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1.

A bookstore purchased a best-selling book at P200.00 per copy. At what price should this book be sold so that by giving a 20% discount, the profit is 30% A. B. C. D. P200.00 P300.00 P400.00 P500.00

2.)

A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified? A. B. C. D. 13.02% 12.07% 10.89% 11.08%

3.)

A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand? A. B. C. D. 1 hour 1 hour and 10 minutes 1 hour and 15 minutes 1 hour and 30 minutes

4.)

Dalisay Corporations gross margin is 45% of sales. Operating expenses such as sales and administration are 15% of sales. Dalisay Corporation is in 40% tax bracket. What percent of sales is their profit after taxes? A. B. C. D. 21% 20% 19% 18%

5.)

In determining the cost involved in fabricating sub-assembly B within a company, the following data have been gathered: Direct material - P0.30 per unit Direct labor - P0.50 per unit Testing set-up - P300.00 per set-up It is decided to subcontract the manufacturing of assembly B to an outside company. For an order of 100 units, what is the cost per unit that is acceptable to the company? A. B. C. D. P3.80 P4.00 P4.10 P4.20

6.) By selling balut at P5 per dozen, a vendor gains 20%. The cost of the eggs rises by 12.5%. If he sells at the same price as before, find his new gain in %. A. B. C. D. 7.) 6.89% 6.67% 6.58% 6.12%

An equipment installation job in the completion stage can be completed in 50 days of 8 hour/day work, with 50 men working. With the contract expiring in 40 days, the mechanical engineer contractor decided to add 15 men on the job, overtime not being permitted. If the liquidated damages is P5000 per day of delay, and the men are paid P150 per day, how much money would he save with the additional workers? A. B. C. D. P43,450 P43,750 P44,250 P44,750

8.)

In a certain department store, the monthly salar y of a saleslady is partly constant and partly varies as the value of her sales for the month. When the value of her sales for the month is P10,000.00, her salar y for the month is P900.00. When her monthly sales go up to P12,000.00, her monthly salary goes up to P1,000.00. What must be the value of her sales so that her salary for the month will be P2,000.00? A. B. C. D. P30,000 P31,000 P32,000 P33,000

9.)

Jojo bought a second-hand Betamax VCR and then sold it to Rudy at a profit of 40%. Rudy then sold the VCR to Noel at a profit of 20%. If Noel paid P2,856 more than it costs Jojo, how much did Jojo pay for the unit? A. B. C. D. P4,100 P3,900 P4,000 P4,200

10.)

The selling price of a TV set is double that of its net cost. If the TV set is sold to a customer at a profit of 25% of the net cost, how much discount was given to the customer? 37.5% 37.9% 38.2% 38.5%

A. B. C. D. 11.)

A Mechanical Engineer who was awarded a P450,000 contract to install the machineries of an oil mill failed to finish the work on time. As provided for in the contract, he has to pay a daily penalty equivalent to one fourth of one per cent per day for the first 10 days and 0.5% per day for the next 10 days and one per cent per day for everyday thereafter. If the total penalty was P60,750.00, how many days was the completion of the contract delayed? A. B. C. D. 26 days 27 days 28 days 29 days

12.)

The quarrying cost of marble and granite blocks plus delivery cost to the processing plant each is P2,400.00 per cubic meter. Processing cost of marble into tile is P200.00 per square meter and that of the granite into tiles also is P600.00 per square meter. If marble has a net yield of 40 square meters of tile per cubic meter of block and sells P400 per square meter, and granite gives a net yield of 50 square meters of tiles per cubic meter of block and sells at P1000 per square meter. Considering all other costs to be the same, the granite is more profitable than the marble by how much? A. B. C. D. P12,000 per cubic meter P13,000 per cubic meter P14,000 per cubic meter P15,000 per cubic meter

13.)

A man would like to invest P50,000 in government bonds and stocks that will give an overall annual return of about 5%. The money to be invested in government bonds will give an annual return of 4.5% and the stocks of about 6%. The investments are in units of P100.00 each. If he desires to keep his stock investment to minimum in order to reduce his risk, determine how many stocks should be purchased. A. B. C. D. 165 166 167 168

14.)

A 220 V 2 hp motor has an efficiency of 80%. If power costs P3.00 per kw-hr for the first 50 kw-hr, 2.90 per kw-hr for the second 50 kw-hr, P2.80 for the third kw-hr and so on until a minimum of P2.50 per kw-hr is reached. How much does it cost to run this motor continuously for 7 days? A. B. C. D. P800 P820 P840 P860

15.)

An 8-meter concrete road pavement 500 meters long is desired to be constructed over a well-compacted gravel road, together with the necessary concrete curbs and gutters on both sides. In order to put the subgrade on an even level grade, a 500 cubic meters of sand filling is necessary, over which the 10 inch concrete pavement will be placed? Assume the following data: A. B. Sand fill, including rolling and watering = P100 per cubic meter Concrete pavement, 10 in thick (labor and materials) including curing = P220 per sq. Meter C. Curbs and gutters = P12 per linear meter How much will the project cost allowing 15% for contingency? A. B. C. D. P1,207,000 P1,207,500 P1,208,000 P1,208,500

16.)

An electric utility purchases 2,300,000 kw-hr per month of electric ener gy from National Power Corporation at P2.00 per kw-hr and sells all this to consumers after deducting distribution losses of 20%. At what average rate per kw-hr should this energy be sold to break even if the following are other monthly expenses in its operation: Taxes 2.5 % of gross revenue Salaries P750,000 Depreciation P2,250,000 Interest P700,000 Maintenance P300,000 Miscellaneous P200,000 A. B. C. D. P4.90 P5.20 P5.90 P6.30

17.)

An engineer bidding on the asphalting of 7 km stretch of road is confronted with a problem of choosing between two possible sites on which to set-up the asphalt-mixing machine. Site A Site B Average hauling distance 2.5 km 2.75 km Monthly rental P35,000 P6,500 Installing and dismantling of machine P20,000 P10,000 At Site A, it would be necessary to hir e 2 flagmen at P150 per working day. The job can be completed in 32 weeks working 6 days a week. The project requir es 16,670 cubic meter of asphalt mix per kilometre of road. If the asphalt mix is to be hauled by a contractor at P42 per cubic meter per km of haul. How much is site B more expensive than site A? A. B. C. D. P949,645 P962,101 P956,807 P974,090

18.)

A fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed manufacturing plant and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated to be 10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total investment if the annual profit is P2,500,000. A. B. C. D. 28.33% 29.34% 30.12% 30.78%

19.)

A call to bid was advertised in the Philippine Daily Inquirer for the construction of a transmission line from a mini-hydroelectric power plant to the substation which is 5.035 kilometers away. The tanalized timber electrical posts must be placed at an interval of 50 m. The electrical posts must be 30 feet long, 8 inches in diameter at the tip and 12 inches in diameter at the butt. The power house is 15 m from the first electric post and the substation is 20 m from the last electric post. Compute the estimated cost for the project using the following data: Cost of one tanalized timber post 30 feet long is P5,000 including deliver y to the site. Labourer at P180 per day and 5 laborers can dig and erect 3 posts per day. Electrician at P250 per day and 4 electricians can strung wires complete 150 meters per day. Electric wire cost P4.00 per meter. Use only 5 labor ers and 4 electricians for the project and is supervised by a foreman which is paid at P400 per day. Contingency is 10% and profit is 25%.

A. P745,890.23 B. P817,692.00 C. P789,120.80 D. P829,592.50 20.) Upon the retirement after 44 years in government service, Mrs. Salud Araoarao was able to get a retirement lump sum of P2,300,000. As a hedge against inflation, she decided to use a part of it invested in real state at Pagadian City and the remainder wer e invested as follows: A. B. C. 30% in T-bills earning 12% interest 35% in money market placement earning 14% 35% in blue chip stock earning 13%

If her annual earnings from the T-bills, money market and stock is P50,000, How much did she invests in real estate? A. B. C. D. 21.) P2,091,639.12 P1,916,858.24 P1,856,120.53 P1,790,274.78

The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Alarde is 3200 pieces. With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cuffing cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Alarde at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit cuffing cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many months will Mr. Alarde be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy now? A. B. C. D. 10 months 11 months 12 months 13 months

22.)

In a new gold mining area in Southern Leyte the ore contains on the average of ten ounces of gold per ton. Different methods of processing are tabulated as follows: Processing Method Cost per ton % Recovery A P5,500 90 B P2,500 80 C P400 70 If gold can be sold at P4,000 per ounce, which method of processing yield the biggest return? A. B. C. D. Processing method A Processing method B Processing method C Either of the processing methods B or C

23.)

JRT Motors Inc. has been shipping its Suzuki engines in containers to avoid the necessary crating of the engines. JRT Motors Inc. will pay freight on container load of 40 tons, regardless of whether or not the container is completely filled with engines. Record shows that due to engine size, JRT Motors Inc. has shipped only 30 tons per container. Freight of container cost P3.00 per kilograms. If the engines are crated so that they can be shipped at the rate of P3.50 per hundred kilograms with the freight bill computed only on the actual weight shipped. The cost of crating would be P50 per engine and would increase the shipping weight from 1500 kg to 1520 kg per engine. How much more economical shipping the engine in crates than in containers? A. B. C. D. P670 per engine P630 per engine P650 per engine P610 per engine

24.)

A paint manufacturing company uses a sand mill for fine grinding of paint with an output of 100 liters per hour using glass beads as grinding media. Media load in the mill is 25 kg costing P200.00 per kg and is fully replenished in 2 months time at 8 hours per day operation, 25 days a month. A ceramic grinding media is offered to this paint company, costing P400 per kg and needs 30 kg load in the sand mill, but guarantees an output of 120 liters per hour and full replenishment of media in 3 months. If profit on paint reduction is P15 per liter how much is a diff erence in profit between the two media? A. B. C. D. P436,900 P462,000 P473,000 P498,200

25.)

If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what is the rate of interest? A. B. C. D. 14.12% 15.89% 16.67% 16.97%

26.)

You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the end of one year, you have to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest? A. 23.5% B. 24.7% C. 25.0% D. 25.8%

27.)

A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what future amount is due at the end of the loan period? A. B. C. D. P5,937.50 P5,873.20 P5,712.40 P5,690.12

28.)

If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest at 12%, find the present worth of P50,000, which is due at the end of 7 months. A. B. C. D. P46,728.97 P47,098.12 P47,890.12 P48,090.21

29.)

Mr. J. Reyes borrowed money from the bank. He r eceived from the bank P1,842 and promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest. A. B. C. D. 12.19% 12.03% 11.54% 10.29%

30.)

If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total amount to be repaid at the end of one year? A. B. C. D. P10,900 P11,200 P11,800 P12,000

31.)

A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3% discount. Find the rate of interest. A. B. C. D. 35.45% 35.89% 36.18% 37.11%

32.)

A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount? A. B. C. D. 3.67% 4.00% 4.15% 4.25%

33.)

A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of P80.00. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance? A. B. C. D. 4.00% 4.07% 4.17% 4.25%

34.)

What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per year? A. B. C. D. P25,168 P25,175 P25,189 P25,250

35.)

What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per month? A. B. C. D. P28,000 P28,165 P28,289 P28,250

36.)

It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they gr ant a loan, the interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate? A. B. C. D. 16.02% 16.28% 16.32% 16.47%

37.)

A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually. A. B. C. D. 11.50% 11.75% 11.95% 12.32%

38.)

P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be due at the end of 75 days? A. B. C. D. P5,066.67 P5,133.33 P5,050.00 P5,166.67

39.)

A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified? A. B. C. D. 12.07% 12.34% 12.67% 12.87%

40.)

A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of 16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is the actual rate of interest? A. B. C. D. 19.05% 19.34% 19.67% 19.87%

41.)

P4,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be due at the end of 75 days? A. B. C. D. P4,033.33 P4,333.33 P4,133.33 P4,666.67

42.)

Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial Fabricator and Construction Corporation with an interest rate of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note. A. B. C. D. P18,800 P18,900 P19,000 P19,100

43.)

If you borrow money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of nine months. A. B. C. D. P18,992.08 P18,782.18 P18,348.62 P18,120.45

44.)

A man borrowed from a bank under a promissory note that he signed in the amount of P25,000.00 for a period of one year. He receives only the amount of P21,915.00 after the bank collected the advance interest and an additional of P85.00 for notarial and inspection fees. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance? A. B. C. D. 13.05% 13.22% 13.46% 13.64%

45.)

Mr. Danilo Conde borrowed money from a bank. He received from the bank P1,340.00 and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine rate of simple interest. A. B. C. D. 15.92% 15.75% 15.45% 15.08%

46.)

Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank P1,340.00 and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding discount rate or often referred to as the bankers discount. A. B. C. D. 13.15% 13.32% 13.46% 13.73%

47.)

Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250.00 at the end of 60 days. Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price? A. B. C. D. P1,124.67 P1,233.55 P1,289.08 P1,302.67

48.)

A man borrowed money from a loan shark. He receives from the loan shark and amount of P1,342.00 and promised to repay P1,500.00 at the end of 3 quarters. What is the simple interest rate? A. B. C. D. 15.47% 15.69% 15.80% 15.96%

49.)

Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January 15,1996 to October 12,1996, if the rate interest is 18%. A. B. C. D. P664.23 P664.89 P665.21 P666.39

50.)

The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21,1995 to December 25,1995 is P100. What is the rate of interest? A. B. C. D. 3.90% 3.92% 3.95% 3.98%

51.)

On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain sum of money as birthday pr esent. She decided to invest the said amount on 20% exact simple interest. If the account will mature on Christmas day at an amount of P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her birthday? A. B. C. D. P8,807.92 P8,827.56 P8,832.17 P8,845.78

52.)

What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%? A. B. C. D. P39.01 P39.45 P39.82 P39.99

53.)

Nicole has P20,400 in cash. She invested it at 7% from March 1, 2006 to November 1, 2006 at 7% interest. How much is the interest using the Bankers Rule? A. B. C. D. P972.12 P970.78 P973.12 P971.83

54.)

The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 7 years if the principal and interest were not withdrawn during this period? A. B. C. D. P30,890.22 P30,980.22 P31,079.73 P31,179.37

55.)

A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective rate of money? A. B. C. D. 9.01% 9.14% 9.31% 9.41%

56.)

The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest were not withdrawn during the period. A. B. C. D. P71,781.47 P71,187.47 P71,817.47 P71,718.47

57.)

Find the present worth of a future payment of P80,000 to be made in six years with an interest of 12% compounded annually. A. B. C. D. P40,540.49 P40,450.49 P40,350.49 P40,530.49

58.)

What is the effective r ate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to 360 days. A. B. C. D. 19.61% 19.44% 19.31% 19.72%

59.)

What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16% compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. 16.09% 16.32% 16.45% 16.78%

60.)

What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8% compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. 8.07% 8.12% 8.16% 8.24%

61.)

Find the nominal rate, which if converted quarterly could be used instead of 12% compounded semi-annually. A. B. C. D. 11.83% 11.09% 11.65% 11.25%

62.)

Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest? A. B. C. D. 12.35% compounded annually 11.90% compounded semi-annually 12.20% compounded quarterly 11.60% compounded monthly

63.)

Find the compound amount if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly for 5 years and 6 months.

A. P3,864.95 B. P3,846.59 C. P3,889.95 64.) An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the nominal interest. A. B. C. D. 65.) 11.89% 12.00% 12.08% 12.32%

If P5,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, then what is the compound interest at the end of 10 years? A. B. C. D. P6,080.40 P6,020.40 P6,040.20 P6,060.20

66.)

What is the corresponding effective rate of 18% compounded semi-quarterly? A. B. C. D. 19.24% 19.48% 19.84% 19.92%

67.)

Find the present worth of a future payment of P100,000 to be made in 10 years with an interest of 12% compounded quarterly. A. P30,555.68

B. C. D. 68.)

P30,656.86 P30,556.86 P30,655.68

In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12% compounded semi-annually? A. B. C. D. 7.86 years 7.65 years 7.23 years 8.12 years

69.)

The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest were not withdrawn during the period. A. P215,344.40 How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually? A. B. C. D. 13.7 years 14.2 years 14.7 years 15.3 years

70.)

71.)

What is the corresponding effective interest r ate of 18% compounded semi-monthly? A. B. C. D. 19.35% 19.84% 19.48% 19.64%

72.)

What is the effective r ate of 14% compounded semi-annually? A. B. C. D. 14.49% 14.59% 14.69% 14.79%

73.)

At an interest rate of 10% compounded annually, how much will a deposit of P1,500 be in 15 years? A. B. C. D. P6,265.87 P6,256.78 P6,526.87 P6,652.78

74.)

A man expects to receive P25,000 in 8 years. How much is that money worth now considering interest at 8% compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. P13,256.83 P13,655.28 P13,625.83 P13,265.83

75.)

About how many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly? A. B. 4 years 5 years

76.)

Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate compounded quarterly. A. B. C. D. 5.12% 5.96% 5.78% 6.12%

77.)

What is the amount of P12,800 in 4 years at 5% compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. P15,461.59 P15,146.95 P15,641.59 P15,614.59

78.)

By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. 11.23 years 11.46 years 11.57 years 11.87 years

79.)

If P50,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 4% compounded quarterly, find the compounded interest at the end of 10 years. A. B. C. D. P2,333.32 P2,444.32 P2,555.32 P2,666.32

80.)

A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16 th year.

A. P693.12 B. P700.12 C. P702.15 D. P705.42 81.) P1,500.00 was deposited in a bank account, 20 years ago. Today, it is worth P3,000.00. Interest is paid semi-annually. Determine the interest rate paid on this account. A. B. C. D. 82.) 2.9% 3.0% 3.2% 3.5%

A merchant puts in his P2,000.00 to a small business for a period of six years. With a given interest rate on the investment of 15% per year, compounded annually, how much will he collect at the end of the sixth year? A. B. C. D. P4,626.12 P4,262.12 P4,383.12 P4,444.12

83.)

A man borrowed P100,000 at the interest rate of 12% per annum, compounded quarterly. What is the effective rate? A. B. C. D. 12.75% 12.55% 12.45% 12.35%

84.)

Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is compounded. A. B. C. D. Monthly Bimonthly Quarterly Annually

85.)

When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%? A. B. C. D. 9 years 10 years 11 years 12 years

86.)

A student plans to deposit P1,500.00 in the bank now and another P3,000.00 for the next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000.00 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%. A. P1,549.64

87.)

How much must be invested on January 1, 1998 in order to accumulate P2,000 on January 1, 2003? Money is worth 6%. A. B. C. D. P1,509.34 P1,249.64 P1,378.98 P1,494.52

88.)

A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is the accumulated amount of P10,000 after 10 years? A. B. C. D. P13,498.59 P13,489.59 P13,789.98 P13,494.52

89.)

A mechanical engineer wishes to accumulate a total of P10,000 in a savings account at the end of 10 years. If the bank pays only 4% compounded quarterly, what should be the initial deposit? A. B. C. D. P6,176.35 P6,761.35 P6,716.53 P6,167.35

90.)

Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest of 8% per annum. What is the initial amount that must be deposited to yield a total of P10,000 in 10 years? A. B. C. D. P4,196.30 P4,721.39 P4,796.03 P4,631.93

91.)

If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the compounded interest after 7 years and 9 montths.

A. P690,848.73 B. P670,651.23 C. P680,649.56 D. P685,781.25 92.) An interest rate is quoted as being 7.5% compounded quarterly. What is the effective annual interest rate? A. B. C. D. 93.) 7.91% 7.51% 7.71% 7.31%

You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by borrowing the money from the bank? A. B. C. D. P53.89 P54.66 P53.78 P54.98

94.)

A deposit of P1,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded annually. Approximately how much money will be in the account after 10 years? A. B. C. D. P2,187.39 P2,145.78 P2,176.45 P2,158.92

95.)

Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth P2,370.00. The bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid in this account? A. B. C. D. 5.72% 5.78% 5.84% 5.90%

96.)

P200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. How much would the sum be on January 1, 1993? A. B. C. D. P631,627.78 P612,890.76 P621,169.64 P611,672.18

97.)

What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth year? The annual interest rate is 8%. A. B. C. D. P150.56 P152.88 P153.89 P151.09

98.)

Consider a deposit of P600.00 to be paid back in one year by P700.00. What is the rate of interest, i% per year compounded annually such that the net present wor th of the investment is positive? Assume i 0. A. B. C. D. 16.50% 16.75% 16.33% 16.67%

99.)

A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8 %. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due? A. B. C. D. P3,260.34 P3,280.34 P3,270.34 P3,250.34

100.)

A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The machine will retire at the end of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap value of P2,000.00 based on current prices. The machine will then be replaced with an exact duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds to accumulate the capital needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of 3% is anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated? A. B. C. D. P18,854.38 P18,548.38 P18,458.38 P18,845,38

101.)

What is the effective r ate corresponding to 16% compounding daily? Take 1 year = 360 days. A. B. C. D. 17.35% 17.45% 17.55% 17.65%

102.)

By the condition of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in a trust fund by her guardian until it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly? A. 7.42 years P200,000 was deposited at an interest r ate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After how many years will the sum be P621,170? A. B. C. D. 4 years 5 years 6 years 7 years

103.)

104.)

In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at maturity? A. B. C. D. P15,030.03 P20,113.57 P18,289.05 P16,892.34

105.)

A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at 12% compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized? A. B. C. D. P7,563.29 P7,498.20 P7,340.12 P7,623.42

106.)

How long (in nearest years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded semi-annually? A. B. C. D. 20 years 18 years 21 years 19 years

107.)

How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10,000.00 in five years?

A. P6,216.21 B. P6,212.12 C. P6,218.21 D. P6,209.21 108.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. How much is that money worth now considering interest at 6% compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. 109.) P11,042.89 P11,035.12 P11,025.25 P11,012.52

P500,000 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semiannually. How much is the sum now? A. B. C. D. P2,000,033.33 P2,000,166.28 P2,001,450.23 P2,002,820.12

110.)

A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a year. What is the effective annual interest rate? A. B. C. D. 4.06% 4.12% 4.16% 4.28%

111.)

Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years. He agrees to pay P50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he pay at the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually? A. B. C. D. P39,015.23 P39,026.25 P39,056.21 P39,089/78

112.)

Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings deposit of P50,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years. A. B. C. D. P1,510 P1,530 P1,550 P1,570

113.)

If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a loan of P150,000 due in 1 year and P280,000 due in 2 years.

A. 1.52 years B. 1.64 years 114.) For a loan acquired six years ago, a man paid out the amount of P75,000.00. The interest was computed at 18% compounded annually. How much was the borrowed amount? A. B. C. D. 115.) P27,367.28 P27,278.36 P27,782.36 P27,872.63

A couple decided that for ever y child that will be born to them they will place a deposit in the bank so that on the childs 18 birthday, the child will receive the amount of th P300,000.00. If the bank will pay an interest of 18% compounded yearly, how much deposit will the couple have to make on the birth of a child to them? A. B. C. D. P15,367.18 P15,249.13 P15,722.16 P15,482.64

116.)

On his 6 birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump th sum of P10,000 on his 21 birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as of st the boys 6 birthday, if the interest is compounded annually? Assume i = 4%. th A. B. C. D. P5,552.64 P5,549.10 P5,522.12 P5,582.63

117.)

A man who won P300,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust fund for the college education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year compounded quarterly, how much will the man have at the end of 10 years when his son will be starting his college education? A. B. C. D. P593,120.12 P593,452.12 P592,739.96 P593,888.96

118.)

If the sum of P15,000 is deposited in an account earning 4% per annum compounded quarterly, what will be the deposited amount at the end of 5 years? A. B. P18,302.85 P18,450.89

119.)

The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are: a. b. The construction of the building now to cost P400,000. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an extension to be added to cost P200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and depreciation is to be neglected? A. B. C. D. 120.) P19,122.15 P19,423.69 P19,518.03 P19,624.49

A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective rate. A. B. C. D. 42.21% 42.30% 42.41% 42.57%

121.)

A master card compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1.5% per month. What is the effective interest rate per year? A. B. C. D. 19.23% 19.45% 19.56% 19.65%

122.)

A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. If interest is computed at 6% compounded quarterly, how much is it worth today? A. B. C. D. P11,025.25 P11,035.25 P11,045.25 P11,055.25

123.)

Microsoft CEO, billionaire Bill Gates willed that a sum of $25 million be given to a child but will be held in trust by the childs mother until it amounts to $45 million. If the amount is invested and earns 8% compounded quarterly, when will the child receive the money? A. B. C. D. 8.11 years 7.90 years 7.42 years 7.24 years

124.)

Find the present value of instalment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end of the first year, P3,000 at the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the thir d year and P5,000 at the end of the fourth year, if money is worth 10% compounded annually. A. B. C. D. P11,411.10 P11,530.98 P11,621.67 P11,717.85

125.)

How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually? A. B. C. D. 14.27 years 14.56 years 14.78 years 14.98 years

126.)

Two hundred years ago, your great, great, great grandfather deposited P1 in a savings account. Today, the bank notified you that you are the sole heir to this account. How much is the account today if it earns 8% per annum? A. B. C. D. P4,002,450.78 P4,102,405.90 P4,838,949.58 P4,909,289.45

127.)

What is the present worth of a future payment of P200,000 to be made in 10 years with an interest of 10% compounded annually? A. B. C. D. P76,901.21 P77,108.66 P78,109.32 P79,667.32

128.)

A deposit of P1,000.00 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded annually. How much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,374.21 B. P2,158.92 C. P2,734.12 D. P2,400.12 129.) What nominal rate compounded annually would quadruple the principal in 4 years? A. B. C. D. 130.) 41.42% 40.81% 41.79% 40.45%

Five years ago, you paid P34,000 for a residential lot. Today you sell it at P50,000. What is your annual rate of appreciation? A. B. C. D. 8.12% 8.00% 7.92% 8.32%

131.)

Suppose that P100,000 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for 2 years. If the accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P21,000. Find the rate of interest. A. B. C. D. 10.12% 10.00% 10.92% 10.32%

132.)

An investment of P20,000 will be required at the end of the year. The project would terminate at the end of the 5 th year and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value of P25,000 at that time. What is the rate of interest for this project to break even? A. B. C. D. 5.74% 5.43% 5.91% 5.67%

133.)

Frank Medina possesses a promissory note, due in 2 years hence, whose maturity value is P3,200. What is the discount value of this note, based on an interest rate of 7%? A. B. C. D. P2,795.00 P2,975.00 P2,579.00 P2,759.00

134.)

Sonny borrowed a certain amount on June 1990 from Romeo. Two years later, Sonny borrowed again from Romeo an amount of P5,000. Sonny paid P1,000 on June 1993 and discharged his balance by paying P7,500 on June 1995. What was the amount borrowed by Sonny on June 1990 if the interest is 8% compounded annually? A. B. C. D. P1,511.61 P1,611.51 P1,711.41 P1,811.31

135.)

Dr. Leopold Lucero invests P50,000 in a time deposit that yields 10% for his retirement 30 years from now. If the inflation rate is 5%, what will be the value of the account at maturity in terms of todays peso. A. B. C. D. P201,689.91 P201,571.91 P201,345.91 P201,869.91

136.)

First Benchmark Publisher Inc. invests P100,000 today to be repaid in five years in one lump sum at 12% compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 4% compounded annually, how much profit, in todays pesos, is realized over the five-year period? A. B. C. D. P44,512.89 P44,672.10 P44,851.64 P44,901.23

137.)

A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of 2002. The new machine to replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of P400,000. This expense will be partially defrayed by the sale of the old machine as scrap for P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the r equired capital, the firm will deposit the following sum in an account earning interest at 5% compounded quarterly: P60,000 at the end of 1999 P60,000 at the end of 2000 P80,000 at the end of 2001 What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase the new machine? A. B. C. D. P155,890.12 P153,085.56 P154,200.12 P156,930.38

138.) On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel Corporation at a total cost of P144,000. She then received the following semiannual dividends: P4,200 on December 1, 1998 P4,400 on June 1, 1999 P4,400 on December 1, 1999 P4,000 on June 1, 2000 After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving P152,000 after deduction of brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend realize on her investment? A. B. C. D. 4.26% 4.54% 4.87% 4.91%

139.)

Engr. Altarejos has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in business. His estimates of the year-by-year receipts and disbursements for all purposes are shown in the tabulation below: Year Receipts Disbursements 0 0 - P13,760 4 P5,000 + P1,000 5 P6,200 + P1,200 6 P7,500 + P1,500 7 P8,800 + P1,800 He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the end of useful life. Find the rate of return of the prospective equipment. A. B. C. D. 10.11% 11.80% 11.10% 10.51%

140.)

What interest rate, compounded monthly, is equivalent to a 10% effective rate? A. B. C. D. 9.45% 9.26% 9.65% 9.56%

141.)

Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. plans to purchase a piece of land and to build a school building on this land. However, since the school building is not an immediate requirement, the institute is considering whether it should purchase this land and build the building now or defer this action for 3 years. The current costs are as follows: Land: P800,000 Building: P12,000,000

The purchase price of the land and the cost of the school building are expected to appreciate at the r ate of 15% and 4% per annum, respectively. What will be the total cost of the land and structure 3 years hence? A. B. C. D. 142.) P14,520,120 P14,715,068 P14,902,189 P15,021,781

Mr. Ramon owes Mr. Alarde the following amounts: P40,000 due 2 years hence P60,000 due 3 years hence P72,000 due 4 years hence Having won the lottery, Mr. Ramos decided to liquidate the debts at the present time. If the two parties agree on a 5% interest rate, what sum must Mr. Ramos pay? A. B. C. D. P147,520.20 P147,346.02 P147,902.89 P147,021.81

143.)

Mr. James Lubay working in the United States planned of returning to the Philippines at the end of 2001. He established a fund starting in 1995 with the following recorded deposits and withdrawals. January 1, 1995 Deposit of P40,000 January 1, 1997 Deposit of P80,000 July 1, 1997 Withdrawal of P12,000 July 1, 1998 Deposit of P64,000 January 1, 1999 Withdrawal of P48,000 His fund earned interest at the rate of 3.5% compounded semiannually until the end of 1997. At that date, the interest was augmented to 4% compounded semiannually. What will be the principal in the fund at the end of 2001? A. B. C. D. P146,323.08 P146,992.99 P146,846.92 P146,022.82

144.) JRT Publishers is contemplating of installing a labor-saving printing equipment. It has a choice between two different models. Model A will cost P1,460,000 while model B will cost P1,452,000. The anticipated repair costs for each model are as follows: Model A: P60,000 at the end of 5 th year P80,000 at the end of 10 th year Model B: P152,000 at the end of 9 year th The two models are alike in all other respects. If the publisher is earning a 7% return of its capital, which model should be purchased? How much savings will be accrued if the publisher will purchase the more economical model? A. B. C. D. 145.) P8,769.18 P8,918.23 P9,012.53 P9,341.11

What is the future amount of P50,000 if the single payment compound amount factor of this investment is 1.23% A. B. C. D. P61,700 P61,900 P61,200 P61,500

An investment indicates a single compound amount factor of 1.32 if invested for n 146.) years. If the interest rate is 4.73% per annum, find the value of n. A. B. C. D. 147.) 4 5 6 7

Mr. Tambangan invests P50,000 today. Several years later, it becomes P60,000. What is the single payment present worth factor of this investment? If the amount was invested for 5 years, what is the rate of interest? A. B. C. D. 3.1% 3.3% 3.5% 3.7%

148.)

Money is deposited in a certain account for which the interest is compounded continuously. If the balance doubles in 6 years, what is the annual percentage rate? A. B. C. D. 11.55% 11.66% 11.77% 11.88%

149.)

On January 1, 1999, Mrs. Jocelyn De Gala opened an account at Bank of Philippine Islands with an initial deposit of P1,000,000.00. On March 1, 2000, she opened an additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays 12% interest compounded monthly, how much will be in the account on April 1, 2000? A. B. C. D. P2,180,968.95 P2,190,968.95 P2,160,968.95 P2,170,968.95

The paper currency issued by the Central Bank which forms part of the countrys 150.) money supply. A. B. C. D. 151.) T-bills Bank note Check Coupon

Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in the general price level. A. B. C. D. Devaluation Deflation Inflation Depreciation

152.)

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time. A. B. C. D. Annuity Debt Amortization Deposit

153.)

The place where buyers and sellers come together. A. B. C. D. Market Business Recreation center Buy and sell section

154.)

A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitute A. B. C. Monopsony Oligopoly Monopoly

155.)

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment. A. B. C. D. Perpetuity Ordinary annuity Annuity due Deferred annuity

156.)

The total income equals the total operating cost. A. B. C. D. Balanced sheet In-place value Check and balance Break even no gain no loss

157.)

Kind of obligation which has no condition attached. A. B. C. D. Analytic Pure Gratuitous Private

158.)

Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as: A. B. C. D. GS and A expenses Operating and maintenance costs Prime cost O and M costs An index of short term paying ability is called: A. B. C. D. Receivable turn-over Profit margin ratio Current ratio Acid-test ratio

159.)

160.)

Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a number of years. A. B. C. D. Depreciation Sinking fund Amnesty Bond

161.)

Estimated value at the end of the useful life. A. B. C. D. Market value Fair value Salvage value Book value

162.)

Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date. A. B. C. D. Physical inventory Material update Technological assessment Material count

163.)

Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to bidding date. A. B. C. D. Delict Escalatory Technological assessment Bid bulletin

164.)

A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time. A. B. C. D. Depreciation Annuity Perpetuity Inflation

165.)

What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%? A. B. C. D. P727.17 P717.17 P714.71 P731.17

166.)

Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10 quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment is P2,000, how much did he borrow? A. B. C. P17,304.78 P17,404.12 P17,504.13

167.)

What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P20,000? Assume i = 6% annually. A. B. C. D. P1,290.34 P1,185.54 P1,107.34 P1,205.74

168.)

Find the annual payment to extinguish a debt of P10,000 payable for 6 years at 12% interest annually. A. B. C. D. P2,324.62 P2,234.26 P2,432.26 P2,342.26

169.)

A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of a stamping machine used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of 10 years. Operating cost per year = P500.00 Cost of dye = P1,200.00 Salvage value of dye = P600.00 The money will be deposited in a savings account which earns 6% interest. Determine the sum of money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial dye. A. B. C. D. P8,626.02 P8,662.02 P8,226.02 P8,666.22

170.)

A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?

A. P2,500.57 B. P2,544.45 C. P2,540.56 D. P2,504.57 171.) A man paid 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agr eed to pay the 90% balance on monthly installment for 60 months at an interest r ate of 15% compounded monthly. Compute the amount of the monthly payment. A. B. C. D. 172.) P42,821.86 P42,128.67 P42,218.57 P42,812.68

What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P3,000.00 at the end of each year, with interest at 8% compounded annually? A. B. C. D. P7,654.04 P7,731.29 P7,420.89 P7,590.12

173.)

What is the accumulated amount of five-year annuity paying P6,000 at the end of each year, with interest at 15% compounded annually? A. B. C. D. P40,519.21 P40,681.29 P40,454.29 P40,329.10

174.)

A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by semi-annual payment over the next 5 years. The f irst due in 6 months. Determine the semi-annual payment. A. B. C. D. P1,234.09 P1,255.90 P1,275.68 P1,295.05

175.)

A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10 years at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per annum, how much should he deposit to a bank monthly in order to discharge his debt 10 yrs hence? A. B. C. D. P5,174.23 P5,162.89 P5,190.12 P5,194.23

176.)

A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments. A. P43,600.10 B. P43,489.47 C. P43,263.91 D. P43,763.20

177.)

Money borrowed today is to be paid in 6 equal payments at the end of 6 quarters. If the interest is 12% compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly payment is P2,000.00? A. B. C. D. P10,834.38 P10,278.12 P10,450.00 P10,672.90

178.)

A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual payments of P8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually? A. B. C. D. P142,999.08 P143,104.89 P142,189.67 P143,999.08

179.)

How much must you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for 10 years if the interest rate is 9%? A. B. C. D. P12,835.32 P12,992.22 P12,562.09 P12,004.59

180.)

How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1, in order to accumulate P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6? A. B. C. D. P728.99 P742.09 P716.81 P702.00

181.)

A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and payments of P750 per year for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time payments? A. B. 4.61% 4.71%

182.)

A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for r edemption. The firm established a sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12 th year? A. B. C. D. P38,120.00 P37,520.34 P37,250.34 P37,002.00

183.)

A house and lot can be acquired by a downpayment of P500,000 and a yearly payment of P100,000 at the end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the end of 5 years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 14% compounded annually, what is the cash price of the property? A. B. C. D. P806,899.33 P807,100.12 P807,778.12 P808,835.92

184.)

A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in order to withdraw P20,000 each on the childs 18 th , 19 th , 20 th and 21 st birthdays. How much is the lump sum amount? A. B. C. D. P30,119.73 P30,941.73 P30,149.37 P30,419.73

185.)

An instructor plans to retire in exactly one year and want an account that will pay him P25,000 a year for the next 15 years. Assuming a 6% annual effective interest rate, what is the amount he would need to deposit now? (The fund will be depleted after 15 years). A. B. C. D. P242,860.22 P242,680.22 P242,608.22 P242,806.22

186.)

A manufacturing firm wishes to give each 80 employees a holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate compounded monthly, so that each employee will receive a P2,000 bonus? A. P12,615.80 B. P12,516.80 C. P12,611.80 D. P12,510.80 A man purchased on monthly instalment a P100,000 worth of land. The interest rate is 12% nominal and payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization? A. B. C. D. P1,101.08 P1,202.08 P1,303.08 P1,404.08

187.)

188.)

A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum for the last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan? A. B. C. D. P6,999.39 P6,292.93 P6,222.39 P6,922.93

189.)

An investment of P350,000 is made today and is equivalent to payments of P200,000 each year for 3 years. What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project? A. B. C. D. 32.7% 33.8% 33.2% 33.6%

190.)

Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of 4 years and P80,000 at the end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that will be set aside for this equipment. Money worth 10% compounded annually. A. B. C. D. P7,425.72 P7,329.67 P7,245.89 P7,178.89

191.)

Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The amount that will be available in two years is: A. B. C. D. P13,100.60 P13,589.50 P13,982.80 P13,486.70

192.)

A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a life of 10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per year is P9,000, what is the approximate rate of return (ROR) on the investment? A. B. C. D. 24.2% 24.8% 25.1% 25.4%

193.)

An employee is about to receive the sum of P300.00 at the end of each year for 5 years. One year prior to the receipt of the first sum, he decides to discount all 5 sum. If the interest rate is 6%, what proceeds will he obtain? A. B. C. D. P1,298.00 P1,231.09 P1,221.62 P1,263.71

194.)

The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal rate compounded monthly, so that each employee will receive a P1,000.00 bonus? A. B. C. D. P3,942.44 P3,271.22 P3,600.12 P3,080.32

195.)

Mr. Robles plans a deposit of P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest, compounded monthly. What will be the amount that will be available in 2 years? A. B. C. D. P13,941.44 P13,272.22 P13,486.73 P13,089.32

196.)

Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10% interest for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment. How much principal does he still owe? A. B. C. D. P13,841.34 P13,472.22 P13,286.63 P13,023.52

197.)

A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 ever y end of 3 months for 10 years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How much is this lump sum of the cost of money is 14% compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. P3,702,939.73 P3,607,562.16 P3,799,801.23 P3,676,590.12

198.)

A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the balance on monthly instalments for x years at an interest rate of 15% compounded monthly. If the monthly instalment was P42,821.87, find the value of x? A. B. C. D. 3 4 5 6

199.)

You need P4,000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested P5,000 in 7% account for your education when you were born. If you withdraw P4,000 at the end of your 17 , 18 , 19 and 20 birthday, how much will be left in the account at the th th th end of the 21 year? st A. B. C. D. P1,666.98 P1,699.86 P1,623.89 P1,645.67

th

200.)

Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each month. What does Mr. Ayala pay each month? A. B. C. D. P839.19 P842.38 P807.16 P814.75

201.)

A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is P25,000.00. Each year it operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.00. Given the effective annual interest rate of 18%, what is the discounted payback period, in years, on the investment of the machine? A. B. C. D. 3.15 1.75 2.15 2.75

202.)

A machine costs P20,000.00 today and has an estimated scrap value of P2,000.00 after 8 years. Inflation is 2% per year. The effective annual interest rate earned on money invested is 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year to replace the machine with an identical model 8 years from now? A. B. C. D. P3,345.77 P3,389.32 P3,489.11 P3,573.99

203.)

Engr. Sison borrows P100,000.00 at 10% effective annual inter est. He must pay back the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payment due on the first day of each month. What does Engr. Sison pay each month? A. B. C. D. P838.86 P849.12 P850.12 P840.21

204.)

Instead of paying P100,000.00 in annual rent for office space at the beginning of each year for the next 10 years, an engineering firm has decided to take out a 10-year P1,000,000.00 loan for a new building at 6% interest. The firm will invest P100,000.00 of the rent saved and earn 18% annual inter est on that amount. What will be the difference between the firms annual revenue and expenses? A. B. C. D. P10,200.12 P10,205.13 P10,210.67 P10,215.56

205.)

A service car whose cash price was P540,000 was bought with a downpayment of P162,000 and monthly instalment of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of interest if compounded monthly? A. B. C. D. 20% 24% 21% 23%

206.)

What uniform annual amount should be deposited each year in order to accumulate P100,000.00 at the end of the 5 annual deposit if money earns 10% interest? th A. B. C. D. P16,002.18 P15,890.12 P16,379.75 P15,980.12

207.)

In five years, P18,000 will be needed to pay for a building renovation. In order to generate this sum, a sinking fund consisting of thr ee annual payments is established now. For tax purposes, no further payment will be made after three years. What payments are necessary if money worth 15% per annum? A. B. C. D. P3,919.52 P3,871.23 P3,781.32 P3,199.52

208.) Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if money is worth 8% compounded quarterly. A. B. C. D. 209.) P371,719.52 P371,287.13 P371,670.34 P371,802.63

If P500.00 is invested at the end of each year for 6 years, at an annual interest rate of 7%, what is the total peso amount available upon the deposit of the sixth payment? A. B. C. D. P3,671.71 P3,712.87 P3,450.12 P3,576.64

210.)

How many years must you invest today in order to withdraw P1,000.00 per year for 10 years if the interest rate is 12%? A. B. C. D. P5,467.12 P5,560.22 P5,650.22 P5,780.12

211.)

A man paid a 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lit and agreed to pay the balance on monthly instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded monthly. What was the monthly instalment in pesos? A. B. C. D. P42,821.87 P42,980.00 P43,102.23 P43,189.03

212.)

A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000.00 every end of 3 months for x years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum of P3,702,939.80 at the end of 4 years. If the rate of interest was 14% compounded quarterly, what is the value of x? A. B. C. D. 10 11 12 13

213.)

If you obtain a loan of P1M at the rate of 12% compounded annually in order to build a house, how much must you pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10 years? A. B. C. D. P13,994.17 P14,801.12 P13,720.15 P14,078.78

214.)

Rainer Wandrew borrowed P50,000.00 from Social Security System, in the form of calamity loan, with interest at 8% compounded quarterly payable in equal quarterly instalments for 10 years. Find the quarterly payments. A. B. C. D. P1,590.83 P1.609.23 P1,778.17 P1,827.79

215.)

For having been loyal, trustworthy and efficient, the company has offered a supervisor a yearly gratuity pay of P20,000.00 for 10 years with the first payment to be made one year after his retirement. The supervisor, instead, r equested that he be paid a lump sum on the date of his retirement less interact that the company would have earned if the gratuity is to be paid on the yearly basis. If interest is 15%, what is the equivalently lump sum that he could get? A. B. C. D. P100,357.37 P100,537.73 P100,375.37 P100,735.37

216.)

In anticipation of a much bigger volume of business after 10 year s, a fabrication company purchased an adjacent lot for its expansion program where it hopes to put up a building projected to cost P4,000,000.00 when it will be constructed 10 years after, To provide the required capital expense, it plans to put up a sinking fund for the purpose. How much must the company deposit each year if interest to be earned is computed at 15%? A. P194,089.17 B. P195,780.12 C. P196,801.56 D. P197,008.25 A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid the 20 instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. How much is his monthly th payment? A. P8,929.29 B. P8,225.00 C. P8,552.00 D. P8,008.20 A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid the 20 th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. What is the remaining balance that he paid? A. B. C. D. P186,927.24 P188,225.00 P187,701.26 P185,900.20

217.)

218.)

219.)

A company purchased for a cash price of P500,000.00 a machine which is estimated to have a salvage value of P50,000.00 at the end of its 10 years economic life. How much yearly deposit must the company deposit in a sinking fund that will pay 18% interest, compounded yearly, to accumulate the needed fund to purchase the new machine at the end of the 10 th year economic life of the machine it purchased if a new machine will cost 75% more by that time? A. B. C. D. P34,859.78 P35,890.12 P35,074.58 P34,074.85

220.)

A car dealer advertises the sale of a car model for a cash price of P280,000. If purchased on instalment, the regular downpayment is 15% and balance payable in 18 equal monthly instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. How much will be required monthly payments? A. P15,185.78

221.)

A machinery supplier is offering a certain machinery on a 10% downpayment and the balance payable in equal end of the year payments without interest for 2 years. Under this arrangement, the price is pegged to be P250,000. However, for cash purchase, the machine would only cost P195,000. What is the equivalent interest rate that is being charged on the 2-year payment plan if interest is compounded quarterly? A. B. C. D. 18.47% 19.21% 19.47% 19.74%

222.)

A company has approved a car plan for its six senior officers in which the company will shoulder 25% of the cost and the difference payable by each officer to a financing company in 48 equal end of the month instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. If the cost of each car is P350,000, determine the amount each officer has to pay the financing company per month? A. B. C. D. P7,523.90 P7,619.22 P7,190.00 P7,710.94

223.)

If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity can a person get annually from the bank every year for 8 years star ting 1 year after the 9 deposit is made. Cost of money is 14%. A. B. C. D. P34,467.21 P34,567.81 P34,675.18 P34,867.37

th

224.) An employee is earning P12,000.00 a month and he can afford to purchase a car which will require a downpayment of P10,000.00 and a monthly amortization of not more than 30% of his monthly salary. What should be the maximum cash value of a car he can purchase if the seller will agree to a downpayment of P10,000.00 and the balance payable in four years at 18% per year payable on monthly basis? The first payment will be due at the end of the first month? A. B. C. D. P135,267.21 P135,507.42 P135,605.48 P135,807.30

225.) A new company developed a program in which the employees will be allowed to purchase shares of stocks of the company at the end of its fifth year of operation, when the companys thought to have gained stability already. The stock has a par value of P100.00 per share. Believing in the good potential of the company, an employee decided to save in a bank the amount of P8,000.00 at the end of every year which will earn for him 9% interest, compounded annually. How much shares of stocks will he be able to purchase at the end of the fifth year of his yearly deposits? A. B. C. D. 476 478 480 482

226.) Mr. Pablo Catimbang borrows P100,000 at 10% compounded annually, agreeing to repay the loan in twenty equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is still unpaid after he has made the tenth payment? A. B. C. D. 227.) P69,890.42 P72,000.80 P72,173.90 P72,311.44

A debt of P12,000 with an interest of 20% compounded quarterly is to be amortized by equal semi-annual payments over the next three years, the first due in 6 months. How much is the semi-annual payments? A. B. C. D. P2,775.50 P2,662.89 P2,590.04 P2,409.78

228.)

A fund donated by a benefactor to PICE to provide annual scholarships to deserving CE students. The fund will grant P5,000 for each of the first five years, P8,000 for the next five years and P10,000 each year thereafter. The scholarship will start one year after the fund is established. If the fund earns 8% interest, what is the amount of the donation?

A. P99,490.00 B. P99,507.35 C. P99,601.71 D. P99,723.54 229.) If a low cost house and lot worth P87,000 were offered at 10% downpayment and P500 per month for 25 years, what is the effective monthly interest rate on the diminishing balance? A. B. C. D. 230.) 0.492% 4.92% 0.0492% 49.2%

The average annual cost of damages caused by floods at Dona Rosario Village located along Butuanon river is estimated at P700,000. To build a gravity dam to protect the area from the floods, would cost P2,500,000 and would involve an annual maintenance cost of P20,000. With interest at 8% compounded annually, how many years will it take for the dam to pay for itself? A. B. C. D. 4.0 years 4.5 years 5.0 years 5.5 years

231.)

A businessman borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank at 12% interest, and paid P2,000.00 per annum for the first 4 years. What does he pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay-off the loan? A. B. C. D. P6,812.54 P6,782.31 P6,917.72 P6,660.90

232.)

Engr. Richard Flores agreed to pay the loan he is borrowing from a development bank in six annual end-of-the-year payments of P71,477.70. Interest is 18% per annum compounded annually and is included in the yearly amount he will be paying the bank. How much money Engr. Flores is borrowing from the bank? A. B. C. D. P250,000 P260,000 P270,000 P280,000

233.)

Barbette wishes to purchase a 29-inch flat-screened colored TV at Gillamac Appliance Center an amount of P20,000.00. She made a downpayment of P5,000.00 and the balance payable in 24 equal monthly instalments. If financing charge is 12% for each year computed on the total balance to be paid by instalment and interest rate 12%, how much would Barbette pay every month for the colored TV? What will be the actual cost of the money? A. B. C. D. 36.71% 36.21% 35.89% 35.23%

234.)

Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund that earns 6% per annum. Determine the annual deposit. A. B. C. D. P277,189.56 P278,664.54 P279,180.00 P280,673.12

235.)

Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund. If money is worth 6% per annum, determine the annual deposit. A. B. C. D. P367,890.12 P366,062.33 P365,089.34 P364,890.43

236.)

Because of the peso devaluation, a car costing P150,000 is to be purchased through a finance company instead of paying cash. If the buyer is required to pay P40,000 as downpayment and P4,000 each month for 4 years, what is the effective interest rate on the diminishing balance? A. B. C. D. 35.28% 35.82% 34.89% 34.29%

237.)

Engr. Clyde Vasquez plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He can raise the building by issuing 10%, 20-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he can least it for P140,000 per year, first payment being due one year from now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. Ignoring effects on income tax, what is the difference between buying the building and leasing the building? A. B. C. D. P233,779.27 P233,070.12 P234,070.34 P234,560.12

238.)

JJ Construction Firm had put up for sale of some of their heavy equipments for construction works. There were two interested buyers submitting their respective bids for the heavy equipments. The bids are as follows: Buyer A offers P10,000,000 payable 20% downpayment, the balance payable P1,000,000 annually for 8 years. Buyer B of fers P9,000,000 payable P2,000,000 down payment, the balance payable P500,000 semi-annually for 7 years. How much is the difference between the two bids if money is worth 10% effective? A. B. C. D. P346,520.05 P346,980.12 P347,019.45 P347,733.29

239.)

Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting 2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures: P1,000,000 at the end of 2001 P1,200,000 at the end of 2002 P1,500,000 at the end of 2003 To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the annual deposit. A. B. C. D. P217,520.05 P216,980.12 P217,679.01 P216,733.29

240.)

Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting 2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures: P1,000,000 at the end of 2001 P1,200,000 at the end of 2002 P1,500,000 at the end of 2003 To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the balance in the fund on January 1, 2002. A. B. C. D. P2,185,902.11 P2,195,600.03 P2,165,399.54 P2,175,380.00

241.)

J & N Pawnshop sells jewelries on either of the f ollowing arrangements: Cash Price: Discount of 10% of the marked price Installment: Downpayment of 20% of the marked price and the balance payable in equal annual instalments for the next 4 years. If you are buying a necklace with a marked price of P5,000, how much is the difference between buying in cash and buying in instalment? Assume that money is worth 5%. A. B. C. D. P40.76 P41.90 P43.54 P45.95

242.)

Lim Bon Fing Y Hermanos Inc has offer ed for sale its two-storey building in the commercial district of Cebu City. The building contains two stores on the ground floor and a number of offices on the second floor. A prospective buyer estimates that if he buys this property, he will hold it for about 10 years. He estimates that the average receipts from the rental during this period to be P350,000.00 and the average expenses for all purpose in connection with its ownership and operation (maintenance and r epairs, janitorial services, insurance, etc.) to be P135,000.00. He believes that the property can be sold for a net of P2,000,000 at the end of the 10 th year. If the rate of return on this type of investment is 7%, determine the cash price of this property for the buyer to recover his investment with a 7% return before income taxes. A. B. C. D. P2,526,768.61 P2,490,156.34 P2,390,189.00 P2,230,120.56

243.)

LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool. According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value of the low price strategy. A. B. C. D. P34,389.12 P34,490.10 P34,518.89 P34,710.74

244.)

LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool. According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value of the high price strategy. A. B. C. D. P32,727.27 P33,737.34 P33,747.20 P33,757.89

245.)

Jan Michael plans to purchase a new house costing P1,000,000. He can raise the building by issuing a 10%, 20 year old bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new house, Jan Michael has an option of leasing it for P140,000 per year, the first payment due one year from now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. If interest charge for leasing is 12%, which of the following is true? A. B. C. D. Lease is more economical than borrow and buy. Lease has same result with borrow and buy. Borrow and buy is half the value than lease. Borrow and buy is economical by almost a hundred thousand than lease.

246.)

Engr. Harold Landicho is considering establishing his own business. An investment of P100,000 will be required which must be recovered in 15 years. It is estimated that sales will be P150,000 per year and that annual operating expenses will be as follows: Materials P40,000 Labor P70,000 Overhead P10,000 + 10% of sales Selling expenses P5,000 Engr. Landicho will give up his regular job paying P15,000 per year and devote full time to the operation of the business. This will result in decreasing labor cost by P10,000 per year, material cost by P7,000 per year and overhead cost by P8,000 per year. If he expects to earn at least 20% of his capital, is investing in this business a sound idea?

A. Yes, it is a sound idea B. No, it is not a sound idea C. Neither yes nor no because it simply breakeven D. It depends on the current demand of the market. 247.) A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P12,000 if paid in cash. However, she can purchase it on instalment basis to be paid within 5 years. If money is worth 8% compounded annually, what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to be made at the beginning of each year? A. B. C. D. 248.) P2,617.65 P2,782.93 P2,890.13 P2,589.90

A Civil Engineering student borrowed P2,000.00 to meet college expenses during his senior year. He promised to repay the loan with interest at 4.5% in 10 equal semiannual instalments, the first payment to be made 3 years after the date of the loan. How much will this payment be? A. B. C. D. P252.12 P261.89 P273.90 P280.94
st

249.)

A father wishes to provide P40,000 for his son on his sons 21 birthday. How much should he deposit every 6 months in a savings account which pays 3% compounded semi-annually, if the first deposit was made when the son was 3 years old? A. B. C. D. P829.68 P815.80 P830.12 P846.10

250.)

A group of Filipino Mechanical Engineers formed a corporation and the opportunity to invest P8,000,000 in either of the two situations. The first is to expand a domestic operation. It is estimated that this investment would return a net year end cash flow of P2,000,000 each year for 10 years and at the end of that time, the physical assets, which would no longer be needed, could be sold at P5,000,000. The alternative opportunity would involve building and operating a plant in a foreign country. This operation would involve no net cash flow during the first 3 years, but it is believed that, beginning with the end of the fourth year, an annual flow of P4,000,000 would be received, running through the end of the 10 th year. After that time, it is believed that the operation and facilities might be expropriated, with little, if any, compensation, being paid. Which of the following is true? A. B. C. D. Foreign operation yields bigger rate of return. Domestic and foreign operations yield the same rate of return. Domestic operation has double the rate of return of the foreign operation. Foreign operation yields approximately 3% less rate of return than domestic operation.

251.)

A house costs P400,000 cash. A purchaser will pay P90,000 cash, P60,000 at the end of 2 years and a sequence of 6 equal annual payments starting with one at the end of 4 years, to discharge all his liabilities as to the principal and interest at 7% compounded annually. Find the annual payment which must be made for 6 years. A. B. C. D. P66,204.14 P65,701.67 P67,901.34 P68,900.12

252.)

Two years ago, the rental for the use of equipment and facilities as paid 5 years in advance, with option to renew the r ent for another years by payment of P15,000 annually at the start of each year for the renewal period. Now, the lessor asks the lessee if it could be possible to prepay the rental that will be paid annually in the renewed 5 years period. If the lessee will consider the request, what would be the fair prepayment to be made to the lessor if interest is now figured at 8 %? A. B. C. D. P51,843.90 P51,346.58 P52,002.45 P52,740.20

253.)

NCT Builders plans to construct an additional building at the end of 10 years for an estimated cost of P5,000,000.00. To accumulate the amount, it will have equal year end deposits in a fund earning 13%. However, at the end of the 5 year, it was decided to th have a larger building that originally intended to an estimated cost of P8,000,000.00. What should be the annual deposit for the last 5 years? A. B. C. D. P734,391.48 P742,890.10 P738,900.45 P740,010.86

254.)

The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time. A. B. C. D. Demand Supply Stocks Goods

255.)

Work-in process is classified as: A. B. C. D. An asset A liability An expenses An owners equity

256.)

What is the highest position in the corporation? A. B. C. D. President Board of Directors Chairman of the Board Stockholders

257.)

Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest. A. B. C. D. Equitable Public Private Pure

258.)

Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time. A. B. C. D. Inflation Depletion Recession Depreciation

259.)

An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-

owners for profit. A. B. C. D. 260.) Sole proprietorship Company Partnership Corporation

We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal for one year as:

A. Nominal rate B. Rate of return C. Exact interest rate D. Effective rate 261.) It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want. A. B. C. D. 262.) Discount Luxury Necessity Utility

It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell. A. B. C. D. Fair value Market value Book value Salvage value

263.)

This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market. A. B. C. D. Perfect competition Oligopoly Monopoly Elastic demand

264.)

These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained. A. B. C. D. Utilities Necessities Luxuries Products, goods and services

265.)

These are products or services that are requir ed to support human life and activities, that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies considerably. A. B. C. D. Utilities Necessities Luxuries Products, goods and services

266.)

A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one will lead to almost the same action of the others. A. B. C. D. Oligopoly Semi-monopoly Monopoly Perfect competition

267.)

Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation. A. B. C. D. Authorized capital Investment Subscribed capital Money market

268.)

The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation. A. B. C. D. Scrap value Face value Market value Book value

269.)

Money paid for the use of borrowed capital. A. B. C. D. Discount Credit Interest Profit

270.)

Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash, such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called: A. B. C. D. Total assets Fixed assets Current assets None of the above

271.)

The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit. A. B. C. D. Physical life Economic life Operating life All of the above

272.)

The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and labor cost. A. B. Secondary cause Escalatory clause

273.)

The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called A. B. C. D. Book value Capital recovery Depreciation recovery Sinking fund

274.)

Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a per centage of sales is called: A. B. C. D. Profit margin Gross margin Net income Rate of return

275.)

Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise. A. B. C. D. Fair value Market value Salvage value Book value

276.)

Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern. A. B. C. D. Initial investment Current accounts Working capital Subscribed capital A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer. Monopoly Monopsony Oligopoly Oligopsony

277.) A. B. C. D.

278.)

A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers. A. B. C. D. Oligopoly Oligopsony Bilateral oligopoly Bilateral oligopsony

279.)

A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer. A. Monopoly B. Monopsony C. Bilateral monopoly D. Bilateral monopsony A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers. A. B. C. D. Duopoly Oligopoly Duopsony Oligopsony

280.)

281.)

The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn. A. B. C. D. Present worth factor Interest rate Time value of money Yield

282.)

Defined as the future value minus the present value. A. B. C. D. Interest Rate of return Discount Capital

283.)

The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called: A. B. C. D. Capital recovery Cash flow Economic return Earning value

284.)

An investment consisting of deposits of P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 are made at the end of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year and 4 th year, respectively. If money is worth 10%, what is the equivalent present worth of the investment? A. B. C. D. P3,129.89 P3,319.45 P3,372.12 P3,490.09

285.)

Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year and 4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the account at the end of the 4 year? th A. B. C. D. P4,880.00 P4,820.00 P4,860.00 P4,840.00
nd rd

286.)

Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2 year, 3 year and 4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. What is the equivalent uniform deposit for the uniform gradient only? A. B. C. D. P670.81 P690.58 P660.53 P680.12

287.)

An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first years, P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year and P3,500 on the fourth year. What is the equivalent present worth of the debt if interest is 5%? A. B. C. D. P15,093.28 P15,178.34 P15,890.12 P15,389.82

288.)

An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year, P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. Determine future amount of the amortization if interest is 5%. A. B. C. D. P18,030.56 P18,290.12 P18,621.89 P18,449.37

289.)

An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year, P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. What is the equivalent uniform periodic payment if interest is 5%? A. B. C. D. P4,280.47 P4,378.17 P4,259.68 P4,325.12

290.)

An NBA Basketball superstar, playing for Los Angeles Lakers is earning an average annual salary of $5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like to acquire his services as a replacement of the retired Michael Jordan, offered him an initial annual salary of $3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate of $400,000 annually. If he can still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which one is true? B. C. D. Chicago Bulls offer is smaller than that of LA Lakers A. Chicago Bulls offer is exactly the same as LA Lakers Chicago Bulls offer is just few dollars more per year than that of LA Lakers Chicago Bulls of fer is over $150,000 per year than that of LA Lakers

291.)

John Grisham, author of the best-selling novel The Chamber sold its copyright to Warner Bros. for the rights to make it into a motion picture. Mr. Grishams has options between the following Warner Bros. proposals: A. An immediate lump sum payment of $5,000,000. An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movies gross receipts for the next B. 5 years which is forecasted as follows: End of year Gross receipt 4% of Gross Receipt 1 $10,000,000.00 $400,000.00 2 $8,000,000.00 $320,000.00 3 $6,000,000.00 $240,000.00 4 $4,000,000.00 $160,000.00 5 $2,000,000.00 $80,000.00 If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth year of exhibition of the movie, by how much is proposal A bigger than proposal B? A. B. C. D. P1,532,630 P1,390,090 P1,478,100 P1,289,450

292.)

Two sisters, Joan and Jocelyn decided to save money in funds that earns 14% compounded annually but on different ways. Joan decided to save by making an endof-year deposit of P1,000 on the first year, P1,100 on the second year, P1,210 on the third year and so on increasing the next years deposit by 10% of the deposit in the preceding year until the end of the 10 th year. Jocelyn decided to save by just making an equal deposit of P1,400 annually for 10 years. Who has more savings at the end of 10 years and by how much bigger compar ed to the other sister? A. B. C. D. Jocelyn, P671.18 Jocelyn, P763.27 Joan, P671.18 Joan, P763.27

293.)

Engr. Hermo, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at age 40. He wishes to have upon his retirement the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21 st birthday, he deposited a certain amount and increased his deposit by 15% each year until he will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super savings account which earns 15% interest compounded annually, how much was his initial deposit? A. B. C. D. P17,253.18 P17,566.33 P17,672.77 P17,490.21

294.)

A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,000. If the annual maintenance cost is increased by 20% each year ever y year for 10 years, what is the estimated present worth of the maintenance costs if money is worth 15%? A. B. C. D. P105,712.33 P106,101.37 P107,490.12 P108,890.11

295.)

The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit. A. B. C. D. Economic return Yield Earning value Expected yield The payment for the use of borrowed money is called: Loan Maturity value Interest Principal

296.) A. B. C. D.

297.) The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest earned by an investment. A. B. C. D. 298.) Effective rate Nominal rate Rate of return Yield

The ratio of the interest payment to the principal f or a given unit of time and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal. A. Interest B. Interest rate C. Investment D. All of the above The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period is known as: A. B. C. D. Expected return Interest Nominal interest Effective interest

299.)

300.)

The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or service in a stated region of the country. A. B. C. D. Market value Book value Goodwill value Franchise value

301.)

The recorded current value of an asset is known as: A. B. C. D. Scrap value Salvage value Book value Present worth

302.)

Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as: A. B. C. D. Book value Salvage value Replacement value Future value

303.)

What is sometimes called second-hand value? A. B. C. D. Scrap value Salvage value Book value Going value

304.)

An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation. A. B. C. D. Book value Fair value Goodwill value Going value

305.)

A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end of 15 years. To accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm established a sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12 year? th A. B. C. D. P37,002.54 P37,520.34 P38,010.23 P38,782.34

306.)

A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a sufficient capital to retire its outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are redeemable in 10 years and their maturity value is P150,000.00. How much should be deposited each year if the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%? A. B. C. D. P13,084.58 P13,048.85 P13,408.58 P13,480.58

307.)

A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15- year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this investment? A. B. C. D. 3.0% 3.4% 3.7% 4.0%

308.)

A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is bearing interest of 6% per year payable semiannually and due in 6 years. If he wants to earn 8% semiannually, how much must he pay the certificate? A. B. C. D. P90,123.09 P90,614.93 P90,590.12 P90,333.25

309.)

A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable annually is to be redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030. Determine the yield at this price. A. 7.56%

310.)

You purchase a bond at P5,100. The bond pays P200 per year. It is redeemable for P5,050 at the end of 10 years. What is the net rate of interest on your investment? A. B. C. D. 3.56% 3.85% 3.75% 3.68%

311.)

A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21, 2004. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond. A. B. C. D. P1,122.70 P1,144.81 P1,133.78 P1,155.06

312.)

The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties. A. B. C. D. Market value Goodwill value Fair value Franchise value

313.)

A type of annuity where the payments ar e made at the end of each payment period starting from the first period. A. B. C. D. Ordinary annuity Annuity due Deferred annuity Perpetuity

314.)

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment. A. B. C. D. Deferred annuity Delayed annuity Progressive annuity Simple annuity

315.)

A type of annuity where the payments ar e made at the start of each period, beginning from the first period. A. Ordinary annuity B. Annuity due C. Deferred annuity D. Perpetuity Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity? A. B. C. D. The amounts of all payments are equal. The payments are made at equal interval of time. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

316.)

317.)

A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity = A. B. C. D. Ai Ai n A /i A/i

318.)

A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called A. B. C. D. Load factor Demand factor Sinking fund factor Present worth factor

319.)

As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged progr am is called A. B. C. D. Annuity Capital recovery Annuity factor Amortization

320.)

The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time. A. B. C. D. Scrap value Depletion Depreciation Book value

321.)

A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation applies. A. Straight line method B. Sinking fund method C. SYD method D. Declining balance method A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of 10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years? A. B. C. D. P222.67 P212.90 P236.20 P231.56

322.)

323.)

A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500. What is its book value after 8 years using str aight line method? A. B. C. D. P2,000.00 P2,100.00 P2,200.00 P2,300.00

324.)

A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight and installation charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the equipment will be depreciated over a period of 10 years with a salvage value of 8%, determine the depreciation cost during the 5 th year using SYD. A. B. C. D. P626,269.09 P623,209.09 P625,129.09 P624,069.89

325.)

ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method. A. B. C. D. 7 years 8 years 9 years 10 years

326.) A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the salvage value is zero at the end of the 20 year, what is the depreciation in the third th year? Use SYD method. A. B. C. D. 327.) P857.14 P862.19 P871.11 P880.00

An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is P100,000.00. What is the total depreciation in the first three years using straight-line method? A. B. C. D. P45,000.00 P46,000.00 P47,000.00 P48,000.00

328.)

A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years. What is the book value after 5 years using straight line depreciation? A. B. C. D. P30,000.00 P31,000.00 P30,500.00 P31,500.00

329.)

An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the book value during the first year if SYD depreciation is used. A. B. C. D. P7,545.45 P7,320.11 P7,490.00 P7,690.12

330.)

The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of years, determine the book value at the end of the fourth year. Use straight-line method. A. B. C. D. P146,320.50 P146,000.00 P146,230.50 P146,023.50

331.)

An asset is purchased for P20,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the first year using SYD method. A. B. C. D. P1,545.45 P1,454.54 P1,344.21 P1,245.45

332.)

A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years. Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation. A. B. C. D. P31,000.00 P31,500.00 P30,000.00 P30,500.00

333.)

A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of P10,000.00 after 10 years. What is the straight line method depreciation rate as a percentage of the initial cost? A. B. C. D. 10% 8% 7% 9%

334.)

A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350 when retired at the end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %? A. B. C. D. 32.50% 32.25% 32.00% 32.75%

335.)

An asset is purchased for P120,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will be sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-ofyears digit method. A. B. C. D. P17,578.13 P17,412.43 P17,344.67 P17,672.73

336.)

A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when retired at the end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 25% B. 26% C. 27% D. 28% 337.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using straight line method. A. B. C. D. 338.) P2,400.00 P2,412.34 P2,250.00 P2,450.00

An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional amount of P30,000 for installation and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of the first cost. Using the straight line method of depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will be P291,500. What is the value of x? A. B. C. D. 0.2 0.4 0.3 0.1

339.)

The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge? A. B. C. D. P75,500.00 P76,000.00 P76,500.00 P77,000.00

340.)

The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using straight-line depreciation, what is the book value of the machine at the end of six years? A. B. C. D. P341,000.00 P343,000.00 P340,000.00 P342,000.00

341.)

A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. Its salvage value is P2,500. Find its depreciation rate by straight-line method.

A. 18.89% B. 19.21% C. 19.58% 342.) A tax and duty free importation of a 30 hp sandmill for paint manufacturing cost P360,000.00. Bank charges arrastre and brokerage cost P5,000.00. Foundation and installation costs were P25,000.00. Other incidental expenses amount to P20,000.00. Salvage value of the mill is estimated to be P60,000 after 20 years. Find the appraisal value of the mill using straight line depreciation at the end of 10 years. A. B. C. D. 343.) P234,000.00 P235,000.00 P234,500.00 P235,500.00

An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years. Calculate the annual depreciation cost by sinking-fund method at 4% interest. A. B. C. D. P791.26 P792.61 P726.17 P771.26

344.)

A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20% of its value at the beginning of that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old. A. B. C. D. P6,710.89 P6,400.89 P6,666.89 P6,512.78

345.)

A consortium of international telecommunications companies contracted for the purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at a total cost of P960 million. This amount includes freight and installation charges estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable shall be depreciated over a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per annum, what is the annual depreciation charge? A. B. C. D. P41,044,903.40 P41,211,158.40 P41,254,000.40 P41,244,253.40

346.)

An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-ofyears digit method. A. B. C. D. P3,279.27 P3,927.27 P3,729.27 P3,792.72
th

347.)

A radio service panel truck initially cost P560,000. Its resale value at the end of the 5 year of the useful life is estimated at P150,000. By means of declining balance method, determine the depreciation char ge for the second year. A. B. C. D. P99,658.41 P99,128.45 P99,290.00 P99,378.45

348.)

Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of P50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%. A. B. C. D. P9,358.41 P9,228.45 P9,250.00 P9,308.45

349.)

The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain 5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $50,000,000. What is the depletion char ge during the year where it produces half -million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing depletion. A. B. C. D. $500,000,000 $510,000,000 $525,000,000 $550,000,000

350.)

The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of P50,000 at the end of its life of 4 years. If money is worth 6% compounded annually, find the capitalized cost. A. B. C. D. P540,090.34 P541,033.66 P540,589.12 P541,320.99

351.)

An item is purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest rate of 8%, what is the capitalized cost of perpetual service? A. B. C. D. P310,000 P315,000 P320,000 P325,000

352.)

A corporation uses a type of motor which costs P5,000 with 2 life years and final salvage value of P800. How much could the corporation afford to pay for another type of motor of the same purpose whose life is 3 years a with a final salvage value of P1,000. Money is worth 4%. A. B. C. D. P7,892.13 P7,157.40 P7,489.21 P7,300.12

353.)

A motorcycle costs P50,000 and has an expected life of 10 years. The salvage value is estimated to be P2,000 and annual operating cost is estimated at P1,000. What is the appropriate rate of return on the investment if the annual revenue is P10,000? A. B. C. D. 12.12% 12.54% 12.72% 12.99%

354.)

At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years. A. B. C. D. P297,308,323.10 P298,308,323.10 P296,308,323.10 P295,308,323.10

355.)

A new broiler was installed by a textile plant at a total cost of P300,000 and projected to have a useful life of 15 years. At the end of its useful life, it is estimated to have a salvage value of P30,000. Determine its capitalized cost if interest is 18% compounded annually. A. B. C. D. P323,500.33 P322,549.33 P332,509.33 P341,240.33

356.)

A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P500,000 while annual maintenance cost is estimated at P10,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the capitalized cost of the house? A. B. C. D. P666,000.00 P666,666.67 P633,333.33 P650,000.00

357.)

An untreated electrical wooden pole that will last 10 years under a certain soil condition, costs P1,200.00. If a treated pole will last for 20 years, what is the maximum justifiable amount that can be paid for the treated pole, if the maximum return on investment is 12%. Consider annual taxes and insurance amount to be 1% of the first cost. A. B. C. D. P1,612.01 P1,559.50 P1,789.23 P1,409.38

358.)

A granite quarry purchased for P1,600,000 is expected to be exhausted at the end of 4 years. If the resale value of the land is P100,000, what annual income is required to yield an investment rate of 12%? Use a sinking fund rate of 3%. A. B. C. D. P550,540.57 P551,540.57 P552,540.57 P553,540.57

359.)

A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost per unit is P100, variable cost of P3.00 each. If the item has a selling price of P995, how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to breakeven if the monthly overhead is P461,600? A. B. C. D. 782 800 806 812

360.)

The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a forging is P56 per unit and its selling price is P135 per for ged unit, find the number of units to be forged to break-even. A. B. C. D. 892 870 886 862

361.)

A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of P76 each and variable cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P428,000. A. B. C. D. 1,033 1,037 1,043 1,053

362.)

Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of $200,000. Each drum manufactured cost $160 to produce and sells $200. What is the manufacturers breakeven sales volume in drums per year? A. B. C. D. 5,031 5,017 5,043 5,000

363.)

XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that sell for P65.00 each. It costs XYZ corporation P35,000 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation charges on equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss? A. B. C. D. 2,334 2,443 2,223 2,322

364.)

A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200 motors a month. The variable costs are P150.00 per motor. The average selling price of the motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P20,000 per month which includes taxes. Find the number of motors that must be sold each month to breakeven. A. B. C. D. 160 157 153 163

365.)

The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is P56 and its selling price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units to be forged to breakeven.

A. 1,000 B. 1,012 C. 1,015 D. 1,018 366.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand? A. B. C. D. 367.) 1.0 hours per unit 1.2 hours per unit 1.4 hours per unit 1.6 hours per unit

Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break even based on the following data: Cost of electricity per block - P20.00 Tax to be paid per block - P2.00 Real Estate Tax - P3,500.00 per month Salaries and Wages - P25,000.00 per month Others - P12,000.00 per month Selling price of ice - P55.00 per block A. B. C. D. 1,220 1,224 1,228 1,302

368.)

JRT Industries manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P85.00 per unit and material cost of P350.00 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are P15,000 per month and the variable costs are P20.00 per unit. If the automatic voltage regulators are sold to retailers at P580.00 each, how many units must be produced and sold per month to breakeven? A. B. C. D. 120 124 128 130

369.)

General Electric Company which manufactures electric motor has a capacity of producing 150 motors a month. The variable costs are P4,000.00 per month, the average selling price of the motor is P750.00 per motor. Fixed costs of the company amount to P78,000.00 per month which includes all taxes. Determine the number of motors to be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 100 B. 104 C. 110 D. 112 370.) A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enamelled wire or tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enamelled wire will be P1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P1.15. A 100-pair cable made up with enamelled wire cost P0.55 per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be the same. A. B. C. D. 371.) 1,000 feet 1,040 feet 1,100 feet 1,120 feet

A local factory assembling calculators produces 400 units per month and sells them at P1,800 each. Dividends are 8% on the 8,000 shares with par value of P250 each. The fixed operating cost per month is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. If 200 units were produced a month, determine the profit or loss. A. B. C. D. Profit of P121,666.67 Profit of P21,666.67 Loss of P121,666.67 Loss of P21,666.67

372.)

Nike shoes manufacturer produces a pair of Air Jordan Shoes at a labor cost of P900.00 a pair and a material cost of P800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P400.00 a pair. Royalty to Michael Jordan is P1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to breakeven? A. B. C. D. 2,590 2,632 2,712 2,890

373.)

In a steel fabrication shop located somewhere in Cebu, various size rivet holes must be made in structural members. This may be done by laying out the position of the hole on the members and using a drill press for this method, a machinist wage rate is P20.25 per hour and he can drill 27 holes per hour. An alternative method is by the use of the multiple punch machine. In this process, the machinist wage rate is P20.00 per hour and he can complete 8 holes per minute. This method requires P0.50 per holes to set the multiple punch machine and an installation cost of P2,000.00. If all other costs are the same, for what number of rivet holes will the multiple punch machine pay f or itself?

A. 9,601 B. 9,592 C. 9,581 374.) A new civil engineer produces a certain construction material at a labor cost of P16.20 per piece, material cost of P38.50 per piece and variable cost of P7.40 per piece. The fixed charge on the business is P100,000.00 per month. If he sells the finished product at P95.00 each, how many pieces must be manufactured in each month to breakeven? A. B. C. D. 3,045 3,035 3,030 3,040

375.)

The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit. Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present total profit for a year? A. B. C. D. P168,000 P170,000 P172,000 P174,000

376.)

The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit. Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present breakeven point in units? A. B. C. D. 160,000 162,000 165,000 170,000

377.)

A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the current profit or loss? A. B. C. D. P87,450 P88,960 P88,450 P87,960

A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the breakeven point? A. 294,560 B. 291,000 C. 290,780 D. 295,490 379.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit of product. What is the firms annual profit or loss? A. B. C. D. 380.) P814,320 P815,230 P816,567 P817,239

378.)

A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firms annual income is P4,160,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit of product. What volume of sales does the firm breakeven? A. B. C. D. P3,354,680 P3,534,880 P3,155,690 P3,254,680

381.)

A small shop in Bulacan fabricates threshers for palay producers in the locality. The shop can produce each thresher at a labor cost of P1,800.00. The cost of materials for each unit is P2,500.00. The variable costs amounts to P650.00 per unit while fixed charges incurred per annum totals P69,000.00. If the portable threshers are sold at P7,800.00 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold per annum to breakeven? A. B. C. D. 28 25 26 27

382.)

The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit, respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100 per unit. If the product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold to breakeven?

A. 280 B. 250 C. 260 383.) The following data for year 2000 are available for Cagayan Automotive Company which manufactures and sells a single automotive product line: Unit selling price - P40.00 Unit variable cost - P20.00 Unit contribution margin - P20.00 Total fixed costs - P200,000.00 What is the breakeven point in units for the current year? A. B. C. D. 384.) 10,000 10,100 10,050 10,200

The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P230.00 for labor and P370.00 for material. The fixed charges is operating the plant is P1,000,000.00 per month. The variable cost is P10.00 per set. The radio set can be sold for P750.00 each. Determine how many sets must be produced per month to breakeven. A. B. C. D. 7,123 7,133 7,143 7,153

385.)

An item which can be sold for P63.00 per unit wholesale is being produced with the following cost data: Labor cost - P10.00 per unit Material cost - P15.00 per unit Fixed charges - P10,000.00 Variable cost - P8.00 per unit What is the breakeven point sales volume if one out of ever y 10 units produced is defective and is rejected with only full recover y on materials? A. B. C. D. P25,011 P25,111 P25,121 P25,132

386.)

A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output. A. B. C. D. Straight line method Sinking fund method Declining balance method SYD method

387.)

Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero? A. B. C. D. Declining balance method Sinking fund method Straight line method SYD method

388.)

A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the assets estimated life. A. B. C. D. Straight line method Sinking fund method Declining balance method SYD method

389.)

The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits. A. B. C. D. Sinking fund factor Present worth factor Capacity factor Demand factor

390.)

The first cost of any property includes: A. B. C. D. The original purchase price and freight and tr ansportation char ges Installation expenses Initial taxes and permits fee All of the above

391.)

In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n = number of useful years of the equipment. A. B. C. D. n(n+1) n(n-1)

392.)

Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the: A. Annual cost B. First cost + Interest of the first cost C. First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance D. First cost + Salvage value The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available (referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc). A. B. C. D. Depreciation Depletion Inflation Incremental cost

393.)

394.)

Is the simplest form of business organization. A. B. C. D. Sole proprietorship Partnership Enterprise Corporation

395.)

An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business. A. B. C. D. Sole proprietorship Enterprise Partnership Corporation

396.)

A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could do. A. B. C. D. Sole proprietorship Enterprise Partnership Corporation

397.)

Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization? A. B. C. D. Sole proprietorship Partnership Corporation Enterprise

398.)

Which is NOT a type of business organization? A. B. C. D. Sole proprietorship Corporation Enterprise Partnership

399.)

What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized? A. B. C. D. 3 5 10 7

400.)

In case of bankruptcy of a partnership, A. B. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership C. D. The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.

1.

Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek words meaning _________. a. transformation of heat b. transformation of energy c. movement of heat d. movement of matter a. b. c. d. What is the Si unit for temperature? Kelvin Celsius Fahrenheit Rankine

2.

3.

The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object because of the difference in temperature is called a. heat b. temperature c. thermodynamics cycle d. energy flow The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a substance changes from one phase to another. a. specific heat b. heat of expansion c. latent heat d. useful heat The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes. a. intensive property b. extensive property c. volume expansion d. thermal expansion A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place. a. elongation b. thermal stress c. expansion contraction d. thermal expansion a. b. c. d. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid. Specific Energy Molecular Energy Internal Energy Phase Energy

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or removed to change the temperature of a substance. a. Specific Heat Capacity b. Latent Heat c. Heat of Transformation d. Internal Heat The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or solid phase. a. Phase Pressure b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure c. Specific Pressure d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure a. b. c. d. Vapor pressure depends only on _________. pressure force volume temperature

9.

10.

11.

A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases possible for that particular substance. a. Phase diagram b. P-T diagram c. Wein Diagram d. Histogram a. b. c. d. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance. Internal Energy Grand Energy Atomic Energy Elemental Energy

12.

13.

The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 Celsius degree. a. specific heat b. latent heat c. Joule d. calorie a. b. c. d. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic ener gy per molecule in a substance. movement temperature heat mass _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature. internal KE Atomic kinetic energy Zero-Point Energy Subliminal Energy

14.

15. a. b. c. d. 16.

Convert the change of temperature from 20C to 30C to Kelvin scale. a. 10 K b. 293 K c. 303 K d. 273 K 17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the useful work obtainable 17. from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume. a. useful work b. energy consumed c. Helmholtz free energy d. Kinetic Energy How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the temperature varies from -15C in winter to 41C in summer? a. 0.67 m b. 2.2 m c. 3.1 m d. 0.47 m Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the temperature can change by 55C? a. 0.21 m b. 0.18 m c. 0.31 in d. 0.18 in What is the amount of radiant ener gy received each second over each square meter that is at right angles to the suns rays at the top of the atmosphere? a. 1400 J b. 6000 J c. 10000 J d. 800 J

18.

19.

20.

21.

_________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the useful or process-initiating work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system. a. Du-Pont Potential b. Gibbs free energy c. Rabz-Eccles Energy d. Claussius Energy a. b. c. d. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________. heat depleted exhausted work

22.

23.

_________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature. a. vacuum pressure b. relative humidity c. absolute pressure d. vapor pressure _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no intermediate liquid stage. a. Convection b. Conduction c. Radiation d. Sublimation a. b. c. d. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid. Convection Conduction Radiation Sublimation

24.

25.

26.

In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a temperature change. a. expand b. contract c. change d. increase For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of linear expansion. a. unrelated to b. proportional to c. twice d. three times The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from 4C to 0C. a. decreases b. increases c. remains constant d. none of the above a. b. c. d. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________. no volume no pressure zero temperature at all scales none of the above

27.

28.

29.

30.

On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the temperature rises? a. the relative humidity increases b. the relative humidity decreases c. the relative humidity remains constant d. the air would eventually become saturated

31. a. b. c. d. 32. a. b. c. d. 33.

The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection. placidity mass flow convection current heat transfer An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation. elastic material transponder material Teflon blackbody

A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the material. a. Convection b. Conduction c. Radiation d. Emission a. b. c. d. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadros number of atoms/molecules. mass matter gram-mole volume The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature. velocity of propagation escape velocity Maxwell speed Distribution terminal velocity

34.

35. a. b. c. d. 36.

A convection process in which an external device, such as a f an, is used to produce the fluid flow. a. Forced Convection b. External Convection c. Placid Convection d. Thermionic Convection A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process used to reach that state. a. cycle b. path function c. point function d. process A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular change in state. a. path function b. point function c. process d. cycle a. b. c. d. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________. wall boundary interface intersection A closed system is also known as _________. isolated system closed container control mass control volume

37.

38.

39.

40. a. b. c. d.

41. a. b. c. d. 42. a. b. c. d. 43. a. b. c. d. 44. a. b. c. d. 45. a. b. c. d. 46. a. b. c. d. 47.

Open system is also known as _________. isolated system closed container control mass control volume Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius? 290 63 -120 -256 When a solid melts, the temperature of the substance increases. the temperature of the substance decreases. heat leaves the substance. heat enters the substance. How many kilocalories of heat are r equired to heat 750 g of water from 35 C to 55C. 15 1500 1.5 x 10^4 6.3 x 10^4 Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal ener gy an object has? temperature amount of material type of material shape of the object Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities? liquids gases metals solids other than metals

Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature. Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched? a. aluminium b. brass c. glass d. concrete a. b. c. d. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume increases decreases stays the same none of the above

48.

49.

The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its pressure Celsius temperature Kelvin temperature Fahrenheit temperature 50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled, the volume is a. increased fourfold b. doubled c. reduced by half d. decreased by a quarter a. b. c. d. 51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the molecules in the gas? a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2 b. it increases by a factor of 2 c. it increases by factor of 4 d. none of the above

52. a. b. c. 53.

A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment. enthalpy entropy law of diminishing return Lenz Law d.

No volume changes occur during this type of process Isobaric process Isomillimetric process Isocaloric process Isochoric process 54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________ process. a. adiabatic b. isochoric c. isobaric d. zero work a. b. c. d. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100C, the entropy of water a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same d. none of the above 55.

56. a. b. c. d. 57. a. b. c. d. 58.

Only energy can cross the boundaries. Closed system Open system Isolated system Isoenergetic system The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________. boiling temperature normal boiling point triple point point of infliction

Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation temperature. a. dry steam b. current steam c. wet steam d. aerosol The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps. a. dry steam b. wet steam c. phase steam d. flash steam

59.

60. a. b. c. d. 61. a. b. c. d. 62. a. b. c. d. 63.

Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff. dryness fraction Vaporization fusion super heated steam What device measures infrar ed radiation below? thermocouple thermopile thermodynamic device thermos When an object undergoes thermal expansion, any holes in the object expand as well any holes in the object remain the same mass increases molecular activities would cease

_________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water 1 F from 63 F to 64 F. a. one Joule b. one calorie c. one watt d. one BTU a. b. c. d. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________. volume power heat pressure Thermos was invented by _________. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle Sir Fredrich the Great Thomas Edison Sir James Dewar Most cooking activities involve _________ process. Isochoric Isothermal Isobaric Isovolumic

64.

65. a. b. c. d. 66. a. b. c. d. 67.

Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________ respectively. a. raising the temp and lowering the temp b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure d. lowering the temp and raising the temp The statement heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body is governed 68. by _________. a. the first law of thermodynamics b. the second law of thermodynamics c. the third law of thermodynamics d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69.

It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler to a hotter body Carnots statement a. b. Clausius statement c. Rankine statement d. Gauss statement _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another molecule. a. mean free path b. path allowance c. compacting factor d. molecular space

70.

71. a. b. c. d. 72. a. b. c. d. 73.

Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2 Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth? 1 x 10^5 tons 2 x 10^6 tons 6 x 10^15 tons 8 x 10^10 tons

_________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm long. a. surface pressure b. gage pressure c. standard atmospheric pressure d. isobaric pressure If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________. a. Torricellis law b. Barometric law c. Newtons Second law d. Pascals law What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyles Law? 75. a. Atmospheric Pressure b. Gauge Pressure c. Surface Pressure d. Isobaric Pressure

74.

76. a. b. c. d. 77. a. b. c. d. 78.

To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force. 62.4 lb 9.81 lb 76 lb 760 lb The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________. force per length surface tension Pressure Density

The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by _________. a. Archimedes Principle b. Evangelistas Law c. Torricellis Theorem d. Bernoullis Equation The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called _________. a. diffusion b. viscosity c. streamline flow d. solution

79.

80.

When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon centigrade and used Celsius Instead? a. 1950 b. 1936 c. 1957 d. 1948 81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to produce saturation. a. relative humidity b. triple point temperature c. dew point d. critical point

82.

_________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to its initial state. a. process b. system c. equilibrium d. cycle a. b. c. d. Intensive properties of a system are called _________. Bulk Properties Innate Properties Natural Properties Inside Properties

83.

84.

In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower pressure state. a. Rankine Process b. Carnot Cycle c. Joule-Thomson process d. Refrigeration process a. b. c. d. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________. Otto Cycle Burnign Cycle Shikki Cycle Shapa R Elli Cycle

85.

Twenty grams of ice at 0C melts to water at 0C. How much does the entropy of the 20g 86. change in this process? a. 30.5 J/K b. 24.6 J/K c. 21.3 J/K d. 15.7 J/K 87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles? a. conservation of mass b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship c. action reaction d. conservation of energy 88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in internal energy of the system. a. 1400 J b. 1700 J c. 1900 J d. 1500 J A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 kPa. Find the work done on the system. a. 5 kJ b. 15 kJ c. 10 kJ d. 12 kJ A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180C and exhausts directly into the air at 100C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency? a. 11.28 % b. 36.77 % c. 20.36 % d. 17.66 % a. b. c. d. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance. Latent heat Sensible heat Specific heat Heat of Fusion

89.

90.

91.

92. a. b. c. d. 93. a. b. c. d. 94.

Who coined the term latent heat? John Thompson Studey Baker Joe di Maggio Joseph Black Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer? Latent Heat Sensible Heat Specific Heat Heat of Fusion

It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0 Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it. a. First Law of thermodynamics b. Second Law of thermodynamics c. Third Law of thermodynamics d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics a. b. c. d. One calorie is equal to _________. 1/180 W.h 1/860 W.h 1/360 W.h 1/250 W.h

95.

96.

A _________ is a reversible process in which ther e is transfer of heat and takes place according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant. a. Polytropic process b. Entropy c. Ideal Gas Law d. Carnot Cycle 97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the system remain constant with respect to time. a. streamline flow b. steady flow c. constant flow d. algebraic flow The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is the _________. a. Otto Cycle b. Lazare Cycle c. Isothermal Cycle d. Carnot Cycle The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine the pressure at this point a. 733.33 kPa b. 833.33 kPa c. 933.33 kPa d. 633.33 kPa

98.

99.

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics? a. Lazare Carnot b. Sadi Carnot c. William Thompson d. Rudolf Classius

1.

It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want A. B. C. D. Necessity Utility Luxuries Discount

2.

It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount. A. B. C. D. Common stock Voting stock Pretend stock Non par value stock

3.

It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell. A. B. C. D. Book value Market value Use value Fair value

4.

____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.

A. B. C. D. 5.

Loss Depreciation Extracted Gain

An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that one suppliers actions significantly affect prices and supply. A. B. C. D. Oligopoly Monopsony Monopoly Perfect competition

6.

A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods substitute. A. B. C. D. Monosony Monopoly Oligopoly Oligopsony

7.

It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise. A. B. C. D. Salvage value Price Book value Scrap value

8.

Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price level. A. B. C. D. Devaluation Deflation Inflation Depreciation

9.

A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers f rom the industry. A. Cartel

B. C. D. 10.

Monopoly Corporation Competitors

A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer. A. B. C. D. Monopoly Monophony Oligopoly Perfect competition

11.

A market situation where there is one seller and buyer. A. B. C. D. Bilateral monopoly Monopoly Oligopoly Bilateral Monopoly

12.

Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price level. A. B. C. D. Deflation Inflation Devaluation Depreciation

13.

A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time. A. B. C. D. Annuity Amortization Depreciation Bonds

14.

The money paid for the use of borrowed capital. A. B. C. D. Interest Amortization Annuity Bonds

15.

The place where buyers and sellers come together. A. B. C. D. Maker Store Bargain center Port

16.

The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate A. B. C. D. Stock value Par value Interest Maturity value

17.

A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many sellers. A. B. C. D. Bilateral monopoly Oligopoly Duopsony Duopoly

18.

A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in one business market or commodity. A. B. C. D. Oligopoly Duopoly Duopsony duopoly

19.

The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment. A. B. C. D. Perpetuity Ordinary annuity Annuity due Deferred annuity

20.

The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.

A. B. C. D. 21.

Tally Par value Check and balance Break even

The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be retrieved. A. B. C. D. Sunk cost Fixed costs Depletion cost Construction cost

22.

An obligation with no condition attach is called A. B. C. D. Personal Gratuitous Concealed Private

23.

The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation. A. B. C. D. Operation costs Construction cost Depletion cost Production cost

24.

The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product. A. B. C. D. Marginal cost Marginal revenue Extra profit Prime cost

25.

The amount that the property would give if sold for junk. A. B. C. D. Junk value Salvage value Scrap value Book value

26.

The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has been charged to depreciation. A. B. C. D. Scrap value Salvage value Book value Market value

27.

The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all materials that go into production is called A. B. C. D. Net cost Maintenance cost Prime cost Operating cost

28.

The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the future is called A. B. C. D. Market value Net value Discount Interest

29.

The addition cost of producing one more unit is A. B. C. D. Prime cost Marginal cost Differential cost Sunk cost

30.

A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically. A. B. C. D. Annuity Bond Amortization Collateral

31.

Estimated value of the property at the useful life. A. B. C. D. Market value Fair value Salvage value Book value

32.

Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date. A. B. C. D. Physical inventory Counting principle Stock assessment Periodic material update

33.

This consists of a cash and account r eceivable during the next period or any other material which will be sold. A. B. C. D. Fixed assets Deferred charges Current asset Liability

34.

A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by the injured party to recover damages. A. B. C. D. Fraud Tort Libel Scam

35.

A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time A. B. C. D. Depletion Capitalized cost Perpetuity Inflation

36.

These are products or services that are requir ed to support human life and activities that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies considerably.

A. B. C. D. 37.

Commodities Necessities Demands Luxury

The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time. A. B. C. D. Utility Supply Stocks Goods

38.

It is sometimes called the second hand value A. B. C. D. Scrap value Salvage value Book value Par value

39.

Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time. A. B. C. D. Deflation Depletion Declination Depreciation

40.

An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit. A. B. C. D. Single proprietorship Party Corporation Partnership

41.

The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one person. A. B. Partnership Proprietorship

C. D. 42.

Corporation Joint venture

Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent. A. B. C. D. Dummy person Minors Demented persons Convict

43.

It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want. A. B. C. D. Satisfaction Luxury Necessity Utility

44.

This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market. A. B. C. D. Perfect competition Monophony Monopoly Cartel

45.

These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained. A. B. C. D. Commodities Necessities Luxuries Supplies

46.

Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation. A. B. C. D. Authorized capital Paid off capital Subscribed capital Investment

47.

It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded. A. B. C. D. Ledger Spreadsheet Journal Logbook

48.

The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit. A. B. C. D. Life span Economic life Operating life Profitable life

49.

The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region. A. B. C. D. Permit Royalty License Franchise

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The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise. A. B. C. D. Fair value Par value Market value Book value

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Allado Emmylou R. Edulan Jerick D. Lee Adrian S. Paala Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:

SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit without being ruptured is called A. ductility B. malleability C. elasticity D. hardness Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling together is known as A. Friction B. Cohesion C. Adhesion D. Viscosity Solids which break above the elastic limit are called A. Brittle B. Ductile C. Plastic D. Malleable The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another I known as A. Potential difference B. Charge C. Specific change D. Nucleon interaction The property which per mits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is called A. Resistance B. Permeance C. Impedence D. Conductance When a body is resistant to heat, it is called A. Thermoscopic B. Thermotropic C. Thermoduric D. Thermoplastic The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as A. Gummosity B. Glutinosity C. Viscidity D. Viscosity The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is called A. Elastance B. Elasticity C. Elastivity D. Anelastivity

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The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as A. Incandescence B. Luminescence C. Scintillation D. Phosphorescence 10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass prism? A. The violet color travels faster than the red color B. The violet color travels slower than the red color C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color 11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or motion is called A. Torpidity B. Passivity C. Inactivity D. Inertia

The property of an isolated conductor to store electric char ge is A. Capacitance B. Conductance C. Permeability D. Accumulation 13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called A. Isodynamic B. Isotropic C. Isogonic D. Isotopic 14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with another object is called A. Calidity B. Pyxeria C. Caloric D. Temperature 15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is called A. Thermal capacity B. Thermal conductivity C. Thermal radiation D. Thermal convection 16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as A. dichroism B. dichromatism C. diastrophism D. chromaticity 17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher frequency is called A. illuminance B. fluorescence C. radioluminescence D. incandescence 18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is A. diamagnetic B. paramagnetic C. ferromagnetic D. ferromagnetic 19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called A. debility B. rigidity C. elastic deformation D. fatigue 20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having negligible to the flow of an electric current is called A. supercharging B. supercooling C. superfluidity D. superconductivity

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A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do. A. Contracts B. Obligation C. Quasi-delicts D. Condition Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind. A. Obligum B. Obligate C. Obligare D. Obligus A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property, independent of contract. A. Contracts B. Obligation C. Quasi-delicts D. Condition A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of justice may compel their performance. A. Civil Obligations B. Natural Obligation C. Pure Obligation D. Condition A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience, they are not legally demandable. A. Civil Obligations B. Natural Obligation C. Pure Obligation D. Condition Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the obligation or known as the creditor or oblige A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject

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Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or known as the debtor or obligor A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject 10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation. A. Law B. Contracts C. Quai-delicts D. Work 11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except A. An act or omission B. Accompanied by fault or negligence C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties D. Acts or omissions punished by law

An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable. A. Pure obligation B. Condition obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation. A. Pure obligation B. Condition C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition. A. Pure obligation B. Condition obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the fulfillment of the condition. A. Suspensive Condition B. Alternative obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Resolutory obligation 16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the happening of the event. A. Suspensive Condition B. Alternative obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Resolutory Condition An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration of said term. A. Pure obligation B. Obligations with a period C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 18. A borrowed money from B in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount as soon as possible. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the remedy of B is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be paid. This illustrates: A. Pure obligation B. Obligations with a period C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 19. A kind of period with suspensive effect. A. Ex die B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain date A. Ex die B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 21. A period established by law. A. Ex die B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 22. A period agreed to by the parties. A. Judicial period B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 17.

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A period authorized by the court. A. Judicial period B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something. A. Pure obligation B. Condition C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this illustrates: A. Pure obligation B. Condition C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor. A. Pure obligation B. Condition C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt, and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit A. Joint obligation B. Solidary obligation C. Divisible obligation D. Indivisible obligation 28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation. A. Joint obligation B. Solidary obligation C. Divisible obligation D. Indivisible obligation 29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only. A. Active Solidarity B. Passive Solidarity C. Mixed Solidarity D. Solo Solidarity 30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called A. Active Solidarity B. Passive Solidarity C. Mixed Solidarity D. Solo Solidarity 31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this is called A. Active Solidarity B. Passive Solidarity C. Mixed Solidarity D. Solo Solidarity 32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance. A. Joint obligation B. Solidary obligation C. Divisible obligation D. Indivisible obligation 33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on May 1 st , and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00. Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1 st , and Pedro to pay Juan the same amount of P150.00. This illustrates: A. Joint obligation B. Solidary obligation C. Divisible obligation D. Indivisible obligation

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A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity A. Qualitative B. Quantitative C. Ideal D. Moral 35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality A. Qualitative B. Quantitative C. Ideal D. Mental 36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division A. Qualitative B. Quantitative C. Ideal D. All of the above 37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach. A. Law B. Penal clause C. Stipulation D. Preceding A binds himself to deliver to B a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They 38. agree in writing that should A fail to deliver the car on a specified date, A shall pay B as penalty P10,000.00. A fails to make the delivery. B could demand the payment of P10,000.00 against A. B, however could not compel A to deliver the car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause: A. Joint B. Subsidiary C. Solo D. Partial 39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can be enforced. A. Joint B. Subsidiary C. Solo D. Partial 40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except A. By Payment or Performance B. By the condition or remission of the debt C. By altering the signature D. By the loss of the thing due 41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance. A. Joint obligation B. Solidary obligation C. Divisible obligation D. Indivisible obligation 42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced totally. A. Partial B. Complete C. Express D. Implied 43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation. A. Partial B. Complete C. Express D. Implied 44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee. A. Partial B. Complete C. Express D. Implied 45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee. A. Partial B. Complete C. Express D. Implied

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A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts in their concurr ent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial compensation A. Legal compensation B. Voluntary compensation C. Judicial compensation D. Partial compensation

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A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts. A. Legal compensation B. Voluntary compensation C. Judicial compensation D. Partial compensation 48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff. A. Legal compensation B. Total compensation C. Judicial compensation D. Partial compensation 49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation. A. Legal compensation B. Total compensation C. Judicial compensation D. Partial compensation 50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and compensation extinguishes the obligations entir ely. A. Legal compensation B. Total compensation C. Judicial compensation D. Partial compensation 51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change. A. True novation B. Real novation C. Personal novation D. Substitute novation A obliged himself to deliver to B a car. Subsequently, they entered into another 52. contract whereby instead of A delivering a car, A would deliver a truck. This illustrates: A. True novation B. Real novation C. Personal novation D. Substitute novation 53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to the rights of the creditor. A. True novation B. Real novation C. Personal novation D. Substitute novation A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or modification of principal condition. A. Mixed novation B. Real novation C. Personal novation D. Substitute novation 55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give something or to render some services. A. Contracts B. Obligation C. Quasi-delicts D. Condition 56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement. A. Kontrus B. contractus C. Tractum D. Contractumus 54.

The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except A. consent of the parties B. object or subject matter C. cause or consideration D. effects to the subject 58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law unless there is an agreement to the contrary A. Essential element B. Natural elements C. Accidental elements D. Unnatural elements 59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such as conditions, terms, etc. A. Essential element B. Natural elements C. Accidental elements D. Unnatural elements 60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon the terms of the contract. A. Preparation or Conception B. Perfection or Birth C. Consummation or Termination D. Deliberation 61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration. A. Preparation or Conception B. Perfection or Birth C. Consummation or Termination D. Deliberation 62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the amount. This refers to what stage of the contract A. Preparation or Conception B. Perfection or Birth C. Consummation or Termination D. Deliberation 63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it. A. Preparation or Conception B. Perfection or Birth C. Consummation or Termination D. Deliberation 64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written. A. Express contract B. Implied contracts C. Executed contracts D. Executory contracts 65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct. A. Express contract B. Implied contracts C. Executed contracts D. Executory contracts 66. A contract that has already been performed. A. Express contract B. Implied contracts C. Executed contracts D. Executory contracts 67. A contract that has not yet performed. A. Express contract B. Implied contracts C. Executed contracts D. Executory contracts 68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale. A. Consensual contract B. Bilateral contract C. Real contract D. Unilateral contract

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69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract. A. Consensual contract B. Bilateral contract C. Real contract D. Unilateral contract 70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or gratuitous deposit. A. Consensual contract B. Bilateral contract C. Real contract D. Unilateral contract 71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations. A. Consensual contract B. Bilateral contract C. Real contract D. Unilateral contract A, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with B whereby the 72. latter agreed to murder C. This limitation upon the right to contract that r efers to A. Contrary to law B. Against moral C. Contrary to good customs D. Contrary to public order A entered into a contract with B whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the 73. latter agrees to live with A without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to A. Contrary to law B. Against moral C. Contrary to good customs D. Contrary to public order 74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to A. Contrary to law B. Against moral C. Contrary to good customs D. Contrary to public order 75. A entered into a contract with B whereby A will not enter into any enterprise whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to A. Contrary to law B. Against moral C. Contrary to good customs D. Contrary to public order 76. The following are requisites of contracts except A. Consent B. Object of contract C. Cause of contract D. Effect of contract A classification of contr acts as to its cause where the cause is the pure liberality of the 77. giver. A. Gratuitous Contract B. Remunetory Contract C. Onerous Contrary D. Liberation Contract A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the service or benefit for 78. which the remuneration is given. A. Gratuitous Contract B. Remunetory Contract C. Onerous Contract D. Liberation Contract A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the mutual undertaking 79. or promise of either of the contracting parties. A. Gratuitous Contract B. Remunetory Contract C. Onerous Contract D. Liberation Contract

Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has been committed. A. Reformation B. Novation C. Defect D. Erroneous 81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation? A. There is a valid contract; B. The contract is in writing; C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident. 82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons, such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded. A. Rescissible Contract B. Voidable Contract C. Unenforced Contracts D. Void or Inexistent Contracts 83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the price is unjust or inadequate. A. damage B. effect C. lesion D. payment 84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely, consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled. A. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Unenforceable Contract C. Voidable Contract D. Negotiorum Gestio 85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect. A. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Unenforceable Contract C. Voidable Contract D. Negotiorum Gestio 86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be A. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Unenforceable Contract C. Voidable Contract D. Negotiorum Gestio 87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to another without the consent of the latter. A. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Unenforceable Contract C. Voidable Contract D. Negotiorum Contract 88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation, recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act. A. Payment B. Injury C. Damages D. Compensation 89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property. A. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. Nominal Damages C. Moral Damages D. Temperate and Moderate Damages 90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety, besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar injury. A. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. Nominal Damages C. Moral Damages D. Temperate or Moderate Damages

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Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injur y due to a violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be awarded to determine the right. A. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. Nominal Damages C. Moral Damages D. Temperate or Moderate Damages 92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury. A. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. Nominal Damages C. Moral Damages D. Temperate or Moderate Damages 93. Damages where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by the judgment of a competent court. A. Liquidated Damages B. Exemplary Damages C. Corrective Damages D. Compensatory Damages 94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of. A. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. Nominal Damages C. Moral Damages D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages 95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants, mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the civilized countries of the world. A. Law of merchants B. Law of businessmen C. Law of mariners D. Law of people

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An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth. A. Thunder B. Lightning C. Corona D. Aurora Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from minor discomfort to serious injury. A. Electrical Shock B. Super Sonic C. Acoustic Shock D. Sonic Boom The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is A. Current B. Voltage C. Resistance D. Conductance The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately: A. 10,000 ohms B. 100,000 ohms C. 1,000,000 ohms D. 100 ohms Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________ amperes and above passes through ones chest cavity. A. 0.010 B. 0.11 C. 0.030 D. 0.33 The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is: A. 45V RMS AC B. 12V RMS AC C. 24V RMS AC D. 50V RMS AC The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is: A. 150V DC B. 45V DC C. 135V DC D. 160V DC

The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum potential gradient shall be no greater than __________. A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC 9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage to plant equipment possible. A. Grounding B. Shielding C. Bonding D. Current Limiting 10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which operate under abnormal voltage condition. A. Current limiting B. Resistance limiting C. Grounding D. Voltage limiting 11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a fuse in series with a circuit. A. Current limiting B. Resistance limiting C. Grounding D. Voltage limiting

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This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment. A. Current limiting B. Resistance limiting C. Grounding D. Voltage limiting 13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its connection to ground electrode. A. Ground Resistance B. Grounde Electrode C. Ground Path D. Resistance Path 14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance must never exceed __________. A. 25 ohms B. 3 ohms C. 43 ohms D. 5 ohms 15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground resistance must never exceed __________. A. 25 ohms B. 3 ohms C. 43 ohms D. 5 ohms 16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance electrical contact with the earth. A. Ground pole B. Lightning Rods C. Guy D. Made Ground 17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel) from lightning damage. A. Ground pole B. Lightning Rods C. Guy D. Made Ground 18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current. A. fuse B. Lightning rod C. Surge arrester D. Grounding 19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal operating potentials. A. fuse B. Lightning rod C. Surge arrester D. Grounding 20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages. A. fuse B. Lightning rod C. Surge arrester D. Bonding or Grounding 21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use: A. Direct Method or two terminal test B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method C. Triangulation Method D. Three terminal test 22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohmcentimeter. A. Ground resistance B. Earth resistivity C. Cubic resistance D. Earth density

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The following are ways to improve grounds except: A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth B. Use multiple rods C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not f easible D. Place stones near the rod 24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least __________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED. A. 3 times per year B. twice a year C. once a year D. 12 times a year 25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________ to be sure they are tight. A. 3 times per year B. twice a year C. once a year D. 12 times a year 26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240 kph wind velocity. A. Heavy Loading Zone B. Medium Loading Zone C. Light Loading Zone D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone 27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200 kph wind velocity. A. Heavy Loading Zone B. Medium Loading Zone C. Light Loading Zone D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone 28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160 kph wind velocity. A. Heavy Loading Zone B. Medium Loading Zone C. Light Loading Zone D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone 29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees Celsius. A. 12.5 and 25.2 B. 15.5 and 32.2 C. 15.2 and 52.2 D. 55.5 and 60.3 30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds __________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the equipment room or location where people are staying. A. 5 kW B. 10 kW C. 1 kW D. 15 kW Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and NO 31. SMOKING signs should be posted ___________. A. inside the room only B. before entering battery rooms C. outside the room only D. Both A and C 32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage. A. oil B. kerosene C. flour D. Caustic soda

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33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground connections or between similar parts of two circuits. A. Bond B. Short C. Fuse D. Guy 34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon. A. Stairway B. Climbing Space C. Guy D. Pole 35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscribers line from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the house or building. A. main line B. main cable C. dropline D. dropwire 36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in a required manner. A. damaged B. hazard C. fault D. short 37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two. A. Fault current B. Dark current C. Leakage current D. Dead short 38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured readily when subjected to flame. A. Flame Proof B. Flame Retarding C. Burn Proof D. Anti Flame 39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test. A. Flame Proof B. Flame Retarding C. Burn Proof D. Anti Flame 40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation, between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc. A. Aurora B. Corona C. Washover D. Arc 41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electr ic circuit or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent that serves in place of the earth. A. short B. jumper C. ground D. ink 42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced force on a pole or other overhead line structures. A. Bond B. Short C. Fuse D. Guy 43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy. A. Overhead guy B. Anchor guy C. Bla guy D. Guy post

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An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter. A. Manhole B. Rathole C. Handhole D. Finger hole

45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting sur ge current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified. A. Lightning ball B. Lightning Arrester C. Fuse D. Lightning Protector 46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors, cables and any associated apparatus. A. Manhole B. Rathole C. Handhole D. Finger hole 47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its primary function being to support wires or cables of the system. A. guy B. support C. conduit D. messenger 48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service. A. zone B. area C. plant D. division 49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth. A. Lightning rod B. Ground rod C. Drop ground D. Radials 50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth. A. Lightning arrester B. Lightning rod C. Breaker D. Lightning gap 51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customers premises. A. Service drop Subscribers loop B. C. Main line D. Local drop 52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at that elevation. A. Tower displacement B. Tower sway C. Tower twist D. Tower bend 53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind load position at that elevation A. Tower displacement B. Tower sway C. Tower twist D. Tower bend 54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that elevation A. Tower displacement B. Tower sway C. Tower twist D. Tower bend

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Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth. A. underneath B. underground C. earth mat D. under earth

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Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility. A. drop wire B. local loop C. service entrance D. subscribers loop A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a pole to a building. A. Aerial entrance B. Underground entrance C. Overhead entrance D. Handhole The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter. A. 20mm B. 30mm C. 40mm D. 50mm The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should be ___________. A. 20m B. 30m C. 40m D. 50m In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power entrance must be __________ radial distance. A. 2m B. 3m C. 4m D. 1m In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street must be ___________. A. 4.4m B. 3.3m C. 5.5m D. 6.6m In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must be __________. A. 3.5m B. 5.5m C. 4.5m D. 6.1m A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the need for possible subsequent repairs to the property. A. Aerial entrance B. Underground entrance C. Overhead entrance D. Handhole An underground entrances minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic inside private property is A. 800 mm B. 600 mm C. 900 mm D. 700 mm For underground entrance, conduits should be separated f rom power conduits by not less than __________ in well-tamped earth: A. 300 mm B. 100 mm C. 50 mm D. 150 mm For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not less than __________ of concrete. A. 300 mm B. 100 mm C. 50 mm D. 150 mm

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The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a service box. A. 50 mm B. 75 mm C. 65 mm D. 45 mm The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________ pairs. A. 20 B. 40 C. 30 D. 50 The minimum size for vehicular handholes is A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________ pairs. The minimum size for service box is A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m The minimum size for service-box is A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m The minimum size for an entrance conduit is A. 20mm B. 30mm C. 40mm D. 50mm The minimum number of entrance conduit is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are terminated. A. drop wire B. terminal wire C. main terminals D. service box The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish. A. 1.3 m B. 2.3 m C. 1.6 m D. 2.6 m The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards. A. 800 mm B. 800 mm C. 1000 mm D. 700 mm

A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal blocks. A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) C. Riser System D. Service Box 24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other special services is: A. white B. yellow C. black D. blue 25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an entrance is: A. white B. yellow C. black D. blue 26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers is: A. white B. yellow C. black D. blue 27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will exceed 300 pairs. A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) C. Riser System D. Service Box 28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines between two or more floors or adjoining pr emises on the same floor of a building generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet. A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) C. Riser System D. Service Box 29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless placed in metallic conduit. A. Open Riser B. Elevated Riser C. Closed Riser D. Underground Riser 30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and extending throughout the height of the building. A. Open Riser B. Elevated Riser C. Closed Riser D. Underground Riser

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RA 9292 is known as A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004 B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004 D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices, including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals. A. Electronics B. Communications C. Electricity D. Physics A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters PECE. A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. Professional Electronics Engineer C. Electronics Engineer D. Electronics and Communications Engineer A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECE. A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. Professional Electronics Engineer C. Electronics Engineer D. Electronics and Communications Engineer A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECT. A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. Professional Electronics Engineer C. Electronics Engineer D. Electronics Technician A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734. A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. Professional Electronics Engineer C. Electronics Engineer D. Electronics and Communications Engineer Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting the results. A. Computer B. ICT C. ATM D. Laptop The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing such data and information. A. Information and Communications Technology B. Communications C. Telecommunications D. Information Technology The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages between two (2) or more points by r adio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium. A. Information and Communications Technology B. Communications C. Telecommunications D. Information Technology

Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means. A. Information and Communications Technology B. Communications C. Telecommunications D. Information Technology 11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means. A. Communications B. Broadcasting C. Transmission D. Paging 12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors wher e electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated. A. Industrial Plant B. Commercial Establishment C. Production Area D. Power Plant 13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals, condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas, memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically- controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated. A. Industrial Plant B. Commercial Establishment C. Production Area D. Power Plant 14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional capability in undertaking advisor y and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies, design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering. A. Consulting services B. Primary services C. Secondary services D. Technical services 15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician. A. IECEP B. Accredited Prof essional Organization C. PIECEP D. Organization of PECE 16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment. A. 7 years B. 10 years C. 5 years D. 3 years

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17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ year s from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term. A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 3 18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination: A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80% 19. One shall be allowed to take one r emoval examination on the subject/s where he/she has failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s. A. Below 70% but not lower than 60% B. Below 70% but not lower than 50% C. Below 60% but not lower than 50% D. Below 75% but not lower than 60% 20. Certified experience record of active self -pr actice and/or employment either in government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board, indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least ___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work, from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer or Electronics Engineer. A. 10 years; 3 years B. 7 years; 2 years C. 5 years; 2 years D. 10 years; 2 years 21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______. A. 5224; 2683 B. 5447; 458 C. 5734; 109 D. 5533; 4552 22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on A. February 2, 2004 B. March 2, 2007 C. April 17,2004 D. March 5, 2005 23. RA 9292 was approved on A. April 17, 2004 B. April 27, 2004 C. March 17, 2005 D. March 27, 2004 24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on A. April 17, 2004 B. April 27, 2004 C. May 24, 2004 D. May 28, 2004 25. To qualify in the registr ation to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the applicant is factual. A. 1; 3 B. 1; 2 C. 3; 3 D. 2; 2 26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No. 9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE. A. 5 B. 10 C. 3 D. 7

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Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292. A. 5 B. 3 C. 10 D. 7

28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least ___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment either in the Government or private sector. A. 5 B. 3 C. 10 D. 7 29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the Board. A. 5 B. 3 C. 10 D. 7 30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the Philippines B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the Philippines D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the Philippines 32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter. A. 28 mm B. 45 mm C. 48 mm D. 32 mm 33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter. A. 28 mm B. 45 mm C. 48 mm D. 32 mm 34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION C. NAME OF THE MEMBER D. LICENSE NO. 35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the words A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION C. NAME OF THE MEMBER D. LICENSE NO. 36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an A. atom B. electron C. radar transceiver D. computer

In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains A. 1 electron B. 2 electrons C. 3 electrons D. 4 electrons 38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains A. 1 nucleus B. 2 nuclei C. 3 nuclei D. 4 nuclei 39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with A. grey with boundaries in black color B. orange with boundaries in navy color C. white with boundaries in black color D. yellow with boundaries in black color 40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is A. black with white background B. white with black background C. black with grey background D. white with grey background 41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with A. orange background B. navy blue background C. black background D. white background 42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the nucleus and electrons in __________ color. A. Black ; red B. White; orange C. White; red D. Black; orange 43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the outer circle measuring __________ in diameter. A. 28 mm B. 45 mm C. 48 mm D. 32 mm 44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner circle measuring ___________ in diameter. A. 28 mm B. 35 mm C. 48 mm D. 32 mm 45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the upper part of the inner circle A. atom B. electron C. radar transceiver D. computer 46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION C. NAME OF THE MEMBER D. LICENSE NO. 47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the A. license number the word PHILIPPINES B. C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER D.

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In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the diametral space shall bear A. license number B. the word PHILIPPINES C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER 49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space bear A. license number B. the word PHILIPPINES C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER 50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space bear A. license number B. the word PHILIPPINES C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER

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In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________ of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis. A. 30 min. B. 60 min. C. 45 min. D. 75 min. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________ A. 1 minute B. 5 minutes C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes D. All of the above A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load. A. Newsbreak B. Flash report C. Newscast D. all of the above A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates A. Primary source B. Secondary source C. 1 st person source D. 2 person source nd A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a per son who acts as a conduit. A. primary source B. secondary source C. 1 st person source D. 2 nd person source The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of advertisement shall be given for: A. first offense B. third offense C. second offense D. fourth offense

These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the KBP or directly with the broadcast station. A. Public Service Announcements B. Private Announcements C. Private Service Announcements D. Public Announcements 8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPMs every clockhour. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial broadcasting is: A. Advertising B. Donation C. Fund D. All of the above 10. A commercial preceding the opening of the progr am is called A. cow-catcher B. hitch-hiker C. lead commercial D. sweeper 11. A commercial following the close of the program is called: A. cow-catcher B. hitch-hiker C. lead commercial D. sweeper

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Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro Manila A. 15 min B. 17 min C. 18 min D. 20 min 13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila A. 15 B. 7 minutes and 30 sec C. 3 minutes and 30 sec 14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila A. 15 B. 7 minutes and 30 sec C. 3 minutes and 30 sec D. 1 minute and 15 sec 15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila A. 15 B. 7 minutes and 30 sec C. 3 minutes and 30 sec D. 1 minute and 15 sec 16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside Metro Manila A. 15 min B. 17 min C. 18 min D. 20 min 17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila A. 17 B. 8 min and 30 sec C. 4 min D. 1 min and 30 sec 18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila A. 17 B. 8 min and 30 sec C. 4 min D. 1 min and 30 sec 19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila A. 17 B. 8 min and 30 sec C. 4 min D. 1 min and 30 sec 20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ breaks in every program hour A. 5 B. 7 C. 6 D. 8 21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ breaks in every program hour A. 5 B. 7 C. 6 D. 8

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In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per hour. A. 20 min B. 15 min C. 30 min D. 25 min 23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards: A. shall not be placed within the same cluster B. can be placed in the same time cluster C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between D. A and B 24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed: A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading expressions B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these acts C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and grammar D. All of the above 25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province A. Local product B. Local account C. Local merchandise D. Local goods 26. The following are considered local accounts except: A. Bowling Alleys B. Painting shops C. Barber shops D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province 27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM 32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

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Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. all of the above 36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM D. All of the above 37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM D. all of the above 40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday. A. 30 min B. 60 min C. 45 min D. 75 min 44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like: A. news bulletins B. last minute program changes C. advisories in the public interest D. advertisements 45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots. A. 15 B. 18 C. 17 D. 20

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What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country? E. O. 125 R. A. 3846 R. A. 3396 R. A. 7925 Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as Electronics Engineering Law of 2004 Telecommunications Law of the Philippines PRC Modernization Law Municipal Telephone Act of 2000 What is otherwise known as The Maritime Communications Law ? R. A. 109 R. A. 3396 R. A. 3846 R. A. 7925 What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the provision of local exchange carrier service? O. 109 R. A. 3846 O. 59 O. 546 What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Philippines and other purposes?\ R. A. 3846 D. O. 11 D. O. 88 D. O. 5 What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations? R. A. 3846 R. A. 9292 R. A. 5734 D. O. 88 Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine communicateons satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission? E. O. 109 E. O. 196 E. O. 59 E. O. 205 What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations and for other purposes? P. D. No. 223 P. D. No. 576-A P. D. No. 567-A P. D. No. 657-A What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the manufacture, acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment? MC No. 9-13-98 MC No. 8-06-88 MC No. 4-22-99 MC No. 2-05-88 What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines? E. O. 196 E. O. 463 E. O. 436 E. O. 205

What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country? E. O. 467 E. O. 468 E. O. 109 E. O. 59 Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite communications in the country? E. O. 468 E. O. 109 E. O. 205 E. O. 467 What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country? E. O. 436 E. O. 205 E. O. 250 E. O. 346 What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998 providing the national policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the Philippines? E. O. 3846 E. O. 59 E. O. 456 E. O. 467 When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59? December 21, 1993 February 24, 1993 June 21, 1993 December 12, 1993 When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436? September 11, 1997 September 6, 1997 September 9, 1997 September 18, 1997 When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109? July 12, 1993 July 15, 1993 October 10, 1993 December 12, 1993 When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205? June 30, 1987 June 21, 1987 June 12, 1987 June 1, 1987 When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925? March 1, 1995 March 21, 1995 February 20, 1995 March 7, 1995

When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved? March 1, 1995 March 15, 1995 March 17, 1995 March 21, 1995 What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)? P. D. 223 P. D. 1986 P. D. 1987 P. D. 1988 What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)? P. D. 223 P. D. 1986 P. D. 1987 P. D. 1988 What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal communication having a global coverage using satellite? NMT GMPCS GSM TACS What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925? Bureau of Communications Department of Transportation and Communications House of Representatives National Telecommunications Commission What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce Promotion Council? NTC DOTC NEDA DTI The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and 10 18 22 25 MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & 5 10 20 30 MTRCB law defines an Adult as a person 18 19 20 21 Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time? 7 PM 8 PM 9 PM 10 PM years of age and above. members. members.

All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one? 5 AM to 9 AM 12 NN to 2 PM 11 AM to 3 PM 4 PM to 7 PM For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from 6:00 to 11:00 PM 5:00 to 10:00 PM 4:00 to 9:00 PM 3:00 to 8:00 PM What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations? 5 AM to 7 PM 6 AM to 8 PM 7 AM to 7 PM 6 PM to 7 PM What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila? 5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8PM 4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM 5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM 6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila? 7:00 AM to 7 PM 6:00 AM to 6 PM 6:00 AM to 8 PM 7:00 AM to 8 PM In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM r adio is from . 6 AM to 8 PM 9 PM to 12 MN 5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM 12 MN to 5 AM According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term nighttime refers to the period of time between UTC. 1000 to 2200 1000 to 1600 1000 to 1500 1000 to 1800 What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila? 10 kW 20 kW 15 kW 5 kW What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective and direct supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required? 5 kW 4 kW 1kW 3kW local time.

What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila? 10 kW 25 kW 50 kW 100 kW According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7 13? 300 kW 500 kW 1000 kW 1500 kW In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed 10 15 20 25 KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per day. minutes for one hour program.

1 hour 45 minutes 2 hours 1 hour and 30 minutes Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed breaks in every program hour. 8 5 6 7 Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed breaks per program hour. 5 6 7 8 Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed program. 12 15 17 20 All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing 2 4 1 3 All station must have a minimum of 50 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM. OPM every hour. minutes in one hour

Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of intro, extro, headline and commercial load. 1 minute 2 minutes 30 seconds 1 minute and 30 seconds

excluding

In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how many breaks in 1 hour? 5 3 7 6

TV station is required at least during weekdays. 20 minutes 40 minutes 60 minutes 30 minutes Radio station shall allocate at least service. 2 hours per day 3 hours per day 1 hour per day 1.5 hours per day

newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day

as a program or programs rendering public

What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system? 40.25 MHz 45.75 MHz 43.75MHz 41.25 MHz What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system? 40.25 MHz 45.75 MHz 43.75MHz 41.25 MHz Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country? ELF UHF VHF HF The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a CATV operator shall have a maximum term of how many years? 5 years 10 years 15 years 20 years High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at leas Mbps. 2.048 32 64 256

The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF band is MHz 1.725 to 1.79 1.275 to 1.975 1.925 to 1.975 1.575 to 1.975 In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than 30 34 36 38 In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a minimum loss of dB. 16 18 20 22 What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting car riers for accessing the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for the origination and/or termination of all types of traffic derived fr om the interconnector? Interconnection charge Approach charge Access charge Network charge What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers, parts and accessories thereof? Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit Radio Communication Equipment Manufactur e Permit Service Center Operation Permit Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the Philippines and no regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV system as . Off-network Cablecasting First-Run series First-Run No-series programs The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised by a registered ECE. The statement above is: True False It depends upon the area of coverage It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999? A facsimile A radio personnel A Morse code A radio-telegraph operator dB.

Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every urban local exchange lines. 5 10 15 20 Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of 100 local exchange lines per international 200 local exchange lines per international 300 local exchange lines per international 500 local exchange lines per international What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a Certificate of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued? Franchise B SEC document Business Permit Radio station license When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department Order No. 88? FM broadcast station with a car rier power of 1000 watts TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance services is known as . Local exchange carrier International carrier Inter-exchange carrier National carrier An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as . International carrier Value-added service provider Inter-exchange carrier Local exchange carrier What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress, authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service? Authority to Operate Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity Franchise Provisional Authority NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority previously granted by the Commission. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the authorization. New entrant has more f inancial support Current service is grossly inadequate Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition switch termination.

Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication law, should an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service in un-served and under-served areas within three years from grant of authority? Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule Cancellation of its authority Given one year to comply Given two years to comply When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area? When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be within the franchise area. When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and upon approval of NTC. Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability. Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate and access, and has separated books of account. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means? Telecommunications Broadcasting Mass media Multi media What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages? Telephone-telegraph calling center Telecommunications calling station Public toll calling station Call center The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local exchange service in unserved or underserved areas within years from the grant of the authority as required by existing regulation. 3 years 4 years 2 years 5 years International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway system equivalent to kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates. 56.6 64 128 256 Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz? 165.8 MHz 156.8 MHz 158.6 MHz 168.5 MHz Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau report? RRB WTDC WRC WTSC

What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources? Depending on geographical boundary of a nation Efficient use and equitable access Depending on national sovereignty Equal distribution Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT? ITU-R ITU-D ITU-T RAG Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU report? WTSC TDAB WRC Council The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio communications as . IRCC ITU IRR CCIR What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and r ecommended practices for all civil aviation? ICAO CAA IATA ATO What is the executive branch of government in-charge of policy making in the telecommunication? National Telecommunications Commission Telecommunications Control Bureau Department of Transportation and Communications Bureau of Telecommunications What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test, malfunctions and corrections in communication system? File Documentation Reporting Log Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to transmitter and receiver? the reserve

AA Direction finder Main transmitter Emergency transmitter 102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety system is the: provision of Morse code. provision of radiotelegraph operator. provision of facsimile. provision of radio personnel.

103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the global maritime distress and safety system. Which one? On board radio facilities Radio operator telegraphy onboard Shore base facilities Radio personnel onboard 104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited and that any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver? AA Emergency transmitter Direction finder Ground 105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or when the ship is in electrical storm? AA Main transmitter Grounded HF 106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union in its international conf erence issues on orbital resources? Assign frequencies and organized conferences. Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources. Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies. Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots. 107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a performance bond of . P 1 million P 3 million P 5 million P 10 million 108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carrier or operator? Interconnection Toll patching Gateway Outside plant sharing 109. Which law refers to the Electronic Commerce Act of 2000? R. A. 8927 R. A. 9287 R. A. 8792 R. A. 8729 110. What is otherwise known as Electronics Engineering Law of 2004? P. D. 223 R. A. 5734 R. A. 9292 R. A. 7925 111. What is otherwise known as PRC modernization law? R. A. 8891 R. A. 8981 R. A. 8918 R. A. 8198 112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under . P. D. 323 P. D. 223 P. D. 232 P. D. 223 113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223? June 21, 1973 June 22, 1973 June 23, 1973 June 24, 1974

114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved? June 21, 2000 October 10, 2000 April 22, 2000 June 14, 2000 115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo? April 12, 2004 April 17, 2004 April 19, 2004 April 27, 2004 116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292 approved? August 27, 2007 August 28, 2007 August 29, 2007 August 31, 2007 117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services? Registered Electronic Technicians Registered Electronic Engineers Professional Electronic Engineers Choices B and C above 118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services? Yes No Yes if he has more than 5 years experience Yes if he has more than 10 years experience 119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall the electronics plan designed by a Registered Electronic Engineer? review sign seal all of the choices 120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics construction and installation? Professional Electronic Engineers Registered Electronic Engineers Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience 121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on . current practice current costumer price index minimum basic daily wage all of the above 122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not be less than per month. P 1,500 P 2,000 P 2,500 P3,000 123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No. 9292. Section 5 Section 6 Section 7 Section 8

124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released within days after the examination. 5 10 15 3 125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false or fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration and/or Professional ID Card as Electronics Engineer? P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year 126. The electronic designer will furnish sets of drawing specifications and other contract documents to the client. 5 3 7 2 127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less than 5 years of active service? P 4,000 to P 8,000 P 2,000 to P 5,000 P 5,000 to P 9,000 P 6,000 to P 10,000 128. To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems is under what field of ECE practice? Engineering consultation Design Services Construction and Installation Inspection and Appraisal 129. Testing and quality control of electronic products is under what field of ECE practice? Education Service Research and Development Manufacturing Maintenance 130. If the ECE consultants present is required in another place away from his office, additional compensation of for every hour he is away from his office or if the place more than 50 km away fr om his office. P 1,000.00 P 500.00 P 250.00 P 100.00 131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for project with definite duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is for salaried ECEs. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale 0.02 of basic monthly salary scale 0.03 of basic monthly salary scale 0.04 of basic monthly salary scale 132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least business class transportation and accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place more than km away from the established office of electronic engineer consultant. 30 40 50 100 133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the client of not less than per hour per appearance regardless whether the hearing is postponed or not. P 500.00 P 250.00 P 1,000.00 P 100.00

134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more than per hour per attendance r egardless whether the meeting is postponed or not. P 500.00 P 250.00 P 1,000.00 P 750.00 135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except: Constant Percentage Method Percent of Cost Method Cost Plus Reasonable Profit Percent of Total Project Cost 136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which does not involve a whole project, what method is used for computing the professional fee? Unit Cost Method Constant Percentage Method Per Lot Method Per Project Method 137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided into classifications which have corresponding unit design rate? Percent of Cost Method Unit Cost Method Per Lot Method Per Project Method 138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10 years of active service? P 6,000 to P 20,000 P 5,000 to P 8,000 P 8,000 to P 12,000 P 10,000 to P 15,000 139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more than 10 years of active service? P 15,000 up P 12,000 up P 8,000 up P 10,000 up 140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the minimum rate of retainers fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer is . P 1,500 per month P 1,000 per month P 2,000 per month P 2,500 per month 141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to erect or to form and/or to set or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities? Construction and/or installation Investigation Appraisal Acceptance 142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment and/or related components, parts, devices and accessories? Quality control Manufacturing Development System design 143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme, system and facility using the arts and science of electronics along with social, economic, financial and technical consideration? Construction service Consultation service Organizing service Design service

144. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics engineering and its related fields in line with current internationally accepted standards and practices? Consultancy design Professional consultation Engineering consultation Consultancy service 145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines? P 100,000 P 500,000 P 100,000 P 50,000 146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines? 6 months imprisonment 12 months imprisonment 2 months imprisonment 3 months imprisonment 147. A secret code which secures and def ends sensitive information that crosses over public channels into a form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is referred to as password username encrypted code electronic key 148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission? 5 years 3 years 6 years 7 years 149. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine Electronic Codes? Voltage/current limiting and interrupting Undergrounding Grounding and bonding Shielding 150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation? roentgens per minute milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour) rebs per hour per minute 151. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue? rad rbe rem reb 152. What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause an absorption equal to 1 roentgen? rbe reb rem rep 153. What refers t the different sources of radiation have different effects which are related to Xrays by a number? rbe rems rebs all of the above

154. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation? The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure. The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure. The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure. The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure. 155. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from an electronic equipment? Must not exceed 100 mr per week Must not exceed 10 mr per week Must not exceed 1000 mr per day Must not exceed 100 mr per day 156. What unit expresses the rbe dose? rems (roentgen equivalent man) rebs (roentgen equivalent biological) Both A & B Only A 157. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems to the whole body, with N = persons age? MPD = 5 (N 18) MPD = 3 (N 15) MPD = 7 (N 18) MPD = 5 (N 15) 158. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons? 10 5 15 7 159. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter? 2 1 4 3 160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of r adiation that can cause genetic and somatic effects? roentgens rems rbes rebs 161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground service entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical way? Expense of telephone company Expense of subscriber Length of a bale to be used by subscriber Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point 162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical installation should not exceed volts RMS. 10 45 0 30 163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth? Sand Clay Surface loam soil Limestone 164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot but circular in shape? Fitting Sleeve Insert Header

165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to ser ve a portion or an entire floor of a building? Floor terminal distribution area Raceway terminal Floor distribution terminal Riser terminal 166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the floor structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire? Insert Sleeve Raceway Slot 167. In cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as a physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main cable pairs and house cable pairs but not wiring cable. entrance cable floor distribution cable house cable building cable 168. A telephone companys cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main cross-connecting a point within the building is called . Telephone cable Entrance cable Connecting cable Building cable 169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type metallic terminal cabinets or boxes. Raceway Riser shaft Riser conduit Entrance cable 170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the building is called . Service fitting Raceway Riser conduit Riser shaft 171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code? Two lines Five lines Three lines Not required 172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the equipment thus protected? Alpeth Anchor Alarm Arrester 173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation? Poor soldered connections. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator. DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values. Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics. 174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics? Honesty Justice Integrity Courtesy 175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or services? Consideration Partnership Contract Obligation

176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that ar e morally desir able in engineering practice and research? Engineering ethics Engineering management Engineering system Engineering integrity 177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those engaged in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in engineering? Ethics Code of ethics Engineering ethics Engineering standards 178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the application of moral values is problematic? Silo mentality Preventive ethics Ethical issues Moral dilemmas 179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as represented by a professional society? Preventive ethics Work ethics Code of ethics Professional code 180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the value of work? Preventive ethics Work ethics Code of ethics Professional code 181. Ethics is synonymous to . morality money standards conduct 182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons? Death of a party to the contract Failure of consideration Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract All of the above 183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason? Court order Passage of new laws Declaration of war All of the above 184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract? The meanings of the clauses were established. The clauses of this contract are to be litigated. The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous. All of the above 185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as contractor. real original prime legitimate 186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding? There must be a clear, specific and definite off er. There must be some form of conditional future consideration. There must be an acceptance of the offer. All of the above

187. What contract document is part of the constr uctive contracts? Agreement form General condition Drawings and specifications All of the above 188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is made? A representation An offer A proposal A consideration 189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the contract? Warranty Condition Injuction Innominate terms 190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an example of the def endant to deter other from doing the same thing? Punitive damages Nominal damages Liquidated damages Consequential damages 191. What is another term for punitive damages? Liquidated damages Exemplary damages Compensatory damages Nominal damages 192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended? Willful breach Material breach Unintentional breach Intentional breach 193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the parties to a contract may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract? Doctrine of contract Party policy of contract Equity of contract Privity of contract 194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his property, emotional well-being, or reputation? Consequential damage Fraud Punitive damage Tort 195. The tort law is concerned with . imprisonment fine compensation for the injury punishment 196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in ceremonies? Canon Code Creed Rule 197. A canon is defined as: a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.

198. A rule is defined as: a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation. 199. A code is defined as: a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation. 200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue of his technical education, training, experience and competence? Professional practice Professional service Legal practice and service Professional consultation The term thermodynamics comes from Greek words therme _______. Heat power Heat transfer Heat energy Heat motion The term thermodynamics was first used in 1849 in the publication of a Rudolph Clausius William Rankine Lord Kelvin Thomas Savery What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property? First law of Thermodynamics Second law of Thermodynamics Third law of Thermodynamics Zeroth law of Thermodynamics What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity? First law of Thermodynamics Second law of Thermodynamics Third law of Thermodynamics Zeroth law of Thermodynamics The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a knowledge of the behavior of individual particles is called _____. Dynamic thermodynamics Static thermodynamics Statistical thermodynamics Classical thermodynamics and dynamis which means

What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the average behavior of large groups of individual particles? Dynamic thermodynamics Static thermodynamics Statistical thermodynamics Classical thermodynamics

What is defined a region in space chosen for study? Surroundings System Boundary Volume The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles? Conservation of mass Conservation of energy Action and reaction The entropy-temperature relationship What is the mass or region outside the system called? Surroundings Boundary Volume Environment What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its surroundings? Division Wall Boundary Interface A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary called _____. Equilibrium system Thermal equilibrium system Open system Closed system A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called ____. Closed system Exclusive system Isolated system Special system A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____. Equilibrium system Isolated system Open system Closed system Open system usually encloses which of the following devices? Compressor Turbine Nozzle All of the above The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginar y is called _____. Control boundary Control system Interface Control surface Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a _____. Property Process Phase Cycle

How are thermodynamic properties classified? Physical and chemical Intensive and extensive Real and imaginary Homogeneous and heterogeneous The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is called _____. Extensive property Intensive property Open property Closed property The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the system is called _____. Extensive property Intensive property Open property Closed property Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics? Temperature Mass Pressure Density Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics? Density Mass Volume Energy Extensive properties per unit mass are called _____. Specific properties Relative properties Unit properties Phase properties A system is in ______ equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the entire system. Static Thermal Mechanical Phase A system is in ______ equilibrium if there is no change in pressure at any point of the system with time. Pressure Thermal Mechanical Phase If a system involves two phases, it is in ______ equilibrium when the mass of each phase reaches an equilibrium level and stays there. Chemical Thermal Mechanical Phase

A system is in ______ equilibrium of its chemical composition does not change with time, i.e., no chemical reaction occurs. Chemical Thermal Mechanical Phase The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent, intensive properties. This is known as ______. Equilibrium postulate State postulate Environment postulate Compressible system postulate What is the unit of the total energy of the system? Kj Kj/Kg Kg g Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a system is called _____ system. Simple Simple compressible Compressible Independent What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state? Process Path Phase Cycle What refers to the series of state through which a system passes during a process? Path Phase Cycle Direction How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound? 4 3 2 1 What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium state at all times? Path equilibrium process Cycle equilibrium process Phase equilibrium process Quasi-state or quasi- equilibrium process A closed system may refer to ______. Control mass Control volume Control energy Control temperature

An open system may refer to ______. Control mass Control volume Control energy Control temperature A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains ______ equilibrium. Mechanical and phase Thermal and chemical Thermal, mechanical and chemical Thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical What is a process with identical end states called? Cycle Path Phase Either path or phase What is a process during which the temperature remains constant? Isobaric process Isothermal process Isochoric process Isometric process What is a process during which the pressure remains constant? Isobaric process Isothermal process Isochoric process Isometric process What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant? Isobaric process Isothermal process Isochoric or isometric process Isovolumetric process The prefix iso used to designate a process means ______. Cannot be interchanged Remains constant Approximately equal Slight difference What does the term steady implies? No change with volume No change with time No change with location No change with mass What does the tem uniform implies? No change with volume No change with time No change with location No change with mass What is defined as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume steadily? Transient-flow process Steady and uniform process Uniform-flow process Steady-flow process

The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called _____. Total energy Internal energy System energy Phase energy What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system? Macroscopic form of energy Microscopic form of energy Internal energy External energy What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect to some outside reference fr ame, such as potential and kinetic energies? Macroscopic form of energy Microscopic form of energy Internal energy External energy Who coined the word energy in 1807? William Rankine Rudolph Clausius Lord Kelvin Thomas Young The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what kind of energy? Translational energy Spin energy Rotational kinetic energy Sensible energy The electrons in an atom which rotate about the nucleus possess what kind of energy? Translational energy Spin energy Rotational kinetic energy Sensible energy The electrons which spins about its axis will possess what kind of energy? Translational energy Spin energy Rotational kinetic energy Sensible energy

What refers to the portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the kinetic energies of the molecules? Translational energy Spin energy Rotational kinetic energy Sensible energy What is the internal energy associated with the phase of a system called? Chemical energy Latent energy Phase energy Thermal energy

What is the internal energy associated with the atomic bonds in a molecule called? Chemical energy Latent energy Phase energy State energy What is the extremely large amount of energy associated with the strong bonds within the nucleus of the atom itself called? Chemical energy Latent energy Phase energy Nuclear energy What are the only two forms of energy interactions associated with a closed system? Kinetic energy and heat Heat transfer and work Thermal energy and chemical ener gy Latent energy and thermal energy

What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in equilibrium with each other? Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Third law of thermodynamics Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931? A. Celsuis A. Einstein R.H. Fowler G. Fahrenheit What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system? Kelvin scale Celsius scale Fahrenheit scale Rankine scale What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system? Kelvin scale Celsius scale Fahrenheit scale Rankine scale What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale? Ideal gas temperature scale Ideal temperature scale Absolute gas temperature scale Triple point temperature scale The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a ______. Constant-volume gas thermometer Constant-mass gas thermometer Constant-temperature gas thermometer Constant-pressure gas thermometer

What refers to the strong repulsion between the positively charged nuclei which makes fusion reaction difficult to attain? Atomic repulsion Nuclear repulsion Coulomb repulsion Charge repulsion What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a gas is proportional to its pressure at constant volume? Constant-pressure gas thermometer Isobaric gas thermometer Isometric gas thermometer Constant-volume gas thermometer What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium? Tripoint of water Triple point of water Triple phase point of water Phase point of water What is defined as the force per unit area? Pressure Energy Work Power The unit pascal is equivalent to ______. N/m^2 N/m N-m N-m^2 Which of the following is NOT a value of the standard atmospheric pressure? 1 bar 1 atm 1 kgf/cm^2 14.223 psi What is the SI unit of pressure? Atm Bar Pa Psi 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals? 10^3 10^4 10^5 10^6 1 atm is equivalent to how many pascals? 101,325 101,689 101,102 101,812

What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to absolute vacuum? Gage pressure Absolute pressure Atmospheric pressure Vacuum pressure What is the pressure below atmospheric pr essure called? Gage pressure Absolute pressure Atmospheric pressure Vacuum pressure The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called the _____ pressure. Gage Normal Standard Vacuum

Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure? Bourdon tube Pitot tube Aneroid Manometer What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure? Pitot tube Wind vane Barometer Manometer

Another unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is the torr. This is named after the Italian physicist, Evangelista Torrecelli. An average atmospheric pressure is how many torr? 740 750 760 770 What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all directions? Avogadros Law Amagat Law Pascals Law Bernoullis Theorem What pressure measuring device consists of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten out when the tube is subjected to an internal pressur e? Aneroid Manometer Bourdon pressure gage Barometer

What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a change in temperature of each object? Power Heat transfer Heat Work What is the SI unit of energy? Newton Btu Calorie Joule One joule is equivalent to one _____. Kg m/ s^2 Kg m^2/s^2 Kg m^2/s Kg m/s One calorie is equivalent to how many joules? 4.448 4.184 4.418 4.814 One erg is equivalent to how many joules? 10^-8 10^-7 10^-6 10^-5 The first law of thermodynamics is the: Law of conservation of momentum Law of conservation of mass Law of conservation of power Law of conservation of energy What is the study of energy and its transformations? Thermostatics Thermophysics Thermochemistry Thermodynamics What is considered as the heat content of a system? Enthalpy Entropy Internal heat Molar heat What refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object by one degree Celsius or 1K? Heat capacity Specific heat Latent heat Molar heat What is the heat capacity of one mole of substance? Molecular heat Specific heat Latent heat Molar heat

What is the heat capacity of one gram of a substance? Molecular heat Specific heat Latent heat Molar heat

The enthalpy change for any chemical reaction is independent of the intermediate stages, provided the initial and final conditions are the same for each route. This statement is known as: Dulongs Law Daltons Law Hesss Law Petit Law What refers to the measure of the disorder present in a given substance or system? Enthalpy Entropy Heat capacity Molar heat

Entropy is measured in ______. Joule/Kelvin Joule-Meter/Kelvin Meter/Kelvin Newton/Kelvin What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume conditions? Entropy Ion exchange Enthalpy Enthalpy of reaction When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as _____liquid. Saturated Compressed o subcooled Superheated Unsaturated A liquid that is about to vaporize is called ______ liquid. Saturated Compressed or subcooled Superheated Unsaturated A vapor that is about to condense is called ______ vapor. Saturated Compressed or subcooled Superheated Unsaturated

A vapor that is not about to condense is called _____ vapor. Saturated Compressed or subcooled Superheated Unsaturated

A substance that has a fixed chemical composition is known as ______ substance. Monoatomic Heterogeneous Homogeneous Pure What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase at a given pressure? Equilibrium temperature Saturation temperature Superheated temperature Subcooled temperature What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase at a given temperature?

Equilibrium pressure Saturation pressure Superheated pressure Subcooled pressure What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting point from the solid to liquid state? Heat of fusion Heat of vaporation Heat of condensation Heat of fission

What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance at its boiling point from the liquid to the gaseous state? Heat of fusion Heat of vaporation Heat of condensation Heat of fission What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process? Molar heat Latent heat Vaporization heat Condensation heat What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm? 331.1 kJ/kg 332.6 kJ/kg 333.7 kJ/kg 330.7 kJ/kg What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm? 2314.8 kJ/kg 2257.1 kJ/kg 2511.7 kJ/kg 2429.8 kJ/kg What refers to the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are the same or identical? Triple point Inflection point Maximum point Critical point

What is defined as the direct conversion of a substance from the solid to the vapor state or vice versa without passing the liquid state? Condensation Vaporization Sublimation Cryogenation The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1 C is called ______. Calorie Joule BTU Kilocalorie The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1F is called ______. Calorie Joule BTU Kilocalorie

1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules? 1016 1043 1023 1054 The term enthalpy comes from Greek enthalpen which means ______. Warm Hot Heat Cold

The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called ______. Vapor ratio Vapor content Vapor index Quality The equation of state refers to any equation that relates the ______ of the substance. Pressure and temperature Pressure, temperature and specific weight Temperature and specific weight Pressure, temperature and specific volume In the equation Pv = RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as ______. Universal gas constant Gas constant Ideal gas factor Gas index

The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of: Universal gas constant to molar mass Universal gas constant to atomic weight Universal gas constant to atomic number Universal gas constant to number of moles What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol K? 10.73 1.986 8.314 1545 The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is known as ______. Molar weight Molar mass Molar volume Molar constant What is defined as the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree? Latent heat of fusion Molar heat Specific heat capacity Specific heat The ______ of a substance is the amount of heat that must be added or removed from a unit mass of the substance to change its temperature by one degree. Latent heat of fusion Molar heat Specific heat capacity Specific heat What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg C? 4581 4185 4518 4815 What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity? J/kg J/kg F J/kg C J/C What is constant for a substance that is considered incompressible? Specific volume of density Pressure Temperature All of the above If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a ______ process. Static Isobaric Polytropic Adiabatic The term adiabatic comes from Greek adiabatos which means ______. No heat No transfer Not to be passed No transformation

How is heat transferred? By conduction By convection By radiation All of the above What refers to the transfer of ener gy due to the emission of electromagnetic waves or photons? Conduction Convection Radiation Electrification What refers to the transfer of ener gy between a solid surface and the adjacent fluid that is in motion? Conduction Convection Radiation Electrification

What refers to the transfer of ener gy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interaction between particles? Conduction Convection Radiation Electrification What states that the net mass transfer to or from a system during a process is equal to the net change in the total mass of the system during that process? Third law of thermodynamics Conservation of energy principle Second law of thermodynamic Conservation of mass principle Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas? PV = nRT An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a whole No attractive forces exists between the molecule of a gas How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process? Adiabatic heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic heat transfer is zero Both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible Adiabatic heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not equal to zero Both heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic: irreversible Which of the following is the Ideal gas law (equation)? V/T = K V= k*(1/P) P1/T1 = P2/T2 PV = nRT What is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat? Specific heat capacity Coefficient of thermal expansion Coefficient of thermal conductivity Thermal conductivity

What refers to the heating of the earths atmosphere not caused by direct sunlight but by infrared light radiated by the surface and absorbed mainly by atmospheric carbon dioxide? Greenhouse effect Global warming Thermal rise effect Ozone effect What is a form of mechanical work which is related with the expansion and compression of substances? Boundary work Thermodynamic work Phase work System work Thermal radiation is an electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in _____ range. 1 to 100m 0.1 to 100m 0.1 to 10m 10 to 100m What refers to the rate of thermal radiation emitter per unit area of a body? Thermal conductivity Absorptivity Emissivity Emissive power

What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratios of emissive power to the absorptivity are equal? Kirchhoffs radiation law Newtons law of cooling Stefan-Boltzmann law Hesss law What is considered as a perfect absorber as well as a perfect emitter? Gray body Black body Real body White body What is a body that emits a constant emissivity regardless of the wavelength? Gray body Black body Real body White body At same temperatures, the radiation emitted by all real surf aces is ______ the radiation emitted by a black body. Less than Greater than Equal to Either less than or greater than Which is NOT a characteristic of emissivity? It is high with most nonmetals It is directly proportional to temperature It is independent with the surface condition of the material It is low with highly polished metals

What is the emissivity of a black body? 0 1 0.5 0.25 What is the absorptivity of a black body? 0 1 0.5 0.25 What is sometimes known as the Fourth-power law? Kirchhoffs radiation law Newtons law of cooling Stefan-Boltzmann law Hesss law What states that the net change in the total energy of the system during a process is equal to the difference between the total energy entering and the total energy leaving the system during that process?

Third law of thermodynamics Conservation of energy principle Second law of thermodynamics Conservation of mass principle The equation E E = E is known as ______.
in out system

Energy conservation Energy equation Energy balance Energy conversion equation What remains constant during a steady-flow process? Mass Energy content of the control volume Temperature Mass and energy content of the control volume Thermal efficiency is the ratio of: Net work input to total heat input Net work output to total heat output Net work output to total heat input Net work input to total heat output What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that will have no other effect than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it into an equivalent amount of work? Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Third law of thermodynamics Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a thermal efficiency of 100 percent? Kelvin-Planck statement Clausius statement Kevin statement Rankine statement

What is the ratio of the useful heat extracted to heating value? Combustion efficiency Phase efficiency Heat efficiency Work efficiency What is defined as the ratio of the net electrical power output to the rate of fuel energy input? Combustion efficiency Thermal efficiency Overall efficiency Furnace efficiency What refers to the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in BTSs for 1 watt -hour of electricity consumed? Cost efficiency rating Energy efficiency rating Coefficient of performance Cost of performance What law states that it is impossible to build a device that oper ates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the tr ansfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperatur e body? Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Third law of thermodynamics What statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower temperature body to a higher-temperature body? Kelvin-Planck statement Clausius statement Kelvin statement Rankine statement A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of thermodynamics is known as _____. Ambiguous machine Universal machine Perpetual-motion machine Unique machine A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a _____. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind Universal machine of the first kind Ambiguous machine of the first kind Unique machine of the first kind A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind Universal machine of the second kind Ambiguous machine of the second kind Unique machine of the second kind Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was first proposed in what year? 1842 1824 1832 1834

Who proposed the Carnot cycle? Sammy Carnot Sonny Carnot Sadi Carnot Suri Carnot The Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes? 2 3 4 5 The Carnot cycle is composed of ______ processes. One isothermal and one adiabatic One isothermal and two adiabatic Two isothermal and one adiabatic Two isothermal and two adiabatic What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy reservoirs at temperature limits? Ericson efficiency Otto efficiency Carnot efficiency Stirling efficiency What is a heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle called? Carnot heat engine Ideal heat engine Most efficient heat engine Best heat engine What states that thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs are the same and that no heat engine is more ef ficient than a reversible one operating between the same two reservoirs? Ericson principle Carnot principle Otto principle Stirling principle

Who discovered the thermodynamic property Entropy in 1865? Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Third law of thermodynamics A process during which entropy remains constant is called ______ process Isometric Isochoric Isobaric Isentropic A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process is not necessarily reversible adiabatic process. This statement is: True False May be true and may be false Absurd

The term isentropic process used in thermodynamics implies what? Reversible adiabatic process Externally reversible, adiabatic process Internally reversible, adiabatic process Irreversible adiabatic process What states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is zero? Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Third law of thermodynamics What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy? Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Third law of thermodynamics The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy transfer through the system boundary and the entropy generated within the system. This statement is known as: Entropy generation Entropy change of a system Entropy balance relation Third law of thermodynamics What law states that entropy can be created but it cannot be destroyed? Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Third law of thermodynamics Entropy is transferred by ______. Work Heat Energy Work and heat During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy? It is temperature-dependent It is always greater than zero It is always zero It is always less than zero Water boils when: Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercur y Its temperature reaches 212 degree Celsius Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm

Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)? 0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere 32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure 0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere 0 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system? Zero Positive Negative Positive or negative At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. This is known as ______. Boyles Law Charless Law Gay-Lussac Law Ideal gas law Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charless law? V1/V2= P2/P1 V1/T1=V2/T2 V1/T2=V2/T1 V1/V2=vP2/vP1 Which of the following is the formula for thermal resistance? Thickness of material/ thermal conductivity of material 2(thickness of material)/thermal conductivity of material Thickness of material/ 2(thermal conductivity of material) Thickness of material x thermal conductivity of material In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the speed of electromagnetic waves? 182,000 miles/second 184,000 miles/second 186,000 miles/second 188,000 miles/second For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the maximum efficiency attainable? Eff = 1 (T2/T1) Eff = 1 -(T1/T2) Eff = T1-T2 Eff = 1- (T2/T1)^2

Which one is the correct relation between ener gy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of performance (COP)? EER = 2.34COP EER = 3.24COP EER = 3.42COP EER = 4.23COP The coefficient of performance (COP) is the r atio between the: Power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour Heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts Work required and the absorbed heat Absorbed heat and work required

What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic weight? Third law of thermodynamics Law of Dulong and Petit Mollier diagram Pressure-enthalpy diagram Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the ______ law. Gay-Lussac law Dulong and Petit Avogadros Henr ys An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called _____. Perfect gas Natural gas Artificial gas Refined gas What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory? Gas molecules do not attract each other The volume of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the volume of the gas The molecules behave like hard spheres All of the above The total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial volumes. This statement is known as ______. Law of Dulong and Petit Maxwell-Boltzmann law Amagats law Avogadros law An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a significant decrease in pressure is called _____. Isochoric process Isobaric process Throttling process Quasistatic process What is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure when a real gas is throttled? Rankine coefficient Kelvin coefficient Maxwell-Boltzmann coefficient Joule-Thomson coefficient The low temperature reservoir of the heat reservoirs is known as ______. Source reservoir Heel reservoir Toe reservoir Sink reservoir A ______ is a flow in which the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless and entropy change is zero. Isentropic flow Isobaric flow Steady flow Uniform flow

What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained? Burn temperature Kindle temperature Spark temperature Ignition temperature What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas? Daltons law Law of Dulong and Petit Ringelman law Amagats law What law states that one energy from can be converted without loss into another form? Amagats law Joules law Lussacs law Henr ys law Which is NOT a correct statement? A superheated vapor will not condense when small amount of heat re removed An ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapor A saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing Water at 1 atm and room temperatur e is subcooled

1. First Benchmark Publishings gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of the publishing are estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax bracket, determine the percent of sales is their profit after taxes? 21% 20% 19% 18% 2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the same price after the costs of the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in percent? 6.89% 6.65% 6.58% 6.12% 3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated to be10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total investment if the annual profit is P3,500,000. 28.33% 29.17% 30.12% 30.78% 4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3200 pieces. With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Camus at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many months will Mr. Camus be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy now? 10 months 11 months 12 months 13 months 5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the end of one year, she has to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest? 23.5% 24.7% 25.0% 25.8% 6. A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what future amount is due at the end of the loan period? P5,937.50 5,873.20 5,712.40 5,690.12 7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money f rom the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest. 12.19% 12.03% 11.54% 10.29% 8. A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay the amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected the advance interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount? 3.67% 4.00% 4.15% 4.25%

9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the interest for one year is automatically deducted from the pr incipal amount upon release of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate? 16.02% 16.28% 16.32% 16.47% 10. A man invested P110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually. 11.50% 11.75% 11.95% 12.32% 11. A investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified? 12.07% 12.34% 12.67% 12.87% 12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer Excel First Review and Training Center, Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note. P18,000 P18,900 P19,000 P19,100 13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1,340.00 and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corr esponding discount rate or often referred to as the bankers discount. 13.15% 13.32% 13.46% 13.73% 14. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995 is P100. What is the rate of interest? 3.90% 3.92% 3.95% 3.98% 15. What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%? P39.01 P39.82 P39.45 P39.99 16. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective rate of money? 9.01% 9.14% 9.31% 9.41%

17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to 360 days. 19.61% 19.44% 19.31% 19.72% 18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the r ate of interest of 8% compounded quarterly? 8.07% 8.12% 8.16% 8.24% 19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest? 12.35% compounded annually 11.90% compounded annually 12.20% compounded annually 11.60% compounded annually 20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the nominal interest. 11.89% 12.00% 12.08% 12.32% 21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually? 13.7 years 14.7 years 14.2 years 15.3 years 22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at 8% compounded quarterly? 11.23 years 11.46 years 11.57 years 11.87 years 23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16 th year? P693.12 P700.12 P702.15 P705.42 24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is compounded. Monthly Bimonthly Quarterly Annually 25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%. P1,549.64 P1,459.64 P1,345.98 P1,945.64 26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by borrowing the money from the bank? P 62.44 P44.55 P54.66 P37.56

27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth year? The annual interest rate is 8%. P 150.56 P 152.88 P 153.89 P 151.09 28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due? P 3,260.34 P 3,280.34 P 3,270.34 P 3,250.34 29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at maturity? P 15,030.03 P 20,113.57 P 18,289.05 P 16,892.34 30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are: A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000 B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an extension to be added to cost P 200,000. By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and depreciation to be neglected? P 19,122.15 P 19,423.69 P 19,518.03 P 19,624.49 31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %? P 727.17 P 717.17 P 714.71 P 731.17 32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000? Assume i= 6% annually. P 1,290.34 P 1,185.54 P 1,107.34 P 1,205.74 33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment? P 2,500.57 P 2,544.45 P 2,540.56 P 2,504.57 34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year, with interest at 8% compounded annually? P 7,654.04 P 7,731.29 P 7,420.89 P 7,590.12 35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments. P 43,600.10 P 43,489.47 P 43,263.91 P 43,763.20

36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually? P 142,999.08 P 143,104.89 P 142,189.67 P 143,999.08 37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan? P 6,999.39 P 6,292.93 P 6,222.39 P 6,922.93 38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year and 4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the account at the end of the 4 th year? P 4,880.00 P 4,820.00 P 4,860.00 P 4,840.00 39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15- year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this investment? 3.0% 3.4% 3.7% 4.0% 40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21, 204. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond. P 1,122.70 P 1,144.81 P 1,133.78 P 1,155.06 41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of 10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years? P 222.67 P 212.90 P 236.20 P 231.56 42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500. What is its book value after 8 years using str aight line method? P 2,000.00 P 2,100.00 P 2,200.00 P 2,300.00 43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method. 7 eyars 8 years 9 years 10 years 44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of- years digit method P 3,279.27 P 3,927.27 P 3,729.27 P 3,792.72

45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P 18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%. P 9,358.41 P 9,228.45 P 9,250.00 P 9,308.45 46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain 5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion char ge during the year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing depletion. $ 5,000,000.00 $ 5,010,000.00 $ 5,025,000.00 $ 5,050,000.00 47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76 each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P428,000 1,033 1,037 1,043 1,053 48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand? 1.0 hour per unit 1.2 hours per unit 1.4 hours per unit 1.6 hours per unit 49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100- pair cable made up with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be the same. 1,000 feet 1,040 feet 1,100 feet 1,120 feet 50. A leading shoe manufactur er produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor cost of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P 5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to break-even? 2.590 2,632 2,712 2,890 What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects? Economic Analysis Engineering cost analysis Engineering economy Design cost analysis What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a countrys domestic money supply? Monetary unit Currency Foreign exchange Cash or check

What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of human want? Services Goods Commodities Goods or commodities What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of human want? Services Goods Commodities Goods or commodities What are the two classifications of goods and services? Local and imported Raw and finished Consumer and producer Ready-made and made-to-order What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and activities? Producer products Consumer products Luxury Necessity What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only after all the needs have been satisfied? Producer products Consumer products Luxury Necessity What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of a product, factor of production or financial security? Mall Market Store Office What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity? Seller Manufacturer Producer Buyer or consumer What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or consumer in exchange of monetar y consideration? Seller Manufacturer Producer Buyer or consumer What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is no goods substitute? Monopsony Monopoly Oligopoly Oligopsony

What market situation exists where there ar e few sellers and few buyers? Oligopoly Oligopsony Bilateral oligopoly Bilateral Oligopsony What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller? Monopsony Monopoly Bilateral monopsony Bilateral monopoly What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers? Perfect compettion Oligopoly Oligopsony Monopoly If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ________ . Duopsony Oligopoly Oligopsony Monopoly If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is _________ . Duopsony Oligopoly Oligopsony Monopoly Oligopoly exists when there is/are: Few sellers and few buyers Few sellers and many buyers Many sellers and few buyers One seller and few buyers Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are: Few sellers and few buyers Few sellers and many buyers Many sellers and few buyers One seller and few buyers Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are: Few sellers and few buyers Few sellers and many buyers Many sellers and few buyers One seller and few buyers What is another term for perfect competition? Atomistic competition No-limit competition Free-for-all competition Heterogeneous market

What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a ver y large number of vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering the market? Perfect competition Oligopoly Oligopsony Monopoly Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect competition? Homogeneous product Free market entry and exit Perfect information and absence of all economic fr iction All of the above What is the opposite of perfect competition? Monopsony Oligopoly Oligopsony Monopoly

Perfect monopoly exists only if: the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost are only minimized when the entire output of an industr y is supplied by a single producer so that the supply costs are lower under monopoly that under perfect competition. Perfect monopoly Bilateral monopoly Natural monopoly Ordinary monopoly

When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output. This statement is known as the: Law of diminishing return Law of supply Law of demand Law of supply and demand What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it? Supply Demand Product Good What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale? Supply Demand Product Good

Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal. This statement is known as the: Law of diminishing return Law of supply Law of demand Law of supply and demand What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool, flour, coffee, etc.? Utility Necessity Commodity Stock

What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original amount of the loan or principal? Effective rate of interest Nominal rate of interest Compound interest Simple interest Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year? 300 360 365 366 One bankers year is equivalent to ______ days. 300 360 365 366 What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn? Present worth factor Interest rate Time value of money Yield

The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future is called ______. Discount Deduction Inflation Depletion What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings? Total fair value Total market value Going concern value Earning value

What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital? Interest Rate of interest Simple interest Principal What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal? Return of investment Interest rate Yield Rate of return What is defined as the investment of loan or principal which is based not only on the original amount of the loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus the previous accumulated interest? Effective rate of interest Nominal rate of interest Compound interest Simple interest What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per unit time? Yield rate Rate of return Rate of interest Economic return A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called ______. Annuity Amortization Depreciation Bond What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span? Ordinary annuity Perpetuity Annuity certain Annuity due What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period starting from the first period? Ordinary annuity Perpetuity Annuity due Deferred annuity What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of the each period starting from the first period? Ordinary annuity Perpetuity Annuity due Deferred annuity What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues indefinitely or forever? Ordinary annuity Perpetuity Annuity due Deferred annuity

What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later date in the cash flow? Ordinary annuity Perpetuity Annuity due Deferred annuity Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity? The amounts of all payments are equal. The payments are made at equal interval of time. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity. What is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and by the government as a means of borrowing long-term fund? T-bills Securities Bond Bank notes What refers to the present worth of all the amount the bondholder will receive through his possession of the bond? Par value of bond Face value of bond Redeemed value of bond Value of bond What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation? Bond T-bills Stock Promissory note What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security? Bond Bank note Coupon Check What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations? Mortgage bond Joint bond Tie-up bond Trust bond What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight and passenger cars, locomotives, etc.? Railroad bond Equipment obligation bond Equipment bond Equipment trust bond A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is to be paid is called ______. Registered bond Coupon bond Mortgage bond Collateral trust bond

What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation? Registered bond Collateral trust bond Mortgage bond Debenture bond A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation is called ______. Joint bond Debenture bond Trust bond Common bond A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock or bonds of one of its subsidiaries. Mortgage bond Joint bond Security bond Collateral trust bond What type of bond where the corporations owner name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it? Preferred bond Registered bond Incorporators bond Callable bond What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date? Preferred bond Registered bond Incorporators bond Callable bond What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it matures? Return clause Callability Recall clause Call calss The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is called ______. Par value Call value Face value Redemption value What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time? Depletion Inflation Depreciation Deflation In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value is directly proportional to the age of the equipment or asset? Straight line method Sinking fund method Sum-of-year digit method Declining balance method

In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is established in which funds will accumulate for replacement purposes? Straight line method Sinking fund method Sum-of-year digit method Declining balance method In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost of depreciation is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year? Straight line method Sinking fund method Sum-of-year digit method Declining balance method

In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in finding the sum of years digits?

The declining balance method is also known as ______. Double percentage method Constant percentage method Modified sinking fund method Modified SYD method What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the equipment or asset was designed to render? Functional depreciation Design depreciation Physical depreciation Demand depreciation What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or asset to produce results? Functional depreciation Design depreciation Physical depreciation Demand depreciation The functional depreciation is sometimes called ______. Demand depreciation Adolescence Life depreciation Failure depreciation What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines, oil, timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents? Depletion Inflation Depreciation Deflation

What are the common methods of computing depletion char ge? Rational method and irrational method Conservative method and conventional method Unit method and percentage method Discrete method and depletion allowance method Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion charge is equal to either ______ whichever is smaller. Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as ______. Unit method Percentage method Factor method Sinking fund method What is another term for unit method for computing depletion? Initial cost method Percentage method Factor method Sinking fund method Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to: Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total units in property Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the depreciation period of the asset? Asset recovery Depreciation recovery Period recovery After-tax recovery A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called ______. Load factor Demand factor Sinking fund factor Present worth factor The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called ______. Fair value Market value Good will value Book value Salvage value is sometimes known as ______. Scrap value Going value Junk value Second-hand value

What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties? Book value Market value Fair value Franchise value What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the country? Company value Going value Goodwill value Franchise value The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a second hand dealer or some other business is called ______. Material cost Fixed cost First cost In-place value In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the first cost? The original purchase price and freight char ges Installation expenses Initial taxes and permit fees All of the above The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason is called ______. Investment Valuation Economy Depletion The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment is called ______. Sunk cost Economic life In-place value Annuity What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time? Annual cost Increment cost Capitalized cost Operating cost Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ______. Infinite cost Life cycle cost Life cost Project cost What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but have unequal lives? Capitalized cost method Present worth method Annual cost method MARR

What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to different segments of the community? Annual cost method Benefit-cost ratio Rate of return method EUAC What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is rejected? Opportunity cost Ghost cost Horizon cost Null cost What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is seldom used in the industry? Unstable economy Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined The initial deprecation is high The initial depreciation is low What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)^-n? Uniform gradient future worth Capital recovery Single payment present worth Single payment compound amount What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)^n]/[((1+i)^n)-1]? Uniform series sinking fund Capital recovery Single payment present worth Uniform gradient future worth A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities. Sole proprietorship Entrepreneurship Partnership Corporation Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence. Corporation Property Partnership Organization What is the simplest form of business organization? Sole proprietorship Partnership Enterprise Corporation Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization? Sole proprietorship Partnership Corporation Enterprise

In case of bankruptcy of a partnership, The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital Which is true about partnership? It has a perpetual life. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner. Which is true about corporation? It is worse type of business organization. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators. The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments. Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as a fictitious person is called ______. Partnership Investors Corporation Stockholders An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business for profit is called ______. Entrepreneurship Partnership Proprietorship Corporation What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the corporation after all other claims have been settled? Authorized capital stock Preferred stock Incorporator stock Common stock What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock? Authorized stock Preferred stock Incorporators stock Presidential stock

The amount of companys profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders is called ______. Dividend Return Share of stock Equity What refers to the residual value of a companys assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded) have been allowed for? Dividend Equity Return Par value

What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership? Proprietorship Assets Equity Liability Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called ______. Capital Funds Assets Liabilities What represents the share of participation in business organizations? Franchise Partnership Stock Corporation The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as ______. Yield Economic return Earning value Gain

______ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and operations. Status company Big income Known owners Goodwill Which of the following is an example of intangible asset? Cash Investment in subsidiary companies Furnitures Patents Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset? Current asset Trade investment asset Fixed asset Intangible asset What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest earned by an investment? Economic return Yield Rate of return Return of investment What is another term for current assets? Fixed assets Non-liquid assets Liquid assets Ccash

What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment? Cost of goods sold Cost accounting Standard cost What is the change in cost per unit variable change called? Variable cost Incremental cost Fixed cost Supplemental cost What is used to record historical financial transactions? Bookkeeping system Ledger system Balance check General journal system

What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal is called? Balanced sheet Ledger Worksheet Trial balance The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book. Work book Journal Ledger Account book All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods is called ______. Net income Gross income Net revenue Total sales All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one? Inspection cost Testing cost Assembly cost Supervision cost What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected? Current ratio Quick ratio Acid test ratio Receivable turnover The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called ______. Current ratio Inventory turnover Profit margin ratio Price-earnings ratio What do you call a one-time credit against taxes? Due credit Tax credit Credible credit Revenue credit

What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is needed? Rule of 48 Rule of 36 Rule of 24 Rule of 72 What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called? Profit Capital gain Capital expenditure Capital stock What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called? Capital expenditure Capital loss Loss Deficit What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit? Time deposit Bond Capital gain certificate Certificate of deposit What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others? This term is usually applies to the floating exchange rate. Currency appreciation Currency depreciation Currency devaluation Currency float

The deliberate lowering of the price of a nations currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as ______. Currency appreciation Currency depreciation Currency devaluation Currency float What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption rather than consumer really want to save? Compulsor y saving Consumer saving Forced saving All of the above The flow back of profit plus depreciation form a given project is called ______. Capital recovery Cash flow Economic return Earning value As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged programs is called ______. Annuity Amortization Capital recovery

Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula? First cost + interest of first cost Annual cost interest of first cost First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance First cost + salvage value The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period is known as ______. Expected return Nominal interest Effective interest Economic return Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the: Net income to owners equity Market price per share to earnings per share Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand Net credit sales to average net receivable Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______. Net sale Owners equity Inventory turnover Quick assets What is another term for acid-test ratio? Current ratio Quick ratio Profit margin ratio Price-earnings ratio What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity? Coupon T-bill Debenture Consol A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual benefit is called ______. Cooperative Corporation Enterprise Partnership What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of regulating the price of that product? Stock pile Hoard stock Buffer stock Withheld stock

The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______. Solvency Leverage Insolvency Liquidity

The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as ______. Solvency Liquidity Leverage Insolvency What is the basic accounting equation? Assets = liability + owners equity Liability = assets + owners equity Owners equity = assets + liability Owners equity = liability assets The financial health of the company is measured in terms of: Liquidity Solvency Relative risk All of the above What is an index of short-term paying ability? Price-earnings ratio Current ratio Profit margin ratio Gross margin The common ratio is the ratio of: Net credit sales to average net receivable Current assets to current liabilities Gross profit to net sales Net income to owners equity What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses? Profit margin ratio Price-earnings ratio Return of investment ratio Quick ratio What is the ratio of the quick assets to curr ent liabilities? Profit margin ratio Price-earnings ratio Return of investment ratio Quick ratio What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected? Profit margin ratio Receivables turnover Return of investment ratio Average age of receivables Receivable turnover is the ratio of: Net credit sales to average net receivables Market price per share to earnings per shar e Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand Common shareholders equity to number of outstanding shares What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity? Gross margin Return of investment ratio Book value per share of common stock Inventory turnover

What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called? Gross margin Price-earnings ratio Book value per share of common stock Inventory turnover What is the profit margin ratio? The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales The ratio of gross profit to net sales The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares The ratio of cost goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand What is a gross margin? The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales The ratio of gross profit to net sales The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand Which of the following is a book value share of common stock? The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales The ratio of gross profit to net sales The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand What is an inventory turnover? The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales The ratio of gross profit to net sales The ratio of common shareholders equity to the number of outstanding shares The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand The average age of receivables is computed using which formula? 365 / receivable turnovers 365 / average net receivable 365 / inventory turnover 365 / average cost of inventory on hand What is a method of determining when the value of one alternative becomes equal to the value of another? Specific identification method Average cost method Break-even analysis Incremental value method The days supply of inventory on hand is calculated using which formula? 365 / receivable turnovers 365 / average net receivable 365 / inventory turnover 365 / average cost of inventory on hand What is defined as the length of time usually in years, for cumulative net annual profit to equal the initial investment? Return of investment period Turnover period Break-even period Payback period

What is defined as ratio of its return to its cost? Return of an investment Value of an investment Breakeven point of an investment Term of an investment Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method? Straight line method and sinking fund method Straight line method and double declining balance method Double declining balance method and SYD method SYD method and sinking fund method What is an accelerated depreciation method? It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount It is one that calculates a depreciation amount lesser than a straight line amount It is one that calculates a depreciation amount equal to straight line amount It is one that calculates a depreciation not in any way related to straight line amount What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price level? Deflation Inflation Devaluation Depreciation A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers form the industry is called ______. Monopoly Cartel Corporation Competitors The paper currency issued by the central bank which forms part of the countrys money supply is called ______. T-bills Bank notes Check Coupon When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output. Law of diminishing return Law of supply Law of demand Law of supply and demand What is the ratio of the market price per share to the earnings per share? Inventory turnover Price-earnings Book value per share of common stock Profit margin What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity? Return on investment Inventory turnover Profit margin Price-earnings

What refers to the ration of the net income before taxes to net sales? Receivable turnover Acid test ratio Return on investment Profit margin What refers to the buying or selling of goods between two or mor e markers in order to take profitable advantage of any differences in the prices quoted in these markets? Cartel Arbitrage Black market A priori The suspension of repayment of debt or interest for a specified period of time is called ______. Moratorium Escrow Numeraire Porcupine

1. What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials? A. Atoms B. Elements C. Matters D. Compounds 2. What are the major classes of engineering mater ials? A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors B. Polymers, metals and composites C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites 3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field? A. Crystals B. Amorphous materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Metalloids 4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form? A. Metalloids B. Matrix alloys C. Metal lattices D. Metal Matrix composites 5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?
B. C. D.

A. Metalloids B. Matrix Composite C. Inert D. Ceramic

6. Polymer comes from Greek words poly which means many and meros which means __________. A. metal B. material C. part D. plastic 7. The engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called ____________. A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Polymers C. Polyethylene D. Mers 8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components materials do not have by themselves? A. Compound B. Composite C. Mixture D. Matrix 9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials? A. Periodic Table B. Truth Table C. Building blocks of Materials D. Structure of Materials

10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling? A. Melting point B. Curie point C. Refractive index D. Specific heat 11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces? A. Melting point B. Thermal conductivity C. Thermal expansion D. Curie point 12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled environment? A. Dielectric strength B. Electric resistivity C. Water absorption D. Thermal conductivity 13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to area? A. Thermal expansion B. Thermal conductivity C. Heat distortion temperature D. Water absorption 14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk? A. Thermal expansion B. Conductivity C. Dielectric strength 15. What physical proper ty of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water to 1 degree. A. Specific heat B. Latent heat C. Heat of fusion D. Heat of fission 16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of deflection? A. Curie temperature B. Specific heat C. Heat distortion temperature D. Thermal conductivity 17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant temperature? A. Creep strength B. Stress rapture strength C. Compressive yield strength D. Hardness

18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation? A. Rigidity B. Plasticity C. Ductility D. Hardness 19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb? A. Nil ductility temperature B. Curie temperature C. Thermal conductivity D. Heat distortion temperature 20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails? A. Elastic limit B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material C. Creep D. All of the choices 21. What dimensional property of a material refer s to the deviation from edge straightness? A. Lay B. Out of flat C. Camber D. Waviness 22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness? A. Lay B. Waviness C. surface finish D. Out of flat 23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called ________. A. plastic B. lignin C. mer D. additive 24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different monuments? A. Copolymerization B. Blending 25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as nylon? A. Polyacetals B. Polyamide C. Cellulose D. Polyester 26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed. A. 100% B. 150% C. 200% D. 250%

27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold? A. Calendaring B. Blow molding C. Thermoformig D. Solid phase forming 28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die? A. Calendaring B. Thermoforming C. Lithugraphy D. Extrusion 29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment? A. Stereo specificity B. Corrosion resistance C. Conductivity D. Electrical resistance 30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered, spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules? A. Stereo specificity B. Conductivity C. Retentivity D. Spatial configuration 31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material? A. Impact strength B. Endurance limit C. Creep strength D. Stress rupture strength 32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress? A. Elongation B. Elasticity C. Creep D. Rupture 33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from proportionality of stress and strain? A. Tensile strength B. shear strength C. Yield strength D. Flexural strength 34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from acceptable of stress to strain is called _______. Elongation B. proportional limit C. yield point D. elastic limit

35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles? A. Endurance state B. Endurance test C. Endurance limit D. endurance strength 36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron? A. Conductor B. Semiconductor C. Magnet D. Semimetal 37. Which of the following is a natural magnet? A. Steel B. Magnesia C. Lodestone D. Soft iron 38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation? A. Hardness B. Stiffness C. Creepage D. Rigidity 39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials 40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow? A. Metal B. Metalloid C. Plastic D. Ceramic 43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called ________. A. Metallic bond B. Van der Waals bond C. Cross linking D. Covalent bond

44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer? A. Homo polymer B. Ethenic polymer C. Polyethylene 45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______. A. monomer B. elastomer C. mers D. copolymer or interpolymer 46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties? A. Vulcanizer B. Elasticmer C. Polychloroprene D. Elastomer 47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain concentration limits? A. Steel B. Wrought Iron C. Cast Iron D. Tendons 48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots? A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR) B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM) C. Electron beam refining D. Electroslag refining 49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute) into an ingot mold? A. Electroslag refining B. Vacuum are remelting C. Vacuum induction melting D. Electron beam refining 50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent? A. Alloy steel B. Stainless steel C. Galvanized steel D. Carbon steel 51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite? A. Austenite B. Eutectoid C. Hyper-eutectoid D. Stainless steel 52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels? A. Group S B. Group W C. Group O D. Group T 53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels? A. Group A B. Group D C. Group M D. Group H

54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength are known as? A. Medium-carbon steel B. Low-carbon steel C. Very high-carbon D. High-carbon steel 55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________. A. Carbon B. Sulfur C. Zinc D. Nickel 56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics? A. A370 B. D638 C. E292 D. C674 57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic? A. D638 B. D695 C. D790 D. D732 58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics? A. D732 B. D790 C. D695 D. D638 59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products? A. A370 B. E345 C. E8 D. C674 60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non-structural application is classified as ____________. Merchant quality Commercial quality Drawing quality Special quality 61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______. Tempering Pickling Machining Galvanizing 62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying? To increase brittleness To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness. To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur To increase corrosion and resistance

63. Which of the following statements is NOT true? About 10% of the earths crust is iron. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%) Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct reductions vessel. 64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits? E H X B 65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace? A. E B. H C. X D. B 66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element? A. xxLxx B. xxBxx C. xxHxx D. xxKxx 67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating? A. White plate B. Tin Steel free C. Black plate D. Dechromate tin 68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at red hear temperatur es, making it useful in resistance heating? A. Aluminum bronze B. Nichrome C. Hastelloy D. Alnico 69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium? A. 10% B. 20% C. 25% D. 5% 70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy? A. Deorizers B. Deoxidizers C. Deterrent D. Deoxifiers 71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy? A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Alloy iron 72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility? A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Ductile iron

73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant? A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. White iron D. Malleable iron 74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron? A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. Alloy iron D. Malleable iron 75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron? A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5% C. To dioxide molten cast iron D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature 76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron? A. To increase hardness above 0.5% B. To deoxidize molten cast iron C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% 77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron? Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness above 0.5% Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13% deoxidizes molten cast iron 78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earths crust is iron? A. 10% B. 5% C. 20% D. 8% 79. What is the advantage of quench hardening? A. Improved strength B. Hardness C. Wear characteristics D. All of the choices 80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench? A. Carburizing B. Tempering C. Nitriding D. Heat-treating 81. The following statements are true except one. Which one? A. Carburizing does not harden a steel. B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels. C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness. D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.

82. Which of he following is a requirement for hardening a steel? A. Heating to the proper temperature B. Sufficient carbon content C. Adequate quench D. All of the choices 83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals? A. Metallurgy B. Geology C. Material Science D. Metalgraphy 84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides? A. Hematite B. Magnetite C. Gangue D. Ore 85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment? A. Tuyere B. Coke C. Diamond D. Hematite 86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? A. Brass B. Zinc C. Nickle D. Aluminum 87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the surface of a part is increased? A. Carburizing B. Annealing C. Normalizing D. Martempering 88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling? A. Normalizing B. Spheroidizing C. Carburizing D. Tempering 89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state? A. Pearlite B. Eutectoid C. Austernite D. Delta solid solution

90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels? A. Sulfur B. Phosphorus C. Silicon D. Manganese 91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF? A. Annealing B. Normalizing C. Carburizing D. Nitriding 92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test? A. 10 mm ball B. 120 diamond (brale) C. 1.6 mm diameter ball D. 20needle 93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of the test bar? A. Tensile strength B. Yield strength C. Shear strength D. Flexural Strength 94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger? A. Poissons ratio B. Refractive index C. Modulus of elasticity D. Percent elongation 95. What is a measure of rigidity? A. Stiffness B. Hardness C. Strength D. Modulus of elasticity 96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures, within the gage length is called _______. A. percent elongation B. creep C. elasticity D. elongation 97. What impurity in steel can cause red shortness, which means the steel becomes unworkable at high temperature? A. Sulfur B. Silicon C. Manganese D. Phosphorus 98. What is a process of producing a hard surf ace in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface? A. Cyaniding B. Nitriding C. Flame hardening D. Induction hardening

99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites? A. Boron B. Ceramic C. Graphite D. Glass fiber 100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity? A. Electrolyte B. Water C. Solution D. Acid 101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities? A. Cracking B. Pitting C. Cavitation D. Erosion 102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses? A. Dezincification B. Graphitization C. Stabilization D. Dealloying 103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion? A. Expoliation B. Corrosion fatigue C. Scaping D. Fretting 104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 m) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good conduction of electricity. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature. 107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______ percent. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1

108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel? The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy 109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels? Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc Iron, chromium, carbon and copper 110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon steel. 5 6 10 15 111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold? Casting Molding Forming All of the choices 112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting? A. Water-cooled metal cavities B. machined metal holding blocks C. Ejection mechanism D. Metal mold (matching halves) 113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite? A. Ductile iron B. Wrought iron C. Gray iron D. White iron 114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resinimpregnated glass stands through a die? A. Continuous pultrusion B. Bulk molding C. Vacuum bag forming D. Resin transfer moulding 115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and acids? A. Alkaline B. Alkydes C. Alcocids D. Aldehyde 116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy? A. 13XX B. 23XX C. 25XX D. 31XX

steels.

117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel? A. 13XX B. 31XX C. 23XX D. 12XX 118. What does AISI stands for? A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries B. American Institute of Steel Industries C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries D. American Iron and Steel Institute 119. What does SAE stands for? A. Society of Automotive Engineers B. Society of American Engineers C. Society of Architects and Engineers D. Society of Alloy Engineers 120. What does ASTM stands for? A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials B. American Society for Testing and Materials C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials 121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel? A. 12% to 18% B. 10% to 12% C. 16% to 20% D. 20% to 24% 122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range? A. 600 B. 1000 C. 1100 D. 200 C to 1100 C o o C to 1500 o C o C to 2000 o C o C to 800 o C
o

123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except: A. Molybdenum B. Tungsten C. Cobalt D. Chromium 124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum? A. 0.10 B. 0.20 C. 0.30 D. 0.40

125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium? A. 0.15 to 0.30 B. 0.05 to 0.15 C. 0.30 to 0.45 D. 0.45 to 0.60 126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 11 to 14 D. 14 to 18

127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked. A. cold harden B. stress harden C. cool-temperature D. strain harden 128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium? A. 4 to 8 B. 9 to 10 C. 11 to 17 D. 17 to 21 129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard? A. Caburizing B. Casehardening C. Annealing D. Surfacehardening 130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section? A. Malleability B. Hardenability C. Spheroidability D. Rigidity 131. What is the equilibirium temperature of transf ormation of austenite to pearlite? A. 1000 B. 1333 C. 1666 D. 1222
o o o

F F F F o

132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________. A. 770 B. 550 C. 660 D. 440 C C C C
o

o o o

133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve? A. Pearlite B. Bainite C. Austenite D. Martensite 134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temper ature to 1670 F? o A. Beta iron B. Gamma iron C. Delta iron D. Alpha iron 135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000 o F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling? A. Nitriding B. Flame hardening C. Precipitaion hardening D. Carburizing

136. What is the chief ore of tin? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Ilmanite D. Galena 137. What is the chief ore of zinc? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Sphalerite D. Ilmanite 138. What is the chief ore of titanium? A. Sphalerite B. Ilmanite C. Bauxite D. Cassiterite 139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived? A. Bauxite B. Rutile C. Galera D. Sphalerite 140. The term brass is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of: A. copper and zinc B. aluminum and iron C. copper and aluminum D. zinc and nickel 141. The term bronze is used to designate any alloy containing: A. copper and zinc B. copper and aluminum C. copper and nickel D. copper and tin 142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit indicates? A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy C. The alloy group D. The strength of the alloy 143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents? A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits D. The alloy group 144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what condition of the alloy? A. As fabricated B. Strain hardened C. Annealed D. Artificially aged

145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except: A. Zinc alloys B. Magnesium alloys C. Manganese alloys D. Aluminum alloys 146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50? A. 25000 lbf/in B. 35000 lbf/in C. 50000 lbf/in D. 100000 lbf/in
2 2 2 2

147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron? A. less than 0.1 percent B. exactly 0.1 percent C. more than 0.1 percent D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent 148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel? A. 10% B. 14% C. 18% D. 22% 149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called ______. A. yellow brass B. red brass C. Muntz metal D. white brass 150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc? A. 20% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25% 151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc? A. 20% B. 50% C. 30% D. 40% 152. Indicate the false statement. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners. Bronze is a copper-tin alloy. Tin is relatively soluble in copper. 153. What is the most abundant metal in nature? A. Aluminum B. Steel C. Iron D. Copper 154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum. A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel. B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel. C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio. D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.

155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element? A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting. B. Improve conductivity C. Lowers castability D. Improves machinability 156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element? A. Increase strength up to about 12% B. Reduces shrinkage C. Improves machinability D. Increases fluidity in casting 157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets? A. Invar and Nilvar B. Nichrome and Constantan C. Elinvar and Invar D. Alnico and Conife 158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except: A. lime B. silica C. alumina D. asphalt 159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain diagr am? A. Modulus of elasticity B. Proportionality limit C. Secant modulus D. Tangent modulus 160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen? A. Jominy end-quench test B. The lever rule C. Gibbs phase test D. Stress relief test 161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite? A. Tempering B. Normalizing C. Annealing D. Spheroidizing 162. What is another term for tempering? A. Recrystalization B. Annealing C. Spheroidizing D. Drawing or toughening 163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one? A. Carburizing B. Flame hardening C. Nitriding D. Annealing 164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wir e is ________ in diameter. A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm

165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________. A. high electric current B. low electric current C. high voltage D. low voltage 166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards? A. Unlaminated flat conductors B. Insulated conductors C. Rounded flexible conductors D. Flat flexible conductors 167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper? A. 65% B. 35% C. 55% D. 45% 168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator? A. yellow brass B. Beryllium copper C. Tin Bronze D. Phosphor bronze 169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in O -cm? A. 1.76 B. 1.71 C. 1.67 D. 3.10 170. What should be the resistivity in O -cm of a resistor material? A. 200 300 B. 100 200 C. 50 150 D. 10 50 171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry? A. Polymer B. Plastic C. Rubber D. All of the above 172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic characteristics? A. Thermosetting plastics B. Polymers C. Elastomers D. Thermoplastic plastics 173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes, phenolics, epoxies and variety of other plastics? A. Thermoplastic plastics B. Plastic foams C. Polymers D. Thermosetting plastics

174. What is the widely used electrical insulator? A. Plastic B. Polymer C. Epoxy D. Paper 175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper? A. 6 to 12 MV/m B. 8 to 14 MV/m C. 10 to 16 MV/m D. 12 to 18 MV/m 176. What is the most widely known carbide? A. Carbon carbide B. Lead carbide C. Germanium carbide D. silicon carbide 177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____. A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 500 178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors? A. 500 to 10,000 B. 1,000 to 10,000 C. 500 to 5,000 D. 100 to 1,000 179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings? A. Alkyds B. Acrylics C. Epoxies D. Vinyls 180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated circuits, etc.? A. Glass B. Plastic C. Silica D. Film 181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100 o C below their softening point to form a very fine network of crystalline phase? A. Fused silica B. Glass ceramics C. Fused quartz D. Fiber glass 182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging called the ____________. A. aging index B. aging factor C. aging coefficient D. aging point

183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called ____________. A. magnetic anisotropy B. magnetoresistance C. magnetostriction D. magnetizing factor 184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays? A. Iron B. Copper C. Steel D. Aluminum 185. Which of the following is known as electrical steel? A. Silicon steel B. Stainless steel C. Carbon steel D. Cast Steel 186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite? A. Garnet B. Spinel C. Mumetal D. Superinvar 187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and injection lasers? A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallian Phosphide 188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red light? A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallium Phosphide 189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which application? A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature B. Infrared detectors C. Thermoelectric applications D. All of the above 190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator? A. Sphere B. Square pyramid C. Asymmetrical pyramid D. Cube

191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material? A. Knoop test B. Vickers test C. File hardness test D. Toughness test 192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point? A. Elastic toughness B. Fatigue C. Hardness D. Creep strain 193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one? A. High melting point B. High compressive strength C. High corrosion resistance D. High thermal conductivity 194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to several thousand? A. Polymerization constant B. Polymerization factor C. Degree of polymerization D. Polemerization index 195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat temperature and contain 15 to 20% chromium? A. Alnico B. Nichrome C. Invar D. Nilvar 196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon? A. 96% B. 3% C. 1% D. 69% 197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties? A. Silicon B. Aluminum C. Beryllium D. Zinc 198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard? A. Aluminum B. Zinc C. Lead D. Silicon 199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes? A. Zinc B. Tin C. Lead D. Aluminum 200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? A. Tin B. Lead C. Zinc D. Aluminum

A man borrows P6, 400 from a loan association. In repaying this dept, he has to pay P400 at the end of ever y 3 months on the principal and a simple interest of 16% on the principal outstanding at that time. Determine the total amount he has paid after paying all his debt. P 7490 P 8576 P12 400 P6850 If the sum of P12 000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 year s? P24, 457.24 P57, 420.42 P42, 516.12 P30, 632.50 When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output. This law is _________. Law of diminishing Return Law of Diminishing Utility Law of Supply Law of Demand It occurs when the mathematical product of pr ice and volume of sales remains constant regardless of any change in price. Elastic demand Inelastic demand Unitary demand Utility It exists when a certain product or service is offered by many suppliers and there is no restriction against other suppliers from entering the market. This is _________. Monopoly Competition Oligopoly Anomaly It is an annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment continue indefinitely. Annuity due Deferred annuity Ordinary annuity Perpetuity A jeepney worth P 318 650 cash could also be purchased with a down payment of P 127 460 and 24 monthly installments of P11, 320 at the end of each month. Determine the nominal rate of interest. 36.3% compounded monthly 30.5% compounded monthly 25.15% compounded monthly 32.5% compounded monthly A businessman bought a communication equipment costing P25000 payable in 10 semiannual payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. If rate of interest is 26% compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of each installment? P 4277.70 P 4770.20 P 4777.20 P 4077.20 It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to produce a profit. Write off period Physical life Economic life Perpetual life It includes the original purchase price, freight and transportation charges, installation expenses, initial taxes and permits to operate and all other expenses needed to put the equipment into operation. Depreciation cost First cost Salvage cost Scrap cost

It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each year. Matheson Formula Straight Line method SYD Method Sinking Fund Method A certain company makes it a policy that for any pieces of equipment, the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 10% of the original cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of the service life necessary if the depreciation method is straight line. 8 yrs 12 yrs 10 yrs 6 yrs A contractor imported an equipment paying P 2 500 000 to manufacturer. Freight and insurance charges amounted to P180, 000; customs brokers fee and arrastre services, P 85, 000; taxes, permits and installation expenses, P250, 000. The life of the unit is 10 years. Determine the book value of the unit at the end of years using sinking fund method at 8% interest. Salvage value is 10% of the first cost. P 1,589,496.90 P 1,165,430.50 P 1,805,460.50 None of these

A certain annuity pays P100 at the end of each interest per period. If the present value of the annuity is P 2, 000, and the accumulated amount is P3500. Find the nominal rate of interest if it compounds quarterly. 6.45% 12.5% 10.5% 8.56% A loan of P30000 was to be amortized by a series of 10 equal semi-annual payments, the 1 st payment being made 6 months after the loan was granted. The debtor continued paying the semi-annual installments but immediately after the sixth payments he was in the position to pay the remaining balance. What single amount must be paid if the interest is 14% compounded semi-annually? P 14,467.84 P 16,750,50 P 18,120.50 P 12,845.60 It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it which can engage in practically any business transacti0on which a real person can do. Sole proprietorship Partnership Corporation None of these A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 30 degrees incline plane 10 m above the ground. If the slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate the velocity at the foot of the incline plane. 14.1 m/s 16.5 m/s 9.64 m/s 12.8 m/s It is the study of the changes in the motion of rigid bodies produced by an unbalanced force system, and of the means of determining the forces required to produce any desired change in its motion. Kinematics Statics Kinetics Robotics A branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion without consideration of the forces causing the motion. Kinematics Statics Kinetics Robotics

This law states that in every action there is an opposite and equal reaction. Newtons 2 law nd Newtons 3 law rd Varignons theorem DAlemberts Principles These are system of forces whereby all forces dont meet even of they are extended along their line of axes. Concurrent forces Parallel forces Forces in space Non-concurrent forces These are two or more forces which has the same effect as that of a single force. Resultant Equilibrant Component Parallel It is the temperature reading whereby it is the same in the Fahrenheit and Celsius scale. 40 C o -50 C o -40 C o -10 o C Which of the following is not a characteristic of a force couple: The resultant force of a couple is zero The moment of a couple is independent of its distance from the moment axis The force couple must always be parallel with one another The force couple must be going on the same direction A car staring from rest pick-up at a uniform rate and passes three electric post in succession. The post is spaced 360 cm apart along a street road. The car takes 10 seconds to travel from the first post to the second post and takes 6 seconds to go from the 2 nd to the 3 rd post. Where did the car started from the first post? 73.5 m 75.3 cm 57.3 35.7 m It is the product of the mass of a body and its instantaneous velocity Impulse Momentum Centroid Moment

When the force is divided by the r esisting area parallel to it. Shearing stress Normal stress Axial stress Bearing stress A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How long will it take the body to return to the ground? 7.85 seconds 12.5 seconds 5.1 seconds 10.2 seconds It is a beam where one end is fixed or restrained and the other end is simply supported Simple beam Cantilever beam Propped beam Overhanging beam The point on the beam where the shear is zero Point of inflection Maximum shear Maximum moment reaction Reaction The shear stress of a solid circular shaft has the formula _________. 16T/(pi)d^2 16T/(pi)d^4 16T/(pi)d^3 16T/(pi)d

A simply supported beam carries a concentrated load of 120 kN. If the span is 8 m, the maximum moment developed is ________. 240 kN-m 160 kN-m 204 kN-m 402 kN-m A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torsion of 4775 N-m when transmitting power at 200 rpm. The transmitted power is _______. 20 kW 200 kW 10 kW 100 kW

Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This law is _______. Guy Lussacs Law Hookes Law Van der Walls Law Charles Law The deformation due to the applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______. PL/2AE PL/AE PL 2 /AE PA/EL A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______________. Rectangle Triangle 2 degree nd 3 degree rd At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius. 8 rpm 12 rpm 10.6 rpm 9.97 rpm A car must attain a speed of 65 kph for zero side thrust. If coefficient of friction is 0.60, what maximum safe speed at which the car can go without sliding up the curvature of the 100 m radius? 100 kph 90 kph 122 kph 130 kph It is a quantity whereby it has a magnitude and sense of direction. Scalar quantity Vector quantity Product Difference A cable has its ends at the same level which are 100m away. It weighs 5 kg/m and with a sag of 8 m at its center. The tension at the sag is ______. 708.25 kg 615.7 kg 781.25 kg A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. if coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what height will it attain on its 5 th bounce? 3m 8m 4m 6m Turbines are driven by water from a dam through a 60 cm diameter penstock at a total head of 100m. The available power from each tribune is _______. 12.286 mW 18.62 mW 16.82 mW 20.56 mW

An object was fired at an initial velocity of 50 m/s at an inclination of 60 the o horizontal. How long did it take the object to strike the ground if it was fired at the same level with its range? 12.83 sec 10.25 sec 8.83 sec 9.58 sec How long will it take for a 2 Hp pump to fill a cylindrical tank with water if the radius of the tank is 4 m and height is 6 m. water is pumped thru the bottom from a source 12 from the base of the tank. 5.5 hrs 6.45 hrs 8.26 hrs 7.6 hrs The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base is b and a height of h with respect to the base is ________. bh /3 3 bh /12 3 bh 3 /36 bh 3 /4 The force required to pull a body resting on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction is f is minimum when force is applied. Horizontally 30 o 45 o arctan f The energy involved due to the motion of the body is _____. Potential energy Kinetic energy Work energy Power A 2 m long uniform rod whose diameter is 4 cm is subjected to an axial tensile force of 200 kN. The young Modulus of elasticity is 100 GPa. The rod is elongated by _______. 2.56 mm 1.38 mm 3.18 mm 3.81 mm A beam of negligible weight carries a concentrated load of 60 kN applied at center in a span of 6 m. The maximum moment developed is _______. 90 kN-m 120 kN-m 180 kN-m 100 kN-m The frictional force on a body is dependent on the following except: Degree of roughness of contract surf ace Area of contract surface Normal force Weight of body It repr esents the ownership of stockholder who has residual claim on the assets of the corporation after all the claims have been settled. Preferred stock Common stock Bond Capital This bond is without security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation. Debenture bond Joint bond Lien bond Mortgage bond These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any changes in operation or policy which is made. Increment cost Differential cost Fixed cost Variable cost

with

When free competition exists the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal to the demand this is __________. Law of supply Law of diminishing return Law of supply and demand Law of demand It occurs when there are few suppliers of the product pr service and any action taken by anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of the others Monopoly Competition Utility Oligopoly It is that element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and the patronage of its customers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and operations. Good-will value Salvage value Fair value Book value It is the sum of its cost and present worth of all costs for the replacement, operating and maintenance for a long time or forever. First cost Capitalized cost Original cost None of these It is an annuity where the payment periods extend forever or in which the periodic payments continue indefinitely. Ordinary annuity Annuity due Deferred annuity Perpetuity The basic assumption for this method of depreciation is that the annual cost of depreciation is constant percentage of the salvage value at the beginning of the year. Straight Line Method Sinking Fund method SYD Method Matheson Formula The rate of time at which the original cost or capital used to purchase a unit have already been recovered is _____. Economic life Write-off period Physical life It is a legal distinct entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do. Corporation Partnership Conglomerate Proprietorship This is the level of production whereby the total income is just equal to the total expenses resulting in no profit. Kelvins law Break-even point Unhealthy point Minimum cost Analysis Determine the exact simple interest on P 5, 000.00 from the period January 15 to June 20, 1996 if the rate of simple interest is 14%. P299.18 P303.33 P279.82 P309.18 If the sum of P12000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years? P 20,642.50 P 32,120.30 P 26,132.32 P 24,457.24

Find the nominal rate compounded monthly which is equivalent to 12% compounded quarterly. 11.882% 12.6% 10.5% 12.3% A certain annuity pays P80 at the end of every quarter. If the resent value of the annuity is P1200 and the accumulated amount is P2000, determine the nominal rate of interest. 11.35 percent 9.37 percent 10.67 percent 12.6 percent For its plant expansion, a company sets aside P 200,000 at the end of each year. It interest is 8% compounded annually, how long before P 2,500,000 can be accumulated? 8 yrs 9 yrs 10 yrs 11 yrs A machine has a first cost of P 130,000 and an estimated life of 15 years with a salvage value of P10, 000. Using the straight line method, find the annual depreciation charge. P 8,000 P 9,000 P 7,000 P 6,000 A telephone switchboard cable can be made up of either enameled wire or tinned wire. There are 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire is P33; on tinned wire is P23. A cable made of enameled wire coast P11 per linear meter and tinned wire P15.20 per linear meter. Calculate the length of cable used so that the cost of each installation will be the same. 892 m 726 m 846 m 953 m A man borrows P 10,000 from a loan association. The rate of simple interest is 15%. But the interest is to be deducted from the load at the time the money is borrowed. At the end of one year, he has to pay back P10, 000. What is the actual rate of interest? 15% 16.5% 17.65% 18% An employee obtained a loan P 100,000 at a rate of 6% compounded annually in order to build a house. How much must he pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10 years? P 2,040.30 P 1,102.40 P 1,200.50 P 1,350.60 How many years will it take a unit deposit to triple if interest is 18% compounded daily. 6.5 yrs 5.8 yrs 6.1 yrs 7.2 yrs It is a decrease in value due to some factors, like new models have been manufactured and shift of population. Physical depreciation Depletion Functional depreciation Deflation Depletion Functional depreciation Deflation It is the distance from its moment of inertia axis at which the entire area can be considered as being concentrated without changing its moment of inertia. Centroid Radius of gyration Center of gravity Neutral axis

The maximum moment of simply supported beam carrying a uniform load throughout its length L and carrying a uniform load whose intensity is W/L is ____. wL 2 /8 wL /12 2 wL /4 2 wL /2 2 A process of joining two or more parts by depositing fused metal from a slender rod along the joint between them and allowing it to cool, the heat of fusion being applied either by an electric arc or by an oxyacetylene torch. Welding Riveting Soldering None of these The shearing stress developed on a soled circular shaft whose diameter is d and subjected to a torsion T is _________. 16T/d 2 16T/d 16T/d 3 16T/d 4 It is the stress developed on a body when the force acting it os divided by the resisting area parallel to it. Axial stress Shearing stress Bearing stress Compressive stress A laterally supported beam 6 m long is carrying a concentrated load 30 kN applied at the middle of the beam. The maximum moment caused by this load with the weight of the beam is neglected is ________. 150 kN-m 280 kN-m 120 kN-m 180 kN-m A solid circular shaft 6 cm in diameter was stressed to 40 MPa when transmitting power at 1200 rpm. What horsepower is transmitted? G= 100 GPa. 245.85 hp 285.75 hp 320.50 hp 296.45 hp A beam carrier a 20 kN/m uniform load throughout its length. It is 30 cm wide and 40 cm deep. If it is 8 m long and neglecting its own weight, the maximum flexural stress developed is ______. 25 MPa 30 MPa 18 MPa 20 MPa A rod tapers from a diameter of 5 cm to 2 cm in a length of 2 m. What axial tensile load can elongate the rod by 0.1mm if E=100 GPa. 1309 kN 2050 kN 1200 kN 1500 kN The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base b and height h with respect to its centroid is _____. bh /12 3 bh 3 /30 bh 3 /36 bh 3 /3 An object was fired at an inclination of 60 o with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 100 m/s/ the total time it will be in air is _______. 17.66 s 18.5 s 16.4 s 19.2 s

A 6 m long beam carries a 60 kN concentrated load applied at its midspan. If bam is simply supported the maximum moment is _______. 80 kN-m 90 kN-m 120 kN-m 70 kN-m It is a physical quantity that possesses both the magnitude and direction. Scalar quantity Vector quantity Resultant Displacement The product of a force and moment which tends to produce rotational motion Torque Resultant Equilibrant Couple The velocity which an object needs to overcome the gravitational force of a planet. Orbiting velocity Angular velocity Escape velocity Linear velocity It is the force that opposes the relative motion of body at r est or in motion. Centrifugal force Frictional force Centripetal force Resultant force It is a thermodynamic process where there is no change in temperature Isobaric process Isothermal process Adiabatic process Isentropic process It is the product of the force and the time during which it acts on a body. Impulse Momentum Work Power The force between point charges is proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional with the square of the distance between them. Ohms Law Avogadros Law Coulombs Law Faradays Law Which of the following is a vector quantity: Entropy Electric field intensity Kinetic energy Charge Evaluate (2i-3j)(i+j-k)(3i-k) 6 3 4 5 A ping pong ball was dropped from a height of 10 m into a cement slab. If coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what height does the ball attain on its 5 bounce. th 6.88 m 5.99 m 8m 7.5 m A 100 g bullet was fired into a 5 kg block suspended at the end of a 3 m long sting. Due to impact caused by bullet, the block was thrown, thus the string subtended 50 o with the vertical. If the bullet was embedded on the block, find the muzzle velocity of the bullet. 200.6 m/s 252.6 m/s 213.5 m/s 233.85 m/s

A block was made to slide down a 30 o incline plane. If coefficient of friction between the block and the plane is 0.30, how long will it take the block to travel 20 m from the rest? 5.65 s 4.12 s 3.55 s 6.55 s

GENERAL ENGINEERING II Refers to the continuous emission of energy from the surface of all bodies. Convection Radiation Conduction Emission It is the ratio of the change in velocity that occurs within the time interval to that time interval Instantaneous acceleration Constant acceleration Average acceleration Speed It is a single force whose magnitude is equal to the resultant but oppositely directed. Equivalent force Co-planar The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time. Rate discount Nominal discount Actual discount Sales discount An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is? Ordinary annuity Suspended annuity Deferred annuity Annuity due The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as? Compounded interest Nominal interest Simple interest Effective interest A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation. Debenture Mortgage Collateral Lien Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will almost inevitably result in the similar action by the other. Monopoly Oligopoly Competition Necessity It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records. Resale value Face value Book value Written value The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents. Depreciation Depletion Devaluation Deviation It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good enough to both the seller and the buyer. Fair value Market value Common value Safe value The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given region of the country. Outlet Branch Extension Franchise

It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement, operation and maintenance. Total cost Capitalized cost Initial cost Variable cost A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries. Collateral Bond Mortgage Contract What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit. Utility value Present value Salvage value Resale value Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market. Free market Perfect competition Open market Law of supply and demand In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as a cost. A method called as __________. Rate of return Annual cost pattern Present worth pattern Capital cost Annuity is required over 10 years to equate to a future amount of P 15, 000 with i=5% P 1, 192.57 P 1, 912.75 P 1, 219.60 P 1, 921.65 A debt of P 1000 is to be paid off in 5 equal yearly payments, each combining an amortization installment and interest at 4% on the previously unpaid balance of the debt. What should be the amount of each payment? P 220.50 P 224.62 P 242.61 P 222.50 P 1000 is deposited in a bank at 7% interest. What is the value of the money after 25 years, assuming that nothing was deposited after the initial deposit? P 5, 247.63 P 5, 437.34 P 5, 427.43 P 5, 720.51 What is the interest due on a P 1500 note for 4 years and 3 month, if it bears 12% ordinary simple interest? P 756 P 765 P 675 P 576 A P 1000-bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond r ate of 10% payable annually is to be redeemed at P 1040 at the end of this period. If it is sold now at P 1,120. Determine the yield at this price. 4.68% 6.48% 8.64% 8.46%

A company sets aside P 300,000 each year as a fund for expansion. If the fund earns 9% compounded annually, determine how long will it take before a building costing P 3, 000, 000 can be built? 7.34 years 7.44 years 7.20 years 7.54 years A man sold 7 more than 5/8 of his load of apple, after which he had 9 less than 2/5 of his original load left. What was the original load? 80 The sum of the digit of the 3-digit number is 11. If we interchange the first and the last digits, the new number is greater than the original number by 594. If we interchange the last two digits of the new number, the resulting number is greater than the original by 576. Find the original number. 137 147 127 157 In how many minutes after 2 oclock will the hands a clock first be at right angle to each other? 27 3/11 23 7/11 11 3/7 3 11/27 A train an hour after starting, meets an accident which delayed the trip for one hour, after which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives 3 hrs after time. Had the incident happened 50 km further out the line, it would have arrived 3/2 hrs sooner. Find the length of the journey? 98.88 km 88.88 km 78 km 68.88 km A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full sped it goes 25 km upstream in the same time it takes it to go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current? 1.5 kph 2.5 kph 2 kph 2.75 kph Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency? Arithmetic mean Median Root mean square Range If Jun is 10% taller than Rene and Rene is 10% taller than Daf, then Jun is taller than Daf by __ % 18% 19% 23% 21% 23% 21% Find the standard deviation of 11, 13, 16, 18, 20 and 22 3.82 3.72 3.52 3.62 If = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3., find the value of x? -1/2 -1/3 1/3

In statistics, the standard deviation means? Central tendency Dispersion Distribution Frequency

If the supplement of an angle is 5/2 of its compliment, find the angle. 25 degrees 30 degrees 20 degrees 15 degrees A place on the terrestrial sphere has an altitude of 25 15N. how many nautical miles is that o place from the north? 5, 883 5, 838 3, 885 5, 883 The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of a triangle is called the _______. Incenter Circumcenter Centroid Orthocenter What is the apothem of a regular polygon having an area of 225 and perimeter of 60. 5.5 6.5 8.5 7.5 The deformation due to an applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______. PL/2AE PL/AE PL 2 /AE PA/EL At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius. 7.99 rpm 9.97 rpm 10.97 rpm 8.99 rpm A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How long will it take the body to return to the ground? 10.2 sec 5.1 sec 7.8 sec 12.2 sec Which of the following cannot be a probability value? (0.99)^4 88/100 (0.59)^(1/3) (0.50)^-1 If the eccentricity of a conic is less than 1, then it is _______. A circle An ellipse A parabola A hyperbola The degree of y^3 + x = (y-xy)^-3 is 1 2 3 4 Find the Area bounded by y^2 = 4 x ad y^2=4-4x. 8 10 6 12

Find the equation of the family of curves for which the slope at any point is equal to the reciprocal of the product of the coordinates of the point. y^2=lnx + 2C y^2=ln2x + C y^2=2(lnx + C) y^2=2lnx + Cx Given 4x^2 + 8y^2 = 32, find y. -8/y^3 -6/y^3 -2/y^3 -4/y^3 Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This is otherwise known as _________. Guy Lussacs Law Hookes Law Charles Law L.A. Law A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______. Rectangle Triangle 2 nd degree 3 rd degree It is a beam where one end is fixed and the other end is simply supported. Simple beam Cantilever beam Propped beam Overhanging beam A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what height it will attain on its 5 th bounce? 4m 5m 6m 7m