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Series III-A

Model Paper

Basic Medical Science

Time: 80 mins

Clin. Pharma.

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Clinical Pharmacology.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.

1. Match the following:




Direct thrombin IIa inhibitor

Factor Xa inhibitor
Plasminogen activator
Antiplatelet drug

2. The safest and most efficacious anti-hypertensive agent in pregnancy:

A Atenolol

C Prazosin

B Methyldopa

D Minoxidil

3. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?

A hydrochlorothiazide

C triamterene

B furosemide

D amiloride

4. Drugs that inhibit acetylcholine (ACh) synthesis:

A hemicholine

C atropine

B succinylcholine

D tubocurarine

5. A nicotinitic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor agonist:

A hemicholine

C d-tubocurarine

B succinylcholine

D gallamine

6. A non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent:

A scopolamine

C atracurium

B suxamethonium

D vecuronium

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Series III-A

Model Paper

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7. Which one of the following is not an anti-cholinergic agent?

A orphenadrine

C atropine

B neostigmine

D scopolamine

8. A non-depolarizing muscle relaxant:

A vecuronium

C neostigmine

B suxamethonium

D galantamine

9. A selective 2-agonist:
A Oxymetazoline

C Midrodine

B Terbutaline

D Yohimbine

10. An example of a selective 2-adrenergic blocker:

A Atipamezole

C Medetomidine

B Prazosin

D Methoxamine

11. Use of Doxazosin is indicated in

A Shock

C Pheochromocytoma

B Neuropathic pain

D Benign prostatic hyperplasia


12. Which of the following medications contain highest amount of alcohol?

A phenobarbital elixir

C theophylline elixir

B cyclosporin oral solution

D lomitil liquid

13. Which of the following drug should not be used in cholinergic crisis?
A Atropine

C Scopolamine

B Neostigmine

D Pralidoxime

14. Which one of the following agents does not cross the blood-brain barrier?
A Glycopyrrolate

C Atropine

B Scopolamine

D Dopamine

15. The enzyme dopa beta-hydroxylase (DBH) is inhibited by:

A tropolone

C carbidopa

B benserazide

D tryptamine

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

16. Fall in blood pressure due to histamine release is caused by:

A suxamethonium

C tubocurarine

B cisatracurium

D vecuronium

17. Flaccid paralysis in Phase II caused by succinylcholine is mainly due to:

A hyperpolarization

C resistance to depolarization

B persistent depolarization

D prevent repolarization

18. All of the following conditions can cause tetany except:

A hypocalcemia

C hypoparathyroidism

B hyperventilation

D hypophosphatemia

19. Which of the following is a potent vasoconstrictor?


C Renin

B Angiotensin II

D Angiotensin I

20. Which of the following is a renin inhibitor?

A Pepstatin

C Losartan

B Captopril

D Pravastatin

21. Which of the following is an organochloride poison?

A Rotenone

C Parathion

B Endrin

D Diazinon

22. All of the following drugs may cause hypogeusia except:

A Carbamazepine

C Mepenzolate

B Clonidine

D Calcitriol

23. Which of the following is/are intracellular cytoplasmic receptor?

A Aldosterone receptor

C Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

B Thyroid hormone receptor

D Epidermal growth factor receptor

24. Regarding selective glucocorticoid receptor agonist and modulator (SEGRAM),

not true is:
A has anti-inflammatory actions
similar to prednisolone

C steroidal in structure

B binds to glucocorticoid receptors

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D inhibits peroxidase activity

Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

25. Mechanism of action which involves the role of bacterial catalase-peroxidase

enzyme activity:
A Rifampicin

C Ciprofloxacin


D Cefotaxime

26. Mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin

A inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

C inhibits final transpeptidation step

B inhibits DNA gyrase

D inhibits cross-linking of cell wall

27. Inflammatory mediators include:

A IL-6


B IL-5


28. Which one of the following is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)?
A Tamoxifen

C Toremifene

B Clomifene citrate

D Enobosarm

29. Not true about Captopril:

A decreases cardiac output

C no reflex sympathetic stimulation

B decreases total peripheral


D effective in renovascular

30. Angiotensin receptor blocker:

A Captopril

C Aliskiren

B losartan

D Enalapril

31. Lisinopril is contraindicated in all of the following conditions except:

A hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

C renal artery stenosis

B renovascular hypertension

D hyperkalemia

32. Example of anthracycline antitumor antibiotic:

A bleomycin

C doxorubicin

B vincristine

D mitoxantrone

33. One which is not a cardiotoxic agent:

A droperidol

C doxorubicin

B amitriptyline

D temazepam

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Series III-A

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34. Which of the following is a side effect of Vincristine?

A hepatotoxicity

C cardiomyopathy

B peripheral neuropathy

D cerebellar ataxia

35. Which of the following is essentially an anxiolytic drug?

A chlorodiazepoxide

C doxepin

B citalopram

D methadone

36. One which is essentially a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI):

A venlafaxine

C citalopram

B mirtazapine

D sibutramine

37. Drug of choice in chloramphenicol resistant typhoid:

A nalidixic acid

C trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

B ciprofloxacin

D aztreonam

38. One which is a mast cell stabilizer:

A betazole

C ketotifen

B triamcinolone

D corticosteroids

39. An example of anti-inflammatory cytokine:

A interleukin-10

C interleukin-6


D interleukin-8

40. Treatment of choice for staphylococcal brain abscess:

A imipenem

C moxalactam

B chloramphenicol

D none of the above

41. A third generation cephalosporin:

A moxalactam

C cefotetan

B cefamandole

D cefaclor

42. Drugs that reduces renal blood flow:

A prazosin

C metoclopramide

B dopamine

D none of the above

Basic Medical Sciences


Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

43. Which of the following is a muscarinic antagonist?

A pilocarpine

C oxotremorine

B scopolamine

D carbachol

44. Physostigmine is a
A antimuscarinic receptor

C anticholinergic agent
D cholinergic agent

B acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
45. Antidote to anticholinergic poisoning:
A scopolamine

C physostigmine

B atropine

D drotaverine

46. Which of the following drugs is an antispasmodic?

A neostigmine

C pilocarpine

B doxapram

D drotaverine

47. An example of selective phosphodiesterase (PDE3) inhibitor:

A dipyridamole

C sildenafil

B milrinone

D drotaverine

48. The effect of corticosteroid on mast cells:

A depletes mast cell

C stabilizes mast cell membranes

B prevents mast cell degranulation

D all of the above

49. One which is a mydriatic

A neostigmine

C pilocarpine

B tropicamide

D scopolamine

50. Analeptic CNS stimulant:

A doxapram

C strychnine

B amphetamine

D pemoline

51. Drug which is spasmogenic and can cause hypermotility of the colon:
A atropine

C neostigmine

B dicyclomine

D scopolamine

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

52. Drug that causes mitotic arrest in metaphase stage:

A methotrexate

C colchicine

B doxorubicin

D penicillamine

53. Mechanism of action of etoposide:

A breaks DNA strands

C inhibits DNA gyrase

B inhibits type II Topoisomerase

D inhibits Topoisomerase I

54. A substrate for enzyme isoform CYP 2E1

A disulfiram

C diethylcarbamate

B desflurane

D diallylsulphide

55. Regarding mechanism of action of bleomycin, which of the following statements is

A inhibits DNA gyrase

C inhibits type II Topoisomerase

B induces DNA strand breaks

D all of the above

56. Longest acting antihistamine:

A diphenhydramine

C loratidine

B fexofenadine

D chlorpheniramine

57. Anticoagulant that do not cross the placental barrier

A Warfarin

C Heparin

B Dicumarol

D Phenindione

58. Drug not contraindicated in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

(G-6-PD) deficiency?
A sulfamethoxazole

C isoniazid

B dapsone

D nitrofurantoin

59. Ataxia is a side effect of treatment with

A lorazepam

C chlorzoxazone

B phenacetin

D morphine

60. Drugs having sympathomimetic activity:

A propranolol

C prazosin

B theophylline

D clonidine

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

61. Sympathoplegics include:

A nadolol

C isoproterenol

B clonidine

D pemoline

62. Paralytic ileus is an adverse reaction of

A erythromycin

C neostigmine

B imipramine

D lactulose

63. One which is a vasodilator:

A thromoxane

C nicorandil

B mephedrone

D acetylcholine

64. Hepatic P450 enzyme isoform CYP 3A4 is induced by:

A glucocorticoids

C grapfruit juice

B omeprazole

D cigarette smoke

65. Drug which is indicated in motion sickness:

A prochlorperazine

C metoclopramide

B ondansetron

D meclizine

66. Regarding the mechanism of action of phenytoin, which of the following statement
is true?
A acts on resting state of
voltage-gated potassium channel

C acts on resting state of

voltage-gated sodium channel

B acts on inactive state of

voltage-gated sodium channel

D acts on open state of

voltage-gated potassium channel

67. Which of the following is an ototoxic drug?

A chloramphenicol

C N-acetylcysteine

B gentamicin

D azithromycin

68. An example of excitatory neurosteroid:

A Dihydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

C Pregnanolone

B 3 Androstanediol

D Dihydodeoxycorticosterone

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

69. Drug which is administered by inhalation route:

A Isosorbide dinitrate

C Salvinorin A

B Amyl nitrite

D Alprostadil

70. A potent GABAA receptor agonist:

A Flumazenil

C Muscimol

B Gabazine

D Metrazol

71. Which one of the following is not an antiseptic?

A Chlorhexidine

C Chloroxylenol

B Povidone-iodine

D Chloramine

72. Which one of the following drugs in indicated is ulcerative colitis?

A sulfapyridine

C mesalamine

B corticosteroids

D azathioprine

73. Digitalis induced arrhythmia is treated best with:

A phenytoin

C atropine

B isoprenaline

D procainamide

74. Regarding digoxin, not true is:

A decreases blood pressure

C decreases heart rate

B increases myocardial contractility

D shorten QT interval

75. Gynaecomastia is not a side effect of:

A methadone

C digoxin

B flunarizine

D ketoconazole

76. Regarding prodrug pick the incorrect statement:

A 5-fluorouracil is a Type IA prodrug

C Enalapril is a prodrug

B Type I prodrugs are bioactivated


D Prodrug improves bioavailability

of a poorly absorbed drug

77. Drug which should be avoided in anticholinesterase poisoning:

A pralidoxime

C diazepam

B atropine

D pyridostigmine

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

78. Regarding insulin, pick the incorrect statement

A Glucose triggers insulin release

C leucine triggers insulin release

B is a glycoprotein hormone

D insulin stimulates glycogen


79. Drug which undergoes least first pass effect

A amitriptyline

C lidocaine

B propranolol

D digoxin

80. Which of the following is least effective for treatment of cutaneous larva migrans
A Ethylene chloride

C thiabendazole

B albendazole

D ivermectin

81. A substrate for enzyme isoform P450 CYP 2C9

A fluoxetine

C fluconazole

B fluvastatin

D haloperidol

82. Which of the following is a purine antagonist?

A fluorouracil

C cytarabine

B azathioprine

D methotrexate

83. Drug not at all effective in Type 1 diabetes mellitus:

A aspart

C tolbutamide

B lispro

D metformin

84. Calcium dependent clotting factor(s):

A Factor IX

C Factor XII

B Factor VIII

D all of the above

85. Metabolism of tobutamide mainly involves:

A hydroxylation by CYP2C9

C acetylation by CYP2C8

B oxidation by CYP2C19

D glucoronidation by CYP3A4

86. Drugs that can be used to treat Parkinsonism include all except:
A deprenyl

C orphenadrine

B donepezil

D scopolamine

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

87. Which of the following is structurally related to chlorpromazine?

A imipramine

C promethazine

B amitriptyline

D all of the above

88. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI):

A haloperidol

C paroxetine

B prochlorperazine

D risperidone

89. A gastroprokinetic agent that causes long QT syndrome:

A mosapride

C cisapride

B ciprofloxacin

D haloperidol

90. Which of the following is an inhibitor of enzyme isoform P450 CYP 1A2?
A trimethoprim

C cimetidine

B fluconazole

D sulfaphenazole

91. CYP 2C19 constitutes about ____ % of total hepatic cytochrome P450
A 6%

C 3%

B 13%

D 4%

92. Mechanism of activity of rifampicin:

A inhibits DNA gyrase

C inhibits biosynthesis of mycolic


B inhibits formation of
mycobacterial cell wall

D inhibits DNA-dependent RNA


93. Cruciferous vegetables include:

A peas

C cauliflower

B alfalfa

D spinach

94. Acyclovir is inhibited by

A DNA polymerase

C thymidine kinase

B reverse transcriptase

D phosphodiesterase

95. Drug(s) that inhibit calcineurin:

A telcagepant

C calcitonin

B cyclophosphamide

D cyclosporine

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

96. Cholinomimetic drugs are indicated in all of the following except:

A paralytic ileus

C post-operative urinary retention

B hyperthyroidism

D open angle glaucoma

97. Least hepatotoxic anti-tuberculosis medication:

A Rifampicin (RIF)

C Pyrazinamide (PZA)

B Isoniazid (INH)

D Ethambutol (EMB)

98. A side effect of lithium therapy:

A diabetes mellitus

C hyperthyroidism

B hypothyroidism

D leukopenia

99. Not an adverse effect of cortisone therapy:

A Addison's disease

C osteoporosis

B insulin resistance

D Cushing's syndrome

100. Shortest acting anticoagulant:

A Heparin

C Dicumarol

B Warfarin

D Nicoumalone

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Series III-A

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every
question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/
unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the
benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro

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