CAMBRIDGE

E X A M I N AT I O N S , C E RT I F I C AT E S & D I P L O M A S

CPE

C E R T I F I C AT E O F P R O F I C I E N C Y
IN ENGLISH

HANDBOOK

English as a
Foreign Language

P R E FAC E
This handbook is intended principally for teachers and
course designers who are, or intend to become, involved in
preparing candidates for the Cambridge Certificate of
Proficiency in English examination (CPE).
The introductory part of the handbook provides a general
background to the Cambridge EFL examinations and an
overview of the work of the EFL Division at UCLES,
including a description of current procedures for test design,
production and marking.
For further information on any of the Cambridge EFL
examinations, please contact:
University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate
Syndicate Buildings
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU
UK
Telephone: +44 1223 553311
Fax: +44 1223 460278
email: efl@UCLES.org.UK

Page 1

CONTENTS

This booklet provides the following information about CPE:

Introduction

Background to CPE

CPE Content: An Overview

Grading and Results

CPE Administration

CPE Support

A Detailed Guide to CPE

Paper 1 Reading Comprehension

10

Paper 2 Composition

17

Paper 3 Use of English

28

Paper 4 Listening Comprehension

40

Paper 5 Interview

49

Common Questions and Answers

57

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I N T RO D U C T I O N

Introduction to UCLES
The University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate
(UCLES) was established as a department of the University of
Cambridge in 1858 in order to set a standard of efficiency
for schools in England. The Cambridge examinations cover a
wide range of academic and vocational subjects and include
examinations specially designed for the international market.
Examinations in English as a Foreign Language (EFL) were
started at UCLES in 1913, with the Certificate of Proficiency
in English (CPE). The First Certificate in English (FCE) was
introduced in 1939. Other EFL examinations and schemes
for Teachers of English as a Foreign Language (TEFL) have
been added periodically since then, so that UCLES now
offers the most comprehensive range of EFL examinations
and TEFL schemes with a total annual candidature of over
500,000.

e.g. specifications, handbooks, sample materials,

examination reports, etc. It is also the responsibility of EFL
staff to ensure that obligations to test users are met, and that
in this context UCLES EFL examinations fulfil the Code of
Practice established by the Association of Language Testers
in Europe (see below). This Code of Practice focuses on the
responsibilities of both examinations providers and
examination users and covers four main areas:

developing examinations;

interpreting examination results;

striving for fairness;

informing examination takers.

The Association of Language Testers in Europe (ALTE)

UCLES is a member of the Association of Language Testers in
Europe (ALTE) which was formed in 1990. The members are
all providers of language examinations and certificates from
countries within the European Union.
The principal objectives of ALTE are as follows:

The English as a Foreign Language (EFL) Division

The EFL Division at UCLES has specific responsibility for all
the professional and specialist aspects of the EFL
examinations and the TEFL schemes. The EFL team is made
up of staff with qualifications mainly in the area of applied
linguistics and TEFL, and with considerable experience in
overseas teaching situations.

to establish a framework of levels of proficiency in

order to promote the transnational recognition of
certification, especially in Europe;

to establish common standards for all stages of the

language testing process: i.e., for test development,
question and item writing, test administration,
marking and grading, report of test results, test
analysis and reporting of findings;

to collaborate on joint projects and in the exchange

of ideas and know-how.

The work of the EFL Division covers four main areas:

question paper production;

support for the administration of the examinations

(particularly the Speaking Tests);

processing of examinations (marking, etc.);

user service.

In all these areas there is a programme of ongoing

validation, and specialist staff work on analysis and
evaluation. The aim is to ensure that standards are being met
and that the examinations develop in order to meet the
changing needs of candidates and other test users.
The core of the EFL system is the question paper production
process. This is described in detail on pages 5 and 6.
The general (i.e. non-specialist) administration and
processing of examinations is largely carried out by other
divisions at UCLES. The EFL Division, however, is
responsible for ensuring that various professional
requirements are met. This includes, for example, the
development and implementation of training and monitoring
procedures which are required for carrying out the
assessment of spoken and written language by examiners.
For the EFL Division, user service concerns professional
matters such as the production of information for test users,
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At the present stage of development of the framework,

considerable agreement has been reached on the content
definition of all five levels of proficiency. Further empirical
research is taking place.
More information about ALTE and copies of ALTE documents
can be obtained from the ALTE Secretariat at UCLES.

The Production of EFL Question Papers

The production process for question papers for EFL
examinations and TEFL schemes begins with the
commissioning of material and ends with the printing of
question papers.
For the majority of EFL question papers there are five main
stages in the production process:

commissioning;
editing;
pretesting/trialling;
analysis and banking of material;
question paper construction.

This process can be represented in the diagram below.

Commissioning of material
for question papers

B
Vetting and editing of
material

Pretest
construction

Trial
construction

Trialling

Revision

Pretesting

Trialling
review

Rejection

Item
Analysis

MATERIALS BANK*

Question paper
construction
*electronic bank for pretested materials

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The Production Cycle for Pretested Question Papers

UCLES employs a team of Item Writers to produce
examination material, and throughout the writing and editing
process strict guidelines are followed in order to ensure that
the materials conform to the test specifications. Topics or
contexts of language use which might introduce a bias
against any group of candidates of a particular background
(i.e., on the basis of sex, ethnic origin, etc.) are avoided.
After selection and editing, the items are compiled into
pretest papers. Pretesting plays a central role as it allows for
questions and materials with known measurement
characteristics to be banked so that new versions of question
papers can be produced as and when required. The
pretesting process helps to ensure that all versions conform
to the test requirements in terms of content and level of
difficulty.
Each pretest paper contains anchor items or is supplied to
candidates with an additional anchor test. The anchor items
are carefully chosen on the basis of their known
measurement characteristics and their inclusion means that
all new items can be linked to a common scale of difficulty.
Pretest papers are despatched to a wide variety of EFL
schools and colleges, which have offered to administer the
pretests to candidates of a suitable level. After the completed
pretests are returned to the Pretesting Section of the EFL
Division, a score for each student is provided to the centre
within two weeks of receiving the completed scripts. The
items are marked and analysed, and those which are found
to be suitable are banked.
Material for the productive components of the examinations
is trialled with candidates to assess its suitability for
inclusion in the Materials Bank.

The UCLES Main Suite: A Five-Level System

UCLES has developed a series of examinations with similar
characteristics, spanning five levels. Within the series of five
levels, the Certificate of Proficiency in English is at
Cambridge Level Five.
In 1997 there were over 60,000 candidates for the CPE
examination throughout the world.
Cambridge Level Five
Certificate of Proficiency in English (CPE)
Cambridge Level Four
Certificate in Advanced English (CAE)
Cambridge Level Three
First Certificate in English (FCE)
Cambridge Level Two
Preliminary English Test (PET)
Cambridge Level One
Key English Test (KET)
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B A C K G RO U N D TO C P E
CPE was originally offered in 1913 to meet the special needs
of foreign teachers of English. Regular updating has allowed
the examination to keep pace with changes in language
teaching and testing. The current version of the
examination dates from 1984, when a number of important
changes were made including the introduction of a taped
listening test. Since then, various minor changes have been
implemented in line with a policy of on-going review and
revision.

The Level of CPE

As well as being at Cambridge Level Five, CPE also falls
within Level Five of the ALTE framework, and a brief
description of this level is given below. This description is
not a specification for the examination content, but refers to
language activities in real-world, non-examination contexts.
The CPE examination contains some tasks which are likely
to be more suitable in content for candidates who have
achieved a certain degree of maturity in their handling of
abstract ideas and concepts.

ALTE Level Five

At this level the learner is approaching the linguistic
competence of an educated native speaker, and is able to
use the language in a range of culturally appropriate ways.
Users at this level are able to improve their use of the
language by extending their vocabulary and refining their
usage and command of style and register rather than by
learning about new areas of grammar. Their level of
competence gives them access to the press and other media,
and to areas of the culture such as drama, film and
literature.
Success in examinations at this level may be seen as proof
that the learner is able to cope with high level academic
work. Such examinations frequently have some cultural
academic content, often in the form of an optional
component.

Recognition
CPE is recognised by the majority of British universities for
English language entrance requirements. These are listed in
a leaflet 'Recognition in Britain' available from UCLES. It is
also widely recognised throughout the world by universities,
institutes of higher education, professional bodies and in
commerce and industry as an indication of a very high level
of competence in English. More information about
recognition of the examination is available from UCLES and
from British Council Offices.

The combination of a pass in Proficiency with passes in the

optional additional papers in Translation and Literature has
equivalence, recognised by the Matriculation Board of the
University of Cambridge, with one subject at Advanced Level,
the standard examination in Britain for entry to a university
course. A special certificate, recording this combination of
passes gained at one or more examinations, is available on
application.

CPE Candidature
Information is collected about the CPE candidates at each
session, when candidates fill in a Candidate Information
Sheet. The candidates for CPE come from a wide range of
backgrounds and take the examination for a number of
different reasons. The following points summarise the
characteristics of the current CPE candidature.
Nationality - CPE is taken by candidates throughout the
world in about 70 countries, although the total number of
nationalities represented in the candidature is over 150. The
majority of these candidates enter for CPE in European and
South American countries. Many candidates also take the
examination in the UK.

Reading Comprehension
Candidates are expected to show comprehension of gist,
detailed content, tone and register. They are also tested on
their wider knowledge of vocabulary, usage and
grammatical control.
There are two sections. In the first section there are twentyfive multiple choice items. In the second section there are
three texts, each between 350 and 550 words in length,
with a total of fifteen items. Candidates must demonstrate
comprehension of the text by completing the items.

Composition
Candidates must be able to write non-specialised texts of a
descriptive, narrative and discursive nature covering a
range of topics.
There are five tasks from which the candidates chooses
two. One of the five tasks is based on an optional reading
of one of three books. Responses should be approximately
300 or 350 words, as specified.

Use of English
Age - Most candidates (about 80%) are under 25, with the
average age being about 22. In some countries the average
age is lower (e.g. in Greece it is about 19).
Gender - About 75% of candidates are female.
Employment - Most candidates are students, although there
are considerable differences in the proportion of students in
different countries.
Exam Preparation - A large proportion of candidates (about
85%) undertake a preparatory course before taking the
examination.
Reasons for taking CPE - Candidates reasons for wanting an
English language qualification are roughly distributed as
follows:

to gain employment (40%)

for further study (42%)
other (18%)

C P E C O N T E N T : A N O V E RV I E W
The examination consists of five papers:
Reading Comprehension

1 hour

Composition

2 hours

Use of English

2 hours

Listening Comprehension

40 minutes (approximately)

Interview

15 minutes (approximately)

Candidates are expected to demonstrate their knowledge

and control of the language system by completing various
tasks at text and sentence level. They are also required to
read a text and answer comprehension questions and to
summarise specified information from the text.
There are two sections. The first section consists of fortytwo items of the following four types: one-word gap filling,
transformation, word or phrase level gap filling and
rewriting.
The second section is a reading comprehension task with
twelve to fifteen items and a summary writing task
(approximately 80 words).

Listening Comprehension
Candidates are expected to extract information, interpret
speakers attitudes and recognise the implications of stress
and intonation. Texts take the form of announcements,
dialogues, extracts from radio programmes, etc.
There are usually three or four texts, each lasting between 1
and 4 minutes, with approximately thirty items of the
following types: multiple choice, selection from three
possible answers, matching information, gap filling. All
parts are repeated.

Interview
Candidates may be tested either individually, in pairs or in
groups of three. They must be able to discuss and comment
on issues and express opinions.

Page 7

The first task involves describing and comparing a set of

thematically linked photographs. Candidates are then
required to read a passage silently and to comment on, for
example, its source, its intended audience, etc. The final part
consists of one or more communicative activities (discussion,
planning, problem-solving, etc.).

Weighting of components
Each component carries approximately 22% of the total
marks except for Listening, which carries approximately
12%.

needed. Centres are notified if a candidate's results have

been scrutinised by the Awarding Committee.

Notification of Results
Statements of results are issued through centres
approximately two months after the examination has been
taken.
Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of
statements of results. Enquiries about results may be made
through Local Secretaries, within a month of the issue of
statements of results.

G R A D I N G A N D R E S U LT S
C P E A D M I N I S T R AT I O N
The five CPE papers total 180 marks, after weighting.
A candidate's overall CPE grade is based on the total score
gained by the candidate in all five papers. It is not
necessary to achieve a satisfactory level in all five papers in
order to pass the examination.
The overall grade boundaries (A, B, C, D and E) are set
according to the following information:

statistics on the candidature;

statistics on overall candidate performance;

statistics on individual items, for those parts of the

examination for which this is appropriate (Papers 1
and 4);

advice, based on the performance of candidates,

and recommendations of examiners where this is
relevant (Papers 2, 3 and 5);

comparison with statistics from previous years

examination performance and candidature.

Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and

two failing grades (D and E). The minimum successful
performance which a candidate typically requires in order to
achieve a Grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total
marks. Statements of results for those candidates who
achieve a pass grade provide an indication of those papers
in which an outstanding performance has been achieved.
Statements of results for those candidates who fail provide
an indication of those papers in which performance is
particularly weak.

Awards
The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries
have been confirmed. It deals with all cases presented for
special consideration, e.g. temporary disability,
unsatisfactory examination conditions, suspected collusion,
etc. The committee can decide to ask for scripts to be
re-marked, to check results, to change grades, to withhold
results, etc. Results may be withheld because of
infringement of regulations or because further investigation is

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CPE is held each year in June and December in about 700

centres worldwide. Candidates must enter through a
recognised centre.

Further Information
Copies of the Regulations and details of entry procedure,
current fees and further information about this and other
Cambridge examinations can be obtained from the Local
Secretary for UCLES examinations in your area, or from:
Administration and Systems Division
UCLES
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU
UK
Telephone: +44 1223 553311
Fax: +44 1223 460278
In some areas this information can also be obtained from the
British Council.

Special Arrangements
Special arrangements are available for disabled candidates.
These may include extra time, separate accommodation or
equipment, Braille transcription, etc. Consult the UCLES
Local Secretary in your area for more details.

C P E S U P P O RT

Course Material
A number of course books and practice materials are
available from publishers. A comprehensive list of those
published by members of the Publishers' Association is
available from UCLES. CPE requires an all-round language
ability and this should be borne in mind when selecting
course materials. Most course books will need to be
supplemented; care should be taken to ensure that course
books and practice materials selected accurately reflect the
content and format of the examinations.
N.B. UCLES does not undertake to advise on text books or
courses of study.

Past Papers
Past examination papers, which can be used for practice, are
available from Local Secretaries and from the Publications
Department at UCLES. The sample question papers included
in this Handbook (in reduced format) appeared as part of
previous CPE examinations. However, candidates are
strongly advised not to concentrate unduly on working
through practice tests and examinations as this will not by
itself make them more proficient in the different skills.

Seminars for Teachers

UCLES offers a wide range of seminars designed for teachers
concerned with the EFL examinations; some are also suitable
as introductions for administrators, school directors, etc.
Some seminars are intended to provide information and
support for teachers who are familiar with the examinations,
and others can be used to introduce teachers to established
examinations and also to new UCLES examinations. Contact
EFL Information for further details.

Page 9

A DETAILED GUIDE TO CPE

PA P E R 1 R E A D I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N

General Description

Task Focus

Paper Format
The paper is divided into two sections. Section A has 25
discrete four-option multiple choice questions. Section B
contains three texts and 15 corresponding four-option
multiple choice questions.

Understanding structural and lexical appropriacy in different

contexts; understanding gist, function, message, specific
information, main points and details of a text; recognising
opinion and attitude and underlying meaning in a text.

Task Types
Multiple choice.

Number of Questions
40.

Answering
For all parts of this paper, candidates indicate their answers
by shading lozenges on an answer sheet.

Length of Texts
1500 - 1800 words approximately overall; 450 - 600 words
approximately per text.

Timing
1 hour.

Text Types
From the following: literary fiction and non-fiction,
newspapers, magazines, journals, etc.

Marks
One mark is given for each correct answer in Section A; two
marks are given for each correct answer in Section B.

Section

Task Type and Focus

Number of
Questions

Multiple choice
Focus:
semantic sets and
collocations
grammatical rules
semantic precision
adverbial phrases
and connectives
phrasal verbs

25

Multiple choice
Main focus: understanding
main points and detail

15

Page 10

Task Format

25 discrete sentences, in each of which a word

or phrase has been deleted, followed by fouroption multiple choice options. Candidates must
choose which option best completes the
sentence.

Three texts, each followed by four-option

multiple choice questions.

P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 1
Paper 1 is divided into two sections. Section A consists of
25 discrete sentences which test specific areas of linguistic
competence. Section B consists of 3 different texts, each of
which is tested by four-option multiple choice questions.
The passage and questions are intended to encourage not
only an understanding of a range of texts, but also an
appreciation of stylistic effects, nuance and register.

Section A
In Section A, candidates must choose a word or phrase from
a set of four options to fill a gap in a sentence. The
candidates are being tested on their knowledge of semantic
sets and collocations, use of grammar rules and constraints,
semantic precision, adverbial phrases and connectors, and
phrasal verbs.
In preparing for Paper 1, candidates should be encouraged
to learn whole phrases (rather than just individual words)
together with their appropriate usage. Vocabulary practice
which studies the differences in meaning and usage between
words with a similar meaning should be part of candidates'
preparation. Candidates should also be given the
opportunity to focus on adjective + noun and verb + noun
patterns, e.g., an unknown quantity, warmest
congratulations, to chair a meeting, to retain the ability
(to...), to be tempted to accept (an offer).

Candidates should be encouraged to read widely throughout

their studies both to reinforce their knowledge of the
structural and lexical appropriacy tested in Section A and to
gain as much exposure as possible to the variety of text types
which may appear in Section B. Looking at examples of
authentic texts and exercises which develop learners' ability
to understand the main points, even though a few words
may be unknown, will help candidates in this part of the
examination. For example, the main point of a paragraph in
a discursive text can often be found in a summary sentence
at the beginning or end of the paragraph. Candidates should
also be encouraged to discuss the opinions or attitudes of the
writer and identify which parts of the text express this, e.g.,
connectors which express feelings.
As many of the elements tested may depend on inferring
opinion, attitude or underlying meaning, candidates are
advised to read the text carefully first to get an overview
before looking at the questions. The questions always
appear after the text to encourage this strategy. Candidates
may also need practice in using their time effectively in the
examination and ensuring that they do not spend a
disproportionate amount of time on Section A.

Section B
Section B consists of three texts, all drawn from a variety of
authentic sources, each of which is followed by four to six
multiple choice questions. Candidates are asked to select
from the four multiple choice options given for each
question the one that fits best, according to the text. The
third text is usually taken from a novel or literary work and
questions test the candidates understanding of the
interaction between characters, as well as narrative
sequences. The other two are more expository or discursive
and taken from non-fiction texts aimed at the educated
general reader. Subjects recently have included the media,
the philosophy of science, archaeology, education and the
development of musical taste, for example.
Candidates may be tested on various aspects of the texts,
e.g., the main point(s) of the text, the theme or gist of part of
the text, the writer's opinion or attitude, developments in the
narrative, the overall purpose of the text, etc. However, the
multiple choice questions used to test candidates
understanding of the texts should not be practised to excess
as they are unlikely to improve students' ability to read
English more efficiently.

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PA P E R 1 R E A D I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N A N S W E R K E Y

SECTION A
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13

B
A
D
B
C
A
C
A
B
D
B
C
C

Page 16

SECTION B
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25

B
B
A
D
C
D
C
B
D
B
A
C

26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33

A
A
C
D
B
D
A
B

34
35
36
37
38
39
40

D
C
A
D
B
C
D

PA P E R 2 C O M P O S I T I O N

General Description

Answering
Candidates write their answers on separate answer paper.

Number of Tasks
Candidates are required to complete two writing tasks from a
choice of five.

Timing
2 hours.

Task Types
From the following: a description, a discursive composition,
a narrative, formal letter, report, short article, essay on
background reading text.

Marks
Each question in the paper carries equal marks.

Task Type and Focus

Number of Tasks
and Length

Task Format

Using natural and

appropriate written
language in response to a
variety of thematic and
situational stimuli.

Two tasks from a

choice of five

Four short thematic or situational

prompts or questions on a range of
topics.

Approx. 350 words

each; Q4 approx.
300 words

One question on each of the three

prescribed background reading texts.

Page 17

P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 2
Candidates are asked to write two compositions from a
selection of five. The choice of topics includes a descriptive,
a discursive and a narrative topic, a shorter, more specific
topic or exercise based on a specific task and a topic based
on optional reading (specified in the Examination
Regulations each year). All the topics are designed to
generate a natural use of language. Candidates are assessed
on task realisation, organisation of material and accuracy
and range of vocabulary and structure. The language used
should be at a level of fluency, accuracy and resource
appropriate to the Proficiency examination and language
rather than content is the main concern in the marking.
Marks are not deducted for unorthodox opinions, but
candidates are expected to present their arguments logically.
Credit is given for an imaginative and appropriate selection,
and development of descriptive detail. Candidates are
specifically expected to demonstrate some sophistication of
language use; narrowness of expression, i.e., over-simplistic
language or a limited range, although accurate, may not be
enough to achieve a satisfactory level in the paper.
Learners should be encouraged to demonstrate the full range
of their language ability and should be given practice in
writing compositions on all the different task types. They
should be trained to develop the skill of using language
appropriate to the different types of writing. The overall
structure of the piece of writing, both in logic and
appropriacy, is an important feature and candidates should
be given extensive practice in planning and organising their
writing. Candidates will also need to practise writing
compositions within the time limit and should allow
themselves time to check their work. When planning their
writing they should take account of the word limits, as overlength or under-length compositions may lose candidates
marks because they often contain more mistakes or are
badly structured.

The Descriptive Composition

This type of task is generally to describe an experience,
object, place or person and to offer some reflections on the
topic. Candidates are normally required to produce a
variety of descriptive language and they should be
encouraged to practise using synonyms in order to avoid
repetition. They may also need practice in describing
several aspects of a subject rather than focusing on just one
facet. Attention should be paid to the necessity of balancing
their writing so that the second, reflective part is adequately
covered. Practice in using the language of evaluation
effectively may help candidates in this type of task.

Page 18

The Discursive Composition

In this task candidates are expected to discuss a serious
theme in a relatively sophisticated way. They may be
required to debate both sides of an argument or to present
only one side. It is important that this type of writing is wellorganised and planning is essential. Learners should be
guided as to a realistic number of points to include within
the word limit. An appropriate introduction and conclusion
will be credited and candidates should be made aware of
the need to clarify the relationship between sentences and
paragraphs with the use of appropriate linking devices.
Generally speaking, a more formal style is required and
inappropriate colloquialisms will mar the overall impression.
At the end of the piece the reader should have a clear idea
of the candidate's opinion and supporting arguments.

The Narrative Composition

In this task candidates may be given a title for a story, or a
sentence with which to begin or finish their story. Useful
practice could include analysing short, narrative texts for
structure, style and pace. Due to the word limit, detailed
narratives of a specific incident are often more successful
than global stories which attempt to incorporate the time
span of a novel. Learners should be encouraged to plan
their work carefully, to focus on a credible context for the
prompt sentence and to develop good control of tenses. It
should also be emphasised that inclusion of previously learnt
material which is irrelevant to the task will be penalised.

The Task-Directed Exercise

In this task candidates are required to produce a piece of
writing appropriate to a specified context, e.g., formal letter,
report, short article. This type of task is intended to reveal
sensitivity to features of style appropriate to the English used
for various special purposes, and the ability to reproduce
these features appropriately. Candidates should be given
ample practice in a range of specified tasks and encouraged
to examine differences in style, tone and register. In this task
it is essential that candidates fulfil the task set, based on the
input, and evidence of careful planning is more important
than expansion of ideas or opinion. The reduced word limit
required by this task (about 300 words) reflects the extra
time required for planning and learners will benefit from
practice in developing their organisational language skills.
When planning this type of task, candidates need to focus on
the purpose of the piece of writing, the potential reader and
the role of the writer. In completing the task, candidates
may draw on their personal experience or insights gained
from appropriate modern media.

Topics Based on Optional Reading

Irrelevance

The topics of the three books are also task-directed, in the

sense that they require the ability to recall and marshal facts
and themes from the text studied in the framework of the
question set. Detailed factual recall is not a crucial factor,
nor is literary analysis, the emphasis being on the quality of
the language used in the given context. Candidates should
recognise the importance of answering the question
appropriately. This requires illustrated description and
discussion as evidence of having read and appreciated a text
rather than merely a reproduction of the plot of the book.
Candidates who have prepared one of the set texts can
usefully be given practice in discussing various elements,
e.g., the motivation of the characters and/or their own
opinion of the book supported by evidence from the text.
This option is intended to offer candidates an enjoyable and
worthwhile reading experience with an opportunity to
develop the ability to handle fresh ideas and build on
cultural insights in English.

The examiners' first priority is to give credit for the

candidates' efforts at communication, but candidates who
introduce blatantly irrelevant material learned by heart or
who deliberately misinterpret the question are penalised.

Background Reading Texts

In Question 5, the examiners are looking for evidence that
candidates have read and appreciated a background reading
text and are able to provide evidence of this in the form of
illustrated description and discussion at an appropriately
abstract level. Candidates are given credit for interpretation,
development of argument and appropriateness of examples
and quotation.
Judgement of compositions set on a background reading text
is based, as for other composition tasks, on control of
language in the given context. It is obviously necessary to
downgrade candidates who attempt these topics without
preparation.

ASSESSMENT
The five prompts provide five different tasks, each of which
demands varying responses and techniques. Examiners
assess task-realisation, organisation of material and range of
vocabulary and structure. Within these criteria, they
consider fulfilment of the task set: (i.e., its relevance and
organisation as a whole and in terms of individual
paragraphs) and the quality of the language used (i.e., the
range and appropriateness of vocabulary and sentence
structure; the correctness of grammatical construction,
punctuation and spelling). The examiners assess each
composition based on these considerations, bearing in mind
the general scope and standard of the CPE. The impression
mark for each composition is awarded out of 20 (criteria
summarised on page 20).

Length
The length of answer required is stated for each task. For
answers that are below the required length, the examiner
adjusts the maximum mark and the mark given
proportionately, e.g., a three-quarter length answer deserves
three-quarters of the mark that would otherwise have been
given. For answers that are over-length, the examiner draws
a line at the approximate place where the correct length is
reached and directs close assessment to what comes before
this. However, credit is given for relevant material appearing
later.

Marking
The panel of examiners is divided into small teams each
with a very experienced examiner as Team Leader. The
Principal Examiner guides and monitors the marking process,
beginning with a meeting of the Principal Examiner and the
Team Leaders. This is held immediately after the
examination and begins the process of establishing a
common standard of assessment by the selection of sample
scripts for all the questions in Paper 2. These are chosen to
demonstrate the range of responses and different levels of
competence, and are used for the preliminary co-ordination
of marking of all examiners.
During marking, each examiner is apportioned scripts
chosen on a random basis from the whole entry in order to
ensure there is no concentration of good or weak scripts or
of one large centre in the allocation of any one examiner. A
rigorous process of co-ordination and checking is carried out
before and throughout the marking process.

Handwriting and Spelling

Poor handwriting, spelling errors or faulty punctuation are
not specifically penalised, but the overall impression mark
may be adjusted if it is felt that communication is impeded.

Page 19

The criteria for assessment are summarised as follows:

19 - 20

Excellent control and selection of language, virtually error-free; outstanding in treatment of task.

16 - 18

Clear evidence of sophisticated language used with only occasional native-speaker-type lapses;
ambitious in concept and approach.

11 - 15

Reasonably fluent and natural language with only occasional minor errors; task well developed,
with appropriate treatment of the rubric.

8 - 10

Ideas communicated but language limited or marred by error; task attempted but not adequately
realised.

5-7

Lack of language control shown by numerous errors; topic area neither extended nor explored.

1-4

Errors and narrowness of expression impede communication; content irrelevant or length of writing
too short.

Page 20

Totally irrelevant, or too little language for assessment.

SAMPLE SCRIPTS WITH EXAMINER COMMENTS

Q U E S T I O N 1 C A N D I DAT E A

The kitchen in my sisters house is a rather large room, many windows so it is bright and apart from the
usual kitchen furnishing such as fridge and freezer, stove and cupboards etc there is a big wooden table.
This table is the centre of the kitchen, here the family have their meals, someone is doing his homework or
simply reading the newspaper. On the old wooden coach that stands along one wall it is most likely to find
a little kitten sleeping. It is in fact a bit of a mess in the kitchen most of the time. There is quite often a loaf
of bread lying on the counter and some cheese or ham and on the table one can find a story-book. On the
fridge there are notes or schedules for football trainings.
It is very much alive though, the kitchen in my sisters house. The personalities of the familymembers reflects on the room. First of all my sister and the mother, has not only three children but is also
working full-time. It shows that she has not enough time to manage everything, even though she is trying
to. The kitchen is not always as tidy as it could be, but she does not mind and the kitchen is much more
cosy when it looks a bit lived in.
The two elder children are both in school and both are very interested in sports. Almost everyday
they have football practice, always going somewhere. This shows in the kitchen when they forget to put
the cheese back into the fridge or the milk or put their glasses or plates in the dishwasher.
The youngest child likes to play out in the kitchen, keeping his mother company. He does not like
to be alone and the kitchen is a very good place if you dont like to be alone, because there is always
someone there.
The kitchen is the natural place for the whole family to meet in and maybe that is because it is
lived in and the whole family is a bit like the kitchen; messy but very warm-hearted.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
Overall the language is sufficient to deal with the theme,
though there is some awkwardness at times, e.g., ... it is
most likely to find ... Word order and subject / verb
agreement are problematic, e.g., The personalities of the
family-members reflects on the room. First of all my sister
and the mother, has not only three children but is also
working full-time. There is some assurance in the writing It is very much alive though, the kitchen in my sister's
house - especially towards the end. A wider range of
structure and vocabulary would have resulted in a higher
mark.

Page 22

The task has been properly realised. Personalities are

reflected through the activities that take place in the room,
which the candidate has made entirely appropriate to the
question.
MARK 13

Q U E S T I O N 2 C A N D I DAT E B

I recently came across an article in my local newspaper, which was about the use of cars in our society. In a comparison
with third world countries a statistic showed that the average number of people per car in Europe was two and in India
355. This statistic clearly underlines the importance of cars in western society. Cars are, by far, the most popular method
of transport, as they are more comfortable and cleaner than public transport. They also enable the user to stop anywhere
and to complete the journey in his own time.
In addition, public transport has become even more unreliable over the past few years. Frequent delays and cancellations
and an increase in ticket prices are hardly and incentive to use buses or trains.
Furthermore, the ownership of one or more cars is a status symbol of relative importance. It is a sign of properity
to have a nice car and it is part of human nature to show off.
For these reasons the number of people who drive to work each morning has grown. The result is that in big
cities, like London, the traffic regularly comes to a standstill during the rushhour. Also, scientists have shown the extensive
damage to the environment, which is caused by pollution. The governments have tried to reduce the amount of dangerous
exhaust fumes by issuing laws, which make it compulsory for every car to have a catalytic converter. Yet, this does very
little to reduce pollution. Furthermore, the British Government has issued a fuel tax, hoping that the rise in price will deter
many from using their car. Despite all these effort the automobile industry is booming and car sales are increasing at a
surprising speed.
I believe there are various steps the governments can still take to reduce the number of drivers. The most
important one is to improve public transport. Regular trains and buses, punctuality and a wider range of destinations
would increase the number of commuters. If this is not enough, there are other possibilities such as, limiting the
x
ownerships of cars per family restricting the number of miles each person is allowed to drive O.
Furthermore, automobile
companies could be forced to invest is more environmentally friendly cars. The biggest breakthrough to reduce the
emission of CO2 would be to change the energy source from fuel to electricity.
x or inventing a car-share-scheme, which is on trial in Germany.
O

EXAMINER COMMENTS

There is evidence of sophisticated language which has been

well matched to the task, e.g., I believe there are various
steps the governments can still take to reduce the number of
drivers. The writing is virtually error free, and the candidate
has used a wide range of vocabulary and expressions
appropriate to the theme - Frequent delays and
cancellations; traffic regularly comes to a standstill;
dangerous exhaust fumes; commuters; more
environmentally friendly cars.

The treatment of the task is appropriate. The candidate has

dealt with the second part of the question in an acceptable
way by detailing the specifics of possible government
control, which implies agreement with the concept of tight
control.
MARK 17

Page 23

Q U E S T I O N 3 C A N D I DAT E C

The ticket collector awoke with a start, to find the train moving through unfamiliar countryside. Bob must be taking a
wrong way. he thought. As a veteran ticket collector, Fred was sure that the driver was heading to a wrong direction. He
got up unwillingly and began to walk towards the front coach of the train. His legs looked as if they could have hardly
put up with his flabby body. Only after he got in a carriage on his way to see Bob, did he find a skinny, little boy sitting
on a window sill with his legs dangling down outside dangerously.
It cant be my brother. Fred thought. The train was not in service, so no one shouldnt have been on board.
Besides, his brother had died when Fred was still in his teens. Fred was about to approach the boy to ask questions when
the boy turned round and grinned at him. He felt as if I had been dreaming. The boy looked identical to his dead
brother. He couldnt help trembling but his blood floze all over his body. In the next 10 minutes or so, Fred tried to calm
down thinking of his duty.
When he pulled himself together, he walked to the boy and asked several questions. Before he realized, he
addressed the boy John, which was his dead brothers name, and had a conversation looking back his young days. The
boy, who was wearing old-fashioned clothes, seemed to be enjoying the chitchat with the ticket collector for a while.
After a while, the boy suggested that Fred should go to see the driver about this wrong direction. So Fred stood
up and left the carriage then, realized that he wanted to ask him one more thing. Strangely enough, he couldnt find the
boy ever again.
No sooner had he realized that he had been dreaming than his colleague came to wake him up for his duty.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
Poor language control leads to confusion, e.g., Before he
realized, he addressed the boy John, which was his dead
brother's name, and had a conversation looking back his
young days.
The task is not treated adequately. The candidate has
attempted to adapt a ghost story to the opening sentence,
and this has entailed the inclusion of material which neither
extends nor explores the topic, e.g., The boy, who was

Page 24

wearing old-fashioned clothes, seemed to be enjoying the

chitchat with the ticket collector for a while. The candidate
has also included a number of descriptions which add little
to the storyline, e.g., His legs looked as if they could have
hardly put up with his flabby body.
MARK 5

Q U E S T I O N 4 C A N D I DAT E D

Christian Berg
Kaptensgt 24
60742 Malmo
Sweden
ph. 0064-53-874201

The manager
Lord hotel
21 Lancaster gate
W2 6ET
London

10/06/97

Dear sir,
I am writing to express my dissatisfaction of my stay at the Lord Hotel, in London, last weekend.
I booked and paid, for my stay at the hotel, in Sweden and I aslo recieved information about the hotel and of the
facilities there a map of London and some touristinformation. I was promised a luxury weekend well-worth the
1000 I paid. However, I am not satisfied.
The room was comfortable but the traffic from the road opposite the hotel made it impossible to sleep. I asked for
another room but no single rooms were available. Furthermore, I required roomservice one night and I had to
wait for almost one hour before someone came.
Moreover, the hotel offered (me) health and fitness facilities and since I enjoy exercising I looked forward to it.
However, I never had a chance to use the gym because it was very small and crowded. The swimming pool was
unclean and cold temperatured and the fitness instructors were not helpful at all.
I am also very disappointed with the food. The breakfast did leave alot for imagination and the 3 course dinner I
was promised was beyond criticism. Firstly, the waiting personel were rude and unfriendly. Secondly, the quality
of the food was not good. Finally the 3 course dinner I paid for appeard to be only a two course dinner since I
only was offered coffee after the maincourse.
Taking in consideration; the immense amount of money I (have) paid for this stay and the inconvinience and
disappointment the stay at your hotel caused me, I think an apology and a refund would be appropriate.
I am looking forward hearing from you
Yours sincerely

Christian Berg
CHRISTIAN BERG

EXAMINER COMMENTS
The letter is appropriate in both style and direction. There
are language errors which stand out, e.g., my dissatisfaction
of my stay; I only was offered. Punctuation, especially the
use of commas, is problematic at times, e.g., I booked and
paid, for my stay at the hotel, in Sweden.... Tenses are
generally well-handled, though the use of the past simple
rather than the present would have been more appropriate
when expressing dissatisfaction in the following instances: I
was promised...However, I am not satisfied; I am also very
disappointed with the food.

The range of vocabulary is mostly appropriate - ...but no

single rooms were available; fitness instructors - but
sometimes leads to awkwardness - the swimming pool was
unclean and cold temperatured - or even confusion, e.g.,
....the 3 course dinner I was promised was beyond criticism.
The closing formula 'Yours sincerely' - is inappropriate for a
formal letter opening 'Dear sir', which is itself incorrect.
The task is handled well and the writer communicates the
reasons for dissatisfaction and the request for a refund very
effectively.
MARK 12
Page 25

Q U E S T I O N 4 C A N D I DAT E E

Stefan Nilsson
9 Old Jamaica Road
London
SE16 4TE
Complaints Department
Mallorca Grand Hotel
12 Cerveza Road
London SE7 0AP
11 June 1997
Dear Sir/Madam
Concerning my stay 010697-030697
During the weekend I realized that the standard of your hotel did not correspond to the standard
described in your catalouge.
To begin with I am a vegetarian. Therefore I had, in advance, ordered food suitable for
vegetarians to both the meal on Friday night and the one on Saturday night. I was chocked when I
realized that the veggie burgers contained meat on both Friday night and Saturday night. I reported this,
but neither the staff or the resturant manager took notice of my complaint. However, this issue is minor
if compared to what happened to me on the morning of Sunday the 3rd.
As I woke up I decided to work-out for a few hours before breakfast, so I went down to the
cellar, were I had been told that I would find luxury health and fitness equipment.
I was stunned to find a gym that only comprised a few weights. Furthermore, I was not able
to use them due to the heavy weight.
Since my main goal with the weekend away was to relax, workout and eat health in order to
get slim, I must say that the circumstances were devastating and that I cannot accept this.
I hope you understand that I must ask you to give me a partial refund of the money that I had
payed in advance. I would be satysfied with one third of the 200 pounds, as a symbolic gesture.
I am looking forward to hearing from you in the near future and I sincerely hope that we can settle this.
Yours faithfully

Stefan Nilsson
STEFAN NILSSON

EXAMINER COMMENTS
The candidate fails to achieve a consistent tone or style in the
letter. An attempt at a formal letter of complaint has been
made, but does not quite succeed. There are some good
touches, e.g., ... did not correspond to the standard; I
sincerely hope that we can settle this, but at times the
vocabulary used is excessive and not in keeping with the
overall tenor of the letter, e.g., I was stunned; the
circumstances were devastating. At others, the sentence
openers employed are not quite formal enough for the
context, e.g., To begin with, I am a vegetarian. Therefore ...
There is a degree of unnecessary repetition in the earlier part
of the letter, e.g., ... to both the meal on Friday night and the

Page 26

one on Saturday night; ... contained meat on both Friday

night and Saturday night.
Spelling is problematic, e.g., catalouge; chocked; resturant;
were I had been told; satysfied; payed.
The task has been attempted, but not adequately realised.
The hotel management might well require more detailed
information, particularly on what steps the writer took to
complain about the fitness equipment during the weekend,
before considering the request for a refund.
MARK 9

Q U E S T I O N 5 C A N D I DAT E F

Kazuo Ishiguro: The Remains of the Day

I gave my best to Lord Darlington. I gave him the very best I had to give.
What was Stevens best and what were the consequences for him of giving it?
Kazuo Ishiguro in Remains of the Day shows us a life of a butler in a big, English house belonging to
Lord Darlington.
Before he starts to work there he makes a long way to being a footman to a position of a butler
in a previous house. This indicates how ambitious and hardworking that young man was.
Stevens comes to Darlington Hall to work as a underbulter and finally he becomes a butler.
He possess all the qualities that great butler should have: He has got a good accent, good command of
English, a general knowledge of everything and he is eloquent.
He is very proud working for Lord Darlington, he likes and respects his master very much.
Saying that he gave his best to Lord Darlington, Stevens is absolutely right.
He gives him many years of his young life in service. He doesnt have a private life and any
time off. He lives the life of his master all those years.
Stevens never thinks of getting married. Even when the housekeeper of Darlington Hall seems
to like him a lot, he does not care. Nothing can stand between him and his career of a butler.
The dedication to his job and his employer has no limits. His father becomes very ill and he
dies, while this is happening not Stevens but Miss Kenton is with him, because Stevens keeps on
working. Even in such a tragical moment the duty is more important than his own father. I found it
rather shocking!
After all Lord Darlington dies too, and after his fathers death and Miss Kentons departure to
West Country, Stevens has got no one close left. He has no family, no friends, no possesions. All his life
he worked hard, he served others, but did he bear many fruits?
He is getting old, but he seems to be happy and somehow satisfied with his life. He could
have led different life. He could have had a loving wife, children - real home. He did not want all of
that. He is lonely and yet still glad. What an extraordinary man!
Giving his best to Lord Darlington he gave it to his country. Stevens has got his dignity and
satisfaction coming from the life he had. The consequences of it do not matter unless he is proud of
himself.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
The candidate handles the task reasonably effectively and
shows good knowledge of the text. This is a personal
response to the question set - I found it rather shocking;
What an extraordinary man! - which is direct and clear
in the points it makes.
The language employed manages to convey a basic
understanding of the text, but does not display a great deal
of range or ambition. There is some awkwardness, e.g.,

Before he starts to work there he makes a long way to being

a footman to a position of a butler in a previous house. The
final sentence is confusing. There is also a recurring
problem with articles, e.g., a underbulter; that great butler
should have; could have led different life; the duty is more
important.
MARK 11

Page 27

PA P E R 3 U S E O F E N G L I S H

General Description

Answering
Candidates write their answers in the question booklet.

Paper Format
The paper is divided into two sections. Section A contains
four exercises based on a short text and discrete sentences.
Section B contains comprehension and summary questions
based on a longer text.

Timing
2 hours.

Marks
Number of Questions

One mark is given for each correct answer in Questions 1

and 3. Questions 2, 4 and 5 are marked according to a
mark scheme; see the sample paper, mark scheme and the
sample candidate answers in this booklet.

Approximately 53 - 59, plus a summary task.

Task Types
Open cloze, sentence transformations, gapped sentences,
open-ended comprehension questions, and summary task.

Question

Task Type and Focus

Open cloze

Number of
Questions

Task Format

20

A modified cloze text containing 20 gaps.

Discrete sentences to be rewritten using a lead-in

phrase.

Discrete gapped sentences to be completed with

an appropriate word or phrase.

Discrete sentences to be rewritten using a given

word.

An emphasis on grammar
2

Sentence transformations
Grammar and vocabulary

Gapped sentences
Grammar and vocabulary

Key word transformations

Grammar and vocabulary

Open-ended
comprehension questions

identifying main
point and examples

paraphrasing

identifying function,
etc.

Summary task

Page 28

selecting and
synthesising
information

presenting in
continuous prose

11 - 14

Candidates are required to select information

from a text of 550 - 650 words.

60 - 90
words
approx.

The summary task, as specified in the rubric,

requires a logical and coherent summary of the
text.

P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 3
The Use of English paper is divided into two sections. In
Section A there are four parts, each part being defined in
terms of its task type and language focus. Section B consists
of a short text followed by a comprehension and summary
task.
In general, candidates are encouraged to read texts from a
variety of sources and to spend time identifying examples of
current usage themselves, rather than relying solely on
exercise completion.

Section A
Candidates are advised against offering alternative answers
in any of the parts of Section A: where such alternatives are
given, marks can only be awarded if all alternatives are
correct.

Question 1
This is a modified cloze test containing twenty gaps, testing
structural and lexical appropriacy, with the emphasis on
structure. A single word is needed to fill each gap. There
may be more than one acceptable answer for each gap, as
defined by the mark scheme. The absence or misuse of
capital letters is ignored; correct spelling is essential. This
type of exercise should not be over-practised in class as it is
unlikely to raise learners language awareness. Candidates
are advised to read the whole text before attempting to fill
the gaps. Learning words and expressions in context,
especially grammatical patterns and collocations, will help
candidates in this part of the paper.

Question 2
This consists of eight discrete sentence transformations.
Candidates are required to manipulate structures in order to
produce sentences similar in meaning to the input provided.
For marking purposes, sentences may be divided into
assessed sections. A wide range of structures such as passive
voice, inversions, complex conditionals as well as noun to
verb (and vice versa) transformations are tested. In addition,
common expressions such as please -self, what + adjective
+ noun and lexical phrases fancy -ing, no point -ing,
object to -ing can be tested in this format. Incorrect spelling
is penalised where it affects the language being assessed.

Question 3
In this Question there are six discrete gapped sentences, to
be completed with an appropriate word or phrase. As in
other sections of the paper, candidates need to know whole
phrases rather than just individual words. Exercises which
examine lexico-grammatical collocations, e.g., how on
earth could you have + participle, (it) doesnt stand a
chance of + -ing and their likely context will help

candidates. Incorrect spelling is penalised where it affects

the language being assessed.

Question 4
This Question consists of eight discrete sentences to be
rewritten using a given word, in the form given, and
structural manipulation as necessary to produce sentences
similar in meaning to the input provided. This task covers a
wide range of grammatical and lexico-grammatical patterns
and, as above, candidates need to learn whole phrases rather
than just individual words. An awareness of parallel and
synonymous expressions will help candidates in this part of
the paper. For marking purposes, sentences may be divided
into assessed sections. Incorrect spelling is penalised where
it affects the language being assessed.

Section B
This is a comprehension and summary task, based on a text
of 550-650 words in length. Candidates are required to
select information from a written text to show general and
detailed comprehension and to paraphrase the text
successfully in order to demonstrate a thorough
comprehension. In the final question in this section,
candidates are required to produce a paragraph of a
specified length, summarising the required information from
the text in a logical and coherent fashion. In preparing for
Section B, candidates should be given practice in reading a
wide range of texts from different sources and in answering
questions on information given or implied and the language
used.

Question 5
Comprehension Questions
These questions, which precede the summary, focus on
various aspects of comprehension such as identifying and
listing examples relating to the main point or identifying the
particular function of specified language in the text. The
questions are a test of comprehension, not composition, and
grammatical errors and clumsy expression are not penalised
except where they obscure the point. Questions which
specify that candidates should use their own words or
explain a quotation from the text require a successful
paraphrase to gain full marks. Complete sentences are not
necessarily required; some types of question can be
successfully answered by a short phrase or, occasionally, a
single word. The dotted lines are generally intended to
provide sufficient space for a fully expressed answer in
average handwriting; however, a minimum of one full line is
always given.

Page 29

Summary Task
This is intended to test candidates ability to select and
synthesise specified information, and to present it in
continuous form, with clarity, coherence and conciseness.
The paragraph must be written in continuous prose, i.e., in
complete sentences and not in note form. It should be in a
formal/neutral register. The sentences should be well-linked,
and the complete piece of writing should be well-structured
and organised to form a self-contained whole. Candidates
should be encouraged to use their own words rather than
relying on lifting; they will be credited for successfully
paraphasing the points required. They should also be careful
to adhere to the instructions given in the rubric as
irrelevancies and misinterpretation will be penalised.
Candidates are expected to extract all the information
required from the text and not to offer their own opinion.
Candidates should write within the word limits given as
excessively long answers will lose marks while short answers
tend to omit information or show sufficient evidence of
structural and stylistic control. Exercises which practise
understanding, interpreting and summarising the information
presented in texts should be part of candidates preparation
for this task.

Page 30

PA P E R 3 U S E O F E N G L I S H A N S W E R K E Y
Question 2

Question 1
Total 12 (marks for each portion as shown; some variations
in answers allowed)

Total 20 (one mark for each correct answer)

(a)

(that) Anna hates more/as much about these school

reunions (1) than posing/having to pose for
photographs (1)
(2)

1
the

2
far

3
from/in
(b)
matter what Ben/he/she does, it seems to go
wrong

(c)
firm/strong belief/conviction (1) (that) Mark was telling
the truth (1)
(2)

(d)
Im particularly/most looking forward to
(particularly/most) when Im in India is visiting
the/a/my visit to the Taj Mahal

OR

Im most/particularly looking forward to visiting in

India is the Taj Mahal
(1)

(e)

funding is/will be essential/necessary/needed/crucial (1)

for the/this research to be completed

OR

for (the) completion of the/this research

OR

if the/this research is to be completed

Page 34
(1)

4
desire/wish/need/urge/impulse

5
back

6
and/while/whilst

7
themselves

for/behind

use

10

that

11

means/way/method

12

must/would

13

against

OR

(in order) to complete the/this research

14

with

OR

15

most/more

(in order) to enable the/this research to be completed

(1)
(2)

16

own

(f)

me to break the news to Tamara

(1)

17

of

(g)

18

not been any changes/have been no

changes/alterations to/in the team (1) since last
Saturdays match (1)

(2)

19

in

(h)

20

neither

fault of mine/of my own/on my part the

business failed

(1)

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

In what ways does the writer consider photographs to be less satisfactory than
paintings?

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

Why does the writer put the word 'composition' in inverted commas in the passage?
(line 27)

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

What does the writer feel 'a great master' (line 23) would be prepared to
acknowledge?

(o)

(n)

0301/3/ S 97

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

........................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

In a paragraph of 60-80 words, summarise the reasons why the writer approves of
painting 'the people around us and the life they lead'.

.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

Explain in your own words why the writer consider that works by L.S. Lowry will endure
longer than most abstract paintings.

.......................................................................................................................................

(m) What does the writer mean by the phrase 'one insurance against oblivion'? (lines 3334)

(l)

(k)

(j)

for thought.

Question 3
Total 6 (one mark for each correct answer; some variations
in answers allowed)
(a)

for handing/giving/having handed/having given in

OR

because + Past tenses

(b)

round/around/down to

OR

(the) time/chance/opportunity to do

(1)

(c)

no need (for you) to

(1)

(d)

good as yours/that (is)

(1)

(e)

were meant/supposed

(1)

(f)

such good value

(1)

(1)

OR

Hamiltons latest book gives the reader/us (plenty

of/considerable) food for thought.

OR

Hamiltons latest book is food for thought.

(1)

Question 5
Total 31
This section is designed to test the candidate's ability to
understand, interpret and summarise. Marks are awarded as
shown for coherent and relevant answers (some variations in
answers allowed).
(a)

Question 4

buy/purchase them (1)

straightaway/immediately/quickly (1)

(2)

Total 11 (marks as shown; some variations in answers

allowed)

(b)

gives a very good vivid/strong/striking idea/impression

of (1) what life was like at a particular age (in the past)
(1)
(2)

(a)

The managements statement is in (complete/total)

contrast to previous policy.

(c)

(drawn from practically) every conceivable genre (1)

(d)

OR

There is a (complete/total) contrast between the

managements previous policy and this statement.

nobody would ever have heard of/recognise the name

of/remember know any of the artists
(1)

(e)

(the huge gap/gulf that exists between) the vast

numbers/huge amount of works of art (1) and/but the
few/small amount that will remain/continue to exist
(1)
(2)

(f)

Why should we expect a work of art to survive (longer

than it deserves to)?//There is no reason why a work of
art should survive.

OR

The contrast between the managements previous

policy and this statement is striking.
(1)

(b)

Everyone could see that Alice had taken a dislike to

my friends.

OR

Everyone was aware of/could see Alices dislike of my

friends.

OR

Alices dislike of my friends was apparent/obvious to

everyone/something that everyone could see.
(1)

OR

We shouldnt expect a work of art to survive (longer

than appropriate).

(c)

Could you cast your/an eye (1) over this letter... (1)
(2)

OR

Many people/artists/the public do expect more.// More

is often expected by people/artists/the public.
(1)

(d)

My daughters health has improved since she gave up

smoking.

(g)

OR

Since my daughter gave up smoking her health has

improved.

the fact that anyone other than the artist should like a
picture enough to (stop and) look at it/consider it is
worth looking at
(1)

(h)

work finds a place in the history of art/recognition of

the value of a work of art by (art) historians (1)/place is
found for a work in a museum/exhibition (1)
(2)

(i)

(an artistic) style/genre/type/kind of painting

(j)

A good picture by a minor artist is better than a poor

one by a major/great/famous artist.

OR

that even famous artists sometimes produce poor

pictures
(1)

(k)

underlines/reinforces the writers opinion that such

pictures/pictures of this type are contrived/artificial

OR

emphasizes the derogatory/pejorative attitude of the

writer
(1)

(l)

photos do not incorporate the artists own

personality/individual perceptions (1)//less realistic/less
satisfying as documentary evidence (1)
(2)

(m)

a way of making sure that a painting/an artist is never

forgotten/never disappears completely
(1)

(n)

Lowrys paintings illustrate/depict life as he saw

it.
(1)

OR

Giving up smoking has improved my daughters health.

OR

Having given up smoking, my daughters health has

improved.
(1)

(e)

The speakers arguments drew an angry reaction/angry

reactions (1) from the audience. (1)
(2)

(f)

The/This governments taxation policy has undergone

(1) a complete change since the last general
election.(1)

OR

The taxation policy of this government has undergone

(1) a complete change since the last general election.
(1)
(2)

(g)

There is little/not much prospect of Donald getting the

job/that Donald will get the job.

OR

The prospect of Donald getting the job is remote.

OR

Donald has little/not much//hasnt any prospect of

getting the job.
(1)

(h)

Hamiltons latest book provides (the reader with) food

(1)

Page 35

(o)

Content: Award up to 4 marks for the mention of the

following points - 1 mark for each point made up to a
maximum of 4.

(i)

Insurance for artists against oblivion.

(ii)

Provides social record/evokes their period/life (in a

fascinating way).

(iii)

More worthwhile than a stuffy composition/less

artificial than a composition/an abstract.

(iv)

Even poor works of art have a value/may give pleasure

(if they depict people).

(v)

Shows what real life was like from a personal point of

view.

Language: Award up to a maximum of 8 marks for the

ability to construct a well-written and concise paragraph;
credit for evidence of overall construction, use of
connectors, economy of style, some attempt to re-phrase as
opposed to reliance on 'lifting' and conformity to the
required length.
There follow some sample answers for the Question 5
summary, with examiner comments and marks.

Page 36

QUESTION 5 SAMPLE SCRIPTS WITH EXAMINER COMMENTS

C A N D I DAT E A

The writer thinks that they are very evocative. These paintings show what life was like
in a period through the artists personal look and experience and that adds to it validity
and life. Thats why they are better than photographs. Moreover they give us pleasure
especially if they are well painted, although they might not offer us something unique.
Sometimes they might even be better than a piece by a famous artist. Certainly future
generations will appreciate them more than abstract ones because they can learn more
from them, about life in past years.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
By including four of the five content points listed in the
markscheme, i.e., (ii), (v), (iv) and (iii), the candidate has
demonstrated good comprehension of the passage and
appreciation of what is required. She therefore receives the
maximum of 4 for this task.
The summary is fluently, if simply written, with good overall
cohesion and correct punctuation. It makes adequate use of
connectors and contains no significant errors in grammar or
usage. There is a real attempt to paraphrase the language of

the text and no lifting of vocabulary or phraseology, placing

it in the top band as regards expression. Any weaknesses are
of a minor nature: they used without an antecedent in the
first sentence, the misuse of look and the missing apostrophe
in Thats. It is also slightly overlength (94 words). For these
reasons the mark awarded was 7 rather than 8.
TOTAL MARK: 4+7=11

C A N D I DAT E B

The writer clearly states in the text that an artist should not try to impress by making
his works of art complex and abstract. On the other hand, even a bad artist could
successfully depict the people around him and the life they lead. This is because
people are very interested in seeing how life was at a certain period of time in the past
and in understanding the artists perception of the world and the people around him.
In other words, they are interested in the way each artist may depict the same period
with his very unique personal style, which may be completely different than others.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
This candidate has mentioned four of the five relevant
points, namely (iii), (iv), (ii) and (v), giving her full marks for
content.
In general, the paragraph is well constructed and expressed,
(except perhaps for could successfully depict and completely
different than others); it is appropriately punctuated, free of
serious linguistic errors and linked by suitable connectors.
There is only one instance of lifting - the people around him
and the life they lead - but the number of words has been

exceeded (108 in this case) due to repetition of ideas in the

last two sentences and unnecessary verbiage, e.g., clearly, in
the text, of art, in the past, of the world and, which may be
completely different than others. As a result it just qualifies
as a competent summary, sufficient for a mark of 5.
TOTAL MARK: 4+5=9

Page 37

C A N D I DAT E C

In this passage the writer puts emphasis on the need of painting real life. This is
justified if we bear in mind that such paintings include, the personal opinion of an
artist, so they act as a invaluable document from these times. Consequently they are
realistic and full of life, in comparison with abstract art which are dead. Moreover
they are actual accounts of the past and are due to have a lasting interest in peoples
who will live hundreds of years later.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
The candidate gains 3 marks for points (v), (ii) and (iii) but fails
to express point (i) with sufficient clarity in the final sentence.
By being reasonably concise (83 words), relevant, attempting
to rephrase the language of the text and using connectors such
as This, Consequently and Moreover, the summary fulfils the
markschemes definition of an adequate attempt, putting it in
the 3-4 mark band. Its main weakness is a lack of linguistic

control resulting in a number of errors in usage: need of

painting, a invaluable document, art which are dead, are
due to have a lasting interest in peoples, hundreds of years.
In view of these defects a mark of 4 was awarded.
TOTAL MARK: 3+4=7

C A N D I DAT E D

In this text the writer wants to show us how important is to snap up all the old
exhibition catalogues we find. Furthermore he wants to show his approval of painting
the people around us and the life they lead. He believes that in this way the new
generations will be able to know about the way of life we lead. Also in this way of
painting every artist can be sure that his work will look at in the future.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
Points (ii) and (i) are made in the third and fourth sentences,
giving only 2 marks for content and conveying the
impression that this candidate had not properly understood
the task or was unable to extract the required information
from the text.
This impression is reinforced by the first two sentences
which are nothing more than irrelevant lifting from the
passage. Although the paragraph conforms to the prescribed
length, it repeats certain phrases, making virtually no use of
connectors and suffers from poor expression, e.g., this work

Page 38

will look in the future. It contains so little candidate input

and reveals such weak summary skills that it falls into the
category of barely competent summary and is thus worth
only 2.
TOTAL MARK: 2+2=4

C A N D I DAT E E

The most important reason according to the writer is that in few years time people will
be interested in previous years and they will want to know what there was before
them. So as a result the abstract paintings will not be wanted. He also thinks that the
only way to make paintings more endurable is to depict in it the real life. Finally he
believes that it worths showing through paintings the real life, the daily simple and
everyday facts.

EXAMINER COMMENTS
Point (ii) is correctly identified at the beginning of the
paragraph, whereas (i) is subsequently hinted at but too
vaguely to justify the mark, giving only 1 for content.
The candidates version shows some evidence of basic
summary skills and knowledge of what is required, it does not
exceed the prescribed length or rely on lifting and it attempts
to use connectors. It is, however, marred by some irrelevance,

repetition and elementary linguistic errors like in few years

time, in it with a plural antecedent, it worths and misuse of
the definite article. It therefore represents a rather weak
example of an adequate attempt, hence the mark of 3.
TOTAL MARK: 1+3=4

Page 39

PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N
General Description
Paper Format

Task Types

The paper contains three or four parts. Each part contains a

recorded text or texts and corresponding comprehension
tasks.

From the following: note taking, gap filling, sentence

completion, multiple choice, selection from three possible
answers.

Number of Questions

Task Focus

Approximately 25 - 30.

Understanding specific information, gist, tone and attitude,

main points and detail, deducing meaning.

Text Types
From the following: announcements, radio broadcasts,
public speeches, interviews, talks, lectures, meetings, etc.

Answering
For all parts of this paper candidates write their answers on
an answer sheet.

Recording Information
Each text is heard twice.
Recordings will contain a variety of accents corresponding to
standard variants of English native speaker accent, and to
English non-native speaker accents that approximate to the
norms of native speaker accents.
Background sounds may be included before speaking begins,
to provide contextual information.

Approximately 40 minutes.
Marks
Each question in this paper carries one mark. The total score
is then weighted out of a maximum 20 marks for the whole
paper.

Task Type and Focus

Number of
Questions

Task Format

Three or four different tasks

from the following: note
taking, gap filling, sentence
completion, multiple choice,
selection from three possible
answers.

Approx.
25 - 30

Three or four monologues or texts involving interacting

speakers, of approximately 3 - 4 minutes each.

Understanding specific
information, gist, tone and
attitude, main points and
detail, deducing meaning.

Page 40

Timing

P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 4
This paper comprises three or four recordings each with a
separate task. On any one version of the paper there is a
range of task and text types, reflecting the variety of realworld listening situations which candidates at this level need
to be able to cope with. Whilst the paper has no
predetermined format, certain text and task types occur
regularly and candidates should be both familiar with these
and prepared in terms of the listening skills tested by each
task type.

Text Types
Texts are adapted from authentic sources and recorded in a
studio to ensure the required level of sound quality. Texts
may take the form of monologues, dialogues, three-way
conversations or include contributions from a number of
speakers. They have their origin in a range of authentic
sources, including broadcast interviews and documentary
features, talks and lectures, public announcements and more
informal conversations.
Task Types
Each text is accompanied by a task that aims to test the
communicative point of what is said. Some of these tasks
may represent an authentic response to a text, for example,
where a listener takes notes in a talk or lecture. Others are
more abstract, testing areas of understanding in situations
where the listener in the real world makes no direct
response, for example, multiple-choice questions.
The main task types can be divided into those which are
productive, where the candidates give a written response to
some kind of prompt, and objective, where the candidates
choose from a number of alternatives.
Productive Tasks
There are two main types of productive task, each of which
requires quite a different kind of response from the
candidate.
Note Taking
Candidates are asked to note down points of information
from the text in response to given prompts. These prompts
may take the form of questions to be answered, lists of points
under headings to be completed, or the notes made by an
imagined listener with certain sections gapped out.
Candidates are required to write a word or short phrase in
response to prompts which focus on the main points of
information presented in the text. Such tasks test listening
for detail, the ability to follow the structure of the text and
locate relevant information. Most answers will be short,
often single words or noun groups, and these should be
spelled correctly. Candidates will not be asked to produce
or interpret any particular system of note taking and will not

be penalised for the omission of articles, prepositions, etc.,

except where they are essential for meaning

Sentence Completion
Candidates are asked to complete gaps in sentences with
information from the text. The sentences provide a kind of
summary of the main ideas presented in the text and may
focus on abstract ideas and feelings expressed by speakers as
well as points of information. Such tasks test a wide range
of listening skills, therefore, in addition to those tested by
note taking, including the attitudes and opinions of speakers,
both stated and implied. Most answers are short, again
generally in the form of single words or noun groups, must
be spelled correctly and must fit into the grammatical
structure of the sentence. Candidates need to check
carefully, therefore, that their answers produce a final
completed sentence which is both coherent and
grammatically correct, as well as including the relevant
information. Candidates should be discouraged from
attempting to write long or complicated answers, the size of
the boxes on the question paper and answer sheet serving as
a guide to the length of expected responses.
In productive tasks, the questions generally follow the order
of information found in the text, and candidates will often
write down actual words that are heard on the tape. They
should not automatically assume that there is a need to find
synonyms or to paraphrase ideas, but should aim to
complete the task with the information given in the manner
most appropriate to the task.

Objective Tasks
The most familiar objective task type is multiple choice
which is regularly used on the paper. It is especially suitable
for testing the understanding of texts that include both
concrete information and more abstract ideas. It is often used
to test understanding of the attitudes and opinions of
speakers, both stated and implied, as well as the ability to
distinguish what was said from what was not said.
Other objective tasks include those where two or three
alternatives are provided. They are often used with texts of a
more conversational nature and the testing focus may be on
the attitudes and opinions of speakers, on what was said or
not said, or may focus on whether or not speakers are in
agreement on certain points. For example, each of a list of
statements may reflect the views of one of three speakers, or
candidates may be asked to decide which of two speakers
holds a given opinion and whether they agree. In such tasks,
candidates should be listening for the attitudes of speakers as
expressed through intonation and choice of idiom as well as
through what is directly stated.
In objective tasks, the questions generally follow the order of
information found in the text, but the final question may test
global understanding of the text as a whole.

Page 41

Helping Students to Prepare

In preparing for this part of the examination, candidates
should be made aware that understanding spoken English
involves extracting the main points of information and does
not necessarily depend on understanding every word that is
spoken. Candidates need to have an opportunity to hear as
wide a variety as possible of unsimplified English spoken at
natural speed. Classroom practice using task-based exercises
is recommended. Exercises which encourage learners to
listen with a specific focus, for example, understanding the
main points of what they hear, note-taking exercises,
inferring attitude, etc., will help candidates.
The instructions on the tape are followed by a pause for the
candidates to study the task for that section. Candidates
should use this time to study the questions on the page to
help them predict what they will hear. This mirrors what
happens in real-life listening situations when we all bring a
variety of extra areas of knowledge to what we hear, such as
knowledge of the context, the speaker and/or the subject.
The use of pre-listening tasks in classwork will be of great
benefit in raising awareness of this and candidates should be
given practice in anticipating what they will hear and/or the
kind of information they will need to grasp. For example,
candidates should look at the words before and after each
gap in a sentence completion task and think about what kind
of information is missing. Helping learners to develop
strategies to prepare for listening is important for candidates
confidence and is an essential element in reducing feelings
of anxiety which may beset them if they feel they have
missed an answer or lost their place.

Page 42

Page 44

The film had an interesting plot.

The producers intentions were not realised.

The location failed to convince.

The daughter behaved unpredictably.

The daughters behaviour was central to the story.

The mother was insincere.

The father should have been portrayed as a nastier character.

At the end, the fathers behaviour was out of character.

The violence in the film was unjustified.

The film will have good reviews.

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

In each box, write either:

D
(Dave)
or
A
(Anne)
or
B
(both Anne and Dave)

26

25

24

23

22

21

20

19

18

17

Listen to this discussion between two friends, Anne and Dave, who have been to the cinema to
see a film. For questions 17 - 26, indicate which of the opinions listed are given by each
speaker.

PART THREE

that industrys selfsame productivity furnishes

much of the solutions to these problems.
Europes surplus capacity now means that up
to twenty per cent of the land can be turned
or returned, whatever the taxpayer wants.
Sensitive areas near water supplies or around
sites of special scientific or, or scenic interest
can be set aside for special care. Even cities,
er, they can now have large scale parkland
around them. Now the greater we improve
our productivity the cheaper our food
becomes and the greater our ability to do
these things.

PA P E R 4 TA P E S C R I P T
PART 1
Announcer:

Roland
Mackie:

Well, er, youve heard the arguments

supporting the motion Modern farming is
harmful both to humanity and to the
environment. I now call upon Mr Roland
Mackie, President of the Young Farmers
Association, to oppose the motion - Mr
Mackie.
Thank you Mr Chairman. Ladies and
Gentlemen. The motion isnt nonsense - er,
there are real problems that modern
agriculture must address but if balance and
perspective have anything to do with this
argument, er, then its as near nonsense as it
could be without actually being nonsense.
Um, just think, please, what you have had for
breakfast today. Er, a wide variety of cereals,
milk eggs, erm, wide variety of cheeses, tea,
coffee, er, even steak and fried potato for the
odd American, erm, and not forgetting my
porridge, of course. Now, that splendid
variety of inexpensive foodstuffs, er, all in
abundant supply is the direct result of the
development of a highly efficient modern
food-producing industry. Its a spectacular
success story. In less than forty years, Europe
has moved from barely 50% self-sufficiency
to a happy surplus capacity situation. A
strategic achievement thats as important
today as it ever was. To get, therefore, this
perspective in balance, to get it right, note
therefore three important points. Firstly, in a
still starving world it is a splendid luxury just
to have this debate. Furthermore, it is a
fragile luxury. World stocks are only a 30-day
supply. And secondly, this splendid luxury is
a direct outcome of the appliance of science
and technology to modern agriculture.
Memories are short but there are still some
who remember going to market not to get
what was wanted for supper but to see what
could be got for supper. Now, my third point
is to do with the first charge of the motion
that out there is a degraded environment.
You cannot have highly productive agriculture
without changing the countryside. But keep
the perspective. Did anyone on their way
here see anything other than a highlyproductive, attractive countryside bustling
with activity? Nevertheless, we have to
accept that there are real problems. Wildlife
is at risk. Nitrate levels have risen in our
water supplies and, and things like that. And
that is of concern. But the good news is, is

As for sickly people, er, people being affected

by pesticides or other chemicals in the food
chain, this must be the nearest to nonsense.
People are living fuller, longer and happier
lives than ever before. A consequence of a
plentiful and varied diet. Materials are used
for the control of pests, disease and rotting
but without these, the ravages of disease and
pestilence would again be colossal. In their
use the industry has become highly
sophisticated, having moved as new products
have appeared, from the somewhat
blunderbuss approach to a caring targeting
mode. The agrochemical industry itself has
put enormous effort into producing targetspecific, short-life products paying great
attention to environmental effects and the
safety procedures now in place are extremely
rigorous. There is no evidence to show that
the minute amounts of residue that find their
way through to the consumer are anything
other than totally safe. To put it in
perspective, the caffeine in coffee is more of a
risk than anything in foodstuffs.
PART 2
Interviewer:

This weekend sees the culmination of three

years hard work on one of the most unlikely
of culinary projects - the worlds largest meat
and potato pie. Weighing more than six tons,
it will be cut open tomorrow in the West
Yorkshire village of Grimsdale, where 75,000
visitors are likely to be queuing up, hoping to
buy a slice.
Marjorie Swale, you helped organise the last
record-breaking pie in 1964 which measured
18 feet long, 6 feet wide and 18 inches deep,
and have co-ordinated efforts on the even
bigger one this year. Now, what lies behind
the idea of giant pie-making?

Page 45

Marjorie

Pie-making was current in the 17th and 18th

centuries in Grimsdale as a way of bringing
isolated people together for a community
event. It was a way of bringing the outlying
villagers into the centre of the community for
a joint celebration.

Interviewer:

But not necessarily one big pie, I imagine.

Marjorie:

Well no. Nobody really knows why giant

pies are baked here. The first recorded one
was made over 200 years ago to celebrate
King George III recovering from madness. In
1887 another was cooked to commemorate
the jubilee of Queen Victoria. Unfortunately,
that one went bad and had to be buried in
quicklime in a local wood. Theyd brought
some professional people in to cook it and
they kept pouring hot stuff on to cold stuff
which was lethal, you see. It was
commemorated with a set of black-edged
funeral cards. It really was interred.

Interviewer:

So how did this co-ordinator role come

about?

Marjorie:

I said there was no way I was going to get

involved this time Id had enough. But then I
thought, well, Im getting a bit long in the
tooth, I might not get another chance and so
here I am doing more than ever!

Interviewer:

Well, Majorie, thank you for finding the time

to talk to us.

Marjorie:

Thank you. Just wish me luck for tomorrow!

Interviewer:

So after that what happened?

PART 3

Marjorie:

Well, actually in the 1928 pie, the local

women themselves cooked it, you see. I
mean, it wasnt so vast as it is today and then
when it grew to all these dimensions, I mean
they just couldnt cope with it, could they?
So now the women just serve it.

Dave:

What did you think of that then Anne? I feel

like Ive been in there for ages!

Anne:

Yes, it was a pretty long film although I didnt

notice the time that much... I dont know
what I think, Dave... Im in two minds about
it really... I got quite hooked on the story in a
sort of soap-opera sense, but I dont think that
was what the producer really intended,
[laughs]

Dave:

Yeah, I know what you mean... you think it

was meant to be some kind of grand epic?

Anne:

But it didnt come off, did it?

Dave:

Mmm-mm... maybe weve seen too many

heroic films - we cant take them seriously
anymore... Oh Anne, I thought youd like it.

Anne:

Oh I dont know - I think Ive got an open

mind still... its just that... well a lot of things
didnt really add up.

Dave:

[laughs] The setting was just unreal.

Anne:

I didnt mean that so much. I didnt really

notice the location - it was more...

Dave:

You mean you didnt wonder where they

were - half the time you couldnt tell where
one place was in relation to another and I
thought that was crucial!

Interviewer:

So thats when the men got involved, was it?

Marjorie:

Yes, but I think local men have been involved

with every pie, with the ovens and that sort of
thing, but the women had been involved in
the baking before a lot more than the men,
until 1964. One man in particular, Ahmed,
has a degree in Food Technology and so he
has taken charge of the baking, and the
design of the dish, the design of the cooking
method, if you like; everything from start to
finish. He has surrounded himself with a
team, I think mostly of men, although I do
know of one or two women who are joining
in on this team of eleven who will be working
on the all-night cooking.

Interviewer:

Marjorie:

Page 46

Oh, I see. And how does it feel when its all

cooked and ready?
Oh, well, when it was over in 64, when it
was baked and it was in the field most of us
wept because to think that wed worked
about 18 months, and it was hard actually,
and when we saw that it was all right it was
such a great feeling, it was wonderful and we
wept.

In the 64 pie, I organised the serving and

about 60 ladies, on pie day, just served the
pie. You were stood there two solid hours
just serving portions of pie and theyd finished
all 30,000 portions at five oclock, and at five
oclock, strangely enough, it started to rain,
poured down, so people just drifted away.
But luckily wed served all the pie by then!

Anne:

I cant remember... anyway that didnt bother

me...

Dave:

But that was why she felt so isolated! Thats

why she left!

Anne:

It was more the awful characterisation. I

mean, why did the daughter betray her
mother? - just suddenly like that, I mean.
Youd think that thered have been some
indication that she could behave that way
before then...

Dave:

Oh, I suppose children are like that - maybe

she was obeying her father.

Anne:

But they were devoted to each other, Dave - I

mean, they wouldnt let the father have a
look-in and then suddenly - boom! - out of
the blue she tells on her mother.

Dave:

Mmm-mm, you didnt think it was realistic?

Anne:

No - and the whole story hinged on that

event. It was such a weak thread.

Dave:

I thought she was weird anyway.

Anne:

Who - the daughter?

Dave:

No, the mother. She frustrated me terribly.

Pretending she was all coy and innocent and
then running off like that with another man.

Anne:

Well I dont know about her but... well... her

husband was OK really. Thats it - he should
have been more - well... you know.

Dave:

Mmmm...?

Anne:

Well, chauvinistic... or just generally

unlikeable.

Dave:

Its more acceptable then is it if she leaves

him?

Anne:

Oh, you know what I mean...

Dave:

Well he was pretty cruel to her when he

found out that she hadnt obeyed him... he
locked her in that dreadful room.

Anne:

Yes, but its like the daughter - he behaved

sort of OK most of the time - and he was quite
a nice-looking person - I mean he wasnt ugly
and he didnt shout or anything - but then
suddenly he became almost irrational... he
over-reacted... or that was how it seemed to
me, anyway.

Dave:

Yes - he did go a bit over the top.

Anne:

Oh he was so awful to her in the end that I

couldnt bear it - I just couldnt watch.

Dave:

Youre a softie.

Anne:

No - well, yes - maybe I am... But why on

earth do film-makers have to get their point
across so violently these days? - and it wasnt
called for in that film at all.

Dave:

Because it was supposed to be symbolic,

anyway?

Anne:

Thats right. Its like - lets make a beautiful,

symbolic film but wed better throw in a bit of
violence because that will suit the peoples
tastes.

Dave:

Well its one film to miss if it comes around

again... although I bet the criticsll like it and
prove us both wrong...

Anne:

I dont know... Ill read the reviews before I

answer that!

Page 47

PA P E R 4 A N S W E R K E Y

Part One

Part Three

1
2
3
4
5
6

17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26

C
B
C
B
D
C

Part Two
7
(worlds) largest/biggest (in the world)
8
isolated people/the community
9
one big pie/big pies/a giant pie
10
(went/was) bad
11
so/too big/large/vast/enormous
12
qualifications/degree (in food technology)/training
13
all night (cooking)
14
crying/weeping
15
organise the serving/organise sixty/60 women
16
(had) finished (serving) the pie

PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N A N S W E R S H E E T

Page 48

A
B
D
A
A
D
A
B
B
D

PA P E R 5 I N T E RV I E W

Task Types

General Description

Exchanging personal and factual information, expressing and

finding out about attitudes and opinions, planning, decisionmaking, problem-solving, prioritising, speculating, etc.

Paper Format
Task Focus

There are nine general theme based packages and three set
text packages.

A theme-based conversation with the examiner, and the

other candidate(s) where present.

The general packages contain three parts: photographs,

passages, communicative activities.

Timing
The set text packages contain three parts: photographs,
extracts, discussion.
The test may be taken singly, in pairs, or in a group of three.
In the single, and sometimes the paired format, one
examiner acts as both interlocutor and assessor. In the group
format (and the paired format in some centres) there are two
examiners; one acts as interlocutor and the other as assessor.
The assessor takes no part in the interaction.

Part
Establishing the
theme

Marks
Candidates are assessed on their performance throughout the
test, in relation to Fluency, Grammatical Accuracy, Prosodic
Features, Individual sounds, Interactive Communication and
Vocabulary Resource.

Task Type and Focus

Length of
Parts

Task Format

Conversation between the

candidate(s) and the examiner
leading to discussion

1 candidate
5 minutes

The candidate(s) are each given a visual

prompt (three photographs) and asked to talk
about or compare them.

Giving factual information

expressing attitudes and
opinions, describing and
comparing, analysing
Expanding on
the theme

Individual candidate: approximately 15 minutes. Paired

candidates: approximately 20 minutes. Group of three:
25 - 27 minutes.

2 candidates
7 minutes
3 candidates
10 minutes

Comments by the candidate(s)

1 candidate
2 minutes

Expressing attitudes and

opinions, analysing,
hypothesising

2 candidates
3 minutes
3 candidates
3 minutes

Communicative
activity based
on the theme

The examiner establishes the theme for

discussion and extends the conversation.

Exchanges between the

candidate(s) and the examiner

1 candidate
5 minutes

Demonstrating rhetorical
skills, e.g., negotiating,
collaborating, persuading,
reporting, justifying, etc.

2 candidates
8 minutes

The candidate(s) are each asked to comment

on a short text, related in theme to the
discussion in Part 1.
Texts may be in the form of written-asspoken language, extracts from letters,
advertisements, newspaper articles,
regulations, etc.

The candidate(s) are given visual and/or

written prompts and asked to take part in a
communicative activity. This may take the
form of a problem-solving
or ranking task, simulation, discussion,
decision-making activity, etc.

3 candidates
12 minutes

Page 49

P R E PA R I N G F O R PA P E R 5
The Speaking Test consists of a theme-based conversation
between the candidate and the examiner, or in the case of
group tests, among the candidates with occasional
intervention by the examiner. Prompt material consisting of
photographs, short passages, authentic texts and problemsolving activities is used to stimulate and guide the
discussion.
The Speaking Test is divided into three parts and candidates
can be prepared for the test by practising talking in groups
or in pairs about a wide variety of topics. Learners should
be encouraged at all times to do more than just answer
questions and to participate actively in a variety of
communicative activities and discussions. The examination
expects candidates to have a certain maturity of approach to
their topic as well as more straightforward ones. They are
required to produce long stretches of clear, coherent speech
and to perform well in complex and serious discussions.
The material that is used in this test is designed to give
candidates the opportunity to demonstrate that ability.
When preparing, candidates should be given similarly
suitable material as a stimulus. Throughout the test
candidates should not be afraid to ask for clarification if they
have not understood what has been said.
After a brief introduction, in which the examiner greets the
candidates and asks one or two brief, social questions to
settle them, the candidates are then handed the themerelated material.

The Photographs
In this part the candidates are asked to speak about the
people or places in the photographs or to compare the
photographs. The conversation starts with specific
commentary of the situation shown in the pictures, but
detailed descriptions requiring specialised vocabulary are
not part of the test. It moves to an in-depth discussion on
associated themes, with the candidates being encouraged to
speak freely. This part of the test is intended to elicit an
extended sample of language and candidates should be
given practice in developing topics based on their own
views and experiences.

The Passages
The candidates are then asked to read through one of the
short passages quickly to themselves and to comment on it,
saying where they think the passage may have been taken
from and how it relates to the general theme of the
discussion, giving reasons for their opinion. This part tests
candidates ability to comment on the source and the register
of the passage as well as to expand further the theme for
discussion. Learners may need practice in absorbing the
discussion content quickly from short texts and other
material, without attempting to puzzle out every word or
background reference. The passages may be taken from a
Page 50

variety of sources, e.g. letters, advertisements, newspapers,

magazines, rules and regulations, etc.

The Communicative Activity

In the final part of the Speaking Test, candidates are asked to
take part in a communicative activity. This may take any of
the forms outlined in the task format description of the
information section. The task will be outlined by the
examiner and candidates should listen carefully to the
instructions so that they carry out the task appropriately.
Candidates are expected to show that they can communicate
in situations which are different from those already covered,
and that they can use language appropriate to the task.
Similar activities can be practised in class.

Background Reading Option

Candidates may choose to be interviewed on the optional
reading material. The format of this test is similar to that of
the general theme-based material. The material is designed
as a stimulus for discussion, rather than a test of literary
appreciation. Candidates are first asked in general terms
about pictures relating to the story. They are then asked to
identify extracts from the text and go on to discuss plot,
characters and themes, and express their own reactions to
the text.
N.B. Test format depends on local administrative
arrangements. Candidates may be tested in pairs or in groups
of three. The increased amount of candidate talking time
generated and reduction in examiner talking time mean
that such speaking tests do not need to take proportionately
longer than the individual format.

ASSESSMENT AND MARKING

Throughout the Speaking Test candidates are assessed on
their language skills, not their personality, intelligence or
knowledge of the world. Candidates must, however, be
aware that examiners can only base their assessment on
what they hear and see. Candidates who fail to exploit the
opportunities to show what they are capable of will be
assessed only on what they say and not on what the

examiner may thank they are capable of saying. Prepared

speeches are not acceptable.
Marks are awarded throughout the test according to the
following assessment criteria which together make up the
candidates linguistic profile. These criteria should be
interpreted within the overall context of the Cambridge
Common Scale for Speaking (page 52) where CPE is at
Level 5.

1 Fluency

Speed and rhythm, choice of structures, general naturalness and clarity.

2 Grammatical
Accuracy

Control of structures (including tenses, prepositions, etc) to an effective level

of communication.

3 Pronunciation
(sentences)

Stress timing, rhythm and intonation patterns, linking of phrases.

4 Pronunciation
(individual sounds)

Correct use of consonants and vowels in stressed and unstressed position for
ease of understanding.

5 Interactive
Communication

Flexibility and linguistic resource in exchange of information and social

interaction.

6 Vocabulary
Resource

Variety and correctness of vocabulary in the communicative context.

Where candidates take the test in the paired or group format,

they are assessed on their own individual performance
according to the established criteria and are not assessed in
relation to each other.
Assessment is based on performance in the whole test, and is
not related to performance in particular parts of the test,
Marks are awarded 0-5 on each of the criteria listed above.
After initial training of examiners, standardisation of marking
is maintained by both bi-annual examiner co-ordination
sessions and by monitoring visits to centres by Team Leaders.
During co-ordination sessions, examiners watch and discuss
sample Paper 5 Speaking Tests recorded on video and then
conduct practice tests with volunteer candidates in order to
establish a common standard of assessment.

The sample tests on video are selected to demonstrate a

range of task types and different levels of competence, and
are pre-marked by a team of experienced assessors.
In many countries, Oral Examiners are assigned to teams,
each of which is led by a Team Leader who may be
responsible for approximately fifteen Oral Examiners. Team
Leaders give advice and support to Oral Examiners, as
required.
The Team Leaders are responsible to a Senior Team Leader
who is the professional representative of UCLES for the oral
examinations. Senior Team Leaders are appointed by UCLES
and attend an annual co-ordination and development session
in the U.K. Team Leaders are appointed by the Senior Team
Leader in consultation with the local administration.

Page 51

COMMON SCALE FOR SPEAKING

Cambridge
Main Suite

CPE

CAE

FCE

PET

KET

Cambridge Common Scale for Speaking

CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 5
Fully operational command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in most situations, including unfamiliar or unexpected ones.
Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express complex ideas and concepts and
produce extended discourse that is coherent and always easy to follow.
Rarely produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies.
Pronunciation is easily understood and prosodic features are used effectively; many features including
pausing and hesitation are native-like.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 4
Good operational command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in most situations.
Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express ideas and produce discourse that is
generally coherent.
Occasionally produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies.
Maintains a flow of language with only natural hesitation resulting from considerations of appropriacy
or expression.
L1 accent may be evident but does not affect the clarity of the message.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 3
Generally effective command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in familiar situations.
Able to organise extended discourse but occasionally produces utterances that lack coherence and
some inaccuracies and inappropriate usage occur.
Maintains a flow of language, although hesitation may occur whilst searching for language resources.
Although pronunciation is easily understood, L1 features may be intrusive.
Does not require major assistance or prompting by an interlocutor.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 2 (Threshold)
Limited but effective command of the spoken language.
Able to handle communication in most familiar situations.
Able to construct longer utterances but is not able to use complex language except in well-rehearsed
utterances.
Has problems searching for language resources to express ideas and concepts resulting in pauses and
hesitation.
Pronunciation is generally intelligible, but L1 features may put a strain on the listener.
Has some ability to compensate for communication difficulties using repair strategies but may require
prompting and assistance by an interlocutor.
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 1 (Waystage)
Basic command of the spoken language.
Able to convey basic meaning in very familiar or highly predictable situations.
Produces utterances which tend to be very short - words or phrases - with frequent hesitations and pauses.
Dependent on rehearsed or formulaic phrases with limited generative capacity.
Only able to produce limited extended discourse.
Pronunciation is heavily influenced by L1 features and may at times be difficult to understand.
Requires prompting and assistance by an interlocutor to prevent communication from breaking down.
Pre-Waystage Level
Zero

Page 52

COMMON QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

How long are the set books retained?

They are normally retained for two years.

GENERAL
What is the mark allocation for each paper?
Papers 1, 2, 3 and 5 are weighted at 40 marks; Paper 4
(Listening Comprehension) is weighted at 20 marks.

What is the pass mark?

To pass the examination with Grade C it is necessary to
achieve approximately 60% of the total marks available
(180).

Must candidates achieve a pass on each paper to pass

the examination?
No. Candidates cannot pass or fail any individual paper.
The candidates grade is based on their total score from all
five papers. There are no hurdles or minimum levels of
achievement required.

The set books for June and December 1998 are:

E.M. Forster, A Room With a View
Kazuo Ishiguro, The Remains of the Day
P.D. James, A Mind to Murder
The set books for June and December 1999 are:
E.M. Forster, A Room With a View
Robert Bolt, A Man for All Seasons
Ray Bradbury, Fahrenheit 451
The set books for June and December 2000 are:
Ray Bradbury, Fahrenheit 451
Robert Bolt, A Man for All Seasons
Susan Hill, Im the King of the Castle
Refer to the Examination Regulations for up-to-date
information.

Can candidates make notes on the question paper?

Yes, but their notes wont be marked.

Is the use of dictionaries allowed?

No.

PA P E R 1 R E A D I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N

What is the mark allocation?

One mark is given for each correct answer in Section A; two
marks are given for each correct answer in Section B. The
total score is then weighted out of a maximum 40 marks for
the whole paper.

PA P E R 3 U S E O F E N G L I S H

If candidates write two possible answers to a question,

how are they marked?
If both are correct, the candidate is awarded the mark(s); if
one is incorrect, no marks are awarded. (This is also the
same for Paper 4.)

What if the answer is right, but a candidate has misspelt it?

In Section A, all spellings must be correct in words which
are directly tested. In Section B, mis-spellings are allowed.

PA P E R 4 L I S T E N I N G C O M P R E H E N S I O N
If candidates make a mistake in filling in their answer
sheets, is this picked up by the computer?
If they omit a question, the computer accepts the answer
sheet. If they fill in more than one lozenge for a question,
the computer rejects it.

Do questions in the multiple choice task follow the

order of the text?

Is there any background noise on the tape?

Sound effects may be used to set the scene, but are not
used while there is speech.

Does spelling have to be correct?

Yes.

Yes, with global questions at the end.

PA P E R 2 C O M P O S I T I O N

Do candidates have to write in pen or pencil?

Pen should be used, because compositions written in pencil
may not be very legible.

How do you guarantee that the different versions are all

equal in difficulty?
For security purposes, there are several versions of the
Listening Test in use at each session. As for the other papers,
the material for the Listening Tests is pretested in advance, in
order to check that it is suitable in terms of content as well
as levels of difficulty. After the examination has been taken,
Page 57

before grading takes place, the Listening Test results are

analysed and the average marks gained by candidates in
each test are compared.

PA P E R 5 I N T E RV I E W

How many parts of the test are there?

After a brief introductory phase, there are three parts to the
Interview all based around the same theme: the first two
parts are based around photographs and a short passage,
and the third part consists of a communicative activity.

Can candidates take the test on their own?

The test may be taken singly or in pairs, or in a group of
three; the format chosen depends on the local administrative
arrangements. You should contact your Centre for more
details.

Do candidates have to talk about the set texts?

If they wish, candidates may choose to talk about the
background text which they have read. Candidates who
choose this format must inform their local Centre when they
enrol.

Do the reading passages test comprehension?

No. They are designed as a stimulus to expand the theme
set by the photographs.

Does it matter if a candidate uses slang or speaks with a

regional accent?
The use of slang is acceptable provided that it is appropriate
and grammatically correct. Regional accents are also
acceptable so long as they are used consistently.

E N T R I E S & R E S U LT S

What is the date of the CPE examination?

The CPE examination can be taken twice a year, in June and
in December. The dates are published in the Examination
Regulations. Check with your UCLES Local Secretary or
British Council Office.

Where can candidates enrol?

The UCLES Local Secretary or British Council Office can
give you information about Centres where the examination
is taken. You do not need to apply to UCLES directly. Fees
are payable to the local Centre, and will vary slightly from
place to place.

Page 58

How do I get my results?

Results are issued to Local Secretaries approximately six
weeks after the examination has been taken. Certificates are
issued about a month after that.