Quest II

Instructions

The test is for 2.30 hours and carries 180 marks. The Quest II booklet contains 100 (Part A 15 + Part B 50 + Part C 35 ) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) out of which 70 questions has to be answered. Part A consists of 15 questions on general mental ability, out of which candidate SHOULD answer ALL the 15 questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Part B consists of 50 questions, out of which candidate can answer any 35 questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Part C consists of 35 questions, out of which candidate can answer any 20 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. There will be negative marking @ 25% for each wrong answer. Answer sheet has been provided separately. Write your name, batch and date on the answer sheet in the space provided. Also put your signature in the space identified. Candidates found copying or resorting to any unfair means are liable to be disqualified from this and future examinations. Candidates should not write anything anywhere except on the answer sheet. Candidate has to answer questions from all the parts. If he/she leaves any part unanswered, results will not be counted. Candidate will be declared pass, if he scores minimum 50% marks in all sections together. Use of calculator is not permitted.

Quest II

April 16, 2013

Part A (Answer ALL, Compulsory) 1. Nikita starts her journey from Delhi to Bhopal and simultaneously Nishita starts from Bhopal to delhi. After crossing each other they finish their remaining journey in 49/9 hours and 9 hours, respectively. What is the Nishitas speed if Nikitas speed is 36kmph? A. 30 B. 35 C. 28 D. 25 2. ( ? /18) x (? / 162 ) = 1 A. 64 B. 34 C. 54 D. 94 3. A man selling a chocolate at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Re.1 less, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of the article is A. Rs. 200 B. Rs. 150 C. Rs. 250 D. Rs. 240 4. The driving wheel of a locomotive engine 2.1 m in radius makes 75 revolutions in one min. Find the speed of the train in km/h A. 60 kmph B. 59.4 kmph C. 61.5 kmph D. None of the above 5. You travel from Biotecnika office to electronic city in 15 min with no traffic problems on Sundays, if traffic is very thick, then you will need 30 min to reach electronic city. If you start any day from Biotecnika office, what is the probability that you will reach electronic city in 15 min? A. 2/3 B. 1/7 C. 2/7 D. 6/7 6. If the radius of base and height of a cone are increased by 10%, find the percentage of increase of its volume. A. 30% B. 33.1% C. 50% D. 10% 7. If log10x = 98 x log 107 find x A. 10 B. 12.25 C. 15.55 D. 12.75 8. (x+5) (x-5) = 39, x = ? A. +/- 4 B. +/- 8 C. +/- 5 D. +/- 10 9. Find the common ration in a G.P. whose sum to is 9/2 and whose 2nd term is 2. A. -1/3 B. +1/3 2

Quest II

April 16, 2013 C. 2/3 D. -2/3 10. How many terms of the series 5 + 7 + 9 + must be taken in order that the sum may be 480? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 11. x covers a distance of 60 km in 6 hrs partly on foot at the rate of 4 km/hr and partly on a cycle at 14 km/hr. Find the distance traveled on foot. A. 2 km B. 2.4 km C. 5 km D. 2.9 km 12. A man left Rs.1750 to be divided among his two daughters and four sons. Each daughter was to receive three times as much as a son. How much did each son receive? A. 175/B. 275/C. 523/D. 525/13. In a family, eleven times the number of children is greater by 12 than twice the square of the number of children. How many children are there in the family? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 14. If Air = cheater; cheater = Water; Water = Sky; sky = stone; stone = tiger then A. Tiger is animal B. Tiger is non living C. Tiger is air D. Tiger is water 15. I have a certain number of apples to be divided equally among 18 children. If the number of apples and the number of children were increased by 2, each child would get 5 apples less. How many apples have to distribute A. 918 B. 900 C. 818 D. 800

Quest II

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Part B 16. Which one of the following pairs of genes is linked on a single chromosome? A. V gene for lambda chain and C gene for kappa chain B. C gene for gamma chain and C gene for kappa chain C. V gene for lambda chain and V gene for heavy chain D. C gene for gamma chain and C gene for alpha chain Explanation: Lambda, Kappa and Heavy chain gene segments are present on different chromosomes. Constant regions of Mu, Delta, Gamma, epsilon and alpha of the heavy chain are linked on the same chromosome. 17. An Rh-negative woman married to a heterozygous Rh-positive man has three children. The probability that all three of their children are Rh-positive is A. 1:2 B. 1:4 C. 1:8 D. Zero Explanation: D-D- mother and D+D- father can produce 50% D+D- and 50% D-D-. i.e every child born has 50% chance of being Rh +ve. So, the probability that all 3 will be Rh +ve is * * = 1/8 18. The molecules mediating signal transduction following antigen binding to cell surface immunoglobulin on a B-cell are called: A. Ig Fc B. Ig-alpha and Ig-beta C. MHC class II D. CD4+ Explanation: Ig-alpha/beta heterodimer mediates signal transduction due to ITAM motifs in their long cytoplasmic tail. 19. Facilitated diffusion: A. Requires a transmembrane protein B. Requires ATP C. Can move molecules against a concentration gradient D. Is typically used to transport small nonpolar molecules Explanation: Facilitated diffusion is passive diffusion (molecules transported down the concentration gradient) without the use of ATP. Small nonpolar molecules do not require transporter molecules. 20. The processing of cytosolic protein involves: A. Transport into late endosomes. B. Proteasome-mediated cleavage C. Displacement of invariant chain D. Displacement of beta2-microglobulin Explanation: The cytosolic proteins are cleaved to small peptides in the proteasome complex before they are transported by the TAP-1/2 molecules into the endoplasmic reticulum. 21. For vaccination against mycobacterial diseases such as tuberculosis, the most important facet of the immune response to be stimulated is: 4

Quest II

April 16, 2013 A. A high titer of antibody B. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity C. Cytotoxic T-cells D. Neutrophils Explanation: Mycobacteria are found as intracellular infections within macrophages and therefore stimulating T-cells to produce macrophage-activating cytokines such as IFN-gamma. 22. Which of the following procedures or tests allows the identification and collecting of a particular type of cell that has been recognized by labeled antibody? A. Western blot B. Electrophoresis C. Fluorescence-activated cell sorting D. Immunofluorescence Explanation: Fluorescence-activated cell sorting (FACS) is a specialized type of flow cytometry. It provides a method for sorting a heterogeneous mixture of biological cells into two or more containers, one cell at a time, based upon the specific light scattering and fluorescent characteristics of each cell. 23. An immunochemist determines the amino acid sequence of the entire light chain of a purified myeloma protein. This sequence: A. represents the entire Fab fragment B. is sufficient to determine the class of the myeloma protein C. includes all of the structure contributing to the idiotype D. is sufficient to determine the light chain isotype Explanation: With the amino acid sequence of the light chain, only the information of the constant region of the light chain i.e. light chain isotype can be obtained. Entire Fab & the idiotype of Ab require information of the heavy chain. Class of an Ab is determined by the heavy chain not by the light chain. 24. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to Staphylococcus aureus beta lactamases? A. Amoxicillin B. Methicillin C. Penicillin V D. Penicillin G Explanation: Methicillin is resistant to beta lactamases. 25. A bacterium is examined and is found to lack superoxide dismutase, catalse and peroxidase. Which of the following statements best describes this bacterium? A. This bacterium is an aerotolerant anaerobe B. This bacterium does not produce superoxide radicals C. This bacterium is an obligate anaerobe D. This bacterium is a microaerophile Explanation: None of the enzymes required for conversion of toxic oxygen species are present, so the bacterium cannot survive in presence of oxygen at all. 26. An abortive infection is one in which: A. The infected cells are killed B. Progeny virus is not produced C. Transplacental infection of the fetus occurs D. Episodes of virus multiplication alternate with periods when no infectious virus is present and no multiplication occurs 5

Quest II April 16, 2013 Explanation: When a virus infects a cell (or host), but cannot complete the full replication cycle, i.e. a non-productive infection, is called as abortive infection. 27. The main target structure damaged in Rheumatoid arthritis is: A. Skin and dendritic cells B. Cartilage C. Synovium D. Blood vessels Explanation: In Rheumatoid arthritis, autoAbs are produced against synovial membrane / synovium which leads to inflammation in joints. 28. An individual was found to be heterologous for IgG1 allotypes 3 and 1 The different possible IgG1 antibodies produced by this individual will never have A. two H chains of allotype 1 B. two L chains of either or C. two H chains of allotype 3 D. two H chains, one of allotype 3 and one of allotype 1 Explanation: 1 Ab can have 2 H chains of either IgG1 allotype 3 or IgG1 allotype 1. This is because of allelic exclusion. 29. Cold sterilization is A. Sterilization by Sonic vibration B. Sterilization by Gamma-irradiation C. Sterilization by -196C temperature in liquid nitrogen D. Sterilization by placing the culture in ice crystals Explanation: Cold sterilization is a term used for sterilization with use of radiation. 30. An immunologic adjuvant is a substance that A. Reduces the toxicity of the immunogen B. Enhances the immunogenicity of haptens C. Enhances immunologic cross-reactivity D. Enhances the immune response against the immunogen Explanation: Adjuvants enhance immunogenicity of the immunogen. Immunogenicity of haptens is increased by protein-carrier conjugate. 31. The three-dimensional structure of macromolecules is formed and maintained primarily through noncovalent interactions. Which of the following is not considered a noncovalent interaction? A. Hydrogen bond B. Van der Waals interaction C. Disulphide bond D. Hydrophobic interaction Explanation: All other signify weak interactive forces. 32. Among the many molecules of high-energy phosphate compounds formed as a result of the functioning of the citric acid cycle, one molecule is synthesized at the substrate level. In which of the following reactions does this occur? A. Citrate a-ketoglutarate B. -ketoglutarate succinate 6

Quest II C. Succinate Fumarate D. Fumarate Malate Explanation: Substrate level phosphorylation takes place at Succinyl CoA conversion to Succinate.

April 16, 2013

33. The entry point into the citric acid cycle for isoleucine, valine, and the product of odd-chain fatty acids is A. Succinyl CoA B. Fumarate C. Pyruvate D. Oxaloacetate Explanation: Odd chain fatty acids will be converted to propionyl CoA which in turn will be converted to succinyl CoA 34. When transketolase acts on fructose 6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, the products are A. 3-phosphoglycerate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate B. 3-phosphoglycerate and two molecules of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate C. dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glucose 6-phosphate. D. xylulose 5-phosphate and erythrose 4-phosphate Explanation: Transketolase will lead to the formation of a ketone, transfer of a 2 carbon sugar. 35. Which of the following causes pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase to catalyze the phosphorylation and inactivation of E1 in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? A. elevated concentration of ATP, NADH, Acetyl CoA B. Elevated concentration of NAD+ and ADP C. Ca2+ D. Insulin Explanation: This enzyme is responsible for the inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase. It will be inhibited by high level of ATP. NADH. Acetyl CoA 36. If electron transfer in tightly coupled mitochondria is blocked (with antimycin A) between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1, then which of the following is likely to occur? A. ATP synthesis will continue, but the P/O ratio will drop to one. B. electron transfer from succinate to O2 will continue unabated. C. all ATP synthesis will stop D. energy diverted from the cytochromes will be used to make ATP, and the P/O ratio will rise. Explanation: For ATP synthesis we require to create an electron gradient. This gradient drives the F0 pump in ATPase which help in synthesis of ATP 37. Lipoamide is a disulfhydryl containing cofactor used by certain oxidoreductases. Each molecule of lipoamide is oxidized by the same molecule of enzyme that reduces it. This indicates that lipoamide is: A. Metal cofactor B. Loosely bound cofactor C. Prosthetic group D. Product Explanation: Prosthetic groups are those which are tightly bound to the enzymes.

Quest II April 16, 2013 38. The activity of pyruvate carboxylase is dependent upon the positive allosteric effector? A. Succinate B. Citrate C. Aectyl CoA D. Isocitrate Explanation: Pyruvate carboxylase is responsible for gluconeogenesis. It is stimulated by high level of acetyl CoA 39. Which of the following occurs during prolonged fasting (starvation)? A. As a fast progresses, tissues rely predominantly on fuels derived from adipose triacylglycerols B. Blood ketone levels decrease dramatically after 3-5 days of fasting C. Tissues use the same amount of glucose that they use during a brief fast D. After 3-5 days of fasting, the brain increases its utilization of glucose and the rate of gluconeogenesis and the production of urea increases Explanation: Triglycerides in the body can be stored for a long time in the inert state in the adipose tissue so they can be utilized as fuel source in starvation condition. 40. Antimycin A blocks electron transfer between cytochrome b and c1. If intact mitochondria were incubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, an adequate supply of oxygen, which of the following would be found in the oxidized state? A. Cytochrome a3 B. Coenzyme Q C. Cytochrome b D. Cytochrome e Explanation: Cytochrome b and c1 are part of complex III and cytochrome is a part of complex IV. So antimycin blocks the flow of electron from complex III to IV 41. Asians and Native Americans may flush and feel ill after drinking small amounts of ethanol in alcoholic beverages. This reaction is due to genetic variation in an enzyme that metabolizes the liver metabolite of alcohol, which is: A. Methanol B. Acetone C. Acetaldehyde D. Glycerol Explanation: Acetaldehyde is the molecule which leads to the formation of ethanol 42. Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because A. Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose B. Most tissues will utilize fructose C. Excess fructose does not escape in the urine D. Excess fructose spills into the bowel and is eliminated in feces Explanation: Hexokinase can act on any hexose sugar and phosphorylate it 43. After a well-rounded breakfast, which of the following would be expected to occur? A. Increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase B. Decreased activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase C. Decreased rate of glycogenolysis D. Increased activity of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase Explanation: 8

Quest II Already glucose is in excess so we need not synthesize them in the body again

April 16, 2013

44. Which of the following statements concerning the b oxidation of fatty acids is true? A. About 1,200 ATP molecules are ultimately produced per 20-carbon fatty acid oxidized. B. One FADH2 and two NADH are produced for each acetyl-CoA. C. The free fatty acid must be carboxylated in the b position by a biotin-dependent reaction before the process of b oxidation commences. D. The free fatty acid must be converted to a thioester before the process of b oxidation commences. Explanation: Before beta oxidation they will be converted to fatty acyl CoA with the addition of coenzyme A molecule with the utilization of ATP 45. Before traveling to the rest of the body, all absorbed nutrients or toxins must pass through the A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Gall bladder D. Colon Explanation: Liver is the site for detoxification 46. Dynein hydrolyzes molecules of ATP and can convert the released chemical energy into the mechanical energy that propels the sperm. The individuals lack dynein, makes the sperm immotile. Such individuals with the genetic syndrome are called A. Kartagener triad B. Drown syndrow C. Dappled metaphysis syndrome D. Cystic fibrosis Explanation The importance of dynein can be seen in individuals with the genetic syndrome called the Kartagener triad. 47. The mammalian egg is surrounded by a layer of ovarian follicular cells that were nurturing the egg at the time of its release from the ovary are called A. the vitelline envelope B. the zona pellucid C. the cumulus D. the corona radiate Explanation The mammalian egg is also surrounded by a layer of cells called the cumulus, which is made up of the ovarian follicular cells that were nurturing the egg at the time of its release from the ovary. 48. Mammalian sperm bind to the zona pellucida before undergoing the acrosome reaction. In the mouse, this binding is mediated by ____________ and one or many sperm proteins that recognize it. A. ZP3 (zona protein 3) B. ZP2 (zona protein 2) C. ZP1 (zona protein 1) D. ZP4 (zona protein 4) Explanation This structure binds spermatozoa, and is required to initiate the acrosome reaction. In the mouse (the best characterized mammalian system), the zona glycoprotein, ZP3, is responsible for sperm binding, adhering to proteins on the sperm plasma membrane 49. Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the primary organizer in amphibian embryos 9

Quest II while studying the A. medial cells between the optic cups. B. anterior terminus of the notochord. C. posterior edge of the dorsal ectoderm. D. dorsal lip of the blastopore. Explanation Spemanns organizer is the dorsal lip of the blastopore in frog gastrulation.

April 16, 2013

50. Which is the most commonly used constitutive promoter for high levels of gene expression in dicot plants A. Cauliflower mosaic virus promoter B. 35S, opine promoter C. ubiquitin promoter D. alcohol dehydrogenase 1 promoter Explanation CaMV 35S is the most commonly used constitutive promoter for high levels of gene expression in dicot plants. 51. Differential centrifugation is a process that: A. separates different components of the cell that function differently. B. separates components of the cell that have a different chemical makeup. C. analyzes the chemical components of the cell. D. separates components of the cell that have different densities. Explanation Separation is based on size and density, with larger and denser particles pelleting at lower centrifugal forces. 52. Particular RNAs that are important for development are located in distinct regions of the Drosophila embryo. This is most directly demonstrated by using A. western blotting B. northern blotting C. in situ hybridization D. in vitro translation Explanation In situ hybridization (ISH) is a type of hybridization that uses a labeled complementary DNA or RNA strand (i.e., probe) to localize a specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion or section of tissue (in situ), or, if the tissue is small enough (e.g. plant seeds, Drosophila embryos), in the entire tissue (whole mount ISH), in cells and in circulating tumor cells (CTCs). 53. When separating proteins using gel filtration chromatography, the first proteins to be eluted will be ________________. A. smallest B. largest C. negatively charged D. positively charged Explanation Large molecule excludes first from the column since it is larger than the pores in the gel are unable to diffuse into the gel and confined to the solution surrounding the beads. 54. Edman reagent cleaves polypeptides _________________. A. after lysin residues B. after positively charged residues C. at the C-terminus D. at the N-terminus 10

Quest II April 16, 2013 Explanation One cycle of the Edman degradationthe cleavage of an amino acid from a peptide and its identificationis carried out in less than 1 hour. 55. Among existing technologies, which of the following vector system would you prefer to use for generating a library for 140kb eukaryotic genomic DNA fragments, while giving due consideration to size as well as stability of the insert? A. Phage B. Cosmid C. Bacterial artificial chromosome D. Yeast artificial chromosome Explanation A bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) is a DNA construct, based on a functional fertility plasmid (or F-plasmid), used for transforming and cloning in bacteria, usually E. coli. The bacterial artificial chromosome's usual insert size is 150-350 kbp. 56. ELISA assay uses A. an enzyme which can react with secondary antibody. B. an enzyme which can react with the antigen. C. a substrate which gets converted into a colored product. D. a radiolabelled secondary antibody Explanation A first antibody is adhered to the well, then the solution that may contain antigen (pentagons) is added, and finally an enzyme-labeled antibody against different parts of the antigen. Substrate is again converted to colored product. 57. Defective alleles are eliminated rapidly from a population if they are A. Recessive. B. dominant. C. co dominant. D. in multiple copies. 58. The movement of a single cell was required to be continually monitored during development. The cell was marked with a reporter gene. To visualize this movement one would use A. Phase contrast microscopy B. Bright field microscopy C. Fluorescence microscopy D. Atomic force microscopy Explanation The movement of a single cell can be continually monitored during development by labeling it with fluorescent protein. 59. If the GC content of an organisms genome is 28%, this means that, in the organisms genomic DNA, A. 28% of one strand of DNA is C and 28% of the same strand is G B. 28% of one strand of DNA is C and 28% of the other strand is G C. the total number of Cs and Gs in one strand is 28% of the total number of nucleotides in both strands D. 28% of all the base-pairs are GC or CG base-pairs Explanation Chargaff rule: The rule that in DNA there is always equality in quantity between the bases A and T and between the bases G and C.

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Quest II April 16, 2013 60. When a PCR reaction is performed using genomic DNA as a template, a 1.5-kb product is amplified. When the same reaction is set up using cDNA as a template, a 0.8-kb product is amplified. A likely explanation for the different-sized products is that A. primers always bind to different sequences in different templates. B. there is a mutation in the genomic DNA. C. there is an intron in the gene. D. the cDNA is degraded. Explanation During transcription all the intron (noncoding) parts will be removed. 61. For Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be used to introduce foreign DNA into a plant cell, that DNA must first be: A. Inserted into the T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid of A. tumefaciens. B. Inserted into the main chromosome of A. tumefaciens. C. Inserted in an A. tumefaciens plasmid other than the Ti plasmid. D. Isolated from the crown gall using the appropriate restriction enzyme. Explanation For Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be used to introduce foreign DNA into a plant cell, that DNA must first be inserted into the T-DNA region 62. Detect the mode of inheritance in the following pedigree chart is most convincing A. Autosomal recessive and is homozygous dominant B. Autosomal dominant and is homozygous recessive C. Autosomal recessive and is homozygous dominant D. Autosomal recessive and is homozygous recessive Explanation: The mutant individual 2 must be recessive and should have aa condition, so homozygous. 63. In messelson and stall experiment, what was the clue which led to the discovery of semi conservative mode of replication? A. Formation of thick heavy band in CsCl centrifuge B. Formation of faint heavy band in subsequent generation in CsCl centrifuge C. Formation of intermediate band in CsCl centrifuge D. Formation of thick light band in CsCl centrifuge Formation of 14-15 band indicates the presence of semi conservative model 64. In a dsDNA , we have 100 hydrogen bonds bonds in the dsDNA molecule? A. 39 B. 38 C. 78 D. 79 Explanation: Total H bonds = 100 GC content is 50% So 60 bonds from GC, and 40 bonds from AT. So A=T=G=C = 20 each and GC content is 50%. Find the no. of phosphodiester the individual 2 the individual 2 the individual 1 the individual 2

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Quest II So, 40 bases in each strand Thus 39 phosphodiester bonds in each strand, so in total = 78

April 16, 2013

65. Barney is an alien. On his ship, hidden in the Stata building, you find alien bacteria that metabolize wood. You call this species A. termiticus, and call your original strain BLT (for Barneys little termiticus). You subject a sample of BLT to mutagens, and isolate a new strain that no longer metabolizes wood. You conclude that you have succeeded in disrupting at least one gene necessary to metabolize wood. You call the mutant strain M. You mix a sample of M with a sample of heat-killed wild type BLT, and the resulting strain metabolizes wood. You summarize your data in the following table Strains Metabolizes wood? BLT Yes Heat-killed BLT No M No Heat-killed BLT Yes +M A. What do you conclude about the genetics of the bacteria? B. The heat killed + M bacteria underwent mutation C. The heat killed +M bacteria acquired genes by transformation D. The heat killed +M bacteria acquired genes by conjugation Explanation: Heat killed BLT bacteria transformed its gene to live M+ bacteria

Part C
66. The major reason that antiparallel -stranded protein structures are more stable than parallel stranded structures is that the latter A. Are in a slightly less extended configuration than antiparallel strands B. Have weaker hydrogen bonds laterally between adjacent strands C. Do not have many disulphide cross links between adjacent strands D. Have fewer lateral hydrogen bonds than antiparallel strands Explanation: In ant parallel beta sheets the hydrogen bonding are diagonally arranged which makes them more stable. 67. In the disease sprue, vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is poorly absorbed in the intestine, resulting in B deficiency. If each of the following fatty acids were in the diet, for which one would the process of fatty acid oxidation be most affected in a patient with sprue? A. CH3(CH2)10COOH B. CH3(CH2)11COOH C. CH3(CH2)14COOH D. CH3(CH2)18COOH Explanation: Vitamin B12 is acting as a cofactor in the oxidation of odd chain fatty acids. It is required in the conversion of propionic CoA to succinyl CoA 68. The first step in two-dimensional gel electrophoresis generates a series of protein bands by isoelectric focusing. In a second step, a strip of this gel is turned 90 degrees, placed on another gel containing SDS, and electric current is again applied. In this second step: A. Proteins with similar isoelectric points become further separated according to their molecular weight B. The individual bands become stained so that the isoelectric focus pattern can be visualized C. The individual bands become visualized by interacting with protein-specific antibodies in the second gel 13

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April 16, 2013 D. The proteins in the band separate more completely because the second isoelectric current is in the opposite polarity to the first current Explanation: SDS PAGE is used for the separation of proteins based on their molecular weight 69. CYTKAVMWEFRDGMQKPNS You exposed the polypeptide to cyanogen bromide. You also exposed the polypeptide to trypsin. What fragments would you expect to find? A. AVMWEFR, CY, CYTK, DGMQK, DGMQKPNS, EF, R, PNS, TKAVMW B. CY, CYTKAVM, DGMQKPNS, EF, R, QKPNS, TKAVMW, WEFRDGM C. AVMWEFR, CYTK, CYTKAVM, DGMQK, PNS, QKPNS, WEFRDGM D. CY, DGMQKPNS, EF, R, RDGM, M, QKPNS, TKAV, TKAVMW, W Explanation: In this all the possible cleavage has been asked which can be brought about by using the two enzymes. Trypsin cleaves at lysine and arginine residues. Cynogen bromide cleaves at the C-terminus residue of methionine residue. 70. The term ______________ describe the log phase of a culture during which the sole products of metabolism like ethanol, acetone and butanol are produced. The metabolites produced during this phase is refered as_____________. A. Idiophase, Primary metabolites B. Idiophase, Secondary metabolites C. Trophophase, Primary metabolites D. Trophophase, Secondary metabolite Explanation Primary Metabolites. After inoculation when microbial growth is in exponential or trophophase many intermediate metabolic products are produced. 71. The unequal division of the cytoplasm among frog embryo cells during early cleavage, as shown in the diagram, results from A. gastrulation of the embryo B. formation of the blastula C. segregation of the maternal and paternal cells D. uneven distribution of yolk Explanation The unequal division of the cytoplasm among frog embryo cells during early cleavage uneven distribution of yolk 72. Which of the following is (are) true of the oxidation of 1 mol of palmitate (a 16-carbon saturated fatty acid; 16:0) by the -oxidation pathway, beginning with the free fatty acid in the cytoplasm? 1. Activation of the free fatty acid requires the equivalent of two ATPs 2. Inorganic pyrophosphate (PPi) is produced. 3. Carnitine functions as an electron acceptor. 4. 8 mol of acetyl-CoA are formed. A. 1 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4 Explanation: During the oxidation of fatty acids (16 carbon), the first step is oxidation which requires a molecule of ATP and its broken down into AMP and PPi. One activation takes place in cytosol and the second one in the mitochondrial matrix. So two molecules of ATP are required. And 16 carbon will be broken down into 8 acetyl CoA 14

Quest II 73. Match the following with correct type of cleavage. I. Amphibian- a)holoblastic rotational II. Reptiles - b) superficial holoblastic III. Mammals- c) Radial Holoblastic IV. Drosophila - d) discoidal meroblastic A. I C, II D, III A, IV B B. I A, II C, III D, IV B C. I A, II D, III C, IV B D. I D, II A, III C, IV B Explanation Every animal undergoes specific pattern of cleavage based on their yolk content.

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74. Youve immunized a rabbit with a human IgG4 myeloma protein and collected its serum. If you want to prepare an absorbed antiserum that is class-specific, you would begin by passing it over column bearing: A. IgA2 B. IgG4 C. IgG4 D. IgM Explanation: Class specific is Ab only against the isotype of the Ab i.e. IgG. In the serum anti- Abs will be produced in addition to Anti-gamma Abs. To negatively select anti- Abs, the column should be conjugated with IgG4, so only Anti-gamma Abs will bind. If IgG4 is conjugated to the column then both anti- Abs and Anti-gamma Abs will bind to the column. 75. How far along the DNA would the transcription bubble formed by RNA polymerase move in 60 seconds? A. 3000 B. 10,000 C. 3000 5400 D. 2000 4500 Rate of transcription = 50 90 bses/ sec So in 60 sec = 3000 - 5400 76. An Rh-negative mother had an anti-Rh response following the birth of her Rh-positive child. The second fetus was also Rh+ so the maternal anti-Rh antibodies coated the fetus's erythrocytes with antibody. The isotype of these antibodies is A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgM Explanation: IgG can cross the placental membrane. 77. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial aerobic hosphorylation. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mode of action of the three inhibitors? A. Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the respiratory chain, and oligomycin inhibits the synthesis of ATP B. Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the synthesis of ATP C. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol compete with O2 for cytochrome oxidase (complex IV) 15

Quest II April 16, 2013 D. Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit synthesis of ATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibits the respiratory chain Explanation: Cyanide is a competitive inhibitor of oxygen so it inhibits the respiratory chain. Whcile DNP is an uncoupler of ATP syntheis and oligomycin is an inhibitor of Fo ATPase 78. A new compound isolated from mitochondria is claimed to represent a previously unrecognized carrier in the electron transfer chain. It is given the name coenzyme Z. Which line of evidence do you feel is the least conclusive in assigning this compound a position in the electron transfer chain? A. Removal of coenzyme Z from the mitochondria results in a decreased rate of oxygen consumption B. The rate of oxidation and reduction of mitochondrion-bound coenzyme is of the same order of magnitude as the overall rate of electron transfer in mitochondria as measured by oxygen consumption C. When added to a mitochondrial suspension, coenzyme Z is taken up very rapidly and specifically by the mitochondria D. The reduction potential of Z is between that of two compounds known to participate in the electron transport chain Explanation: Mitochondria are made up of porins which help in the transport of molecules. The third statement is just saying that it is been taken into the mitochondria but its effect on the electron transport chain has not been specified 79. During the cell interactions involved in generating a cytotoxic T-cell response, the Thelper cell receives the necessary Signal 2 from an antigen-presenting cell through which of the following interactions? A. IL-2 with IL-2R B. B7 with CD28 C. TCR with MHC Class I D. IgD with antigen Explanation: Simply receiving Signal 1 i.e. MHC & TCR interaction results in T cell anergy (Tcell is turned off). Signal 2 is interaction of B7 present on APC with that of CD 28 on T cells (also called co-stimulation). 80. Experiments on denaturation and renaturation after the reduction and reoxidation of the S-S- bonds in the enzyme ribonuclease (RNase) have shown that: A. folding of denatured RNase into the native, active conformation requires the input of energy in the form of heat B. the completely unfolded enzyme, with all S-S- bonds broken, is still enzymatically active C. the enzyme, dissolved in water, is thermodynamically stable relative to the mixture of amino acids whose residues are contained in RNase D. the primary sequence of RNase is sufficient to determine its specific secondary and tertiary structure Explanation: Ribonulcease is an enzyme which consists of 124 amino acid residues, containing four disulphide bonds. Treatment with the reducing agent causes a complete unfolding of ribonuclease molecule. However removal of the reducing agents have shown that it can immediately convert to a homogenous product which is fully enzymatically active. 81. Which of the following represents tyrosine at a pH = 12?

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A. A B. B C. C D. D Explanation: Tyrosine is an amino acid which has got a hydroxyl group. The carboxy group will release its H ion first at a pH of 2. The OH gropu wil release the Hydride ion at a pH of 10. 82. A temperature-sensitive mutation can cause cell death at high temperature (restrictive condition), but might have no deleterious consequences at a lower temperature (permissive condition). This is an example of A. Temperature sensitive mutation B. Point mutation C. Conditional mutation D. Complementation Explanation: Conditional mutants show the different phenotypes depending on the environmental conditions 83. A biochemist purifies a new protein and wishes to learn something about its quaternary structure. Treatment of this protein with the reagents listed below gives the following bands upon SDS-PAGE electrophoresis:

The protein has: A. one polypeptide chain with at least two disulfide (-S-S-) bonds. B. two separate polypeptide chains linked by at least two disulfide bonds. C. three polypeptide chains linked by two or more disulfide bonds. D. three polypeptide chains and no disulfide bonds. Explanation b-mercaptoethanol cleaves the disulfide bonds

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Quest II April 16, 2013 84. Hoechst 33342 is a membrane-permeant dye that fluoresces when it binds to DNA through an intercalating process. If a population of cells is incubated briefly with Hoechst dye and sorted in a flow cytometer, the cells display various levels of fluorescence in different phases of cell cycles as shown in figure below (marked as X, Y and Z). Which of the following is correct? A. X is G1, Y is G2 + M and Z is S B. X is G1, Y is S and Z is G2 + M C. X is S, Y is G2 + M and Z is G1 D. X is S, Y is G1 and Z is G2 + M Explanation The G0/G1 and the G2M peaks have a gaussian distribution. , the S-phase peak is characteristically non-gaussian.

85. Four different receptors viz, A, B, C and D bind to the same lignad X.In order to determine which receptor has the highest ligand binding affinity following experiment was carried out. Cells were transected with green fluorescence protein (GFP)-tagged receptors (A,B,C and D) individually, then incubated with red fluorescence protein (RFP)-tagged X and subjected to FACS analysis. Following are the results

Which receptor has the highest ligand binding affinity? A. A 18

Quest II April 16, 2013 B. B C. C D. D Explanation The intensity of the emitted light increases as indicated by the arrows. The number of cells at each intensity is shown by the number of dots where each dot represents a single cell. This graph does not work for more than two colors but it works well when individual cells can be labeled by both colors at the same time. 86. You have purified a new peptide hormone. To determine its amino acid sequence you have digested the polypeptide with trypsin and in a separate reaction you have cleaved the polypeptide with cyanogen bromide. Cleavage with trypsin yielded 5 peptides that were sequenced by Edman degradation as shown in the following. 1. SerLeu 2. AspValArg 3. ValMetGluLys 4. SerGlnMetHisLys 5. IlePheMetLeuCysArg Cleavage with cyanogen bromide yielded 4 peptides that were sequenced by Edman degradation: 1. HisLysSerLeu 2. AspValArgValMet 3. GluLysIlePheMet 4. LeuCysArgSerGlnMet Determine the identity of the N-terminal amino acid after reconstructing the intact protein. A. Asp B. Ser C. His D. Glu Explanation After reconstructing the intact protein. Asp-Val-Arg-Val-Met-Glu-Lys-Ile-phe-Met-Leu-Cys-Arg-Ser-Gln-Met-His-Lys-Ser-Leu

87. In a double-stranded DNA molecule of random sequence, which of the following restriction endonucleases will cut the molecule LEAST often? (In the sequence of bases for each recognition site, N=any base, R=purine, and Y=pyrimidine.)

A. I B. II C. III D. IV Explanation When the number of bases in the recognition sequence increases the number cut in the strands will decrease. 88. At pH 7.0, in what order would the following three peptides be eluted from a column filled with a cationexchange polymer? Their amino acid compositions are: 19

Quest II April 16, 2013 I. Protein A: Ala 10%, Glu 5%, Ser 5%, Leu 10%, Arg 10%, His 5%, Ile 10%, Phe 5%, Tyr 5%, Lys 10%,Gly 10%, Pro 5%, and Trp 10%. II. Protein B: Ala 5%, Val 5%, Gly 10%, Asp 5%, Leu 5%, Arg 5%, Ile 5%, Phe 5%, Tyr 5%, Lys 5%,Trp 5%, Ser 5%, Thr 5%, Glu 5%, Asn 5%, Pro 10%, Met 5%, and Cys 5%. III. Protein C: Ala 10%, Glu 10%, Gly 5%, Leu 5%, Asp 10%, Arg 5%, Met 5%, Cys 5%, Tyr 5%, Phe 5%,His 5%, Val 5%, Pro 5%, Thr 5%, Ser 5%, Asn 5%, and Gln 5%. A. Protein C, Protein B and protein A B. Protein A, Protein C and protein B C. Protein A, Protein B and protein C D. No sufficient Information Explanation Protein C has a net negative charge because there are more Glu and Asp residues than Lys, Arg, and His residues. Protein A has a net positive charge. Protein B has no net charge at neutral pH. A cation-exchange column has a negatively charged polymer, so protein C interacts most weakly with the column and is eluted first, followed by B, then A. 89. Two dissimilar inbred strain of mice with different MHC haplotypes, H-2 b and H-2k, are crossed to yield F1 hybrid strain (H-2b/k). If a skin graft is transplanted from the F1 progeny to the H-2 b parent and H-2k parent separately, which of the following results are seen? A. Both H-2b and H-2k parents will accept grafts B. H-2b parent will accept the graft whereas H-2k will reject the graft C. H-2k parent will accept the graft whereas H-2b will reject the graft D. Neither H-2b nor H-2k parent will accept the graft Explanation: The MHC alleles are codominantly expressed; that is, both maternal and paternal gene products are expressed in the same cells. H-2b/k F1 progeny will express both alleles (b & k), which are rejected by both the parents. 90. Role of NER is majorly for A. Mis matches B. Base pair errors C. Modifed bases D. DNA helical distorts Explanation: NER majorly works for DNA distorts 91. An individual who is heterozygous for Gm allotypes contains two allelic forms of IgG in serum, but individual lymphocytes produce only one of the two forms. This phenomenon, known as "allelic exclusion," is consistent with A. Rearrangement of a heavy-chain gene on only one chromosome in a lymphocyte B. Rearrangements of heavy-chain genes on both chromosomes in a lymphocyte C. Rearrangement of a light-chain gene on only one chromosome in a lymphocyte D. Rearrangements of light-chain genes on both chromosomes in a lymphocyte Explanation: Allelic exclusion is expression of heavy & light chain genes from either the paternal or maternal chromosome then recombination machinery is switched off. 20

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92. Uniporters and ion channels support facilitated diffusion across biomembranes. Although both are examples of facilitated diffusion, the rate of ion movement via a channel are roughly 10 4 to 105 fold faster than that of molecules via a uniporter. What key mechanistic difference results in this large difference in this large difference in transport rates? A. Uniporters are saturable; channels are not saturable. B. Uniporters utilize ATP; ion channels do not require ATP. C. Uniporters cannot transport 2 solutes simultaneously whereas ion channels can. D. Uniporters are commonly monomeric whereas ion channels are commonly oligomeric. Explanation: Uniporters have binding sites for solutes. Once a solute is bound, the next solute molecule cannot bind unless the 1st one is released. Uniporters get saturated at high solute conc. i.e. attain a maximum transport rate, beyond which the rat of transport cannot increase. All these are not applicable to ion channels. So transport is high in channels. 93. A saturated suspension of starch is enclosed in a bag formed from dialysis, a material through which water can pass, but starch cannot. The bag with the starch is placed into a beaker of distilled water. All of the following are expected to occur except: A. There will be a net movement of water from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential B. There will be a net movement of water from hypotonic region to hypertonic region C. There will be net movement of solute from hypertonic region to hypotonic region D. The dialysis bag with its contents will gain weight Explanation: Pure distilled water has a water potential of 0. If solutes are dissolved, then water potential becomes negative. So water moves from region of higher water potential (hypotonic less solute) to lower water potential (hypertonic more solute). The material does not allow passage of starch and thus there will be no movement of solute. 94. The results of a FACS analysis of cells from a human blood sample are shown below. In which of the quadrants would Tc cell fraction of the human blood sample fall? A. A B. B C. C D. D Explanation: Tc cells have high CD3 complex but low CD4 glycoproteins on their surface. 95. In a diagnostic laboratory a technician prepared plastic assay plates for ELISA by coating a solution of the antigen, gp120 (a glycoprotein derived from the human immunodeficiency virus, the etiologic agent of AIDS), to the plastic surface. Several samples of serum from suspected infected individuals were tested for the presence of antibodies to gp120. When the assay was performed, all the test samples were positive, including control samples that were known not to contain anti-gp120 antibodies. What explanation best fits the facts? A. The technician forgot to "block" the plates with a control protein. B. The technician put too much antigen on the plates. C. The developing labeled anti-immunoglobulin was not added. D. The fluorescent labeling compound dissociated from the labeled antibody. Explanation: False positive results can be obtained in solid phase assays if the plates are not 'blocked' with a control protein, unrelated to the antigen or antibody which is being tested. After coating plates with a solution of the antigen of interest, the control or 'irrelevant' protein (such as serum albumin) fills up sites on the 21

Quest II April 16, 2013 plate's surface which otherwise would bind the reagents applied in the subsequent steps. None of the other possible choices would give all positive results. 96. If an IgG antibody preparation specific for hen egg lysosome (HEL) is treated with papain to generate Fab fragments, which of the following statements concerning the avidity of such fragments is true: A. They will have a lower avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG. B. They will have a higher avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG C. There will have the same avidity for HEL as the intact IgG. D. They will have lost their ability to bind to HEL. Explanation: A Fab fragment of an antibody is a univalent fragment of an antibody, which binds an antigenic epitope. Avidity is a measure of the total binding energy of the interaction with the antigen, which is larger for a multivalent, intact antibody molecule (i.e. with multiple antigen binding sites), than for a univalent Fab fragment. 97. You want to genetically engineer a plant with Alpha aminitin gene. The protein has a molecular weight of 100 kDa. What should be your minimum estimate of the length gene to be engineered in the genome of host? A. 3.3 x 10^5 bases B. 3.3 x 10^3 bases C. 3.3 x 10^2 bases D. 3.3 x 10^6 bases Explanation: 100,000 dalton 100,000/110 = 909 = 909 x 3 = 2727 2727 = 3.3 x 10^3 bases 98. During activation of amino acids in transcription , A. Attach of alpha phosphate occurs on carboxy terminal of amino acid B. Attach of beta phosphate occurs on carboxy terminal of amino acid C. Attach of alpha phosphate occurs on amino terminal of amino acid D. Attach of beta phosphate occurs on amino terminal of amino acid 99. A child presents with low blood glucose (hypoglycemia), enlarged liver (hepatomegaly), and excess fat deposition in the cheeks (cherubic facies). A liver biopsy reveals excess glycogen in hepatocytes. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes might explain this phenotype? A. -1,1-glucosidase B. -1,1-galactosidase C. -1,4-glucosidase D. -1,4-galactosidase Explanation: The child has symptoms of glycogen storage disease. Glycogen is a glucose polymer with linear regions linked through the C1 aldehyde of one glucose to the C4 alcohol of the next (a-1,4-glucoside linkage). Separate enzymes for breakdown include phosphylases (a-1,4-glucosidases) that cleave linear regions of glycogen and debranching enzymes (a-1,6-glucosidases) that cleave branch points. 100. Match each features of the plasmid pBR322 22

Quest II
I II III IV V ampR sequence ori sequence tetR BamHI sequence pstI sequence a b c d e permits selection of bacteria containing the plasmid a sequence required invitro packing origin of replication cleavage of the plasmid here doesnt affect antibiotic resistance. insertion of foreign DNA here permits identification of recombinants

April 16, 2013

a. b. c. d. Explanation

I. a , II c, III a, IV e, IV e I. a , II c, III a, IV d, IV e I. a , II e, III c, IV b, IV d I. a , II b, III c, IV d, IV e

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