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SAIL Management Trainee Recruitment 2013 - Syllabus and Exam Pattern

Steel Authority of India (SAIL), an Indian Maharatna public sector company has invited applications from Indian students for the post of Management Trainee (Technical) and Management Trainee (Administration). This SAIL Management trainee recruitment 2013 examination may be held in last month of may. SAIL has projected vacancies of 558 for Technical and 82 for Administration Management trainee post. The last day of online application is set to 3rd of April, 2013. Admit card for SAIL recruitment can be downloaded from 13th may onwards. At this time you should successfully submit your application on official website of SAIL,www.sail.co.in. If you have already submitted your application, you might be in dilemma that how should you prepare for Sail examination, what is the syllabus of SAIL examination, what is the exam pattern of Sail examination, what are the subjects you should choose to crack this exam, how to crack Sail examination etc. Here in this post i will try to solve out of questions of your mind. I start with the exam pattern as well as syllabus of SAIL recuitment, then i will give some tips and tricks to crack this exam. Exam Pattern of SAIL Management Trainee Recruitment 2013 : Eligible candidates will be required to appear in a written examination. After clearing written test candidates will go through an interview and group discussion round. The written exam for both the posts above mentioned will be held on same day as per the following schedule 1. For MT (Technical) - in the Forenoon session 2. For MT (Admin) - in the Afternoon session Candidates can apply and compete for both the post of management trainee.

Syllabus of SAIL Management Trainee Recruitment 2013 : The written test will have five sectionsDomain Knowledge Test (technical/admin.) for 100 marks in duration of 75 minutes Aptitude Test for 100 marks in duration of 75 minutes. Aptitude test will consist of four separate parts as below Quantitative aptitude - 25 marks Reasoning - 25 marks English Verbal ability - 25 marks

General awareness - 25 marks Overall this SAIL examination is of 200 marks in duration of 1.5 hours.There is negative marking for wrong answered questions. To be eligible for group discussion and interview, candidate will have to qualify in each section by scoring minimum 50 percentile marks.

Tips and Tricks to crack SAIL Recruitment 2013 Exam To crack SAIL Exam, the first thing you have to improve is your question attempting speed and accuracy. To crack or qualify SAIL exam you have to score minimum marks in each section, as there is individual cut off in all sections. Always make a proper idea in your mind that for what section of exam you should start and proceed. Beside these I am discussing about individual sections of SAIL Exam 2013......

Domain Knowledge Test (Technical) :- This section consists of technical questions for 100 marks. This section tests your academics technical knowledge. For electronics branch students - consist questions mainly from engineering mathematics, control system, microprocessor, network circuits, digital electronics, analog electronics, electromagnetic theory (EMT) and digital commnication subjects. For electrical branch students - consist questions mainly from engineering mathematics, control system, network circuit, digital electronics, dc machines, electromagnetic theory (EMT). General Intelligence + Reasoning :- This section includes questions related to numbers/letter/word problems, missing number problems, direction sensing problems and mainly figures problems. General Awareness :- Just cram up dead general knowledge but mainly consist of current affairs. This part will include questions relating to India especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity & Scientic Research. Here i advice you to refer Lucent general knowledge book , which will be more beneficial to qualify this section. Quantitative Aptitude :- This section includes mathematics problems up to secondary class. These are basic problems. English Comprehension :- This section of SAIL exam includes problems of sentence errors, synonyms, antonyms and passage questions.

SAIL Electronics and Electrical engineering objective type questions with answers for practice, SAIL model questions for practice,SAIL free solved sample placement papers of previous years

1. To neglect a voltage source, the terminals across the source are (A) open circuited (B) short circuited (Ans) (C) replaced by some resistance (D) replaced by an inductor 2. Current I0 in the given circuit will be

(A) 10 A (B) 3.33 A (Ans) (C) 20 A (D) 2.5 A Solution : RT = 2 + 2 || [1 + (2 || 2)] = 2 + 2 || (1 + 1) = 2 + 2 || 2 = 2 + 1 = 3 So I = 40 A 3 By current 2 2 3 3 I0 = 3.33 A

division I0 = 1 * 1 * 40

= 10 A

3. In a resonant circuit, the power factor at resonance is (A) zero (B) unity (Ans) (C) 0.5 (D) 1.5 4. In the given circuit voltage V is reduced to half. The current will become

(A) (B) (C) (D)

I/2 (Ans) 2I 1.5 I I / R2 + (XL + XC)2 Solution : I a V if 5. The (s + 1) (s + 2)

reduced 2 function

half

current

becomes I . 3s has

(A) (B) (C) (D)

one zero, two poles (Ans) no zero, one pole no zero, two poles one zero, no pole Solution : G (s) = 3s (s + 1) (s + 2)

has one zero at s = 0 and two poles at s = - 1, - 2.

6. One electron volt is equivalent to (A) 1.6 * 10-10 J (B) 1.6 * 10-13 J (C) 1.6 * 10-16 J (D) 1.6 * 10-19 J (Ans) 7. Which of the following is donor impurity element ? (A) Aluminium (B) Boron (C) Phosphorous (Ans) (D) Indium. 8. The diameter of an atom is of the order (A) 10-6 m (B) 10-10 m (Ans) (C) 10-15 m (D) 10-21 m 9. The following Figure represents

(A) (B) (C) (D)

LED (Ans) Varistor SCR Diac

10. If the d.c. valve of a rectified output is 300 V and peak to peak ripple voltage is 10 V, the ripple factor is (A) 1.18% (B) 3.33% (Ans) (C) 3.36% (D) 6.66% Solution : rms value of output = 3002 + 102 = 300.166 V Average value = 300 V Form factor RMS value = 300.166 = 1.00055. Average value 300 Ripple factor = (Form factor)2 - 1 = (1.0005)2 - 1 = 0.0333 = 3.33%. 11. Full wave rectifier output has ripple factor of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1.11 (Ans) 1.21 1.41 1.51

12. In a common base connection IE = 2 mA, IC = 1.9 mA. The value of base current is (A) 0.1 m (Ans) (B) 0.2 mA (C) 0.3 mA (D) zero Solution : IE = 2 mA IC = 1.9 mA Ib = IE - IC = (2 - 1.9) = 0.1 mA. 13. (A) (B) (C) (D) 14. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 15. (A) (B) (C) (D) For the action of transistor the base region must be P-type material N-type material very narrow (Ans) highly doped Compared to a CB amplifier the CE amplifier has higher current amplification output dynamic resistance leakage current input dynamic resistance all of the above (Ans) When a transistor is biased to cut-off its Y is 0.5 0 1.0 (Ans) 0.8

SAIL English paper for MT Management trainee Examination electronics and electrical verbal ability English) solved question papers, SAIL MT written examination previous years solved

question papers,SAIL free solved sample placement papers with solutions, SAIL technical job interview question for fresher job management trainee recruitment notification and details 20122013 SAIL CSE,EEE,ECE Mechanical engineering cse and all branch wise solved question
papers,All IT companiesTCS,Infosys,Wipro,HCL .....Non IT companies ...BHEL,BEL.ECIL EIL ONGC....Bank IBPS PO CWE clerks,IBPS gramine Banks RRB solved question papers SAIL Mental ability,anlytical,english reasoning aptitude questions with answers and solution SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT2010,2011,2012 question papers

1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is A. 5.7 mH B. 5.85 mH C. 6 mH D. 6.15 mH.
1.A. When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance is Leff=L1+L22m. Inthiscase,Leff=L1+L2-2M =2+4-20.15 =5.7mH.

2. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be

2.C. The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that ofAorC,i.e.,1V.

3. Optocouplers combine A. SITs and BJTs B. IGBTs and MOSFETS C. Power transformers and silicon transistor D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor
3.D. In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals from the power circuit.

4. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as A. Gross error B. Absolute error

C. Dynamic error D. Relative error


4.C. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as dynamic error.

5. The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to : A. linear time variant systems B. non-linear time variant systems C. linear time invariant systems D. non-linear time invariant systems.
5.C. The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time invariant systems.

6. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0, A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices. D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.
6.D. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with I / 0 data.

7. The transistor shown in figure below, is biased

1. at cut-off 2.at saturation 3.well into saturation 4.well into cut-off


7.B. Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A. IC = 100 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v. Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation.

8. In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon A. ohmic losses of various conductors B. radiation resistance C. ground conductivity D. atmospheric conditions.
8.B. whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna.

9. An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be classified as A. data transfer B. arithmetic C. logical D. program control
9.B. Arithmetic

10. The binary representation of 5.375 is A. 111.1011 B. 101.1101 C. 101.011 D. 111.001 10.C.101.001=(4+0+1)(0+0.25+0.125)=5.375 11. Dislocations in materials are A. point defect B. line defect C. planer defect D. surface defects.
11.B. Dislocations in materials are line defects.

12. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of A. integrator B. differentiator C. sweep credit D. sync separator.
12.A. Integrator.

13. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of A. Ground waves B. Sky waves C. Surface waves D. Space waves.
3.D. Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space waves.

14. 200 MHz may be classified as A. VHF B. SHF C. UHF D. EHF


14.A. VHF.

15. A communication satellite is a repeater between A. a transmitting station and a receiving station B. a transmitting station and many receiving stations C. many transmitting stations and many receiving stations D. none of the above
15.C. a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stations and many receiving stations.

16. The power in a series R-L-C circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is equal to

A. V / 2R B. V / C. V / 16.C. V / 2 R 17. A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The average electric field on the surface of the sphere will be 17.C. The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The first half of flux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement density has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is

\ Average electric

field is : Eav = 18. The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range A. 50 to 55 percent B. 65 to 72 percent C. 82 to 87 percent D. 92 to 99 percent
18.D. The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent.

19. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages? A. Hot wire instrument B. Electrostatic voltmeter C. Moving coil voltmeter
19.B. Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage. D. Moving iron voltmeter.

20 Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot shown in the above figure :
20.A. it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s) It is seen immediately that | G (jw) | = 1 and hence gain is db = 0.

21. The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor, Memory address in Hex Instruction 2000 LXI SP, 1000 2003 PUSH H

2004 PUSH D 2005 CALL 2050 2008 POP 2050 2009 HIT As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains , and the stack pointer contains .. 2050, OFFC 2251, OFFC 1025, OCCF 1025, OCCF
21.A. Memory address in hex Instruction Remarks 2000 LXI SP 1000 2003 PUSH H 2004 PUSH D We do not 2005 CALL 2025 know the contents of subroutine at 2050. 2006 50 2007 20 2008 POP H 2009 HALT

At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains 2050 and the stack pointer contains OFFC. 22. With reference to figure, value of VCE is

0V 5V -5V none of the above

23. The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected A. 1 dB B. 3 dB C. 10 dB D. 20 dB.
23.B. Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102 = 10 0.3 = 3dB.

24. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is A. shorter than machine cycle time B. larger than machine cycle time C. exactly double the machine cycle time D. exactly the same as the machine cycle time
24.D. Instruction cycle time is exactly the same as the machine cycle time.

25. The value of M in the end will be Do 100 I = 1, 2 DO 200 J = 1, 2 M=M+I+J 200 CONTINUE 100 CONTINUE STOP END 10 11 12 14
25.C. Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with J=1,2 J=1 M=0+1+1=2

J=2 M=2+1+2=4 Taking index of I = 2 and computing the value of M with J = 1, 2 J=1 M=5+2+1=8 J=2 M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12

26. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by A. temperature B. pressure C. composition D. all of the above.
26.A. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by temperature.

27. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during A. equalizing pulse B. retrace interval between each line C. retrace period of vertical line D. none of the above.
27.B. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during retrace interval between each line

28. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is A. Horizontal (linear) B. vertical (linear) C. Circular D. Elliptical
28.B. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is vertical (linear).

29. Multicavity Klystron A. is not a microwave device B. is not a good low level amplifier because of noise C. is not suitable to pulse operation D. has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time
29.A. Multicavity Klystron is not a good low level amplifier because of noise.

30. Transponder comprises of A. Transmitter B. Receiver C. Antenna D. a, b, c combined


30.D. Transponder comprises of transmitter, receiver and antenna.

31. Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the given figure :

1. If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient 2. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the frequency of the supply 3. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero depends on the circuit elements 4. There will always be a non-zero transient after the switch K is closed.

Ofthesestatements: 1aloneis correct. 1and2arecorrect. 1and3arecorrect 4aloneiscorrect.


31.C. If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete expression for current will be

32. A circular ring carrying a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the axis of the ring are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the dipole moment of the charge system is

Qd QR2/d Q QR.
32.A. For points far away, the charge on the ring may be considered to be located be at the centre of the ring. Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd.

33. Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer A. Buck regulator B. Boost regulator C. Buck-boost regulator D. Cuk regulator
33.C. a puck-boost regulator provides on output voltage which may be less than or greater than the input voltage. The output voltage polarity is opposite to that of the input voltage. It has high efficiency.

34. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on A. RMS value of alternating current B. voltage C. average value of a.c. current

D. instantaneous value of a.c. current.


34.A. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on RMS value of alternating current.

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I List-II (Response to a unit step input) (Location of poles in the s-plane) 1.One at the origin B. 2.Two identical roots on the negative real axis. C. 3.Two on the imaginary axis D. 4.One on the position real axis. Codes: ABCD A. 4 3 2 1 B. 3 4 1 2 C. 3 4 2 1 D. 4 3 2 1

36. Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide

A. higher speeds compared to all other types of A / D converters B. very good accuracy without putting extreme requirements on component stability C. poor rejection of power supply hums D. better resolution compared to all other types of A / D converters for the same number of bits.

36.B. Dual slope integration type A to D converters are of slow speed and require more number of bits, than successive approximation ADC

37. In the figure given below, the collector current is

2 mA 200 mA Almost zero 0.02 mA


37.C. Since emitter and base have same polarity and same potential, EBJ is not biased property. Hence, IB is zero and so is IC .

38. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly A. 250 - 300 MHz B. 150 - 200 MHz C. 90 - 105 MHz D. 30 - 70 MHz
38.C. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 105 MHz.

39. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to A. 2 bytes B. 1 byte C. 4 bytes D. 8 bytes
39.C. 4 bytes.

40. In electronic microcircuits, a resistor may be fabricated from constant-thickness layer of semiconductor material with conductor connections at the edges as shown below. If the resistor shown has resistance R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of

4R 2R R R/2 40.C. Resistance will be directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to the crosssectional area. Let t mm be the thickness of semi-conductor material so that the crosssectional area for R ohm resistor is 0.1 t sq. mm and length of semi - conductor material 0.1 mm. For a 0.2 mm 0.2 mm section, cross - sectional area = 0.2 t sq. mm. Length = 0.2 mm Hence, resistance,

41. Line imperfection in a crystal is called A. Schottky defect B. Frenkel defect C. edge dislocation D. Miller defect.
41.C. Line imperfection in a crystal is called edge dislocation.

42. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter B. to increase the bandwidth C. to increase the power output D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.
42.A. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter.

43. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earths curvature. This due to A. Ionospheric reflection B. Faraday rotation C. Ducting D. Ionospheric scatter.
43.C. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earths curvature. This is due to ducting.

44. The modes in a reflex Klystron A. give the same frequency but different transit time B. result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap C. are caused by spurious frequency modulation D. are just for theoretical considerations.
44.A. The modes in a reflex Klystron give the same frequency but different transit time.

45. The capacity of a channel is A. number of digits used in coding B. volume of information it can take C. maximum rate of information transmission D. bandwidth required for information
45.C. The capacity of a channel is maximum rate of information transmission Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words

1. Please and Thank you are the little courtesies by which we keep the.. of life oiled and running smoothly. (a) river (b) garden (c) path
(d) machine-Answer

2. The bright colour of this shirt has. away. (a) gone (b) disappeared
(c) faded-Answer

(d) paled 3. One major .between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld.
(a) conflict-Answer

(b) pain (c) irritant (d) culprit 4.Even a glance will reveal the mystery (a)crude
(b)cursory-Answer

(c) critical (d) curious 5. His standard of living has. since his son joined service. (a) lifted (b) increased
(c) risen-Answer

(d) heightened 6. The passengers were afraid but the captain .them that there was no danger. (a) instructed (b) advised (c) promised
(d) assured-Answer

7. His first failure did not him from making another attempt. (a) interfere (b) forbid (c) frighten
(d) deter-Answer

8. No one will .. you for having been rude to your teacher. (a) exclaim
(b) admire-Answer

(c) advise (d) recommend

9.The doctor .. the patient from taking certain medicines. (a) banned
(b) prohibited-Answer

(c) prescribed (d) proscribed 10.I ..a car to be absolutely necessary these days. (a) think (b)regard
(c) consider-Answer

(d) agree 11. He didnt have the.. idea of villagers problems. (a) smallest (b)finest
(c) faintest-Answer

(d) feeblest 12. This is a translation of the speech. (a) verbatim (b)verbal
(c) literal-Answer

(d) literary 13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence. (a) discovered
(b) disclosed (c)leaked out-Answer

(d) divulged 14. No man had a more ..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than Samuel Johnson. (a)arduous
(b) ardent-Answer

(c) animated (d) adroit 15.I have often why he went to live abroad. (a) puzzled
(b) wondered-Answer

(c) thought (d) surprised 16.He lives near a lonely of countryside. (a) piece (b) length
(c) stretch-Answer

(d) section 17. To nobody else did the story seem (a) contingent
(b) credible-Answer

(c) credulous (d) creditable 18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ..the findin gs of the Commission. (a) objected (b) questioned (c)rejected

(d) disputed-Answer

19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected .to block off the streets. (a) dykes (b) barrages
(c) barricades-Answer

(d) barracks 20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully. the books they had been reading. (a) despised
(b) neglected-Answer

(c) shelve (d)overthrow

SAIL Latest Sample Question paper 2012, SAIL Latest Exam Pattern consist of 100 questions, 30 Questions from Aptitude Reasoning and English, 60 Questions from Technical, SAIL Latest placement paper 2012, SAIL Latest Candidate Experience 2012, SAIL MT exam Sample Questions for Mechnical Engineering 2012, Hai friends, I have attanded SAIL MT Exam, which was on 15 th July 2012.

1) A Signal Input to the Control system from feedback which affect the output of Control System is called? a) feedback signal b) Stimulas c) Input Signal d) option i forgot 2) Breaking of DC serise motor can be done bye a) reversing field only b)reversing armeture only c) by reversing field and armeture d) non 3) Sheath is used in cable for ? a) prevent moisture b) insulator c) prevent leakage d) strength 4) Armouring is done on Cable for? a) machinical support b) to prevent leakage and fault c) moisture d) option i forget Current Affairs 1) Sarad Powar launched 2012 as the year of a) Agriculture b) Horticulture c) Pisiculture d) non

SAIL Latest Sample Question paper 2012, SAIL Latest Exam Pattern consist of 100 questions, 30 Questions from Aptitude Reasoning and English, 60 Questions from Technical, SAIL Latest placement paper 2012, SAIL Latest Candidate Experience 2012, SAIL MT exam Sample Questions for Mechnical Engineering 2012, Hello friends i have attained the SAIL MT exam on 15 july 2012 in Mechanical dicipline. TECHNICAL: technical part was very esay, most of the questions were from TOM (vibration) any one can easily score 60+ score. GK/APTITUDE

this portion was moderated...as compare to last year there were no polotical questions from constitution. some ques are.... 1. allum is used for....? ans-water purification 2.fish which is used to clean water from moequeto...? ans.-ghumbusia fish 3. 3-idiot is baed on which writer's novel...? ans-cheta bhagat 4. Home rule league movement started on...? ans-after the world war 1 5. book of A.P.J. kalam translated in which language..? ans-Chines. 6. first atomic p[ower plant of india.....? ans-Tarapur 7. first geostaticle sattelite of india...? ans..INSAT 1 8. main criteria to decide inflation rate(mudrasfiti dar) ans-CPI(consumer price index) in my opinian 10+ marks in all sub sections of part 2 is enough. cut off may be between 110-120. hope for the best and alll the best friends.....get fingure crossed.

SAIL PAPER ON 10th February 2008 AT DURGAPUR

HI every body !!! Recently I gave the paper of SAIL from ELECTRICAL Branch the paper which included 250 questions.of which I attempted 160 questions

Negative marking -1/4 th Total questions-250 Duration 2.5 Hrs

Technical-100 Apti + English+ Gen awareness -150 questions. Technical was ok and the questions mainly came from Psu book published by Galgotia Publications near about 50 questions came from it. They mainly concentrated on Electrical Machines. Some questions based on power system came from C.L. WADHWA (ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEM). However some of the questions which came in exam are as follows. (1) Which type of motor is used is used for self balanced machines (a)dc servo motors (b)dc shunt motors (c)ac servo motors (d)ac shunt motors. (2) Which type of motors has two types of constants in it (a)Reluctance motors (b)Pole shaded motors (c)dc shunt motors (d)ac shunt motors. (3) Which type of power plant requires maximum expenditure (a)Hydel power plants (b)Nuclear power plants (c)Thermal power plants (d)Gas based power plants. (4) Base load of a power station stands for (a)2-4 hours/day (b)4-8 hours/day(c)8-12 hours/day (d)12-24hours/day (5) Bode plot is used to (a)analyze lead-lag points (b)know maximum stability (c)know relative stability(d)know absolute stability (6) A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line to (a)surge high voltage (b)acts as neutral (c)acts as a transmission wire (d)acts as ground wire. APTI+G.K was simple. For more R.S AGARWAL However some of the questions which I remember are as follows :(1) 1/0.05 equals (a)5 (b)20 (c)50 (d)100 (2) If the radius of a circle is increased by 100% how will then the area increase (a)100% (b)200% (c)300% (d)400% (3) If the length, height and breadth of a cuboid is increased by 100%,200%&300% then the volume of the cuboid will increase by (a)3 times (b)6 times (c)12 times (d)24 times (4) A shopkeeper buys 30 pens .He sells 27 pen at the marked price of the 30 pens. Then what is his profit (a)31/3% (b)23/6% (c)10% (d)111/9% (5) After seeing the picture person says his mother is the wife of my fathers son.Then how is the person in the picture and the person is related? (a)Nephew (b)Uncle (c)Grandfather (d)Grandson (6) A can do work in 30 days,B can do it in 40 days. A and B started the work and then A leaved it after 14 days then how much time did it take for B to complete the work

(a)5 days (b)6 days (c)3 days(d)2 days (7) When did the Burma was separated from India? (a)1937 (b)1905 (c)1912 (d)1926. 5 questions on passage & questions based on it. 4 questions on similar words. 5 questions on fill in the blanks with correct words 5 proper words.

"ALL THE BEST FOR FUTURE ASPIRANTS"

SAIL PAPER ON 10th JANUARY AT AHMEDABAD Hello, I Have appeared in RRB AHMEDABAD examination on 10thjan and i want to share some questions which i remembered.There were 150 question in 120 min The paper was quite easy subjects:
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ENGLISH ANLOGY HINDI-GRAMMER PHYSICS /CHE(BASIC)

FEW QUE 1.) Terminal colours of Rainbow? a: Violet&Red 2.)First lady in INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS? a: Indira gandhi b: sarogini naidu etc 3.)First Nuclear plant in INDIA is situated in a :trombay b: nellore etc 4.)2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of indivisual capacitance. 5.)Who invented THERMOMETER? ANS: Farenheit 6.)Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity? 7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is? a:1/10 b:9/10 c:1 d:0 8.)Si,Ge lie in ........block of periodic table a: III b: V c: IVA(ANS) D: IV B 9.)some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency 10.)Which Filter is used for passing ONLY HIGH frequency a: LADDER B. crystal 11.)In Zener breakdown is proportional to Ans -ive coefficient of temperature 12.)If water is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume a: increase steadily b: remain same c: decrease steadily 13.)if we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect on its velocity a :increase continously b: First increase and become Zero in center c. It Will Start Oscillate 14.)Dandi march was related t0 ........ a: Salt b: sugar etc

15.)Radiation pattern of loop antenna a: cardioid b. semicircular c. circle d. none 16.)DENMARK lie in which continent 17.)Cooks island is situated in which continent? 18.)Range of AM Signal? 19.)In an Electrolyte if rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to a: current passed in it 20.)largest unit in energy 21.)spelling check of SATELLITE 22.)plural of "DIBIYA"IN HINDI 23.)Sarvnam chatiye 24.)RADDISH is a a: modified root b: bulb c; stem 25.)X Rays are .......Rays Ans emw 26.)ass:bray::sheep BLEAT 27IN HINDI PEHLE JANMA(AGRAJ,ARGAJA/AAGRAJETC) 28.)LORD SHANKAR IS RELATED TO originaetor of ...........river 29;).........is also called JALDHAR 30) fsk is used in a: telegraphy b: telephony c :radio transmission etc

SAIL PAPER ON 3RD APRIL,2008


Hi................Friends........ I am sreevasavi.......I would like to tell about the written test which was conducted by SAIL...... I am from mechanical branch.........basically we have 250 questions...............in that we have parts.....in that

1.Aptitude in that they have asked most of the questions from percentage , profit and loss , problems on train , Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Calender, Age problems, Time and Work ,H.C.F & L.C.F, average, square roots, Decimal Fractions, Discount problems, Odd man out and series. Hey friends just go through the R.S AGGARWAL. 2.Verbal in that they have asked for meanings, opposites, appropriate words, Passages, analogy, relationships, Coding and decoding ,cubes and dice, statement and conclusions, Mirror images, Alphabet test, Mathematical Operations, Data sufficiency. follow Verbal and NON-verbal Reasoning by R.S AGGARWAL. 3.General Awareness this all about general knowledge test of the student. So try to refer some G.K general questions like some quotations given by great people like Mahatma Gandhi they will give some quotation n they will ask who said this quotation like that, next O2 is carried out by red blood cells n some on nature n some n history n some on current affairs n some on politics n some on food products like that so try to know some general questions. 4.Technical Test In this they will ask about subject as I am from mechanical they asked questions from Automobile engineering, Design of machine members, Strength of materials, Kinematics, MOF, Thermal subject study all cycles n about working of piston n they have asked some problems from DMM n some problems on turbines n some of determining speeds so frens do concentrate up on core subjects which we have in our 2nd and 3rd and 4-1 sem subjects that too core subjects. Frens we have negative marking for each wrong answer they will deduct 1/4 mark so first try to do only known questions n they try other questions we will have time for 2hrs and 20mins so try the best. to day only I have given exam I donno any information regarding portion so I dint perform that much good in General Awareness and some tech questions and I am poor at verbal........so I dont want other people do the same as I did in the exam so I giving clear cut of this SAIL written test.Hope the best frens........bubbye.... Pray for me frens (vasavi)

sail-2010 gk question
1) olympic 2010 held in------london 2) Currency of Bhutan-------NUGULTRAM 3) Measles is a type of--------VIRUS 4)Heart beat of Adult---------72 5) heavy, strongest and long bone of body------FEMUR 6) JIm Corbet national park-------------Uttarnchal 7) rupess symbol designed by-------D. UDAY KUMAR 8) Durand line is Between--------pak & afganistan 9) winner of 20-20 world cup-----------england 10) winner of Rajiv gandhi khel rattan award-2010---------saina Nehwal 11) which river falls in arbian SEA--------------tapi 12) BIHU is a folk dance of-----------assam

13) budh name------------sidhart 14) brahm smaaj----------raja ram mohan roi 15) company related to insurance---------------IRDA 16) gadar movement telated with------------------hardyal singh 17) new member of SAARA------------------afganistan 18) olive branch signify----------------------PEACE 19) language under 8th schedual----------------22 20) alpha keratin protien present in-------------------FIBER 21) Which state receieve winter rainfall by western disturbance------Tamilnadu 22) equality of oppertunity of all citizen in matter of public employement come under------ART 16 23) Kailasa temple-----------ajanta 24) EX-office planning commision------------Prime minister 25) Most dense populated state.................UP

Hi All, I appeared for SAIL MT (admin)-marketing. Mine was after noon slot reporting time at 1:30pm.Entry closed at 2.00pm.They allow only the admit card and pen (blue/black ball point pen) .OMR marking by blue/black ball point pen.

The test duration is 2 and half hours (150min).75 minutes for section1 and 75 minutes for sectoion2.One single question booklet with two sections. You are only allowed to open the section 1 seal in the first half and 2 seal after 75minutes. Negative marking: (-) 0.25 penalty for wrong attempt Cut off mark for Section1 and cut mark for 4 subsections in Section2 is a criterion to qualify the exam. Four test versions A, B, C, D Section1-marketing/HR/Tech Section2-General awareness, verbal, quantitative, reasoning Section1-Marketing: 100 Questions specific to Marketing, 75 minutes Questions asked from -Advertisement -promotions -international business -export, joint ventures -product mix -business communication -Brand recall, loyalty -promotions -Push-pull strategy -product width, depth, length Questions -During the break time one employee went to have Coke but found the vending machine not working. Though Pepsi was available he went to the next building and purchased Coke Its an example for Brand loyalty, brand recall. -Low risk option to enter a new international market Joint venture, indirect export, direct investment -A new product is release by advertisement should concentrate on Persuasion, informative -prerequisite to MISSION statement Marketing Strategy, SWOT, marketing mix -The tie up between Maruti Udyog limited and Suzuki is an example for Join venture, direct investment, partnership -Advantage for a direct investment in an international market Advantage of domestic production, use of own company resources Secction2(Only can start after the first 75 minutes) -General Awareness -Verbal -Fill in the blank with a, an, the 5 questions Difficulty level simple -Fill in the blanks with on, over, above 5 questions Difficulty level simple -Reading comprehension 2 passages 5 question each Technical article (One article was about data structures) -Find the word with similar meaning 5 questions -Quantitative -Reasoning Questions from

profit and los percentages


Simple interest and compound interest (2 qs)

Discount, successive discounts mixtures and allegations (2 qs)

Time and work (2 questions-easy)

Directions (1q) clock (1q) Blood relationship (1q, easy) Statement (5 qs) Seating arrangement Time and work (1 q)
Questions -Looking to a man photo Annie told his mothers only daughter is my mother. What is the relationship? A) Son B) daughter C) nephew D) niece Ans: Niece -A, B, C working together and As work is 3times Bs work and Bs work is 3 times Cs work. Find the ration of work of A and C. A) 1:9 B) 9:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:3 Ans: A=3B, B=3C A/C=3B/C=3*3C/C=9/1 Ie ratio 9:1 -Find the time after 5oclock at which the hour hand and minute hand -A and B started working together and can finish the work in 30 days and after how many days that B can leave the work, so that the work can be completed within 32 days A) 15 days) 10daysc) 5daysD) none of this -A and B start travelling from Bangalore to Hyderabad, starting point after ..(its a time and work question after how many minutes they will meet ) -Successive discount questions-A got a 10% discount on selling price and received 5% discount later what will be final price that he paid -[(1+a/b)^2+(1-b/a)^2]/[function with a and b in ratio format ] the final value will be a/b.. easy Most of the questions were from percentage, profit and loss, discount, simple and compound interest -Statement Qs Statement Assumption1

Assumption2
1 and 2 requred 1 enough 2 enogh Both 1 and 2 is not sufficient 5 question in this format All the very best!

Steel Authority of India Ltd (SAIL) Placement Paper Pattern The written test paper usually has the following 5 sections. 1. General knowledge 2. Reasoning and mental ability 3. Quantitative aptitude

4. Vocabulary 5. Technical Question (100) The number of questions in each section may vary year to year,but the number of sections and total time will be same. Time will be 2 hour 30 minutes.Separate sectional cut-offs will be there and overall cut-off will be there. SAIL is having five section 1. Reasoning (45 ) , 2. Quanti. ques.( 35 ), 3. General knowledge ( 35 ), 4. English Comp ( 35 )., 5. Technical Question ( 100 ). In previous year their is some change in no of questions. And total time given is 2 hour 25 minutes.... Their is not separate time given for separate sections, all section have to solve in 2:25 hour, but individual cut-off is their ....

SAIL Latest Sample Question paper 2012, SAIL Latest Exam Pattern consist of 100 questions, 30 Questions from Aptitude Reasoning and English, 60 Questions from Technical, SAIL Latest placement paper 2012, SAIL Latest Candidate Experience 2012 hi friends im sujendra from hyderabad i attended SAIL MT recruitment written test EXAM PATTERN: 1.TECHNICAL(100Q-EACH CARRY ONE MARK) 2GENERAL AWARNESS AND APTITUDE(100Q-in this ga contain approx 30Q and remaining aptitude and reasoning,english) some of the quetions i rememberd listed below TECHNICAL: 1.what is the sending end pf if resistance of line 500ohms ,300v and an impedence of 0.8j

a.unity b.0.8lag c.0.86lag d.0.8 lead 2.double integration of step function is ---a.ramp b.parabola c.impulsre 3.what is frequency at which voltage across capacitor is maximum if r=25ohms ,L=0.04H,c=0.01uf 4.in a ckt ideal voltage sources and resistors are connected then if the value of resistance doubled then what happend to voltage? a.doubled 2.unchanged c.none 5.transfer function means... a.ratio of output to input in z transform b.ratio of output to input in laplace transform 6.finding inductance value for cables 7.temp coeff of intrinsic semi conductor 8.which of the following have high mobility a.ge b.SI c.GE AS D.ge p 9. finding peak over shoot and determinin type of system 10.two bits on insulators 11.if two inductors are L1=3mH ,l2=3mH connected in sreies differential connection and mutual inductance of 0.15mH,then wt is eq.inductance GA: 1.LINEN is made from 2.alum is used to... Answer:purification of drinking water 3.first atomic power plant established in....tharapur 4.based on which book "three idiots movie"released 5.satellite-B was launched by wich country 6.home rule league moment started in....etc APTITUDE # simple and compound intrest #profit and loss...more pbs on this nearly 20 problems # Critical reasoning ENGLISH @ ARTICLES-5MARKS @PASSAGE-5M @PREPOSITIONS-5M @SYNONYMS-5M

This is the continuation of paper written by Biplab(paul.biplab09@gmail.com) General awareness: 101. which one is densely populated state a. WB b. Bihar c. Uttarpradesh 102. Durand line a. India/Pakistan b. Pakistan/Afganist c. India/China 103. Rajiv gandhi khel ratna award 2010 a. Saina Nehwal b. Krishna Poonia 104. Cobett national park in which state

a. Uttarkhanda. b.UP 105. Which state recieves the rainfall due to western disturbances a. Kerala b. Punjab c. Tamilnadu. d. Gujrat 106. Bihu festival in which state a. Assam, b. Bihar c. Sikkim 107. Kilash Temple in which famous rock a. Ajanta b. Ellora. c elliphanta 108. Olympic games will held in 2012 a. London b. Chicago c. Rai di jero/brasil 109. Curreny of bhutan a. ngultram b. rupee c. rial 110. Who invented the indian currency symbol? a. D. Udaya Kumar b. D. Prashant Kumar 111. Who is the the ex-officio chairman of planning commission a. President. b vice president c. speaker of loksobha d. Prime-minister

Hello Friends, Today was my SAIL paper and i want to share my experience with you. There were 200 questions total consisting of two parts: 1) First 100 questions were of your respective field, mine was ECE, which you have to attempt within 1 hour and 15 mins. 2) The next 100 questions were related to general knowledge, english, cubes dices, verbal. Now I would like to say that in ECE more emphasis was given on Resonant frequency questions, RLC circuits, instantaneous current, average power, some questions were on control system (nyquist plot), amplifier questions on (CE, beta, alpha), digital circuits, op amp, CMRR, slew rate, some questions on torque (which i couldn't understand ha ha). Guys there will be negative marking ok. So after 75 mins we were asked to open our next paper It had questions like * Bihu is which state dance, * New rupee represntationis given by whom * Where is jim corbet park

* Bhutan has what currency, * Rajiv Gandhi khel ratna award 2010 given to whom * 2 passage in English A cube is painted yellow on adjacent sides and blue on its opposite side and white on the rest of the faces and divided into 64 pieces the which parts will have atleast blue, atleast white * 3 compound interest question * 3 simple interest question * 3 some question on sets like if total students are 99 667 attempted part A, 46 attempted B, 56 attempted C, 34 attempted both A and B, 17 attempted both B & C, 50 attempted C and A and 2 attempted all the sets then find the persons who attempted only A not B and C, find the persons who attempted only B not A and C. In the end i would just say that the paper was easy and you should remember the formula in your tips to crack SAIL. All the best to all next time.

Dear All, I have written exam of SAIL for Management Trainee-2010 with E&T as discipline. The question paper consisted of two sections each with 100 questions and 75 mins for each section. Note: 1 mark for correct answer and -1/4 for wrong answer. Section I E&T Technical questions. (100 questions)

1) Nearly 20 questions were based on Op-Amps like the highest frequency of OP-Amp depends on a) Input V b) Output V c) Bandwidth d) Max Output V 2) The purpose of Op-Amp clamper is for what a) Clamping the output voltage b) Lowering the output V c) Lowering the input V d) None of these 3) What is the purpose of PWM in current source inverter? 4) At higher frequencies which of the following noises become significant? a) Thermal Noise b) Short noise c) White noise 5) Nearly 10 questions were based on Flip-Flops like what is the number of flip-flops required for decade counter? a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d)4 6) How many flip flops are required for input frequency to be divided by 32? 7) What is the output frequency of a T-Flip flop if the input if input frequency is f a) f/2 b) f c) 2f d) 4f 8) Nearly 8 questions were asked on RLC circuits like what is the effect on resonance frequency when all the values of RLC are doubled? a) 4f b) 3f c) f/4 d) f 9) What is the voltage on capacitor at resonance with input voltage a 10v and Q factor of the circuit is 40? 10) Which of the following is S.I engine? 1) Gas 2) Petrol 3) Diesel 4) Kerosene engine 11) What is the difference between petrol and diesel engine? 12) Which of the facts is true? a) All reversible engines have same efficiency b) All engines are designed reversible to obtain maximum efficiency? c) Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency? 12) What is the characteristic of an isolated system? a) No transfer of mass both the directions b) No transfer of heat on both directions c) No transfer of heat and mass on both directions d) Maximum transfer of mass and heat in both directions 13) What is the power transferred to a load if R+ix and with an internal

resistance of R-ix of the source with voltage V? 14) If 4 batteries of voltage 6V each are applied parallel to a load of 1.25 ohms with batteries of internal resistance of 0.2 ohms then what is the current through the load resistance? 15) What is the percentage power loss when a battery of 6 V has internal resistance of 0.2 ohms and applied to a load of 6 ohms? 16) What are the frequencies of a system with a transfer function of 100(1+0.5s)(1+0.25s)? a) 4,2 b) 0.5, 0,25. 17) Which of following is used in SSB AM receiver? a) LC circuit b) diode rectifier 18) What is the average value of current if the voltage of 10 sin (314t ) is applied to a resistance of 10 ohms? A) 0.485 B) 0.637 Section II It contained 4 more more sub-sections General Awareness, Verbal ability, Quantitative aptitude, Logical reasoning General Awareness (25 questions) 1) Who was the winner of 2010 Twenty-20 world cup? 2) Who is the winner of 2010 Rajiv Khel Ratna award 2010? 3) Bihu is the folk dance of which state? 4) Which river has delta in Arabian sea? A)Tapi B) Mahanadi C) Krishna D)Godavari 5) Which of the following states is with highest population density? a) WB b) UP c) Jharkand d) Bihar 6) Who is the Ex Chairman of planning commission? a) PM b) Loksabha Speaker c) Vice President d) President 7) Jim Corbett national park is in which state? 8) Durand line is between which countries? Ans Pakistan and Afghanistan 9) Measles is a disease caused which of the following? a) Virus b) Bacteria c) Protozoa Verbal Ability (25 questions)

5 Questions on articles 5 Questions on fill in the blanks with correct words 10 Questions on paragraph reading. Quantitative Ability (25 questions) Most of the questions were based on Compound interest, Simple interest, Work, Age related which can be founnd in R.S Aggarwal Logical Reasining (25 questions) A situation was given and questions were based on that situation like cube pained with 3 colors and then divided into 64 equal cubes what no of cubes with single color and so on. Two statements are given and asked whether the question can be solved based on the statements? A person traveled east west and finally how far is from the source? Note: To clear the exam you need to clear the sectional cutoff of each sub-section in Section-II also. This was the major deciding factor as after attempting section-I for 75 min then only section-II can be attempted for the next 75 mins The technical paper of E&T was difficult as it was mainly theoretical and were based on concepts of the subjects. Section-II will be easy for an engineer, but the time may not be sufficient as there is sub sectional cutoff. Note: In the instructions of admit card it was told to bring only ball point pen but in the exam they the answers were needed to be marked with HB pencil. So, please take pencils with you for the examination. Good luck for your attempts to be a part of SAIL. Awaiting result of the exam now.

Hi Friends, I attended recently held SAIL exam and the exam pattern goes like this Total time: 15* 05n Total parts: 2 Part: 1 Technical (100 questions 75 mins) Part-2 (100 questions 75 mins) a) general awareness b) verbal c) aptitude d) non-verbal Technical: Questions came from electronics, microprocessor, circuit theory and also from carnots engine, spcific heat, and meachines. There is non mathematics in 2010 SAIL technical part. Part 2: General awareness: durandline, t20worldcup, 2010 olympics venue, alpha caratin, khelratna award 2010, bhutan currency, pro ex chairman of planning commission, insurance irda, mealosis desease, India rupee symbol was given by, budha original name, brahma samaj was founded by, sarc countries, heart beat rate, etc.

English (verbal): 5 synonims, 2 paragraphs (each 5 questions), 5 prepositions, 5 articles Aptitude: questions from mainly simple interest, compound interest and work.(R.S Aggarwal) Non verbal: Probability (1 questions), logical reasoning, etc(R.S. Aggarwal)

SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT SAMPLE PAPER-4 1. In the circuit shown in the figure given below, RC is very small and L / R is very large when compared to the time period of the various input signals. Also R << R3 The output V0(t) is given by

o o o o
2. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when standing-wave ratio (SWR) becomes A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 1 : 1 D. 1 :2 3. In resonant pulse inverters A. dc output voltage variation is wide B. the frequency is low C. the output voltage is never sinusoidal D. dc saturation of transformer core is minimsed 4. A 10 V full-scale voltmeter having 100 k-ohm / V sensitivity is used to measure the output of a photovoltaic cell having an internal resistance of 1 M-ohm. The voltmeter reads 5V. The voltage generated by the photovoltaic cell is A. 5 V B. 10 V C. greater than 5 V but less than 10 V

5.

D. greater than 10 V. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II (Transfer Function) (Transient Response)

Assume a> 0 and b> 0 Codes : A B C D A. 1 3 2 4 B. 3 1 2 4 C. 2 1 4 3 D. 4 2 1 3 6. A computer system has a 4K word cache organized in block set associative manner with 4 blocks per set, 64 words per block. The number of bits in the SET and WORD fields of the main memory address formula is A. 15, 4 B. 6, 4 C. 7, 2 D. 4, 6 7. In figure shown below, which component in the battery charging circuit is wrongly connected?

o o o o

Battery. Control resistor. Rectifier diodes. Transformer.

8. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by sine wave with modulation indices of 30% and 40% respectively. The overall modulation index will be A. 50% B. 70% C. 100% D. indefinite as modulation by two waves simultaneously is not possible. 9. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / O A. I / O devices have 16-bit addresses B. I / O devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / O data. 10. Low grade fuels have A. low moisture content

B. low ash content C. low calorific value D. low carbon content. 11. Aluminum has a higher atomic packing factor than molybdenum by about 6%. This means that A. Aluminum is heavier than molybdenum B. the ratio of the volume of the unit cell to the volume of the atoms per unit cell is lower inaluminum C. The ratio of the number of atoms per unit cell to size of the cell is roughly equal to Both D. The distance between atoms are equal for both 12. A microwave junction is supposed to be matched at all ports if in the S matrix A. all the diagonal elements are zero B. all the diagonal elements are equal but not zero C. all the diagonal elements are complex D. is Hermitian. 13. Radar becons are used for A. target identification B. navigation C. causing significant extensions of the maximum range D. all of these. 14. Which of the following statements is / are correct ? A. All the resonant frequencies of a microwave cavity are harmonics of a single frequency. B. No two of the resonant frequencies of a microwave cavity are harmonics of a single frequency C. Resonant frequencies of a microwave cavity form distinct sets of harmonically related frequencies D. None of the above, because a microwave cavity does not resonate at a number of frequencies. 15. Satellite repeater serves to A. to receive signal from the satellite B. to repeat the satellite signals received C. to change the frequency of signals received from the repeater D. none of these 16. For the circuit shown in figure below, match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

Codes: A B C D A. 4 3 2 1 B. 1 2 3 4 C. 2 3 4 1 D. 4 3 1 2 The relationship between SWR and Kr of a transmission line is

17.

A. SWR =

B. SWR =

C. SWR =

D. SWR = The speed and torque of induction motor can be varied by which of the following means 1. Stator voltage control 2. Rotor voltage control 3. Frequency control A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3. 19. A 2 V peak to peak symmetrical wave is given to a rectifier type ac voltmeter. The voltmeter will read A. 2.22 V B. 1.11 V C. 1 V D. zero 20. A control system whose step response is -0.5(1 + e-2t) is cascaded to another control block whose impulse response is e-t. The transfer function of the cascaded combination is: 18.

A.

B.

C.

21.

D. For the logic circuit shown in figure below, the output Y is equal to

o o o o
22. A full wave peak rectifier (using capacitor input filter) has a percentage ripple of 2 and load resistance of 10 kohms. Minimum filter capacitance, in mF, required is A. 12 B. 50 C. 24 D. 100 23. The intermediate frequency of a superheat receiver is 450 KHz. If it is tuned to 1200 KHz, the image frequency will be A. 750 KHz B. 900 KHz C. 1650 KHz D. 2100 KHz

24.

The following program is run on an 8085 microprocessor: Memory Address Instruction in hex 2000 LXI SP, 1000 2003 PUSH H 2004 PUSH D 2005 CALL 2050 2008 POP H 2009 HLT At the completion of execution of the program, the program Counter of the 8085 contains . And the Stack Pointer contains

o o o o

2050, OFFC 2020, OCCF 2000, CCFC 2020, OFFC

25. A student would like to separate the various components of a sample of ink in the laboratory. Which of the following techniques would be most suitable for him to use ? A. Filtration B. Distillation C. Titration D. Paper chromatography. 26. The nature of atomic bond found in diamond is A. ionic B. covalent C. metallic D. none of the above 27. Waveguides are pressurized above normal atmospheric pressure for A. increasing their power handling capacity B. improving the conductivity of their walls C. preventing higher order modes from propagating D. varying the wave impedance. 28. The Doppler effect is used in A. Pulsed Radar B. CW Radar C. MTI D. both (a) and (c) 29. Two dissimilar antennas having their maximum directivities equal. A. must have their beam widths also equal B. cannot have their beam widths equal because they are dissimilar antennas C. may not necessarily have their maximum power gains equal D. must have their effective aperture areas (capture areas) also equal. 30. A satellite earth station has A. only transmitting equipment B. only receiving equipment C. both transmitting as well as receiving equipment D. none of these 31. Assertion (A) : In the given network, the source is delivering maximum power.

Reason (R) : zL is the complex of zg. 32. The reflection coefficient, characteristic impedance and load impedance of a transmission line are connected together by the relation

A.

B.

C.

33.

34.

35.

D. Static induction thyristors have A. high dv / dt and low di / dt B. low dv / dto and high di / dt C. low dv / dt and low di / dt D. high dv / dt and high di / dt An advantage of a permanent magnet moving coil instrument is that it is A. free from friction error B. has high (torque / weight of the moving parts) ratio C. has low (torque / weight of moving parts) ratio D. can be used on both a.c. and d.c. The error response of a second order system to a step input is obtained as E(t) = 1.66 e-st sin(6t + 37). The damping ratio is 0.4 0.5 0.8 1.0

o o o o

36.

The logic realized by the circuit shown in figure below, is

o o o o

F=A C F=A C F=B C F=B C

37. A zener regulator has an input voltage from 16 to 20 V and a load current from 25 to 100 mA. Breakdown voltage V = 12 V. For holding load voltage constant under all conditions, the value of series limiting resistor should be A. 1600 ohms B. 40 ohms C. 160 ohms D. 200 ohms 38. The filter required to obtain SSB from DSB signal is A. low pass filter B. high - pass filter C. band - pass filter D. band - stop filter 39. When a CPU is interrupted, it A. stops execution of instructions B. acknowledges interrupt and branches to a subroutine C. acknowledges interrupt and continues D. acknowledges interrupt and waits for the nest instruction from the interrupting device. 40. Which of the following statements concerning the pH meter is / are correct ? I. The pH meter may be used to measure the acidity (for alkalinity) of a solution. II. The pH meter must consist of atleast a reference electrode, an indicating electrode and a potential measuring meter III. The potential of a reference electrode of a pH meter depends largely upon the hydrogen on concentration of the measured solution.

I only

o o o
41.

I and II III only I and III only

The crystal structure of most of the common metals is A. hexagonal B. covalent C. orthorhombic D. none of the above 42. Interleaving in colour TV system implies A. mixing colour information with black and white signals B. extracting black and white signals from colour signals C. converting black and white signals into colour signals D. producing I and Q signals. 43. Flat topped rectangular pulses are used in Radar Transmitters to A. allow good minimum range and accurate range transmission B. prevent frequency changes in magnetron C. get better echos free from noise D. both (a) and (b). 44. The beamwidth-between first-nulls of a uniform linear array of N equally-spaced (element spacing = b), equallyexcited antennas, is determined by A. N alone and not be d B. d alone and not be N C. the ratio, (N / d) D. the product, (Nd) 45. A satellite earth station A. has only receiving equipment B. transmitting equipment C. (a) and (b) above D. non of these Solution 1.(D). The networks having identical driving point functions are N1 and N4. 2.(D). The m.k.s. unit of electric field E is ampere per metre. 3.(B). The current-source inverter (CSI) is a dual of a voltage-source inverter (VSI). The line-to-line voltage of a VSI is similar in shape to the line current of a CSI. The advantages of the CSI are : 1. since the input dc current is controlled and limited, misfiring of switching devices, or a short circuit, would not be serious problems; 2. the peak current of power devices is limited; 3. the commutation circuits for thyristors are simpler; and 4. it has the ability to handle reactive or regenerative load without freewheeling diodes. 4.(D). W1 = 100 W 1 W; W2 = -50 0.5 W

\ W1 + W2 = 50

5.(C). The transfer function of is and that of is (a + b). 6.(D). Recursive programs take more time than the equivalent non-recursive version and hence not efficient. This is because to the function call overhead. In binary, search since every time the current list is probed at the middle, random access, binary search implemented this way inefficient. 7.(D). Input voltage should be greater than 12 V to allow for drop across R. Since Zener diode has to be reversebiased, terminal A should, obviously, be positive. 8.(C). UHF range. 9.(D). If each control field has k lines, then cell [log2 (k + 1)] bits are needed. For 1, 7 lines exist. The closest power of 2 equal to or larger than 7 + 1 is 23 = 8. So 3 control bits are needed to describe those 7 lines.Note : 7 + 1 is needed since No activity is one more alternative besides selecting one of seven lines. Likewise, 4 + 1 requires 3 bits, 5 + 1 requires 3 bits, 2 + 1 requires 2 bits, 1 + 1 requires 1 bit and 3 + 1 requires 2 bits, so, the total number of bits needed is : 3 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 2 = 14. 10.(A). Gamma rays. 11.(D). Increasing the temperature will increase the thermal agitation in the molecule. This thermal agitation is the result of increased molecular vibrations. The kinked confirmation can be straightened with an applied stress. At higher temperature the molecules increase their resistance to the applied stress. Therefore, the elastic modulus increases with temperature. 12.(A). A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 13.(B). Type A scope in Radar system displays target range alone. 14.(C). X-band, S - band, C-band, L-band 15.(D). Linear velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit is independent of its mass.

16.(C). The output V0 (t) = i1 (t) R Also, V1 (t) = (1 / C) i1 (t) dt + i1 (t) R or C dv1 (t) / dt = i1 (t) + RC d i1 (t) / dt or i1 (t) = C dv1 (t) / dt if RC < T or i1 (t) or V1 (t) \ V0 (t) = RC dv1 (t) / dt Similarly, we can see that L-R circuit, under the condition L / R > T, acts as an integrator. Thus for the circuit shown and under the conditions stated, the output would be

17.(C). Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when SWR becomes 1 : 1. 18.(D). Resonant pulse inverters are used when the variation of the dc output voltage is not wide. The inverter frequency is very high and the output voltage is almost sinusoidal. Due to resonant oscillation, the transformer core is always reset and there is no dc saturation problem. 19.(B).

Voltmeter resistance = 100 10 = 1000 k - ohm = 1 M - ohm. Photovoltaic cell internal resistance = 1 M - ohm. The voltmeter reads 5 V. Therefore, the internal voltage is 10 V. 20.(B). A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 21.(D). There are 64 words in a block. So, the 4K cache has (4 1024) / 64 = 64 blocks. Since 1 set has 4 blocks, there are 16 sets. 16 sets need a4 bit representation. In a set there are 4 blocks. So, the block field needs 2 bits. Each block has 64 words. So, the word field has 6 bits. 22.(C). It should be remembered that for charging a battery, its positive terminal must be connected to the positive end of the dc supply. 23.(A). The overall modulation index = 24.(D). Memory mopped I / O. 1. I / O have 16 bit addresses. 2. Devices are accessed like registers 3. Mass devices = 216 = 256 256 4. Arithmetic / Logic operations can be done. 25.(C). Low grade fuels have low calorific value 26.(B). The definition of atomic packing factor is the ratio:

Since aluminium has 6% greater atomic packing factor, then it has a lesser inverse ratio of volume of unit cell to volume of atoms per unit cell. 27.(A). Property of matched junctions. 28.(D). Radar becons are used for target identification, navigation and causing for significant extensions of the maximum range. 29.(D). None of the statements is correct because a microwave cavity does not resonated at a number of frequencies. 30.(B). Satellite repeater serves to repeat the satellite signals received. 31.(A). As explained in Q. 20, C-R circuit acts as a differentiator under appropriate conditions. We can associate output waveforms with the input waveform by checking whether as particular output waveform with the input waveform by checking whether as particular output waveform is obtained by taking the derivative of input waveform being considered. Wherever there is a jump discontinuity in the function, the derivative function at that has impulse function, we arrive at answer (a). 32.(C). The relationship between SWR and Kr of a transmission line is

SWR = 33.(D). To meet the torque speed duty cycle of a drive, the voltage, current and frequency control are normally used.

34.(B). If it is a symmetrical square wave of value 1V, or any other symmetrical wave having mean value of 1V, then the rectifier type instrument will read 1.11V as it is calibrated to read 1.1 times the mean value. Probable answer is (b). 35.(D). The step response is -0.5 (1 + e-2t) u(t). The impulse response is the derivative of above expression, h(t) rd(t) = 0.5 d(t) + e-2t u(t) \the system function for 1st control system is

H1 (s) = -0.5 +

H2(s) = a e-t = \ H(s) = H1 (s) H2(s) = [-0.5 + 1/ (s + 2)] 1 / (s + 1)

= 36.(C). Y = (G + F + H)

37.(A). The formula is

where r is ripple factor in percent.

38.(D). Image frequency = 1200 + 2 450 = 2100 KHz. 39.(B). After instruction : 2000 SP 1000 PC 2003 2003 SP OFF DE (SP decrement by 2) 2004 SP OFFC (SP decrement by 2) 2005 PC 2050 SP has OFFC, PC has 2050. 40.(D). The different components of ink would move along the pores of the paper at different rates, thus making separation possible. All the other choices are inappropriate. 41.(B). The nature of atomic bond found in diamond is covalent. 42.(C). Preventing higher order modes from propagating 43.(D). The Doppler effect is used in Pulsed Radar and MTI 44.(C). Two dissimilar antennas having their maximum directivities equal may not necessarily have their maximum power gains equal. 45.(C). A satellite earth station has both transmitting as well as receiving equipment.