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# answer="2"> The frequency of a free vibration. a. Resonant frequency b. Natural frequency c. Center frequency d.

Normal frequency answer="1"> The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings. a. Flanking transmission b. Refraction c. Reflection d. Reverberation answer="3"> A measure of threshold of hearing, expressed in decibels relative to a specified standard of normal hearing. a. Hearing loss b. Sensation level c. Hearing level d. Sound pressure level answer="1"> A certain machine with a slightly out-of balance motor rotating at 1800/min is fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calculate the resonant frequency of mount. a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer="4"> Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120mm thick, 4m by 2m in area with longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is supported at its edges.) a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer="2"> Velocity of sound in air. a. 300 m/s b. 330 m/s c. 1130 m/s d. 344 m/s answer="2"> What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. a. 114.5 Hz b. 214.5 Hz c. 314.5 Hz d. 414.5 Hz answer="4"> The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10^-12W). Find the max. sound pressure level on the ground directly below the flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions a. 59.1 dB b. 69.1 dB c. 79.1 dB d. 89.1 dB answer="2"> Speaker is a device that a. converts sound waves into current and voltage b. converts current variations into sound waves c. converts electrical energy to mechanical energy d. converts electrical energy into electromagnetic energy

answer="3"> Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of carbon granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary? a. Dynamic b. Crystal c. Carbon d. Ribbon-type answer="3"> Bass response is a. maximum high frequency response b. emphasizing the high audio frequencies c. bypassing high audio frequencies d. bypassing low audio frequencies answer="4"> Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing. a. 1 Hz b. 10 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 1000 Hz answer="1"> __________ is early reflection of sound. a. Echo b. Reverberation c. Pure sound d. Intelligible sound answer="1"> Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. a. Dolby b. dBa c. dBx d. dBk answer="4"> What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time? a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound pressure d. Sound intensity answer="4"> __________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound. a. Sone b. Decibel c. Mel d. Phon answer="3"> __________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-section area of 1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction. a. Sound pressure b. Loudness c. Sound intensity d. Pressure variation answer="4"> What is the unit of pitch? a. Sone b. Phon c. Decibel d. Mel answer="2"> A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity. a. Phon b. Decibel

c. Pascal d. Watts answer="3"> Sound wave has two main characteristics which are a. highness and loudness b. tone and loudness c. pitch and loudness d. rarefaction and compression answer="2"> Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates an output signal voltage? a. Carbon b. Dynamic c. Crystal d. Condenser answer="4"> The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How much power in watts is this light bulb consuming a. 10 watts b. 20 watts c. 40 watts d. 50 watts answer="2"> Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5 inches? a. 500 Hz b. 1000 Hz c. 1500 Hz d. 2000 Hz answer="3"> The wire that must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what rms current? a. 2 A b. 4 A c. 5 A d. 6 A answer="2"> A church has an internal volume of 90,05 cubic ft (2,550 cubic m). When it contains 2,000 customary sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its reverberation time in seconds. a. 2.0 b. 2.2 c. 2.5 d. 3.0 answer="1"> If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb/square ft, what is the sound pressure level? a. 7.6 dB b. 108 dB c. 88 dB d. 10 dB answer="2"> Speed that is faster than speed of sound. a. Ultrasonic b. Supersonic c. Subsonic d. Transonic answer="2"> Sound waves travel in water at a ___________ speed. a. 12.4 miles/sec b. 5,000 ft/sec c. 186,000 ft/sec d. 3,141 ft/sec answer="4">

What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 87dB assuming that it radiates sound uniformly? a. 0.15 W b. 0.21 W c. 0.24 W d. 0.18 W answer="2"> Crest-to-crest distance along the direction of wave travel. a. Compression b. Wavelength c. Period d. Sound wave answer="1"> Sound intensity level is ____________. a. 10 log l/lref b. 10 log p/pref c. 20 log l/lref d. 30 log p/pref answer="1"> Sound pressure level is ____________. a. 20 log P/Pref b. 30 log p/ref c. 10 log p/pref d. 20 log l/lref answer="1"> The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones. a. Frequency response b. Field strength c. Power density d. Gain answer="3"> Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument. a. Midrange b. Harmonic c. Fundamental d. Period answer="1"> Tendency of a sound energy to spread. a. Diffraction b. Rarefaction c. Reflection d. Refraction answer="4"> When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called ________. a. reflection b. defraction c. rarefaction d. refraction answer="3"> Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.

a. Echo time b. Delay time c. Reverberation time d. Transient time answer="1"> The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________. a. frequency b. noise c. amplitude d. tone

answer="3"> Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz). a. Subsonic b. Transonic c. Ultrasonic d. Stereo answer="2"> Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to high temperature above 52 degrees C? a. Dynamic b. Crystal c. Ribbon d. Capacitor answer="4"> A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal that permits the voice coil in a dynamic loudspeaker to move back and forth along the core of its magnet. a. Vibrator b. Diaphragm c. Hypex d. Spider answer="3"> One hundred twenty ubars of pressure variation is equal to a. 120 dBSPL b. 57.78 dBSPL c. 115.56 dBSPL d. 41.58 dBSPL answer="1"> The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines. a. 35.3 b. 10.96 c. 379.8 d. 109.6 answer="3"> What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in bass frequencies for close microphone spacing? a. Field effect b. P.A. effect c. Proximity effect d. Reverberation answer="4"> What is the audio frequency range? a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz answer="4"> What is the bass frequency range? a. 20 kHz to 40 MHz b. 1 Hz to 20 kHz c. 40 Hz to 160 kHz d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz answer="2"> High frequency range of audio signals. a. 2,500 Hz to 5,000 Hz b. 5,000 Hz to 10 kHz c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz d. 20,000 Hz to 30 kHz answer="2"> What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office? a. 90 b. 65

c. 55 - 60 d. 80 - 85 answer="3"> What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music? a. 80 - 95 b. 85 - 90 c. 95 - 100 d. 100 - 105 answer="2"> What is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only? a. 90 b. 80 - 85 c. 85 - 90 d. 90 - 95 answer="2"> Intensity can also be called as a. volume b. loudness c. sharpness d. strength answer="4"> The loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of motion imparted to __________ molecules of the medium transmitting the sound. a. transmitting b. running c. moving d. vibrating answer="4"> _________ is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of the sound and its intensity varies inversely with the square of this distance. a. volume b. bass c. treble d. loudness answer="4"> If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, the intensity is reduced to a. 1/2 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 1/4 answer="3"> If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased to 1/2 the original amount, the intensity of the sound would be __________. a. 2 times as great b. 3 times as great c. 4 times as great d. 5 times a great answer="1"> At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz tone is a. 1000 mels b. 500 mels c. 2000 mels d. 100 mels answer="2"> If the sound waves are converted to electrical waves by a microphone, what is the frequency of the electric current? a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 25 to 8000 Hz c. 4 to 40 Hz d. 30 to 2000 Hz answer="3">

For a music lover concert "A" is 440 Hz. If a musical note one octave higher were played, it would be ______________ that frequency. a. one-half b. one-fourth c. double d. triple answer="4"> In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one octave lower it would be ___________. a. 22 Hz b. 27.5 Hz c. 440 Hz d. 110 Hz answer="4"> Much of music generally referred to in a. harmonics b. good hearing c. fidelity d. octaves answer="3"> __________ is an undesired change in wave form as the signal passes through a device. a. Noise b. Vibration c. Distortion d. Harmonics answer="3"> Distortion enhances intelligibility when an _______ is added. a. equalizer b. igniter c. exciter d. emulsifier answer="4"> A class of signal processors. a. Amplifiers b. Equalizers c. Microprocessors d. Exciters answer="3"> Hall construction and internal finishes affect the final sound quality _____________. a. poorly b. mildly c. significantly d. badly answer="2"> Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter its frequency response in two distinct ways namely a. gump and dump b. hump and notch c. fade and gone d. bad and worst answer="1"> The acoustics of most auditoria are very ________ when the room is full compared to the empty condition. a. different b. similar c. good d. bad answer="2"> A __________ converts acoustical energy. a. electro-acoustic

b. microphone transducer c. microphone d. electric microphone answer="3"> All microphone have two basic components namely, _________. a. wired and body b. ceramic and crystal c. diaphragm and generating element d. coil and magnet answer="4"> The kinds of generating elements are _________. a. expense and fidelity b. complexity and ruggedness c. longevity d. all of these answer="3"> When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, __________ formula is used to compute the actual reverberation time. a. Sabine b. Stephen and Bate c. Norris-Eyring d. Notch answer="4"> At room temperature, what is the velocity of sound in meters/seconds? a. 348.03 cm/s b. 980 cm/s c. 980 m/s d. 341.8 m/s answer="3"> Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec. If the temperature is 149 degrees C? a. 1530.03 ft/sec b. 1320 ft/sec c. 1357.03 ft/sec d. 1920.435 ft/sec answer="3"> The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz frequency is a. 16.5 m b. 16.5 cm c. 16.5 mm d. 16.5 um answer="2"> The ratio of frequencies is termed a. octave b. interval c. harmonics d. masking answer="3"> What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is doubled? a. 2 dB b. 3 dB c. 6 dB d. 4 dB answer="4"> A term which is subjective but dependent mainly on frequency and also affected by intensity, a. Timbre b. Quality c. Frequency d. Pitch answer="4">

An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop the nerve voltage generated by a weaker sound. a. Piezoelectric effect b. Skin effect c. Lasing d. Masking answer="2"> For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is applicable? a. Sabine b. Stephen and Bate c. Norris-Eyring d. Notch answer="4"> The ________ of sound is a subjective effect which is a function of the ear and brain. a. pitch b. frequency c. timbre d. loudness answer="1"> Defined as the time taken for the intensity of sound energy in the room to drop to one millionth of its initial value. a. Reverberation time b. Transmit time c. Decaying time d. Response time answer="4"> ___________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles of the propagation direction, per unit time. a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound stress d. Sound intensity answer="4"> One octave above 600 Hz is a. 601 Hz b. 800 Hz c. 1400 Hz d. 1200 Hz answer="1"> A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt? a. 0.63 b. 1.26 c. 0.315 d. 0.56 x 10^ -6 answer="4"> The unit of loudness level a. Sone b. dB c. Mel d. Phon answer="4"> Consists of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes. a. Rarefaction b. Refraction c. Reflection d. Flutter echo answer="2"> Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of buildings. a. Charles H. Townes b. W.C. Sabine c. A. Javin d. Stephen and Bate

answer="2"> The average absorption for a person is a. 5.7 units b. 4.7 units c. 6.7 units d. 3.7 units answer="2"> An aural sensation by pressure variations in the air which are always produced by some source of vibrations. a. Music b. Sound c. Disturbance d. Speech answer="4"> Considered to be as the threshold of hearing. a. 10^-12 W/square cm b. 10^-16 W/square m c. 10^-13 W/square m d. 10^-12 W/square m answer="1"> The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per second. a. Frequency b. Timber c. Quality d. Pitch answer="3"> Defined as the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-sectional area of 1 square m at right angles to the direction. a. Sound pressure b. Loudness c. Sound intensity d. Pressure variation answer="2"> What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having an RMS pressure of 200 N/square m? a. 150 dB b. 140 dB c. 170 dB d. 160 dB answer="4"> The minimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed a. threshold of feeling b. threshold of pain c. threshold of sensation d. threshold of hearing answer="2"> What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/square m? a. 96.8 W/square m b. 97.8 W/square m c. 95.8 W/square m d. 94.8 W/square m answer="4"> The unit of pitch. a. Sone b. Phon c. dB d. Mel answer="2"> What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled? a. 2 dB b. 3 dB

c. 4 dB d. 6 dB answer="1"> The velocity of sound is considered to be constant at ________ for the purpose of building acoustics. a. 330 m/s b. 330 mm/s c. 330 um/s d. 330 cm/s answer="1"> An instrument designed to measure a frequency - weighted value of the sound pressure level. a. Sound level meter b. Transducer c. Sound pressure meter d. Sound analyzer answer="1"> A unit of nosiness related to the perceived noise level a. Noy b. Sone c. dB d. Phone answer="3"> An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound pressure level to the center frequency of the octave bands. a. C-message weighting curve b. Psophometric weighting curve c. Noise rating curves d. F1A weighting curve answer="3"> Communication is the process of a. Keeping in touch b. Broadcasting c. Exchanging information d. Entertainment by electronics answer="4"> A key barrier in communications a. Cost b. PN Junction c. Walls d. Distance answer="3"> Electronics Communication was discovered in what century? a. Sixteenth b. Eighteenth c. Nineteenth d. Twentieth answer="2"> Which of the following is not a major communications medium? a. Free Space b. Water c. Wires d. Fiber Optics Cable answer="4"> Random interference to transmitted signals is called a. Adjacent channel overlap b. Cross talk c. Garbage - in - Garbage - out d. Noise answer="3"> The communications medium causes the signal to be a. Amplified b. Modulated

c. Attenuated d. Interfered with. answer="1"> Which of the following is not a source of noise? a. Another communications signal b.Atmospheric effects c. Manufactured electrical systems d. Thermal agitation in electronic components answer="4"> One - way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer="2"> Simultaneoues two-way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer="3"> The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called a. Modulating Signal b. Carrier c. Baseband Signal d. Source Signal answer="4"> The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be transmitted is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modulation answer="1"> The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneously over the same channel is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modulation answer="2"> Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as being a. Baseband b. Analog c. Digital d. Continuous waves answer="3"> Recovering information from a carrier is known as a. Demultiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Carrier Recovery answer="4"> Transmission of graphical information over the telephone network is accomplished by a. Television b. CATV c. Videotext d. Facsimile answer="1"> Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this data for analysis is the process of a. Telemetry

b. Instrumentation c. Modulation d. Multiplexing answer="3"> Receiving electromagnetic emissions from stars is called a. Astrology b. Optical Astronomy c. Radio Astronomy d. Space Surveillance answer="1"> A personnal communication hobby for individual is a. Ham radio b. Electronic bulletin board c. CB Radio d. Cellular Radio answer="4"> Radar is based upon a. Microwaves b. A water medium c. The directional nature of radio signals d. Reflected Radio signals answer="1"> A frequency of 27 MHz has a wavelength of approximately a. 11m b. 27m c. 30m d. 81m answer="2"> The voice freqency range is a. 30 to 300 Hz b. 300 to 3000 Hz c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz d. 0 Hz to 15 kHz answer="3"> Another name for signal in the HF range is a. Microwaves b. Kamehame Waves c. Shortwaves d. Millimeter waves answer="3"> Television broadcasting ocurs in which ranges? a. HF b. EHF c. VHF d. SHF answer="1"> Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called a. Infrared rays b. Microwaves c. Shortwaves d. X-rays answer="2"> A micron is a. One - millionth of a foot b. One - millionth of a meter c. One - thousandth of a meter d. One ten-thousandth of an inch answer="4"> The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 30 to 300 GHz b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom c. 100 to 10,000 A d. 0.7 to 10 microns

answer="2"> The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 1000 microns b. 7000 Angstrom c. 3500 A d. 4000 A answer="1"> Which of the following is not used for communications? a. X - rays b. Millimeter waves c. Infrared d. Microwaves answer="2"> A signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The bandwidth is a. 0.007 MHz b. 7 MHz c. 237 MHz d. 700 MHz answer="3"> In the United States, the elecromagnetic spectrum is regulated and managed by a. NBA b. ITU c. FCC d. NTC answer="4"> For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available for signals in the range of a. VHF b. UHF c. SHF d. EHF answer="2"> Having an information change some characteristic of a carrier signal is called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Duplexing d. Linear Mixing answer="3"> Which of the following is not true about AM? a. The carrier output varies. b. The carried frequency remains constant. c. The carrier frequency changes. d. The information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude. answer="4"> The opposite of modulation is a. Reverse moduation b. Downward Modulation c. Unmodulation d. Demodulation answer="1"> The circuit used to produce modulation is called a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Variable Gain Amplifier d. Multiplexer answer="3"> A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs? a. Addition b. Square Root c. Multiplication

d. Division answer="3"> The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is referred to as a. The voltage ratio b. Decibels c. The modulation index d. The mix factor answer="4"> If m is greater than 1, what happens? a. Normal Operation b. Carrier drops to zero. c. Carrier frequency shifts d. Information signal is distorted answer="2"> For ideal AM, which of the following is true? a. m = 0 b. m = 1 c. m < 1 d. m < 1 answer="3"> The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal and is called the a. Trace b. Waveshape c. Envelope d. Carrier variation answer="1"> Overmodulation occurs when a. Vm > Vc b. Vm < Vc c. Vm = Vc d. m = Vc = 0 answer="4"> The new signals produced by modulation are called a. Spurious emissions b. Harmonics c. Intermodulation products d. Sidebands answer="4"> A display of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the a. Time Domain b. Frequency spectrum c. Amplitude spectrum d. Frequency domain answer="1"> Most of the power in an AM signal is in the a. Carrier b. Upper sideband c. Lower sideband d. Modulation signal answer="3"> The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer="2"> A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are, respectively, a. 873 and 887 kHz b. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz

c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz d. 887 and 873 kHz answer="3"> The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer="2"> An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation is 80 percent. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5 W d. 4.0 W answer="1"> For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband? a. 25 percent b. 33.3 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent answer="1"> An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier power is 440W. The power in one sideband is a. 85 W b. 110 W c. 170 W d. 610 W answer="2"> An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The percentage of modulation is a. 35 percent b. 70 percent c. 42 percent d. 89 percent answer="4"> In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the a. Modulating signal b. Carrier c. Envelope d. Sidebands answer="3"> An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n) a. Vestigial Sideband b. FM Signal c. SSB d. Uncarried Signal answer="3"> What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information? a. Carrier plus sidebands b. Carrier only c. One sideband d. Both sidebands answer="1"> The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is a. Less spectrum space is used b. Simpler equipment is used c. Less power is consumed d. A higher modulation percentage answer="3"> In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?

a. Upper b. Lower c. Neither d. Depends upon the use answer="2"> Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase in the signal a. Carrier Power b. Bandwidth c. Sideband Power d. Envelope Voltage answer="1"> It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by electronic means. a. Communications b. Telemetry c. Broadcasting d. Telephony answer="1"> What services uses HF CW communications? a. Police b. Telephony c. Broadcasting d. Sattelite system answer="2"> The signal which is superimposed on a high frequency sinewave is called a. Carrier b. Information c. Sideband d. Squarewave answer="3"> What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO) a. Aids in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals b. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the intermediate frequency c. Generates a 1kHz tone to Morse reception d. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the intermediate frequency by 1kHz answer="1"> A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictable variations in amplitude frequency. a. Speech b. Digital c. Pulses d. Bits answer="3"> He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex repetitive waveform. a. Carson b. P.H. Smith c. J. Fourier d. Y. Uda answer="2"> The process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carrier is called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Scrambling answer="4"> A diagram which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and maximum bunching of the electron beam in velocity-modulated devices. a. Smith chart b. Venn Diagram

c. S-parameter Diagram d. Applegate Diagram answer="1"> It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the principal source of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices. a. Edison Effect b. Miller Effect c. Bunching d. Secondary Effect answer="4"> It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoidal components are displayed as a function of time a. Wave Representation b. TDR c. Frequency Domain d. Time Domain answer="1"> An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which undergoes some power absorption at resonance. a. Frequency Meter b. Cavity resonator c. Ferrite isolator d. Auto Coupler answer="1"> What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in the path of energy flow? a. Insertion loss b. Gain c. Wave attenuation d. Phase shift answer="2"> It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitude is displayed as a function of frequency. a. Wave Shape b. Frequency Domain c. OTDR d. Time Domain answer="3"> The big breakthrough in electronic communications came with the invention of the _____ in 1844. a. Transistor b. Phonograph c. Telegraph d.Telephone answer="1"> In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent record of sound with his invention of the phonograph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer="2"> He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer="1"> Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of the phonograph? a. Telephone b. Phonograph c. Either d. Neither

answer="4"> What is a device such as the microphone and headset sometimes called? a. Receiver b. Transmission medium c. Converter d. Reproducer answer="3"> What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another? a. Phase b. Energy c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer="1"> The entire range of _____ of electromagnetic radiation is called the frequency spectrum. a. Frequencies b. Phases c. Energies d. Amplitude answer="4"> When did the first transatlantic radio communications took place? a. 1876 b. 1942 c. 1888 d. 1901 answer="2"> What determines the station that will be selected by a tuner? a. The selectivity of the IF. b. The resonant frequency of the tuner. c. The sensitivity of the tuner. d. The bandwidth of the amplifier. answer="1"> Name a periodic waveform that consists of only odd harmonics. a. Square wave b. Sine wave c. Cosine wave d. Spikes answer="3"> Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony. a. Magnifier b. Class B c. Class C d. Class A answer="3"> The audio is reconstructed from the radiowave by: a. The action of the headset b. Having the audio removed from the carrier. c. The action of a filter capacitor connected across the headset d. none of the above answer="4"> Which of the following do not require a tuner? a. TV receiver b. CB receiver c. Communications Sattelite Receiver d. none of these answer="4"> What is the main difference between an AF amplifier and an RF amplifier? a. The amplification factor b. The stability c. The selectivity d. The range of frequencies that they amplify

answer="1"> What is the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator? a. To provide a conversion frequency b. To produce the IF c. To provide good selectivity d. To increase stability answer="4"> What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission? a. HPF b. LPF c. Duplexer d. Diplexer answer="4"> What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conference b. Anti Firing Countermeasure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Control answer="2"> Amplitude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Analog Multiplication c. Signal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer="1"> In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n) a. Tuned Circuit b. Transformer c. Capacitor d. Inductor answer="1"> Amplitude modulation can be produced by a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer="3"> Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of a. Rectification b. Resonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer="1"> The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor b. Thermistor c. Cavity Resonator d. PIN diode answer="2"> Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known as a. High level modulation b. Low Level Modulation c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answer="2"> The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a a. Modulator

b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal Set answer="3"> The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the a. Diode mixer b. Balanced modulator c. Envelope Detector d. Crystal Filter answer="4"> A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called a(n) a. Amplitude Modulator b. Diode Detector c. Class C Amplifier d. Balanced Modulator answer="3"> A widely used balanced modulator is called the a. Diode Bridge Circuit b. Full Wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice Modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer="2"> In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. Variable resistors b. Switches c. Rectifiers d. Variable Capaitors answer="4"> The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. DSB answer="1"> The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a a. Differential Amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge d. Constant Current Source answer="3"> The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses a. LC Networks b. Mechanical Resonators c. Crystals d. RC Networks and op amps answer="4"> The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a a. Series Resonant circuit b. Parallel Resonant Circuit c. Neithar a and b d. Both a and b answer="1"> Where is ISB primarily used? a. Telephone and telegraph communications b. Telemetry c. FM broadcast d. Radar answer="2"> What is a major problem with very high frequency oscillator? a. low sensitivity

b. poor frequency stability c. poor image rejection d. no power stability answer="2"> What does ALC means? a. All local Circuits b. Automatic level control c. Asynchronous Link Control d. Automatic Link Circuit answer="1"> What is an ideal pulse? a. a perfect square wave with zero rise time b. a very short duration c. a high amplitude d. a low duty cycle answer="1"> What happens to the spectrum of repetitive pulse as the pulse width decreases? a. more harmonics of the same phase b. less harmonics of the same phase c. remain constant d. decreases answer="4"> A major advantage of the vacuum tube is its need for a _______ to give energy to the electrons. a. Voltage source b. line equalizer c. limiter d. heater answer="3"> Keyed AGC is AGC that: a. Works only on Morse code b. Is activated when keyed by the transmitting signal c. Is used is TV receivers so that transmitted picture brightness does not affect the AGC d. Is used in color TV receivers so that the transmitted color has no effect on the AGC answer="1"> What is the main disadvantage of a single-tube transmitter a. Frequency instability b. Low gain c. High resistivity d. High attenuation answer="2"> What is the name of the operation that uses an antenna changeover switch? a. Duplex b. Simplex c. Crossover d. Switching answer="1"> Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum? a. 8.2345 MHz b. 150.50 MHz c. 2.4555 MHz d. 35.535 MHz answer="3"> What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions? a. Amplitude b. Phase c. Bandwidth d. Energy

answer="2"> What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the transmission frequency? a. Frequency sensitivity b. Frequency stability c. High sensitivity d. Good selectivity answer="4"> What type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission? a. Capacitive b. Direct c. Transformer d. Inductive answer="1"> What class of bias should produce least harmonics? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D answer="3"> What type of field does a Faraday shield stop? a. Common b. Array c. Electrostatic d. Magnetostatic answer="1"> What type of circuit reduces even-order harmonics? a. Push-pull b. Class A c. Armstrong circuit d. Demodulator answer="4"> How many watts are represented by 40dBw? a. 40,000w b. 1,000w c. 40w d. 10,000w answer="1"> Term for transmission of printed picture by radio. a. Facsimile b. ACSSB c. Xerography d. Television answer="2"> What is another name for an AF volume control? a. FC b. Gain c. ARC d. AMC answer="4"> What device can be used to make a modulated envelope visible? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Synthesizer c. Calibrator d. Oscilloscope answer="2"> Which of the following is not an advantage of SSB over AM? a. Power saving b. Simple receiver circuit c. Less spectrum d. None of these answer="2">

What is the result if a balanced modulator is not perfectly balanced? a. SB filtered b. Carrier transmitted c. Lower sideband transmitted d. Both sideband transmitted answer="4"> If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation? a. 0 b. 45 c. 180 d. 90 answer="4"> What method can be used to invert speech? a. Frequency multiplier b. Inverter c. AGC d. Frequency translation answer="2"> In SSB, voice compression is better in the AF or RF section? a. AF b. RF c. Intermediate d. SB answer="1"> What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF? a. Demodulator b. Modem c. Synthesizer d. Modulator answer="1"> What kind of crystal is used in oscillator? a. Quartz b. Galena c. Carborundum d. Salt answer="2"> Power is always _____ a. A definite amount of energy b. All of these c. The rate at which energy is used d. Expressed in watts answer="3"> Which of the following services would use crystal local oscillators? a. AM b. FM c. Aircraft d. Shortwave listeners answer="2"> What does VOX mean? a. Very Onward circuit b. Voice-operated transmission c. Voice Onward transmission d. Very Oxford Transmitter answer="2"> What is an NO RY? a. Non operational Relay b. Normally Open Relay c. Normally Ready d. Non Organic Relay answer="2"> The Extremely hihg frequency(EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of ______. a. 30 to 300 kHZ

b. 30 to 300 GHZ c. 3 to 30 MHz d. 3 to 30 GHz answer="4"> What kind of system relays has remote readings? a. Broadcasting b. Data gathering c. Telecast d. Telemetering answer="3"> What causes audio signals to be distorted in the receiver? a. Interference b. Gain c. Harmonics d. Amplitude answer="4"> Which of the following is not normally tested in a transmitter? a. Power b. Modulation c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer="4"> Which of the following items need not to be checked with receivers? a. Sensitivity b. Squelch c. Distortion d. Gain answer="2"> What is the source of wheel static? a. Wheel b. Brakes c. Piston d. Oscillations answer="2"> _______ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundamental frequency. a. Distortion b. Harmonic c. Modulation d. Radio answer="4"> Amplitude distortion results from _______ amplification. a. Indirect b. Linear c. Direct d. Nonlinear answer="3"> A _____ is a resonant circuit tuned to reject an undesired signal by reducing the gain at the trap frequency a. LC tank b. LPF c. Wave trap d. HPF answer="1"> A subcarrier has a(n) _____ frequency than the main carrier. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. Good answer="1"> Amplitude limiting in the IF section eliminates ___ interference from the FM signal. a. AM

b. FM c. PM d. Broadband answer="2"> With which emission type is capture-effect most pronounced? a. CW b. FM c. SSB d. AM answer="4"> The parameter of a high frequency carrier that may be varied by a low frequency intelligence signal is a. Amplitude b. Frequency c. Phase d. All of the above answer="1"> A carrier signal has ____. a. Constant peak amplitude b. The information c. Frequency range 20-20000Hz d. A varying amplitude answer="3"> The type of emission for FM stereo(multiplex) broadcasting is a. F3E b. A3E c. F8E d. A8E answer="2"> The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is ______. a. Direct b. Indirect c. Insertion d. All of these answer="1"> In TV broadcasting in the Philippines, the aspect ratio of the picture frame is ____. a. 4:3 b. 2:1 c. 4:1 d. 3:1 answer="3"> Horizontal blanking time in TV. a. 10.16 us b. 16.67 us c. 63.5 us d. 1 us answer="3"> The standard coaxial impedance for CATV applications is_______. a. 36 ohms b. 72 ohms c. 75 ohms d. 300 ohms answer="1"> The service area in which the ground wave field of 1mV/m is not subject to objectionable interference. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Intermittent d. Tertiary answer="1"> Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?

a. MF b. VHF c. HF d. UHF answer="3"> Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? a. HF b. UHF c. MF d. VHF answer="4"> The width of television broadcast channel a. 200MHz b. 10kHz c. 100kHz d. 6MHz answer="2"> CATV trunk and feeder system amplifier input voltage of _____. a. 110 V b. 220 V c. 500 V d. 1000 V answer="2"> Which antenna does not use the ground? a. Marconi b. Yagi c. Hertz d. Rhombic answer="1"> What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? a. It is increased b. It is decreased c. No change occurs d. It becomes fast answer="1"> What is the polarization of a discone antenna? a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Circular d. Spiral answer="2"> If the antenna increases 3.3 times, how much does the radiated power increase? a. 3.3 times b. 10.89 times c. 9.9 times d. 6.6 times answer="3"> When speaking of antennas, ___________ is a section which would be a complete antenna by itself. a. image b. top loading c. bay d. quarterwave answer="1"> In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas used? a. VHF, UHF b. VLF, LF c. SH, EHF

d. MF, HF answer="2"> If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to 3 degrees, the antenna is called a a. end fire array b. critical phased array c. broadband array d. wideband array answer="1"> A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave. a. Antenna b. Loudspeaker c. Microphone d. Transducer answer="1"> Which is a non-resonant antenna? a. Rhombic antenna b. Folded dipole c. End-fire array d. Yagi-Uda antenna answer="1"> Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic. a. 2.15 dB b. 1.76 dB c. 1 dB d. 0 dB answer="2"> Very low signal strength in antenna. a. Minor lobes b. Null c. Antenna patterns d. Major lobes answer="3"> What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna? a. 1.64 dB b. 2.15 dB c. 1.76 dB d. 1.55 dB answer="3"> ____________ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivity. a. Phase angle b. Antenna gain c. Beamwidth d. Bandwidth answer="2"> In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna must be used? a. Void antenna b. Dummy antenna c. Hertzian antenna d. Isotropic antenna answer="1"> The best solution of fading is ____________. a. space diversity b. frequency diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer="3"> _____________ is the amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols. a. Bandwidth

b. Enthalpy c. Entropy d. Quantum answer="2"> If an antenna has a gain of 30 dB, it increases the output of the transmitter by a. 10,000 times b. 1000 times c. 100 times d. 1 million times answer="3"> Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its _______________. a. practical height b. beamwidth c. effective height d. input capacitance answer="2"> A horizontal antenna is ______________. a. vertically polarized b. horizontally polarized c. centrally polarized d. circularly polarized answer="1"> All elements in a beam ____________ antennas are in line. a. collinear b. yagi c. broadside array d. log-periodic answer="2"> Which does not use vertical polarization antenna? a. AM Broadcasting b. FM Broadcasting c. Mobile Communications d. Satellite Communications answer="3"> Lightning rods must be mounted a top structure not less than ____________ above the highest point. a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30 cm d. 40 cm answer="1"> _________________ is the antenna with a number of half-wave antenna on it. a. Antenna array b. Tower c. Omni-directional d. Rhombic answer="1"> Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical polarization? a. Marconi antenna b. Discone antenna c. Horn antenna d. Helical antenna answer="4"> An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth. a. Helical antenna b. Discone antenna c. Horn antenna d. Parabolic dish antenna answer="4">

What determines antenna polarization? a. The frequency of the radiated wave b. The direction of the radiated wave c. The direction of the magnetic field vector d. The direction of the electric field vector answer="1"> ______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. a. Azimuth b. Angle of elevation c. Right angle d. Beamwidth answer="2"> A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal strength to a particular distant pt. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field strength available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the gain in dB, obtained by the use of the reflector. (Gain referred to this particular dipole). a. 4.75 b. 2.6 c. 1.81 d. 4.24 answer="3"> What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design? a. 300 kph b. 100 kph c. 200 kph d. 250 kph answer="1"> Discone radiation pattern is _____________. a. omnidirectional b. unidirectional c. bidirectional d. figure of eight answer="3"> ______________ is an open-ended slot antenna. a. Helical antenna b. Rhombic antenna c. Notch antenna d. Cassegrain antenna answer="2"> Which antenna is a properly terminated? a. Marconi b. Rhombic c. Dipole d. Yagi-Uda answer="2"> What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna? a. Omnidirectional b. Bidirectional c. Unidirectional d. Hemispherical answer="1"> What is the theoretical gain of a Hertzian dipole? a. 1.76 dB b. 2.15 dB c. 3 dB d. 0 dB answer="3"> An antenna with unity gain. a. Rhombic b. Half-wave dipole c. Isotropic

d. Whip answer="2"> How will you increase the gain of an antenna? a. By adding several antennas in parallel b. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction c. By making antenna rods thicker d. By making the antenna size larger answer="4"> An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long. a. Hertzian dipole b. Loop antenna c. Marconi antenna d. Elementary doublet answer="1"> What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have? a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. 6 answer="2"> What is the gain of isotropic antenna? a. 10 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100 answer="4"> Which of the following improves antenna directivity? a. Driven element b. Reflector element c. Director element d. Parasitic element answer="3"> The antenna radiates __________ polarized waves when the transmitter antenna is horizontally installed. a. Vertically b. negatively c. horizontally d. circularly answer="3"> The length of a Marconi antenna to operate with 985 kHz is ___________. a. 200 ft b. 500 ft c. 250 ft d. 999 ft answer="2"> What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a northernly direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction? a. 25000 dB b. 10 dB c. 100 dB d. 20 dB answer="3"> If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 uV/m in a receiving antenna, a 16 kW will produce __________. a. 200 uV/m b. 10 uV/m c. 100 uV/m d. 20 uV/m answer="1"> If the radiated power increase 10.89 times, the antenna current increases by ____________.

a. 3.3 times b. 6.6 times c. 1.82 times d. 10.89 times answer="2"> The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m. a. 88 MHz b. 44 MHz c. 22 MHz d. 11 MHz answer="4"> Comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired direction to the signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction. a. Directivity b. Sensitivity c. Beamwidth d. Front-to-back ratio answer="3"> What is the capture area of a dipole operated at 75 MHz? a. 44 mm^2 b. 2 m^2 c. 2.088 m^2 d. 4.088 m^2 answer="3"> ________________ of an antenna is a measure of how the antenna concentrates its radiated power in a given direction. a. Efficiency b. Power c. Gain d. Polarization answer="1"> Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5% longer. a. End effect b. Flywheel effect c. Skin effect d. Capture effect answer="1"> Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. a. Low-pass filter b. High-pass filter c. M-derived filter d. Constant-K answer="3"> A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal a. at 45 degrees to its axis b. parallel to its axis c. at right angles to its axis d. at 60 degrees to its axis answer="1"> The current maximum in a Marconi antenna is found at a. the base of the antenna b. the center of the antenna c. some point between the base and the center of the antenna d. the top of the antenna answer="2"> If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the effective length can be increased by adding: a. capacitance in series b. inductance in series c. resistance in parallel d. resistance in series

answer="4"> Which of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a transmitter for proper modulation, amplifier operation and frequency accuracy? a. Elementary b. Real c. Isotropic d. Dummy answer="2"> The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is 100 watts. If the antenna has a 2dB power gain, what is the effective radiated power? a. 317 watts b. 158 watts c. 200 watts d. 400 watts answer="1"> What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of lambda/3, 10 turns at pitch of lambda/4, used at 100 MHz? a. 16 b. 41.1 c. 31.4 d. 1.25 answer="4"> How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole antenna? a. By reducing the frequency at the transmitter b. By connecting a capacitor in series with the antenna c. By connecting a resistor in series with the antenna d. By connecting an inductor in series with the antenna answer="4"> Which of the following antennas receive signals in the horizontal plane equally well from all directions? a. Horizontal Hertz antenna b. Vertical loop antenna c. Vertical Yagi antenna d. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long answer="3"> If the length of a Hertz dipole is decreased a. its resonant frequency will be lowered its distributed inductance will be increased. b. its distributed inductance will be decreased c. its resonant frequency will be increased d. its distributed capacitance between the antenna and ground will be increased answer="4"> A final amplifier of a radio transmitter draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate supply voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit efficiency is 80% and the transmitter is connected to an antenna having a feed impedance of 70 ohms, what is the antenna current at the feed-point? a. 4.0 A b. 2.2 A c. 1.25 A d. 2.0 A answer="4"> A one-quarter wavelength shunt-fed vertical Marconi antenna a. has maximum radiation in a vertical direction b. must have a horizontal receiving antenna for the best reception c. must use a receiving antenna for the best reception d. must have a vertical receiving antenna for the best reception answer="3"> A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi antenna a. has maximum RF impedance to ground at its feedpoint b. has a current null at its feedpoint c. has zero DC resistance to ground d. has zero RF resistance to ground

answer="4"> The parasitic element of an antenna system will a. decrease its directivity b. increase its directivity c. give the antenna unidirectional properties d. both B and C answer="4"> If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant frequency will a. increase b. depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either be increased or decreased c. will be unchanged d. decrease answer="1"> What is the effect of adding a capacitor in series with an antenna? a. The antenna's resonant frequency will increase b. The antenna's resonant frequency will decrease c. The antenna will be physically 5% longer than its electrical length d. A capacitor is never added in series with an antenna answer="4"> How does the electric field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance from the antenna? a. The field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance from the antenna b. The field strength is directly proportional to the distance from the antenna c. The field strength remains constant regardless of the distance from the antenna d. The field strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna answer="4"> Stacking elements in a transmitting antenna system a. increases the field strength at the receiving antenna b. increases the directivity of the transmitter antenna c. decrease the size of the lobe in the radiation pattern d. both A and B answer="4"> A vertical loop antenna has a a. unidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane b. unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane c. omnidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane d. a bidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane answer="2"> In order to get maximum radiation to all surrounding points in the horizontal plane, the antenna used is a a. vertical loop b. vertical quarter-wavelength rod c. array which includes parasitic elements d. a horizontal Hertz dipole answer="1"> What is the electrical wavelength of a 500 MHz signal? a. 60 centimeters b. 6 meters c. 0.06 meter d. 60 meters answer="1"> If the antenna current is doubled, the field strength at a particular position is a. doubled b. halved c. multiplied by a factor of four d. divided by a factor of four answer="4"> The rhombic antenna is primarily used for

a. ground wave propagation b. space wave propagation c. ionospheric scatter propagation d. sky wave propagation answer="2"> What antenna radiates equally in all directions? a. Vertical antenna b. Isotropic antenna c. Horizontal antenna d. Dipole antenna answer="3"> Actual height of antenna should be at least a. one wavelength b. half wavelength c. quarter wavelength d. three-fourth wavelength answer="1"> Which antenna is not properly terminated? a. Resonant b. Non-resonant c. Isotropic d. Whip answer="1"> _______________ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angles to the plane of the array? a. Broadside array b. End-fire array c. Turnstile array d. Log-periodic array answer="2"> The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiator is a. a figure-8 b. a sphere c. a unidirectional cardioid d. a parabola answer="4"> An isotropic radiator is a. in the northern hemisphere b. an antenna high enough in the air c. an antenna whose directive pattern is substantially incredible d. a hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna answer="4"> The purpose of stacking elements on an antenna. a. Sharper directional pattern b. Increased gain c. Improved bandpass d. All of these answer="4"> The advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna is a. lower quality factor b. greater structural strength c. higher losses d. improved radiation efficiency answer="4"> Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave antenna? a. At the ends b. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end c. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end d. At the feed point answer="2"> A theoretical reference antenna that provides a comparison for antenna measurements. a. Marconi antenna

b. Isotropic radiator c. Yagi-Uda array d. Whip antenna answer="2"> A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal wire that is hanged between two towers. What is the frequency of its third harmonic? a. 727 kHz b. 6546 kHz c. 436 kHz d. 6.546 kHz answer="2"> In horizontal-dipole antenna, the polarization is a. in the vertical direction b. in the horizontal direction c. circular d. measured at the center of the antenna answer="3"> Increasing the electrical length of an antenna means a. add an inductor in parallel b. add a capacitor in series c. add an inductor in series d. add a resistor in series answer="1"> Stacking antennas at various angles results in a. a more omnidirectional reception b. a more unidirectional reception c. a less omnidirectional reception d. an overall reception signal increase answer="3"> What is driven element? a. Almost the rearmost element b. Always the forward most element c. The element fed by the transmission line d. The element connected to the rotator answer="4"> What is antenna bandwidth? a. Antenna length divided by the number of elements b. The angle between the half-power radiation points c. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through d. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to operate satisfactorily answer="4"> To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a a. resistor b. battery c. conduit d. coil answer="3"> What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? a. 6.0 dB b. 8.1 dB c. 3.9 dB d. 10.0 dB answer="3"> What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna? a. 1/4 wavelength b. 3/4 wavelength c. 1/2 wavelength d. 1 wavelength

answer="4"> To electrically decrease the length of an antenna, a. add an inductor in the series b. add an inductor in the parallel c. add a resistor in the series d. add a capacitor in the series answer="4"> Strong interference from one particular station can be eliminated by the use of a. noise limiters b. squelch circuits c. negative feedback d. wave traps in the antenna circuitry answer="1"> It is useful to refer to an isotropic radiator a. when comparing the gains of directional antennas b. when testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio c. when (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission d. when using a dummy load to tune a transmitter answer="1"> A disadvantage of using a trap antenna. a. It will radiate harmonics b. It can only be used for single-band operation c. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies d. It must be neutralized answer="2"> The input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna is a. 72 ohms(s) b. 300 ohms(s) c. 50 ohms(s) d. 73 ohms(s) answer="4"> When a capacitor is connected in series with a Marconi antenna? a. Antenna open circuit stops transmission b. An inductor of equal value must be added c. No change occurs to antenna d. Antenna resonant frequency increases answer="1"> Where are the current nodes in a half-wave antenna? a. At the ends b. At the center c. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end d. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end answer="2"> For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance? a. As low as possible on the vertical radiator b. Near the center of the vertical radiator c. As close to the transmitter as possible d. At a voltage node answer="3"> The effect of adding parasitic elements of a Hertz dipole is to a. make the antenna more omnidirectional b. reduce its resonant frequency c. increase the antenna's power gain d. all of these answer="1"> Stacking antenna elements a. increases sensitivity to weak signals b. will suppress odd harmonics c. decrease signal to noise ratio d. increase selectivity

answer="2"> In the case of Marconi antenna, the actual length of the radiating element is a. one-half wavelength b. one-quarter wavelength c. one wavelength d. one-eight wavelength answer="1"> The antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna can be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna. a. By installing a good ground radial system b. By isolating the coax shield from ground c. By shortening the vertical d. By lengthening the vertical answer="4"> An antenna "efficiency" is computed by using one of the following equations. a. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) b. Efficiency = (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100% c. Efficiency = (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100% d. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100% answer="1"> Increasing the resonant frequency of an end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by a. adding a capacitor in series and reducing the physical length b. adding an inductor in series c. adding an inductor in parallel d. all of these answer="2"> Factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna. a. Transmission line length and height of antenna. b. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects c. It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical d. Sunspot activity and the time of day answer="2"> ______________ is the angle between the half-power radiation points. a. Critical angle b. Beamwidth c. Angle of elevation d. Azimuth answer="2"> What is the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation intensity? a. Aperture gain b. Directivity gain c. Transmission gain d. Power gain answer="3"> Good grounding is important for a. horizontal antennas b. broadside array antennas c. vertical antennas d. Yagi-Uda antennas answer="3"> An ungrounded antenna near the ground a. acts as a single antenna of twice the height b. is unlikely to need an earth mat c. acts as antenna array d. must be horizontally polarized answer="3"> One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. a. Parabolic antenna

b. Elementary doublet c. Log-periodic d. Square loop answer="2"> Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide? a. Biconical b. Horn c. Helical d. Discone answer="2"> Indicate which of the following reasons for using metal counterpoise with antennas is false. a. Impossibility of a good ground connection b. Protection of personnel working underneath c. Provision of an earth for the antenna d. Rockiness of the ground itself answer="4"> Not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler. a. To make the antenna look resistive b. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance c. To discriminate against harmonics d. To prevent reradiation of the local oscillator answer="4"> Which antenna is not a wideband? a. Discone b. Folded dipole c. Helical d. Marconi answer="3"> One of the following is not a reason for the use of an earth mat. a. impossibility of a good ground connection b. provision of an earth for the antenna c. protection of personnel working underneath d. improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna answer="2"> One of the following makes an antenna physically long but electrically short. a. Adding L in series b. Adding C in series c. Top loading d. Both A and C answer="2"> When antennas are closed to the ground, ______________ polarization is ideal. a. horizontally polarized b. vertically polarized c. circularly polarized d. both A and B answer="3"> _____________ is an antenna made up of a number of full wavelengths. a. Elementary doublet b. Log-periodic c. Long wire d. Whip answer="2"> An energy which radiates in the form of radio waves, infrared waves, light waves, x-rays, etc. a. Radiant energy b. Electromagnetic c. Heat d. Ultraviolet answer="2"> Which one is an antenna coupling unit?

a. Coupler b. Diplexer c. Lecher wire d. Duplexer answer="2"> _______________ polarization is employed in AM broadcasting. a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. Circular d. Omnidirectional answer="1"> _______________ polarization is employed in FM broadcasting. a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. Circular d. Bidirectional answer="3"> Which antenna is not grounded at one end? a. Hertz b. Marconi c. Dipole d. Whip answer="3"> Which of the class station below is a regional channel? a. Class I-A b. Class II-D c. Class III-B d. Class IV answer="1"> The permissible power in kW of stations II-A during nighttime is a. 0.25 - 50 b. 10 - 50 c. 1 - 5 d. none of these answer="1"> The television frequency which are now allocated to the land mobile services. a. 806 and 192 MHz b. 800 and 806 MHz c. 668 and 674 MHz d. 776 and 782 MHz answer="4"> Numerical frequency band designation of Channel 9. a. 488 - 494 MHz b. 530 - 536 MHz c. 632 - 638 MHz d. 186 - 192 MHz answer="3"> Cable TV systems originates from a. Germany b. Dallas, Texas c. Pennsylvania d. Japan answer="1"> A term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade the performance of a system. a. composite triple beat b. single dual mode c. field strength d. noise answer="2"> A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service area, but is permitted to originate programming from virtually any source.

a. DME b. LPTV c. HDTV d. ITFS answer="4"> Three stations are licensed to eligible educational entities for the distribution of program material to students enrolled in instructional curricula. a. translator b. LPTV c. HDTV d. ITFS answer="3"> ITFS means a. International Television Frequency Standard b. Instructional Telephone Frequency Service c. Instructional Television Fixed Service d. International Telecommunications Frequency Standard answer="1"> MDS means a. Multipoint Distribution Service b. Multipoint Digital Service c. Maritime Data Standards d. Multipoint Drop Standards answer="4"> Direct broadcast satellite based allocation. a. 12.2 - 12.7 GHz for downlink b. 17.3 - 17.8 GHz for uplink c. 3.7 - 4.2 GHz for downlink d. 12.2 - 12.7 GHz for downlink and 17.3 - 17.8 GHz for uplink answer="1"> What is the channel number of an FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier? a. 201 b. 202 c. 203 d. 204 answer="3"> What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel number of 300? a. 107.5 MHz b. 101.1 MHz c. 107.9 MHz d. 99.5 MHz answer="3"> If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under what class? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D answer="4"> The video signal amplitude determines the quality of the picture otherwise known as a. hue b. luminance c. chrominance d. contrast answer="1"> _____ is defined as "to send out in all direction". a. broadcast b. announce c. media d. all of these answer="2"> The ultimate Dolby surround system is the

a. Dolby NR b. Dolby Prologic c. dBx d. Hall Matrix answer="4"> A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in lateral and tilting motion. a. panning device b. scanner c. tilting d. pan/tilt device answer="4"> Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system to receive broadcast signals? a. filter b. LNA c. RF amplifier d. antenna answer="1"> Is the most common technique where apartment houses, hotels, schools, condominiums, and multi-unit buildings distribute TV and FM signals to a number of receivers, using a single head-end. a. CCTV b. CATV c. MATV d. antenna answer="4"> TV channels 2, 4, and 5 belong to a. low band UHF b. high band VHF c. mid band UHF d. low band VHF answer="3"> Which of the following is a solid state imaging device? a. VIDICON b. ICONOSCOPE c. charge couple device d. CCTV answer="2"> What class of TV camera lens used to cover short distances? a. normal b. wide angle c. telephoto d. zoom answer="3"> What class of TV camera lens used to cover long distances? a. normal b. wide angle c. telephoto d. zoom answer="4"> What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455 kHz? a. 0 to 1,500 kHz b. 0 to 456 kHz c. 540 to 1,600 kHz d. 955 to 2055 kHz answer="3"> What is the allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast? a. 20 b. 75 c. 5 d. 25

answer="4"> The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila is a. 5 kW b. 10 kW c. 15 kW d. 20 kW answer="2"> KBP radio code mandates that station must provide a minimum of _____ minutes of news per day from 5:00 in the morning to 10:00 in the evening. a. 30 b. 45 c. 50 d. 60 answer="1"> What is the chroma subcarrier signal frequency for color television? a. 3.8 MHz b. 6.8 MHz c. 7.8 MHz d. 8.8 MHz answer="4"> What is the frequency tolerance of an FM radio broadcast station? a. 20,000 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 200 Hz d. 2,000 Hz answer="3"> The minimum frequency separation between frequency of AM broadcasting station. a. 9 kHz b. 18 kHz c. 36 kHz d. 72 kHz answer="4"> The aspect ratio of HDTV is a. 4:3 b. 18:5 c. 14:8 d. 16:9 answer="1"> A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news content of _____ minute(s) excluding intro, extro, headline, and commercial load. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer="4"> In accordance with existing provision of law and the KBP rules and regulations, all stations shall actively promote the growth and the development of Filipino music by playing _____ OPM every clock hour. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer="1"> Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for one hour program in Metro Manila. a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 answer="3">

Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour program outside Metro Manila. a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 20 answer="2"> Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed _____ breaks in every program hour. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer="2"> Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed ____ breaks in every program hour. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer="1"> For Metro Manila, the classification of prime time blocks for FM shall be a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN answer="1"> For provincial station, the classification of prime time blocks for FM radio shall be: a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN answer="2"> All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subject for approval by the a. NTC b. KBP-SA c. DOTC d. CCITT answer="1"> _____ is the time duration for one horizontal trace. a. 52 s b. 62 s c. 48 s d. 50 s answer="3"> Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipments, tests, malfunctions, and corrections in communications system. a. reporting b. documentation c. log d. file answer="4"> Which of the following is not a low-impedance microphone? a. dynamic b. velocity c. condenser d. crystal answer="4"> Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following items? a. map b. pictures c. printed page

d. all of these answer="3"> Television has a lot of features in common with a. FM stereo b. telephone service c. motion picture d. magazine answer="1"> The major component of the TV signal waveform is the a. video b. radar c. stereo d. antenna answer="4"> For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from a. top to bottom b. left to right c. right to left d. choices A and B above answer="2"> One complete NTSC scanning cycle called field consist of how many lines? a. 500 b. 525 c. 625 d. 60 answer="3"> The field rate in the NTSC television system. a. 30 Hz b. 120 Hz c. 60 Hz d. 15.75 Hz answer="3"> What is the horizontal synchronous / blanking pulse rate? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 15.75 kHz d. 120 Hz answer="2"> What is the vertical blanking pulse rate? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 15.75 kHz d. 120 Hz answer="4"> The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse. a. equalizing (sync) pulse b. serrated vertical sync pulses c. black level pulses d. choices A and B above answer="4"> Television camera pickup tube is called a. vidicon b. image orthicon c. plumbicon d. all of the above answer="4"> The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for a. beam focusing b. beam deflection c. beam modulation d. beam focusing and beam deflection answer="3">

What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube? a. beam focusing b. beam deflection c. beam production d. beam modulation answer="4"> Video modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b. frequency modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband answer="2"> Audio modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b. frequency modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband answer="1"> What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmission? a. 25 kHz b. 30 kHz c. 50 kHz d. 75 kHz answer="1"> The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by _____ MHz. a. 4.5 b. 5.5 c. 6.5 d. 7.5 answer="1"> In practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will include components clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz. a. 15.75 b. 30 c. 12.25 d. 45.5 answer="4"> Brightness of an image is known as a. radiance b. chrominance c. reflectance d. luminance answer="1"> The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as a. primary b. white c. desaturated d. all of the above answer="4"> A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television pickup? a. red b. green c. blue d. all of these answer="1"> What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transmitter? a. Y, I and Q b. P, D and Q c. M, N and O d. R, S and T

d. 70 % answer="2"> Range of a VHF television transmitter. a. 54 - 98 MHz b. 54 - 216 MHz c. 54 - 128 MHz d. 54 - 166 MHz answer="3"> Range of a UHF television transmitter. a. 470 - 670 MHz b. 470 - 770 MHz c. 470 - 890 MHz d. 470 - 980 MHz answer="2"> What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for color TV? a. 0.8 MHz b. 1.8 MHz c. 8.1 MHz d. 1.6 MHz answer="1"> The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be a. saturated b. dark c. light d. monochrome answer="2"> At what position of the color triangle will saturated yellow be located? a. between red and blue b. between red and green c. between blue and green d. at the center answer="4"> What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal carriers? a. 0 deg b. 45 deg c. 60 deg d. 90 deg answer="4"> _____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chrominance frequency components. a. low pass b. band pass c. notch d. comb answer="1"> The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when monochrome broadcasts are received by the a. color killer b. SAW filter c. NOT gate d. all of the above answer="4"> What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking? a. 25 % b. 0 % c. 12.5 % d. 75 % answer="4"> What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black? a. 0 % b. 25 % c. 12.5 % answer="1"> What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white? a. 0 % b. 12.5 % c. 25 % d. 70 % answer="4"> One should first perform _____ before a convergence setup is performed. a. gray tracking b. screen setting c. alignment d. degaussing answer="4"> If there are too many harmonics, one should check the a. coupling b. tuning of circuits c. shielding d. any of these answer="1"> In transmitter amplifier design, an even-order harmonics can be prevented or reduced by a. using a push-pull amplifier b. operating class C c. operating class AB d. all of these answer="1"> The vertical and horizontal pulses are separated at the a. sync separator b. AFC c. high voltage d. AGC answer="1"> The reason why buffer stage is included in a transmitter is to a. present a constant load to the oscillator stage b. present a low input impedance to the oscillator stage c. stop the oscillator from generating parasitic oscillations d. all of these answer="2"> Where is the operating position of a radio station? a. on the bridge b. at the control point c. at the location of the receiver d. at the location of the transmitter answer="4"> The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known as a. blooming b. confetti c. demodulation d. convergence answer="2"> A _____ is equivalent to 525 scanning lines. a. field b. frame c. cycle d. interface set answer="1"> A _____ represents one set of 262 1/2 scanning lines. a. field b. frame c. cycle d. interface set

d. color oscillator answer="3"> The number of scanning lines is _____ per second. a. 14,750 b. 15,570 c. 15,750 d. 16,550 answer="2"> Picture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second. a. 25 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 answer="2"> Lack of raster is an indication of no a. AGC b. high voltage c. video signal d. television signal answer="3"> The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV receiver. a. IF stage b. video amplifier c. video detector d. burst separator answer="2"> The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem in the _____ circuit. a. horizontal b. reactor c. burst separator d. chroma amplifier answer="2"> Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a TV signal. a. A3F b. F3F c. A3C d. F3C answer="3"> What is emission A3F? a. RTTY b. SSB c. TV d. modulated CW answer="3"> What is emission F3F? a. facsimile b. modulated CW c. television d. RTTY answer="1"> Cause of slow rising white "hum bars" in the television. a. bad filter b. bad rectifier c. bad picture tube d. high voltage transformer answer="2"> Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti. a. color chroma amplifier b. color killer c. color detector answer="3"> Video signal amplitude determine the picture quality called a. chrominance b. brightness c. contrast d. luminance answer="2"> Part of broadcast day from midnight to local sunshine. a. daytime b. experimental c. nighttime d. dawntime answer="2"> Part of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise. a. dawntime b. nighttime c. daytime d. experimental answer="3"> What causes snow in television? a. high Q in a tuned circuit b. excessive gain c. random noise in a signal d. insufficient wave traps answer="2"> Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission. a. CF3 b. C3F c. B8E d. A3E answer="1"> Vestigial sideband modulation is commonly used in a. TV broadcasting b. monaural broadcasting c. stereo broadcasting d. HF point-to-point communications answer="4"> Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)? a. high pass filter b. low pass filter c. band pass filter d. band reject filter answer="3"> The FM broadcast band is from a. 535 to 1,600 Hz b. 30 to 300 kHz c. 88 to 108 MHz d. 300 to 2,000 MHz answer="3"> The type of emission used by standard AM radio broadcast. a. A5C b. A0 c. A3 d. F3 answer="1"> The standard AM radio broadcast belongs to which frequency band? a. MF b. HF c. VHF d. LF answer="4">

When were UHF channels (14-83) of television added? a. 1902 b. 1945 c. 1947 d. 1952 answer="3"> When was colored TV standards established in the United States? a. 1904 b. 1945 c. 1953 d. 1960 answer="3"> What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV picture tube? a. HFC b. HSC c. HAFC d. all of these answer="2"> A measure of how well the receiver can respond to very weak signals. a. selectivity b. sensitivity c. fidelity d. quality factor answer="2"> What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM broadcast band? a. 15 kHz b. 75 kHz c. 5 kHz d. 100 kHz answer="3"> The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter is operated as a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D answer="4"> Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient coverage. a. circular polarized wave antenna b. horizontal polarized wave antenna c. both vertical and horizontal polarized wave antenna d. vertical polarized wave antenna answer="3"> Receiver sensitivity means a. the frequency allocation of the system b. input impedance of the receiver c. the ability of picking up weak signal d. the power to deliver the information answer="3"> The main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to a. provide improved tracking b. permit better adjacent-channel rejection c. improve the rejection of the image frequency d. all of these answer="3"> Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency higher than the incoming frequency in order a. to help the image frequency rejection b. to allow easy tracking c. to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching d. all of these answer="1">

Type of filter used in TV receivers that separates the chroma signal from the colorplexed video signal but leaves intact the Y-component. a. comb filter b. bandpass filter c. color filter d. low pass filter answer="2"> What is the first letter-symbol for emission of unmodulated carrier? a. A b. N c. H d. F answer="1"> The channel for cable TV frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75 MHz. a. T-1 b. T-8 c. 2 d. 3 answer="1"> The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13. a. 23.75 - 29.75 MHz b. 60 - 66 MHz c. 41.75 - 47.55 MHz d. 5.75 - 11.75 MHz answer="3"> Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV. a. 54 - 60 MHz b. 66 - 72 MHz c. 180 - 186 MHz d. 204 - 210 MHz answer="2"> The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to delineate picture detail. a. constant b. resolution c. hue d. pixels answer="1"> CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film for television used. a. Rec. 265 - 6 b. Rec. 407 - 4 c. Rec. 408 - 5 d. Rec. 450 - 1 answer="4"> CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF. a. Rec. 601.2 b. Rec. 501.2 c. Rec. 500.4 d. Rec. 450.1 answer="3"> ISO Rec. 23 in 1976 is the standard for a. recorded characteristics for magnetic sound records on full cost 16 mm motion picture film b. projector usage of 16 mm motion picture films for direct front projector c. camera usage of 35 mm motion picture film d. camera usage of 16 mm motion picture film answer="3"> International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____ in accordance with international agreements. a. 7012 and 26,100 kHz b. 6409 and 26,100 kHz c. 5950 and 26,100 kHz d. 10,950 and 26,100 kHz

d. 88-92 kHz answer="3"> Which of the following is not an advantage of digital transmission? a. noise immunity b. ease of multiplexing c. bandwidth utilization d. ease of encryption answer="3"> _____ is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the DAC. a. resolution b. quantization c. dynamic range d. voltage ratio answer="4"> A process where the higher amplitude analog signals are compressed prior to transmission then expanded at the receiver. a. compressing b. expanding c. encoding d. companding answer="2"> For a resolution of 0.01 V and analog sample voltage of 0.05 V, the 12-bit linear sign-magnitude code is a. 000000000101 b. 100000000101 c. 100010010011 d. 000001010001 answer="3"> _____ uses a single bit PCM code to achieve a digital transmission of analog signal. a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) b. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) c. Delta Modulation (DM) d. Phase Modulation (PM) answer="3"> The line speed of Bell System T1 carrier system is a. 64 kbps b. 3.152 Mbps c. 1.544 Mbps d. 6.312 Mbps answer="3"> How many channels does a T2 line carry? a. 24 b. 48 c. 96 d. 672 answer="3"> The capacity of the standard 4-kHz telephone channel with 30 dB S/N is a. 455225 bps b. 42525 bps c. 39846 bps d. 39840 bps answer="1"> How many channels does a super group have? a. 60 b. 600 c. 1800 d. 10800 answer="2"> The output frequency at the channel combiner of channel 7 is a. 76-80 kHz b. 80-84 kHz c. 84-88 kHz answer="1"> The carrier frequency of the supergroup D25 is a. 2652 kHz b. 2900 kHz c. 2356 kHz d. 2108 kHz answer="4"> Which of the following is not a hybrid data? a. data in voice b. data under voice c. data above voice d. data in video answer="4"> _____ was the first fixed-length 5-bit character code. a. EBCDIC b. ASCII c. Morse code d. baudot code answer="2"> CCITT V.26 modem has a modulation rate of _____. a. 1200 Hz b. 1200 bauds c. 1560 cps d. 9600 bauds answer="3"> What can a smart modem do? a. detect transmission errors and correct them automatically b. correct answer multiple choice quizzes c. accepts commands from the terminal via RS232 interface d. do a smart game answer="1"> One is an advantage of PTM over PAM. a. much better noise immunity b. low sampling rate required c. simpler to generate d. less costly answer="1"> When did ISO adapt the seven-layer OSI model? a. 1983 b. 1973 c. 1963 d. 1953 answer="2"> Amplitude shift keying is also known as _____. a. up/down keying b. on/off keying c. front/back keying d. I/O keying answer="1"> Which modulation system is used in telephony? a. FSK b. PCM c. Two-tone modulation d. single-tone modulation answer="2"> Modulation used by asynchronous data a. QPSK b. FSK c. PSK d. QAM answer="2">

PCM systems require _____. a. analog signals b. large bandwidth c. digital signals d. fiber optic cable answer="3"> Which theorem sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level? a. Nyquist theorem b. Hartley theorem c. Shannon-Hartley theorem d. Shannon theorem answer="1"> Quantizing noise is present in _____ system. a. PCM b. ATM c. TDM d. PAM answer="1"> _____ is the difference between the original and reconstructed signal a. quantizing noise b. fade margin c. noise margin d. noise figure answer="3"> What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM system? a. to solve quantizing noise problem b. to allow amplitude limits in the receivers c. to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion d. to overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers answer="2"> Band of frequencies in a transmission medium allotted to each communication channel on a continuous time basis. a. TDM b. FDM c. CDMA d. broadband answer="2"> Error control used in high frequency radio data transmission. a. FEC b. ARQ c. Hamming d. Parity answer="2"> What are the steps to follow to produce a PCM signal? a. sampling, coding and quantizing b. sampling, quantizing, and coding c. quantizing, sampling, and coding d. coding, quantizing, and sampling answer="1"> _____ identifies how the different stations in a multipoint system are interconnected. a. network topology b. star network c. ring network d. bus network answer="2"> A transmission where data are inputted directly on the cable. a. broadband b. baseband c. digital d. analog answer="1">

A transmission where data are inputted inside the carrier wave. a. broadband b. baseband c. digital d. analog answer="3"> A transmission system for a multidrop network. a. token passing b. CSMA/CD c. polling d. CSMA/CA answer="1"> Before attempting to transmit data, each station has to listen to the channel. a. CSMA/CD b. token passing c. CSMA/CA d. polling answer="2"> Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modems because a. they are larger b. they must contain clock recovery circuits c. the production volume is larger d. they must operate on a larger bandwidth answer="2"> When one station is designated as master and the rest of the stations are considered slaves, message handling is _____. a. store and forward b. polling c. CSMA/CD d. token passing answer="1"> The computer that initiates information transfer. a. master b. slave c. DCE d. DTE answer="3"> A store and forward switching. a. circuit switching b. packet switching c. message switching d. PSTN answer="1"> It is used to connected computers in the same building or in same area. a. LAN b. WAN c. MAN d. PBX answer="3"> Two or more LAN linked together over a wide geographical area. a. HAN b. MAN c. WAN d. RAN answer="1"> Which system allows different types of networks to be linked together? a. OSI b. CCITT c. Bell system d. AT & T answer="3"> OSI consists of how many layers of interconnection?

a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 answer="4"> Which network layer determines if the user can send or receive based on whether they can send and receive simultaneously or alternatively? a. physical layer b. data link layer c. transport layer d. session layer answer="1"> A _____ that interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers. a. bridge b. router c. gateway d. hub answer="2"> A _____ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical data link and network layers. a. bridge b. router c. gateway d. node answer="3"> A _____ interconnects LAN that have totally different protocols and format. a. bridge b. router c. gateway d. WAN answer="2"> All bits in a character can be sent/received simultaneously. a. serial data b. parallel data c. full duplex d. duplex answer="2"> The bits in a character which are sent/received one at a time. a. parallel data b. serial data c. simplex d. half duplex answer="1"> A system that perform parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of a data link. a. DTE b. DCE c. modem d. FEP answer="2"> EIA stands for a. Electronic Institute Association b. Electronic Industry Association c. Electronic Improvement Ads d. Electrical Industrial Association answer="4"> An acoustic modem converts a complex digital signal into a. serial form b. parallel form c. radio tones d. audio tones

answer="2"> Which mode of transmission achieves less than full-duplex but more than halfduplex?</ question> a. full\full duplex b. echoplex c. isochronous d. synchronous answer="2"> Rules governing the transmission of digital information. a. data communications standard b. line protocol c. isochronous d. digital communication answer="3"> Codecs must be a. eight bits per character b. eight seven or eight bits per character c. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver d. the same in all modern computers answer="2"> The standard ASCII a. is version II of ASC b. has 132 characters including 32 control characters c. is subset of a 8-bit EBCDIC code d. is used only in US and Canada answer="3"> The Baudot code a. was invented by the Baudot brothers b. required the escape character to print numbers c. requires shift characters to provide sufficient combinations d. a descendant of Morse code answer="2"> The corrections and accuracy of the transmitted message control is a. verified by the modem b. determined by the sender and the receiver c. ensured by the used of digital techniques d. dependent on the communications system used answer="1"> Framing is a. concerned with the boundaries between characters b. referred to parallel-to-serial conversion c. concerned with synchronous system d. concerned with individual bits answer="1"> Asynchronous transmission is a. is less efficient but simpler b. is much faster than synchronous transmission c. is another name for synchronous transmission d. the most sought-after transmission answer="1"> Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission because a. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion b. digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distorted c. analog signals are continuous and are not easily distorted d. digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals answer="4"> Digital to analog converter in synchronous modems send signals to the a. modulator b. transmission lines c. terminal d. equalizer

answer="3"> Binary codes are transformed in modems into a. hexadecimal b. Hullman code c. Gray code d. octal answer="2"> Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because a. they are larger b. they must contain clock recover circuits c. the production volume is larger d. they must operate on a larger bandwidth answer="2"> What is the best type of data communications test equipment? a. simulator b. protocol analyzer c. DTE d. breakout box answer="2"> What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer="2"> What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel? a. 64 kbps b. 16 kbps c. 8 kbps d. 144 kbps answer="3"> Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol? a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 8 answer="1"> How many bits are there to present 8 combinations? a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 5 answer="1"> How many number of equiprobable events are there for 8-bits of information? a. 256 b. 132 c. 2400 d. 512 answer="3"> Which computer terminal can be programmed to perform new functions? a. dumb terminal b. smart terminal c. intelligent terminal d. super terminal answer="4"> Which character code is used without parity bit? a. CCITT number 2 b. ASCCII c. CCITT number 5 d. EBCDIC

answer="4"> Which hardware is used when the host computer and the terminal are in separate locations? a. LCU b. FEP c. Muldem d. Modem answer="3"> _____ is a data communications hardware that assist the host computer in handling input and output tasks. a. hub b. cluster controller c. front end processor d. concentrator answer="3"> ASCII means a. terminals using synchronous transmission in EBCDIC b. terminals using synchronous transmission in ASCII c. terminals using asynchronous transmission in ASCII d. any terminal having an American (dollar-sign) keyboard answer="2"> A unit of information used in data communications. a. dit b. bit c. byte d. baud answer="2"> Transmission of binary signals requires a. less bandwidth than analog b. more bandwidth than analog c. the same bandwidth as analog d. a license from the NTC answer="2"> What is the modulation rate of the CCITT V.26 modem? a. 56 kbps b. 1200 kbps c. 1560 kbps d. 9600 kbps answer="4"> The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signal to the _____. a. modulator b. transmission line c. terminal d. equalizer answer="3"> The number of bits that are zeros in each symbol when one is transmitting odd parity coded symbols. a. even b. odd c. unknown d. one answer="1"> A digital modulation technique that results in two difference frequencies representing binary 1 and -. a. FSK b. QPSK c. ASK d. DPSK answer="3"> What is the input to the Digital-to-Analog Converter of a PCM decoder circuit?

a. a series of sampled amplitudes b. a parallel binary word c. a series of bits d. a reconstructed intelligence signal answer="2"> The output of the DAC at a PCM decoder circuit is a _____. a. series of binary-coded digits b. parallel output of binary-coded digits c. fixed analog voltage d. reconstructed intelligence signal answer="3"> Serial printer a. are used to transmit grain prices b. faster than CRT terminals, and offers more flexibility c. prints one character at a time d. usually uses serial interfaces answer="3"> Delta modulation is a/an a. 5-bit modulation b. integral PCM system c. 1-bit differential PCM system d. form of PDM answer="2"> Alternative way of digitizing analog signals. a. PCM b. Delta modulation c. PPM d. DPCM answer="3"> One dit is equal to _____ bits. a. 3 b. 3.5 c. 3.32 d. 4 answer="2"> Redundancy means the _____. a. transmission rate of the system b. symbols are to be repeated c. time between failures d. time between successes answer="2"> Which transmission media is not suitable to CSMA operation? a. Radio b. Optical fiber c. Coaxial cable d. Twisted pair answer="2"> _____ is a device used to convert a time varying electrical quantity to an appropriate form. a. Codec b. Transducer c. ADC/DAC d. Modem answer="3"> The bandwidth of U600 mastergroup is a. 2250 kHz b. 2728 kHz c. 2520 kHz d. 2278 kHz answer="3"> Refers to the combination of digitally encoded signals transmitted with FDM signals as one composite baseband signal.

a. composite data b. data under voice (DUV) c. hybrid data d. Data In Voice (DIV) answer="3"> Transmit frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial data for distances up to 4000 miles. a. T carrier systems b. A carrier systems c. L carrier systems d. D carrier systems answer="2"> Level 5 of Japanese PCM multiplex hierarchy has channel capacity of a. 7680 VB channels b. 5760 VB channels c. 8064 VB channels d. 5670 VB channels answer="4"> The line data rate (in Mbps) for level 4 of CEPT 30 + 2 PCM multiplex hierarchy a. 97.728 b. 400.352 c. 274.176 d. 139.264 answer="2"> The guardband between supergroup 18 and supergroup D25 is a. 12 kHz b. 56 kHz c. 128 kHz d. 8 kHz answer="1"> Supergroup 17 has a carrier frequency (in kHz) of a. 2108 b. 2356 c. 1860 d. 1612 answer="1"> A radio channel is composed of _____ VB channels. a. 1800 b. 900 c. 10800 d. 8064 answer="1"> What is the guardband between supergroup 1 and supergroup 2? a. 12 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 8 kHz d. 6 kHz answer="4"> CCITT's supermastergroup has how many voice band channels? a. 600 b. 1800 c. 10800 d. 900 answer="1"> The transparency mechanism used with SDLC is called a. zero-bit insertion b. modified link test c. beacon test d. invert-on-zero coding answer="1"> What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line?

a. 2B + D b. B + D c. B + 2D d. 2B + 2D answer="4"> A digital network where voice, video, text and data are multiplexed into a single network for processing and are transmitted prior to use. a. frame relay b. asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) c. ISDN d. synchronous digital hierarchy (SDH) answer="1"> T-1 carrier service has _____ digital bit rate. a. 1.544 Mbps b. 2048 Mbps c. 1.644 Mbps d. 9600 Mbps answer="2"> Non-ISDN equivalent can be connected to ISDN line by the use of _____. a. terminal equipment b. terminal adapters c. modem d. network adaptors answer="1"> What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? a. 312 to 552 kHz b. 60 to 2540 kHz c. 60 to 108 kHz d. 300 to 600 kHz answer="3"> What is the transmission signal coding for T1 carrier? a. binary b. NRZ c. bipolar d. Manchester answer="4"> The primary purpose of the data modem. a. interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel b. interface digital terminal equipment to digital communications channel c. interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel d. interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel answer="1"> The line control unit (LCU) that operates on the data in digital form. a. data terminal equipment (DTE) b. data communications equipment (DCE) c. modem d. UART answer="1"> SYN character of EBCDIC code. a. 32 H b. 8 H c. 16 H d. 4 H answer="1"> _____ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on the prescribed time slot for the occurrence of a bit. a. bit or clock synchronization b. modem or carrier synchronization c. character synchronization d. message synchronization answer="2"> Equation used to determine the number of Hamming bits in the Hamming

code. a. 2^n = m + n + 1 b. 2^n >= m + n + 1 c. 2^n > m + n + 1 d. 2^n < m + n + 1 answer="1"> Data means a. digital information b. both digital and analog c. analog information d. neither digital or analog answer="3"> What determines which network configuration is most appropriate? a. application layer b. presentation layer c. network layer d. data link layer answer="1"> Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at _____. a. 10 Mbps b. 20 Mbps c. 30 Mbps d. 40 Mbps answer="2"> Mechanism used by a station to gain access to local area network. a. channel multiplexing b. channel accessing c. CSMA/CD d. CSMA/CA answer="1"> What multiplexing scheme is used by baseband transmission? a. TDM b. space multiplexing c. FDM d. statistical multiplexing answer="2"> Use of coaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall length of _____. a. 1500 ft b. 1500 m c. 1500 km d. 1500 kft answer="3"> What defines how the stations are interconnected in a network? a. topology b. architecture c. topology or architecture d. topology and architecture answer="2"> _____ is a data communications network designed to provide two-way communications between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment within a relatively small geographic area. a. private area network b. local area network c. wide area network d. Ethernet answer="2"> _____ is the mode of transmission in public data network in which data are transferred from source to the network then to the destination in an asynchronous data format. a. synchronous mode b. start/stop mode c. packet mode

d. circuit mode answer="4"> A seven-bit character represent one of _____ possibilities. a. 7 b. 14 c. 64 d. 128 answer="4"> _____ is defined to be the maximum rate at which information can be transmitted through a channel. a. bit rate b. baud rate c. coding d. channel capacity answer="1"> Circuit that performs the inverse mapping and delivers to the user destination, a reproduction of the original data source output. a. source coding b. channel coding c. inverse coding d. demodulation answer="3"> Digital modulation technique used in modems. a. ASK b. FSK c. PSK d. MSK answer="2"> Who developed the fixed-length binary code for telegraphy? a. Samuel Morse b. Emile Baudot c. Alexander Graham Bell d. Guglielmo Marconi answer="4"> Inventor of pulse-code modulation for the digital encoding of speech signals. a. R.V.L. Hartley b. J.R. Carson c. H. Nyquist d. Alex Reeves answer="1"> In what year did computers and terminals start communicating with each other over long distance? a. 1950's b. 1960's c. 1970's d. 1980's answer="3"> Store-and-forward multiple-access network. a. ARPANET b. ALOHA c. PRNET d. Packet switching answer="4"> A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a discrete memoryless source. a. prefix code b. source code c. entropy code d. Huffman code answer="2"> Who promulgates communications-related military standards (MIL-STD)? a. DOD

b. DCA c. DOC-STD d. ANSI-MIL answer="2"> What is the class of probability in error detection techniques that is known as residual error rate? a. P1 b. P2 c. P3 d. P4 answer="1"> RS 232 is normally an interface between DTE and DCE. What is its signal rate? a. 20 kbps b. 30 kbps c. 40 kbps d. 50 kbps answer="4"> Digital switching concepts that can handle more channels. a. SDS b. TSI c. TDM d. TMS answer="1"> What is the most significant advantage of modular switch than time-andspace switch? a. flexible size b. simplified control c. simplified manufacturing, testing, and maintenance d. the latter is more advantageous than the former answer="4"> Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of PCM systems? a. inability to handle analog systems b. high error rate as a result of quantizing noise c. not compatible with TDM d. the large bandwidth required answer="3"> The reason why companding is employed in PCM systems is a. to solve quantizing noise problem b. to allow amplitude limiting in the receiver c. to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion d. to overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers answer="1"> The highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate (fs) without aliasing. a. folding frequency b. resonant frequency c. critical frequency d. natural frequency answer="2"> The overlapping of the original spectrum and the first translated component is known as a. dc wandering b. aliasing c. droop d. distortion answer="1"> Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously. a. full duplex b. half duplex c. simplex d. echoplex answer="1"> Multiplexing in a time division multiplexing occurs based upon

a. the position of data within a frame b. the position of a frame within a group of frames c. the activity of connected device d. the priority assigned to a connected device answer="2"> What is multiplexing? a. the process of increasing bandwidth on a channel b. a technique that enables more than one data source to share the use of a common line c. mailing letter at the post office d. the ability to share frequency by time answer="3"> One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM. a. there is more time than frequency b. it is difficult to place channels side by side c. noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used d. most available frequencies have been used answer="4"> In _____ modulation the carrier is periodic train of pulses. a. amplitude b. analog c. digital d. pulse answer="3"> The process that uses the orthogonality of sines and cosines that makes it possible to transmit and receive two different signals simultaneously on the same carrier frequency is a. TDM b. FDM c. quadrature multiplexing d. duplexing answer="4"> Which of the following pulse modulation technique is a digital transmission system? a. pulse duration modulation b. pulse position modulation c. pulse width modulation d. pulse code modulation answer="1"> Information theory was developed by _____. a. Shannon b. Nyquist c. Reeves d. Hartley answer="4"> Disadvantage of digital transmission. a. more bandwidth and precise timing are required b. requires ADC and DAC device c. incompatible with existing analog facilities d. all of these answer="2"> A quadratic signaling has _____ possible states. a. 16 b. 4 c. 8 d. 32 answer="3"> What is the smallest unit of information in binary transmission system? a. byte b. digit c. bit

d. nibble answer="2"> The lowest layer in the ISO protocol hierarchy. a. network layer b. physical layer c. transport layer d. data link layer answer="3"> Basic speed rate of digital system. a. 1.44 kbps b. 144 kbps c. 64 kbps d. 2,048 kbps answer="4"> A formal set of conventions governing the formatting and relative timing of message exchange between two communications system. a. simplex b. tail circuit c. queuing d. protocol answer="2"> A device that connects 2 data terminal equipment (DTE) directly by emulating the physical connections of data communications equipment (DCE). a. short haul modem b. null modem c. X.25 modem d. smart modem answer="4"> Impact printer a. receives-only-printer with a keyboard b. includes ink-jet and terminal devices c. rapidly becoming obsolete d. strikes a ribbon against the paper to produce character image answer="4"> Modem is referred to as a. universal asynchronous receiver transmitter b. universal synchronous receiver transmitter c. data terminal equipment d. data communications equipment answer="3"> A signaling method relating to a multiplicity of circuits is conveyed over a single channel by labeled messages. a. code signaling b. synchronous c. common channel signaling d. asynchronous answer="3"> A data highway in LAN, this type of topology allows workstations to be connected to a common line where all messages pass stations on the way to their destination. a. CSMA/CD b. bus c. ring d. star answer="4"> A packet format has an error detecting code at a. the start of the packet framing sequence b. the destination address c. the packet number d. the end of packet framing answer="1"> It is a protocol used to connect the other packet switching network.

a. X.75 b. X.25 c. X.50 d. X.10 answer="2"> _____ is a network operating system within several buildings in compound. a. internet b. Novell Netware c. 10BASE-T d. intranet answer="1"> Used by Bell 103/113 series for full duplex, 2 transmission speeds of 0 to 300 bps. a. FSK b. PSK c. BPSK d. ASK answer="2"> What is the Nyquist sample rate for a voice input of 10kHz? a. 10kHz b. 20kHz c. 30kHz d. 40kHz answer="3"> What is the minimum number of bits required in PCM code for a range of 10,000? a. 12 b. 9 c. 14 d. 8 answer="1"> How many levels can be represented in PCM transmission system if the binary numbers 00000000 to 11111111 are used to represent signal levels? a. 256 b. 64 c. 128 d. 512 answer="1"> Channel capacity is directly proportional to a. bandwidth b. noise c. number of bits d. power answer="3"> Which does not affect noise in a channel? a. bandwidth b. temperature c. quantizing level d. resistance answer="2"> _____ is a character oriented protocol. a. BOP b. Bisync c. ETX d. BCC answer="2"> ______ character signifies the start of the test for Bisync a. ETX b. STX c. SOH d. BCC answer="2">

In _____ the clock pulse is used to time the sending and receiving of the characters. a. asynchronous data b. synchronous data c. bisynchronous data d. isochronous data answer="1"> All bits in a character are sent and received in _____ in serial port. a. one at a time b. simultaneously c. in groups of 2 bits d. in groups of 3 bits answer="3"> Bridge can only interconnect LANs having identical protocols at the _____ layers. a. session and presentation b. network and transport c. physical and data link d. presentation and session answer="3"> OSI stands for a. Out-of-band Signaling Interconnect b. Organization for System Interconnection c. Open System Interconnection d. Organization System Interconnection answer="2"> ISO stands for a. International System Organization b. International Standardization Organization c. Interconnection for System Organization d. International Subscribers Organization answer="4"> Message switching is ______ network. a. hold and forward b. forward c. hold d. store and forward answer="1"> Packet switching is _____ network. a. hold and forward b. forward c. hold d. store and forward answer="3"> Polling is an invitation of the primary to a secondary equipment to _____ a message. a. store b. receive c. transmit d. read answer="2"> Bit rate is _____. a. the rate of change at the output of the modulator. b. the rate of change at the input of the modulator c. the reciprocal of the time of one output signaling element d. the reciprocal of the time of one input signaling element answer="3"> A code that uses three unequal length symbols, dot, dash, and space to encode a character. a. Gray code b. Baudot code c. Morse code d. Hollerith cable

answer="2"> A 5-bit character code a. EBCDIC b. BAUDOT c. ASCII d. HOLERITH answer="1"> An 8-bit character code. a. EBCDIC b. BAUDOT c. ASCII d. HOLERITH answer="1"> An equipment that interfaces the data terminal equipment to the analog transmission line. a. modem b. muldem c. multiplexer d. codec answer="2"> Set of rules governing the orderly exchange of data information. a. CCIR recommendation b. protocol c. CCITT recommendation d. standard answer="2"> A communication network designed for transferring data from one point to another. a. Public Telephone Network (PTN) b. Public Data Network (PDN) c. Value Added Network (VAN) d. Packet Switching Network (PSN) answer="3"> Radio communications between points using a single share frequency. a. simplex b. full duplex c. half-duplex d. full/full duplex answer="2"> The number of pins in the RS232C interface a. 20 b. 25 c. 39 d. 30 answer="2"> A modem is sometimes referred to as _____. a. Data Terminal Equipment b. Data Communication Equipment c. Universal Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter d. Universal synchronous Receiver Transmitter answer="3"> Provide post equalization to the received analog signal. a. line equalizers b. graphic equalizers c. adaptive equalizers d. post equalizers answer="3"> The receive equalizer in a synchronous modem is called a. a compromise equalizer b. a statistical equalizer c. an adaptive equalizer d. an impairment equalizer

answer="2"> Compromise equalizer settings typically affect a. amplitude only b. amplitude delay c. delay only d. neither amplitude nor delay answer="1"> Training sequence (a bit pattern used to synchronize the receive modem) accomplishes one of the following functions. a. activate RLSD b. enable any echo suppressors in the circuit c. initialize the scrambler circuit d. deactivate RLSD answer="2"> When asynchronous data are used with synchronous modems that is called a. synchronous transmission b. isochronous transmission c. asynchronous transmission d. bisynchronous transmission answer="4"> _____ is defined as a figure of merit used to express the degree of modulation achieved in an FSK modulator. a. modulation index b. modulation ratio c. deviation factor d. h factor answer="1"> What channel in the 103 modem occupies a passband from 300 to 1650 Hz? a. low-band channel b. voice band channel c. high-band channel d. message channel answer="2"> Low speed modems generally have bit rates of a. 9600 bps b. 2400 bps c. 4800 bps d. up to 2000 bps answer="4"> Medium speed modems have bit rates of a. 9600 bps b. 2400 bps c. 4800 bps d. 2400 - 4800 bps answer="1"> High speed modems have bit rates of a. 9600 bps b. 2400 bps c. 4800 bps d. 2000 bps answer="3"> A means of improving the quality of a private-line circuit by adding amplifiers and equalizers to it. a. line equalizing b. line amplifying c. line conditioning d. line encoding answer="3"> A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband from a. 0 to 4 Hz b. 0 to 4 MHz c. 0 to 4 kHz d. 0 to 4 GHz

answer="3"> The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem is called a. a post equalizer b. a statistical equalizer c. an adaptive equalizer d. a line equalizer answer="2"> The minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN is called a. basic voice grade (VG) b. basic voice channel (VC) c. basic voice band (VB) d. basic telephone channel answer="3"> Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is commonly called a. private-line network b. PR network c. dial-up network d. trunk network answer="1"> The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data when it is in digital form and is therefore called a. data terminal equipment (DTE) b. data communications equipment (DCE) c. modem d. UART answer="3"> With _____, each character is framed between start and a stop bit. a. synchronous data b. isochronous data c. asynchronous data d. nonsynchronous data answer="3"> With _____, rather than frame each character independently with start and stop bits, a unique synchronizing character called a SYN character is transmitted at the beginning of each message. a. asynchronous data b. isochronous data c. synchronous data d. nonsynchronous data answer="1"> A logic _____ is used for the start bit. a. 0 b. 0 or 1 c. 1 d. 0 and 1 answer="3"> All stop bits are logic a. 0 b. 0 or 1 c. 1 d. 0 and 1 answer="1"> _____ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on a prescribed time slot for the occurrence of a bit. a. bit or clock synchronization b. modem or carrier synchronization c. character synchronization d. message synchronization answer="3"> Characters that must be transmitted other than the data are called

a. parity b. error c. overhead d. hamming bits answer="1"> In the United States, the most common CRC code is a. CRC - 16 b. CRC - 8 c. CRC - 7 d. CRC - 32 answer="4"> The generating power polynomial x^7 + x^5 + x^4 + x^2 + x^1 + x^0 is equivalent to a. 101101110 b. 101101111 c. 010010001 d. 10110111 answer="4"> Parallel transmission is also called a. parallel-by-bit b. serial-by-bit c. serial-by-character d. A and C above answer="1"> Data means a. digital information b. both digital and analog c. analog information d. neither digital or analog answer="4"> Go-ahead sequence a. 10111111 b. 00000010 c. 11111110 d. 01111111 answer="3"> Used to achieve character synchronization in SDLC. a. address field b. control field c. flag field d. frame check field answer="3"> A command that places a secondary station in the normal disconnect mode. a. RD b. DM c. DISC d. SIM answer="1"> Character oriented protocol. a. asynchronous b. SDLC c. ISO HDLC d. synchronous answer="2"> Determines which network configuration is most appropriate. a. applications b. network layer c. data link layer d. presentation layer answer="1">

A standard that combines previous standards 6159 (E) (unbalanced) and 6256 (E) (balanced) and outlines the class of operation necessary to establish the link-level protocol a. ISO 7809 b. ISO 3309 c. ISO 4335 d. ISO 2230 answer="1"> Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at a. 10 Mbps b. 30 Mbps c. 20 Mbps d. 40 Mbps answer="4"> A type of digital encoding technique used to detect collision in CSMA/CD. a. UPRZ b. BPRZ c. UPNRZ d. Manchester answer="1"> With _____, a station monitors the line to determine if the line is busy. a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. Token passing d. FDDI answer="3"> Describes the mechanism used by a station to gain access to local area network. a. Channel multiplexing b. CSMA/CD c. Channel accessing d. CSMA/CA answer="3"> Broadband uses a. TDM b. Space multiplexing c. FDM d. Statistical multiplexing answer="1"> A typical multiplexing scheme used by baseband transmission. a. TDM b. Space multiplexing c. FDM d. Statistical multiplexing answer="3"> _____ uses the connecting medium as a single-channel device. a. broadband transmission b. digital transmission c. baseband transmission d. analog transmission answer="1"> _____ uses the connecting medium as a multi-channel device. a. broadband transmission b. digital transmission c. baseband transmission d. analog transmission answer="3"> The use of coaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall length of approximately. a. 1500 ft b. 1500 km c. 1500 m d. 1500 kft

answer="2"> Identifies how the stations are interconnected in a network. a. topology b. topology or architecture c. architecture d. topology and architecture answer="3"> A data communications network that is designed to provide two-way communications between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment within a relatively small geographic area. a. Private Area Network b. Wide Area Network c. Local Area Network d. Ethernet answer="2"> The type of encoding used in the transmission of data on an ISDN line between a customer's premises and a carrier's central office. a. quadrature amplitude b. 2B1Q encoding c. Manchester d. UPRZ answer="3"> A mode of transmission in public data network in which data are transferred from source to the network to the destination in an asynchronous data format. a. synchronous mode b. packet mode c. start/stop mode d. circuit mode answer="1"> IEEE 802.3 standard is a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. token passing d. FDDI answer="3"> IEEE 802.4 standard is a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. token passing for bus topology d. token passing for ring topology answer="4"> IEEE 802.5 standard is a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. token passing for bus topology d. token passing for ring topology answer="2"> What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access B channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer="2"> What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer="1"> What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? a. 2B + D b. B + D c. B + 2D

d. 2B + 2D answer="4"> What is the number of channels on which different operations can occur simultaneously on one ISDN basic access line? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 3 answer="1"> Digital telephone and integrated voice-data workstations are examples of what type of ISDN equipment? a. TE b. TA c. NT2 d. TP answer="1"> How many OSI layers are covered under the X.25 standard? a. 3 b. 4 c. 7 d. 2 answer="2"> An Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer has the responsibility for the physical transportation of the bits of data from one end of a point-to-point link to the other. a. data link layer b. physical layer c. network layer d. session layer answer="3"> A technique involving signaling by both ends of a link to ensure correct data transfer. a. collision b. burst c. handshaking d. stuffing answer="3"> XON/XOFF is a. seldom used b. always enabled c. a method of flow control d. a data compression function answer="4"> An example of outband signaling is a. XON/XOFF b. RTS c. RS-232 d. CTS answer="1"> A recommendation which allows a synchronous modem to be used to transmit asynchronous characters, without error control. a. V.14 b. V.13 c. V.22 d. V.23 answer="3"> The scrambler in a synchronous modem is found in the a. modular section b. receiver section c. transmitter section d. demodulator section answer="1">

A CCITT recommendation which gives the definition for the interchange circuits between DTE's and DCE's. a. V.24 b. V.25 c. V.26 d. V.27 answer="3"> Binary codes are sometimes transformed in modems into a. octal codes b. Huffman codes c. Gray code d. Hamming codes answer="3"> A Western Electric 2911 modem operates with a carrier frequency of a. 1400 Hz b. 1200 Hz c. 1800 Hz d. 800 Hz answer="4"> A special bit pattern used to denote the start and end of a data link layer frame. a. EBCDIC b. gateway c. fibre d. flag answer="2"> A bipolar violation a. represents a zero followed by one bit b. occurs when two successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated by a zero level c. occurs when two successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated by one level d. represents as one bit followed by a zero bit answer="3"> What is a flow control? a. refers to opening and closing of flood control gates b. the process wherby the modem matches the rate of the receiver c. the process of starting and stopping the terminal output to avoid loss of characters by the receiving device d. the process of switching "on" and "off". answer="3"> Buffering refers to a. the storage of data within the transmitting modem until the receiver is ready to receive b. a method of reducing the severity of communications headaches c. temporarily storing data to allow for small variations in device speeds d. the process of isolating critical stages in a communications system answer="2"> What is the reason why many cables have RS-232 connectors with some wires crossed? a. RS-232 is the prevalent standard b. asynchronous modems reverse the direction of transmitted and received data from the standard c. many computers and peripherals use RS-232 serial interface, but not as DTE or DCE d. these connectors are readily available and cheaper answer="4"> RS-232, RS-530, RS-449, V.21 and V.24 are examples of a. standards for end-to-end performance of data communications systems b. standards for interfaces between modems and transmission facilities c. standards for various types of transmission channels d. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems answer="2">

Request To Send (RTS) / Clear To Send (CTS) a. is the way the modem indicates ringing and the way the terminal indicates that itis ready for the call to be answered b. is the way the DTE indicates that it is ready to transmit data, or the way the DCE indicates that it is ready to accept data c. are the pins that represent received transmissions and carrier transmissions d. is always activated prior to actual transmission/reception answer="4"> Extended command sets supported by modern modems a. are prefixed with the letter E b. can be counted on to provide a high-speed data transfer capability without requiring flow control c. are standardized d. use different commands to control many advanced modem features answer="3"> Which of the following can be done by a smart modem? a. detection and correction of transmission errors b. correct answers in multiple choice quizzes c. accepts commands from the terminal via the RS-232 interface d. converts digital signal to analog signal answer="1"> _____ always have a set of symbols. a. communications protocol b. headers c. standards d. codes answer="1"> The Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer="3"> Which protocol adjusts its block size based on the line error rate? a. XMODEM b. YMODEM c. ZMODEM d. BOP answer="4"> Which of the following is not a common DNA repeater? a. DESPR b. DEREP-AA c. DEREP-RA d. DEREP-RB answer="3"> What is the number of bits that are zeros when transmitting odd-parity coded symbols? a. odd b. even c. unknown d. four answer="2"> Standard for the 7-layer model for Open Systems Interconnection a. X.75 b. X.200 c. X.400 d. X.500 answer="3"> One of the following options is a characteristic of a LAN. a. parallel transmission b. low cost access for low bandwidth channels c. application-independent interfaces

d. serial transmission answer="1"> Not a common LAN medium. a. twin lead b. twisted pair c. fiber optic cable d. coax answer="4"> Not a local area network (LAN)? a. PBX system b. Hospital system c. Office building system d. cable TV system answer="1"> CCITT standard concentrating on data communications over the telephone network. a. V-series b. X-series c. I-series d. T-series answer="2"> One of the following items cannot be provided in a broadband LAN. a. voice circuits b. fiber optic transmission c. CCTV d. frequency agile modems answer="4"> A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN./ a. ring b. WAN c. UART d. PBX answer="1"> A LAN architecture that can be expanded to the greatest total system bandwidth. a. digital PBX b. token passing network c. broadband cable system d. CSMA/CD baseband system answer="2"> Which is considered as the fastest LAN topology? a. ring b. bus c. star d. square answer="3"> Data communications refers to the transmission of a. voice b. video c. computer data d. facsimile signal answer="2"> ______ is a procedure or rule that defines how data is to be transmitted. a. standard b. protocol c. data specification d. code answer="2"> Which of the following is a popular PC protocol? a. parity b. XMODEM c. CRC d. LRC

answer="4"> What is the most widely used data communications code? a. Gray b. EBCDIC c. Baudot d. ASCII answer="4"> The ASCII code has how many bits? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 answer="3"> What methods are used in data communications? a. analog methods b. digital methods c. both analog and digital methods d. neither analog nor digital methods answer="2"> One of the following is not primarily a type of data communications. a. teletype b. telephone c. telegraph d. CW answer="1"> Mark and space refer respectively to a. binary 1 and binary 0 b. dot and dash c. message and interval d. on and off answer="3"> A modem converts a. analog signals to digital b. digital signals to analog c. both of the above d. none of the above answer="3"> An I-series recommendation which describe what an ISDN is. a. I.112 b. I.210 c. I.120 d. I.130 answer="4"> Slow speed modems use _____ digital modulation method. a. BPSK b. QPSK c. QAM d. FSK answer="1"> When the data signal is transmitted directly over the medium, this is called _____ transmission. a. baseband b. broadband c. analog d. digital answer="2"> _____ is the technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a common medium. a. baseband b. broadband c. ring d. bus

answer="1"> The cause of bit errors in data transmission. a. noise b. equipment failure c. Human encoder d. Poor S/N ratio at the receiver answer="3"> What is the other name for parity? a. BCC b. LRC c. VRC d. CRC answer="2"> QAM is the combination of a. ASK and FSK b. ASK and QPSK c. ASK and MSK d. FSK and PSK answer="1"> A CCITT standard that refers to various aspects of Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN) a. I-series b. V-series c. X-series d. D-series answer="1"> Which of the following is not part of a QAM modulator? a. XNOR b. bit splitter c. balanced modulator d. 2-to-4 level converter answer="4"> Not a commonly used method of error detection. a. parity b. BCC c. CRC d. Redundancy answer="2"> What is produced by a longitudinal redundancy check (LRC)? a. parity bit b. block check character (BCC) c. CRC d. Hamming code answer="2"> What is the basic modulator/demodulator circuit in PSK? a. PLLs b. Balanced modulators c. Linear summer d. VCO answer="4"> What is the main reason why serial transmission is preferred over parallel transmission? a. it is faster b. it is cheaper c. it requires multiple channels d. it requires only a single channel answer="1"> Limitation of 10base-2 network. a. 30 stations per segment b. 20 bytes per data field c. 50 feet of cable d. 40 segments

answer="4"> A transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation. a. microwave radio b. coaxial cable c. twisted pair d. optical fiber answer="2"> Which of the following refers to the measurement of an uncertainty? a. probability b. entropy c. feasibility d. all of these answer="3"> Not an important characteristic of the physical layer. a. electrical b. mechanical c. logical d. all of these answer="3"> The bit rate of B-channel is _____ kbps. a. 16 b. 8 c. 64 d. 32 answer="1"> Defines a 2400-bps, PSK, half-duplex modem operating at 1200 baud. a. V.26bis b. V.26terbo c. V.27 d. V.28 answer="1"> Which of the following ITU standards describe the interconnection techniques between PDNs and PSTNs? a. V.100 b. V.200 c. V.300 d. V.400 answer="4"> Founded the wave theory of light a. Francesco Grimaldi b. Edward Appleton c. James Clerk Maxwell d. Christian Huygens answer="3"> Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as dielectric waveguide. a. Karpon and Keck b. Karpon and Bockham c. Bockham and Kao d. Kao and Keck answer="2"> Developed the first laser. a. Charles Townes b. Theodore Maiman c. Gordon McKenzie d. Albert Einstein answer="3"> The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye. a. amber b. visible c. infrared d. ultraviolet answer="4">

The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human eye. a. amber b. visible c. infrared d. ultraviolet answer="3"> Which color has the shortest wavelength of light? a. Red b. Yellow c. Blue d. Green answer="1"> What generates a light beam at a specific visible frequency? a. laser b. maser c. infrared d. flashlight answer="1"> Which of the following materials is sensitive to light? a. photoresist b. photosensitive c. light sensitive d. maser answer="3"> The core of an optical fiber has a a. lower refractive index than air b. lower refractive index than the cladding c. higher refractive index than the cladding d. similar refractive index with the cladding answer="2"> Is the different angle of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted. a. acceptance angle b. modes c. sensors d. aperture answer="4"> The loss in signal power as length travels down a fiber is called a. dispersion b. scattering c. absorption d. attenuation answer="3"> The bandwidth of optical fiber. a. 900 MHz b. 900 PHz c. 900 THz d. 900 EHz answer="3"> If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is _____ as the incident angle. a. smaller b. larger c. the same d. independent answer="1"> What is the specific path the light takes in an optical fiber, corresponding to a certain angle and number of reflection? a. mode b. grade c. numerical aperture d. dispersion

answer="3"> Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source. a. bandwidth b. chromatic dispersion c. spectral width d. beamwidth answer="4"> Which theory states that light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny particles? a. Huygen's theory b. Wave theory of light c. Nyquist theory d. Quantum theory answer="4"> Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near a. 20 MHz b. 200 MHz c. 2 GHz d. 800 THz answer="3"> When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity will not change? a. direction b. speed c. frequency d. wavelength answer="1"> Dispersion is used to describe the a. splitting of white light into its component colors b. propagation of light in straight lines c. bending of a beam when it goes from one medium to another d. bending of beam light when it strikes a mirror answer="4"> Luminance efficiency is minimum for a a. fluorescent tube b. high wattage light bulb c. mercury vapor lamp d. low wattage light bulb answer="1"> An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____ image. a. inverted b. the same in size c. virtual d. smaller size answer="4"> An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____ image. a. inverted b. the same in size c. smaller d. virtual answer="4"> The real image formed by a spherical mirror is _____ relative to its object. a. erect b. inverted c. smaller d. larger answer="3"> The wavelength of light has no role in a. diffraction b. interference c. polarization

d. reflection answer="1"> Longitudinal waves do not exhibit a. polarization b. refraction c. reflection d. diffraction answer="3"> ______ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take different paths down a fiber. a. material dispersion b. wavelength dispersion c. modal dispersion d. delay dispersion answer="1"> What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics? a. 0.09 dB b. 0.9 dB c. 0.19 dB d. 0.009 dB answer="4"> What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode fiber optics? a. 0.51 dB b. 0.31 dB c. 0.49 dB d. 0.38 dB answer="2"> What is the lifetime of LEDs? a. 200,000 minutes b. 200,000 hours c. 150,000 minutes d. 150,000 hours answer="1"> What is the lifetime of ILDs? a. 50,000 hours b. 75,000 hours c. 100,000 hours d. 125,000 hours answer="3"> Photodiodes used as fiber optic detectors are a. unbiased to generate a voltage same as a solar cell b. forward bias c. reversed bias d. thermoelectrically cooled answer="1"> What type of fiber has the highest modal dispersion? a. step-index multimode b. graded index multimode c. step-index single mode d. graded index mode answer="4"> Laser light is _____ emission. a. coherent b. stimulated c. spontaneous d. coherent and stimulated answer="4"> A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at light frequencies. a. stripline

b. microstrip c. laser beam d. fiber optics answer="2"> Is a non-coherent light source for optical communications system. a. ILD b. LED c. APD d. PIN diode answer="1"> Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation? a. semiconductor b. ruby c. helium-neon d. neodymium-YAG answer="1"> Which laser emits light in visible range, 400 to 700 nm? a. argon-ion b. nitrogen c. carbon-dioxide d. neodymium-YAG answer="2"> Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser? a. energy x time b. pulse energy x repetition rate c. pulse energy / repetition rate d. peak power x pulse length answer="3"> What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10^12 Hz? a. 10.6 x 10^34 joules b. 6.63 x 10^-34 joules c. 6.63 x 10^-22 joules d. 10.6 x 10^22 joules answer="4"> A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 20 cm away from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens? a. 5 cm b. 10 cm c. 15 cm d. 20 cm answer="1"> Which of the following does not harm laser efficiency? a. atmospheric absorption b. excitation energy not absorbed c. problems in populating the lower laser level d. inefficiency in populating the upper laser level answer="1"> Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission bandwidth? a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules b. amplification within the laser medium c. coherence of the laser light d. optical pumping of the laser transition answer="1"> The first laser emitted a. pulses of 694-nm red light b. a continuous red beam c. pulses of white light from a helical flashlamp d. spontaneous emission

answer="3"> What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon? a. liquid b. gas c. molten d. hot answer="4"> Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter in the Fiber Optical Communications? a. APD b. LSA diode c. PIN diode d. LED answer="1"> Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics communications? a. APD b. Tunnel diode c. Laser diode d. LED answer="2"> The numerical aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is a. 0.17 b. 0.26 c. 0.50 d. 0.75 answer="4"> The inner portion of the fiber cable is called a. cladding b. coating c. inner conductor d. core answer="1"> Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation? a. semiconductor b. ruby c. helium-neon d. neodymium-YAG answer="1"> The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is a. 375 x 10^12 Hz b. 475 x 10^15 Hz c. 375 x 10^9 Hz d. 375 x 10^18 Hz answer="4"> Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable? a. computer networks b. long-distance telephone systems c. closed circuit TV d. consumer TV answer="2"> Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with what relationship to the crucial angle? a. less than b. greater than c. equal to d. zero answer="2"> The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of a. refraction b. reflection

c. dispersion d. absorption answer="3"> Which of the following is not a common type of the fiber-optic cable? a. single-mode step-index b. multimode graded-index c. single-mode graded-index d. multimode step-index answer="2"> Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of a. loss per foot b. dB/km c. intensity per mile d. voltage drop per inch answer="2"> Which cable has the highest attenuation? a. 1 km b. 2 km c. 95 ft d. 5500 ft answer="4"> The upper pulse rate and information-carrying capacity of a cable is limited by a. pulse shortening b. attenuation c. light leakage d. modal dispersion answer="2"> The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of a. air b. glass c. diamond d. quartz answer="3"> The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by a. wire braid shield b. Kevlar c. cladding d. plastic insulation answer="1"> The speed of light in a plastic component to the speed of light in air is a. slower b. faster c. the same d. either lower or faster answer="2"> Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable? a. immunity from interference b. no electrical safety problems c. excellent data security d. lower cost answer="3"> The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwave or any other communications media is a. lower cost b. better security c. wider bandwidth d. freedom from interference answer="4"> Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum? a. infrared b. ultraviolet c. visible color

d. X-rays answer="2"> The wavelength of visible light extends from a. 0.8 to 1.6 m b. 400 to 750 nm c. 200 to 660 nm d. 700 to 1,200 nm answer="4"> The speed of light is a. 186,000 mi/h b. 300 mi/h c. 300,000 m/s d. 300,000,000 m/s answer="1"> Refraction is the a. bending of light waves b. reflection of light waves c. distortion of light waves d. diffusion of light waves answer="3"> The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is called the a. speed factor b. index of reflection c. index of refraction d. dielectric constant answer="2"> A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is a. 0.7 m b. 1.3 m c. 1.5 m d. 1.8 m answer="1"> Which type of fiber optic cable is the most widely used? a. single-mode step-index b. multimode step-index c. single-mode graded-index d. multimode graded-index answer="1"> Which type of fiber-optic cable is best for very high speed data? a. single-mode step-index b. multimode step-index c. single-mode graded-index d. multimode graded-index answer="1"> Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion? a. single-mode step-index b. multimode step-index c. single-mode graded-index d. multimode graded-index answer="1"> Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss? a. reflection b. absorption c. scattering d. dispersion answer="2"> A distance of 8 km is the same as a. 2.5 mi b. 5 mi c. 8 mi d. 12.9 mi

answer="1"> A fiber-optic has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a cable 1,000 ft long is a. 4.57 dB b. 9.3 dB c. 24 dB d. 49.2 dB answer="3"> Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked together. The total loss is a. 7.5 dB b. 19.8 dB c. 29.1 dB d. 650 dB answer="4"> Which light emitter is preferred for high-speed data in a fiber-optic system? a. incandescent b. LED c. neon d. laser answer="2"> Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in which spectrum? a. visible b. infrared c. ultraviolet d. X-ray answer="1"> Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with a. forward bias b. reverse bias c. neither a or b d. either a or b answer="4"> Single-frequency light is called a. pure b. intense c. coherent d. monochromatic answer="3"> Laser light is very bright because it is a. pure b. white c. coherent d. monochromatic answer="2"> Which of the following is NOT a common light detector? a. PIN photodiode b. photovoltaic diode c. photodiode d. avalanche photodiode answer="4"> Which of the following is the fastest light sensor? a. PIN photodiode b. photovoltaic diode c. phototransistor d. avalanche photodiode answer="2"> Photodiodes operate properly with a. forward bias b. reverse bias c. neither A or B d. either A or B answer="3">

The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/s. What is the maximum rate at 5 km? a. 100 Mbits/s b. 200 Mbits/s c. 400 Mbits/s d. 1000 Mbits/s answer="1"> Which fiber-optic system is better? a. 3 repeaters b. 8 repeaters c. 11 repeaters d. 20 repeaters answer="1"> An important requirement for successful transmission system using light. a. powerful, reliable light source b. strong glass c. reliable, high cost transmission medium d. powerful regenerators answer="3"> What filter is used to block light from a laser and let other light through? a. neutral density b. color c. interference d. spatial answer="2"> ______ is a light that can be coherent. a. spontaneous emission b. monochromatic and in-phase c. narrow beam divergence d. monochromatic answer="4"> Coherence of laser light is important for ______. a. light propagation b. getting laser light to pass through air c. drilling holes d. holography answer="4"> The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is approximately _____ pure. a. 99.9 % b. 99.99 % c. 99.999 % d. 99.9999 % answer="1"> In fiber optics, PCS stands for a. plastic-clad-silica b. polyethylene-clad-silica c. personal carrier system d. personal communication system answer="4"> How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser's gain bandwidth? a. 2 b. 5 c. 9 d. no fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing answer="3"> _____ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the glass core molecules. a. Ion resonance absorption b. Ultraviolet absorption c. Infrared absorption d. Absorption loss

answer="3"> In fiber optics, SCS stands for a. suppressed-clad-silicon b. silicon base-class-silica c. silica-clad-silica d. serial-clad-silicon answer="1"> Helium laser was developed by A. Javen at Bell Labs in a. 1960 b. 1962 c. 1963 d. 1964 answer="2"> What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length that can be achieved for a given wavelength? a. transit time b. spectral response c. dark current d. responsitivity answer="1"> Dark current in light detectors is caused by a. thermally generated carriers in the diode b. the absence of light input c. small leakage current d. its imperfection answer="2"> What is the unit of responsitivity? a. ampere/volt b. ampere/watt c. watt/ampere d. volt/ampere answer="4"> One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors? a. responsitivity b. spectral response c. transit time d. dispersion answer="4"> What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown LEDs? a. 840 nm b. 490 nm c. 480 nm d. 940 nm answer="2"> SONET stands for a. System Optical Network b. Synchronous Optical Network c. Silica Optical Network d. System Optical Fiber Net answer="3"> Bend loss is a. a reduction in transmitter power caused by earth's surface curvature b. a reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends c. an attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the fiber d. all of these answer="2"> Infrared range for fiber optics. a. 400 - 700 nm b. 700 - 1,200 nm c. 300 - 2,000 nm d. 400 - 7,000 nm answer="3">

Which of the following is a disadvantage for plastic fiber optics? a. noise immunity b. electric hazards c. higher losses d. all of these answer="1"> OTDR stands for a. Optical Time Domain Reflectometer b. Optical Transit Direction Return c. Optical Time Domain Regeneration d. Overtime Direct Reference answer="4"> Which of the following is determined by an OTDR? a. distance to trouble b. length of fiber c. refractive index d. all of these answer="3"> Under normal condition, a single fiber should not be used for a two-way communication mainly because of a. loss b. fading c. noise d. attenuation answer="2"> A single mode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 0.2 d. 0.05 answer="1"> A step-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. a. 0.02 b. 0.2 c. 2 d. 0.002 answer="2"> The graded-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. a. 0.5 b. 0.05 c. 0.005 d. 5 answer="3"> Which is not a possible cause of optical fiber loss? a. impurities b. glass attenuation c. stepped index operation d. microbending answer="2"> The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the material used. a. S/N ratio b. refractive index c. intermodal dispersion d. monomode ratio answer="4"> Splicing fibers means a. fusion b. butt c. glue d. both fusion and butt answer="1">

An IC that represents a short distance one-way optical communications system. a. optoisolator b. insulator c. multivibrator d. optical IC answer="2"> When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, it produces a loss of a. 14 % b. 4 % c. 10 % d. 1 % answer="2"> When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced can be reduced by a. splicing b. antireflection coating c. insulation jacket d. all of these answer="1"> In fiber optics, higher-order mode refers to a. cladding boundary at high angle b. backscaterring electromagnetic materials c. defracting signals d. all of these answer="3"> The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except: a. backscattering b. absorption c. refraction d. microbends answer="1"> Why are visible-light LEDs not used for fiber optics? a. it has high losses b. it has short wave c. it has low attenuation d. it has weak signal answer="2"> Optical cable testers are used for a. checking refractive index b. light power out of a fiber c. non-calibrated light into a fiber d. checking maximum distance covered answer="1"> A function of an optic isolator. a. cancels reflected waves b. amplifies signal transmitted c. filters unnecessary signals d. all of these answer="2"> An increase in light intensity produces fast optic switching due to a. increase in index of glass b. amplification of optical signal c. high gain d. photoconductivity answer="4"> Light traveling in an optical fiber allows which of the following principles. a. Huygen's principle b. reflection theory c. light theory d. Snell's law answer="1">

Optical fibers for telecommunications are typically about _____ mils thick and consist of a glass core, a glass cladding of lower index of refraction, and a protective coating. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer="1"> Material dispersion is caused by the a. wavelength dependence of the index of refraction b. wavelength independence of the index of refraction c. dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number d. independence of the propagation constant on the mode number answer="4"> Modal dispersion is caused by the a. dependence of wavelength on index of refraction b. dependence of propagation constant on index of refraction c. dependence of the propagation constant on the wavelength d. dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number answer="2"> The dominant loss mechanism in silica fiber are a. absorption and radiation losses b. absorption and Rayleigh scattering c. coupling and radiation losses d. radiation and modal dispersion answer="3"> The bandwidth of a fiber is limited by a. mode b. wavelength c. dispersion d. frequency answer="1"> Fiber bandwidth is generally specified as the a. product of the bandwidth and distance b. sum of the bandwidth and distance c. difference of bandwidth and distance d. quotient of bandwidth and distance answer="4"> The _____ of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce a photoelectron or electron-hole pair. a. responsitivity b. photon efficiency c. aperture d. quantum efficiency answer="2"> In solid-state optical detectors, the excited charge is transported in the solid by a. holes and protons b. holes and electrons c. anion and cation d. protons and photons answer="3"> One of the following is not a solid-state optical detector. a. APD b. PIN c. PMT d. phototransistors answer="1"> Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to _____ rather than amplitude. a. intensity b. light c. density d. photon

answer="3"> The _____ is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second times the electron charge. a. intensity b. optical power c. photocurrent d. responsitivity answer="1"> Which optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are required? a. PMT b. APD c. PIN d. phototransistor answer="2"> What is the average loss in fiber splice? a. 0.10 dB b. 0.15 dB c. 0.20 dB d. 0.25 dB answer="2"> Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave spectrum? a. red b. white c. orange d. yellow answer="3"> What is the frequency limit of an optical fiber? a. 20 GHz b. 30 GHz c. 40 GHz d. 50 GHz answer="1"> The mechanical splice attenuation loss is _____ dB or less. a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 0.001 d. 1 answer="4"> _____ is applied to protect core and cladding of the fiber. a. insulation b. fiber insulation c. silica d. polymer jacket answer="2"> The energy of the photon is a. directly proportional to its bandwidth b. directly proportional to the Planck's constant c. directly proportional to Boltzmann's constant d. inversely proportional to the Planck's constant answer="4"> Refractive index of glass a. 1.0 b. 1.2 c. 1.4 d. 1.5 answer="4"> Refractive index of diamond. a. 1.0 b. 1.4 c. 1.8 d. 2.0

answer="2"> What is the unit of light wavelength? a. micrometer b. angstroms c. mils d. fathom answer="2"> How much is the power loss of the fusion splice? a. 0.1 dB or less b. 0.01 dB or less c. 1 dB or less d. 10 dB or less answer="3"> Used to test a fiber optics splice. a. spectrum analyzer b. oscilloscope c. optical power meter d. field strength meter answer="1"> A coupler which consists of a series of lenses and a partly reflective surface. a. beam-splitting coupler b. reflective star coupler c. fused coupler d. none of these answer="1"> Reflections in many directions. a. diffuse reflection b. diffraction c. scattering d. dispersion answer="1"> Commonly used electro-optic crystal for polarization modulation. a. lithium niobate b. tourmaline c. sodium chlorate d. sphalerite answer="4"> Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical systems? a. phase and frequency modulations b. polarization modulation and phase modulation c. intensity modulation and phase modulation d. intensity modulation and polarization modulation answer="2"> Is the progressive decrease of signal strength with increasing distance. a. radiation b. attenuation c. modulation d. propagation answer="1"> Calculate the effective earth's radius if the surface refractivity is 301. a. 8493 km b. 8493 mmi c. 6370 km d. 6370 mi answer="3"> If K-factor is greater than 1, the array beam is bent a. away from the earth b. towards the ionosphere c. towards the earth d. towards the outer space answer="2">

The antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space diversity system can be calculated from: (Where R = effective earth radius (m) and L = path length (m)) a. S = (2xlambdaxR)/L b. S = (3xlambdaxR)/L c. S = (lambdaxR)/(3xL) d. S = (lambda x R)/L answer="1"> Rainfall is important factor for fading of radio waves at frequencies above a. 10 GHz b. 100 GHz c. 1 GHz d. 100 MHz answer="4"> Theoretically electromagnetic radiation field strength varies in inverse proportion to the square of the distance, but when atmospheric attenuation effects and the absorption of the terrain into account the attenuation can be as high as the inverse _____ a. third b. fourth c. fifth d. sixth answer="4"> What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of carrier? a. Rayleigh fading b. Rician fading c. Wavelength fading d. Slow fading answer="4"> Which of the reception problems below is not due to multipath? a. delayed spreading b. Rayleigh fading c. Random Doppler Shift d. Slow fading answer="4"> Which causes multipath or frequency-selective fading? a. small reflector b. nearer reflector c. further reflector d. large reflector answer="1"> In microwave transmission using digital radio, what causes most intersymbol interference? a. delayed spreading b. Rayleigh fading c. Random Doppler Shift d. Slow fading answer="4"> A shipboard equipment which measures the distance between the ship's bottom and the ocean floor. a. fathometer b. echosounder c. LORAN d. SONAR answer="1"> The cavity resonator a. is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit b. in a reflex klystron has its output taken from the reflector plate c. produces a frequency which is independent of the cavity size d. has a low Q factor for narrow operation answer="1"> At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube?

a. at the cathode end of the helix b. at the collector c. at the collector end of the helix d. at the control grid of the electron gun answer="4"> Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be accompanied by a a. waveguide match b. cavity match c. direct-helix match d. all of the above answer="2"> A high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts can be generated by a a. traveling-wave tube b. magnetron c. reflex klystron d. Gunn diode answer="1"> A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of a. the absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream b. the effect of an external magnetic field c. the energy contained in the cavity resonators d. the energy liberated from the collector answer="3"> What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a traveling-wave tube? a. to accelerate the electron b. to velocity modulate the electron beam c. to keep the electrons from spreading out d. to slow down the signal on the helix answer="4"> Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band? a. Thyratron tube b. Tunnel diode c. Klystron tube d. Both B and C answer="3"> Microwave frequencies are normally regarded as those in the range of a. 1 to 500 MHz b. 1,000 to 10,000 GHz c. 1 to 100 GHz d. 10 to 1,000 GHz answer="4"> The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not limited by the a. electron transit time b. distributed lead inductance c. inter-electrode capacitance d. degree of emission from the cathode answer="2"> As the electron beam moves through a klystron's interactivity drift space a. frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity b. velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output cavity c. density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity d. phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output

cavity answer="4"> The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determined by a. the flux density of the external magnet b. the ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density c. the number of the cavity resonators d. the dimension of each cavity resonator answer="1"> If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are of opposite polarity, the operation is in the a. pi mode b. pi/2 mode c. 2pi mode d. pi/4 mode answer="4"> The Gunn diode oscillator a. is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of kilowatts b. generates frequencies which are below 100MHz c. operates over a positive resistance characteristic d. depends on the formation of charge domain answer="4"> What ferrite device can be used instead of duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna? a. isolator b. magnetron c. simplex d. circulator answer="2"> To achieve good bearing resolution when using a pulsed-radar set, an important requirement is a. a narrow, antenna-beam width in the vertical plane b. a narrow, antenna-beam width in the horizontal plane c. a low repetition rate d. a high duty cycle answer="2"> When used in conjunction with a radar set, the purpose of an echo box is to provide an artificial target, a. which may be used to tune the receiver synchronizer b. which may be used to tune the radar receiver c. to the tone of the pulse repetition d. tune the magnetron to the correct frequency answer="3"> In a radar-set receiver, the usual mixer stage is a. an FET b. a tunnel diode c. a silicon crystal d. a Rochelle salts crystal answer="2"> Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of a. 300 to 3,000 MHz b. 3,000 to 30,000 MHz c. 30 to 30,000 MHz d. 100 to 10,000 MHz answer="1"> Oscillations of a klystron tube are maintained a. by bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids b. by plate-to-cathode feedback c. by feedback in the accelerating grid and the repeller d. by circulating bunches of electrons within the cavities answer="4"> What allows microwave to pass in only one direction? a. RF emitter b. capacitor c. Varactor-triac d. Ferrite emitter answer="2"> In an SHF pulsed radar set, a reflex klystron can be used as a a. single mixer stage b. local oscillator c. transmitter oscillator d. duplexer stage answer="4"> A Class-S Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) a. must be capable of floating or being secure to a survival b. must have its battery replaced after emergency use c. may be tested during the first five minutes of any hour d. all of these answer="2"> A PPI cathode-ray tube as used on a radar set a. is used to check the percentage of modulation b. indicates both the range and azimuth of a target c. indicates only the range of a target d. is used for receiver alignment answer="3"> The resonant frequency of a cavity resonator depends upon a. the mode of operation b. the electrical dimensions c. its physical dimensions d. the capacitors which tunes it answer="2"> The maximum usable range of the usual radar set (on any particular range setting) is determined by a. the width of the transmitted pulse b. the interval between transmitted pulses c. the bandwidth of the receiver IF stages d. the duty cycle answer="3"> A reflex klystron is oscillating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. If the reflector voltage is made slightly less negative, the a. oscillation will cease b. output power would increase c. the frequency will decrease d. bunching would occur earlier in time answer="2"> The coarse frequency adjustment of a reflex klystron is accomplished by a. the AFC system b. adjusting the flexible wall of the resonant cavity c. an adjustment in the synchronizer d. varying the repeller voltage answer="4"> In a pulsed radar set, the STC circuit is used to a. improve the target bearing resolution b. increases receiver sensitivity for echoes from targets c. very the pulse frequency in order to control the maximum target d. reduce interference from the effects of sea return answer="3"> In a pulse radar set, the function of the duplexer is to a. aid in calibrating the display unit b. prevent frequency drift in the klystron c. allow the transmitter and the receiver to operate from a common antenna

d. all of the above answer="2"> A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle of 0.001. It has a peak power output of 100 kilowatts. Its average power is a. 10,000 watts b. 100 watts c. 1,000 watts d. 1,000,000 watts answer="3"> The aquadag coating on the inside of a PPI tube is used a. to focus the beam of primary electrons b. to shield the electron beam from unidirectional magnetic c. as a second anode and to prevent the build-up of a secondary field d. all of these answer="3"> If the duration of the radar transmitted pulse, on a particular range of operation, is increased, the required bandwidth of the receiver's IF amplifiers a. must remain as before b. must be increased c. must be decreased d. must be doubled answer="3"> The main frequency determining element of a klystron is a. the repeller voltage b. the accelerating voltage c. its resonant cavity d. its mode of operation answer="3"> A thin layer of dirt and grime covers the reflecting surface of the parabolic dish of a radar set. The practical effect on the performance of the radar will be a. a decrease in range b. a reduction in horizontal resolution c. no noticeable effect d. a decrease in gain answer="1"> Which of the following permits a microwave signal to travel in one direction with virtually no loss, but severely attenuates any signal attempting to travel in the reverse direction? a. isolator b. wave trap c. tunnel diode d. circulator answer="4"> It is possible to increase the maximum range of a radar equipment by a. lowering the pulse frequency b. raising the peak power of the transmitter c. narrowing the beam width and increasing the pulse direction d. all of these answer="3"> When it is desired that short-range targets can be clearly seen on a pulsedradar set, it is important that the receiver and display system have a. a long time constant b. low-pass filters c. the shortest possible time d. the restricted high-frequency response answer="2"> Which of the following is used as a high-power microwave oscillator? a. thyratron

b. magnetron c. klystron d. reflex-klystron answer="1"> Which of the following operating frequencies is used for the modern loran navigational system? a. loran C:100 kHz b. loran :10.2 kHz c. loran A:1950 kHz d. loran B:900 kHz answer="4"> What ferrite device can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna? a. isolator b. magnetron c. simplex d. circulator answer="1"> The pulse frequency is equal to a. duty cycle/pulse width b. the reciprocal of the pulse repetition rate c. pulse width x peak power / average power d. all of these answer="3"> In a radar set, a blocking oscillator can be used to a. act as the local oscillator converter stage b. provide the sweep voltage for the PPI tube c. produce a trigger pulse for the transmitter d. as a single local oscillator converter stage answer="2"> The intensity of the echoes (target definition) on a PPI display is determined by the a. radio frequency b. pulse frequency and antenna rotation rate c. duty cycle d. average power answer="2"> A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter and receiver to operate from the same antenna with virtually no interaction. This circuit may be replaced by a (an) a. lossy waveguide b. circulator c. isolator d. gyrator answer="3"> Which of the following frequencies are used by a class-C Emergency PositionIndicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)? a. 156.65 MHz b. 121.5 MHz c. 156.76 MHz and 156.8 MHz d. all of these answer="4"> The repetition rate of a pulsed radar system indicates the a. frequency of the range-marker oscillator b. reciprocal of the duty cycle c. number of target echoes received in one second d. frequencies of the duty cycle answer="3"> The radar set, sensitivity-time control circuit a. controls the width of the magnetron pulse b. is used to increase sea return c. can reduce sea-return response d. discriminates between targets that are very close together answer="3">

Which of the following is the ferrite device that buffers a microwave source from the effects of a varying load, and thereby prevents the formation of standing waves? a. circulator b. duplexer c. isolator d. diplexer answer="1"> Pulsed radar sets are primarily used to find the a. target's range and bearing b. size and speed of a target c. speed and course of a target d. target's range and speed answer="2"> Which of the following factors is mainly concerned in the design of an antenna system for pulsed radar set? a. duty cycle b. radio frequency c. pulse frequency d. pulse length answer="3"> In a radar set receiver, an ac AFC system may be used to a. automatically maintain the correct magnetron frequency b. keep the IF stages on frequency c. maintain the desired klystron frequency d. provide automatic control of receiver gain answer="3"> The input signal is introduced into the traveling-wave tube at the a. cathode b. anode c. cathode end of the helix d. collector end of the helix answer="4"> The display on the PPI scope of a radar set will have greater stability under the following conditions a. higher antenna rotation speeds b. lower pulse repetition rate c. lower antenna rotation speeds d. both lower antenna rotation speeds and higher pulse repetition answer="1"> The operating frequency of loran C lies within the a. LF band b. VLF band c. MF band d. HF band answer="1"> The PPI tubes have an aquadag coating on the inside of the tube. The purpose of this coating is a. to act as the second anode b. to shield the tube magnetically c. to decelerate the electron beam d. to deflect the electron beam answer="3"> A traveling-wave tube is used at frequencies in the order of a. 30 MHz b. 300 MHz c. 8,000 MHz d. 100 MHz answer="4"> The main benefit of using microwaves is a. lower-cost equipment b. simpler equipment c. greater transmission distances

d. more spectrum for signals answer="3"> Radio communications are regulated in the Philippines by the a. DOTC b. KBP c. NTC d. Department of Defense answer="1"> Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwaves? a. higher-cost equipment b. line-of-sight transmission c. conventional components are not usable d. circuits are more difficult to analyze answer="4"> Which of the following is a microwave frequency? a. 1.7 MHz b. 750 MHz c. 0.98 GHz d. 22 GHz answer="2"> Which of the following is not a common microwave application? a. radar b. mobile radio c. telephone d. satellite communications answer="1"> Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because of its a. high loss b. high cost c. large size d. excessive radiation answer="4"> Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with a. coax b. parallel wires c. twisted pairs d. PCBs answer="4"> The most common cross section of a waveguide is a a. square b. circle c. triangle d. rectangle answer="3"> A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0.6 in. Its cutoff frequency is a. 2.54 GHz b. 3.0 GHz c. 5.9 GHz d. 11.8 GHz answer="1"> A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the following signals will not be passed by the waveguide? a. 15 GHz b. 18 GHz c. 22 GHz d. 255 GHz answer="3"> Signal propagation in a waveguide is by a. electrons b. holes c. electric and magnetic fields

d. air pressure answer="3"> When the electric field in waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, the mode is said to be a. vertical polarization b. horizontal polarization c. transverse electric d. transverse magnetic answer="2"> The dominant mode in most rectangular waveguides is a. TE (0,1) b. TE (1,2) c. TM (0,1) d. TM (1,1) answer="1"> A magnetic field is introduced in a waveguide by a a. probe b. dipole c. stripline d. capacitor answer="2"> A half-wavelength, close section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant circuit is known as a(n) a. half-wave section b. cavity resonator c. LCR circuit d. directional coupler answer="2"> Decreasing volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. drop to zero answer="3"> _____ is a popular microwave mixer diode. a. Gunn b. varactor c. hot carrier d. IMPATT answer="3"> Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit? a. amplifier b. oscillator c. frequency multiplier d. mixer answer="2"> Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator? a. IMPATT b. Gunn c. varactor d. Schottky answer="4"> Which type of diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias? a. varactor b. IMPATT c. snap-off d. tunnel answer="1"> Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing a. reflex klystrons b. TWT's c. magnetrons d. varactor diodes answer="2"> Which of the following is not a microwave tube? a. traveling-wave tube b. cathode-ray tube c. klystron d. magnetron answer="4"> In a klystron amplifier, the velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the a. collector b. catcher cavity c. cathode d. buncher cavity answer="2"> A reflex klystron is used as a(n) a. amplifier b. oscillator c. mixer d. frequency multiplier answer="3"> For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied by a a. cavity resonator b. strong electric field c. permanent magnet d. high dc voltage answer="1"> The operating frequency of klystrons and magnetrons is set by the a. cavity resonators b. DC supply voltage c. input signal frequency d. number of cavities answer="2"> A magnetron is used only as a/an a. amplifier b. oscillator c. mixer d. frequency multiplier answer="1"> A common application for magnetron is in a. radar b. satellites c. two-way radio d. TV sets answer="3"> In a TWT, the electron beam is density-modulated by a a. permanent magnet b. modulation transformer c. helix d. cavity resonator answer="4"> The main advantage of a TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is a. lower cost b. smaller size c. higher power d. wider bandwidth answer="3"> High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers? a. MESFETs b. magnetrons c. klystrons d. IMPATT diodes

answer="4"> The most widely used microwave antenna. a. half-wave dipole b. parabolic c. hyperbolic d. horn answer="1"> _____ is a measure of reliability expressed as the average number of hours between successive failures. a. MTBF b. MTTR c. downtime d. outage time answer="2"> The free space attenuation between two microwave antennas 40 km apart operating at 8 GHz is a. 146.7 dB b. 142.55 dB c. 82.5 dB d. 86.7 dB answer="2"> An active microwave radio repeater that can provide drops and inserts. a. broadband repeater b. baseband repeater c. IF repeater d. RF repeater answer="1"> If the correction factor k equals 4/3 of the earth's curvature, the microwave beam would have a curvature that is _____ than that of the earth. a. more b. less c. equal d. not related answer="1"> The optimum clearance from an obstacle in a microwave system is accepted as _____ of the first fresnel zone radius. a. 0.6 b. 0.5 c. 0.9 d. 1.5 answer="4"> The microwave beam curves the same as that of the earth when the value of the correction factor k equals a. 0 b. 4/3 c. 2/3 d. infinity answer="2"> The time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12ms. The distance to the target is how many nautical miles? a. 4.85 nmi b. 9.7 nmi c. 11.12 nmi d. 18.4 nmi answer="1"> The ability of a radar to determine the bearing to a target depends upon the a. antenna directivity b. speed of light c. speed of the target d. frequency of the signal answer="3">

The pulse duration of a radar signal is 699 ns. The PRF is 185 pulses per second. The duty cycle is a. 0.216 % b. 0.130 % c. 0.013 % d. 0.407 % answer="4"> The Doppler effect allows which characteristics of a target to be measured? a. distance b. azimuth c. altitude d. speed answer="3"> The Doppler effect is a change in what signal characteristics produced by relative motion between the radar set and a target? a. amplitude b. phase c. frequency d. duty cycle answer="2"> The most widely used radar transmitter component is a a. klystron b. magnetron c. TWT d. power transistor answer="3"> Low-power radar transmitters and receivers use which component? a. GaAs FET b. Magnetron c. Gunn diode d. Klystron answer="4"> What component in a duplexer protects the receiver from the higher transmitter output? a. waveguide b. bandpass filter c. Notch filter d. spark gap answer="3"> Most radar antennas use a a. dipole b. broadside array c. horn and parabolic reflector d. collinear array answer="4"> The most common radar display is the a. A scan b. Color CRT c. LCD d. PPI answer="2"> A radar antenna using multiple dipoles or slot antennas in a matrix with variable phase shifters is called a/an a. A scan b. phased array c. broadside d. circulator polarized array answer="4"> Which of the following is a typical radar operating frequency? a. 60 MHz b. 450 MHz

c. 900 MHz d. 10 GHz answer="2"> A microwave system requires the use of repeaters when a. the intervening terrain favorable b. the distances involved are greater c. the required reliability is met d. the radio fading is unacceptable answer="2"> Are transmission lines which convey electromagnetic waves in highest frequencies. a. twisted pair of telephone lines b. waveguides c. power lines d. coaxial cables answer="4"> A microwave band of 10.9 to 36 GHz is considered as a. C-band b. X-band c. Q-band d. K-band answer="2"> A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula. a. 94.2 + 20log F + 20logD b. 92.4 + 20log F + 20logD c. 94.2 + 10log F + 20logD d. 92.3 + 10log F + 20logD answer="2"> A waveguide is also known as a. low pass filter b. high pass filter c. band pass filter d. band stop filter answer="2"> A method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on two different frequencies over the same path. a. space diversity b. frequency diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer="4"> A wire used to reduce the skin effect. a. AWG # i4 b. AWG # 15 c. copper wire d. Litz wire answer="3"> Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more a. different frequencies b. antennas operating on two different frequencies c. antennas operating on the same frequencies d. identical frequencies answer="2"> The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading in microwave system over the water. a. space diversity b. frequency diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer="1"> When the value of k increases, the effective result is _____ of the equivalent curvature.

a. flattening b. bulging c. sharp curvature d. all of these answer="2"> A traveling wave tube consists of a. electron gun, helix and repeller b. electron gun, helix and collector c. electron gun, repeller and collector d. buncher cavity and catcher cavity answer="3"> Advantage of periscope antenna in microwave. a. reduce tower height b. minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations c. shorten waveguide length d. easy to install answer="2"> What is the cut-off frequency of a waveguide? a. the highest frequency the waveguide operates b. the lowest frequency the waveguide operates c. the same as the operating frequency d. the only frequency the waveguide operates answer="2"> When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even fresnel zones at the point of reflection, the RSL is a. increased b. decreased c. constant d. above the threshold answer="1"> What is the wavelength of a wave in a waveguide? a. greater than in free space b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength c. inversely proportional to the phase velocity d. inversely proportional to the group velocity answer="4"> The CCIR hypothetical reference circuit covering a distance of 2,500 km consists of a total of how many hops? a. 5 b. 10 c. 24 d. 54 answer="3"> Water causes more attenuation particularly on what frequency? a. 20 GHz b. 63 GHz c. 183 GHz d. 202 GHz answer="1"> At what frequency does oxygen cause excessive attenuation? a. 60 GHz b. 50 GHz c. 40 GHz d. 30 GHz answer="1"> Which of the following is an atmospheric attenuation? a. attenuation due to water vapor and oxygen b. attenuation due to mist and fog c. attenuation due to other gases d. attenuation due to rain answer="1">

A microwave system operating at the 6 GHz band is carrying 600 voice channels. What is the noise loading power in dBmO? a. 12.78 b. 26.78 c. 27.78 d. 10.25 answer="4"> _____ is a microwave link between the down-town and another out of town terminal. a. STL b. uplink c. downlink d. terrestrial answer="1"> Attenuator used in the traveling wave tube to a. prevent oscillation b. increase gain c. prevent saturation d. all of these answer="2"> Is a method of diversity reception applied to reflective path to reduce fading. a. frequency diversity b. space diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer="2"> What is the effective earth's radius used in communications design? a. 4000 miles b. k x 4000 miles c. 8000 miles d. k x 5280 miles answer="1"> IF bandwidth of a radar system is inversely proportional to a. pulse width b. pulse interval c. peak transmit power d. all of these answer="3"> EADI stands for a. Electronic Air Data Indicator b. Electronic Altitude and Distance Indicator c. Electronic Altitude and Director Indicator d. Electronic Air and Distance Indicator answer="2"> Which aircraft navigational system determines the time to station (TTS) or time to go (TTG)? a. ADF b. DME c. Timer d. ATC answer="4"> What frequency does a radio altimeter operate? a. 33,500 kHz b. 43,000 kHz c. 33,500 MHz d. 43,000 MHz answer="2"> What inflight system allow passengers to make telephone calls, send faxes, and computer data shop and play computer games, etc. a. Inflight Satellite System b. Terrestrial Flight Telephone System

c. World Airline Entertainment System d. Satellite Phone answer="2"> ADF stands for a. Audio Direction Finding b. Automatic Direction Finder c. Alternate Direction Finder d. Automatic Distance Finder answer="1"> RF carrier of the middle marker is modulated at _____ Hz. a. 1300 b. 1400 c. 1500 d. 1600 answer="4"> Which of the following is considered as the major advantage of using a helix traveling wave tube? a. cheaper b. less noise c. high power d. wide bandwidth answer="2"> RADAR stands for a. Radio Distance and Ranging b. Radio Detection and Ranging c. Radio Direction and Ranging d. Radio Distance and Range answer="1"> ____________ is the maximum sideband suppression value using filter system? a. 50 dB b. 60 dB c. 40 dB d. 30 dB answer="3"> ____________ determines the number of sideband components in FM. a. Carrier frequency b. Modulation frequency c. Modulation index d. Deviation ratio answer="1"> One of the following transmits only sideband. a. H3E b. R3E c. A3E d. B8E answer="3"> What produces the sidebands on FM? a. Signal amplitude b. Carrier harmonics c. Baseband frequency d. Broadband frequency answer="2"> Which test instrument displays the carrier and the sidebands amplitude with frequency to frequency? a. Oscilloscope b. Spectrum analyzer c. Frequency analyzer d. Amplitude analyzer answer="3"> Mixer is also known as __________. a. modulator b. suppressor

c. converter d. beater answer="4"> Which one of the following emission transmit the lower sideband and half of the upper sideband. a. A5C b. J3E c. A3J d. A3H answer="2"> An FM receive signal ___________. a. vary in amplitude with modulation b. vary in frequency with modulation c. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband modulation d. is not immune to noise answer="1"> The process of impressing intelligence on the carrier is called a. modulation b. detection c. mixing d. impression answer="1"> _________ is an electronic instrument used to show both the carrier and the sidebands of a modulated signal in the frequency domain. a. Spectrum analyzer b. Oscilloscope c. Digital counter d. Frequency counter answer="3"> What part of the carrier is varied by the intelligence during modulation in an AM system? a. Phase b. Frequency c. Amplitude d. Phase and amplitude answer="2"> The difference between the RF carrier and the modulating signal frequencies is called the a. USB b. LSB c. Sideband d. Carrier frequency answer="2"> What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the oscillator from the load? a. Oscillator b. Buffer c. Separator d. Mixer answer="2"> The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system is a. modulating frequency b. center frequency c. carrier frequency d. deviation frequency answer="2"> The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum modulating frequency is called a. carrier swing b. deviation ratio c. modulation factor d. modulation index answer="2"> A carrier signal has

a. constant amplitude b. a frequency of 20 kHz and above c. a varying amplitude d. the information content answer="4"> The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85 V. What is the modulation index? a. 0.47 b. 0.68 c. 0.32 d. 1.47 answer="1"> An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of 45 V.. The modulation factor is a. 0.56 b. 0.65 c. 1.78 d. 1.25 answer="2"> What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz when the modulating signal has frequency of 3 kHz? a. 25 b. 12.5 c. 0.04 d. 0.08 answer="1"> In a FM system, if modulation index is doubled by halving the modulating frequency, what will be the effect on the maximum deviation? a. No effect b. Maximum deviation doubles c. Decreases by 1/2 d. Increases by 1/4 answer="4"> Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM? a. Reactance modulator b. Balanced modulator c. Varactor diode modulator d. Armstrong system answer="3"> To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a circuit known as a. filter modulator b. ring modulator c. balanced modulator d. reactance modulator answer="3"> Which is the first radio receiver? a. TRF receiver b. Superheterodyne receiver c. Crystal radio receiver d. Heterodyne receiver answer="1"> An interfering signal with a frequency equal to the received signal plus twice the IF is called a. image frequency b. center frequency c. rest frequency d. interference frequency answer="4"> Double sideband full carrier emission type. a. A3J b. H3E c. R3A d. A3E

answer="2"> Single sideband reduced carrier emission type. a. H3E b. R3E c. J3E d. B8E answer="3"> A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type. a. H3E b. R3E c. J3E d. B8E answer="4"> Independent sideband emission type. a. H3E b. R3E c. J3E d. B8E answer="1"> Vestigial sideband emission type a. C3F b. J3E c. R3E d. B8E answer="2"> Single sideband full carrier emission type. a. R3E b. H3E c. J3E d. B8E answer="4"> Phase modulation emission type. a. F3E b. F3C c. F3F d. G3E answer="4"> Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM? a. Power saving b. Requires half the bandwidth c. Wider area of reception d. Better fidelity answer="3"> The advantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter is a. less audio power required b. better fidelity c. higher value of operating power d. less distortion answer="1"> The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter is a. less audio power required b. better fidelity c. higher value of operating power d. less distortion answer="3"> _________ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in AM transmission. a. Increase in noise b. Deviation in the operating frequency c. Interference to other radio services d. Decrease in the output power answer="2">

Which characteristic of a radio receiver refers to its ability to reject an unwanted signal? a. Sensitivity b. Selectivity c. Fidelity d. Quality answer="1"> What type of emission is frequency modulation? a. F3E b. G3E c. A3E d. B3E answer="4"> AM transmission power increases with ________. a. frequency b. source c. load d. modulation answer="2"> ________ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal. a. Hall effect b. Capture effect c. Image frequency d. Homing answer="3"> What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM? a. 50 % b. 75 % c. 100 % d. 80 % answer="3"> In FM, the Carson's Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to twice the sum of the modulating frequency and _______. a. carrier signal b. modulating index c. frequency deviation d. image frequency answer="4"> What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when modulated by 75 %? a. 53.2 kHz b. 48 kHz c. 56.25 kHz d. 112.5 kHz answer="2"> The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise. a. Single sideband suppressed carrier b. Frequency modulation c. Pulse-position modulation d. Amplitude shift keying answer="1"> Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels occupying adjacent frequency bands with some frequency space between them is known as a. guard bands b. AM bands c. band gap d. void band answer="4"> Modulation of an RF carrier results in a. multiple channels b. smaller antennas c. directional propagation d. all of the above

answer="2"> A process which occurs in the transmitter. a. Mixing b. Modulation c. Heterodyning d. Demodulation answer="4"> A process which occurs in the receiver. a. Beating b. Modulation c. Mixing d. Demodulation answer="1"> One part of the transmitter that protects the crystal oscillator from "pulling". a. Buffer amplifier b. Modulator c. Power amplifier d. Antenna coupler answer="4"> What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation? a. Frequency b. Phase c. Amplitude d. Depends on the type of modulation answer="4"> The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program will a. be complex b. contain fundamental frequencies c. contain harmonic frequencies d. all of the above answer="4"> What will be the result of the gain level being too high for signals entering the modulator? a. Receiver noise b. Excessive volume of receiver output c. Oscillator disturbance d. Distortion and splatter answer="1"> Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter power to a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. double answer="2"> When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power increases by what percentage over that of the carrier alone? a. 25 % b. 50 % c. 75 % d. 100 % answer="1"> When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is increased for AM, the antenna current will a. increase b. decrease c. remain constant d. decrease exponentially answer="3"> An increase in transmitter power from 25 W to 30 W will cause the antenna current to increase from 700 mA to a. 800 mA

b. 750 mA c. 767 mA d. 840 mA answer="2"> A second modulating tone having the same amplitude but a different frequency is added to the first at the input to the modulator. The modulation index will be increased by a factor of a. square root of 3 b. square root of 2 c. 2 d. 3 answer="3"> A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500 Hz tone. One frequency component of the modulated signal is a. 1200 Hz b. 5000 Hz c. 1002.5 kHz d. 2500 Hz answer="2"> A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which one is a frequency component of the modulated wave? a. 1195 kHz b. 1199.3 kHz c. 1199.7 kHz d. 1205 kHz answer="4"> Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a common-emitter configuration. a. Base modulation b. Emitter modulation c. Collector modulation d. Both A and C answer="2"> The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10 MHz and the modulating frequency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or frequencies, will not appear in the output? a. 9.999 MHz b. 10 MHz c. 10.0001 MHz d. both A and B answer="4"> Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by one or more of the following methods. a. Phasing method b. Filter method c. Decoder method d. Both A and B answer="4"> Envelope detection is concerned with the process of a. mixing b. heterodyning c. modulation d. rectification answer="1"> Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in a. distortion b. phase reversal c. reduced sensitivity d. amplitude damage answer="2"> Product detection requires the process of a. rectification b. heterodyning c. decoding

d. phase shifting answer="4"> A sine wave which is coherent with carrier has identical a. amplitude b. frequency c. phase angle d. both B and C answer="2"> Frequency modulation and phase modulation are collectively referred to as a. stereo b. angle modulation c. high fidelity modulation d. FCC modulation answer="3"> In FM the change in carrier frequency is proportional to what attribute of the modulating signal? a. angle b. frequency c. amplitude d. tone answer="4"> A louder sound, when generating the modulating waveform for FM, will cause a greater a. carrier amplitude b. angle amplitude c. distortion at the receiver d. frequency deviation answer="2"> If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200 mV will cause a positive frequency deviation of 10 kHz, what will be the frequency deviation for a negative change of 100 mV in the level of the modulating signals? a. 0 b. -5 kHz c. +5 kHz d. +0 kHz answer="1"> A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak frequency deviation of 75kHz. What is the modulation index? a. 5 b. 15 c. 75 d. 3 answer="4"> A 15 kHz sine wave frequency-modulates an 88 MHz carrier. A sideband frequency will be found at a. 87.970 MHz b. 87.985 MHz c. 88.015 MHz d. All of these answer="1"> A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be a function of the applied voltage. a. Varactor diode b. UJT c. SAW d. Variable capacitor answer="2"> A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining a. indirect FM b. direct FM c. demodulation d. low frequency filtering answer="3"> A device, now available in IC form, is useful for direct FM and as one element in the phase-locked loop. a. AFC b. AGC c. VCO d. LPF answer="2"> ________ is a frequency change process, whereby the phase deviation and frequency deviation are multiplied by some fixed constant. a. Translation b. Multiplication c. Division d. Addition answer="4"> A circuit that has the function of demodulating the frequency-modulated signal. a. AFC b. Envelope detector c. Decoder d. Foster-Seeley discriminator answer="4"> The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector because a. it is less sensitive to phase modulation b. it is less sensitive to noise spikes c. it is less sensitive to interference causing AM d. Both B and C answer="4"> One implementation of a pulse-averaging discriminator is a. a free-running multivibrator b. a crystal-controlled oscillator c. a quartz crystal filter d. a triggered multivibrator answer="4"> A 10% increase in the frequency of a constant-width pulse train should cause what change in its average value? a. -10% b. -1% c. +1% d. +10% answer="4"> Two different signals can be coherent if they a. have the same amplitude b. are both sine waves of different frequencies c. originate in the same physical equipment simultaneously d. have the same frequency answer="2"> A quadrature detector requires that a. four gates be provided b. the inputs are coherent c. the inputs are incoherent d. the inputs are identical answer="3"> In a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the abbreviation for a. Variable coherent output b. VHF communication oscillator c. Voltage-controlled oscillator d. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized) answer="1"> Identify an advantage , or advantages, of a properly designed FM system. a. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightning) b. Reduced bandwidth required

c. No noise of any kind d. The noise figure is inversely proportional to the modulation index. answer="1"> The output of a balanced modulator a. LSB and USB b. LSB c. USB d. Carrier answer="4"> If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power is a. unchanged b. halved c. doubled d. increased by 50% answer="3"> Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation? a. Audio signal b. Video signal c. RF carrier d. Binary coded pulses answer="3"> If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in and AM signal, the percent modulation is ___________. a. 20 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 answer="1"> Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the equipment suppresses the _________. a. carrier b. upper sideband c. lower sideband d. baseband signal answer="4"> The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power saving is _________. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 83 % d. 66.66 % answer="2"> If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled, the AM system being used is a. H3E b. J3E c. C3F d. A3E answer="2"> 100 % modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by _________. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 75 % d. 25 % answer="2"> A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _________. a. 2 components b. 3 components c. 4 components d. 2n + 1 components

answer="1"> A carrier signal has ____________. a. constant peak amplitude b. frequency range of 20-20,000 Hz c. a varying amplitude d. the information answer="3"> The modulating system is ___________ if the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant. a. amplitude modulation b. phase modulation c. frequency modulation d. pulse modulation answer="4"> What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its modulating frequency is doubled? a. No effect b. Twice the original index c. Four times the original index d. One-half the original index answer="2"> An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100 % modulation. How much power required for the carrier? a. 1000 W b. 666.6 W c. 333.3 W d. 866.6 W answer="1"> Standard way of designating AM. a. A3E b. B3E c. AHE d. C3F answer="1"> __________ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated signal. a. Discriminator b. Modulator c. Modem d. Detector answer="3"> __________ is an information signal that is sent directly without modulating any carrier. a. C-band b. Q-band c. Baseband d. Broadband answer="4"> Both frequency and phase modulation utilize __________ modulation. a. digital b. phase c. amplitude d. angle answer="2"> It is the width of frequencies within the spectrum occupied by a signal and used by the signal for conveying information. a. Band b. Bandwidth c. Electronic spectrum d. Frequency band answer="1"> Which transmit only one sideband? a. H3E b. C3F

c. A3E d. B8E answer="2"> __________ is a kind of modulation in which the modulated wave is always present. a. Carrier modulation b. Continuous modulation c. Log-periodic modulation d. Square-wave modulation answer="1"> A type of modulation in which no signal is present between pulses. a. Pulse modulation b. FSK c. QAM d. PAM answer="4"> What describes the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform? a. Percent modulation b. Modulation constant c. Envelope of modulation d. Coefficient of modulation answer="3"> _______ __ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when the positive and negative alternations in the AM modulated signals are not equal. a. Envelope distortion b. Spurious emission c. Carrier shift d. Johnson noise answer="4"> What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct FM frequency modulation? a. Multipliers can be used b. The deviation is smaller c. Simplicity and practicality d. The oscillator is crystal-controlled answer="4"> If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, this is known as a. frequency multiplication b. sideband movement c. baseband reorientation d. frequency translation answer="2"> A device which is capable of causing frequency translation a. High-Q tank circuit b. Balanced modulator c. Low-Q tank circuit d. 1F strip answer="4"> If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount, this is known as a. modulation b. frequency translation c. up conversion d. both B and C answer="3"> A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler. If the input signal frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the output will be tuned to a. 7.7 MHz b. 15.4 MHz c. 30.8 MHz d. 61.6 MHz

answer="4"> A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to achieve a maximum phase deviation of 0.2 radian. After passing through a frequency tripler, the maximum phase deviation will be a. 0.2 radian b. 0.3 radian c. 0.4 radian d. 0.6 radian answer="4"> Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be a. active b. passive c. linear d. nonlinear answer="1"> A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency doubling. a. Push-push b. Push-pull c. Pull-push d. Pull-pull answer="2"> Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a a. AM demodulator b. frequency synthesizer c. AGC circuit d. FM demodulator answer="2"> Frequency division by 12 will require how many flip-flops in the counter? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 12 answer="3"> Identify an electronic device, not specifically designed for the purpose, which can be used as a phase detector. a. Wien bridge b. Colpitts oscillator c. Balanced modulator d. Butterworth filter answer="3"> A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single crystal. What words describe this synthesizer? a. Crystal modulated b. Inexact c. Indirect d. Deficient answer="4"> A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is a. Keyed transmitter b. Power amplification c. Frequency generation d. All of these answer="1"> The term "pulling" refers to a. the change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading b. one half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier c. loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna connection d. reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the transmitter is keyed. answer="3"> When frequency modulation is achieved by initial phase modulation, this is called a. angular modulation

b. direct FM c. indirect FM d. indirect synthesis answer="2"> A disadvantage of direct FM is the need for a. AGC b. AFC c. a frequency synthesizer d. phase modulation answer="4"> Direct FM can be achieved by a. a reactance tube modulator b. a varactor diode c. an AGC circuit d. both A and B answer="3"> A receiver in which all RF amplifier stages require manual tuning to the desired RF is called a. superheterodyne b. autodyne c. TRF d. AFC answer="4"> Why is it often necessary to precede the demodulator by amplifier stages in a receiver? a. To improve fidelity b. To reduce receiver noise c. To eliminate image response d. To amplify weak antenna signals answer="1"> A serious disadvantage of the TRF receiver a. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range b. The weight and cost c. The requirements for a closely regulated power supply d. The requirements for a half-wave antenna answer="2"> Identify which is not a part of a superheterodyne receiver. a. Local oscillator b. Modulator c. IF amplifier d. Demodulator answer="1"> Which major element will not be found in every superheterodyne receiver? a. R-F amplifier b. Mixer c. Local oscillator d. IF amplifier answer="2"> Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver must be nonlinear? a. R-F amplifier b. Mixer c. Local oscillator d. IF amplifier answer="4"> The change of the modulated carrier frequency from the original RF to the I-F of the superheterodyne receiver is known as a. frequency multiplication b. frequency allocation c. frequency substitution d. frequency translation answer="4"> The key to achieving receiver sensitivity is the reduction of a. image response

b. mixer harmonic products c. spurious frequency response d. internal noise answer="4"> Which of the following receiver design objectives is not impossible? a. Elimination of galactic noise b. Elimination of atmospheric noise c. Elimination of man-made noise d. Reduction of receiver internal noise answer="1"> In comparing the S/N ratio for the input to the receiver with the S/N ratio for the output, the latter is a. smaller b. the same c. greater d. infinite answer="3"> The characteristic of a receiver that specifies the self-generated noise. a. Noise immunity b. Noise factor c. Noise figure d. Noise margin answer="4"> An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz is tuned to 98.7 MHz. What is the numerical value of the image frequency? a. 77.3 MHz b. 88.0 MHz c. 109.4 MHz d. 120.1 MHz answer="2"> A source of RF interference exists at 109.9 MHz. For which frequency in the FM broadcast band will this be the image frequency? a. 21.4 MHz b. 88.5 MHz c. 99.2 MHz d. 110.7 MHz answer="4"> The ratio of the superheterodyne receiver response at the desired carrier frequency to that at the image frequency is called a. the sensitivity b. the selectivity c. the image frequency d. the image rejection ratio answer="3"> The core of an IF transformer usually contains a. teflon b. computer nylon c. powdered iron d. laminated steel answer="2"> Shape factor is a measure of a. bandwidth b. skirt steepness c. coupling coefficient d. critical coupling answer="3"> __________ is the function which tends to maintain the sound volume level of a voice receiver nearly constant for a large signal strength range. a. Squelch b. Muting c. AGC d. AFC answer="1">

The function which tends to silence the receiver in the absence of transmitted carrier a. Squelch b. Muting c. AGC d. AFC answer="4"> What device is incorporated in a communications receiver to reduce impulse noise? a. Front-end processor b. Squelch circuit c. AGC d. Noise blanker answer="4"> What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the I-F circuitry is optimum? a. FM voice b. Double-sideband AM voice c. FSK data d. SSB voice answer="2"> If the input to a detector stage is an amplitude-modulated (A3E) IF signal then the output from the stage is a. a lower frequency carrier b. the audio voice information c. a morse-code signal d. the upper or lower set of sidebands answer="1"> In a capacitive type, reactance-tube modulator connected across in oscillator tuned circuit, a more negative voltage on the grid of the reactance tube will cause a. an increase of the oscillator frequency b. a decrease of oscillator frequency c. an increase of the reactance-tube capacitance d. an increase of the reactance tube, ac plate current answer="1"> The limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver is a. the noise floor of the receiver b. the power-supply output ripple c. the two-tone intermodulation distortion d. the input impedance to the detector answer="4"> When a communications receiver is tuned to a strong signal, the AGC bias is measured and found to be zero. The fault cannot be caused by a/an a. defective IF stage b. defective local oscillator c. defective RF stage d. open circuit in the AGC's filter capacitor answer="1"> The term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received. a. Cross-modulation interference b. Intermodulation interference c. Receiver quieting d. Capture effect answer="2"> The limiter stage of an FM receiver. a. behaves as a low-pass filter b. limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level c. behaves as a high-pass filter d. behaves as a bandstop filter answer="2"> Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations) in an amplifier can be stopped by

a. grounding the screen grid b. connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground c. by passing the screen grid resistor with a 0.1 uF capacitor d. grounding the plate answer="1"> An effect in which, the modulation of an unwanted signal is transferred to the desired carrier a. Crossmodulation b. intermodulation c. Modulation mixing d. Image-channel interference answer="4"> Leads should be kept as short as possible in radio circuit so that a. skin effect is reduced b. there is less hysteresis effect c. there is less dielectric loss d. stray coupling is minimized answer="4"> The number of voice transmissions that can be packed into a given frequency band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over conventional FM-phone systems. a. 2 b. 8 c. 16 d. 4 answer="2"> Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage can be necessary in order to a. increase the amplifier's gain b. prevent the generation of spurious oscillations c. reduce the amplifier's gain d. reduce the level of the output harmonics answer="1"> The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of strong signals outside the band of interest is indicated by what parameter? a. Blocking dynamic range b. Noise figure c. Signal-to-noise ratio d. Audio output answer="2"> Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers. a. tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF amplifier b. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier c. local oscillator, RF amplifier, frequency discriminator, detector d. tuner, IF amp, detector, AF amp answer="1"> Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver a. Filter ringing b. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage c. Output-offset overshoot d. Cross-modulation distortion answer="1"> What stage mainly determines a communication receiver's sensitivity? a. IF amplifier b. Mixer stage c. Detector stage d. RF amplifier answer="1"> What is the main advantage of FM over AM? a. Better signal-to-noise ratio b. Narrower bandwidth c. Greater propagation range d. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference

answer="1"> An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before the final RF stage. a. Low-level modulation b. High-level modulation c. Direct modulation d. Indirect modulation answer="4"> Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by a. increasing the transmitter audio gain b. decreasing the receiver squelch gain c. increasing the receiver bandwidth d. ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter answer="3"> In a narrow-band FM system, the deviation ratio is commonly one and the highest audio frequency is generally limited to a. 300 Hz b. 10,000 Hz c. 3,000 Hz d. 7,500 Hz answer="3"> A type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal. a. A3F b. F3F c. A3C d. F3C answer="4"> Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal to noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver? a. In the detector b. In the atmosphere c. In the ionosphere d. In the receiver front end answer="1"> Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by a. installing a filter at the receiver b. using a filter at the receiver c. increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF d. adjusting the pass-band tuning answer="1"> What is the emission designation for FM telephony? a. F3E b. G3E c. J3E d. H3E answer="1"> What is the cause of receiver desensitizing? a. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency b. Audio gain adjusted too low c. Squelch gain adjusted too high d. Squelch gain adjusted too low answer="2"> In a phase-modulated signal (indirect FM), the frequency deviation is directly proportional to the a. carrier amplitude only b. amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the carrier c. carrier frequency only d. modulating signal amplitude only answer="2"> An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a superhet receiver. One advantage of including this RF stage is a. better selectivity

b. better rejection ratio c. greater sensitivity d. improved signal-to-noise ratio answer="3"> Two factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver. a. Dynamic range and third-order intercept b. Cost and availability c. Bandwidth and noise figure d. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range answer="1"> What is an undesirable effect of using too-wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? a. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage b. Output-offset overshoot c. Thermal-noise distortion d. Filter ringing answer="4"> A system containing a limiter stage, a discriminator, and a de-emphasis circuit? a. Direct FM transmitter b. Indirect FM transmitter c. Single sideband AM receiver d. FM receiver answer="1"> The limiter stage of an FM receiver a. prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal b. limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal c. limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages d. corrects any deviation in carrier frequency answer="2"> High selectivity occurs when the degree of coupling between a receiver's RF stages is a. tight b. loose c. critical d. adjusted for maximum power transfer answer="4"> A carrier is phase modulated by a test tone. If the amplitude and the frequency of the tone are both doubled, the amount of the deviation is a. doubled b. unchanged c. halved d. multiplied by four answer="2"> The degree of selectivity desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband receiver. a. 1 kHz b. 2.4 kHz c. 4.2 kHz d. 4.8 kHz answer="1"> The base in an RF amplifier is grounded in order to a. avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage b. raise the input impedance c. lower the output impedance d. obtain maximum power output answer="1"> The AM detector performs two basic functions in the receiver. a. Rectifies and filters b. Amplifiers and filters c. Buffer and amplifier d. Buffer and detector answer="4">

A varactor diode can be used in a/an a. direct FM modulator circuit b. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter c. phase-modulator circuit d. all of these answer="2"> Receiver interference is not reduced by including a/an a. crystal filter b. insulating enclosures around the receiver c. wave trap d. RF stage answer="3"> What is the emission C3F? a. RTTY b. SSB c. Television d. Modulated CW answer="1"> What is the approximate dc input power to a class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output is 500 W? a. Approximately 1000 W b. Approximately 800 W c. Approximately 250 W d. Approximately 600 W answer="4"> Which of the following stages in an FM receiver is responsible for drastically reducing the effect of static noise during the reception of a signal? a. De-emphasis circuit b. Mixer stage c. Squelch circuit d. Limiter stage answer="4"> The letters "SSSC" stand for a. single sideband, single carrier b. suppressed sideband, single channel c. suppressed sideband, single carrier d. single sideband, suppressed carrier answer="4"> For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP-to-average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? a. Approximately 1.0 to 1 b. Approximately 25 to 1 c. Approximately 100 to 1 d. Approximately 2.5 to 1 answer="1"> In most mixers, the oscillator frequency is ______ than the carrier frequency of the input signal. a. higher b. lower c. the same d. 10 kHz above answer="3"> Features of a transmitter's buffer stage include a. high gain b. harmonic generation c. improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator d. low input impedance answer="4"> Type of emission produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal. a. F3F b. A3C c. F3C d. A3F

answer="4"> A pi-network is a. a network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors b. a power incidence network c. an antenna matching network that is isolated from ground d. a network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors answer="3"> How is a G3E FM-phone signals produced? a. A network consisting modulator on the audio amplifier b. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier c. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator d. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator answer="1"> A way of eliminating auto interference to radio reception a. Installing resistive spark plugs b. Installing capacitive spark plugs c. Installing resistors in series with the spark plugs d. Installing two copper-braid ground strips answer="1"> The carrier in an AM transmitter is the a. transmitter's output signal when the modulation is zero b. transmitter's output signal when the modulation is present c. output signal from the crystal oscillator d. RMS value of the AM signal answer="3"> What stage feeds the discriminator of an FM receiver? a. Local oscillator b. Mixer stage c. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a limiter stage d. Buffer answer="4"> In an FM receiver, the stage that has the IF signal as input and the audio signal as output. a. Limiter b. Audio amplifier c. IF amplifier d. Discriminator answer="2"> What is capture effect? a. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver b. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal c. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver d. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal answer="2"> A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by a. feeding a phase-modulated signal into a low-pass filter b. modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier c. using a balanced modulator followed by a filter d. detuning a Hartley oscillator answer="1"> Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a. high modulating frequencies b. low modulating frequencies c. all modulating frequencies d. frequency carrier answer="1"> The result of cross-modulation is that a. the modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal b. a decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals c. a receiver quieting d. of inverting sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier

answer="2"> Which of the following contains de-emphasis circuit? a. FM transmitter b. FM receiver c. VHF transmitter d. VHF receiver answer="3"> What is emission F3F? a. AM b. Facsimile c. Television d. RTTY answer="1"> What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? a. F3C b. A3C c. F3F d. A3F answer="2"> Two AM transmitting antennas are close together. As a result the two modulated signals are mixed in the final RF stage of both transmitters. What is the resultant effect on the other station? a. Harmonic interference b. Intermodulation interference c. Spurious interference d. Crossmodulation interference answer="4"> The term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signal or a nearby station transmitter in the same frequency band? a. Quieting b. Cross-modulation interference c. Squelch gain rollback d. Desensitizing answer="2"> What is the bandwidth occupied by the carrier, both sidebands and harmonics? a. Authorized bandwidth b. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth c. Operating bandwidth d. All of these answer="1"> A class-C RF amplifier is collector amplitude modulated and its average dc level collector current does not change. This means a. a normal condition b. excessive drive to the base c. insufficient drive to the base d. insufficient audio modulation answer="4"> What determines the percentage modulation of an FM transmitter? a. Amplitude of the carrier b. Modulating frequency c. Carrier frequency d. Amplitude of the modulating signal answer="1"> Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the a. maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating frequency b. operating frequency of the assigned frequency c. frequency swing to the modulating frequency d. highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency

answer="3"> The main purpose of the beat frequency oscillator (BFO) is to generate a. a 1 kHz not for morse reception b. aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals c. an output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz d. a signal, whose frequency is the same as the intermediate frequency answer="4"> Normally, a linear class B RF power amplifier operates with a bias approximately equal to a. twice cut-off b. ten times cut-off value c. 50 % of cut-off value d. projected cut-off answer="4"> The purpose why an RF amplifier is operated under linear class-B conditions (as opposed to class-C) is to a. generate only even harmonics b. generate only odd harmonics c. increase the efficiency d. amplify an AM signal answer="1"> The term used to refer to the condition where the signal from a very strong station are superimposed on other signal being received. a. Cross-modulation interference b. Intermodulation distortion c. Receiver quieting d. Capture effect answer="4"> __________ is the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope. a. Peak-to-peak voltage b. Inverse peak positive voltage c. RMS voltage d. Peak negative voltage answer="3"> The type of emission that suffer most from selective fading. a. CW and SSB b. SSB and TV c. FM and double sideband AM d. SSTV and CW answer="3"> In an FM-phone signal, _______ is the ratio between the actual frequency deviation to the maximum frequency deviation. a. FM compressibility b. modulation index c. percentage of modulation d. quieting index answer="1"> __________ is used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal. a. Capture effect b. Desensitization c. Cross-modulation interference d. Frequency discrimination answer="4"> A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? a. SSB voice b. Facsimile c. FM d. Double-sideband AM answer="3"> If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude this means a. zero beat

b. under-modulation c. zero-modulation d. over-modulation answer="2"> What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a modulation factor of 12.5 and a modulating frequency of 10 kHz? a. 20 kHz b. 270 kHz c. 250 kHz d. 45 kHz answer="1"> Amplitude modulation is the same as a. linear mixing b. analog multiplication c. signal summation d. multiplexing answer="1"> The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an _________ in a diode modulator. a. the tuned circuit b. transformer c. capacitor d. inductor answer="1"> One of the following can produce AM. a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer="3"> Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator network is the principle of a. rectification b. amplification c. variable resistance d. absorption answer="4"> Which component is used to produce AM at very high frequencies? a. Varactor diode b. Thermistor c. Cavity resonator d. PIN diode answer="3"> A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for 100 percent modulation? a. 24 V b. 48 V c. 96 V d. 120 V answer="2"> What circuit recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal? a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal set answer="1"> What is most commonly used amplitude demodulator? a. Envelope detector b. Balanced modulator c. Mixer d. Crystal set answer="4">

What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands and suppresses the carrier? a. Amplitude moderator b. Diode detector c. Class C amplifier d. Balanced modulator answer="3"> _________ is a widely used balanced modulator. a. Diode bridge circuit b. Full-wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer="2"> In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. variable resistors b. switches c. rectifiers d. variable capacitors answer="4"> The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. DSB answer="1"> The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a a. Differential amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge d. Constant current source answer="3"> The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses a. LC networks b. Mechanical resonators c. Crystals d. RC networks and op amps answer="1"> In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due to a. phase shifting b. sharp selectivity c. carrier suppression d. phase inversion answer="2"> A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is called a/an a. transponder b. product detector c. converter d. remodulator answer="4"> Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a a. summer b. multiplier c. divider d. mixer answer="3"> Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as a. Rectification b. AM c. linear summing d. filtering answer="4">

Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM over AM? a. Greater efficiency b. Noise immunity c. Capture effect d. Lower complexity and cost answer="2"> The primary disadvantage of FM is its a. higher cost and complexity b. excessive use of spectrum space c. noise susceptibility d. lower efficiency answer="1"> Noise is primarily a. high-frequency spikes b. low-frequency variations c. random level shifts d. random frequency variations answer="3"> The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the a. modulator b. demodulator c. limiter d. low-pass filter answer="3"> The AM signals generated at a low level may only be amplified by what type of amplifier? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. All of these answer="1"> SSB means a. Single sideband with suppressed carrier b. Single sideband with carrier c. Double sideband with no carrier d. Single sideband with reduced carrier answer="3"> A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer a. Transformer b. Resonant circuit c. Filter d. Phase-shift circuit answer="2"> What is the output of a balanced modulator? a. AM b. DSB c. SSB d. ISB answer="3"> The acronym SSSC refer to a. Suppressed sideband, single carrier b. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier c. Single sideband, suppressed carrier d. Single sideband, single carrier answer="1"> Which process occurs in the receiver? a. Demodulation b. Reception c. Modulation d. Recreation answer="2"> What is usually used to demodulate SSB or CW signal? a. PLL

b. BFO c. Ratio detector d. All of these answer="1"> Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude modulator? a. Diode detector b. PLL circuit c. VCO d. All of these answer="3"> Which of the following is the most widely used balanced modulator? a. Full-wave bridge circuit b. Balanced bridge modulator c. Lattice modulator d. None of these answer="2"> The component most apt to break down in the radio circuit is the a. Crystal b. resistor c. transformer d. diode answer="2"> What is a non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of short duration with high amplitudes? a. Wander b. Jitter c. Hits d. Singing answer="3"> What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level? a. Nyquist theorem b. Hartley law c. Shannon-Hartley theorem d. Shannon theorem answer="1"> Quantizing noise occurs in a. PCM b. PLM c. PDM d. PAM answer="2"> Noise always affect the signal in a communications systems at the ______________. a. transmitter b. channel c. information source d. destination answer="4"> ________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both internal and external to the system. a. Interference b. Attenuation c. Distortion d. Noise answer="4"> Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle over a specified total frequency band. a. Gaussian noise b. White noise c. Thermal noise d. All of the above

answer="2"> Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system? a. Serial transmission errors b. The approximation of the quantized signal c. The synchronization between encoder and decoder d. Binary coding techniques answer="4"> A particular circuit that rids FM of noise. a. Detector b. Discriminator c. Phase shifter d. Limiter answer="1"> What is the reference noise temperature? a. 290 K b. 30 degrees C c. 70 degrees F d. 25 degrees C answer="3"> Unwanted radio signal on assigned frequency. a. Splatter b. RFI c. Noise d. EMI answer="2"> What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics? a. Thermal agitation noise b. Noise factor c. Noise margin d. Signal-to-noise answer="1"> ________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not have any traffic. a. White noise b. Galactic noise c. Impulse noise d. Atmospheric noise answer="3"> Which standard recommends crosstalk limits? a. CCITT G. 152 b. CCITT G. 150 c. CCITT G. 151 d. CCITT G. 161 answer="2"> Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio channels? a. CCITT Rec. G. 151 b. CCITT Rec. G. 172 c. CCITT Rec. G. 190 d. CCITT Rec. G. 190 answer="1"> What is the reference frequency of CCITT phosphometric noise measurement? a. 800 Hz b. 1000 Hz c. 1500 Hz d. 3400 Hz answer="3"> Reference temperature used in noise analysis. a. 75 K b. 250 K c. 290 K d. 300 K

answer="4"> Which noise is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms? a. White noise b. Extraterrestrial noise c. Industrial noise d. Atmospheric noise answer="1"> Man-made noise is usually from ___________. a. transmission over power lines and by ground wave b. sky-wave c. space-wave d. troposphere answer="2"> nif stands for a. Non-intrinsic figure b. Noise improvement factor c. Narrow intermediate frequency d. Noise interference figure answer="3"> Industrial noise frequency is between ________________. a. 0 to 10 kHz b. 160 MHz to 200 MHz c. 15 to 160 MHz d. 200 to 3000 MHz answer="4"> External noise fields are measured in terms of ____________. a. rms values b. dc values c. average values d. peak values answer="1"> Form of interference caused by rain or dust storms. a. Precipitation static b. Shot-noise c. Galactic noise d. Impulse noise answer="2"> At 17 degrees C, the noise voltage generated by 5 k ohms resistor, operating over a bandwidth of 20 kHz is a. 1.3 nV b. 1.3 uV c. 1.3 pV d. 1.3 mV answer="3"> ________ is an electric noise produced by thermal agitation of electrons in conductor and semiconductor a. External noise b. Internal noise c. Thermal noise d. Flicker answer="1"> Three identical circuits having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are connected in tandem with each other, what is the overall S/N? a. 5.23 dB b. 14.77 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB answer="3"> The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its power gain is 15, what is the over all noise figure if the second circuit has a noise figure of 11 dB? a. 11.59 dB b. 11.23 dB

c. 10.79 dB d. 10.5 dB answer="2"> Is the interference coming from other communications channels. a. Jitter b. Crosstalk c. RFI d. EMI answer="4"> What is the reference noise level? a. 10 pW b. 0 dBm c. 1 mW d. -90 dBm answer="1"> What is the unit of noise power of psophometer? a. pWp b. dBa c. dBm d. dBrn answer="1"> A large emission of hydrogen from the sun that affects communications. a. Solar flare b. Cosmic disturbance c. Ballistic disturbance d. Solar noise answer="1"> Atmospheric noise is known as ___________ noise. a. static b. cosmic c. solar d. lunar answer="2"> Standard design reference for environmental noise temperature. a. 300 degrees K b. 290 degrees K c. 32 degrees F d. 212 degrees F answer="1"> Absolute temperature in Kelvin. a. degrees C + 273 b. degrees C + 75 c. degrees C + 19 d. degrees C + 290 answer="1"> If bandwidth is doubled, the signal power is ___________. a. not changed b. quadrupled c. tripled d. doubled answer="4"> Name one or more sources of noise bearing on electronic communications. a. Steam boiler b. Galaxies c. Internal combustion engine d. Both B and C answer="4"> The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the effect of noise is called a. noise masking b. antinoise c. noise killing d. preemphasis

answer="4"> Deemphasis in the receiver in effect attenuates modulating signal components and noise in what frequency range? a. dc b. low c. intermediate d. high answer="3"> Atmospheric noise or static is not a great problem a. at frequencies below 20 MHz b. at frequencies below 5 MHz c. at frequencies above 30 MHz d. at frequencies above 1 MHz answer="1"> What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile station? a. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary b. Insulate all plain sheet metal surfaces from each other c. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all nonmetallic d. Install filter capacitors in series with all dc wiring answer="3"> Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ration in a VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver? a. Man-made noise b. in the atmosphere c. in the receiver front end d. in the ionosphere answer="3"> The difference between signal strength at a given point and a reference level is __________. a. power b. dBm c. level d. ratio answer="3"> Interfering effect of noise, C message weighted, is ________. a. dBa b. dBm c. dBrnc d. dB answer="4"> F1A weighting refers to _________. a. -90 dBm b. dBrnc0 c. dBrnc d. F1A handset answer="2"> Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western electric 3A test set at a + 7 test point is equal to ____________ dBrnc0. a. 58 b. 51 c. 65 d. 27 answer="4"> Reading a 58 dBrn, at a + 7 test point is equal to ___________ dBa0. a. 26 b. 65 c. 51 d. 46 answer="2"> A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing pair, and -80 on the disturbed pair equals ________________ dB of crosstalk coupling.

a. 20 b. 30 c. 60 d. 25 answer="3"> Power is _________. a. actual amount of power reference to 1 mW b. logarithmic ratio of two powers c. definite amount of energy per time period d. current flow per time period answer="4"> 15 dBa F1A weighted, equals __________. a. -90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -85 dBm d. -70 dBm answer="3"> You are measuring noise in a voice channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting network and a flat meter. Your meter reads -47 dBm. What is this reading in dBa? a. 77 dBa b. 35 dBa c. 38 dBa d. 32 dBa answer="3"> You are measuring noise at a +3 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -57 dBm. This is _________ dBa0 a. 20 b. 15 c. 25 d. 17 answer="4"> You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -59 dBm. This is __________ dBa0. a. 24 b. 12 c. 23 d. 32 answer="4"> A measurement of -75 dBm, C-message weighted, would be ____________ dBrnc. a. 8 b. 7 c. 9 d. 15 answer="1"> Your Western Electric 3A test set meter reading is -23 dBm at a test point level of -8 dB. This is _____________ dBrnc0. a. 75 b. 29 c. 30 d. 31 answer="4"> At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)? a. 90 dB b. 90 dBm c. -90 dB d. -90 dBm

answer="4"> Reference noise is ___________. a. a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone b. a noise that creates the same interfering effect as a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone c. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a voice channel d. B and C above answer="1"> A practical dBrn measurement will almost always in a ____________ number. a. positive b. negative c. imaginary d. fractional answer="4"> What is the reference level for noise measurement, F1A weighted? a. -90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -67 dBm d. -85 dBm answer="1"> What is the reference tone level for dBrn? a. -90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -67 dBm d. -85 dBm answer="4"> What is the reference tone level for dBa? a. -90 dBm b. -82 dBm c. -67 dBm d. -85 dBm answer="1"> Atmospheric noise becomes less severe at frequencies a. above 30 MHz b. below 30 MHz c. above 3000 kHz d. below 3000 kHz answer="3"> Indicate the noise whose sources are in category different from that of the other three? a. Solar noise b. Cosmic noise c. Atmospheric noise d. Galactic noise answer="3"> Indicate the false statement. a. Industrial noise is usually of the impulsive type b. Static is caused by lightning discharges in thunderstorms and other natural electric disturbances occurring in the atmosphere c. Distant stars are another source of man-made noise d. Fluorescent lights are another source of man-made noise answer="2"> Which of the following is not a source of industrial noise? a. Automobile ignition b. Sun c. Electric motors d. Leakage from high voltage line answer="3"> Indicate the false statement. a. The noise generated in a resistance or the resistive component of any impedance is random b. Random noise power is proportional to the bandwidth over which it is measured

c. A random voltage across the resistor does not exist d. All formula referring to a random noise are applicable only to the value of such noise answer="4"> The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is therefore a. halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. unchanged answer="2"> Indicate the false statement. a. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifiers b. Impulse noise voltage is dependent on bandwidth c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which is measured d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type answer="2"> An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 kohms input resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this amplifier if the ambient temperature is 17 degrees C? a. 40 uV b. 4.0 uV c. 400 uV d. 4.0 mV answer="2"> The 1st stage of a 2-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a 600 ohms input resistor, a 1600 ohms equivalent noise resistance & a 27 k ohms output resistor. For the 2nd stage, these values are 25, 81 k ohms, 10 k ohms, & a 1 M ohm, respectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise resistance of this two stage amplifier. a. 2,518 K ohms b. 2,518 ohms c. 251.8 ohms d. 12.518 K ohms answer="1"> The noise output of a resistor is amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a gain of 60 and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. A meter connected at the output of the amplifier reads 1 mV RMS. If the bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to 5 kHz, its gain remaining constant, what does the meter read now? a. 0.5 mV b. 0.5 uV c. 5.0 mV d. 5.0 u answer="2"> The front-end of a television receiver, having a bandwidth of 7 MHz, and operatingat a temperature of 27 degrees C, consists of an amplifier having a gain of 15, followed by a mixer whose gain is 20. The amplifier has a 300 ohms input resistor and a shot noise equivalent resistance of 500 ohms; for the mixer, these values are 2.2 kohms and 13.5 kohms, respectively, and the load resistance of the mixer is 470 kohms. Calculate the equivalent noise resistance for this television receiver. a. 8760 ohms b. 875 ohms c. 8.76 ohms d. 0.876 ohm answer="1"> One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of receivers. a. Input noise voltage b. Equivalent noise resistance c. Noise temperature d. Noise figure answer="3"> Indicate the false statement. Noise figure is defined as

a. the ratio of the S/N power supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or amplifier to the S/N power supplied to the output or load resistor b. noise factor expressed in decibels c. an unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy reception and reproduction of wanted signals d. S/N of an ideal system divided by S/N at the output of the receiver or amplifier under test, both working at the same temperature over the same bandwidth and fed from the same source answer="1"> Calculate the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518 ohms (R sub T =600 ohms) if it's driven by a generator whose output impedance is 50 ohms. a. 39.4 b. 3.94 c. 394 d. 0.394 answer="1"> Calculate the noise figure of the receiver whose RF amplifier has an input resistance of 1000 ohms & an equivalent shot-noise resistance of 2000 ohms, a gain of 25 and a load resistance of 125 k ohms. Given that the bandwidth is 1.0 MHz & the temperature is 20degrees C, and that the receiver is connected to an antenna with an impedance of 75 ohms. a. 30.3 b. 3.03 c. 303 d. 0.303 answer="2"> A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise resistance of 30 ohms. Calculate its equivalent noise temperature if the noise figure is equal to 1.6. a. 17.4 K b. 174 K c. 1.74 K d. 17 K answer="3"> Most internal noise comes from a. shot noise b. transit-time noise c. thermal agitation d. skin effect answer="1"> Which of the following is not a source of external noise? a. Thermal agitation b. Auto ignition c. The sun d. Fluorescent lights answer="2"> Noise can be reduced by a. widening the bandwidth b. narrowing the bandwidth c. increasing temperature d. increasing transistor current levels answer="1"> Noise at the input to a receiver can be as high as several a. microvolts b. millivolts c. volts d. kilovolts answer="4"> Which circuit contributes most of the noise in a receiver? a. IF amplifier b. Demodulator c. AF amplifier d. Mixer

answer="1"> Which noise figure represents the lowest noise? a. 1.6 dB b. 2.1 dB c. 2.7 dB d. 3.4 dB answer="4"> The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a a. MOSFET b. Dual-gate MOSFET c. JFET d. MESFET answer="3"> What is the noise voltage across a 300 ohms input resistance to a TV set with a 6MHz bandwidth and the temperature of 30 degrees C? a. 2.3 uV b. 3.8 uV c. 5.5 uV d. 6.4 uV answer="4"> Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high frequencies? a. Shot noise b. Random noise c. Impulse noise d. Transit-time noise answer="1"> The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbance approximately every a. 11 years b. 10 years c. 9 years d. 8 years answer="4"> The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to a. its resistance b. its temperature c. the bandwidth over which it is measured d. all of the above answer="1"> Noise occurring in the presence of signal resulting from a mismatch between the exact value of an analog signal and the closest available quantizing step in a digital coder. a. Quantizing noise b. Thermal noise c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer="3"> Noise consisting of irregular pulses of short duration and relatively high amplitude. a. Quantizing noise b. Tone interference c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer="1"> Noise that occurs via capacitive or inductive coupling in a cable a. Crosstalk b. Quantizing noise c. Reference noise d. Tone interference

answer="4"> Sources of impulse noise induced in communication channels. a. Erroneous digital coding bit caused by an error on a transmission facility b. Transients due to relay operation c. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems d. All of these answer="4"> Crosstalks due to incomplete suppression of sidebands or to intermodulation of two or more frequency-multiplexed channels which are unintelligible is classified as a. impulse noise b. thermal noise c. quantizing noise d. miscellaneous noise answer="1"> __________ is a device that measures the internal open circuit voltage of an equivalent noise generator having an impedance of 600 ohms and delivering noise power to a 600 ohms load. a. Psophometer b. Barometer c. Reflectometer d. Voltmeter answer="1"> External noise originating outside the solar system. a. Cosmic noise b. Solar noise c. Thermal noise d. Lunar noise answer="1"> A noise whose source is within the solar system. a. Solar noise b. Thermal noise c. Cosmic noise d. Johnson noise answer="1"> The total noise power present in a 1-Hz bandwidth. a. Noise density b. Noise figure c. Noise limit d. Noise intensity answer="4"> Which of the following is not a way of minimizing if not eliminating noise? a. Use redundancy b. Increase transmitted power c. Reduce signaling rate d. Increase channel bandwidth answer="2"> What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise? a. Thunderstorm b. Lightning c. Thunderstorm and lightning d. Weather condition answer="2"> What do you call the noise coming from the sun and stars? a. Black-body noise b. Space noise c. Galactic noise d. All of these answer="1"> The major cause of atmospheric or static noise are a. thunderstorms b. airplanes

c. meteor showers d. all of these answer="3"> Which of the following low noise transistors is commonly used at microwave frequencies? a. MOSFET b. GASFET c. MESFET d. JFET answer="1"> Which of the following is most affected by knife-edge refraction? a. Very high and ultra high frequencies b. High frequency c. Medium frequency d. Low frequency answer="4"> Which ionosphere layer has an average height of 225 km at night? a. D layer b. E layer c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer="3"> __________ is the amount of voltage induced in a wave by an electromagnetic wave. a. Receive voltage b. Magnetic induction c. Field strength d. Power density answer="1"> An electromagnetic wave consists of _________. a. both electric and magnetic fields b. an electric field only c. a magnetic field only d. non-magnetic field only answer="4"> What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere? a. F1 b. F2 c. E d. D answer="2"> Who profounded electromagnetic radiation theory? a. Sir Edward Appleton b. James Clerk Maxwell c. Christian Huygens d. Sir Isaac Newton answer="3"> The D, E and F layers are known as ________. a. Mark-Space layers b. Davinson-Miller layers c. Kennely-Heaviside layers d. Appleton layers answer="1"> Different grouping of the electromagnetic spectrum. a. Band b. Bandwidth c. Channel d. Group

b. 90 degrees c. 270 degrees d. 45 degrees answer="1"> A changing electric field gives rise to ________. a. a magnetic field b. sound field c. electromagnetic waves d. near and far fields answer="4"> Frequencies in UHF range propagate by means of a. ground waves b. sky waves c. surface waves d. space waves answer="2"> In electromagnetic waves, polarization _________. a. is caused by reflection b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium answer="1"> Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they _________. a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane answer="1"> What is the highest layer of the atmosphere? a. Ionosphere b. Stratosphere c. Troposphere d. Ozone layer answer="1"> What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere? a. F sub 2 b. F sub 1 c. D d. E answer="2"> Effective earth radius to true earth radius ratio. a. Index of refraction b. K factor c. Fresnel zone d. Path profile answer="3"> Fading due to interference between direct and reflected rays. a. Atmospheric-multipath b. Fresnel zone c. Reflection-multipath d. Rayleigh fading answer="1"> The layer that reflects very low frequency waves and absorbs medium frequency waves. a. D layer b. E layer c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer="2"> What layer is used for high-frequency daytime propagation? a. D layer b. E layer

answer="2"> What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave? a. 180 degrees

c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer="3"> What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth? a. MUF b. Skip frequency c. Critical frequency d. Gyro frequency answer="2"> High frequency range is from a. 0.3 to 3 MHz b. 3 to 30 MHz c. 30 to 300 MHz d. 3 to 30 MHz answer="3"> Medium frequency range is from a. 0.01 to 0.03 MHz b. 0.03 to 0.3 MHz c. 0.3 to 3 MHz d. 3 to 30 MHz answer="1"> In tropospheric scatter propagation, the attenuation is dependent on a. scatter angle b. take-off angle c. antenna size d. the troposphere answer="1"> If the transmitter power remains constant, an increase in the frequency of the sky wave will a. lengthen the skip distance b. increase the range of the ground wave c. reduce the length of the skip distance d. have no effect on the ground wave range answer="3"> What is the unit of electric field strength? a. Volts per square meter b. Volt per square cm c. Volts per meter d. Millivolt per watt answer="4"> Velocity of a radio wave in free space. a. 186,000 miles per sec b. 300 x 10^ 6 meters per sec c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec d. all of the above answer="1"> Refers to the direction of the electric field vector in space. a. Polarization b. Directivity c. Radiation d. ERP answer="4"> An TEM wave whose polarization rotates. a. Vertically polarized b. Omnidirectional c. Horizontally polarized d. Circularly polarized answer="1"> Velocity of light in free space. a. 300 x 10 raised to 6 m/s b. 300 x 10 raised to 6 km/s c. 186,000 km/s

d. 186,000 m/s answer="3"> What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200 W transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circular loss, and 10 dB feedline antenna gain? a. 2000 W b. 126 W c. 317 W d. 260 W answer="1"> Radiowave that is far from its sources is called a. plane wave b. isotropic wave c. vertical wave d. horizontal wave answer="4"> Light goes from medium A to medium B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees. The angle of refraction is 30 degrees. The speed of light in B a. is the same as that in A b. is greater than that in A c. may be any of these, depending on the specific medium d. is less than that in A answer="4"> In a vacuum the speed of an electromagnetic wave a. depends on its constant b. depends on its wavelength c. depends on its electric and magnetic fields d. is a universal constant answer="3"> The depth of an object submerged in a transparent liquid a. always seems more than its actual depth b. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the object c. always seems less than its actual depth d. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the transparent liquid answer="3"> What is a wavefront? a. A voltage pulse in a conductor b. A current in a conductor c. A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave d. A voltage pulse across a resistor answer="1"> VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to a. 1 W b. 10 W c. 25 W d. 50 W answer="4"> Most of the effects an electromagnetic wave produces when it interacts with matter are due to its a. magnetic field b. speed c. frequency d. electric field answer="4"> A mobile receiver experiences "dead" areas of reception as a result of a. atmospheric absorption b. tropospheric scatter c. sporadic E d. shading of the RF signal by hills and trees

answer="2"> When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the TEM wave? a. Elliptical b. Vertical c. Horizontal d. Circular answer="2"> When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the TEM wave? a. Circular b. Horizontal c. Vertical d. Elliptical answer="3"> When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the TEM wave? a. Elliptical b. Horizontal c. Vertical d. Circular answer="3"> What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave? a. An electric field and a current field b. An electric field and a voltage field c. An electric field and a magnetic field d. A voltage and current fields answer="3"> How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading? a. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths b. It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths c. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths d. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading answer="3"> A wide-bandwidth communications systems in which the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence. a. Amplitude compandored single sideband b. SITOR c. Spread spectrum communication d. Time-domain frequency modulation answer="3"> A changing magnetic field gives rise to a. sound field b. magnetic field c. electric field d. nothing in particular answer="3"> When a space-wave signal passes over a mountain ridge, a small part of the signal is diffracted down the far side of the mountain. The phenomenon is called a. discontinuity scattering b. tropospheric ducting c. knife-edge diffraction d. space-wave refraction answer="1"> The index of refraction of a material medium a. is greater than 1 b. is less than 1 c. is equal to 1 d. may be any of the above answer="3"> At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? a. Approximately 468 million meters per second

b. Approximately 186300 feet per second c. Approximately 300 million meters per second d. Approximately 300 million miles per second answer="4"> What is the effective earth radius when surface refractivity, Ns equals 300? a. 6370 km b. 7270 km c. 7950 km d. 8500 km answer="1"> If Ns = 250, what is the earth radius k-factor? a. 1.23 b. 1.29 c. 1.33 d. 1.32 answer="1"> Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earth's surface. a. Vertical polarization b. Horizontal polarization c. Circular polarization d. Elliptical polarization answer="2"> Electric field that lies in a plane parallel to the earth's surface. a. Vertical polarization b. Horizontal polarization c. Circular polarization d. Elliptical polarization answer="2"> Indicate which one of the following terms applies to troposcatter propagation. a. SIDs b. Fading c. Atmospheric storms d. Faraday rotation answer="3"> VLF waves are used for some types of services because a. of the low power required b. the transmitting antennas are of convenient size c. they are very reliable d. they penetrate the ionosphere easily answer="4"> Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond-the horizon terrestrial communications without repeaters. a. 20 kHz b. 15 MHz c. 900 MHz d. 12 GHz answer="4"> High-frequency waves are a. absorbed by the F2 layer b. reflected by the D layer c. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon d. affected by the solar cycle answer="2"> Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave propagation a. to avoid tilting b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference c. to avoid the Faraday effect d. so as not to exceed the critical frequency answer="3"> A ship-to-ship communications system is plagued by fading. The best solution seems to be the use of

a. a more directional antenna b. a broadband antenna c. frequency diversity d. space diversity answer="1"> A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than are the others is called a a. window b. critical frequency c. gyro frequency range d. resonance in the atmosphere answer="4"> Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of a. ground waves b. sky waves c. surface waves d. space waves answer="3"> Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range a. HF b. VHF c. UHF d. VLF answer="4"> The ground wave eventually disappears as one moves away from the transmitter, because of a. interference from the sky wave b. loss of line-of-sight conditions c. maximum single-hop distance limitation d. tilting answer="2"> In electromagnetic waves, polarization means a. the physical orientation of magnetic field in space b. the physical orientation of electric field in space c. ionization d. the presence of positive and negative ions answer="2"> As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to them. a. absorption b. attenuation c. refraction d. reflection answer="1"> The absorption of a radio waves by the atmosphere depends on a. their frequency b. their distance from the transmitter c. the polarization of the waves d. the polarization of the atmosphere answer="4"> Diffraction of electromagnetic waves a. is caused by reflections from the ground b. arises only with spherical wavefronts c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot d. may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle answer="2"> In an electromagnetic wave the electric field is a. parallel to both magnetic field and the wave direction b. perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the wave direction c. parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the wave direction d. perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the wave direction answer="1"> The highest frequencies are found in

a. X-rays b. radio waves c. ultraviolet rays d. radar waves answer="4"> Electromagnetic waves transport a. wavelength b. charge c. frequency d. energy answer="3"> The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas in the upper atmosphere. The ionosphere is responsible for a. the blue color of the sky b. rainbows c. long-distance radio communications d. the ability of satellites to orbit the earth answer="3"> Light of which the following colors has the shortest wavelength? a. red b. yellow c. blue d. green answer="4"> The quality in sound that corresponds to color in light is a. amplitude b. resonance c. waveform d. pitch answer="2"> All real images a. are erect b. can appear on a screen c. are invalid d. cannot appear on a screen answer="2"> When a beam of light enters one medium from another, a quality that never changes is its a. direction b. frequency c. speed d. wavelength answer="4"> Relative to the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction a. is smaller b. is larger c. is the same d. either A or B above answer="4"> A light ray enters one medium from another along the normal. The angle of refraction is a. 0 b. 90 degrees c. equal the critical angle d. dependent on the indexes of refraction of the two media answer="1"> What layer aids MF surface-wave propagation a little and reflects some HF waves in daytime? a. E layer b. D layer c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer="1">

Dispersion is the term used to describe a. the splitting of white light into its component colors in refraction b. the propagation of light in straight lines c. the bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another d. the bending of a beam of light when it strikes a mirror answer="1"> The depth of an objects submerged in a transparent liquid a. always seems less than its actual depth b. always seems more than its actual depth c. may seem more than its actual depth, depending on the index of refraction of the liquid d. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the angle of view answer="1"> Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from one medium to another a. that has a lower index of refraction b. that has a higher index of refraction c. that has the same index of refraction d. at less than the critical angle answer="2"> When a light ray approaches a glass-air interface from the glass side at the critical angle, the angle of refraction is a. 0 b. 90 degrees c. 45 degrees d. equal the angle of incidence answer="1"> The brightness of light source is called its luminous intensity, whose unit is a. candela b. lux c. lumen d. footcandle answer="1"> Luminous efficiency is least for a a. low-wattage light bulb b. mercury vapor lamp c. high-wattage light bulb d. fluorescent tube answer="2"> The minimum illumination recommendation for reading is a. 8000 cd b. 8000 lx c. 8000 lm d. 800 W answer="1"> Light enters a glass plate whose index of refraction is 1.6 at an angle of incidence of 30 degrees. The angle of refraction is a. 18 degrees b. 48 degrees c. 19 degrees d. 53 degrees answer="1"> Light leaves a slab of transparent material whose index of refraction is 2.0 at an angle of refraction of 0 degree. The angle of incidence is a. 0 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 90 degrees answer="2">

Light enters a glass plate at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees and is refracted at an angle refraction of 25 degrees. The index refraction of the glass is a. 0.625 b. 1.52 c. 0.66 d. 1.6 answer="2"> An underwater swimmer shines a flashlight beam upward at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees. The angle of refraction is 60 degrees. The index of refraction of water is a. 0.67 b. 1.3 c. 0.74 d. 1.5 answer="4"> The critical angle of incidence for light going from crown glass (n = 1.5) to ice (n =1.3) is a. 12 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 42 degrees d. 60 degrees answer="2"> The solid angle subtended by a hemisphere about its center is a. pi/2 sr b. 2pi sr c. pi sr d. depends on the radius of the hemisphere answer="4"> The luminous flux emitted by a 60-cd isotropic light source is concentrated on an area of 0.5 m^2. The illumination of the area is a. 9.6 lx b. 377 lx c. 120 lx d. 1508 lx answer="1"> Microwave signals propagate by way of the a. direct wave b. sky wave c. surface wave d. standing wave answer="3"> The ionosphere causes radio signals to be a. diffused b. absorbed c. refracted d. reflected answer="1"> Groundwave communications is most effective in what frequency range? a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz b. 3 to 30 MHz c. 30 to 300 MHz d. above 300 MHz answer="2"> The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range? a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz b. 3 to 30 MHz c. 30 to 300 MHz d. above 300 MHz answer="4"> The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communication by multiple skips is the a. ground wave

b. direct wave c. surface wave d. sky wave answer="3"> Line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range? a. VHF b. UHF c. HF d. Microwave answer="4"> A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft. high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft. high. The minimum transmission distance is a. 20 mi b. 33.2 mi c. 38.7 mi d. 53.2 mi answer="2"> To increase the transmission distance of UHF signal, which of the following should be done? a. increase antenna gain b. increase antenna height c. increase transmitter power d. increase receiver sensitivity answer="2"> States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance from its source. a. Principle of Reciprocity b. Inverse Square Law c. Huygen's Principle d. Faraday's Law answer="2"> _________ gets in contact with the ionosphere and reflected by it. a. Space wave b. Sky wave c. Surface wave d. Satellite wave answer="3"> Highest layer in the ionosphere. a. F1 b. D c. F2 d. E answer="2"> Next lowest layer in the ionosphere. a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2 answer="4"> What is the primary cause of ionization in the atmosphere? a. Sun spot b. Cosmic rays c. Galactic disturbance d. Ultraviolet radiation answer="4"> Which layer does not disappear at night? a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2 answer="4"> Which of the following uses surface wave propagation? a. ELF

b. VLF c. MF d. All of these answer="4"> The ability of the ionosphere to reflect a radio wave back to the earth is determined by a. operating frequency b. ion density c. angle of incidence d. all of these answer="2"> Highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation between two given points on earth. a. Critical frequency b. MUF c. Cut-off frequency d. UHF answer="3"> The shortest distance measured along the earth's surface that a skywave is returned to earth. a. MUF b. Quarter-wavelength c. Skip distance d. Skip zone answer="2"> Fluctuations in the signal strength at the receiver. a. Interference b. Fading c. Tracking d. Variable frequency answer="1"> Two or more antennas are used separated by several wavelengths. a. Space diversity b. Frequency diversity c. Hybrid diversity d. Polarization diversity answer="2"> Two or more receivers are used using a single antenna. a. Space diversity b. Frequency diversity c. Hybrid diversity d. Polarization diversity answer="4"> One of the following is not a cause of fading. a. Interference between upper and lower rays of a sky wave. b. Skywaves arriving at different number of hops c. Interference due to ground reflected wave and skywave. d. Diversity answer="1"> What do you call the gigantic emissions of hydrogen from the sun? a. Solar flares b. SIDs c. Kennely-Heaviside d. Sun spots answer="2"> Sudden ionospheric disturbance. a. Solar flares b. SIDs c. Sun spots d. Intertropical convergence answer="3"> A means of beyond the line of sight propagation of UHF signals.

a. Microwave propagation b. Space wave propagation c. Troposcatter propagation d. Surface wave propagation answer="4"> Two directional antennas are pointed so that their beams intersect in the troposphere. a. Skywave b. Surface wave c. Microwave d. Troposcatter answer="1"> Super refraction. a. Ducting b. Troposcatter c. Skywave d. Space wave answer="3"> A layer of warm air trapped above cooler air. a. Troposphere b. SID c. Duct d. Huygen's principle answer="1"> Corresponds to voltage. a. electric field b. magnetic field c. gyro d. direction of propagation answer="3"> Absence of reception. a. Skip distance b. Maximum usable c. Shadow zone d. Twilight zone answer="2"> Each point on a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secondary spherical wavefront. a. Snell's law b. Huygen's principle c. Rayleigh's principle d. De Morgan's theorem answer="2"> Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere? a. Stratosphere b. Troposphere c. Ionosphere d. Ozone layer answer="1"> When is the E region most ionized? a. At midday b. At midnight c. At dusk d. At dawn answer="2"> Transequatorial propagation is best during a. night time b. afternoon or early evening c. noontime d. morning answer="4"> Which of the following is the first active satellite? a. Echo 1

b. Telstar 1 c. Early Bird d. Sputnik 1 answer="1"> Which of the following is the first commercial satellite? a. Early Bird b. Telstar c. Explorer d. Courier answer="4"> What is the first passive satellite transponder? a. Sun b. Early Bird c. Score d. Moon answer="4"> The first satellite to receive and transmit simultaneously. a. Intelsat 1 b. Agila II c. Syncom 1 d. Telstar 1 answer="1"> A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of a. circular polarization b. maneuverability c. beamwidth d. gain answer="2"> Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as a. transceivers b. transponders c. transducers d. TWT answer="4"> Considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system. a. Coverage b. Cost c. Access d. Privacy answer="2"> _____ is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern. a. Geosynchronous satellite b. Nonsynchronous satellite c. Prograde satellite d. Retrograde satellite answer="1"> Is the geographical representation of a satellite antenna radiation pattern. a. footprint b. spot c. earth d. region answer="3"> The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation pattern. a. zone beam b. hemispheric beam c. Spot beam d. Global beam answer="4"> A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth's surface. a. zone beam b. hemispheric beam

c. Spot beam d. Global beam answer="2"> What is the frequency range of C-band? a. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz b. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz c. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz d. 27.5 to 31 GHz answer="2"> A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station. a. uplink b. downlink c. terrestrial d. earthbound answer="2"> Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite. a. helical antenna b. satellite dish c. LNA d. TWT answer="1"> What is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals simultaneously? a. orthomode transducer b. crystal detector c. optoisolator d. isomode detector answer="2"> _____ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current, amplifies, and lowers its frequency. a. horn antenna b. LNA c. satellite receiver d. satellite dish answer="2"> Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth's atmosphere. a. atmospheric loss b. path loss c. radiation loss d. RFI answer="4"> What height must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its rotation to be equal to earth's rotation? a. 26,426.4 miles b. 27,426.4 miles c. 23,426.4 miles d. 22,426.4 miles answer="2"> Point on the satellite orbit closest to the earth. a. apogee b. perigee c. prograde d. zenith answer="3"> The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam. a. beamwidth b. bandwidth c. footprint d. zone answer="3">

What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency in GHz band? a. 3500 MHz b. 4500 MHz c. 2225 MHz d. 2555 MHz answer="4"> What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites? a. Germanium based panels b. Silicon based panels c. Gallium Phosphate solar panel array d. Gallium Arsenide solar panel array answer="2"> Satellite engine uses a. jet propulsion b. ion propulsion system c. liquid fuel d. solar jet answer="1"> A satellite battery that has more power but lighter. a. lithium b. leclanche c. hydrogen d. magnesium answer="3"> What kind of battery is used by older satellites? a. lithium b. leclanche c. hydrogen d. magnesium answer="1"> VSAT was made available in a. 1979 b. 1981 c. 1983 d. 1977 answer="3"> What band does VSAT first operate? a. L-band b. X-band c. C-band d. Ku-band answer="1"> The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite have how many channels? a. 30 b. 24 c. 48 d. 50 answer="1"> The first Philippine Agila I will have how many transponders? a. 36 b. 48 c. 24 d. 12 answer="3"> How many satellite orbital satellites are requested by the Philippine Government form ITU? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 answer="1">

The location of AsiaSat I. a. 105.5 degrees East b. 151.5 degrees East c. 115.5 degrees East d. 170.5 degrees East answer="1"> AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia? a. 38 b. 10 c. 28 d. 15 answer="3"> The owner of AsiaSat 2 is a. Asia Satellite Telecommunication Company (ASTC) b. Japan Satellite System (JSAT) c. China Great Wall Industry Corporation d. Singapore Satellite Commission answer="4"> What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-earth station? a. 100 dB b. 150 dB c. 175 dB d. 200 dB answer="3"> INTELSAT stands for a. Intel Satellite b. International Telephone Satellite c. International Telecommunications Satellite d. International Satellite answer="2"> The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications. a. 6/4 GHz b. 14/11 GHz c. 12/14 GHz d. 4/8 GHz answer="3"> A satellite cross-link means a. Earth-to-satellite link b. Satellite-to-earth link c. Satellite-to-satellite link d. None of these answer="4"> Earth station uses what type of antenna? a. Despun antenna b. Helical Antenna c. Toroidal Antenna d. Cassegrain antenna answer="1"> What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver? a. 0.5 s b. 1.0 s c. 5 ms d. 0.25 ms answer="4"> The bandwidth of C-band satellite frequency band in U.S. a. 500 GHz b. 1000 GHz c. 1000 MHz d. 500 MHz answer="2"> The most common device used as an LNA is a. zener diode

b. tunnel diode c. IMPATT d. Shockley diode answer="3"> The radiation patterns of earth coverage antennas have a beamwidth of approximately a. 21 deg b. 5 deg c. 17 deg d. 35 deg answer="4"> A mobile satellite array has usually how many elements? a. 6 b. 88 c. 12 d. 14 answer="2"> In a typical mobile satellite array antenna of three elements are activated, how many elements are deactivated? a. 3 b. 11 c. 5 d. 9 answer="1"> What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements in a mobile satellite array? a. Radial divider b. Divider/combiner c. Radial combiner d. Radial multiplexer answer="3"> Most mobile satellite array uses _____ in transforming 50 to 150 ohms impedance. a. stub b. balun c. quarter-wavelength transformer d. microstrip tapers answer="4"> The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite array. a. series b. radial c. matrix d. shunt answer="4"> A method of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided into smaller frequency band. a. CDMA b. ANIK-D c. TDMA d. FDMA answer="1"> What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver? a. 0.5 s b. 1 s c. 5 ms d. 0.25 s answer="1"> As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same

d. none of the above answer="1"> The main function of a communications satellite is a/an a. repeater b. reflector c. beacon d. observation platform answer="4"> The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the a. Telemetry equipment b. on-board computer c. command and control system d. transponder answer="2"> A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is called a/an a. elliptical orbit b. geostationary orbit c. polar orbit d. transfer orbit answer="2"> A satellite stays in orbit because the following two factors are balanced. a. satellite weight and speed b. gravitational force and centrifugal force c. centripetal force and speed d. satellite weight and the pull of the moon and the sun answer="3"> What is the height of a satellite system in a synchronous equatorial orbit? a. 42,000 mi b. 6,800 mi c. 22,300 mi d. 35,860 mi answer="3"> Most satellites operate in which frequency band? a. 30 to 300 MHz b. 300 MHz to 3 GHz c. 3 GHz to 30 GHz d. Above 300 GHz answer="2"> The main power sources of a satellite are a. batteries b. solar cells c. fuel cells d. thermoelectric generators answer="4"> The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the a. perigee b. apex c. zenith d. apogee answer="3"> Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems a. at all times b. only during emergencies c. during eclipse periods d. to give the solar arrays a rest answer="4"> The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the a. propulsion subsystem b. power subsystem c. communications subsystem d. telemetry, tracking, and command subsystem answer="2">

What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite? a. gravity-forward motion balance b. spin c. thruster control d. solar panel orientation answer="1"> The jet thrusters are fired to a. maintain altitude b. put the satellite into the transfer orbit c. inject the satellite into the geosynchronous orbit d. bring the satellite back to earth answer="2"> Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which bands (2)? a. L b. C and Ku c. X d. S and P answer="1"> How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies? a. frequency reuse b. multiplexing c. mixing d. frequency hopping answer="4"> What is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band? a. 36 MHz b. 40 MHz c. 70 MHz d. 500 MHz answer="3"> Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder? a. LNA b. Mixer c. Modulator d. HPA answer="2"> The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the a. LNA b. bandpass filter c. mixer d. input signals answer="1"> The HPAs in most satellite are a. TWTs b. Klystrons c. Vacuum tubes d. Magnetrons answer="2"> The physical location of a satellite is determined by its a. distance from the earth b. latitude and longitude c. reference to the stars d. position relative to the sun answer="3"> The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function/s? a. modulation and multiplexing b. up conversion c. demodulation and demultiplexing d. down conversion answer="4"> Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations? a. TWT

b. transistor c. klystron d. magnetron answer="3"> What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF? a. 36 MHz b. 40 MHz c. 70 MHz d. 500 MHz answer="2"> What type of modulation is used on voice and video signals? a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. QPSK answer="4"> What modulation is normally used with digital data? a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. QPSK answer="2"> Which of the following is not a typical output form a GPS receiver? a. latitude b. speed c. altitude d. longitude answer="1"> The total space loss of transmission and reception for two ground stations with uplink frequency of 8 GHz and a downlink of 6 GHz with angle of elevations of 3 deg and 7 deg A respectively is a. 403 dB b. 100 dB c. 20 dB d. 215 dB answer="1"> The maximum propagation delay of a geostationary satellite is a. 278 ms b. 239 ms c. 300 ms d. 250 ms answer="1"> The total propagation delay time from transmission to reception of signals from a ground transmitter to ground receiver with angle of elevation at 10 deg respectively is a. 273 ms b. 239 ms c. 275 ms d. 260 ms answer="1"> A satellite which simply reflects the signal without further amplification a. passive satellite b. active satellite c. geostationary satellite d. domestic satellite answer="1"> Essentially a satellite ______ is a radio repeater in the sky a. transponder b. comparator c. duplexer d. billboard answer="1">

Satellite that orbits in a circular pattern with an angular velocity equal to that of the earth. a. geostationary b. Early Bird I c. Syncom I d. Stationary satellite answer="1"> Satellite that provide services within a single country a. domsat b. comsat c. regional d. global answer="1"> The round-trip propagation delay between two earth stations through a geosynchronous satellite is a. 500 to 600 ms b. 300 to 400 ms c. 600 to 700 ms d. 400 to 500 ms answer="1"> The signal path from earth station satellite a. uplink signal b. reflected signal c. incident signal d. downlink signal answer="1"> Designed to receive a signal from a transmitting station on the ground and retransmit it to a receiving station located elsewhere a. communications satellite b. repeater c. relay station d. transponder answer="1"> The signal path from satellite to earth based receiver. a. downlink signal b. uplink signal c. incident signal d. reflected signal answer="1"> A satellite position is measured by its _____ angle with respect to the horizon. a. elevation b. depression c. azimuth d. critical answer="1"> The _____ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the direction of true north. a. azimuth b. elevation c. depression d. critical answer="1"> Incidentally propose the geostationary scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1940s. a. Arthur Clarke b. Carl Friedrich Gauss c. Samuel Morse d. Stephen Gray answer="1"> When the satellites are spaced 4 deg of the 360 deg complete circle, how many parking spaces or orbit slots are available. a. 90 b. 85

c. 95 d. 80 answer="1"> The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to as a. station keeping b. station tracking c. station monitoring d. station maintaining answer="1"> Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth a. satellite altitude b. satellite position c. satellite location d. satellite orbit answer="1"> The first Intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was named a. Early Bird I b. Echo c. Telstar I d. Courier answer="1"> The first satellite launched for a geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately lost during orbit injection. a. Syncom I b. Telstar I c. Sputnik I d. Early Bird I answer="1"> When the elevation angle of a geostationary satellite is 23 degrees and the transmitting frequency is 3840 MHz, what is the free space loss in dB? a. 196 dB b. 200 dB c. 150 dB d. 100 dB answer="1"> What is the propagation delay when a signal is transmitted by an earth station to a geosynchronous satellite about 38,500 km above the earth's equator and then received by the same earth station? a. 256 msec b. 128 msec c. 300 msec d. 400 msec answer="1"> What is the free space attenuation of a satellite communications system operating at 36,000 km above the earth at 5.0 GHz? a. 198 dB b. 202 dB c. 142 dB d. 138 dB answer="3"> Which of the following is the most common application of satellite? a. surveillance b. military application c. communications d. newscasting answer="1"> Descending pass for a satellite means a pass from a. North to South b. South to North c. East to West d. West to East answer="2">

Geostationary stationary satellites are located _____ with respect to the equator. a. 0 deg longitude b. 0 deg latitude c. 90 deg latitude d. 45 deg latitude answer="4"> Known as The Philippine Public Telecommunications Policy Act. a. D.O. No. 88 b. D.O. No. 211 c. R.A. 5734 d. R.A. 7925 answer="1"> Effectivity of the Philippine Telecommunications Policy Act. a. March 22, 1995 b. April 21, 1995 c. May 21, 1995 d. June 21, 1995 answer="2"> An act to promote and govern development of the Philippine Telecommunications and the delivery of public telecommunications services. a. R.A 467 b. R.A 7925 c. R.A.546 d. R.A. 5734 answer="1"> E.O. no. 59, prescribing the guidelines of compulsory interconnection of authorized public telecommunications carrier took effect on a. Feb 24, 1993 b. April 23, 1993 c. March 24, 1993 d. May 24, 1993 answer="2"> Effectivity of Executive Order 59. a. Feb 14, 1993 b. Feb 24, 1993 c. June 21, 1993 d. June 24, 1993 answer="4"> The Electronics and Communications Engineering Act of the Philippines. a. E.O. 59 b. R.A. 7453 c. R.A. 5743 d. R.A. 5734 answer="4"> When was the effectivity of the ECE Act of the Philippines? a. June 21, 1964 b. June 21, 1965 c. June 21, 1966 d. June 21, 1969 answer="3"> Decree created the Professional Regulations Commission (PRC). a. P.D. 322 b. P.D. 232 c. P.D. 223 d. P.D. 323 answer="2"> Effectivity of the Presidential Decree creating PRC a. July 21, 1973 b. June 22, 1973 c. June 28, 1973 d. June 12, 1973

answer="4"> A law prescribing the functions of the National Telecommunications Commission. a. E.O. 543 b. E.O. 544 c. E.O. 545 d. E.O. 546 answer="2"> When was E.O. 546 promulgated? a. July 23, 1978 b. July 23, 1979 c. July 23, 1980 d. July 23, 1981 answer="1"> Rules and regulations requiring the services of a duly registered ECE in the planning and designing, installation or construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations, and in the manufacture and/or modification of radio communications equipment. a. D.O. No. 88 b. D.O. No. 11 c. D.O. No. 68 d. R.A. No. 3864 answer="4"> What law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Philippines and other purposes? a. D.O. No. 88 b. P.D. 223 c. R.A. 5734 d. R.A. 3846 answer="1"> The institutionalization of the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) programs of the various regulated professions under the supervision of the Professional Regulations Commission. a. E.O. 266 b. E.O. 286 c. E.O. 622 d. E.O. 626 answer="4"> The CPE program was institutionalized through an executive order dated a. July 25, 1994 b. July 25, 1997 c. July 25, 1996 d. July 25, 1995 answer="2"> Otherwise known as the Municipal Telephone Act. a. R.A. 6984 b. R.A. 6849 c. R.A. 8694 d. R.A. 6984 answer="1"> Municipal Telephone Act was approved on a. Feb. 8, 1990 b. Feb. 8, 1992 c. Feb. 8, 1991 d. Feb. 8, 1993 answer="2"> An order providing for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite communications in the country. a. E.O. 486 b. E.O. 467 c. E.O. 576 d. E.O. 567 answer="2">

When was the effectivity of the national policy on the operation and use of international satellite communications in the Philippines? a. February 17, 1998 b. March 17, 1998 c. April 17, 1998 d. June 17, 1998 answer="4"> Policy to improve the provision of local exchange carrier service. a. E.O. 59 b. E.O. 69 c. E.O. 88 d. E.O. 109 answer="2"> Effectivity of the Executive Order 109 a. June 15, 1993 b. July 15, 1993 c. August 15, 1993 d. September 15, 1993 answer="1"> The implementing rules and regulations governing the practice of ECE in the Philippines on MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging and Background Music System, Telephone and Computer installations are embodied in a. BECE Resolution No. 3 b. BECE Resolution No. 2 c. BECE Resolution No. 4 d. BECE Resolution No. 5 answer="2"> Under R.A. 5734, the minimum age of a registered ECE to become a member of the ECE Board is _____ years old. a. 21 b. 31 c. 35 d. 40 answer="3"> Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after _____ days. a. 10 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60 answer="3"> According to Act 3846, the maximum penalty for a person who commits two offenses are a. P 2,000 fine and 2 years imprisonment b. P 1,000 fine and 1 years imprisonment c. P 4,000 fine and 4 years imprisonment d. P 3,000 fine and 3 years imprisonment answer="4"> Ground for refusal of the Board to issue a Board Certificate. a. conviction of crime involving moral turpitude b. immorality and dishonorable conduct c. unsound mind d. all of these answer="4"> What is the keystone of professional conduct? a. honesty b. courtesy c. justice d. integrity answer="2"> The foundation of moral philosophy. a. integrity, honesty, and justice b. justice, honesty, and courtesy

c. justice, courtesy, and integrity d. sincerity, honesty, and justice answer="1"> Refers to inculcation, assimilation, and acquisition of knowledge, skills, proficiency and ethical and moral values, to raise and enhance the professional's level of competence. a. Continuing Professional Education b. Professional License c. Continuing Program Education d. Continuing Professional Lessons answer="4"> The CPE program aims to a. ensure the continuous education of a registered professional on latest trend of his profession b. promote and protect the general welfare of the public c. raise and maintain the professional's capability for delivering quality professional service d. all of these answer="4"> A professional license must be renewed a. every 3 years b. on the birthdate of the professional c. on or before the 20th day of the month following his/her birthdate d. all of these answer="1"> CPE credit units required to renew a professional license. a. 60 b. 90 c. 105 d. 75 answer="4"> Who are exempted from complying with CPE requirements? a. professional who reached the age of 65 years b. professionals working abroad or practicing his profession abroad c. professionals studying abroad d. all of these answer="1"> Participants of a convention / seminar earns how many credit units. a. 1 credit unit per hour b. 2 credit unit per hour c. 3 credit unit per hour d. 5 credit unit per hour answer="4"> An international organization concerned with revising and preparing/proposing recommendations for international telecommunications. a. NTC b. IEC c. JIS d. CCITT answer="2"> Which agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended practices for all civil aviation? a. FAA b. ICAO c. IATA d. ATO answer="4"> A United Nations body for telecommunications. a. ANSI b. AT&T c. ITT d. ITU

answer="2"> What does ITU mean? a. International Telecommunications Unit b. International Telecommunications Union c. International Telephone and Telegraph Union d. International Telecom Unit answer="1"> For the allocation of frequencies in the world, ITU divides the world into how many regions? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 4 answer="3"> Philippines is under what region of frequency allocation? a. Region 1 b. Region 2 c. Region 3 d. Region 4 answer="1"> What does NTC stand for? a. National Telecommunications Commission b. National Telephone and Telegraph Commission c. National Telecommunications Council d. National Telecommunications Corporation answer="3"> A private radio communications system in the Land Mobile Service limited to portable transceiver for short range communications. a. Short Range Land Service b. Short Range Mobile Service c. Short Range Radio Service d. all of these answer="2"> An authority issued by the NTC to individuals and/or entities for the possession and operation of radio station under the SRRS. a. SRRS Type Approval b. SRRS Special Permit c. SRRS Operating Permit d. SRRS Acceptance Approval answer="1"> SRRS means a. Short Range Radio Service b. Short Range Receiving Service c. Short Radio Receiving Service d. none of the above answer="1"> A certification issued by the NTC for SSRS radio equipment complying to the SSRS technical standards and specifications, where equipment has already been type approved by the administration whose certification is acceptable and whose process does not require laboratory testing. a. type acceptance b. type certification c. type approval d. all of the above answer="3"> A certification issued by the commission for SRRS equipment complying to the technical standards and specifications whose process requires laboratory testing. a. type acceptance b. type certification c. type approval d. all of the above answer="3"> The radio transceiver in the SRRS in the Philippines is of what type

emission. a. FM only (12KOF3E) b. FM only (10KOF3E) c. FM only (11KOF3E) d. FM only (13KOF3E) answer="1"> The radio transceiver in the SRRS in the Philippines has a maximum transmitted output power of a. 3 W b. 4 W c. 5 W d. 6 W answer="1"> What is the international color used to paint broadcast antenna towers? a. white and orange b. white and yellow c. white and red d. orange and yellow answer="2"> Broadcast transmitters are designed to have an operating life of _____ years. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 answer="2"> _____ of a frequency band is the entry in the table of frequency allocation of a given frequency for the given purpose of its use by one or more terrestrial or space radiocommunication services or the radio astronomy service under specified conditions. a. assignment b. allocation c. allotment d. regulation answer="1"> The power of any conducted spurious emission shall be attenuated below the maximum level of carrier frequency in accordance with the following formula with P = carrier power output in watts. a. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10logP b. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + logP c. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + logP / 10 d. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20logP answer="4"> Cordless telephones or telephone line extenders with coverage area beyond 300 feet shall have a maximum transmitting power of a. 1 W b. 20 W c. 50 W d. 10 W answer="1"> Cordless telephone line extends with coverage area beyond 300 feet shall have a frequency range of a. Tx : 326.250 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 - 218.475 MHz b. Tx : 300.000 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 - 218.475 MHz c. Tx : 326.250 - 326.475 MHz, Rx : 210.000 - 218.475 MHz d. Tx : 326.250 - 327.475 MHz, Rx : 218.250 - 218.475 MHz answer="1"> The frequency band allocated for SRRS shall be _____ MHz using 12.5 kHz channeling plan _____ MHz using 12.5 kHz channeling plan. a. 325 - 325.4875 b. 325 - 352.4875 c. 325 - 325.25 d. 325 - 342.25 answer="1">

Satellite communications services provided by a satellite carrier to a carrier, usually a terrestrial-based carrier. a. Satellite Carrier's Carrier Services b. Satellite Carrier Services c. Terrestrial Satellite Services d. Satellite Services answer="2"> Any entity authorized by NTC to lease space segment capacity. a. space segment occupant b. space segment lessee c. space occupant d. space segment player answer="3"> A data network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to provide data and other related telecommunications services to the public. a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Public Switched Communications Network c. Public Switched Data Network d. none of these answer="1"> A telephone network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to provide telephony and other related telecommunications services to the public. a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Public Switched Communications Network c. Public Switched Data Network d. none of these answer="2"> A non-exclusive facility at which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls or a telegram or other messages. a. Public Toll Service Station b. Public Toll Calling Station c. Public Toll Carrier Station d. Public Toll Bus Station answer="4"> An entity which, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offer enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers. a. Value-added exchange b. Value-added carrier c. Value-added tax d. Value-added service provider (VAS) answer="4"> A wider area mobile radio telephone system with its own switch base stations and transmissions by utilizing radio frequencies. a. Mobile Telephone System b. Cellular Radio System c. Cellular Telephone System d. Mobile Radio Telephone System answer="3"> The linkage, by wire, radio, satellite, or other means, of two or more existing telecommunications carriers or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscribers of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscriber of the other carriers or operators. a. tie-up b. cross-connection c. interconnection d. all of these answer="3"> A facility consisting of international transmission, switching and network

management facilities which serves as point of entry and exit in the Philippines of international traffic between the national network and points outside the Philippines. a. International Gateway Network (IGN) b. International Gateway Carrier (IGC) c. International Gateway Facility (IGF) d. all of these answer="1"> A specific point as defined on the network where point of interconnection shall occur in such a way that interconnection between and among local exchange carriers, interexchange carriers and international gateway facilities operations can be made efficient and effective. a. point of presence b. point of interference c. point of interconnection d. carrier point answer="3"> The duly enfranchised and NTC certified telecommunications carrier and/or any entity duly authorized by law including the government to provide public telecommunications services. a. Public Communications Carrier b. Public Telecommunications Entity c. Public Telecommunications Carrier d. all of these answer="1"> Composed of orbiting satellite and the associated equipment used to track, monitor and control the operation of the satellite. a. space segment b. satellite segment c. space device d. tracking segment answer="3"> An owner or operator of in-orbit communication satellite system, which leases or sells communications capacity to duly authorized space segment lessees. a. space segment franchise b. space segment authority c. space segment provider d. all of these answer="1"> Any entity authorized by the NTC to provide satellite communications services, either as a carrier's carrier and/or common carrier. a. Satellite Communications Service Provider b. Satellite Communications Franchisers c. Satellite Communications Authority d. none of these answer="1"> A satellite earth station designed to receive satellite signals. Such stations may be used to receive data, such as stock market prices or newswire service or television programs. a. Receive-only satellite earth station b. Receive-only earth station c. transmit-receive earth station d. transmit-only earth station answer="3"> The act of receiving satellite TV programs and retransmitting same through any mode, i.e. tape, wire or wireless for public viewing. a. distribution of satellite TV programs b. transmission of satellite TV programs c. redistribution of satellite TV programs d. receiving of satellite TV programs answer="1"> Transmission, emission and/or reception of radio signals involving one or more space and earth stations. a. satellite communications

b. microwave communications c. wire communications d. wireless communications answer="2"> Any process which enables a telecommunications entity to relay and receive voice, data, electronic message, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures, words, music or audible or visible signals or any control signals of any design and for any purpose by wire, radio, and other electromagnetic, spectral, optical or technological means. a. communications b. telecommunications c. broadcasting d. wireless communications answer="1"> Any entity primarily engaged in the business providing transmission and switching of any telecommunications service between the Philippines and any other point of the world to which it has an existing corresponding or prospective interconnection agreement. a. international carrier b. load carrier c. inter-exchange carrier d. national carrier answer="2"> An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of interexchange national long distance services. a. international carrier b. inter-exchange carrier c. local exchange carrier d. national carrier answer="2"> Any entity providing transmission and switching of telecommunications services, primarily but limited to voice-to-voice service in geographical area in the Philippines. a. local exchange franchise b. local exchange operator c. local exchange provider d. local exchange entity answer="1"> Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, government or private, engaged in the provision of telecommunications services to the public for compensation. a. Public Telecommunications Facility b. Public Telecommunications Provider c. Public Telecommunications Franchise d. all of these answer="1"> Refers to facilities consisting of but not limited to equipment, devices, materials, required to make two telecommunications systems or networks interwork with each other. a. interface b. exchange c. interconnection d. none of these answer="1"> Refers to the defined area as determined by the NTC within a municipality or city or combination of two or more cities and/or municipalities under a common local exchange rate schedule. a. Local Exchange Service Area b. Local Network Area c. Local Exchange Area d. Local Exchange Network Area answer="4">

Refers to the local exchange service area where the telephone density is 1 per 100 inhabitants and shall be based on the telephone density target from the approved National Telephone Development Plan (NTDP), expressed as main station per 100 persons. a. provincial b. metro c. rural d. urban answer="3"> Refers to local exchange service area where the telephone density is less than 1 per 100. a. provincial b. metro c. rural d. urban answer="3"> Refers to the local exchange service area within the Philippines where there is no existing telephone exchange service. a. undeserved area b. dead area c. unserved area d. serve area answer="2"> Refers to the local exchange residence and business telephone service and telegraph service without additional features. a. Basic Communications Service b. Basic Telecommunications Service c. Basic Telephone Service d. Basic Service answer="1"> Refers to the local exchange telephone service area within the Philippines where the local exchange service is available but the number of existing telephone connections and available lines than the established telephone density as defined under Urban or when the LEC cannot provide the service to 90% of the applicants within 10 working days from the date of application. a. undeserved area b. unserved area c. deficit area d. backlog area answer="1"> Refers to the enhancements made over the plain telephone/telegraph service for which the subscribers are made to pay additional charges. a. additional features b. additional services c. additional facilities d. additional lines answer="3"> Refers to the port in the switching international gateways system equivalent to 4 kHz or 64 kbps (analog or digital) where international circuit terminates. a. International Gateway Termination b. International Carrier Termination c. International Switch Termination d. Inter-exchange Termination answer="3"> Any government department or service responsible for discharging the obligations of the ITU regulations. a. NTC b. commission c. administration d. committee answer="4"> Any one of a number of measures permitting direct dealings between authorized entities and international satellite system providers at specified levels as defined by the NTC. a. direct order

b. direct measure c. direct contact d. direct access answer="2"> Satellite newsgathering refers to the use of satellite service to provide temporary communications services for news media organizations covering news events such as summit, conferences or disasters. This requires the use of transportable earth stations such as a. GMPSC b. Fixed Satellite Service and Mobile Satellite Service c. Mobile Satellite Service Only d. Fixed Satellite Service Only answer="3"> Foreign news media organizations wanting to bring SNG earth stations to the Philippines shall secure a special NTC permit. What does SNG mean? a. Satellite Newscasters Group b. Satellite News Group c. Satellite Newsgathering d. Satellite Network Group answer="4"> CDMA means a. Code Division Mobile Access b. Cellular Division Mobile Access c. Cellular Device Mobile Access d. Code Division Multiple Access answer="2"> CMTS means a. Cellular Motion Telecommunications System b. Cellular Mobile Telephone System c. Cellular Mobile Telecommunications System d. Cellular Mobile Telephone and Telegraph System answer="4"> CPE means a. Continuous Professional Education b. Continuous Program of Education c. Continuing Program of Education d. Continuing Professional Education answer="3"> CPCN means a. Certificate of Private Comfort and Necessity b. Certificate of Public Communications Network c. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity d. Certified Public Communications Network answer="2"> IXC means a. International Exchange Carriers b. Inter-Exchange Carrier c. International Exchange Center d. none of these answer="3"> The first symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer="2"> The second symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer="1"> The third symbol of emission is

a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer="3"> The maximum ground resistance in an equipment installation is required by Volume 1 of the Philippine Electronic Code (Safety Code) is a. 10 ohms b. 25 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 1 ohm answer="2"> A certificate issued to an ECE who passed the licensure examinations provided upon payment of the required fees. a. Certificate to Practice b. Certificate of Registration c. Certificate of Public Convenience d. Certificate of Oath answer="4"> In order to be admitted to the ECE licensure examinations, an applicant must, at the time of filing of his application, be at least _____ years old. a. 18 b. 19 c. 20 d. 21 answer="3"> A foreigner can take the ECE licensure examinations after following all requirements based on the policy of _____ law. a. immigration b. nationality c. foreign reciprocity d. international answer="1"> To pass the ECE licensure examinations, a candidate must obtain an average of _____ % with no rating below _____ % in any of the board subjects. a. 70, 50 b. 70, 70 c. 70, 60 d. 75, 50 answer="4"> The Chairman and members of the ECE Board are appointed by the a. IECEP international chapter b. PRC Commissioner c. head of schools d. President of the Philippines answer="2"> Which of the following is not one of the powers and duties of the ECE board? a. issue, suspend, or revoke licenses for ECE practice b. conduct hearing especially homicide cases of ECE c. administer professional oath for new ECEs d. study, examine and prescribe in cooperation with CHED with regards to curricula development and facilities of schools offering ECE course. answer="4"> The following are the grounds for refusal for the ECE board to issue a certificate of registration of an ECE except. a. unsound mind b. conviction of court of competent jurisdiction c. immorality d. unstable job and designation answer="4"> Which of the following is a valid ground for revocation of a professional license? a. competence b. ethical conduct

c. honesty d. fraud and deceit answer="4"> To qualify as a member of the ECE board, one must be a a. registered ECE b. 31 years of age c. in active practice in the ECE profession for at least 10 years d. all of these answer="4"> Any violations of the ECE act shall be punished by a. a fine of one thousand pesos b. an imprisonment of not less than six months nor more than six years c. a fine of no less than two thousand pesos but not more than 5 thousand pesos d. choices b and/or c answer="3"> Which of the choices below is not covered in the penal provision of the ECE Act of the Philippines? a. any person who advertise himself as an ECE where in fact he is not only registered with the board b. any person holding a license who shall not engage in wire-tapping c. any person who passed the exams but had not taken his oath d. any person who is using a revoked or suspended license. answer="3"> What government agency is responsible for the formulation of the Rules and Regulations governing the examination regulation and practice of an ECE in the Philippines? a. Professional Regulation Commission b. National Telecommunications Commission c. Civil Service Commission d. Institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines answer="4"> Which of the following is not a nature or scope of work of an ECE? a. investigating b. planning c. designing d. directing answer="1"> The official seal of an ECE which is circular in shape has a maximum outside diameter of a. 1 7/8 inches b. 1 2/3 inches c. 1 1/4 inches d. 1 1/2 inches answer="3"> Symbols signifying radio and wireless communications, positioned one each at the four cardinal points of the compass in the official ECE dry seal. a. alternate dot and dashes b. an atom c. four lightnings d. three lightnings answer="3"> In the official dry seal of a registered ECE, the alternate dots and dashes are placed a. below the atom b. above the license number c. between the lightning symbols d. along the band of the license number answer="1"> The sole professional organization of ECEs which was founded in 1950. a. IECEP b. ECES c. IEEE

d. IIECE answer="2"> An applicant for a new CATV station shall file a petition for _____ with the NTC. a. Certificate of Public Convenience b. Certificate of Authority c. Franchise certificate d. License answer="1"> A type of gov't resolution needed for new CATV station. a. Sangguniang Bayan Resolution b. Congress Resolution c. ECE board resolution d. Senate resolution answer="1"> According to E.O. 59, for junction exchange point of intersection, short haul connection should not exceed a. 150 km b. 100 km c. 30 km d. 200 km answer="2"> According to E.O. 59, for junction exchange point of intersection, long haul connection should not exceed a. 100 km b. 150 km c. 175 km d. 200 km answer="2"> One of the requirement for a new broadcast radio station is the filing of petition for certificate of _____ with NTC. a. franchise b. public convenience c. permit d. authority answer="3"> Authorized international gateway operators shall be required to provide local exchange service in unserved and underserved areas within _____ years from the grant of authority from NTC. a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer="2"> Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of _____ local exchange lines per international switch termination. a. 150 b. 300 c. 600 d. 500 answer="2"> At least one rural exchange line shall be provided for every _____ urban local exchange lines installed. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 answer="1"> No permit for international gateway facility shall be granted to an applicant for local exchange carrier service unless there is a clear showing that it can establish the necessary _____. a. foreign correspondenceship b. franchise c. international agreement

d. treaty answer="4"> Which of the following stations does not require a franchise from the Congress of the Philippines? a. an experimental station b. a training station c. a station on board a mobile vessel d. all of these answer="1"> _________ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, plus a satellite dish operating on channel 3. a. Adjacent channel interference b. Ghost c. Co-channel interference d. Crosstalk answer="1"> Dithering (in TVRO communications) is a process for a. reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal b. centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels c. moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle d. moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam answer="2"> A network that has an input of 75 dB and an output of 35dB. The loss of the network is ______________. a. -40 dB b. 40 dB c. 40 dBm d. -40 dBm answer="3"> Important useful quantities describing waveforms. a. Time and frequency b. Voltage and current c. Frequency and voltage d. Power and frequency answer="2"> Halving the power means a. 6-dB gain b. 3-dB loss c. 3-dB gain d. 6-dB loss answer="2"> One neper (Np) is how many decibels? a. 8.866 b. 8.686 c. 8.688 d. 8.868 answer="1"> A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is a. 20 dB b. 119 dB c. 15 dB d. 25 dB answer="2"> Which of the following is used to measure SWR? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Reflectometer c. Oscilloscope d. Multimeter answer="4"> 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristics impedance of a. 52 ohms b. 75 ohms

c. 600 ohms d. 300 ohms answer="2"> What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which is to act as a quarterwave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600 ohms load? a. 300.04 ohms b. 324.04 ohms c. 310.04 ohms d. 320.04 ohms answer="1"> What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB antenna connected to transmitter with an output of 10 kW through a transmission line with a loss of 5 dB? a. 85 dBW b. 955 dBW c. 90 dBW d. 80 dBW answer="4"> A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an a. unbounded medium b. transmission channel c. non-metallic medium d. bounded medium answer="2"> If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180ohms load to a transmission line w/ an impedance of 300ohms, what should be the char. impedance of the matching transformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected directly to the load a. 180 ohms b. 232 ohms c. 300 ohms d. 480 ohms answer="4"> A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a frequency of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. Determine the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). a. 1.0 in b. 0.9 in c. 0.7 in d. 0.5 in answer="1"> A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a frequency of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. The outer conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). In the problem, calculate the line current. a. 1.7 A b. 1.3 A c. 1.5 A d. 1.0 A answer="2"> A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a frequency of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. The outer conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). Determine the total attenuation of the line in the problem. a. 2.0 dB b. 1.5 dB c. 2.5 dB d. 1.0 dB answer="2"> What is the max. subscriber loop length, in ft., of a telephone system if the

signaling resistance is 1800 ohms using a tel. cable pair of gauge # 26 with a loop resistance of 83.5 ohms per 1000 ft. Assume the telephone set resistance is equal to 200 ohms. a. 15,161.7 feet b. 19,161 feet c. 15,300 feet d. 20,000 feet answer="4"> If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6 dB, what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the same gauge #26 telephone wire? Assume a 2.7 dB loss per mile. a. 20,000 ft b. 13,900 ft c. 15,280 ft d. 11,733 ft answer="1"> The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is a. 2.0 W b. 2.5 W c. 1.5 W d. 1.8 W answer="4"> Known as one-tenth of a neper. a. dB b. dBm c. dBp d. dNp answer="2"> The input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its resonant frequency is a. 0 ohms b. infinite or an open circuit c. ohms d. 70 ohms answer="3"> The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line is called a. SWR b. ISWR c. VSWR d. Coefficient of reflection answer="3"> An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the length of the dipole a. 20 m b. 7.5 m c. 15 m d. 25 m answer="2"> An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the length of the quarterwave stub. a. 15 m b. 7.5 m c. 20 m d. 25 m answer="4"> To find the char. Impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with (a) the far end open circuited & (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding readings being a) Ro=3ohms & Xc=55ohms, capacitive b) Rs=10ohms & Xl=90ohms, inductive What is the characteristic impedance, Zo, of the line? a. 75.7 - j2.0 ohms b. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms c. 87.5 - j5 ohms

d. 70.7 - j1.97 ohms answer="3"> A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200 V and is immediately amplified by a pre-amplifier with a 15 dB gain. This amplified signal then passes through a coaxial cable with 3 dB loss, what is the resulting input to the TV set, in dBmV? a. 1.98 b. 13.98 c. -1.98 d. -13.98 answer="3"> The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its __________. a. conductor spacing b. conductor diameter c. length d. conductor radius answer="2"> What does a power difference of -3 dB mean? a. a loss of one third of the power b. a loss of one half of the power c. a loss of three watts of the power d. no significant change answer="3"> Which of the following is an advantage of the balance transmission line? a. Easy installation b. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses c. Low attenuation d. None of these answer="4"> Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because a. they are bulky at lower frequencies b. losses are heavy at lower frequencies c. they depend on straight line propagation d. no generators are powerful enough to excite them answer="3"> The input is 1 W and the network loss is 27 dB, the output is a. 1 mW b. 3 mW c. 2 mW d. 4 mW answer="4"> A combiner has two inputs + 30 dBm and + 30 dBm, what is the resultant output? a. + 36 dBm b. + 30 dBm c. + 60 dBm d. + 33 dBm answer="3"> The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called a. SWR b. VSWR c. ISWR d. Coefficient of reflection answer="4"> If the ratio of the maximum current to the minimum current in a transmission line is 2:1 then the ratio of maximum voltage to minimum voltage is a. 4:1 b. 1:2 c. 1:4 d. 2:1 answer="3">

Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a number 12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6 GHz per 100 feet length. a. 0.05 dB b. 0.55 dB c. 0.44 dB d. 0.35 dB answer="1"> Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a number 12 wire (81 mils). Determine the spacing between wires from center to center. a. 6 in b. 4 in c. 5 in d. 3 in answer="4"> A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series inductance of 4 mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance? a. 500 ohms b. 400 ohms c. 300 ohms d. 200 ohms answer="2"> A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to a. 10 dBm b. 10 dB c. 20 dB d. 100 dB answer="2"> A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required. a. Balun b. Parallel-wire line c. Coaxial line d. Quarterwave line answer="1"> What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance of 40 nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft a. 111.8 ohms b. 110.8 ohms c. 112.8 ohms d. 109.8 ohms answer="1"> The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected power is 7 dB down on the incident power, the output power to the load is a. 4 W b. 5 W c. 6 W d. 7 W answer="1"> To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line should be equal to a. 1 b. 10 c. 50 d. 2 answer="3"> A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic impedance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60, calculate the inner diameter. a. 2.09 cm b. 2.09 in c. 2.09 mm d. 2.09 mm

answer="1"> If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage ratio does the gain of 50 dB represent? a. 316.2 b. 325.2 c. 320.1 d. 315.0 answer="4"> What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF/ft and a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms? a. 0.167 H/ft b. 0.178 H/ft c. 0.19 H/ft d. 0.18 H/ft answer="2"> The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received by the surface. a. Reflection coefficient b. Absorption coefficient c. Linear coefficient d. Thermal coefficient answer="4"> When the diameter of the conductors of a 2 wire transmission line is held constant, the effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is a. increase the surge impedance b. increase the radiation resistance c. decrease the SWR d. decrease the impedance answer="2"> The higher the gauge number of a conductor a. the bigger the diameter b. the higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter c. the higher the resistance d. none of these answer="3"> A short length of transmission line used to reduce/eliminate standing waves in the main transmission line. a. Stub b. Balun c. lambda/4 transformer d. Slot answer="2"> Ratio of reflected power to incident power? a. Incidence b. Reflectance c. Reflection index d. None of these answer="3"> A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a line of 52 ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is a. 200 ohms b. 150 ohms c. 176 ohms d. 300 ohms answer="1"> What is the capacitance of 55 miles # 44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wire tables, # 44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in. a. 0.476 F b. 0.476 nF c. 0.476 pF d. 0.476 fF answer="4">

A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distance between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of the line? a. 650 ohms b. 300 ohms c. 600 ohms d. 660 ohms answer="2"> A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distance between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the attenuation in dB per 100 ft. of the line for a frequency of 4 MHz? a. 0.05 b. 0.03 c. 0.04 d. 0.06 answer="3"> What is the SWR when a transmission line is terminated in a short circuit? a. Zero b. One c. Infinite d. Indeterminate answer="4"> What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant characteristics of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure? a. Conductance b. Resistance c. Reactance d. Impedance answer="2"> When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the load __________ all the power. a. reflects b. absorbs c. attenuates d. radiates answer="2"> Impedance matching ratio of a coax balun. a. 1:4 b. 4:1 c. 2:1 d. 3:2 answer="3"> Which stands for dB relative level? a. dBm b. dBa c. dBr d. dBx answer="4"> Standard test tone used for audio measurement. a. 800 Hz b. 300 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 1000 Hz answer="1"> When VSWR is equal to zero, this means a. that no power is applied b. that the load is purely resistive c. that the load is a pure reactance d. that the load is opened answer="3"> ___________ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward traveling voltage.

a. SWR b. VSWR c. Reflection coefficient d. ISWR answer="2"> Transmission line must be matched to the load to __________. a. transfer maximum voltage to the load b. transfer maximum power to the load c. reduce the load current d. transfer maximum current to the load answer="3"> Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor? a. Quality factor b. Reactive factor c. Dissipation factor d. Power factor answer="3"> What is the standard test tone? a. 0 dB b. 0 dBW c. 0 dBm d. 0 dBrn answer="4"> The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted. a. Reflective waves b. Captured waves c. Incident waves d. Standing waves answer="3"> Micron is equal to _____________ meter. a. 10^ -10 b. 10^ -9 c. 10^ -6 d. 10^ -3 answer="2"> 1 Angstrom (A^ 0) is equal to ___________. a. 10^ -3 micron b. 10^ -10 m c. 10^ -6 micron d. 10^ -6 m answer="1"> Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies? a. Because of the size of the waveguide b. Due to severe attenuation c. Due to too much radiation d. All of these answer="2"> __________ is the transmission and reception of information. a. Modulation b. Communications c. Radiation d. Emission answer="1"> What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ratio of output to input is 0.01? a. 20 b. -20 c. 40 d. -40 answer="3"> Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to a. negative terminal b. reference

c. ground d. positive terminal answer="4"> The standing wave ratio is equal to ____________ if the load is properly matched with the transmission line. a. infinity b. 0 c. -1 d. 1 answer="1"> __________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unbalanced line. a. Low attenuation b. Easy installation c. Low radiation loss d. Tensile strength answer="2"> __________ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system. a. Fourier series b. Spectral analysis c. Frequency analysis d. Bandwidth analysis answer="3"> What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide? a. The air dielectric filling the guide b. The coating of silver inside c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide d. Radiation loss answer="4"> A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line. a. Hybrid b. Stub c. Directional coupler d. Balun answer="1"> What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart with the length of 50 cm? a. 10 ohms b. 15 ohms c. 18 ohms d. 23 ohms answer="2"> What is the average power rating of RG-58 C/u? a. 25 W b. 50 W c. 75 W d. 200 W answer="4"> A coaxial cable used for high temperatures. a. RG-58C b. RG-11A c. RG-213 d. RG-211A answer="2"> If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

answer="4"> You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73 dBm, convert the reading into dBmCO. a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 22 answer="1"> The velocity factor of a transmission line a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used b. increases the velocity along the transmission line c. is governed by the skin effect d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air answer="3"> Impedance inversion can be obtained by a. a short-circuit stub b. an open-circuited stub c. a quarter-wave line d. a half-wave line answer="4"> Transmission lines when connected to antennas have a. capacitive load b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line c. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristic impedance of the line d. resistive load at the resonant frequency answer="4"> One of the following is not a bounded media a. Coaxial line b. Two-wire line c. Waveguide d. Ocean answer="3"> The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is infinite. a. Input impedance b. Open circuit impedance c. Characteristic impedance d. Short circuit impedance answer="4"> The following are considered primary line constants except a. conductance b. resistance c. capacitance d. complex propagation constant answer="1"> The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range from about a. 1.2 to 2.8 b. 2.8 to 3.5 c. 3.5 to 5.2 d. 1.0 to 1.2 answer="1"> Typically, the velocity factor, V(F) of the materials commonly used in transmission lines range from a. 0.6 to 0.9 b. 0.1 to 0.5 c. 1.0 to 0.9 d. 0.6 to 0.8 answer="2"> For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is a. 85 ohms

b. 83 ohms c. 90 ohms d. 88 ohms answer="4"> When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by a short circuit and is connected to an RF source at the other end, its input impedance is a. inductive b. capacitive c. resistive d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit answer="1"> A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u cable to an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection coefficient a. 0.71 b. 0.77 c. 0.97 d. 0.76 answer="2"> A quarterwave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line to a load of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a char. Impedance of 316.23 ohms. The dist. Bet. Centers is 4 inches. What is the % reduction in the diameter of the line? a. 85% b. 83% c. 86% d. 90% answer="2"> The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called a. ionization b. normalization c. rationalization d. termination answer="2"> What are the basic elements of communications system? a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel c. Information, transmission channel, receiver d. Sender and receiver answer="4"> ___________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines. a. Internet b. Data communication c. Telegraphy d. Facsimile answer="4"> ___________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencies of 350 Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone sets. a. DC tone b. Ringing tone c. Dial tone d. Call waiting tone answer="1"> ___________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed about 75 km apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line. a. VF repeaters b. Loading coils c. Loop extenders d. Echo suppressors answer="4">

___________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of interfacing the handset to the local loop. a. Resistor b. Capacitor c. Varistor d. Induction coil answer="3"> Pulse dialing has __________ rate a. 20 pulses/min b. 10 pulses/min c. 10 pulses/sec d. 80 pulses/sec answer="2"> ___________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices. a. 2-wire circuit b. Trunk line c. Leased line d. Private line answer="1"> The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has cellular processor and cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices, control call processing and handle billing activities. a. MTSO b. Cell Site c. PTSN d. Trunk line answer="2"> ___________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site. a. Switching system b. Base station c. Operation and support system d. Mobile station answer="1"> A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system. a. Frequency re-use b. Cell splitting c. TDM d. FDM answer="2"> If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it mean? a. Completed calls of 5% b. Lost calls of 5% c. Lost calls of 95% d. Lost calls of 105% answer="2"> ___________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central Offices (Bell System Standard) a. 3,825 Hz b. 3700 Hz c. 2,600 Hz d. 800 Hz answer="2"> In a telephone system, the customer's telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 999? a. 100 lines b. 1000 lines c. 10,000 lines d. 100,000 lines answer="1"> If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?

a. Purely reactive b. Purely resistive c. Purely capacitive d. Purely inductive answer="4"> Not more than _________ digits make up an international telephone number as recommended by CCITT REC. E. 161. a. 8 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 answer="2"> One (1) Erlang is equal to _________. a. 360 CCS b. 36 CCS c. 3.6 CCS d. 100 CCS answer="1"> Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in that area. a. WATS b. OTLP c. TIP d. DTWX answer="1"> The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth a. 300-3400 Hz b. 1200 Hz c. 200-3200 Hz d. 300-3000 Hz answer="2"> Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in a jack and the switch is supervised by an operator. a. Crossbar switching b. Manual switching c. Electronic switching d. Step-by-step switching answer="1"> Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the ___________ state. a. on-hook b. off-hook c. busy d. spare answer="2"> ___________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of compensating for the local loop length a. Resistor b. Varistor c. Capacitor d. Induction coil answer="2"> What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset? a. Carbon b. Electromagnetic c. Ceramic d. Capacitor answer="3"> A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of a. 0 to 4 Hz b. 0 to 4 MHz c. 0 to 4 kHz d. 0 to 4 GHz

answer="1"> ___________ is the minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN. a. Basic voice grade (VG) b. Basic voice channel (VC) c. Basic voice band (VB) d. Basic telephone channel answer="3"> Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is called a. Private-line network b. PT network c. Dial-up network d. Trunk network answer="4"> What is the advantage of sidetone? a. Transmission efficiency is increased b. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthened signal c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network d. Assure the customer that the telephone is working answer="2"> ___________ is a special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX). a. Phatom line b. Tie trunk c. Tandem trunk d. Private line answer="2"> The published rates, regulations, and descriptions governing the provision of communications service for public use. a. Toll rate b. Tariff c. Bulk billing d. Detailed billing answer="3"> What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid? a. 1 dB b. 2 dB c. 3 dB d. 6 dB answer="2"> Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range of ___________. a. 300-400 Hz b. 300-3400 Hz c. 300-3000 Hz d. 300-2700 Hz answer="3"> The first strowger step-by-step switch was used in ____________. a. 1875 b. 1890 c. 1897 d. 1913 answer="1"> What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees? a. 52 sec b. 1.25 sec c. 83.33 sec d. 26 sec answer="4"> What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss plans and a fixed loss plan? a. G.133 b. G.141

c. G.132 d. G.122 answer="2"> What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100 ohms/km? a. 0.838 mm b. 0.465 mm c. 1.626 mm d. 2.159 mm answer="4"> What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and low usage areas? a. Pico cells b. Micro cells c. Nano cells d. Umbrella cells answer="1"> In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are replaced by ____________. a. adaptive array b. flat plate antenna c. dipole array d. focused antenna answer="2"> What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop? a. Digital cellular technology b. Analogue cellular technology c. PSTN d. AMPS technology answer="3"> When the calling party hears a "busy" tone on his telephone, the call is considered a. lost b. disconnected c. completed d. incomplete answer="3"> Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited because the latter are a. more difficult to make and connect b. made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance c. liable to radiate d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances answer="4"> What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage? a. VSWR b. ISWR c. SWR d. Coefficient of reflection answer="4"> One method of determining antenna impedance. a. Stub matching b. Trial and error c. Smith chart d. Quarter-wave matching answer="1"> ___________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna. a. Single-wire line b. Microstrip c. Twin-lead d. Coaxial line answer="2">

Coaxial cable impedance is typically ________________. a. 150 to 300 ohms b. 50 to 75 ohms c. 30 to 45 ohms d. 300 to 600 ohms answer="1"> Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequencies? a. Above 3 GHz b. Above 10 kHz c. At 300 MHz d. Above 10 GHz answer="3"> Nominal voice channel bandwidth is ___________. a. 20 to 30 kHz b. 0 to 3 kHz c. 4 kHz d. 55 kHz above answer="1"> Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when the round trip propagation time exceeds _____________. a. 50 ms b. 30 ms c. 100 ms d. 1 ms answer="1"> A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenna having an input impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching line? a. 212 ohms b. 250 ohms c. 200 ohms d. 150 ohms answer="1"> Quarter-wavelength line is used as ___________. a. impedance transformer b. lecher line c. transmission line d. harmonic suppressor answer="2"> The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher modes is usually called a. coaxial cable b. waveguide c. power lines d. twisted wire of telephone line answer="2"> Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguide? a. To increase the distributed capacitance b. To keep the waveguide dry c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide d. To raise the guide's wave impedance answer="4"> Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies? a. High dielectric loss b. Severe attenuation c. Excessive radiation d. The size of the waveguide answer="4"> How do you couple in and out of a waveguide? a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end of the waveguide b. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide c. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide d. Both B and C

answer="1"> A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE(10) mode. The associated flux lines are established a. transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide b. transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide c. in the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation d. in the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation answer="3"> For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between two instantaneous consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a direction parallel to the walls of the waveguide) is referred to as half of the a. free-space wavelength b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension c. guide wavelength d. group wavelength answer="4"> The guide wavelength, lambda g, in a rectangular waveguide is a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency answer="4"> Using the TE(10) mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangular guide provided a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free space c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space answer="4"> If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dominant mode is employed a. the free space wavelength, lambda, is increased b. the phase velocity, Vphi, increased c. the guide wavelength is increased d. the group velocity, Vg is increased answer="2"> If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the reflection angle, theta, is 20 degrees, what is the value of the guide wavelength, lambda g? a. 6.10 cm b. 5.32 cm c. 4.78 cm d. 5.00 cm answer="3"> The inner dimensions of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cutoff wavelength for the dominant mode is a. 1.75 cm b. 3.5 cm c. 7.0 cm d. 0.4375 cm answer="2"> A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength, lambda g? a. 3.12 cm b. 3.89 cm c. 3.57 cm d. 6.30 cm answer="3"> The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the dominant mode is limited to

a. the difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle, theta, is 90 degrees and the frequency for which theta is zero. b. the difference between the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the cutoff value and the frequency for which the freespace wavelength is equal to the guide wavelength c. the difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the narrow dimension. d. none of these answer="2"> If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the Eprobe should be inserted a. at the sealed end b. at a distance of one quarter-wavelength from the sealed end c. at a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end d. at a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end answer="2"> A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the far end. What is the input impedance to the line generator? a. a low value of resistance b. a high value of resistance c. a capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the line's surge impedance d. an inductive resistance which is equal to the value to the line's surge impedance answer="1"> If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load. b. that the line is nonresonant c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load d. that the load is matched to the line answer="2"> If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end a. there is minimum current at the shorted end b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator c. the line behaves as a series-tuned circuit in relation to the generator d. there is a minimum voltage at the shorted end. answer="1"> A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50 ohms resistive load. To shorten the line, the length must be a. any convenient value b. an odd multiple of three-quarters of a wavelength c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength answer="1"> The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded a. at the beginning and at the end of the cable b. only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable c. only at the end of the cable d. at the middle of the cable answer="1"> A feature of an infinite transmission line is that a. its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line's surge impedance b. its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light c. no RF current will be drawn from the generator d. the impedance varies at different positions on the line answer="3"> When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will a. transfer maximum current to the load b. transfer maximum voltage to the load c. transfer maximum power to the load d. have a VSWR equal to zero answer="2"> A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge

impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 15 answer="3"> Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power. a. Standing wave pattern b. Reflection coefficient c. SWR d. Index of refraction answer="4"> Emission designation for a facsimile a. H3E and A4E b. R3E and A4E c. F4E and J3E d. F3C and A3E answer="1"> Commonly used telephone wire. a. AWG #19 b. AWG #18 c. AWG #30 d. AWG #33 answer="3"> What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle? a. Frequency b. Hop c. Wavelength d. Crest answer="2"> The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the _________. a. square of the dielectric constant b. square root of the dielectric constant c. dielectric constant d. square root of refractive index answer="3"> What circuit connects a balanced line to an unbalanced line? a. Stub b. Hybrid c. Balun d. Directional coupler answer="2"> To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _________ is used. a. hybrid circuit b. balun c. directional coupler d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit answer="2"> What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line with an attenuation of 6 dB/km? a. 1.5 km b. 0.5 km c. 63 km d. 2 km answer="1"> What is the wavelength in the waveguide with 4.5 GHz cut-off frequency excited by 6.7 GHz? a. 0.196 m b. 0.336 m c. 0.136 m d. 0.136 cm

answer="2"> A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the dominant mode cut-off frequency? a. 2 GHz b. 3 GHz c. 2.5 GHz d. 3.5 GHz answer="4"> __________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher order modes? a. Coaxial cables b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire c. Power cables d. Waveguides answer="3"> The amount of uncertainly in a system of symbols is also called a. bandwidth b. loss c. entropy d. quantum answer="1"> The twists in twisted wire pairs a. reduced electromagnetic interference b. occur at a 30-degree angle c. eliminate loading d. were removed due to cost answer="4"> An example of bounded medium is a. coaxial cable b. waveguide c. fiber-optic cable d. all of the above answer="4"> Loading means to the addition of a. resistors b. capacitors c. bullets d. inductance answer="4"> What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency application? a. Two-wire balance line b. Single wire c. Three-wire line d. Coaxial answer="1"> The characteristic impedance of a transmission does not depend upon its a. length b. conductor diameter c. conductor spacing d. dielectric material answer="3"> One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance. a. 50 ohms b. 75 ohms c. 120 ohms d. 300 ohms answer="1"> For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the characteristic impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance Zl should be a. Zo = Zl b. Zo > Zl c. Zo < Zl

d. Zo = 0 answer="4"> The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be corrected for by a. using LC matching network b. adjusting antenna length c. using a balun d. adjusting the length of transmission line answer="3"> ____________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not terminated in its characteristic impedance. a. an electric field b. radio waves c. standing waves d. a magnetic field answer="2"> Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. infinity answer="3"> A 50 ohms coax is connected to a 73-ohms antenna. What is the SWR? a. 0.685 b. 1 c. 1.46 d. 2.92 answer="1"> What is the most desirable reflection coefficient? a. 0 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. infinity answer="3"> What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line? a. Velocity factor b. Standing-wave ratio c. Reflection coefficient d. Line efficiency answer="4"> The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is 390V sub 1. The SWR is a. 0.67 b. 1.0 c. 1.2 d. 1.5 answer="3"> One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of a. 150 MHz b. 164 MHz c. 300 MHz d. 328 MHz answer="2"> At very high frequencies. Transmission lines act as a. tuned circuits b. antennas c. insulators d. resistors answer="4"> A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an a. capacitor b. inductor

c. series resonant circuit d. parallel resonant circuit answer="3"> A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an a. capacitor b. inductor c. series resonant circuit d. parallel resonant circuit answer="4"> A medium least susceptible to noise? a. Shielded pair b. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer="2"> A medium most widely used in LANs? a. Parallel-wire line b. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer="2"> The most commonly used transmission line in television system. a. Parallel-wire line b. Coaxial cable c. Waveguide d. Open-wire with ceramic supports answer="2"> The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is not one of those factors? a. Diameter b. Length of the wire c. Dielectric material d. Separation between conductors answer="4"> DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of a. passing DC while blocking AC b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC c. preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier d. preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band splitter answer="1"> Typical speech power a. 10 to 1000 W b. 100 to 1000 mW c. 10 to 1000 nW d. 100 to 1000 pW answer="2"> The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between a. 250 and 500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 3000 and 5000 Hz answer="1"> The maximum voice energy is located between a. 250 and 500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 3000 and 5000 Hz answer="3"> A device used to measure speech volume. a. speech meter b. volume meter

c. volume unit meter d. speedometer answer="1"> By definition, for a sine wave a. 0 dBm = 0 V.U. b. 0 dBW = 0 V.U. c. 0 dBa = 0 V.U. d. 0 dBf = 0 V.U. answer="3"> Presently, this is the "standard" frequency bandwidth for voice transmission a. 0 to 4000 Hz b. 100 to 3400 Hz c. 300 to 3400 Hz d. 300 to 3000 Hz answer="1"> Which of the following is commonly used wire for subscriber loop design? a. AWG # 19 b. AWG # 18 c. AWG # 30 d. AWG # 33 answer="1"> The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is a. 1300 ohm(s) b. 2000 ohm(s) c. 1250 ohm(s) d. 1200 ohm(s) answer="4"> AWG # 26 has a typical loss of a. 0.21 dB/1000 ft. b. 0.32 dB/1000 ft. c. 0.41 dB/1000 ft. d. 0.51 dB/1000 ft. answer="3"> What is the standard voice channel spacing? a. 44 MHz b. 40 kHz c. 4 kHz d. 40 MHz answer="4"> Which tester is used to measure SWR? a. Multimeter b. Oscilloscope c. Spectrum analyzer d. Reflectometer answer="3"> What is singing? a. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce a tone having a frequency equal to the sum of the frequencies of the signals intermodulated. b. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce a tone having a frequency higher than that of the signal having the highest frequency. c. An undesired self-sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by excessive positive feedback. d. An art or a form of entertainment that can make one rich. answer="2"> Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver? a. Detector b. IF stage c. Modulator d. Mixer answer="1">

The __________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable intelligence at the output speaker. a. sensitivity b. selectivity c. reliability d. fidelity answer="4"> Full-duplex transmission means a. one-way transmission b. 24-hour transmission c. broadcast transmission d. two-way simultaneous transmission answer="3"> What is a multidrop line? a. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serves to protect the conductive materials from damage in the event the wire is dropped. b. A line designed to withstand high pressure. c. A line or circuit interconnecting several stations d. A bus line. answer="4"> A passive _________ is an electronic device which reduce signal strength by a specified amount in dB. a. splitter b. filter c. trimmer d. attenuator answer="3"> The signal quality of the calls is constantly monitored by the base station, when the quality of the calls drops below a certain specified level, the base request the MTSO to try and find a better cell site. a. Hand-off b. Cell splitting c. Roaming d. Frequency reuse answer="4"> A digital identification associated with a cellular system. a. SAT b. SID c. ESN d. MIN answer="4"> How many seconds does facsimile transmit a standard page? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 answer="1"> A kind of recording is used in facsimile. a. Electrolytic recording b. Electrothermal recording c. Electropercussive recording d. Electrostatic recording answer="3"> A type of distortion a facsimile produces when it becomes out of synchronization. a. Pincushion b. Barrel c. Skewing d. Fattening answer="2"> What is an acoustic coupler? a. A device that radiates audible signals via a transmitting antenna

b. A device that converts electric signal signals into audio signals, enabling data to be transmitted over the public telephone network via a conventional telephone handset c. A device that receives audible signals and retransmits them at VHF frequencies d. A transducer answer="2"> Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile. a. Single-frequency interference b. Crosstalk c. Phase jitter d. Noise answer="1"> The _________ in an FM receiver causes a stronger signal to dominate over a weaker signal on the same frequency. a. capture effect b. flywheel effect c. hall effect d. skin effect answer="2"> A device that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit. a. RS-232 interface b. Hybrid circuit c. Balun d. Stub answer="3"> __________ theory is deciding between a set of hypotheses when given a collection of imperfect measurements. a. Estimation b. Traffic c. Decision d. Nyquist answer="1"> __________ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set of data into the form of an underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect to missing data. a. Jaynes maximum entropy principle b. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination c. Minimum discrimination d. Maximum entropy answer="1"> __________ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a continuum of possible values when given a collection of imperfect measurements. a. Estimation b. Traffic c. Decision d. Nyquist answer="4"> Combination of modulator, channel, and detector. a. Transceiver b. Transponder c. T/R channel d. Discrete channel answer="1"> What is the frequency band of DECT? a. 1.88 - 1.90 GHz b. 1.68 - 1.70 GHz c. 1.48 - 1.50 GHz d. 1.28 - 1.30 GHz answer="2"> How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support? a. 96 b. 12

c. 24 d. 49 answer="1"> How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio transceiver can assess at any given time? a. 120 b. 240 c. 480 d. 960 answer="2"> The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always ________. a. present before adjustments can me made b. DC, but may have either polarity c. positive DC d. negative answer="3"> What is a concentrator? a. A system that improves the signal-to-noise ratio by compressing the volume range of a signal. b. A device that varies the characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with the waveform of a modulating signal which contains useful information. c. A switching system that lets a large number of telephone or data processing subscribers use a lesser number of transmission lines or a narrower bandwidth. d. An equipment in the central office. answer="1"> If you find that an SAW filter output is 6 dB down from the input of a receiver during test, ______________ a. this is normal b. the device is faulty c. the filter is improperly terminated d. the filter is not resonating answer="2"> A triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are a. operated in the linear region b. operated in the nonlinear region c. operated as Class-A amplifiers d. operated as Class-B amplifiers answer="4"> What is a leased line? a. A piece of wire used in a local area network in one building b. A piece of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX c. A temporary connection of one computer to a mainframe via a modem and a telephone line d. A permanent circuit for private use within a communication network answer="3"> If two FM signals of different strengths are received on the same frequency a. one steady heterodyne will appear in the AF output b. both will appear in the AF output c. only the stronger will appear in the AF output d. neither signal will be intelligence unless the weaker signal is at least 10 times answer="3"> Cellular mobile system was first operated in a. 1979 b. 1981 c. 1983 d. 1985 answer="2"> TACS is a cellular system with ____________ channels. a. 666 b. 1000

c. 832 d. 200 answer="2"> Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has _______ frequency. a. 5960 Hz b. 6000 Hz c. 6040 Hz d. 1004 Hz answer="1"> What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum of 25 MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth? a. 833 b. 240 c. 1000 d. 666 answer="4"> GSM uses what digital modulation technique? a. QAM b. GFSK c. BPSK d. GMSK answer="1"> What is the power output of Personal Communications System (PCS)? a. 10 mW b. 75 mW c. 150 mW d. 10 W answer="4"> RG-58 cable has a loss of about ___________ dB at cellular frequencies up to 15 feet length. a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 3 answer="2"> The signals designed to keep the receivers and transmitters aligned. a. Carrier frequencies b. Pilot carrier signals c. Synchronizing signals d. Reference signals answer="1"> If the spacing of a two-wire open air transmission line is 12 inches and the conductor diameter is 0.25 inch, the characteristic impedance is a. 547 ohm(s) b. 357 ohm(s) c. 273 ohm(s) d. 300 ohm(s) answer="2"> The impedance of the quarterwave transformer used to match a 600 ohm(s) line to a 300 ohm(s) load is a. 382 ohm(s) b. 424 ohm(s) c. 565 ohm(s) d. 712 ohm(s) answer="2"> When a line and a load are match the reflection coefficient is a. unity b. zero c. positive infinity d. negative infinity answer="1">

When line is terminated in an open circuit load, the reflection coefficient is a. unity b. zero c. infinity d. negative unity answer="2"> A 300 ohms line is terminated in a resistive load of 200 ohms, the VSWR is a. 0.66 b. 1.5 c. unity d. zero answer="3"> If the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the standing wave ratio is a. 0.33 b. unity c. 3 d. zero answer="4"> To test the fault of a given line, a signal is fed to the line, 30 s later the signal returned. What is the distance of the fault? a. 9000 m b. 300 m c. 100 m d. 4500 m answer="2"> The telephone set is powered by the central office on the ring side at a. 42 to 52 Vdc b. -42 to -52 Vdc c. 24 to 64 Vdc d. -24 to -64 Vdc answer="3"> The telephone voice band frequency is from a. 300 to 4 kHz b. 400 to 3400 Hz c. 300 to 3400 Hz d. 400 to 4 kHz answer="4"> Which of the following wire is used to transmit the signal? a. Black b. Yellow c. Red d. Green answer="2"> The corresponding frequencies for digit 7 in the touch tone telephone is a. 770 and 1477 Hz b. 852 and 1209 Hz c. 852 and 1336 Hz d. 770 and 1336 Hz answer="3"> The physical connection between the telephone set and the switching equipment is called the a. trunk line b. link c. subscriber loop d. leased line answer="1"> What is the local loop of a telephone system? a. It is a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer's premise and the central office. b. It is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem. c. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer.

d. It is a single piece of wire connecting the subscriber's telephone set to another set in an adjacent room. answer="4"> Which of the following equipment is used in long loop design? a. Dial long lines b. Voice repeater c. Loop range extender d. All of the above answer="1"> What is a two-wire circuit? a. A circuit usually in the subscriber loop, between the telephone set and the local central office. b. A circuit having only two terminals, both terminals having the same instantaneous voltage. c. A circuit with one input terminal, one output terminal, and a common ground. d. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines. answer="1"> 1 mW is equal to a. 90 dBrn b. 0 dBrn c. -30 dBrn d. 120 dBrn answer="2"> Which of the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a dial tone? a. Line finder b. First selector c. Connector d. Line equipment answer="2"> The other name of Class 2 office in the North American Switching Plan. a. Primary center b. Section c. Regional center d. Toll points answer="2"> A cell in the cellular telephone system means a. a power source b. small area c. large area d. service area answer="4"> What is the linking point between cell phone and regular telephone? a. Base station b. Control office c. C.O. d. MTSO answer="4"> What is the typical power output of a cellular phone? a. 5 W b. 10 W c. 1 W d. 3 W answer="1"> When a single cell is subdivided into smaller cells the process is called a. cell splitting b. cell division c. reuse d. cell sharing answer="2"> The first cell shape is a a. square

b. circle c. rectangle d. triangle answer="4"> In order to provide 100% coverage without overlap, cellular telephone system can use a. hexagon cell shape b. triangle c. rectangular d. all of the above answer="4"> What is the beamwidth of the reflector of the receiving antenna in the base station? a. 20 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 50 degrees d. 60 degrees answer="2"> A cellular phone operates on a. half duplex b. full duplex c. echoplex d. lincomplex answer="1"> Cellular phones transmit in the band from a. 825 to 845 MHz b. 835 to 855 MHz c. 825 to 855 MHz d. 825 to 865 MHz answer="2"> Cell phone receives in the band from a. 860 to 880 MHz b. 870 to 890 MHz c. 870 to 880 MHz d. 860 to 890 MHz answer="2"> What is the frequency separation between the transmit and the receive channels? a. 30 MHz b. 45 MHz c. 55 MHz d. 40 MHz answer="3"> For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is a. 825.030/870.030 MHz b. 835.03/880.03 MHz c. 825.015/870.015 MHz d. 825.15/870.15 MHz answer="4"> The number of transmit/receive channels in the cellular system is a. 625 b. 645 c. 655 d. 666 answer="1"> The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about a. 80 km b. 65 km c. 160 km d. 16 km answer="2">

When the message is transferred from one cell site transmitter to another cellsite transmitter as the caller crosses a boundary _________ process takes place. a. shifting b. hand off c. give off d. turn over answer="3"> What is the sensitivity of a cellular receiver? a. 20 dB b. 40 dB c. 50 dB d. 60 dB answer="3"> What is the frequency deviation of the cellular telephone system? a. 15 kHz b. 30 kHz c. 12 kHz d. 75 kHz answer="2"> Hailing channel is otherwise known as a. conversation channel b. calling channel c. signaling channel d. remote channel answer="4"> What is an Erlang? a. It is a unit of magnetic field intensity measured around a conductor b. It is the number of erroneous bits received per unit of time c. It is a unit of electrical energy radiated in space d. It is equal to the number of simultaneous calls originated during a specific hourly period answer="4"> All of the cell base stations are linked together by ______ which serves as the central office and management node for the group. a. MTS b. IMTS c. MSTO d. MTSO answer="2"> Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units. a. Database b. Cell site c. Terrestrial link d. Radio transmitter answer="3"> A phone call over the cellular network requires a. simplex channels b. half duplex channels c. full duplex channels d. full/full duplex answer="1"> A method of expressing the amplitudes of complex non-periodic signals such as speech. a. Volume b. Pitch c. Frequency d. Wavelength answer="2"> _________ is a signal returned to the talker after making one or more round trips between the talker and the listener. a. Singing

b. Echo c. Jitter d. Crosstalk answer="3"> _________ is a voice operated device that insert a high loss in the opposite direction of transmission of the talking party. a. Hybrid b. 2-wire circuit c. Echo suppressor d. VNL answer="1"> _________ is picking up of the same station at two nearby points on the receiver dial. a. Double spotting b. Hot shot c. Image frequency d. Bail shot answer="2"> When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel. a. Echo b. Crosstalk c. Party line d. Crosslink answer="3"> What type of connector arrangement wherein a customer may move to another location and still retain the same telephone number. a. TPL b. Bridge c. TPS d. Party line answer="4"> It is an advantage of sidetone. a. Transmission efficiency is increased b. Speaker increase his voice resulting in a strengthened signal c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network d. Assures the customer that the telephone is working answer="3"> Radio communications between points using a single share frequency. a. Simplex b. Full duplex c. Half-duplex d. Full/full duplex answer="2"> The transmission of information from multiple sources occurring on the same facility but not at the same time. a. FDM b. TDM c. WDM d. CDM answer="4"> When human voice and music are transmitted, the type of communication employed is known as a. radiotelegraphy b. audio frequency c. wired radio d. radiotelephony answer="2"> Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into a baseband electric signal by the process of a. copying b. scanning c. modulation d. light variation

answer="4"> What is the most commonly used light sensor in a modem fax machine? a. Phototube b. Phototransistor c. Liquid-crystal display d. Charge couple device answer="1"> In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are ____________ respectively. a. 1500 and 2300 Hz b. 2300 and 1500 Hz c. 1300 and 2400 Hz d. 1070 and 1270 Hz answer="4"> Which resolution produces the best quality fax? a. 96 lines per inch b. 150 lines per inch c. 200 lines per inch d. 400 lines per inch answer="3"> Group 2 fax uses which modulation? a. SSB b. FSK c. Vestigial sideband AM d. PSK answer="3"> The most widely used fax standard is a. Group 1 b. Group 2 c. Group 3 d. Group 4 answer="1"> Group 3 fax uses which modulation? a. QAM b. FSK c. Vestigial sideband AM d. FM answer="2"> Most fax printers are of which type? a. Impact b. Thermal c. Electrosensitive d. Laser xerographic answer="3"> Facsimile standards are set by the a. FCC b. DOD c. CCITT d. IEEE answer="4"> What type of graphics are commonly transmitted by radio fax? a. Newspaper text b. Architectural drawings c. Cable movies d. Satellite weather photos answer="3"> What is the transmission speed of group 4 fax? a. 4800 baud b. 9600 baud c. 56 kbits/s d. 192 kbits/s answer="4"> What is the cause of insertion loss?

a. Thermal noise that intermodulate with signal traveling on the same medium. b. A momentary disruption of signal due to power interruption c. A low level high frequency signal inserted into the original signal caused by thermal noise d. none of these answer="2"> __________ is the master control center for cellular telephone system. a. Cell site b. Mobile telephone switching office c. Central office d. Branch office answer="1"> Each cell site contains a a. repeater b. control computer c. direct link to a branch exchange d. touch-tone processor answer="2"> What is a trunk? a. The base of a communications tower. b. A telephone line connecting two central offices. c. A line connecting one telephone set to a PABX. d. Refers to the body of a tree. answer="3"> Cellular telephones use which type of operation? a. Simplex b. Half-duplex c. Full-duplex d. Triplex answer="2"> What is the maximum frequency deviation of an FM cellular transmitter? a. 6 kHz b. 12 kHz c. 30 kHz d. 45 kHz answer="4"> Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz. Receive channel 23 is a. 870.36 MHz b. 870.63 MHz c. 870.96 MHz d. 870.69 MHz answer="4"> A transmit channel has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The received channel frequency is a. 729.6 MHz b. 837.6 MHz c. 867.6 MHz d. 882.6 MHz answer="3"> A receive channel frequency is 872.4 MHz. To develop an 82.2 MHz IF, the frequency synthesizer must supply an LO signal of a. 790.2 MHz b. 827.4 MHz c. 954.6 MHz d. 967.44 MHz answer="4"> The output power of a cellular radio is controlled by the a. user or caller b. cell site c. called party d. MTSO answer="1">

When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what action occurs? a. The unit is "handed off" to a closer cell b. The call is terminated c. The MTSO increases power level d. The cell site switches antenna answer="4"> In a cellular radio, the duplexer is a a. ferrite isolator b. waveguide assembly c. part of TR/ATR tubes d. pair of sharp bandpass filters answer="1"> On a telephone system, the loop is open during a. on-hook condition b. off-hook condition c. both A and B d. none of these answer="3"> For every button pressed on a touch-tone telephone, how many signals are transmitted to the C.O.? a. Two VHF signals b. One VHF signal and one audio-frequency tone c. Two audio-frequency tones d. Three audible tones answer="1"> What is the traffic model about blocked calls clear condition specified blocking probability? a. Erlang B b. Erlang C c. Erlang D d. Poisson answer="2"> A touch-tone telephone generates how many different tones. a. 10 audio-frequency tones b. 8 audible tone frequencies c. 4 VHF signals d. 16 audio-frequency tones answer="4"> The base-to-mobile frequency assignment of a GSM system. a. 890 - 915 MHz b. 825 - 845 MHz c. 870 - 890 MHz d. 935 - 960 MHz answer="4"> A voice-grade channel is suitable for transmission of a. VHF signals b. UHF signals c. VHF and UHF signals d. signals with a frequency ranging from 300 to 3400 Hz answer="1"> What is the bandwidth of cellular CDMA system? a. 1.23 MHz b. 1.23 GHz c. 1.23 kHz d. 1.23 THz answer="2"> What is a communication link? a. It is a piece of wire that is connected to ground terminals of all communications equipment in one establishment. b. It is a channel or circuit intended to connect other channels or circuits. c. It is a cable connecting a transmitter to the antenna d. It refers to a radio link.

answer="4"> Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equal to an average holding time. a. Erlang B b. Erlang C c. Erlang D d. Poisson answer="2"> What is an echo? a. A signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the original signal and mixed with the original signal at the transmitter to produce a more intelligible output signal. b. A wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with sufficient magnitude and delay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct from that directly transmitted. c. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back to earth by a passive satellite. d. A reflected signal. answer="2"> What is the system used by Personal Communication Network (PCN) a. TACS b. Modified GSM c. AMPS d. CDMA answer="4"> Termination refers to a. cutting both ends of a conductor b. disconnecting a line from a transmitter c. looking back impedance of a line with no load d. load connected to the output end of a transmission line answer="3"> The multiple access used by Digital European Cordless Telephone (DECT). a. CDMA b. FDMA c. TDMA d. CDMA/FDMA answer="2"> Blocked calls delay condition specified delay probability. a. Erlang B b. Erlang C c. Erlang D d. Poisson answer="3"> Status information provided by telephone signaling. a. Busy tone, dial tone and ringing b. Congestion and call charge data c. All of the above d. none of the above answer="1"> The modulation technique used by DECT. a. GFSK b. ASK c. QAM d. PSK answer="1"> What is a four-wire circuit? a. is used between serving central offices for long-distance connections, with one pair being used for each direction of transmission. b. Is a circuit with three output terminals and one input terminal c. Is an oscillator that produces four different frequencies simultaneously d. A circuit consisting of four transmission lines. answer="4"> Cellular CDMA system uses what modulation method?

a. GFSK b. ASK c. QAM d. BPSK answer="2"> PABX means a. Private All-purpose Broadcasting Exchange b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Public Access Bi-directional Exchange d. Public Automatic Branch Exchange answer="1"> What is the voted cellular digital standard at TIA? a. Digital AMPS b. GSM c. CDMA d. TACS answer="2"> What is the number of channels for Band A and for Band B in Digital AMPS? a. 832 b. 416 c. 666 d. 888 answer="1"> The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is a. 890 - 915 MHz b. 935 - 960 MHz c. 870 - 890 MHz d. 825 - 845 MHz answer="1"> The range (in miles) of a cellular CDMA system. a. 13 b. 30 c. 45 d. 20 answer="4"> In a cellular system, ____________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency. a. radio efficiency b. diversity c. frequency reuse d. radio capacity answer="3"> Which of the following echo is completely out of control? a. Worst echo b. Reverberation c. Singing d. Feedback answer="1"> Which of the following devices increase the battery voltage on a loop and extends its signaling range? a. Loop extender b. VF repeater c. VF amplifier d. All of these answer="4"> Under ordinary circumstances, the CCITT recommends that the number of circuits in tandem must not exceed a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 answer="3"> What is the system capacity of AMPS?

a. 30,000 b. 60,000 c. 100,000 d. 120,000 answer="3"> NAM means a. Non Alternable Memory b. Number Allocation Module c. Numeric Assignment Module d. Numeric Access Module answer="2"> One of the following is not an advantage of a cellular telephone system. a. privacy b. large service area c. no interference d. mobility answer="3"> Communication is the process of a. Keeping in touch b. Broadcasting c. Exchanging information d. Entertainment by electronics answer="4"> A key barrier in communications a. Cost b. PN Junction c. Walls d. Distance answer="3"> Electronics Communication was discovered in what century? a. Sixteenth b. Eighteenth c. Nineteenth d. Twentieth answer="2"> Which of the following is not a major communications medium? a. Free Space b. Water c. Wires d. Fiber Optics Cable answer="4"> Random interference to transmitted signals is called a. Adjacent channel overlap b. Cross talk c. Garbage - in - Garbage - out d. Noise answer="3"> The communications medium causes the signal to be a. Amplified b. Modulated c. Attenuated d. Interfered with. answer="1"> Which of the following is not a source of noise? a. Another communications signal b.Atmospheric effects c. Manufactured electrical systems d. Thermal agitation in electronic components answer="4"> One - way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm

d. Simplex answer="2"> Simultaneoues two-way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer="3"> The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called a. Modulating Signal b. Carrier c. Baseband Signal d. Source Signal answer="4"> The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be transmitted is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modulation answer="1"> The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneously over the same channel is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modulation answer="2"> Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as being a. Baseband b. Analog c. Digital d. Continuous waves answer="3"> Recovering information from a carrier is known as a. Demultiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Carrier Recovery answer="4"> Transmission of graphical information over the telephone network is accomplished by a. Television b. CATV c. Videotext d. Facsimile answer="1"> Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this data for analysis is the process of a. Telemetry b. Instrumentation c. Modulation d. Multiplexing answer="3"> Receiving electromagnetic emissions from stars is called a. Astrology b. Optical Astronomy c. Radio Astronomy d. Space Surveillance answer="1"> A personnal communication hobby for individual is a. Ham radio b. Electronic bulletin board

c. CB Radio d. Cellular Radio answer="4"> Radar is based upon a. Microwaves b. A water medium c. The directional nature of radio signals d. Reflected Radio signals answer="1"> A frequency of 27 MHz has a wavelength of approximately a. 11m b. 27m c. 30m d. 81m answer="2"> The voice freqency range is a. 30 to 300 Hz b. 300 to 3000 Hz c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz d. 0 Hz to 15 kHz answer="3"> Another name for signal in the HF range is a. Microwaves b. Kamehame Waves c. Shortwaves d. Millimeter waves answer="3"> Television broadcasting ocurs in which ranges? a. HF b. EHF c. VHF d. SHF answer="1"> Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called a. Infrared rays b. Microwaves c. Shortwaves d. X-rays answer="2"> A micron is a. One - millionth of a foot b. One - millionth of a meter c. One - thousandth of a meter d. One ten-thousandth of an inch answer="4"> The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 30 to 300 GHz b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom c. 100 to 10,000 A d. 0.7 to 10 microns answer="2"> The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 1000 microns b. 7000 Angstrom c. 3500 A d. 4000 A answer="1"> Which of the following is not used for communications? a. X - rays b. Millimeter waves c. Infrared d. Microwaves

answer="2"> A signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The bandwidth is a. 0.007 MHz b. 7 MHz c. 237 MHz d. 700 MHz answer="3"> In the United States, the elecromagnetic spectrum is regulated and managed by a. NBA b. ITU c. FCC d. NTC answer="4"> For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available for signals in the range of a. VHF b. UHF c. SHF d. EHF answer="2"> Having an information change some characteristic of a carrier signal is called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Duplexing d. Linear Mixing answer="3"> Which of the following is not true about AM? a. The carrier output varies. b. The carried frequency remains constant. c. The carrier frequency changes. d. The information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude. answer="4"> The opposite of modulation is a. Reverse moduation b. Downward Modulation c. Unmodulation d. Demodulation answer="1"> The circuit used to produce modulation is called a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Variable Gain Amplifier d. Multiplexer answer="3"> A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs? a. Addition b. Square Root c. Multiplication d. Division answer="3"> The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is referred to as a. The voltage ratio b. Decibels c. The modulation index d. The mix factor answer="4"> If m is greater than 1, what happens? a. Normal Operation b. Carrier drops to zero. c. Carrier frequency shifts

d. Information signal is distorted answer="2"> For ideal AM, which of the following is true? a. m = 0 b. m = 1 c. m < 1 d. m < 1 answer="3"> The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal and is called the a. Trace b. Waveshape c. Envelope d. Carrier variation answer="1"> Overmodulation occurs when a. Vm > Vc b. Vm < Vc c. Vm = Vc d. m = Vc = 0 answer="4"> The new signals produced by modulation are called a. Spurious emissions b. Harmonics c. Intermodulation products d. Sidebands answer="4"> A display of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the a. Time Domain b. Frequency spectrum c. Amplitude spectrum d. Frequency domain answer="1"> Most of the power in an AM signal is in the a. Carrier b. Upper sideband c. Lower sideband d. Modulation signal answer="3"> The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer="2"> A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are, respectively, a. 873 and 887 kHz b. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz d. 887 and 873 kHz answer="3"> The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer="2"> An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation is 80 percent. The total sideband power is

a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5 W d. 4.0 W answer="1"> For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband? a. 25 percent b. 33.3 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent answer="1"> An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier power is 440W. The power in one sideband is a. 85 W b. 110 W c. 170 W d. 610 W answer="2"> An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The percentage of modulation is a. 35 percent b. 70 percent c. 42 percent d. 89 percent answer="4"> In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the a. Modulating signal b. Carrier c. Envelope d. Sidebands answer="3"> An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n) a. Vestigial Sideband b. FM Signal c. SSB d. Uncarried Signal answer="3"> What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information? a. Carrier plus sidebands b. Carrier only c. One sideband d. Both sidebands answer="1"> The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is a. Less spectrum space is used b. Simpler equipment is used c. Less power is consumed d. A higher modulation percentage answer="3"> In SSB, which sideband is the best to use? a. Upper b. Lower c. Neither d. Depends upon the use answer="2"> Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase in the signal a. Carrier Power b. Bandwidth c. Sideband Power d. Envelope Voltage

answer="1"> It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by electronic means. a. Communications b. Telemetry c. Broadcasting d. Telephony answer="1"> What services uses HF CW communications? a. Police b. Telephony c. Broadcasting d. Sattelite system answer="2"> The signal which is superimposed on a high frequency sinewave is called a. Carrier b. Information c. Sideband d. Squarewave answer="3"> What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO) a. Aids in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals b. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the intermediate frequency c. Generates a 1kHz tone to Morse reception d. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the intermidiate frequency by 1kHz answer="1"> A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictable variations in amplitude frequency. a. Speech b. Digital c. Pulses d. Bits answer="3"> He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex repetitive waveform. a. Carson b. P.H. Smith c. J. Fourier d. Y. Uda answer="2"> The process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carrier is called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Scrambling answer="4"> A diagram which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and maximum bunching of the electron beam in velocity-modulated devices. a. Smith chart b. Venn Diagram c. S-parameter Diagram d. Applegate Diagram answer="1"> It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the principal source of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices. a. Edison Effect b. Miller Effect c. Bunching d. Secondary Effect

answer="4"> It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoidal components are displayed as a function of time a. Wave Representation b. TDR c. Frequency Domain d. Time Domain answer="1"> An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which undergoes some power absorption at resonance. a. Frequency Meter b. Cavity resonator c. Ferrite isolator d. Auto Coupler answer="1"> What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in the path of energy flow? a. Insertion loss b. Gain c. Wave attenuation d. Phase shift answer="2"> It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitude is displayed as a function of frequency. a. Wave Shape b. Frequency Domain c. OTDR d. Time Domain answer="3"> The big breakthrough in electronic communications came with the invention of the _____ in 1844. a. Transistor b. Phonograph c. Telegraph d.Telephone answer="1"> In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent record of sound with his invention of the phonograph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer="2"> He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer="1"> Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of the phonograph? a. Telephone b. Phonograph c. Either d. Neither answer="4"> What is a device such as the microphone and headset sometimes called? a. Receiver b. Transmission medium c. Converter d. Reproducer answer="3">

What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another? a. Phase b. Energy c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer="1"> The entire range of _____ of electromagnetic radiation is called the frequency spectrum. a. Frequencies b. Phases c. Energies d. Amplitude answer="4"> When did the first transatlantic radio communications took place? a. 1876 b. 1942 c. 1888 d. 1901 answer="2"> What determines the station that will be selected by a tuner? a. The selectivity of the IF. b. The resonant frequency of the tuner. c. The sensitivity of the tuner. d. The bandwidth of the amplifier. answer="1"> Name a periodic waveform that consists of only odd harmonics. a. Square wave b. Sine wave c. Cosine wave d. Spikes answer="3"> Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony. a. Magnifier b. Class B c. Class C d. Class A answer="3"> The audio is reconstructed from the radiowave by: a. The action of the headset b. Having the audio removed from the carrier. c. The action of a filter capacitor connected across the headset d. none of the above answer="4"> Which of the following do not require a tuner? a. TV receiver b. CB receiver c. Communications Sattelite Receiver d. none of these answer="4"> What is the main difference between an AF amplifier and an RF amplifier? a. The amplification factor b. The stability c. The selectivity d. The range of frequencies that they amplify answer="1"> What is the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator? a. To provide a conversion frequency b. To produce the IF c. To provide good selectivity d. To increase stability answer="4">

What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission? a. HPF b. LPF c. Duplexer d. Diplexer answer="4"> What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conference b. Anti Firing Countermeasure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Control answer="2"> Amplitude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Analog Multiplication c. Signal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer="1"> In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n) a. Tuned Circuit b. Transformer c. Capacitor d. Inductor answer="1"> Amplitude modulation can be produced by a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer="3"> Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of a. Rectification b. Resonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer="1"> The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor b. Thermistor c. Cavity Resonator d. PIN diode answer="2"> Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known as a. High level modulation b. Low Level Modulation c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answer="2"> The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal Set answer="3"> The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the a. Diode mixer b. Balanced modulator c. Envelope Detector d. Crystal Filter answer="4">

A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called a(n) a. Amplitude Modulator b. Diode Detector c. Class C Amplifier d. Balanced Modulator answer="3"> A widely used balanced modulator is called the a. Diode Bridge Circuit b. Full Wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice Modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer="2"> In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. Variable resistors b. Switches c. Rectifiers d. Variable Capaitors answer="4"> The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. DSB answer="1"> The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a a. Differential Amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge d. Constant Current Source answer="3"> The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses a. LC Networks b. Mechanical Resonators c. Crystals d. RC Networks and op amps answer="4"> The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a a. Series Resonant circuit b. Parallel Resonant Circuit c. Neithar a and b d. Both a and b answer="1"> Where is ISB primarily used? a. Telephone and telegraph communications b. Telemetry c. FM broadcast d. Radar answer="2"> What is a major problem with very high frequency oscillator? a. low sensitivity b. poor frequency stability c. poor image rejection d. no power stability answer="2"> What does ALC means? a. All local Circuits b. Automatic level control c. Asynchronous Link Control d. Automatic Link Circuit answer="1">

What is an ideal pulse? a. a perfect square wave with zero rise time b. a very short duration c. a high amplitude d. a low duty cycle answer="1"> What happens to the spectrum of repetitive pulse as the pulse width decreases? a. more harmonics of the same phase b. less harmonics of the same phase c. remain constant d. decreases answer="4"> A major advantage of the vacuum tube is its need for a _______ to give energy to the electrons. a. Voltage source b. line equalizer c. limiter d. heater answer="3"> Keyed AGC is AGC that: a. Works only on Morse code b. Is activated when keyed by the transmitting signal c. Is used is TV receivers so that transmitted picture brightness does not affect the AGC d. Is used in color TV receivers so that the transmitted color has no effect on the AGC answer="1"> What is the main disadvantage of a single-tube transmitter a. Frequency instability b. Low gain c. High resistivity d. High attenuation answer="2"> What is the name of the operation that uses an antenna changeover switch? a. Duplex b. Simplex c. Crossover d. Switching answer="1"> Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum? a. 8.2345 MHz b. 150.50 MHz c. 2.4555 MHz d. 35.535 MHz answer="3"> What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions? a. Amplitude b. Phase c. Bandwidth d. Energy answer="2"> What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the transmission frequency? a. Frequency sensitivity b. Frequency stability c. High sensitivity d. Good selectivity answer="4"> What type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission? a. Capacitive b. Direct c. Transformer

d. Inductive answer="1"> What class of bias should produce least harmonics? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D answer="3"> What type of field does a Faraday shield stop? a. Common b. Array c. Electrostatic d. Magnetostatic answer="1"> What type of circuit reduces even-order harmonics? a. Push-pull b. Class A c. Armstrong circuit d. Demodulator answer="4"> How many watts are represented by 40dBw? a. 40,000w b. 1,000w c. 40w d. 10,000w answer="1"> Term for transmission of printed picture by radio. a. Facsimile b. ACSSB c. Xerography d. Television answer="2"> What is another name for an AF volume control? a. FC b. Gain c. ARC d. AMC answer="4"> What device can be used to make a modulated envelope visible? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Synthesizer c. Calibrator d. Oscilloscope answer="2"> Which of the following is not an advantage of SSB over AM? a. Power saving b. Simple receiver circuit c. Less spectrum d. None of these answer="2"> What is the result if a balanced modulator is not perfectly balanced? a. SB filtered b. Carrier transmitted c. Lower sideband transmitted d. Both sideband transmitted answer="4"> If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation? a. 0 b. 45 c. 180 d. 90 answer="4">

What method can be used to invert speech? a. Frequency multiplier b. Inverter c. AGC d. Frequency translation answer="2"> In SSB, voice compression is better in the AF or RF section? a. AF b. RF c. Intermediate d. SB answer="1"> What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF? a. Demodulator b. Modem c. Synthesizer d. Modulator answer="1"> What kind of crystal is used in oscillator? a. Quartz b. Galena c. Carborundum d. Salt answer="2"> Power is always _____ a. A definite amount of energy b. All of these c. The rate at which energy is used d. Expressed in watts answer="3"> Which of the following services would use crystal local oscillators? a. AM b. FM c. Aircraft d. Shortwave listeners answer="2"> What does VOX mean? a. Very Onward circuit b. Voice-operated transmission c. Voice Onward transmission d. Very Oxford Transmitter answer="2"> What is an NO RY? a. Non operational Relay b. Normally Open Relay c. Normally Ready d. Non Organic Relay answer="2"> The Extremely hihg frequency(EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of ______. a. 30 to 300 kHZ b. 30 to 300 GHZ c. 3 to 30 MHz d. 3 to 30 GHz answer="4"> What kind of system relays has remote readings? a. Broadcasting b. Data gathering c. Telecast d. Telemetering answer="3"> What causes audio signals to be distorted in the receiver? a. Interference

b. Gain c. Harmonics d. Amplitude answer="4"> Which of the following is not normally tested in a transmitter? a. Power b. Modulation c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer="4"> Which of the following items need not to be checked with receivers? a. Sensitivity b. Squelch c. Distortion d. Gain answer="2"> What is the source of wheel static? a. Wheel b. Brakes c. Piston d. Oscillations answer="2"> _______ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundamental frequency. a. Distortion b. Harmonic c. Modulation d. Radio answer="4"> Amplitude distortion results from _______ amplification. a. Indirect b. Linear c. Direct d. Nonlinear answer="3"> A _____ is a resonant circuit tuned to reject an undesired signal by reducing the gain at the trap frequency a. LC tank b. LPF c. Wave trap d. HPF answer="1"> A subcarrier has a(n) _____ frequency than the main carrier. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. Good answer="1"> Amplitude limiting in the IF section eliminates ___ interference from the FM signal. a. AM b. FM c. PM d. Broadband answer="2"> With which emission type is capture-effect most pronounced? a. CW b. FM c. SSB d. AM answer="4"> The parameter of a high frequency carrier that may be varied by a low frequency intelligence signal is a. Amplitude

b. Frequency c. Phase d. All of the above answer="1"> A carrier signal has ____. a. Constant peak amplitude b. The information c. Frequency range 20-20000Hz d. A varying amplitude answer="3"> The type of emission for FM stereo(multiplex) broadcasting is a. F3E b. A3E c. F8E d. A8E answer="2"> The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is ______. a. Direct b. Indirect c. Insertion d. All of these answer="1"> In TV broadcasting in the Philippines, the aspect ratio of the picture frame is ____. a. 4:3 b. 2:1 c. 4:1 d. 3:1 answer="3"> Horizontal blanking time in TV. a. 10.16 us b. 16.67 us c. 63.5 us d. 1 us answer="3"> The standard coaxial impedance for CATV applications is_______. a. 36 ohms b. 72 ohms c. 75 ohms d. 300 ohms answer="1"> The service area in which the ground wave field of 1mV/m is not subject to objectionable interference. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Intermittent d. Tertiary answer="1"> Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? a. MF b. VHF c. HF d. UHF answer="3"> Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? a. HF b. UHF c. MF d. VHF answer="4"> The width of television broadcast channel a. 200MHz b. 10kHz

c. 100kHz d. 6MHz answer="2"> CATV trunk and feeder system amplifier input voltage of _____. a. 110 V b. 220 V c. 500 V d. 1000 V answer="3"> it is the maximum swing of the sound carrier in tv system. a. 5 kHz b. 15 kHz c. 25 kHz d. 35 kHz answer="3"> The pre-emphasis and de-emphasis networks have a time constant of__ a. 65 s b. 70 s c. 75 s d. 80 s answer="2"> which of the following is not a product of overmodulation? a. splatter b. image c. buck shot d. spurious signal answer="4"> it is the range of short-wave frequency. a. 30 - 300 kHz b. 300 - 3000 kHz c. 3 - 30 MHz d. 30 - 300 MHz answer="2"> One angstrom is equivalent to___ a. 10 b. 10 Y c. 10 Y d. 10 answer="2"> An FM signal has a deviation of 10 KHz and a modulating frequency of 2 KHz. Calculate the modulation index. a. 20 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 answer="3"> A modulation technique wherein the modulations index is directly proportional only to the intelligence amplitude. a. AM b. FM c. PM d. CM answer="2"> How many RF amplifiers are there in a tuned radio frequency receiver? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer="1"> Noise due to random motion of the free alectrons in a conductor. a. thermal noise b. shot noise

c. harmonic distortion d. intermodulation distortion answer="1"> determine the shot noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1mA over a 100 Khz Bandwidth. a. 0.00566 A b. 0.00400 A c. 0.00455 A d. 0.00500 A answer="2"> indicate the false staement: Bandwidth a. ia a portion of electromagnetism spectrum occupied by a system b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propagate the source information through the system. c. must be sufficiently large to pass all significant information frequenies d. is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limit answer="3"> what is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network? a. 2122 GHZ b. 2122 KHZ c. 2122 HZ d. 2122 MHZ answer="3"> Band limiting a signal a. is independent of its frequency content b. is independent of itswaveform shape c. may remove necessary in its information capacity d. is independent of its information capacity answer="2"> desired harmonics are referred to as: a. frequency distortion b. frequency multiplication c. modulation cross products d. intermodulation distortion answer="3"> indicate the false staement: Flickers a. were commonly found in transistors b. are inversely proportional to frequency c. are very serious at frequencies above 500 HZ d. are also referred to as modulation noise. answer="2"> having a temperature of 17 C at MHZ BW the noise voltage at the input of a TV RF amplifier, using a device has a 200 O equivalent noise resistance and a 300 O input resistor will be a. 3.692 V b. 6.932 V c. 6.902 V d. 6.293 V answer="4"> the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is therefore a. Halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. none of the above answer="4"> _____________ transmissionare employed for low or medium density traffic a. SSBSC b. DSBCS c. SSBRC d. ISB answer="3">

An Fm signal with a deviation ratio 8 is passed through a mixer, and has its frequency reduced 5 fold. The deviation in the output of the mixer is a. 5 d b. d / 5 c. d d. none of the above answer="1"> a typical squelch circuit cut off a. an audio amplifier when carrier is absent b. R interference when the signal is weak c. An IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum d. all of the above answer="3"> a 68 KHz carrier wave is amplitude modulated by the band of frequencies 300-3400 Hz. Determine the Bandwidth. a. 38.3 KHz b. 71.4 KHz c. 6.8 KHz d. 3.1 KHz answer="2"> A 400W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75%. Calculate the total power in the C3F with 10% of 1SB transmission. a. 56.25 W b. 461.86W c. 512.5W d. 112.5W answer="1"> which of the following has the best sensitivity? a. -60 dBm b. 0 dBm c. 30 dBm d. -30 dBm answer="1"> which of the following has the best sensitivity? a. 10 KHz b. 10 MHz c. 100 MHz d. 20 KHz answer="2"> a modulation frequency range from 30-15000 Hz is permitted in an Fm system together with a maximum deviation of 50KHz. What will be the maximum index in this system? a. 1.11 b. 1.66 c. 3.33 d. 0.3 answer="2"> calculate the image rejecytion of the receiver having an RF amplifier and If of 450 KHz if the Q of the relevant coil is 65 at anincoming frequency of 1200 KHz. a. 75.28 b. 76.6 c. 890.78 d. 90 answer="4"> calculate the S/N in ratio and dB form of a receiver which output is 40V and 0.48V noise. a. 6944.4 , 38.5 dB b. 6499.4 , 38.42 dB c. 83.33 , 19.21 dB d. 6944.4 , 38.42 dB answer="4"> which of the following is NOT a major benefit of FM over Am?

a. greater efficiency b. noise immunity c. capture effect d. lower complexity and cost answer="3"> most internal noise comes from a. shot noise b. transit-time noise c. thermal agitation d. skin effect answer="2"> noise can be reduced by a. widening the BW b. narrowing the BW c. increasing the temperature d. increasing transistor current level answer="2"> the heart of all methods of single sideband modulation and demodulation a. modulator b. balanced modulator c. modulation d. demodulation answer="3"> "front end" is also called _____ a. IF stage b. AF stage c. RF stage d. none of these answer="3"> this is the system so far referred to as "SSB" in which the carrier is supressed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter. a. A3E b. R3E c. J3E d. B8E answer="2"> a micron is a. one-millionth of a foot b. one-millionth of a meter c. one-thousandth of a meter d. one-thousandth of an inch answer="4"> the frequency range of infrared rays is approx. a. 30-300 GHz b. 4000-8000 A c. 1000-10000 A d. 0.7-100 m answer="2"> an AM signal has a carrier power of 5w. The percentage of modulation is 80%. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5W d. 4.0W answer="3"> as SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 KW.the average output is in range of a. 150-450 W b. 100-300 W c. 250-333 W d. 3 - 4 kW answer="4">

if the unmodulated carrier current is 4A and the percentage modulation is 70%. The total output current is a. 4.64 A b. 0.5 A c. 2.8 A d. 4.46 A answer="4"> the process of translating a signal, w/ or w/o modulation, to a higher or lower frequency for processing is called_____ a. frequency multiplication b. frequency division c. frequency shift d. frequency conversion answer="4"> if the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the modulation index? a. 50A% b. 75% c. 90% d. 100% answer="3"> which of the following is he most correct? a. Vm should be greater then Vc b. Vc should be greater than Vm c. Vm should be equal to or less than Vc d. Vc should be equal to or less than Vm answer="1"> the output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 KHz sine wave modulating tone is a. 3.8485 MHZ sine wave b. 3.85 MHz sine wave c. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine wave d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine wave answer="2"> the maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 KHz. The actual % modulation is 18 KHz, the % modulation is a. 43% b. 72% c. 96% d. 139% answer="1"> the phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a common frequency is reffered to as the ______ a. capture effect b. biot out c. quieting factor d. denomination syndrome answer="3"> both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation? a. amplitude b. phase c. angle d. duty cycle answer="3"> in SSB, w/c sideband is the best to use? a. upper b. lower c. neither d. depends upon the use answer="1"> Which of the following is NOT another name for modulation index? a. modulation reciprocal b. modulation factor c. degree of modulation

d. modulation coefficient answer="3"> receiving electromagnetic emissions from the stars is called_____ a. astrology b. optical astronomy c. radio astronomy' d. space surveillance answer="3"> a widely used balanced modulator is called _____ a. diode bridge circuit b. full-wave bridge amplifier c. lattice modulator d. balanced bridge modulator answer="4"> a display of signal amplitude vs. frequency is called the ____ a. time domain b. frequency spectrum c. amplitude spectrum d. frequency domain answer="2"> indicate the false staement: BW a. is a portion of electromagnetic spectrum occupied by a system b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propagate the source information through the system c. must be sufficiently large / wide to pass all significant information frequencies d. is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limit answer="3"> indicate the false statement: attenuators a. are passive network used to reduce the power level w/o introducing appreciable distortion b. consist of numerous resistors arranged in various configurations that act as voltage divides while maintaining a constant input and output impedances c. introduces a fixed loss d. usually used over wide frequency range answer="3"> what is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network a. 2122 GHz b. 2122 KHz c. 2122 Hz d. 2122 MHz answer="2"> which of the following waveform responses produce the fastest transition a. chebysher b. elliptic c. bessel filter d. butterworth answer="4"> which of the following waveform responses produce the slowest transition a. bessel filter b. elliptic c. chebysher d. maximally flat filter answer="3"> bandlimiting a signal : a. is independent fo its frequency content b. is independent of its waveform shape c. is independent in its information capacity d. may remove necessary informations in the signal

answer="3"> indicate the false statement: roll-off rate a. can be expressed in dB/octave b. can be expressed in dB/decade c. is a change in frequency by a factor of 2 d. is a rate of transition from passband to stopband and vice versa answer="2"> desired harmonics are reffered to as: a. frequency distortion b. frequency multiplication c. modulation cross products d. intermodulation distortion answer="2"> ______was the first fixed-length charactered code a. morse code b. telex code c. ASCII code d. EBCDIC code answer="3"> indicate the false statement: flicker a. were commomnlyfound in transistors b. are inversely proportional to frequency c. are very serious at frequency above 500Hz d. are also known as modulation noise answer="2"> having an amplifier BW of 6 MHz at temperature 17 C , the noise voltage at the input of a TV RF amplifier, using a device that has a 200O equivalent noise resistance and a 300O input resistor will be ___ a. 6.392 MV b. 6.932 MV c. 6.902 MV d. 6.293 MV answer="4"> the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is therefore a. halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. none of the above answer="4"> _____ transmissions are employed for low or medium density traffic a. SSBSC b. DSBSC c. SSBRC d. ISB answer="3"> an FM signal w/ a deviation d is passed through a mixer , and has its frequency reduced fivefolds. The deviation in the output of the mixer is a. 5d b. d/5 c. d d. none of the above answer="1"> a typical squelch circuit cuts off a. an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent b. RF interference when the signal is weak c. an IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum d. an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum answer="3"> if the color signals are mixed in the correct proportion, the result is ____ a. red b. frame rate c. standard luminance

d. sync pulse answer="1"> selectivity is usually obtained with a special filter known as _____ a. surface acoustic wave filter b. bandpass filter c. chebysher filter d. active filter answer="4"> the _________ is a coil assembly that fits aroiund the picture tube's neck. a. aquadag b. triads c. shadow mask d. yoke answer="2"> for cable TV companies, the main building or facility is called the ______ a. main station b. headend c. monitoring station d. transmitter and receiver station answer="3"> which has the lowest luminance? a. cyan b. green c. blue d. magenta answer="1"> determine the net receiver gain for an AM receiver with a RF input power of 87dBnm a. 97dB b. 77dB c. 87dB d. -97dB answer="1"> it is the safe operating power for the receiver. a. dynamic range b. output power c. threshold d. breakdown answer="2"> for an AM band with range of 535 - 1605 kHz and Q = 53.5, find the bandwidth when fc = 535kHz. a. 15 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 30 kHz d. 5 kHz answer="2"> what is the type of emission for monophonic FM? a. A3E b. F3E c. F8E d. none of these answer="2"> find the maximum number of channels for FM transmission FM BC band: 88.108MHz FM BC channel width: 200kHz a. 25 channels b. 100 channels c. 150 channels d. none of the above answer="4"> for an I=0.4 and Q=0.7, find the value of the chrominace signal voltage. a. 1.1 V

b. 0.6 V c. 0.3 V d. 0.8 V answer="2"> what percent is the reference black level of a horizontal sync pulse? a. 12.50% b. 70% c. 75% d. 50% answer="4"> numerical frequency band designation of channel 9. a. 488-494 MHz b. 530-536 MHz c. 632-638 MHz d. 186-192 MHz answer="2"> part of broadcast day from local sunset to sunrise. a. dawntime b. nighttime c. daytime d. experimental period answer="3"> which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2-13)? a. high pass filter b. low pass filter c. band stop filter d. band pass filter answer="2"> the number of scanning times is _______ per second. a. 15570 b. 15750 c. 15575 d. 17570 answer="3"> what is the intermediate frequency used for the picture on a television receiver? a. 3.58 MHz b. 1.25 MHz c. 45.75 MHz d. 41.25 MHz answer="1"> how long is the toatl vertical time in a standard television transmission? a. 16.66 ms b. 63.5 ms c. 53.3 ms d. 15.32 ms answer="3"> what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver? a. 1 KHz b. 10 KHz c. 10 Hz d. 1 Hz answer="2"> a band of frequencies 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center frequency. a. AM broadcast band b. FM broadcast channel c. FM broadcast band d. AM broadcast channel answer="3"> frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers. a. class A b. class B

c. class C d. class AB answer="4"> it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequency unrelated to the tuned frequency. a. parasitic frequency b. parallel oscilaation c. resonant frequency d. parasitic oscillation answer="3"> Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________. a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. d. none of the above. answer="4"> ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives a step-up/stepdown transfomer called______. a. flywheel b. AFC c. Director d. Flyback answer="3"> Aspect ratio is the _________ a. ratio of the output IF signal to the IF input signal. b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the speed of light. c. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture. d. ratio of the luminance of the received signal from the output signal answer="3"> _________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in between the first field. a. progressived b. dual c. interlaced d. Bi-directional answer="3"> the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation is ______ a. high gain b. input and output impedances are equal. c. high selectivity d. high sensitivity answer="1"> frequency conversion si produced by a circuit called a _____. a. mixer b. modulator c. multiplexer d. filter answer="3"> what is the instantaneous voltage produced by an AM signal 10 sec from when it was transmitted if the modulating signal voltage is equal to the RMS value of the carrier voltage signal is 16V? The carrier frequency is 777kHz and the modulating frequency is 60Hz respectively. a. 1 eV8.947 V b. 27.314 V c. 0.182 mV d. 1.43 mV answer="1"> how long does ot take to horizontally scan 40 pixels? a. 5 s b. 0.125 s

c. 53.5 s d. 2.140 ms answer="4"> the signal from color camera has R=0.75, G=0.5, and B=0.15, where 1 represents the maximum signal possible. Find the chrominance voltage? a. 0.5365 b. 0.262 c. -0.056 d. 0.2679 answer="4"> the purpose of a final amplifier in a radio frequency transmitter is to _________. a. isolate the carrier oscillator from its load. b. generate an accurate and stable carrier frequency c. apply the generated signal to the antenna. d. increase RF power level of transmitter answer="3"> how far Is the visual carrier from the aural carrier in a monochrome television broadcast channel? a. 5.75 MHz b. 3.58 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 1.25 MHz answer="1"> determine the percentage of the primary colors used in colored TV needed to produce the brigthest white. a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. 60% red, 28% green, 32% blue c. 21% red, 52% green, 31% blue d. 30% red, 52% green, 22% blue answer="2"> what is the maximum number of medium frequency broadcast stations? a. 131 b. 32 c. 100 d. 25 answer="2"> ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission? a. 14% of horizontal scanning time b. 10% of horizontal scanning time c. 8% of horizontal scanning time d. 92% of horizontal scanning time answer="1"> the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is determined by ______ zone. a. line-of-sight b. diffraction c. tropospheric d. regional tropospheric answer="3"> additive primary colors are a. red , white, blue, b. red , yellow, blue c. blue, red, green d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y answer="1"> the station with an authorized effective radiated power of 125 KW a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D answer="2">

short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation? a. ground wave b. sky waves c. space waves d. direct waves answer="3"> the ratio of the effective free space field intensity produced at 1.61 km in the horizontal plane expressed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna input power to 137.6 in V/m. a. injection ratio b. RF protection ratio c. Antenna field gain d. Antenna power gain answer="4"> a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which frequency modulates the main carrier. a. subchannel signal b. main channel signal c. SCA subcarrier d. composite baseband signal answer="2"> as applied to facsimile broadcasting is the product of the number of lines per inch, the available length in inches. a. Line-use ratio b. index of cooperation c. available line d. scanning line answer="1"> in Tv broadcasting, the pilot of the free space radiated field intensity versus azimuth at a specified vertical angle with respect to vertical plane passing through the center of the antenna. a. Azimuthal pattern b. spherical pattern c. vertical pattern d. polar pattern answer="3"> the median field strenght for which protection against interference of channel 2-6. a. 15 dBu b. 25 dBu c. 48 dBu d. 65 dBu answer="3"> in metro manila and metro cebu, the maximum effective radiated power for channel 7-13 a. 350 kW b. 800 kW c. 1000 kW d. 1500 kW answer="1"> the maximum transmitter power of a television broadcast translator station operated by television broadcast licenses. a. 1000 W b. 100 W c. 1000 kW d. 100 kW answer="1"> during day time, medium waves are propagated through______? a. ground b. troposphere c. ionosphere d. atmosphere answer="3"> who invented frequency modulation?

a. samuel morse b. guglielmo marconi c. edwin howard armstrong d. lee deforest answer="4"> what are the most significant limitations on the performance of a communication system? a. BW and time b. carrier and sidebands c. distance and locations d. noise and BW answer="3"> ______ is a noise which is caused by the random arrival of the carriers at the output element of the electronic device? a. thermal noise b. transit time noise c. shot noise d. man made noise answer="4"> it usually occurs when oscillating mechanical stresses applied across a crystal lattice structure generale electrical oscillations and vice versa a. skin effect b. flywheel effect c. doppler effect d. piezoelectric effect answer="2"> ________ is the ability of an oscillator to remain at a fixed frequency and is of primary importance in communication system? a. sensitivity b. frequency stability c. selectivity d. addictus effect answer="1"> what do you call the noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the bandwidths? a. BW improvement b. S/N ratio c. noise figure d. differential reduction answer="1"> how many phons are there in 8 sons? a. 70 b. 107.88 c. 95.56 d. 40 answer="1"> what is the carrier power for an AM with an unmodulated voltage of 10V and a load resistance of 10ohms? a. 5W b. 10W c. 15W d. 20W answer="3"> For an AM DSBFC transmitter with an unmodulated carrier power, 100W, that is modulated simultaneously by three modulating signal with coeffecients of modulation of 0.2, 0.4, 0.5. calculate for the total transmitted power? a. 0.67 b. 22.445 W c. 122.445 W d. can not be solved answer="1"> a source radiates 5W of power uniformly. What is the intensity and the intensity

level 6m from the source? a. 0.01,100 b. 0.02,200 c. 0.03,300 d. can not be solved answer="1"> __________occurs when information signals from one source produce frequencies that fall outside their allocated bandwidth and interfere with information signals from another source. a. interference b. distortion c. electrical interference d. adjacency interference answer="3"> _________ Is used to calculate the total noise factor of several cascaded amplifiers. a. Sabine's formula b. Norris-Eyring's formula c. Friiss' formula d. none of the above answer="3"> which is not a requirement for a feedback oscillator to word. a. power source b. amplification c. negative feedback d. frequency determining components answer="4"> invented frequency modulation. a. Thomas Watson b. Edison Armstrong c. Edward Howard Armstrong d. none of the above answer="3"> transmiittal of digitally modulatd analog carrier between two or more points in communication system. a. Analog network b. digital network c. digital radio d. analog radio answer="3"> eliminated the effect of imbalances in impedances which causes a portion of the receives signal to be returned to the sender on a portion of a hybrid ciruit. a. signal suppressors b. interference suppressor c. echo suppressors d. circuit suppressors answer="1"> in odd symmetry what coefficient(s) are valued to be zero? a. A b. B c. B and A d. none of the above answer="1"> ________ is the ratio of active time of the pulse to the period of the waveform. a. dynamic range b. deviation ratio c. duty cycle d. deflection ratio answer="3"> phenomenon in which a displaced molecules tends to pull back to its original position after its initial momentum has caused it to displace nearby molecules.

a. malleability b. ductility c. elasticity d. lifetime answer="3"> a 4x4 announcer booth is 4m high, its walls are covered with curtains having an absorption coefficient of 0.500 while the ceiling and flooring have an absorption coefficient of 0.050 and 0.30, respectively. Determine reverberation time. a. 1.334 b. 0.274 c. 0.2159 d. 0.256 answer="1"> what is the resonant air cavity absorber in hertz of a loudspeaker enclosure with an internal volume of 84950cm a thickness of 19mm with a small opening of 323 cm? a. approx. 235 b. approx. 520 c. approx. 665 d. approx. 110 answer="1"> refers to the microphone's variaation in sensitivity at various angles of incidence with respect to the on-axis of the microphone. a. directional response b. sensitivity factor c. angular reaction d. perception aspect answer="2"> part of broadcast day from local sunset to sunrise. a. dawntime b. nighttime c. daytime d. experimental period answer="3"> which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2-13)? a. high pass filter b. low pass filter c. band stop filter d. band pass filter answer="2"> the number of scanning times is _______ per second. a. 15570 b. 15750 c. 15575 d. 17570 answer="4"> what is the intermediate frequency used for the picture on a television receiver? a. 3.58 MHz b. 1.25 MHz c. 45.75 MHz d. 41.25 MHz answer="1"> how long is the total vertical time in a standard teelvision transmission? a. 16.66 ms b. 63.5 ms c. 53.3 ms d. 15.32 ms answer="3"> what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver? a. 1 KHz

b. 10 KHz c. 10 Hz d. 1 Hz answer="2"> a band of frequencies 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center frequency. a. AM broadcast band b. FM broadcast channel c. FM broadcast band d. AM broadcast channel answer="3"> frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers. a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class AB answer="4"> it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequency unrelated to the tuned frequency. a. parasitic frequency b. parallel oscilaation c. resonant frequency d. parasitic oscillation answer="3"> Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________. a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. d. none of the above. answer="4"> ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives a step-up/stepdown transfomer called______. a. flywheel b. AFC c. Director d. Flyback answer="3"> Aspect ratio is the _________ a. ratio of the output IF signal to the IF input signal. b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the speed of light. c. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture. d. ratio of the luminance of the received signal from the output signal answer="3"> _________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in between the first field. a. progressived b. dual c. interlaced d. Bi-directional answer="3"> the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation is ______ a. high gain b. input and output impedances are equal. c. high selectivity d. high sensitivity answer="1"> frequency conversion si produced by a circuit called a _____. a. mixer b. modulator c. multiplexer

d. filter answer="3"> what is the instantaneous voltage produced by an AM signal 10 sec from when it was transmitted if the modulating signal voltage is equal to the RMS value of the carrier voltage signal is 16V? The carrier frequency is 777kHz and the modulating frequency is 60Hz respectively. a. 1 eV8.947 V b. 27.314 V c. 0.182 mV d. 1.43 mV answer="1"> how long does ot take to horizontally scan 40 pixels? a. 5 s b. 0.125 s c. 53.5 s d. 2.140 ms answer="4"> the signal from color camera has R=0.75, G=0.5, and B=0.15, where 1 represents the maximum signal possible. Find the chrominance voltage? a. 0.5365 b. 0.262 c. -0.056 d. 0.2679 answer="4"> the purpose of a final amplifier in a radio frequency transmitter is to _________. a. isolate the carrier oscillator from its load. b. generate an accurate and stable carrier frequency c. apply the generated signal to the antenna. d. increase RF power level of transmitter answer="3"> how far Is the visual carrier from the aural carrier in a monochrome television broadcast channel? a. 5.75 MHz b. 3.58 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 1.25 MHz answer="1"> determine the percentage of the primary colors used in colored TV needed to produce the brigthest white. a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. 60% red, 28% green, 32% blue c. 21% red, 52% green, 31% blue d. 30% red, 52% green, 22% blue answer="2"> what is the maximum number of medium frequency broadcast stations? a. 131 b. 32 c. 100 d. 25 answer="2"> ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission? a. 14% of horizontal scanning time b. 10% of horizontal scanning time c. 8% of horizontal scanning time d. 92% of horizontal scanning time answer="1"> the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is determined by ______ zone. a. line-of-sight b. diffraction c. tropospheric d. regional tropospheric

answer="3"> additive primary colors are a. red , white, blue, b. red , yellow, blue c. blue, red, green d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y answer="1"> the station with an authorized effective radiated power of 125 KW a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D answer="2"> short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation? a. ground wave b. sky waves c. space waves d. direct waves answer="3"> the ratio of the effective free space field intensity produced at 1.61 km in the horizontal plane expressed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna input power to 137.6 in V/m. a. injection ratio b. RF protection ratio c. Antenna field gain d. Antenna power gain answer="4"> a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which frequency modulates the main carrier. a. subchannel signal b. main channel signal c. SCA subcarrier d. composite baseband signal answer="2"> as applied to facsimile broadcasting is the product of the number of lines per inch, the available length in inches. a. Line-use ratio b. index of cooperation c. available line d. scanning line answer="1"> in Tv broadcasting, the pilot of the free space radiated field intensity versus azimuth at a specified vertical angle with respect to vertical plane passing through the center of the antenna. a. Azimuthal pattern b. spherical pattern c. vertical pattern d. polar pattern answer="3"> the median field strength for which protection against interference of channel 2-6. a. 15 dBu b. 25 dBu c. 48 dBu d. 65 dBu answer="3"> in metro manila and metro cebu, the maximum effective radiated power for channel 7-13 a. 350 kW b. 800 kW c. 1000 kW d. 1500 kW answer="1"> the maximum transmitter power of a television broadcast translator station

operated by televisionbroadcast licenses. a. 1000 W b. 100 W c. 1000 kW d. 100 kW answer="1"> during day time, medium waves are propagated through______? a. ground b. troposphere c. ionosphere d. atmosphere answer="3"> who invented frequency modulation? a. samuel morse b. guglielmo marconi c. edwin howard armstrong d. lee deforest answer="4"> what are the most significant limitations on the performance of a communication system? a. BW and time b. carrier and sidebands c. distance and locations d. noise and BW