Dr.

Yayooo November 2012 Expected Exam Questions with answers

1. One of your regular patients comes to the pharmacy in search of Dogmatil for her brother. He has just
arrived from Singapore for a visit, but his medication was lost with his luggage. She says her brother needs the
medication for a CNS condition and shouldnt go without it. She wants to know if he can get Dogmatil here.
Which of the following appropriate reference:
a. Canadian hospital journal
b. American hospital journal
c. CPS
d. Martindale, The complete drug reference
e. National formulary
2. Pharmacy professional ethical standards include non-maleficence, which means:
a. Pharmacist should act with honesty and veracity
b. Pharmacist should act with fairness
c. Pharmacist should prevent harm
d. Pharmacist should place the benefit of the patient above all else.
e. Pharmacist should respect patient choice.
3. Planes and Sections of the body: separates the body into unequal right and left portions is referred as:
a. Sagittal plane
b. Midsagittal plane
c. Coronal plane
d. Parasagittal plane
e. Oblique

4. Which of the following drug is reserved for treatment of ulcerative colitis because the drug is not absorbed
from the gut and acts locally?
a. Sulfamethoxazole
b. Sulfasalazine
c. Trimethorpim + Sulfamethaxazole
d. Sulfaetamide
e. Metronidazole
5. A 55 year pharmacy manager want to delegate a project to a pharmacy technician, The principles of
delegation consist of:
I- Responsibility
II-Authority
III-Accountability
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above

6. If the PCO2 60 while normal is 40 and bicarbonate is 10 while normal is 15, the disorder is called
a. metabolic acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. no acid base disorder
d. respiratory acidosis
e. respiratory alkalosis
st

7. In Michelis menten equation, 1 order kinetic achieved at:

I-higher concentration of substrate than Vmax
II-Same concentration of substrate at Vmax
III-Lower concentration of substrate than Vmax
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
8. A drug is wrongly dispensed to a patient, and patient has no knowledge of wrong medication. Who should be
informed first:
A-Doctor
B-Nurse
C-Patient
D-Pharmacy manager
E-Pharmacy technician
9. Which of the following drugs that causes vitamin B6 deficiency:
I-Isoniazid
II- Penicillamine
III- Methotrexate
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
10. Which of the following molecule form free radicals?
I-Fatty acid peroxidation is result of free radical formation
II-Hydrogen peroxide and other peroxide produce free radicals
III-Oxygen produces free radicals
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
11. This year sales is $150,000, at start of year $25,000 at the end of year 50,000 the inventory capital. What is
the turn over?
A-2

B-3
C-4
D-5
E-6
12. Which of the following is the most common metabolic reaction in stomach:
A-Oxidation
B-Reduction
C-Hydrolysis
D-Conjugation
E-Glucoronidation
13. A 33 year old woman receives long term and high dose treatment of sulfamethaxazole. After 2 weeks of
treatment, she has low grade of fever, rash, and muscle and joint pains. These symptoms indicate which type of
hypersensitive reaction.
A-Type I
B-Type II
C-Type III
D-Type IV
E-Type V
14. A 14 year old patient coming to pharmacy for oral contraceptive, which of the following is the appropriate
action.
A-Do not dispense oral contraceptive
B-Dispense oral contraceptives
C-Call doctor and verify
D-Call parents and inform about oral contraceptives
15. What are the incorrect statement in ophthalmic drops administration techniques:
I- Tilt head forward and look downwards
II-Draw eyelid down with index finger
III-Instill drop in conjunctiva sack
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
16. What is QALY?
A- Quantity adjusted life year
B-Quality adjusted life year
C-Quantity adjusted life period
D-Quality adjusted life period
E-Quality administration life year
17. Which of the following is not a parametric test?
A- Mean
B- Chi-square test
C- Standard deviation
D- t-test (student test)
E- None of the above

18. What is a rate of constant of heparin in first order kinetic if 50 units/cc of heparin remains in solution after
10 days ? [Initial concentration of heparin was 5000 units/cc]
A.2.1 day-1
B. 0.5 day-1
C. 0.46 day-1
D.10 days-1
E. 1.23 day-1
19. Drugs that may affect the normal activity of warfarin include:
A. Ibuprofen
B. Aspirin
C. Vitamin K
D. Acetaminophen
E. All are correct
20. A pharmacist received a prescription for cimetidine 300 mg tablets but did not have the item in stock. The
pharmacist decided to substitute famotidine 20 mg tablets in its place, this substitution is called:
A. Generic substitution
B. Pharmaceutical substitution
C. Therapeutic substitution
D. Biological substitution
E. Brand substitution

21. Lipooxigenase function in the following mechanism:

A. Conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin
B. Conversion of histidine to histamine
C. Conversion of tryptophan to serotonin
D. Conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotriene
E. Inhibits Leukocyte migration.
22. Which of the following should be monitored in-patient taking warfarin:
I-INR
II-Prothrombin time (PT)
III-aPTT
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
23. A researcher develops a new drug to prevent the common cold in children over of two. 1000 children
received placebo and 1000 received the drug. During the one year follow up the research diagnosed colds in
2.5% of the kids on placebo and in 2% of the active treatment. What is the absolute risk reduction?
A. 05%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 40%

E. 5%
24. Chemical ring structure in folic acid that binds to para aminobenzoic acid is;
A. PABA ring
B. Pteridine ring
C. Glutamate
D. Quinolone ring
E. Epoxide ring
25. What is the mechanism of action of montelukast (Singulair)?
A-Leukotriene inhibitors
B-LTC4 and LTD4 inhibitors
C-Cyclooxygenase inhibitors
D-5HT1D inhibitors
E-Antihistamines
26. All of the following drugs have sulfa allergy EXCEPT:
A. Acetazolamide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Chlorothiazide
D. Furosemide
E. Diazoxide
27. All of the following conditions are essential for thiazide structure:
I-sulfonamide group on benzene ring
II-Chloro or trifluoromethyl group on position 6.
III-Double bond on position 3 and 4
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
28. Vitamin is characterized as:
A. It is cofactor
B. It is inorganic substance
C. It is catalyst
D. It is organic substance
E. It is enzyme
29. In the oral treatment of iron deficient anemia, choice of administration of iron is:
I-Elemental iron
II-Iron complex form
III-Ferrous iron
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above

30. Choose correct answer about linolenic acid and linoleic acid:
I-Linolenic acid is should be taken with diet
II-Linolenic acid and linoleic acid have only difference of double bond in chemical structure
III-Both of them are essential fatty acids
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
31. Which vitamin structure is related to steroidal hormone structures:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
32. The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:
A. Virus
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. Both gram-positive and negative bacteria
E. Plasmodium
33. A 38 year old bus operator with history of arrhythmias suffering from seasonal rhinitis. This of the
following is the best choice for his condition:
A. Meclizine
B. Fexofenadine
C. Famotidine
D. Diphenhydramine
E. Dimenhydrinate
34. Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin have the following properties:
I-Interfere with vitamin K dependent coagulant factors II, VII, IX and X
II-Interfere with vitamin K dependent coagulant factors I, II, IX and X
III- Interfere with vitamin K dependent coagulant factors II, VII, IX, X and XII
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II Only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
35. Correct statements regarding using Permethrin 1% (nix) in the treatment of head lice may include
I. Head lice may be resistant to nix 1% so second application is required after 7 days
II. Comb hair with fine toothed comb to remove nits
III. Change and clean bedding, clothing and towels
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above
36. A 26 year old young woman presents with the symptoms of urinary tract infections. Which of the following
is least likely her symptom?
A. Frequent urination
B. Hyperhidrosis (diaphorosis)
C. Urinary urgency
D. Suprapubic discomfort
E. Burning sensation
37. The structure shown below is:

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Chlorothiazide
D. Mannitol
E. Warfarin
38. If a structure of a drug contain three stereogenic centers (chiral center), there will be how many isomer
possible for this structure;
A. 8
B. 12
C. 21
D. 9
E. 6
39. In which of the following indications are the fluoroquinolones are ineffective?
A. UTI due to E. coli
B. UTI due to pseudomonas
C. Pneumonia due to S. pneumonia
D. UTI due to resistant strain of klebsiella
E. Chronic bronchitis due to M. catarrhalis
40. All of the following statement are correct about enantiomers, EXCEPT:
A. Enantiomers are optical isomers that are mirror images of one another.
B. Enantiomers have identical physical and chemical properties.
C. Enantiomers one rotate plane of polarized light in clockwise direction are known as dextrorotatory, D or +
D. Enantiomers one rotate plane of polarized light in anti clockwise direction are known as levorotatory, L or E. one hundred percent mixture of D or L enantiomers is called racemic mixture.
41. Ulcers are complications of gastrointestinal tract. The risk of having ulcers is bigger in people having which
of the following conditions:

A. Smokers
B. Alcoholics
C. NSAID long-term treatment

D. Corticosteroids long-term treatment

E. All are correct

42. Poison Ivy can be treated by which of the following agents?

I- Topical antipruritic
II- Antihistaminics
III- Systemic corticosteroids
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
43. Acetaminophen toxicity most well knows complication is:
A. Cardiovascular failure
B. Pulmonary edema
C. CNS lethargy
D. Liver necrosis
E. Sedation
44. Glutathione catalysis is extremely important in preventing toxicity from variety of drugs, toxic products are
excreted as:
A. S-adenosyl transferase
B. Glutamic acid
C. Mercapturic acid
D. Amino acids
E. Sulfadryl groups
45. Metabolism of drug is enhanced by:
I-Passive reabsorption
II-Excretion
III-Tubular secretion
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
46. The abrupt release of large and uncontrolled amount of drug from the modified release dosage form
affecting the bioavailability is called:
A. Dose extended release
B. Dose dumping
C. First-pass dose effect
D. Fast release dose
E. Tumbling
47. Thin walled, fluid blistered develop within minute in burn depth of:
A. 1st degree
B. 2nd degree superficial partial thickness

C. 2nd degree deep partial thickness

D. 3rd degree
E. 3rd degree full thickness
48. Treatment of tricyclic antidepressants overdose is done by all the following procedures, EXCEPT:
A. Control the seizures and cardiotoxicity
B. Administration of benzodiazepine or phenytoin to control seizures
C. Activated charcoal can be used
D. MAO antidepressants can helps to overcome the patients seizure
E. Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate
49. True statements regarding the treatment of hyperkalemia:
I- If change in ECG is detected give Ca to counteract the excess of K on the heart
II- Bicarbonate and insulin administration can shift K from extra to intracellular
III- Enema of kafexolate (exchange resin) or dialysis helps to remove excess of K from the body
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
50. Management and characteristics of Digoxin toxicity may include:
I- May cause heart failure, cardiac dysrhythmias, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and confusion
II- Treated by decontamination and supportive therapy
III- Treated with a digoxin specific antidote known as FAB antibodies
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
51. Type I error, also called alpha-error give what kind of results?
A. False-positive
B. False-negative
C. Positive false
D. False-false
E. Positive-positive
52. Structure Activity Relationship (SAR) studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:
I- Maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester group
II- Structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity
III- One methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss
of activity.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
53. All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma, EXCEPT:

A. Airway obstruction and inflammation

B. Destructive changes in the alveolar walls
C. Thickened smooth muscle of airway
D. Mucosal edema
E. Narrowed lumen of airway
54. Pyridine is a mono heterocyclic compound very important in the activity of many different drugs. The
molecular structure 1,4-dihydropyridine is found in:
A. Verapamil
B. Digoxin
C. Clonidine
D. Nifedipine
E. Diltiazen
55. A liquid whose viscosity is increased when an agent is combined is called as:
A. Dilatant
B. Surfactant
C. Wetting agent
D. Emulsion
E. Suspension
56. The only phospholipid with pharmaceutical application
I. Lecithin
II. Cephalin
III. Sphingomyelins
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
57. A doctor wants to know more about tetracycline class of medication, which of the following are the
incorrect statement about tetracyclines
A. Tetracycline must be taken empty stomach
B. Doxycycline may be taken regardless of meals
C. Minocycline may be indicated for acne treatment
D. Tetracycline is not photosensitive however, minocycline is photosensitive
E. Doxycycline is drug of choice in renal disease patient.
58. Imidazoline is a molecular structure that contains a heterocyclic ring and belong the molecular structure of:
A. Prazosin
B. Nifedipine
C. Atropine
D. Clonidine
E. Allopurinol
59. Transdermal diffusion:
I. To avoid drug from the first pass effect
II. Prolong duration of action of drug
III. Overcome pharmaceutical problems
A.I only

B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
60. In the following formulations
Phenol 0.5%
Cimetidine HCl
Water for injection USP
What is the role of phenol in this preparation?
A. Preservative
B. Solvent
C. Co-solvent
D. Diluents
E. Disinfectant
61. Levigation:
I-Reducing particle size of solids by the addition of a small amount of liquid
II-Ointment base to make a paste, which is then rubbed with a spatula against a tile.
III-Grinding to small particle using mortar and pestle adding solvent that evaporates after grinding to give dry
powder
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
62. Fluorinated hydrocarbons are restricted to be used as propellant gases in aerosols because:
I-They have poor bronchial absorption
II-They are toxic
III-They deplete ozone layer in atmosphere
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
63. Choose incorrect combination of cytochrome and suitable class of drug metabolism:
A. CYP3A
B. CYP3A
C. CYP2D6
D. CYP1A2
E. CYP11

Benzodiazepine
Lovastatin
TCA and SSRI
tobacco smoking
omeprazole

64. The pH of buffer system can be calculated with

A. Noyes-Whitney equation
B. Henderson-Hesselbach equation
C. Michaelis-Menten equation
D. Yonge Equation
E. Stokes equation

65. When does co-precipitation occurs:

A. Slow addition of precipitant
B. Rapid addition of precipitant
C. Addition of cold solution
D. Addition of hot solution
E. Very slow addition of precipitant
66. Eutectic mixture:
A. Increases melting point of mixture
B. Decreases melting point of mixture
C. Increase boiling point
D. Decreases boiling point of mixture
E. Neither melting point nor boiling point will effect.
67. Amines are one of the most common group present in the molecular structure of drugs. Primary amines are
mainly metabolized by phase II metabolism:
A. Deamination
B. De alkylation
C. Acetylation
D. Hydrolysis
E. Oxidation
68. Mesh size of filters used against microbial contamination:
A.0.22 m
B.0.22 mm
C.2.2 m
D-22 m
E. 2.2 mm
69. Vapor pressure:
I-It is the pressure of vapor above the boiling liquid
II-Increase solute causes decrease of vapor pressure
III-Increase of solute caused increase of vapor pressure
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
70. The Latin abbreviation for: Take one tablet four time daily after meals and at bedtime is:
A. I QID AC & PC
B. I QID PC & HS
C. II BID PC & HS
D. III OD AC & PC
E. I QID AC & HS
71. Autoclaving is sterilization process of:
A. Dry heat sterilization
B. Steam Sterilization
C. Filtration

D. Gas sterilization
E. Irradiation
72. A patient using lugol solution should be counseled:
I-Lugol solution may cause stains
II-Use topical only
III-Used in hypothyroidism patients
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
73. A 56 year female, mother of two teenage daughter, receiving oral anticoagulant warfarin. What is the goal
of INR for warfarin oral anticoagulant therapy?
A. 2.5 to 3.5
B. 2.0 to 3.0
C. 3.0 to 3.5
D. 1.5 to 2.0
E. 2.0 to 3.5
74. A 55 year old woman receiving bisphosphonates (alendronate) for osteoporosis treatment. A pharmacist
counseled her that Do not lie down for 30 min after taking this medication, that may cause;
I-Esophageal ulcers
II-Mouth ulcer
III-stomach ulcers
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
75. Instructions for Synthroid tablet:
I. Should not be taken with Iron and soya
II. Should not be taken within 4 hours of Ibuprofen
III. Should not be crushed
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

76. Ancrod, a thrombolytic agent is characterized by:

I- It is derivate from snake venom
II- It depletes fibrinogen
III- It is an alternative to heparin
A. I only
B. III only

C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
77. Correct statements regarding chlorpromazine may include:
I- A phenothiazine class anti-psychotic drug
II- Long-term treatment produces tardive dyskinesia, abnormal movements of tongue and mouth, as side effect
of its long-term therapy.
III- Contra indicated in Parkinsons disease because decrease dopamine levels.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
78. All of the following include as part of income statement, EXCEPT:
A. sales
B. profit
C. cost of goods sold
D. account payable
E. Gross margin
79. Example of anti-anxiety drug with great antihistaminic effect may include:
A. Diazepan
B. Hydroxazine
C. Memprobamate
D. Chlorodiazepoxide
E. Oxazepan
80. Example of anti-anxiety drug with great antihistaminic effect may include:
A. Diazepan
B. Hydroxazine
C. Memprobamate
D. Chlorodiazepoxide
E. Oxazepan
81. The following drug completely blocks the Sodium ion channels, and abolishes action potential.
A. Bungarotoxin
B. Tetradotoxin
C. Digoxin
D. warfarin
E. Vitamin K
82. Which of the following drug does increase cardiac output (CO) with little change in heart rate (HR).
I-Dobutamine
II-Clonidine
III-methyl dopa
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. All of the above
83. The earliest evidence that a drug is stored in tissue is:
A. A large apparent volume of distribution
B. An increasing in plasma protein binding
C. A decrease in the amount of free drug excreted in the urine
D. An increase in the number of side effects produced by the drug
E. A decrease in the rate of metabolites formation in the liver
84. When you need to give a loading dose of a drug, what should be considered?
A. Total body clearance
B. Area under the curve
C. Quantity of drug excreted unchanged in the urine
D. Volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma
E. Plasma protein binding
85. Drugs that increase hepatic microsomal enzyme and increase its own metabolism, this is known as:
A. Potentiation
B. Addiction
C. Tolerance
D. Toxic effect
E. Resistance
86. For first order elimination constant (K), the plot log:
A. Form a straight line which slope is negative
B. Form a straight line which slope is positive
C. Form a curve line which slope is negative
D. Form a curve line which slope is positive
E. Form a linear line parallel to X slope.
87. A magenta tongue and lesions in the corners of mouth suggest a deficiency of
A. Niacin
B. Thiamine
C. Folic acid
D. Riboflavin
E. Cyanocobalamin
88. Opioid analgesics are classified as:
A. Controlled drugs
B. Prescription drugs
C. Schedule I drugs
D. Narcotics
E. Prohibited drugs
89. Levodopa associated with which of following problems:
I-GI symptoms
II-decline in efficacy after 3-5 years (wearing off)
III-Involuntary movement
A. I only

B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
90. Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include:
I- Nasal route has a higher surface area
II- Nasal route has more blood vessels
III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
91. Doctor writes a prescription of ciprofloxacin to a 9 year old boy for respiratory tract infections, which of the
following is appropriate action:
A. Recommend daily single dose for better compliance
B. Recommend suspension for better compliance in children
C. Call doctor to recommend appropriate medication to 9 year old
D. Ciprofloxacin is good choice in less than 18 years old children.
E. All of the above
92. Which of the following statements are correct about smoking cessation?
I-Stop smoking from the day when start using nicotine products.
II-Can continue smoking for 1 or 2 weeks when start non nicotine (zyban) products.
III-Start 21 mg of nicotine patch and slowly taper the dose to 14 mg after 4-6 weeks.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
93. Lethal dose LD50 is classified as:
I-Dose causes 50% of toxic response in tests
II-Dose causes 50% of effect response in tests
III-Dose cause 50% of death response in tests
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
94. Amenorrhea may be described as:
A. Impotence
B. Premenstrual symptoms
C. Menopause
D. Painful menstruation
E. Missing menstruation

95. Mr. Brown, 55 year old asthmatic patient have difficulty in urination and goes frequent urination, wakes ups
several times in night. His blood pressure indicates 160/95 mm Hg. This of the following medication would be
appropriate to treat Mr. Brown conditions.
A. Acebutolol
B. Labetalol
C. Hydralazine
D. Doxazosin
E. Yohimbine
96. Which is true for simple syrup
A. support microbial growth
B. contain alcohol 10%v/v
C. contain sucrose 85%w/v
D. form turbid solution
E. None of the above
97. A nurse calls about a patient having fentanyl patch that falls during bathing and destroyed, the refill stay 2
days after. She wants to get another patch. What should the pharmacist do?
A. call the prescriber to have a written confirmation to dispense it today
B. gives the nurse instruction how to use the patch again
C. gives the patient instruction how to use the patch again
D. advance 2 days refill and make documentation
E. None of the above
98. Flowability of powder measured by:
I. Angle of repose
II. Tapped density
III. Laser Diffraction
A. I only correct
B. I & II only correct
C. II & III only correct
D. All of the above
99. Isotonic solution
A. 0.09% w/v NaCl
B. 0.9% w/v NaCl
C. 9% w/v NaCl
D. 0.1 % w/v NaCl
E. None of the above
100. Drug undergo renal excreted means it is
A. filtered
B. secreted
C. reabsorbed
D. absorbable
E. lipophilic
101. Ca carbonate regimen is
A. 600 mg twice on empty stomach
B. 600 mg twice with food

C. 1000mg once on empty stomach

D. 1000 mg twice with food
E. 2000 IU twice on empty stomach
102. valproic acid conjugated with
A. glucoronide
B. glutamate
C. acetylation
D. methylation
E. Hemoglobin
103. Serum creatinine is less in elder men compared to young because
A. protein binding is more in elder
B. decreased body protein in muscles
C. renal clearance is more in elder
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
104. Woman in her 24 week of pregnancy suffer from popliteal pain (pain in the back knee) which is the sign of
deep vein thrombosis, she should take
A. ASA
B. clopidogrel
C. heparin IV followed by warfarin
D. warfarin
E. dalteparin
105. 45 years old man has to check his blood for insurance purpose, he found fasting blood level 8mmole/l .his
brother 40 yrs. was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 2 yrs. ago. What would be the convenient therapy?
A. insulin
B. metformin
C. metformin and glypiride
D. weight control and exercise
E. any of above is useful
106. Which information is not found in patient self-care
A. candida
B. smoking cessation
C. xerostamia
D. diaper rash
E. vaccination schedules
107. Skin does not contain which receptor
A. pressure
B. pain
C. touch
D. temperature
E. olfactory
108. A lady uses sun block with SPF 15, thats means
A. concentration of active ingredient is 15%
B. 15 sun protection factors are present

C. she should apply it every 15 min

D. sun burn will occur 15 times less if sun block was not applied
E. without sun block sun burn will be 15 more times
109. Pharmacist will protect the confidentiality of the patient, which is wrong
A. refuses to give the information of the patient to the doctor
B. release information to a concerned party if the aim is to prevent him from committing suicide
C. gives the patient a copy of the prescription
D. discuss PHI with anyone not involved in Treatment, Payment or Operations
E. Carry charts and printed material in a manner where the name is clearly visible to others.
110. What is the most complicated form if one wants to establish a pharmacy
A. partnership
B. Corporation
C. co operative
D. franchise
E. sole ownership
111. Problems confronting sole proprietary
A. double taxation for profit
B. takes all responsibility and decision
C. bank doesnt give loan easily
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
112. Pharmacist tell the pharmacy assistant to council a patient about antibiotic, this is against
A. justice
B. autonomy
C. paternalism
D. beneficence
E. commensalism
113. Flu symptoms, all except
A. watery eye
B. sneezing
C. runny nose
D. hives
E. itchy eye
114. Rhabdomyolisis, symptoms all except
A. muscle pain
B. muscle cramp
C. muscle weakness
D. colored urine
E. odoury urine
115. JN, a 17 year old male with a highly resistant form of testicular cancer, is in hospital for treatment. He is an
intelligent, articulate young man. His parents are insisting that the physician treat him with the latest
experimental therapy, but JN does not want to undergo the treatment. If the physician goes ahead and gives the
experimental therapy what ethical principle will have been violated the most?
A. justice

B. autonomy
C. beneficence
D. paternalism
E. veracity
116. Council on ACE inhibitors, all except
A. dry cough
B. swollen face, refer to physician
C. takes high protein diet
D. increase prolactin
E. none of the above
117. Food increase absorption of
A. amoxicillin
B. etidronate
C. cefuxetine acetate
D. norfloxacin
E. all of the above
118. A female has a prescription for corticosteroids cause she suffer from inflammatory bowel disease, the
concern of the pharmacist to ask her if she suffers from all except
A. diabetes mellitus
B. hypertension
C. breast cancer
D. infection
E. osteoporosis
119. Infliximab is used in
A. ashma
B. glomuronephritis
C. chronic inflammatory bowel disease
D. hepatitis
E. none of the above
120. Which is wrong about emulsion?
A. if we add water to o/w emulsion, it will be miscible with it
B. w/o emulsion conducts electricity
C. dispersed phase can be more than 50%
D. decrease creaming by decrease droplet size
E. o/w emulsion is hydrophilic
121. Symptoms of stopping antidepressant all except:
A. Insomnia
B. Sweeting
C. Tremor
D. myalgia
E. withdrawal
122. Not used in acute gout :
A. Allopurinol
B. Cortisone

C. Colchicine
D. Meloxicam
E. NSAID
123. All In ketoacidosis except:
A. Aceton
B. Acetoacetic acid
C. B-hydroxybutyrate
D. Lacitic acid
E. Keton bodies
124. C.DNA obtained from:
A. ds.DNA
B. ss.RNA
C. mRNA
D. tRNA
E. rRNA
125. A Pharmacist owner for 30 years always takes decisions alone. He is considered :
A. Autocratic
B. Selfish
C. Participative
D. Free-rein
E. None of the above

126. Incidence of disease is :

A. Number of past infected people by the disease at a particular time
B. Already existing cases of disease.
C. Measure of the risk of developing some new condition within a specified period of time.
D. The prevalence of disease
E. all of the above

127. Liquid which become more rigid as the rate of deformation increases is?
A. Thixotropic
B. Newtonic
C. Dilatant.
D. Pseudoplastic
E. None of the above

128. Crystalline materials compared to amorphous materials have:

A. No space lattice
B. Less stability
C. Well defined melting point
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
129. Fluid with constant viscosity that does not depend upon the strain rate is said to beA. Plastic
B. Pseudoplastic
C. Viscouselastic
D. Newtonic
E. Non-Newtonian
130. Primary care:
A. Doctor & nurse
B. Hospitalization.
C. Specialist
D. HMO
E. POS
131. Which of the following atomic bond are characterized by physical forces
A.Ionic bond
B.Vander waals bonds
C.Metallic bonds
D.Cavalent bonds
E. hydrophilic bond

132. Microcytic anemia like:

A. Iron deficiency
B. Thalassemia
C. lead poisoning
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
133. All of the followings are diuretics except:
A. Ethacrinic acid
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Mannitol
D. Carbonic anhydrase
E. Bumetanide
134. How many days that a pharmacist should dispense of Augmentin 250mg TID 30 days:
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 1 week
D. 1 month
E. 2 weeks
135. - A patient has a prescription of Enalapril and KCL, what do you ask him?

A. Which product of KCL do you need?

B. Do you take any other antihypertensive?
C. Do you need syrup or tablet?
D. Who prescribe those drugs for you?
E. None of the above
136. Single dose package container packed in the pharmacy must have
expiration date
A. 10 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 6 month
B. 25 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 6 month
C. 35 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 4 month
D. 20 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 6 month
E. 10 % of remain shelf life of the stock but not longer than 12 month
137. A pharmacist can counsel BPH patient with which of the followings:
A. decreases fluid intake before bedtime
B. decreases the consumption of alcohol and caffeine-containing products
C. can use Saw palmetto herb for decrease the hypertrophy
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
138. Which of the following is 5-reductase inhibitor?
A. Kava Kava
B. finasteride dutasteride
C. tamsulosin
D. phenoxybenzamine
E. All of the above
139. Factors important for a drug to reach CSF for treatment of meningitis:
A. O/W partition coefficient.
B. Dose.
C. Plasma protein binding
D. pKa
E. All of the above
140. Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body?
A. 2.0 to 3.5mEq/L
B. 3.5 to 5.0mEq/L
C. 5.0 to 7.5mEq/L
D. 3.5 to 7.5mEq/L
E. 3.0 to 6.0mEq/L
141. Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
142. Which of the following hormone acts on cell membrane?

A. Insulin
B. Prolactin
C. Cortisol
D. Estrogen
E. Alanine
143. Correct statements regarding mutation may include:
I- Cell division
II- Change in genotype
III- Change in DNA replication altering the gene
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
144. Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Ribossomes
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitocondria
Cell membrane
Nucleotide

145. False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

A. Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver
B. Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney
C. Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver
D. Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney
E. Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight
146. In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to:
A. Increase the rate of reaction
B. Decrease the rate of reaction
C. Same rate of reaction
D. Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration
E. Decrease both rate and substrate concentration
147. Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions?
A. Pyruvic acid
B. CO2
C. CO2 + H2O
D. Lactic acid
E. Proteins
148. The conversion of -carotene to vitamin A is carried out in:
A. Pancreas
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Adrenal cortex
E. Nephrons

149. The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:

A. RBCs
B. Reticulum Endothelial
C. Liver
D. Kidney
E. Pancreas
150. Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin?
A. Alanine
B. Proline
C. Leucine
D. Glycin
E. Histadin
151. which of the following is an important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction?
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase reaction
B. Glycogenolysis
C. ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction
D. Enolase reaction
E. Glucogenolysis
152. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA?
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA ligase
D. RNA transferase
E. None of the above
153. Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element?
A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
E. Phosphorous
154. Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as:
A. Monosaccharideo
B. Polysaccharide
C. Disaccharide
D. Oligosaccharide
E. None of the above
155. Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN?
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Anaerobic glycolysis
156. Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include:

A. Carrier activated amino acids to the ribosome

B. Specifies amino acids sequence template for protein synthesis
C. Enable DNA fragments to be joined
D. Synthesize RNA
E. Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells
157. Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Cobalt
D. Magnesium
E. Calcium
158. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Pyridoxine
E. Folic acid
159. Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy?
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Folic acid
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Pyridoxine
E. Niacin
160. Which of the following vitamin is derivated from the amino acid tryptophan?
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Pyridoxine
E. Folic acid
161. Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA?
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Folic acid
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Pyridoxine
E. Niacin
162. Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the
small intestine:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Folic acid
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Pyridoxine
E. Niacin
163. Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis?
A. Vitanin A

B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
164. Correct statements concerning vitamin E include:
I- It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues
II- It is absorbed from the small intestine
III- Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
165. Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids?
A. Nucleotides
B. Nucleosides
C. Monosaccharides
D. Purines
E. Amino acids
166. Proteins are formed from:
A. Purines
B. Carbohydrates
C. Amino acids
D. Monosaccharides
E. Nucleosides

167. MG requests a refill for her prescription of Marvelon 21 (desogestrel / ethinyl estradiol), that she has
taken for several years. MG tells the pharmacist that she is getting married in two weeks and has calculated that
her period will likely start the day before her wedding. MG asks the pharmacist to suggest a way to delay her
period so that it will not coincide with her wedding and honeymoon trip. Appropriate counselling information
by the pharmacist includes which of the following?
A. Take 1 tablets every second day for the next 2 cycles (42 consecutive days), followed by 7 days pill-free, and
then resumes her regular schedule.
B. Take 1 tablet daily for the next 2 cycles (42 consecutive days), followed by 7 days pill-free period, and then
resumes her regular schedule.
C. Take 2 tablets daily for the next 21 days, followed by a 30 day pill-free period, and then resume her regular
schedule.
D. Take 1 tablet of erythromycin 250 mg together with each tablet of the oral contraceptive daily, for 1 week
prior to her wedding and during the honeymoon period, and then resume her regular schedule.
E. Take 1 tablet daily for one week, followed by a pill-free period for the second week and alternate in this
manner for the duration of the honeymoon period, and then resume her regular schedule.
168. When considering the appropriateness of metformin monotherapy for a patient with type 2 diabetes
mellitus, relevant patient factors to consider include:
I. Obesity
II. Renal dysfunction.
III. Thyroid function.

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
169. The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a patient with migraine. Appropriate
information to provide to the patient includes which of the following?
A. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be used.
B. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated.
C. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the
second headache.
D. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.
E. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.
170. Which of the following drugs does NOT require witnessed destruction?
A. Ketamine
B. Propoxyphene
C. Diazepam
D. Phentermine
E. Gabapentin
171. ST is no longer satisfied with the service she has been getting at Pharmacy X, so she comes to your
pharmacy requesting a refill on a prescription for Ortho 7/7/7 that she originally had filled at Pharmacy X.
What is the correct procedure for obtaining the remaining refills?
A. The pharmacist must contact Pharmacy X to get the prescription refills transferred, and document the
transfer appropriately.
B. The pharmacist cannot refill this prescription without phoning the prescribing physician.
C. The pharmacist may refill the prescription as long as the patient provides you with the label from the
original prescription.
D. The pharmacist may refill the prescription and notify Pharmacy X within 24 hours that this has been done.
E. Inform ST that the prescription resides at Pharmacy X and she must return there for refills.
172. Which of the following examples shows a legally correct refill designation on a written prescription for
dexamphetamine for a patient with hyperkinesis?
A. Repeat twice.
B. Repeat monthly
C. Repeat as needed.
D. Repeat twice as required.
E. Repeat twice at 14 day intervals.
173. According to the Benzodiazepine and Other Targeted Substances Regulations, what is the expiry date for a
prescription for lorazepam?
A. One month from the date written
B. Six months from the date written
C. One year from the date written
D. Two years from the date written
E. No specific expiry date; at the pharmacists discretion
174. Which of the following would be the most useful reference to learn what combination of antiretroviral
agents is currently recommended as a first line therapy to treat HIV infection?
A. Meta-analysis

B. Randomized, controlled trial

C. Applied Therapeutics textbook
D. Clinical practice guidelines
E. Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialities
175. Type II statistical error in a study comparing 2 drug treatment regimens occurs when:
A. p level is > 0.05.
B. the exclusion criteria are too rigid.
C. the control drug is not a "gold standard" treatment.
D. the data shows no difference between 2 treatment regimens and a difference actually does exist.
E. the data shows a difference between 2 treatment regimens but a difference does not actually exist.
176. In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome
(i.e. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. In
the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction
achieved with the new drug over the study period is:
A. 10%.
B. 15%.
C. 25%.
D. 40%.
E. 50%.
177. A pharmacist is making a presentation on appropriate medication use to a group of clients. Which of the
following would be an indicator of the effectiveness of the presentation for an individual?
A. Increase in number of prescriptions filled per month
B. Reduced number of prescriptions filled per month
C. Increase in use of nonprescription medications
D. Reduced number of prescription fill dates per month
E. Prescription fill dates closer to expected fill intervals
178. Which of the following vaccinations are usually recommended, on a yearly basis, for elderly patients with
chronic respiratory conditions?
I. Influenza virus
II. Pneumococcus
III. Meningococcus
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
179. Which of the following clinical days presented in a community pharmacy would be beneficial in helping
clients reduce their risk factors for heart disease?
I. Smoking cessation
II. Dietary strategies for fat and cholesterol
III. Pulmonary function home testing
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

180. A vertical laminar flow hood would be the best choice when preparing a parenteral formulation of:
A. aminophylline.
B. doxorubicin.
C. magnesium sulfate.
D. nitroglycerin.
E. penicillin.
181. During a busy period in the pharmacy, a regular patient comes in for refills of amlodipine,
hydrochlorothiazide and atorvastatin. Inadvertently, the vial he receives for atorvastatin contains atenolol
instead. If this error is not identified and corrected, then what is the most likely effect to be experienced by this
patient?
A. Diarrhea
B. Heartburn
C. Drowsiness
D. Blurry vision
E. Lightheadedness
182. MT, a pharmacy technician, has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. He is well-trained and
welcomes new learning opportunities. His manager, now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him,
should:
I. discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project.
II. negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project.
III. provide support and follow-up as required.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
183. Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a
pharmacy for a period of a year?
A. Balance Sheet
B. Statement of investments
C. Statement of changes in financial position
D. Income statement
E. Statement of equity
184. Factors that determine bioequivalence of two brands of a drug include:
I. the taste of the preparations.
II. the physical appearance of the preparations.
III. pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
185. Experimental error resulted from poor collection of data or inaccurate measurement is called:
A. Selection Bias

B. Information Bias
C. Confounding Bias
D. Type II error
E. Type I error

186. Contact dermatitis can be treated by:

I. Cool compresses
II. Oatmeal bath
III. Corticosteroids
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
187. The difference between peak and trough concentrations is greatest when;
A. Drug is given at dosing intervals much longer than the half life
B. Drug is given at dosing intervals much smaller than the half life
C. Drug is given at dosing intervals same as half life
D. Not related to half life
E. None of the above
188. In a family of 6, there are grandparents, parents and children. One of the child have got flu. Who should
receive flu vaccine?
I-All family, except child with flu
II-Parents and grandparents only
III-Child who got flu
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
189. Pre-Menstrual Symptoms:
I-All women have PMS
II-Luteal phase of cycle have PMS
III-vitamins, and estrogen deficiency may cause PMS
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
190. Zero slope graphs:
A. Parallel to x-axis
B. Parallel to y-axis
C. Diagonal x- axis
D. Does not exist
E. None of the above

191. A drug is completely metabolized in liver, if a patient has renal failure, what will be the effect:
A. Metabolite excreted
B. Metabolite accumulate in liver
C. Metabolite reabsorbed
D. Metabolite cleared
E. None of the above
192. Cp = Co e-kt first order equation log Cp vs. time give?
A. A straight line with negative slope
B. A straight line with positive slope
C. A curve
D. Zero slopes
E. None of the above
193. Which of the following eye condition require referral to physician?
I-Red eye
II-Pain in eye
III-Bacterial conjunctivitis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
194. Area under the curve (AUC)
A. Plot of Cp versus Time
B. The AUC value is very useful for calculating the relative efficiency of different drug products
C. Units for AUC are concentration x times. That is, mg.hr/L or mg.hr.L -1.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
195. Volume of distribution (Vd):
I. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the concentration of drug in the
blood.
II. Vd is greater for drugs that concentrate in tissues rather than in plasma
III. Vd is greater for drugs that concentrate in plasma rather than in tissue
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II, and III
E. All of the above are correct
196. Correct statements pertaining to first-order elimination kinetics include:
I. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit of time
II. Clearance will vary as blood concentrations change
III. For drugs following this elimination pattern, doubling the rate of administration will yield a doubling of
serum or plasma concentration at steady-state.
A. I only
B. III only

C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
197. Correct statements pertaining to protein binding include:
I. The degree to which a drug is protein-bound in plasma will affect its apparent volume of distribution.
II. Basic drugs are most likely to be bound to 1-acid glycoprotein
III. For highly protein-bound drugs, decreasing the extent of protein binding in plasma will enhance the rate of
glomerular filtration
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
198. Which of the following drugs cause urine, feces and vomiting discoloration?
I- Pyrvinium pamoate (vanquin)
II- Pyrantel pamoate (combantrin
III-Mebendazole (vermox)
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
199. in case a pharmacist misread a Tamoxifen prescription and filled it with Tambocor.
A.Vicarious
B.Negligence
C.Veracity
D.Autocratic
E. None of the above
200. Decrease in elimination from body due to one of the following factor.
A. Increase in half life
B. Decrease in reabsorption
C. Increase in reabsorptions
D. Increase steady state (Css)
E. None of the above
201. What is liquidity?
A. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with little or no interruption in the regular
conduct of business.
B. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with moderate change in the composition of
current assets.
C. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with current assets.
D. Measures a pharmacys ability to meet its current liabilities with interruption in the regular conduct of
business.
E. None of the above
202. Which of the following functional groups would NOT form a glucuronide conjugate?

203. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice for the hospital formulary among the following
selected antibiotics; Drug A, Drug B, Drug C Drug D, and Drug E have equal efficacy, associated workload,
and acquisition cost.
Drug
A
B
C
D
E

cost/day
$2.50
$5.00
$2.25
$2.25
$2.25

Dose
QID
BID
QD
BID
QID

Hospitalization duration
14 days
7 days
14 days
7 days
7 days

204. There are four Ps of marketing basics, Except

A. Product
B. Place
C. Person
D. Promotion
E. Price
205. 2-Butene can form;
A. Constitutional isomers
B. Geometrical isomers (cis/trans)
C. Enantiomers
D. Identical
E. all of the above
206. Drug interaction information can be obtained from the following sources:
A. CPS
B. Drug Facts and comparisons
C. Therapeutic choices
D. Patient self-care
E. Pharmacy Prep Books
207. Nitroglycerine available in all of the following dosage form Except:
A. Injection
B. ointment (topical)
C. Transdermal patch
D. Sustain release
E. suspension
208. The inventory turnover rate is a measure of a pharmacys
A. liquidity
B. solvency
C. Efficacy
D. Profitability
E. Sufficiency
209. Fab fragment, Abciximab mechanism includes:

I-Glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa inhibitor

II- Platelet inhibitors
III- tissue plasminogen activator
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
210. A compound that induces cytochrome CYP450 would:
A. Increase CYP450 protein content in the liver
B. Decrease CYP450 protein content in the liver
C. Inhibit CYP450 activity
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
211. The oxygen atom that is incorporated into a molecule upon oxidation by cytochromes CYP450 comes from
what source?
A.Water
B.Molecular Oxygen
C.NADPH
D.Acetylcoenzyme A
E. None of the above
212. A pharmacist prepared 1 gallon of KCl solution mixing 565 gram of KCl (valency =1) in appropriate
vehicle. How many milliequivalents of K are in 15 ml of this solution? (MW = K 39, Cl 35.5)
A.8
B.20
C.30
D.40
E. 80
213. The pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones which unite in the front with the symphysis pubis and in the
back with the sacrum. The coxal bones are composed of the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis. This described
which body joints;
A. elbow
B. shoulder
C. Hip
D. Knee
E. None of the above
214. Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:
I-Corticosteroids
II-Menopause
III-Graves disease
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct

215. When is a person classified as a diabetic, after a fasting blood glucose concentration:
A.3 mmol/dL
B.6 mmol/dL
C.7 mmol/dL
D.8 mmol/dL
E.10 mmol/dL
216. Common tests to monitor patients receiving replacement therapy for hypothyroidism include all of the
following: EXCEPT
A. Free thyroxin index (FTI)
B. Resin triiodothyronine uptake (RT3 U)
C. Thyrotropin (TSH) stimulating test
D. Sensitive TSH assay
E. Total thyroxin (TT4)
217. Which of the following drug does not cause hypoglycemia as side effect:
A. Metformin
B. Repaglinide
C. Acarbose
D. Glyburide
E. Chlorpropamide
218. The inventory and merchandising are part of store management. The major economic reason for low
inventory:
A. Internal theft
B. Money locked in overstock
C. Product expired soon
D. External theft
E. Felony convict
219. How many cyclopentane rings exist in steroid structure skeleton?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 5
220. All of the following are symptoms of diabetes mellitus, EXCEPT:
A. Glucosuria
B. Polyphagia
C. Polydipsia
D. Increased in muscle wasting
E. Decreased lipolysis
221. What are the long term side effects of using oral contraceptive pills
I.Hypertension
II. Ovarian cancer
III.Breast cancer
A.I only

B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
222. Chronic bronchitis causes:
I. Emphysema
II. Wheezing
III. Respiratory tissue inflammation
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
223. MINOXIDIL: A prodrug which must be conjugated with . to form the active drug. Minoxidil is potent
renal vasodilator and stimulator of renin release.
A. sulfate
B. phosphate
C. Nitrate
D. carbonate
E. carboxylate
224. 1 po q4-6h prn pain means:
A. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours as needed for pain.
B. Take 4-6 tablets every 1 hour as needed for pain.
C. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours with milk
D. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours with juice
E. Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours every other day
225. How does losartan functions:
I.Angiotensin (AT-1) receptor blocker
II. Angiotensin (AT-1) receptor agonist
III.Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitor
A. I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
226. All of the following statements correct about hyperparathyroidism
I- Causes deficiency of vitamin D
II- Decreases calcium in blood
III- Increases calcium reabsorption from renal tubules.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above

227. Sciatic nerve is found in;

A. Brain
B. All foot branches
C. Arms
D. Hip joints
E. None of the above
228. Which is the most recognized side effect of acetaminophen:
A. Ototoxicity
B. Hepatic necrosis
C. GI disturbances
D. Disulfiram like reactions
E. all of the above
229. In case of left ventricular failure blood pour in:
A. vena cava
B. aorta
C. upper chest area
D. Lung
E. heart
230. Embolism is caused by:
A. Obstruction of nerves
B. Obstruction of blood vessels
C. Bulging of arteries and veins
D. Blockade of systemic circulation
E. Lack of oxygen supply
231. At what dose aspirin has anticoagulant (antiplatelet) property
A. 80 mg
B. 325 mg
C. 500 mg
D. 800 mg
E. 1 g
232. What is good choice of antihypertensive in diabetic patients:
A.Thiazide diuretics
B.-blockers
C.ACE II inhibitors
D.Potassium sparings
E. None of the above
233. Because of the possibility of serious toxic reactions, methotrexate should be used only:
I-Psoriasis, inadequate responsive with other medications
II-Rheumatoid arthritis with severe recalcitrant
III-Life threatening cancer diseases
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

E. All of the above

234. Nitrogen from nitrous oxide (NO) originates from?
A. oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. L-arginine
D. Tyrosine
E. Carbon
235. Asthma acute exacerbation can be triggered by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Warm and dry weather
B. Stressful emotional time
C. Bacterial and viral pneumonia
D. Withdrawal of asthma medications
E. Penicillin hypersensitivity reactions
236. What is Point-of-Sale (POS) system:
I. Combination of computer software, hardware and cash register that capture product information at time of
sale or when it is received into inventory.
II. Provide accurate information more promptly overstocks and out-of-stock situations can be reduced through
early detection.
III. Which makes it possible to scan products on scanning counters or hand held scanners.
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
237. Which of the following is NOT a counselling after steroid inhaler administration?
I-Rinse your mouth before steroid inhaler
II-Shake inhaler before use.
III-Rinse your mouth after steroid inhaler
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
238. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of spironolactone:
A. GI disturbances and diarrhea
B. Hirsutism
C. CNS effect and confusion
D. Hypokalemia
E. All of the above
239. A 30 year old girl Tracy comes to pharmacy for refill of salbutamol and steroid inhalers, she has
uncontrolled asthma. Which of the following are appropriate recommendations?
I-Refer to the Dr.
II-Increase the dose of steroids
III-Increase the dose of short acting inhalers

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
240. Which of the following patients are most suited for primary therapy of hydrochlorothiazide:
A. Patients with impaired renal function
B. Patients with gout arthritis
C. Patient with hyperlipidemia
D. Elderly patient
E. Young hypertensive patient
241. Nitrates and sildenafil cannot be used together because:
I-Enhance hypotensive effect of nitrates (nitroglycerine)
II-Enhance hypotensive effect of sildenafil (Viagra)
III-Enhance hypertensive effect of nitrates
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
242. The profit obtained from good sold has not increased but inventory stock decreased. The reason could be:
A. Goods sold in bulk
B. Purchased from distributor but not from wholesaler
C. Shrink (internal or external theft)
D. Goods not sold
E. Good Faith
243. Normal cholesterol level;
A. 150-270 mg/dL
B. 130-230 mg/dL
C. 230-300 mg/dL
D. 300-400 mg/dL
E. <160 mg/dL
244. Levodopa associated with which of following problems:
I-GI symptoms
II-Decline in efficacy after 3-5 years (wearing off)
III-Involuntary movement
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
245. Which of the following is not expected to be a side effect of levodopa therapy?
A. hypotension

B. tachycardia
C. hallucinations
D. mania/paranoid psychosis
E. nausea/vomiting
246. The molecular structure of the most muscarinic antagonist contain a specific heterocyclic ring which is
best described as an:
A. aniline and piperazine rings.
B. aniline and pyrrolidine rings.
C. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.
D. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.
E. None of the above
247. In organ transplant the rejection is due to;
I. Infiltration of T cells
II. Infiltration of B cells
III. Bacteriophages
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
248. The invention of biotechnology include:
I. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
II. Streptokinase
III. Recombinant DNA technology
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
249. Kopliks spots are associated with
A. Tetanus
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Chicken pox
E. All of the above
250. The chemical basis of heredity is:
A.RNA
B.DNA
C.RBC
D.WBC
E. Cell
251. Which of the following drug least likely to effect on oral contraceptives:
A. Tetracycline
B. Phenytoin

C. Carbamazepine
D. Gabapentin
E. Phenobarbital
252. Antibody is chemically
A. Polysaccharide
B. Amino acids
C. Virus
D. Proteins
E. lipopolysaccharide
253. Phenytoin is indicated the treatment of all of the following types of seizure EXCEPT:
A. Grand mal
B. Complex partial
C. Simple partial
D. Tonic clonic
E. Absence seizure (petit mal)
254. All of the following drugs require waiting period for 2 weeks, before begin other antidepressants, Except;
A. Fluvoxamine
B. Sertraline
C. Citalopram
D. Fluoxetine
E. Venlafaxine
255. Interferon is a protein produced by the:
A. RBCs
B. Heart
C. WBC
D. Liver
E. Spleen
256. Gray patches on the tonsils or mucus membranes of the nose and throat are associated with:
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Diphtheria
D. German measles
E. EBV
257. Which of the following is NOT a platelet aggregate inhibitor
A. Aspirin
B. Ticlopidine
C. Clopidrogel
D. Streptokinase
E. None of the above
258. What is the correct statement about Antisense or non-sense codons:
I.A piece of DNA producing a mirror image ("antisense") messenger RNA that is opposite in sequence to one
directing protein synthesis.
II. Antisense technology is used to selectively turn off production of certain proteins
III-Antisense technology is used in production recombinant DNA

A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
259. What are the correct statements about retrovirus:
I-A virus that contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
II-These enzymes converts the viral RNA into DNA, which can combine with the DNA of the host cell and
produce more viral particles.
III-Viral proteins that can be used antiviral drugs
A.I only B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
260. all of the following are SSRIs only except:
A. Fluvoxamine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Sertraline
D. Venlafaxine
E. Trazodone
261. To achieve the pharmaceutical care?
I-Pharmacist must establish professional relationship and maintained
II-Patient specific information must be collected, organized, recorded and maintained
III-The pharmacist reviews, monitors, and modifies the therapeutic plan as necessary and appropriate, in
concert with the patient and healthcare team.
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
262. Venlafaxine (Effexor) 150 mg dose QD, shows effect on the following receptors:
A. 5HT
B. NE
C. Dopamine
D. A and B
E. None of the above
263. Assertive skills
A. How much we stand up for our own and how much consideration we have for others.
B. Boldly insist that your needs are met
C. Assertive people create unpleasant atmosphere that other people want to avoid.
D. Their lack of confidence or inability to voice their opinion forces them to agree to anything or to let
important information go unsaid.
E. None of the above
264. Aerosols are defined as:

A. colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by a gas.
B. Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by liquid
C. Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by solid
D. Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided gas particles dispersed in and surrounded by liquid or solid.
E. None of the above
265. Rubbing Alcohol: Contains about 70% of Ethyl Alcohol by volume, used in
I. Externally for bedridden patients.
II. Germicide for instruments
III. Skin cleanser prior to injection
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
266. How to use intranasal sprays or pumps.
I. Hold your head in an upright position
II. Close one nostril with one finger
III. With the mouth closed, insert the tip of the spray or pump into the open nostril. Sniff in through the nostril
while quickly and firmly squeezing the spray container or activating the pump.
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
267. Emergency contraception regimens are two doses of oral contraceptive tablets. The first dose is
administered;
A. Within 4 days of unprotected intercourse, the second dose is taken 2 days later
B. Within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse; the second dose is taken 12 hours later.
C. Within 48 hours of unprotected intercourse; the second dose is taken 12 hours later.
D. Within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse, the second dose is taken 12 hours later.
E. None of the above
268. If the pharmacist becomes aware that a child (anyone under the age of 19) has been physically harmed,
sexually abused or sexually exploited by a parent or other person, the pharmacist must report these
circumstances to:
A. The parents
B. The appropriate provincial authority
C. Police
D. Coworker
E. None of the above
269. The pharmacist upholds and acts on the ethical principle that the primary accountability of the pharmacist
is to the patient, with respect to:
I. Patient confidentiality
II. Involvement of the patient in the decision-making process, and the right of the patient to make their own
choices.
III. The patient's well-being is at the center of the pharmacist's professional and business practices.

A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above
270. Define Delegation?
A. In a larger operation, the pharmacy owners delegate certain supervisory responsibilities that include store
manager, assistance manager, head cashier and head cosmetician.
B. Delegation is problem of beyond managerial growth.
C. Delegation is each employee responsibility would be accountable to his or her supervisor.
D. Delegation is a staff requirement assessment
E. All of the above
271. What is function of High Efficiency Particulate Air filter?
A. To removes particles
B. To maintain temperature
C. To maintain humidity
D. To removes fine bacterial contaminants
E. None of the above
272. Define Pharmacoeconomics
A. Cost of illness and pharmaceutical services and products.
B. The description and analysis of the costs of drug therapy to healthcare systems and society
C. Cost of pharmaceutical services and products.
D. Price determination of pharmaceutical services and products
E. None of the above
273. Which of the following antidepressants least likely cause sexual dysfunction side effects?
I-Bupropion
II-Mirtazapine
III-Fluoxetine
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
274. Pharmacy manager who puts certain rules and expects his subordinate to follow them without exception;
A. Co-operative
B. Autocratic
C. Beurocratic
D. Assertive
E. None of the above
275. Which of the following prevents withdrawal symptoms and helps reduce drug cravings in opioid dependent
individuals?
A. Morphine
B. Codiene
C. Methadone

D. Oxycodone
E. Tramadol