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1. Choose the BEST completion for this sentence: On-scene safety is the
responsibility of:

a. each crew member.

b. the senior responder.

c. the scene commander.

d. the police.

2. Disposable gloves, eye shields, masks, and gowns are known as:

a. airborne pathogen precautions.

b. bloodborne disease precautions.

c. disease prevention equipment.

d. personal protective equipment.

3. The EMT-B's ethical responsibilities and legal duties are called:

a. duty to act.

b. scope of practice.

c. advanced directives.

d. medical direction.

4. When informing an adult of a treatment that is needed and the associated

risks, the EMT-B is asking for __________ consent.

a. expressed

b. mutual

c. implied

d. emancipated

5. Regarding DNR orders, the EMT-B should go ahead and provide

resuscitation when:

a. a patient with no DNR order refuses care before losing

consciousness.

b. a family member tells you that the patient did not want
resuscitation.

c. the family shows you a handwritten DNR statement they attest was
written by the patient.

d. all of the above.

6. The upper jaw is called the:

a. mandible.

b. zygomatic.

c. maxillae.

d. mastoid.

7. The type of muscle tissue that controls the flow of materials through the
gastrointestinal system is:

a. voluntary.

b. involuntary.

c. cardiac.

d. skeletal.

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8. Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in the:

a. arms and legs.

b. blood vessels.

c. forehead.

d. heart.

9. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of passage of

oxygen from room air to the lungs?

a. nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, lung.

 b. larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli.

c. mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli.

d. epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli.

10. Pediatric airways differ from adult airways in that:

a. the child's tongue takes up proportionately less space.

b. the trachea is more rigid.

c. all structures are smaller and more easily obstructed.

d. all of the above.

11. The left atrium:

a. receives blood from the veins of the body.

b. receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

c. pumps blood to the lungs.

d. pumps blood to the body.

12. The major artery in the thigh is called the:

a. carotid.

b. femoral.

c. radial.

d. brachial.

13. The pressure on the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts
is the __________ pressure.

a. systolic

b. arterial

c. diastolic

d. residual

14. When lifting, always try to:

 a. communicate clearly and frequently with your partner.

b. lift without twisting.

c. know your physical ability and limitations.

d. all of the above.

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15. When carrying equipment with one hand, you should:

a. keep your back straight and locked.

b. lean to the opposite side for balance.

c. lean forward for balance.

d. lean slightly back for balance.

16. If a patient has an altered mental status, you should consider a(n)
__________ move.

a. emergency

b. urgent

c. non-urgent

d. immediate

17. A position of comfort for a patient with difficulty breathing is likely to

be:

a. lying flat on his stomach.

b. lying flat on his back.

c. sitting up.

d. lying flat on his back with his legs elevated.

18. When treating a patient with signs of shock, the EMT-B may elevate the
foot end of the backboard 8 to 12 inches. This is called the __________ position.

a. Fowler's
 b. Supine

c. Trendelenburg

d. Prone

19. The structures that branch off from the trachea, leading to the lungs, are
called right and left mainstem:

a. alveoli.

b. bronchi.

c. cricoids.

d. arterioles.

20. Which of the following signs would indicate your patient has inadequate
breathing?

a. breathing rate of 20 per minute

b. equal expansion of both sides of the chest

c. cyanosis of the lips

d. all of the above

21. The most reliable sign that your patient is being adequately ventilated by
a bag-valve mask is:

a. the patient begins breathing on his own.

b. the patient's chest rises.

c. the patient's pupils react.

d. the patient regains consciousness.

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22. A full oxygen cylinder has a pressure equal to __________ psi.

a. 2,000 to 2,200

b. 1,000 to 1,200

c. 1,500 to 1,700
 d. 3,000 to 3,500

23. A patient suffering COPD may have developed a "hypoxic drive" in which low
oxygen levels stimulate the body to breathe. In the prehospital setting, for a
COPD patient who is suffering chest pain or breathing difficulty:

a. oxygen should be administered as to any other patient,

regardless of the possible presence of a hypoxic drive.

b. oxygen should be withheld because administering it could wipe out

the patient's drive to breathe.

c. oxygen should be administered, but at a lower-than-normal flow

rate.

d. oxygen should be administered, but for no longer than 30 seconds at

a time.

24. Scenario: You are treating a 27-year-old male who is

unconscious. He is not breathing and you have determined that the airway is
blocked. What should you do first?

a. Begin positive pressure ventilations.

b. Administer high-concentration oxygen.

c. Perform the Heimlich maneuver.

d. Insert a nasal airway.

25. Scenario: You are treating a 28-year-old female who fell 20 feet while
roofing a house. After determining that she is unresponsive, you would
immediately:

a. open her airway using a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver.

b. open her airway using a jaw-thrust maneuver.

c. start high concentration oxygen using a nonrebreather mask.

d. log-roll her onto a long spine board.

26. When performing the initial assessment of a responsive adult patient, you
should assess the _______ pulse.

a. carotid

b. femoral
 c. radial

d. brachial

27. Scenario: You arrive at the scene of a fall. You find a 42-year-old woman
lying on the ground under a ladder. She says she only fell a couple of feet. She
is complaining of pain in her ankle. Which of the following components of the
initial assessment are you not able to determine from the information given?

a. general impression

b. airway

c. breathing

d. transport priority

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28. Scenario: You are assessing a patient's respirations. You find that the
respirations are 18, normal, and regular. The word "normal" is used to reflect the
__________ of the respirations.

a. quality

b. rate

c. rhythm

d. time

29. Where is the carotid pulse located?

a. behind the knee

b. at the wrist

c. in the neck

d. in the groin

30. Lack of oxygen in blood cells and tissues resulting from inadequate
breathing or heart function will cause the skin to be:

a. green.

b. cyanotic.
 c. red.

d. jaundiced.

31. When taking a patient's blood pressure, the bladder in the cuff should be
centered over the __________ artery.

a. radial

b. carotid

c. brachial

d. femoral

32. In the blood pressure reading 120 over 70, "70" represents the __________
pressure.

a. systolic

b. active

c. diastolic

d. pulse

33. A patient may lose consciousness before arriving at the hospital. This is
one reason why it is important, at the scene, to:

a. obtain a SAMPLE history.

b. assess and record vital signs.

c. immobilize the head and spine.

d. conduct a complete physical exam.

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34. Scenario: Your 40-year-old female patient is conscious and alert. She fell
out of bed and is complaining of right hip pain. She should receive:

a. a rapid trauma assessment.

b. a focused physical exam.

c. a head-to-toe "DCAP-BTLS."
 d. all of the above.

35. Scenario: While performing a focused physical exam, your trauma patient
begins breathing very rapidly. You should:

a. make a mental note and continue with your exam.

b. stop your exam and provide appropriate care.

c. re-assess beginning with the patient's head.

d. re-evaluate the mechanism of injury.

36. When responding to the patient who has no significant mechanism of injury,
you should:

a. focus your assessment on the areas that the patient tells you are
painful.

b. complete only the initial assessment and assessment of distal

function.

c. continue to assess every body part from head to toe.

d. focus on just the patient's airway and cervical spine.

37. A detailed physical exam is most appropriate for:

a. the trauma patient who is unresponsive.

b. the medical patient who is responsive.

c. a trauma patient without a significant mechanism of injury.

d. any patient over the age of 16 years.

38. Scenario: A 25-year-old female patient fell off of a ski lift. She is
responsive and complains of head pain. During the detailed physical exam, you
should evaluate her face looking for:

a. jugular vein distention.

b. rashes and hives.

c. softness or rigidity.

d. deformities and contusions.

39. Scenario: A 30-year-old female patient fell off of her bicycle. She was
not wearing a helmet. During your detailed exam, you notice a bruise behind her
left ear. This is most likely a sign of:

a. possible hearing loss.

b. a head injury.

c. a mandible injury.

d. a past injury to that area.

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40. Scenario: Your patient complains of chest pain but says he cannot explain
how his pain feels. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate?

a. Does the pain get better when you rest?

b. Is your pain dull or sharp or burning or crushing?

c. Does the pain get worse when you lie down?

d. Is your pain severe?

41. Scenario: Your patient is a 78-year-old male with a history of chest pain.
You should find out which medications he takes during the:

a. SAMPLE history.

b. OPQRST exam.

c. ongoing assessment.

d. initial assessment.

42. Scenario: After you have helped a 53-year-old female patient with the
administration of her inhaler, she denies any breathing difficulty. You should:

a. have a family member stay and observe her for any side effects.

b. transport her to the hospital for further observation and

treatment.

c. advise her to see her family physician as soon as possible.

d. give her instructions on the use of the inhaler and leave her with
a family member.
43. While conducting an ongoing assessment, you should check your patient
interventions and:

a. repeat the initial assessment.

b. reassess and record vital signs.

c. repeat the focused assessment.

d. all of the above.

44. You should repeat the ongoing assessment to establish trends in the
condition of a stable patient every _____ minutes.

a. 30

b. 15

c. 5

d. 10

45. Scenario: A 46-year-old male patient has a deformed and painful jaw
following a motor-vehicle crash. He has an altered mental status and inadequate
breathing. You also suspect severe internal bleeding. You should trend this
patient's condition every _____ minutes.

a. 15

b. 10

c. 5

d. 30

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46. The ongoing assessment may be skipped:

a. if you determine the mechanism of injury was insignificant.

b. if you have already conducted a focused history and physical exam.

c. if you have already conducted a detailed physical exam.

d. when life-saving interventions prevent doing it.

47. All of the following are true of vital sign measurements in pediatric
patients EXCEPT:

a. 100 beats per minute is a normal pulse rate for a 4-year-old.

b. blood pressure would not be taken in a child under 6 years of age.

c. a low pulse in a pediatric patient is more serious than a high

pulse.

d. 20 to 30 breaths per minute is a normal respiration rate for a 1-

year-old.

48. Scenario: At the emergency scene, you discover that neither the patient
nor his family speak English. All of the following are appropriate ways to aid
communication with this family EXCEPT:

a. find a bystander who can interpret.

b. use a manual that provides translations.

c. simply care for the patient without speaking.

d. ask your dispatcher to locate an interpreter.

49. The elements of a prehospital care report include all of the following
EXCEPT:

a. run data.

b. patient data.

c. computer data.

d. narrative.

50. You should write the patient's mechanism of injury in which part of the
patient care report?

a. patient data section

b. check boxes section

c. run data section

d. computer data section

51. Your patient has an altered mental status and declines to sign your
patient refusal form. You should:
 a. advise him he is required to sign the release form.

b. advise him he will be arrested.

c. find a witness to sign a statement confirming that the patient

declines to sign a refusal form.

d. none of the above.

52. Your intoxicated medical patient refuses treatment. You should do all of
the following EXCEPT:

a. document any actions you took to protect the patient.

b. document that you told the patient of the potential results of

refusing care.

c. document that no assessment was conducted because the patient

refused treatment.

d. document the patient's competency to make decisions.

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53. Using the times given by the dispatcher when you write your report is
important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a. determining how long a patient has been in cardiac arrest.

b. recording trends in the patient's condition.

c. quality review of system ambulance response times.

d. clocking your driving speed to the emergency scene.

54. In most EMS systems, before you help a patient self-administer a

prescribed inhaler, you will need permission from:

a. the patient's personal physician.

b. medical direction.

c. the family.

d. the ALS squad.

55. Which of the following signs is characteristic of adult respiratory

distress?
 a. decreased pulse rate

b. respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute

c. use of the accessory muscles

d. bilateral chest expansion

56. Scenario: A 50-year-old female patient has chronic bronchitis. The initial
assessment finds her breathing rate is six times per minute and her skin is cool
and clammy to the touch. Your next action should be to:

a. administer oxygen by nasal cannula at 15 liters per minute.

b. assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental

oxygen.

c. administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

d. place the patient in sitting position and reassess her breathing.

57. Scenario: A 63-year-old patient is unresponsive and breathing at a rate of

28 and very shallow. You would manage this patient by:

a. seeing if the patient will tolerate a nasal cannula.

b. providing artificial ventilation.

c. seeing if the patient will tolerate a nonrebreather mask.

d. using the pocket face mask without supplemental oxygen.

58. Scenario: A 60-year-old male patient is not breathing. He has a pulse of

40 per minute. One sign of effective artificial ventilation is:

a. the pulse remains the same.

b. dilation of patient's pupils.

c. the pulse rate returns to normal.

d. the skin becomes cool and pink.

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59. Which of the following is a generic name for the medication in a

prescribed inhaler?
 a. procainamide

b. furosemide

c. albuterol

d. tolbutamide

60. Which of the following is a contraindication of a prescribed inhaler?

a. Patient is experiencing inadequate breathing.

b. Patient has prescribed hand-held inhaler.

c. Medical direction gives authorization to use.

d. Patient has adequate ventilation.

61. The adequate rate for ventilation of infants and children is _____ breaths
per minute.

a. 25

b. 20

c. 12

d. 30

62. Management for a child experiencing an upper airway obstruction due to

blood and teeth includes:

a. suctioning.

b. refraining from placing anything in the mouth.

c. applying nonrebreather mask, then suction.

d. artificial ventilation, then suction.

63. Which of the following is a sign of a lower respiratory problem?

a. a harsh, high pitched sound

b. rapid breathing

c. wheezing

d. breathing effort on inhalation

64. Scenario: Your adult chest-pain patient is breathing adequately. She is
conscious and alert. You should:

a. administer oxygen through a nasal cannula.

b. administer oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

c. use the pocket face mask without supplemental oxygen.

d. use the pocket face mask with a low concentration of oxygen.

65. The cardiac conduction system disturbance that most commonly results in
cardiac arrest is:

a. pulseless electrical activity.

b. ventricular fibrillation.

c. ventricular tachycardia.

d. asystole.

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66. Which of the following is a shockable rhythm?

a. sinus rhythm

b. asystole

c. ventricular fibrillation

d. pulseless electrical activity

67. Which of the following cardiac arrest patients should you defibrillate?

a. an 8-year-old who has a head injury

b. a 12-year-old with asthma

c. a 6-year-old who has a fractured femur

d. an infant with sudden infant death syndrome

68. Children:
 a. rarely go into a shockable rhythm.

b. frequently go into cardiac arrest from heart disease.

c. usually require aggressive chest compressions during cardiac

arrest.

d. require chest compression but not ventilation when in cardiac

arrest.

69. Depending on the circumstances, the quickest way to obtain ACLS

intervention for a patient in cardiac arrest may be any of the following EXCEPT:

a. wait for the ACLS team to arrive at the scene.

b. rendezvous with an ACLS team en route to the hospital.

c. transport the patient to a clinic with ACLS capability before

continuing on to the hospital.

d. undertake transport directly to the hospital even though an ACLS

team may be available closer to the scene.

70. What should you do when you are about to defibrillate a patient who has a
nitroglycerin patch?

a. Leave the patch in place.

b. Remove the patch.

c. Defibrillate around the patch.

d. Contact medical direction for guidance.

71. An advantage of automated defibrillation, as contrasted with manual

defibrillation, is that with automated defibrillation:

a. defibrillation can usually be initiated more quickly.

b. EMT-Bs do not have to perform an initial assessment.

c. EMT-Bs do not have to confirm cardiac arrest.

d. it is easier for the EMT-B to interpret the rhythms.

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72. One characteristic of automated defibrillation as contrasted with manual
defibrillation is that ONLY automated defibrillators:

a. will defibrillate ventricular fibrillation.

b. deliver defibrillation through adhesive pads.

c. deliver defibrillation through paddles.

d. can provide "early defibrillation."

73. Where should you attach the white cable monitoring-defibrillation pad?

a. in the angle between the sternum and the left clavicle

b. in the angle between the sternum and the right clavicle

c. on the upper third of the sternum

d. on the lower third of the sternum

74. Scenario: You are transporting a cardiac arrest patient to the hospital.
Your emergency vehicle is moving at 50 miles per hour. Your medical direction
advises you to deliver three shocks. You should immediately:

a. continue at 50 miles per hour and analyze patient's rhythm.

b. continue at 50 miles per hour and deliver 3 stacked shocks.

c. slow to maximum 15 miles per hour and analyze patient's rhythm.

d. stop the vehicle to analyze the patient's rhythm.

75. Scenario: You have delivered three shocks with the semiautomatic
defibrillator. Your cardiac arrest patient is breathing adequately with a pulse.
What should you do next?

a. Deliver another shock to assure patient does not arrest again.

b. Provide artificial ventilation with high-concentration oxygen and

transport.

c. Give high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask and transport.

d. Check pulse and deliver two more shocks.

76. Treatment of the conscious patient with diabetes may include:

a. providing cardiac compressions.

 b. giving oral glucose.

c. giving patient's prescribed insulin.

d. giving low concentration oxygen by nasal cannula.

77. One of the trade names for oral glucose is:

a. Alupent.

b. Nipride.

c. Inderol.

d. Glutose.

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78. What should be done to care for the patient who is suffering or has just
suffered a seizure?

a. Restrain the patient.

b. Position the patient on his side.

c. Place a bite block in the patient's mouth.

d. Administer a sedative medication.

79. In caring for the patient suffering a severe allergic reaction, you must
obtain permission from medical direction to:

a. administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

b. provide artificial respirations, if needed.

c. help the patient administer his epinephrine auto-injector.

d. transport the patient to the hospital.

80. The most frequent victims of accidental poisonings are:

a. children.

b. the elderly.

c. the seriously ill.

 d. teenagers.

81. A common symptom of poison ingestion is:

a. nausea.

b. chest pain.

c. muscle pain.

d. difficulty breathing.

82. Scenario: Your 2-year-old male patient has ingested an unknown quantity of
aspirin. He is conscious and alert. You will most likely be told by medical
direction to:

a. administer milk.

b. administer activated charcoal.

c. induce vomiting.

d. administer oral glucose.

83. When you treat a child for a suspected poison ingestion, you should:

a. assume children will not swallow most poisons.

b. treat for the worst.

c. assume the child has not ingested a lethal amount.

d. treat the least potential life threat first.

84. The single most important treatment for an inhaled poisoning, after airway
management, is to:

a. transport.

b. contact medical direction.

c. administer high concentration oxygen.

d. administer activated charcoal.

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85. All of the following are contraindications for the use of activated
charcoal EXCEPT:

a. aspirin overdose.

b. altered mental status.

c. ingestion of acids or alkalis.

d. patient is unable to swallow.

86. Which of the following is a side effect of activated charcoal?

a. constipation

b. headache

c. vomiting

d. low blood pressure

87. Scenario: Your 70-year-female patient has recently ingested an unknown

quantity of Tylenol with codeine. She is conscious and alert. You have managed her
airway, conducted the focused history and physical exam, and assessed her vital
signs. Your next action should be to:

a. call medical direction.

b. administer syrup of ipecac.

c. administer activated charcoal.

d. administer mineral oil.

88. Treatment of the patient suffering from a drug withdrawal includes all of
the following EXCEPT:

a. looking away from the patient when communicating.

b. using the patient's name often.

c. transporting the patient as soon as possible.

d. maintaining eye contact with the patient.

89. Which of the following signs or symptoms might you expect to see in a
patient suffering from severe hypothermia?

a. irrational behavior
 b. excessive mucous production

c. blood tinged sputum

d. burning or itching in the underarms

90. Scenario: Your hypothermic patient is alert and responding appropriately.

All of the following are acceptable emergency care steps EXCEPT:

a. removing the patient's wet clothing.

b. transporting the patient to the hospital.

c. covering the patient with warm blankets.

d. rewarming the patient's limbs.

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91. During core rewarming of a hypothermic patient, you apply heat to all the
following areas EXCEPT:

a. head.

b. soles of the feet.

c. armpits.

d. lower back.

92. Signs or symptoms of a heat-related emergency with moist, pale, normal-to-

cool skin include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. rapid, shallow breathing.

b. strong and bounding pulse.

c. heavy perspiration.

d. abdominal muscle cramps.

93. To manage the airway of a near-drowning patient with a suspected neck

injury, you should use __________ to open the airway.

a. whatever maneuver is necessary

b. the chin-lift maneuver

 c. the head-tilt maneuver

d. the jaw-thrust maneuver

94. Scenario: According to her family, your 24-year-old female patient

suddenly began to act hostile. Her skin is pale and moist. She tells you she is
"starving." You notice she is drooling. Your general impression is a/an:

a. psychological condition caused by alcohol ingestion.

b. emotional condition without physical cause.

c. behavioral emergency caused by a physical condition.

d. psychological condition caused by a traumatic experience.

95. In addition to a mental illness or other psychiatric condition, which of

the following might trigger an emergency that would be categorized as psychiatric?

a. a strenuous job schedule

b. forgetting to take medication prescribed for a psychiatric

condition

c. low blood sugar

d. a stressful life situation such as a divorce or the death of a love

one

96. Scenario: A 16-year-old minor patient has ingested hallucinogenic

mushrooms. He is talking irrationally and vomiting excessively. He agrees to
treatment but does not want to be transported. Your best next action would be to:

a. contact medical direction for advice.

b. leave after advising the family physician of the situation.

c. ask the patient to sign a release form and return to the station.

d. stay with the patient until he has recovered.

Page 16

97. Which of the following steps should you take to calm the behavioral
emergency patient?

a. "Play along" with any visual disturbances the patient may describe.
 b. Listen to the patient and acknowledge his feelings.

c. Keep the family away from the patient.

d. Stand or sit very close to the patient.

98. All of the following are appropriate methods for treating the suicidal
patient EXCEPT:

a. treating life-threatening problems to the extent the patient will

permit.

b. telling the patient you think he/she should go to the hospital.

c. leaving the patient alone.

d. speaking slowly.

99. The muscular abdominal organ where the fetus develops is called the:

a. placenta.

b. uterus.

c. birth canal.

d. ovarian chamber.

100. The fetal structure containing vessels that carry blood to and from the
placenta is called the:

a. uterus.

b. birth canal.

c. umbilical cord.

d. cervix.

101. The plastic bag contained in the obstetric kit is intended to be used to
carry:

a. sanitary napkins.

b. the placenta after it is delivered.

c. oxygen tubing.

d. cord clamps and hemostats.

102. Which of the following is a common sign or symptom of a predelivery
emergency?

a. mother's skin is red and dry

b. profuse vaginal bleeding

c. "bloody show"

d. itchy skin

103. Seizures in pregnancy commonly occur:

a. during the first 6 weeks past conception.

b. in the first three months of the pregnancy.

c. in mid-pregnancy.

d. late in the pregnancy.

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104. Uterine contractions are assessed by placing your gloved hand on:

a. the right side of her abdomen.

b. her abdomen below the naval.

c. her abdomen above the naval.

d. the left side of her abdomen.

105. The most common abnormal delivery is a:

a. limb presentation.

b. prolapsed umbilical cord.

c. breech delivery.

d. cephalic delivery.

106. Scenario: As the baby begins to deliver, you see that the cord is
prolapsed. You should do all of the following EXCEPT:
 a. position the mother on her left side with her head up.

b. check the cord for pulses, and wrap the cord with a sterile towel.

c. elevate the mother's hips to help take pressure off of the cord.

d. insert several fingers of a gloved hand into the vagina and gently
push up on the baby's head.

107. All of the following are true regarding the birth of twins EXCEPT:

a. there may be either one or two placentas.

b. the babies are typically smaller than in a single birth.

c. you should be prepared for multiple resuscitations.

d. twin births are considered a complication.

108. One of the most important steps you can take in caring for the premature
baby is to:

a. give the baby high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

b. keep the baby warm.

c. suction fluids only from the nose.

d. encourage family members to hold the baby.

109. Scenario: You and your partner are assessing a 42-year-old male patient who
is on his front lawn. His wife states he was trimming the hedges when she saw him
suddenly fall to the ground. He is wheezing, and the skin of his upper chest is
marked with reddish blotches. His vitals are pulse 120, respirations 28, and BP
100/68. After administering oxygen, what is likely to be your next course of
action?

a. assisting with a bronchodilator treatment, if medical direction

permits

b. assisting with prescribed epinephrine, if medical direction concurs

c. inserting an oral airway, and preparing to defibrillate

d. administering activated charcoal to counteract fertilizer poisoning

Page 18
110. Scenario: You respond to a call for a 16-year-old who has taken some pills
in an effort to harm herself. Her mental status is alert, and her vitals are
within normal range. She states she took a whole bottle of aspirin because she is
upset about finding out she is pregnant. She also tells you that she is an
emancipated minor. What is the best course of action for this patient?

a. Administer oxygen and transport immediately.

b. Ask her to sign an emergency care release-from-liability form.

c. Transport and ask medical direction for advice on activated

charcoal during pregnancy.

d. Assist in the administration of epinephrine, if medical direction

allows it, and transport.

111. Scenario: You are treating a 28-year-old female patient who has had
abdominal pain for two hours. After obtaining her vital signs, which are pulse
120, respirations 24, and BP 110/72, she decides she does not want to go to the
hospital. What is the highest priority for the treatment of this patient?

a. Begin ventilations with high-concentration oxygen.

b. Let her sign a "release" form since her pain seems to be going
away.

c. Contact medical direction for permission to administer epinephrine.

d. Explain that she could be bleeding internally and needs to be seen

by a physician.

112. The circulatory system is responsible for:

a. taking in oxygen and getting rid of wastes.

b. electrolyte balance.

c. distribution of blood to the body.

d. breaking down foods into usable energy.

113. A steady flow of dark red blood from a wound is bleeding from a/an:

a. artery.

b. vein.

c. capillary.

d. all of the above.

114. Of the following, your first choice for controlling external bleeding from
an extremity should be:

a. use of pressure points.

b. use of a tourniquet.

c. elevation of the extremity.

d. direct pressure.

115. You should use the pressure point at the brachial artery to control
bleeding from:

a. an upper extremity.

b. a lower extremity.

c. the face.

d. a foot.

Page 19

116. Body substance isolation (BSI) precautions taken when there is a high
probability of blood splatter should include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. gloves.

b. protective eyewear.

c. masks.

d. oral airway adjunct.

117. The patient with suspected internal bleeding should be given oxygen by:

a. nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

b. nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute.

c. nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute.

d. nonrebreather mask at 8 liters per minute.

118. A late sign of shock is:

 a. increased pulse.

b. decreased blood pressure.

c. increased respirations.

d. cool, clammy, pale skin.

119. Scenario: A 17-year-old male patient has been involved in a fight. You find
a pencil impaled in his upper arm. Your management would include:

a. removal of the pencil to bandage the wound.

b. stabilizing the pencil with a bulky dressing.

c. applying a tourniquet to control bleeding.

d. cutting the exposed portion of the pencil off to ease bandaging and
transport.

120. Scenario: A 54-year-old male patient has been involved in a car crash.
Window glass has caused an open neck wound. You should dress this wound with:

a. an occlusive dressing.

b. a sterile gauze dressing.

c. a moist gauze dressing.

d. butterfly bandages.

121. Scenario: You are caring for a 24-year-old female patient who accidentally
spilled an alkaline drain cleaner on her forearm. The cleaner has been washed off
but the arm is still painful, red, and blistered. This burn would be classified
as:

a. partial-thickness.

b. severe.

c. superficial.

d. full-thickness.

Page 20

122. As an EMT-B, you should be familiar with the various types of dressings and
bandages. As a rule, dressings should:

a. be sterile.

b. provide an air tight seal.

c. be placed over all bandages.

d. all of the above.

123. In which of the following situations might you remove an impaled object?

a. A knife has punctured a lung.

b. A piece of metal has punctured the bowel.

c. A steel rod has punctured the skull.

d. A thin piece of wire has punctured the cheek.

124. Scenario: Your patient has been exposed to an unknown chemical that has
soaked his clothing. You should immediately flush the patient with:

a. water.

b. a neutralizing solution.

c. vinegar.

d. a baking soda solution.

125. The major problem caused by electrical shock is often not the burn itself.
The most serious problem to consider is:

a. shock.

b. hypothermia.

c. respiratory or cardiac arrest.

d. brain damage.

126. The collarbones, shoulder blades, arms, wrists, and hands are components of
the:

a. thorax.

b. lower extremities.

c. upper extremities.
 d. spinal column.

127. Scenario: Your 35-year-old male patient has fallen while rock climbing.
During your assessment, you find a deformed right lower leg. The distal extremity
is pulseless and the skin is cool and cyanotic. Your emergency treatment for this
injury should include:

a. splinting the extremity as it is.

b. attempting to realign the injured extremity.

c. applying a traction splint.

d. moving the patient to your ambulance before splinting.

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128. Which of the following splinting devices would NOT be appropriate for the
management of a fractured tibia?

a. air inflated splint

b. two rigid board splints

c. traction splint

d. single rigid splint with ankle hitch

129. Most messages sent from the brain first travel along the:

a. spinal cord.

b. peripheral nerves.

c. sensory nerves.

d. autonomic nerves.

130. Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing a patient to a
long spine board?

a. head, torso, legs

b. legs, torso, head

c. torso, legs, head

 d. head, legs, torso

131. When caring for a preschool child, it is important to remember that this
age child:

a. has little fear of anything.

b. has not yet developed a sense of modesty.

c. does not mind being separated from his parents.

d. may think illness or injury is punishment for being bad.

132. When caring for an adolescent, it is important to remember that patients of

this age have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT they:

a. want their parents to be present during examination.

b. are modest and embarrassed about having clothing removed.

c. prize their dignity and want to be talked to as if they are adults.

d. are especially fearful of permanent injury and disfigurement.

133. Scenario: You are caring for a 10-month-old, crying female patient. She has
swallowed a piece of a hot dog, which is causing a partial airway obstruction.
Your treatment should include:

a. back blows and chest thrusts.

b. blind finger sweep to attempt removal of the object.

c. high-concentration oxygen by blow-by or nonrebreather.

d. ventilations by bag-valve mask and oxygen.

Page 22

134. Scenario: Your 4-year-old male patient has swallowed a marble, which is
causing a complete airway obstruction. Your immediate care should include:

a. CPR.

b. oxygen by pediatric nonrebreather.

c. back blows and chest thrusts.

d. abdominal thrusts.
135. An important concept to understand about shock in infants and children is
that:

a. their bodies cannot compensate for blood loss for very long.

b. decompensating shock develops very gradually.

c. they compensate for a long time, then decompensate rapidly.

d. it takes a higher percentage of blood loss to cause shock in a

child.

136. A sign of decreased perfusion in a 2-year-old patient is:

a. strong, rapid peripheral pulse.

b. flushed skin.

c. delayed capillary refill.

d. over-activity.

137. Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in infants?

a. epilepsy

b. head injury

c. poisoning

d. fever

138. A common pattern in a child struck by an automobile includes injuries to

all of the following EXCEPT the:

a. head

b. upper extremities.

c. abdomen.

d. lower extremities.

139. A device used to carry patients over a long distance through rough terrain
is a:

a. Stokes basket.
 b. scoop stretcher.

c. Reeves stretcher.

d. wheeled ambulance stretcher.

140. Which is an optional item to be carried on an ambulance?

a. set of rigid cervical collars

b. folding stair chair

c. child safety seat

d. hypothermia thermometer

Page 23

141. Of the following devices, which one is NOT an essential item to carry on
the ambulance for prehospital respiratory care?

a. an adult and a pediatric nasal cannula.

b. a flow-restricted, oxygen powered ventilation device.

c. an automatic transport ventilator.

d. nonrebreather masks.

142. Chemical cold packs should be carried on an EMS unit for:

a. musculoskeletal injuries.

b. abdominal injuries.

c. respiratory illness.

d. cardiac illness.

143. The phases of an ambulance call include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. preparation.

b. billing and collections.

c. transporting to the hospital.

 d. receiving and responding.

144. When using the siren, the EMT-B should:

a. use it sparingly.

b. never assume that all motorists will hear it.

c. be prepared for erratic movements of motorists.

d. all of the above.

145. One factor contributing to unsafe driving conditions that the driver can
control is:

a. the day of the week.

b. weather conditions.

c. speed of the vehicle.

d. time of day.

146. When you are on the scene of a collision and have determined that the
patient's status is stable, the call is considered:

a. a true emergency.

b. due regard.

c. no longer a true emergency.

d. a priority one response.

147. Examples of specialty rescue teams include all the following EXCEPT:

a. hazmat, back country rescue.

b. farm, high-angle rescue.

c. confined space, water rescue.

d. ALS response unit.

Page 24
148. Scenario: An unconscious patient is found sitting in the front passenger
seat with his legs pinned by the vehicle's dash. Once he has been freed, the
removal method to use is:

a. the rapid takedown technique.

b. a Kendrick Extrication Device.

c. the rapid extrication technique.

d. full immobilization to a long board.

149. When an airbag has deployed, the manufacturer recommends that the EMS
personnel:

a. air out the car for several minutes prior to treating the patient.

b. make the patient a lower triage priority.

c. lift the airbag and look for a damaged steering wheel.

d. disable the battery.

150. When there is a fire in an automobile's engine compartment, you should:

a. quickly and carefully remove the patient.

b. assure that the fire department has been called.

c. don protective gear and use your fire extinguisher.

d. all of the above.

Page 1

1. a

2. d

3. b

4. a

5. d

6. c

7. b

8. b
9. c

10. c

11. b

12. b

13. a

14. d

15. a

16. b

17. c

18. c

19. b

20. c

21. b

22. a

23. a

24. c

25. b

26. c

27. d

28. a

29. c

30. b

31. c

32. c

33. a

34. b

35. b

36. a

37. a
38. d

39. b

40. b

41. a

42. b

43. d

44. b

45. c

46. d

47. b

48. c

49. c

50. a

51. c

Page 2

52. c

53. d

54. b

55. c

56. b

57. b

58. c

59. c

60. d

61. b

62. a

63. c

64. b
65. b

66. c

67. b

68. a

69. d

70. b

71. a

72. b

73. b

74. d

75. c

76. b

77. d

78. b

79. c

80. a

81. a

82. b

83. b

84. c

85. a

86. c

87. a

88. a

89. a

90. d

91. b

92. b

93. d
94. c

95. b

96. a

97. b

98. c

99. b

100. c

101. b

102. b

Page 3

103. d

104. c

105. c

106. a

107. d

108. b

109. b

110. c

111. d

112. c

113. b

114. d

115. a

116. d

117. a

118. b

119. b

120. a
121. a

122. a

123. d

124. a

125. c

126. c

127. b

128. c

129. a

130. c

131. d

132. a

133. c

134. d

135. c

136. c

137. d

138. b

139. a

140. c

141. c

142. a

143. b

144. d

145. c

146. c

147. d

148. c

149. c
150. d