlier and closing later Ans: A When using a fuel with a higher than normal sulphur content in an 1413 auxiliary diesel engine, you should _____________. A. maintain higher than normal jacket water temperature B. change the lube oil more frequently than normal C. maintain a higher air-box temperature than normal D. maintain a higher air-box pressure than normal Ans: B If the intake, or exhaust valve stem clearance is found to be 1415 excessive, in addition to too little movement of the rocker arms, you should check for _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1417 collapsed hydraulic valve lifters loose valve spring locks worn valve seats broken valve springs A The service life of a worn aluminum piston for an auxiliary diesel, for which no spares are readily available, can be extended by ____________.

D. lube oil pressure Ans: D A faulty thermostatic bypass valve, in a diesel engine cooling 1412 system, can result in _____________. A. excessive time required for warming-up B. excessive freshwater corrosion C. scale formation on the saltwater side D. saltwater mixing with the freshwater Ans: A Which of the following problems can cause excessive 1414 consumption of the lubricating oil in a diesel engine? A. Dirty lube oil filters B. Excessive piston ring wear C. Excessively high lube oil viscosity D. Excessively low lube oil temperatures Ans: B Which of the following problems represents one possible cause of 1416 high lube oil consumption in a four stroke diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1418 Worn intake valve guides Pitted precombustion chambers Loose valve tappets High exhaust back pressure A Which of the changes in the valve timing listed should be carried out when a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is converted to a supercharged engine?

A. turning down the piston skirt to concentric values B. knurling the piston skirt surface C. building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then remachining D. increasing the dimensions of the ring land grooves Ans: B A loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating diesel engine would indicate _____________. A. worn valve seats B. worn main bearings C. excessive valve clearance D. weak rocker arm springs Ans: C Excessive valve clearance will cause a valve to open _____________. A. early and close early B. early and close late C. late and close early D. late and close late Ans: C Reducing the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm will result in the valve _____________. A. having a shorter duration of opening B. having a longer duration of opening C. closing sooner D. opening later Ans: B If you were inspecting the valve springs on an auxiliary diesel engine, your best indication of impending spring failure would be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1427 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1429 A. B. C. D. a glazed surface on the spring nicks in the protective coating a buildup of sludge deposits cracks in the surface of the spring D The overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause ______________. low voltage trip to trip reverse power trip to trip damage to windings excessive exhaust temperatures C Worn diesel engine intake valve guides can result in _____________. increased engine breathing efficiency excessive tappet clearance excessive lube oil consumption lower than normal fuel consumption

1419

1420

1421

1422

1423

1424

1425

1426

A. Retard the intake valve opening and advance the exhaust valve closing period. B. Advance the intake and exhaust valve opening period. C. Advance the intake valve opening and retard the exhaust valve closing periods. D. Retard the intake and exhaust valve closing period. Ans: C Excessively worn, or polished ends on a diesel engine valve spring, indicate ________________. A. burned exhaust valves B. excessive spring compression C. spring surge D. worn valve seats Ans: C In a diesel engine, blow-by is a result of combustion gases leaking into the crankcase past the _____________. A. gudgeon pin bushings B. compression rings C. cylinder liner seals D. cylinder liner sealing ring Ans: B Excessive vibration in an operating diesel generator may be caused by _____________. A. electrical overload B. surging at governed RPM C. loose engine mounting bolts D. coolant leaking into the cylinder Ans: C If the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances than those specified by the engine manufacturer, those valves will _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: open late and close early open late and close late fail to open when the engine is cold fail to open at normal operating temperature A Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause _____________. high lube oil viscosity abnormal lube oil consumption low lube oil temperatures high firing pressures B In a diesel engine, the spring force required for proper valve operation is determined by _____________. maximum firing pressure minimum firing pressure cam contour length of the spring

1428 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1430 A. B. C. D.

Page 82

1431

Ans: C If an auxiliary diesel engine coolant temperature is higher than normal, but the thermostat is determined not to be defective, you would suspect a/an ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: cavitation erosion in the water jackets excess corrosion inhibitor in the coolant dirty jacket water cooler defective turbocharger C Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles on small high-speed diesel engines, can be prevented by _____________. A. employing fuel oil as a cooling medium B. preventing hard carbon deposit on nozzle tips C. avoiding fuel oil temperature exceeding builder's specification D. ensuring good metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads Ans: D Which of the following precautions must be taken if an electric immersion heater is used to keep the coolant in a diesel engine warm during the time the engine is secured? A. The coolant temperature must be maintained at 180F. B. The thermostatic bypass valves must be manually opened before the engine is started. C. The pressure cap must be removed while the engine is secured.

1432

Ans: C In a trunk type diesel engine piston, the thickness of the head or crown is determined by the ___________. I. strength requirement II. heat dissipation requirement A. B. C. D. Ans: I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C tappet clearance, or clearance refers to the _____________.

1433

1434

A. clearance between valve spindle and guide B. compression of the valve springs C. clearance between the valve seat inserts and the head D. clearance between the top of the valve stem and the rocker arm Ans: D If the tappet clearance on a diesel engine is set improperly, which of the following statements represents the most serious problem that can develop? A. Too little clearance will cause noisy operation and excessive wear. B. Too much clearance will cause the valve to open early and close late. C. Too little clearance may prevent the valves from seating properly. D. Too much clearance may prevent combustion through loss of compression. Ans: C In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason for knurling the piston skirt 1438 is to __________. A. improve skirt lubrication B. allow for expansion C. transmit forces evenly D. improve the piston seal Ans: A If clearance between a piston and the cylinder wall is excessive, 1440 piston slap will occur. The slap itself is caused by ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1442 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1444 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1446 alternation of side thrust a breakdown of the lube oil film on the cylinder wall worn piston boss piston pin bearings fluctuating gas pressure in the combustion space A Poor quality fuel being used in a turbocharged medium-speed, diesel engine could result in ________________. hard starting excessive fuel consumption loss of power all of the above D Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can cause _____________. excessive lube oil consumption lower than normal lube oil temperature higher than normal exhaust back pressure excessive crankshaft endplay A A 16 cylinder main propulsion diesel engine is operating at 90% of full load. All cylinder exhaust temperatures are indicated at 450C, except the No. 7 cylinder which is indicated at 550C. All fuel racks are at 21-22 mm except No. 7 which is at 16mm. Replace and retime No. 7 cylinder fuel pump. Pull No. 7 cylinder piston and examine the rings. Examine the governor linkage for binding. Check the intake manifold pressure for evidence of burned intake valves. A Decreasing the exhaust valve clearance of a diesel engine will cause the exhaust valve to open ______________. earlier and have less lift earlier and remain open longer later and have greater lift later and have less duration

1435

1436

D. Electrical power to the heater must be secured before the cooling system is drained Ans: D Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be 1437 measured with _____________. A. gauge blocks B. plasti-gauge C. feeler gauge D. round solder wire Ans: B When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the 1439 manufacturer, diesel engine valves, operating at normal temperatures, will ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1441 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1443 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1445 open later than normal close later than normal have less total lift fail to open when the valves are warm B Excessive tappet clearance in an auxiliary diesel engine will cause the valves to open _____________. later and close sooner sooner and close later sooner and close sooner later and close later A Cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminum piston and the cylinder liner is about ______________. twice as large as with a cast iron piston the same size as with a cast iron piston half as large as with a cast iron piston the same size as the crown of an aluminum piston A A four-stroke, cycle, turbocharged, 1000 horsepower diesel engine has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases, causing excessive black exhaust smoke, and a rapid rise in the lube oil temperature. In response to this condition, you should _ reduce load check your exhaust adjust cooling water temperature increase the lube oil flow

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1448 A. B. C. D.

1447

Ans: A Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by _____________. A. high generator load B. low fuel viscosity C. high injection pressure D. binding in the fuel control linkage

Page 83

1449

Ans: D A 16-cylinder diesel engine is operating at 75% load. All exhaust temperatures are between 400 and 450C, except the #3 cylinder reading of 300C. All fuel rack settings are between 21 and 22 millimeters, with the #3 rack at 17 mm. What will you do? A. Reduce engine load. B. Stop the engine and change out the #3 fuel nozzle. C. Increase the #3 rack setting and watch the exhaust temperature.

Ans: B

D. Stop the engine and adjust the #3 cylinder pump timing. Ans: C AUTOMATION - INSTRUMENTATION Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed Which of the following statements is true concerning pressure limit 1450 1451 freshwater cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the switches and pressostats installed on auxiliary boilers? cooler instead of through the engine? A. Changing the rate of flow in the jackets could cause localized hot spots. B. Emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through the jackets were controlled. C. Excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high loads. D. Excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the coolers. Ans: A If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to relight the burner after a normal shutdown, you should check for a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1454 low steam pressure high voltage on the ignition electrode open air damper faulty photocell detector D In an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, restarting from the normal shutdown cycle in response to steam demand, is initiated by a/an ______________. A. They are bimetallic elements sensing temperature differentials corresponding to pressure changes. B. They consist of a bellows assembly, linked with a snap action switch, through a pressure adjusting mechanism. C. They automatically relieve excessive steam pressure by acting as a pilot to the safety valve. D. They automatically restart the burner sequence via the high water level signal Ans: B A sudden flame failure in an operating auxiliary boiler, equipped with 1453 an automatic combustion control system and burning light fuel, could be attributed to a______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1455 dead or malfunctioning step up transformer faulty ignition cable connector loose connection on the photocell rapid fuel viscosity increase C In a diesel engine cooling system, the high temperature alarm contact maker will be activated on excessively highwater discharge temperature from the ____________.

1452

A. modulating pressostat, sensing both steam pressure and temperature B. pyrostat measuring decreased steam temperature C. pressostat measuring only the steam pressure D. electrode sensing water level Ans: C Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler can be 1456 caused by ______________. A. carbon deposits on the electrode B. excessive fuel oil temperature C. excessive return oil pressure D. brickwork failure Ans: A Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be 1458 caused by _____________. A. carbon deposits on the flame scanner B. high fuel oil temperature C. low fuel oil viscosity D. high steam pressure Ans: A Which of the listed failures, occurring in an automated diesel 1460 generator system, should cause an audible alarm at the engine room control station? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1462 Low cooling water outlet temperature High lube oil pressure Low lube oil temperature Low starting air pressure D When an auxiliary boiler is on the line, the output of the flame scanner can be checked by placing a microammeter in series with the photoelectric cell circuit. The readings on high fire should be ____________. higher than those at low fire equal to those at low fire lower than those at low fire lower than those at low fire, but the generated voltage will be higher

A. raw water pump discharge B. C. D. Ans: 1457 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1459 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1461 expansion tank outlet cooling water heat exchanger outlet engine jacket water outlet D The flame safeguard controls of a large automatically fired auxiliary boiler, may consist of a ____________. stack switch pyrostat photoelectric cell thermistor C Ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler can be caused by _____________. carbon deposits on electrodes a jammed open oil solenoid excess fuel pressure at the nozzle an excessively long purge cycle A An emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an automotive type thermostat. If the thermostat bellows loses its charge, the thermostat will _____________. open, and the coolant temperature will increase open, and the coolant temperature will decrease close, and the engine coolant temperature will increase close, and the coolant temperature will decrease C Diesel engine automated control systems may utilize sensing devices of dual function, with sensing ranges providing both alarm and engine shut down capability. Which of the key points listed would only require an alarm sensor? Lube oil pressure and temperature Jacket water pressure and temperature Engine overspeed Lube oil sump level

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1463

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Ans: A

Ans: D

Page 84

1464

The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with variable capacity, pressure atomizing burners, maintains steam pressure by ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: cycling on and off changing fuel oil return pressure changing the speed of a rotary cup varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle B A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water _____________. around the engine around the cooler to the expansion tank overboard B All automatically fired low pressure heating boilers must have an automatic ____________. fuel cutoff as a result of low water pressure-control regulator feedwater control valve superheat control system A Automatic burner shutdown in an auxiliary boiler, as a result of a component failure in the flame safeguard controls, will _______________. prevent the boiler from automatically relighting eliminate the need for furnace purging cause automatic restart after a purge period cause an explosion in the boiler furnace A Under which of the following conditions must the combustion control system for a small automatic auxiliary boiler secure the burner? High water level Low steam pressure Flame failure High fuel oil temperature C At the beginning of the prepurge period on an automatic auxiliary boiler equipped with a programmed control system, the unit will not restart if airflow is not sensed and ______________. the damper is not sufficiently opened the damper is not fully closed oil pressure is not sensed water pressure is not sensed A Which of the following types of feedwater regulators is commonly used with a water-tube, natural circulation, auxiliary boiler? Thermomechanical Bimetallic element Ring thermostat Modulating pressostat A If the operating element of a thermostatic valve installed in a diesel engine cooling system malfunctions, it may result in ______________.

1465

If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown, you should check for a/an __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: faulty photocell detector low steam pressure high voltage on the ignition electrode open air damper A The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent ____________. accidental dry firing and overpressure uncontrolled fires in the furnace explosions in the boiler furnace overheating of the pressure parts C The fuel supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will be automatically shutdown if the boiler ______________. salinity is abnormally high steam demand is too high water level is abnormally low feedwater flow is low C In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the amount of coolant flowing through the heat exchanger is controlled by the _____________. suction pressure regulator thermostatic bypass valve sea water temperature water level in the expansion tank B Temperature control valves installed in the jacket cooling water system of a diesel engine, modulates the rate of water flow through the __________. cooling water pump nozzle cooling passages cylinder jackets heat exchanger D After a normal, or safety shutdown, automatic combustion control systems for an auxiliary boiler are designed to prevent the immediate refiring of a burner in order for the ________________. furnace to be repurged electric charge to buildup in the igniter fuel pump to restart drum level to stabilize A Automatic combustion control systems for auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to the _______________. excess air pressure steam moisture content furnace temperature steam pressure D Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to ____________.

1466

1467

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1468 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1470

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1469 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1471

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1472

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1473

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1474

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1475

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1476

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1477

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1478

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1479

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1480

a low level in the engine expansion tank A. fuel supply pressure excessively high coolant pressure B. fuel return pressure improper temperatures C. steam pressure malfunctioning of the jacket water heater D. furnace air pressure C Ans: C Engine protection by means of an alarm or shutdown control can be 1481 Control of the main propulsion diesel engines can be shifted from obtained with devices that are sensitive to _____________. the engine room to the wheelhouse from the ___________. temperature pressure engine speed all of the above D To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1483 wheelhouse control station engine room control station captain's office chief engineer's office B Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel engines function to stop the engine by _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1482

A. de-energize the high voltage ignition system

A. increasing the volume of intake air

Page 85

B. C. D. Ans: 1484

move the igniter away from the normal firing position B. shutting off the fuel supply close the manual fuel valve with the burner firing C. increasing the engine back pressure shift the controls to low fire D. overspeeding the engine C Ans: B The programmed control system of an automatic auxiliary boiler will 1485 On auxiliary boilers using individual flame scanners to monitor the terminate the light off process during the prepurge period if air flow main and pilot flames, the main flame scanner should be sighted to is not sensed and _________. ______________. the damper is not sufficiently open the damper is not fully closed oil pressure is not sensed water pressure is not sensed A Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on in response to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1487 detect pilot flames that are incorrectly positioned view the refractory directly opposite the main burner avoid detecting the pilot flame view the main flame in its outer periphery C If the flame of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler tends to move away from the burner tip when the firing rate is changed from low to high, you should ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1486

A. low fuel pressure B. fuel return pressure C. low steam pressure D. furnace air pressure Ans: C Which of the following conditions will cause only one of the burner 1488 solenoid valves to close on an automatically fired, two burner unit, auxiliary boiler? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1490 Loss of the forced draft fan Low boiler water level High boiler water level A faulty coil in one the solenoid valves D The main propulsion diesel engine jacket water temperature rises above normal, with the raw water sea suction and the expansion tank water level being normal. Which of the following problems is most likely the cause?

A. decrease the fuel pressure B. adjust damper linkage to slow the opening rate of the dampers C. adjust damper linkage to lengthen the purge period D. adjust the photocell to observe the new flame position Ans: B While an auxiliary boiler is operating at design load, which of the 1489 following actions will occur if the automatic combustion control system detects a steam pressure drop? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1491 More burners will be lighted off. The registers will open fully. The fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider. The steam flow will be automatically regulated C Constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel oil burners installed on automatically fired auxiliary boilers, respond to variations in load demand by ____________.

A. Faulty thermostatic bypass valve. B. Eroded zinc pencils in the heat exchanger. C. Steam formation in the expansion tank. D. Excessive leakage from jacket water pump seals. Ans: A Burner ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler would 1492 be caused by ____________. A. a burned out solenoid in the oil supply valve B. high temperature excess air C. incorrectly setting the hotwell dump valve D. an incorrectly positioned burner snubber assembly Ans: A If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary 1494 boiler fails to restart from the normal shutdown mode, you should check for ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1496 broken or grounded high tension leads a faulty ignition cable connector an incorrect electrode setting all of the above D The jacket water temperature in a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system is normally controlled by _____________.

A. automatically increasing the fuel/air ratio B. automatically cycling the burner on and off C. responding to the boiler high and low water level limit switches D. regulating the fuel oil service pump discharge pressure Ans: B An automatically fired auxiliary boiler is required by Regulations to 1493 be shutdown as a result of ____________. A. low boiler pressure B. low water level C. wide flame cone angle D. high fuel oil pressure Ans: B When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an 1495 automatically fired auxiliary boiler, fitted with rotary cup atomizers, the combustion control system will _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1497 increase the fuel oil control valve opening increase the rotary cup speed decrease the back pressure regulating valve opening decrease the supply steam control valve opening A On an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the steam pressure limit switch is wired into the burner electric circuit to ______________.

A. regulating the level of corrosion inhibitor in the primary cooling system B. the level of the freshwater expansion tank C. varying the engine load to meet temperature requirements D. the operation of thermostatic valve Ans: D A failure of any component of a flame safeguard control for an 1498 auxiliary boiler will result in ____________. A. a furnace explosion B. automatic burner shutdown C. uncontrolled firing D. automatic restart Ans: B Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired 1500 auxiliary boiler is accomplished by a ___________. A. pressure magnifying device in the steam coil outlet B. signal from feed water electrode C. metering device in the air supply line

A. energized the flame scannercircuit when high boiler pressure is reached B. sound an alarm when the burner is shut off C. shut off the burner when the cutoff pressure is reached D. maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization Ans: C The fuel oil supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will 1499 automatically shutdown if the boiler _____________. A. steam demand is high B. salinity is high C. safety valve simmers D. burner flame is extinguished Ans: D The pressostat is installed on an auxiliary boiler to sense steam 1501 pressure changes, it _______________. A. controls the flow of feedwater to the boiler B. monitors the boiler high water level C. secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out

Page 86

D. steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air vanes Ans: D Which of the automatic boiler controls listed should be tested prior 1502 to lighting off an auxiliary boiler? A. Automatic bottom blow valve B. Low water level cutoff switch C. Voltage output of the ignition transformer D. Insulation resistance readings in the ignition system high tension leads Ans: B If the jacket water temperature in an auxiliary diesel engine cooling 1504 system is lower than normal, the probable cause is _________. A. air binding of the engine cooling system B. a cracked water cooled exhaust manifold C. blockage in the heat exchanger

D. automatically regulates the quantity of oil and air flow to the burner Ans: D A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system ________________. A. opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure B. must be bypassed at low firing rates C. requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply D. detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing refractory Ans: A Diesel engine control can be obtained by the bridge 1505 _____________. 1503 A. at any time B. only after the engine room control station is switched to "bridge control" C. whenever the secondary station is switched to "bridge control"

D. faulty operation of the thermostat D. with the approval of the chief engineer only Ans: D Ans: B The temperature at which an adjustable bellows type thermostat 1506 1507 valve is set by ______. A. changing the position of the actuating bulb B. replacing the bellows with a heavier spring C. varying air loading pressure to the bellows D. changing spring compression to oppose bellows Ans: D POWER TRANSMISSION,GEARS AND CLUTCHES Where diesel engine speed and clutch controls are combined into The control system for a controllable pitch propeller can be 1508 1509 one operation by a single control lever, movement of the lever from programmed ___________.I. to produce a maximum combined the "stop" position to the "ahead" position will FIRST propeller and engine efficiency between pitch and a given engine ____________. speed II. for continuous operation of the engine at pre-setconditions A. B. C. D. Ans: 1510 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1512 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1514 decrease the engine speed increase the engine speed engage the ahead clutch disengage the astern clutch C A diesel engine is operating at 1800 RPM and driving a propeller at 600 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? 0.30 to 1 3.00 to 1 3.33 to 1 33.0 to 1 B Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being transmitted to an engine? Grid Dog type Friction Hydraulic D Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by means of energy changes in a rotating vortex of liquid. For the vortices to form, there must be __________. slip between the impeller and runner less than 2 per cent slip between the impeller and runner axial thrust generated by the runner pinion shaft momentary torsional vibration transmitted by the driving impeller A. B. C. D. Ans: 1511 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1513 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1515 I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I or II are correct C The torque transmitted by an electromagnetic slip coupling is dependent upon excitation and the _____________. engine speed harmonic frequency amount of slip resonance C In most marine single reduction gear units, the spur gear is driven by the _____________. quill shaft helical gear pinion gear spur gear C Helical reduction gears, as used with main propulsion drive trains, are constructed so that several teeth are meshed at the same time to ____________. eliminate propeller shaft end thrust translate heavy load into high speed output provide smooth continuous power transmission allow construction with fewer gear teeth

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Ans: A Which of the following characteristics is true relative to meshing spur gears? A. The gear of larger diameter will rotate at a slower RPM. B. Both gears will operate in the same direction. C. The teeth on the larger gear are larger than the teeth on the smaller gear. D. Power can be transmitted at a 90 angle. Ans: A When used with reversing reduction gears, medium-speed diesel 1518 engines should be bolted to their foundations with fitted bolts at the drive end and clearance (loosely fitted) bolts in other locations. This is done to _____________. 1516 A. maintain alignment when the ship's hull is working in heavy seas

Ans: C Gear-type flexible couplings are often used in diesel engine drive trains because they _____________. A. require no lubrication under normal operating conditions B. compensate for gross misalignment in the drive train C. are able to transmit high torque, even where slight misalignment exists D. will rapidly disconnect the engine from the line shaft Ans: C The best method for determining the amount of eccentricity or offset 1519 misalignment between the disconnected propeller shaft coupling flange and the reduction gear output flange is by using a _____________. 1517 A. straight edge laid across the flange edges

Page 87

B. ensure engine vibrations correspond to the natural frequency of the hull C. permit the engine to expand away from the driven equipment as the engine heats up and expands D. maintain engine thrust bearing clearances Ans: C A flexible coupling is located between the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1522 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1524 engine and the pinion line shaft and tailshaft pinion and the bull gear thrust bearing and the worm gear A Which of the types of reduction gearing listed is best suited for medium speed main propulsion units? Hypoid Helical Cyclical Spur B Which of the bearing types listed is most commonly used in smaller vessel main propulsion reduction gears as thrust bearings? Ball bearings Poured bearings Sleeved bearings Tapered roller bearings D Which of the following statements is correct concerning a hydraulic coupling? Rapid declutching is impossible. Accurate alignment between the rotating members is extremely important. Torque is controlled by the volume of oil in the coupling. Torsional vibrations from the engine are transmitted directly to the hull by the coupling. C The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an electromagnetic coupling is established by _____________. controlled engine speed energizing the field coils brush contact with the armature rotating the primary rotor B When changing the direction of propeller shaft rotation in a diesel plant equipped with a pneumatic clutch, you must pause at neutral to allow the _____________. fuel rack to readjust engine to slow down propeller to stop clutch to deflate D The power loss associated with slip in a fluid coupling appears as __________. chattering in the driving member heat in the hydraulic fluid vibration in the driving member leakage around the ring valve B Pitting in the area close to the pitch line and on the same end of each gear tooth of a reduction gear unit would be caused by _____________. corrosion on the gears excessive gear speed dirt in the oil misalignment of the gears D Pitted reduction gear teeth having a deep blue color with evidence of overheating have been operated with __________. excessive speed improper warm-up extreme misalignment inadequate lubrication D

B. thickness gauge between the separated flange faces C. bridge gauge to check the position of each flange in relation to the other D. dial indicator mounted on one flange indicating any misalignment of the other flange Ans: D Reduction gear casings are vented in order to _____________. 1521 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1523 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1525 allow windage to exist for cooling the gears avoid a buildup of pressure within the gear case avoid lube oil foaming within the case allow for proper lubrication of the friction clutch shoes B Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or _____________. inside micrometer feeler gauge and straight edge adjustable trammel sighting device B When more than one propulsion diesel engine is connected to a single propeller shaft through reduction gears, the gears are usually _____________. single reduction double reduction triple reduction quadruple reduction A One advantage of hydraulic clutches over mechanical clutches in diesel engine installations is ____________. the power is transmitted at a very high efficiency of 60% the torsional vibrations are transmitted directly to the reduction gears each clutch has a separate oil gland for reverse operation no mechanical connection exists between the driving and driven elements D In reducing engine speed to an efficient propeller speed by the use of reduction gears, ____________. speed and torque are both reduced speed is reduced and torque remains unchanged speed is reduced and torque is increased speed is sometimes unchanged while torque is increased C Airflex clutches are used to transmit power from a diesel engine to the propeller shaft. A restricted orifice is used in the control air system of this unit to _____________. delay deflation of the clutch being disengaged delay inflation of the clutch being engaged reduce the deflation time of both clutches reduce the inflation time of both clutches B Slippage of an air operated friction clutch can result from _____________. an overloaded engine prolonged slow speed operation weak disc springs newly installed friction blocks A When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect _____________. pneumatic seizure overheating because of slipping shoes chipped reduction gear teeth excessive wear on the thrust bearings B Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or _____________. inside micrometer feeler gauge adjustable trammel sighting device B

1520

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1526 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1528 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1530

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1527 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1529 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1531

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1532 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1534

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1533 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1535

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1536

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1537

A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 88

1538 A. B. C. D.

A gear type flexible coupling is precision built for _____________. reduced torsional vibration and resonance increased slip and maneuvering capability high torque transmittal under limited misalignment conditions low axial thrust transmission under minimal alignment irregularities

1539 A. B. C. D.

Effective hydraulic coupling operation depends upon a certain amount of _____________. slip mechanical friction fluid overheating torsional vibration

1540

Ans: C When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine +which is using an air bladder clutch unit that is inadequately inflated, you can expect _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: chipped reduction gear teeth overheating because of slipping shoes pneumatic seizure excessive wear on the thrust bearings B In an electromagnetic coupling, torque to the driven shaft is limited by the _____________. overload trip coupling pullout value staybolt strength shear-off coupling B When air is delivered under pressure to one of the glands of an airbladder clutch, the ____________. inside diameter of the clutch gland increases inside diameter of the clutch gland decreases gland rotates out of contact with the drums clutch begins to rotate with the engine B When transmitted by a reduction gear, diesel engine speed is reduced and the torque available for work ______________. remains the same is reduced is increased is eliminated C When passing through mesh contact, the teeth of a reduction gear first go through a series of actions best described as __________. galling squeezing sliding slipping C The air bladder clutch used with some reversing reduction drive gears, consists of _____________. twin-disk clutch plates jaw-type clutch plates multi-plate friction plates with sliding collars two independent clutches D Some medium and high-speed diesel engines require reduction gear units to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction gears, the spur gear ____________.

1541

Ans: A When two diesel engines are electrically coupled in parallel to a common propeller shaft, which of the operating conditions listed will apply? A. B. C. D. Ans: Full horsepower is available ahead and astern. One engine must be running ahead and the other astern. Full reversing torque is not available. Mechanical gearing is not required A Proper operation of the main engine reduction gear set requires the operator to monitor _____________. the sump oil level oil flow sight glasses bearing temperatures all of the above D To guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil supply, you should check the ___________. lube oil temperature at the cooler outlet lube oil strainer magnets bearing lube oil temperature lube oil pressure to the bearing C Which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable, and is usually replaced if completely damaged? Flexible disk-ring coupling Gear-type coupling Grid spring coupling Block and jam coupling B What type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft? Single reduction, planetary Single reduction, single input Single reduction, double input Double reduction, double input, articulated C In using reduction gears to obtain efficient propeller speeds, ____________. they must be located at the after end of the engine they can only be used with one engine at a time they eliminate the need for controllable pitch propellers they are connected to the engine with a flexible coupling D Although slip in pneumatic clutches is normally undesirable in modern pneumatic clutch arrangements, some reduction gear units are provided with an optional slip clutch which is used to an advantage in _____________. reducing high speed torque vibrations controlling the warm up of clutch friction surfaces obtaining maneuvering speeds below engine idle speed limiting shock loads transmitted to the engine in heavy weather

1542 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1544 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1546 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1548

1543 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1545 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1547 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1549

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1550 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1552

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1551 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1553

must churn the oil in the sump is connected to the propeller shaft is driven at the highest RPM compensates for alignment variations between the engine and pinion gear Ans: B The volume of available air supply required by an air clutch varies 1554 with the _____________. A. B. C. D. A. size of the clutch B. volume of the supply line between the control valve and the clutch C. frequency of engagement D. all of the above Ans: D In an electromagnetic slip coupling, the slip _____________. 1556 A. reduces magnetic pull caused by non-concentric electromagnets

A. B. C. D.

1555

Ans: C One of the most common causes of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused by scoring as a result of ______________. A. surface fatigue of the gears B. an inadequate lube oil film

C. plastic flow of the gears D. fretting corrosion from water contamination Ans: B Which of the following statements represents an advantage of an 1557 electromagnetic clutch? A. It aids in maintaining power factor.

Page 89

B. reduces resonance and accentuates the turning moment irregularities C. transmits electromagnetic flux through the primary circuit D. generates the low frequency current which excites the secondary electromagnet Ans: D One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is 1558 _____________. A. torsional vibrations are reduced B. torque increases with a decrease in excitation current C. the coupling rapidly responds to sudden changes of load D. excitation and induction power losses appear as a change in torque instead of rotational speed between the primary and secondary elements Ans: A 1559 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1561

B. Slip is held to a minimum when reversing shaft rotation. C. Engine torsional vibrations to the driven shaft are eliminated. D. Large misalignments can be tolerated between the shaft and engine coupling. Ans: C

COOLING SYSTEMS Diesel engine jacket water is used in the distillation process as the 1560 ____________. coolant for the distillate A. coolant for the brine cooler B. means of heating the feedwater C. primary means of producing a vacuum within the distiller D. C Ans: The expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is 1562 designed to maintain a constant head on the system and ___________. reduce water temperature reduce water turbulence provide an air cushion allow for an increase in water volume as the engine warms up A. B. C. D.

In any diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the lowest pressure exists at the _____________. jacket water outlet cooling water pump outlet heat exchanger outlet expansion tank atmospheric vent D A closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel engines because the _____________. need for water treatment is eliminated cooling water temperature differential is greater cooling water pumps are directly reversible jacket water temperature is more easily controlled

A. B. C. D.

Ans: D Which of the following statements describes the function of an expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system? A. Maintains a constant head on the system. B. Reduces the likelihood of air or steam pockets formation. C. Provides a low pressure point for the addition of makeup cooling water. D. All of the above. Ans: D High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by 1565 _____________. A. a worn water pump B. not enough coolant C. air in the cooling system D. all of the above Ans: D Higher than normal jacket water temperatures occurring in all 1567 cylinders of a diesel engine can result from a/an __________. 1563 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1569 oil suction line restriction correct amount of coolant cavitation erosion in the water jackets clogged sea suction strainer D Which of the following statements is correct concerning diesel engine cooling water systems? A. Each engine must have its own engine driven cooling water pump capable of providing cooling for all ranges of operation. B. Propulsion engines with bores exceeding 200 mm are to be fitted with a means to display the cooling water temperature of each cylinder. C. At least two independent sea suctions are to be provided for supplying water to the engine jackets or to the heat exchangers. D. Suitable strainers are to be fitted between the circulating pumps and heat exchangers when sea water is used for direct cooling. Ans: C In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with seawater cooling the fresh water, the ___________. A. sea water temperature must never be warmer than 40F B. jacket water pressure should always be greater than the sea water pressure C. jacket water temperature must always be less than 60F

1564

Ans: D The outlet from an expansion tank of a closed freshwater cooling system should be piped to the ____________. A. cylinder head water outlet header B. cylinder jacket inlet main C. heat exchanger inlet connection

D. jacket water pump suction line Ans: D High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by 1566 _____________. A. air in the cooling system B. an overhauled water pump C. correct amount of coolant D. no air in the cooling system Ans: A The highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling 1568 system is at the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1570 jacket water outlet expansion tank inlet heat exchanger inlet cooling water pump outlet D Which of the following statements is correct for the design and installation of diesel engine cooling water systems? A. An alarm device with audible and visible signals is required for all cooling water systems. B. Propulsion engines with bores over 200 mm are to be fitted with cooling water thermometers at each cylinder. C. Each totally enclosed cooling system shall be provided with a suitable head tank. D. Drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest points of all cylinder water jackets. Ans: D Jacket water heaters are used on diesel engines to ________. A. help the engine start easier in cold weather B. maintain the proper jacket water pH C. maintain the proper expansion tank water level

1571

1572

Page 90

D. jacket water pressure must always be less than the sea water pressure Ans: B The device allowing for the change in volume of the cooling water in 1573 a propulsion diesel engine closed cooling system is the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1575 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1577 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1579 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1581

D. keep the engine room warm Ans: A In a closed cooling system for a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, fluctuating water pressure can be caused by ________________.

1574

fresh water expansion tank A. improper venting of the cooling system sea water expansion tank B. carrying the expansion tank water level too high thermostatic expansion valve C. a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pump jacket water cooler accumulator D. an incorrectly set cooling system temperature control A Ans: A The expansion tank in a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling In a closed cooling water system, which of the following problems 1576 system is located at _____________. can cause the water pressure to fluctuate? the highest point in the system A. An open vent in the cooling system. the lowest point in the system B. A fouled sea chest. or near the floor plate level C. A restricted water passage in the engine. or near the tank top level D. Air entrained in the cooling water. A Ans: D COOLING SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE The interior of some diesel engine saltwater heat exchangers are Corrosion inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to diesel engine 1578 protected from corrosion by the use of __________. cooling systems to _____________. aluminum plates A. maintain low pH in the cooling water lead cathodes B. reduce the cooling water temperature copper baffle plates C. increase cooling water hardness sacrificial zincs D. form a protective film on metal surfaces D Ans: D When checking zincs in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger, you A diesel engine cooling water system with a pH factor of 3.0 1580 should _____________. indicates a condition of ____________. paint the zincs to stop corrosion A. slight acidity insulate the zincs to alter the temperature B. slight alkalinity replace the zincs if they are 50% consumed C. excessive alkalinity file the zincs to change the shape D. excessive acidity C Ans: D Which of the listed effects would the film of alkaline chromate have 1582 Antifreeze solutions containing ethylene glycol, should not be mixed on the metal surfaces of the cooling systemof a diesel engine? with corrosion protection oils, as the resultant mixture _____________. Increases the rate of heat transfer Retards the flow of cooling water Protects metallic surfaces from corrosion Tends to increase corrosion C If the coolant temperature of a closed cooling water system for a diesel engine gradually increases, the trouble usually is _____________. a broken shaft on the freshwater pump an excessive accumulation of scale in the heat exchanger an incorrect thermostatic element operating range lube oil in the cooling water B In a diesel engine cooling water system, a pH of 6.0 indicates a/an ______________. slightly acidic condition slightly alkaline condition overtreatment of water neutral condition of water A If the jacket water temperature of an operating diesel engine suddenly rises above normal, the cause can be attributed to _____________. an overfilled expansion tank excess chromate treatment of the jacket water a clogged raw water sea suction cavitation erosion of the heat exchanger tubes C A. B. C. D. Ans: 1584 is dangerously flammable promotes scale buildup may cause frothing has a higher chloride content C Ethylene glycol, when used as a coolant in a closed cooling system for a diesel engine, is more advantageous than untreated raw water because it _____________. provides a constant pH below 7 provides better vapor-phase cooling has a higher freezing point and a lower boiling point has a lower freezing point and higher boiling point D Failure to ensure proper venting of the cooling system of a diesel engine can result in ____________. excessive air charge density priming in the expansion tank failure of raw water pump shaft seals local overheating and/or internal corrosion D If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system is below normal, you should check for a ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1583

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1585 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1587

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1586 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1588

A. broken thermostat B. clogged sea strainer C. blown head gasket D. cracked head Ans: B MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS When reassembling the bowl of a disk-type centrifuge, the bowl or Which of the listed contaminants will be satisfactorily removed from 1589 1590 locking ring is rotated ____________. fuel oil by centrifuging? clockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise Sludge A. A. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise Diesel fuel B. B. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise Lube oil C. C. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise Gasoline D. D. Ans: C Ans: A Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if oil If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a 1591 1592 containing moisture is continuously fed to a purifier operating as a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should clarifier? ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: A. The purifier must be operated at a higher temperature. A. remove the discharge ring

Page 91

B. C. D. Ans: 1593 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1595 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1597 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1599 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1601

The purifier must be operated at a higher speed. The purifier will gradually change operation to separation. The bowl will eventually fill with water. D A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the following contaminants from fuel oil? Gasoline Water Lubricating oil Sulphur compounds B Which factor determines the ring dam size for a fuel oil, tubular bowl type, centrifugal purifier? The viscosity of the fuel. The quantity of water to be removed from the fuel. The specific gravity of the fuel. The quantity of dirt to be removed from the fuel. C The lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is a ____________. volute pump centrifugal pump diaphragm pump gear pump D Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to _____________. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces A Which of the following problems will cause above normal cooling water temperatures in a diesel engine using a closed freshwater cooling system? An air leak in the header tank cover Benzotriazole found in the primary water Eroded baffle in the cooler Low level in expansion tank C Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to ____________.

B. C. D. Ans: 1594 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1596 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1598 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1600 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1602

reprime the purifier slow the centrifuge to its proper speed install an additional discharge ring B If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a separator is not primed, the _____________. oil has a tendency to emulsify in the bowl purifier will act as a clarifier at the discharge ring oil will be lost through the water discharge ports oil solids will be deposited only at the intermediate top disk C The output pressure of a diesel engine lube oil pump is regulated by a/an _____________. relief valve metering valve variable speed pump drive orifice in the lube oil header A How does water enter the crankcase of a diesel engine? Through the crankcase exhauster. As water vapor contained in blow-by. Demulsifying lube oil passing through the main bearings. Condensation from vapor formed in the expansion tank. B Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are usually ____________. curved impeller vane with tangential outlet curved impeller vane with concentric outlet straight impeller vane with concentric housing straight impeller vane with tangential housing C Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil ____________. TBN number viscosity temperature foaming C In a bypass type lubrication system for a diesel engine, the dirty oil line to the centrifuge should be taken from the _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1603

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1604

facilltiate bi-directional operation provide the greatest pump efficiency prevent pump clogging from marine growth prevent cavitation at the pump outlet A The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the 1605 _____________. vent line A. overflow line B. feed line C. sounding tube D. Ans: D When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is 1607 the _________.I. flow rate II. viscosity of the fuel oil A. B. C. D. I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I nor II

A. B. C. D. Ans:

lube oil pump suction line lube oil pump discharge line bottom of the lube oil sump outlet from the lube oil header C Standby, or emergency diesel generator day tanks should always 1606 be kept full to reduce the possibility of __________. sediment contamination A. fuel filter clogging B. moisture formation C. inadequate transfer pump suction head D. Ans: C Valves used in diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping are to be 1608 _______________. A. B. C. D. so constructed as to permit packing under pressure solenoid released upon the failure of engine lubrication either of the gate or globe valve type forge constructed under the approval of the Marine Inspector

A. B. C. D. Ans:

Ans: C Heavy residual fuel oils are heated prior to centrifuging to _____________. reduce fuel weight A. increase specific gravity B. separate fuel from lube oil C. reduce fuel viscosity D. Ans: D Which of the listed types of gasket material should be used on high 1611 pressure fuel oil lines on a diesel engine? Fiberglass A. Sheet asbestos B. Neoprene C. 1609

Ans: A Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine engines are usually _____________. of the diaphragm type A. of the centrifugal type B. of the positive displacement type C. independently driven by electric motors D. Ans: C A centrifuge is normally used to purify _____________. 1612 1610 A. B. C. cooling water fuel oil sea water

Page 92

different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and reduction gear lube systems Ans: D If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in a 1613 diesel engine are too high, the cause can be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1615 a dirty lube oil strainer internal water leaks an oil suction line restriction excessive wear of the cooling water pump D When fuel oil is accidentally mixed with lube oil which ofthe following processes can be used to separate them? I. filtering II. settling

D.

D.

diesel intake air

1614

Ans: B Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging? A. B. C. D. Ans: Sludge Gasoline Fuel oil lube oil A Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a _____________.

1616

I only II only either I or II neither I nor II D A centrifugal fuel oil purifier should be shut down if 1617 _____________. more sealing water is needed A. the cover clamp needs tightening B. the purifier has a bad vibration when started C. water is discharged from the overflow line D. Ans: C For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should 1619 be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable ______________. A. B. C. D. throughput additive percent cetane number TBN number

A. B. C. D. Ans:

high temperature and a high viscosity high temperature and a low viscosity low temperature and a high viscosity low temperature and low viscosity B The most effective method in removing water from diesel fuel oil is 1618 by _____________. centrifuging the fuel A. using it in the engine B. heating the fuel tanks C. straining the fuel D. Ans: A Valves and fittings used with diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping 1620 may be threaded in sizes up to and including 60 mm O.D., but screwed unions ________. A. B. C. D. are to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over over 33 mm O.D. will be permitted in lieu of flanged connections shall not be used in any instance where the fitting is subjected to excessive vibration are not to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over

A. B. C. D. Ans:

Ans: A

Ans: D

Page 93

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE - GENERAL


1621 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1623 WORKSHOP PRACTICE, SOLDERING, BRAZING, WELDING AND GAS CUTTING Which of the following conditions will indicate a need for a finishing In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the 1622 cut to be taken on the pump shaft? angle of ______________. Roughness A. drill points Deep ridges B. screw threads Corrugations C. screw thread pitch All of the above D. 60 thread cutting tools A Ans: D Very small irregularities on the seat and disk of a globe valve may If a drill press is used to completely bore through a metal plate, feed 1624 be manually repaired with the valve in place by the process known pressure on the drill bit should be eased as the bit breaks through as _____________. the bottom of the hole to prevent ________________. honing lapping in refacing spotting in B Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you must be certain the _____________. spindle clutch is disengaged carriage clamp screw is loosened carriage stop clamp is tightened thread dial indicator is zeroed B The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the _________. guide (swivel) bar automatic cross feed tailstock off center compound rest angle A To properly remove packing from a valve stuffing box, you should use a _____________. sharpened rod of silver solder packing puller chisel and hammer screw driver B Which of the following definitions accurately describes "tool feed" when referring to lathe work? The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1626 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1628 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1630 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1632 drill bit breakage undersized holes straining the spindle dulling the drill A Which of the devices listed should be used to reshape a grinding wheel? A round nose tool An oil stone A wheel dressing tool A sharp nose tool C A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the piece of material to be threaded is slightly ____________. peened reamed center drilled chamfered D Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using a ____________. short tap taper tap plug tap bottoming tap D The "pitch" of a screw is the _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1625 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1627 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1629 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1631 A.

A. angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread B. number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw C. distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads D. angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread Ans: C A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a 1634 _____________. A. taper punch B. drill drift C. vice grip D. leather mallet Ans: B Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting ___________. 1636 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1638 oil grooves in bearings V-grooves and inside sharp angles holes through metal plate keyways having square corners B To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________________.

B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece. C. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in one minute. D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute. Ans: A The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into a piece of stock should be _____________. A. larger than the tap diameter B. smaller than the tap diameter C. the same size as the tap diameter D. the same size as the bolt diameter Ans: B Machine bolts are identified by their _____________. 1635 1633 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1637 type of head major diameter and length threads per inch all of the above D When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the _____________.

A. drive motor and spindle B. spindle and feed rod C. lead screw and head stock spindle D. lead screw and feed rod Ans: C

A. turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer B. tap the reamer out with a softfaced hammer C. turn the tap wrench counterclockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer D. work the reamer side to side to dislodge it Ans: A

Page 94

1639 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1641 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1643 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1645 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1647 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1649 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1651 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1653 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1655

The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such as brass, is the ____________. smooth cut file warding file mill file second cut file C The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to _________. pipe fittings measuring instruments machinist's hand taps drill press parts C For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the proper hacksaw blade should have ______________. the teeth pointing towards the handle the blade and teeth of "all-hard" quality 14 teeth per inch 32 teeth per inch D Taps and dies used for threading pipe are ____________. not hardened not fluted tapered straight C If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will _____________. be out of round on the work be cut crooked on the work be rough, weak, and easily broken straighten out after the third revolution B Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to ______________. use a tapered reamer drill to the large diameter of the taper drill to the small diameter of the taper bore a straight hole C The complete tool used for manually cutting threads on pipe is called a pipe ________________. tool and die stock and die tap chaser B To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should _________________. place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for proper alignment cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact B The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the ________. shape of the file coarseness of the file teeth size of the file cuts of the file B A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________________. large diameter stock between centers threads on long slender shafts work mounted on the lathe carriage round stock to a finished dimension B

1640 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1642 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1644 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1646 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1648 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1650 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1652 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1654 A. B. C. D.

To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the _______________. teeth should point toward the handle teeth should point away from the handle blade should be kept loose in the frame blade should be 10 inches in length B Round split dies are usually adjustable to ________________. allow threading on oversized stock control the diameter of threads cut to help start the die squarely on the round stock allow threading up to a shoulder B A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file ______________. scraper card oilstone dressing tool B Copper tubing is best cut with a ________________________. tubing cutter hand hacksaw pipe cutter flare cutter A The tool used to expand and "bell" the ends of small diameter copper tubing is a/an _____________. adjustable tube roller adjustable belling tool flaring tool tubing expander C When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should _____________. stop applying the cutting fluid reduce cutting speed and pressure change to a finer cut blade increase cutting speed and pressure B Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin "frozen" in its hole? Drift punch Aligning punch Center punch Prick punch A Which of the following statements best defines "depth of cut" in lathe work? The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in 1 minute. The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute.

1656

Ans: B For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: one hundreth of a millimetre one thousandth of a millimetre one tenth of a millimetre one thosandth of a metre B Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to _____________. click at each increment of measure prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel eliminate ratchet movement B

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1657 A. B. C. D. Ans:

1658 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 95

1659 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1661 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1663 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1665 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1667

To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the ___________. feed-change lever split or half-nut back gear lever thread-chasing dial B What basic dimensions are used in describing machine bolts? Diameter and length only Diameter and cross section only Diameter, length, and number of threads per inch Diameter, head size, and shoulder length C To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first _____________. disengage the spindle clutch engage the feed change lever disengage the feed reverse lever stop the lathe rotation D A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drill's ________________. length diameter clearance angle web thickness B If all of the metals listed below are two inches in diameter, which of those listed can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed? Cast iron Machine steel Aluminum Soft brass C After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ___________. remove inside burrs with a reamer rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file flare the tube before removing the burrs crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting A The best method of determining the number of threads per inch of a bolt or screw would be through the use of a __________. thread tool gage machinist's scale screw pitch gage screw thread micrometer C To get an accurate inside measurement of the diameter of a 1/2 inch hole, you should use a/an ____________. depth micrometer inside micrometer small hole gauge inside spring caliper C The proper use of a flat chisel is for cutting ____________. inside corners slots or keyways half-round grooves flat stock D The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the ____________. round nose chisel flat cold chisel

1660 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1662 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1664 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1666 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1668

The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _____________. the scale is read on the handle the dial is read on the handle an audible click is heard and the handle releases a dial lights on the handle C A micrometer would be used to measure ____________. microseconds round stock diameter electrical resistance low voltages B The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the _________________. anvil barrel frame thimble D When knurling a piece of work on a lathe, it is important to ________________. operate the lathe at the slowest speed use plenty of oil mount the knurling tool securely in the tool post all of the above D For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a ___________________. faceplate steady rest draw-in collet chuck compound rest B Shim stock thickness is measured by a/an __________________. shim gage feeler gage outside micrometer inside micrometer C The temper is likely to be drawn out of a chisel edge when you _____________. hold it next to a wet grinding wheel soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods grind the cutting angle too small grind it for long periods of time with too much pressure D Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a ______________. fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined melting point lower than that of the metals being joined coating of Borax flux to raise the melting point composition of lead and tin if the solder is the "hard" type B Soldering flux aids the soldering process by _____________. softening the metals fusing the metals removing oxides hardening the metals C In an oxygen acetylene welding outfit, the torch tip orifice size ____________. depends on the hose length determines the amount of acetylene and oxygen fed to the flames

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1669 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1671

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1670 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1672

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1673 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1675 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1677 A. B.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1674 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1676 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1678 A. B.

C. diamond point chisel D. cape chisel Ans: D When welding or burning with a oxygen-acetylene, the acetylene 1679 working pressure must not exceed ____________. A. 0.1bar B. 0.3bar

C. can be varied by rotating the tip D. depends on the regulator flow rate Ans: B A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to 1680 prevent the _____________. A. heat of friction B. blade from overheating

Page 96

C. 1bar D. 1.6bar Ans: C A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at 1681 right angles to each other, and is called a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1683 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1685 seam weld plug weld tack weld fillet weld D Which of the following procedures is used to bring a hole to finished size with high accuracy? Coring Boring Broaching Reaming D When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode, and getting only shallow penetration, you should __________.

C. blade from bending D. cut from clogging Ans: B If you have to completely grind a new point on a high speed drill, 1682 which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water immediately after grinding? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1684 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1686 The edges will be dulled. The 59 angle will be lost due to metal contraction. Cracks may appear in the metal. The cutting surface will become annealed by the cold water. C Which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a blueprint or drawing? Vernier Protractor Planimeter Compass B Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be ______________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1687

use a lower current speed up your electrode travel use larger electrodes increase the amperage D Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for any given welding job? A. The strength of the bond only. B. The strength of the bond and the welding process being used.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1688

C. The type of metal being joined only. D. The type of metal being joined and the welding process being used. Ans: D A taper tap is correctly used for _________. A. starting threads in a hole B. producing tapered threads in a hole C. deepening the extent of existing threads in a hole D. finishing the threading operation in a blind hole Ans: A Ball peen hammers are sized according to their ____________. 1691 1689 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1693 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1695 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1697 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1699 A. B. C. D. overall length head weight face diameter peen head size B The Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes with an angle of ________. 10 45 30 60 C The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter _____________. is more easily centered has a headless set screw has a spring loaded catch allows for misaligned center holes B Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges? Mill Pillar Half round Knife B The length of a file is always measured exclusive of the ______________. edge tang point heel

marked with chalk prick punched scribed blued B Which of the following statements is correct concerning welding sequences? A. First, weld the joints that will tend to contract the most. B. First, weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum contraction. C. Make a weld across an unwelded plate joint in adjoining members.

D. Each successive welded part should be restrained to lock in stresses and avoid cracking. Ans: A A screwdriver should never be used as a ________. 1690 A. pry bar B. chisel C. punch D. all of the above Ans: D A tap marked "1/4-20" will cut a thread _____________. 1692 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1694 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1696 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1698 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1700 A. B. C. D. 1/4 inch in diameter with a pitch of 20 threads per inch 1/2 inch long having a total of 20 threads a total of 20 threads with a pitch of 1/4 inch 1/20 of an inch long and 1/4 inch in diameter A When using a handheld hacksaw, you should apply pressure only on the forward stroke ____________. only when cutting thin wall tubing only when cutting carbon steel only when cutting conduit at all times D For cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw blade should have ________. 14 teeth per inch 18 teeth per inch 24 teeth per inch 32 teeth per inch A Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have ______. longer than normal shanks larger than normal shanks shorter than normal shanks insulated handles D Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small parts? Ratchet Jeweler's cabinet-tip Square-shanked

Page 97

1701

Ans: B When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while using a hand held hacksaw, the sheet metal should be placed between two ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: blocks of steel blocks of wood pieces of sand paper pieces of cloth B A fine wire bristled brush used for cleaning files is called a ______________. file brush file card pulling brush cleaning card B Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should always include ____________. goggles ear plugs non-sparking tools steel toe safety shoes A Why is a covering applied to a welding electrode, rather than using a bare electrode? Protect the welder from electric shock. Prevent arc blow. Shield the arc during the welding process to prevent oxidation.

1702

Ans: B The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are continuously staggered with one to the left and one to the right is known as ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: alternate double alternate raker wave A Which of the following problems will cause a twist drill to cut improperly? Improper lip clearance Improper cutting angle Improper clearance angle All of the above D Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared _____________. safe for personnel safe for hot work not safe for personnel not safe for hot work B You should never watch the arc generated during electricarc welder with the naked eye because _____________. serious flash burns will result arc blow will burn your face the fumes are highly toxic

1703 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1705 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1707 A. B. C.

1704 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1706 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1708 A. B. C.

D. Stabilize the electron emission rate and produce uniform temperatures in the heat affected zone. Ans: C Some of the hazards of working with electric power tools may be 1709 avoided if the operator insures that _____________. A. they are properly grounded B. eye shields and gloves are worn C. loose clothing and jewelry are not worn D. all of the above Ans: D To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe, you should use a 1711 ____________. A. center gage B. gage block C. dial indicator D. micrometer Ans: C A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding 1713 the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1715 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1717 spotting-in honing lapping-in refacing C An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by _____________. taking a light cut in a lathe sandblasting with light weight grit dressing the seat with crocus cloth scraping with a bastard file A After a piece of pipe has been cut, a good shop practice to ream out the burr left in the pipe. This is done to _______________. make a taper for starting the threading die make the taper required for pipe threads remove tool marks which could interfere with flow prevent the burr from restricting flow in the pipe D When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock, the threads can be dry cut or may be lubricated with __________. graphite and oil white lead lard oil kerosene

D. slag and metal splatter will get in your eyes Ans: A If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions must be done to begin its removal? A. Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor. B. Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch. C. Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud. D. Use a screw extractor only. Ans: C When using a wheel dressing tool to true up a grinding wheel, you 1712 should always _____________. A. lubricate the dressing tool B. operate the grinder in neutral C. remove the tool rest from the grinder D. wear goggles to protect your eyes Ans: D While reaming a hole, the reamer should not be turned backwards 1714 if the hole has not been fully reamed because _______________. 1710 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1716 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1718 the cutting edges may be damaged turning in the wrong direction will cause chatter the shank will loosen in the tap wrench reverse rotation will make the hole oversize A After a piece of pipe is cut, the opening in the end should be cleaned out with a _____________. pipe reamer pipe cleaner taper tool hole cleaner A An acetylene pressure regulator should never be adjusted to maintain pressures exceeding 1bar (103.4 kPa) because ____________. the relief valve will lift the fusible plug will blowout rapid depletion of acetylene is hazardous this gas become extremely unstable under this condition D The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the _____________. set rake pitch thread gauge

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1719

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1720

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 98

1721

Ans: C Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools may be avoided if the operator would _____________. A. inspect the hoses for cracks and other defects B. remove jewelry and loose clothing C. bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connections D. all of the above Ans: D A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or bolt head is a/an ____________. A. adjustable wrench B. open end wrench C. tappet wrench D. box wrench Ans: D A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw, is known as a ____________. A. clamp lathe dog B. standard lathe dog C. safety lathe dog D. common lathe dog Ans: C Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt? A. Open end wrench B. Box end wrench C. Crescent wrench D. Monkey wrench Ans: B If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should _____________. A. tap the holes without cutting oil B. flood the tap with mineral oil C. chamfer the edges of the holes D. start tapping with a plug tap Ans: A To accurately cut the proper size gasket for installation in a pipeline, you should use _____________. A. tin snips B. a jack knife C. a gasket cutter D. a pair of nail clippers Ans: C Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be stored _____________. A. upright with the cylinder caps screwed on B. horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on C. upright with the cylinder caps off D. horizontal with the cylinder caps off Ans: A When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that the _____________. A. bulb is protected by a shield or guard B. extension cord is always yellow and clearly marked "FOR DROP LIGHT USE ONLY" C. bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts D. all of the above Ans: A Safety glasses should be worn when _____________. A. using a hand portable grinder B. scraping paint with a hand scraper C. using a hammer and chisel D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the handling and use of compressed gas cylinders? A. Using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic tools. B. Routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinders. C. The storage of the cylinders in a well ventilated compartment. D. Cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt. Ans: C

1722

Ans: C All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent _____________. A. electric shock if the tool is shorted B. burning out the motor from an overload C. overloading the motor from a short D. grounding the plastic case through a short Ans: A Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolthead or nut? A. Open end wrench B. Box end wrench C. Crescent wrench D. Spanner wrench Ans: B A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for ______________. A. restoring damaged threads B. enlarging existing threads C. cutting original threads D. straightening tapered threads Ans: A To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a _____________. A. collet B. V-block C. clamp D. morse sleeve Ans: B A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame with the ______________. A. maximum possible tension on the blade B. teeth pointing away from the handle C. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting width D. teeth angled toward the saw handle Ans: B When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades listed would be the most suitable for cutting thin tubing? A. 14 teeth per inch B. 18 teeth per inch C. 24 teeth per inch D. 32 teeth per inch Ans: D Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should include the use of ____________. A. goggles B. cotton gloves C. trousers with deep pockets D. wool jackets Ans: A Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded plating inserts by ____________. A. squaring the corners B. rounding the corners

1723

1724

1725

1726

1727

1728

1729

1730

1731

1732

1733

1734

1735

1736

1737

1739

C. plug welding the corners D. slot welding the corners Ans: B Internal pipe threads are cut with _____________. 1738 A. dies B. reamers C. taps D. tap drills Ans: C When machining a long piece of work between centers, you must 1740 ________________. A. make sure that the lathe dog is securely jammed in the slot of the face plate B. correct for expansion of the work by readjusting the tailstock center C. make sure that the work is only supported by the headstock center D. make sure the tailstock is tight against the work Ans: B

Page 99

1741

If the point angle of a drill is less than 59, the _______________.

1742

As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a squeaking sound from the tip of the bit indicates _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: the bit is too large for the hole the bit tip has not been properly ground insufficient force has been applied on the drill bit a continuous chip is being taken by the drill bit B A hazard associated with electric arc welding is _____________. the effects of radiation from the arc flying sparks electric shock all of the above D In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due to shrinkage, you should ____________. use intermittent welds rather than continuous welds wherever possible make fewer passes with larger electrodes as opposed to a great number of passes with small electrodes use restraining forces such as clamps, jigs, and fixtures all of the above D A hacksaw blade will break if ________. the rate of cutting is too great the blade becomes loose in the frame too much pressure is applied to the blade all the above D Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per minute while using a hand held hacksaw will generally ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1743 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1745 A.

hole will be drilled too large hole will take longer to drill drill will not center properly drill will cut undersized B While carrying out electric arc welding, there is alwaysthe danger of _____________. developing burns to the retina of the eye fire electric shock all of the above D What is the distinguishing difference between the Phillips and the Reed and Prince type screwdrivers? The diameter of the shanks.

1744 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1746 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1748 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1750

B. The angle of the tip flukes. C. The overall length of the screwdriver. D. None of the above. Ans: B Safe welding practice requires _____________. 1747 A. checking the area for items that may catch fire B. that a fire watch be posted C. checking for explosive gases D. all of the above Ans: D Which statement describes the function of the filler material used in 1749 acetylene cylinders? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1751 It reduces the danger of explosion. It chemically reacts with acetone to produce acetylene. It neutralizes the gas to render it harmless. It is fire resistant and reduces fire hazards. A Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short sections of teeth bent in opposite directions? A. Alternate Double alternate Rake Wave D When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working pressure must be kept below 15 psi to prevent a possible ___________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1752

sharpen the blade cause the blade to cut faster dull the blade not change how the blade cuts C Acetylene should never be used at pressures in excess of 1barg(15 psig) because the ____________. A. acetylene cylinders have a maximum allowable pressure of 15 psig fusible plug will blow out relief valve will lift slightest shock could cause an explosion D The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the ________.

B. C. D. Ans: 1753

B. C. D. Ans: 1754

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1755

explosion torch backfire torch flameout acetone fire A Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed to protect small screws from being over tightened? A. Magnetic screwdriver B. Torque limiting screwdriver C. Variable speed screwdriver with a jacobs chuck

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1756

distance between the parallel cuts of a file size of the file coarseness of file teeth both A and C are correct D When arc welding, you can reduce the chance of a dangerous electric shock by _____________. A. using insulated electrode holders B. wearing dry welding gloves C. avoiding wet or damp areas while using arc welding equipment

D. Constant rpm screwdriver with a jacobs chuck Ans: B Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced teeth? 1757 A. Second cut B. Dead smooth cut C. Bastard cut D. Smooth cut Ans: C For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the cutting lubricants is it 1759 necessary to use? A. Lard oil B. Soluble oil C. Kerosene D. None of the above Ans: D When using a chisel, you should ___________. 1761

D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the files listed is provided with only one safe edge? 1758 A. Mill B. Pillar C. Half round D. Bastard Ans: D Which of the screwdrivers listed is fastest and most convienent 1760 when tightening many screws? A. Square shank B. Offset C. Ratchet D. Standard Ans: C A file coated with oil and stowed away will ________. 1762

Page 100

A. wear gloves B. hold the tool lightly C. be certain it is a nonsparking type D. wear safety glasses Ans: D The tool used to remove a ball bearing from the shaft of a motor is 1763 called a _____________. A. slugging wrench B. gear puller C. drift pin D. come along Ans: B Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the cutting edges of a 1765 drill bit is the result of the drill having ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1767 too much cutting speed not enough cutting speed too much clearance angle not enough margin width C When drilling holes in metal, which of the materials listed does not have to be lubricated? A. Tool steel

A. cause the file to overheat B. cause the file to slide across the work and prevent fast, clean cutting C. cause dust and metal particles to collect in the teeth D. both B and C are correct Ans: D Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against 1764 the work, is called ___________. A. stroke filing B. cross filing C. draw filing D. standard form filing Ans: B All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or held in a 1766 _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1768 drill socket tapered sleeve drill chuck morse sleeve C The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth ___________________. A. pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine

B. Cast iron C. Mild steel D. Cast steel Ans: B When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap 1769 to be run entirely through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1771 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1773 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1775 taper tap plug tap bottoming tap finishing tap A Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________. strip insulation from electric wire or cable perform work in tight places ordinary pliers cannot cut recessed cotter pins tighten electrical wire clamps B A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when _____________. the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting a maximum pull is exerted with one hand an extension is placed on the wrench handle A Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _____________.

B. pointing away from the motor end of the machine C. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade D. pointing toward the motor end of the machine Ans: D Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the 1770 electrode is the negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1772 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1774 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1776 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1778 straight polarity welding circuit inert-arc welding circuit shielded-arc welding circuit reverse polarity welding circuit A Which material can be drilled at the highest speed? Aluminum Medium cast iron Copper High carbon steel A A tool used for measuring, or laying out angles is called a ____________. trammel protractor micrometer caliper rule B When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the ____________. hand valves on the torch only cylinder valves only cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero D To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used with a small hole gage to get an accurate reading? A Center gage Wire gage Micrometer None of the above C To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use a ___________. dial indicator wire gauge micrometer circular slide rule C

A. chain pipe wrench B. monkey wrench C. basin wrench D. strong back Ans: A Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?

1777

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1779 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Diamond point Flat cold Round nose Square nose C Which of the following procedures should be used with a chisel having a mushroomed head? Remove the ragged edges by grinding. Do not strike the mushroomed portion. Use only light hammer blows with the chisel. Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer. A

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1780 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 101

1781 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1783 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1785 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1787

To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a _______________. micrometer scribing circle steel rule calipers C When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you should mount the drill chuck in the ____________. compound rest cross feed tailstock headstock C The lathe steady rest is normally used for supporting one end of a _____________. short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuck long workpiece for facing, drilling, and boring short workpiece being machined to an internal taper tubular workpiece being parted between centers B When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale are being turned, the first roughing cut should be taken ___________________. slowly to prevent tool chatter deep enough to get under the scale lightly to avoid dulling the tool rapidly in a continuous chip B The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the ________. parts of the file shape of the file distance between the parallel cuts on the file size of the file C Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in position? Facing work held in a chuck. Turning work held between centers. Threading internal threads. Boring an angled hole. A The most accurate method of setting an inside caliper is to use a/an _____________. thread micrometer outside micrometer engineer's scale dial indicator B A taper may be turned on a lathe by _____________. setting over the tailstock using the compound rest using the taper attachment all of the above D The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _____________. gasket cutter spud wrench scraper flange spreader D A metal scribe should only be used to _____________. remove packing mark on metal punch gasket holes clean file teeth B A roughened checkered surface is machined by a lathe on round stock using a ______________. knurling tool checkering tool chamfering tool threading tool

1782 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1784 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1786 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1788

Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal? Gauge calibrator Wire gauge Inside micrometer Circular mil B A tailstock "dead center" has been given that name because it ____________. is dead centered on the tailstock spindle does not revolve must be removed by clamping in the chuck fits into the dead center of the workpiece B For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the correct included angle of a drill point is _____________. 29 45 90 118 D If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first _____________. lubricate the centers stop the lathe change the cutting bit run the lathe at a slower speed B If the drill point lips are of unequal length, the drill will wobble and ______________. cut a continuous chip jam in the hole and break cut an oversized hole overheat rapidly from rubbing C Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip to fit screws with a fourway or cross slot? Standard Phillips Allen Torx B The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after the end of the work piece has been ____________. counter bored tapered center drilled convexed C The tang of a file is the part that ___________. does the cutting fits into the handle has crosscut teeth is opposite the handle B A hand hacksaw blade is normally installed in the saw frame with the teeth pointing away from the saw handle, because ____________. the blade will always break if installed otherwise cutting fluid must flow down the teeth the blade will overheat if installed otherwise cutting pressure is most easily put on the forward stroke D Open end wrenches are _____________. nonadjustable solid wrenches intended for gripping round objects not suitable for tubing fittings used with a speeder handle A Hand taps are provided in sets of three, with each being known as _____________. taper, plug, and finish short, medium, and long taper, plug, and bottom starting, through, and finishing

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1789 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1791 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1793 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1795 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1797

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1790 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1792 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1794 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1796 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1798

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1799 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1801 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1800 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1802 A. B. C. D.

Page 102

Ans: A Double cut files are most effective when used for _______________. A. sharpening tools B. draw filing C. finish work D. rough work Ans: D If the drill point lips are ground at different angles, the drill will 1805 _____________. A. overheat rapidly from rubbing B. cut an oversized hole C. cut a continuous chip D. jam in the hole and break Ans: B Which of the following types of files will produce a fine finish when 1807 draw filing? A. Mill cut B. Bastard C. Double cut D. Second cut Ans: A When drilling holes larger than 12.5mm, a smaller pilot hole should 1809 be drilled first to ___________. A. ensure the maximum cut by the large drill 1803 B. provide a path for the dead center of the drill C. allow the use of a drill with a lesser lip clearance angle D. increase the cutting speed of the drill bit Ans: B To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should 1811 use a blade with what number of teeth per inch? A. 14 B. 18 C. 24 D. 32 Ans: C The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct 1813 size is ____________. A. a pair of tin snips B. a jack knife C. a gasket cutter D. a ball peen hammer Ans: C If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a lathe and 1815 see blue chips coming off that workpiece, you should _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1817 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1819 decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the tool reduce the cutting tool height above center reduce the tool feed or depth of cut decrease the cross compound speed C To finish tapping a blind hole, it is best to use a _____________. taper tap finishing tap bottoming tap plug tap C Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?

1804

1806

1808

1810

1812

1814

1816

Ans: C Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal? A. Mill B. Float C. Warding D. Second cut Ans: A Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________. A. backward stroke B. forward stroke C. front of the hacksaw frame D. top of the hacksaw frame Ans: B A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you _____________. A. apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut B. coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut C. turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame D. file a nick where the cut is to be started Ans: D When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should _____________. A. start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads B. tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips C. continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die face D. never use a lubricant Ans: C When using the draw file method, which of the listed types of files will produce a fine finish? A. A double cut file B. A bastard file C. A single cut file D. A second cut file Ans: C The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe _____________. A. cutter B. stock and die C. threader D. ratchet cutter Ans: B Increasing the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break through the bottom of the workpiece will cause the drill to ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: break cleanly through the bottom of the workpiece cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the workpiece form a tapered hole in the bottom of the workpiece dig into the workpiece and tend to whirl it around D Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed ____________. belling stretching flaring swaging D When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter ________________.

1818 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1820

A. The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted. B. The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted. C. The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an eccentric position. D. Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate than the four-jaw independent chuck. Ans: B Which of the following conditions is true concerning a radiograph taken on a large welded piping repair? A. A discontinuity in the form of a crack would appear as a thin light line against the dark background of the film.

A. slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill B. equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill C. smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill D. small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill

1821

1822

Ans: A Which of the precautions listed should to be observed when working with oxy-acetylene welding equipment? A. Bottles should be labeled air and gas.

Page 103

B. Porosity, a discontinuity caused by entrapped gas, would occur as various sized round dark spots. C. As long as the plane of a crack is not in direct alignment with the direction of radiation, detection is certain. D. All of the above. Ans: B When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that 1823 _____________. A. the bulb is protected by a shield or guard B. the extension cord is yellow and clearly marked C. the bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts D. all of the above Ans: A The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a 1825 thread _____________. A. chaser B. die C. broach D. tap Ans: B Hidden edges in objects are represented in blueprints by 1827 ___________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1829 a thin solid line a thick solid line dashed lines having alternating long and short dashes dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes D The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux covered electrode and the metal being welded is known as ____________. flux cored arc welding resistance spot welding shielded metal arc welding submerged arc welding C Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with afourway or cross type slot? Standard screwdriver Phillips screwdriver Reed and Prince screwdriver Both B and C are correct D When the insulation breaks down within a metal encased, portable, electric tool, _____________. added safety features are built into the receptacle to allow continued use of the tool care should be taken to insert the plug correctly when energizing the tool you should stand on a grounded deck plate before energizing the tool line voltage may be placed on the tool casing making it dangerous to operate D Which of the following listed pressures is the maximum acetylene gas pressure that can be safely used in gas welding?

B. Keep cylinders away from exposure to cold temperatures. C. Keep oxygen regulators and valves coated with a light film of oil. D. Keep gas cylinders supported so that they can not tip over. Ans: D Which practices should be followed at all times when using an 1824 electric grinding machine? A. Wear goggles or face shield. B. Be certain that the frame is properly grounded. C. Be properly trained in the use of this tool. D. Each of the above practices. Ans: D Careful handling of compressed gas bottles should include 1826 _____________. A. stowing, to avoid them from crashing into one another B. keeping them away from flame, high heat, and direct sunlight C. keeping the valve protection caps in place D. all of the above Ans: D The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked 1828 surface on round stock in a lathe is called _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1830 checkering crosshatching knurling swaging C To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing, you would mount the crotch center in the ________________. compound rest headstock tailstock chuck C The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a _____________. swaging tool stretcher flaring tool spreader C Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are represented in blueprints by ___________________. a thick solid line

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1831 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1833 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1835

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1832 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1834 A.

B. dashed line having alternating long and short dashes C. dashed lines having approxiamately equal length dashes D. Hidden edges are not represented because they are "hidden". Ans: C The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth are staggered to the right, then two to the left, and continue to alternate in this manner is known as ________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1838 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1840 A. B. C. D. Ans: Alternate Double alternate Racker Wave B When using a hand held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting should be ________. 10 to 20 strokes per minute 80 to 100 strokes per minute 40 to 50 strokes per minute 70 to 80 strokes per minute C Using a file without a handle may result in ________. your work becoming rounded injury to your hand overheating of the file pinning B

1836

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1837 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1839 A. B. C. D. Ans:

10 psi 15 psi 25 psi 35 psi B A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a _____________. center drill finish drill broach reamer D Double cut files are used for ________. quick removal of metal finish work rough work both A and C D

Page 104

1841 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1843 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1845 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1847 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1849 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1851 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1853

Which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth for finishing to a smooth surface? Smooth cut Bastard cut Second cut Rough cut A A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of ________. monel stock using heavy pressure brass stock using heavy pressure bronze stock using light pressure stainless steel stock using light pressure C Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a tool? A double cut file. A single cut file. Any bastard cut file. Only a double bastard cut file. B Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication? Steel Brass Monel Tungsten B If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the ___________. drill will not cut hole will be oversized hole will be undersized drill will seize immediately B When welding, a flux is used to __________.

1842 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1844 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1846 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1848 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1850 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1852 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1854

When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which of the blades listed could cut smoothly through a metal file? Wave set Hardened Rod Flexible C Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and is used to file acute internal angles? Mill Round Square Triangular D File lengths are determined by the _____________. overall length of the file distance between the face and the edge of the file distance between the point and the heel of the file length of the tang only C If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will _______________. cut faster cut slower rapidly dull not cut C Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _____________. allow it to be used as a pry bar prevent the shank from bending permit striking with a hammer allow turning with a wrench D A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on __________.

control penetration reduce metal fatigue and warpage reduce oxidation increase heat transfer C A plug tap is correctly used for ___________. A. starting threads in a hole B. reversing the threads in a hole C. the second cut when threading a blind hole

hexagonal objects round objects square objects flat objects B Prussian blue is used to _____________. A. check heat exchangers for leaks in the waterside B. check the fit of a seat and disc of a valve C. check for leaks in a R-12 system if a Halide torch is not available

D. finishing the threads in a blind hole Ans: C The center head of a combination square set is used to 1855 ______________. A. check degrees of angle B. find right angles C. locate the center on round stock D. check the angle of thread cutting tools Ans: C To ensure a good weld, post heating is required whenever an arc 1857 weld repair is made _______________. A. with a straight polarity rod B. with a reverse polarity rod C. to a cast component (casting) D. to a part of the ship's main structure Ans: C A welding electrode is marked E-6010, this designation means that 1859 _________. A. the electrode may be used in the flat position only B. the minimum tensile strength of the weld metal will be 70,000 psi C. either insulated or uninsulated electrode holders may be used D. the electrode is to be used for shielded metal arc welding Ans: D To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it 1861 to make a bearing shim, you should use a ____________. A. feeler gage B. micrometer

D. trace condensate flow in an impulse steam trap Ans: B A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation may 1856 ______________. A. be bent B. have a severely worn shank C. have been placed in the chuck off center D. all the above Ans: D To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel 1858 rule, you should measure _____________. A. from the one inch graduation mark B. from the zero end on the scale C. on the narrow edge of the rule D. on the unmarked edge of the rule Ans: A Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to 1860 first hand feed the carriage to ensure _________________. A. the carriage is lubricated B. the lathe is level C. all locking devices have been released D. the workpiece is secure in the lathe Ans: C In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact 1862 tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an ____________. A. hook spanner B. dial wrench

Page 105

C. machinist's rule D. depth gage Ans: B When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is 1863 _____________. A. read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench B. read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench

C. offset box end D. torque wrench Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning braze welding is/are 1864 correct? A. Braze welding is an exceptionally good method of repairing malleable (special heat-treated) iron. B. A braze welded joint should be cooled immediately with cold water or forced air draft to reduce the intensity of the heat path. C. Repairs to working parts or containers used in chemical processes, especially strong alkaline solutions, are effectively accomplished with braze welding. D. All of the above. Ans: A Solder is an alloy of _____________. 1866 A. tin and lead B. beryllium and antimony C. copper and lead D. silicon and selenium Ans: A Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________. A. decrease the melting point of the solder B. make the solder "flow" C. ensure proper tinning D. clean the joint area Ans: D A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because ____________. A. the chisel cannot be struck squarely B. pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes C. the hammer head may be chipped D. it must be held firmly by the head to strike it Ans: B To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a ___________. A. machinist's steel rule B. flexible steel rule C. hook rule D. folding rule Ans: B Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the metal, the greater should be the drill's ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1876 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1878 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1880 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1882 A. B. C. D. Ans: diameter lip clearance included point angle cutting speed C The drill size is marked on the _____________. point shank margin flute B A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an _________________. feeler gauge micrometer surface gauge angle gauge B Pipe thread taps are _____________. not hardened not fluted tapered straight C The 60 taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the ___________. taper attachment compound rest tailstock setover method headstock setover method B

C. indicated by an audible click

1865

1867

1869

1871

1873

D. indicated by a release or break of the handle Ans: A When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, _____________. A. open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG B. open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem C. a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape D. a flashback of flame into the hose is normal Ans: B Tinning a soldering iron will __________. A. prevent the tip from overheating B. protect the tip from scratches C. add extra weight to the tip D. prevent tip oxidation when heated Ans: D When stock is being turned in a lathe the outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to _____________. A. the depth of cut B. one half the depth of cut C. twice the depth of cut D. twice the rate of feed Ans: C Soft solders have relatively low melting points and consist mainly of ______________. A. silver base alloys B. lead base alloys C. copper base alloys D. nickel base alloys Ans: B If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the workpiece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: increase the lathe spindle speed increase the height of the tool cutting edge stop the lathe and tighten the chuck stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center B A dial indicator is used to measure ______________. shaft eccentricity positive readings only scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces torque of a shaft A When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should measure across the drill ______________. margins flutes shank web A A micrometer screw has a pitch of _____________. 40 threads per cm 50 threads per metre 75 threads per mm 100 threads per mm A Which of the following files will produce the finest surface on a workpiece being finished filed in a lathe? A mill file A double cut file Any bastard cut file All warding files A

1868

1870

1872

1874

1875 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1877 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1879 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1881 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 106

1883 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1885 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1887 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1889

Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing? A double cut file A single cut file Any bastard cut file Only a double bastard cut file B A mill file is used to _____________. produce a very fine finish by draw filing produce a coarse finish by push filing file lead file plastic A A file handle is fitted to the file's ____________. tang point taper heel A When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________. moving the working table using a depth stop adjusting the spindle return spring gaging chuck motion B With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of nonferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an ________________. oxidizing flame neutral flame nitriding fusion carburizing flame D In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure and the other gage is used to indicate ___________________________. tip pressure upstream pressure hose pressure arc pressure C An offset screwdriver is best used for _____________. tightening Allen head screws only tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws driving self-tapping screws only screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver D A grinding wheel is trued with a _____________. lathe tool dressing tool garnet stone round file B One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _____________. move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley change the terminal connections of the drive motor change to a larger diameter spindle B An aligning punch is used to ___________. line up corresponding holes in adjacent parts completely loosen a jammed bolt mark centers and lines in layout work make a starting mark for a drill A Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become _______________. tapered

1884 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1886 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1888 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1890

The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge a slightly undersized hole, is called a ____________. round out round file reamer hole driller C Prussian blue is used for ________________________. grinding in valves spotting in valves lapping valves refacing valves B The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the _____________. flexible blade all-hard blade all-soft blade hollow core blade B Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the _______________. length of the workpiece diameter of the workpiece angle of the cutting tool none of the above A The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for which the electrode is recommended? E 70 2 A1 C A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________. away from you to correct alignment toward you to correct alignment closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment A Oiling a file as a rust preventative will cause ___________. overheating pinning fast cutting binding B The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a _____. smooth edge safe edge flat edge dead edge B Pressure-relief devices on gas welding cylinders are located in ___________. the cylinder valve the shoulder of the cylinder the bottom of the cylinder all of the above D Pipe threads are cut with a taper to ____________. prevent overtightening the joint provide a leakproof fit permit easy joint disassembly produce a fine even thread B

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1891

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1892

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1893

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1894

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1895 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1897 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1899 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1901 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1903 A.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1896 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1898 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1900 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1902 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 107

B. C. D. Ans: 1904 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1906

smooth rough rounded D REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known 1905 _____________. as the _____________. frequently grounding out A. latent heat of vaporization frequently starting and stopping B. sensible heat running too fast C. refrigerating effect running too slow D. specific heat of vaporization B Ans: C When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for 1907 through the suction line, the condition is called _____________. most marine applications? flooding back superheating overflowing recycling A The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration plant is the _____________. latent heat of expansion sensible heat of condensation heat of compression all of the above C In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of vaporization in the _____________. compressor condenser receiver evaporator D The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid while at its freezing temperature, is known as the latent heat of _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1909 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1911 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1913 R-21 Ammonia R-12 Sulfur dioxide C The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start while undergoing repairs, is to ____________. secure and tag the electrical circuit place a crow bar in the flywheel of the unit inform all persons in the area not to start the unit make a log book entry A Personnel working with refrigeration systems, and subject to the exposure of refgerants should wear ________________. face shield a respirator rubber gloves an all purpose gas mask A The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by _________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1908 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1910 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1912

A. fusion B. vaporization C. condensation D. sublimation Ans: A The amount of moisture in a given sample of air, when compared 1914 with the amount of moisture the air could hold if totally saturated at the existing temperature of the sample, is called ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1916 absolute humidity specific humidity effective humidity relative humidity D People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems become accustomed to its odor and may forget that the vapors _____________. in a low concentration can cause death will dissolve in perspiration and cause caustic burns will burn or explode all of the above D A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture can be affected by _____________. acid formation sludge formation ice in the expansion valve all of the above D In a direct expansion type cargo refrigeration system, a box is normally changed from chill to freeze by adjusting the _____________. hand expansion valve compressor suction valve solenoid bypass back pressure regulating valve D

A. passing it through the expansion valve B. condensing refrigerant in the system condenser C. passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on the suction side of the compressor D. maintaining a high pressure on the system's receiver Ans: B When it is necessary to open a refrigeration system for repairs and 1915 the system will be open for more than a few minutes, the open ends of the system should be ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1917 dehydrated purged plugged evacuated C When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or an electric heating element, which of the listed refrigerants will break down and produce phosgene gas? CO2 Methyl chloride R-22 Sulphur dioxide C Some chloronated flourocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a toxic irritating gas if it is ____________. stored at temperatures below 60 degrees Fahrenheit charged into a system having copper fittings allowed to mix with compressor oil exposed to an open flame or hot surface D If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is frosting up, the cause may be due to the thermal expansion valve _____________. thermal bulb coming loose from the suction line needle valve is stuck closed thermal bulb is in a cold air stream all of the above A

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1918 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1920

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1919 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1921

A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 108

1922 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1924 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1926 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1928

Which of the listed reasons could cause frost to form on the suction line of a refrigeration compressor? Shortage of refrigerant in the system. Expansion valve is stuck open. Liquid line service valve is closed. Condenser cooling water temperature is too high. B If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause may be due to _____________. a shortage of refrigerant the compressor running continuously liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor the compressor short cycling on the high pressure cutout C Liquid line gas may cause erosion of the expansion valve's internal components and could cause the valve to ________. overheat hunt freeze shut freeze open B The compressor in the ship service refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. The probable reason for this is the ____________. discharge valves are leaking excessively discharge valves are leaking slightly condenser is getting insufficient cooling water flow system is low on refrigerant C The refrigeration system compressor is short cycling on high head pressure when the sea water cooling temperature is 22C. In this situation, you should ____________.

1923 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1925 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1927 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1929

If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the trouble could be caused by _____________. excessive superheat a minor amount of air in the system normal oil circulation with the refrigerant the expansion valve being stuck in the open position D Crankcase sweating in a refrigeration system is caused by _____________. a stuck solenoid valve a shortage of refrigerant too much oil in circulation too much superheat C If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, you should _____________. add refrigerant to the system adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting adjust the float valve to the proper holding pressure open the hand expansion valve B If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, the probable cause for this might be the ____________. system was overcharged with refrigerant high pressure switch was improperly adjusted expansion valve strainers were fouled suction valves were leaking slightly C When handling contaminated oil from a hermetically sealed refrigeration compressor unit that has burned out its motor, you should _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1930

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1931

A. check for sufficient cooling water flow through the condenser B. C. D. Ans: 1932 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1934 purge noncondensable gases from the receiver reset the thermostatic expansion valve completely purge the high pressure side of the system A When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is a ____________. loose expansion valve control bulb low differential setting on the H.P. cutout blown fuse in the motor circuit faulty suction pressure regulator C If a large difference exists between the compressor discharge pressure and the pressure corresponding to the existing condensing temperature in a refrigeration system, you should ____________.

A. store the oil in a clean refrigerant drum B. C. D. Ans: 1933 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1935 use rubber gloves circulate the oil through a filter drier remove the oil with a portable charging cylinder B The accumulation of air and other noncondensable gases in a refrigeration system will ____________. cause a loss of the liquid seal create a vapor lock in the liquid receiver collect in the condenser cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase C While troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low head pressure, liquid refrigerant flooding back from the evaporator is determined to be the cause. It may be necessary to ___________.

A. increase the flow of the cooling water through the condenser B. adjust the high pressure cutout to maintain the desired pressure C. open the hot gas bypass temporarily to reduce capacity D. purge noncondensable gases to reduce the excess pressure Ans: D Air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is indicated by ____________. A. frosting of the liquid line B. higher than normal head pressure C. a clear sight glass D. abnormally cold reefer boxes Ans: B Subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature of the liquid 1938 refrigerant below its _____________. A. freezing point B. floc point C. condensing temperature D. compression temperature Ans: C The component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant 1940 vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as the _____________. 1936 A. condenser B. vapor generator

A. change the expansion valve adjustment B. readjust the water regulating valve to increase the flow of water C. purge air from the condenser D. clean the waterside of the condenser Ans: A Refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or air conditioning system condenser to _____________. A. maintain adequate coil back pressure B. prohibit flashing in the liquid line C. reduce refrigerant volume in the system D. reduce compressor discharge line loading Ans: B Flash gas formed in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may 1939 cause ____________. A. pressure at expansion valve inlet to increase B. expansion valve pins and seats to erode C. expansion valve capacity to increase D. pressure difference across the expansion valve to increase Ans: B In a refrigeration system, the heat normally producing the flash gas 1941 at the thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained from _____________. 1937 A. the hot gas bypass connection at the threeway valve B. the portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash

Page 109

C. accumulator D. evaporator Ans: D Which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration systems? A. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system.

C. exposure to the high ambient temperature within the coil D. exposure to the high ambient temperature of the cooled space Ans: B The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe the _____________. A. release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase B. release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase C. sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid D. sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant Ans: B Which of the listed refrigeration system components keeps the 1945 refrigerant circulating through the system? A. Expansion valve B. Condenser C. Evaporator D. Compressor Ans: D Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration 1947 compressor at start up can cause _____________. A. compressor damage from improper lubrication B. refrigerant absorption by the lubricant C. increased viscosity in the lubricant D. carbon deposit on the compressor suction valves Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor is running continuously without 1949 lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, the trouble may be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1951 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1953 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1955 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1957 a shortage of compressor oil warm food in the refrigerator excessive condenser cooling water a shortage of refrigerant D "Flooding back" is a condition where the liquid refrigerant _____________. vaporizes in the condenser reaches the compressor through the suction line flashes in the liquid line condenses in the receiver B Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves will cause _____________. overfeeding of the expansion valve damage to the condenser constant running of the compressor flooding of the receiver C If a refrigeration compressor had a higher than normal suction pressure, the problem could be a result of ________. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system a constant loss of refrigerant leaking compressor suction valves a slightly higher than normal liquid level in the receiver C If the refrigeration compressor was developing higher than normal discharge pressure, this could be a result of _____________. air or noncondensable gases in the system leaking discharge valves leaking suction valves liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil A If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the refrigeration compressor, the refrigerant pressure will build up in the high pressure side of the system to the point where the _____________. compressor discharge valves would be damaged condenser tubes would rupture system relief valve would open high pressure cutout switch would function

1942

1943

B. A 25 ton refrigeration system has the same cooling effect as melting 25 tons of ice in 24 hours. C. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated space temperature. D. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove noncondensable gases. Ans: B The refrigerant leaves the evaporator of a refrigeration system as a 1944 low pressure _____________. A. subcooled liquid B. high temperature liquid C. oil saturated liquid D. superheated vapor Ans: D When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on to the 1946 _____________. A. evaporator coils B. liquid strainer C. compressor D. condenser Ans: B If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, 1948 has a solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, this could cause __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1950 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1952 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1954 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1956 low suction pressure high superheat in the outlet coil noisy compressor operation upon starting refrigerant slugs in the receiver C The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 is known as __________. latent heat sensible heat specific heat variable heat C Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by _____________. higher than normal suction pressure lower than normal suction pressure lower than normal evaporator temperature noticeable increase in compressor noise A If the suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor is below normal, the cause can be _____________. refrigerant overcharge overfeeding by the expansion valve a restricted suction strainer due to short cycling of the compressor C Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system? Sweating of the compressor crankcase Colder than normal solenoid valve Frosting of the evaporator Weeping of the purge valve A When the refrigeration system compressor suction pressure corresponds to an elevation in coil temperature, a low pressure cutout switch is set to automatically start the compressor. The normal stopping point of the compressor is set by adjusting the ____ cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch low pressure cutout switch differential cutout point of the high pressure cutout switch high pressure cutout switch differential

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1958

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1959

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 110

1960

Ans: B The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of _____________. A. low pressure in the condenser B. the existing load on the evaporator producing a thermodynamic head exceeding the normal maximum of the compressor

1961

Ans: D The dew point is reached when the wet bulb temperature is ____________. A. equal to the dry bulb temperature B. twice the dry bulb temperature

C. low pressure in the condenser at low load D. high pressure in the evaporator at high load Ans: B If the superheat value of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too 1962 low, the ________. A. the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may slug back to the compressor B. the suction line will be hot due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning to the compressor C. the temperature of the refrigerant within the condenser will remain the same D. the temperature of the refrigerant passing through the subcooler will decrease Ans: A Rather than design an infinite variety of valve sizes for use as 1964 thermostatic expansion valves, some manufacturers use _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1966 an adjusting cap to meet the various size differences a flexible diaphragm internal restrictors of different sizes a feeler bulb with an adjustable pressure line C What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve? A. The thermal bulb may be recharged. B. The rate action may be increased. C. The proportional action may be varied.

C. 38.8C less than the dry bulb temperature D. 10C above the dry bulb temperature Ans: A The function of a heat interchanger used in a refrigeration system is 1963 to _____________. A. lower the temperature of liquid refrigerant before entering the expansion valve B. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the compressor C. minimize sweating of the suction line D. All of the above. Ans: D If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration system already equipped with a solid drying agent, the liquid drying agent will _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1967 release the moisture already trapped in the solid drying agent react violently with the solid drying agent cause toxic gases to from in the refrigerated space solidify the refrigerant oil in the compressor crankcase A Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration system will cause the ____________. A. relief valve to lift B. compressor to run continuously C. system to automatically change over to the hot gas defrost cycle

1965

D. The inlet screen may be cleaned. Ans: D Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic 1968 expansion valve is correct? A. The procedure requires a refrigeration wrench and a digital thermometer to measure box temperature. B. No special tools are required as long as the solid state circuit control panels are functioning properly. C. This procedure is done at the factory with tools not available to a mariner. D. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gage are essential to this process. Ans: D Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator outlet of a 1970 refrigeration coil by a _______________. A. solenoid valve B. low pressure cutout switch C. king valve D. thermal expansion valve Ans: D If the temperature of the ammonia gas in the discharge piping and 1972 the condenser of a refrigeration system remains above 130C, the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1974 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1976 A. B. C. D. refrigeration effect increases unit will begin to subcool vapor will cease to condense process of sublimation will begin C At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, R-12 is a/an _____________. corrosive liquid flammable gas odorless gas superheated liquid C If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant, you should immediately _________. contact physicians health care apply an antibacterial ointment flush the affected area with water remove all necessary clothing

D. compressor to short cycle Ans: D The presence of gas in the liquid line is undesirable and can be 1969 eliminated by _____________. A. increasing the distance between the evaporator and condenser B. using a larger expansion valve C. subcooling the liquid D. installing the evaporator at a higher level than the condenser Ans: C As the electric current flow to a modulating suction valve increases, the _________. A. compressive forces against the spring will increase B. suction pressure of the compressor will rise C. evaporator coil pressure will decrease D. amount of superheat formed will increase Ans: A Which piping material is recommended to be used in extra heavy 1973 duty sizes in ammonia refrigeration system construction? 1971 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1975 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1977 A. B. C. D. Steel Monel Bronze Copper A Ammonia is lighter than air and if a leak should occur its concentration will be _____. lower near the top of an enclosed space dependent upon available free hydrogen ions of minimum importance during venting procedures lower near the deck of an enclosed space D A lower thermostatic temperature setting will provide a desired degree of comfort in a room where _____________. low relative humidity is maintained triple banded squirrel cage fans are used air circulation is a maximum high relative humidity is maintained

Page 111

1978

1980

1982

1984

1986

Ans: C The pressure in a high pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for repair should be _____________. A. 1 to 2 bar g B. 4 to 7 bar g C. 11 to 12 bar g D. 0 bar g Ans: D The flame of a sulphur candle in the presence of an ammonia leak will turn ________. A. pink B. white C. yellow D. blue Ans: B To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, the easiest way to determine the type of refrigerant used is to_________. A. use your service gage set and refrigeration card B. look at the unit name plate C. ask the Chief Engineer D. look on the top of the TXV Ans: B Inhalation of high concentrations of CFCs may have which of the following effects? A. drowsiness B. loss of concentration C. cardiac arrhythmia's D. all of the above Ans: D The four most commonly used refrigerants listed in order, from the most damaging to the least damaging to the ozone layer are________. A. B. C. D. Ans: R-11, R-12, R-502 and R-22 R-22, R-12, R-11 and R-502 R-502, R-12, R-22 and R-11 R-11, R-12, R-22 and R-502 A Which of the following is not part of the high side of a refrigeration system? condenser receiver accumulator liquid line C Which can be considered as a drop-in replacement refrigerant? R-500 R-123 R-134a none of the above D To protect a recovery or recycling machine when removing refrigerant from a burned out system, a filter drier should be installed in ________. the system liquid line the machine inlet the system suction line the container inlet B HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration system during replacement of the condenser. The refrigerant can be _____. recycled into a system that had used HCFC-11 reclaimed as a low pressure system refrigerant returned to the system must be destroyed, as it can no longer be used C Which of the following represents a low-pressure refrigerant as defined by EPA regulation? R-12 R-22 R-502 R-123 D

1979

1981

1983

1985

1987

Ans: D Which of the following refrigerants will normally require water cooled compressor components? A. R-134 B. Ammonia C. R-22 D. All of the above are correct. Ans: B Under normal conditions ammonia refrigerants should be added at the ___________. A. high side of the system B. suction service connection C. discharge service connection D. expansion valve sideport connection Ans: A Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in which of the following conditions? A. Sub-cooled liquid B. Sub-cooled vapor C. Superheated vapor D. Liquid Ans: C Refrigerant leaving the metering device in a refrigeraton system is a _________. A. sub-cooled liquid B. sub-cooled vapor C. saturated liquid/vapor mixture D. saturated liquid Ans: C Large quantities of halogenated floro-carbons when released from refrigeration systems, will contribute to ozone depletion in the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: bathosphere ionosphere stratosphere troposphere C Which of the listed chemicals will eventually reach the stratosphere and react unfavorably with ozone? fluorine chlorine halogen carbon B Pressure in the control tubing of a thermostatic expansion valve depends directly upon the _____________. temperature in the box superheat in the tail coil compressor suction pressure heat transferred from the saturated liquid in the evaporator B In preparing to remove the air from a refrigeration condenser for a large multibox water cooled system, all of the refrigerant in the system should be ____________. at a superheated temperature pumped to the receiver pumped to the evaporator at a saturated temperature B The process of removing refrigerant from a system and storing it without testing or processing is known as ___________. reclaiming recouping recycling recovering D When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen tank should always have a __________. cut off valve blue top level indicator regulator D

1988 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1990 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1992

1989 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1991 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1993

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1994

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1995

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1996 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 1997 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 112

1998

In addition to the recovery of refrigerant, recovery machines not necessarily able to pull a vacuum can also evacuate a system of __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: non-condensable gases oil moisture acids A Which of the refrigerants listed is considered to be clorine free? R-12 R-221 R-142 R-152a D Small appliances with less than 1.5kgs of refrigerant should be __________. liquid charged vapor charged either vapor or liquid charged initially liquid charged and then topped with a vapor charge B The carbon ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring by using a/an _______________. spring elliptical retaining assembly belleville spring thrust washer A Why should the refrigerant stored in a recovery cylinder be allowed to equalize with room temperature? to prevent the rupture disk from blowing this is a way to check refrigerant level in the cylinder this is the only way to read refrigerant pressure accurately the recovery cylinder could explode if the temperature rose too quickly C Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor? If the oil level is not initially high, this condition is the result of agitation created by the movement of the mechanical components.

1999

As the amount of moisture in the air increases, the difference between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures will ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: increase decrease remain unchanged be greatest at dew point B Solenoid valves used in refrigeration systems may be classified as ______________. normally open, de-energized normally closed, energized normally open or normally closed normally energized or normally de-energized C The expansion valve used in a refrigeration system regulates the _____________. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor back pressure in the evaporator temperature in the refrigerated space degree of superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator D The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration compressor appears to be brownish in color. This is indicative of ______________. carbonization caused by air in the system bearing wear or piston scoring head gasket breakdown copper plating caused by moisture in the system D Which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor? R-12 R-11 Ammonia Carbon dioxide

2000 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2002 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2004

2001 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2003 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2005

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2006 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2008 A.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2007 A. B. C. D.

2009

Ans: B Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system? A. Make certain that a positive pressure exists in the system to prevent entrance of moisture. B. Find the leaks in the system with a Halide torch.

B. This condition is the result of the sudden low pressure created in the crankcase at start up causing the release of refrigerant accumulated within the oil. C. This will occur only if crankcase heaters are used. D. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and is always provisional. Ans: B In refrigeration systems, which type of contamination will the 2010 reclamation process be unable to separate? A. mixed refrigerants B. acid C. moisture D. air Ans: A In a vapor compression refrigeration system with a freeze, dairy, 2012 and thaw box, a solenoid valve should be installed ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2014 immediately before each expansion valve on the inlet side of the receiver in the liquid line bypassing the expansion valve in the vapor line bypassing the oil separator A Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of _____. A. high surrounding relative humidity B. a refrigerant line restriction

C. Use the hot gas defrost line to remove frost on coils. D. Set the high pressure cutout on manual to prevent automatic starting. Ans: A A quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for 2011 refrigerant leaks is to test the _____________. A. cooling water for proper pH B. receiver for water content C. air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch D. condenser tubes hydrostatically Ans: C A properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve will have a 2013 constant valve opening under a condition of constant _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2015 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2017 supply pressure suction pressure refrigerant superheat compressor speed C An economizer, or heat interchanger, is installed in a refrigeration system to _____________. reduce the possibility of sweating of the suction line reduce the temperature of liquid refrigerant prior to entering the expansion valve reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant flooding back to the compressor all of the above D The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by __________.

C. water in the system D. proper cooling taking place Ans: B Before charging a refrigeration unit, the refrigerant charging lines 2016 should be _____________.

Page 113

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2018

flushed with clean refrigerant oil purged with the refrigerant washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution grounded to the compressor B Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2019

saturation pressure volume weight saturation temperture C Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water flow through the water cooled refrigeration condensers in response to ____________.

A. Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. B. Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it. C. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it. D. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point. Ans: C In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid 2020 refrigerant passes through the condenser directly to the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2022 evaporator chiller economizer expansion valve C The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve in a typical multi-box shipboard refrigeration system is to _____________.

A. compressor speed B. compressor discharge temperature C. compressor discharge pressure D. condenser discharge temperature Ans: C Immediately before the actual charging process is started, 2021 refrigerant oil charging lines should be loosely connected and _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2023 flushed with clean refrigerant oil purged with refrigerant gas washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution grounded to the compressor A Which of the fluids listed is normally used to condense the primary refrigerant in a shipboard central air conditioning system?

A. control the refrigerated space temperature B. regulate the compressor suction pressure C. regulate the amount of refrigerant superheat leaving the evaporator D. control the refrigerant temperature entering the evaporator Ans: C The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by 2024 _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2026 pressure volume weight temperature C The lubrication oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor is heated to _____________. A. reduce absorption of refrigerant by the oil B. prevent refrigerant vaporization C. remove entrained water D. remove wax and gum Ans: A A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet?

A. Air or Nitrogen. B. Seawater or Fresh water. C. Sodium Nitrate brine. D. Calcium Sulfate brine. Ans: B The device which normally stops the refrigeration compressor 2025 before the relief valve starts to open is the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2027 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2029 low pressure cutout switch back pressure cutout switch high pressure cutout switch relief valve bypass C Vapor seals used in the insulation on refrigerated spaces serve to _____________. prevent Freon vapor from saturating the insulation hold water vapor on the cold side of the insulation reduce the possibility of moisture laden warm air entering the insulation reduce the possibility of moisture laden cold air from entering the insulation C Which of the following methods is normally used to control the temperature of air distributed from individual cooling coils in an air conditioning system using a chilled water circulation system?

2028

A. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature increases or decreases. B. To open the back-pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil pressure increases. C. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the solenoid bellows. D. To transmit the pressure (proportional to the coil superheat) to the thermal expansion valve. Ans: D For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning 2030 system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2032 Chilled water system supply temperature. Chilled water system return temperature. Compressor discharge temperature. Compressor suction pressure. A In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be installed and located ____________.

A. A room thermostat activates an electric heater at each individual chilled air outlet when necessary. B. Varying the number of passes the air makes across the coils. C. Varying the temperature of the water through the coils. D. Varying the quantity of water flowing through the coils. Ans: D In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you wouldadjust the air conditioning system by __________. I. reducing the chill water flow through the cooling coil II. increasing the preheater temperature A. B. C. D. Ans: 2033 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will cause ___________. I. a loss of refrigeration effect II. the strainer outlet piping to be cooler than the inlet

2031

A. just after the receiver B. before the condenser C. between the condenser and receiver

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II

Page 114

D. before the back pressure regulating valve Ans: A When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal 2034 expansion valve will_________. A. always be wide open when the compressor restarts B. continue to operate as if the system were in operation C. remain open until evaporator pressure equalizes, then close until the compressor restarts D. always be completely closed until the compressor restarts Ans: B The output capacity of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor may be controlled manually by _____________. A. controlling the compressor speed B. throttling the compressor suction C. reducing condenser water flow D. all of the above methods Ans: D Which of the listed components for a refrigeration system is 2038 required for a two box system, but not for a one box system? 2036 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2040 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2042 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2044 Hand expansion valve Automatic expansion valve High pressure cutout switch Liquid line solenoid valve D If atmospheric pressure decreases while the air temperature remains constant, the air will ______________. give up moisture as condensation have greater capacity to absorb moisture become supersaturated at high relative humidity absorb less free atmospheric moisture B Which of the listed materials can be used as a desiccant in a refrigeration system? Silica gel Activated alumina Anhydrous calcium sulfate All of the above D To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should introduce the refrigerant through the _____________. discharge service valve as a vapor suction service valve as a liquid charging valve as a liquid condenser purge valve as a vapor C When adding oil to a refrigeration system, you must be certain that _____________. all air is removed from the pump and fittings the suction strainer is not blocked the discharge pressure is not too high the condenser is secured A The back pressure regulating valve used in a refrigeration system serves to _____________. maintain a constant pressure in the suction line heat exchanger

D. Neither I nor II Ans: C The discharge valves used in a refrigeration compressor are 2035 leaking badly and _____________. A. the reeds should be reground B. the reeds should be replaced C. should continue to operate at minimum efficiency D. the high pressure cut-out should be readjusted to operate efficiently Ans: B The purpose of the water failure switch in a refrigeration system is to react to a loss of cooling water by __________. A. stopping the compressor B. bypassing refrigerant to the receiver C. closing the high pressure cutout switch D. opening the high pressure cutout switch Ans: A The dehydrating agent normally used in a refrigeration system is 2039 ______________. 2037 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2041 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2043 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2045 slaked lime sodium chloride activated alumina calcium chloride C Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary refrigerant? Methyl alcohol Brine Carbon dioxide Cuprous chloride B Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by _____________. varying the speed of the compressor varying the suction pressure varying condenser water flow rate all of the above D When multiple refrigeration evaporators are served by the same compressor and operate at different temperatures, the pressure in the coldest evaporator is ___________. higher than the pressure in warmest evaporator the same as any evaporator in the system lower than the pressure in the warmest evaporator controlled by adjusting the thermal expansion valve C The pressure in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for repair should be _____________. 10 to 12 psig 4 to 7 psig 0 to 1 psig 25 inches of hg vacuum D After a refrigeration plant has been open for repairs, it is advisable to purge air from the system by _____________. slightly opening the purge valve on the condenser

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2046 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2048 A.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2047 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2049 A.

B. limit the minimum pressure in the evaporator C. limit the maximum pressure in the suction line heat exchanger D. maintain a minimum discharge head on the compressor Ans: B A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water 2050 cooled condenser is used to _____________. A. free tubes of accumulated scale B. charge the system with refrigerant C. remove noncondensable gases D. ensure positive air circulation Ans: C When the temperature in a refrigerated space rises above its 2052 normal set point, which of the listed actions should occur FIRST?

B. cracking the valve bonnet assembly on the thermostatic expansion valve C. turning over the compressor flywheel with the suction line valve open D. loosening the purge connection attached to the receiver head Ans: A The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by 2051 adding _____________. A. refrigerant vapor to the receiver only B. liquid refrigerant to the low side only C. liquid refrigerant to the high side only D. liquid refrigerant to the high or low side Ans: C Unless designed for such operation, two compressors should not 2053 be operated in parallel in a refrigeration system because the ____________.

Page 115

A. The thermal expansion valve will close. B. The compressor will start. C. The solenoid valve will open. D. The automatic defrost timer will activate. Ans: C The thermal bulbs for expansion valves used in air conditioning 2054 systems are charged with _____________. A. fluids other than the system charge B. the same refrigerant as the system C. a mixed charge of fluids D. mercuric sulfate Ans: B In addition to pressure, most refrigerant compound gages are also 2056 calibrated in _____________. A. saturated gas temperature B. superheated gas temperature C. absolute temperature D. absolute pressure Ans: A In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of 2058 refrigerant to each refrigerated space is accomplished by _____________. A. B. C. D. the king expansion valve individual coil expansion valves a solenoid valve in the liquid line individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest box

A. operation of two compressors will overload the expansion valve B. condenser pressure will be too high causing condenser failure C. lubricating oil may be transferred from one compressor to the other D. evaporator would fail due to low suction pressure Ans: C A purge recovery system is used in a centrifugal air conditioning or 2055 refrigeration system to _____________. A. purge lube oil from the liquid refrigerant B. recover water purged from the system C. separate foul gases from the receiver D. purge noncondensable gases without losing refrigerant Ans: D Which of the listed conditions would cause the thermal expansion 2057 valve to open? A. Rise in the gas temperature within the cooling coils B. Compressor cutting out C. Compressor cutting in D. A drop in the temperature of the cooling coils Ans: A The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration 2059 system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering the ____________. A. B. C. D. solenoid and expansion valves compressor and receiver condenser and liquid line evaporator coil piping

Ans: B Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause ____________. A. overheated bearings B. unnecessary motor loading C. noisy operation D. all of the above Ans: D If the people in an air conditioned room complain of being too cool, 2062 the trouble might be that the _____________. A. preheater has failed to cutout B. air velocity is too low C. relative humidity is high D. relative humidity is too low Ans: D In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum 2064 amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said to be _____________. 2060 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2066 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2068 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2070 A. B. C. D. Ans: superheated saturated condensed convected B When the relief valve opens it discharges high pressure refrigerant vapor to the _____________. liquid strainer refrigerant inlet of the condenser inlet side of the evaporator suction side of the compressor D A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may cause _____________. the solenoid valve to seize the compressor to hunt flash gas to form in the liquid line the expansion valve to freeze open C In an operating refrigeration system low on refrigerant, a liquid line sight glass will _____________. be clear be blue be light green show bubbles D

Ans: A Air conditioning duct-work begins at the large mixing chamber called the _____________. A. exhaust chamber B. plenum chamber C. intake chamber D. vapor chamber Ans: B The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperature is 2063 _____________. A. twice the dry bulb temperature B. 5C above the dry bulb temperature C. 3C above the dry bulb temperature D. equal to the dry bulb temperature Ans: D If air at 35C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity is 2065 conditioned to 24C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity, it is an example of _____________. 2061 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2067 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2069 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2071 A. B. C. D. Ans: cooling only cooling and humidifying cooling and dehumidifying adiabatic cooling C Dichlorodifluoromethane when vaporized in the presence of an open flame, will form ____________. carbon dioxide gas phosgene gas trichlorodifluoromethane sulphur dioxide B Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by _____________. bleeding refrigerant from the condenser opening a drain petcock on the oil separator condensing the water in the heat exchanger using a dehydrator cartridge D Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely _____________. boil in the condenser be removed by the liquid line strainers cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils freeze in the expansion valve D

Page 116

2072

Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture indicators installed in conjunction with the sight glass in the liquid line. If excess moisture is present in the system, the indicator will _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: activate the driers change color secure the compressor add a predetermined amount of liquid drier B A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. It is generally located in the ____________. high pressure liquid line low pressure liquid line high pressure vapor line low pressure vapor line A Frost appearing on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system _____________. is best removed by means of an ice pick will increase the refrigeration effect can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils can be quickly removed by simply shutting down the coils C When a refrigerated space reaches the desired temperature in a multi-box refrigeration system, which of the listed actions will occur FIRST? The solenoid valve will close. The expansion valve will open. The low pressure cutout switch will stop the compressor. The high pressure cutout switch will stop the compressor. A All refrigerant recovered from small appliances must be __________. sent to a designated reclaim facility for processing contained in a refillable recovery cylinder destroyed as unusable used to clean out burn-outs B When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low pressure cutout switch, you should _____________. stop the compressor secure the condenser close the "king" valve stop the circulating pump C Purging is the process used to _____________. eliminate moisture from the refrigeration system separate refrigerant from oil remove noncondensable gases from the refrigeration system decrease the total amount of refrigerant in the system C Which of the devices listed is used to limit frosting of evaporator coils on multiple box installations served by one compressor? Back pressure control valve Automatic expansion valve Capillary tube Solenoid valve A When you find a small refrigerant leak with a halide torch, the color of the torch flame will be _____________. orange blue white green D When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box system served by one compressor reaches the correct temperature, the temperature control in that one compartment is achieved by a/an _____________. expansion valve back pressure regulating valve solenoid valve low pressure cutout switch

2073

In a refrigeration system, where multiple evaporators are operating at different temperatures, and serviced by a single compressor and condenser, the control of individual coil temperatures should be carried out by adjustment of the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: thermostatic expansion valve back pressure regulating valve king valve box temperature solenoid valve B A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. This means _____________. the system is fully charged there is air leaking in from the condenser ice crystals are forming in the refrigerant the system contains less than a full charge of refrigerant D In a water-cooled refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating valve is controlled by ___________. temperature of the cooling water refrigerant pressure amount of refrigerant in the system temperature of the refrigerant after compression B A totally white or yellow colored flame produced by a Halide torch being used to test for refrigerant leaks indicates _________. no R-12 leakage a partially clogged torch exploring tube a defective torch reaction plate a minute quantity of R-12 leakage B When air contains some moisture, but is not saturated, the dew point temperature is _____________. between the wet and dry bulb temperatures equal to the total heat of air higher than the wet bulb temperature lower than the dry bulb temperature D The thermal bulb of an expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil should be _____________. installed on the bottom of the suction line installed between the suction strainer and compressor insulated before setting the superheat adjusting screw insulated after installation D In a direct expansion evaporator, the coils are ___________. covered with insulation half covered with insulation surrounded by air surrounded by water C In addition to removing water from a refrigerant, most dehydrators also effectively remove entrapped _____________. acid air dichlorodifluoromethane desiccant A The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system opens when the pressure _____________. decreases in the evaporator decreases in the expansion valve control bulb increases above the expansion valve diaphragm increases in the solenoid valve C During the initial pull down of the box temperatures in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction? Suction pressure hold back valve High pressure cutout Solenoid valve Low pressure cutout

2074

2075

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2076 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2078

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2077 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2079

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2080 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2082 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2084 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2086

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2081 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2083 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2085 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2087

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2088 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2090

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2089 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2091

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 117

2092

Ans: C The device used to limit the passage of moisture through a refrigeration system is the _____________. A. humidifier B. aerator C. dehydrator D. trap

2093

Ans: C When a refrigeration system is being charged through the low side, the _____________. A. refrigerant should be added as a vapor B. suction service valve must be back seated C. discharge service valve must be front seated D. refrigerant drum should be turned upside down Ans: A Loss of refrigerant during the purging process can be kept to a 2096 minimum by ____________. A. operating the dehydrator continuously B. purging through the discharge service valve C. cracking the purge valve briefly D. closing the liquid line king valve Ans: C In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the 2098 greatest temperature drop across the __________. A. evaporator B. capillary tube C. compressor D. receiver Ans: B Which of the methods listed is most frequently used to control 2100 evaporator refrigerant flow rate in a shipboard refrigeration system? 2094 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2102 Direct expansion with constant superheat Indirect expansion with constant superheat Low side float control High side float control A The primary purpose of a thermostatic controlled solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system is to _____________.

2095

2097

2099

2101

Ans: A In an atmosphere of 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb thermometer would register a temperature _____________. A. above the dry bulb temperature B. below the dry bulb temperature C. the same as the dry bulb temperature D. above the dry bulb temperature, but below the saturation temperature Ans: C Copper piping has been used in refrigeration systems because _____________. A. it is creep resistant at low temperatures B. it offers less internal friction C. iron is corroded by R-12 D. leaks are more easily detected in copper Ans: B In a refrigeration system, if the cooling water to thecondenser fails, the __________. A. box temperature solenoid valve will close B. expansion valve will close C. compressor will shutdown D. king valve will open Ans: C Which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors can be designed with short large diameter suction lines? A. Reciprocating B. Rotary C. Screw D. Centrifugal Ans: D The safest and quickest method of adding refrigerant to a refrigeration system is to add the refrigerant through the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: discharge service valve as a vapor suction service valves as a liquid charging valve as a liquid condenser relief valve as a vapor C The purpose of running a refrigeration compressor motor in short intermittent spurts when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown is to _____________. allow refrigerant vapor cycling time insure proper operation of the compressor let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually determine actual compressor oil level

2103

control the refrigerated compartment temperature bypass refrigerant flow to the evaporator maintain the proper refrigerant superheat stop the compressor when the evaporator reaches the proper temperature Ans: A In a refrigeration system, the thermal expansion valve sensing bulb 2104 is located _____________. A. B. C. D. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2106 near the evaporator coil outlet near the evaporator coil inlet on the liquid line strainer at the solenoid valve outlet A An evaporator pressure regulating valve (back pressure regulator) is installed in the evaporator coils of some refrigeration systems to _____________. prevent compressor overload maintain a minimum evaporator pressure control liquid refrigerant pressure regulate refrigerant outlet superheat B If the air temperature increases while atmospheric pressure remains constant, the air will _____________. have a greater capacity to absorb moisture absorb less free atmospheric moisture become supersaturated at high relative humidity give up moisture as condensation A In order to achieve greater dehumidification with an airconditioning system, you should _________. I. reduce the cooling coil temperature II. increase the reheater temperature

A. B. C. D.

2105

Ans: B Prior to making repairs on an evaporator located in a large, multibox refrigeration system, you should remove the refrigerant by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: pumping it from the system to a clean empty drum draining the system through the purge valve connection pumping all refrigerant to the receiver exhausting it to the atmosphere C When the solenoid valves in a refrigeration system have closed, the compressor will be stopped by the _____________. low water cutout low pressure cutout high pressure cutout spring-loaded relief valve B Refrigeration isolation valves are of the double seated type in order to ______________. allow for operation as a suction or discharge valve permit repacking under pressure conserve space allow for removal or replacement without shutting down B Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent offlash gas is accomplished ___________. I. as the refrigerant passes through the expansion valve II. in most water cooled condensers

2107

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2108 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2110

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2109 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2111

A. I only B. II only

A. I only B. II only

Page 118

C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: C The effective temperature of air is dependent upon _______. I. 2112 relative humidity II. air velocity A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: C Which recovery phase will reduce the loss of oil during the recovery 2114 of refrigerants from small appliances such as a water cooler? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2116 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2118 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2120 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2122 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2124 A. B. C. vapor recovery liquid recovery inital recovery vapor-liquid recovery A One benefit of proper air circulation in a refrigerated cargo space is _____________. more temperature differential increased moisture content reduced slime and mold increased density of the air C Dehydrators are usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems in order to _____________. remove oil from the refrigerant prevent icing of the expansion valve reduce compressor discharge line sweating prevent liquid slugging in the suction line B Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system may be speeded up by _____________. warming the service cylinder with a torch warming the service cylinder with hot water inverting the service cylinder inclining the service cylinder B The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box senses _____________. evaporator coil inlet temperature evaporator coil outlet temperature compressor discharge temperature the refrigerated box temperature D Which materials should be used for ammonia refrigeration system evaporator cooling coil construction? Copper tubing with copper fins Copper tubing with aluminum fins Aluminum tubing with copper fins

C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: B One of the primary steps in assisting someone who has been 2113 overcome by ammonia vapors is to _____________. A. loosen all clothing B. provide the victim with smelling salts C. rinse the affected area with water D. give the patient plenty of fresh air Ans: D To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from a refrigeration 2115 system in an enclosed area, you should ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2117 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2119 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2121 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2123 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2125 A. B. C. apply liquid ammonia to the suspected leak apply a soap solution to the area of the suspected leak a halide leak detector to all piping joints apply a hydrostatic test with water B The high pressure cutout switch will stop the refrigeration centrifugal compressor when there is _____________. a stoppage of condenser cooling water flow fouled condenser tubes excessive air in the system all of the above D A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator by _____________. throttling the refrigerant fully opening or closing sensing the superheat in the tail coil sensing the temperature in the liquid line B The individual box temperatures of a multibox refrigerationsystem are controlled by _____________. expansion valves solenoid valves back-pressure valves regulation of the cooling water B Charging liquid CFC-11 into a system under a heavy vacuum could cause __________. the purge unit to operate system secondary refrigerant to freeze air and moisture to enter the reciever rupture disk to rupture B When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, the most accurate reading is obtained ____________. immediately after purging immediately after charging after being secured for 3 hours with the sump heater secured

D. All of the above may be used. Ans: C The temperature in a refrigerated space is controlled by adjusting the thermostat connected to the _____________. A. suction line solenoid B. thermostatic expansion valve C. liquid line box solenoid D. low pressure cutout switch Ans: C The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system is 2128 operated by the _______________. A. compressor discharge temperature B. compressor discharge pressure C. solenoid D. sensing line from the tail coil Ans: B When used as a refrigerant, ammonia containing moisture will act 2130 as a corrosive mixture to __________. A. steel components B. brass and bronze metals C. stainless steel components D. All of the above are correct. Ans: B 2126

D. immediately after shutdown following a prolonged period of operation Ans: D Standard driers used in many container type refrigeration systems 2127 may contain ________________. A. activated charcoal or silica gel B. special chemicals to increase adsorbtion rates C. activated alumina or silica gel D. all of the above may be used Ans: C The maximum level of moisture permitted in an operating 2129 refrigeration system is ______________. A. 5 parts per million B. 8 parts per million C. 10 parts per million D. 15 parts per million Ans: D The thermal expansion valve reacts directly to the 2131 _____________. A. temperature in the space being cooled B. liquid refrigerant pressure at the solenoid valve C. pressure drop across the evaporator coils D. refrigerant gas superheat at the coil outlet Ans: D

Page 119

2132

In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously experienced. The probable cause for this condition is a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: overcharge of refrigerant in the system fouled shell-and-tube condenser improper superheat adjustment on the low side discharge relief valve leaking back to the suction side D Refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system dependent __________. A. must have its own power source B. recovers refrigerant with the aid of components in the system

2133

When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system, one way to overcome the possibility of a large slug of liquid refrigerant entering the compressor suction is to use the installed _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: subcooler liquid extractors re-evaporator drain lines C The suction pressure switch controlling the refrigeration compressor operation is actuated by _____________. A. pressure acting on a bellows B. temperature acting on a bellows

2134

2135

C. are portable units D. can only recover liquid refrigerant Ans: B If you find the pressure of a R-12 refrigeration system to be worked 2136 on is 0 bar g, ___________. A. only recover the vapor refrigerant B. only recover the liquid refrigerant C. recover liquid and vapor refrigerant and have it reclaimed D. do not recover the refrigerant Ans: D The low pressure cutout switch will cause the compressor in a refrigeration system to short cycle if the ________. A. expansion valve thermal bulb loses its charge B. differential pressure between the cut-in pressure and cutout pressure is too small C. expansion valve freezes in the closed position D. refrigerant has too much oil in circulation Ans: B The liquid line, thermostatically controlled, solenoid valve is operated in response to the ____________. A. superheat in the tail coil B. temperature of the box C. compressor suction pressure D. compressor discharge pressure Ans: B Refrigerant recovery cylinders are color coded__________. 2142 A. gray top and yellow lower body B. gray top and light blue lower body C. light blue top and yellow lower body D. yellow top and gray body Ans: D All refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances must be 2144 __________. A. sent to a designated reclaimation facility for processing B. contained in a refillable cylinder C. destroyed although it can be reused D. used to clean out burn-outs Ans: A When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a container 2146 refrigeration system, the sensing bulb may not require insulation if the bulb is installed _______________. 2140 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2148 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2150 outside of the cooled air stream in the cooled air stream on the tail end of the condenser outlet pipe at the mid-horizontal level of a vertically run tail coil A Which of the following instruments can be used to measure the rate of air flow? Thermometer Anemometer Psychrometer Areometer B Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable replacement for R-11?

2138

C. temperature acting on a thermal element D. pressure acting on compressor suction valves Ans: A When taking readings at the suction service valve of an operating 2137 refrigeration compressor __________. A. the pressure, or temperature reading is only required, as the refrigerant is saturated B. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant is probably subcooled C. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant is superheated D. is unimportant as accurate readings at this location can not be obtained Ans: C If the electric coil to a refrigeration system modulation valve 2139 develops an open, the valve will _______________. A. move to the open position due to the flow of refrigerant across the valve orifice B. move to the open position due to the spring pressure acting upon the armature C. tend to move to a centered position, thereby maintaining box temperature D. remain in whatever position it was in prior to developing the open Ans: B Most refrigerants are originated primarily from which of the following base molecules? A. ammonia and carbon dioxide B. ammonia and ethane C. methane and sulfur dioxide D. ethane and methane Ans: D One function of the thermal expansion valve is to _________. 2143 A. act as a pilot from the solenoid valve B. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the coil C. regulate the water flow D. turn the compressor off and on Ans: B Which of the following refrigerants is an interim retrofit replacement 2145 for R-11? A. R-500 B. R-134a C. R-12 D. R-123 Ans: D If passive recovery is used on a refrigeration unit with a non2147 operating compressor, the recovery should be made through____________. 2141 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2149 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2151 high side only low side only high and low side venting to atmosphere, cannot be recovered C When current to a refrigeration system modulating valve is increased, the _________. valve is moving to a more open position temperature of the box is increasing suction pressure of the compressor will decrease amount of air flowing through the condenser is decreased C Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and limited ozone producing alternative for R-11?

Page 120

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2152 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2154

R-22 R-123 R-134a R-227 B Moisture is removed from CFC-12 using a recycler by __________. bleeding noncondensables off opening a drain petcock on the oil separator condensing the water in the condenser using a dehydrator cartridge D When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent _________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2153 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2155

R-22 R-123 R-134a R-227 B Of the four refrigerants CFC-11, CFC-12, HFC-134a, and HCFC22; HCFC-22 operates at the __________. lowest system pressure with the lowest boiling point highest system pressure with the lowest boiling point lowest system pressure with the highest boiling point highest system pressure with the highest boiling point B The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should __________.

A. any lubricant from contacting the carbon surface that would cause the expulsion of the saturated teflon film B. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with the highly polished sealing surfaces C. the teflon film from being damaged by the corrosive effects of excessive handling D. shaft scoring due to improper use of the installation tools provided with the seal kits Ans: B Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should include _____________. A. changing the air filter B. recharging the system C. changing compressor lubricant D. renewing container vacuum Ans: A The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a 2158 chiller with more than 2.5 kgs of refrigerant, to meet EPA requirements is to use a __________. 2156 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2160 A. B. C. D. liquid pump vapor recovery machine liquid followed by vapor recovery vapor followed by liquid recovery C An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and ______________. a higher than normal discharge pressure frosting at the evaporator inlet a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier frosting at the suction side of the compressor

A. secure the compressor at once and close the suction and discharge valves B. pump the system down and isolate the leak C. close the suction valve, secure the compressor, and then replace the shaft seal D. tighten the shaft seal packing to reduce leakage, slow the compressor, and operate the expansion valves by hand until repairs can be made Ans: A HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technicians, which may include its ___________. A. flammability as a liquid B. freezing in the compressor C. toxic threat D. being caustic and strong offensive odor Ans: C In an air conditioning system, low head pressure associated with a 2159 reciprocating compressor can be the result of __________. 2157 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2161 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2163 A. B. C. broken valve springs tight drive belts high line voltage air in the system A If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too high a superheat value _________________. all of the system liquid will flow to the evaporator coil an insufficient amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator an excessive amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator only the required amount of refrigerant will enter the evaporator regardless of the required superheat value B Any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also have an unchanging _____________. dry bulb temperature wet bulb temperature specific humidity

Ans: B If an expansion valve is adjusted for too low a superheat value _________. A. the efficiency of the unit will be increased B. too much liquid will be passed back to the evaporator C. the box temperature will increase causing an expansion of the volume of air D. the refrigeration effect will increase contributing to uncontrolled box temperatures Ans: B A reheater in an air conditioning system functions to 2164 _____________. 2162 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2166 control inlet air temperature control inlet air volume maintain relative humidity at 15% restore conditioned air temperature to a comfortable level D In a refrigeration plant, one purpose of the receiver is to ____________. A. cool the refrigerant gas B. superheat the refrigerant liquid C. store the refrigerant

D. specific volume Ans: C A water regulating valve controls the refrigeration condenser cooling water flow in response to condenser _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2167 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2169 A. B. cooling water outlet temperature liquid refrigerant outlet temperature liquid refrigerant outlet pressure refrigerant vapor inlet pressure D Oil separators installed in refrigeration systems serve to _____________. remove excess oil from the system remove oil entrained in high pressure liquid lines return oil entrained in refrigerant vapor back to the compressor crankcase all of the above C The receiver used in a refrigeration system _____________. stores liquid refrigerant collects noncondensable gases

2165

D. condense the refrigerant Ans: C Properties of a good refrigeration oil include ____________. 2168 A. low wax content B. high pour point

Page 121

2170

2172

2174

2176

2178

2180

C. high viscosity D. all of the above Ans: A The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to _____________. A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor C. start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures D. operate at minimum efficiency Ans: C The purpose of the refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch is to _____________. A. protect the compressor from liquid flood back B. protect the compressor from low discharge pressure C. start and stop the compressor upon system demand D. start the compressor after a drop in the evaporator pressure Ans: C One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be _____________. A. insufficient cooling water flow to the condenser B. a low refrigerant charge in the system C. the liquid valve is open too much D. high evaporator superheat Ans: A An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from the _____________. A. liquid refrigerant B. receiver C. gaseous refrigerant D. expansion valve Ans: C If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor is excessive, ____________. A. the relief valve should open before the high pressure cutout B. the relief valve should open and allow the excess refrigerant to flow to the receiver C. the high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens D. you should close in on the suction valve Ans: C High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by _____________. A. the expansion valve is insufficiently opened B. C. D. Ans: the expansion valve being open too wide the king valve is insufficiently open a dirty dehydrator B When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, you should ______________.

2171

2173

2175

2177

2179

C. allows refrigerant subcooling D. prevents compressor surging Ans: A The sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch to a refrigeration system is located _____________. A. in the chill box B. before the receiver C. on the suction side of the compressor D. on the discharge side of the compressor Ans: C The temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator coil depends mostly upon the _____________. A. refrigerant pressure in the evaporator B. cooling water temperature to the condenser C. heat load in the refrigerator compartment D. solenoid valve in the liquid line Ans: A The oil separator (trap) used in a shipboard refrigeration system is located between the ____________. A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser B. condenser and the receiver C. receiver and the king valve D. receiver and the expansion valve Ans: A Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by _____________. A. insufficient condenser cooling water B. excessive condenser cooling water C. air in the refrigeration system D. excessive refrigerant in the system Ans: B A low refrigeration compressor discharge pressure can be caused by _____________. A. warm food in the refrigerator B. wasted zinc plates in the condenser C. leaky compressor discharge valves

D. faulty door gaskets on the refrigerator Ans: C If a refrigeration compressor had developed a high suction 2181 pressure, the problem could be a result of ________. A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system B. C. D. Ans: 2183 a leaking king valve a clogged subcooler liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil D Which of the following problems could cause the high pressure cutout switch to shut down the compressor in a refrigeration system? A shortage of liquid refrigerant. Excessive frost on the evaporator. Excessive condenser cooling water. Insufficient condenser cooling water flow. D An excessive charge of refrigerant in an air-cooled refrigeration system can cause _____________. oil foaming in the compressor higher than normal suction and discharge pressures with a higher box temperature higher than normal discharge pressure with a normal box temperature the compressor to run continuously C A warmer than normal compressor suction line might be caused by _____________. insufficient lubrication insufficient refrigerant excess refrigerant excessive opening of the expansion valve B If a substantial difference is maintained between the refrigerant temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment, this may result in _____________.

2182

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2184

increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser add more refrigerant to the system remove some refrigerant from the system D Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction? A. Insufficient flow of condenser cooling water. B. The system is low on refrigerant.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2185 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2187 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2189

C. The solenoid valve to the chill box is "frozen" in the open position. D. The high pressure cutout switch is inoperative. Ans: B Noise in a refrigeration compressor can be caused by 2186 ____________. A. worn bearings and piston pins B. slugging due to flooding back C. too much oil in circulation D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the conditions listed will cause a refrigeration compressor 2188 to run constantly without simultaneously decreasing the temperature in the refrigerated space?

Page 122

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2190 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2192

Shortage of refrigerant oil. Slight shortage of refrigerant. Excessive condenser cooling water flow. Faulty expansion valve. B The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist from the _____________. expansion valve to the compressor receiver to the expansion coil expansion valve to the evaporator condenser to the expansion valve A If the evaporator coil of a single box, air cooled refrigerator accumlates frost, the compressor will most likely _____________. run continuously short cycle on low pressure cutout short cycle on high pressure cutout fail to start B A refrigerant with oil in solution has a _____________. higher boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure refrigerant lower boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure refrigerant boiling pressure equal to that of a pure refrigerant at a given pressure boiling point will not be affected by entrained oil A Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the _____________. compressor condenser expansion valve evaporator A Thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for _________. suction pressure only head pressure only superheat only suction pressure and box temperature C Which of the listed components is considered to separate the high pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from the low pressure side of the cycle? The condenser and the expansion valve The king valve and the solenoid valve The compressor and the expansion valve The condenser and the solenoid valve C Which of the following statements is correct concerning a typical shipboard multi-coil refrigeration system? The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove noncondensable gases. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated space temperature. Refrigerant temperature in an evaporator is directly related to refrigerant pressure. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2191 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2193

slugging in the condenser the evaporator coil to frost the compressor to short cycle the thermal expansion valve to malfunction B If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, the compressor should __________. run continuously not start have high discharge pressure short cycle on the high pressure switch A In a compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the liquid refrigerant experiences its greatest decrease in the _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2194 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2196 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2198 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2200

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2195

evaporator compressor expansion valve condenser C The temperature of a refrigerant gas is the highest _______. A. at the compressor discharge B. at the compressor suction

C. in the expansion valve D. in the receiver Ans: A If condensation collects and drips off an evaporator coil, the 2197 temperature of the coil is _____________. A. a maximum of 21F B. above 0C, but below the dew point C. 21F but, above the dew point D. below 32F and below the dew point Ans: B Refrigerant enters the condenser as a _____________. 2199 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2201 high pressure liquid low pressure vapor high pressure vapor low pressure liquid C The sudden reduction of pressure occurring within the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor during starting causes the ___________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2202 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2203

sudden evaporation of wax crystals in the lubricant sudden evaporation of entrapped air in the lubricant release of refrigerant from the oil/refrigerant mixture release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant C Foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor crankcase is caused by _____________. A. refrigerant boiling out of solution from the lube oil B. liquid refrigerant flooding the compressor and system

C. lube oil viscosity being reduced by refrigerant dilution D. compressor suction pressure suddenly increasing Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor will not start, the reason may be _____________. A. the pressure regulating valve is not closing B. an excessive lack of refrigerant in the system C. badly leaking discharge valves D. worn piston rings Ans: B The refrigeration compressor in a water cooled refrigeration system 2207 is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. One reason for this could be the ____________. 2205 A. B. C. D. system is low on refrigerant high pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted discharge valves are leaking slightly discharge valves are leaking excessively

Ans: C A cracked diaphragm in a thermostatic expansion valve will cause the valve to _____________. A. return to a neutral position B. flood the evaporator C. open D. close Ans: D Sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a reciprocating 2206 air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. 2204 A. B. C. D. refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity oxidation of the lube oil from overheating reducing the floc or cloud point of the oil

Page 123

Ans: C Air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water-cooled condenser is usually indicated by ____________. A. unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant B. higher than normal liquid level in the receiver C. unusually lower than normal discharge pressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant D. higher than normal liquid refrigerant temperature Ans: A Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning 2210 compressor as a result of _____________. A. bubbling refrigerant B. overheating and oxidation C. lowered operating temperatures D. reducing the cloud or floc point Ans: B If a refrigeration crankcase compressor were short cycling on the 2212 low pressure cutout switch, the cause might be that the ____________. 2208 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2214 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2216 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2218 system was overcharged with refrigerant system was low on refrigerant suction valves were leaking slightly relief valve was leaking slightly B The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the ____________. dew point temperature condensation temperature psychometric temperature absolute humidity temperature A Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart? Closing of the solenoid valve Closing of the expansion valve An increase in the suction pressure Decreasing the suction pressure C R-12 is generally considered to be a safe, nontoxic, nonflammable, and nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, however, become highly toxic when _____________. superheated outside the system in contact with an open flame heated to the boiling point all of the above B Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable because of its high efficiency, it is however _____________. toxic flammable explosive all of the above D Which of the following terms represents the form of heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration system? Latent heat of vaporization Heat of compression Superheat All of the above D Which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the heating load within a conditioned space? Solar gain Infiltration and ventilation air Occupants inside the space Entertainment equipment within the space B When using a sling psychrometer to determine relative humidity, the indicated difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulb reading is the _____________.

2209

Ans: B A refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when operating ____________. A. under heavy loads B. during hot gas defrost C. under light loads

D. during starting conditions Ans: C Excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant in a 2211 refrigeration system will cause _____________. A. carbon deposits on the compressor suction valves B. the evaporator temperature to increase C. rapid corrosion of the thermal expansion valve D. no operating problems Ans: B If a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas 2213 bubbles in motion passing inside of the glass, there is _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2215 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2217 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2219 too much refrigerant in the system oil entrained in the refrigerant less than a full charge of refrigerant in the system ice crystals forming in the refrigerant C Which of the problems listed could be indicated if a sight glass in the refrigerant liquid line is full of bubbles? Proper refrigerant charge Faulty expansion valve Insufficient refrigerant Solenoid valve stuck open C Saltwater is typically provided to a refrigeration system to _____________. cool the expansion valve prevent refrigerant superheating condense the refrigerant gas prevent motor overheating C In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated flourocarbon refrigerants decomposes and form _____________. petroleum crystals phosgene gas water vapor carbon monoxide B For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is _____________. 37.8C 52C 66C 79C B When air at a given temperature, contains the maximum amount of moisture for that temperature, the air is said to be ______________. superheated saturated condensing evaporating B The pressure range between the system cut in and cut out pressures in a refrigeration unit is known as _____________. opposing operational drag pressure distribution differential system purge C Cold storage compartments used for frozen or chilled foods, may be equipped with medium velocity air coolers to establish rapid convection and to __________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2220

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2221

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2222

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2223

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2224

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2225

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2226

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2227

A. relative humidity B. dew point

A. prevent shrinkage and drying of stored foods B. deliver cooled air to all areas of the compartment

Page 124

C. wet bulb "depression" D. partial saturation temperature Ans: C Which of the following statements is correct concerning a halide 2228 torch leak detector? A. The probe should be moved rapidly over the area of a suspected leak. B. The torch is effective in locating large leaks only. C. The flame will turn green in the presence of R-12. D. A refrigerant gas mask must be worn while using the torch. Ans: C Cylindrical driers installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems should be arranged _____________. A. so that the liquid enters at the top and leaves at the bottom when located in the liquid line B. so that the liquid enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when located in the liquid line C. so that the gas enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when located in the suction line D. horizontally if the drying agent is calcium oxide Ans: B Tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by _____________. A. flaring B. soldering C. silver brazing D. all of the above Ans: D When air is at its dew point and there is no change in either the temperature or pressure, the air ______________. A. has a low absolute humidity B. has the lowest relative humidity C. cannot give up its moisture D. will gain no additional moisture Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of dehydrators in refrigeration systems? A. Dehydrators must be used continuously. B. Dehydrators are usually installed in the liquid line. C. Dehydrators are used when pumping down the system. D. Dehydrators are used when purging the system. Ans: B The thermostat controlling a refrigerated cargo box two-way solenoid valve senses _______________. A. evaporator coil inlet temperature B. the refrigerated box temperature C. evaporator coil outlet temperature D. degree of refrigerant superheat Ans: B A solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed ______________. A. with the axis of the solenoid horizontal, sensing temperature of the box, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve

C. prevent air from being cooled below the dew point D. eliminate all noxious odors in the compartment Ans: B Which of the locations listed would be considered as the most 2229 common place to install a dryer in a refrigeration system? A. Between the compressor and the condenser. B. C. D. Ans: 2231 Between the thermal expansion valve and the evaporator. In the suction line. In the liquid line. D If the flame of a Halide leak detecting torch burns yellow, which of the problems listed is indicated? A. A restricted exploring tube B. A refrigeration leak C. A faulty reactor plate D. Normal operation Ans: A In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest temperature drop across the __________. A. evaporator B. receiver C. compressor D. condenser Ans: D In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the ____________. A. compressor B. condenser C. evaporator coil D. expansion valve Ans: D A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is controlled by _____________. A. the solenoid valve energizing coil B. regulating the king valve C. a thermal bulb on the evaporator coil D. an electrically operated controller Ans: C A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove _____________. A. noncondensable gases and vapors B. oil from the refrigerant C. refrigerant from the oil D. moisture from the system Ans: D The normal operation of a refrigeration compressor should be to cycle on _____________. A. in response to the low pressure cutout switch and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch B. in response to the high pressure cutout switch and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch C. and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch D. and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch Ans: C When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shutdown for a period of time, you should manually throttle the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2245 A. B. C. D. sea water valve king valve suction valve expansion valve C What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no refrigerant present? Orange Blue Red Green

2230

2232

2233

2234

2235

2236

2237

2238

2239

2240

2241

B. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve C. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and downstream of the thermal expansion valve D. upright, sensing superheat of the tail coil, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve Ans: B If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order to maintain 2242 the box temperatures, a careful watch should be kept on the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2244 A. B. C. D. discharge pressure gauges of both compressors suction pressure gauges of both compressors expansion valves of both evaporator coils oil levels in both compressor crankcases D Leaking discharge reed valves in a refrigeration compressor should be _____________. reground relapped replaced rewound

2243

Page 125

Ans: C When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal expansion valve _____________. A. is always wide open B. is always completely closed C. is open only until evaporator pressure is equalized D. operates as if the system were in operation Ans: D When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be 2248 taken to ensure that _____________. A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental starting D. the condenser is completely shutdown first Ans: B If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open, therefrigeration 2250 compressor will eventually be stopped by______________. 2246 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2252 chill box thermostatic temperature switch low water cutout switch low pressure cutout switch high pressure cutout switch C Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side? Dehydrator inlet valve Liquid line king valve Suction line valve Thermal expansion valve B In a refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the __________________. condenser dehydrator liquid strainer hygrometer B A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve that normally draws gas from the suction manifold, but returns it to the suction line without compressing it is called a _____________. discharge line bypass cylinder unloader suction line bypass relief valve B A common secondary refrigerant used in air conditioning systems aboard ship is _____________. R-123 water nitrogen Carrene B In a refrigeration system, air is purged at the __________. expansion valve filter/drier evaporator condenser D Which of the listed substances is used as an absorbing agent in the shipboard dehydration of refrigeration systems? Ethylene glycol Sodium bromide Silica gel Methyl glycol C A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will cause ___________. I. an increase in the percent of flash gas II. desireable subcooling of the liquid I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II

Ans: B Some "hot gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning to the compressor to _____________. A. increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant B. prevent chill shocking the compressor suction valves C. improve the efficiency of the expansion valve D. reduce the damaging effects of liquid slugging Ans: D If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition 2249 would result in ____________. A. continuous running of the compressor B. high suction pressure C. high discharge pressure 2247 D. short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch Ans: A When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is 2251 charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, it is said to be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2253 blended charged straight charged mixed charged cross charged D In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant temperature decreases the most in the _________. evaporator condenser compressor expansion valve D If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for repairs, this is an indication of ____________. worn piston rings faulty bearings air being introduced to the system foaming of the crankcase oil D When two refrigerated spaces in a refrigeration system are served by a single compressor and condenser, yet are maintained at different temperatures, a back pressure regulating valve serves to provide ____________. a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the colder box a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box a lower pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box equal pressures in the evaporator coils of both boxes B Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is greatest when the _____________. evaporator is warm and empty of refrigerant evaporator is cold and empty of refrigerant low side and high side pressures are equal low side pressure and thermal element pressure equalize A Thermostatic expansion valves are opened ______________. by spring pressure and closed by refrigerant pressure by refrigerant pressure and closed by spring pressure and closed by spring pressure and closed by refrigerant pressure B The purpose of heating the oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor is to _____________. reduce the absorption of refrigerant by the lubricating oil prevent acidic pitting remove entrained water remove wax and gum A Which of the design features listed for a refrigeration valve are used to reduce the possibility of loss of refrigerant from the system? Back seating Valve caps Packless diaphragms All of the above.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2254 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2256

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2255 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2257

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2258 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2260 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2262 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2264

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2259 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2261 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2263 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2265

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 126

Ans: D A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to respond to _____________. A. refrigerated space temperature B. compressor suction pressure C. vapor discharge pressure in the cooling coils D. superheat in the tail coil Ans: D Three of the refrigerants covered under the low pressure system 2268 regulations are_________. A. CFC-11, CFC-113 and CFC-114 B. CFC-11, CFC-113 and HCFC-123 C. CFC-11, CFC-114 and HCFC-123 2266 D. CFC-11, CFC-114 and CFC-502 Ans: B A reheater, as used in an air conditioning system, is designed to 2270 control the _____________. A. chilled water temperature B. dew point temperature C. primary air temperature D. dry bulb temperature Ans: D A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the 2272 conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by ____________. A. raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater temperature B. raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature C. lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature D. lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater temperature Ans: D If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure 2274 cutout switch, the cause might be that the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2276 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2278 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2280 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2282 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2284 system was overcharged with refrigerant system was low on oil suction valves were leaking slightly system was low on refrigerant D If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking slightly, the compressor will ___________. run continuously not start short cycle on the water low pressure switch short cycle on the high pressure switch A What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration cylinders should be filled? 60% full 70% full 80% full 90% full C Which refrigerant listed has the highest latent heat per kg? R-22 Ammonia R-134 Sulfur Dioxide B Average condensing pressures of an ammonia refrigeration system range between __________. 8 and 11bar g 9 and 11.5bar g 9.5 and 12 bar g 10 and 13 bar g D Pure anhydrous ammonia is considered noncorrosive to ______.

Ans: D The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant _____________. A. refrigerant flow B. box temperature C. outlet superheat D. coil pressure Ans: C When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be 2269 taken to ensure that _____________. A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental starting D. the condenser is completely shutdown first Ans: B A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard air 2271 conditioning systems is _____________. A. methyl chloride B. water C. carbon dioxide D. trichloroethylene Ans: B Newly developed refrigerants, used to reduce stratospheric ozone 2273 depletion, are sometimes refered to as azeotropic. This means that the resulting liquid_________. 2267 A. will condense at a temperature lower than the boiling point of the componant withthe lowest boiling point B. boils at a temperature equal to the boiling point of the component with the lowest boiling point C. will condense at a temperature equal to the highest condensation point of the component with a condensation point equal to any one of the components D. boils at a temperature independent of any individual components in the mixture Ans: D The prohibition against the venting of halogenated floro-carbon 2275 refrigerants to the atmosphere requires that, at a minimum, the refrigerant must be __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2277 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2279 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2281 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2283 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2285 A. B. C. recovered reclaimed recycled destroyed A Considering equal capacities, which refrigeration system can employ the smallest compressor? Ammonia Carbon Dioxide Dichlorodifluoromethane Monochlorodifluoromethane A In addition to moisture, a refrigerant dehydrator charged with silica gel is designed to absorb _____________. refrigerant acids noncondensable gases refrigerant oil B The chemical formula for ozone is represented as ________. O O2 O3 Oz C Which of the following devices is the safest to use when locating ammonia leaks? Litmus paper Sulphur candle Halide torch All of the above are recommended. A For most refrigeration split systems that use one sight glass, a good location for the sight glass is just ________. before the compressor suction line after the compressor discharge upstream of the condenser

A. iron only B. steel only C. copper-bearing metals

Page 127

D. None of the above are correct. Ans: C Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because 2286 of the high pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the_________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2288 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2290 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2292 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2294 vapor pressure of the refrigerant discharge pressure of the recovery compressor hydrostatic pressure of the expanding liquid discharge pressure from the recovery cylinder C What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration system rated at 48,000 BTU per hour? 2.5 3 4 5 C If you know that a refrigeration system is leaking refrigerant, you would first___________. recover the refrigerant charge the system look for traces of oil evacuate the system C In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line before _____________. the receiver each expansion valve the condenser the oil separator B In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating valve is directly controlled by the ____________.

D. upstream of the liquid metering device Ans: D A flapper valve, also known as a beam valve, is frequently used in 2287 refrigeration compressor discharge valves, and is designed to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2289 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2291 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2293 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2295 feed discharge pressure to the suction line aid in hot gas defrosting pass liquid slugs equalize system pressure for compressor cycling C R-12 has been a suitable refrigerant for use in high temperature applications with _____________. reciprocating compressors rotary compressors centrifugal compressors all of the above D Which of the devices listed will indicate the proper operation of a refrigeration system dryer? Dryer sensing bulb Mcleod gage Particulate test Moisture indicator D Which of the following statements regarding refrigeration systems is/are true? In any refrigeration system, oil and refrigerant are always present. Refrigerant is the working fluid and is required for cooling. The main purpose of the oil is to lubricate the compressor. All of the above D In a refrigeration system with a Thermostatic expansion valve, the component installed after the metering device is the ___________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2296

temperature of the cooling water compressor discharge pressure amount of refrigerant in the system temperature of the refrigerant after expansion B How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve? A. A solenoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines. B. A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, whereas a modulation valve is positioned according to the strength of the applied electrical signal.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2297

evaporator receiver compressor solenoid valve A What differentiates "system-dependent" and "self-contained" recovery devices in refrigeration systems? A. self-contained recovery devices can only be used on large CGC and HCFC units B. self-contained recovery devices usually contain a compressor, system-dependent recovery devices do not

C. Solenoid valves are only used in low voltage refrigeration control systems, while modulation valves are used in high voltage applications.

C. the system compressor must be working to use system dependent devices, the system compressor may or may not be operational when self-contained devices are used

D. Both valves operate in exactly the same manner, only the D. there is no difference between the devices manufacturer's terminology is the differentiating factor. Ans: B Ans: B When air is at its dew point it is at its ______________. The refrigerants referred to as CFC's are __________. 2298 2299 A. lowest absolute humidity A. fully halogenated B. lowest relative humidity B. partially halogenated C. highest absolute humidity C. not halogenated at all D. highest relative humidity D. completely filled with hydrogen atoms Ans: D Ans: A If you find an extremely large refrigerant leak while using a halide CFC refrigerants exposed to high temperture or direct flame, will 2300 2301 torch, your flame will _______________. decompose and may produce ___________. A. change from blue to orange A. methyl chloride B. "flare up" and remain lighted B. ammonia C. probably go out C. hydrofluoric acid D. stay blue D. ozone Ans: C Ans: C In a chilled water air conditioning unit using a reciprocating The movement of the armature within a modulating valve as used 2302 2303 compressor, the refrigerating effect of the primary refrigerant can be on some refrigeration systems is opposed by the ________. increased by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: increasing refrigerant pressure in the coil increasing chilled water flow through the cooler subcooling the refrigerant in the condenser superheating the refrigerant in the compressor C A. B. C. D. Ans: pressure of the flash gas developed vacuum formed as the refrigerant flows through the valve weight of the armature spring force D

Page 128

2304

Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cST refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: R-22 R-32 R-134a R-143a A An untagged refrigerant cylinder is found in your storage area. It is light (sky) blue, and the refrigerant it contains is __________. CFC-12 CFC-11 HCFC-22 HFC-134a D Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of foods unless _______________.

2305

The speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be increased without changing the motor speed by using a _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: smaller diameter fan smaller diameter drive pulley larger diameter fan larger diameter drive pulley D In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermalexpansion valve is always located _____________. in the middle of the evaporator coils near the evaporator coil outlet near the evaporator coil inlet at the begining of the bottom row of the evaporator coils B The color of the refrigeration oil can indicate various operating conditions of the compressor/ refrigeration system in which it is used. Black oil can be an indication of _____________________.

2306

2307

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2308

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2309

A. a complete change of air takes place within each 30 second interval B. foods are packaged in corrugated storage boxes C. the air is circulated slowly with a minimum temperature change D. a humidifier is installed within the refrigeration system Ans: C To add refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the 2310 refrigerant should be introduced through the _____________. A. suction service valve as a vapor B. suction service valve as a liquid C. discharge service valve as a vapor D. charging valve as a liquid Ans: A When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb, it is 2312 necessary to ________. A. apply a light film of oil to increase heat transfer B. apply a light film of oil to prevent oxidation C. apply a heavy coating of grease to function as a heat sink D. carefully coat the device with silicone sealant to reduce the effects of convective cooling Ans: B Which chemical symbol represents ammonia? 2314 A. AM3 B. C. D. Ans: 2316 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2318 A. B. C. AMn3 NM3 NH3 D Which of the refrigerants listed has a boiling point of -33C at atmospheric pressure? Methyl Chloride Sulfur Dioxide Ammonia Brine C If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high the _________. box temperature will continually rise rate at which condensation occurs on the evaporator coils will increase suction line of the compressor will be abnormally warm

A. copper plating caused by moisture in the system B. bearing wear or piston scoring C. carbonization resulting from air in the system D. gasket breakdown Ans: C The color of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating 2311 refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring would appear _______________. A. gray or metallic B. black C. clear, because the heavier particles would gravitate to the bottom of the sump D. as a light blue-green Ans: A Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following 2313 procedures? A. Cleaning of in-line filters. B. Ensuring that the thermal bulb is in good contact with the suction line. C. Checking that the thermal bulb is in the proper location. D. All of the above. Ans: D When opening or closing compressor service and line valves on a typical refrigeration system, you _____________. A. should turn valves slowly to avoid thermal stresses due to low temperatures B. must first remove the seal cap C. should examine the gasket frequently to ensure that it is flat D. should never tighten the packing gland Ans: B If a refrigeration system is overcharged with refrigerant, one result 2317 will be ____________. A. low suction pressure B. higher than normal compressor head pressure C. increased system operating efficiency D. short cycling on the low pressure cutout Ans: B A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will 2319 result in which of the following conditions? A. Suction pressure fluctuation. B. Hunting as indicated by fluctuations of the discharge pressure. 2315 C. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particles so no adverse condition will occur. D. Ice is the sole cause of this and will soon melt due to superheat; no adverse condition will occur. Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor in a multi-box system runs 2321 continuously, the cause might be a _____________. A. high pressure switch stuck in the closed position B. clogged mechanical scale trap C. shortage of refrigerant D. defective thermal bulb

D. rate at which condensation occurs within the coils will increase Ans: C Relative humidity can be determined by using a psychrometric chart and a/an ______________. A. hydrometer B. sling psychrometer C. aneroid barometer D. compound barometer

2320

Page 129

2322

Ans: B "Respiratory heat" is a term applied primarily to which of the following cargoes? A. B. C. D. Ans: Fresh vegetables Meat Frozen vegetables All of the above A The refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch is actuated by _____________. A. an electric system manager B. a sensing bulb at the tail coil of the evaporator C. pressure changes in the suction line

2323

Ans: C If the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is incorrectly placed at the center of the coil instead of the end, it will _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: increase the capacity of the coil increase the superheat at the bulb deliver more refrigerant to the coil decrease the capacity of the coil D A one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating characteristics? A. It forces 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant through the evaporator per day. B. It forces 1,000 kgs. of air per hour across the evaporator coils. C. Its cooling power equals that of melting 1,000 kgs. of ice per day.

2324

2325

D. failure of the king solenoid valve Ans: C An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any 2326 corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would probably be caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2328 restriction in refrigerant piping air and noncondensable gases in the condenser water in the refrigerant flooding back of liquid refrigerant from the evaporator B An important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor is for the oil to ____________. have a high viscosity index mix readily with refrigerant have a high freezing point have a low pour point D Which of the problems listed would cause the discharge temperature of an R-12 refrigeration compressor to increase? Thermal expansion valve frozen open. Suction gas heat exchanger bypassed. Condenser clogged or fouled. High pressure cutout switch inoperative. C If the suction pressure for an operating refrigeration compressor is below normal, the cause may be _____________. an excess of liquid refrigerant the expansion valve overfeeding a fouled compressor suction strainer the compressor short cycling C In a refrigeration system equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge valves will result in ________. refrigerant flooding of the compressor low suction pressure noisy compressor operation low head pressure D If you change from a low pour point lubricant to a highpour point lubricant in a refrigeration system, __________. compressor lubrication will be improved oil will not leave the crankcase compressor valves will be damaged oil may congeal in the evaporator D If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition would result in ____________. continuous running of the compressor high suction pressure high discharge pressure short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch

D. It contains 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant. Ans: C A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator 2327 superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the superheat will result in a/an ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2329 evaporator pressure decrease evaporator coil over-feed evaporator capacity increase expansion valve diaphragm rupture B A pressure drop through the refrigerant liquid line may cause _____________. solenoid valve to seize compressor to hunt formation of flash gas in the liquid line expansion valve to freeze open C Which of the conditions listed is one indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant in the system? Safety valve lifting Prolonged running Short cycling Oil absorbed in the crankcase C If one box in a multiple box, direct expansion type refrigeration system was experiencing an excessively low temperature, this could be a result of ____________. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor excessive frost on the cooling coils a leaking hand expansion valve an oversized expansion valve C If R-12 is maintained at approximately 8kg/cm2 when discharged by the compressor, which of the listed values would represent its saturation temperature? -18C -6C 10C 37.8C D To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back in a refrigeration system, it may be necessary to ______________. re-adjust the discharge pressure clean the expansion valve screen add refrigerant adjust the expansion valve D Frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of a multi-box, direct expansion type refrigeration system _____________. increase the value of superheat to the fluid leaving the coils will assist in increasing the refrigeration effect can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils can be quickly removed by simply shutting off fluid flow to the coils

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2330

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2331

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2332

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2333

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2334

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2335

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2336

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2337

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2338 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2339 A. B. C. D.

Ans: A

Ans: C

Page 130

2340

Which of the conditions listed represents the greatest effect of excess frost accumulation on the evaporator coils? A. Keeps the refrigerated space cooler. B. C. D. Ans: Reduces the efficiency of the plant. Takes the load off the compressor. Has no affect on the system. B In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigerant admitted to the evaporator is directly related to _________. the compressor discharge pressure condenser cooling water temperature the solenoid valve differential pressure the superheat of the refrigerant in the tail coil D The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor should be _____________. superheated saturated dense flooded A Under normal conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in an operating refrigeration system as a _____________. liquid dry saturated gas wet saturated gas superheated vapor D In a refrigeration system, foaming of the crankcase oil may cause the _____________. expansion valve to overfeed compressor to knock water regulating valve to fail crankcase drains to plug B Sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. wax precipitation in the lube oil contamination by dust, scale, or moisture refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity B The compressor in an air-cooled condensing refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. A probable reason for this is the ____________.

2341

In the refrigeration system, a shortage of refrigerant is indicated by _____________. A. the compressor short cycling on high pressure cut out switch B. C. D. Ans: high suction pressure high head pressure bubbles in the sight glass D Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor is most likely to occur when the compressor _____________. has run continuously for a long period suction pressure is below normal oil level is below normal starts after a long idle period D In which of the listed refrigeration system components does superheating of the refrigerant take place? Expansion valve Evaporator Drier Receiver B Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor can result in _____________. overheated compressor bearings excess lube oil viscosity carbon deposits on the compressor piston rings wax crystals forming in the lubricant A Which of the listed characteristics can be applied to R-12 vapor? It is corrosive. It is odorless. It is visible as a blue fog. It has a distinctive taste. B The presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system liquid line may ____________. promote refrigerant dehydration be absorbed in the receiver cause low condensing pressure carry moisture and lead to corrosion D Which of the listed statements is a characteristic of the liquid charged power element used with thermostatic expansion valves?

2342

2343

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2344 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2346

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2345 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2347

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2348 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2350

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2349 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2351

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2352

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2353

A. system is overcharged with refrigerant B. system is low on refrigerant C. discharge valves are leaking excessively D. discharge valves are leaking slightly Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high head pressure, you should ____________. A. purge the condenser if the waterside is dirty B. check for proper water flow through the condenser C. increase the high pressure cutout setting D. reduce the cooling water flow

2354

A. At the designed operating temperature, the liquid refrigerant charge has changed to a vapor. B. The liquid refrigerant tends to collect at the bellows or diaphragm and reduces the valve sensitivity. C. The sensing bulb is empty of liquid refrigerant charge at the designed operating temperature. D. The sensing bulb is never emptied of liquid refrigerant under normal operating conditions. Ans: D A constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always 2355 indicates _____________. A. proper refrigerant control B. a faulty refrigerant control valve C. a lack of refrigerant D. the flow of 100% liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator Ans: C Refrigeration system compressor crankcase sweating is an indication of _________. A. insufficient lube oil circulating through the system B. excessive circulation of lube oil through the system C. insufficient refrigerant in the system D. an overworked compressor Ans: B Sweating of the refrigeration system compressor crankcase is 2359 caused by _____________. A. too much superheat 2357

Ans: B Which of the problems listed could cause erosion of the expansion valve disks and seats? A. Overcharging the system with refrigerant B. Faulty compressor suction valve C. Failure of the high pressure cutout D. Flash gas formed in the liquid line Ans: D A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating or 2358 unusually cold. This is an indication of _________________. A. a shortage of refrigerant in the system 2356

Page 131

B. C. D. Ans: 2360

air in the system an accumulation of liquid refrigerant in the crankcase. a shortage of oil in the crankcase C The effect of high vapor superheat in a refrigeration system, is a/an ____________. A. increased capacity of the compressor

B. C. D. Ans: 2361

insufficient superheat suction pressure too low excessive refrigerant returning to the compressor D On all vessels equipped with refrigeration units of over 0.566 cubic metres (20 cubic foot) capacity, _____________. A. a gas mask suitable for protection against each refrigerant used, or a self contained breathing apparatus must be provided B. it is the sole responsibility of the chief engineer to ascertain that all members of the engineering department are familiar with the use of gas masks or breathing apparatus

B. more efficient operation of the thermal expansion valve

C. decreased capacity of the compressor

C. spare charges shall be carried for at least 50% of each size and variety of gas masks and/or self contained breathing apparatus D. all of the above Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing 2363 of an R-12 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment? A. To gain sensitivity, the largest possible flame should be used with the halide torch. B. The flame of a halide torch will turn blue in the presence of R-12. C. Halide torches are useful in locating very small R-12 leaks. D. Rapid leak testing is possible with the halide torch since there is no time lag between the time air enters the exploring tube until it hits the reactor plate. Ans: C The principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its entering the expansion valve is to _____________. A. increase the refrigerating effect by decreasing the amount of flash gas B. allow the refrigerant to enter the throttling device in a saturated condition C. increase the refrigerating effect by increasing the amount of flash gas D. minimize the temperature drop of the liquid as it passes through the solenoid valve to the outlet side Ans: A Each pressure vessel containing refrigerants, which may be 2367 isolated, shall be ___________. A. subject to annual hyrdrostatic tests to be performed in the presence of a marine inspector B. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding 110 percent of the maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel 2365 C. stored in an upright position in addition to being secured so as to prevent accidental release of the refrigerant within a confined space D. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding the maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel Ans: D If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed procedures would be the most practical to follow? A. Secure the system, disassemble and de-ice the thermostatic expansion valve. B. Close the king valve, pump down the system, isolate the drier, remove and replace with new drier element. C. Purge the entire system to the atmosphere, replace the drier, and add freon. D. none of the above Ans: B Which refrigeration system will require the use of an oil trap? A. Brine B. Ammonia C. Methyl Chloride D. All of the above. Ans: B A refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration system should 2373 have which of the following characteristics? A. High boiling point B. High freezing point 2371

D. loss of receiver capacity Ans: C Frosting or sweating of the suction line of a reciprocating 2362 refrigeration compressor indicates a condition which could result in severe damage due to _____________. A. minor amounts of oil in the refrigerant B. liquid slugging C. insufficient refrigerant D. a failed heat interchanger

2364

Ans: B Which of the following statements regarding low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor valves is correct? A. A relatively large clearance space is required for the valves.

B. Mechanical operating valve gear is required to open and close the valves. C. Only the suction valve requires a push rod and rocker arm mechanism for valve operation. D. Due to the physical construction of the valves, a relatively small cylinder clearance space is required. Ans: D When you adjust a thermostatic expansion valve ____________. 2366 A. refrigerant must be bled off the sensing line before adjustments are made B. all refrigerant must be pumped into the receiver before adjustments are made C. time must be allowed for conditions to stabilize in the evaporator before further adjustments are made D. all refrigerant must be routed through the dehydrator while changing the superheat setting Ans: C When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water as a secondary refrigerant, it is important to follow which procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment?

2368

2369

A. Insure that the water doesn't become contaminated with oil in the direct contact heat exchanger. B. Insure that the water and refrigerant separator is functioning properly. C. Insure that the water is drained or continually circulating to avoid freeze-up. D. Leave some refrigerant in the system to prevent the water from contaminating the referigerant if there is a leak. Ans: C The receiver used in a refrigeration system _________. 2370 A. stores liquid refrigerant B. collects noncondensable gases C. allows refrigerant to be subcooled D. prevents liquid refrigerant from slugging to the compressor Ans: A Which of the following refrigerants is considered to be the oldest in 2372 use? A. Methyl Chloride B. Sulphur Dioxide

Page 132

C. Ammonia D. Carbon Dioxide Ans: C All refrigeration systems must be protected with a ________. 2374 A. pressure relief device B. C. D. Ans: 2376 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2378 refrigerant receiver high pressure cut-out low pressure cut-out C Moisture in the refrigerant may _____________. freeze on the expansion valve seat and reduce the flow of liquid refrigerant emulsify the oil in the condenser freeze in the king valve clog the oil trap A To prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically sealed centrifugal refrigeration system, the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes remain _____________.

C. Low specific heat D. Low boiling point Ans: D A purge cycle is required on all low pressure chillers because 2375 __________. A. such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure B. evacuation of all air from a chiller is not possible C. chillers are often opened for mainatenance D. because of the refrigerant's low boiling point Ans: A An ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus paper _____. 2377 A. orange B. C. D. Ans: 2379 red purple blue D A sight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of the refrigerant charge and may also indicate the _____________.

A. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to full load current B. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load current C. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load current D. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to full load current Ans: C The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used 2380 in most refrigeration plants is to _____________. A. regulate refrigerant passage through the solenoid valve B. ensure that liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor has the proper superheat C. maintain a constant degree of superheat at the evaporator coil outlet D. maintain constant evaporator coil pressure independent of suction pressure variations Ans: C A large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure 2382 drop of 0.3bar g and can be compensated for by__________. I. adjusting the Thermostatic expansion valve spring compression and raising the super heat value II. installing an externally equal A. B. C. D. Ans: 2384 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B In a refigeration system, once the compound gage manifold lines are attached to the service connections, you should ascertain that the valves on the gage manifold are closed, and then __________.

A. condition of the expansion valve B. moisture in the system C. condition of the compressor suction valves D. condenser temperature Ans: B The primary function of a back pressure regulator installed in a refrigeration system is to _____________. A. limit the minimum evaporator pressure to ensure excessively low box temperatures are not reached B. maintain a constant compressor suction pressure regardless of load C. maintain an evaporator coil pressure that assures excessively cold coil temperatures D. adjust compressor suction pressure to load demands Ans: A The compressor used in an air-cooled air conditioning system is short cycling. A service check determines the suction pressure is above the normal cut-in point with an exceptionally high head pressure and high superheat at the evaporator. This is probab A. B. C. D. Ans: 2385 loosely fitted compressor drive belt partially opened liquid service valve reduction in condenser air flow (dirty condenser) fully closed discharge service valve C In addition to the main outermost scale on the low side compound gage fitted to the portable service manifold, there are often one or more other scales on the face of the gage. These are _____________.

2381

2383

A. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve B. continue to backseat the discharge service valve by turning it clockwise C. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve approximately 1/4 to 1/2 of a turn D. open only the valve connected to the discharge service fitting on the outlet of the king valve Ans: C When repairing a refrigeration system, a swedge would be used to 2386 carry out which of the following operations? A. Swedges are used to remove any sweated edges formed on the tubing while soldering. B. Swedges are used during the breaking-in of refrigeration compressors and drive motors. C. A swedge is no longer used with repairing refrigeration systems due to progressive changes in the tool industry. D. Swedges can be used to expand an end of one tube to fit onto a tube of the same external diameter. Ans: D

A. pressure scales for different refrigerants B. pressure scales for varying ambient temperatures C. temperature scales for varying ambient pressures D. temperature scales for different refrigerants Ans: D Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion valve? A. Clean outlet pipe and secure bulb tangential to the flow of refrigerant. B. Clean off oxidation from the surface of the suction line and sensing bulb with fine abrasive cloth. C. Remove excess lengths of the sensing bulb capillary tube from the device to increase sensitivity. D. Heat shrink insulating material around the device once the bulb has been properly secured. Ans: B

2387

Page 133

2388

An economizer or heat exchanger in a refrigeration system, using a reciprocating compressor, functions to ____________. A. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant slugging the compressor B. raise the temperature of liquid refrigerant C. cool the suction vapor returning to the compressor D. raise the refrigerant saturation temperature in the evaporator Ans: A A large evaporator coil has been determined to have apressure drop of 5 psig and can be compensated for by__________. I. doing nothing as this is typical of refrigeration systems II. throttling the suction of the compressor to prevent the occurance of A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: D Double trunk pistons are used in some refrigeration compressors to reduce refrigerant boil off by _____________. A. increasing compressor volumetric efficiency B. producing higher compression pressures C. minimizing free contact between refrigerant and oil in the crankcase

2389

In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by _____________. A. filters B. separators C. ducted traps D. dehumidifiers Ans: D A particular space is air conditioned by a 25 ton water cooled system. While troubleshooting, the space is found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in

2390

2391

2392

A. A liquid line service valve is partially closed. B. The expansion valve feeler bulb is loosely clamped to the suction line. C. The suction pressure control contacts are stuck open. D. A suction line is kinked or partially obstructed and blocking refrigerant circulation. Ans: C Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to _____________. 2393

A. relieve excessive compressor head pressure B. produce flash gas at the expansion valve C. reduce flooding of the receiver at low loads D. defrost the evaporator coils Ans: D The best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical 2395 refrigeration system is when the compressor is stopped after a long period of running. This is because the ____________. oil has had time to mix properly with the refrigerant refrigerant has had time to separate from the oil oil trap has been able to return sufficient oil to the sump oil heaters are secured; thereby, ensuring that a false level is not read Ans: B Inspection of the water-sides of chillers and condensersfor leaking 2397 tubes should be conducted on a regular basis. How frequently on a minimum basis should these inspectionsbe conducted? A. B. C. D. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2399 once a month once every six months once a year once every other year B To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, you should __________.

D. eliminating the need for a shaft seal Ans: C When multiple refrigerated boxes are maintaining individual 2394 temperatures and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor, the individual box temperatures are controlled by the _____________. A. B. C. D. suction valves solenoid valves expansion valves compressor speed

2396

Ans: B The presence of flash gas in the high pressure lines of arefrigeration system is undesireable because ___________. I. erosion of the TXV valve seat can be increased II. refrigeration system capacity will be reduced A. B. C. D. Ans: I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C A multiple evaporator coil unit is equipped with a suction-pressure regulating valve. This valve must be bypassed when pumping down the system for repairs because reduction of suction pressure would cause the valve to _____________.

2398

A. rupture B. C. D. Ans: 2400 open close chatter C When purging a gage manifold, which of the fittings listed is normally tightened last?

A. admit only enough fresh outside air to provide proper ventilation B. C. D. Ans: 2401 reduce the air reheating system load lower the compressor head pressure operate the purge recovery unit continuously A In a refrigeration system, which of the following statements describes the actions occurring when a solenoid valve, used in conjunction with an unloader head, is energized?

A. The hose fitting at the discharge valve is tightened last after purging the low pressure line. B. The fittings at the discharge and suction valves of the compressor are both closed simultaneously to prevent objective cross flows. C. The hose fitting at the suction service valve is tightened last after purging the center connection. D. The low pressure hose fitting at the gage manifold is the only fitting that is connected first and tightened last.

A. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the valve lifting device raising the suction valve off its seat and causing one specific cylinder to become unloaded. B. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the underside of the unloading piston, causing it to rise and allowing the recirculating ports to be opened. C. When the solenoid valve becomes energized, the valve ports become closed, allowing discharge pressure to build up above the piston, shifting it and causing it to unload. D. The solenoid valve allows the refrigerant to pass from the suction chamber to the top of the unloader piston, causing the piston to lift and unload the cylinder.

Page 134

2402

Ans: C Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?

2403

Ans: D During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running excessively, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is nearly normal, the suction pressure is slightly above normal, and the head pressure is low. In this situation, you A. leaking door gaskets B. high cooling water temperature

A. Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe the valve stem movement. B. Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch while using a scale to measure the distance the diaphragm has moved. C. Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an increase in suction pressure. D. Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature change at the suction line.

C. air in the system D. a shortage of refrigerant

2404

Ans: D Ans: A A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor 2405 A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge the resulting high head pressure will be caused by _____________. service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the comp A. B. C. D. Ans: the expansion valve overfeeding the evaporator a leaking compressor suction valve an incorrectly adjusted high pressure cutout refrigerant flooding the condenser D One refrigeration ton is equal to _____________. 45kcal/hr 500kcal/hr 3,024kcal/hr 750,000kcal/hr C The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a given volume of air, to the weight of moisture that the same sample would hold if saturated, is called the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2407 A. B. C. D. Ans: rising and falling with each stroke increasing with each stroke decreasing with each stroke decreasing to a vacuum A Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause _____________. freezing the expansion valve closed corrosion of system piping improper temperature regulation all of the above D

2406 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2408

A. absolute humidity B. relative humidity C. specific humidity D. total humidity Ans: B 2409 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2411 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2413 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2415 PUMPS AND EDUCTORS How is water traveling along the shaft of a centrifugal pump Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be installed in a 2410 prevented from entering the shaft bearing? main drainage or evacuation system? Shaft seal A. Reciprocating pump Water flinger B. Centrifugal pump Drain hole C. High pitch rotary vane pump Lantern ring D. Eductor pump B Ans: C Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts? A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 15 cms of water. This 2412 corresponds to a pressure of ____________. They make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing. A. 150 mm WG They can be economically replaced as they wear out. B. 200mm WG They can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of C. 300mm WG the pump. They increase the strength of the shaft. D. 500mm WG B Ans: A An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will 2414 caused by ___________. result in which of the following conditions to occur? defective intake valves A. Loss of suction clogged suction strainers B. Increased clearances scarred cylinder walls C. Decreased clearances clogged drain valves D. Decreased slippage B Ans: B Propeller pumps are used primarily where there is a need to move If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric motor 2416 a large volume of liquid. However, their use is limited by a and produces a discharge pressure less than designed, the cause maximum total head of ____________. is probably _______________. 6 to 12 metres 10 to 17 metres 12 to 20 metres 17 to 24 metres C Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing worn impellers and pump casings? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2418 excessive pump speed excessive suction head worn wearing rings gross pump misalignment C A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the _________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2417

Page 135

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2419

Close radial clearance between impeller hub and casing Low rotational speed of impeller Removable end plate Replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings D When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be _____________. a loose tappet collar clogged suction strainers an open snifter valve misalignment of the crosshead guide D The pump packing gland has been repeatedly tightened by small increments until the gland has bottomed. Which of the actions listed should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2420

water seal pipe is plugged pump is not primed seal ring is improperly located impeller is flooded B If you were operating a centrifugal water service pump with worn wearing rings, the _______________. pump would be very noisy pump would vibrate excessively pump would develop insufficient flow stuffing box would leak excessively C A centrifugal pump vibrates excessively during operation. Upon disassembling the pump it is found that the impeller is out of balance. Without an available spare, you should ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2421

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2422

A. Replace all of the packing. B. Replace with larger cross-sectional turns of packing. C. Replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with lead wrap. D. Continue to add more turns of packing. Ans: D If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped, 2423 which of the following types of pumps will most likely be damaged? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2425 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2427 Centrifugal Gear Propeller Turbine B Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by ______________. a compressed packing gland lantern rings between the packing rings a liquid seal the stuffing box gland C Assume identical impeller diameter, width and speed. Which of the following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity?

A. drill holes through the heavy side of the impeller until it balances B. weld counterweights to the light side of the impeller C. remove metal from the heavy side by machining in a lathe D. acid wash and scrape the heavy side until it balances Ans: C In order to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal 2424 pump when starting, the pump should have a ___________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2426 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2428 positive head negative suction head mechanical seal vent valve attached to the casing at the top of the volute D The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of _______________. centrifugal pumps jet pumps propeller pumps reciprocating pumps D Most pump manufacturers recommend that the suction piping dimension for centrifugal pumps be ____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2429

A single stage straight vane impeller A single stage curved vane impeller A dual integeral impeller unit operating at 10% lower speed A dual impeller with multiple stepped curved vanes B A lantern ring is _____________. A. the bottom ring in a set of piston rings B. the oil slinger on a spring bearing C. used to distribute seal water throughout the pump stuffing box

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2430

one size smaller than the pump suction nozzle the same size as the pump suction nozzle one size larger than the pump suction nozzle installed with a short radius elbow at the pump C A pump is defined as "a device that _____________." A. produces pressure B. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level "A" to level "B" C. creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations

D. the lifting ring on each running light Ans: C In which of the following descriptions would centrifugal pump 2431 impeller cavitation most likely occur if the impeller diameters, rotating speed, and liquid temperature are the same? In the second stage of a two-stage pump. A single-stage impeller with straight vanes. A single-stage impeller with curved vanes. A two-stage pump with an operating speed 100 RPM less than specified. Ans: C The purpose of the wearing rings used in a centrifugal pump is to 2433 ___________________. A. B. C. D. A. prevent an internal explosion in the pump when it is overheated B. C. D. Ans: 2435 enable a visual inspection of the pump while it is running insure a proper alignment of the pump coupling to the driver accomodate for friction between the impeller and the casing D The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to ____________. A. open the relief valve to prevent accidental starting

D. is to develop a pressure differential Ans: B Most pump manufacturers recommend that the discharge piping for 2432 centrifugal pumps be one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle to __________. A. B. C. D. reduce the pump discharge pressure reduce the frictional losses due to fluid flow increase the pump discharge pressure allow rapid venting of entrained air

2434

Ans: B Clearances between the impeller hub and casing of a centrifugal pump are checked with the use of _____________. A. wooden wedges B. C. D. Ans: an accurate set of feeler gages a machinist's rule a depth micrometer B The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to ____________. A. directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped

2436

Page 136

B. ensure the balance piston is on the downstroke C. center the steam pistons in the cylinders D. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same Ans: C Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created 2437 by a jet pump or an eductor? A. Centrifugal force converted into potential energy. B. A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid. C. A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle. D. A propeller drawing a fluid through a venturi nozzle. Ans: C Which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the liquid kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2441 Impeller Electric motor Volute Eye C One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______________. motor overload will open relief valve will open pump will overheat motor will overheat C In a centrifugal pump, the seal piping directs liquid from the discharge side of the pump to the _____________________. packing gland wearing ring stuffing lantern ring D Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps? They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids. They are started with the discharge valve opened. The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller. They are always mounted in a horizontal position. C The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant viscosity fluid, will decrease when the discharge pressure is increased, due to ___________. decreased suction pressure increased suction pressure reduced slippage increased slippage D If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 100 strokes/minute with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 7" stroke, operating with a 90% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?

B. directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped C. convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy D. separate air from the liquid being pumped Ans: B The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by ____________. A. increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod B. variations in the throttle adjustment C. twisting the stayrod in a clockwise direction D. changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod Ans: D If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to 2440 sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT ________. 2438 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2442 the circuit breaker for leaks in the suction piping relief valve is not properly seated the suction strainer A If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause? The wearing rings are excessively worn. The suction strainer is clogged. The discharge valve is clogged. The shaft is worn. B In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is controlled by the position of the ______________. main steam piston valve piston in the steam cylinder cushioning valve governor valve spindle B A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a closed discharge valve has a/an ______________. capacity of 0% efficiency of 100% internal slippage of 0%

2439

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2443 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2445 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2447

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2444 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2446 A. B. C.

D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% Ans: A If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head 2448 becomes air bound, your FIRST response should be to ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2450 vent the casing close the discharge tighten the packing reprime the pump A Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a positive suction head must be primed before they will move liquid on their own. The priming is usually accomplished with a _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2449

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2451

105 gpm 39 gpm 77 gpm 107 gpm B A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to _____________. A. establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2452

regenerative pump rotating liquid piston pump jet pump turbine pump B To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally mounted centrifugal pump, the ___________. A. pump must always be primed

B. equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc C. prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head D. decrease the net positive suction head Ans: C A crackling noise coming from a centrifugal pump casing is an 2453 indication of _______________. A. insufficient packing B. an oversized lantern ring C. excessive suction lift

B. volute must impart a radial and rotary motion of the water C. suction side connection must guide the liquid to the lantern rings D. stuffing box should not be allowed any water leakage Ans: A Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will 2454 ____________. A. cause severe vibration when the pump is operating B. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland C. cause damage in the stuffing box

Page 137

D. reversed pump rotation Ans: C Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing 2455 gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition, is caused by ____________. A. failure to insert and individually seat the rings, one ring at a time B. C. D. Ans: 2457 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2459 insufficient tightening of the packing gland failure to tighten the packing gland in a single adjustment cutting the rings nearest the gland too short A Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps can be eliminated by the use of _____________. single volutes a single diffusion nozzle a diffusion ring a modified Kingsbury thrust bearing C If misalignment between a pump and its driving source exceeds that specified by the pump manufacturer, the shaft _________________. flexible coupling will absorb all such misalignment total end float travel will be excessive lateral float will be greatly increased bearings will be overloaded and will fail D When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another, if the fresh water pump loses suction you should___________. loosen the mechanical seal vent the pump casing check the discharge strainers all of the above B Which of the following conditions will prevent a shipboard pump from achieving its maximum suction lift? Leaks developed in the suction piping. Friction losses as a result of improperly sized pipe. Gases or vapors released in the liquid as a result of greater than normal pressure drops. All of the above. D Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere? Conventional stuffing box External mechanical seal Double mechanical seal Rubber bellows mechanical seal C Closed impellers differ from open impellers in that closed impellers __________. allow liquid to enter the eye from one direction only have side walls which extend from the eye to the outer edge of the vane tips have small impeller eyes are not vented above the impeller eye B Foot valves are primarily designed to ______.

D. allow interstage leakage in the pump casing glands Ans: B It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller 2456 with the vanes facing in the wrong direction. This would cause the pump ___________. A. head capacity to improve B. C. D. Ans: 2458 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2460 discharge to be reversed efficiency to decrease slippage to decrease C The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is _______________. noise and vibration an increase in discharge pressure an increase in suction pressure lifting of the relief valve A If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires replacement more frequently than normal, a possible cause may be __________. worn bearings worn mechanical seals a flooded pump suction wrong direction of pump rotation A Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2461

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2462

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2463 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2465

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2464

Reinforced rubber packing Wire impregnated high temperature packing Low pressure braided asbestos packing High pressure graphite packing D Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by _____________. A. overlapping spaces between gear teeth B. a roller bearing C. a stuffing box

D. the use of shaft end caps Ans: C If you heard a "crackling" sound occuring within a centrifugal 2466 pump, the most probable source of the noise would be the ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2468 shaft sleeves discharge volutes wearing rings pump suction D The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following conditions? A. type of pump B. condition of the shaft

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2467 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2469

C. length of time in use D. all of the above Ans: D A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming ________________. 2470 A. primarily to lubricate the shaft seals B. due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller C. to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure D. in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line Ans: B In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system, the 2472 compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the _____________. A. B. C. D. pressurestat high pressure cutout solenoid valve low pressure cutout switch

A. give a pump motor or driver positive protection when operating in a shutoff condition B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft stuffing box C. enable a pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging Ans: C To maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal pump, the 2471 design clearance must be maintained between the ______________. A. B. C. D. shaft and impeller motor and pump shaft casing and impeller wearing rings lantern ring and impeller

Page 138

2473

Ans: C The static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation between the _____________. A. centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suction well when the source of liquid is below the pump B. centerline of the pump and the suction liquid level when the source of liquid is above the pump C. centerline of the pump and the level of the discharge liquid D. liquid levels of the suction and discharge

2474

Ans: D Which of the following statements represents the advantage of rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps? A. The high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger volume of fluid per unit time than the reciprocating pump.

Ans: A Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump? A. Valve operating differential B. Crosshead arm C. Pump rod D. Pilot valve and operating rod Ans: D Which of the devices listed is common to all types of pumps? 2477 2475 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2479 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2481 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2483 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2485 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2487 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2489 A power end and fluid end A propeller and educator A volute and impeller A turbine and piston A If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when operating, the cause could be _____________. worn gland sealing shaft worn wearing rings a bent shaft reversed pump coupling C Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the _____________. pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders pistons to stop in mid-stroke pump to operate sluggishly cushioning valves to wear C The seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump and directs the liquid to the _____________. packing gland wearing ring stuffing lantern ring D When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open? Steam supply valve Steam exhaust valve Steam cylinder drain valve Water cylinder drain valve C At which of the following intervals must the cargo pump relief valves on tank vessels be tested? Prior to each fuel discharge operation. At least once each voyage. At least once a year. At each biennial inspection. C You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the ______________.

B. Rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pumps of the same weight. C. Rotary pumps occupy only one-half the space of reciprocating pumps. D. Rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid, while this does not hold true for a reciprocating pump. Ans: B A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other 2476 pumps, is the ______________. A. discharge end being smaller than the suction end B. small size of impeller C. lack of moving parts D. ease at which the wearing rings may be changed Ans: C Lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to ________. 2478 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2480 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2482 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2484 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2486 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2488 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2490 allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing provide a passage for the stuffing box sealing liquid adjust leakage at the shaft gland allow for distortion of the wearing rings B Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of the liquid entering a pump? Suction head Pump head Discharge head Total head A One of the main functions of wearing rings, as used in a centrifugal pumps, is to _____________. maintain radial alignment between the pump impeller and casing absorb all impeller shaft end thrust prevent water leakage to the atmosphere prevent wear of the pump casing and/or impeller D Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump? Fluid power transmission system Main circulating system Steering gear system Fuel oil service booster system B On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge? Flinger rings Mechanical seals Shaft sleeves Clipper seals B Which of the following intervals do Regulations require the remote cutout for the fuel oil service pumps to be tested? Prior to each sailing Once each month At each fire and boat drill At each inspection for certification D If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed prime mover and produces a flow rate less than the designed specifications, the cause could be _____________.

A. discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure B. discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts C. suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease D. suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift Ans: A

A. suction absolute pressure greatly exceeds corresponding vapor pressure of liquid being pumped B. excessive suction head C. pump packing gland misalignment D. worn wearing rings Ans: D

Page 139

2491

When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 45 apart 90 apart 120 apart 180 apart B What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump manufacture? I. The discharge head would be reduced. II. The pump would begin to cavitate. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required? Water under negative pressure. Water under positive pressure. Oil under positive pressure. Oil under negative pressure. B A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. As the liquid passes through the volute, its velocity decreases and ______________. its pressure increases its pressure decreases the potential energy decreases the kinetic energy increases A Which of the following statements is true regarding a positive displacement rotary pump? Theoretically, there is no limit to shut off head pressure. Theoretically it is self priming. The discharge side should be protected against excessive pressure build up via a relief valve. All of the above. D If a centrifugal pump develops insufficient discharge pressure as a result of worn wearing rings, which of the following corrective actions is required? Replace the rings. Throttle in on the discharge valve. Always replace the wearing rings and the impeller as a set. Throttle in on the suction valve. A When adding packing to a seal involving motion, you must be careful to prevent ____________. excessive friction in the joint wear of the moving part deterioration of the packing due to excessive tightening all of the above D What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump manufacturer? I. The designed discharge head would be reduced. II. The packing life would be greatly reduced. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been installed in the reverse direction, and will ______________. have a greater head capacity operate with increased impeller efficiency discharge through the suction side of the pump casing require more power to turn the shaft D

2492

What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable tomaintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of the coupling used on a close-coupled pump II. fracture of one packing gland bolt A. B. C. D. Ans: I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable tomaintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of the internal parts of the pump II. failure of the system relief valve I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of _____________. vapor pockets water hammer action fluid friction steam knock A After renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the packing should be seated, then the packing gland nuts _____________.

2493

2494

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2495

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2496

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2497

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2498

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2499 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2501

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2500

left in that position loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box tightened to compress the packing loosened, and then retightened until they are only finger tight D A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required? A. Replace the wearing rings. B. Throttle in on the discharge valve. C. Replace the wearing rings, shaft, and impeller.

D. Throttle in on the suction valve. Ans: A If a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted while operating 2502 under a negative suction head (suction lift), the inner end of the stuffing box will be ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2504 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2506 under a vacuum and air will tend to leak into the pump sealed by the fluid being pumped and no leakage will occur under pressure and fluid will tend to leak into the pump sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring A Heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference of a packing ring may be caused by ____________. a high suction head rotating rings badly worn bearings a loose stuffing box gland C The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a centrifugal salt water service pump. The packing gland is now drawn tightly up against the casing. Despite the use of standard procedures to tighten the packing gland, water continues to pour out along the sleeves "O" ring seals were not installed suction head pressure has become excessive the sealing water flow to the stuffing box is blocked only two sections of the lantern ring were installed A If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the _____________. motor controller overload would open pump would eventually overheat relief valve would continuously cycle open motor would overheat B

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2503 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2505

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2507 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2508 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 140

2509

If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains constant as the discharge pressure increases, the rotary pump ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: capacity will increase capacity will decrease suction pressure will increase suction pressure will decrease B Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by ____________. cavitation electrolysis abrasion corrosion A One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland. If the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition during the same operating period, the wear is most likely cause insufficient lubrication of the lantern ring packing rings rotating in the stuffing box overtightening the packing in one adjustment some rings being cut too short C If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the packing on the main condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of ______________. running at low speed for a long time excessive condensate recirculation defective casing gasket worn bearings D A twin-screw, rotary, positive displacement pump is provided with timing gears. If it were possible to change the lead (pitch) of the screws, which of the following statements would represent the true effect on the pump characteristics?

2510

If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the bearings of the condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: misalignment a plugged water seal line salt water contamination of the condensate worn wearing rings A Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump, is caused by _________. undertightening the packing failure to seat the packing rings insufficient lubrication of the packing packing ring rotation C When new, a rotary pump is designed to have 0.005 mm clearance between the rotors and the pump casing in order to develop a 180 LPM flow rate at 21bar. After one year of operation, the clearance has increased to 0.020mm, with the discharge pressure less than 180 LPM because of increased clearance 180 LPM because the pressure is unchanged greater than 180 LPM because of reduced slippage greater than 180 LPM because of increased efficiency A When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be __________. cycled at least once a day cycled once every 4 days cycled once every week watched carefully while idled A Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?

2511 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2513

2512 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2514

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2515

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2516

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2517

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2518

A. The longer the lead, the lower the flow rate. B. The shorter the lead, the higher the pressure potential. C. The longer the lead, the lower the axial velocity. D. The shorter the lead, the higher the inlet pressure requirements. Ans: B The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the ____________. A. change in the impeller diameter B. square of the impeller radius C. cube of the impeller diameter D. impeller efficiency for large changes in its size Ans: A Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial balance. In actuality this balance is rarely achieved due to _________________.

A. Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder. B. Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest. C. One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder. D. Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder. Ans: B The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the ______________. A. change in impeller diameter B. square of the impeller diameter C. cube of the impeller diameter D. impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller Ans: B Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must have a minimum flow through them under all operating conditions. This flow serves to ____________. A. prevent overheating and damage to pump rotating parts due to rubbing B. maintain the net positive suction head of the pump C. maintain hydraulic differential in the pump impeller passages D. purge the pump of noncondensable vapors and gases Ans: A Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump ____________. A. to help lubricate the shaft packing B. to limit the outflow of seawater from the stuffing box of a pump provided with a high suction head C. in place of sealing gages D. in place of mechanical seals Ans: A The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a 2526 centrifugal pump is the difference in elevation between the __________________. 2524

2519

2520

2521

2522

A. an unbalanced force exerted from the direction of the impeller nearest the driving motor B. unequal or nonuniform flow to the suction eyes of the impeller housing C. excessive sealing water flow to the stuffing box D. flexible shaft design which causes rapid wear of the outboard shaft bearing Ans: B To operate a centrifugal fire pump at reduced capacity, you should 2523 ___________________. A. readjust the relief valve B. throttle the suction line C. throttle the discharge valve D. open the priming line Ans: C The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the 2525 mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic energy is the ____________.

Page 141

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2527

electric motor volute impeller diffusion nozzle C When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed? A. Replace all of the packing rings. B. Block off the sealing water connection. C. Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2528

discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level discharge liquid level and the pump centerline suction liquid level and the pump centerline suction submergence level and the pump discharge A To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________. A. use a packing hook B. open the throttle valve and "blow" the old packing out C. do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing D. open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper

D. For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing. Ans: A Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge piping 2529 for centrifugal pumps be ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2531 one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle the same size as the pump discharge nozzle one size smaller than the pump discharge nozzle installed with a short radius elbow at the pump A When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping should ___________________. A. be of the same diameter as the pump suction connection B. be at least one size larger than the pump suction connection

2530

Ans: A An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple gear pump is that the helical gear pump is capable of ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: maintaining a steadier speed delivering liquids over greater distances operating for longer periods of time producing a smoother discharge flow D The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to ____________. reduce radial thrust to the impeller double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to a single volute reduce hydraulic end thrust provide the effect of multi-staging A During the inspection of a low pressure pump, the wearing ring is determined to have a clearance of 0.3mm - 0.4mm, you should ___________. replace the worn wearing ring install a new oversized casing ring machine the worn wearing ring and refit leave the existing wearing rings in place D Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity? Excessive suction lift Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump All of the above A If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head vibrates, or becomes noisy, the cause could be ____________. excessive pump speed worn wearing rings air leakage into suction line insufficient venting D The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the ___________. total head discharge head net positive suction head suction head B If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the remainder is the ______________. pump head total suction head discharge head apparent net positive suction head D Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal pump? Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream. Rough casing volute surfaces. Worn wearing rings. Heavy fluid in the flow stream.

2532 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2534

C. be the next size smaller than the pump suction connection D. be sloped to the pump Ans: B Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or 2533 pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2535 Heat transfer is restricted. Scoring may result. Valve seat will be damaged. Bonnet corrosion may result. B Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design requirements could cause ____________. A. decreased clearances between rotating parts B. decreased slippage to the suction side of the pump C. air binding in the discharge ports

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2536 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2538

D. erosion and excessive wear Ans: D Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, 2537 corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2539 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2541 wearing rings renewable sleeves a hardened sprayed metal coating internally flooded lantern rings B Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump? Direct-acting Diffuser High-pressure Vertical B To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation and abrasives in the liquid, a centrifugal pump is usually fitted with _______________. lantern rings bearings casing volutes wearing rings D If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long period of time, you should replace the ____________. packing gland mechanical seals lantern rings wearing rings

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2540 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2542

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2543

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2544

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 142

Ans: D Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by the use of ______________. A. shaft sleeves B. lantern rings C. water flingers D. water seals Ans: C With respect to centrifugal pump impellers, which of the following 2547 descriptions represents the correct centrifugal pump classification? 2545 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2549 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2551 A. B. C. D. Single stage or multistage High pressure or low pressure Open or close coupled Horizontal or vertical A The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. cool the shaft lubricate the packing seal air from entering along the shaft distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box D The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the ___________. diameter of the impeller square of the diameter of the impeller cube of the diameter of the impeller impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller

Ans: A One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________. A. stuffing box diameter B. direction of rotation of the screws C. pitch of the screws D. type of driving gears Ans: C A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a temperature 2548 of 120C or greater must be provided with ___________. 2546 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2550 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2552 A. B. C. D. a semi-mechanical seal helical grooved wearing rings self adjusting packing a liquid seal line D What is a function of the wearing rings used in most centrifugal pumps? Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream. Seal pump shaft against entry of air. Isolate the discharge side from the suction side. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow. C The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to _____________. develop a high velocity liquid convert velocity to pressure limit hydraulic end thrust initiate flow

2553

Ans: C If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for an indefinite period, the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: relief valve will open water pressure will lower continually to shut off head water pressure will tend to rise continuously liquid may overheat and vaporize D The static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump, is the difference in elevation between the ____________. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level discharge liquid level and the pump centerline suction liquid level and the pump centerline suction submergence level and the pump discharge C After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to ____________.

2554

Ans: B Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service? A. B. C. D. Ans: Copper. Copper and carbon. Carbon. Bronze. C When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be ______________. wide opened half opened 3/4 opened almost completely closed D When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal pump equipped with an external liquid sealing supply, you should ________________.

2555 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2557

2556 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2558

A. dynamically balance the shaft and impeller B. check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring surfaces are true C. visually inspect the rings after about an hour of service D. all of the above Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct? A. A pumproom is not necessary. B. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft. C. Special priming provisions are necessary. D. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft.

2559

A. always turn down the shaft in a lathe to ensure a snug fit B. ensure that the lantern ring is aligned with the sealing supply opening C. check the stuffing box for irregularities with a dial indicator D. make sure the seal cage is always positioned at the base of the stuffing box Ans: B Which of the listed pumps is NOT a positive displacement pump? 2560 A. B. C. D. Centrifugal Reciprocating Gear Rotary

Ans: A The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure centrifugal pumps, such as feed pumps, ____________. A. eliminates axial thrust B. imparts kinetic energy to the water passing through the pump C. alleviates the need for a double suction impeller D. eliminates radial thrust to the impeller Ans: D To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal pump suction 2563 line installed angled from normal, any gate valve should be installed with the ____________. 2561 A. bonnet above suction pipe centerline B. centerline above the suction pipe centerline

Ans: A The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the _____________. A. injector B. compressor C. diffuser D. siphon Ans: C Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid 2564 and thereby move it from one place to another are called _____________. 2562 A. mixed flow pumps B. jet pumps

Page 143

C. stem pointing upward at right angles to the pipe D. stem horizontal or pointing downward below the pipe Ans: D If you heard a "crackling" noise in a centrifugal pump, the most 2565 probable cause of the problem would be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2567 insufficient speed cavitation excess discharge pressure excessive net positive suction head B Operating a rotary gear pump far below its rated speed when handling low viscosity liquids, will cause its volumetric efficiency to ____________.

C. volute pumps D. centrifugal pumps Ans: B Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will 2566 _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2568 cause new packing to be torn and scored cause severe pump vibration at operating speed damage the packing gland stuffing box damage the pump casing interstage seals A One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition. This wear may be caused by ____________.

A. increase steadily as the moving gears develop less vibration B. decrease to where the pump no longer develops flow C. remain unchanged due to its positive displacement characteristics D. fluctuate due to the amount of slip variation Ans: B The capacity of a rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, 2569 will decrease with an increase in the pump _________. A. B. C. D. discharge volume suction pressure steeped speed rotor clearances

A. air entrained in the fluid pumped B. packing rings rotating in the stuffing box C. some packing rings being cut too short D. improper adjustment of the gland nuts Ans: D Inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitation will usually be 2570 indicated by a wear pattern _____________. along the inlet side of the housing along the discharge side of the housing at the extreme upper and lower peripheries of the housing even throughout the entire periphery of the housing when matched machined gear sets are used Ans: A Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were 2572 using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid? A. B. C. D.

2571

Ans: D The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the installation of a larger diameter impeller. Another means of increasing the pump capacity is to _________________. A. increase speed B. C. D. Ans:

2573

A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line. increase the size of the cardent assembly B. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a common line. reduce wearing ring clearances C. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a common line. change the pump to a "close coupled" arrangement D. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line. A Ans: B Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase 2574 would be indicated by which of the following operational problems? in its capacity. Another means of increasing the capacity of a centrifugal pump is to increase the _________. A. diameter of the discharge piping, with all other factors remaining the same B. diameter of the suction piping, with all other factors remaining the same C. width of the impeller only D. diameter of the impeller Ans: D A centrifugal pump, normally operated under a positive suction 2576 head, has its impeller replaced by one with a larger suction eye. What effect will this change have on the pump? A. The pump motor will electrically trip off the line. B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM. C. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM. D. The capacity in gallons per minute will not be affected by the impeller suction eye size. Ans: B A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has 2578 a/an ______________. A. capacity of 100% B. efficiency of 0% C. internal slippage of 0% D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% Ans: B If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the 2580 discharge valve closed the ____________. A. motor overload would open

A. The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low flow. B. The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods. C. The motor overcurrent protective device continually shuts the pump down. D. Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest. Ans: A One of the disadvantages of screw-type positive displacement 2575 rotary pumps is that they have ___________. A. high internal velocities B. performance characteristics sensitive to viscosity change C. low tolerance for entrained air and gases D. low range of flows and pressures Ans: B If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound, the pump should be vented at the _____________. A. suction line B. discharge flange C. top of the volute D. bottom of the casing Ans: C Which of the listed statements is correct concerning the starting of 2579 centrifugal pumps? A. They should always be started with the discharge valve closed. 2577

Page 144

B. They should always be started with the discharge valve opened. C. A priming pump is always required to flood the impeller suction. D. They should always be started with the sealing line valves closed. Ans: A Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump is a result of ____________. A. cavitation B. water hammer C. fluid friction D. steam knock Ans: A The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the 2583 centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. A. cool the shaft B. lubricate the packing C. seal air from entering along the shaft D. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box Ans: D If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the 2585 discharge valve is closed off, the pump will __________. A. slow down B. run cooler C. speed up by 5% until the discharge valve is reopened D. no longer continue to internally convert the resultant energy imparted to the pump Ans: D One of three available centrifugal salt water service pumps is in 2587 operation with a sea water temperature of 10C. The cooling temperature of all systems supplied by this pump appear to be high. Therefore, you should ___________. 2581 A. only need to start a second pump and operate it in parallel B. start a second pump and place it on line, close the discharge valve on the original pump and watch for a rise in the discharge pressure C. after starting the second pump open the casing vent valve of the first pump, then secure the first pump D. after starting the second pump secure the first pump and do nothing else with the salt water service system Ans: B A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge head 2589 by energy conversion. It is typical for the energy conversion to follow the order of ______________. A. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to potential energy B. mechanical energy to potential energy to kinetic energy C. potential energy to mechanical energy to kinetic energy D. kinetic energy to mechanical energy to potential energy Ans: A The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is 2591 operating as designed, is to ____________. A. closely observe the pump discharge temperature B. close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure C. momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure D. use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records Ans: B If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, 2593 operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2595 stop turn backward overheat overspeed the driving end C What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?

B. relief valve would open C. pump would eventually overheat D. motor would overheat Ans: C When operating with a negative suction head, which of the following types of pumps will require priming? A. Reciprocating B. Centrifugal C. Rotary D. Gear Ans: B A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid sealing line and 2584 seal cages installed if the pump _____________. A. suction head is high, and is handling a cool, debris free liquid B. is handling a liquid with a temperature of less than 66oC C. suction lift exceeds 250mm Hg Vac D. discharge is less than 2kg/cm Ans: C The proper design of a centrifugal pump must include a seal cage 2586 and sealing line when the pump _______________. A. takes suction from a low temperature pressurized tank B. takes suction from a hot well C. is handling a liquid at less than 66C D. has a high positive suction head 2582 Ans: B Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same diameter, width, and rotating speed are to be compared, one is cast with straight vanes, the other with curved vanes. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The straight vane impeller develops a higher level of kinetic energy. B. The straight vane impeller has the potential for producing a greater discharge pressure. C. The curved vane impeller is less likely to develop cavitation. D. The curved vane impeller will develop a greater increase in the liquid velocity. Ans: D Which of the following statements about pump operations is NOT a 2590 correct statement? A. In order for a fluid to be pumped, a fluid must be made to flow. B. A substance must be cold in order for it to be pumped. C. The kinetic energy imparted by the pump can be used to force a liquid through a hydraulic system. D. A pump must receive its energy from an external source. Ans: B Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing 2592 water? A. Main circulator pump jacket water cooling B. Salt water service pump C. Auxiliary condensate pump D. Bilge pump Ans: D When replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating pump piston rods, the ends of the rings should be cut _________________.

2588

2594

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2596

square beveled step-designed diagonal A A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST described as having _____________.

Page 145

A. Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication. B. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore. C. Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed. D. Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve. Ans: D A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be ____________. A. repaired by a suitable welding process B. straightened by applying heat and torsion C. reconditioned by metallizing and machining D. replaced with a satisfactory spare Ans: D Which of the units of measurement listed below are used to 2599 express positive and negative suction heads when calculating pump head or hydraulic horsepower? 2597 A. Inches of mercury for positive head and feet of water for negative head B. Feet of water for positive head and inches of mercury for negative head C. Inches of mercury for both positive and negative heads D. Feet of water for both positive and negative heads Ans: D The static suction head of a pump is the _____________. 2601

A. two or more impellers housed together in one casing and mounted on a single shaft B. a single stepped impeller mounted in a progressively staged casing C. a large radial clearance between the impeller and casing to prevent overheating due to friction D. an increase in the discharge velocity of the liquid with a corresponding decrease in pressure through the stages Ans: A An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will 2598 _________________. A. increase discharge pressure B. decrease pump capacity C. decrease pump cavitation D. decrease reaction ring clearance Ans: B Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for 2600 pumping oil because _____________. A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps B. it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump C. they are essentially self-priming and produce a high suction lift

D. these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles Ans: C How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation 2602 of a spur gear pump? A. distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump A. The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation. B. distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump B. The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity. C. The pump can only be used for light oils. D. The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil. Ans: A A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves _____________. A. slightly opened B. throttled C. fully opened D. halfway opened Ans: C Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for 2606 pumping oil because _____________. 2604 A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps B. helical gear pumps are essentially self-priming and produce high suction lift C. closely maintained design clearances in this pump is not necessary D. helical gear pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles Ans: B A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at greater than design capacity, will ________. A. be less susceptible to shaft deflection than a similar pump with a single volute casing operated under the same conditions B. be more susceptible to shaft deflection than a similar pump with a single volute casing operated under the same conditions C. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant shaft deflection D. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant impeller deflection Ans: A In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, wearing rings are prevented from rotating by _____________. A. swelling the wearing rings into the casing

C. force necessary to overcome frictional losses in the pump and piping D. amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below atmospheric pressure Ans: A To maintain the design discharge pressure of a centrifugal pump, 2603 the clearance between the ____________. A. impeller and lantern ring is critical B. impeller and casing wearing rings is critical C. packing box and packing gland is critical D. gland seal and packing gland is critical Ans: B As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps operating with a high 2605 suction lift, foot valves are primarily designed to _______________. A. give the pump motor, or driver, positive protection when operating in a shutoff condition B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft stuffing box C. enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging Ans: C Which of the following problems will occur when the suction valve is 2607 throttled on a centrifugal pump not designed to operate in this manner? A. The pump will immediately overheat and seize.

2608

B. Pump efficiency is reduced and cavitation will be induced.

C. The pump packing will fail causing irrepairable damage to the pump shaft. D. Pump capacity is reduced and overall efficiency will be increased. Ans: B Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump? A. Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.

2609

2610

Page 146

B. Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling. C. If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage. D. The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft. Ans: C When a centrifugal pump is operating with a positive suction head, the inner end of the stuffing box is _____________. A. under a vacuum and air tends to leak into the pump through the shaft stuffing box B. under a pressure and fluid tends to leak from the pump along the shaft and through the stuffing box C. sealed by a vacuum and no leakage will occur D. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring Ans: B Pump efficiency may be lost as a result of _______________.

B. using wear rings with a larger than normal outside diameter and having the casing "crush" them in place C. using one dowel pin pressed into the side of the ring, then fitting the pin into a hole drilled into the side of the casing ring grove D. using an extended lip formed on one half of the ring and using the upper casing half to trap the lip when the casing is reassembled Ans: D Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the operation of a centrifugal cargo pump? A. Oil is discharged from the center of the impeller through the outlet. B. Gravity causes the oil to flow toward the discharge. C. The self-priming feature of the centrifugal pump enables it to draw its own suction as it starts. D. The discharge capacity varies directly with the speed of the impeller. Ans: D Centrifugal pumps are designed with sealing lines _________. 2614 A. to prevent the fluid being pumped from pouring out of the stuffing box when a high suction head is available B. in place of mechanical seals C. in place of slinger rings D. to prevent air from entering the pump casing along the shaft Ans: D To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the 2616 stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?

2611

2612

2613

A. air entering the pump through a pin hole leak in the discharge manifold B. a leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump C. the suction valve in the wide open position D. the pump being installed too close to the suction tank Ans: B Which of the following actions should be taken if during a routine 2615 maintenance inspection of a centrifugal pump, localized scoring on a pump shaft sleeve is detected?

A. Correct the cause of the scoring and repair the sleeve or replace A. Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is with a new one. operating. B. Reassemble the unit and provide more water leak off for proper B. Lubricate the packing with cylinder oil before installing new turns of lubrication. packing. C. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial faces to the sleeve C. Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly. bores. D. Reassemble the unit and adjust the governor to obtain a slower D. Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until speed. the packing is properly seated. Ans: A Ans: A Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier 2618 Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical 2617 than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump? seals? A. Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller. B. The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump. C. One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed. D. The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two. A. They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than saltwater. B. They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps. C. They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped. D. Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the spring compression. 2620 Ans: C Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to reduce the wear of the lobe edges?

2619

Ans: C Lead wrapped flexible packing, rated for temperatures of up to 232C and shaft speeds up to 1000 RPM, will not be suitable for use with _________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: monel metal shafts steel shafts bronze shafts cast iron shafts C

2621 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2623

A. Gibs B. Spur gears C. Casing gears D. Liner plates Ans: A COMPRESSED AIR SYSTEM The process of removing moisture from air is known as Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as 2622 _____________. _____________. humidification A. moisturizing dehumidification B. dehumidification vaporization C. dampening evaporation D. humidification B Ans: D A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air compressor is A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a 2624 unable to completely retract. This will result in low pressure reciprocating air compressor will ______________. _________________. overheating of the discharge valve loss of moisture in the air charge in the receiver frequent lifting of the intercooler relief valve an abnormally low intercooler pressure A. B. C. D. prevent the valve from wire drawing retard the opening and closing of the valve have no effect on compressor operation provide quieter valve operation

A. B. C. D.

Page 147

Ans: D The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to _____________. A. drain water from the air receiver B. drain water from the cylinders C. delay the compression process until the motor is up to speed D. check pump alignment Ans: C Air blowing from the intake air filter of an operating air compressor 2627 indicates ___________. A. broken inlet valves B. broken discharge valves C. pulsations in the air distribution system D. overloading of the air distribution system Ans: A In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency 2629 normally results from _______________. A. adiabatic compression in the intercooler B. heating of the air leaving the cylinders C. inaccurate valve timing D. constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume Ans: B In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the 2631 cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors? 2625 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2633 Differential Trunk Barrel Valve-in-head B Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve?

Ans: B Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the _____________. A. aftercooler relief valve B. intercooler relief valve C. last-stage unloader D. first-stage unloader Ans: B One method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up 2628 is accomplished by ____________. A. holding the L.P. discharge valve open B. the use of a precharged accumulator C. using a temporarily opened cylinder clearance pocket D. temporarily discharging to the air receiver Ans: C To obtain maximum efficiency, two stage air compressors are 2630 usually ____________. A. horizontally mounted B. never fitted with intake filters C. fitted with intercoolers D. operated in an unloaded condition at all times Ans: C Which of the listed operating conditions would have the greatest 2632 effect on the volumetric efficiency of an operating reciprocating air compressor? 2626 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2634 The density of the air entering the compressor. The temperature of the air entering the compressor The designed rotating speed of the compressor. A leaking head gasket. D Which of the following problems can result in below normal pressure in the intercooler of an operating low pressure air compressor?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2635 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2637 A. B. C. D.

Carbon build up in the piston ring belt. A. Defective pressure pilot valve Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader. B. Defective receiver relief valve Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity. C. Leaking intake valves on the high pressure cylinder Lifting of intercooler relief valve. D. Leaking discharge valves on the low pressure cylinder B Ans: D If an electric motor driven air compressor fails to start, it may be due 2636 Excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocating air compressor is to a _______________. an indication of _____________. leaking discharge valve A. leakage in the aftercooler jammed suction valve B. leakage in the intercooler tripped overload relay C. worn or broken piston rings broken discharge unloader D. defects in the high pressure unloader C Ans: C If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing, you should On small, low pressure, air compressors, the cylinders are usually 2638 fix them by ____________. lubricated by the _____________. spraying oil on the belts A. splash method tightening the belts B. mechanical force feed lubricators loosening the belts C. detached sump method installing wider belts D. internal cooling passages in the crankshafts and connecting rods Ans: A Air compressor receivers should be "blown down" at least _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2642 yearly quarterly monthly daily D When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, the reservoir must be ___________. fitted with a manhole frequently drained of condensed water fitted with a moisture trap at the inlet fitted with a sight glass B The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air compressors are cooled by _____________. water oil air CO2

2639

Ans: B The piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air compressor can be modified by changing the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: piston speed compressor capacity volumetric efficiency total pressure A Intake valves installed on most reciprocating low pressure air compressors are actuated by the pressure differential between the air in the cylinder and the pressure __________. of the air on the external side of the valve of the push rod and rocker arm assembly sensed by the receiver low pressure limit switch sensed by the intercooler diaphragm valve A A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air compressor is probably caused by _____________. damaged intake valves excessively tight mounting bolts insufficient cylinder lubrication a loose piston

2640

2641

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2643 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2644 A. B. C. D.

Page 148

2645

2647

2649

2651

2653

Ans: D An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to _____________. A. inject water vapor into the compressed air B. prevent overheating of first stage valves C. increase compressor efficiency and economy D. reduce the compressed air charge density Ans: C If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually drops off, the cause could be ____________. A. leaking compressor valves B. a clogged air filter C. worn cylinder liners D. all of the above Ans: D Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may result from _________________. A. a misaligned crankshaft B. overtightened drive belts C. contaminated sump oil D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the following frequent maintenance procedures is required of compressed air receivers? A. A close watch on the temperature. B. Constant cleaning to remove oil and dirt. C. Constant testing of the relief valves. D. Frequent draining of water. Ans: D An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to _____________. I. increase the efficiency of the compressor II. reduce the cylinder operating temperature A. B. C. D. Ans: I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A According to Regulations , all pressure vessels other than unfired steam boilers shall be protected by pressure-relieving devices that prevent the pressure from rising more than __________ above the maximum allowable working pressure. 5 percent 10 percent 15 percent 20 percent B One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a ______________. volute in the centrifugal type pump volute in the propeller type pump velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump B Why should a person performing maintenance on an air compressor wire and tag the system valves closed? To prevent the unexpected. To protect the equipment. To protect the operator performing the maintenance. Each of the above is correct. D Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides the advantages of reducing the work of compression on the succeeding stages, and ____________. condensing part of the original water vapor content reducing the maximum piston loads increasing the volumetric efficiency all of the above D The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors are held in place by _____________. discharge pressure in the safety return line large teflon gaskets heavy coil springs tack welding on the sides C

2646

2648

2650

2652

2654

Ans: C A squealing sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating air compressor is an indication of __________. A. compressor overload B. motor overload C. tight compressor bearings D. badly leaking unloaders Ans: C If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor, you should check for ____________. A. broken compressor valves B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners C. excessive compressor speed D. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve Ans: A Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause ____________. A. carbon deposits on valves and pistons B. serious wear on valves and pistons C. a clogged air intake D. excessive compressor discharge pressure Ans: B The heat of compression is partially removed from compressed air by ____________. A. intercoolers B. aftercoolers C. compressor water jackets D. all of the above Ans: D If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock occurring in frequency with its operating RPM, the cause is probably ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: misalignment or worn main bearings insufficient cylinder lubrication defective or poorly fitted valves all of the above A A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a decrease in volumetric efficiency of the compressor II. higher volume of air to be discharged to the receiver I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled either internally or externally, the _______________. total capacity will be reduced volumetric efficiency will be decreased discharge pressure will decrease normal running time will be decreased B If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose, which of the conditions below will occur? The drive belts will squeal The unloaders will jam shut The compressor will vibrate The intercooler will leak C When one belt of a multiple V-belt compressor drive requires replacement, all of the belts must be replaced, because _____________. the old belts would otherwise carry all the load new belts are shorter than old belts new belts have a tendency to slip all the above B A squealing sound generated by an operating reciprocating air compressor would indicate _________________. loose drive belts badly leaking valves compressor interstage leakage tight drive belts A

2655

2656

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2657 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2659 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2661

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2658 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2660 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2662

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2663 A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2664 A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 149

2665

Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven, low pressure, reciprocating air compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting? A. Defective pressure switch B. Leaking suction unloader

2666

When air compressors are arranged for automatic operation, the cylinders can be unloaded during starting and stopping by _____________. A. bypassing the discharge to suction B. fitting depressors which hold the suction valve plates on their seats

C. Compressor starting against full load D. Compressor starting without any load Ans: C If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the 2667 ________________. A. compressor would dangerously overspeed B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low C. circuit breaker may open on starting D. compressor would pump lube oil Ans: C Leaking valves in a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor 2669 can result from _______________. A. excessive compressor discharge pressure B. operating the compressor at excessive speed C. uneven piston stroke in the compressor D. abrasion by dust and dirt Ans: D Excessive lube oil consumption by a reciprocating air compressor can be caused by ____________. A. using a slightly dirty air filter B. using oil having an excessive viscosity C. intercooler or aftercooler leaks D. carrying the oil level higher than normal Ans: D After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from 2673 air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use _____________. 2671 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2675 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2677 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2679 ammonia diesel oil gasoline naphtha B A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor will result in ________________. decreased compression ratio higher than normal power consumption unloader malfunction water in the lubricating oil B A dirty intercooler on an air compressor will cause _______. damage to the unloader operating diaphragm an increase in current flow to the motor high pressure in the receiver and refrig-a-filter an excessive consumption of crankcase oil B If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air to outlets throughout the engine room and on deck of a vessel, the system is known as the _______________.

C. step unloading the cylinders in a multi-cylinder machine D. all of the above Ans: D Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to _____________. 2668 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2670 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2672 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2674 reduce the temperature of compressed air decrease the density of compressed air dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air ensure complete expansion of the compressed air A If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service were failing to unload, the ____________. compressor would stop abruptly when power was secured compressor would run continuously air receiver indicated pressure would be excessively low compressor would require more than the normal amount of lubrication A Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out through the inlet air filter of a running compressor? Excessive compression in the cylinder A broken intake valve A dirty inlet filter element An improperly adjusted discharge valve B If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________. control air system forced draft air system supply air system ships service air system A Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor is a probable symptom of ___________________. low lube oil viscosity fouled intercoolers a failed unloader high air receiver pressure C Air line lubricators are used in compressed air systems to lubricate ______________. the suction and discharge valves tools and equipment served by compressed air air line reducing valves all of the above B Which of the following statements represents the path of air flow passing through a typical two stage, low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2676 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2678 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2680

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2681

combustion control air system supply air system ship's service air system low pressure deck air system C When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, it will be necessary to _____________. A. ensure the proper belt dressing is applied B. ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2682

Intercooler, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and air cleaner L.P. cylinder, air cleaner, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and intercooler Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder D A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating air compressor indicates ____________. A. a defective or broken high pressure unloader B. a loose valve plate

C. season the new belt prior to installation D. replace the entire belt set Ans: D Which of the following statements describes the function of an air 2683 compressor intake filter? A. Protects against suction valve float. B. Provides a positive pressure on the air inlet valves.

C. excessive overload D. no compression Ans: B An important point of consideration when replacing a dry type intake 2684 filter on an air compressor is to ____________. A. use the same wetting oil on the element as is used in the compressor lubrication system B. install a smaller size filter to allow for expansion of the element

Page 150

C. Prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compressed air supply. D. Protects against the damaging effects of airborne solid particles. Ans: D In addition to a pressure gage and a relief valve, an air receiver should be fitted with a _____________. A. sight glass and manhole B. thermometer and sight glass C. thermometer and manhole D. drain connection Ans: D If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 160 2687 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 9" stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump? 2685 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2689 150 gpm 225 gpm 300 gpm 75 gpm C A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a high consumption of lube oil II. higher than normal air pressure in the receiver I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A A V-belt that is too tight will cause excessive wear of both the belt and the _____________. shaft of the prime mover compressor slave pulley main bearing of the compressor prime mover drive pulley C For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multistage air compressor, interstage cooling will ________. increase the power required for compression decrease the power required for compression allow isothermal compression of the air charge allow the compressed air volume to remain constant B If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air compressor is operating under load, you should check for ___________________.

C. install only a filter consisting of a treated paper element D. select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restricted Ans: D A reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and vibrating excessively, indicating that the ____________. A. compressor is overloaded B. motor is overloaded C. foundation bolts are loose D. belts are too tight Ans: C A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on 2688 the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. the motor to run warmer than usual II. lower density air discharged to the receiver 2686 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2690 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A The unloading of an air compressor may be provided by_________. I. holding the intake valve off of its seat II. temporarily relieving the the intercooler to the atmosphere I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air intake filter can result in a/an ___________. immediate piston damage immediate clogging of the intake possible explosion in the compressor deposit of carbon on the valves C If a ship service air compressor failed to unload the ___________________. compressor would run continuously air receiver pressure would be excessively low belts could slip when starting compressor would pump lube oil C A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two stage, high pressure, air compressor can cause excessively high ________________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2691 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2693 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2695

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2692 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2694 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2696

A. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve B. a leak in the intercooler piping C. leakage through the low pressure unloader control diaphragm D. leaking high pressure discharge valves Ans: D Leaking valves in an air compressor can be a result of 2697 _______________. A. excessive discharge pressure B. abrasion, dust, and dirt C. excessive compressor speed D. irregular compression strokes Ans: B The pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of a 2699 reciprocating air compressor, in order to assure an output near the end of its compression stroke, is ____________. A. the same as the line discharge pressure B. below the line discharge pressure C. constant throughout the discharge period D. above the line discharge pressure

A. second stage discharge pressure B. first stage discharge pressure C. pressure in the aftercooler D. compressor final discharge temperature Ans: B Condensate must be drained periodically from the air compressor 2698 receivers to prevent _____________. A. second stage cylinder lockup B. oil sump contamination C. faulty operation of pneumatic valves D. corrosion of air receiver baffles Ans: C The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor, is the 2700 ratio of the _________________. A. adiabatic work of compression to the indicated horsepower B. work of isothermal compression to the brake horsepower of the motor C. air indicated horsepower from indicator cards to the brake horsepower input D. actual amount of air discharged by the compressor, to the theoretical volume swept by the movement of the compressor piston 2702 Ans: D The unloading system on an air compressor will ____________. A. increase compressor discharge pressure on demand B. increase compressor operating speed as necessary

2701

Ans: D The air charge leaving an intercooler, or aftercooler of an air compressor can be expected to be ___________. A. superheated B. supercooled

Page 151

C. at or below the dew point D. all of the above Ans: C Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to 2703 _____________. A. vary their speed according to temperature and load B. start and come up to speed before air compression begins C. change speed according to overload demands D. reduce compressed air charge density Ans: B If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you 2705 should _____________. A. replace that belt only B. replace all of the belts C. dress the worn belt D. adjust belt tension Ans: B Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of an air 2707 compressor are caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. The first step in reducing these deposits would be to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2709 reduce the discharge temperatures increase the compression ratio use a high viscosity oil increase the oil volatility A Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor at startup can be accomplished by ______________. holding the L.P. discharge valve open the use of a precharged accumulator using a permanently enlarged clearance expansion volume temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake D On a medium pressure, differential piston, reciprocating air compressor, lubrication of the pistons/cylinders is usually accomplished _____________. by the splash method with metering type cylinder lubricators gravity fed lubricators lube oil flow from the bearing lube oil system B Which of the listed valve types is typically used as inlet and discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors? Poppet Rotary Reed Sliding C According to Regulations , a welded repair to be made to a ships service air receiver, other than an emergency repair at sea, must be ____________.

C. allow the motor to turn the compresser opposed only by friction D. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting Ans: C Regulations specifically prohibit seats or disks in pressure vessel 2704 relief valves to be made of ________________. A. cast iron B. bronze C. brass D. stainless steel Ans: A If the electric motor driving an air compressor fails to start, the 2706 cause may be a _____________. A. leaking unloader B. tripped circuit breaker C. control line leak D. defective pop valve Ans: B Air compressors are equipped with unloading systems for the 2708 purpose of _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2710

removing all but the frictional load during starting relieving intercoolers of high temperature buildups providing high starting torque in the drive motor seating valve plates during compressor shutdown A Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused by _______________. leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder insufficient intercooler cooling low ambient air pressure A Broken valve strips in an operating low pressure, air compressor will cause ____________. an immediate crankcase explosion oil contamination in the compressed air a decrease in compressor capacity no immediate loss of the compressed air capacity C The function of the springs used with channel or plate-type valves for reciprocating air compressors is to ____________. open the valves during downward strokes provide positive closing of the valves reduce compressor discharge pulsations reduce air intake and exhaust pulsations B The major difference between the discharge and suction valves installed in most low pressure, reciprocating air compressors is that ___________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2711

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2712

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2713

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2714

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2715

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2716

A. inspected and tested by the chief engineer before it may be returned to service B. completed and then tested at least twice prior to notifying the Administration to ask for a surveyor C. made with a backing strip to ensure full penetration D. made only with the prior approval of the Administration Ans: D One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to _____________. A. dry the air discharged from the intercooler B. minimize the system's line pulsations

A. one valve seats upwards, while the other seats downwards B. the reed valves used on the discharge are made substantially thicker and heavier than the suction valves C. the suction valve springs exert a greater tension than the discharge valve springs D. the discharge valve springs exert a greater tension than the suction valve springs Ans: A Cylinder inlet valve failure in a low pressure air compressor can be 2718 caused by _______________. A. carbon buildup on the pistons from excessive lubrication B. compressor overspeeding due to mechanical failure in the unloader C. valve pounding due to valve covers being excessively tight D. sticking valves due to carbon buildup on the seats Ans: D An air compressor can be unloaded at start-up by __________. 2720 A. holding the discharge valve open B. relieving the intercooler pressure to the atmosphere

2717

C. receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories D. remove all traces of oil from the air Ans: B An unloader is installed on an air compressor to __________. 2719 A. bypass the high pressure stage to the low pressure stage on 100% of the air compressors in service B. prevent excessive interstage pressure buildup

Page 152

C. control compressor discharge pressure D. remove all but the frictional load during starting Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning the overall 2721 efficiency of air compressors? A. High pressure compressors are more efficient than low pressure compressors. B. Mechanical efficiency divided by compressor efficiency will equal the overall efficiency of the compressor unit. C. Two stage compressors are generally more efficient than single stage compressors. D. The volumetric efficiency is decreased in multistage compressors. Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning V-belt drives for reciprocating air compressors? A. Belts generally stretch slightly during the first few months of use. B. C. D. Ans: 2725 An excessively tight belt will overload the bearings. A loose belt will slip on the motor pulley and wear rapidly. All of the above. D Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and aftercoolers of an air compressor because _____________. A. the cooling effect of the condensate reduces the compressor's efficiency B. a danger of explosion exists whenever water is present in a compressor

C. using an enlarged, permanently opened clearance expansion space D. a precharged accumulator Ans: B Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air compressors, 2722 serve to provide _____________. A. a means of distributing side pressures over a wider area of each cylinder B. a means of unloading during start-up C. more than one stage of compression by each piston D. a variable compression ratio enabling the output to be varied to suit any load condition Ans: C The function of an unloader on a two-cylinder, two-stage medium 2724 pressure, air compressor is to _____________. A. remove all but the friction load on the compressor motor when starting B. prevent water accumulation in air lines C. reduce motor starting voltage D. vary compressor speed Ans: A The clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as 2726 the space created between the _____________. A. top of the piston and bottom side of head, with the piston at BDC B. piston and head, including the space around the piston to the top of the upper ring and under the valves, with the piston at TDC C. bottom of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC, regardless of upper ring location and valve placement D. top of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC as compared to that which exists between the top of the piston and bottom side of head at BDC 2728 Ans: B One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be attributed to _________________.

2723

C. water causes erratic operation of pneumatic components D. the volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains

2727

Ans: C According to Regulations, if a pressure vessel, such as a ships service air tank, has defects which may impair its safety, the tank shall be ____________.

A. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to the design pressure of A. running with an air filter element different from that required by the the tank original manufacturer's specifications B. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the B. excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive maximum allowable working pressure of the tank maintenance C. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to the working pressure of C. the compressor running too fast the tank D. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the design D. excessive discharge pressure pressure of the tank Ans: B Ans: B Regulations require safety and relief valves for air service to be Compared to poppet and other mechanically operated valves, 2729 2730 provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disk which of the following advantages is gained by using a thin plate from its seat when the pressure in the vessel is (feather) low lift type valve in an low pressure air compressor? ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2731 50% of that at which the valve is set to blow 75% of that at which the valve is set to blow 110% of that at which the valve is set to blow 125% of that at which the valve is set to blow B Which of the following statements is correct when comparing the cylinder diameters of a two-stage reciprocating air compressor? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2732 They improve compression efficiency. They operate with a minimum of noise. They are simple and easy to replace. All of the above. D If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading system will ____________.

A. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure A. fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the cylinder. compressor will be overloaded B. The high pressure cylinder will be smaller than the low pressure B. fail to work, but the compressor having no load will start with little or cylinder. no difficulty C. The high and low pressure cylinders will be of equal size. C. still functional normally at start-up D. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure D. Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive cylinder but the piston stroke will be greater. motor Ans: B Ans: B PROPELLER, SHAFTING AND STERN TUBE BEARING Which combination of the main shaft segments listed below, that Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the split 2733 2734 are located furthest from the main engine, are connected by the inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the inboard stern tube shaft coupling? propeller shaft? A. Line shaft and thrust shaft B. Line shaft and stern-tube shaft A. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box. B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship is waterborne.

Page 153

C. Thrust shaft and stern-tube shaft D. Stern-tube shaft and tail shaft Ans: B The exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is protected 2735 against seawater corrosion by ________________. A. a heavy lubricant B. a covering of plastic, rubber, or shrunk-on composition sleeve C. a corrosion-resistant paint D. a layer of oxidation formed when the metal of the shaft is exposed to seawater Ans: B One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for 2737 drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce stress concentrations in accordance with Class standards. Which construction method meets this design criteria? A. Spooned keyway and slotted key B. Stress relief grooves at the aft end of the propeller and forward end of the liner C. Keyway cut as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the keyway to the shaft surface D. All of the above Ans: A An excessive amount of water is prevented from entering a vessel 2739 using a water lubricated stern tube bearing by the use of the ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2741 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2743 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2745 A. propeller hub lignum vitae shaft packing labyrinth seal C If water were a semisolid, the linear distance a propeller would advance in one revolution is the _____________. blade thickness fraction mean width ratio pitch skew back factor C The lignum vitae in a stern tube bearing is normally lubricated with _____________. grease oil water tallow C Which of the statements listed accurately applies to controllable pitch propeller systems? A pitch indicator is to be fitted on the navigation bridge for vessels 400 gross tons and above.

C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating. D. To provide a ready means for the entry of cooling water. Ans: B Water leaking through the stern tube stuffing box is used to 2736 accomplish which of the following actions? A. Cooling B. Lubrication C. Flushing D. All of the above Ans: D Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricated stern tube. When at sea, operating under normal conditions, the water service valve from the ship's saltwater system to the bearing should be ______________. A. closed, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing B. closed, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing C. open, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing D. open, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing Ans: B The device used to retain the packing, that keeps water from 2740 entering the ship through the opening where the propeller shaft passes through the hull, is called a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2742 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2744 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2746 A. packing nut hawsepipe stuffing box seal cage C Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of _________________. operating at low speed high water pressure under the hull cavitation operating in deep river channels C Unusual hull, or propeller shaft vibrations can be caused by _____________. excessive engine speed in shallow water slop in a hydraulic clutch slight overheating of the line shaft spring bearings high engine speed in deep water A Which of the following statements is correct concerning requirements for propellers? A propeller may not be changed with one of a different pitch unless stress evaluations are supplied and permission is granted by a Marine Surveyor.

2738

B. Independent remote control of pitch is to be provided at or near the oil distribution box. Tests of its operation are to be performed in the presence of the Surveyor. C. After installation in the vessel, the complete piping system is to be subjected to a hydrostatic test equal to 1.25 times the design pressure. D. The arrangement of piping is to be such that a single failure in one part of the piping or pump unit will not impair the integrity of the remaining parts of the system. 2747 Ans: D Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch propeller _____________. A. more efficiently uses available engine power B. operates at a lower efficiency at a fixed speed 2748

B. When steel propellers are used, zinc anodes are to be fitted on the aftermost strut bearing housing and on the forward most section of the rudder assembly. C. The exposed steel of the shaft is to be protected from the action of the water by filling all spaces between the cap, hub and shaft with a suitable material. D. Ultrasonic examinations of the propeller may be performed in lieu of required drydocking periods, provided certified copies are distributed to the proper regulatory bodies. Ans: C Which of the components listed is used to connect several sections of line shafting? A. Inboard stern tube couplings B. Bolts fitted through flange type couplings forged integral with the shaft sections. C. Muff type outboard couplings D. All of the above types Ans: B When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating 2750 frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is known as the _____________. A. synchronous speed B. sympathetic speed

C. produces the same torque at lower engine power D. develops its rated power at a lower speed Ans: A The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, 2749 known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits? A. Reduces turbidness B. Helps with lubrication

Page 154

C. Protects the nut D. All of the above Ans: C Keyless propeller hubs secured to tailshafts by "pilgrim nuts", are 2751 removed by _____________. A. spring-loaded jacks B. hydraulic pressure C. heating with a torch D. hydraulic lever arms Ans: B In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the stern tube 2753 stuffing box, _____________. A. the gland is properly adjusted to permit a slight leakage of sea water B. stave-type rubber seals are used C. cooling water is supplied from the fresh water cooling system D. the gland nuts must be tightly taken up to prevent any water leakage Ans: A Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft, whichnon-destructive test 2755 could be used to locate cracks? I. liquid penetrant dye II. magnetic flux A. B. C. D. Ans: 2757 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2759 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2761 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C A piece is missing from one blade of a four-bladed propeller and could result in ____________. accelerated stern bearing wear excessive shaft vibrations unusual noises all of the above D When the tailshaft is drawn from a vessel in drydock, which of the following inspections is required to be carried out? The propeller hub taper and shaft keyway should be inspected for cracks or corrosion. The stern bearing alignment with the stern frame should be checked. The interior of the stern tube should be inspected for leaks. The shaft liner should be removed and inspected for cracks. A When a vessel is underway, a small amount of water is allowed to leak through the water lubricated stern tube stuffing box in order to ___________________.

C. critical speed D. breakaway speed Ans: C When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, the propeller is 2752 called a _____________. A. built up propeller B. solid propeller C. controllable pitch propeller D. suction back propeller Ans: B Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller shafting can 2754 be an indication of _____________. A. clutch slippage B. overheated bearings C. high engine speeds D. propeller unbalance Ans: D By which of the following means is force efficiently provided to vary the pitch of the blades on a modern controllable pitch propeller? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2758 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2760 A. Hydraulic Mechanical Pneumatic Electrical A Inspection of a vessel's propeller during drydocking should include ____________. noting the condition of the fairwater inspecting the locking device logging inspection results in the official deck log all of the above B In a water cooled stern tube, a slight leakage of water across the packing gland is provided to ____________. flush all dirt and grit from the gland

2756

B. flush all dirt and grit from the bearing staves C. keep the gland packing cool D. keep the stern tube fair water cool Ans: C The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, 2762 known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits? A. Reduce turbulence B. C. D. Ans: 2764 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2766 Help with lubrication Protect against electrolytic corrosion All of the above A Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship's hull via the propulsion shaft? Stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal Deflector ring and drain Spring bearings Oiler rings A Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used to detect a suspected subsurface defect in a tailshaft liner? Dye penetrant Magnetic particle Ultrasonic All of the above C It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a controllable pitch propeller. According to regulation what should be done?

A. flush out silt and mud which can accumulate from shallow water B. C. D. Ans: 2763 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2765 prevent overheating of the packing ensure positive coolant flow through the strut bearings prevent seizing of the rubber strips in the bearing bushing B Propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller pitch speed is termed ______________________. apparent slip true slip pitch propulsive efficiency A Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A right hand propeller turns clockwise when viewed from _______________. the bow the stern the port side the starboard side B Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation?

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2767

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2768

A. It receives its oil supply from a branch line of the main lube oil system. B. No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitted bearing surface.

A. The vessel must be drydocked and the propeller removed when performing this test. B. The system pressure should be prevented from exceeding the maximum allowable operating pressure set forth by the manufacturer.

Page 155

C. The system pressure must be lowered when maneuvering in port to prevent blowing the outer oil seal. D. For precise regulation of the bearing temperature, the system is required to have its own oil cooler. Ans: B Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated 2769 stern tube stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is expected to be in port for an extended period? A. The stuffing box is continually flushed. B. The drain connection is left opened. C. D. Ans: 2771 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2773

C. The system should be tested at a pressure of 1 1/2 times the maximum allowable pressure. D. All necessary repairs must approved by the Chief Engineer of the vessel. Ans: C After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box,which of the 2770 following procedures should be observed toinsure even tightening of the gland?

A. Listen for a smooth, regular sound. B. Measure the distance between the gland and the stuffing box with a rule. The stuffing box gland is tightened. C. Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heat as it is being tightened up. The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced. D. Open the drain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make the distance even. C Ans: B A bronzed sleeve is secured to the propeller tailshaft by Which of the following statements represents an operating 2772 _______________. characteristic of neoprene or rubber stern tube bearings? keying A. No stern tube packing is required. shrinking B. The bearing is lubricated by seawater. threading C. Propeller shaft vibration will not damage these bearings. pressing D. Neoprene bearings are less abrasion resistant than bronze bearings. B Ans: B When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating Which of the following statements describes the advantage of the 2774 frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is mechanical shaft sealing system over the stuffing box and packing known as the _____________. method of shaft sealing for propulsion shafting? A. It eliminates the repairing or renewing of the shaft sleeve. B. It is fully automatic in operation. C. It allows for the removal and reinstallation of all parts without dismantling the shafts. D. Each of the above is correct. Ans: D The stern tube flushing connection can be used to _________, 2776 A. assist in flushing out all packing strips when renewing packing underway B. provide a positive flow of water through the stern tube for lubricating, cooling, and flushing when required C. flush out brackish water resulting from extended in port operation D. serve as the only source of supply of water for the stern tube bearing Ans: B One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for 2778 drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce stress concentrations. Which of the following factors, in part, would be considered to meet this design criteria? A. Sprocketed keyway and slotted key. B. Stress relief grooves at the forward end of the propeller and aft end of the liner. C. Keyway is to be cut so as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the keyway to the shaft surface. D. All of the above. Ans: B The tailshaft is usually supported by the ____________. 2780 A. spring bearings B. tail bearings C. stern tube bearings D. propeller bearings Ans: C On a vessel using a water lubricated tailshaft bearing, a single 2782 tailshaft without a special keyway, and not constructed of materials resistant to corrosion by seawater, the tailshaft must be drawn and examined twice within any ____________.

A. brekaway speed B. critical speed C. synchronous speed D. sympathetic speed Ans: B Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber 2775 composition materials are lubricated with _____________. A. saltwater B. graphite C. light lubricating oil D. heavy lubricating oil Ans: A A vessel has been equipped with an oil lubricated stern bearing and is undergoing a routine drydocking. Which of the following inspections should be made when the tailshaft has been drawn?

2777

A. The overall condition of the bearing surface should be examined. B. The shaft liner should be inspected for cracks and tested to insure a tight fit. C. The stern tube should be tested for cracks with dye penetrant. D. All of the above. Ans: A The purpose of the propeller fairwater cone is to ________. 2779 A. lock the propeller nut in position B. minimize water turbulence C. eliminate axial thrust D. eliminate cavitation Ans: B Regulations require a single tailshaft with water lubricated tailshaft 2781 bearings, stress-relieved keyway, and fabricated from materials resistant to corrosion by sea water, to be drawn and examined once in every ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2 years 3 years 5 years 8 years C

A. 4 year period B. 5 year period C. 6 year period D. 8 year period Ans: B METALLURGY AND NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING

Page 156

2783 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2785 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2787

The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal _______________. softer smoother harder tougher A To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket ______________. and quench it in oil cherry red and quench in water and let it cool slowly in the air and carbonize it C Which of the following propeller materials will not require stress relief treatment after minor repairs, straightening of the tips or the thinning of the blade edges? Manganese bronze Nickel manganese bronze Manganese nickel aluminum bronze Nickel aluminum bronze D The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sulfide is greatest for ____________. low strength steel high strength steel rubber sealing elements aluminum B When using the circular magnetic particle method to nondestructively test a weldment, the best results are obtained when the ____________. current is flowing at right angles to the discontinuity magnetic field is parallel to the discontinuity magnetic field is at right angles to the discontinuity defect is located outside the parallel flux path of the prods C In radiographic inspections, the standard test piece included in every radiograph provides an effective check on the overall quality and bears a numerical relation to the thickness of the part being tested. This piece is called a/an ____________. penetrometer intensimeter lead filter gauge exposure screen A The internal force of a material, which tends to resist deformation when subjected to external forces, is known as ___________________. stress strain shear strength ultimate tensile strength A Copper sheet metal that is to be used as a gasket, is usually annealed by heating it to a cherry red color, and then _____________.

2784 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2786 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2788

The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its ___________. ductibility elasticity malleability fusibility C Copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines because it ______________. has good resistance to high temperatures has high resistance to corrosion withstands heavy vibration under heavy system loads resists hardening under stress B In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to _____________. reduce internal stresses increase the temperature gradient in the weld area allow the use of smaller welding rods eliminate the need for post heating A Which of the listed effects represents the purpose of heat treating steel? Develop ductility Improve machining qualities Relieve stresses All of the above D Which of the listed methods used for testing a metal, measures the ability of a metal to absorb the energy of a load rapidly applied to the member? Brinell only Charpy only Charpy and Brinell Rockwell and Brinell B Which of the nondestructive testing methods can be easily used yet with good accuracy to detect, locate, identify, and measure defects in welds and base metals; regardless of material type and structure? Radiography Ultrasonics Visible dye penetrant Magnetic particle B Which nondestructive testing method is suitable for use in detecting and identifying a diameter subsurface void in a six inch diameter stainless steel shaft? Magnetic particle Radiography Ultrasonic Dye penetrant B Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2789 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2791

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2790 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2792

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2793

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2794

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2795

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2796

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2797

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2798

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2799 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2801 A. B. C. D.

dousing it in cold water A. low temperature hardening cooling it slowly in air B. case hardening quenching it slowly in oil C. annealing drawing its temper quickly D. tempering B Ans: D When metal is tempered, it becomes _____________. Ferrous metals are metals containing ___________. 2800 harder A. no iron softer B. a large percentage of copper less brittle C. a large percentage of iron more brittle D. a large percentage of aluminum C Ans: C STEAM, HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS The energy associated with molecules is known as __________. A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon 2802 loop to prevent damage from ____________. kinetic energy A. extreme thermal stress potential energy B. the admission of condensate mechanical energy C. pressure shock thermal energy D. differential expansion rates

Page 157

2803

Ans: D Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices of shipboard steam heating systems? A. Provide constant steam service for equipment operating throughout the year. B. Provide either a common or individual reducing station for each group of units requiring the same operating pressure. C. Run all piping so it may be drained by gravity.

2804

Ans: A If the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line were to be removed, the steam pressure reducing valvelocated upstream would _____________.

D. All of the above. Ans: D Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the 2805 live steam supply line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2807 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2809 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2811 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2813 desuperheated steam superheated steam saturated steam poor quality steam B Which of the following statements concerning the operation of steam pressure reducing valves is correct? Reducing station relief valves must be lifted by hand at least once a watch. The cut out valve at the outlet of the reducing valve should be throttled when in operation. Reducing valves should be warmed-up and drained before they are adjusted. Reducing valves are absolutely reliable and require no routine maintenance. C Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as _________. horsepower work heat velocity B The rate of heat transfer from a hot region to a cold region is affected most by the ____________. size of the heat sink temperature difference between the regions size of the heat source total heat of the system B The difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________. internal pressure gauge pressure absolute pressure external pressure C Steam supply piping to deck machinery is insulated in order to _____________. maintain good turbulent free steam flow through the pipe prevent superheating of the steam reduce heat loss from the system contain small steam leaks C The definition of superheat refers to the amount of heatnecessary to raise the temperature of a fluid and appliesto _________. I. vapors II. liquids I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A The action of water being circulated within a natural circulation boiler, is an example of what form of heat transfer? Radiation Conduction Forced convection Natural convection

A. be unable to maintain steam flow unless the proper range spring were to be installed B. be suitable for maintaining the required steam flow under all load conditions C. handle the operation satisfactorily as the control orifice develops an impedance to the steam flow D. all of the above Ans: A A vapor under pressure stays in contact with, and at the same 2806 temperature as the liquid from which it was generated. The vapor and liquid in this situation are, therefore, said to be in a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2808 equilibrium contact latent contact critical state superheated state A The basic function of a steam trap is to ____________.

A. regulate the flow of steam leaving a heater B. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent heat of condensation C. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent heat of fusion D. eliminate steam-pipe water hammer Ans: B Which of the following forms of energy is usually associated with relatively large bodies or objects? A. Chemical energy B. Mechanical energy C. Thermal energy D. Electrical energy Ans: B The steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating pump 2812 is usually obtained from the _____________. A. desuperheated steam line via a reducing station B. auxiliary exhaust line C. main steam line via a reducing station D. contaminated steam generator Ans: A Medium temperature hot water systems have been used in place of 2814 small auxiliary boilers producing 7bar steam with ____________. 2810 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2816 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2818 138oC water systems 149oC water systems 160oC water systems 171oC water systems C By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to another? Radiation Convection Conduction All of the above D Some auxiliaries are not designed to handle auxiliary steam at boiler pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct pressure? An orifice A steam pressure reducing valve A nozzle valve A constant quantity regulating valve B The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in temperature, is best compensated for by the use of _____________. union joints expansion joints flexitallic gaskets rigid brackets

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2815 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2817

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2819

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2820

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

Page 158

2821

Ans: D The sum of the sensible heat and the latent heat of any substance is known as ____________. A. total heat B. residual heat C. specific heat D. superheat Ans: A A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type steam trap would be in the ____________. A. horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the heat exchanger B. steam supply line to a feedwater heater C. drain line from a high point in the main steam line expansion loop

2822

Ans: B A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled? A. Compressed, condensed, and return to the cargo tanks. B. Vented to the atmosphere. C. Burned in the boilers. D. Mixed with nitrogen and recirculated through the primary barrier. Ans: C The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the ______________. A. action of a float within a chamber

2823

2824

D. vacuum drag line from the atmospheric drain tank to the main condenser Ans: A Heat which brings about a change in the physical state of a 2825 substance without a change in temperature, is called _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2827 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2829 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2831 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2833 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2835 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2837 specific heat sensible heat latent heat ambient heat C How many BTUs must be added to one pound of water at 32Fto raise the temperature to 212F? 16 BTU's 144 BTU's 180 BTU's 970 BTU's C Heat may be transferred by _____________. conduction convection radiation all of the above D Insulation on deck steam piping must be installed securely as _____________. loose insulation contributes to steam leaks deck steam lines are subject to vibration steam driven machinery cannot run with loose insulation loose insulation prevents normal pipe expansion B Which of the following forms of energy concerns the forces which bind atoms together in a molecule? Thermal energy Mechanical energy Chemical energy Electrical energy C Which unit of measurement is used to measure mechanical potential energy? British thermal units Horsepower Kg-mtr Calories C Steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet point of the heat exchanger in a horizontal run of pipe. Which of the following installation considerations should also be maintained?

B. difference in movement of two dissimilar bimetallic strips not fastened together C. fact that hot water under pressure tends to flash into steam when its vapor pressure is rapidly reduced D. change in the amount of vapor produced within an enclosed chamber Ans: D The heat required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas 2826 without experiencing a temperature change, is defined as the latent heat of _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2828 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2830 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2832 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2834 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2836 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2838 fusion vaporization sublimation condensation B Thermostatic steam pressure reducing valves are used in the fuel oil service system to control the ______________. double bottom fuel oil tank temperature heater supply steam flow pressure of the fuel supplied to the burners attemperator steam flow in the heater discharge circuit B Power is defined as the ____________. rate of doing work amount of force needed to overcome friction amount of work accomplished distance through which an object is moved A Which of the following statements represents the definition of energy? Energy is work that has been accomplished. Energy is the capacity for producing an effect. Energy is work being done. Energy is power. B Which of the following terms could be applied to the simple definition "the energy of motion"? Electrical energy Thermal energy Potential energy Kinetic energy D Thermal energy in transition is also referred to as _______________. heat power horsepower foot-pound A Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?

A. They should be installed with their main axis horizontal. B. They should be installed unpainted and wrapped in an insulation blanket. C. A bypass around the trap is unnecessary if the steam input pressure never exceeds 0.7kg/cm2 D. They should remain uninsulated and unpainted. Ans: D A Bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects of the 2839 steam entering the pressure element by a/an _______. A. exposed, uninsulated coil in the line leading to the gage

A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Natural convection D. All of the above Ans: A Which of the following statements concerning energy is correct? 2840 A. Energy can be created or destroyed.

Page 159

B. impulse-type steam trap in the gage line C. leather or neoprene diaphragm in the gage line D. spring loaded bellows in the gage line Ans: A The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 2841 100C. If the pressure on the open container is decreased, the boiling point will _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2843 increase decrease increase and then decrease decrease and then increase B Which of the following best describes the thermodynamic effect on the pressure and volume relationship with regards to saturated gases? As pressure decreases, volume increases As volume increases, pressure increases As volume decreases, pressure decreases As pressure increases, volume increases A How can you determine the date that the pressure vessels on your ship will require a hydrostatic test or internal inspection?

B. Energy may not be transformed. C. The total quantity of energy in the universe is always the same. D. None of the above. Ans: C The difference between the pressure at a point being measured 2842 and that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2844 internal pressure gauge pressure absolute pressure external pressure C Pigtails, or siphons, are used to protect Bourdon tube-type gages from the direct exposure to steam by ________________. changing the direction of the steam flow rapidly reducing the steam velocity creating a condensate seal bleeding off a portion of the steam C A turbine exhaust pressure of 1.013 bar abs. is equal to _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2845

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2846

A. Check the boiler equipment list. B. Check the pressure vessel block on the Certificate of Inspection. C. Check the class certificates. D. Check the pressure vessel addenda to the vessel's SOLAS certificate. Ans: B A leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a heating 2847 system is indicated by excessive _____________. A. drain tank steaming B. scale returning from the convectors C. steam pressure in the convectors D. water in the heating system Ans: A A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam 2849 reciprocating general service pump could be caused by ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2851 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2853 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2855 A. B. C. D. lower than normal supply steam temperature lower than normal supply steam pressure improper adjustment of steam cushion valves loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber C Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a substance in order to change it from a _____________. solid to liquid liquid to vapor solid to vapor all of the above D A major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return piping from a heating system is/are ____________. the requirement for a gravity return the requirement for short laterals run the requirement to minimize conflict with headroom and other services all of the above A Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by ____________. filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water steam admitted to a cold pipe filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve

A. 00.000 bar g. B. 00.5 bar g C. 01.470 bar g D. 2 bar g Ans: A Admitting steam to an improperly drained heating system could result in _____________. A. cutting valve seating surfaces B. high velocity slugs of water in motion in the system C. damage due to water hammer D. all of the above Ans: D A Bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon 2850 loop to prevent damage from the direct effects of ____________. 2848 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2852 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2854 A. B. C. pressure shock uneven expansion entering condensate entering steam D Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve? Moving tappets Adjusting of the tappet collars Stay rods Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder D The heat identified by only a change in temperature is known as ____________. sensible heat latent heat total heat

D. residual heat Ans: A The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the 2856 ____________. A. thermal expansion of a fluid B. position of a float C. tendency of hot water to flash into steam D. flow characteristics of a liquid as it passes through an orifice Ans: A Which of the statements listed concerning heat transfer is correct?

2857

Ans: B Which of the listed types steam traps operates on the principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor pressure is rapidly reduced? A. Ball float B. Thermostatic

2858

A. Heat is always transferred at a constant rate. B. Heat transfer rate increases as temperature difference increases.

Page 160

C. Bimetallic D. Impulse Ans: D Which of the following conditions must be carried outbefore the 2859 superheating of saturated vapor can occur? A. The evaporation rate must be increased. B. The flow of liquid to the unfired pressure vessel must be increased. C. The vapor must be removed from contact with the liquid from which it was generated. D. The operating pressure must be raised. Ans: C The latent heat of water vapor in air is dependent upon the 2861 _____________. A. dry bulb temperature B. wet bulb temperature C. dew point D. dry point Ans: C Which of the listed statements describes specific heat?

C. The rate of heat transfer is not affected by temperature difference. D. The high temperature region is known as a heat sink. Ans: B What is the cooling water source for most recovery unit condensing 2860 coils aboard ship? A. condenser water vapor at the outlet B. potable water supply C. chiller water taken at inlet D. distilled water Ans: D According to regulations, a boiler combustion control system may 2862 be tested at __________. A. a pressure not less than 1.25 times the maximum allowable working pressure B. a pressure not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure C. the maximum allowable working pressure of the system D. the normal operating pressure of the system provided full loading is accomplished Ans: C If the steam flow entering the evaporator steam supply orifice has a 2864 quality of 95%, which of the following statements would be true? A. The steam at the outlet would obtain a higher degree of desuperheat. B. The steam at the outlet would be at a higher superheat than when it is supplied at 100% quality. C. The steam would obtain a lower absolute pressure than when it is supplied at a quality of 100%. D. The entrained moisture will become a totally saturated vapor prior to any superheat being acquired by the steam. Ans: D If "wet" steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low pressure 2866 evaporator, the passage of the mixture through the nozzles will ______________. A. improve overall vacuum B. cause the potential level of kinetic energy to be partially converted to thermal energy C. cause the existing level of thermal energy to be totally converted to kinetic energy D. cause the level of thermal energy to be converted to potential energy Ans: B When replacing a steam pressure reducing valve, what information is required for the selection? A. Maximum and minimum inlet pressures B. Reduced pressure or pressure range C. Maximum and minimum continuous flow rates (kgs./hr.) D. All of the above Ans: D What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 kgs at a height of 10 mtrs? A. 10 kg-mtr B. 20 kg-mtr C. 100 kg-mtr D. 1000 kg-mtr Ans: C Before starting a reciprocating, steam-driven pump that has been idle for a period of time, you should _____________. A. open the steam line root valve B. drain the steam cylinder C. close the steam cylinder drains D. open the liquid cylinder drains Ans: B Which of the listed temperatures represents the saturation temperature for water at a saturation pressure of 1bar abs. (101.34 kPa) A. B. C. D. Ans: 92C 100C 168C 220C B

2863

A. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one pound of a material, one degree C. B. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one pound of ice, one degree C. C. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one pound of butter, one degree C. D. All of the above. Ans: D Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam heating systems? A. Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves. B. Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return. C. Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return. D. Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping. Ans: B Which of the listed forms of heat transfer, if any, is illustrated by the flow of combustion gases through a boiler? A. Natural convection only B. Forced convection only C. Both natural convection and forced convection D. None Ans: C Which of the following forms of energy is demonstrated through the 2869 process of combustion? A. Chemical energy B. Mechanical energy C. Thermal energy D. Electrical energy Ans: A The basic function of a steam trap includes which of the following 2871 processes? A. Regulate the flow of condensate from a heater. B. Regulate the flow of steam from a heater. C. Regulate the flow of steam to a heater. D. Regulate the flow of condensate to a heater. Ans: A Which of the listed methods of heat transfer takes place when two 2873 substances of different temperatures are in physical contact with each other? 2867 A. B. C. D. Ans: Radiation Conduction Convection Each of the above B

2865

2868

2870

2872

2874

Page 161

2875 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2877 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2879

Which of the following terms is used to indicate that the flow of heat will result in a temperature change? Latent heat Sensible heat Convection Radiation B Which of the following terms would best describe the temperature at which a liquid boils at a given pressure? Degree of saturation Saturation temperature Superheated temperature Degree of superheat B A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container in which water has been heated to a temperature of 100C. If additional thermal energy is imparted, what changes will occur to the pressure and temperature inside the container?

2876 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2878 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2880

The equation "energy in = energy out" is a simple way of stating the principle of the ___________. conservation of energy conservation of matter conversion of matter to energy conversion of energy to matter A If the air temperature in a manifold were found to be 122F, what will be the equivalent reading on the centigrade scale? 35C 40C 45C 50C D If you determine that a steam reciprocating pump is operating with too long of stroke, causing the piston nut to strike the cylinder head, you should _____________.

A. both pressure and temperature will rise B. pressure alone will rise C. temperature alone will rise D. only a change of state will occur Ans: A Steam tables can be used to obtain the _______________. 2881 A. values for properties of water and vapor at various conditions B. C. D. Ans: 2883 specific fuel consumption under steady steaming conditions steam generating capacity of a vessel's boilers mechanical efficiency of the main unit A Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative velocities of two or more objects is termed_______________. potential energy pressure energy kinetic energy relative energy C BILGE SYSTEM The aft, starboard bilge-well can not be pumped out, and back 2886 flushing has not been successful. The next practical solution will be to carry out which of the following actions? A. List the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voyage. B. Place 75 Ltrs of fuel oil tank-wash into the affected bilge well for one hour to dissolve the stoppage. C. Take all necessary steps to properly and safely pump out the affected bilge well, then manually "muck" it out. D. Change over and use one of the two remaining bilge pumps to dewater the starboard bilge well. Ans: C Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST if one bilge 2887 well of a multiple suction bilge system is unable to be pumped out? A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. B. Remove each of the suction manifold valves. C. Remove only the suction manifold valve to the affected bilge well. D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected. Ans: D An independent bilge suction is required for ________. 2889 A. ballast tanks B. sludge tanks C. machinery space bilges D. cargo hold bilges Ans: C Which of the following statements indicates compliance with Regulations concerning a vessel's bilge system?

A. completely open the steam cushioning valves B. install a smaller nut on the piston rod C. adjust the valve gear to manufacturer's specified measurements D. install a shorter piston rod Ans: C The sensible heat of air is dependent upon the ____________. 2882 A. dry bulb temperature B. C. D. Ans: 2884 wet bulb temperature saturation temperature water vapor superheat A The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of a substance 1F is called ________. its specific heat its latent heat a British thermal unit its adiabatic heat A During routine maintenance the bilge manifold valves are removed. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve ________. A. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary B. bonnet, flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn C. stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened, the glands have bottomed out, or the glands cannot be tightened D. all of the above Ans: D Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges by the bilge main is prevented by ____________. A. stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds B. using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump C. installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes D. installing a swing check before each bilge valve Ans: A The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used _____________. A. to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2885

A. B. C. D. Ans:

2888

2890

2891

B. when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation C. to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction D. if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any other means Ans: D What can happen to oil based mud when contaminated with salt 2892 water?

Page 162

A. All bilge manifold suctions shall be capable of being locally controlled from above the floor plates. B. The system must be capable of operation under all practicable conditions after a casualty, whether the vessel is upright or listed. C. Peak tanks, chain lockers, and decks over peak tanks may be drained by eductors, ejectors, or hand pumps. D. All of the above. Ans: D Regulations for bilge and ballast piping require that ________.

A. Nothing, as salt water is an ingredient of oil based mud. B. Small amounts can cause thickening of the oil based fluid as well as a reduction in density. C. Small amounts react with gel particles in the mud causing them to flocculate. D. The water will collect at the bottom of the tank and can not be stripped overboard. Ans: B Regulations require the emergency bilge system to ________. 2894 A. be independent of the main bilge system B. be a part of the independent bilge system C. have an independent priming pump D. have a cross connection to the ballast system Ans: A A compound gage is typically installed on the _____________. 2896 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2898 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2900 suction side of a bilge pump exhaust manifold of an auxiliary diesel discharge line from an air compressor chemical feed tank of an evaporator A If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the ________. bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells all of the above B When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the engine room bilges, you would ________. I. use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain a prime II. partially open the sea suction valve, then gradually switch over to the require

2893

A. all oil and water tanks be connected to the bilge system B. the bilge pumping system be operable under all practicable conditions C. peak tanks and chain lockers have separate electric pumps D. all of the above Ans: B Referring to Regulations , the emergency bilge system ________. 2895 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2897 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2899 has no independent primary pump is independent of the main bilge system has a cross connection to the ballast system is part of the independent bilge system B If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating, the ________. bilge-well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge-well being pumped will be completely emptied bilge system will lose vacuum, preventing other bilges from being pumped out aftermost bilge-wells connected to that valve will siphon their contents to the forward bilge-wells all of the above B The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge-well due to the bilge-well suction being fouled. With two feet of water over the top of the bilge-well, which of the following actions should be carried out?

A. Send the wiper into the bilge-well with a scoop and pail. B. Remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line. C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps. D. Transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well and pump out the bilge well with the system. Ans: B Bilge lines led through tanks, without using a pipe tunnel must be 2901 ___________. A. of schedule 40 pipe B. fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds C. coated with coal tar epoxy, or similar corrosion resistant substance

A. I only B. II only C. Either I or II D. Neither I nor II Ans: C Which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge slops for overboard discharge? A. A 100 PPM oily water separator. B. Assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and aligning it to the bilge overboard. C. A 15 PPM oily water separator.

2902

D. fitted with nonreturn valves at the bilge suctions D. A magnetic duplex strainer. Ans: D Ans: C The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well 2903 2904 starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to be pumped out. that is fouled, with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause? what action should be carried out? A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. B. Remove each of the manifold valves. C. Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge-well. D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected. Ans: D The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not 2905 been successful. The next practical solution would be to __________________. A. change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voyage B. place 75.7 Ltrs (20 gallons) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well to clear the blockage C. properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out A. Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail. B. Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line. C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps. D. It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well. Ans: B

Page 163

D. all of the above Ans: C 2906 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2908 A. SANITARY AND SEWAGE SYSTEM The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage 2907 In sewage treatment, the term "maceration" refers to the process of particles is known as ________. ________. detension A. breaking up solid matter into fine particles maceration B. precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank bulking C. chemically adjusting the sewage pH to 7.0 chlorinating D. eliminating bacterium coli from the sewage B Ans: A A P-type trap and drain is used _________. The drains of lavatory sinks are fitted with P-type or S-type traps to 2909 _______. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable A. reduce water velocity and minimize erosion B. create a strong siphon effect C. provide a cushion of water to reduce the effects of water hammer D. provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment Ans: D A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to 2911 ________. A. reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump B. prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction C. provide a higher pressure in the system then the pump can deliver D. increase water flow through the system Ans: A The process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles 2913 is known as _________. A. detention B. comminution C. bulking D. skimming Ans: B Traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent _____. 2915 A. drain noises in the living quarters B. drains clogging at the toilets C. air pockets in the sewer lines D. escape of odors into the living quarters Ans: D

B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the deck C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a bulkhead D. as a condensate drain for superheaters Ans: C A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the 2910 discharge of sewage by ________. A. holding all sewage onboard B. treating sewage in an approved system C. pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container D. all of the above Ans: D The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent 2912 explosions by ________. A. allowing the escape of flammable vapors B. dissipating the heat of a fire C. absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity D. preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank Ans: B An S-type trap and drain is used _____________. 2914 A. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the deck C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a bulkhead D. as a condensate drain for superheaters Ans: B Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent ________. 2916 A. system clogging B. escape of odors C. air pockets D. drain noises Ans: B 2917

HEAT EXCHANGERS Machinery operating features are designed to help conserveenergy. 2918 Which of the following results will not contributeto energy conservation? A. B. C. D. Ans: Reduction of friction. Insulation of hot surfaces. Lubrication of moving parts. Elevation of cooler outlet temperatures. D The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to _____________. eliminate hot air from the condenser maintain steady pressure in a system heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates C When a heat exchanger is used as a cooler, excessive cooling water flow should be avoided to prevent _____________. erosive tube failure waterside deposit buildup tube sheet bowing water hammer damage A A. B. C. D. Ans: 2920 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2922

The temperature differential occurring between the inlet temperature of the fluid to be cooled and the outlet temperature of the cooling medium in a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is greatest in which of the flow designs listed? Cross Parallel Counter Circular C The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil cooler is usually indicated by ___________. clogged lube oil strainers seawater leaking into the lube oil system decreasing lube oil pressure gradually increasing lube oil temperature D Zinc anodes are installed in a marine raw-water cooling system to _____________. inhibit oxidation control electrolysis prevent scaling eliminate corrosion B

2919 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2921

A. B. C. D. Ans:

A. B. C. D. Ans:

Page 164

2923 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2925

In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to prevent ____________. erosive tube failure waterside deposit buildup tube sheet bowing water hammer damage A The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to ____________.

2924 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2926

Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat exchangers to _________________. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals D When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you should _____________.

A. B. C. D.

prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet dissipate heat baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass modify to a mixer type cooler

2927

Ans: A Hot water heating system converters are selected for the heating load required plus about 50% excess capacity to allow for ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: start-up and scaling unusual high demand on the system increase capacity during times of peak demand increase steam and water contact for better efficiency A Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from _____________. high temperature waterside fouling excessive cooling water velocity poor heat transfer C Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system _____________.

reroll the tube seal weld the tube plug the tube all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary repair until permanent repairs may be conducted Ans: C Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat 2928 exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion? A. B. C. D. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2930 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2932 Red brass Manganese bronze Copper beryllium Cupro-nickel D The zinc plates are located in the _____________. saltwater side of the condenser refrigerant side of the condenser evaporator coils suction strainer A In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon ________________. the temperature of the hydraulic fluid the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid the temperature of the cooling water all of the above D The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will ____________.

2929 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2931

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2933

liquid strainer liquid receiver saltwater condenser evaporator C When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use ___________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2934

A. fresh water at or above the ambient temperature B. circulated cold fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit operating pressures C. air and a soap solution to test all joints D. phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat 2935 transfer? A. Heat is given off from a high temperature region known as a heat sink. B. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink involved. C. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference between the heat source and the heat sink. D. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid substance. Ans: C Which of the following conditions must exist for heat to flow from 2937 one object to another? A. The two objects must be in physical contact. B. The two objects must be the same size. C. There must be an existing temperature differential. D. There must be an existing weight differential. Ans: C In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause 2939 of decreased performance is _____________. A. loose tube bundle baffle plates B. failure of the baffle plate C. rupture of the tube bundle D. fouling on the seawater side Ans: D

A. remain constant along the tube's length B. be greatest in a single pass counter flow heat exchanger C. remain constant throughout the heat exchanger D. vary from section to section through out the heat exchanger Ans: D An 8-inch, globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the lube-oil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of the disk. This means that _____________. A. the valve will remain completely open B. the valve will prevent back flow C. the valve will never permit water flow from the lube oil cooler D. the valve will allow the lube oil temperature to be 10F (5.5C) cooler than if the valve were properly installed Ans: C Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may 2938 be provided for by the _______________. A. packing and lantern rings B. floating end tube sheet C. shell foundation bolts D. directional transverse baffles Ans: B Evaporators and condensers are two forms of _____________. 2940 A. B. C. D. Ans: heat exchangers liquid receivers storage receptacles flow inhibitors A

2936

Page 165

2941 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2943 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2945 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2947

When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system In heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower 2942 condenser, you should _____________. than freshwater pressure to _____________. paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion A. eliminate scaling problems on the saltwater side renew the plates at each inspection B. reduce erosion of heat exchanger surfaces replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50% C. ease the load on the saltwater service pump file the plates to change the negative value D. prevent contamination should leaks develop C Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning a radiator type 2944 Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and heat exchanger? abrasion by the use of _________. Raw water is the cooling medium. A. metallic packing on the inlet end Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat. B. fiber bushings in the ferrules The surge tank must be located a minimum of 4 feet above the C. zinc pencils on the waterside highest finned tube. Air flow provided by a fan is used as the cooling medium. D. plastic tube end protectors D Ans: D FUEL OIL PROPERTIES AND PURIFIERS The tendency of a flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated by its Which of the following statements describes the relationship 2946 ____________. between flash point and ignition temperature? ignition temperature A. Both are higher than normal burning temperatures. flash point B. The flash point is always higher. flammable range C. The ignition temperature is always higher. convection index D. They are not necessarily related. B Ans: C The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained In order to maximize the performance of an operatingcentrifuge, 2948 combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of you can adjust the fuel oil _______. I. viscosity II. through put ignition is called ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2950 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C The flash point of a liquid is the _____________. A. temperature at which it burns freely

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2949

explosive range flash point ignition temperature combustion temperature C The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the __________. A. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to momentarily flash into flame when ignited B. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to continue to burn once ignited C. temperature the fuel oil must be heated to for proper atomization D. temperature at which the fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace

B. temperature at which paraffin wax begins to crystallize out of the solution C. lowest temperature at which it vaporizes enough to form an explosive air/vapor mixture D. ability of a fuel to ignite upon injection into a diesel engine cylinder Ans: C The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2954 A. B. C. D. autoignition temperature vaporization temperature flash point fire point D The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it _____________. is an indication of the amount of noncombustible material present in the oil indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system

2951

Ans: A The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes selfsustaining in the presence of a source of ignition, is defined as the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: autoignition point flash point burning temperature fire point D Which of the following statements describes the relationship between viscosity and specific gravity? Liquids with different viscosities will always have the same specific gravity. Liquids with different viscosities will never have the same specific gravity. Viscosity and specific gravity are directly proportional. Viscosity and specific gravity are not related in that one does not define or limit the other. D The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it _____________. indicates the quanity of energy released by burning a unit amount of fuel is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures

2952

2953 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2955 A. B.

2956

Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct concerning the "flash point" of a liquid? A. It is lower than the ignition temperature.

C. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service systems D. is an indication of the amount of noncombustble material present in the oil Ans: D The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor 2957 to momentarily flash into flame when ignited is defined as the ____________. A. burning temperature B. ignition temperature C. fire point

B. It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite. C. It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will continue to burn. D. It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range. Ans: A The tendency of a liquid to vaporize is indicated by its 2958 ____________. A. fire point B. pour point C. flash point

Page 166

D. flash point Ans: D The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor 2959 to burn continuously when ignited is defined as the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2961 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2963

D. boiling point Ans: C The size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a 2960 disk type purifier is dependent upon the _____________.

burning temperature A. rated capacity of that purifier autoignition temperature B. viscosity of the oil being purified flash point C. maximum design speed of that purifier fire point D. specific gravity of the oil being purified D Ans: D The percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature ____________. 2962 determined by _____________. settling in a fuel tank A. at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors testing in a laboratory centrifuge B. at which a liquid will burn steadily burning in a calorimeter C. at which a liquid will explode testing in a closed cup D. that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily B Ans: A In order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge, youcan adjust 2964 The temperature, in degrees Celsius, at which a liquid gives off a the _______. I. number of disks in the stack II. frequency shooting flammable vapor when heated in an open cup tester is called the the bowl _____________. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D The substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the combustion process is _____________. sulphur carbon hydrogen nitrogen D What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel? It causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing rates. It doesn't readily burn when combined with oxygen. It clogs fuel oil strainers more often. It forms a corrosive acid when mixed with water or water vapor. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2966 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2968 A. B. C. D. fire point flash point vaporization temperature ignition temperature B The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its _____________. viscosity pour point volatility lower explosive limit C The volatility of any oil may be indicated by _____________. the flash point the fire point the autogenous ignition point All of the above.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2965 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2967 A. B. C. D.

2969

Ans: D It is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until ______________. A. the voyage is completed B. that particular supply of oil is exhausted C. it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered in the Oil Record Book, CG-480 D. return to the first port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and the findings submitted to the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection Ans: B

Ans: D

2970

MARINE CONTROL SYSTEMS AND INSTRUMENTATION The controller set point of an automatic control system is 65C. The 2971 In a pneumatic automation system, a unit producing a signal to valve closes when the output temperature reaches 70C, and govern the position of the controller of the measured variable, reopens when the temperature falls below 60C. The type of relative to the value of the measured variable, is said to have positioning action in this controller is known as ________. _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: one-position single-point two-position single-point one-position differential-gap two-position differential-gap D If the loading air pressure for a diaphragm controlled valve drops below the designed operating pressure, the valve will ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2973 reset action proportional action two position action rate action B Every automated machinery plant must have an "engineer's assistance" alarm. Power for this alarm should be taken from the _________________.

2972

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2974

fail to stroke open stroke slowly through its operating range stroke rapidly closed fail to stroke through its complete range D The effect of "reset", when added to a proportional controller is to _______________. A. make the controller correction proportional to the rate at which the input change takes place B. accelerate the corrective action so as to minimize the possibility of hunting

A. B. C. D. Ans: 2975

main bus emergency bus standby generator general alarm power supply D Which of the following statements expresses the function of proportional-plus-reset action? A. The action measures the rate of time of the final control element. B. The action gives control without offset under all load conditions.

Page 167

C. make the corrective action of the controller proportional to the deviation of the controlled variable from the set point D. repeat the proportional action until the controlled variable returns to the set point Ans: D One disadvantage of proportional-position action is that 2976 __________. A. corrective action is only proportional to offset B. exact correction can be made only when there is no change in load C. the controlled variable is stabilized D. the corrective action is only proportional to the deviation Ans: D The cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air compressors is an example of which mode of control? A. Two position B. Derivative C. Integral D. Single speed floating Ans: A Reset control is also referred to as ____________. A. proportional speed floating control B. derivative control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans: A The quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is known as the ____________. A. controlled variable B. manipulated variable C. set point D. control point Ans: A The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same as _________. I. proportional speed floating control II. derivative control A. B. C. D. Ans: 2986 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A Which of the following definitions can be used to define the term "offset" as a characteristic of controller action? A. The period of time in which the set point and the control point coincide. B. The periodic change between the set point and the control point.

C. The action combines proportional-position action and rate action. D. The action is very unstable for anything but constant load conditions. Ans: B Filters are installed ahead of air line lubricators for the primary 2977 purpose of removing ___________. A. the heat of compression B. air supply pressure pulses C. moisture in the air supply D. turbulence in the air supply Ans: C Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station? A. Moisture separator B. Vacuum breaker C. Lubricator D. Nonreturn valve Ans: A Reset control is also referred to as ____________. A. derivative control B. integral control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans: B A computing relay is used in a pneumatic control system to _______________. A. extract square roots B. square C. divide D. all of the above Ans: D A mode of control, whereby the speed of motion of the final control element is linearly proportional to the deviation of the controlled variable from set point, is called _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2987 rate control derivative control two position control integral control D Which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a characteristic of controller action? A. The ratio of the output in response to a specified change to the input which caused it. B. The steady state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable corresponding to the set point.

2978

2979

2980

2981

2982

2983

2984

2985

C. The variable difference between the set point and the control point. D. The constant difference between the set point and the control point. Ans: D Why is it necessary to spin the piston of a dead weight gage tester 2988 while carrying out the calibrations of pressure gages? A. Prevent formation of a vacuum. B. Eliminate the formation of air bubbles. C. Prevent the piston rod from sticking. D. To assist in calibrating the dead weight tester. Ans: C The control mode in which the final control element is moved from 2990 one of two fixed positions to the other is known as _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2992 dead band action neutral zone action range on-off action D A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing the ______________. A. density of a substance in water with the density of the same subject in air B. differences in weight between water and the liquid measured

C. The variation of the manipulated variable produced by the mode of control. D. The time difference between the input change and the output change of the controller. Ans: A A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that 2989 _______________. A. the form of the input and output energies must be the same B. the ratio of the output to the input must always be greater than the numerical value of "one" C. the form of the input and output energies must be different D. the action must be either integral or derivative Ans: A A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the 2991 speed at which the controlled variable is changing is known as _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2993 reset action integral action derivative action proportional action C In an automated control system, which of the following statements would apply to any type of closed loop system? A. The manipulated variables are adjusted only from the input demand signals without monitoring the outlet conditions or variables. B. Another term commonly used in conjunction with this type of system is "feed forward."

Page 168

C. mass of substance measured with the density of the same substance D. buoyancy of an object in water with the buoyancy of the same object in the liquid being measured Ans: D Information from a data-logger can be helpful in determining the long term probability of machinery failure if you _____________. A. evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of plant status B. evaluate a series of readings to obtain operating trends C. monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and visual signal D. secure the machine under relatively steady state conditions Ans: B If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original 2996 amount, the _____________. A. pump discharge pressure will be reduced by a proportional amount B. C. D. Ans: 2998

C. The controlled variable must always deviate from its set point before any corrective action is initiated by the controller. D. In order for a system to fall under the category of closed loop control, there should be no adjustments required to be made manually by the operator. 2995 Ans: C In pressure measurement, absolute pressure is defined as the difference in pressure between _________________. A. any two pressures measured with respect to a common reference B. atmospheric pressure and barometric pressure at a given point C. gage pressure and ambient atmospheric pressure D. a perfect vacuum and the total pressure at a given point Ans: D The characteristic of "offset" is inherent with which modeof control? 2997 I. proportional control II. reset control A. I only

2994

speed of the actuator will be reduced B. II only speed of the actuator will be increased C. Both I and II the actuator will move erratically D. Neither I nor II B Ans: A The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifieris the To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer 2999 _______. I. form of the input and output energy must be the sameII. bulb is often protected by a "well" or casing. In addition to protecting ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater the element, the "well" will also ________________. than 1 (one) A. cause consistently higher than actual readings B. cause consistently lower than actual readings C. require a longer time for the element to reach thermal equilibrium with the system being measured D. increase the sensitivity of the element Ans: C A mechanical and/or hydraulic action preventing the over3001 correction of the fuel supply, while producing transient speed droop is called _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3003 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3005 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3007 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3009 stability hunting compensation sensitivity C At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage most likely be located? Fuel oil service pump discharge flange Fuel oil strainer Fuel oil heater Fuel oil flow meter B In order to accurately measure very low pressures, which of the instruments listed should be used? Compound gage Bourdon tube Manometer Deadweight gage C The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called a _______________. fluid meter calorimeter viscosimeter pneumercator D Which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for a vessel incorporating a controllable pitch propeller in its main propulsion system?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A Reset control is considered to be the same as _________. I. 3000 proportional speed floating control II. integral control A. B. C. D. Ans: 3002 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3004 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3006 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3008 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C What is the value of the controlled variable that the automatic controller operates to maintain. Set point Control point Deviation Offset B Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a _____________. diaphragm type gage pressure transducer manometer all of the above D A pneumercator is useful in measuring ____________________. relative humidity air pressure liquid levels in tanks fluid pneumercations C Main engine room control console alarms are to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will _____________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3010

cause an alarm condition secure power to the indicator secure power to the monitored device automatically reclose within 10 seconds A A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of measuring ______________. A. temperature and pressure B. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3011

Pitch indicator Low oil temperature High oil pressure Low oil pressure B The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a _____________. A. pyrometer B. thermometer

Page 169

C. humidity and temperature D. pressure and vacuum Ans: D The control mode that is generally not used by itself is 3012 _________________. A. reset control B. integral control C. derivative control D. two position differential gap control Ans: C While attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column 3014 drops rapidly. This may indicate ____________. A. a leak in the gage line B. free surface effect in the tank C. an improperly calibrated gage D. excess air in the balance chamber Ans: A A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the 3016 ____________. A. pneumercator is recharged with the air supply open B. pneumercator balance chamber bleed orifice is blocked by the oil being measured C. pressure in the system is allowed to equalize D. operating cock is placed in the "vent" position when the system is not in use Ans: B Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems 3018 by using ______________. A. air intake heaters B. desiccated suction strainers C. multi-orificed suction valves D. blowdown valves and filters Ans: D The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the 3020 _____________. A. bimetallic type B. diaphragm type C. bourdon tube type D. resistance-temperature type Ans: C In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the 3022 proportional action _________. I. opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients II. aids the reset action during increasing error transients A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: C A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon tubepressure gage is accomplished by ___________. I. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer position A. B. C. D. Ans: 3026 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II A In checking the level of a tank, three pneumercator readings have been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates that _____________.

C. hygrometer D. hydrometer Ans: B A closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with 3013 _____________. A. a fixed final control element position B. simple on/off control C. no controller feedback D. feedback to the controller Ans: D A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in 3015 pressure, should be repaired by ______________. A. tapping the gage housing lightly B. bending the needle to free the linkage C. cleaning the residue from gear teeth D. greasing the hair spring Ans: C In an automation system, increasing or decreasing the loading 3017 pressure by a set amount is known as _____________. A. positioning B. proportioning C. biasing D. controlling Ans: C A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and below _______________. A. absolute pressure B. latent pressure C. flow pressure D. atmospheric pressure Ans: D Temperature measurement is an indication of the ___________. 3021 3019 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3023 level of heat intensity total heat of a substance rate of heat transfer from one substance to another total heat contained in any closed energy system A Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuitywith a multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometerbecause ____________.

A. the driving voltage of the meter batteries can damage the circuit meter B. the pyrometer total resistance can damage the ohmmeter C. the reactance of the pyrometer will give a false meter reading D. meter current running through the pyrometer will permanently magnetize the pyrometer's pointer Ans: A A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage 3025 isaccomplished by ___________. I. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer position relative to the A. B. C. D. Ans: 3027 I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Devices, such as a pressure gage, that are subject to continuous expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a natural process that ___________.

3024

A. excessive charging air was supplied B. insufficient charging air has been supplied C. the relief valve is sticking D. the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak Ans: B In an automation system, the effect of a control action sensed by a 3028 controller is known as _____________. A. command input B. set point signal

A. allows a material to return to its exact original shape B. permits a resilient material to return to its almost original shape C. allows a resiliant material to resist permanent deformation D. is directly related to a material's elastic limit Ans: B A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate __________. 3029 A. air pressure in the diesel engine starting circuit B. phosphates in boiler water

Page 170

C. output D. feedback Ans: D The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of 3030 conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known as ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3032 set point control point deviation offset B A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set point, is known as ____________. integral action proportional action rate action derivative action A "Offset" is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types of control modes? Two position Proportional Reset Rate B A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element is linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled variable, is called _______________________. reset control integral control two position control derivative control D The two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are _____________. compressed air and nitrogen helium and nitrogen oxygen and hydrogen oxygen and acetylene

C. tank fluid level D. micro ohms in condensate Ans: C The steady state difference between the control point and the value 3031 of the controlled variable, corresponding with the set point, is known as _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3033 dead band control point deviation offset D While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage, all readings are found to be 0.7 kgs higher throughout its entire range. An adjustment should be made by ____________. increasing the sector to pivot point length resetting the pointer on its shaft decreasing the sector to pivot point length increase the set screw length B The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship service refrigeration system, is an example of ____________. two position control single speed floating control proportional control reset control A When a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change in this adjustment results in a change of the _______________. desired value of the proportionally controlled variable floating rate of the proportional-speed floating component value representing the readjusted controlled variable desired prepositioned value of the controlled medium B When "reset" action is added to proportional action, the proportional action ______________. aids the reset action during decreasing error transients aids the reset action during increasing error transients opposes the reset action during increasing error transients and reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller operation B When "reset" action is added to proportional action _________________. the proportional action opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients the proportional action opposes the reset action during increasing error transients the proportional action assists the reset action during decreasing error transients the proportional action and the reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller operation A Which of the following control actions, when combined with proportional-position action, will eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset action? Neutral band Floating action Reciprocal action Rate action B Double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit good balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity applications because __________.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3034

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3035

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3036

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3037

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3038 A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3039 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3041 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3043

3040

Ans: A Automatic control valves for steam service require periodic maintenance inspections because they ___________. A. are subjected to high compressive stress B. are subjected to a wide range of temperatures and pressures C. continuously throttle steam resulting in wire drawing and erosion of the valve D. receive high pressure air from the pilot valve Ans: C When a controller with proportional position action is used to control a process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to stabilize at some value other than the set point value. The new point at which the controlled variable stabilizes is ca A. B. C. D. Ans: offset deviation control point load point C A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling plants, is essentially an area meter consisting of a _____________.

3042

A. B. C. D. Ans: 3045

3044

A. movable float riding on a rod centered in a tapered tube B. piston uncovering a port whose opening is directly proportional to fluid flow C. movable orifice plate venturi tube and high pressure tap D. rotating vane transmitting nutating motion to a counter mechanism Ans: A

A. high pressure enters between the seats and creates equal, but opposing forces B. they employ a specially fabricated diaphragm C. the feedback control signals balance the opposing forces acting on the diaphragm D. the special diaphragm motor spring resists pressure changes Ans: A

Page 171

3046 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3048 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3050

The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled steam pressure reducing valve is ____________. the range spring has become weakened an incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit a partially restricted loading air pressure line a pinhole in the power diaphragm C If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal pilot, reducing valve, you will ____________. compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm release spring tension from the diaphragm increase steam pressure to the reducing valve decrease spring tension in the main valve A Why is it necessary to have the weight bearing piston of a deadweight gage tester spinning when testing a gage for proper calibration? Minimizes piston drag and reduces tester error. Prevents vibration errors in the gage tester. Minimizes piston speed and reduces tester error. Allows trapped air below the piston to escape. A Biasing, in a pneumatic automated combustion control system, refers to a set amount of increase or decrease in the_________. control pressure loading pressure supply pressure rate relay pressure B The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of _____________. hair copper plastic steel A A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by __________. chemical reaction light striking a photo sensitive substance heating a junction of two dissimilar metals squeezing crystals of certain substances C In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the proportional action _________. I. and the reset action are completely independent of one another II. opposes reset action during decreasing error transients I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B To ensure an accurate pneumercator reading, you should _____________. purge the balance chamber to remove any liquid read the bottom of the mercury meniscus take the reading with the operating cock in the vent position make certain the tank has been bled of air A When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, the initial reading obtained can be quickly verified by _____________.

3047 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3049 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3051

A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure and _______________. humidity vacuum temperature density B How may the response time for a thermomete