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EduCAT 2009/MC-01 1 Contact: 09880031619

SECTION I


1) Considering all 2-digit natural numbers, how many values of y do not satisfy the equation |7x-5y|=3,
given that x and y are positive integers
a) 60 b) 65 c) 73 d) 48 e) 77
Answer=option (b)
Let us first look at the conventional approach, which is a shortcut in itself, if you use the Chinese remainder
theorem
7x-5y=+3 =>
7x=5y +3 ----------------(1)
and
7x+3 =5y-----------------(2)

Solving equation 1, we get the first integral value for y, at which x is an integer at y=5. values of y will increase in
steps of 7(the coefficient of x). The next few values of y satisfying the equation will be
5,12,19..96
Number of terms =13 (considering 2 digit numbers)

Solving equation 2, we get the first integral value for y at y=2. values of y will increase in steps of 7. hence the
second AP will be
2, 9, 16, 23.. 93
Number of terms = 12 (considering 2 digit numbers)

Number of values of y which satisfy this equation =25
Therefore, Number of values which do not satisfy this equation= 90 25=65. answer is option (b)

Shortcut:
We know that there are 90 2 digit numbers.
The values which satisfy for y form an AP with a common difference =7(the coefficient of x).
Hence, the number of terms in that AP =90/7 *2 =24 or 25; since there are two APs.
The answer has to be either 90- 24 =66 or 90-25=65. answer is option (b)


2) Find the number of integral values of x at which f(x) will be minimum if
f(x) =x-1+x-2+x-3+x-4+x-5+.x-100
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) >4
Option (b)
Using the pattern in the previous question we know that f(x) will be minimum when middle term becomes zero.
Here there are two middle terms i.e x-50 andx-51

F(x) will be minimum when 50x51, since the question about the integral values answer is 2, i.e when x =50 and
x =51.

3) If r,s are the roots of the equation x
2
-px+q=0, then what is the equation of the curve whose roots are
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([1/r] +s) and ([1/s]+r)?
a) px
2
-q(1-p)x+(1+q
2
)=0 b) qx
2
+(p-q)x+(q
2
-1)=0
c)(p-q)x
2
+pqx-(p+1)(q+1)=0 d) qx
2
-p(q+1)x+(1+q)
2
=0
e) qx
2
-p(q+1)x+(1+q)=0

option d
put r=1 and s=1, then p=2 and q=1.
Roots of the curves equation =2,2
Substitute values of p,q,r,s in options to check where 2,2 satisfy as roots. This happens only in option (d)

4) Find the minimum value of the expression, P =2
x+1
+___1____, given that x is real
[4
(x/2 +3/2)
]
a) b) 1 c) d) 2 e)
The expression can be rewritten as
2
x+1
+2
-2 (x/2 +3/2)

=2
x+1
+2
-x-3

Using the concept of AM ! GM



answer is option (b)


5) When 315! Is divided by 1215
x
, remainder=0. What is the maximum possible value for x?
a) 31 b) 15 c) 32 d) 33 e) none of these
option (a)
Highest power of a number in a factorial
Here since 1215 is composite number, prime factorize 1215 i.e 1215 =3
5
* 5
Required answer will be the highest power of 3
5
in 315!
( no need to find to find the highest power of 5 in 315! as that will always be more than that of 3
5
.)
To find out highest power of 3
5
, we will first find the highest power of 3 and then
divide it by 5.
Highest power of 3 in 315! =155
Highest power of 3
5
in 315! =31 (highest power of 5 we will get as 76 )
Required answer is 31.

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6) How many numbers less than 10000 are there whose sum of the digits is less than or equal to 5 ?
a) 192 b) 100 c) 126 d) 189 e) 201
option (c)
Let the required number be represented as ABCD
A+B+C+D5
Introducing a dummy variable E,
A+B+C+D+E=5
This is the arrangement of 5 zeroes and 4 ones (the number of plus signs). Answer is
9
C
4
=126


7) The complete solution set of x for |x-1|+|x-2| +|x-3| +|x-4| >10 is
a) (-1,2) U (3,!) b) (-!,0) U (5,!) c) (-!,-2) U (2,!) d) (-!,-1) U (4,!) e) (4, !)
option b
Sub x=0, we will get f(x) =10. So when x =-ve we will get f(x) >10.
So we can mark an answer which includes all negative values.
This method of eliminating options can be used for almost all inequality questions.

8) Find the common difference of an Arithmetic Progression in which the ratio of the sum of the first half
of any even number of terms to the second half of the same number of terms is constant.
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) -1 e) none of these
Option (e)
Go by answer options.
For eg) for option a
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 is an AP
Sum of 1
st
2 terms =3 Sum of next two terms =7 ratio =2/7
Sum of 1
st
4 terms =10 Sum of next 4 terms=26. ratio =10/26
This cannot be the answer. Similarly, you can eliminate all other answer options as well

9) In a survey conducted among 100 college students in Bangalore, 100 students prefer jeans of Brand A,
80 prefer brand B, 75 prefer brand C, 70 prefer brand D and 80 prefer brand E. What is the minimum
possible number of students who prefer all the five brands?
a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 15 e) Indeterminable
option (b)
The minimum value can be calculated using a short cut technique as given below.
Step 1 :Take the difference of all from 100( total number in question is 100)
100-100 =0
100-80= 20
100-75= 25
100-70= 30
100-80= 20
" 95
Find the sum of all the differences =95
Take the difference again from 100 =100-95=5
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This is the minimum possible number of students preferring all 5 brands. Answer is option (b)

10) Pipe X and Y take 60 minutes and 90 minutes respectively to fill a cistern. Pipe Z can empty a cistern
in 60 minutes. Pipe X and Y are opened when the tank is empty. Pipe Z is opened by an attender
when the tank is half full. However, one rainy day, the attender comes late and delays the opening of
the Pipe Z by 9 minutes. What is the time difference of the tank overflow on that day as compared to
the other days?
a) 13 min 50 secs b) 13 min 30 secs c) 22 min 30 secs d) 14 minutes e)none ofthese
answer=option(b)
Pipe X and Z in one minute fill 1/60 +1/90 =1/36. this means that to fill half the tank i.e. 18/36, it will take 18
minutes
After half the talk in filled, all 3 taps are kept open. Pipe X and Z cancel out each others actions, hence only
Pipe Y will be considered in filling the tank. To fill the tank Y takes 90 minutes. To fill half the tank, it will take
45 minutes. Total time taken to fill a tank on a normal day =18+45 =63
On the rainy day, Pipe X and Y fill for 9 minutes extra =of the tank is filled . this takes 27 minutes.
Pipe Z is opened, and Pipe Y fills for the remaining 1/4
th
of the tank which will take 90/4 =22.5 minutes.
Total time taken on a rainy day =27+22.5 =49.5
Time difference =63- 49.5 =13 min 30 secs. Option (b)

11) The numbers 44997 and 43080, leave the same remainder when divided by x. Given that 100x999,
how many solutions are possible for x?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4 e) >4
option (c)
This is based on constant remainder theorem.
Take the difference of 44997 and 43080=1917.
Number of 3 digit factors =2 (1917/3 =639 and 1917/9 =213)

12) A person can only move upwards or towards the right. Find the probability that he passes through C?

a) 1/2 b) 10/21 c) 13/24 d) 1/3 e) 13/34



Solution
Option (b)
Totally there are 4 vertical distances and 5 horizontal distances VVVVHHHHH. Number of ways in
which a person can go from A to B via C=Arrangement of 9 things out of which 4 are identical and of
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one type and 5 are identical and of another type. =9!/4!*5! =126

Number of ways of reaching C from A=HHVV=
4
C
2
=6. Number of ways of reaching B from C=HHHVV=
5
C
3
=10
Required Probability =10x6 =10/21
126

13) Find the 7
th
digit from the right in 25!
a) 0 b) 4 c) 8 d) 2 e) 6
Solution:
Option (b)
First find the number of zeros in 25! =(25/5=5) +(25/25=1) =6
To find the last non-zero digit at the end of 25!
1! to10! Ends with 8 (non-zero)
11! To 20! Also ends with 8
Hence 25! =8x8x1x2x3 =.4
(We dont consider 24x25 as it will end in a zero.)

14) In an examination, the maximum marks a student can score is 20 and the minimum is 12. The students
score an average of 16 marks. 3 students score 18 or more. If the sum of the scores of all the students is
240, what is the maximum number of students who can score exactly 16 marks?
a) 9 b) 11 c) 10 d) 12 e) 8
solution
option (c)
there are totally 15 students (240/16)
3 students score 18 or more marks.
We need to maximize the number of students scoring 16, hence, assume that 3 students have scored 18
marks.
The average is 16, to balance the +6 surplus, there is one student who scores 14 and one student who
scores 12. All the remaining students score exactly 16. Maximum =15-3-2 =10

Approach 2-Reverse Gear
Go from answer options.
option (c)
If 11 students score 16, then 176 marks are distributed. We next need to distribute 18x3 =54 marks. Total
=230. Only 10 marks are left. Since minimum possible score is 12 for a student, 11 cannot be the answer

If 10 students score 16, 160 marks are distributed. We need to add another 54 marks, totaling to 214
marks. This is a possible distribution. Hence, the answer is option (c)

15) Given that |x| <1 and |y|<1, then find the sum of the series
x(x+y) +x
2
(x
2
+y
2
) +x
3
(x
3
+y
3
).
a) xy
2
/(1-xy
2
) b) (x
2
)/(1-x
2
) +(xy) /( 1-xy)
c) 2xy d) 2xy +1/x e) xy
option (b)
Start out by assuming values for x and y
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Say x=1/2 and y=1/2
Find the sum of the first two terms of the series =+1/8 =5/8 =0.63 (Approx)
The sum of the series will be slightly more than 0.63 as the denominator will keep increasing and the value of
each term will reduce.

Look at the answer options
Substitute values of x=1/2 and y=1/2

Option a=xy
2
/(1-xy
2
) =1/7 =0.16
Option b =(x
2
)/(1-x
2
) +(xy) /( 1-xy)
(1/4)/(3/4) +(1/4)/(3/4). Answer =2/3 =0.667 (Approx)
option c =2xy =2/4 ==0.5
option d =2xy +1/x =0.5 +2 =2.5
option e =xy ==0.25
answer can never be (a), option (c) and option (e), and option (d) is too high. Answer =option (b)

16) 21
643
=25A +B. Find the least value that B can take ?
a)11 b) 1 c) 6 d) 16 e) 31
Solution:
Option (a)
The question is asking for the remainder when 21
643
is divided by 25. We can use the last two digits technique to
get the answer, as the remainder when a number is divided by 25, depends only on the last two digits
For numbers ending in 1, the last two digits of a power expression a
b
can be determined as
The last digit is always 1
The 2
nd
last digit =product of tens digit of base * unit digit of the power.
i.e. 21
643
=61 (6=2x3)
when 61 is divided by 25, the remainder is 11. Answer is option (a)

17) A square is inscribed in a triangle with the two shorter sides p and q such that the square has a common
right angle with the triangle. What is the perimeter of the square?
a) 4( 1/p +1/q) b) (pq)
3
c) p
2
q
2
/(p+q)
2
d) (1/p +1/q)
2
e) 4pq/ (p+q)
option (e)

Assume a 45-45-90 triangle. p=1 and q=1
Since only variables are used, the conditions should satisfy any right angled
triangle. The side of the square becomes 0.5 or 1/2,. The perimeter =4x1/2=2

Look in the answer options, where on the substitution of p=1 and q=1, you
get 2. only option (e) gives 2





18) How many integers satisfy the inequality_[(x-1)(x+4)(x+2)]_ <0 ?
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[(x-3)(x+8)(x+3)]
a) 4 b) 5 c) 7 d) 10 e) infinitely many

option (a)
The critical points are 1, -4, -2, 3, -8, -3, which can be plotted as



Hence, the regions <0 are -8 to -4 and 1 to 3=totally 4 points


19) An Arithmetic Progression of positive integers has its n
th
term as 66541
8768
. Find the first term of this
Arithmetic Progression if the common difference =9.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 6 e) 7
option (e)
From constant remainder theorem, if any of the terms in an AP is divided by the common difference, the
remainder will be constant in each case.
Let us find the remainder when the n
th
term of the AP is divided by 9
66541
8768
/ 9rem =4
8768
/ 9rem
Eulers number of 9 =6.
8768 =6k +2
The number changes to
4
2
/9 =16/9 (Rem) =7.
answer is option (e)

20) If f(x 1) =3x
2
+5x +6, find the value of f(x +1).
a) 3x
2
+17x +28
b) 3x
2
+17x 28
c) 3x
2
+16x +25
d) 3x
2
- 16x +25
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e) 3x
2
+17x 32
option (a)
f(x-1) =3x
2
+5x +6
put x =x +2, f(x +2 1) =3(x+2)
2
+5(x+2) +6
f( x +1) =3(x
2
+4 +4x) +5x +16
=3x
2
+12 +12x +5x +16
=3x
2
+17x +28
Hence option (a)

Shortcut:-Assumption method
Assume x =1
f(0) =14, f(2) =48
Among the answer options, Sub x=1 and check where you are getting 48,
This is obtained only at option (a)

Shortcut of a shortcut!
Put x=1 in the question and x=-1 in the option, both should give 14

21) In triangle XYZ, r is the radius of the incircle, R is the radius of the circumcircle and A is the area of the
triangle. If h1, h2 and h3 are the 3 altitudes of the triangle, then 1/h1 +1/h2 +1/h3 =?
a) r/A b) 1/R c) 1/r d) R/A e) r x A

option (c)
Let a =side, h =height,
Since no conditions are mentioned and only variables are used, we can assume an equilateral triangle.
Let r =1. Then R =2., h =3. In an equilateral triangle r : R : h =1 : 2 : 3
Side a =2 3

Area=3/4 a
2
=33.
1/h1=1/h2=1/h3 =1/3. Sum =1
Only option c gives 1.

A difficult solved in the easiest possible way without using variables.

22) In how many ways can 1000 be written as sum of 2 or more consecutive natural numbers?
a) 4 b) 10 c) 3 d) 16 e) 15

option (c)
Shortcut:- Number of ways of writing a number as a product of 2 consecutive natural numbers=number of odd
factors of that number-1
1000=2
3
x 5
3
. number of odd factors =4
Answer =4-1=3


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23) Two guys A and B are walking down an escalator in the direction of the motion of the escalator. A takes
two steps on the same time when B takes one step. When A covers 60 steps he gets out of the escalator
while B takes 40 steps to get out of the escalator. Find the number of steps in the escalator when it is
stationary?
(a) 80 (b) 90 (c) 120 (d) 150 e) 100
Ans. (c) Let the escalator moves x steps when A walks down 60 steps. Total number of steps on a stationary
escalator =x +60.

When A takes 60 steps, B should have taken 30 steps and the escalator x steps. So when B takes 40 steps, the
escalator should have taken 4/3*x steps.

So, 4/3*x +40 =x +60 =Total number of steps in the escalator when it is stationary. So x =60. Hence, total
number of steps =120

24) What is the number of distinct terms in the expansion of (p+q+r+s)
10
?
a) 245 b) 105 c) 378 d) 98 e) none of these
option (e)
The number of distinct terms =arrangement of 10 zeroes and 3 ones =
13
C
3
=286

25) ABCDEF is a regular hexagon. PR=1/3 AF, QS=1/3 BC & PQ parallel to RS. Also TE=1/3 FE & UD=1/3 CD
and TU parallel to ED. Find the ratio of shaded regions to the hexagon ABCDEF.
a) 1:4 b) 8:27 c) 17:54 d) 1:3 e) none of these


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Solution
Option (b)
A regular hexagon can be divided into 54 equal triangles as follows

Of which the shaded part constitutes 16/54 part.
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Hence, the answer is option (b)


SECTION II- DATA INTERPRETATION

Directions for questions 26-30
June 21
st
. This is great news for democracy. A leading political party has just confirmed that the way they would
allot party tickets for the forth coming elections would be based on how capable a certain candidate is. The model
they chose to follow will find out the best candidate for a certain constituency based on the persons criminal
records and previous association with the party. This has led to younger and dynamic party members to protest.
They claim that experience alone cannot be a factor. There should be some examination modules and debate
series to showcase the other leadership skills a certain candidate possesses.

June 28
th
. It has been learnt that the said party has agreed to the younger members demands and there will be
closed door modules to actually test the competency of a certain candidate. In fact, the results of these modules
will be given more importance in deciding a candidate than his past record. As a first step the party has published
a list of prospective candidates for the Khandala constituency, stating the number of open supporting votes
received from other party members. These candidates will now face each other in the test modules to decide who
finally gets the ticket. For its records the party maintains this data sheet.

Candidate No of open votes
received before
modules
A.M.Paranjpe 167
A.K. Stevens 144
B. Badrinath 130
Bobby Joseph 120
Chaitra Venkatesan 127
David Dsouza 85
Eshwaran 194
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Inshatullah Javed 200
Jerome Jackson 78
Jiten Shah 67
Kasturba Wadia 112
Lingayya Naidu 58
Maneckshaw 178
Omar Mohammed 190
Pankaj Chautala 96
Qureshi 115


As part of the procedure the teams are divided into two groups, with odd ranks in one group and even ranks in
the other group (ranks are determined based on number of votes). In each group, candidates faced each other
exactly once. There was no face-off in which the winner was undecided. In times when the candidates were
equally good and were difficult to discern, their criminal records were looked into. No two candidates have the
same criminal history. From each group, two top candidates advance to the next level of test modules where the
best from the group faces the second best of the other group. The winners of level two fight it out for the big
ticket in the final third round. Whenever a less voted candidate beats a more voted candidate, it is called a
revelation.

26) What is the minimum number of wins with which a person can advance from the 1
st
module to the second
module?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6 e) 2

27) If Qureshi wins the final module and the total number of revelations in the entire selection process was
least, then how many modules did Qureshi win at the most?
a. 4 b. 7 c. 6 d. 9 e. 5

28) If the number of revelations per candidate in the process is maximum 3, who is the least voted candidate
who couldve won?
a. Qureshi b. Kasturba Wadia c. Pankaj Chautala d. David Dsouza e. Jerome Jackson

29) If more than half the face-offs end up being revelations, who is the highest voted candidate who couldve
won the ticket?
a. Inshatullah b. Maneckshaw c. Badrinath d. A.K.Stevens e. Chaitra Venkatesan

30) If Bobby Joseph and David Dsouza met in the third round, what was the least number of revelations in
the whole process?
a. 6 b. 8 c. 7 d. 9 e. 5

Solutions for questions 26-30
The whole set of candidates can be listed based on their number of votes as:


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Candidate No of open votes received before modules
Inshatullah Javed 200
Eshwaran 194
Omar Mohammed 190
Maneckshaw 178
A.M.Paranjpe 167
A.K. Stevens 144
B. Badrinath 130
Chaitra Venkatesan 127
Bobby Joseph 120
Qureshi 115
Kasturba Wadia 112
Pankaj Chautala 96
David Dsouza 85
Jerome Jackson 78
Jiten Shah 67
Lingayya Naidu 58



26) Total number of face-offs are
8
C
2
=28. If the highest number of wins in module 1 is 7, then the other person
advancing to the next round can win 3 face-offs and qualify. The remaining people can also win 3 face-offs each;
totaling to 7+(7*3) =28 face-offs. If 7 members win 2 face-offs, then the total number of points do not add up to
28. Hence, answer is option (c)

27) Qureshi wins the last two modules. We need to maximize the number of games he wins in the first module
and minimize the number of revelations.
If he wins 6 face-offs, there are 3 revelations. If he wins 5, there are 2 revelations, and if he wins 4, again there are
3 revelations. Hence, he totally wins 5+1+1=7 games overall. Option (b)

28) option d

29) Number of face-offs=28. More than 14 need to be revelations.
Inshatullah can win all the 7 games. The remaining 7 members can win 3 games each totaling to >14 revelations.
Answer is option (a)

30) We will have the minimum revelations when the score distribution in both groups are
7 5 5 5 3 1 1 1
Assuming rank 1 and rank 2 win all the face-offs in their group. There are no revelations. Rank 9 and 12 win 5 face-
offs to advance to the next round. Hence, number of revelations =2+2=4. Rank 15 and rank 16 win one face-off
each =1+1=2 more revelations in this round
Number of revelations in the next module =2. Hence, total number of revelations=8. Answer is option (b)

Directions for questions 31-34
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Election for the post of President of FIFA is held in March 2005. Following are the five continents with the figures
in brackets show the number of members from the continent which caste their vote and the name of the
contestant from that continent.
Asia (18) Kim
Europe (12) Blatter
North America (15) Parker
South America (16) Zico
Africa (14) Milla
Election is carried out in two rounds. In the first round all the contestants were standing in the election and two
are eliminated from the first round. Similarly two are eliminated in the second round. The remaining one person
after two rounds is the President. Following are the facts about 1
st
round election.

a) Members of Asia do not give any vote to Blatter and Zico. They give their vote to the remaining three in
the proportion (1/2, 1/3, 1/6) but not in the same order.
b) Members of Europe do not give any vote to Kim, Zico and Milla. They give their vote to the remaining two
in the proportion (1/3, 2/3) but not in the same order.
c) Members of North America do not give any vote to Kim and Milla. They give their vote to the remaining
three in the proportion (1/3, 2/3, 0) but not in the same order.
d) Members of South America do not give any vote to Blatter and Parker. They give their vote to the
remaining three in the proportion (1/4,1/2,1/4) but not in the same order.
e) Members of Africa do not give any vote to Blatter, Parker and Zico. They give their vote to the remaining
two in the proportion (1/2, 1/2) but not in the same order.

After the first round voting following are the number of vote that each member has received.
Kim Blatter Parker Zico Milla
17 14 17 13 14

After the first round those two people are eliminated which gets more than or equal to 50%of their total vote
from their continent. And from the remaining three people the one who get maximum percentage of vote from
other continents is elected as president.

31) Who among the five people are eliminated after the first round?
a) Milla and Kim b) Zico and Parker
c) Zico and Blatter d) Zico and Milla
e) Milla and Blatter

32) Who is the new President of FIFA?
a) Kim b) Milla c) Parker d) Blatter e) Zico

33) What is the total number of votes that Kim gets from members of other
continents?
a) 11 b) 10 c) 9 d) 8 e) 7

34) What is the percentage of his total vote that winner gets from the members of
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other continents?
a) 72% b) 65% c) 68% d)82% e) None of these

Solutions for questions 31-34

Based on the data provided in the question, we can draw up a table and fill in the missing values. First fill in the
data of those people who are getting zero votes from certain countries

KIM BLATTER PARKER ZICO MILLA TOTAL
ASIA (3,6,9) 0 0 18
EUROPE (4,8) 0 0 0 12
NORTH AMERICA (5,10,0) 0 0 0 15
SOUTH AMERICA (8,4,4) 0 0 16
AFRICA (7,7) 0 0 0 14
TOTAL 17 14 17 13 14

Next start off with distributing Africas votes to Kim and Milla. Now its only a matter of equating all the rows and
columns. The table can be completed as follows

KIM BLATTER PARKER ZICO MILLA TOTAL
ASIA (3,6,9) 6 0 9 0 3 18
EUROPE (4,8) 0 4 8 0 0 12
NORTH AMERICA (5,10,0) 0 10 0 5 0 15
SOUTH AMERICA (8,4,4) 4 0 0 8 4 16
AFRICA (7,7) 7 0 0 0 7 14
TOTAL 17 14 17 13 14

31)
Option (d)
Zico and Milla are eliminated in the first round as they each get 50%of the total vote from their continents.

32)
The person who gets least vote from other continents out of Kim, Blatter and Parker, goes on to be the new
president of FIFA. Parker gets 0 votes from his home country, USA; this is the least. Hence, answer is option (c)

33)
Option (a)
Kim, who is from USA; gets 7+4=11 votes from other continents. Answer is option (a)

34)
Option (e)
Parker gets 100%of his votes from other continents.

DIRECTION for question 35 to38: Answer the questions on the basis of the data given below.
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Songlist.com is an internet music streaming company whose expertise is in collecting accurate reviews of the
world's most popular music through an online survey conducted for different citizens of the world. The following
table shows showcases the data extracted from the site's database by hackers from Russia to understand how to
promote a website selling pirated music across the web of the percentage of people who like the music forms in
these countries.

Category
No: of
People
Percentage of people for whom the details of the feature are available
Pop Rock R&B Hip-Hop Jazz Country
Kyrgyzstan 2,600 100 80 50 40 50 90
Turkmenistan 42,000 100 85 70 95 60 80
Kazakhstan 10,000 100 70 75 60 85 90
Uzbekistan 23,000 35 65 70 15 35 10
Tajikistan 60,000 100 50 60 70 65 100
Azerbaijan 2,000 100 35 70 90 80 50

In the above table, for example, 50%of people from Azerbaijan love Country music. Assume that none of these
people have dual citizenship.

35) The number of Tajik's who like Pop, R&B and Jazz music are at least
a) 15000 b)12000 c)18000 d)24000 e) None of these
36) The number of Turkmen's for whom exactly four of the six music forms are in vogue is at
least
a) 2100 b)6300 c)10500 d)21000 e) None of these
37) The number of Kazakh's from whom at least two of the three music forms R&B, Jazz and
country music is preferred are:
a) 8000 b)7500 c)6000 d)6500 e) 5000
38) At most how many of the people from Kyrgyzstan like exactly five of the six popular music
forms?
a) 1300 b)1950 c)2000 d)1820 e) None of these

Solutions for questions 35-38

35) We need to find the minimum of all in a 3 set venn diagram which can be calculated using a shortcut as
follows
Take the difference from 100 for each of the groups
Pop= 100-100 =0
R&B=100- 60=40
Jazz= 100-65=35

Sum of all the differences =75.
Take the difference from 100 again to get the minimum =100-75=25%
Answer=25%of 60000 =15000. Option (a)

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36) We need to find the minimum of exactly 4 out of 6. If we consider each of the sets to be represented as
straight lines, what the question asks is to minimize the region of 4 lines of overlap. This means that we
can make more than 4 lines or less than 4 lines overlap to the maximum possible.


If you notice the representation above, there is no region where 4 lines are overlapping, hence, the minimum
region of 4 lines of overlap is 0. Option (e)

37) option (b)
We need to minimize the region of 2 and 3 areas of overlap, this means we need to maximize the region of only 1.
This can be shown in a conventional 3 set venn diagram as follows
For the area Kazakhstan
R&B=75
Jazz=85
Country music =90

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The value is thus 75%of 10000=7500. Using the line technique discussed in the previous question, we can
determine the answer much faster


38) option (d)
The last question asks us to maximize the region of exactly 5 out of 6. Using a conventional venn diagram, this is
near-impossible to solve. Representing the circles as lines (using line technique) we can arrive at the answer with
minimum effort
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The region of 5 lines of overlap can be maximum=70%
Hence the answer is 70%of 2600 =1820. Option (d)

DIRECTION for question 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the data given below.
In US a survey was done for 100 Congressmen. The scores of the 100 Congressmen in three fields: Honesty,
Accessibility, Efficiency are tabulated below in Table A, B and C respectively. A score is given in the first column,
and the second column gives the number of congressmen who have secured less than that score. For example, in
Table A the second entry indicates that 18 Congressmen have scored less than 1 in the Honesty. Similarly, Tables B
and C provide data in a similar format. The Overall Score for a Congressman is equal to the sum of his/her scores
in the three individual fields. The scores in the three fields can have only integer values and the maximum score in
any field is 10.
Assume that, if the Congressmen are arranged in descending order of their scores in the Honesty Field, their
scores in the Accessibility and Efficiency fields are also in same order.

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39) What is the Overall Score of the Congressman/ Congressmen who stood first in the test?
a) 27 b) 28 c) 29 d) 30 e) Cannot be determined

40) Which of the following statements is false?
a) Only one Congressman scored 1 mark in each of the three fields
b) No Congressman got overall score of 30.
c) Only one Congressman scored more than 7 marks in each of the three fields.
d) 8 Congressmen scored 6 marks in each of the three fields.
e) none of these

41) What is the number of Congressmen who scored more than 4 marks in each of the three fields?
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40 e) Cannot be determined

42) The number of Congressmen who definitely scored 0 marks in each of the three fields is:
a) 18 b) 25 c)31 d) 20 e) None of these

Solutions for questions 39-42:
Consider Table B:
100 Congressmen scored less than 10, i.e., no one scored 10 marks
99 Congressmen scored less than 9, i.e., exactly one scored 9 or more. Since, no one scored 10, exactly one
Congressman scored 9. 97 Congressmen scored less than 8, i.e., number of Congressmen who scored 8 =99-97 =
2, and so on.
Thus, using all the tables, we get the exact number of Congressmen who scored from 0 to 10 marks in each of the
three fields, which is tabulated below.
The table also gives the cumulative number of the Congressmen in the descending order of their scores.


Honesty Accessibility Efficiency
Score Number Cumulative Number Cumulative Number Cumulative
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number number number
0 18 100 25 100 31 100
1 14 82 15 75 19 69
2 16 68 10 60 10 50
3 2 52 15 50 10 40
4 20 50 10 35 10 30
5 18 30 13 25 12 20
6 7 12 5 12 4 8
7 2 5 4 7 3 4
8 1 3 2 3 1 1
9 1 2 1 1 0 0
10 1 1 0 0 0 0

It is given that the order, when the Congressmen are arranged in the descending order of their scores in the
Honesty field, is the same as that when they are arranged in the descending order of their scores in the
Accessibility as well as Efficiency fields.

39) The Congressman who stood first must be the highest scorer in all the fields.
The Overall Score of the Congressman who stood first =10 +9 +8 =27. Hence, option [a].

40) From the table, we can see that the first 68 Congressmen scored at least 2 marks in the Honesty field and the
first 69 Congressmen scored at least 1 mark in the Efficiency field. Thus, there is exactly one Congressman who
scored 1 mark in each of the three fields. Thus, statement [a] is true.
The maximum overall score for a congressman is 27 as mentioned in the question above and hence, statement [b]
is also true.
The number of Congressmen who scored more than 7 marks in the Honesty, Accessibility and Efficiency fields is 3,
3 and 1 respectively. Thus, statement [c] is also true.
The maximum number of Congressmen who scored 6 marks in any field is 7; hence, statement [d] is not true.
Hence, [d]

41) The number of Congressmen who scored more than 4 (i.e., 5 or more) in the Honesty, Accessibility and
Efficiency fields is 30, 25 and 20 respectively. As 20 is the least number, option (b)

42) 20 Congressmen definitely scored more than 4 marks in each of the three fields. The number of Congressmen
who scored 0 in the Honesty, Accessibility and Efficiency fields is 18, 25 and 31 respectively. As 18 is the least
number, 18 Congressmen definitely scored 0 in all the three fields. Option (a)

Directions for Questions 43 to 46: Answer the following questions based on the information given below. The
Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major motorbikes in USA and a select few Asian
countries.

Bike Remodelling Cost in ('000 US Dollars) in USA and some Asian nations
USA INDIA THAILAND SINGAPORE MALAYSIA
Harley 130 10 11 18.5 9
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BMW 160 9 10 12.5 9
Honda 57 11 13 13 11
Yamaha 43 9 12 12 10
Ducati 20 3 4.5 6 3
Kawasaki 40 8.5 10 13 8
Royal Enfield
62 5.5 7 9 6

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:

1 US Dollar Equivalent
India 40.928 Rupees
Malaysia 3.51 Ringgits
Thailand 32.89 Bahts
Singapore 1.53 S Dollars

A consulting firm found that the quality of the bikes were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality
bike may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in repairs and modifications. The cost of
poor quality of production is given in the table below:

Bike Remodelling
Indirect Cost incurred ('000 US Dollars) in USA and the Asian
nations because of poor quality
USA INDIA THAILAND SINGAPORE MALAYSIA
Harley 0 3 3 2 4
BMW 0 5 4 5 5
Honda 0 5 5 4 6
Yamaha 0 7 5 5 8
Ducati 0 5 6 5 4
Kawasaki 0 9 6 4 4
Royal Enfield 0 5 6 5 6

43) A US citizen won a local raffle and decides to purchase three bikes a Honda, Yamaha and a Kawasaki. The
cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since its included free of cost towards his lottery win.
Which country will result in the cheapest purchase, taking cost of poor quality into account?
a. India b. Thailand c. Malaysia d. Singapore e. USA

44) Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a Ducati
from India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500
Bahts for one-way travel Thailand and India.
a. 23500 b. 40500 c. 57500 d. 67500 e. 75000

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45) Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for a
Kawasaki?
a. India b. Thailand c. Malaysia d. Singapore e. India and Singapore

46) The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same.
What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Royal Enfield,
taking change into account?
a. 700 b. 2500 c. 4500 d. 8000 e. No difference


Solutions for questions 43-46
43) option (c)
The total cost of Honda, Yamaha, and Kawasaki including cost of poor quality in the four countries in US dollars:
India: 28500+2100=49500 USD
Thailand: 35000+16000=51000 USD
Singapore: 38000+13000 =51000 USD
Malaysia: 29000+1800 =47000 USD
Hence the cheapest package including the cost of poor quality is in Malaysia.

44) option (d)
The total cost of Ducati including poor quality:
India: 3000+5*1000 =8000 USD
Thailand: 4500+6*1000 =10500 USD
Difference: 10500-8000 =2500 USD =82225-15000# 67500 Bahts

45) option (a)
The cost of Kawasaki including poor quality, in four countries in USD
India: 17500 USD
Malaysia: 12000 USD
Thailand: 16000 USD
Singapore: 17000 USD
It is most expensive in India.

46) option (b)
Cost of Royal Enfield in India =(5500*40.928)/35 =6431.55 =6432 USD.
Royal Enfield cost in Singapore =9000 USD. Thus required difference =9000-6432 =2568 USD =2500 USD.

Directions for questions 47-50-Answer the questions based on the data given below
Three Regional Engineering Colleges (RECs): REC P, REC Q and REC R select students for their graduation
programmes by judging them based on their scores in the Maths (M), Physics (P) and Chemistry (C) and General
Knowledge (GK) Tests. However, the evaluation of the scores by each REC is different. The relative weights of the
scores in the selection criteria of the RECs are given in the table below.

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0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
REC P REC Q REC R
M P C GK


The scores of a few students is given in the following table.

Subjects M P C GK
Maximum Possible Score 100 50 50 50
Neil 99 22 31 42
Rohit 97 23 35 34
Mohit 98 24 30 30
Darshan 95 27 33 36
Atul 94 29 33 41

REC P, Q and R will offer final admission to top two, top three and top three students respectively from the
students mentioned in the table above according to their individual selection criteria.

47) Who among the following will fail to get an admission offer from any of the RECs?
a) Mohit b) Darshan c) Atul d) Neil e) Rohit

48) If Anu also joins the list of probable students with scores of 96, 26, 34 and 31 in M, P, C and GK
respectively, then how many final admission offers will Anu receive?
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) cannot be determined

49) Out of the following, by how much and in which test Neil can improve his score in order to secure an
admission offer from REC P?
a) 1 mark in Physics b) 1 mark in Chemistry
c) 2 marks in GK d) any one of a,b and c e) none of these

50) On the basis of the weights of the selection tests of the RECs, the average total marks of the five students
expressed as a percentage of the maximum possible score is highest for which of the following RECs?
a) REC P b) REC Q c) REC R d) REC P& Q are equal
e) Data insufficient



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Solutions Questions 47 to 50:

A table of factor multiplication can be drawn up as follows

M P C GK
P 8 4 7 1
Q 10 5 4 1
R 12 3 3 2

The score table can be shown as

M P C GK P Q R ADMISSION FROM
100 50 50 50 (100x8)+(50x4)+(50x7)+(50x1)=1400 1500 1600 RECS
NEIL 99 22 31 42 (99x8)+(22x4)+(31x7)+(42x1)=1139 1266 1431 Q,R
ROHIT 97 23 35 34 (97x8)+(23x4)+(35x7)+(34x1)=1147 1259 1406 P,Q,R
MOHIT 98 24 30 30 (98x8)+(24x4)+(30x7)+(30x1)=1120 1250 1398 R
DARSHAN 95 27 33 36 (95x8)+(27x4)+(33x7)+(36x1)=1135 1253 1392
ATUL 94 29 33 41 (94x8)+(29x4)+(33x7)+(41x1)=1140 1258 1396 P,Q
ANU 96 26 34 31 (96x8)+(26x4)+(34x7)+(31x1)=1141 1257 1394

Therefore the answers can be marked as
47) option b
48) option b
49) option d
50) option c



















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SECTION III- ENGLISH

SECTION III

Directions for questions 51-64: A passage is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions about the passage on the basis of what
is stated or implied in the passage.

Passage 1
When we consider great painters of the past, the study of art and the study of illusion cannot always be
separated. By illusion I mean those contrivances of color, line, shape, and so forth that lead us to see marks on a
flat surface as depicting three-dimensional objects in space. I must emphasize that I am not making a plea,
disguised or otherwise, for the exercise of illusionist tricks in painting today, although I am, in fact, rather critical of
certain theories of non-representational art. But to argue over these theories would be to miss the point. That the
discoveries and effects of representation that were the pride of earlier artists have become trivial today I would
not deny for a moment. Yet I believe that we are in real danger of losing contact with past masters if we accept the
fashionable doctrine that such matters never had anything to do with art. The very reason why the representation
of nature can now be considered something commonplace should be of the greatest interest to art historians.
Never before has there been an age when the visual image was so cheap in every sense of the word. We are
surrounded and assailed by posters and advertisements, comics and magazine illustrations. We see aspects of
reality represented on television, postage stamps, and food packages. Painting is taught in school and practiced as
a pastime, and many modest amateurs have mastered tricks that would have looked like sheer magic to the
fourteenth-century painter Giotto. Even the crude colored renderings on a cereal box might have made Giottos
contemporaries gasp. Perhaps there are people who conclude from this that the cereal box is superior to a Giotto;
I do not. But I think that the victory and vulgarization of representational skills create a problem for both art
historians and critics.
In this connection it is instructive to remember the Greek saying that to marvel is the beginning of knowledge
and if we cease to marvel we may be in danger of ceasing to know. I believe we must restore our sense of wonder
at the capacity to conjure up by forms, lines, shades, or colors those mysterious phantoms of visual reality we call
pictures. Even comics and advertisements, rightly viewed, provide food for thought. Just as the study of poetry
remains incomplete without an awareness of the language of prose, so, I believe, the study of art will be
increasingly supplemented by inquiry into the linguistics of the visual image. The way the language of art refers
to the visible world is both so obvious and so mysterious that it is still largely unknown except to artists, who use it
as we use all languagewithout needing to know its grammar and semantics.

51. The authors statement regarding how artists use the language of art (lines 24-26) implies that
(A) Artists are better equipped than are art historians to provide detailed evaluations of other artists work
(B) Many artists have an unusually quick, intuitive understanding of language
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(C) Artists can produce works of art even if they cannot analyze their methods of doing so
(D) Most artists probably consider the processes involved in their work to be closely akin to those involved in
writing poetry
(E) Artists of the past, such as Giotto, were better educated about artistic issues than were artists of the
authors time



52. The passage asserts which of the following about commercial art?
(A) There are many examples of commercial art whose artistic merit is equal to that of great works of art of
the past.
(B) Commercial art is heavily influenced by whatever doctrines are fashionable in the serious art world of the
time.
(C) The level of technical skill required to produce representational imagery in commercial art and in other
kinds of art cannot be compared.
(D) The pervasiveness of contemporary commercial art has led art historians to undervalue representational
skills.
(E) The line between commercial art and great art lies primarily in how an image is used, not in the
motivation for its creation.


53. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the adherents of certain theories of
nonrepresentational art (lines 3-5)?
(A) They do not think that the representation of nature was ever the primary goal of past painters.
(B) They do not agree that marks on a flat surface can ever satisfactorily convey the illusion of three-
dimensional space.
(C) They consider the use of illusion to be inappropriate in contemporary art.
(D) They concern themselves more with types of art such as advertisements and magazine illustrations than
with traditional art.
(E) They do not discuss important works of art created in the past.



54. It can be inferred from the passage that someone who wanted to analyze the grammar and semantics (line
24-27) of the language of art would most appropriately comment on which of the following?
(A) The relationship between the drawings in a comic strip and the accompanying text
(B) The amount of detail that can be included in a tiny illustration on a postage stamp
(C) The 3D images chosen to advertise a particular product
(D) The particular juxtaposition of shapes in an illustration that makes one shape look as though it were
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behind another
(E) The degree to which various colors used in different versions of the same poster would attract the
attention of passersby



Passage 2

I think there is certainly one dimension of alternative history which has as much philosophical content as
merely fictional; it seems to provide philosophers of a particular metaphysical bent with some welcome grist to
their mill. I refer to those for whom the notion of parallel worlds holds fascination, since every venture into
alternative history involves by definition the creation of a parallel world. As I shall try to show, such parallel
worlds, if they are to contain any meaningful truth, will need to correspond as closely as possible to the real
world, but it is clear that an element of conjecture, or fantasy if a harsher term is preferred, is a necessary part of
any such exercise. While this necessary limitation may lie behind the reluctance to accord counter-factualism
academic respectability, it in no way invalidates the contention that there does seem to be a real human urge,
and therefore legitimate grounds for philosophical investigation, to ponder over the questions raised by such
fictional works as the "Back to the Future" films, or novels like Wyndham's "Random Quest"; the latter is of course
a book, and subsequently a film, whose plot is firmly embedded in a world where twentieth century history has
turned out very differently.

Good counterfactual history calls for the consideration not only of the main counterfactual - Napoleon's
victory at Waterloo - but also for an intelligent appraisal of what in a different context E H Carr called the
"significant" facts among a potentially infinite number of knock-on changes, the "Garden of Forking Paths" of the
eponymous short story by Jorge Luis Borges. Such a need for careful analysis of cause is inherent in any serious
writing of counterfactual history, and seems to me to speak strongly in its
favour as a discipline for any historian.

There is one form of counter-factualism which we are all constantly using throughout our lives. Every time
a businessman runs a sensitivity test on the economics of a new project he is undertaking a comparison of a
number of possible worlds, of which at best one, more probably none, will represent what actually takes place,
and obviously is itself not counterfactual. The businessman is working before, not after the event, but he is basing
his assessment partly on his knowledge of the past. A different time perspective is found in certain legal
situations, briefly assessed in the earlier essay on historical causation. In attempting to decide, for example, what
really caused an accident to happen, the court cannot help becoming involved in considering what else might,
ideally would, have happened had one or more antecedent factors not applied. This too is counter-factualism,
differing from the example of the businessman in that it enjoys the benefit of hindsight.

And what are we to make of all the attempts that there have been to learn from history? In the essay on
the value of history we saw that, in spite of various claims that we do not in fact learn from the experience of
history, we nevertheless do not stop trying to do so. If we look at one or two examples it quite soon becomes
clear that such efforts are themselves a kind of exercise in counter-factualism, of what I have called the after the
event kind. How we could have prevented the Wall St crash in 1929, it was asked. By putting in place certain
control and supervisory mechanisms, it is suggested. What would have been the effects of their existence is the
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next question, and right away we are in the business of evaluating alternative possible worlds. Perhaps the most
frequently asked "what if" question is how the Great War could have been prevented; this usually ends up with
counterfactual conjectures about possible different personalities for the Austrian, German or Russian emperors,
alternative mobilisation procedures and imperatives, even different decisions by British cabinet ministers about
going out of London for the weekend. Some of these conjectures undoubtedly informed post-war decision
making, which led, inter alia, to the idea of collective action, initially through the League of Nations, later the
United Nations.

The German Kaiser was mentioned. His treatment of his mother after the death of his father, who reigned
so briefly as the Emperor Frederick III, while certainly shameful, was probably influenced not only by his
perception of her liberal influence on her like-minded husband, but more specifically by his assessment and fear
of a possible future world where the German Empire would be run along what to him would be uncongenially
liberal lines. That such a world did indeed turn out to be counterfactual may have been at least partly the result of
his unattractive behaviour.

So, if we have shown that the concept of counterfactual history is not entirely frivolous, why have so
many respected historians apparently resisted, or even despised it? They make an impressive array. E H Carr
dismisses counterfactual history as a parlour game, one which may provide consolation to those who have
suffered from some great historical event (in his case it will have been the Russian revolution), and who then let
"their imagination run riot on all the more agreeable things which might have happened". This is a "purely
emotional and unhistorical reaction". That may well be true, but does it entitle Carr to argue from the particular
circumstances of aggrieved victims of the Bolshevik revolution to a general assertion that counter-factualism is
without merit? He effectively equates counterfactual history with the accident view of the subject, the Cleopatra's
nose theory which he so abominates. E P Thompson is even cruder in his objection to counter-factualism, but
both Carr and Thompson may be described as determinist historians and as such should perhaps not be expected
to have a great deal of sympathy with alternative accounts to what actually, and from their point of view
presumably inevitably, did happen.


55) Which of the following are the authors position regarding Counter-factualism?
a) Counter-factualism is a world filled with fascination
b) Counter-factualism has been accorded with academic respectability.
c) Counter-factualism contains meaningful truth
d) Counter-factualism does not seem to have a human urge
A) a B) a & c C) a, b, c & d D) only b E) None of the above answers


56) According to the passage, what is the authors stance on one of the determinist historians?
A) The author is critical about the opinion of one of the determinist historians
B) The author respects the determinist historian views but disagrees with the historians' reasoning
C) The author does not expect the determinist historian to be sympathetic to counterfactual history
D) The author agrees with the views of the determinist historian.
E) None of the above


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57) Which of the below example supports the authors point "Such parallel worlds will need to correspond as
closely as possible to the real world"
A) Prevention of the world war leading to various conjectures.
B) German Kaiser view on the future German empire.
C) Control and supervisory mechanisms to prevent Wall St Crash
D) Napolean's victory at waterloo.
E) "Back to the Future" films


58) Which of the following is definitely false according to the author?
A) Businessman Uses counter-factualism
B) Court Uses counter-factualism as it enjoys the benefit of counter-factualism
C) Counter-factualism or Parallel world being talked about in fictional works like "Back to the future" and "
Random quest"
D) Businessmen work before, not after the event, but they base their assessment partly on their
knowledge of the past.
E) None of the above answers.


Passage 3
Thomas Hardys impulses as a writer, all of which he indulged in his novels, were numerous and
divergent, and they did not always work together in harmony. Hardy was to some degree interested in
exploring his characters psychologies, though impelled less by curiosity than by sympathy. Occasionally he
felt the impulse to comedy (in all its detached coldness) as well as the impulse to farce, but he was more
often inclined to see tragedy and record it. He was also inclined to literary realism in the several senses of that
phrase. He wanted to describe ordinary human beings; he wanted to speculate on their dilemmas rationally
(and, unfortunately, even schematically); and he wanted to record precisely the material universe. Finally, he
wanted to be more than a realist. He wanted to transcend what he considered to be the banality of solely
recording things exactly and to express as well his awareness of the occult and the strange.
In his novels these various impulses were sacrificed to each other inevitably and often. Inevitably,
because Hardy did not care in the way that novelists such as Flaubert or James cared, and therefore took
paths of least resistance. Thus, one impulse often surrendered to a fresher one and, unfortunately, instead of
exacting a compromise, simply disappeared. A desire to throw over reality a light that never was might give
way abruptly to the desire on the part of what we might consider a novelist-scientist to record exactly and
concretely the structure and texture of a flower. In this instance, the new impulse was at least an energetic
one, and thus its indulgence did not result in a relaxed style. But on other occasions Hardy abandoned a
perilous, risky, and highly energizing impulse in favor of what was for him the fatally relaxing impulse to
classify and schematize abstractly. When a relaxing impulse was indulged, the stylethat sure index of an
authors literary worthwas certain to become verbose. Hardys weakness derived from his apparent
inability to control the comings and goings of these divergent impulses and from his unwillingness to cultivate
and sustain the energetic and risky ones. He submitted to first one and then another, and the spirit blew
where it listed; hence the unevenness of any one of his novels. His most controlled novel, Under the
Greenwood Tree, prominently exhibits two different but reconcilable impulsesa desire to be a realist-
historian and a desire to be a psychologist of lovebut the slight interlockings of plot are not enough to bind
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the two completely together. Thus even this book splits into two distinct parts.

59. The author of the passage considers a writers style to be
(A) a reliable means by which to measure the writers literary merit
(B) most apparent in those parts of the writers work that are not realistic
(C) problematic when the writer attempts to follow perilous or risky impulses
(D) shaped primarily by the writers desire to classify and schematize
(E) the most accurate index of the writers literary reputation



60. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of lines 13 to 21 of the passage
(Thusabstractly)?
(A) The author draws a conclusion from a previous statement, explains his conclusion in detail, and then
gives a series of examples that have the effect of resolving an inconsistency.
(B) The author makes a disapproving observation and then presents two cases, one of which leads to a
qualification of his disapproval and the other of which does not.
(C) The author makes a judgment, points out an exception to his judgment, and then contradicts his original
assertion.
(D) The author summarizes and explains an argument and then advances a brief history of opposing
arguments.
(E) The author concedes a point and then makes a counterargument, using an extended comparison and
contrast that qualifies his original concession.



61. The author implies which of the following about Under the Greenwood Tree in relation to Hardys other
novels?
(A) Although it is his most controlled novel, it does not exhibit any harsh or risky impulses.
(B) It, more than his other novels, reveals Hardy as a realist interested in the history of ordinary human
beings.
(C) In it Hardys novelistic impulses are managed somewhat better than in his other novels.
(D) Its plot, like the plots of all of Hardys other novels, splits into two distinct parts.
(E) It is Hardys most thorough investigation of the psychology of love.



Passage 4
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As the Moorish states in all parts of Spain fell into progressive political, military, and literary decadence, the
atmosphere of the established Christian centers became increasingly more favorable to an intensive and varied
literary development. The growth of cities had produced a comparatively urban and cultured population with
sufficient leisure and security to find time for literary entertainment. The growth of commerce had brought
Spaniards into contact with other societies that had developed original and stimulating literary traditions. The
growth of a recognized and responsible central government, following the definitive unification of Castile and
Len under Ferdinand III
early in the thirteenth century, had provided a court or central cultural focus toward which men of literary ability
could gravitate. The growing selfawareness of the writer as a unique creative personality, from the anonymity of
the cantares de gesta to the tentative identification we see in the poetry of Berceo, to intense and affirmative
individualism of the later mester declereca in Juan Ruiz and Lpez de Ayala, demands an ever broader field in
which to realize and fulfill itself. In obedience to this sort of aesthetic need and nurtured on the expanding
possibilities of a settled and prospering society, the fifteenth century represents a period of great fecundity in the
development and widening of literary genres.

The medieval cantar de gesta, which had so magnificently served the needs of a society of embattled warriors,
undergoes a major change, possibly through the influence of the mester de clereca. In the new society there was
neither time, place, nor public for the recitation of the long and usually complex epic poems, but the great deeds,
the great heroes still held their magic for the general public. These survive in a new poetic form, the romances.
The anonymous romances are short poems of regular meter and assonance which capture an intense and
dramatic momentof sorrow, of defeat, of parting, of returnin simple and direct language. They are generally
fragmentary, combining lyricism and narration taken from the dramatic high points of the epics. Some critics have
thought that the oldest romances represent a survival of the raw material from which the long cantares grew, but
the more generally accepted opinion is that they represent the opposite process; as the old cantares fell into
oblivion, the best moments and the most stirring passages were conserved and polished and given new life.

Supporting this view is the fact that the earliest romances go back only to the middle of the fourteenth century, a
time in which the cantares were in a period of final decadence and the oldest epic poems already forgotten. They
share the realism and directness of the cantares, and also the greater polish and lyricism of the mester de clereca.
Some thousands of them have been collected and not all relate to the material of the Spanish epics.

62. The passage implies that
(A)The cantares focus on heroic deeds associated with war, whereas the romances are concerned with peace.
(B)The cantares were often recited to audiences
(C) The romances probably influenced the mester de clereca.
(D)The influence of Moorish culture on the romance was less strong than it was on the cantares.
(E) The authors of romances were well-educated, recognized writers.

63. From the passage the reader can infer that
(A) the cantar was the only literary genre in Spain before 1600.
(B.)the decline of the Moorish states in Spain resulted in the destruction of much early Spanish literature.
(C) fifteenth-century Spanish culture benefited from outside influences.
(D) the mester de clereca were more popular than the cantares.
(E) before the fifteenth century most Spaniards were illiterate.

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64. According to the passage, the theory that the romances come from the same raw material as the cantares is
questionable because
(A) Romances came into being only after the decline of the cantares.
(B) The subject matter of romances is the lives of everyday people rather than the lives of heroes.
(C)Romances are more lyrical and complex than cantares.
(D)The cantares were unavailable to the writers of the romances.
(E) foreign influences are prevalent in the romances but not in the cantares.


Directions for questions 65-67: Some part of each sentence is underlined; sometimes the whole sentence is
underlined. Four choices for rephrasing the underlined part follow each sentence. Choose the best option
which is grammatically correct and effective, not awkward or ambiguous.


65.Jamieson's proposal was rejected for several reasons, the chief among which was cost.
(A) the chief among which was cost
(B) the chief of which was cost
(C) among which the chief was its cost
(D) the chief reason of which was its cost
(E) the main one was cost


66.For many travelers, charter vacations often turn out to cost considerably more than they originally seemed.

(A) They originally seem to
(B) They seemingly would cost originally
(C) It originally seemed they would
(D) It seemed originally
(E) They originally seemed



67.The public library allocated revenues it recieved from the recently passed tax initiative to the purchasing of
more than 2000 books and 50 computers.

(A) to the purchasing of more than 2000 books and 50 computers.
(B) in order to purchase more than 2000 books and 50 computers.
(C) so as to purchase more than 2000 books and 50 computers.
(D) for the purchase of more than 2000 books and 50 computers.
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(E) so that more than 2000 books and 50 computers could be purchased


Directions for Questions 68-71: Read the following paragraphs and answer the questions that follow.

68. Psychologist: The obligation to express gratitude cannot be fulfilled anonymously. However much society may
have changed over the centuries, human psychology is still driven primarily by personal interaction. Thus, the
important social function of positively reinforcing those behaviors that have beneficial consequences for others
can be served only if the benefactor knows the source of the gratitude.

Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the psychologists argument by the claim
that the obligation to express gratitude cannot be fulfilled anonymously?
a. It is an illustration of a premise that is used to support the arguments conclusion.
b. It is used to counter a consideration that might be taken to undermine the arguments conclusion.
c. It is used to identify the social benefit with which the argument is concerned.
d. It is the conclusion that the argument is intended to support.
e. It is a claim used to support a claim which the author finally endorses


(A)The statement in question is not an example of an idea raised in a premise
(B) The answer choice describes a premise that is used to defend the argument from an attack. This would better
describe the second sentence of the argument
(C) This answer choice better describes the last sentence
(D) This answer describes the statement as the main conclusion which is true
(E) It is describing the sub conclusion or the intermediate conclusion.

69. Lobsters and other crustaceans eaten by humans are more likely to contract gill diseases when sewage
contaminates their water. Under a recent proposal, millions of gallons of local sewage each day would be
rerouted many kilometers offshore. Although this would substantially reduce the amount of sewage in the harbor
where lobsters are caught, the proposal is pointless, because hardly any lobsters live long enough to be harmed
by those diseases.

Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(A) Lobsters, like other crustaceans, live longer in the open ocean than in industrial harbors.
(B) Lobsters breed as readily in sewage contaminated water as in unpolluted water.
(C) Humans often become ill as a result of eating lobsters with gill diseases
(D). Gill diseases cannot be detected by examining the surface of the lobster.
(E) Contaminants in the harbour other than sewage are equally harmful to lobsters.


70. Medical researcher: As expected, records covering the last four years of ten major hospitals indicate that
babies born prematurely were more likely to have low birth weights and to suffer from health problems than
were babies not born prematurely. These records also indicate that mothers who had received adequate prenatal
care were less likely to have low birth weight babies than were mothers who had received inadequate prenatal
care. Adequate prenatal care, therefore, significantly decreases the risk of low birth weight babies.
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Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the medical researchers argument?
(A) The hospital records indicate that many babies that are born with normal birth weights are born to mothers
who had inadequate prenatal care.
(B) Mothers giving birth prematurely are routinely classified by hospitals as having received inadequate prenatal
care when the record of that care is not available.
(C) Some babies not born prematurely, whose mothers received adequate prenatal care, have low birth weights.
(D) Women who receive adequate prenatal care are less likely to give birth prematurely than are women who do
not receive adequate prenatal care.
(E) The hospital Records indicate that low birth weight babies were routinely classified as having been born
prematurely.



71.Editorialist: Drivers with a large number of demerit points who additionally have been convicted of a serious
driving-related offense should either be sentenced to jail or be forced to receive driver reeducation, since to do
otherwise would be to allow a crime to go unpunished. Only if such drivers are likely to be made more responsible
drivers should driver re-education be recommended for them. Unfortunately, it is always almost impossible to
make drivers with a large number of demerit points more responsible drivers.

If the editorialists statements are true, they provide the most support for which one of the following?
(A) Drivers with a large number of demerit points who have been convicted of a serious driving-related offense
should be sent to jail.
(B) Driver re-education offers the best chance of making drivers with a large number of demerit points responsible
drivers.
(C) Driver re-education is not a harsh enough punishment for anyone convicted of a serious driving-related
offense who has also accumulated a large number of demerit points.
(D) Driver re-education should not be recommended for those who have committed no serious driving-related
offenses.
(E) Drivers with no demerit points or any serious driving offence should not be sent to jail.


DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS72-74: The questions below consist of a group of sentences followed by a suggested
sequential arrangement. Select the best sequence.

72. (A) This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe - up to a point.
(B) It emerged from the mathematics of chance and statistics.
(C) Therefore, the risk is measurable and manageable.
(D) The fundamental concept: Prices are not predictable, but the mathematical laws of chance can
describe their fluctuations.
(E) This is how what business schools now call modern finance was born.

(A) ADCBE (B) EBDCA (C) ABDCE (D) DCBEA (E) ABCDE

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73. A. Events intervened, and in the late 1930s and 1940s, Germany suffered from Over branding.
B. The British used to be fascinated by the home of Romanticism.
C. But reunification and the federal governments move to Berlin have prompted Germany to think
again about its image.
D. The first foreign package holiday was a tour of Germany organized by Thomas Cook in 1855.
E. Since then, Germany has been understandably nervous about promoting itself abroad.

(A) ACEBD (B) DECAB (C) BDAEC (D) DBAEC (E) ABCDE

74. A. Past research has uncovered the fact that cognitive age is inversely related to life satisfaction among the
elderly.
B. A person may feel young or old irrespective of chronological age.
C. That is, the younger an elderly person feels, the more likely she or he is to be satisfied with life in
general.
D. Cognitive age is a psychological construct that refers to ones subjective assessment of ones age.

(A) BDAC (B) DBAC (C) DCAB (D) ABCD (E) DCBA

Directions for Question 75)Each question consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentences are
grammatically correct or appropriate. Select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect and
inappropriate sentence(s).

75) A. Would you mind if I sit down.
B. On entering the room, Ram was found hanging from the ceiling.
C. If he was here now, we would have had no difficulty.
D. He had to fight at odds with him.

(A) B, C & D (B) A, B & C (C) B & C (D) A & B only (E) None of the above




SECTION III- SOLUTIONS

51) Answer A

The answer to this question lies in the last line of the passage
The way the language of art refers to the visible world is both so obvious and so mysterious that it is still
largely unknown except to artists, who use it as we use all languagewithout needing to know its grammar and
semantics.

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Option E and D are out of scope answer options.
Answer option (B) is wrong because of the adverb unusually (where is it given in the passage) and adjective
quick. Moreover many artists have an intuitive understanding of language of art and not language
itself

It was a close call between A and C.
Option C says that artists can produce works of art even if they cannot analyze their methods of doing so
But the lines say that the artist need not analyze their methods to produce their works.
There is a difference between need not and cannot. Cannot means that the artists did not have the capability
to analyze but need not means there was no necessity for them to analyze the work. So option C is
wrong

So the answer is A.


52 )Answer D
Look at these lines in the first paragraph
The very reason why the representation of nature can now be considered something commonplace should
be of the greatest interest to art historians. Never before has there been an age when the visual image
was so cheap in every sense of the word. We are surrounded and assailed by posters and
advertisements, comics and magazine illustrations. We see aspects of reality represented on television,
postage stamps, and food packages

The word cheap in the third line means that contemporary commercial art such as advertisements, comics
etc are undervalued by art historians.
So (D) option is the correct one

53) Answer (c)
This is a data based inference question.
Let us first look at the lines
in fact, rather critical of certain theories of non-representational art

We do not get any clue regarding what these non representational arts are. Let us go to the next line
. But to argue over these theories would be to miss the point
The author has used a pronoun these without defining the term non representational art. So we need
to go to the next line
That the discoveries and effects of representation that were the pride of earlier artists have become
trivial today I would not deny for a moment

Here we get a clue that the adherents of certain theories of nonrepresentational art considered usage of illusion
trivial.
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Therefore we can infer that (C ) is the best answer option.
The other way we can get the answer is through the complement rule.
Author is a critic of theories of non representational art. The adherents of theories of non representational art will
be against the views of the author.
Author states that
When we consider great painters of the past, the study of art and the study of illusion cannot always be
separated
So the adherents of non representational art will feel that illusions are inappropriate for art.
So the answer is (C )


54 Answer (D)
Look at these lines in the first paragraph.
By illusion I mean those contrivances of color, line, shape, and so forth that lead us to see marks on a flat
surface as depicting three-dimensional objects in space
This is a main theme inference question.The whole passage is regarding usage of illusion in art.The
definition of illusion is in the above lines.
Look at the red coloured line.
That will lead you to the correct answer (D) and not (C ). C generically talks about 3d image.We need a
illusion.



55)
Answer e)
the question asks about the authors position
Look at this line from the first paragraph "I refer to those for whom the notion of parallel worlds holds
fascination"
So A is not the authors opinion
Look at this line "While this necessary limitation may lie behind the reluctance to accord counter-factualism
academic respectability"
So B is also not authors opinion
Look at this line "if they are to contain any meaningful truth"
So the author is contemplating on this and it is not his strong position
So C is also not authors opinion
Next let us look at this line "there does seem to be a real human urge" .
So D is also not authors positon


56)
Answer B)

The following lines from last paragraph justifies option b
"That may well be true, but does it entitle Carr to argue from the particular circumstances of aggrieved victims of
the Bolshevik
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revolution to a general assertion that counter-factualism is without merit? "
The author agrees with their views but he says that determinists historians are generalising things based on single
example.
Indirectly he says that he is not happy with their reasoning methodology.
So answer B
he is not directly critical about them.
Option C) and D) are junk options


57)

Answer a)

This is an inference question .look at these lines
"Some of these conjectures undoubtedly informed post-war decision making, which led, inter alia, to the idea of
collective action,
initially through the League of Nations, later the United Nations".
So these conjectures (on prevention of world war ) led to a real world event (formation of United nations)
All the other examples do not lead to a real world event.
So the answer is a)



58)

Answer e)
many would have felt that option a) is correct .But that is not the case.Read through the lines.
He says that the sensitivity test used are not counter factual.
"obviously is itself not counterfactual"
But in the next line he states that "but he is basing his assessment partly on his knowledge of the past"
And in the last line the author states that "This too is counter-factualism" which means that the court also
uses
counterfactualism like the businessman.
b) and c) are definitely true.

So the answer is e)

59)Answer (A)
Let us look at these lines from the passage
When a relaxing impulse was indulged, the stylethat sure index of an authors literary worth
(A) and (E) are pretty close choices.
The meaning of the word Worth is merit and not reputation.
So the answer is (a)
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60) Answer (B)
This is a structure question.

Let us look at all the lines


Thus, one impulse often surrendered to a fresher one and, unfortunately, instead of exacting a compromise,
simply disappeared.
A desire to throw over reality a light that never was might give way abruptly to the desire on the part of what we
might consider a novelist-scientist to record exactly and concretely the structure and texture of a flower.
In this instance, the new impulse was at least an energetic one, and thus its indulgence did not result in a relaxed
style.
But on other occasions Hardy abandoned a perilous, risky, and highly energizing impulse in favor of what was for
him the fatally relaxing impulse to classify and schematize abstractly.

Look at both the highlighted structure words. The second highlighted word is a contrary work. So the fourth line
and the third line are contrasting examples.
Moreover the third line is an example of the generalization made in the second line.
So the structure would be
second line is a generalization, third line is an example to support the generalization and the fourth line is an
example qualifying(weakening) the second lines generalization
And the first line is more of a summary of the previous line and not a judgement.
So the answer is ( b )


61 (c)
It was a close choice between C and D
His most controlled novel, Under the Greenwood Tree, prominently exhibits two different but
reconcilable impulsesa desire to be a realist-historian and a desire to be a psychologist of lovebut the
slight interlockings of plot are not enough to bind the two completely together. Thus even this book splits into
two distinct parts.
He says that even this book splits into two parts. But nowhere has he said that all of hardys books are split
into two parts. SO ( D ) is wrong.
62

The best choice is b. The implication in lines 2224 is that the cantares were
more often recited in public than read in private. Choice A is incorrect. The romances
combine lyricism with narration taken from the dramatic high points of
the epics; nothing suggests that they are concerned with peace rather than war.
Notice that defeat is mentioned as one of the moments captured by romances.
Eliminate choice A. The passage does not refer to Moorish influence on any of the genres, so choice C can be
eliminated. Choice D
is a reversal of what the passage suggests (lines 2022). Eliminate choice D.
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Option E is junk answer option.


63

The best choice is D. The author cites Spaniards contact with other societies as a
positive influence on Spains literary development (lines 68). The statements in
both choices A and B are far too sweeping, based on information in the passage.
Choice D is not mentioned or implied, and nothing suggests that the mester de
clereca were more popular than the epics
Option (e) is junk answer option.


64.
The best choice is A. According to the author, the cantares were in a period of
final decadence at the time the romances were born, so it is unlikely that they
came from the same raw material. Choice B is incorrect; the subject matter of
romances was not the lives of everyday people. In lines 2324 the cantares are
described as usually complex, whereas in line 28 the romances are characterized
as written in simple and direct language, making choice C also a bad
choice. Since the subject matter of romances often derives from the epics, choice
D is also incorrect. Foreign influences on the genres, choice E, are not addressed
in the passage.

65) Answer (b)
chief means main or principal, and all three words mean the top one. And when we refer to a member of a group,
we use of. For example, if we want to name our best friend, we'd say He is the best of my friends, but not He is the
best among my friends.

Now, run these through your head to see how they sound:
The main reason of all the reasons.
The main reason among all the reasons.
I think the first sounds better and is more precise.

SO the answer is (b)

66 ) answer ( C )
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'The tricky part is to choose between it and they. 'They' would imply that the travelers themselves first seemed to
do one thing and then ended up doing another. The expletive 'it'(indefinite pronoun), the pronoun with no clear
antedecent - makes more sense, it simply suggests that initial cost indications were misleading. Using 'it', it is
necessary to include the phrase 'they would' to make it clear what seemed to be the case.
Furthermore, the "past future" of would in C is more precise than the simple past in D. Since we're talking about
something we'd learn after a certain point in the past, would is better.

67.
Answer (A)
Allocated to is the correct idiomatic usage. So ( A ) is the correct answer.

68) Answer (D)


69) answer (C)
A. This has no impact because the argument is about the lobsters that are caught in the harbor. So, while
lobsters in the open ocean may live longer,the authors point about the lobsters in the harbor not living long
to contract the gill disease is untouched
B.The issue is not breeding frequency but longevity.Sothis fact does not impact the argument on age abd
disease contraction
C. Here the author fails to addresse the effect of the contaminated lobster on humans who consume them,
and this answer attacks that hole.If humans become ill as aresult of eating the lobsters with gll disease, and
gill disease are more likely to arise when the lobster live in the sewage water,then the conclusion that the
proposal is pointless is incorrect.
D.The lobsters contract a gill disease is a critical issue in the argument,the method of determining whether a
lobster has a disease is not a critical issue.
E. Junk answer option.

70)ANS:B
A. The conclusion specifically states that mothers who had received adequate prenatal care were less likely
to have low birth weight babies than were mothers who had received inadequate prenatal care. Thus this
likelihood allows the mother who had inadequate prenatal care also to have babies with normal weight.
So the aforementioned mothers may be more likely to have low birth weight babies, but they can still give
birth to babies of normal weight.
B. This choice undermines the relationship in the argument because the data used to make the conclusion is
shown to be unreliable.
C. This is similar to answer choice A the likelihood discussed in the stimulus allows for this possibility. Hence,
this answer cannot hurt the argument.
D. If anything this answer strengthens the argument since it shows that inadequate prenatal care has a
powerful positive effect
E. Junk answer option.

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71)ANS A
A. The stimulus states that demerited drivers cannot be made more responsible. If this is true then they are not
eligible for re education so the only choice left is to send them to jail.
B. The stimulus does not discuss the BEST CHANCE for making the drivers more responsible. This is new
information
C. The stimulus does not discuss whether driver re education is a harsh enough punishment and thus we can
eliminate this choice
D. The stimulus does not address drivers who have not committed a serious driving offence, only those convicted
of such an offence. Thus we are not sure that the recommendations made in the stimulus apply to the drivers
mentioned in this answer choice.
E. Junk answer option.

72) B

73)C

74)A

75) Answer (B)

A. Would you mind if I sit down.
Statement Incorrect
Correct statement "Would you mind if I sat down"
Statements of this structure always take the past tense in the if clause.

B. On entering the room, Ram was found hanging from the ceiling.
Incorrect statement.
Dangling Modifier.
Correct statement "When we entered the room,Ram was found hanging from the ceiling"
C. If he was here now, we would have had no difficulty.
Incorrect statement
Wrong structure in conditionals.
Correct statement : " If he were here now, we would have had no difficulty."
D. He had to fight at odds with him.
Correct statement . Correct idiomatic usage: at odds.








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