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# answer="2"> The frequency of a free vibration. a. Resonant frequency b. Natural frequency c. Center frequency d.

Normal frequency answer="1"> The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings. a. Flanking transmission b. Refraction c. Reflection d. Reverberation answer="3"> A measure of threshold of hearing, expressed in decibels relative to a specified standard of normal hearing. a. Hearing loss b. Sensation level c. Hearing level d. Sound pressure level answer="1"> A certain machine with a slightly out-of balance motor rotating at 1800/min is fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calculate the resonant frequency of mount. a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer="4"> Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120mm thick, 4m by 2m in area with longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is supported at its edges.) a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer="2"> Velocity of sound in air. a. 300 m/s b. 330 m/s c. 1130 m/s d. 344 m/s answer="2"> What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. a. 114.5 Hz b. 214.5 Hz c. 314.5 Hz d. 414.5 Hz answer="4"> The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10^-12W). Find the max. sound pressure level on the ground directly below the flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions a. 59.1 dB b. 69.1 dB c. 79.1 dB d. 89.1 dB answer="2"> Speaker is a device that a. converts sound waves into current and voltage b. converts current variations into sound waves c. converts electrical energy to mechanical energy d. converts electrical energy into electromagnetic energy

answer="3"> Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of carbon granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary? a. Dynamic b. Crystal c. Carbon d. Ribbon-type answer="3"> Bass response is a. maximum high frequency response b. emphasizing the high audio frequencies c. bypassing high audio frequencies d. bypassing low audio frequencies answer="4"> Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing. a. 1 Hz b. 10 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 1000 Hz answer="1"> __________ is early reflection of sound. a. Echo b. Reverberation c. Pure sound d. Intelligible sound answer="1"> Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. a. Dolby b. dBa c. dBx d. dBk answer="4"> What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time? a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound pressure d. Sound intensity answer="4"> __________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound. a. Sone b. Decibel c. Mel d. Phon answer="3"> __________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-section area of 1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction. a. Sound pressure b. Loudness c. Sound intensity d. Pressure variation answer="4"> What is the unit of pitch? a. Sone b. Phon c. Decibel d. Mel answer="2"> A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity. a. Phon b. Decibel

c. Pascal d. Watts answer="3"> Sound wave has two main characteristics which are a. highness and loudness b. tone and loudness c. pitch and loudness d. rarefaction and compression answer="2"> Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates an output signal voltage? a. Carbon b. Dynamic c. Crystal d. Condenser answer="4"> The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How much power in watts is this light bulb consuming a. 10 watts b. 20 watts c. 40 watts d. 50 watts answer="2"> Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5 inches? a. 500 Hz b. 1000 Hz c. 1500 Hz d. 2000 Hz answer="3"> The wire that must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what rms current? a. 2 A b. 4 A c. 5 A d. 6 A answer="2"> A church has an internal volume of 90,05 cubic ft (2,550 cubic m). When it contains 2,000 customary sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its reverberation time in seconds. a. 2.0 b. 2.2 c. 2.5 d. 3.0 answer="1"> If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb/square ft, what is the sound pressure level? a. 7.6 dB b. 108 dB c. 88 dB d. 10 dB answer="2"> Speed that is faster than speed of sound. a. Ultrasonic b. Supersonic c. Subsonic d. Transonic answer="2"> Sound waves travel in water at a ___________ speed. a. 12.4 miles/sec b. 5,000 ft/sec c. 186,000 ft/sec d. 3,141 ft/sec answer="4">

What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 87dB assuming that it radiates sound uniformly? a. 0.15 W b. 0.21 W c. 0.24 W d. 0.18 W answer="2"> Crest-to-crest distance along the direction of wave travel. a. Compression b. Wavelength c. Period d. Sound wave answer="1"> Sound intensity level is ____________. a. 10 log l/lref b. 10 log p/pref c. 20 log l/lref d. 30 log p/pref answer="1"> Sound pressure level is ____________. a. 20 log P/Pref b. 30 log p/ref c. 10 log p/pref d. 20 log l/lref answer="1"> The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones. a. Frequency response b. Field strength c. Power density d. Gain answer="3"> Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument. a. Midrange b. Harmonic c. Fundamental d. Period answer="1"> Tendency of a sound energy to spread. a. Diffraction b. Rarefaction c. Reflection d. Refraction answer="4"> When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called ________. a. reflection b. defraction c. rarefaction d. refraction answer="3"> Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.

a. Echo time b. Delay time c. Reverberation time d. Transient time answer="1"> The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________. a. frequency b. noise c. amplitude d. tone

c. 55 - 60 d. 80 - 85 answer="3"> What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music? a. 80 - 95 b. 85 - 90 c. 95 - 100 d. 100 - 105 answer="2"> What is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only? a. 90 b. 80 - 85 c. 85 - 90 d. 90 - 95 answer="2"> Intensity can also be called as a. volume b. loudness c. sharpness d. strength answer="4"> The loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of motion imparted to __________ molecules of the medium transmitting the sound. a. transmitting b. running c. moving d. vibrating answer="4"> _________ is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of the sound and its intensity varies inversely with the square of this distance. a. volume b. bass c. treble d. loudness answer="4"> If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, the intensity is reduced to a. 1/2 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 1/4 answer="3"> If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased to 1/2 the original amount, the intensity of the sound would be __________. a. 2 times as great b. 3 times as great c. 4 times as great d. 5 times a great answer="1"> At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz tone is a. 1000 mels b. 500 mels c. 2000 mels d. 100 mels answer="2"> If the sound waves are converted to electrical waves by a microphone, what is the frequency of the electric current? a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 25 to 8000 Hz c. 4 to 40 Hz d. 30 to 2000 Hz answer="3">

An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop the nerve voltage generated by a weaker sound. a. Piezoelectric effect b. Skin effect c. Lasing d. Masking answer="2"> For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is applicable? a. Sabine b. Stephen and Bate c. Norris-Eyring d. Notch answer="4"> The ________ of sound is a subjective effect which is a function of the ear and brain. a. pitch b. frequency c. timbre d. loudness answer="1"> Defined as the time taken for the intensity of sound energy in the room to drop to one millionth of its initial value. a. Reverberation time b. Transmit time c. Decaying time d. Response time answer="4"> ___________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles of the propagation direction, per unit time. a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound stress d. Sound intensity answer="4"> One octave above 600 Hz is a. 601 Hz b. 800 Hz c. 1400 Hz d. 1200 Hz answer="1"> A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt? a. 0.63 b. 1.26 c. 0.315 d. 0.56 x 10^ -6 answer="4"> The unit of loudness level a. Sone b. dB c. Mel d. Phon answer="4"> Consists of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes. a. Rarefaction b. Refraction c. Reflection d. Flutter echo answer="2"> Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of buildings. a. Charles H. Townes b. W.C. Sabine c. A. Javin d. Stephen and Bate

answer="2"> The average absorption for a person is a. 5.7 units b. 4.7 units c. 6.7 units d. 3.7 units answer="2"> An aural sensation by pressure variations in the air which are always produced by some source of vibrations. a. Music b. Sound c. Disturbance d. Speech answer="4"> Considered to be as the threshold of hearing. a. 10^-12 W/square cm b. 10^-16 W/square m c. 10^-13 W/square m d. 10^-12 W/square m answer="1"> The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per second. a. Frequency b. Timber c. Quality d. Pitch answer="3"> Defined as the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-sectional area of 1 square m at right angles to the direction. a. Sound pressure b. Loudness c. Sound intensity d. Pressure variation answer="2"> What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having an RMS pressure of 200 N/square m? a. 150 dB b. 140 dB c. 170 dB d. 160 dB answer="4"> The minimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed a. threshold of feeling b. threshold of pain c. threshold of sensation d. threshold of hearing answer="2"> What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/square m? a. 96.8 W/square m b. 97.8 W/square m c. 95.8 W/square m d. 94.8 W/square m answer="4"> The unit of pitch. a. Sone b. Phon c. dB d. Mel answer="2"> What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled? a. 2 dB b. 3 dB

c. S-parameter Diagram d. Applegate Diagram answer="1"> It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the principal source of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices. a. Edison Effect b. Miller Effect c. Bunching d. Secondary Effect answer="4"> It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoidal components are displayed as a function of time a. Wave Representation b. TDR c. Frequency Domain d. Time Domain answer="1"> An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which undergoes some power absorption at resonance. a. Frequency Meter b. Cavity resonator c. Ferrite isolator d. Auto Coupler answer="1"> What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in the path of energy flow? a. Insertion loss b. Gain c. Wave attenuation d. Phase shift answer="2"> It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitude is displayed as a function of frequency. a. Wave Shape b. Frequency Domain c. OTDR d. Time Domain answer="3"> The big breakthrough in electronic communications came with the invention of the _____ in 1844. a. Transistor b. Phonograph c. Telegraph d.Telephone answer="1"> In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent record of sound with his invention of the phonograph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer="2"> He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer="1"> Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of the phonograph? a. Telephone b. Phonograph c. Either d. Neither

answer="1"> What is the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator? a. To provide a conversion frequency b. To produce the IF c. To provide good selectivity d. To increase stability answer="4"> What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission? a. HPF b. LPF c. Duplexer d. Diplexer answer="4"> What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conference b. Anti Firing Countermeasure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Control answer="2"> Amplitude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Analog Multiplication c. Signal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer="1"> In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n) a. Tuned Circuit b. Transformer c. Capacitor d. Inductor answer="1"> Amplitude modulation can be produced by a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer="3"> Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of a. Rectification b. Resonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer="1"> The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor b. Thermistor c. Cavity Resonator d. PIN diode answer="2"> Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known as a. High level modulation b. Low Level Modulation c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answer="2"> The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a a. Modulator

What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube? a. beam focusing b. beam deflection c. beam production d. beam modulation answer="4"> Video modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b. frequency modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband answer="2"> Audio modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b. frequency modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband answer="1"> What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmission? a. 25 kHz b. 30 kHz c. 50 kHz d. 75 kHz answer="1"> The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by _____ MHz. a. 4.5 b. 5.5 c. 6.5 d. 7.5 answer="1"> In practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will include components clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz. a. 15.75 b. 30 c. 12.25 d. 45.5 answer="4"> Brightness of an image is known as a. radiance b. chrominance c. reflectance d. luminance answer="1"> The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as a. primary b. white c. desaturated d. all of the above answer="4"> A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television pickup? a. red b. green c. blue d. all of these answer="1"> What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transmitter? a. Y, I and Q b. P, D and Q c. M, N and O d. R, S and T

answer="3"> Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source. a. bandwidth b. chromatic dispersion c. spectral width d. beamwidth answer="4"> Which theory states that light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny particles? a. Huygen's theory b. Wave theory of light c. Nyquist theory d. Quantum theory answer="4"> Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near a. 20 MHz b. 200 MHz c. 2 GHz d. 800 THz answer="3"> When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity will not change? a. direction b. speed c. frequency d. wavelength answer="1"> Dispersion is used to describe the a. splitting of white light into its component colors b. propagation of light in straight lines c. bending of a beam when it goes from one medium to another d. bending of beam light when it strikes a mirror answer="4"> Luminance efficiency is minimum for a a. fluorescent tube b. high wattage light bulb c. mercury vapor lamp d. low wattage light bulb answer="1"> An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____ image. a. inverted b. the same in size c. virtual d. smaller size answer="4"> An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____ image. a. inverted b. the same in size c. smaller d. virtual answer="4"> The real image formed by a spherical mirror is _____ relative to its object. a. erect b. inverted c. smaller d. larger answer="3"> The wavelength of light has no role in a. diffraction b. interference c. polarization

b. microstrip c. laser beam d. fiber optics answer="2"> Is a non-coherent light source for optical communications system. a. ILD b. LED c. APD d. PIN diode answer="1"> Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation? a. semiconductor b. ruby c. helium-neon d. neodymium-YAG answer="1"> Which laser emits light in visible range, 400 to 700 nm? a. argon-ion b. nitrogen c. carbon-dioxide d. neodymium-YAG answer="2"> Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser? a. energy x time b. pulse energy x repetition rate c. pulse energy / repetition rate d. peak power x pulse length answer="3"> What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10^12 Hz? a. 10.6 x 10^34 joules b. 6.63 x 10^-34 joules c. 6.63 x 10^-22 joules d. 10.6 x 10^22 joules answer="4"> A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 20 cm away from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens? a. 5 cm b. 10 cm c. 15 cm d. 20 cm answer="1"> Which of the following does not harm laser efficiency? a. atmospheric absorption b. excitation energy not absorbed c. problems in populating the lower laser level d. inefficiency in populating the upper laser level answer="1"> Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission bandwidth? a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules b. amplification within the laser medium c. coherence of the laser light d. optical pumping of the laser transition answer="1"> The first laser emitted a. pulses of 694-nm red light b. a continuous red beam c. pulses of white light from a helical flashlamp d. spontaneous emission

a. at the cathode end of the helix b. at the collector c. at the collector end of the helix d. at the control grid of the electron gun answer="4"> Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be accompanied by a a. waveguide match b. cavity match c. direct-helix match d. all of the above answer="2"> A high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts can be generated by a a. traveling-wave tube b. magnetron c. reflex klystron d. Gunn diode answer="1"> A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of a. the absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream b. the effect of an external magnetic field c. the energy contained in the cavity resonators d. the energy liberated from the collector answer="3"> What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a traveling-wave tube? a. to accelerate the electron b. to velocity modulate the electron beam c. to keep the electrons from spreading out d. to slow down the signal on the helix answer="4"> Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band? a. Thyratron tube b. Tunnel diode c. Klystron tube d. Both B and C answer="3"> Microwave frequencies are normally regarded as those in the range of a. 1 to 500 MHz b. 1,000 to 10,000 GHz c. 1 to 100 GHz d. 10 to 1,000 GHz answer="4"> The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not limited by the a. electron transit time b. distributed lead inductance c. inter-electrode capacitance d. degree of emission from the cathode answer="2"> As the electron beam moves through a klystron's interactivity drift space a. frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity b. velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output cavity c. density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity d. phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output

b. 750 mA c. 767 mA d. 840 mA answer="2"> A second modulating tone having the same amplitude but a different frequency is added to the first at the input to the modulator. The modulation index will be increased by a factor of a. square root of 3 b. square root of 2 c. 2 d. 3 answer="3"> A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500 Hz tone. One frequency component of the modulated signal is a. 1200 Hz b. 5000 Hz c. 1002.5 kHz d. 2500 Hz answer="2"> A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which one is a frequency component of the modulated wave? a. 1195 kHz b. 1199.3 kHz c. 1199.7 kHz d. 1205 kHz answer="4"> Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a common-emitter configuration. a. Base modulation b. Emitter modulation c. Collector modulation d. Both A and C answer="2"> The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10 MHz and the modulating frequency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or frequencies, will not appear in the output? a. 9.999 MHz b. 10 MHz c. 10.0001 MHz d. both A and B answer="4"> Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by one or more of the following methods. a. Phasing method b. Filter method c. Decoder method d. Both A and B answer="4"> Envelope detection is concerned with the process of a. mixing b. heterodyning c. modulation d. rectification answer="1"> Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in a. distortion b. phase reversal c. reduced sensitivity d. amplitude damage answer="2"> Product detection requires the process of a. rectification b. heterodyning c. decoding

c. No noise of any kind d. The noise figure is inversely proportional to the modulation index. answer="1"> The output of a balanced modulator a. LSB and USB b. LSB c. USB d. Carrier answer="4"> If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power is a. unchanged b. halved c. doubled d. increased by 50% answer="3"> Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation? a. Audio signal b. Video signal c. RF carrier d. Binary coded pulses answer="3"> If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in and AM signal, the percent modulation is ___________. a. 20 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 answer="1"> Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the equipment suppresses the _________. a. carrier b. upper sideband c. lower sideband d. baseband signal answer="4"> The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power saving is _________. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 83 % d. 66.66 % answer="2"> If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled, the AM system being used is a. H3E b. J3E c. C3F d. A3E answer="2"> 100 % modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by _________. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 75 % d. 25 % answer="2"> A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _________. a. 2 components b. 3 components c. 4 components d. 2n + 1 components

c. A3E d. B8E answer="2"> __________ is a kind of modulation in which the modulated wave is always present. a. Carrier modulation b. Continuous modulation c. Log-periodic modulation d. Square-wave modulation answer="1"> A type of modulation in which no signal is present between pulses. a. Pulse modulation b. FSK c. QAM d. PAM answer="4"> What describes the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform? a. Percent modulation b. Modulation constant c. Envelope of modulation d. Coefficient of modulation answer="3"> _______ __ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when the positive and negative alternations in the AM modulated signals are not equal. a. Envelope distortion b. Spurious emission c. Carrier shift d. Johnson noise answer="4"> What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct FM frequency modulation? a. Multipliers can be used b. The deviation is smaller c. Simplicity and practicality d. The oscillator is crystal-controlled answer="4"> If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, this is known as a. frequency multiplication b. sideband movement c. baseband reorientation d. frequency translation answer="2"> A device which is capable of causing frequency translation a. High-Q tank circuit b. Balanced modulator c. Low-Q tank circuit d. 1F strip answer="4"> If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount, this is known as a. modulation b. frequency translation c. up conversion d. both B and C answer="3"> A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler. If the input signal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the output will be tuned to a. 7.7 MHz b. 15.4 MHz c. 30.8 MHz d. 61.6 MHz

b. under-modulation c. zero-modulation d. over-modulation answer="2"> What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a modulation factor of 12.5 and a modulating frequency of 10 kHz? a. 20 kHz b. 270 kHz c. 250 kHz d. 45 kHz answer="1"> Amplitude modulation is the same as a. linear mixing b. analog multiplication c. signal summation d. multiplexing answer="1"> The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an _________ in a diode modulator. a. the tuned circuit b. transformer c. capacitor d. inductor answer="1"> One of the following can produce AM. a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer="3"> Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator network is the principle of a. rectification b. amplification c. variable resistance d. absorption answer="4"> Which component is used to produce AM at very high frequencies? a. Varactor diode b. Thermistor c. Cavity resonator d. PIN diode answer="3"> A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for 100 percent modulation? a. 24 V b. 48 V c. 96 V d. 120 V answer="2"> What circuit recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal? a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal set answer="1"> What is most commonly used amplitude demodulator? a. Envelope detector b. Balanced modulator c. Mixer d. Crystal set answer="4">

What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands and suppresses the carrier? a. Amplitude moderator b. Diode detector c. Class C amplifier d. Balanced modulator answer="3"> _________ is a widely used balanced modulator. a. Diode bridge circuit b. Full-wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer="2"> In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. variable resistors b. switches c. rectifiers d. variable capacitors answer="4"> The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. DSB answer="1"> The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a a. Differential amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge d. Constant current source answer="3"> The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses a. LC networks b. Mechanical resonators c. Crystals d. RC networks and op amps answer="1"> In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due to a. phase shifting b. sharp selectivity c. carrier suppression d. phase inversion answer="2"> A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is called a/an a. transponder b. product detector c. converter d. remodulator answer="4"> Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a a. summer b. multiplier c. divider d. mixer answer="3"> Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as a. Rectification b. AM c. linear summing d. filtering answer="4">

b. BFO c. Ratio detector d. All of these answer="1"> Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude modulator? a. Diode detector b. PLL circuit c. VCO d. All of these answer="3"> Which of the following is the most widely used balanced modulator? a. Full-wave bridge circuit b. Balanced bridge modulator c. Lattice modulator d. None of these answer="2"> The component most apt to break down in the radio circuit is the a. Crystal b. resistor c. transformer d. diode answer="2"> What is a non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of short duration with high amplitudes? a. Wander b. Jitter c. Hits d. Singing answer="3"> What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level? a. Nyquist theorem b. Hartley law c. Shannon-Hartley theorem d. Shannon theorem answer="1"> Quantizing noise occurs in a. PCM b. PLM c. PDM d. PAM answer="2"> Noise always affect the signal in a communications systems at the ______________. a. transmitter b. channel c. information source d. destination answer="4"> ________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both internal and external to the system. a. Interference b. Attenuation c. Distortion d. Noise answer="4"> Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle over a specified total frequency band. a. Gaussian noise b. White noise c. Thermal noise d. All of the above

answer="1"> Which noise figure represents the lowest noise? a. 1.6 dB b. 2.1 dB c. 2.7 dB d. 3.4 dB answer="4"> The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a a. MOSFET b. Dual-gate MOSFET c. JFET d. MESFET answer="3"> What is the noise voltage across a 300 ohms input resistance to a TV set with a 6MHz bandwidth and the temperature of 30 degrees C? a. 2.3 uV b. 3.8 uV c. 5.5 uV d. 6.4 uV answer="4"> Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high frequencies? a. Shot noise b. Random noise c. Impulse noise d. Transit-time noise answer="1"> The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbance approximately every a. 11 years b. 10 years c. 9 years d. 8 years answer="4"> The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to a. its resistance b. its temperature c. the bandwidth over which it is measured d. all of the above answer="1"> Noise occurring in the presence of signal resulting from a mismatch between the exact value of an analog signal and the closest available quantizing step in a digital coder. a. Quantizing noise b. Thermal noise c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer="3"> Noise consisting of irregular pulses of short duration and relatively high amplitude. a. Quantizing noise b. Tone interference c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer="1"> Noise that occurs via capacitive or inductive coupling in a cable a. Crosstalk b. Quantizing noise c. Reference noise d. Tone interference

answer="2"> What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave? a. 180 degrees

Geostationary stationary satellites are located _____ with respect to the equator. a. 0 deg longitude b. 0 deg latitude c. 90 deg latitude d. 45 deg latitude answer="4"> Known as The Philippine Public Telecommunications Policy Act. a. D.O. No. 88 b. D.O. No. 211 c. R.A. 5734 d. R.A. 7925 answer="1"> Effectivity of the Philippine Telecommunications Policy Act. a. March 22, 1995 b. April 21, 1995 c. May 21, 1995 d. June 21, 1995 answer="2"> An act to promote and govern development of the Philippine Telecommunications and the delivery of public telecommunications services. a. R.A 467 b. R.A 7925 c. R.A.546 d. R.A. 5734 answer="1"> E.O. no. 59, prescribing the guidelines of compulsory interconnection of authorized public telecommunications carrier took effect on a. Feb 24, 1993 b. April 23, 1993 c. March 24, 1993 d. May 24, 1993 answer="2"> Effectivity of Executive Order 59. a. Feb 14, 1993 b. Feb 24, 1993 c. June 21, 1993 d. June 24, 1993 answer="4"> The Electronics and Communications Engineering Act of the Philippines. a. E.O. 59 b. R.A. 7453 c. R.A. 5743 d. R.A. 5734 answer="4"> When was the effectivity of the ECE Act of the Philippines? a. June 21, 1964 b. June 21, 1965 c. June 21, 1966 d. June 21, 1969 answer="3"> Decree created the Professional Regulations Commission (PRC). a. P.D. 322 b. P.D. 232 c. P.D. 223 d. P.D. 323 answer="2"> Effectivity of the Presidential Decree creating PRC a. July 21, 1973 b. June 22, 1973 c. June 28, 1973 d. June 12, 1973

When was the effectivity of the national policy on the operation and use of international satellite communications in the Philippines? a. February 17, 1998 b. March 17, 1998 c. April 17, 1998 d. June 17, 1998 answer="4"> Policy to improve the provision of local exchange carrier service. a. E.O. 59 b. E.O. 69 c. E.O. 88 d. E.O. 109 answer="2"> Effectivity of the Executive Order 109 a. June 15, 1993 b. July 15, 1993 c. August 15, 1993 d. September 15, 1993 answer="1"> The implementing rules and regulations governing the practice of ECE in the Philippines on MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging and Background Music System, Telephone and Computer installations are embodied in a. BECE Resolution No. 3 b. BECE Resolution No. 2 c. BECE Resolution No. 4 d. BECE Resolution No. 5 answer="2"> Under R.A. 5734, the minimum age of a registered ECE to become a member of the ECE Board is _____ years old. a. 21 b. 31 c. 35 d. 40 answer="3"> Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after _____ days. a. 10 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60 answer="3"> According to Act 3846, the maximum penalty for a person who commits two offenses are a. P 2,000 fine and 2 years imprisonment b. P 1,000 fine and 1 years imprisonment c. P 4,000 fine and 4 years imprisonment d. P 3,000 fine and 3 years imprisonment answer="4"> Ground for refusal of the Board to issue a Board Certificate. a. conviction of crime involving moral turpitude b. immorality and dishonorable conduct c. unsound mind d. all of these answer="4"> What is the keystone of professional conduct? a. honesty b. courtesy c. justice d. integrity answer="2"> The foundation of moral philosophy. a. integrity, honesty, and justice b. justice, honesty, and courtesy

b. direct measure c. direct contact d. direct access answer="2"> Satellite newsgathering refers to the use of satellite service to provide temporary communications services for news media organizations covering news events such as summit, conferences or disasters. This requires the use of transportable earth stations such as a. GMPSC b. Fixed Satellite Service and Mobile Satellite Service c. Mobile Satellite Service Only d. Fixed Satellite Service Only answer="3"> Foreign news media organizations wanting to bring SNG earth stations to the Philippines shall secure a special NTC permit. What does SNG mean? a. Satellite Newscasters Group b. Satellite News Group c. Satellite Newsgathering d. Satellite Network Group answer="4"> CDMA means a. Code Division Mobile Access b. Cellular Division Mobile Access c. Cellular Device Mobile Access d. Code Division Multiple Access answer="2"> CMTS means a. Cellular Motion Telecommunications System b. Cellular Mobile Telephone System c. Cellular Mobile Telecommunications System d. Cellular Mobile Telephone and Telegraph System answer="4"> CPE means a. Continuous Professional Education b. Continuous Program of Education c. Continuing Program of Education d. Continuing Professional Education answer="3"> CPCN means a. Certificate of Private Comfort and Necessity b. Certificate of Public Communications Network c. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity d. Certified Public Communications Network answer="2"> IXC means a. International Exchange Carriers b. Inter-Exchange Carrier c. International Exchange Center d. none of these answer="3"> The first symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer="2"> The second symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer="1"> The third symbol of emission is

signaling resistance is 1800 ohms using a tel. cable pair of gauge # 26 with a loop resistance of 83.5 ohms per 1000 ft. Assume the telephone set resistance is equal to 200 ohms. a. 15,161.7 feet b. 19,161 feet c. 15,300 feet d. 20,000 feet answer="4"> If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6 dB, what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the same gauge #26 telephone wire? Assume a 2.7 dB loss per mile. a. 20,000 ft b. 13,900 ft c. 15,280 ft d. 11,733 ft answer="1"> The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is a. 2.0 W b. 2.5 W c. 1.5 W d. 1.8 W answer="4"> Known as one-tenth of a neper. a. dB b. dBm c. dBp d. dNp answer="2"> The input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its resonant frequency is a. 0 ohms b. infinite or an open circuit c. ohms d. 70 ohms answer="3"> The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line is called a. SWR b. ISWR c. VSWR d. Coefficient of reflection answer="3"> An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the length of the dipole a. 20 m b. 7.5 m c. 15 m d. 25 m answer="2"> An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the length of the quarterwave stub. a. 15 m b. 7.5 m c. 20 m d. 25 m answer="4"> To find the char. Impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with (a) the far end open circuited & (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding readings being a) Ro=3ohms & Xc=55ohms, capacitive b) Rs=10ohms & Xl=90ohms, inductive What is the characteristic impedance, Zo, of the line? a. 75.7 - j2.0 ohms b. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms c. 87.5 - j5 ohms

Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a number 12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6 GHz per 100 feet length. a. 0.05 dB b. 0.55 dB c. 0.44 dB d. 0.35 dB answer="1"> Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a number 12 wire (81 mils). Determine the spacing between wires from center to center. a. 6 in b. 4 in c. 5 in d. 3 in answer="4"> A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series inductance of 4 mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance? a. 500 ohms b. 400 ohms c. 300 ohms d. 200 ohms answer="2"> A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to a. 10 dBm b. 10 dB c. 20 dB d. 100 dB answer="2"> A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required. a. Balun b. Parallel-wire line c. Coaxial line d. Quarterwave line answer="1"> What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance of 40 nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft a. 111.8 ohms b. 110.8 ohms c. 112.8 ohms d. 109.8 ohms answer="1"> The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected power is 7 dB down on the incident power, the output power to the load is a. 4 W b. 5 W c. 6 W d. 7 W answer="1"> To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line should be equal to a. 1 b. 10 c. 50 d. 2 answer="3"> A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic impedance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60, calculate the inner diameter. a. 2.09 cm b. 2.09 in c. 2.09 mm d. 2.09 mm

answer="1"> A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE(10) mode. The associated flux lines are established a. transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide b. transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide c. in the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation d. in the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation answer="3"> For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between two instantaneous consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a direction parallel to the walls of the waveguide) is referred to as half of the a. free-space wavelength b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension c. guide wavelength d. group wavelength answer="4"> The guide wavelength, lambda g, in a rectangular waveguide is a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency answer="4"> Using the TE(10) mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangular guide provided a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free space c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space answer="4"> If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dominant mode is employed a. the free space wavelength, lambda, is increased b. the phase velocity, Vphi, increased c. the guide wavelength is increased d. the group velocity, Vg is increased answer="2"> If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the reflection angle, theta, is 20 degrees, what is the value of the guide wavelength, lambda g? a. 6.10 cm b. 5.32 cm c. 4.78 cm d. 5.00 cm answer="3"> The inner dimensions of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cutoff wavelength for the dominant mode is a. 1.75 cm b. 3.5 cm c. 7.0 cm d. 0.4375 cm answer="2"> A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength, lambda g? a. 3.12 cm b. 3.89 cm c. 3.57 cm d. 6.30 cm answer="3"> The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the dominant mode is limited to

impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 15 answer="3"> Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power. a. Standing wave pattern b. Reflection coefficient c. SWR d. Index of refraction answer="4"> Emission designation for a facsimile a. H3E and A4E b. R3E and A4E c. F4E and J3E d. F3C and A3E answer="1"> Commonly used telephone wire. a. AWG #19 b. AWG #18 c. AWG #30 d. AWG #33 answer="3"> What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle? a. Frequency b. Hop c. Wavelength d. Crest answer="2"> The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the _________. a. square of the dielectric constant b. square root of the dielectric constant c. dielectric constant d. square root of refractive index answer="3"> What circuit connects a balanced line to an unbalanced line? a. Stub b. Hybrid c. Balun d. Directional coupler answer="2"> To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _________ is used. a. hybrid circuit b. balun c. directional coupler d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit answer="2"> What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line with an attenuation of 6 dB/km? a. 1.5 km b. 0.5 km c. 63 km d. 2 km answer="1"> What is the wavelength in the waveguide with 4.5 GHz cut-off frequency excited by 6.7 GHz? a. 0.196 m b. 0.336 m c. 0.136 m d. 0.136 cm

c. series resonant circuit d. parallel resonant circuit answer="3"> A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an a. capacitor b. inductor c. series resonant circuit d. parallel resonant circuit answer="4"> A medium least susceptible to noise? a. Shielded pair b. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer="2"> A medium most widely used in LANs? a. Parallel-wire line b. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer="2"> The most commonly used transmission line in television system. a. Parallel-wire line b. Coaxial cable c. Waveguide d. Open-wire with ceramic supports answer="2"> The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is not one of those factors? a. Diameter b. Length of the wire c. Dielectric material d. Separation between conductors answer="4"> DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of a. passing DC while blocking AC b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC c. preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier d. preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band splitter answer="1"> Typical speech power a. 10 to 1000 W b. 100 to 1000 mW c. 10 to 1000 nW d. 100 to 1000 pW answer="2"> The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between a. 250 and 500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 3000 and 5000 Hz answer="1"> The maximum voice energy is located between a. 250 and 500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 3000 and 5000 Hz answer="3"> A device used to measure speech volume. a. speech meter b. volume meter

a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5 W d. 4.0 W answer="1"> For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband? a. 25 percent b. 33.3 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent answer="1"> An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier power is 440W. The power in one sideband is a. 85 W b. 110 W c. 170 W d. 610 W answer="2"> An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The percentage of modulation is a. 35 percent b. 70 percent c. 42 percent d. 89 percent answer="4"> In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the a. Modulating signal b. Carrier c. Envelope d. Sidebands answer="3"> An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n) a. Vestigial Sideband b. FM Signal c. SSB d. Uncarried Signal answer="3"> What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information? a. Carrier plus sidebands b. Carrier only c. One sideband d. Both sidebands answer="1"> The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is a. Less spectrum space is used b. Simpler equipment is used c. Less power is consumed d. A higher modulation percentage answer="3"> In SSB, which sideband is the best to use? a. Upper b. Lower c. Neither d. Depends upon the use answer="2"> Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase in the signal a. Carrier Power b. Bandwidth c. Sideband Power d. Envelope Voltage

What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission? a. HPF b. LPF c. Duplexer d. Diplexer answer="4"> What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conference b. Anti Firing Countermeasure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Control answer="2"> Amplitude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Analog Multiplication c. Signal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer="1"> In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n) a. Tuned Circuit b. Transformer c. Capacitor d. Inductor answer="1"> Amplitude modulation can be produced by a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer="3"> Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of a. Rectification b. Resonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer="1"> The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor b. Thermistor c. Cavity Resonator d. PIN diode answer="2"> Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known as a. High level modulation b. Low Level Modulation c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answer="2"> The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal Set answer="3"> The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the a. Diode mixer b. Balanced modulator c. Envelope Detector d. Crystal Filter answer="4">

a. greater efficiency b. noise immunity c. capture effect d. lower complexity and cost answer="3"> most internal noise comes from a. shot noise b. transit-time noise c. thermal agitation d. skin effect answer="2"> noise can be reduced by a. widening the BW b. narrowing the BW c. increasing the temperature d. increasing transistor current level answer="2"> the heart of all methods of single sideband modulation and demodulation a. modulator b. balanced modulator c. modulation d. demodulation answer="3"> "front end" is also called _____ a. IF stage b. AF stage c. RF stage d. none of these answer="3"> this is the system so far referred to as "SSB" in which the carrier is supressed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter. a. A3E b. R3E c. J3E d. B8E answer="2"> a micron is a. one-millionth of a foot b. one-millionth of a meter c. one-thousandth of a meter d. one-thousandth of an inch answer="4"> the frequency range of infrared rays is approx. a. 30-300 GHz b. 4000-8000 A c. 1000-10000 A d. 0.7-100 m answer="2"> an AM signal has a carrier power of 5w. The percentage of modulation is 80%. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5W d. 4.0W answer="3"> as SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 KW.the average output is in range of a. 150-450 W b. 100-300 W c. 250-333 W d. 3 - 4 kW answer="4">

if the unmodulated carrier current is 4A and the percentage modulation is 70%. The total output current is a. 4.64 A b. 0.5 A c. 2.8 A d. 4.46 A answer="4"> the process of translating a signal, w/ or w/o modulation, to a higher or lower frequency for processing is called_____ a. frequency multiplication b. frequency division c. frequency shift d. frequency conversion answer="4"> if the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the modulation index? a. 50A% b. 75% c. 90% d. 100% answer="3"> which of the following is he most correct? a. Vm should be greater then Vc b. Vc should be greater than Vm c. Vm should be equal to or less than Vc d. Vc should be equal to or less than Vm answer="1"> the output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 KHz sine wave modulating tone is a. 3.8485 MHZ sine wave b. 3.85 MHz sine wave c. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine wave d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine wave answer="2"> the maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 KHz. The actual % modulation is 18 KHz, the % modulation is a. 43% b. 72% c. 96% d. 139% answer="1"> the phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a common frequency is reffered to as the ______ a. capture effect b. biot out c. quieting factor d. denomination syndrome answer="3"> both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation? a. amplitude b. phase c. angle d. duty cycle answer="3"> in SSB, w/c sideband is the best to use? a. upper b. lower c. neither d. depends upon the use answer="1"> Which of the following is NOT another name for modulation index? a. modulation reciprocal b. modulation factor c. degree of modulation

d. modulation coefficient answer="3"> receiving electromagnetic emissions from the stars is called_____ a. astrology b. optical astronomy c. radio astronomy' d. space surveillance answer="3"> a widely used balanced modulator is called _____ a. diode bridge circuit b. full-wave bridge amplifier c. lattice modulator d. balanced bridge modulator answer="4"> a display of signal amplitude vs. frequency is called the ____ a. time domain b. frequency spectrum c. amplitude spectrum d. frequency domain answer="2"> indicate the false staement: BW a. is a portion of electromagnetic spectrum occupied by a system b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propagate the source information through the system c. must be sufficiently large / wide to pass all significant information frequencies d. is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limit answer="3"> indicate the false statement: attenuators a. are passive network used to reduce the power level w/o introducing appreciable distortion b. consist of numerous resistors arranged in various configurations that act as voltage divides while maintaining a constant input and output impedances c. introduces a fixed loss d. usually used over wide frequency range answer="3"> what is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network a. 2122 GHz b. 2122 KHz c. 2122 Hz d. 2122 MHz answer="2"> which of the following waveform responses produce the fastest transition a. chebysher b. elliptic c. bessel filter d. butterworth answer="4"> which of the following waveform responses produce the slowest transition a. bessel filter b. elliptic c. chebysher d. maximally flat filter answer="3"> bandlimiting a signal : a. is independent fo its frequency content b. is independent of its waveform shape c. is independent in its information capacity d. may remove necessary informations in the signal

c. class C d. class AB answer="4"> it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequency unrelated to the tuned frequency. a. parasitic frequency b. parallel oscilaation c. resonant frequency d. parasitic oscillation answer="3"> Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________. a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. d. none of the above. answer="4"> ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives a step-up/stepdown transfomer called______. a. flywheel b. AFC c. Director d. Flyback answer="3"> Aspect ratio is the _________ a. ratio of the output IF signal to the IF input signal. b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the speed of light. c. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture. d. ratio of the luminance of the received signal from the output signal answer="3"> _________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in between the first field. a. progressived b. dual c. interlaced d. Bi-directional answer="3"> the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation is ______ a. high gain b. input and output impedances are equal. c. high selectivity d. high sensitivity answer="1"> frequency conversion si produced by a circuit called a _____. a. mixer b. modulator c. multiplexer d. filter answer="3"> what is the instantaneous voltage produced by an AM signal 10 sec from when it was transmitted if the modulating signal voltage is equal to the RMS value of the carrier voltage signal is 16V? The carrier frequency is 777kHz and the modulating frequency is 60Hz respectively. a. 1 eV8.947 V b. 27.314 V c. 0.182 mV d. 1.43 mV answer="1"> how long does ot take to horizontally scan 40 pixels? a. 5 s b. 0.125 s