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IBPS CLERKS
MODEL GRAND TEST
Number of Questions: 200 1. Max. Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hours

REASONING
In a class of forty students, Samir's rank from the top is twelfth. Alok is eight ranks below Samir. What is Aloks rank from the bottom? 1) 20th 5) None of these 2. 2) 21st 3) 22nd 4) 19th

3.

4.

5.

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1) Jowar 2) Paddy 3) Millet 4) Wheat 5) Sesame 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 1) SPDCMBJ 2) SPDEMBJ 3) DPSCMBJ 4) SPDCJBM 5) None of these 1) M 2) N 3) E 4) X 5) Y

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOLDEN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

In a certain code DAYLONG is written as ZBEKHOP. How is CORDIAL written in that code ?

If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, the seventh, the eighth and the tenth letters of the word PREDICAMENT, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give Y as the answer.

6.

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement ? 1) N 2) Q 3) J 4) M 5) None of these

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7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) March 8. 2) January 3) July 4) June 5) May M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest? 1) M 4) Data inadequate 9. 2) R 5) None of these 3) M or R

10.

11.

12.

13.

t e n . a h b i t a r p u d a n e e . w w w
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 1) 36 2) 20 3) 36.5 4) 12 5) None of these 1) 5276 2) 5726 3) 5376 4) 5326 5) None of these 1) 30 metres 2) 80 metres 3) 50 metres 4) 20 meters 5) None of these 1) 9 4) Data inadequate 2) 3 5) None of these 3) 2 1) One 2) Two 5) More than four 3) Three 4) Four

The positions of how many digits in the number 7354612 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order from left to right?

If M means , R means +, T means and K means , then 20 R 16 K 5 M 10 T 8 = ?

In a certain code ROBE is written as 5136 and BIND is written as 3792. How is RIDE written in that code?

Pravin walked 30 meters towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?

In a certain code good and bad is written as 7 2 5; one and all is written as 9 3 2 and this is good is written as 1 5 4. How is one written in that code?

14.

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ENAL using each letter only once in each word?

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15. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the second lowest number among the five numbers given below? 317 1) 1 16. 528 2) 2 439 3) 3 254 4) 5 861 5) 6

BEAN is related to NEAB and SAID is related to DAIS in the same way as LIME is related to 1) MLEI 5) None of these 2) ELMI 3) EIML 4) EILM

Directions (Q.17-23): In each of these questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

17.

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1) If only Conclusion I follows. 2) If only Conclusion II follows. 3) If either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows. 4) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows. 5) If both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follows. Statements: All poles are lights. All lights are bulbs. All bulbs are tubes. Conclusions: I. All tubes are poles. II. Some bulbs are poles. Statements: All tyres are wheels. Some wheels are desks. All desks are plates. Conclusions: I. Some plates are wheels. II. Some plates are tyres.

18.

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19. Statements: Some Kites are threads. Some threads are sticks. All sticks are umbrellas. Conclusions: I. Some Kites are umbrellas. 20. Statements: Some flowers are trees. II. Some umbrellas are threads.

21.

22.

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Some rooms are hotels. Conclusions: I. Some hotels are flowers. II. Some rooms are flowers. Statements: All jackets are shirts. All shirts are trousers. No trouser is bag. Conclusions: I. No jacket is bag. II. No bag is shirt. Statements: Some blades are knives. Some knives are tables. All books are tables. Conclusions: I. Some books are knives. II. Some books are blades. Statements: All windows are houses. All roads are houses. Some houses are hills. Conclusions: I. Some hills are windows. II. No hill is window.

No tree is room.

23.

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Directions (Q.24-30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer these questions. R I 24. 4 K E 7 J 5 T 1 6 D A 9 M U Q 2 3 Y 8 V N

W F

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) J54 5) 8IQ 2) 38M 3) 7WI 4) 2Y9

25.

26.

27.

28.

t e n . a h b i t a r p u d a n e e . w w w
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four 1) I 2) N 3) K 4) 8 5) None of these 1) T 5) None of these 2) A 3) V 4) J 1) M 5) None of these 2) 9 3) W 4) 5

How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant?

Which of the following is exactly in the middle between A and D in the above arrangement?

If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the left of D?

29.

Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement?

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30. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right end of the above arrangement? 1) 8 5) None of these Directions (Q. 31-40): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? 31. 2) D 3) I 4) T

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

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1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

37.

38.
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

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39.
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

40.
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

General English
Directions (Q.41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below it. Certain words/ expressions are printed in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

else would it inflict a double trauma on a student faring badly in the pre-boards by banning her from taking the exams often with fatal results as evidenced by reports of students suicides in the run-up to the board. Now the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has stepped in and put the brakes on. This is good news for parents and students, many of whom have had to live with the threat of the performance linked department. While schools' logic is that in order to attract talented students, they need to maintain their performance records at high levels, the assumption that a student faring poorly in the pre-boards will replicate this at the board is faulty. Chances are that the student will be spurred to work doubly hard. On the other hand, the threat of the department will almost certainly impact her performance adversely. Of course, linking pre-boards to the boards is only one of the problems with our system. 41. Which is good news for parents according to the passage?

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1) Schools will take the responsibility of preparing students for the board. 2) Schools will provide study facilities to the poor students. 3) Schools will enforce discipline to ensure higher attendance of the students CBSE.

Child psychology is certainly not a strong point with most Indian schools. Why

4) No student can be barred from the boards without prior clearance from the

5) Teachers will be able to handle students well if they know child psychology.

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42. What is the ruling of the CBSE? 1) Students must pass the pre-board exam before appearing for the board exam. 2) Schools should follow the practice of performance - linked department. 3) Schools should maintain performance record of students of high level. 4) Schools must motivate students to work hard. 5) Before barring any student, the board schools must take prior permission of the CBSE. 43. What is the faulty assumption of schools according to the passage? 1) Students who do not do well at pre-boards will be motivated to work hard. 2) Pre-boards are generally easy and therefore students take them lightly. 3) Students who fare poorly at the pre-board will fail at the boards. 4) Learning by rote is a better method of learning. 5) Students perform better in languages than in science subjects.

44.

45.

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1) Providing study facilities to the students. 2) Linking pre-board performance of the students to the boards. 3) Teachers' lack of knowledge of child psychology. 4) Attracting talented students. 5) Low percentage of students passing the board exam. 1) falling grades of their wards. According to the passage parents had to live with the threat of 2) not getting their wards admitted in quality schools. 3) Schools not treating their wards with the attitude of counsellor. 4) Linking performance of their wards in pre-boards to boards. 5) Schools creating traumatic situation for their wards. Schools wanted to enforce performance - linked department in order to 1) get regular grant-in-aid from the education department. 2) improve their public image as a social institution. 3) attract better quality students.

Which of the following according to the passage, is the problem with our school system?

46.

4) make students aware that they would aspire for their all - round development. 5) provide better study material to the students.

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47. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word 'replicate' as used in the passage. 1) enhance 5) plunder 48. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word 'assumption' as used in the passage. 1) estimation 4) introduction 49. 2) interpretation 5) induction 3) intimidation 2) repeat 3) perform 4) achieve

Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'spur'

50.

Directions (51-60): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Communicating in (51) is fascinating, some even say (52). There are none of the physical (53) that, for good or bad, provide us with (54) judgement and about the people we meet there. No clothes, no hair, no age, no body (55). No smile to (56) a potentially sarcastic (57) is just a bit of (58). No conspiratorial whisper. Just computer type - face. That's why the (59) has given rise to a whole new set of (60) called emotions. 51. 1) computer 5) spot 2) telephone 3) cyberspace 4) space

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1) depress 2) enlarge 3) explicate 4) sustain 5) activate Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'fatal' 1) precious 2) safe 3) ponderous 4) perilous 5) harmonious 1) enchanting 5) agonising 1) solutions 5) clues 2) magical 2) nature 3) attracting 3) keys 4) pleasing 4) symbols 1) instant 5) instance 2) simultaneous 3) total 4) distinct

52. 53.

54.

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55. 1) dialect 5) shape 56. 1) signal 5) judge 57. 1) friendship 5) smile 58. 1) observation 2) notice 5) bonding 59. 3) kidding 4) mention 2) remark 3) ignorance 4) game 2) testify 3) indicate 4) evidence 2) symbols 3) symptoms 4) language

60.

Directions (61-65): In each sentence below, four words / group of words which are labelled (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt. If all the four are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark (5) 'All correct' as the answer. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. No contry (1)/ can isolate (2)/ itself from international (3)/ politics (4)/ All correct (5).

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5) treatise 1) figures 2) badge 3) letters 4) symbols 5) emotions

1) language

2) medium

3) agency

4) computer

The peculiar (1)/ dress he wear (2)/ gave him a comical (3)/ appearance (4) / All correct (5). To strengthen (1)/ his arguments (2)/ the lawyer showed to the judge some of the experts (3)/ from a magazine (4)/ All are correct (5).

The committee (1)/ underestimates (2)/ the efforts involved (3) and hence falls short of suggesting majors to solve the problem.(4)/ All are correct (5).

Jems (1)/ and jewellry (2)/ have very low export (3) / value (4) / All are correct (5).

Directions (66-75): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). 66. He was astonished to find, that (1)/ the gentry of the town (2)/ was not invited (3)/ to the party. (4)/ No error (5).

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67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. We told him that (1)/ being a fine day (2)/ we wanted to go on a picnic and (3)/ would come back before 6. P.M. (4) / No error (5). It is quarter (1)/ to eight by my watch (2)/ though the clock (3)/ has struck eight.(4) / No error (5). He is one of those (1) / cleverest boys that (2)/ has studied in this school (3) / and we still remember him. (4) / No error (5). As he went through the forest (1)/ Ram marked the trees (2)/ to let the rest of the party knew (3)/ which way he had gone. (4)/ No error (5).

Directions (Q.76-80): Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. A) The purpose of this review is to offload public investments from certain low priority areas. B) The government has decided in principle to throw open to the private sector industries reserved for the public sector. C) Only those industries are proposed to be reserved for the public sector which fall in the high priority areas. D) In addition, the government is also engaged in a review of the existing portfolio of public investment. E) This will enable the government to abolish the monopoly of any sector in the field of manufacture except these priority sectors.

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He took out his spare shirt (1)/ and was very disappointed (2)/ when he discovered that (3)/ shirt is also torn. (4)/ No error (5). Before the carpenter came (1)/ she covered the floor (2)/ with polythene sheeting (3)/ to protect the carpet. (4)/ No error (5). If I would have realized (1)/ what a clumsy person you were (2)/ I would not have come (3)/ with you to this place. (4)/ No error (5). While going to the office yesterday (1)/ he not only found a gold watch (2)/ but also a thousand rupee note (3)/ and was extremely delighted. (4)/ No error (5). If I were in your position (1)/ I would have respected (2)/ the wishes my parents (3)/ and made them happy (4)/ No error (5).

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76. Which of the following should come second in the paragraph? 1) A 77. 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

Which sentence should come last in the paragraph? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

78.

Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

79.

Which sentence should come first in the paragraph? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

80.

Directions (Q.81-100): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 81. 57834 + 12836 = ? + 43612 1) 27781 2) 26728

82.

83.

84.

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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E NUMERICAL ABILITY 3) 26739 4) 27058 5) None of these 46% of (?) = 1143.56 1) 3612 2) 2124 3) 2486 4) 3126 5) None of these 14.8 13.2 8.3 = ? 1) 1621.488 2) 1525.431 3) 1625.564 4) 1665.623 5) None of these 55% of 470 = 25% of ? 1) 1264 2) 1034 3) 1150 4) 924 126 + 24 6 3 4 = ? 1) 128 5) None of these 2) 13 3) 118 4) 88
1 + 3 1 4 2 =? 6 3 2 5 1 1) 4 3 1 2) 4 5

Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

5) None

85.

86.

3) 4

13 30

4) 5

13 30

5) None of these

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87. ? 52 12 = 2556 1) 11372 5) None of these 88.

2) 12126

3) 11162

4) 11076

324 8 2 16 8 4

=? 2) 81 3) 324 4) 181

1) 162 5) None of these 89.

3844

152 + 17 = ?
2) 7

90.

91.

92.

93.

1 of 94. 6

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5) None of these 8636 17 127 = ? 1) 64516 2) 4 3) 1156 4) 198 5) None of these 74 + 12 1.25 8 = ? 1) 64 2) 89 3) 96 4) 83 5) None of these 743 + 958 = ?% of 2835 1) 32 2) 60 3) 30 4) 24 5) None of these 72.25 ? = 16 ? 1) 1156 2) 36 3) 24 4) 34 5) None of these
3 of 5 5 of 4536 = ? 7

1) 2401

3) 49

4) 98

1) 324 5) None of these 95.

2) 586

3) 124

4) 364

(84)2 ? = 336 1) 1681 5) None of these 2)1521 3) 441 4)1764

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96. 68% of 595 43% of 372 = ? 1) 214.64 5) None of these 97.
1 8 1 7 7 =? 5 7 6 8 7 1) 1 9 1 2) 5 3 7 3) 1 8 2 4) 5 3

2) 212.84

3) 278.44

4) 244.64

5) None of these 98. (21)2 + (45)2 = (?)2 + 162 1) 51 5) None of these 2) 49 3) 45 4) 47

99. 63% of 962 + ? = 999 1) 316.94

100. 2704 +12 = ? 1) 64

101. If the production of a factory grows at a rate of 6% p.a. what will be its production for the year 2011 if its production in 2009 was 270 lakh tones? 1) 303.372 lakh tones 3) 308.246 lakh tones 5) None of these 2) 347.684 lakh tones

102. The area of a rectangular field is 1728 sq metres. If the field is 48 metres long, what is its perimeter? 1) 216 metres 4) Cannot be determined 2) 168 metres 5) None of these 3) 84 metres

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2) 358.54 3) 392.94 4) 412.68 5) None of these

2) 8

3) 4096

4) 8

5) None of these

4) 316.628 lakh tones

103. A, B & C started a business by investing Rs.72000, Rs.81000 & Rs.90000 respectively. Find the share of B out of the annual profit of Rs.51300 1) 15200 5) None of these 2) 17100 3) 18600 4) 19000

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104. In an examination it is required to get 320 of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 32% marks and is declared failed by 64 marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get? 1) 600 2) 850 3) 800 5) None of these

4) Cannot be determined

105. The cost of 12 Chairs and 16 Tables is Rs.4900. What is the cost of 9 Chairs and 12 Tables ? 1) Rs.7350 4) Cannot be determined 2) Rs.2550 5) None of these 3) Rs.3675

106. A train running at speed of 54 km/hour crosses a platform double its length in 24 seconds. What is the length of the train in metres? 1) 360 2) 120 3) 240

107. The difference between 67% of a number and 48% of the same number is 5130. What is 35% of that number? 1) 8795 2) 7630 3) 9156 4) 9450

108. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.12,000, at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a. at the end of 2 years? 1) Rs.960 2) Rs.979.20 3) Rs.945.60 4) Rs.986.40

109. The average age of a man and his son is 57 years. The ratio of their ages is 12 : 7 respectively. What was the ratio of their ages 4 years ago? 1) 13 : 17 2) 19 : 32 3) 38 : 23 4) 34 : 19

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4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 5) None of these 5) Rs.992.50 5) None of these 5 13 29 1) 509 5) None of these 61 125 253 2) 586 ? 3) 567 4) 583

110. What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following number series question?

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111. The average age of six employees in a department is 32 years. If the age of their officer is also added the average increases by 1. What is officer's age? 1) 32 years 4) Cant be determined 2) 41 years 5) None of these 3) 39 years

112. 28 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days. How many more men must be hired to complete the same work in 8 days? 1) 42 5) None of these 113. 24 percent of first number is 36 percent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number? 2) 14 3) 28 4) 16

114. A man sells an article for Rs.2640 at a loss of 12%. Find for how much did he buy the article? l) Rs.2850 2) Rs.3300 3) Rs.2800 4) Rs.3000

115. One-seventh of a number is 384. What will be 42% of that number? 1) 1164.66 2) 1152.68 3) 1128.96

116. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 39.793 16.041 6.427 = ? 2) 19

117. In how many different number of ways can the letters of the word DEBATE be arranged? 1) 360 5) None of these 118. If 279 is subtracted from square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3202. What is that number? 1) 39 5) None of these 2) 47 3) 59 4) 68 2) 720 3) 2520 4) 1440

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1) 5 : 4 2) 4 : 3 3) 26 : 19 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 5) None of these 4) 1182.44 5) None of these 1) 13 3) 22 4) 16 5) 0.5

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119. In how many different number of ways can a committee of 3 persons be selected from 6 men and 2 women? 1) 336 5) None of these 120. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.8950 at the end of 4 years is Rs.2148. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.? 1) 4 5) None of these 2) 7 3) 5 4) 6 2) 56 3) 28 4) 112

General Awareness
121. Present Cash Reserve Ratio is 1) 4.25% 5) 23.0% 2) 9.0%

122. Which among the following is not a private bank? 1) HDFC 2) ICICI 3) SBH

123. How many banks were nationalised by Smt. Indira Gandhi government in 1969? 1) 8 2) 20 3) 14 4) 19 5) 50 124. On 19th November 2012, World Peace and Prosperity Foundation conferred the bravery award on for her bravery and commitment to education for girls in adverse conditions in Swat, Pakistan? 1) Nasima Hones 2) Libana Younu

125. NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) details are given. Pick the wrong statement. 1) Non-Aligned Movement was founded in Belgrade in 1961 2) Presently there are 120 members 3) 16th Summit recently held in Tehran, Iran on 26-31 August 2012 4) Manmohan Singh is the present chairman of the summit 5) 17th Summit will be held in Caracas (Venezuela)

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3) 7.0% 4) 8.0% 4) Axis Bank 5) Yes Bank 3) Hamida Begum 4) Nasinsa Yonu 5) Malala Yousafzai

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126. Which book not written by Chetan Bhagat? 1) 2 States 3) Swamy and His Friends 5) Revolution 2020 127. 'Maa Thota' scheme in Andhra Pradesh sponsored by . 1) Andhra Bank 2) Union Bank of India 2) The 3 Mistakes of My Life 4) One Night @ the Call Center

3) NABARD 4) NHB 5) RBI th 128. On 6 October 2012, who granted $ 500 million for the success of Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) in India?

129. A customer agreed to deposit some amount monthly to reap a huge amount on maturity date. This deposit is called.. 1) Recurring account 3) Fixed Deposit 5) Loan Account 2) Savings Account

130. The days list given. Pick the wrong one.

131. 2012 ICC T20 world cup hosted by .. 1) India 2) Sri Lanka

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1) IMF 2) IDA 3) IFC 4) ADB 5) World Bank 4) Current Account 1) 1 October - International Day of the Elderly 2)14 November - National Diabetes Day 3) 24 October - United Nations Day 4) 27 September - World Tourism Day 5) None 3) South Africa 4) Australia 5) England 1) Mens Kabaddi 2) Mens freestyle 60kg category in wrestling 3) 1000 m Hurdles 4) 25 m rapid fire pistol 5) Boxing

132. In which event, the Silver medal got by Vijay Kumar in London Olympics 2012?

133. I am visiting Bangladesh. So I should have , which is a local currency? 1) Rial 2) Dinar 3) Rupiah 4) Taka 5) Peso

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134. Financial inclusion means 1) Providing banking services in rural areas with affordable cost 2) Providing corporate accounts in industrial area 3) Giving many joint accounts to save the money of banks 4) Not to allow the banks to open the branches in village area 5) All of the above 135. Which committee submitted a report on Micro Finance Sector? 1) K.C.Chakravarthy 3) Y.H.Malegam 2) Parthasarathy Shome 4) C.Rangarajan

5) Sri Krishna 136. 26th meeting of the International Monetary and Financial Committee held on 12th October 2012 at attended by Chidambaram. 1) New Delhi 5) Manila 2) Tokyo 3) Rio 4) Washington

137. In 2012-13, the Public Sector Banks must disburse for Agriculture Loans. 1) Rs.6.5 lakh Cr 3) Rs.16 lakh Cr 2) Rs.3 lakh Cr

138. BASEL committee stress on 1) Branch establishment

139. The chief of World Bank is 1) Christine Legarde

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4) Rs.6 lakh Cr 5) Rs 3.75 lakh Cr 2) Risk management 3) Appointment of clerical staff in banks 4) Loans to business people 5) Green banking 2) Vineeth Verman 3) Dominique Strauss Kahn 4) Montek Singh Ahluwalia 27, 2012. 1) Washington DC 4) Geneva 2) New York 5) New Delhi 3) Paris

5) Jim Yong Kim 140. 19th International AIDS conference 2012 was held at.. from July 22 to

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141. Paradip sea port is in the state of 1) Odisha 2) Goa 3) Andhra Pradesh

4) West Bengal 5) Gujarat 142. 12th Five Year Plan (2012-17) GDP target is... 1) 8.2 percent 2) 9.5 percent 3) 9.0 percent

4) 9.2 percent 5) 10.25 percent 143. On 4th October 2012, to provide more powers to Forward Markets Commission, Union Cabinet approved the amendment of FCRA Bill. FCRA means 1) Forward Contract Regularization Act

144. Hyper inflation means

145. On 20th October 2012, Manmohan Singh launched Aadhaar-enabled service delivery system at.... 1) Thambeli 5) Dudu 2) Uppugundur 3) Bandlapalli 4) Manwel

146. Punch Line used in the logo of 11th Conference of Parties (COP-11) Convention on Biological Diversity, Hyderabad is 1) Nature Protects if she is protected 2) Green Economy! Does it include you? 3) Save Earth, You are Protected 4) Plant Tree, It plants your future 5) Do not do harm to Nature

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2) Front Contract Regulation Act 3) Forward Company Regulation Act 4) First Contract Regulation Act 5) Forward Contract Regulation Act 1) Inflation and Deflation occurs one after another 2) Extremely slow growth of inflation 3) Extreme inflation which is out of control 4) No inflation seen 5) Inflation is there but it is not seen

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147. Who puts the signature on Rs.1 paper currency note? 1) RBI Governor 3) Finance Secretary 2) RBI Deputy Governor 4) Finance Minister

5) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission 148. On 29th Oct 2012, RBI decided to do open market operations worth of by purchase of government securities. 1) Rs.14,000 Cr. 4) Rs.5,000 Cr. 2) Rs.18,000 Cr. 5) Rs.12,000 Cr. 3) Rs.4,000 Cr.

149. ..is not the wing of World Bank Group.

150. The list of Noble Prize winners 2012 given. Pick the wrong one.

151. Which Scheme was introduced to encourage the savings of the small investors in domestic capital market investing up to Rs.50,000 in the share market directly? 1) Rajiv Gandhi Small Investors Scheme 2) Rajiv Gandhi Integrated Income Tax Scheme 3) Rajiv Gandhi Equity Saving Scheme 4) Rajiv Gandhi Investors Friendly Scheme 5) Rajiv Gandhi Equity Share Scheme

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1) MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency) 2) IDA (International Development Association) 3) IFC (International Finance Corporation) 4) ADB (Asian Development Bank) 5) IMF (International Monetary Fund) 4) Mo Yan of China was conferred with Noble in Literature 5) Red cross was conferred with Noble in Peace

1) Serge Haroche of France and David J. Wineland of USA got Noble in Physics 2) Robert J. Lefkowitz and Brian K. Kobilka (both belong to USA) got Noble in Chemistry 3) Sir John B. Gurdon of UK and Shinya Yamanaka of Japan got Noble in Medicine

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152. Pick the wrong statement relating to Syria. 1) Syria is in Africa having border with Lebanon, Turkey, Iraq and Jordan 2) Syria capital is Damascus 3) Syrian president is Bashar al Assad 4) There is civil war and the uprising against the President Bashar al Assad 5) UN -Arab League appointed Lakhdar Brahimi as the special envoy to Syria 153. On 3rd October 2012, Shubhalaxmi Panse took oath as the Chairperson and Managing Director (CMD) of.. 1) Union Bank of India 2) Andhra Bank 3) ICICI

154. Who are the present Deputy Governors of RBI?

155. Round Revolution refers to the boosting production of .. 1) Tomato 2) Bamboo 3) Potato

156. Who was appointed as International Goodwill Ambassador for the United Nations Programme on HIV / AIDS (UNAIDS)? 1) Amitabh Bacchan 3) Aishwarya Rai 5) Amir Khan 2) Sachin Tendulkar

157. A person who expects share prices are going to decline is called 1) Bear 2) Bull 3) Vostro 4) NRI

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4) Punjab National Bank 5) Allahabad Bank 1) Depak Mohanthy, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and H.R.Khan 2) D.Subba Rao, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and K.C.Chakravarthy 3) K.C.Chakravarthy, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and H.R.Khan 4) Raghuram Rajan, Kaushik Basu, Y.V.Reddy and D.Subba Rao 5) Kaushik Basu, Y.V.Reddy, Amartya Sen and Chidambaram 4) Mahendra Singh Dhoni 1) Kerala 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Tamilnadu

4) Mango 5) Egg

5) Stale

158. Periyar Tiger Reserve is in the state of.. 4) Bihar 5) Goa

159. In the World Economic Forum Global Competitiveness Index 2012-13, Indias rank is.. 1) 100 2) 75 3) 15 4) 59 5) 109

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160. Sports terms are given. Pick up incorrect one. 1) Cricket - Appeal, Beamer, China man, Fine Leg, Hat-trick, Umpire Decision Review System. 2) Chess - Bishop, Capture, Grand Master, King, Pawn, Queen, Rook, Stalemate 3) Basket Ball - Basket, Blocking, Free Throw, Jump Ball, Multiple Throws 4) Hockey - Advantage, Bully, Corner, Free-hit, Goal Line, Green Card, LBW 5) Tennis - Ace, Break point, Court, Deuce, Fault, Grand Slam, Love, Referee, Set

Computer Knowledge
161. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are called: 1) Information engines 2) Locater Engines

162. Which of the following parts of computer does arithmetical calculations? 1) OS 2) ALU 3) CPU 4) Memory

163. Peripheral devices such as Printer, Keyboard, Speakers are considered to be: 1) Hardware 2) Software 3) Data 4) Information

164. Which of the following is not true about Control Unit? 1) Implementing Instruction set of the CPU 2) It performs Fetching and Decoding

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3) Web Browser 4) Resource Locater 5) Search Engines 5) Printer 5) None of these 3) It coordinates the component of a computer system 4) It manages the computer resources 5) All are true 1) Mainframe Computers 3) Super Computer 5) None of these 2) Mini Computer 4) Workstation

165. The computers which are generally used for engineering applications, which require relatively high quality graphic capabilities are called:

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166. USB is the acronym for: 1) Universal Security Block 3) Universal Serial Bus 5) None of these 167. Fourth Generation computers contain: 1) Vacuum tubes 4) Microprocessor 2) Transistors 5) None of the above 3) LSI 2) Universal Security Bus 4) Under Security Block

168. Which of the following is a permanent memory?

169. Which of the following is the fastest memory? 1) Cache 2) RAM 3) ROM

170. TUX is the term associated with which of the following ? 1) Google 5) Mac 2) Yahoo 3) Linux

171. The access method used in Magnetic tape is: 1) Random 5) Parallel 2) Sequential

172. Which of the following data transmission method allows simultaneous bi-directional data 1) Simplex 5) Analog 2) Half duplex 3) Duplex 4) Digital

173. Expand MP4

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5) Both 1 and 2 4) HDD 5) Registers 4) Windows 3) Serial 4) Direct 1) Music Player 4 4) All the above 2) MPEG layer 4 5) None of the above 1) Task bar 4) Menu bar 2) Icon 3) Start menu 5) Control panel

1) ROM

2) PROM

3) RAM

4) DRAM

3) Movie Player 4

174. The bar which is usually located at the bottom of the desktop of Windows XP is known as:

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175. The most reliable network topology is: 1) Mesh Topology 3) Star Topology 5) Tree Topology 176. Which of the following is an example of transmission media? 1) Fiber Optics 2) Coaxial Cable 3) Microwaves 4) Satellites 1) Output Unit 4) Arithmetic and Logical Unit 2) Keyboard 5) All the above 2) Memory Unit 3) Control Unit 177. Which of the following units decodes data and presents it to the user is: 2) Bus Topology 4) Ring Topology

178. Which of the following is a part of CPU? 1) Monitor 5) Joystick

179. Which of the following converts an entire program into Machine Language? 1) Compiler 2) Interpreter 3) Translator 4) CPU 5) All the above

180. ..... are privately-owned network within a single building or a campus of up to a few kilometres in size. 1) LAN 2) WAN 3) MAN 4) Internet 5) All the above

181. In MS word, a green line under a word means it is : 1) Grammatically Incorrect 3) Spelling mistake 5) None of the above

182. RAM stands for:

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5) Central Processing Unit 3) Control Unit 4) Mouse 2) No specific meaning 4) All the above 1) Read Access Memory 3) Reading Accessing Memory 5) None of these 2) Random Access Memory 4) Random Address Memory 1) Ctrl + X 5) Alt + C 2) Ctrl + V 3) Ctrl + C 4) Ctrl + Y

183. The short cut key in Windows XP to copy the selection is:

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184. HTML stands for: 1) Hyper Transfer Model Language 2) Hyper Transfer Markup Language 3) Hyper Text Model Language 5) None of these 185. Which of the following is a personal, online journal that appears on a website? 1) Wiki 5) Chat room 186. A .... is used to connect a computer to a network 1) Network Intermediate Unit 3) Network Interface Card 5) None of these 1) Internet 2) Network Interconnection Card 4) Network Conversion Card 2) IM 3) Blog 4) Email 4) Hyper Text Mark-up Language

187. A ........... is a privately owned 'Organisation-Wide' network. 2) Intranet 3) Subnet 5) None of the above 1) ISDN

188. Which of the following technology is used for Internet Connectivity? 2) Dial UP 3) Broadband 5) All the above 1) Replying

189. Sending already received email to another recipient is: 2) Forwarding 3) Answering 5) None of the above 1) Normal View 5) All the above 1) RAM 5) EAPROM 192. A....... enables traffic between two networks 1) Gateway Server 3) E mail server 5) None of the above 2) Web Server

190. Which of the following is a valid power point view? 3) Note Page View

191. Which of the following memory allows simultaneous read and write operation? 2) EPROM 3) EEPROM 4) ROM

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4) Monnet 4) Wireless 4) Drafting 2) Slide Sorter View 4) Slide Show View 4) Database server

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193. Pick the odd one out. 1) Microsoft 5) Unix 194. Function key to get help is: 1) F1 2) F2 3) F3 4) F4 5) F12 2) Ubuntu 3) Windows XP 4) MAC

195. Which of the following is the way of connecting computer in a network? 1) LAN 5) Topology 196. .... is a set of software components that adds specific abilities to a larger software application? 2) Internet 3) Intranet 4) MAN

197. What is an email attachment?

198. A ... is a pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and a background. 1) Guide 2) Model 3) Ruler

4) Template

199. Linux is an example of: 1) Freeware

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1) Gateway 2) Internet 3) Patch 4) Plugin 5) None of these 1) A receipt sent by the recipient 2) A separate document from another program sent along with an e-mail 3) A malicious Virus that feeds on the messages and destroys the contents 4) A list of CC or BCC recipients 5) A friend to whom e-mail is sent regularly 5) None of these 2) Open source software 4) Complimentary

3) Shareware 5) None of these

200. In Windows XP, ...... shows the files, folders and drives on the computer, making it easy to navigate from one location to the another? 1) Microsoft Internet Explorer 4) Folders Manager 5) Windows Locater 2) Windows Explorer 3) My Computer

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KEY
1-2; 2-5; 3-3; 4-1; 5-5; 6-3; 7-4; 8-1; 9-4; 10-2; 11-2; 12-4; 13-4; 14-3; 15-1; 16-3; 17-2; 18-1; 19-2; 20-4; 21-5; 22-4; 23-3; 24-5; 25-3; 26-3; 27-1; 28-1; 29-4; 30-2; 31-3; 32-1; 33-2; 34-3; 35-5; 36-3; 37-2; 38-1; 39-1; 40-3; 41-4; 42-5; 43-3; 44-2; 45-4; 46-3; 47-2; 48-1; 49-1; 50-2; 51-3; 52-1; 53-5; 54-1; 55-4; 56-3; 57-2; 58-3; 59-2; 60-4; 61-1; 62-2; 63-3; 64-4; 65-1; 66-3; 67-2; 68-1; 69-3; 70-3; 71-4; 72-2; 73-1; 74-2; 75-1; 76-3; 77-1; 78-4; 79-2; 80-5; 81-4; 82-3; 83-1; 84-2; 85-3; 86-4; 87-4; 88-1; 89-3; 90-2; 91-5; 92-2; 93- 4; 94-1; 95-3; 96-4; 97-2; 98-5; 99-3; 100-4; 101-1; 102-2; 103-2; 104-3; 105-3; 106-2; 107-4; 108-2; 109-4; 110-1; 111-3; 112-2; 113-5; 114-4; 115- 3; 116-4; 117-1; 118-3; 119-2; 120-4; 121-1; 122-3; 123-3; 124-5; 125-4; 126-3; 127-3; 128-5; 129-1; 130-5; 131-2; 132-4; 133-4; 134-1; 135-3; 136-2; 137-4; 138-2; 139-5; 140-1; 141-1; 142-1; 143-5; 144-3; 145-5; 146-1; 147-3; 148-5; 149-4; 150-5; 151-3; 152-1; 153-5; 154-3; 155-3; 156-3; 157-1; 158-1; 159-4; 160-4; 161-5; 162-2; 163-1; 164-5; 165-4; 166-3; 167-4; 168-5; 169-5; 170-3; 171-2; 172-3; 173-2; 174-1; 175-1; 176-5; 177-1; 178-3; 179-1; 180-1; 181-1; 182-2; 183-3; 184-4; 185-3; 186-3; 187-2; 188-5; 189-2; 190-5; 191-1; 192-1; 193-1; 194-1; 195-5; 196-4; 197-2; 198-4; 199-2; 200-2.

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