Set No. 1 130/102/28 Question Booklet No... Roll No. se Ay. B be (Ag? (ib be filled up by the candidate by blue/ black bail-point pen) Roll No. {Write the digits in words) Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet . Day and Date sieneusnenonen 5 6. 9%. 10. a. 12. 13. 14, scene "(Signature of Invigiiator) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet} 1 Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided, Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated, Write your Roll Number anc Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No, and Set No. (if any} on OMR sheet atid also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No, on the Question Booklet. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. Bach question in this Booktet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding Tow of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the citeles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark) For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet. Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test, You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hal! until the end of the Test. Ifa candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shail be liable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose on him/her. paehs Sie fied aft orange fad me fy INo. of Printed Pages : 56+2313U/102/28 Set No. 1 ‘Time /wa : 2 Hours/ave Full Marks/quite : 300 Note/ate: Qy (2) (3) Attempt as many questions as you can. Zach question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. sftentirs set at ge ee a eet St wets we So ste 1 seta Te oH faq we sim rer SET) wee agai wer wT ws eT eT If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct, answer, choose the closest one. aR wants Safer am at sete fee wht a, at fear ae oe Fi ‘This paper comprises of Five Sections. Sections 1 and II are compulsory whereas only one Section out of Ill, IV and V is to be attempted. we wer ws wel wt) ws a oftad & wafs avs i, Va vi a feat um ar sat Bn Rt Section—1 wel CHEMISTRY {Compulsory for all} 1, The lowest strength of acid is shown by wT wae oe eta wer orate (1) CH,COOH (2) CH,cICOoH (3) CHC1,COOH (4) CCI;COOH (323) 1 PTO}13U/102/28 Set No. 1 2. The incorrect outer electronic configuration of () Cur is 3d? 4s" (2) Cu is 3d’ 4s! (3) Cr is 3a54s! (4) Cut is 3a! wi a ation weft etazifia-frare % fare nara 2&7 (1) Cut % fem 3d’? ast (2) Cu ® fare 3al?4s! (3) Cr & fer 3aS 4st (4) Cu & fer 3a? 3. Which is incorrect for the oxidation states? (Q) Mn has 7 in KMnO, (2) Fe has 3 in [Fe(CN}g|"? (3) Ni has zero in Ni(COl, (4) Ni has 2 in Ni(CO), mera atfaetteneer feuft areca fre % 2? Q) KMnO, # Mn #7 ® (2) [Fe(CN)g})? 4 Fe #3 & (3) Ni(CO), F Ni A ye (4) Ni(CO}, 4 Ni #28 4. Which of the following is correct? (1) Cellulose is a disaccharide (2) Fructose is a disaccharide (3) Starch and cellulose both are polysaccharides (4) Sucrose is a polysaccharide st RR qe Ha eam ati a7 (1) degen sega @ (2) wade eetanes 8 (3) fend site daehs Si wicheeege Ba) Gata Tica et (323) 25. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Which of the following is correct? (1) Internal pressure, (22 /0V}p =0 for real gas (2) AG is - (ve) at equilibrium (3) AG is + (ve) at equilibrium (4) 4G is zero at equilibrium el a ata-ar aah 27 . ()) ta ateaRen fe Yo srafen ga (GE /9V)}p =0 tn & 2) Sqer HK aG Rita an 8 (3) Ager we aG vistfea eer 2 (4) ager WAG =0 Ame Which of the following is true? (1) P2Os is an acidic oxide (2) P:05 is a basic oxide (3) CgH;—OH is neutral in nature (4) CgHs--OH is basic in nature. wal a shew aa 87 (1) POs wifes sizes % (2) P,O5 Site aiaags & (3) CoHg—OH I 4 sere ean & (4) CoHs—OH yu 4 afte ten ® Which of the following is correct? (1) Axial overlap of s with p,-orbital gives n-bond (2) Heisenberg’s relation is Ax-4p 2h/ 4x (3) RNA exists as double helix (4) Bond-order of He =% 3 (P.T.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (32a) wa a aa-a af 27 () & se p, Fam & ay Urea afer 8 x-aig wm & (2) wearer ary Ax-Ap > h/ 4a & (3) -RNA ate tferra Fat 3 (4) He, a aig ater % 8 For a d-electron, possible values of its azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are (1) 122 and 3; m=0,41 and +2 (2) T= ;m=-1,Q, and +1 (3) 1=2;m=-2,-1,0, +1 and 42 (4) T= ;m=0, +] and +2 Ge dag & dua ota aa ae ares ae ue e (1) 1=2 3 3; m=0,+1 3m 42 (2) m=-1,0, HH 41 (3) 1=2;m=-2,-1,0,+1 3h 42 @) f=1,m=0,+1 9 +2 Which of the following is used as a fertilizer? () Gammexane (@) Gammexane and DAP (3) Urea and DAP (4) Urea and DDT va a shea ae A we sam thn 87 (1) ata (2) rh st Dap (3) afer siz DAP (4) afer sik Dor13U/102/28 Set No. 1 10. Which is the correct match for the allotropes of C and P? Carbon Phosphorus (1), Diamond and graphite Monoclinic and rhombic 2) Diamond and graphite Red and white (3) Monoclinic and rhombic Diamond and graphite (4) Red and white Monoclinic and rhombic C att Pp & datz & oft sta adh Fe are 2? wera wraha () ta ote donee, aivtactifrs othe afta (2) #t att toe ata ote aie (3) Shatter ifr er atk tone (4) are ott ag aareifies site cifears: 11, Phase rule is F = ~P+2, When four phases of $ can coexist? (1) Never (2) At the three triple points (3) At the transition temperatures (4) At the three triple points as well as at transition temperatures fa ea F=0-P+2 21 wee amt ba ay ars ast seh? () eh at (2) tet After tea 8) Taha wen 1 (4) ahi tite cing wo wa gsi OE (323) 5 PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 12. 13. 14, (323) According to law of mass action, for a gascous reaction R=P at equilibrium Q) afRy/dt>a[Py/at Q) a[R]/dt<-d[P}/ at @) -d[R]/dt=d[Py/at (4) d[Ri/dt=d[Pyat a aie ome tar & agen we fe after R= P maT () d[Ry/dt>a[p iat Q) d[Ri/dt<-a[P|/at (8) -d[RYat=a[P\/at @) d[Ry/dt=a[Py at Which of the following is correct? (1) An isotope has same number of neutrons (2) An isobar has same number of protons 8) An isotone has same number of electrons (4) An isotope has same number of protons ol @ saa wi 8? (Q) areata 2 ayia ara hae (2) angeton, A ste ae Ha @) smetas A edagta wre Ate (4) sige 3 stele wee A Electron of H is present () as a cloud around nucleus (2) in orbit whose principal quantum number, n =1 (3) in several orbits for which n>1 (4) around nucleus for n<1 to n>115, 16. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Hom wazis shag tar 8 Q) Germ S ai ott ye oven ara A we fae oT (2) sifte 3 freer fede eR FER, n=1 8 (3) ate Ske a fe fev ween Feat n> 12 (4) afterrea ard sift farran finer aren Fe <1 A nol wee In the light of Le Chatelier principle (1) an endothermic reaction is facilitated at high temperature (2) an exothermic reaction is facilitated at high temperature (3) a gascous reaction Ag +3By =2AB; is facilitated at low pressure (4) a gaseous reaction Aj +By =2AB is facilitated at high pressure siti Rega & sage (1) afte am a wdafie often aad 8 2) afte aren whats aftr ad 8 (3) wr te afifinar Ay +3By =2AB, wa Be Tt wee (4) te fa offer A. +B, =2AB afte aa wt agat ® According to Graham's law of diffusion, rate of diffusion of a gas is (2) directly proportional to the molecular mass (2) inversely proportional to the molecular mass (3) independent of the molecular mass (4) equal to the molecular weight of the gas 7 PTO)13U/ 102/28 Set No. 1 17. 18, (323) rea 3 Roepe at agen te & forge a we vee (1) -Rteheeqer: wer a rate oebsiaes & (2) aicheqere mre Gaeeteh saber 8 (3) Richer was oe inke ae an (4) fhe 3 cage we A ERC Bhar Which of the following is incorrect? (1) Half-life of a gaseous reaction A-» B is <1/[A}""! (2) A catalyst provides an alternative path of lower activation energy (8) Molecularity and order of reaction is same (4) A unimolecular reaction may be a first order reaction 8 RA qe A A aaa mea 87 () we ta A often As BA orf—arg « 1/[Ay (2) we Rife am sata sat an Selena /gaT TEN see aT Re (3) Ristaghtdt ott afitien ax omic war erat & 4) GH Pistetaqer sftiisa way onde A a wat 2 Which of the following is correct for {Fe(CN)g)"* (Hint : Fe?* is 34°}? (1) It is paramagnetic (2) It is diamagnetic (3) It is ferromagnetic (4) It is antimagnetic wi & aaa (Fe(CNjg}¢ % aft a ® (eam: Fe? : 3d8j? Q) ae cate ® (2) ae ernie: & (3) we tines 2 (4) we Rete e19. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Which of the following is correct? (1) Metals decompose water with the liberation of Hy (2) Atomic volume decreases from Li to K (3) Basic character decreases from Li to K (4) P and Cl give acidic oxides wi a ae att? (2) Aza eh at Gada/smmer aa Ere HL, the Rewer & (2) Li & K we cya Tem t (3) Lid K ae Stem qo wen e (4) P sik cl ufates steams 24 € Which of the following is correct for the use of indicator in titration of solutions? () Phenolphthalein in HCl with NaOH (2) Methyl orange in NaOH with oxalic acid (3) Phenolphthalein in warm (acidified) oxalic acid with KMnO, {4) No external indicator is used in warm (acidified) oxalic acid with KMnO, BRS aa feet wr wdin ae & fae aah 87 (2) NaOH @ HCL % era Ratewteta efttet ar win gan & 2) NaOH @ sieaftrs ome 8 ara dager ate efter wr vain eter & (3) 74 (Far) H,C,0, #1 KMnO, % a fiiewdeta ar vain ata 2 (4) mi (Barh) H.C,0, # KMnO, %& aa ane a sede a ven aM ee 9 7.0)13U/ 102/28 Set No. 1 21, 22. (323) Assertion, A : Dextro-variety of tartaric acid is optically active. Reasoning, R : Asymmetric carbon atom is present in dextro-variety. (1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (@) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false while R is true Assertion, (st) A : adies wae A Baud fan yar-afea art 2 Reasoning, (@rm) R : 7az} fee 8 aes C-aq ait 21 (1) A SR ai die @ sit a & fae R ate are t (2) A aR at de 8 wey A fae R die ar atte (3) Awe 2 fq R neat (4) A mea ® sa R whe Assertion, A : Phenol is neutral while ethyl alcohol is acidic. Reasoning, R : Benzene ring withdraws electron and facilitates removal of Ht (1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (2) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) A is false while R is true Assertion, (wt) A: fata aga @ aafik waver wateta wfifee # Reasoning, (=m) R : avn ft saga ah ak wham 8 Bek sey a Saar smart a rat Br 0) A R at de 8 ot a & me R ae are 8 @ Asi R drt de 8 mq aS fe R dhe or aR @) Awa? fq R wea ® (4) A tea 8 Safe Rowe 1023. 24. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 ‘Which of the following is a polymer? () CHel; (2) Acetates (3) PVC (4) Col AAPA Ge A A sae wees /stctoe BF (1) CHCL, (2) ite @) Pye (4) Colts Which of the following is correct for primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols? I_h Ge pri (1) —C=C—OH_ is primary alcohol H If (2) Ter is secondary alcohol 1 (8) —(—OH is tertiary aleohol (4) —C=C—OH is tertiary alcohol al a ate-ar ones, fetes site gts wateter oft wel R? ' aH a) —beG—on snfBive wstata H (2) eine Resor: Weateiat & (3) fon Thee wateia (4) —C=C—OH gates wateia ui (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 25. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) The functional group R—C=0 is aldehydic | (2} R—CO—R is ketone {3} CygH0); (Maltose) is monosaccharide (4) Sucrose is disaccharide wi a sham naa 8? (1) faerera aR Rte sedtenfta & (2) R-CO—R 4m t (3) CygHz.0,, (Heera) tears & (4) Gris sedhres & (323) 12a7, 28. 29, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Section—II well MENTAL AGILITY {Compulsory for all) Which of the following diseases is caused by virus? (2) Plague (2) Cholera (3) Tetanus (4) Chickenpox Prat staat dort aga aita 7 a) ar (2) tm (3) era (4) Fae ofa ‘The circumference of a circle is 110 cm. What is the perimeter of the square whose side is equal to the diameter of the circle? we ga A aif 110 Ste Bi ga ad an ofa en atm frat ce ye gH ae aT a ) 240 cm (2) 70 cm (3) 140 cm (4) 220 cm ‘The Prime Minister of India is (2) elected (2) appointed (3) nominated —(4) selected ama a1 wert Q) yr ame (2) Frege Pear art & (3) ane fase sar (4) aaha fist aren 2 If x=-3, then x - x? —x will be equal to aft x me -3 8, Ax? x? OOo a) 15 (2) -27 (3) -33 @) 54 13 (P10)13U/ 102/28 Set No. 1 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. (323) ‘The largest petroleum reserve is located in (QQ) Tran (2) Russia (3) Saudi Arabia (4) Venezuela amd ae tytferem a sien B Q) fF (2) ea F (3) Uad oa F (4) Seen F Egg contains ail nutrients, except (1) avidin {2) riboflavin (3) carbohydrates (4) biotin 2H fe Fa wa & ofits at same aa fg (1) fate 2) ustwaia (3) arateregze (4) reten The headquarter of World Bank is located in (1) Manila (2) Washington DC (3) New York (4) Geneva fara de ar ema fas # (1) 5efen (2) afte toate H (3) are & (4) fata iF By selling 11 pencils for a rupee, a man loses 10%. How many pencils per rupee should he sell to gain 10% ? wm ome 1 wa A 11 Sf Se ar 10% ue A tem 81 saw HE a A fae eS at cafee f& 10% an qa A? ay) 9 (2) 10 {3} 8 a5 What is location-value of 3 in the figure 9831240? Wen 9831240 4 3 a eww wR? (1) 31240 (2) 3 {3} 3000 {4) 30000 1435. 36. 37. 38. 39. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 The percentage value of 2 shall be 2 * sfee am eon Q) 125 2) 8 (3) 15 () 25 There are 4 poles in a row 4, B,C and D. Pole A is longer than C, B is smaller than D and C is longer than D. Which pole is the smallest one? ABCD aM we is oh Gen ACA ae BDA dtp yah ayer Gey aad are 87 a8 QA ) D ac In which season of the year the distance between us and the sun is the minimum? (1) Winter (2), Summer (3) Rainy season (4) Spring at 3 fa sheaf gd ei om ai & ate oO aan Ot? (1) we # (2) mi a (3) at eg a (4) Fea Spot the stranger in the following (1) Peart millet (2) Rice (3) Ground nut (4) Maize fra Fa somal A aarti () are (2) (3) ret (4) rar Seeds of which of the following crops are also a source of edible oil? (1) Wheat (2) Maize (3) Barley (4) Pea fe 88 fee wee Ae a are a oft oe fem oe 8? Q) (2) 7a 3) (4) 3 15 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 41. 42. (323) ‘The next number in the following series fa poe 35, 32, 34, 31, 33, is amreft en Ebi (1) 30 @) 32 3) 31 4) 35 Which one of the following is not a Kharif season crop of North India? (1) Paddy (2) Mung beam (3) Sesame (4) Gram fra 3.8 steed sae oot ana Fo atts she Hae ot oh 87 Q) 9H (2) i (3) fra (4) 34 Which one of the following animals is not found naturally in Indian forest? (Q) Blue bull (2) Zebra (3). Rhino (4) Chinkara fra 8S wm oem opie we a neta sre A a on one 8? Q) tem (2) 3a (3) et (4) feara A circte with 7 cm radius is segmented into six equal triangular areas as shown in figure below. The area of shaded portion shall be we aa fret fren 7 om @ 48 Rad wa fa & agen 6 frgst a from feet mm ti oe mo sefefa am ar Qawe ae aT? () 7x ¥36-75 cm? (2) 19x 436-75 cm? (3) 21x 36-75 cm? (4) 14cm?47. 48. (823) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Which of the following animals is not having any tooth in its upper jaw throughout its life? {1} Horse (2) Cow (3) Goat (4) Donkey fra 82 few or & suf was Fouts oa ww a ala aed ain Br (yas Q) om (8) et 4) ma In the series given below find out the next number a8 Ge jean Han A der ame, 3,7, 13, 19, — (I) 21 (2) 25 (3) 29 (4) 31 Spot the stranger in the following (1) Carrot (2) Sugarbeet (3) Radish (4) Turmeric Fra & ors) oftvafig (1) aa (2) Tar (3) (4) we In how many ways the letters of word ‘COMMERCE’ be arranged? ¥q ‘COMMERCE’ & wan few ae @ oraftia fam a aaa #? (a) 5040 (2) 10080 (3) 2520 (4) 5240 6x3 (3-1) is equal to 6x3 (3-1) HAH a) 0 (2) 36 (3) 55 (4) 19 7 (PTO13U/102/28 Set No. 1 49, An aeroplane flies from New Delhi to Washington DC via Africa and returns from same route with same speed and height. Which of the following statements would be correct? (1) While reaching Washington DC it will take more time than in return journey. (2) In return journey it will take more time than in reaching to Washington DC. (3) While going and in return journey time taken will be the same. (4} Time required for going and in coming back will not follow any definite trend. we ead sera af Pgh @ afters Bowie austen dan orn 2, wen fim set Te a ate wt ora 81 Se ere rh a et od A sl won 11 oe Fd Fe A hast aa am? (Q) aires atowte weaa A sar ae aipn sit otal A am (2) ora @ ater ches A wre ama aT (3) a sit WA A are ane ai (4) faites ou a ge ad an om wan 2 50 Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? (@) Oxygen (2) Carbon dioxide (3) Methane (4) Nitrous oxide Fret A ate “otverae’ fa adi 87 Q) ater (2) rt seater (3) ta (4) Tage stares (323) 1851. 52. 53. 54, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Section—Il weil PHYSICS and MATHEMATICS (Physics) In the equation YA =X -B, where Y is the Young’s modulus of elasticity, A area of cross-section and B is the dimensionless quantity. The dimensional equation of X will be wiew Y-A=X-B HY 4 yore quis, A same daa wa B ww fiona of a1 xX a fata eaten ain @) Mer? (2) ML-?r-? (3) M727 (a) Mer? An electron with charge e and mass m is accelerated from rest through a potential difference equal to 5 volts in vacuum, The final kinetic energy of the electron will be fromeen & ue raga at on ec Wi WOME m tas he & fan a qe a ats fen ora 81 waghe A afr a ahh (1) 3e joule (2) Se joule (3) 7e joule {4} 10e joule A particle moves in a circle of radius 50 cm at 10 revolutions per second. The acceleration of the particle in metre per second? is WF 3M 50 Aerio fen % qa x 10 sho of Bees Hoa a wa wm Ri aT ia aA Bang? Foca 2 () 507? (2) 100n? (3) 200%? (4) 4002? ‘The heat given to an ideal gas in isothermal condition is used (1) in increasing internal energy (2) in doing the internal work (3) in decreasing internal energy (4) in doing the external work 19 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 55. 56. 87. (323) camer octet oreet ta done sen aT mB (1) awakes seat gfe 8 2) sates ard aH (3) owates sah we (4) are arf ee ‘The length of second pendulum is increased by 44%. The periodic time of oscillation will be (1) increased by 20% (2) increased by 22% (3) decreased by 20% (4) decreased by 22% we tars te A oon Ho 44% Ft RS ont 2 A eee tem we aad ae (1) 20% 9g arm (2) 22% we sri (3) 20% we win (4) 22% ¥e BRT if the illuminance of a surface from a point source is to be reduced to 25%, the distance of the surface from the source must be {1) increased by 25% (2) increased by 50% (3) increased by 75% {4) increased by 100% aR we fig ata 8 fiat ame me sgt anf diam A wera 25% aa aT a, TH aE A at a aa () 25% & agen am (2) 50% @ agi am (3) 75% @ agen em (4) 100% @ agri én A voltmeter can read up to 10 volts. The resistance of voltmeter coil is R. If this voltmeter is to be converted into an ammeter capable of reading up to IA, then a resistance r is to be used as (1) in series with R and rR (3) in parallel with R and rR 2058, 59, 60, 61. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 we deat often 10 dee we og wen 2) aeata A gee a vinta Rd aR aieerier A oaftaIT 1yA aH Te TRY aT softer F acer 2, A afta pa wi aA () rcR@R* art Ah aR Q) r>R IR % ae Wh am F (3) rRaAR% ae ae aah Which of the following expressions represents a stationary wave? fra A 8 ate eter aan cor A Prefs een 87 Q) Asin (ot) (2) Asin (wt}-cos (kx) (3) Asin |-ot) (4) Acos (kx) In the reaction represented by Frafefera offre % A And And Aa 2X4 52 VAS 7 BAS ey B Qa, t (2) Bae 8) ay Br A Baty ‘The total energy of electron in hydrogen atom in first excited state is ~3-4 eV. The Kinetic energy of this electron is agi Tam & eaagia seq vas sea F ga sat ar am -3-4 ev tia eh A nfs saat at 0) 34ev Q) -3-4ev (3) 68 eV (4) -6.8 ev When the electron enters in the magnetic field in perpendicular direction, then the path of the electron will be (1) linear (2) circular (3) helix (4) parabolic al (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 62. 63. 64, 65. (323) wa wagls quate dad aearaq win aca 8, A gagin ar oa eh (Ly Yeh (2) ae (3) greeter (ay Sater A source of unknown frequency produces 8 beats with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with a source of 270 Hz. The frequency of unknown source is war sagft va eta 150 ef ata % arr 8 Wiz a 270 wR wa 12 Ae gem aH BL oar aia A ongit a are (1) 258 Hz (2) 242 Ha (3) 261 Hz (4) 292 Hz A photon of energy 10 eV is incident on a metal surface having work function 46 eV. The maximum KE and minimum KE of the emitted photoelectrons will be (1) 10 eV, 46 eV (2) 54 eV, zero (3) 10 eV, zero (4) 4-6 eV, zero af 10 ev 4 sat ar state fret ng A ae omafta 2, org A wae aT ad TT 46 eV a) seattle ta -aeagia A safteren aa ap nfs gah ehh (1) 10 eV, 46 eV (2) S4 eV, TI (3) 10 eV, 4) 46 eV, ‘The element z X“ has to be converted into its isobar after radioactive decays. It should emit wma x4 ot tedtafina sent & aco ot onmim aa 3 aed & fan wafts at aw Q) ay (2) By (3) a8 A ay The wavelength of matter wave is independent of (1) charge (2) mass {3} velocity (4) momentum wad aot a conte? fit ef ae Q) aa aw 2) RRR (3) nw (4) aan 2267. 69. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 In Young’s double slit experiment is carried out with light of wavelength 5000 A. The distance between the slits is 0:2 mm and the screen is at 200 om from the slits, The central maximum is at x~0. The third maximum taking the central maximum as zeroth maximum will be at X equal to (1) 167 em (2) 1:50 cm (3) 0-50 cm (4) 5-00 cm am fe-fixz win 8 5000 A ata vem an wie fin orn a1 a fed ete A ah 0-2 Bosfo aan Fadl % afta A zh 200 Boro Bi Bette Te x -0 wR Asha gaaN a RB gee aaa fey Baek Se A GX oH (1) 1-67 Aorhe (2) 150 @orflo (3) 0°50 Bethe (4) 5:00 Aortic The specific heat C,, for diatomic can be expressed as fomanps & fou fate gen & fen wwe 2 (1) Cy 4R Q) C,=§R @) Cy=2R (4) Cy =3R A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown vertically at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Its KE at highest point of its flight will be Q) B/v2 QE (3) zero (4 £/2 ve ite afte 8 45° aw sai aa a afta A an t aor eA afte wal BR) se arm fig Gea nfs wal fleet eet? a) Byv2 Qe 8 (4) B/2 For adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas the value of AP / P will be equal to(y=C, /Cy) orest fe wee wa & fay AP/P wom TRB fy =C,/Cy) ay? AV av ny AY a) 2 AY ay eS @ = 8) 1p @) Pa 23 PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 70. m. 72. 73. (323) A drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor is Vg, when the current jis flowing in it If both the radius of the conductor and current are doubled, the drift velocity will be we wee Hage waagh w ogis anv, t safe ga i on warfare ah AL ake aH A Fea am a8 aet wth om ph a A ate, A ages ST A weer (1) Vg /18 2) Va /8 (8) Va/2 (4) Varo In a discharge tube (3Li7}* and (,N'*}'* are present. How many parabolas will be obtained at screen in Thomson’s experiment? (1) One (2) Two (@) Four (4) Bight um frase ae H (gLi7) wen (NS) ** safeea @) aime win 9 owe Ge wae we ai () & Qa ) me @) as A spherical black body whose radius is 12 cm, radiates 450 W power at 500 K temperature. If radius is reduced to half and temperature is doubled, then radiated power in watt will be we theta qferar faref feat 12 Bove %, 500 K aM m 450 W aie fatafea ard 8) ay fen ft smn a Re we ae ae at gen ax fen a, a ae A fafa of et (2) 1800 (2) 600 (3) 900 (4) 300 ‘The eccentricity of earth’s orbit is 0-0167, The ratio between its maximum velocity to minimum velocity in earth's orbit will be yeh Heat A serge 0-0167 8) get A gan A ge mE Boga St aT signa thr a) 3/2 (2) 5/3 (3) 11/7 (4) 03 2413U/102/28 Set No. 1 74, The motion of a particle is represented as Y= Asin {@t)+B cos (wt), Then it is an {1} SHM with amplitude equal to (A+B) (2) SHM with amplitude equal to (A+B)/2 ~(G) SHM with amplitude equal to Va? +B? (4) SHM with amplitude equal to Va? +B? we am ff off ¥ = Asin (ot)+Bcos (wt) t welts 21 ae a eA (1) (A+B) stam 4 ae srad ofa (2) (A+B)/2 are Fh are arerf nf (8) Ja? +.B? orem <6 wet omg nf 4) Ya? 89 ome faa omed ft 78. For a transistor if a and B are the current gains in CB and CE configurations respectively, then fart gifire 4 wf @ ap FMM CB ACE firme 8 ean vals uig 8 a (1) a =B/(1+8) @} a =B/(1-p) @) Bea/(+a) (4) B=(ra/a (323) 25 PTO}13U/102/28 Set No. 1 77. 738. 79. (323) (Mathematics) ‘The equation x? +2x+3=0 has (1) two equal roots {2} two complex roots {3) two rea} roots {4) one real and one complex root wham x? +2x+3=0% Q) 3 are ge a (2) @ afi ae at (3) 3 arate ae et 4) Gye arafas oft um afte ar If 20 (3) <0 a) 20 If A=(a@b,c,d}, then the mapping { (a,c), (b,c), (¢ a), (d, a)} is (1) one-one {2} one-one onto (3) many to one (4) many-one onto AR A=(ab od), A sfaiAm { (a c},(b.c),(G a), (a, a)) Q) we (2) THUR siTeaTeR 3) aE (4) Renew sreRTEH ‘The mapping f(x} =x? +2 defined on the set of natural numbers is (i) many-one (2) many-one onto (3) one-one onto (4) one-one 26a1. 82. 83, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 sngfies seat & agen afin afew f(x) =x? 42 & (1) Re (2) W-ae snwarge (3) -H ea (4) tR-s 13 ‘The value of } (i" +i"*1), i= V=1, equals a 3 Xi), ie VT eR ast me (2) i-1 (3) -7 (4) 1-i ma (2) -4 3) # (a) -1 If logo 2, logy (2* ~1) and logi (2% +3) are in AP, then x equals AR logig 2,logig (2% -1) A logyo (2° +3) Baa Hh SB, Ax a WH A (1) tog, 5 (2) logie § (3) logs 2 (4) logi9 2 If the sum of first n natural numbers is } times the sum of their squares, then n equals aR wot n ompfie deat aan se a dn aw Loe a, An ae as (2) 6 (7 (4) 8 a7 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 86. 87. (323) Ramesh has 6 friends. In how many ways can he invite one or more of them at a dinner? dy & 6 fa 2) a we oy onftee fiat at ag feat atat @ ste 4 omifes ae aaa t7 (64 {2} 63 8) 63 (4) 6 [5 BP caus bal of fy Factors of the expression x° +y* +29 -3xyz are wi xP +y% +29 -3xye 8 GS & (1) (x? +y? 427) (xy +yzs ax —x-y-z) (2) (x+y +2) (xy+yzeax~x? (8) (x+y +2} (x" +y? +2? ~ xy ya zx) y (4) (x+y +2) (x7 +y? +2? exytyzt2x) ‘The equation of a line which passes through (acos* 0, asin® 8) and perpendicular to the line x sec 0 +y cosec@ =a is fry (acos* 0, asin? 9) 8 yaa ae sit TN xsecO+ycosec6=a % waa ta w ‘afar & (1) x c08 0 +y siné = 2acos 26 (2) xsin@~ycos6 =2asin 8 (3) x sin@ +ycos@ = 2acos 28 (4) xcos6-ysin@ =acos 20 2888. 89. on. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 ‘The length of the tangent drawn from the point (2, 5) to the circle x? +y? ~2x-3y-1=0 is firey (2,5) F Ga x? +y? -2x-3y-1-0 % Uhh ne erff A rad & ays 2) 3 lim E 5% equals ve Vxocosx lim ame a) 0 (2) -1 Let fl) 755 when x0, f{0)=0, then x (1) f(x) exists at x =0 8) s'(x} exists everywhere 2 a fla) =* wate x20, f(0)=0, 7 lel (l) x=0% f(x) afer wan 2% 8) f(x) wa afeea 38 [ss (5) eaquals L+sin x & ae a [te uf 4] mame dx (Lessin x, a) -4 @4 29 (3) 8) (2 (4) Q (4) @) 8 2 “ ried 2 1 (4) F(x) is discontinuous everywhere f(x) is continuous everywhere F(x) 3a weet f(x) wea waa 8 (7.0)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 92, 93. 94, (323) ‘The function f(x) =tan x-x (1) always increases Qi (3) never decreases always decreases {4) some times increases but not everywhere We f(x) stan x~x (1) win agar 2 (2) een aa ® 3) A azat ae R (4) a8 agar 8 oeq ada ae x+sin x STreone * coms x+8inX ay wat T+cos x a cot Ste 2) xtan 340 (3) log (1 +c0s x}+e (4) log (x+sin x}+e ‘The value of “8 ole) ° etse( Ex] is ? (x) #casa(E-x} (oe (2) dx UHR z x 3 (3) 7% (4) 20 3095. 96. 97. 98. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. t ‘The solution of the differential equation & slexeyrxy is wewen alte SY ole xeytay eGR x? vo, Q Leyoxs S40 (2) y “ya te 2 (3) log (1+) =log (1 +x) ay log (Lty)=2+2 +e For any vector @,|ax i]?+|a@x j[?+|@xk|? equals fe afar a % fa G,pax i|?+fax j/?+|axk|? WA AT Q) lal? (2) 24a)? (3) 31ay? 4) 3)a/? ‘Two dice are rolled one after the other. The probability that the number on the first is smaller than the number on the second is ae we & ag ww Ge ot Gh opal va A dea eet Ga A den a a A A whe z my a @ 3 a 8 2 15° The value of 11S! 5, L+tan? 15° 2 15° i-tan® 15: ame Tetan? 15° ay. 2) 3 (3) 8 ed 31 PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 99. If the sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 4V3 cm and Vi3 em, then the smallest angle of the triangle is af fet Gays A ya 7 om, 4/3 cm ok VI3 cm @, a fas ar wae de soz (1) 18° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 224° 100, - is equal to aang ay Ba (4) 2 (323) 32101, 102. 103, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No, 1 Section—IV wre—Iv BOTANY and ZOOLOGY (Botany) Abscission occurs during (1) senescence (2) dormancy (3) fertilization (4) seed germination sareder frat aha gat 87 (1) sfefazar (2) saRrae (3) Freee (4) am sige Khaira disease of rice is a deficiency disease caused by (1) magnesium deficiency (2) copper deficiency (8) zine deficiency (4) iron deficiency aaa 3 du te oe t (1) ifaw ona (2) om at ang 8) 38H ome (4) Aheaa at arora Alleles are (1) genetic materials of nucleolus (2) different molecular form of a gene (3) self-fertitizing true breeding homozygotes (4) different molecular form of chromosome 33 (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 104, 108. 106, wat ara t (1) afferra & angers vert 2) fa & Tafa sis eer (a) efit & ean mga sora (4) aay & far samen fag Viruses are considered non-living because {2} they do not move (2) they do not mutate (3) their nucleic acid does not code for protein {4) they cannot reproduce independently feria fisiia ara aren 2, () 8 saa ae (2) 3 vatafia ae ae (3) FR ays wits ahaa & fare oraeae ae E (4) 8 eis eo 8 Gece Fa wT eR A mycorthiza is a (1) fungal disease of root (2) mycoplasma disease of root (3) fungus-plant root association {4) bacterial disease of root smear 8 or () Ss eT ae or (2) aR er reser 7 () 4a9-9R9 Fa wedi 4) Re a ergs or The crop Brassica nigra belongs to the family (2) Tiliaceae (2) Buphorbiaceae (3) Brassicaceae (4) Malvaceae 34107. 108. 109, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 tira sem fire we -atan a ae 8? (a) Refer (2) aptfearetg (3) afraretg (4) eae A seed contains (1) an embryo (2) a zygote (3) stored food (4) both an embryo and stored food ‘ta 8 amnfea tra 2 0) & ym 2) yr (3) Safa sire (4) 9 we daft omen Sat ‘The bast fibre of jute is (2) secondary xylem of stem 2) secondary phloem of stem (3) ground tissue of stem (4) cortex of stem ae He wee (2) 7 r fates sree (2) wor fetes vee QB) at ar frre ay (4) 7 a aitaa One of the major ‘Basmati’ rice producing State in India is () Uttar Pradesh (2) Karnataka (3) Kerala (4) Andhra Pradesh wre 4 ‘orem’ ares #1 em mS Tees tert (4) aa wee (2) slew 8) Fe (4) stiusar 35 PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 110. 1. 112. 113. (323) Nitrogen fixation in rice field is done by (2) brown algae (2) green algae (3) blue-green algae (4) red algae wrt & Ga A anegtaa a feat Pea ger eran C7 Q) Rare (2) Bf are (3) e-eha fara (4) wre Hare Early blight of potato is caused by (1). Ustitago hordei (2) Puccinia graminis (3) Albugo candida (4) Alternaria solani ara, & feet om ar are & () sifteent eee (2) gehen (3) siege fer (4) sneeranftar aren Plant growth depends on . (1) cell enlargement (2) hormones (3) cell division (4) All of the above del ar feera onfiert Q) ar agen 2) WHR (3) aie fem we (4) Set a ‘A combination of auxins and gibberellins spraying on some plants resulted in (1) preventing of senescence (2) promoting of fruit ripening (3) promoting production of parthenocarpic fruit (4) killing broad leaf plants 36114, 115. (323) 13U/ 102/28 Set No. 1 vel oe otf wa firwtfera & signs forge wr ftom @at & ()) stofaea 3 dart (2) a-7E A eer (3) Whtafis wel & semen & aft (4) $e afte ara tah an fase ‘The Central Sugarcane Research Institute is located at (1) Lucknow {2) Coimbatore (3) Bhubaneswar (4) Guwahati aga rin fed detiegg eet orale 87 (1) Re (2) Brreage (3) yar (4) Yared Bordeaux mixture contains (1) copper carbonate, magnesium sulphate and linseed oil (2) copper sulphate, lime and water (3) copper nitrate, lime and sodium sulphate (4) copper oxide, sodium chloride and water ‘teen firmer 3 afiita aa # Q) aie are, aif webs wd tefl Be Q) win ache, an wd wa (3) Bie onegz, ar wa cifeam gee (4) aie steers, tifter actors wi wa 37 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 116. ut 118, 119. (323) ‘The scientific name of paddy is (1) Brassica nigra (2) Ustilago nude (3) Triticum aestivum (4) Oryza sativa 3a) a amie ae & (1) fear arent (2) safer 78 (3) geen Ofer (4) sitftar dar ‘The centre of origin of wheat crop is (1) Myanmar (2) Peru (3) Brazil (4) Central Asia S08 we Q) aR QQ) te (3) arse (4) 32 efter ‘The fruit of mango is () berry (2) drupe {3} pome (4) pepo am mea 2 (a8 Qe 3) ta qa Claviceps purpurea is the causal organism of (1) rust of wheat (2) smut of barley (3) ergot of rye * (4) powdery mildew of pea 38120. 121, 122. (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 safes offer a1 ana 8 0) a gon (2) sat a1 arg (3) wh a ote 4) Ra A gg wR Soil fertility is reduced by (1) decaying organic matter 2 crop rotation (3) intensive agricultural practices (4) nitrogen fixing microorganisms a @ stem Rawk are ue art #7 (Q) Ate seit ar ore (2) Fea aR (3) Ter Bf ay sere (4) Beside aregion an fSrte Which greenhouse gas other than methane is being produced by agricultural fields? () Ammonia (2) Nitrous oxide (3) Arsenic trioxide (4) Sulphur dioxide ‘fas te % rere fee i ea fa ar sees BA Bat gra fiver a ver A? () sRtfen (2) age sitaeTES 3) smite qesiiseres (4) Ben erestaanes ‘The increase in crop yield with green manure is approximately an ake wan a wae Fen few gfe gf 87 Gy 11-10% {2} 10-20% 8} 30-50% (4) 60-80% 39 PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 123. 124, 128. (323) ‘The problem in water conservation is to reduce the amount of {1) precipitation (2) run-off water (3) evaporation (4) groundwater we-cam 3 qea aren fat ar at At et 27 () sro (2) sate 3 (@) seta (4) niet ‘The edible part of Pisum sativum is Q) fruit, (2) cotyledon or seed (3) leaf (4) root tifa dear wr ster aint B () Fr (2) até sen as @) wt (4) as ‘The Indian Agricultural Research Institute is located at (1) Chennai 2) Srinagar (8) Lucknow (4) New Delhi ir timers fad tte wet safer 87 (yaad (2) fre @) was (a) 38 fet126, 127. 128, 129, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 (Zoology) Zoological name of tapeworm is (1) Ascaris tumbricoides (2) Wuchereria bancrofti > (3) Taenia solium (4) Fasciola hepatica o werght ar ig Senha arr & () whe aBreieee (2) getter xine (3) Sifter atte (4) Straten feta Which one of the following blood groups is considered as universal donor? Revfaftra 4 8 stew om waR aden 87 Qa QB (8) AB 4) 0 The centrum of the 8th vertebrae of the frog is () Procoelous (2) Amphicoelous (3) Amphiplatyan (4) Heterocoelous tee 4 ont wie a ian t () ate (2) wetter @) Bakatar (4) Ratatea Which of the following is not a mammal? (1) Whale {2} Dolphin (3) Sea horse (4) Seat freafaftaa & ata aah al 7 () ta (2) tie G) aga ats (4) the aL (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 pepsin dgets poten in (1) stomach 2) duodenum (3) jejunum (4) oesophagus 2faa ata ar on ae F Q) amare 2) sah Fe (3) SF (4) witha # 131. Malaria is caused due to (1) Plasmodium vivax (2) Entamoeba histolytica (3) Amoeba proteus @) Giardia waft a1 are 8 () Siar agate (2) Venter Rector (3). sitar sizer (4) Reenter 132, The element found in the haemoglobin is QQ) Fe {2} Cu (3) Mg (4) Zn Sivchfier Foren oy ater wea (a) ater (2) afar (3) Affe (4) fas Which of the following is the non-protein amino acid? (1) Ornithine (Q) Histidine (3) Glutamic acid (4) Proline frafefas 3 8 sta antdtta omieh sma 27 () onfifira (2) fetes (3) aah are (4) Sete 134, Vision in insect is (1). monocular (2) binocular {3} stereoscopic (4) mosaic Ha 4 ge ah 37 (1) Bratger Q) asiger (3) fegtoiesifes = (4) hae (323) 42135, 136, 137. 138, (323) ‘The enzyme lipase belongs to the class (1) Oxidoreductases: (2) Transferases (3) Hydrolases (4) Ligases arta UIE e () strikers af a 2) giaete at ar @) was af a (4) ert af ar The number of cervical vertebrae in giraffe and camel is ay 7 (2) 10 @) 12 fas wa Sz 8 shen sates A dream he () aR Q) (3) eRe Canal system is the characteristic of (1) sponges (2) sea anemones (3) sea urchins ore aa era 2 () asi a (2) a efit an 8) 4 aR a Human blood has the highest percentage of (1) monocytes (2) neutrophils 3} eosinophils ana we Howat oie fama 2 Q) der a 2) =pfedt a (3) FaRetRe a 43 13U/102/28 Set No, 1 (4) (4) a) (4) (4) indefinite attr Hydra ORT basophils aaa a (P70)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 139, Part of alimentary canal which has functions of digestion and absorption is (1) cesophagous (2) stomach (3) intestine (4) mouth cavity aren ara a ae aT SA oA ssa a aed eT & (1) weitere (2) sae & (3) era ® (4) wa get 140. The longest living animal is (2) dog {2) crocodile (3) tortoise (4) elephant aad Sst vy 8 0) aA (2) #raterrt (afer) (3) Far (4) el 4 / 141. }Lock and key theory of enzymatic action was proposed by (1) Kogl and Smith (2) Beadle and Tatum (3) Emil Fischer (4) Jacob and Monod wearsht fien A ata wa ft td a sfienes feat ar () ara w@ fee 3 (2) fea wi ten 3) tis fae > (4) Sata ca Ate 3 142/) In nucleotides, nitrogenous bases are linked to pentose sugar by {1} peptide bond (2) phosphodiester bond (3) glycosidic bond (4) hydrogen bond saftertenet i reget an tate nda 8 yg wee () ers de ge (2) wearer aie ge 3) rareafefee da ger (@) wether da ao 143, In starch, glucose molecules are linked by (1) peptide bond (2) phosphodiester bond (3) 1-4 and 1-6 glycosidic bond (4) hydrogen bond (323) 44144, 145. 146, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 ert Hogata ory ge ae Q) Fens da ge (2) weer 4a grr G) 1-4 GH 1-6 vaeatfafse dq ge (4) engi a a Which of the following uses sonar system for the location of its prey? (1) Firefly (2) Fox (3) Bat (4) Wild cat Prafersa #8 ata om fram A ome aa} & fire aac wef ar my cot 27 (1) srarvend (2) ang (3) waMEg (4) sire fag The basic unit of taxonomy is (1) class (2) order (3) genus (4) species tating sae @ () ae (2) age (3) 3a (4) efter Nissl’s granules are found in (1) neurons {2) muscle fibres (3) neutrophils (4) erythrocytes: rer fran og art (1) afret afresh F (2) aieteh & agai a (3) =Eifeet & (4) Weiemga The larval stage of frog is (1} Ammonotelic (2) Ureotelic {3} Uricotelic (4) Aminotelic ew a fom 87 Q) sie (2) afd fers (3) qPazeee (4) erttefers 45 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 148, The centrum of ninth vertebra of frog is () biconvex (2) amphicoelous (3) procoelous (4) amphiplatyan Hea Gi el wate an Gen 8 (Q) aeaiaae (2) efter (3) steften (4) effedfears In meiosis, synaptonemal complex appears during {1) diplotene (2) pachytene (3) zygotene (4) metaphase I anda whan faeraa % Rthetfona aterden fear & (1) facet (2) Bia % (3) sreita # (4) er 1 150, Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? (1) Ascorbic acid—Seurvy (2) Thiamine—Beriberi (@) Niacin—Pellagra (4) a-Tocopherol—Night blindness Frafetaa ta adam ga Afra 7 0) Rents seat (2) aretha (3) Frafia—tem (4) o-dhaaete att (323) 4613U/102/28 Set No. 1 Section—V wv AGRICULTURE 151. Borlaug Prize was given in the field of (1) Science (2) Technology (3) Film (4) Agriculture aren queen fea da 9 fem are 27 (1) Paar (2) shatfirét (3) rea i) ee 182. Area of Alluvial soil in Uttar Pradesh is a wie Fo aehe ya at aaa & (1) 1085% (2) 51:22% 8) 61-78% (4) 20:95% 153, National Dairy Development Board was established in ugha tad feta are A cera a ef (a) 1963 (2) 1965 (3) 1967 (4) 1970 184. Average normal temperature of cow body is ama & atk a shea wars aren att () 1005 °F (2) 1015 °F (3) 1025 °F (4) 100 °F 185. Estrogen hormone is related to (2) reproduction 2) milk production (3) protein synthesis (4) fat synthesis (323) a7 (PTO)13U/102/28 Set No. 1 156. 157. 158. 159, (323) gegen choy fied arafita 87 ) 3 (2) Bu sane (3) wae deer (4) sat deter In milk, protein is present in (1) soluble (2) globules (3) colloidal (4) emulsion au a tae og ort & Q) yeaa eH (2) fee (3) Stenger 4) Fe UP Council of Agricultural Research is situated at (1) Lacknow (2) Kanpur (@) Allahabad (4) Jhansi ae sear PRR agua veg frm & Q) Fars (2) BRT (3) serene, (4) ate Average percentage of fat in Jersi cow milk is ‘wat ora Hoga A eer A sttae sites aon at & (1) 40 Q) 45 3) 55 4) 65 In gypsum nutrients present are (Q) calcium and sulphur (2) calcium and iron 8) iron and sulphur (4) iron and manganese fram % ats-8 tive aa me we 2? Q) Sf a aoa (2) *ferem a sie (3) Se a eR (4) ae a irs 48160. 161. 162. 163. 164, (323) 13U/102/28 Set No. 1 Name of the State for highest production of sugarcane in India is (2) Maharashtra (2) Uttar Pradesh (3) Karnataka (4) Bihar wna wa at genes aad fire fra oes Hater 87 (4) Mery (2) sat wT (3) wales (4) fer As per census of 2010-11 world population in billion is ad 2010-11 i warn & ome Peer At aac fife FR (1) 55 Q) 65 @) 70 (4) 73. Temperature of cold storage for storage of potato should be ae, were 3 fa aes Site ar ame Sar eee, QQ) 10 to 25 °C 2} 40 to 65 °C (3) 80 to 105 °C (4) 110 to 155 °C In black soils, the black colour is due to (1) iron oxide (2) magnesium oxide (3) humus {4) copper oxide are erst at on are fre ae eet? (1) amg stings (2) Soefiftrem sataengs, (3) we (4) aie fares Triticale is a cross between {1) wheat x barley (2) barley x rye (3) wheat » rye (4) wheat x oat Ritam wie 2 Q) xt (2) Hx ag (3) x a8 (4) Be x a8 49 (PTO)