Mock CAT - 9 Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 6 7

INSTRUCTIONS
Before the Test:
1. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS GIVEN.
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or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place as indicated by the invigilator.
3. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.
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(b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page.
5. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet.
6. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.
At the Start of the Test:
1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet.
2. This Test booklet contains 24 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet,
verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on
the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet,
immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement.
How to answer:
1. This test has four sections which examine various abilities. These 4 sections have 80 questions in all with
each section having 20 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing
the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all the
four sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read
these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question in sub-sections I-A, II-A, III-A and
IV-A. Every question in sub-sections I-B, II-B, III-B and IV-B has one or more than one correct
answers. In case a question has more than one correct answers, you have to mark ALL the correct answers.
Otherwise it will be treated as a wrong answer.
3. Each section carries 70 marks. Each section is divided into two sub-sections, A and B. All Questions in
sub-sections I-A, II-A, III-A and IV-A carry three marks each. All Questions in sub sections I-B, II-B,
III-B and IV-B carry five marks each. Wrong answers will attract a penalty of one-fourth the marks
allotted to the questions.
4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
After the Test:
1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not
leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement
only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room.
2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you.
Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying
in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0013/08 Test Form Number: 009

Space for rough work
 SECTION – I

Sub-section I-A: Number of Questions = 15

Note: Questions 1 to 15 carry 3 marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Mr. Mathew teaches the students of exactly ten different classes namely A, B, C,...I and J. The number of
students in the classes A, B, C, ...I and J are 1, 2, 3, ...9 and 10 respectively. No student is in more than one
class. In a particular week ‘W’ he did not teach the students of exactly two of the mentioned classes. He taught
the students of each of the remaining eight classes on exactly three different days of the week ‘W’. He did not
teach the students of any class on Sunday and on each of the remaining six days of the week, he taught the
students of exactly four different classes. The total number of students taught by him on Monday, Tuesday,
Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday of week ‘W’ is 18, 12, 23, 19, 32 and 25 respectively.
Assume that in the week ‘W’ no student was absent in his/her respective class.

1. The students of which of the following classes was not taught by him in Week ‘W’?
(1) E (2) G (3) I (4) D (5) Cannot be determined

2. The students of which of the following classes was not taught by him on Friday?
(1) F (2) I (3) G (4) J (5) None of these

Additional Information for questions 3 and 4:

On Saturday of week ‘W’, Mr. Mathew did not teach the students of class J but taught the students of class C.

3. The students of which of the following classes was not taught by him on two consecutive days of the
week ‘W’?
(1) C (2) E (3) A (4) G (5) F

4. The students of which class was taught by him on three consecutive days of the week ‘W’?
(1) A (2) B (3) I (4) J (5) Cannot be determined

009 1
DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 7:Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following pie-chart provides information about the revenue generated through six different sources
by Pristine Careers as a percentage of the total revenue generated by Pristine Careers in the year 2007. The six
different sources through which revenue was generated by Pristine Careers were ‘Online’, ‘Publishing’,
‘Coaching’, ‘Accessories’, ‘Consulting’ and ‘Others’.

20% 15%

10%
25%

13%
17%
Online Publishing Coaching
Accessories Consulting Others

‘Media Interaction” played an important role in generating revenue through exactly four of the mentioned six
sources. The following table provides information about the percentage contribution of “Media Interaction”
in the revenue generated through each of the four sources ‘Online’, ‘Publishing’, ‘Consulting’ and ‘Others’ in
the year 2007.
Percentage Contribution in the
Sources
Revenue generated
Online 20%
Publishing 40%
Consulting 65%
Others 55%
5. What is the total revenue generated through the role played by “Media Interaction” in 2007 as a
percentage of the total revenue generated by Pristine Careers in the year 2007?
(1) 27.5% (2) 33.5% (3) 30.5% (4) 25.5% (5) 35.5%
6. Which of the following statements is/are definitely true?
(1) The total revenue generated through the role played by “Media Interaction” in 2007 is less than the
total revenue generated through ‘Publishing’ in 2007.
(2) The total revenue generated through ‘Consulting’ in which “Media Interaction” has not played a
role in 2007 is 17.5% of the total revenue generated through ‘Others’ in 2007.
(3) The total revenue generated through the role played by “Media Interaction” is 20.5% more than the
revenue generated through ‘Coaching’ in 2007.
(4) The total revenue generated through ‘Others’ in which “Media Interaction” has not played a role
in 2007 is 40% of the total revenue generated through ‘Publishing’ in 2007.
(5) Both (3) and (4).
7. From which of the sources the total revenue contributed through the role played by “Media Interaction”
is the maximum in the year 2007?
(1) Others (2) Online (3) Consulting (4) Publishing (5) Both (1) and (4)

2 009
DIRECTIONS for Questions 8 to 11: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Ten students of an engineering college either liked (LIK) or did not like (DNL) a movie each one of them
watched in December 2008. The movies watched by these ten students in December 2008 are P, Q, R, S, T, U,
V and W.
The given bar graph provides details about the number of movies not liked by each of these ten students.

Amit 5
Priyanka 4
Ashraf 1
Abhishek 2
Students

Pankaj 0
Devendra 7
Richa 5
Nitin 4
Shreyas 3
Shefali 6

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Number of Movies

The following bar chart provides details about the number of students (out of the 10 given students) who liked
the movies P, Q, R, S, T, U and V.

12
Number of Students

10
10 9
8
8
6
6
4
4 3
2 1
0
P Q R S T U V
Movies

8. What is the total number of students who did not like the movie W?
(1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Two (4) Three (5) Cannot be determined
9. Which of the following movies is not liked by Shreyas?
(1) V (2) R (3) S (4) T (5) Cannot be determined
10. Which of the following movies is liked by Abhishek?
(1) R (2) U (3) W
(4) Both (1) and (2) (5) Both (1) and (3)
11. Out of the given eight movies, how many movies are not liked by Richa but are liked by Nitin?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (5) Cannot be determined

009 3
DIRECTIONS for Questions 12 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
“Fresh Pastries Factory” daily produces five special varieties of pastries viz. A, B, C, D and E. The factory
sells its products to retail pastry shops only. The total number of retail pastry shops that buy pastries of any of
the five varieties, remains the same everyday. Of all the pastries that the factory produces in a day, none gets
wasted but some may be left unsold on that day. The pastries that are left unsold, are stored in a fridge and are
made available for sale on the next day. The production manager of the factory maintains a daily Production
and Sales chart (P & S Chart). The P& S chart for 25th July, 2008 is given below:

P & S Chart
(Friday, 25th July 2008)
Variety of Pastry N (× 100) F ESE
A 50 a 8
B b –180 12
C 25 c 14
D d 560 16
E 45 0 0
Given that a, b, c and d are integers such that 25 < d < b < 30 < c < a < 300

The different terms used in the above chart are defined below:

I. N is the number of pastries produced by the factory, on a given day.

II. F is the “Fridge Balance” of the factory and it is calculated as:

F = (Number of pastries that were left unsold, on a given day)

– (Number of pastries that were left unsold, on the previous day)

III. ESE is the “Error in Sales Estimation” and it is calculated by the formula,
Absolute value of Fridge Balance
ESE =
Number of Retail Shop Buyers

12. How many pastries of variety “E” were sold on 25th July 2008?
(1) 0 (2) 4500 (3) 9000 (4) 200 (5) Cannot be determined.

13. What could have been the maximum possible number of pastries of all the five varieties that were sold
on (25th July 2008)?
(1) 11830 (2) 16360 (3) 12730 (4) 17230 (5) None of these

14. Let RA, RB, RC and RD denote the number of retail shops that buy pastries of varieties A, B, C and D
respectively. Which of the following is definitely invalid?
(1) (RC = RB) < (RD = RA) (2) RC < RA < RE (3) RB < RC < RD
(4) RD < RB < RA (5) All of these

15. It is given that for each of the five varieties of the pastries, an equal number, say x, were left unsold on
24th July 2008. On 25th July 2008, the cumulative fridge balance of varieties A and C was the minimum
possible and the total number of pastries, of all the five varieties, that were left unsold was 870. Find the
value of x.
(1) 40 (2) 110 (3) 50 (4) 75 (5) 80

4 009
 Sub-section I-B: Number of Questions = 5

Note: Questions 16 to 20 carry 5 marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The recruitment test of a company had several questions. Three candidates namely Rohan, Tarun and Anup
gave this recruitment test. The recruitment test had four sections A, B, C and D. Each candidate is awarded
2, 3, 5 and 6 marks for solving any question correctly in sections A, B, C and D respectively. The following
bar – graph provides information about the marks got by each candidate in every section as a percentage of
the total marks got by that candidate in the test. Assume that the marks are awarded if and only if a candidate
solves a question correctly.

Sections Rohan Tarun Anup

A 34% 32% 50%

B 18% 18% 10%

C 20% 20% 15%

D 28% 30% 25%

16. Which of the following can be the aggregate marks obtained by Rohan, Tarun and Anup in the recruit-
ment test?
(1) 1000 (2) 800 (3) 900 (4) 1300 (5) 1100
Additional Information for questions 17 to 19:
The aggregate marks obtained by Rohan, Tarun and Anup is 1900 and the marks obtained by Rohan is not
less than the marks obtained by Anup.
17. The difference between the marks obtained by Anup in section C and D is
(1) 120 (2) 45 (3) 60 (4) 90 (5) Cannot be determined.

18. If marks obtained by Tarun is less than the marks obtained by Anup, then which of the following can be
the marks obtained by Rohan in the recruitment test?
(1) 600 (2) 900 (3) 1200 (4) 300 (5) 1500

19. Which of the following cannot be the marks obtained by Tarun in section B?
(1) 72 (2) 90 (3) 144 (4) 36 (5) 180

20. Which of the following statements can be true?

(1) The ratio of the marks obtained by Tarun and Anup in section A is 2:25.
(2) The difference between the marks obtained by Rohan and Tarun in section A is 70.
(3) The sum of the marks obtained by Anup and Tarun in sections C and D respectively is 115.
(4) The ratio of the aggregate marks obtained by Tarun and Anup in the recruitment test is 7:6.
(5) None of these.

009 5
 SECTION – II

Sub-section II-A: Number of Questions = 15

Note: Questions 21 to 35 carry 3 marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 24: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last
sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most
appropriate way.

21. In the first edition of ‘Economics’, Samuelson claimed that the Keynesian “theory of income
determination” was “increasingly accepted by economists of all schools of thought,” and that its policy
implications were “neutral”. For example, “it can be used as well to defend private enterprise as to limit
it, as well to attack as to defend government fiscal interventions.” However, his explanation of the
model emphasized that “private enterprise” is afflicted with periodic “acute and chronic cycles” in
unemployment, output and prices, which government had a responsibility to “alleviate”. “The private
economy is not unlike a machine without an effective steering wheel or governor,” Samuelson wrote.
______________________________________

(1) By the seventh edition, Samuelson was no longer using the “machine minus the steering wheel”
metaphor.
(2) By the fourth edition, he declared that “90 percent of American economists have stopped being
‘Keynesian economists’ or ‘anti-Keynesian economists’.
(3) Compensatory fiscal policy tries to introduce such a governor or thermostatic control device.
(4) He labeled this new economics a “neo-classical synthesis”.
(5) In reading Samuelson’s early editions, a student might reasonably conclude that there are no other
schools of thought.

22. Criticism is essentially a collective work which goes on from one age to another. No single critic can tell
the whole truth about a great writer or speak with the same sureness all the time and no age ever has the
last word. The critic can only interpret an author in the light of his own age. His successors will add
something to his portrait, but they will also remove what no longer appears to be true.
_______________________________________

(1) The individual critic therefore can only make a contribution to a portrait which in the nature of
things must remain unfinished.
(2) That is the justification of the critic and, indeed, of all criticism.
(3) It is not the critic’s business to do ‘the common reader’s’ work for him.
(4) The psycho-analytical critic claims that by examining the peculiarities of a writer’s personality he is
in a better position to interpret his work.
(5) His business is to stimulate the reader to make his own discoveries

6 009
23. To repeat the question: what is it that persuaded our ancestors to penetrate the innermost darkness of a
cave and paint? Amongst those who have tried to answer this question is David Lewis-Williams, a
South African scientist who felt that the status quo on the subject matter was inadequate. For some
reasons, our ancestors were attracted to those darkest regions of the Underworld, which were carefully
explored and became a workshop to express the earliest expressions of “art”. Still, it was not art; it was
religious art: the art had a purpose. ___________________________________________________
(1) The walls of the caves were a portal into another dimension.
(2) The question as to why our ancestors painted these drawings is furthermore riddled with
preconceptions
(3) The shaman creating the paintings would use the natural contours of the rock and “exteriorise”
what his visions had allowed him to see.
(4) The caves became the cathedrals of the Stone Age.
(5) The act of painting was therefore bringing the visions of the Otherworld into this reality.
24. Jardine was a tall, hard boned, personality, having none of the unction often associated in his period
with cricket. On the field, even a Harlequin cap did not lighten or brighten his pervading air of relentless
purpose. His was a realpolitik. He determined in the early 1930s to wrest back the “ashes” from Australia,
and to put Bradman in a reasonable, if still high, place. ____________________________________
(1) The fastest bowling could not hurry him.
(2) He had played against many countries.
(3) He was perhaps the first to lead the reaction against Edwardian gesture and romance and the humbug
of “may the best side win”
(4) His influence on the cricket field was mild.
(5) All the howls and winds of the world would not deter him.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 25 to 28: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
25. A. How does the cellular microenvironment regulate cellular functions or vice versa?
B. This understanding can be used to engineer novel therapeutic for new drug discovery techniques
and for regenerative medicines using directed stem cell differentiation
C. Can the complex sugar that compose the microenvironment play a role in intercellular modulation at
the protein signaling or genetic levels?
D. The laboratory aims at understanding the correlation at the cellular level and in using the knowledge
to develop medicines for curing diseases.
E. These are the domains which are explored using novel tools to dissect complex sugars and observe
changes in genetic and protein signaling.
(1) DABCE (2) ACBED (3) DACEB (4) CADBE (5) ACDEB
26. A. As Sylvia Huot strikes, late medieval writers were perceptive of their changing status and strived to
cast off their image as lyric entertainers for a more authorial identity.
B. Much of the scholarship on this issue identifies late-medieval period as a critical moment in the
development of modern concepts of authority.
C. Jacqueline provides a detailed diagnosis of medieval literary references for students & medieval
scholars alike.
D. The colour of Melancholy cites an engaging survey of the development of authorship in the late
Middle Ages, mainly designed for students.
E. Authorship is a subject that has enraptured medievalists for the last two decades.
(1) DECBA (2) EBADC (3) CDEAB (4) EADBC (5) BCDAE

009 7
27. A. Increasingly, many scholars in the field agree that there is a need to revert to foundational economic
issues.
B. This has led to important advancements, for example, in asset pricing theory, and interest rate
modelling.
C. This direction of study however can be regarded as somewhat secluded from real-world
considerations.
D. In the last two decades mathematical finance has developed discretely from economic theory and
primarily as a branch of probability theory and stochastic exegesis.
E. Mainstream finance on the other hand has often entertained interesting economic problems, but
finance chronicles normally pay less attention to high level mathematical approach.

(1) DBCAE (2) ACDBE (3) DBACE (4) ADBEC (5) BADEC

28. A. No other strife of interest dominated the ‘post world war two’ world like the cold war did.
B. One man is attributed with ending the cold war, Mikhail Gorbachev.
C. The end of the cold war was just an off-shoot of other major events he was involved with i.e. fall of
communism in USSR.
D. This however was not the biggest event Gorbachev was accountable for.
E. The collapse of the Union of Socialist Soviet Republic fundamentally changed the world’s economic
and political environs.

(1) EABDC (2) BACDE (3) EBACD (4) BCEDA (5) ACBDE

DIRECTIONS for Questions 29 and 30: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that
follow.

29. The sands of Mars, which hold the biggest dunes in the solar system, could contain up to 50% snow and
ice, a US scientist told the British Association festival of science meeting in Dublin yesterday. The
discovery could be of enormous significance. President George Bush has named Mars as the destination
for a manned mission in the next 30 years. Nasa and the European Space Agency both plan orbiter
missions and robot landings in the next decade. Researchers are also anxious to settle the dispute over
whether Mars was ever home to life, and whether microbial life could still endure beneath the soil.
Without water, there can be no life.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the view expressed in the passage?

(1) The planet’s dunes seem to have been deluged by water.

(2) Sand dunes occur pretty much everywhere on planets.
(3) Years ago there were meteor showers at these locations on Mars; that indicates potential of finding
evidence of life in these sand dunes.
(4) Landmarks include huge alluvial fans in the sand, river-like drainage patterns, laminated sediments
of the kind found on Earth in the dry valleys of Antarctica.
(5) Mars periodically changes its tilt dramatically, increasing the severity and violence of its winters.

8 009
30. Aromatherapy is a term coined by French chemist René Maurice Gattefossé in the 1920’s to describe
the practice of using essential oils taken from plants, flowers, roots, seeds, etc., in healing. The term is
a bit misleading, since the aromas of oils, whether natural or synthetic, are generally not themselves
therapeutic. Aromas are used to identify the oils, to determine adulteration, and to stir the memory, but
not to directly bring about a cure or healing.

The above argument assumes that:

(1) The aroma of the oil gives it whatever therapeutic value it might have.
(2) Vapors are used in some but not all cases of aromatherapy.
(3) The oil is rubbed onto the skin or ingested in a tea or other liquid for healing.
(4) The healing power of essential oils is the main draw in aromatherapy.
(5) Herbs are also used in a type of aromatherapy.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 to 35: Fill up the blanks, numbered [31]....upto [35], in the two passages
below with most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.
THE French film industry is more often given to __[31]__ agonising about American cultural imperialism or
the tyranny of the market than to self-congratulation. But this year, __[32]__ triumph is in the air. It is not just
that for the first time in 21 years the Cannes film festival jury, headed this time by Sean Penn, awarded its top
prize, the Palme d’Or, to a French film, Laurent Cantet’s “Entre les Murs” (“The Class”). Another homegrown
movie, “Bienvenue Chez les Ch’tis” (which will be remade for an American audience as “Welcome to the
Sticks”), is set to overtake James Cameron’s Hollywood blockbuster, “Titanic”, as the country’s all-time top
box-office hit.

31. (1) cognitive (2) introspective (3) perceptive

(4) volatile (5) random

32. (1) apologetic (2) significant (3) deliberative

(4) unapologetic (5) reluctant

Apart from their tiny budgets, these two films could scarcely differ more. The first is a __[33]__ documentary-
style classroom drama, filmed—like Nicolas Philibert’s charming 2002 film, “Etre et Avoir” (“To Be and To
Have”)—with real pupils in a real school, this one in a multicultural quarter of Paris. It is adapted from a book
by François Bégaudeau, based on his experience as a teacher (he plays a fictionalised version of himself in the
film). The second is a slick, warm, __[34]__ comedy, written by and starring Dany Boon, a French comic,
which overturns French prejudices about the beer-drinking, rain-soaked north. Since its release in February,
“Bienvenue Chez les Ch’tis” has notched up a __[35]__ 20m cinema tickets in France—just short of the
20.7m that “Titanic” secured—and over $157.6m in receipts.

33. (1) boring (2) egregious (3) gritty

(4) dreary (5) morose

34. (1) redemptive (2) tedious (3) unamenable

(4) dry (5) listless

35. (1) sparse (2) bare (3) staggering

(4) massive (5) laudatory

009 9
 Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 5

Note: Questions 36 to 40 carry 5 marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 36 and 37: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that
follow.

36. A God is a being created by humans and given supernatural powers or attributes such as immortality,
omniscience, telekinesis, and invisibility. These creations serve many purposes, such as imaginary
protection from enemies or explanations for the origin of such things as good and evil, fire and wind, or
life and death.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?

(1) Gods are often the central figures around which religions are built.
(2) There is no way to prove or disprove their reality.
(3) All that exists around us came about by natural cause and random chance.
(4) Religion and God began in fear and superstition.
(5) Since God is more intelligent than man, God created man.

37. Executives are promoted because they are good at ‘continuity’. This means continuing to run things as
they are being run. There may be an emphasis on cost-cutting, or on quality improvements. But new
ideas are a distraction and a risk and a disruption. So let other people try out the new ideas, and when
they have been shown to work, you copy them with a ‘me-too’. It is hard to fault this strategy.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the claim above?

(1) Creativity is believed to be a mysterious talent which some people have and others can only envy.
(2) Creativity, in the form of lateral thinking, is a formal skill which anyone can acquire.
(3) Continuity is required to keep up with competition and even move ahead.
(4) Continuity deters responses to changes in the world around.
(5) New ideas waste a lot of time which can go into running things in an organization.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 38 to 40: Identify the correct sentence or sentences.

38. A Part of my working life was as a field ecologist, probing about magic of invisible animal kingdoms.
B In my most recent collection, The Invisible Kings, the Romani language attempts an opening between
fields of language.
C Romani contains many words and phrases from other tongues - language is absorbed as it is travelled
through.
D Gypsy place-names for example are precise riddles that speak shrewdly from the travellers’ point of
view.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) None

10 009
39. A Confronted with an intoxicating scene of enviable excess and success, the visitor to ‘Street &
Studio: An Urban History of Photography’ will surely identify with that waiter.
B To view the show not as a triumph but solely as a site of squandered opportunity is, however, to
succumb to the false dichotomy suggested by its title: for these are triumph and waste simultaneously.
C Its ultimate failure is the inevitable culmination of a long history of victories and successes.
D Let’s start, like the show, a long way back, in the last decade of the 19th century, with one of these
early successes.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) None

40. A Eyebrows made a big difference in how people perceived the mood of the woman in the picture.
B When the brows were lowered or slanted toward the nose, or when forehead wrinkles were added,
ratings of anger and disgust increased.
C Also, raising the outer corner of the eyebrows produced the increase in the perception of surprise.
D Raising the inner corner of the eyebrows away from the nose was perceived as a sad facial expression.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) None

009 11
 SECTION – III

Sub-section III-A: Number of Questions = 15

Note: Questions 41 to 55 carry 3 marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 41 to 55: Each of the three passages given below is followed by a set of
questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE – I

In an essay called ‘Why I Write’ written in 1947, Orwell says that his desire has been to make political writing
into an art. He starts to write a book, he says, from ‘a sense of injustice, not from the idea that he is going to
produce a great work of art: I write it because there is some lie I want to expose, some fact to which I want to
draw attention, and my initial concern is to get a hearing. From the sketch of the political background to
Animal farm it will be quite clear that one of the purposes of the book is to expose the lie which (it seemed to
Orwell) Stalinist Russia had become. It was supposed to be a Socialist Union of States, but it had become a
dictatorship. Not only that. There were socialists in Britain and in the West generally who were so eager to
advance the cause that everything the Soviet Union did had to be accepted. The Soviet Union, in fact, damaged
the cause of true socialism. In a preface he wrote to Animal farm he says that for the past ten years I have been
convinced that the destruction of the Soviet myth was essential if we wanted a revival of the ‘socialist movement’.
Animal farm attempts, through a simplification of Soviet history, to clarify in the minds of readers what
Orwell felt Russia had become. The clarification is to get people to face the facts of injustice, of brutality. And
hopefully to get them to think out for themselves some way in which a true and democratic socialism (in
Orwell’s phrase) will be brought about. But Orwell’s purpose goes beyond the particular example of the
Russia Revolution. In Animal Farm he criticizes something inherent in an all revolutions and he himself was
conscious of this. Russia is the immediate example, but the book, Orwell himself said, is intended as a satire
on dictatorship in general. The time will come when the details of Russian history that roused Orwell’s anger
will be forgotten, and Animal Farm will be read for its bitter, ironic analysis of the stages all revolutions tend
to go through. In Animal Farm Orwell is thinking of the French Revolution and of the Spanish Civil War as
well as the Bolshevik Rebellion of 1917. After the initial excitement and enthusiasm, when personal interests
are almost forgotten, Orwell seems to say, the hard facts of life begin to make themselves felt again. To
survive one must produce food, and to produce food one must organize. To organize one needs administrators,
and they will be among the most intelligent and the most ambitious. Administrative authority gradually becomes
power and power becomes tyranny. Authority gradually becomes power and power becomes tyranny. Orwell
sees this process as something that is almost inevitable in human affairs, Revolution among them. In Animal
Farm this process works itself out with a logic that is simple and effective. Was it Orwell’s purpose then to
present the reader with a view of man’s inability to change himself? Such a view would be directly contrary to
Orwell’s own, very personal brand of socialism, but there is no doubt that part of him, at least, felt that there
was something wrong with human nature and that political systems, because human, had a tendency towards
corruption and tyranny. Animal Farm is a powerful parable of that tendency. It would also be possible to take
the view that Animal Farm confronts its readers with the tendencies towards tyranny in Revolution so that
they may be warned. Such things having happened before, they may very well happen again if care is not
taken to avoid them, next time. The reader will have to make up his own mind as to whether Orwell was a
moral pessimist or a moralistic socialist. It may be that they are the same thing. Animal Farm is a work that
raises questions not just about political systems, but about human nature itself. Can man change, or is he
condemned to a see-saw of systems that all end up the same? Because one of Orwell’s deepest purposes was
primarily moral, it is not surprising that he chose a form traditionally associated with the moral as a means of
achieving his purpose: the animal fable.

12 009
41. As per the passage, all of the following statements indicates Orwell’s purpose(s) in writing Animal
Farm except-
(1) To expose the ‘Soviet myth’. As he saw that the mindless acceptance of everything that Stalin did in
the name of socialism was damaging socialism itself.
(2) To expose the nature of revolution itself. As he saw the revolutions decaying into rules of terror.
(3) To expose the inherent frailities of the human nature to usurp and misuse power for corrupt motives.
(4) To forewarn his readers of the tyranny in revolution that may endanger the future of socialism and
their society.
(5) To draw the attention of the oppressed and get a hearing from the ideologues and the socialists for
having produced a great work of art.

42. Which of the following statements does not represent the image of Orwell which the author wants to
create in the minds of the readers?
(1) That Orwell despite being an Englishman upheld and advocated the principles of socialism.
(2) That he belongs to that breed of intellectuals who make use of their art as a weapon against injustice,
corruption, and tyranny.
(3) Inspite of his cognizance of human tendencies to get corrupt amidst blanket power, he was hopeful
that he could make people think out for themselves to bring about democratic socialism.
(4) That he had an exaggerated notion of himself as the representative of the social and moral conscience
in a world that was bereft and oblivious of the same sublime virtues.
(5) None of the above.

43. A suitable title for the passage is

(1) A criticism of 'Animal Farm'
(2) Orwell and Dictatorship.
(3) Russia- A lie which needed to be exposed.
(4) Political writing and its impact.
(5) The purpose behind writing ‘Animal Farm’.

44. ‘Animal farm’ can be best categorized as:

(1) A political analysis of the Bolshevik revolution of 1917.
(2) A socio-politico and ideological account of the erstwhile Soviet Union.
(3) A political satire on the Russian brand of socialism and its rule of terror.
(4) A moral fable a la Aesop’s mode narrated through animals.
(5) An exposition of corruption in people.

45. Why did Orwell choose animals to relate his account and thoughts to his readers?
(1) To remind us that though we have been accepting the tradition of the animal fable the moral of the
fable relates to us as humans.
(2) Because, relating humans with animals and vice versa was a novel literary practice in the genre of
satire writing.
(3) It’s easier to arouse the sympathy of the reader with animal characters than that with the human
ones.
(4) He probably wanted to escape any counterattack by the soviet dictators.
(5) He despite his will to expose the lie did not have the audacity to put his mind straight.

009 13
 PASSAGE – II

Today’s growth product is tomorrow’s buggy whip – and often management does not seem to realize it. A
company must learn to think of itself not as producing goods and services but as buying, creating and satisfying
customers. This approach should permeate every book and cranny of the organization; if it doesn’t, no amount
of efficiency in operations can compensate for the lack. Marketing myopia is not easy to overcome, but unless
it is, an organization cannot achieve greatness. This is the lesson learned by many companies in many industries,
including the most glamorous “growth” industries.

Every major industry was once a growth industry. But some that are now riding a wave of growth enthusiasm
are very much in the shadow of decline. Others which are thought of as seasoned growth industries have
actually stopped growing. In every case the reason growth is threatened, slowed, or stopped is not because the
market is saturated. It is because there has been a failure of management.
The failure is at the top. The executives responsible for it, in the last analysis, are those who deal with broad
aims and policies.

The railroads did not stop growing because the need for passenger and freight transportation declined. That
grew. The railroads are in trouble today not because the need was filled by others (cars, trucks, airplanes, even
telephones), but because it was not filled by the railroads themselves. They let others take customers away
from them because they assumed themselves to be in the railroad business rather than in the transportation
business. The reason they defined their industry wrong was because they were railroad-oriented instead of
transportation-oriented, they were product-oriented instead of customer-oriented.

Generally, all the established film companies went through drastic reorganizations. Some simply disappeared.
All of them got into trouble not because of TV’s inroads but because of their own myopia. As with the
railroads, Hollywood defined its business incorrectly. It thought it was in the movie business when it was
actually in the entertainment business. “Movies” implied a specific, limited product. This produced a fatuous
contentment which from the beginning led producers to view TV as a threat. Hollywood scorned and rejected
TV when it should have welcomed it as an opportunity – an opportunity to expand the entertainment business.

Today TV is a bigger business than the old narrowly defined movie business ever was. Had Hollywood been
customer-oriented (providing entertainment), rather than product-oriented (making movies), would it have
gone through the fiscal purgatory that it did/ I doubt it. What ultimately saved Hollywood and accounted for
its recent resurgence was the wave of new young writers, producer, and directors whose previous successes in
television had decimated the old movie companies and toppled the big movie moguls.

There are other less obvious examples of industries that have been and are now endangering their futures by
improperly defining their purposes. I shall discuss some in detail later and analyze the kind of policies that
lead to trouble. Right now it may help to show what a thoroughly customer oriented management can do to
keep a growth industry growing, even after the obvious opportunities have been exhausted; and here there are
two examples that have been around for a long time. They are nylon and glass – specifically, E.I. Du Pont de
Nemours & Company and Corning Glass Works:

Both companies have great technical competence. Their product orientation is unquestioned. But this alone
does not explain their success. After all, who was more pridefully product-oriented and product-conscious
than the erstwhile New England textile companies that have been so thoroughly massacred. The Du Ponts and
the Cornings have succeeded not primarily because of their product or research orientation but because they
have been thoroughly customer-oriented also. It is constant watchfulness for opportunities to apply their
technical know-how to the creation of customer-satisfying uses which accounts for their prodigious output of
successful new products. Without a very sophisticated eye on the customer, most of their new products might
have been wrong, their sales methods useless.

14 009
46. In the statement “This is the lesson learned by many companies in many industries, including the most
glamorous “growth” industries.” What ‘lesson’ does the author refer to?
(1) That today’s new economies are tomorrow’s old economies.
(2) That a company must have great technical competence.
(3) That marketing myopia is not easy to overcome.
(4) That companies should simply be product oriented backed up by great technological and financial
abilities.
(5) That companies in order to achieve greatness must learn how to satisfy their customers.

47. Study the following statement carefully and draw another example from the passage that is semantically
and structurally parallel to it.
“The reason they defined their industry wrong was because they were railroad –oriented instead of
transportation –oriented”
(1) Hollywood scorned and rejected TV when it should have welcomed it as an opportunity- an
opportunity to expand the entertainment business.
(2) After all, who was more pridefully product-oriented and product-conscious than the erstwhile New
England textile companies that have been so thoroughly massacred?
(3) The Du Ponts and the Cornings have succeeded not primarily because of their product or research
orientation but because they have been thoroughly customer-oriented also.
(4) As with the railroads, Hollywood defined its business incorrectly. It thought it was in the movie
business when it was actually in entertainment business.
(5) Had Hollywood been customer-oriented, rather than product-oriented, would it have gone through
the financial purgatory that it did?

48. Which of the following inferences drawn from the passage can serve as statements/ arguments to define
and strengthen the case of a customer-oriented approach, except for-?
(1) A customer-oriented approach exacts a focused concern about the customers’ expectations.
(2) A prior research and analysis of customers’ profile and behavior must be done before development
of new products and sales methods.
(3) Lack of customer orientation leads to marketing myopia which no amount of efficiency in operations
can ever compensate.
(4) A company that only thinks itself as buying, creating, and satisfying customers and not as producing
goods and services is eventually going to receive the fate of the erstwhile New England textile
company.
(5) Customer orientation demands looking at the business processes primarily from the perspective of
the end-user and not that of the producer alone.

49. The rhetoric “Today’s growth product is tomorrow’s buggy whip” is substantiated and exemplified by
the mention of which of the glamorous “growth” industries”?
(1) TV companies, E.I.Du pont de Nemours & Company and Corning glass Works
(2) The railroad companies, Hollywood and the erstwhile New England Textile companies.
(3) The railroad companies and Hollywood.
(4) The Du ponts, the Cornings, the railroad companies and Hollywood.
(5) Both 1 & 2

50. What does the phrase “fatuous contentment’ as used in the fourth paragraph connote?
(1) A state of déjà vu
(2) A state of delirium
(3) A state of false satisfaction
(4) A state of equanimity
(5) A state of deeper contentment

009 15
 PASSAGE – III

“Contested Identity” is the title of a collection of articles on the ethnography of gender and kinship in
contemporary Greek society. There is a wild garden variety of “contested” experiences, for the phrase can
refer, singly or in conjunction with others, to gender, ethnic, class, regional, religious, professional and national
affiliations. Have I forgotten to name any? Anthropologists also like to speak of “contesting identity” to
indicate the ongoing, unresolved quality of the social experience that is being researched. Just as we have
called into question the concept of culture as a permanent, fixed substance, we now turn attention to the
concept of identity and attempt to reveal its fluid but nonetheless real forms. The phrase “cultural” in conjunction
with “community” is the typical shorthand way of representing identity in the dominant singular form. Social
experience, however, is never singular, it is always plural. “Contesting identity” is, I think, the only singular
way to encompass the basic pluralities of social life.

“Contestedness” involves those mediating practices between “conflict” on one hand and “consensus” on the
other. For experience to be “contested” there is an implicit “contesting”, or present participial action. Con-
tested identity means contesting identities. Neither the essential agreement of “cultural consensus” nor the
absolute contradiction of “class conflict” pervades the notion of “contested identity”.

“Being contested” is being in the middle. The term can refer to disputes between two, or even more groups,
over the same cultural stuff, including historical space. The ideological and political duel over the name
Macedonia, the sun-beam symbol (from an ancient archeological find), and the heroic Alexander (taught by
Aristotle) come immediately to mind. “Contested identity” in this set of situations requires a semiotic analysis
by the anthropologist, in which icons, indices, and symbols (Charles Peirce’s triad of signs) constitute the
interpretive field. In order to identify contestedness, one must perceive and select from the repertoire of
signed activity in a social field. If “the past” is, as Appadurai (1981) once proposed, “a scarce resource”,
contests over the rare “goods” can be lively, virulent, and violent. Anthropologists, but rarely their infor-
mants, “approach history as a negotiable entity”. Our informants bitterly resent any allusion to their history as
“imagined community”. Nevertheless, we can point out that resemblance between persons who share an icon
from the past signal, at one moment their conjunctive community, and at another moment, their disjunctive
contempt. Again, as Appadurai noted in a keen semiotic perception, the hyphen in “nation-state” can now
“serve less an icon of conjunction, than an index of disjunction”. “Blood” can unite “brothers”, it can also
denote theft and betrayal, as when one speaks of “bad blood”. The tropes in these representations guide the
narrative substance of a theory, or an ideology, or a discourse. Tropes make (as in poesis) for a strong and
durable image, cementing, as it were, the social memory.

For ethnic, national, and political narratives, genealogical continuity, as in a family’s lineage, is a characteris-
tic theme. The metaphor of family is genealogical, revealed in portraits, and to make the iconic resemblance
even more persuasive, the metonyms of blood and bones are conjoined. Violent ruptures in continuity and
foreign penetration into territory - Ottoman domination, or “Turkey in Europe” - provide the tragic contrasts
to the narrative of continuity. “Ours Once More!”, “a Nation Once Again!”, are familiar refrains in hymns to
the nation’s fall from Eden and its (often her) redemption.

“Contested identity” is one of the sure ways to characterize “the Macedonian problem”. I won’t go into the
history of this idea but merely skim off the recent past. “The Balkans” in general, and Macedonia in particular,
are characterized as an ambiguous region between East and West. Indeed, the perennially sensitive regions in
Europe tend to lie “betwixt and between”, stretching from the Baltic north to the Balkan south.

Both as a territory and as an ancient historical object Macedonia symbolized Europe’s triumphant expansion
into the Orient: the age of Hellenism. During the Ottoman Empire Macedonia was portrayed in the exact
reverse as “Turkey in Europe”. Modern Macedonia thereby “personifies” contested identities, with the culi-
nary symbol “Salade Macedoine” consisting of numerous sliced fruits and vegetables.

16 009
Contested identity within a nation-state seems at first glance to be an abnormality. Macedonia is thought of as
a rare specimen, not only because it is composed of heterogeneous cultures, but because its creation was the
result of outside political forces and interests. Is that so unusual? Doesn’t every nation-state have “peculiar”
origins? Isn’t this why the hyphen between nation and state is, as already noted, not so much “an icon of
conjuncture as an index of disjuncture”? Macedonian identity, in its strongest national discourse, claims its
long genealogy as an ancestor of Western European authority. In the present, its reality is made the object of
ridicule.

Macedonia, then, is a creation of contested identities, involving broken and continuous genealogies. One of
the main problems in the “contested identity” of Macedonia is that so many neighboring “others” (Greece,
Bulgaria, Serbia, Albania) have denied its authenticity, its “real genealogy” as a people. Lack of recognition
is a big scar for Macedonians. In international diplomacy, the Republic is called by the anonymous acronym
“FYROM” (Former Yugoslavian Republic of Macedonia).

If the Republic is to stay alive in this time of ordeals, it will continue to involve contesting identities of the
sorts just named. That is a much, much better alternative to an all-out ethnic war with its Albanian citizens.

51. Which of the following would not qualify as an example of the hyphen in nation-state serving less as
“an icon of conjuncture, than an index of disjuncture”?
(1) The birth, after British rule, of the Indian Republic with its diverse ethnic groups, all of them sub-
scribing to a common idea of India or ‘Bharat’ from the past.
(2) The formation of the Republic of Yugoslavia after the First World War, composed of diverse ethnic
groups, many of them under Turkish Ottoman rule for centuries.
(3) The creation of modern Germany, post the fall of the Berlin Wall, after Germany had been split into
two after the end of the Second World War.
(4) The formation of the Central Asian republics of people of Mongol origin after the breakup of the
former USSR
(5) The creation of the state of Macedonia whose people claim its long genealogy as the ancestor of
Western European authority.

52. The notion of ‘contested identities’ as discussed in the passage can be best described as
(1) One of the many manifestations of the essential pluralities of social life
(2) Those rare and precious icons, indices and symbols from a nation’s past that are contested, some-
times virulently.
(3) A balancing force between agreement and contradiction in the socio-cultural or historical space that
arises more out of tension than out of reconciliation
(4) The only sure way of characterizing the Macedonian problem
(5) A trope that makes for a powerful and durable image, cementing, in the process, social memory

53. The culinary symbol ‘Salade Macedoine’ has been evoked in the passage to serve
(1) as a metaphorical representation of the contested identities exemplified through the case of modern
Macedonia.
(2) as a personification of the idea of cultural consensus mentioned in Para 2
(3) as an illustration of the diverse ethnic groups that populate modern Macedonia
(4) as an example of the cuisine for which Macedonia is famous the world over
(5) as a symbol of reconciliation between cultural consensus and class conflict in any society

009 17
54. It can be inferred that ‘semiotic perception’ as used in the passage is a useful trait for
(1) The linguist looking for latent meaning behind obvious words and symbols that help explain a
certain context
(2) The anthropologist researching into socio-cultural symbols that pervade the national consciousness
of the people of a country
(3) The astrologer who uses the signs of the Zodiac to make predictions about the future
(4) Only 2 above
(5) Both 1 & 2 above

55. Contested identity is one of the surest ways to characterise “the Macedonian Problem” because
(1) Macedonia has ancient roots.
(2) Macedonia is a very sensitive region.
(3) Macedonia is the object of ridicule.
(4) Macedonia is characterised as an ambiguous region.
(5) Macedonia suffers from lack of recognition.

18 009
 Sub-section III-B: Number of Questions = 5

Note: Questions 56 to 60 carry 5 marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 56 to 60: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE

The key we shall try to use to unlock the prison door is to say that a brain contains knowledge and information,
written in its own language. This is actually a very complicated statement. We may all think that we know
what is meant by ‘information’, but it is really a very subtle concept, not easy to analyze. The word is of
course borrowed from ordinary speech, but we shall try to give it a more precise meaning that will allow us to
say that all life depends on a flow of information. Information is carried by physical entities, such as books or
sound waves or brains, but it is not itself material. Information in a living system is a feature of the order and
arrangement of its parts, which arrangement provides the signs that constitute a ‘code’ or code are transmitted
along suitable channels; they provide the control that helps to maintain the order that is the essence of life. So
the concepts of signs and information, and of coding and language, are closely related to the nature of life
itself, and like life they are not simple at all. We shall return several times to discuss them.

For the present we can work with the idea that to understand a strange language means to be able to translate
the sounds heard or the words written into one’s own language. (although ‘translation’ is not at all a simple
concept either). So to understand the language of the brain we must learn to recognize and interpret the
elements of the script and the meanings of the signs in which it is written. Neuroscience is beginning to do
this. In this book I hope to show how the organization of the brain can be considered as the written script of
the programs of our lives. So the important feature of brains is not the material that they are made of but the
information that they carry.

What neuroscience can do is to translate the language in which the brain programs are written into ordinary
language. Since these are the programs that produce the phenomena of human language we are not really
escaping from our prison, but are as it were enlarging it. We are using the analogies of language and of writing
to understand the entities that produce them. As so often in the past, man, having invented an artifact (in this
case writing to help him with his life (by carrying information), is now trying to describe, himself in terms of
his artifact.

However much wisdom we acquire, we shall remain limited human creatures. But I believe that such new
knowledge of the brain of man enables us greatly to expand our understanding of fundamental problems. We
can give new meaning to concepts such as value, choice and decision and even provide some help with
problems of the aims and ends of life than trouble many people. We hope to gain from the discussion the
power to give richer, fuller use to such words. It may be that some of our deepest difficulties about the nature
of mind, matter, and consciousness will turn out to be products of the very structure of the brain.

These may seem excessive claims to make for results from study of the brain, which some people may think
to be a subject that is pedestrian, material, complicated, and even faintly disgusting. I hope to be able to
reverse this view and to show that study of the brain reveals outstandingly beautiful and intricate patterns, not
only of matter but of information and of action, whose significance we can still perceive only dimly.

009 19
56. All of the following statements can be attributed to the brain, except?
(1) The brain has outstandingly beautiful and intricate patterns whose significance is still perceived
only faintly.
(2) Information is carried by physical entities such as brains.
(3) The elements of the script and the meanings of the signs of the language of the brain can be realized
and interpreted in order to understand it.
(4) The intrinsic features of the brain can be impressed upon by the extrinsic signs and symbols.
(5) The important feature of the brains is the material they are made up of.

57. Which statement in the passage makes use of ‘metaphorical allusions’ in order to epitomize the author’s
intellectual and logical dilemma of using the analogies of language and of writing towards understanding
human brain?
(1) Since these are the programs that produce the phenomena of human language we are not really
escaping from our prison, but as it were enlarging it.
(2) We are using the analogies of language and of writing to understand the entities that produce them.
(3) However much wisdom we acquire, we shall remain limited human creatures.
(4) These may seem excessive claims to make for results from study of the brain, which some people
may think to be a subject that is pedestrian, material, complicated, and even faintly disgusting.
(5) As so often in the past, man, having invented an artifact to help him with his life, is now trying to
describe himself in terms of his artifact.

58. As per the passage, which of the following statements with regard to Neuroscience is untrue?
(1) It has already recognized and interpreted beyond doubt, the elements of the script and the meanings
of the signs in which the language of the brain is written.
(2) It is trying to descramble the language in which the programs of brain are encrypted and render it
into a lingo that is easy to comprehend.
(3) It refutes the claims that the brain can be studied on the basis of the phenomena of human language
that it has produced itself.
(4) It claims to explain only those set of problems that relate to rational issues and not that related to
matters such as values or even purpose of life.
(5) It considers brain as a reservoir of information written in a language that has been invented by the
humans.

59. In the statement “As so often in the past, man, having invented an artifact to help him with his life, is
now trying to describe himself in terms of his artifact.” What does the word ‘man’ allude to in the
overall context of the passage?
(1) Human mind
(2) Human brain
(3) Human consciousness
(4) Creator
(5) Artisan

60. In the statement “Which some people may think to be a subject that is pedestrian, material, complicated,
and even faintly disgusting.” What does the word ‘pedestrian’ mean in the given context?
(1) Footslogger
(2) Related to walking pedestals
(3) Dull
(4) Indolent
(5) Prosaic

20 009
 SECTION – IV

Sub-section IV-A: Number of Questions = 15

Note: Questions 61 to 75 carry 3 marks each.

1
61. A function F(n) is defined as F(n – 1) = for all natural numbers ‘n’. If F(1) = 2, then what is
( 2 − F ( n ))
the value of [F(1)] + [F(2)] +…………+ [F(50)]?
(Here, [x] is equal to the greatest integer less than or equal to ‘x’)
(1) 51 (2) 55 (3) 54 (4) 52 (5) None of these

62. How many ordered pairs (P, Q) are there such that the unit’s digits of PP and QQ are same?
(Given that P and Q are natural numbers less than 10?
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 10 (4) 15 (5) 18

63. In a box containing 15 apples, exactly 6 apples are rotten. Each day one apple is taken out from the
box. What is the probability that after four days there are exactly 8 apples in the box that are not rotten?
12 1 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None of these
91 7 13 7

64. 78 identical cubes each with 2 cm edge are joined together to form a cuboid. If the perimeter of the base
of the cuboid is 64 cm, then the number of cubes along the height of the cuboid is
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 4 (5) Cannot be determined

 5   11   19   29 
65. The sum of the infinite series  + + +  + .....∞ is
 12 × 22   22 × 32   32 × 42   42 × 52 
       
3 7 9 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 2
2 4 4 2

66. Given that a5 + b5 + c5 = 91849, where a, b, c are distinct digits. What is the remainder when a six-digit
number 2a5b1c is divided by 11?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) 0

67. Given that f(x) = x3 – x2 (3 + a) + x( 2 + 3a) – 2a, where ‘a’ is an odd prime number. What is the range
of values of ‘x’ that satisfy f(x) > 0?
(1) x < 1 or 2 < x < a (2) x < 2 or x > a (3) 1 < x < 2 or x > a
(4) x < 1 or x > a (5) None of these
68. Mr. Ganguly, the captain, after winning the match distributed few toffees to every other player of his
team. The first player received 50 toffees and then one tenth of the remaining toffees available with
Mr. Ganguly. The second player received 100 toffees and then one tenth of the remaining toffees
available with the captain. The third player received 150 toffees and then one tenth of the remaining
toffees available with the captain. The same was true for the toffees received by the subsequent players.
After distributing the toffees Mr. Ganguly found that every other player of his team got the same
number of toffees. How many players are there in the team including the captain?
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12 (5) Cannot be determined

009 21
69. Sanjay has exactly six sealed boxes containing 15, 31, 19, 20, 16 and 18 coins. Out of the six boxes
with Sanjay, there are exactly five boxes that contained silver coins whereas one box contained gold
coins. He distributed all the six boxes among his three sons in such a manner that his eldest son got the
only box with gold coins and the other boxes were distributed in such a manner so that other two
brothers received the silver coins in the ratio of 2:1. How many gold coins were there in one of the
boxes with Sanjay? (Assume no coins were taken out of the boxes)
(1) 20 (2) 19 (3) 16 (4) 31 (5) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 and 71: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
PQR is an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure given below. Let S be a point on QR. A semicircle is
drawn having SR as diameter such that PQ is a tangent to the semicircle at the point T. Given that the center of
the semicircle is at point O and the radius of the semicircle is 1 unit.

Q R
S O

PT
70. What is the value of ?
TQ

(1) 2 ( )
3 −1 (2) 2 (3) 3 ( 2 −1 ) (4) 2 3 − 1 (5) 3 + 1

71. Given that the semicircle cuts PR at the point U. What is the ratio of length of the line segment PU to the
radius of the semicircle?

(
(1) 1: 2 – 3 ) (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : ( 3 +1 ) (4) 1: ( 3 −1 ) (5) None of these

72. A group containing certain number of men and women can complete a piece of work in 120 days
working together. A woman is replaced by a man in the group and now all the people in the group can
complete the same work in 96 days working together. If again a woman is replaced by a man in the
existing group, then in how many days the same piece of work can be completed by all the people in
the group working together?
(1) 88 days (2) 80 days (3) 72 days (4) 70 days (5) 79 days

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DIRECTIONS for Question 73 to 75: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B
alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A
alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the
statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

73. The club ‘M’ has a total strength of 700 members. One third of the members who do not have breakfast,
do not have dinner as well. How many members are there who neither have breakfast nor have dinner?
A: Half of the members who do not have dinner, do not have breakfast as well. The number of members
who have both breakfast and dinner is 200.
B: The number of members who do not have dinner is 100.

74. The total number of candies with three kids Himanshu, Prachi and Veena is an integer, which is less
than 1000. The number of candies with Prachi is the square root of the number of candies with Veena
The number of candies with Himanshu is the square root of the number of candies with Prachi. What is
the number of candies with each of the three mentioned kids?
A: The number of candies with Himanshu is a perfect square.
B: Each of the mentioned kid has an even number of candies.

75. A wire of length ‘l’ units is cut into three pieces having lengths ‘a’ units, ‘b’ units and ‘c’ units.
If a > b > c, then is ‘b’ an odd number?
A: The product of ‘a’ and ‘b’ is 60 square units.
B: The product of ‘b’ and ‘c’ is 12 square units.

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 Sub-section IV-B: Number of Questions = 5

Note: Questions 76 to 80 carry 5 marks each.

x 2
76. The roll numbers of the three students in a class is ‘x’, ‘y’ and ‘z’ respectively. If = , then which of
y 7

x x z z y y
the following can be the value of  + + + + +  ?
y z y x x z
30 61 94
(1) (2) (3) 6 (4) (5) 2
7 7 7

77. Rohan, a young scientist was caught inside a science lab which got engulfed in fire. It has 5 exit doors
arranged in a line, which open one after the another. Each door opens with the fingerprints of a person
such that he can use any two fingers to open any door. Also any combination of two fingers once used
to open a door cannot be further used to open any other door. If he can use all the five fingers of his
right hand, then in how many ways can he open all the doors and escape out of the lab?
(1) 24192 (2) 6048 (3) 10C5 × 4! (4) 30240 (5) 10C5 × 5!

78. ABCD is a square and G is a point on DC such that AG is the angular bisector of ∠ DAC. The diagonals
of the square intersect at the point E and AG intersects one of the diagonals at the point F. Given that the
length of the line segment FE = 3 2 units, then which of the following is/are correct?

( )
(1) AD = 6 1 + 2 units (2) AF = 6 (2 + 2 )units ( )
(3) AC = 12 1+ 2 units

(4) DF = 3 2 units (5) AE = 3(2+ 2) units

79. A circle is drawn with centre O and OB as radius, where OB is one of the sides of a parallelogram
ABOD. The circle cuts AB and DO at the points N and M respectively. If the radius of the circle is
3 units, AN = 1 unit and NB = 4 units, then which of the following is/are correct?
3 5
(1) Area of quadilateral ANMD = square units
2
(2) Area of ABOD = 5 5 square units
(3) Area of ∆BON = 3 5 square units
(4) BD = 5 units
(5) DM = 1 unit

80. The total number of bananas with three friends Moti, Sumit and Manky is 10. Also, the sum of the
reciprocals of the number of bananas with the three mentioned friends is 1. If the number of bananas
with each of the three mentioned friends is an integer, then what can be the difference between the
number of bananas with Moti and Sumit?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 1 (5) Cannot be determined

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