7 Solutions 2014 With Sound

colinhop@bigpond.net.
au Physics revision 2014 248

Motion in one and two dimensions
solutions

Example 1: (1984 Question 1)
Use v = u + at
30 = 0 + a 10
a = 3 m s
-2
(ANS)

Use F = ma
F
Driving
F
Resistance
= ma
F
Driving
500 = 2000 3
F
Driving
= 6000 + 500
F
Driving
= 6500 N (ANS)

Use x = ut + at
2

x = 0 + 3 10
2

x = 150 m (ANS)

Use WD = F d
WD = 6500 150
WD = 975000
WD = 9.8 10
5
J (ANS)

Use Power = F v
P = 6500 20
P = 130000
P = 1.3 10
5
W (ANS)

Example 6: (2001 Question 1, 46%)
This question is designed to be a nice starter,
so dont fall into the trap of making it too
complicated. As you were reading the
question, you should have highlighted the
words constant speed. This means that
acceleration = 0,
net force = 0 (ANS)

When the rider is going down the hill at a
constant speed, then the sum of the forces is
again zero. So, the frictional forces opposing
the motion (acting up the slope) must be equal
to the weight component acting down the slope

Frictional forces = mg sinu
= 100 10 sin15
0

= 258.8
= 259 N (ANS)

a =
v
t
=
11
0.1

= 110 m s
-2

F = ma =1.30 10
3
110
= 1.43 10
5
N
[actually 1.4 10
5
N due to sig. figs]
143 kN (ANS)

Crumple Zone enables passenger cell to
travel a greater distance while stopping, in a
longer time.
The change in momentum [p
f
p
o
] is the
same regardless of the time taken.
Longer time allows lower average force [same
impulse force time]

F = ma
The net force = 45 F
friction

= 45 30
= 15
15 = (10 + 20)a
a =
15
30

= 0.5 m s
-2
(ANS)

The force exerted by the 20 kg mass on the l0
kg mass is equal and opposite to the force
exerted by the 10 kg mass on the 20 kg mass.
Since the 20 kg mass is accelerating at
0.5 m s
-2
, the net force on it must be
F = ma.
F = 20 0.5 = 10N.

The frictional force of 20 N still needs to be
overcome, so F
10 on 20
= 10 + 20 = 30 N

The force exerted by the 20 kg mass on the
10 kg mass = 30 N (ANS)

colinhop@bigpond.net.au Physics revision 2014 249

Use h = ut +
1
2
at
2

Where u = 10sin30, a = -10 m s
-2
, t = 3.0 s
h = 10 0.5 3 (
1
2
10 3
2
)
h = 15 45
h = -30 m.
This answer is consistent as we have assumed
the upwards is positive.
The height was 30 m (ANS)

The minimum speed (not zero because of the
constant horizontal component) occurs at the
top of the flight of the parcel. It will then
continue to speed up.
B (ANS)

At t = 5 secs, the retarding force is 1.8 N (from
graph)
EF = ma
ma = mg R
0.2a = 0.2 10 1.8
0.2a = 2 1.8
0.2a = 0.2
a = 1 m s
-2
(ANS)

The weight of the 10 kg mass is 100 N.
This weight force needs to accelerate both
the mass and the door (at the same rate)
100 = m a
100 = 50 a
a = 2 m s
-2
(ANS)

Use x = ut + at
2

where u = 0
1.0 = 2 t
2

t = 1.0 s (ANS)

F
ship
= F
tug
- F
resistance

= 9 10
4
2 10
4
(from the graph)
= 7 10
4
7 10
4
= 100 10
4
a
a = 0.07 m s
-2
(ANS)

Constant speed F = 0
F
resistance
= 9 10
4
N
Using the graph
4 m s
-1
(ANS)

Consider mass 2
m
2
g T = m
2
a (1)

Consider mass 1
T = m
1
a (2)

Combining gives
m
2
g m
1
a = m
2
a
0.1 10 = (m
1
+ m
2
)a
= 0.5 a
a = 2 m s
-2
(ANS)

The only force that we need to consider that is
acting on the trailer is the tension.
Therefore T = ma
T = 2000 0.5
T = 1000 N (ANS)

Use Newtons third law.
F
C on B
= -F
B on C

The three forces acting on C are:
Its weight, mg
The normal reaction
The weight of A and B.
F
B on C
= (0.050 + 0.10) 10
F
B on C
= 1.5 N
F
C on B
= 1.5 N (upwards) (ANS)

The blocks will be in free fall, so their
acceleration will be g.
F
B on C
= 0, because they are both in free fall,
and accelerating at the same rate.
F
B on C
= 0 (ANS)


Example 23: (2012 Question 4b, 15%)
Newtons third law can be written in the form;
F
A on B
= -F
B on A

Then the weight of sphere is
F
Earth on Sphere

In terms of Newtons action and reaction pairs,
the reaction will be
F
Sphere on Earth
UP (ANS)

Example 24: (2012 Question 5d, 53%)
Rope 1 needs to provide the tension to
accelerate both logs, so the tension in it will be
greater than that of Rope 2.
Rope 1 (ANS)

Use F = ma
T
1
T
2
400 = 600a
and
T
2
400 = 600a
T
2
= 600a + 400

T
1
(600a + 400) 400 = 600a
T
1
= 600a + (600a + 400) + 400
Use T
1
= 2400 N at its breaking point.
2400 = 1200a + 800
1600 = 1200 x a
a = 1.33 m s
-2
(ANS)

Example 25: (1992 Trial Question)
Since the car is moving in circular motion,
the resultant force must be acting radially
inwards. The air resistance is going to
oppose the motion; hence, it has to be to
the left. To obtain a resultant force, you
need to add the forces that are acting
together. This means that the Total force
of road on tyres plus the air resistance
need to combine to give a resultant
force that acts radially inwards.
E (ANS)

There are now two forces acting, the radially
inwards force from the rails, and the braking
force from the brakes.
The braking force is opposing the motion
therefore acting backwards.

B (ANS)


There are only two forces acting, the Weight,
(drawn from the centre of mass) and the
Normal (drawn perpendicular to the surface)


Braking force
Force of rails on
wheels
Net force
N
mg
N
N
mg
N
F

The only two forces acting are the weight force,
acting down and the normal reaction from the
surface, acting perpendicular to the surface.
They must add together to give the resultant
force EF, which is radially inwards.

You could resolve the Normal vector into two
components, one perpendicular and the other
horizontal.

From this we get:
Nsinu = mg and
2
mv
r
= Ncosu

If the object is released at the point P, it will go
vertically up. Therefore it will land directly
under the point P. This means that it will land
a distance r from the point X.
r (ANS)

If the object is released at the point Q, it will
be a projectile with an initial horizontal velocity
of v. It will be launched from a height of 3r.
Use x = ut +
2
1
gt
2
to find how long it will take
to land.
3r = 0 +
2
1
gt
2

6r = gt
2

t
2
=
6r
g

t =
6r
g

To calculate the horizontal distance
travelled in time t, use d = vt.
d = v
6r
g
(ANS)

The force on the cage floor is equal and
opposite to the force of the cage floor on
the observer (N)
At the bottom EF = N - mg
=
2
mv
r

N = mg +
2
mv
r

Therefore the observer will feel heavier at
the bottom.
B (ANS)

The force on the cage floor is equal and
opposite to the force of the cage floor on
the observer (N)
At the top EF = N + mg
=
2
mv
r

N = -(mg -
2
mv
r
).
The negative sign indicates that the normal
reaction is down.
The magnitude of the Normal reaction is
mg -
2
mv
r

At the bottom EF = N - mg
=
2
mv
r

N = mg +
2
mv
r

The difference between the top and the
bottom is
2
2mv
r

A (ANS)
mg
N
EF
N
u
Nsinu
Ncosu

Example 33: (2012 Question 7c, 33%
Consider the motion to be vertical, at constant
speed.

At the top of the path, there are two forces
acting on the sphere, its weight, mg, and the
tension from the string T.
F = ma
Becomes T + mg =
2
mv
r

T =
2
mv
r
- mg.
At the bottom of the circle, the situation looks
like.

F = ma
Becomes T - mg =
2
mv
r

T =
2
mv
r
+ mg.
Since
2
mv
r
is constant, the tension at the
bottom is 2mg larger than the force at the top.
the tension in the string is greater at the
bottom of the circular path.

This requires you to express the KE in terms of
the momentum and the mass.
Use the relationship KE =
2
p
2m

K =
2
p
2m
(ANS)

The total energy, T, is constant.
Initially U = 0, therefore
T = KE + PE
T = KE + 0
KE = T
A (ANS)

To find the velocity at the highest point, you
need to also know the PE at that point. This is
not given.
At the top, the vertical component of the
velocity will be zero. The horizontal component
will depend on the initial angle. This is not
given.
F (ANS)

The car must travel the 20 m horizontally while
it falls the 4 m vertically.
Time to fall [use x = ut +
1
2
gt
2
]
=> t = 0.89 s
v =
x
t
=
20
0.89

= 22.36 m s
-1
(ANS)

mg
T
mg
T

Have to use vectors to add the horizontal
and vertical velocities OR use energy.

Vertical velocity is found using
v = u + gt
v = 0 + 10 0.89
v = 8.9 m s
-1

Use Pythagoras.
25 m s
-1

8.9 m s
-1

25
2
+ 8.9
2
= 625 + 79.2
= 704.2
v = 26.5 m s
-1

Energy conservation gives
KE + PE (initially) = KE (at end)

1
2
m 25
2
+ m 10 4
=
1
2
m v
2

v
2
= 705
v = 26.5 m s
-1
(ANS)


EF = 22 mg
= 22 0.5 10
= 17 N (ANS)

The rocket has a constant acceleration given
by; a =
F
m
=
17
0.50
= 34 m s
-2

x = ut +
1
2
at
2

x = 0 +
1
2
34
2
(1.5)
x = 38.25
x = 38 m (ANS)

To answer this question you need to separate
the vertical motion form the horizontal motion.

Horizontal
Since air resistance can be ignored, the only
horizontal acceleration is due to the constant
force of 22 N.
v
H
= u + at
v
H
= 0 + 44 1.5
v
H
= 66 m s
-1

Vertical
v = u + gt
= 0 + 10 1.5
= 15 m s
-1

Use vectors to add these and to find the
direction.

speed =
2 2
60 +15
= 67.7 m s
-1
(ANS)

The angle relative to the ground is
tan =
15
60

= 12.8 (ANS)
(Remember to have calculator in degree mode)

Since the second paintball reaches the same
height, it must take the same time as before to
reach this height and then all back to the
starting height.

The acceleration due to gravity is constant.
A, C (ANS)

22 N
W = mg
60
15 speed


Example 43 (2008 Question 7, 57%)
Consider this motion in both the horizontal and
the vertical directions.
Horizontal
Find the time it takes to travel the 72 m
horizontally.
v
horizontal
= 30cos(36.9)
= 24 m s
-1

Using v =
d
t

t =
72
24
= 3 secs
Vertical
Use x = ut +
2 1
2
gt
= 18 3
1
2
10 3
2

= 54 45
= 9 m (ANS)

First step: assign a direction to be positive,
take up to be positive.
Second step: fill in the data table, (only working
through to the top of the flight).

y = ??
u
y
= 60 sin(30) = 30 m s
-1

v
y
= ??
a
y
= -10 m s
-2

t
y
= 9 s

Third step: find an equation that does not
involve the final velocity.
y = ut +
1
2
gt
2

y = 30 9 +
1
2
10 9
2

y = -135 m

The height of the cliff is 135 m.
h = 135 m (ANS)

Momentum is conserved
10 000 6 + 5 000 0 = 15 000 v
f

60 000 = 15 000 fv
v
f
=
60000
15000

v
f
= 4 m s
-1
(ANS)

Impulse = change in momentum.
p
o
= 60 000 Ns
p
f
= 40 000 Ns
Ap = 20 000 Ns
Total impulse = 2.0 10
4
N s (ANS)

E
k
before collision
= 10000 x 6
2
= 180 000 J
E
k
after collision
= 15000 x 4
2
= 120 000 J
60 000 J of mechanical energy has been lost
so interaction is not elastic.

You must convert all masses into kilograms.
Find the initial and final momenta.
m
car
u
car
+ m
truck
u
truck
= (m
car
+ m
truck
)v
f

1000 0 + 3000 u
truck
= (1000 + 3000) 7
3000u
truck
= 4000 7
u
truck
=
28000
3000

u
truck
= 9.3 m s
-1

v = 9.3 m s
-1
(ANS)

Momentum is conserved in all collisions. In
elastic collisions mechanical energy is also
conserved. In inelastic collisions mechanical
energy is lost as heat and sound and energy
used in deformation.

From conservation of momentum
Ep
i
= Ep
f

6000 5 + M 0 = (6000 + M) 0.098
30000 = 588 + 0.098 M
29412 = 0.098 M
M = 300122
M = 3.0 10
5
kg (ANS)

F At = mAv
F 20 = 6000 (5 0.098)
F =
6000 4.902
20

F = 1.47 10
3
N (ANS)

Momentum is conserved in all collisions. So the
initial momentum must equal the final
momentum.
Initial momentum is 2 3 + 1 0 = 6 Ns
Final momentum is 2 x + 1 4 = 2x + 4
2x + 4 = 6
x = 1
2kg block is moving at 1 m s
-1
(ANS)

The impulse (change in momentum) is given by
FAt = mAv
F =
14
0.01

= 400 N (ANS)

Momentum is conserved in this collision
p
i
= p
f

20 10
3
8 = 80 10
3
v
v = 2 m s
-1
(ANS)

The impulse given to the locomotive by the
trucks is equal and opposite to the impulse
given to the trucks by the locomotive.
Impulse on trucks is change in momentum of
trucks
= mv
= 60 10
3
2
= 1.2 10
5
kg m s
-1
West (ANS)

Initial momentum is given by
mv = 1.2 v to the right

The block rebounds, so its new momentum is
to the left.

As the change in momentum of the 1.2 kg
block is given by final momentum initial
momentum, when the change in direction is
taken into consideration, this is effectively the
scalar sum of the momenta, but to the left.

This will be greater than the initial momentum
of the 1.2 kg mass.

From conservation of momentum, this change
in momentum of the 1.2 kg mass must be
equal to the change in momentum of the 2.4 kg
mass.

Work done = area under force v displacement
graph.
The examiners actually want to make these
exams to be straight forward, so these curves
often have a very simple solution to them. The
graph was specifically drawn to be
symmetrical, to simplify the area calculation. If
you drew a straight line from the origin to the
coordinates (500, 10 000), you should see that
the curve is symmetrical.
This means that the shape is actually a
triangle, so the area = (10 000 + 0) 500
= 2.5 10
6

This can also be done by counting squares.
Each square is 2 000 100 = 200 000J
There are 13 squares
WD = 13 200 000 = 2 600 000J
2.5 10
6
J (ANS)
A range of answers was accepted for this
question.

The work done by the force is the change in KE
AKE = KE
final
- KE
initial

= -
1
2
(90 + 40) 6
2

= - 2340 J
Use the modulus
F d = 2340
= (190 + 70) d
d =
2340
260

d = 9 m (ANS)


Example 59: (2004 Pilot Question 14, 23%)
Initial energy = mgh.
We need to find h.
Work done to overcome friction
f d = 50 6 = 300 J
KE gained =
1
2
mv
2

=
1
2
30 8
2

= 960 J
So total work done by gravity
= 300 + 960 = 1260 J
mgh = 1260
h =
1260
3010

= 4.2 m (ANS)

The KE of the of the box is given by
K E =
1
2
mv
2

=
1
2
30 8
2

= 960 J
Elastic potential of the spring is given by:
E =
1
2
k(x)
2

1
2
30 000 (x)
2
= 960
(as no energy is lost sliding across the floor)
15 000 (x)
2
= 960
x
2
=
960
15 000

x = 0.25 m (ANS)

The extension (change in length) is
0.6 0.4 = 0.2 m
F = kx
mg = kx
On substitution, m 10 = 20 0.2
m = 0.4 kg (ANS)

WD = area under the graph.
It is also given by

2
f
1
2
) k( x A -
2
i
1
2
) k( x A
=
2 1
2
200.3 -
2 1
2
200.2
= 0.5 J (ANS)

Since we can ignore air resistance (stated in
the question) the system does not lose energy.
the total energy is constant.
D (ANS)

The energy stored in the spring is
1
2
k(x)
2

=
1
2
10 (0.2)
2
(use metres)
= 0.2 J (ANS)

The ball will be stationary (momentarily) at the
top and the bottom of the oscillation. Therefore
the KE will be zero at these points. The KE will
be a maximum at the midpoint.
D (ANS)

The gravitational potential energy is measured
from the point of release.
at the bottom, PE = 0.
A (ANS)

The kinetic energy gained by the mass is the
elastic energy that was stored in the spring.
The spring was compressed 10 cm.
From this we can find the following.

1
2
mv
2
=
1
2
k(x)
2

1
2
0.20 5.0
2
=
1
2
k (0.10)
2

2.5 = 0.005 k
k = 500 Nm
-1
(ANS)


The total energy is the sum of the
PE
Elastic
+ mgh.
PE
elastic
=
1
2
k(x)
2

=
1
2
k 0.4
2

Also F = k x
20 = k 0.4
k = 50
PE
elastic
=
1
2
50 0.4
2

= 4 Joule (gain)
PE
gravitational
= mgh
= 2 10 0.4
= 8 Joule loss.
Change in energy
= 4 J (ANS)

The total energy will remain constant
throughout the interaction.
TE = KE + PE
elastic

PE
elastic
increases when the spring is
compressed (in the middle of the interaction)
Therefore if PE
elastic
increases, KE must
decrease.
PE
elastic
returns to zero after the interaction,
therefore the KE will return to its initial value.
A (ANS)

Momentum is ALWAYS conserved.
B (ANS)

The force acting is mg = 1.0 10
= 10 N
The extension is 70 40 = 30 cm (0.3 m)
F = k Ax
10 = k 0.3
k = 33.3 Nm
-1
(ANS)

The kinetic energy will start from zero, go to a
maximum and then return to zero.
D (ANS)

The gravitational energy will start at a
minimum, when L = 80 cm, and increase as L
decreases to 60 cm.
B (ANS)

The strain energy is minimum (but not zero) at
60 cm. It will increase until 80 cm.
The increase is not linear as, E =
1
2
k(x)
2

F (ANS)

Example 75: (2012 Question 1c, 55%)
Energy stored in the spring is given by
E = k(x)
2

5.4 = x k x 0.08
2

(Make sure that you use x in metres)
k =
2
2 5.4
0.08

k = 1688 Nm
-1

k = 1.7 x 10
3
Nm
-1
(ANS)

Area under graph is something like 11 to 13
squares
Each square has a value of
1000 3 10
6
= 3 10
9
J
=> at least 3.3 10
10
J (ANS)

Allowing for a variation in the number of
squares counted, a range of values
3.3 to 4.4 10
10
J, was accepted.

Example 77: (2004 Pilot Sample Q 12, 80%))
The gravitational force, F, acting on the satellite
(the only one) is directed from the satellite
towards the centre of the earth.

This is F = mg, where g =
2
GM
R
, M is the mass
of the earth, R the distance from the satellite to
the centre of the earth, and G is the
gravitational constant. We also know (given)
that g =
2
2
R 4
T
t
, where T is the period of the
satellite orbit.

The value of
R = 3.8 10
5
m + 6.4 10
6
m = 6.78 10
6
m.
This gives T =
2 3
R
GM
4t

T =
2 6 3
-11 24
(6.7810 )
6.6710 610
4

T = 5.5 10
3
s.
5.5 10
3
s (ANS)

Example 78: (2004 Pilot Sample Q 13, 27%)
This satellite is moving at constant speed as
the altitude (given) implies a circular orbit. The
only force acting is from the satellite towards
the centre of the earth, and as R is constant
this force is constant. This constant force
implies a constant acceleration.
D (ANS)

mg is the force that a mass m feels at the
surface of Earth.
g is the acceleration that a mass m feels at
the surface of the Earth. Hence statement B is
incorrect.
B (ANS)

Using g
Eris
=
2
Eris
GM
r
and g
Pluto
=
2
Pluto
GM
r

gives
Eris
Pluto
g
g
=
2
Eris
2
Pluto
GM
r
GM
r
=
2
Pluto
2
Eris
r
r

On substitution
2
Pluto
2
Eris
r
r
=
12 2
12 2
(6.010 )
(10.510 )

=
2
2
6.0
10.5

= 0.33
A (ANS)

Using Keplers Law (which is not on the course,
but is very useful)
The ratio of
3
2
R
T
is the same or all bodies
orbiting the Sun.

12 3
2
(6.010 )
248
=
12 3
2
(10.510 )
T

3
2
6.0
248
=
3
2
10.5
T

(simplifying the calculation)
T
2
=
3 2
3
10.5 248
6.0

T
2
= 329623
T = 574 Earth-years (ANS)

The comet will basically have a constant
energy as it orbits the Sun. (Even though it is
losing a minute amount as it burns).
The total energy is the sum of the PE and KE.
The comet will gain PE as it moves away from
the sun, therefore it must lose KE. This means
that it will travel faster at X than Y.
As the comet moves from X to Y, the speed
will decrease and the energy will remain
constant (ANS)

There is only one force acting on Jason 2 as it
orbits, that is its weight force and this acts
towards the centre of the Earth.

Students were required to draw and label
arrow(s) to represent any force(s) acting on the
satellite orbiting the Earth.
The required answer was one arrow from the
satellite and pointing towards the Earth, with a
label weight or gravitational force or mg or Fg.
It was not acceptable to label it F
net
.

Jason 2
Earth
direction of movement
mg

W = mg, if the visitor weighs the same then g
must equal 10 on both the planet and the
Earth.
10 N kg
-1
(ANS)

Use F = mg
=
2
GMm
r

g
Visitor
=
V
V
2
GM
r

also g
Earth
=
E
E
2
GM
r

V
V
2
M
r
=
E
E
2
M
r

M
V
=
V
E
2
E
2
M r
r

=
24 4 2
6 2
5.9 10 (3.410 )
(6.3710 )

M
V
= 1.33 10
20
kg (ANS)

Use
2
GMm
r
=
2
mv
r

GM
r
= v
2

Use v =
2r
T

GM
r
=
2 2
2
4 r
T

T
2
=
2 3
4 r
GM

T
2
=
2 9 3
-11 25
4 (110 )
6.6710 5.710

T
2
= 1.04 10
13

T = 3.22 10
6
secs (ANS)

The reading on the spring balance is zero
because both the mass and the spring balance
are in free fall towards Triton. They both have
the same acceleration. Therefore, the tension
in the spring balance is zero.
A (ANS)
Example 88: (1997 Q 3, 90%, 40%, 40%)
a. Normal weight: 60 10 = 600 N
b. Heavier, actually 60 13 = 780 N
c. Zero: apparent weight is always zero in
stable orbit conditions, because the astronaut
and the satellite both have the same
acceleration towards the centre of the earth.

The weight force is shown acting at the centre
of mass, while the reaction force acts at the
point of contact with the ground. The weight
force is down, the reaction force is up. The two
forces have the same magnitude.

Apparent weight is measured by the value of
the normal contact force.
ie 0.2 10 = 2 N (ANS)

Apparent g is now 5 less than normal.
Apparent weight is thus:
0.2 5 = 1.0 N (ANS)

Apparent weight will be zero when the lift is in
free fall. This is because the apparent weight is
the value of the normal contact force.
This is given by mg N = ma.
In this case mg = ma, so N must be zero.

X
.

The acceleration is 2.0 m s
-2
down.

The net force F = ma. For this to be in the
downwards direction, mg needs to be greater
than N.
mg N = ma
N = mg ma
N = 60 10 60 2
N = 600 120
N = 480N (ANS)

Helens apparent weight is the normal reaction
force that acts on her. Helens weight force
remains that same throughout the fall, since
the gravitational field strength is constant
through that distance. When Helen drops
through the trapdoor there is no normal
reaction acting on her so her apparent weight
is zero.

When the car is just about to leave the rails,
the normal reaction is zero.
At A, EF = N + mg

2
mv
r
= N + mg, but N = 0

2
mv
r
= mg

2
v
r
= g
v = gr
v = 1015
v = 12. 2 m s
-1
(ANS)

Since the normal is zero (from previous
question), Melanie will be apparently
weightless. This is because she is in free fall
accelerating down at 10 m s
-2
.
0 N (ANS)

At the bottom,
N mg =
2
mv
r

N = 600 +
2
60 5.5
15

N = 721 N (ANS)

ma
mg
N

Electronics and Photonics Solutions

X and the variable resistor are in series,
therefore they will both have the same current.
The current through the resistor is given by
V = iR
6.5 = i 3250
i = 0.002 A
The current through X will be the same.
2 mA (ANS)

The battery is in series with the resistor and X.
2 mA (ANS)

The supply voltage is 9.0 V, 6.5 V is lost across
the resistor, therefore there is a voltage drop of
2.5 V across X
2.5 V (ANS)

The key to this question is the all in the
question. So your solutions needs to satisfy the
three sets of data.
The graph needs to go through the origin, to
satisfy the point when V
B
= 0.
When V
X
= 2.5 V, the current was 2 mA (from
previous questions).
When V
X
= 5V, (from the first set of figures in
the second table), then the current will be the
same as in the resistor.
The current in the resistor is from
V = iR, 4.0 = i 500
i = 8 mA,
This means that when the voltage is doubled,
the current increases by a factor of 4. This
must be
Graph D (ANS)

R
Total
= R
1
+ R
2
+ R
3

R
Total
= 10 + 20 + 25
R = 55 (ANS)

Example 103 (1984 Question 67)
The effective resistance is given by
total 1 2 3
1 1 1 1
= + +
R R R R

total
1 1 1 1
R 10 20 25
= + +

total
1 10 5 4
R 100 100 100
= + +

total
1 19
R 100
=
R
total
= 5.26 (ANS)

The effective resistance is given by
total
1 1 1
R 2+2+2+2 8 +8 +8 +8
= +

total
1 1 1
R 8 32
= +

total
1 4 1
R 32 32
= +

total
1 5
R 32
=
R
total
= 6.4 (ANS)

Use V = iR
12 = i 6.4
i = 1.875
i = 1.9 A (ANS)

With switch S open, the current will only flow
through the 2 resistors.
The total resistance is now 8 ,
Using V = iR
12 = i 8
i = 1.5 A (ANS)


The voltage drop across either branch of the
circuit will be 12V
The voltage drop across each resistor will be
the same. (It is 3V)

voltage across globe Q
voltage across globe P
= 1
1 (ANS)

When the two elements are in series, they
have the same current, but the combined
voltage is the sum of the two individual
elements.
Element P is a current limiting device.
Therefore the maximum current in the
combined circuit will be 1 amp. The only graph
that shows this is C.
C (ANS)

When the two elements are in parallel, they
have the same potential difference, and the
combined current is the sum of the two
individual elements.
Element Q is a potential difference limiting
device. Therefore the maximum potential
difference across the parallel combination will
be 10 volt. The only graph that shows this is
B (ANS)

You need to read the graph very carefully in
this question. Using V = iR, gives R =
V
I
A
A
,
which in this case is NOT the gradient of the
line. This is current vs voltage graph, not a
voltage vs current graph.
R =
3
50
100 10

R = 500 (ANS)

Use R =
V
I
.
R =
3
60
100 10

R = 600 (ANS)

As the elements are in parallel, they will have
the same potential difference across them.
If the current through the electronic device is
60 mA, there will be 50 V across it. Therefore
there will be 50 V across the resistor.
From the graph this gives a current of
100 mA (ANS)

As the elements are in series they must both
have the same current flowing through them.
The sum of the two potential drops must be 40
V.
We need to check the graphs to find these
points.
These will always be obvious points (i.e. on
grid lines) on the graphs.
Start at one end and work your way through
sets of values
When the current is 20 mA, the voltage across
the resistor is 10 V and across the electronic
device is 30 V, hence satisfying the conditions.
30 V (ANS)

Using common sense, if the voltage drop
across R
1
is 4 V and the voltage drop across 1
k resistor is 2V, then R
1
must be twice the
size of 1 k.
2k (ANS)

The diode is in the circuit in reverse bias. (The
current is flowing from the bottom of the battery
anticlockwise around the circuit.
From the graph, this will give a very small
current, as the voltage is effectively negative.
You needed to be very careful reading the
graph.

From the graph, when the current through the
diode is 5.4 mA, the diode is operating with the
maximum voltage drop across it.
0.6 V (ANS)

The voltage drop across the resistor is 5.4 V
Using V = iR gives
5.4 = 5.4 10
-3
R
R = 1000 (ANS)

Each LED will have 3 V across it. Since LED 1,
LED 2 and LED 3 are connected in series the
voltage across them will be 9.0 V. LED 4, LED
5, and LED 6 are in parallel with the other
LEDs, so they will also receive 9.0 V. The
resistor R
2
will get the remaining voltage, which
is 3.0 V.
V
I =
R

3
I =
60

I = 0.05 A (ANS)

The potential drop across the diode remains at
1V. Therefore V
200O
= 1V (as it is in parallel
with the diode).
Use V = iR to get
I
200O
=
1
200
= 5 mA

The voltage drop across the 500 O resistor is 6
1 = 5 V.
Use V = iR to get
I
500O
=
5
500
= 10 mA
current in diode = 10 5
= 5 mA
current in circuit (i.e. Ammeter) is 10 mA
(it is the same current as is in the 500 O
resistor or the combined current of the parallel
elements)
10 mA (ANS)

The circuit can be redrawn as

The resistance of the parallel components is
given by
Parallel
1
R
=
1
2
+
1
4

R
parallel
=
4
3

R
TOTAL
= 2 + 1.33
= 3.33 O (ANS)

Since the total resistance is 3.3 O, the current
in the circuit is
10
3.3
= 3 A.
Therefore the current in B will be 2 A and the
current in both C and D will be 1 amp.
2 A (ANS)

Example 122: (2012 Question 2a, 75%)
From the graph, the voltage drop across the
diode will be 2 V.

This leaves 10 V (12V 2V) across the
resistor.
Using V = IR, gives
10 = I 100
I = 0.1 A
I = 100 mA (ANS)
A
B
C
D

NOTE that the voltage of the supply is now
8 V.
The voltage drop across D2 will be 3 V.
Voltage drop across R
2
= 8 3
= 5V (ANS)

The current through the ammeter will be the
sum of the currents through both resistors.
The voltage drop across D1 = 8 2 = 6V
Using V = IR
gives I =
V
R

I
1
=
6
100
= 60 mA
The voltage drop across D2 = 8 3 = 5V
Using V = IR
gives I =
V
R

I
1
=
5
150
= 33 mA
I = 60 + 33
= 93 mA (ANS)

Use P
in
= VI
Diode 1
P
in
= 2 x 100 x 10
-3

P
in
= 200 mW
Effectiveness (another word for efficiency) is
given by
out
in
Power
Power

150
200
= 75%

Diode 2
P
in
= 3 x 100 x 10
-3

P
in
= 200 mW

out
in
Power
Power
=
200
300

= 67%

Therefore Diode 1 is more effective

With the two diodes in series, they will both
have up to 1.0 V across them, and the current
will be a maximum of 40 mA
C (ANS)

With one diode in reverse bias, there will not be
any current flowing. This will also be true if the
potential difference is reversed.
E (ANS)

The two diodes will only operate when in
forward bias. They will both have a maximum
of 1 V across them. At 1 V, the current in both
could be 40 mA +. Therefore the graph needs
to have a maximum voltage of 1.0 V, and a
large current is possible.
A (ANS)

With the diodes in this arrangement, current
will flow in either direction, but the maximum
potential difference will be 1 V.
D (ANS)

The two elements are in series, therefore they
will have the same current flowing through
them.
Note that the photodiode is reversed biased.
Be very careful with the units on the graph as
they are micro-amp.
Using V = iR
V = 5 10
-6
100
V = 5 10
-4
V (ANS)


When the current in the LED is 10 mA, the
voltage drop across the LED = 1.5 V.
This means that
V
Resistor
= 10 1.5
= 8.5 V.
Using V = iR
R =
V
I

=
8.5
0.01

= 850 (ANS)

If the value of R
D
is slightly lower, then the total
resistance of the circuit will be slightly lower so
the current in the circuit will be slightly higher.
The voltage across the LED is constant at
1.5 V. With increased current in the LED (as
well), the light output of the LED increases.

This is a simple voltage divider question. First
find the resistance of the LDR when it has 20
lux falling on it. This is found to be 1500 read
straight from the graph. The LDR has 4V
across it so the resistor must have 2V across it.
Now use
1 1
2 2
V R
=
V R
,

2
2
4
R = 1500
R = 750 (ANS)

If the light is to come on before the intensity is
reduced to 20 lux then the LDR will have a
resistance less than 1500 (read from the
graph), so if there is to be 4 V across the LDR
when the intensity is above 20 lux than the
resistor must be less than 750 , so it must be
decreased.
Decreased (ANS)

The voltage across the LED = 2.5 V
V
R
= 8.0 2.5
= 5.5 V
i
R
=
5.5
300

18.3 mA (ANS)

V
thermistor
= 8.0 V
because the V
variable
= 4.0 V.
V
thermistor
= 2 V
variable

At 5
0
C V
thermistor
= 4000 (from graph)
R
variable
= 2000 (ANS)

The refrigeration needs to turn on at a lower
temperature.
For example, turn on at 4
0
C. The resistance of
the thermistor is now 5000 .
The voltage across the variable resistor still
needs to be 4 V.
the variable resistor needs still to be the
voltage of the thermistor.
variable resistance is now 2500
R needs to increase (ANS)

The voltage across the variable resistor needs
to be 8.0 V, this means that the voltage across
the thermistor is 4.0 V. At 25
0
C the resistance
of the thermistor will be 500 as read from the
graph.
themistor thermistor
variable variable
V R
=
V R

2
4.0 500
=
8.0 R

R
2
= 1000 (ANS)

The ratio of the voltages will still be
themistor
variable
V 4.0
=
V 8.0
since the 8.0 volts is what is
required to turn on the air conditioner. If the air
conditioner is to come on at a lower
temperature the resistance of the thermistor
will be greater.
The ratio needs to be the same so increasing
the thermistor means that the variable resistor
needs to increase to ensure that the ratio
remains constant.
Variable resistor needs to increase (ANS)

As the illumination (lux) decreases, the
resistance of the LDR increases. Since the
resistance in the LDR increases the total
resistance of the circuit increases (R is fixed in
value). As the total resistance increases the
current decreases, so the current through the
fixed resistor (R) must decrease. This leads to
a drop in potential difference across the fixed
resistor (R), which leads to an increase in the
potential difference across the LDR.
INCREASES (ANS)

The lights will still come on at V
out
= 4.0 V.
To get the lights to come on earlier, (when it is
brighter and the resistance of the LDR is
lower), you need to maintain V
out
at 4.0 V.
Therefore the resistance of R must be less.
R needs to decrease (ANS)


Use Gain =
out
in
V
V

Gain =
2.0
0.04

= 50 (ANS)

The shape of the output graph is similar to the
input graph, therefore the amplifier is linear.
The shape is inverted, therefore the gradient of
the amplifier graph needs to be negative
A (ANS)

Gain =
out
in
V
V
A
A

gain =
6
0.5

gain = 12 (ANS)

The amplifier will not operate if the input
voltage is below zero. Therefore it will clip all
negative input voltages. The gain is positive,
so the output will not be inverted.
C (ANS)

The gain of an amplifier is the ratio of
out
in
V
V
.
In this case that is equal to the gradient of the
graph.
gradient =
36
0.4

90 (ANS)
The gradient is negative so the amplifier is an
inverter.
Strictly speaking, the 'voltage gain' is -90,
whereas the 'gain' is 90, and the amplifier is an
inverter.

The gain is 90, so for an input voltage of 0.1,
the output voltage will be 0.1 90 = 9 volt.
The gradient is negative, so the output will be
out of phase with the input.
the answer needs to be a graph with a peak
value of 9, but the negative of the input.
B (ANS)

You need to find the gain in the linear region,
so you must use the data before clipping.
Clipping starts after 5 ms.
Before clipping the gain is given by

out
in
V
V
=
-10V
200mV

= 50 (ANS)
(You dont need to worry about the sign)

Example 150 (2004 Sample Question 10)
All circuit components present some effective
resistance so there will always be some
heating with a current passing through the
component. So no circuit component like the
Switching
circuit
fan
4500O

LED, for example, is 100% efficient in
converting electrical energy to light energy (in
this case). This removes responses A and C.
The light intensity of an LED increases as, the
current increases; this removes response D.
B (ANS)

Example 151: (2004 Sample Paper Q 11)
The point is that even though the voltage
across a device can be positive or negative,
the energy transformation from electrical
energy to optical intensity means that the light
intensity can only be positive, or zero. The
shape will look like the voltage waveform, but
always positive.

Modulation is changing the time varying
voltage from the microphone into a time
varying light intensity to pass down the optic
fibre.
Demodulation is converting the time varying
light intensity into an AC electrical signal to
match the frequency of the input signal but
making it large enough to drive the speaker.

X is the output from an LED so we are looking
for a brightness graph, so A and C are
incorrect. You cant have a negative intensity
so B is incorrect. The correct response is
D (ANS)

The amount of current flowing through a
photodiode is directly proportional to the
amount of light hitting the photodiode. So the
voltage at that point will either be zero volts or
above.
C (ANS)

Signal A is the carrier wave
Signal B is the original signal
Signal C is the modulated carrier wave
So each of the locations has:

Location Signal
P B
Q A
R C
S B


The brightness needs to be above zero,
because the LED is always on.

This is an example of modulation, because the
intensity of the carrier wave, the light from the
LED, changes to replicate the variation of the
current in the circuit.
The current is varied by changing the variable
resistor.

1 3 5 7
time (s)
brightness

Electric power solutions

Use P = VI
P = 1.5 6
P = 9 W (ANS)

Since R =
l
A

The new wire is the same material and
thickness, but the length has doubled.
R is double.

Using V = iR, where V is constant, then the
current will halve if the resistance is doubled.
I = 3.0 A (ANS)

Lamp X S
Lamp Y D
Lamp Z D

Lamp X S
Lamp Y D
Lamp Z D

Lamp X S
Lamp Y U
Lamp Z U

Power =
energy
time

1.0 10
12
=
-6
U
3010

U = 3.0 10
7
J
U = qV
3.0 10
7
= q 4.0 10
6

q = 7.5 C
An alternative way was P = VI
I =
P
V

=
12
6
1.010
4.010

= 2.5 10
5
Amp.
Then using I =
Q
t

Q = 2.5 10
5
30 10
-6

= 7.5 C (ANS)

V=IR
V
R=
I

-4
-3
1.010
R=
10010

-3
R=1.010

The total resistance is
2
total
V
R =
P

2
total
240
R =
960

total
R = 60
The two (identical) heating elements are joined
in series. Therefore each has a resistance of
30 ohm.
30 O (ANS)

When the resistors are connected in parallel
their total resistance becomes
total 1 2
1 1 1
= +
R R R

total
1 1 1
= +
R 30 30

total
1 1
=
R 15

total
R =15
Use
2
V
P =
R


2
Series Parallel
2
Parallel Series
P R V
=
P R
V

Series Parallel
Parallel Series
P R
=
P R

Series
Parallel
P 15
=
P 60
(ANS)
1
=
4

The voltage drop across group P will be
16 10 = 160V
The voltage drop across both group Q and R
(the groups are in parallel) will be
240 160 = 80V
If each bulb in group Q has a voltage drop
across it of 10V there will be

80
10
= 8 bulbs in the group.
Group R will also have 8 bulbs (ANS)

The string of lights is the total combination of
P + Q + R.
The current through group P is 0.50 A.
This current then splits for Q and R
The supplied current
= 0.50 A (ANS)

The current through P is 0.50A and as Q and R
are identical they will each have 0.25A.
Each bulb has a voltage drop of 10V across it.
The power dissipated by each bulb in groups Q
and R will be
P = VI
= 10 x 0.25
= 2.5 W (ANS)

If one of the globes in group Q burns out, then
the current in this path will be zero.
Since Q and R, are in parallel, if group Q is
removed from the circuit this will result in
doubling the resistance of this part of the
circuit.

This will result in a reduction of the current in
group P.

Group R however will have an increase in the
current.

Hence
Group ON/OFF Brightness
P ON Dimmer
Q OFF
R ON Brighter

Since the elements in the circuit are in series,
the current through both will be the same.
Power in globe = I
2
R,
9 = I
2
8
I = 1.06.
The voltage drop across the globe will be
V = IR
V = 1.06 8
= 8.49V.

This means that the voltage drop across the
variable resistor is
12 8.49 = 3.51.
V
resistor
= IR
3.52 = 1.06 R
resistor

R = 3.31O
R = 3.3 O (to 2 sig figs.) (ANS)

The fuse burns out when the current is 2A.
Using V = iR for the entire circuit, the effective
resistance of the two elements in parallel must
be 6O.

1 1 1
= +
6 8 R

-
1 1 1
=
R 6 8

1 2
=
R 48

R = 24 O (ANS)

When justifying your answer it is preferable if
you can prove your case and disprove the
others.
In circuit A, when altering the variable resistor,
the voltage drop (and current) of the globe will
change, this will cause the brightness to
change.

In Circuit B, altering the variable resistor will
not change the voltage across the globe, it will
always be 12V. The resistance of the globe
does not change.
The power (intensity) of the globe (
2
V
R
) will
be constant.
A (ANS)


The lines leave the left North end, turn around
and go either above or below the magnet
towards the South end, then turn around and
enter the South end. The arrows on the lines at
either end should point to the left, while the
arrows on the line above and below the magnet
should point to the right.

Examiners comment
Although this was expected to be an easy
introductory question, that was not the case.
Common mistakes included field lines
touching, crossing or joining together at the
poles. Sometimes no complete field lines were
shown, or the arrows were in the wrong
direction.



The direction of the field is given by the sum of
the fields from the horizontal magnet (to the
right) and from the vertical magnet (down). The
two components have the same size so the
angle needed to be 45
0
.

Examiners comments
Many students drew the complete magnetic
field instead of an arrow to indicate the
direction of the field at point P. Students
understanding of how to add fields as vectors
needs improvement.

The field will drop off according to an inverse
square law.
E (ANS)

The field from both wires will be in the same
direction (into the page). The two fields will look
like answer E and a reflection of answer E in
the y-axis. They will combine constructively.
B (ANS)

At the midpoint between the two wires the field
from both wires will be in the same direction,
with the same magnitude.
As you move from the middle to either P or Q
the field from each wire will have a component
pointing from Q to P. This component will be
maximum midway between P and Q. The
combined field will drop off from this point.
The best answer is
D (ANS)



The conventional current goes up the left wire
and down the right wire back to the battery.
This means the current comes down the front
of the solenoid and up the back. Using the
Right hand Grip Rule, the magnetic field will
leave the right hand end of the solenoid, turn
around and head to the left above and below
the solenoid, then turn and enter the left end of
the solenoid. The field inside the solenoid will
point from left to right.

Examiners comment
A common error was not indicating the
direction of the field both inside and outside the
coils. Other errors included the field lines not
being continuous or crossing one another, or a
number of lines joining into one.

Current flows up the back, towards the front on
the top and down the front. Using the right
hand grip rule the field lines travel through the
loop from left to right, at right angles to the
plane of the loop and evenly spaced.

Examiners comments
Arrows needed to go from left to right and show
some divergence. Many students drew small
circles around the wire loop. These responses
received full marks provided it could be clearly
seen which direction the arrows were going.


The direction of the field due to the current in
the coil is given by the right hand grip rule. If
the thumb of your right hand is pointing in the
direction of the arrow at the bottom of the iron
bar, then your fingers will tend to coil and point
up, giving the direction of the field in the iron
bar.
You needed to draw 4 field lines, (some at
least needed to be complete), showing the
direction of the field with arrows. You needed
to make sure that none of the field lines
touched or crossed.

Examiners comments
Students were required to have the polarity
correct (as shown by the arrows), include at
least four lines (some of which had to be
complete) and ensure that the field lines did not
touch or cross.


The direction of the field is given by the
direction that the North end of the compass will
point to.
C (ANS)
As we are told to ignore the Earths field.

current
field
I
N
S
B
EARTH
B
SOLENOID
EF

P


The field is uniform, therefore use
F = BiL
F = 0.50 2.0 0.10
F = 0.1 N (ANS)

The current will flow from O to R, the field is
from N to S, therefore the force on OR will be
down.
B (ANS)

QR is parallel to the field, therefore the force on
it is zero.
0 N (ANS)

Use F = nBiL
F = 20 3.0 10
-2
2.0 0.05
F = 6.0 10
-2
N (ANS)

KL is parallel to the field, therefore the force on
it is zero.
0 N (ANS)

Rearranging F = nBil, (with n = 1) gives B =
F
iL

=
0.01
1 0.01

B = 1.0 T (ANS)
Be careful with the measurements of the wire
(10mm = 0.01m)

Examiners comment
It was disappointing how many students were
unable to convert 10 mm to metres. The simple
transposition required to obtain B also caused
difficulty for a surprising number of students.

The wire will vibrate up and down at 100 Hz.

The right hand slap rule give that the fingers
are pointing form N to S (ie. from right to left),
the current is pointing to the top of the page, so
the palm is facing upwards. Therefore the force
is out of the page.
H (ANS)

The force at the point y is zero, because the
direction of the current is parallel to the field
here. Therefore the component of the current
perpendicular to the field is zero.
I (ANS)

are pointing form N to S (ie. from right to left),
the current is pointing to the bottom of the page
(in general), so the palm is facing downwards.
Therefore the force is into the page.
G (ANS)

are pointing from N to S (ie. from right to left),
the current is pointing to the top of the page, so
the palm is facing upwards. Therefore the force
is out of the page.
H (ANS)

To produce a field to the right, the current in
the wire loops on the front of the
electromagnet must be going down, from the
right hand grip rule.

B (ANS)

Use F = nBil
F = 50 0.10 1.5 0.12
F = 0.9 N (ANS)


F = nBil
= 50 0.005 3.0 0.05
= 0.038 N (ANS)
(Remember to convert cm to m)

The direction of the force is always
perpendicular to both P and the magnetic field.
As the field is to the right, and the current is to
the rear of the page, the right hand rule gives
the force as downwards.
B (ANS)

The commutator needs to be free to rotate
since this is the way that the connection is
made between the external current source and
the coil itself via the brushes rubbing on the
commutator.
The motor rotates because the force on the
sides of the coil that are perpendicular to the
magnetic applies a torque to the coil. This
torque is down on the side nearest the south
pole and up on the side nearest the north pole,
given the direction of current flow shown on the
diagram.
However, when the coil rotates into the vertical
position, the force on side P at the bottom
needs to reverse in order for the torque to be
applied in the clockwise direction.
For this to happen, the direction of the current
needs to reverse and it is the role of the split-
ring commutator to do this. The split in the ring
is such that as the coil gets to the vertical
position, the direction of the current flow
through the coil reverses and the direction of
the torque applied to the coil remains in the
same direction.

A This will cause the flux in coil 1 to change,
this will lead to an induced current in coil 1
B This will not induce a change in flux through
oil 1
C This will create a change in flux through coil
1, therefore there will be an induced current in
coil 1
D This will change the current flowing in oil 2.
This will change the field produced by coil 2.
This will change the flux through coil1, inducing
a current.
A, C, D (ANS)

The face is parallel to the field.
Flux = 0 (ANS)

Flux = BA (ANS)

EMF =
t
Au
A

=
BA
t

Use V = iR
i =
BA
tR
(ANS)

If the rate of rotation is doubled, two things will
happen. The induced EMF will be doubled and
the period will be halved.
B (ANS)

It must be the negative gradient of the B vs t
graph. Initially the graph had a constant
positive gradient, (which will be shown as a
negative straight line) followed by zero gradient
(shown as zero) and then a constant negative
gradient (shown as a constant positive line).
D (ANS)

From Lenzs Law the induced field produced by
the coil must oppose the increasing external
magnetic field caused by the magnet moving
closer. The induced field must therefore be to
the right, towards the magnet.
From the RH grip rule, to get a magnetic field
that points out of the centre of the coil to the
right will require the current to flow anti-
clockwise when viewed from the magnet
towards the end of the coil.
The current through the external resistor will
thus flow from left to right.


As the magnet approaches the induced current
will increase to a maximum as the magnet
enters the coil, it will then be zero while the
magnet moves through the coil (it is assumed
that small magnet will not change the flux in
the coil). As the magnet exits the coil and
moves away this will result in a reduction of the
field within the coil and the induced current will
flow in the direction needed to try and maintain
the field, i.e. it will reverse.
Diagram A (ANS)


= BA
= 0.25 0.30 0.40
= 0.030 Wb (ANS)


1
T =
f
1
=
50
= 0.020 s

A rotation through 90
0
is
1
4
of a revolution,
which will take 0.005 s.
EMF
AVE
= -n

t

AVE
EMF =

n
t

=
0.030
20
0.0050

= 120 V (ANS)

The flux starts as a positive maximum, and
then decreases to zero. It will then vary
sinusoidally.
B (ANS)

EMF =
-n
t

The flux starts at a maximum, and then
decreases, so, according to Lenzs law, the
induced EMF (current) will oppose this change.
This means that the induced current would flow
from V to U to increase the flux.
The V vs t graph is the negative of the gradient
of the | vs t graph. The graph starts with a zero
gradient, and then the gradient becomes a
negative maximum. So the Induced EMF
should start from zero and go to a positive
maximum.
But this current flows from V to U initially,
unfortunately the question asks for current in
the direction from U to V, so it starts at zero
and goes to a negative maximum.
D (ANS)

When the rotation speed of the coil is
increased to 20 revolutions per second, the
output signal will change in two ways. The
period will halve and the amplitude will double.
The doubling of the amplitude is because the
emf is given by = - n
t
B
A
Au
and since At
has halved, the must double.

Examiners comment
Although most students realised the period had
to be halved, a significant number did not
realise the amplitude would be doubled.


Faradays law gives the size of the induced
EMF, while Lenzs law gives the direction of the
induced EMF and the direction of the induced
current.
Faradays law states that The magnitude of
the induced emf is directly proportional to the
rate of change of magnetic flux.
Faradays law is summarised as
=
B
n
t

Lenzs Law states that the direction of the
induced EMF is the same as that of a current
whose magnetic action would oppose the flux
change. This is the minus sign in the
equation.

Examiners comment
Explanations of Lenzs Law were often unclear.
Even when students knew that it had
something to do with the direction of the
induced EMF, their explanations were often
incorrect. A large number of students referred
to induced current rather than induced voltage.

Using = - n
B
t
, here the flux changes from
zero to a maximum in
1
2
sec .
(The loop is travelling at 4 cm s
-1
and it is 2 cm
wide, so it takes
1
2
sec to enter the field
completely.)

The field strength is 3.7 10
-3
T
The area is 2 cm 2 cm = 4 10
-4
m
2

= - n
B
t
,
= 1
-3 4 -
3.710 410
0.5

= 2.96 10
-7
V
= 3 10
-7
V (ANS)
Examiners comment
This was a challenging question. Calculating
the area of the loop in square metres proved to
be difficult for many students, but determining
the time interval was the real stumbling block.
Instead of calculating the time for the loop to
enter (or exit) the field, many used the time for
it to pass through the entire field.

When the switch is closed, there will be a
current in the primary coil circuit. The current
will change from zero to a constant value.
When the current is changing from zero to this
constant value, it will create a changing
magnetic field in the iron core.
This changing magnetic field will induce a
momentary current in the secondary coil and
hence in the milliammeter.
In the primary coil, the current is from right to
left through the switch.
This will create a North pole at the left hand
end of the iron core. To oppose this, the
induced current will create a North pole at the
extreme right hand end of the iron core. This
will lead to a current as shown below.

Therefore the momentarily induced current will
be from Y to X.
B (ANS)

Examiners comment
This question was not well done. Students
clearly had difficulty applying Lenzs law.

This question required you to state Lenzs law
and then apply it to this context.
Lenzs Law states that the direction of the
induced EMF is the same as that of a current
whose magnetic action would oppose the flux
change

This means that the current in the secondary
coil must be opposite to the current in the
primary coil.

When the current in the primary coil is
changing from zero to a constant value, it will
create a changing magnetic flux to the left.

This will be opposed by the induced current in
the secondary coil producing a changing
magnetic flux to the right.

To do this the current in the secondary coil
must be in the direction Y to X.

Examiners comment
Very few students were able to explain the
application of Lenzs law.

The emf graph will be produced from the
change in flux that the loop experiences. This
change only occurs as the loop enters the
magnetic field and as it exits the field. The emf
will be in the opposite direction as the loop
exits the magnetic field compared to when it
entered.
C (ANS)

First you need to calculate how much flux is in
the coil:
=BA
-3
=4.010 0.020.02
-6
=1.610 Wb

Now calculate the amount of time taken to exit
the magnetic field.
The loop is 2.0 cm wide and travelling at a
speed of 2.0 cm/s. So it will take the loop 1.0
seconds to exit the magnetic field.

To find the emf you now use:
=
t

-6
1.610
=
1.0

-6
=1.610 V

1.610
-6
V (ANS)

Examiners comments
The most common error made by students was
not converting (or incorrectly converting)
centimetre to metre. Other students incorrectly
worked out the time for the loop to exit the field.

The direction of the current can be found by
applying Lenzs law. The induced current in a
loop will be in the direction that will create a
flux that is in the opposite direction to the
change in flux that created the current.
Applying Lenzs law to the square loop, the
change in flux the loop experiences is having
the flux into the page being reduced. To
oppose that change the loop will generate a
current that puts some magnetic field back into
the page. For the loop to generate a field into
the page the current must flow from Q to P
through the square loop.

Examiners comments
Most students were able to quote Lenzs law
but many were unable to apply it to the specific
situation. Some quoted Lenzs law as opposing
the flux instead of the change in flux. Few
referred to the direction of the initial flux or its
change and others had the change in flux
going to the left or right. Another approach to
Lenzs law had an induced electromagnetic
force opposing the motion which caused it.
Students who employed this approach tried to
use the right hand slap rule to deduce the
direction of the current, but generally could not
successfully do so. It is possible that some
students did not read the question carefully and
gave the current direction through the external
ammeter instead of through the square loop.

Inside the loop the magnetic field is parallel to
the loop. Therefore there is not any flux
threading the loop.
0 (ANS)


Using the graph as setting the direction, the
gradient between 0 - 1 sec is a positive
constant, therefore the induced EMF will be a
negative constant. Between 1 - 2 sec, the
gradient is zero, therefore the induced EMF is
zero. Between 2 - 4 sec, the gradient is
negative and half the original, therefore the
induced EMF will be half the size and positive.

Therefore, you get

As the direction of positive is not defined the
graph could also look like the one below.

Examiners comments
It was important that the first voltage was about
twice that of the second; however, many
students missed this point.

Faradays Law was used to determine the size
of the relative voltages, and Lenzs law to give
the relative directions.

The original flux was from left to right. This flux
was decreasing. To oppose this change in flux,
the induced flux needed to try to reinforce the
changing flux, by adding to it. A current was
required from Q P to do this.

Examiners comment
Many students wrote about the induced flux
opposing the original flux rather than the
change in the original flux.

The device was now acting as a DC generator.
A (ANS)

As the coil rotates, the changing flux induces
an AC voltage. The commutator reverses the
connection every half cycle, converting this AC
to (varying) DC.

Examiners comments
Common errors included neglecting the
commutator.


The graph needed to show an increase to a
maximum over time, then a decrease to zero.
Followed by a mirror image in the negative
demonstrating what happened on the way out.
It was also possible to have a small flat section
in the middle (at zero).

The graph starts at zero, as the magnet moves
towards the loop, the number of south field
lines going through the loop increase, the
induced emf opposes this increase in flux. As
the loop feels the south field increasing, so it
will produce a north field to oppose this
increase. This north field is produced by a
positive emf.

When the magnet gets close to the loop, the
field lines going through the loop become
almost parallel, so there is not a significant
change in flux, so the opposing emf decreases
to zero.

emf
time

The reverse happens on the way out.
(You did not need to include any explanation,
and I wouldnt as it is very hard to put into
words).

Examiners comment
Most students realised that the polarity would
change after passing through the loop.
However, many drew square graphs above and
below the axis. If the flux was changing at a
constant rate, it would not suddenly commence
at an arbitrary distance from the loop.

The N-pole of the magnet is on the left. As the
magnet moves away from the loop, the
magnetic flux to the left decreases. The loop
feels the north field going through it,
decreasing.
Lenzs law says that the induced current will
oppose the change in flux.
Therefore an induced current flows
anticlockwise in the loop to produce magnetic
field to the left

Examiners comments
This question was very poorly done. Many
students wrote generalities about Lenzs law
instead of showing that they could apply their
understanding to this particular situation. It
should be noted that Lenzs law refers to the
change in flux, not just the flux. The EMF
induced results from a change in flux, not
simply a change in the magnetic field.

As the loop moves from position 2 to position 3,
the flux through it is decreasing. Therefore the
induced EMF is going to try to reinforce the
flux.
As viewed from the South pole, the current will
go from X to Y in the square loop, so that the
induced EMF is adding to the decreasing flux
from the North pole.

The maximum flux will occur when the coil is
perpendicular to the field.
B, F (ANS)

The galvanometer is connected to the coil via
slip rings. Therefore the output will be
sinusoidal.
E (ANS)

The split ring will reverse the direction of the
output every half cycle.
D (ANS)

The magnetic flux will vary sinusoidally as the
loop rotates.

It will start at a maximum value and drop to
zero ( a quarter of a cycle later) and then to an
identical negative maximum value (half a cycle
later). It will then return to zero and then back
to its original maximum value. (One complete
cycle)

The peak voltage is V
RMS
2
12 2 = 16.97
V
PEAK
= 17 V (ANS)

This is a step up transformer, with a turns ratio
of 20.
V
OUT RMS
= 12 20
V
OUT RMS
= 240 V (ANS)

Use P = VI
P = 12 1
= 12 W (ANS)

t

A changing current at the primary coil produces
an alternating B inside the soft iron core. The
secondary coil is linked to the primary through
the soft iron core. The changing B in the soft
iron core results in a changing flux in the
secondary coil. This changing flux induces an
EMF in the secondary coil.
The magnitude of the induced EMF is given by
Faradays Law
EMF
AVE
= -n
BA
t

Examiners comment
The main error was students not referring to
the changing current, field or flux. Some wrote
about the purpose of the transformer being to
increase or decrease voltage without
explaining how this was achieved.

The transformers in the transmission system
require AC. The alternator provides the AC,
changing the magnetic flux to induce an EMF
in the secondary. If the voltage produced is
constant (from a DC generator), then the
output of the transformer would be zero.

Therefore an alternator should be used rather
than a DC generator.

The power demand has increased but the
voltage at the alternator (P) remained the
same. Since P
supplied
= VI, the current supplied
had to increase.

This would lead to an increased current in the
power lines.

This would mean an increased voltage drop
along the lines, (V
drop
= IR).

Therefore a slightly lower voltage at the
primary of transformer 2.

Since the transformer has not changed, with a
lower voltage across the primary there will be a
lower voltage across the secondary.
B (ANS)

The alternator produces 250V
RMS
at 50 Hz.
The peak voltage will be 250 2 = 354 V. The
50 Hz means that the period is 0.02 sec.
B (ANS)

Examiners comment
The most common incorrect response was D;
presumably these students had assumed the
output of the alternator to be the peak value

This circuit can be considered as a 12V
RMS
AC
supply in series with three elements. Element 1
is a 2O resistor, element 2 is the transformer,
and element 3 is the second 2O resistor.

With a current of 0.50 A, each of the resistors
will lose 2 0.5 = 1 V across them.

The circuit will have a 12 V drop along it, so the
potential difference across the transformer
needs to be 10V.
The transformer ratio is 5:1, so the secondary
voltage will be
10
5
= 2V
The transformer is ideal, so
Power
IN
= Power
OUT

(VI)
IN
= (VI)
OUT

10 0.5 = 2 I
secondary

I
secondary
= 2.5 A

A
2
= 2.5 A
V
1
= 10V
V
2
= 2V (ANS)

Examiners comment
A considerable number of students had
difficulty with part ii., which involved voltage in
a series circuit.

Use
secondary
out
in primary
n
V
=
V n

out
V 150
=
20 600

V
out
= 5 V (ANS)


The constant voltage of the 20 V volt battery
will supply a constant current. Therefore there
will not be any change the flux. Therefore from
Faradays law there will not be an induced
EMF.

1
2
V
V
=
1
2
N
N

=
240
12

= 20 (20:1) (ANS)

P = VI
=
2
V
R

=
2
12
18

= 8.0 V (ANS)

The resistance of the wire is given by
16.0 2 0.050 = 1.6 O
(You need to include both wires, hence the
length is 16.0 2)
R
total
= 18.0 + 1.6
= 19.6O .
I =
V
R

=
12
19.6

= 0.6122
Using V = I R
= 0.6122 18
= 11.0 V (ANS)

Light 1: I
1
= 0.6122 A (as per question 6)
Light 2: I
2
=
12
18

= 0.6667 A
current through light 2 > current through light
1
Light 2 brighter (ANS)

P = VI
120 = 240 I
I = 0.5 A (ANS)

This system would only have worked if there
was no power loss in the wires. The voltage is
dropped down at the first transformer; this
increases the current in the wires.

The more current in the wires the more the
power loss there will be.

The relationship between power loss and
current is
2
loss
P =I R, so if the current increase
by a factor of 2 the power loss increases by 4.

There is also the effect on the voltage loss in
the wires
loss
V =IRthis means that at the
second transformer there is not a full 12 V. The
value will be lower so that after it is
transformed back then it will not be as high as
240 volts.

If the voltage supplied to the light globe is not
240 volts then the power dissipated in the light
globe will not be 120 Watts, it will be lower,
thus the light is not putting out as much light
energy per second, it will not work effectively.

2 2
1 1
V N
=
V N

2
240
V = 10
12

V
2
= 200 V (ANS)

As the transformers are ideal we know that
P
in
= P
out
If the voltage increases by a factor of 20, to
maintain the same power the current must
decrease by a factor of 20.
V
out
= 10
240
12
.
current
out
must be 8.3
12
240

= 0.415 A (ANS)

Determine the voltage loss because of the
wires.
The step down transformer supplies 12 V but
there is 10 volts at the step up transformer.
Therefore there is 2 volts lost across the wires.
Using
loss
V =IR, the current through the wires
was 8.3 A.
Using
loss
V
R=
I

2
R=
8.3

R = 0.24 (ANS)

If the resistance of the wires was lower, then
the voltage drop across them would decrease,
so the voltage across the globe would
increase.

If the transformer was 240:24, then the
voltage on the output side of the step
down transformer would be 24 volts.

To supply the power needed the current
would be smaller than if the transformer
was 240:6.

the smaller current means less power
loss due to i
2
r in the wires, a higher
voltage at the second transformer.
B and C (ANS)

Use:
2
V
P=
R

2
12
P=
3.0

P = 48 W (ANS)

Examiners comments
A significant number of students converted the
12 V
RMS
to V
PEAK
before substituting.

Combine the resistance of the wires to be
1.0 . The total resistance of the circuit would
be 4.0 .
Use:
1
1 S
T
R
V = V
R

1
3
V =12
4

V
1
= 9.0 V (ANS)

Examiners comments
It was apparent that basic circuit theory was
poorly understood by students.

First find the effective resistance of the two
light globes.
T 1 2
1 1 1
= +
R R R

T
1 1 1
= +
R 3 3

T
R =1.5
Those light globes are connected in series with
the 1.0 of the wires. So the effective
resistance of the circuit is 2.5 .
The current at point A will be found by using:
V
I =
R

12
I =
2.5

I = 4.8 A (ANS)

Examiners comments
Evaluating the effective resistance of the circuit
was beyond most students.

The output voltage of the generator is 500 V.
The potential drop across each line is given by
V = iR
V = 20 5
V = 100 V across each line.
The total of the potential drops of the circuit is
200 V

Therefore the voltage supplied to the lights is
500 200
= 300 V (ANS)


The step-up transformer increases the voltage
by a factor of 10. To deliver the same power (P
= VI) the current decreases by a factor of 10.
Therefore the new current is
20 10 = 2 A
The power loss in the lines is given by P
loss
=
i
2
R
P
loss
= 2
2
10
(Use the total resistance of the wires)
P
loss
= 40
P
loss
= 40 W (ANS)

With the step-up transformer in place the
current in the cables is 2.0 A.
The output voltage of the step-up transformer
is 5000 V.
The potential drop across each line is given by
V = iR
V = 2 5
V = 10 V across each line.
The total of the potential drops of the circuit is
20 V
Therefore the voltage supplied to the step-
down transformer is
5000 20 = 4980 V
The transformer steps this voltage down by a
factor of 10, so the output voltage of the step-
down transformer is
4980
10
= 498 V (ANS)

Example 260: (2000 Question 6 Electronics)
The period of this waveform is
T =
1
f

=
1
50

= 0.02s
= 20 ms.

The time from t
0
to t
1
is
1
2
a cycle, therefore
they are 10 ms apart.
10 ms (ANS)

Example 261: (2000 Question 7 Electronics)
This graph shows the peak voltage to be one
division high. Therefore each vertical division
must be 240 2 .
339V (ANS)
The question has 3 sig. figs. so it is appropriate
to use this many in your answer.

Using F = BiL,
we get B = 1.0 10
-4
,

i = 30 2 we need to use the peak value to
calculate the magnitude of the maximum force.

L = 1.0 m. this comes from the graph where the
vertical axis is force on one metre of wire.
F = 1.0 10
-4
30 2 x 1
= 4 10
-3
N
The force will be sinusoidal, because it varies
as the current.
B (ANS)

Examiners comment
Students found this question very difficult. They
had little concept of how the AC current related
to the question. It should be noted that the
question required students to show evidence
for their choice of answer. Without the relevant
information they did not obtain full marks.


Interactions of Light and Matter
Solutions

A The particle model gives the angle of
incidence = angle of reflection.
B Explains the inverse square law.
C True
D The particle model predicts that light will
travel faster in a refracting material.
A, B, C (ANS)

A True
B The wave model predicts that light will
travel slower in a refracting material.
C False
D True
A, D (ANS)

The particle model predicts that it will pass
straight through, whereas the wave model
suggests that the slit will act as a new point
source for the wave.
B (ANS)

Particles can explain B and C. A, E and F are
not relevant in this case.
Therefore the only wave property that cant be
explained by a particle, is diffraction. Sound will
diffract.
D (ANS)

The fact that sound travels at 300 m/s in air,
means that it cant be an EM radiation. All EM
radiations travel at the speed of light.
F (ANS)

This interference pattern is best explained from
the wave model. Waves from the two point
sources (the slits) will interfere with each other
at the screen. You will get bands of
constructive and destructive interference. A
path difference of
2
,
3
2
,
5
2
etc. will produce
nodal lines. (A dark band is due to destructive
interference). The bright central band will
always be a region where constructive
interference occurs.

Example 269: (2004 Pilot Question 10)
For a bright spot P2 - P1 = n
P2 - P1 = 6 632 10
-9

= 3.8 10
-6
m. (ANS)

Examiners comment
Some students misunderstood the prefix nano
in the unit for wavelength. Others were
confused about whether it was a node or
antinode and whether the path difference was
5, 6, 7, 5 or 6 .

Position Z is the second minimum, so the path
difference is 1.5.
So: PD = 1.5
PD = 1.5 3.0
PD = 4.5 cm (ANS)

Examiners comments
A common difficulty was the correct application
of the relationship (n ) .

The path difference at point Y is 1 wavelength,
this means that the peaks from source 1 meet
peaks from source 2, and troughs from sources
1 meet troughs from source 2. This means the
light will always constructively interfere at point
Y, so point Y will then be a point of maximum
intensity.

Examiners comments
Many students simply referred to the path
difference as being an integral number of
wavelengths, instead of applying their
understanding to the specifics of the question.
Others incorrectly referred to the path
difference in terms of the distance measured
along PQ from point W.


Reducing the separation of the slits will result
in the distance between adjacent maxima and
minima increasing. The width of the maxima
and minima will increase. The distance
between the maxima and minima points along
PQ will increase.

The path length from both slits is the same.
Therefore the path difference is zero. This
results in constructive interference, hence a
bright central region.
Thelma is correct (ANS)

Let us assume that the bright central maximum
is in the middle of the diagram.
This means that the path difference to B is
3
2

and the path difference to A is
5
2
.

5
2
-
3
2
=

= 496 nm
= 496 nm (ANS)

The energy of each photon is given by
hf or
hc
.
E =
34 8
9
6.63 10 3 10
612 10

= 3.25 10
-19

If the energy output of the laser is 5.0 x 10
-3

J/s, then it must emit
3
19
5.0 10
3.25 10

= 1.54 10
16
photons per second (ANS)

With the new wavelength, 2 must be the same
as 1 in the original wavelength.
2
new
= 1.5 612

new
= 459 nm (ANS)

V
E=
d

-3
10000
E=
310

E = 3.3 10
6
V m
-1
(ANS)

Work done = qV
-19
=1.610 10000
-15
=1.610 J (ANS)

The work done, or change in KE is given by
AKE = qV, when q is in coulombs and V in
volts. Since it is an electron being accelerated:
AKE = eV
= 1.6 10
-19
10 10
3

= 1.6 10
-15
J (ANS)
(Remember the voltage is 10 kV =10 10
3
V)

The light intensity is constant. Therefore once
the collector is positive in relation to the
emitter, all the electrons will travel across.
Increasing the potential, wont impact on this
current, as the current is dependent on the
intensity of the light (constant).
B (ANS)

The incident energy of the photon is dependent
on its frequency. The higher the frequency the
greater the energy of the photon, so the more
energy if has to give to the electron. Therefore
the electron will be able to do more work
against the voltage. It will always take some
energy to release an electron.
D (ANS)

It is the work function, which is also the y-
intercept. It is a property of the metal.
A (ANS)


The stopping potential (from the graph) is
1.5 V.
This means that the maximum KE of the
ejected electrons is 1.5 1.6 10
-19

2.4 10
-19
J (ANS)

The intensity of the light source does not
change the energy of the incident photons. It
only increases the number of photons hitting
the surface. So the energy of the ejected
electrons will not change. The electron absorbs
the energy from a single photon. The energy of
the incident photon is given by E = hf. For a
single colour the energy remains constant, it is
independent of the intensity.
The energy of the ejected photon is given by
KE = hf W. Since this all stays the same, this
means that they will still be able to do the same
amount of work against the potential difference.
Hence the voltage that stops them will remain
the same.

From your definitions, the gradient of this graph
is Plancks constant
C (ANS)

The minimum amount of energy required to
remove an electron is the work function. i.e. the
y-intercept.
6 x 10
-19
J (ANS)

k is Plancks constant. Therefore it doesnt
change. The slope of graph for the different
metals will have the same gradient but different
y-intercepts.
C (ANS)

You need to read the axis on this graph very
carefully.
From the graph at the beginning of this set of
questions, if the frequency is 12 x 10
14
Hz, then
magnesium will emit electrons.
If the intensity starts from zero and increases,
then electrons will be emitted as soon as the
intensity is above zero.
A (ANS)

Figure D shows the gradients all to be the
same.
D (ANS)

To produce photoelectric emission, you need
light with more energy for the platinum. More
energy implies higher frequency hence shorter
wavelength.
B (ANS)

The platinum has a larger work function,
therefore it takes more energy to release an
electron.
C (ANS)

If the intensity of the light is doubled, the
number of incoming photons is doubled, so the
number of collisions will double. This means
that the number of electrons ejected, hence the
current, will double.
The energy of the photon has not changed so
the cut-off voltage V
0
will remain the same.
B (ANS)

The higher frequency will give the ejected
electrons more energy, therefore the negative
cut-off voltage will become more negative.
As the same number of photons are coming in,
the number of collisions hence the current will
remain constant.
D (ANS)

Doubling the intensity of the light, will increase
the current, but this graph is showing the KE vs
f. This will not alter when the intensity is
doubled. Therefore the graph will be identical.
A (ANS)


Replacing the potassium with another metal
will alter the work function only. The gradient of
the lines must remain the same.
C and E (ANS)

The work function is also given by E = hf
0
.
E = 4.1 10
-15
5.0 10
14

E = 2.05 eV (ANS)

The energy of the incoming photon is given by
E = hf,
E
photon
= 4.1 x 10
-15
x 7.0 x 10
14

E
photon
= 2.87 eV
The electron loses 2.05 eV escaping from the
surface, therefore the
KE = 2.87 2.05
= 0.82 eV (ANS)

The work function is given by either
W = hf
0
or by extrapolating the graph back to
the vertical axis.
Using W = hf
0
gives
W =6.63 10
-34
5.5 10
14

= 3.65 10
-19

= 3.7 10
-19
J (ANS)

Extrapolating the graph, gives an answer of
3.7 or 3.8.

This would give a work function of either 3.7
10
-19
J or 3.8 10
-19
J. As long as you had
shown your working, by drawing the
extrapolation on the graph, either would have
been correct. But you do need to be careful
when doing this.
The examiners accepted values in the range
of (3.5 3.9) 10
-19
J.
The cut-off frequency, from graph, was 5.5
10
14
Hz. The wavelength is given by c = f.
Where c = 3.0 10
8
.
So =
c
f

=
8
14
310
5.510

= 5.45 10
-7

545 nm
Sodium (ANS)

Example 300: (2006 Question 2, 70%


Y
Y
N
N
Frequency
10
14
Hz
S
t
o
p
p
i
n
g

v
o
l
t
a
g
e

(
V
)

6 7 8

Examiners comments
Common mistakes made by students included
failing to label the axes with the physical
quantity and unit, not clearly identifying the
plotted points and poor selection of scales on
axes. Many students did not recognise which
were the dependent and independent variables
and had the axes interchanged from the normal
convention. Students who did not commence
the frequency axis at zero or had a break in the
scale of the frequency axis had problems
determining the work function from the vertical
intercept. It was surprising how many students
managed to draw four different lines that were
sometimes parallel or crisscrossing.

From the gradient of the graph will give you
Plancks constant in eVs. The gradient is:
rise
h=
run

14
1.5- 0
h=
(8- 5)10

-15
h=5.010 eVs (ANS)

Examiners comments
Students were able to determine Plancks
constant either from the gradient of the graph
or by substitution into the equation EK = hf
W.
Taking the value of 4.1 10
-15
from the data
sheet was not awarded any marks.

Use the graph again and find the y intercept,
this was around -2.5 Volts. This means the
work function of the metal is:
2.5 eV (ANS)

Examiners comments
Students who had not correctly graphed the
data in Question 6 struggled with this question.
Students are reminded that when the question
specifically states the unit in which the answer
is to be given, alternatives are not acceptable.

Due to the photoelectric effect
photoelectrons are ejected from the metal.
They exit the metal with a range of kinetic
energies.
The collector electrode is connected to the
negative side of the battery, this negative
bias means that the photoelectrons need
to do work to reach it.
The photoelectrons lose kinetic energy as
they travel from the metal plate (emitter)
to the collector electrode.
As the voltage increases the number of
photoelectrons with enough kinetic energy
to reach the collector electrode decrease,
therefore the current decreases.
Eventually the increased voltage is such
that not even the photoelectron with the
maximum kinetic energy can reach the
collector electrode. So the current
becomes zero.
This is the point X on the graph.

Examiners comments
Most students did not mention the
electron energy.

The particle model predicts that increasing the
intensity, will increase the number of incident
photons, but the photons will still have the
same energy. Therefore the photons will not
have sufficient energy to release an electron
from the metal surface. Therefore the will not
be any current.
The wave model predicts that increasing the
intensity will increase the energy to a level to
eject photoelectrons.

KE
max
= hf W
KE = 4.14 10
-15
7.50 10
14
2.28
KE = 0.825 eV (ANS)

If the photoelectrons have a KE of 0.825 eV,
then it will take 0.825 V to stop them.
0.825 V (ANS)


The energy of a photon is given by
E =
hc
.
the energy of each photon
=
-34 8
-9
6.63 10 310
640 10

= 3.1 10
-19
J (ANS)

The energy of a photon is given by
E =
hc
.
the energy of each photon
=
-34 8
-9
6.63 10 310
640 10

= 3.1 10
-19
J

To make a beam of 1.0 mW, you
need 1.0 10
-3
Joules every second.
1.0 10
-3
= n 3.1 10
-19
J
n = 1.0 10
-3
3.1 10
-19
J
= 3.2 10
15
photons per second.

The momentum of a photon with wavelength
2.0 10
-7
m is:
p =
h

=
-34
-7
6.63 10
2.0 10

= 3.3 10
-27
Ns (ANS)

Use p =
h

=
-34
-10
6.63 10
1.4 10

4.7 10
-24
Ns (ANS)

A wider slit produces a narrower pattern. Since
the spacing between the fringes is inversely
proportional to the width of the gap.
B (ANS)

Examiners comment
It was disappointing that fewer than half of the
students were able to apply the simple
relationship required to determine the answer.
This may be related to the apparent confusion
over diffraction patterns mentioned in the
previous question.

The de Brglie wavelength is given by
p =
h
=
h
mv

The momentum of the electrons is given by p =
mv
= 9.1 10
-31
1.0 10
7

= 9.1 10
-24
Ns
=
-34
-24
6.63 10
9.110

= 7.3 10
-11
m (ANS)

Use the equations for particles here, not those
associated with photons. This is because the
electron has mass, and cannot travel at the
speed of light.
The work done, or change in KE is given by
AKE = qV
= 1.6 10
-19
10 10
3

= 1.6 10
-15
J
1.6 10
-15
=
1
2
mv
2

1
2
9.1 10
-31
v
2
= 1.6 10
-15

v = 5.93 10
7
m s
-1

=
h
mv

=
-34
-31 7
6.63 10
9.1 10 5.9310

= 1.2 10
-11
m (ANS)


The deBrglie wavelength is given by
=
h
mv

=
-34
6.610
0.230

= 1.1 10
-34
m.

The amount of diffraction is given by the ratio
of
d
. Using d ~ 8cm, the amount of diffraction
is negligible.

To actually answer the question, you need to
say that you could not see the wave nature of
the ball because the wavelength was too small
to observe and that the diffraction was so
negligible that it also couldnt be observed.

The most difficult part to this question is
identifying what it is asking. This is a question
on diffraction comparing the effects of light
and electrons.

The poorer quality of the optical image when
compared with the image from the electron
microscope is caused by the greater
diffraction of the photons than the electrons.
I.e. the sharper the image, the less the
diffraction, as the rays are travelling in straight
lines, so we get a sharp image.

Assume that the electrons are moving quite
fast, giving them their longest wavelength,
then typically the wavelength would be of the
order of 10
-11
m.

The wavelength of light is typically 10
-7
m.

electrons
<<
photons
.

The scale of the diagram, shown in the bottom
right hand corner is 25m. This means that
the wavelength of the light is similar to the
width of sections of organism.

of
d
, so the electrons are much less likely to
diffract, therefore this image will be clearer.

This is a standard interference pattern, and this
can best be explained if we treat the source as
a wave. The photons bend as they go through
the slit. The photons do not continue to travel in
the original straight line.
The amount of spreading depends on the ratio
w
. If
w
1, then the diffraction pattern
spreads through 180
0
. This pattern occurs
when there is only one photon at a time (Taylor
proved this) or when there are many photons. It
is a property of individual photons.

The momentum of the electron
m v = 9.1 10
-31
2.0 10
7

= 1.82 10
-23

Using p =
h

=
-34
-23
6.63 10
1.82 10

= 3.64 10
-11
m (ANS)

Examiners comment
Some students made arithmetical or calculator
errors. Others used the wrong Plancks
constant. A number of students used 3 10
8

as the speed of the electron.

The wavelength of the electrons is 250 pm.
Using p =
h

p =
-34
-12
6.63 10
250 10

= 2.65 10
-24
kg m/s (ANS)

Examiners comment
A common error was using the wrong value for
Plancks constant. Other students assumed
that the energy of the electrons must equal that
of the X-rays.
Still others used p = mv, assuming the speed
of the electron was 3 10
8
m/s.


of
w
.
There is diffraction when
w
~ 1.
In this case
w
=
-10
-10
2.0 10
3.010

= 0.67
There will be significant diffraction

Examiners comment
Many students confused the diffraction
requirements from the Detailed study Sound
with what is necessary to form a useful
diffraction pattern in this topic.

Since the two patterns are the same, both the
X-rays and the electrons must have the same
momentum.

Find the momentum of the X-rays and
then use
2
k
p
E =
2m
to convert to energy.

Momentum of X-rays.

de Broglie wavelength
-34
-9
h
=
p
h
p =
6.6310
=
0.2010
-24
= 3.31510 Ns

2
k
-24 2
-31
-18
-18
-19
p
E =
2m
(3.31510 )
=
29.110
= 6.0410 J
6.0410
= eV
1.610
= 37.7 eV

So energy is 37.7 eV (ANS)

As the pattern remains the same, the
momentum of the photon must be the same as
the momentum of the electron.

p
electron
= mv
= 9.1 10
-31
1.5 10
5

= 1.365 10
-25
.

For the photon, E = pc
E = 4.095 10
-17
J

Convert to eV by dividing by 1.6 10
-19

E = 256 eV (ANS)

Example 323: 2004 Sample Question 11
Each dotted line has 3 wavelengths around the
circumference and hence it is the n = 3 level.

Electrons have a de Brglie wavelength.
When the atom has stable energy levels, these
electrons only exist in states where a standing
wave is formed around the nucleus.

This only allows specific wavelengths, as the
path needs to be multiples of the de Brglie
wavelength.

This means that only specific energies
(associated with the wavelength) exist.

Examiners comment
A diagram could have been used to explain
most of this question. While not an easy
concept, students understanding of the
meaning of the standing wave for electrons in
stable states within atoms was weak.

Electrons orbit the nucleus of the atom in
circular paths. For this path to continue to exist,
it must be exactly the length to allow a circular
standing wave to exist.
The circumference of these standing waves
must be an exact multiple of an electrons
wavelength. Therefore only particular
wavelengths can exist, this means that the
wavelengths are quantised.
The energy level of the electron is given by
hc


This means that the energy levels (which are
dependent on the wavelength) are also
quantised.

The photoelectron has 30.4 eV, it took 10.4 eV
to ionise (release the electron), so the photon
must have had 40.8 eV
40.8 eV (ANS)

This graph is a little different to the common
one, here the ground state has been assigned
a negative value.
n = 1 (ANS)

It needs to reach 0 eV
13.6 eV (ANS)

It is easiest to draw them on the diagram.
The paths to ground state are
3
rd
to 2
nd
to 1
st
to ground
3
rd
to 2
nd
to ground
3
rd
to ground
3
rd
to 1
st
to ground

D (ANS)

Since E = hf, the highest frequency will occur
when the change in E is greatest. Therefore
from the 3
rd
to ground
12.7 = 4.135 10
-15
f
f = 3.07 10
15
Hz (ANS)

Use: E
photon
=
hc

Where is given as 497 nm.
E
photon
=
-15 8
-9
4.1410 3.010
49710
.
2.5 eV. (ANS)

The difference between two energy levels
needs to be 2.5eV.
Difference between
0.9 and 3.4 = 2.5 eV.
To get full marks the arrow had to be pointing
down. The emission is a result of a change
from a higher energy level to a lower energy
level, i.e. heading back to ground state.

The energy difference from the first excited
state to ground state is 3.4 eV
Using E =
hc
, so
=
hc
E

=
-15 8
4.14 10 3 10
3.4

= 3.65 10
-7

= 3.7 10
-7
m (ANS)

Examiners comment
Common errors included using the wrong
energy (1.8 from the previous question) or
using one of the formulae that apply to matter
and not photons.


Hydrogen exists in the atmosphere of the sun
and the earth.
As light travels from the sun to the earth, this
hydrogen can absorb light.
The frequencies of the absorbed light are
related to the difference between any two
energy levels of the hydrogen atoms.
These photons are re-emitted in all directions,
so they dont all make it to Earth.
Thus the light reaching the earth will have a
reduced amount of those absorbed frequencies
and dark lines appear in the spectrum of light
from the sun.
Examiners comment
It was very common for students to attempt to
explain the dark lines in terms of destructive
interference.

Use
hc
=
E

-15 8
4.1410 310
=
12.8

=97nm (ANS)

Examiners comments
It was common for students to have the
transition energy as 0.7 eV, perhaps thinking
that the smallest wavelength corresponded to
the smallest energy. Other common mistakes
were using the wrong Plancks constant or
incorrectly converting metres to nanometres.
Some students assumed the mass of a photon
was 9.1 10
-31
kg and used equations which
apply to matter.

Electrons exhibit wavelike properties. As they
orbit the nucleus they must form standing
waves. This means that only whole numbers of
wavelengths can exist. i.e the wavelength is
quantised.
The energy of the electron is given by E =
hc
,
therefore the energy levels are also quantised,
hence only certain energy levels are stable.


Recording and reproducing sound
solutions

Pick any point on the diagram, then find out
how far it has moved in the +x direction in the
next 0.10 sec.
Choose the crest, initially at 3 cm.
This crest moves 2 cm (to a position of 5cm).
v =
2
0.1

v = 20 cm/s (ANS)

Use v = f.
From the diagram, the wavelength is 8 cm.
20 = f 8
f = 2.5 Hz (ANS)

It might also be possible that instead of the
wave crest moving 2 cm, it might have moved
10 cm.
v =
10
0.1

v = 100 cm/s (ANS)

This is a travelling wave, so the point P is
about to move down, because in the next
instant, when the wave has moved to the right
a little bit, the point P will have moved down a
little bit.
E (ANS)

The velocity of the point Q is initially a
maximum positive value. A quarter of a period
later, the point Q is at the top of the wave
disturbance, hence its velocity will be zero. It
will then move downwards so its velocity will be
negative. The velocity function will be
sinusoidal.
B (ANS)

For this wave, which is a longitudinal
representation, it is best to try and find the
distance between adjacent compressions.
Ignore the end of the wave train near the hand
and work with the rest. It looks like there were
4 compressions between 28 and 88 cm. These
4 compressions correspond to 3 wavelengths,
(count them on the diagram). Be careful with
this diagram, the horizontal axis does not have
zero where the wave begins.
=
88 28
3

=
60
3

= 20 cm (ANS)
(19 - 21 cm was acceptable)

Make sure that you read this question carefully;
they want non-MKS units for the answer. This
was actually designed to make it easier for you.
So v = f = 4 20
v = 80 cm/s (ANS)

The time delay was given by
1.70
340
= 0.005 secs.
Starting with elimination of the incorrect
answers. B and D were out with the timing. The
distance of the microphone is 1.7 m away from
the speaker, therefore a full wave would fit
inside the gap. (or it wont start reading until
0.005 seconds) . The speaker would normally
start at its mean or central position and
produce either a compression or rarefaction as
its first movement.
A (ANS)

Sound is a longitudinal wave. The speaker
creates pressure variations which travel away
from the speaker as a longitudinal wave. There
is no net displacement of the medium. The dust
particle will only move horizontally back and
forwards about its mean position.
D (ANS)


Example 346: 2009 Question 4
In a quarter of a period, the wave will travel one
quarter of a wavelength to the right.
Therefore the initial pressure maximum will
have moved to 0.5 m.
B (ANS)

If the horizontal scale is 1 division = 100 s,
then the number of divisions between cycles is
6.
The period is 5 100 s = 5 10
-4
s.
Frequency =
1
T

=
-4
1
510

= 2000 Hz
= 2 kHz (ANS)

If the distance is doubled the intensity is
quartered.
I
new
=
100
4

= 25 mWm
-2
(ANS)

Example 349: (2004 Question 3, 64%
Each time the intensity is halved, the sound
level drops by 3dB.
means
= -6dB (ANS)

Using v = f
=
v
f

=
340
476

= 0.71 m (ANS)

64 = 10 log
0
I
I

where I
0
= 1 10
-12
6.4 = log
-12
I
110

-12
I
110
= 10
6.4

I = 10
6.4
1 10
-12

I = 10
-5.6

I = 2.5 10
-6
W m
-2
(ANS)

If the distance is increased by a factor of 4
(8 m compared with 2 m) then the intensity
must be
4
1
2
=
1
16
.
Each change of
1
2
means a -3dB change
a change of
1
16
will be a 12dB change.
64 - 12
52 dB
D (ANS)

The role of the baffle board, (the box) is to
minimise the interaction (interference)
between the wave produced at the front of the
speaker and the wave produced at the rear of
the speaker.

Sound from the back and front of the speaker
are out of phase. When a compression is
produced at the front of a speaker a rarefaction
is produced at the back. If this rarefaction was
to diffract and travel into the space in front,
then destructive interference would be
possible.

L (in dB) = 10 log
0
I
I

where I = 4 10
-3
and I
0
= 1 10
-12
L = 10 log
-3
-12
4.010
110

L = 10 log 4.0 10
9

= 10 9.602
= 96 dB (ANS)


This is testing your knowledge of the inverse
square law. If P is 4 times the distance of Q
from the source then the intensity will be
(
1
4
)
2
=
1
16
of the original.
So the new intensity will be
0.0040/16
0.0040
16

= 2.5 10
-4
W/m
2
(ANS)

The graph shows that the minimum threshold
frequency for the ear is 4000 Hz, so the
frequency of the siren was chosen at 4000 Hz
because it is the frequency that the ear is most
sensitive too. Because of this sensitivity we can
hear this frequency at very low intensities.

As a wave travels away from its source the
intensity drops of as
2
1
r
and so for a signal to
be heard at great distances it either needs to
be very powerful or at the frequency that the
ear is most responsive to.

2
1 2
2
2
1
I R
=
I
R

2 -8
2
-8 2
R 9.010
=
2.2510 10

2
2
R = 4100
2
R = 400
R
2
= 20 m (ANS)
Alternatively, the new intensity is
1
4
of the
original, so the distance will be twice the
original. 20m

1
2
I
dB=10Log
I
| |
|
\ .

-8
-8
910
dB =10Log
2.2510
| |
|
|
\ .

( ) dB =10Log 4
dB=100.60
dB = 6 dB (ANS)

Alternatively, if the distance has doubled then
the intensity must change by a factor

2
1
2
=
1
4
.
Each change of
1
2
means a -3dB change
a change of
1
4
will be a 6dB change.

The Intensity =
power
area

The area is the surface area of a sphere
= 4r
2

I =
2
100
4r

=
2
100
4100

= 8.0 x 10
-4
Wm
-2

C (ANS)

Balloon C is twice as far away as balloon B, so
the intensity will be
2
1
2
=
1
4
. As the intensity
halves, the sound level drops by 3dB. As the
new intensity is
1
4
, the level will have dropped
by 3dB then another 3dB.
6dB (ANS)

L (in dB) = 10 log
0
I
I

where I = 1 x 10
-2
and I
0
= 1 x 10
-12

L = 10 log
-2
-12
110
110

= 10 log
10
10
10

= 100 dB (ANS)


The reflection is from a fixed end, therefore it
will have the same shape and it will be
inverted.
D (ANS)

The distance between adjacent maxima (or
nodes) for a standing wave is .
= 1.57 1.27
= 0.30 m (ANS)

Use v = f
v = 1000 0.3
v = 300 m s
-1
(ANS)
(Check that this is a reasonable answer.)

The maximum position of the pulse hasnt
reached P yet, so P is moving up.
C (ANS)

Since it is a standing wave at its maximum
displacement, everywhere on the spring is
momentarily stationary.
E (ANS)

In a standing wave, the nodes remain
stationary. Therefore G, H, J could all exist
G, H, J (ANS)

From the formula v = f , the lowest
frequency will occur when the wavelength is
longest.
340 = f 0.864
f = 394 Hz (ANS)

The wavelengths must be the same, because
the nodes and antinodes need to be in the
same positions for resonance to occur.
Because the velocity has increased by 10%
then the frequencies will also increase to
compensate and to keep the equation v = f
correct.
The other way to think about this is that the
wavelengths are given by the relationship
= 4L, 4L/3, 4L/5 etc. they do not depend on
velocity.
The frequencies are given by f =
nv
4L
, which
does depend on the velocity, so the
frequencies will vary if you vary the velocity.

Constructive interference (from the waves
reflected from both ends of the pipe) will
produce a standing wave. This standing wave
will be louder.
As the driving frequency gets closer to the
natural frequency of the pipe, the sound
produced by the pipe will get louder.

The resonance will look like:

With an antinode in the middle.
This means that the point P will fluctuate
between a pressure maximum to a pressure
minimum.

If the fundamental frequency is 385 Hz, then
the period will be 2.6 ms.
A (ANS)


First harmonic (fundamental frequency) looks
like this,

1
= 4L f
1
=
v
4L

500 =
340
4L

L =
340
4500

L = 0.17 cm (ANS)

Since the pipe is open at one end, you will get
the 3
rd
harmonic and the 5
th
harmonic as the
first two overtones. This will be at frequencies
of 3f
1
and 5f
1
.
1500 Hz and 2500 Hz.
B, E (ANS)

The vocal cords are being modelled as a pipe
closed at one end, so the pressure variation
looks like B.

For a pipe open at both ends, the
fundamental frequency is given by
f
1
=
v
2L

510 =
340
2L

L =
340
2510

= 33 cm (ANS)

For a pipe open at both ends, the
fundamental frequency is given by
f
1
=
v
2L

756 =
340
2L

L =
340
2756

= 0.22cm
0.22 =
2
3
0.3
C (ANS)

For a pipe closed at one end the
fundamental is given by

1
= 4L
f
1
=
v
4L

510 =
340
4L

L =
340
4510

= 0.167m
0.167 =
1
2
0.33
D (ANS)

For a pipe closed at one end the
fundamental is given by

1
= 4L
f
1
=
v
4L

160 =
320
4L

L = 0.5m
B (ANS)

For a tube opened at one end the resonant
frequencies are odd multiples of the
fundamental.
So the possibilities were:
3f
1
= 480 Hz and 5f
1
= 800 Hz.
(7f
1
= 1120 Hz which is above the 1000 Hz
limit.)
480 Hz, 800 Hz (ANS)

N N N N N A A A A A
L

In a pipe organ the air column not only
produces the fundamental frequency, but many
of the overtones above it, each of which will
have a higher frequency, (odd harmonics for
closed pipes).
While the fundamental frequency was 2000 Hz,
these higher harmonics would exist. These
affect the quality of the sound heard. Hence a
microphone with a much higher frequency
response is needed to record the higher
harmonics.

Examiners comment
While the fundamental frequency was 2000 Hz,
higher harmonics would exist. These affect the
quality of the sound heard. Responses
generally failed to address the presence of
overtones.


Microphone type
Principle of
operation
dynamic
electromagnetic
induction
crystal piezoelectric effect
Electret-
condenser
capacitance

These should be definitions that you either
know or are on your cheat sheet.

The role of the baffle board, (the enclosure) is
to minimise the interaction (interference)
the speaker. Sound from the back and front of
the speaker are out of phase. When a
compression is produced at the front of a
speaker a rarefaction is produced at the back.
If this rarefaction was to diffract and travel into
the space in front, then partial cancellation
would be possible. The baffle board prevents
the sound from the back of the speaker cones
cancelling the sound from the front.

Examiners comment
Very few students referred to the sound
produced at the front and back being out of
phase. Many thought the baffle amplified the
sound by increasing the area of vibration.

The role of the baffle board, (the box) is to
minimise the interaction (interference)
the speaker.
Sound from the back and front of the speaker
are out of phase. When a compression is
produced at the front of a speaker a rarefaction
is produced at the back. If this rarefaction was
to diffract and travel into the space in front,
then destructive interference would be
possible.

Examiners comment
A common misconception was that the
rearward sound wave was reflected from the
back of the box, became in phase and then
constructively interfered with the front wave.

The flat response gives the truest replication
from the microphone (fidelity). For fidelity of
reproduction you need the flattest curve
possible. The curve is very flat between 200Hz
and 3000Hz. This region corresponds to the
majority range of the human voice.

Examiners comment
This question was poorly answered. Very few
students referred to the linear (or flat) response
of the microphone. Many made reference to it
as a speaker, perhaps straight from their note
sheet.

The sound level will be 12dB below the sound
level for 1000Hz. A drop of 3dB means the
intensity. So the intensity will drop by a factor
of 2 2 2 2 down to 6.25 mWm
-2
.

Alternative method is
L (in dB) = 10 log
0
I
I

-12 = 10 log
0
I
I


-1.2 = log
-1
I
10

= log 10 I
10 I = 10
-1.2

10 I = 0.063
I = 0.0063 Wm
-2
(ANS)

The amplitude of the sound will drop of as
2
1
r
.
Therefore graph A
A (ANS)

The best response was in the high frequency
range. Above 20 000 Hz, is not that important,
because very few people can actually hear
these frequencies.
D (ANS)

A loudspeaker is omni-directional, (i.e. it
radiates sound energy spherically in all
directions). The amount of diffraction
(spreading) depends on the ratio
w
. The
higher the frequency (shorter wavelength) the
less diffraction away from the centre line that
occurs. Hence the fidelity will deteriorate as the
listener moves off the centre line. It would be
more satisfactory if the high frequency sound is
from a loud-speaker with a smaller diameter (a
tweeter).
Using different speaker sizes for different
frequency ranges would ensure that
comparable spreading will occur across all
frequencies.
The bending (spreading) of sound is called
diffraction. Make sure that when you do this
question your technique is right. (Did you look
at the options before you thought about the
answer? You shouldn't have, if you did, you
just made the question more difficult by
introducing some doubt).
D (ANS)

You need to explain the following 4 points
- Longer wavelengths (lower frequencies)
diffract by a greater amount and spread out
more than shorter wavelengths.
- Shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies)
diffract less and therefore are more directional.
- The amount of diffraction is proportional to
the ratio of wavelength to doorway size for the
concert hall.
- So someone directly in front of the opening
will hear a mixture of high and low frequencies;
i.e. 'good' quality sound. Someone located
towards the edges of the doorway will hear
mainly low frequency sounds; i.e. 'poor' quality
sound.

You need to use the equation v = f , to
determine v for sound in this situation. You then
use this information in the same equation to
find the wavelength of the
10 000 Hz sound.

v = f
v = 200 1.65 m
= 330 m/s.

You need to make sure that your answer
makes sense. You would expect that the speed
of sound is 330 m/s.

Use v = f , again, to find the wavelength.
330 = 10 000
=
330
10000

= 0.033 m
You should be careful with sig. figs here, so the
answer is best written as
3.3 10
-2
m (ANS)


To gain full marks you had to show some
calculations, if you only spoke in general terms
then you lost at least one mark.
Speaker sizes Frequency Wavelengths
P 35 cm 200 Hz 165 cm
Q 5 cm 10 000 Hz 3.3 cm

The reason that Michelle hears the 10 000 Hz
sound much softer is due to diffraction.
Diffraction is the spreading out of sound and
the amount of diffraction is given by the ratio of
w
. When the ratio
w
= 1, then the diffraction
is said to be complete, and the sound spreads
out through an angle of 180
0
.
For speaker P the ratio of
w
for 200 Hz =
165
35
= 4.7 which is >> 1
the sound spreads out.
For speaker P ratio of
w
for 10 000 Hz =
3.3
35

= 0.09 which is << 1
the sound does not spread out.

For speaker Q the ratio of
w
for 200 Hz =
165
5
= 33 which is >> 1
the sound spreads out.
For speaker Q ratio of
w
for 10 000 Hz =
3.3
5
= 0.66 which is < 1
the sound only spreads out a little.
You also need to link this theory with the
practical, so:
Because Michelle is not in front of the speaker,
she will not hear the high frequency sound from
the larger speaker, because it doesnt diffract
very much and so will be soft if you are not in
front of the speaker.

So for the 200 Hz signal, the sound is evenly
distributed, but for the 10 000 Hz signal the
sound is very directional from the larger
speaker.

The sound will reflect off the walls in many
different directions and this will lead to many
paths for the sound to reach people from the
one speaker. This will then lead to interference
in some parts of the theatre.
D (ANS)
Examiners comments
Without sound-absorption devices on the walls,
sound could reach members of the audience
directly from the speakers and also by
reflection from the walls. The sound would
interfere and cause distortion. Note that
different frequencies will not reflect differently
from the walls.

The amount of diffraction (spreading of the
sound) is given by
d
, where d is the width of
the speaker.

Therefore, the narrower the speaker, (System
A) the more diffraction, which will enable
people all over the oval to hear the sound.

System B, will give a more directional sound,
out the front of the system.

(You may also want to contemplate how
awkward a speaker 0.10 m high and 3.2 m long
would be to use in a practical sense)
A (ANS)

7 Solutions 2014 With Sound

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au Physics revision 2014 248

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