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THI TH S 12

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. foot
B. stood
C. wood
D. food
Question 2: A. explanation
B. preparation
C. observatory
D. cooperation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. argumentative B. psychological
C. contributory
D. hypersensitive
Question 4: A. essential
B. psychological
C. contributory
D. hypersensitive
Question 5: A. independence B. politician
C. immortality
D. socialism
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer if to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Paul really didn't mind
by the party to celebrate his fortieth birthday although he told his
friends that they shouldn't have done it.
A. surprising
B. being surprised
C. to surprise
D. to be surprised
Question 7: - Mary: "Don't fail to send your parents my regards" - Jack: "
"
A. You're welcome
B. Good idea, thanks
C. Thanks, I will D. It's my pleasure.
Question 8: Do you deny
this with the defendant on the day in question?
A. to discuss
B. discussing
C. of having discussed D. to have discussed
Question 9: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained
A. a remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month
B. a reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. to remember that the interest rates was going up next month
D. a reminder that the interest rates would rise the following month
Question 10: If coastal erosion continues to take place at the present rate, in another fifty years this beach
A. won't be existing
B. doesn't exist
C. isn't going to exist D. isn't existing
Question 11: AIDS is
that scientists are doing research to find a cure.
A. a so serious disease B. so a serious diseases C. so serious a disease
D. a such serious
disease
Question 12:
he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. If he studied more
B. If he were studying more C. Studying more
D. Had he studied more
Question 13: Jason asked me
me the book the day before.
A. if who gave
B. if who has given
C. who had given
D. that who had given
Question 14: I don't know
to call him, Mister or Doctor.
A. what
B. how
C. when
D. whether
Question 15: All the way along the winding street
A. he came
B. came he
C. did he came
D. comes he
Question 16: It was
that I bought those books.
A. this shop
B. at this shop
C. this shop where
D. the shop
Question 17: You'll have to
a better idea than that if you want to win.
A. come in for
B. get down to
C. bring out
D. come up with
Question 18:
to find stars in pair.
A. Being very common B. Very common is
C. That is very common D. It is very common
Question 19: He was brave,
soldier fought so bravely in that battle.
A. no another
B. no others
C. no other
D. none others
Question 20: He retired early
ill-health.
A. on account of
B. ahead of
C. on behalf of
D. in front of
Question 21: Both liquids and gases flow freely from a container because they have
_
A. not definite shape
B. none definite shape C. no definite shape D. nothing, definite shape
Question 22:
to Jim myself, I can't really tell you why he would say such terrible things.
A. Not to be speaking
B. Because of not speaking C. Not to have spoken D. Not having spoken
Question 23: My mother often
our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for even
the slightest one.
A. neglects
B. overlooks
C. avoids
D. passes
Question 24:
, Harry was the thirty-third President of the United States.
A. He was born and raised in Missouri
B. Because he was born and raised in Missouri
C. That he was born and raised in Missouri
D. Born and raised in Missouri
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: No matter how hard we try, there is no way to circumvent taxes.
A. pay in installments
B. get around
C. travel round
D. round up
Question 26: Dr. Jones suggested that final examinations be discontinued, an innovation I heartily support.
.
A. entrance
B. change
C. inner part
D. test
Question 27: Is mathematics a compulsory subject in Vietnamese high schools?
A. required
B. despised
C. difficult
D. optional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 28: As an executive director of a big company; she is a woman of extraordinary intelligence.
A. remarkable
B. moderate
C. little
D. sufficient
Question 29: Cattle raising began in Texas well before the Civil War.
A. ages
B. properly
C. long
D. shortly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer for each of the blanks from 30 to 39.
New Year celebrations date as far back as 2000 BC in Mesopotamia. Yet, the 1 actual date has changed a
number of times. There was always a problem because New Year was (30) by the movements of the Sun and
Moon which allowed room for error. To (31)
a long story short, it wasn't until 1582, when the
calendar we use today was (32)
, that January 15 became New Year's Day in most cultures. Some
cultures, however, celebrate the New Year at various times, according to their calendar and religious traditions.
(33)
, the Chinese celebrate it between the 21st of January and the 19th of February. In (34)
with
most of the world who celebrate at the beginning of the year, the Jewish people celebrate it in September or
early October.
In any case, the New Year is a festival occasion. Some people celebrate at home with no (35)
of
champagne, while others party on the streets, watching the fireworks that the city council may have provided.
Others prefer night clubs, joining the long (36)
of people waiting to get in and dance the night away. In
China, there are parades with dancing dragons and hundreds of people turn (37)
to look on. It is also
common to make New Year's Resolutions, the idea being that most people (38) the New Year as a chance to
(39) bad habits.
To sum up, New Year is a time of celebration that a large proportion of the people look forward to. .
Question 30: A. calculated
B. assumed
C. supposed
D. considered
Question 31: A. break
B. change
C. cut
D. turn
Question 32: A. realized
B. recognized
C. known
D. introduced
Question 33: A. However
B. Otherwise
C. Therefore
D. For example
Question 34: A. contrary
B. opposite
C. contrast
D. difference
Question 35: A. shortage
B. loss
C. absence
D. scarce
Question 36: A. aisles
B. queues
C. rows
D. corridors
Question 37: A. up
B. on
C. into
D. out
Question 38: A. regard
B. think
C. believe
D. realize
Question 39: A. cut
B. break
C. change
D. split
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer-sheet to show the-underlined, part that needs correction.
Question 40: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to
A
B
C
D
alter their eating habits.
Question 41: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading easily
A
B
C
among the population.
D
Question 42: Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him when he arrived there.
A
B
C
D
Question 43: Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be loyalty intelligent and calm.
.
A
B
C
D
Question 44: The president refused to accept either of the four new proposals made by the contractors.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modem humans. The 'Out
of Africa' theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000
years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neandertals, The other model,
known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind.
Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a
single species spread across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and
cultural exchange.
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and
supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars, The vast majority
of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has
been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of
recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part
of the human origins debate.
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modem human
skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that
both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early
modem specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modem Australians
showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists
continues, as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
Question 45: The passage primarily discusses which of the following
A. Evidence that supports the "Out of Africa" theory

B. Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate.


C. The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate
D. That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
Question 46: The word "emergence" in paragraph one is closest in meaning to
A. complexity
B. development
C. appearance
D. decline
Question 47: The word "Proponents" in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to
A. Experts
B. Advocates
C. Inspectors
D. Historians
Question 48: All of the following are true except
A. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage
B. the multi -regional model goes back further in history.
C. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars
D. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
Question 49: The word "slim" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. small
B. narrow
C. thin
D. difficult
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations.
B. Early modem human skulls all support the same conclusions
C. Both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
D. Early modem Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
Question 51: In paragraph three, the word "their" refers to which of the following
A. Middle Easterners and Africans B. skulls
C. Central Europeans and Australians
D. traits
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses?
A. Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modem humans.
B. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses.
C. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
D. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future
B. the debate will interest historians to take part in
C. the debate is likely to be less important in future
D. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down.
Question 54: According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits f far more diverse roots for our
kind because
A. Evidence from examinations of early modern human skulls has come from a number of different parts
of the world
B. DNA from Neandertal appears to support multi-regionalism
C. Populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural exchange
D. This has been supported by fossil evidence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to M.
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most management
scholars trace the beginning of modem management thought back to the early 1900s, beginning with the
pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically. He is
most famous for introducing techniques of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for
systematically specializing the work of operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as
Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods "scientific management". At
that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often misinterpreted as
promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial
norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12
children. By analyzing his children's dishwashing and bedmaking chores, this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank
Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his
children in their 1949 book called "Cheaper by the Dozen".
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special tools (cameras
and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved identification of "therbligs"
(Gilbreth spelled backwards) - basic motions used in production jobs. Many of these motions and
accompanying times have been used to determine how long it should take a skilled worker to perform a given
job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a
product or provide a service. However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results
unless all five work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.
Question 55: What is the passage primarily about?
A. The limitations of pioneering studies in understanding human behavior
B. How time and motion studies were first developed
.
C. The first applications of a scientific approach to understanding human behavior
D. The beginnings of modem management theory
Question 56: The word "which" in paragraph, one refers to
_
A. scientific management
B. philosophy C. productivity
D. time and motion study

Question 57: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that


A. workers welcomed the application of scientific management
B. Talor's philosophy is different from the industrial norms
C. by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the work place
D. workers were no longer exploited after the- introduction of scientific management .
Question 58: The word "prevailing" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. predominant
B. broadly accepted
C. prevalent
D. common
Question 59: According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could eliminate waste motion
by
A. using special tools such as cameras and clocks B. using stop watches
C. applying scientific management principles
D. watching his children do their chores
Question 60: The basic motions used in production jobs were given which one of following names by Frank
Gilbreth?
A. dimensions
B. gilreths
C. therbligs
D. monitors
Question 61: According to the passage, the time it takes a. skilled worker to perform the motion of a given job
can be measured by using
_
A. Stop watches
B. all five work dimensions C. special tools
D. therbligs
Question 62: The word "motions" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. stop watches
B. habits
C. actions
D. special tools
Question 63: The word "dimensions" in paragraph three is closest in meaning to
A. sizes
B. extents
C. aspects
Question 64: All of the following are true except
__
A. scientific management was concerned with productivity.
B. the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century.
C. Frank Gilbreth's fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
D. analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the dimensions are
considered.
SECTION 8 (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: The manager contributes generously, so I can continue my plan.
But for the manager generous contribution, I couldnt continue my plan
Question 2: The student was very bright and he could solve all the math problems.
He was so bright a student that and he could solve all the math problems
Question 3: They don't let workers use the office telephone for personal calls.
Workers are not allowed to use the office telephone for personal calls
Question 4: I don't mind if we start at either 1 p.m. or 2 p.m.
It makes no difference to me whether we (will) start at 1 p.m. or 2 p.m.
Question 5: Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about drug abuse and ways to prevent. Write your paragraph on your
answer sheet.

PRACTICE TEST 12
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. foot
B. stood
C. wood
D. food
Question 2: A. explanation
B. preparation
C. observatory
D. cooperation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. argumentative B. psychological
C. contributory
D. hypersensitive
Question 4: A. essential
B. psychological
C. contributory
D. hypersensitive
Question 5: A. independence B. politician
C. immortality
D. socialism
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer if to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Paul really didn't mind
by the party to celebrate his fortieth birthday although he told his
friends that they shouldn't have done it.
A. surprising
B. being surprised
C. to surprise
D. to be surprised
Question 7: - Mary: "Don't fail to send your parents my regards" - Jack: "
"
A. You're welcome
B. Good idea, thanks
C. Thanks, I will
D. It's my pleasure.
Question 8: Do you deny
this with the defendant on the day in question?
A. to discuss
B. discussing
C. of having discussed D. to have discussed
Question 9: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained
A. a remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month
B. a reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. to remember that the interest rates was going up next month
D. a reminder that the interest rates would rise the following month
Question 10: If coastal erosion continues to take place at the present rate, in another fifty years this beach
A. won't be existing
B. doesn't exist
C. isn't going to exist
D. isn't existing
Question 11: AIDS is
that scientists are doing research to find a cure.
A. a so serious disease B. so a serious diseases C. so serious a disease D. a such serious disease
Question 12:
he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. If he studied more
B. If he were studying more C. Studying more
D. Had he studied more
Question 13: Jason asked me
me the book the day before.
A. if who gave
B. if who has given
C. who had given
D. that who had given
Question 14: I don't know
to call him, Mister or Doctor.
A. what
B. how
C. when
D. whether
Question 15: All the way along the winding street
A. he came
B. came he
C. did he came
D. comes he
Question 16: It was
that I bought those books.
A. this shop
B. at this shop
C. this shop where
D. the shop
Question 17: You'll have to
a better idea than that if you want to win.
A. come in for
B. get down to
C. bring out
D. come up with
Question 18:
to find stars in pair.
A. Being very common B. Very common is
C. That is very common D. It is very common
Question 19: He was brave,
soldier fought so bravely in that battle.
A. no another
B. no others
C. no other
D. none others
Question 20: He retired early
ill-health.
A. on account of
B. ahead of
C. on behalf of
D. in front of
Question 21: Both liquids and gases flow freely from a container because they have
_
A. not definite shape
B. none definite shape C. no definite shape
D. nothing, definite shape
Question 22:
to Jim myself, I can't really tell you why he would say such terrible things.
A. Not to be speaking
B. Because of not speaking C. Not to have spoken D. Not having spoken
Question 23: My mother often
our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for even
the slightest one.
A. neglects
B. overlooks
C. avoids
D. passes
Question 24:
, Harry was the thirty-third President of the United States.
A. He was born and raised in Missouri
B. Because he was born and raised in Missouri
C. That he was born and raised in Missouri
D. Born and raised in Missouri":
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: No matter how hard we try, there is no way to circumvent taxes.
A. pay in installments
B. get around
C. travel round
D. round up
Question 26: Dr. Jones suggested that final examinations be discontinued, an innovation I heartily support.
.
A. entrance
B. change
C. inner part
D. test
Question 27: Is mathematics a compulsory subject in Vietnamese high schools?
A. required
B. despised
C. difficult
D. optional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 28: As an executive director of a big company; she is a woman of extraordinary intelligence.

A. remarkable
B. moderate
C. little
D. sufficient
Question 29: Cattle raising began in Texas well before the Civil War.
A. ages
B. properly
C. long
D. shortly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer for each of the blanks from 30 to 39.
New Year celebrations date as far back as 2000 BC in Mesopotamia. Yet, the 1 actual date has changed a
number of times. There was always a problem because New Year was (30) by the movements of the Sun and
Moon which allowed room for error. To (31)
a long story short, it wasn't until 1582, when the
calendar we use today was (32)
, that January 15 became New Year's Day in most cultures. Some
cultures, however, celebrate the New Year at various times, according to their calendar and religious traditions.
(33)
, the Chinese celebrate it between the 21st of January and the 19th of February. In (34)
with
most of the world who celebrate at the beginning of the year, the Jewish people celebrate it in September or
early October.
In any case, the New Year is a festival occasion. Some people celebrate at home with no (35)
of
champagne, while others party on the streets, watching the fireworks that the city council may have provided.
Others prefer night clubs, joining the long (36)
of people waiting to get in and dance the night away. In
China, there are parades with dancing dragons and hundreds of people turn (37)
to look on. It is also
common to make New Year's Resolutions, the idea being that most people (38) the New Year as a chance to
(39) bad habits.
To sum up, New Year is a time of celebration that a large proportion of the people look forward to. .
Question 30: A. calculated
B. assumed
C. supposed
D. considered
Question 31: A. break
B. change
C. cut
D. turn
Question 32: A. realized
B. recognized
C. known
D. introduced
Question 33: A. However
B. Otherwise
C. Therefore
D. For example
Question 34: A. contrary
B. opposite
C. contrast
D. difference
Question 35: A. shortage
B. loss
C. absence
D. scarce
Question 36: A. aisles
B. queues
C. rows
D. corridors
Question 37: A. up
B. on
C. into
D. out
Question 38: A. regard
B. think
C. believe
D. realize
Question 39: A. cut
B. break
C. change
D. split
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer-sheet to show the-underlined, part that needs correction.
Question 40: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to
A
B
C
D
alter their eating habits.
Question 41: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading easily
A
B
C
among the population.
D
Question 42: Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him when he arrived there.
A
B
C
D
Question 43: Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be loyalty intelligent and calm.
.
A
B
C
D
Question 44: The president refused to accept either of the four new proposals made by the contractors.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modem humans. The 'Out
of Africa' theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000
years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neandertals, The other model,
known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind.
Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a
single species spread across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and
cultural exchange.
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and
supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars, The vast majority
of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has
been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of
recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part
of the human origins debate.
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modem human
skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that
both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early

modem specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modem Australians
showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists
continues, as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
Question 45: The passage primarily discusses which of the following
A. Evidence that supports the "Out of Africa" theory
B. Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate.
C. The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate
D. That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
Question 46: The word "emergence" in paragraph one is closest in meaning to
A. complexity
B. development
C. appearance
D. decline
Question 47: The word "Proponents" in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to
A. Experts
B. Advocates
C. Inspectors
D. Historians
Question 48: All of the following are true except
A. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage
B. the multi -regional model goes back further in history.
C. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars
D. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
Question 49: The word "slim" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. small
B. narrow
C. thin
D. difficult
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations.
B. Early modem human skulls all support the same conclusions
C. Both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
D. Early modem Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
Question 51: In paragraph three, the word "their" refers to which of the following
A. Middle Easterners and Africans B. skulls
C. Central Europeans and Australians
D. traits
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses?
A. Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modem humans.
B. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses.
C. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
D. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future
B. the debate will interest historians to take part in
C. the debate is likely to be less important in future
D. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down.
Question 54: According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits f far more diverse roots for our
kind because
A. Evidence from examinations of early modern human skulls has come from a number of different parts
of the world
B. DNA from Neandertal appears to support multi-regionalism
C. Populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural exchange
D. This has been supported by fossil evidence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to M.
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most management
scholars trace the beginning of modem management thought back to the early 1900s, beginning with the
pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically. He is
most famous for introducing techniques of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for
systematically specializing the work of operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as
Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods "scientific management". At
that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often misinterpreted as
promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial
norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12
children. By analyzing his children's dishwashing and bedmaking chores, this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank
Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his
children in their 1949 book called "Cheaper by the Dozen".
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special tools (cameras
and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved identification of "therbligs"
(Gilbreth spelled backwards) - basic motions used in production jobs. Many of these motions and
accompanying times have been used to determine how long it should take a skilled worker to perform a given
job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a
product or provide a service. However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results
unless all five work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.
Question 55: What is the passage primarily about?
A. The limitations of pioneering studies in understanding human behavior

B. How time and motion studies were first developed


.
C. The first applications of a scientific approach to understanding human behavior
D. The beginnings of modem management theory
Question 56: The word "which" in paragraph, one refers to
_
A. scientific management
B. philosophy C. productivity
D. time and motion study
Question 57: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. workers welcomed the application of scientific management
B. Talor's philosophy is different from the industrial norms
C. by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the work place
D. workers were no longer exploited after the- introduction of scientific management.
Question 58: The word "prevailing" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. predominant
B. broadly accepted
C. prevalent
D. common
Question 59: According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could eliminate waste motion
by
A. using special tools such as cameras and clocks B. using stop watches
C. applying scientific management principles
D. watching his children do their chores
Question 60: The basic motions used in production jobs were given which one of following names by Frank
Gilbreth?
A. dimensions
B. gilreths
C. therbligs
D. monitors
Question 61: According to the passage, the time it takes a. skilled worker to perform the motion of a given job
can be measured by using
_
A. Stop watches
B. all five work dimensions C. special tools
D. therbligs
Qnestion 62: The word "motions" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. stop watches
B. habits
. C. actions
D. special tools
Question 63: The word "dimensions" in paragraph three is closest in meaning to
A. sizes
B. extents
C. aspects
Question 64: All of the following are true except
__
A. scientific management was concerned with productivity.
B. the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century.
C. Frank Gilbreth's fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
D. analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the dimensions are
considered.
SECTION 2 (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that means the same as the sentence printed
before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: The manager contributes generously, so I can continue my plan.
But for
Question 2: The student was very bright and he could solve all the math problems.
He was so
Question 3: They don't let workers use the office telephone for personal calls.
Workers are
'Question 4: I don't mind if we start at either 1 p.m. or 2 p.m.
It makes
Question 5: Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
You could
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about drug abuse and ways to prevent. Write your paragraph
on your answer sheet.