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Chapter 2 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None
Allowed Attempts Unlimited
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Attempt 2
7 minutes
20 out of 20
LATEST
Attempt 2
7 minutes
20 out of 20
Attempt 1
25 minutes
17 out of 20
Score for this attempt: 20 out of 20
Submitted Apr 10 at 3:15pm

This attempt took 7 minutes.
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
What is the suggested solution for routing when Layer 3 routing is extended to the access layer?
run an IGP at the access, distribution and core layers
Correct!
run an IGP between the distribution and core layers and use static default routes at the access layer
use static rotue from the access to the distribution layer, use default static routes from the distribtuion to the core layer and use IGP
amongst core layer devices
run an IGP between distribution and core layers and rely on proxy ARP between the access and distribution layers
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What plane on a network device is accessed using SSH or SNMP?
Correct!
management plane
control plane
forwarding plane
CAM
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
In its network design, a company lists this equipment :

Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices from the list would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
Catalyst 4503 switches
Cisco 5500 security appliance firewall

Correct!
lightweight access points

Correct!

Refer to curriculum topic: 1.1.3
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Why does extending layer 3 switching to the access layer improve scalability?
VLANs are extended into the distribution layer.
Correct!
VLANs are terminated on the access layer devices.
The access and distribution layers would not participate in the routing scheme.
Layer 3 switching in the access layer is a cheaper implementation option.

Refer to Chapter 2 of the Foundation Learning Guide
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
For what is the control plane on a catalyst switch responsible?
the catalyst switch does not have a Control Plane; it has a Management Plane
control and remote management of the switch
Correct!
control of the routing protocols and processes running on the switch
control of the layer 2 switching process used by the switch

Question 6
Which layer 3 switching method used by Catalyst switches offers the greatest performance?
process switching
Correct!
CEF
fast switching
TCAM
1 / 1 pts
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
In terms of design, which layer of the hierarchical model is the most complex?
access Layer
Correct!
distribution Layer
collapsed core Layer
core Layer
Refer to Chapter 2.
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture and the hierarchical desgin?
It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach.
Correct!
Each element in the hierarchy has a specific set of functions and services that it offers and specific role.
It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single component that is located in the access layer.
It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
What are two responsibilities of devices that are located at the core layer of the hierarchical design model? (Choose two.)
access list filtering
packet manipulation
Correct!
high-speed backbone switching
Correct!
interconnection of distribution layer devices
redundancy between the core devices only
Question 10
Which statement is true about the CEF forwarding process?
The FIB table contains the Layer 2 rewrite information.
Adjacency table lookups use the closest Layer 3 prefix match.
The adjacency table eliminates the need for the ARP protocol.
Correct!
After an IP prefix match is made, the process determines the associated Layer 2 header rewrite information from the adjacency table.
1 / 1 pts
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
What feature of CEF allows for Layer 3 switches to use multiple paths?
Correct!
load-balancing
hardware based forwarding
route caching
Netflow LAN switching
At what layer of the hierarchical design model would redistribution and summarization occur?
core layer
backbone layer
access layer
Correct!
distribution layer
Which portion of the enterprise network provides access to network communication services for the end users and
devices that are spread over a single geographic location?
enterprise edge
Correct!
campus module
WAN module
Internet edge
data center
Question 14
What type of specialized memory is used to facilitate high performance switching in Cisco multilayer switches?
content-addressable memory (CAM)
Correct!
ternary content addressable memory (TCAM)
address resolution protocol (ARP) memory

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) memory
1 / 1 pts
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
What is true about TCAM lookups that are associated with CEF switching?
TCAM includes only Layer 3 lookup information.
Correct!
A single TCAM lookup provides Layer 2, Layer 3, and ACL information.
TCAM lookup tables are used only for the Layer 3 forwarding operation.
TCAM lookup tables are used only for the rapid processing of ACLs within CEF.
A user needs to access a file server that is located in another department. Which layer of the Cisco Hierarchical Network
Model will process the traffic first?
Correct!
access
core
distribution
control
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Which family of Cisco switches is specifically designed for data centers?
Catalyst 6500
Catalyst 2000
Correct!
Nexus 7000
Catalyst 4500
Which two features are unavailable on a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
use of ASICs
Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping
QoS marking
Correct!
Time to Live (TTL) decrementing
Correct!
rewrite of the source and destination MAC addresses
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design that will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a
hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)
reduced cost
scalability
Correct!
less equipment required
segmentation of broadcast domains

Correct!
lower bandwidth requirements
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
At what layer of the hierarchical model are MAC-based security controls implemented?
Correct!
access layer
distribution layer
collapsed core layer
core layer
Quiz Score: 20 out of 20
Chapter 3 Exam : CCNP SWITCH 2016
https://1375232.netacad.com/courses/362224/quizzes/2742636
Chapter 3 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None

Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
LATEST
Attempt
Time
Score
Attempt 1
7 minutes
18 out of 20

Submitted May 2 at 5:55pm
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What would be the result if a new switch with a default configuration is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?
Correct!
The switch will operate as a VTP server but will not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Both SW1 and SW2 are configured with the PAgP desirable mode. Which statement is true?
Correct!
Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will form a channel between them.
1 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
When configuring an EtherChannel, given that one end of the link is configured with PAgP mode desirable, which PAgP modes can be configured
on the opposite end of the link in order to form an active channel? (Choose two.)
Correct!
desirable
Correct!
auto
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Which two items are benefits of implementing local VLANs within the Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Failures at Layer 2 are isolated to a small subset of users.
Correct!
Local VLANs are limited to the access and distribution layer.
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
2 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new switches. Which switch or switches will receive and maintain the list for all VLANs that
are configured on the VTP server?
Correct!
SW4
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Given that no VLANs have been deleted, what can be concluded about interface Fa0/7?
Correct!
It is a trunk port.
Question 7
0 / 1 pts
3 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the function of a switch that is configured in VTP transparent mode?
You Answered
option 2
Correct Answer
option 4
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
In the context of the Enterprise Composite Architecture, which statement is true about best-practice design of local VLANs?
Correct!
Local VLANs do not extend beyond the building distribution layer.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. How should SW2 be configured in order to participate in the same VTP domain and populate the VLAN information across the
domain?
4 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Correct!
Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when switch SW2 is added to the network?
Correct!
Switch SW2 will drop all VTP advertisements and will not propagate them through the VTP domain.
Question 11
Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration information of the CAT1 and CAT2 switches, which statement is true?
1 / 1 pts
5 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Correct!
LACP will form a channel between the switches.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and later inserted into the production network. Before the trunk link was
connected between SW1 and SW2, the network administrator issued the show vtp status command as displayed in the exhibit. Immediately after
the switches were interconnected, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be a possible reason for the problem?
Correct!
Switch SW2 has a higher VTP revision number, which causes deletion of the VLAN information in the VTP domain.
Question 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the switch CAT2? (Choose two.)
1 / 1 pts
6 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Correct!
Six VLANs were either manually configured on the switch or learned via VTP.
Correct!
VLAN 100 has no active access ports.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about the 802.1Q trunking protocol? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Untagged frames will be placed in the configured native VLAN of a port.
Correct!
The native VLAN interface configurations must match at both ends of the link or frames could be dropped.
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of a VLAN access port? (Choose three.)

Correct!
A switch port can become an access port through static or dynamic configuration.
Correct!
An access port is associated with a single VLAN.
Correct!
An access port is created with the switchport mode access command and then associated with a VLAN with the switchport access vlan command.
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
7 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the switch port?
Correct!
The port is not in trunking mode.
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Which three effects does the interface command switchport host have when entered on a switch? (Choose three.)
Correct!
sets the switch port mode to access
Correct!
enables spanning tree PortFast
Correct!
disables channel grouping
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
8 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are unable to establish an operational trunk connection. What is the problem between the connection on
Switch1 and Switch2?
You Answered
Correct Answer
encapsulation mismatch
native VLAN mismatch
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
Which two VTP parameters must be identical on all switches in the network in order to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose two.)
Correct!
VTP domain name
Correct!
VTP domain password
Question 20
What is a best practice for VLAN design?
Correct!
Local VLANs should not extend beyond the distribution layer.
1 / 1 pts
9 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
10 de 10
02/05/2016 17:57
Chapter 3 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
Attempt
Time
Score
KEPT
Attempt 2
7 minutes
20 out of 20
LATEST
Attempt 2
7 minutes
20 out of 20
Attempt 1
20 minutes
12.5 out of 20

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and later inserted into the production network. Before the
trunk link was connected between SW1 and SW2, the network administrator issued the show vtp status command as displayed
in the exhibit. Immediately after the switches were interconnected, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be a
possible reason for the problem?
Switch SW2 is in the wrong VTP operating mode.
The SW2 port G0/1 is in access mode by mistake.
Switch SW2 has the pruning eligible parameter enabled, which causes pruning of all VLANs.
Correct!
Switch SW2 has a higher VTP revision number, which causes deletion of the VLAN information in the VTP domain.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new switches. Which switch or switches will receive and maintain the
list for all VLANs that are configured on the VTP server?
SW2
Correct!
SW4
SW3 and SW4
SW2, SW3, and SW4

Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about the 802.1Q trunking protocol? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Untagged frames will be placed in the configured native VLAN of a port.
It is a proprietary protocol that is supported on Cisco switches only.
Private VLAN configurations are not supported.
Correct!
The native VLAN interface configurations must match at both ends of the link or frames could be dropped.
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. What would be the result if a new switch with a default configuration is inserted in the existing
VTP domain Lab_Network?
The switch will operate as a VTP client.
1 / 1 pts
The switch will operate in a VTP transparent mode.
The switch will operate as a VTP server and will delete the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
Correct!
The switch will operate as a VTP server but will not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Given that no VLANs have been deleted, what can be concluded about interface Fa0/7?
It is not configured.
It is shutdown.
It has the default administrative mode.

Correct!
It is a trunk port.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are unable to establish an operational trunk connection. What is the problem
between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2?
encapsulation mismatch
switchport mode mismatch
MTU mismatch
VTP mismatch
DTP mismatch
Correct!
native VLAN mismatch
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the switch CAT2? (Choose two.)
Eleven VLANs were manually configured on the switch.
Correct!
Six VLANs were either manually configured on the switch or learned via VTP.
Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1.
Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in an unspecified VLAN.
VLAN 100 is in dynamic desirable mode.
Correct!
VLAN 100 has no active access ports.
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the switch port?
Correct!
The port is not in trunking mode.
The port connects to a VoIP phone that has a PC attached.
The port can carry data from multiple VLANs if pruning is disabled.
The port will be disabled if the current device is unplugged and a second device is attached.
The port has manually been placed into trunking mode and is using the 802.1Q trunking protocol.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
When configuring an EtherChannel, given that one end of the link is configured with PAgP mode desirable, which PAgP
modes can be configured on the opposite end of the link in order to form an active channel? (Choose two.)
off
on
Correct!
desirable
auto
Correct!
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. How should SW2 be configured in order to participate in the same VTP domain and populate the VLAN
information across the domain?
Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP client.
Switch SW2 should be configured for VTP version 1.
Switch SW2 should be configured with no VTP domain password.
Correct!
Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration information of the CAT1 and CAT2 switches, which statement is true?
Correct!
LACP will form a channel between the switches.
Because the port-channel numbers do not match, LACP will not form a channel between the switches.
Because the channel-group commands on SW2 should be set to "on," LACP will not form a channel between the switches.
LACP will form a 200-Mb/s channel between the switches.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when switch SW2 is added to the network?
Switch SW2 will change the VTP domain name to LAB1.
Switch SW2 will automatically change to VTP server mode.
Switch SW2 will delete all existing VLANs and introduce new VLANs in the VTP domain.
Correct!
Switch SW2 will drop all VTP advertisements and will not propagate them through the VTP domain.
Switch SW2 will include its own VLANs in the total number of VLANs configured in the VTP domain.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
What is a best practice for VLAN design?
Correct!
Local VLANs should not extend beyond the distribution layer.
Place unused access ports in trunk mode and in a specific VLAN.
No more than three VLANs should be trunked to core layer switches.
VLANs should be designed in a hierarchical fashion with access VLANs at the access layer and local server VLANs at the core layer.
Question 14
Which three effects does the interface command switchport host have when entered on a switch? (Choose three.)
Correct!
sets the switch port mode to access
enables BPDU guard
Correct!
enables spanning tree PortFast
enables root guard
Correct!
disables channel grouping
1 / 1 pts
enables BPDU filtering
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Both SW1 and SW2 are configured with the PAgP desirable mode. Which statement is true?
Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel.
Correct!
Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will form a channel between them.
Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel between them.
Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation but will form a channel between them.
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
Which two items are benefits of implementing local VLANs within the Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.)
A single VLAN can extend further than its associated distribution-layer switch.
Correct!
Failures at Layer 2 are isolated to a small subset of users.
High availability is made possible because local VLAN traffic on access switches can now be passed directly to the core switches
across an alternate Layer 3 path.
Layer 3 routing between VLANs can now be applied at the access layer.
Local VLANs are limited to the access and distribution layer.

Correct!
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
In the context of the Enterprise Composite Architecture, which statement is true about best-practice design of local VLANs?
Local VLAN is a feature that has only local significance to the switch.
Correct!
Local VLANs do not extend beyond the building distribution layer.
Local VLANs should be created based upon the job function of the end user.
Local VLANs should be advertised to all switches in the network.
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the function of a switch that is configured in VTP transparent mode?
option 1
option 2
option 3
Correct!
option 4
option 5
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of a VLAN access port? (Choose three.)
Correct!
A switch port can become an access port through static or dynamic

configuration. An access port is associated with a single VLAN.
Correct!
An access port should have the 802.1q encapsulation associated with it.
An access port created with the switchport mode access command will send DTP frames by default.
An access port is created with the switchport mode access command and then associated with a VLAN with the switchport access
Correct!
vlan command.
The VLAN that the access port is assigned to will be automatically deleted if it does not exist in the VLAN database of the switch.
Question 20
Which two VTP parameters must be identical on all switches in the network in order to participate in the same VTP
domain? (Choose two.)
Correct!
VTP domain name
VTP revision number
Correct!
VTP domain password
VTP server mode
1 / 1 pts
VTP client mode
VTP transparent mode
Chapter 4 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
Attempt
Time
Score
KEPT
Attempt 2
11 minutes
19 out of 20
LATEST
Attempt 2
11 minutes
19 out of 20
Attempt 1
13 minutes
19 out of 20

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Which protocol extends the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree (RST) algorithm to multiple spanning trees?
STP
RSTP+
CST
Correct!
MST
Question 2
0 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
Each switch determines a designated port that provides the best path to the root switch.
Correct Answer
The designated port will be on the switch with the best path to the root switch.
With each network change, the STP algorithm is run on all switches that have a root port.
You Answered
A topology change will cause the switch where the change occurred to send messages about the change throughout the tree.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration on the switch was changed between Output #1 and Output #2. What was done on the switch?
The command no spanning-tree uplinkfast was issued in global configuration mode.
The command no spanning-tree backbonefast was issued in global configuration mode.
The command spanning-tree etherchannel guard misconfig was issued in global configuration mode.
The command spanning-tree etherchannel guard misconfig was issued in interface configuration mode.
Correct!
The command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default was issued in global configuration mode.
The command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default was issued in interface configuration mode.
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW1 is receiving traffic from SW2. However, SW2 is not receiving traffic from SW1. Which STP
feature should be implemented to prevent inadvertent loops in the network?
Correct!
UDLD
PortFast
BPDU guard
BPDU filtering
Question 5
Which STP timer defines the length of time

spent in the listening and learning states?
1 / 1 pts
hello time
forward aging
Correct!
forward delay
max age
max delay
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions does the output show to be true? (Choose two.)
Correct!
DLS1 is running IEEE 802.1s on instance 1.
DLS1 is running IEEE 802.1D on instance 1.
Correct!
DLS1 is the root bridge for instance 1.
Interface Fa0/12 will move into the errdisable state if a BPDU is received.
Interfaces Fa0/1 through Fa0/6 are trunk ports.

Change option 1 to address comments.
Question 7
One switch in a Layer 2 switched spanning-tree domain is converted to PVRST+ using the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global
configuration mode command. The remaining switches are running PVST+. What is the effect on the spanning-tree operation?
Spanning tree is effectively disabled in the network.
The PVRST+ switch forwards 802.1D BPDUs, but does not participate as a node in any spanning tree.
All switches default to one 802.1D spanning tree for all VLANs.
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
The PVSRT+ reverts to PVST+ to interoperate with the PVST+ switches.
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
What priority value should be entered on a switch, via the spanning-tree vlan 20 priority priority command, if the desired
priority for VLAN 20 is 4116?
4116
4106
Correct!
4096
32788
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. STP is configured on all switches in the network. Recently, the user on workstation A lost connectivity to
the rest of the network. At the same time, the administrator received the console message:
%SPANTREE-2-RX_PORTFAST:Received BPDU on PortFast enable port.Disabling 2/1
What is the cause of the problem?
STP PortFast feature has been disabled on port 2/1.
STP PortFast feature has been enabled on port 2/1.
PAgP has removed port 2/1 from the EtherChannel bundle.

Correct!
The STP PortFast BPDU Guard feature has disabled port 2/1 on the switch.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Which protocol should an administrator recommend to manage bridged links when the customer requires a fully redundant
network that can utilize load balancing technologies and reconverge on link failures in less than a second?
IEEE 802.1Q (CST)
Correct!
IEEE 802.1s (MST)
Cisco PVST+
IEEE 802.1D(STP)
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What are three important steps in troubleshooting STP problems? (Choose three.)
Administratively create bridge loops and see what path the traffic takes.
Administratively disable multicasting and check to see if connectivity is restored.
Correct!
Check each side of a point-to-point link for duplex mismatch.
Adjust BPDU timers so that there is less overhead traffic on the switching fabric.
Correct!
Administratively disable ports that should be blocking and check to see if connectivity is restored.
Capture traffic on a saturated link and check whether identical frames are traversing multiple links.
Correct!
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
What three fields are included in a BPDU? (Choose three.)
Correct!
bridge ID
STP ID
Correct!
port ID
link-state ID
Correct!
cost of path
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Users complain that they lost connectivity to all resources in the network. A network administrator suspects the presence of a bridging
loop as a root cause of the problem. Which two actions will determine the existence of the bridging loop? (Choose two.)
Confirm MAC port security is enabled on all access switches.
Check the port utilization on devices and look for abnormal values.
Correct!
Verify that the management VLAN is properly configured on all root bridges.
Capture the traffic on the saturated link and verify if duplicate packets are seen.
Correct!
Ensure that the root guard and loop guard are properly configured on all distribution links.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
What effect does the global configuration command spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default have when enabled on an access switch?
All PortFast enabled ports become designated ports.
All PortFast enabled ports start participating in the spanning-tree calculations.
All switch ports start filtering the superior BPDUs coming from other switches and the access switch becomes a root bridge.
Correct!
All PortFast enabled ports stop sending BPDUs, but if a BPDU is received on the port, the port gets out of the PortFast state, thereby
disabling the BPDU filtering.
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which interfaces should loop guard be enabled on?
root ports
designated ports
Correct!
root port and alternate ports
ports configured with PortFast
root port and ports configured with PortFast

Question 16
Refer to the exhibit. What conclusion does the output support?
PortFast is enabled on interface Fa0/6.
IEEE 802.1w is enabled on VLAN 1.
1 / 1 pts
The forward delay timer has been changed from the default value.
Correct!
Standard IEEE 802.1D behavior is shown.
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
What will happen when a BPDU is received on a loop guard port that is in a loop-inconsistent state?
The port will transition to blocking state.
The port will transition to forwarding state automatically.
The port will be disabled and the administrator must re-enable it manually.
Correct!
The port will transition to the appropriate state as determined by the normal function of the spanning tree.
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What implementation of spanning tree best describes the spanning-tree operational mode of the switch?
Correct!
IEEE 802.1D
IEEE 802.w
IEEE 802.1s
PVRST+
Question 19
pts
1/1
Which two statements are true about the RSTP negotiations between switches? (Choose two.)
UplinkFast must be configured on all designated switches.
BackboneFast must be configured on all root switches.

Correct!
Switches must be connected by a point-to-point link.
All ports that are directly connected to end stations must be enabled as designated ports.
Correct!
It greatly improves the restoration times for any VLAN that requires a topology convergence due to link up.
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
What happens when a switch running IEEE 802.1D receives a topology change message from the root bridge?
Correct!
The switch uses the forward delay timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the hello to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the forward delay and the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
Chapter 4 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
Attempt
Time
Score
KEPT
Attempt 3
10 minutes
20 out of 20
LATEST
Attempt 3
10 minutes
20 out of 20
Attempt 2
11 minutes
19 out of 20
Attempt 1
13 minutes
19 out of 20
Submitted Apr 30 at 9:18am

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Which three parameters should match all switches within an MST region? (Choose three.)
port costs on trunk ports

Correct!
configuration name
Correct!
revision number
trunk encapsulation method
bridge priority
Correct!
VLAN-to-instance mappings
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What priority value should be entered on a switch, via the spanning-tree vlan 20 priority priority command, if the desired priority for
VLAN 20 is 4116?
4116
4106
Correct!
4096
32788
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
UDLD
PortFast
BPDU guard
BPDU filtering
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Correct!
Correct!
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What implementation of spanning tree best describes the spanning-tree operational mode of the switch?
Correct!
IEEE 802.1D
IEEE 802.w
IEEE 802.1s
PVRST+
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
What happens when a switch running IEEE 802.1D receives a topology change message from the root bridge?
Correct!
The switch uses the forward delay timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the hello to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the forward delay and the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Correct!
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Which STP timer defines the length of time spent in the listening and learning states?
hello time
forward aging
Correct!
forward delay
max age
max delay
Refer to the exhibit. After the sequence of commands is entered, how many VLANs will be assigned to the default instance?
4094
4064
4062
Correct!
4061

If you add up the VLANs on instance 0, there are 4061.
Question 13
Which statement is true about the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
Each switch determines a designated port that provides the best path to the root switch.
Correct!
The designated port will be on the switch with the best path to the root switch.
1 / 1 pts
With each network change, the STP algorithm is run on all switches that have a root port.
A topology change will cause the switch where the change occurred to send messages about the change throughout the tree.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Correct!

Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which protocol should an administrator recommend to manage bridged links when the customer requires a fully redundant
network that can utilize load balancing technologies and reconverge on link failures in less than a second?
IEEE 802.1Q (CST)
Correct!
IEEE 802.1s (MST)
Cisco PVST+
IEEE 802.1D(STP)
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. STP is enabled on all switches in the network. The port on switch A that connects to switch B is half duplex. The port
on switch B that connects to switch A is full duplex. What are three problems that this scenario could create? (Choose three.)
Switch B will become the root switch.
Switch B may unblock its port to switch C, thereby creating a loop.

Correct!
Switch A is performing carrier sense and collision detection, and switch B is not.
Correct!
Autonegotiation results in both switch A and switch B failing to perform carrier sense.
BPDUs may not successfully negotiate port states on the link between switch A and switch B.
Correct!
Spanning tree will keep re-calculating, thereby consuming all the CPU normally used for traffic.
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
bridge ID
STP ID
Correct!
port ID
link-state ID
Correct!
cost of path
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Assuming that all switches in a network have the default bridge priority for each MST instance, what effect does the command
spanning-tree mst 10 root primary have when entered on a single switch?
sets the bridge priority on the switch to 24586 for MST instance 10
Correct!

4096 x 6 = 24576, so the concerns of the reviewer are met.
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
root ports
designated ports
Correct!

Question 20
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about STP root guard? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Root guard is enabled on a per-port basis.
Root guard requires that PortFast be enabled on a switch port.
Correct!
Root guard re-enables a switch port once it stops receiving superior BPDUs.
Root guard should be configured on all ports on the desired root bridge to prevent another bridge from becoming the root.
If a root guard enabled port receives a inferior BPDU from a nonroot switch, the port transitions to the blocking state to prevent a root
bridge election.
Chapter 4 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
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Attempt 1
13 minutes
19 out of 20

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
root ports
designated ports
Correct!

Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration on the switch was changed between Output #1 and Output #2. What was done on the switch?
The command no spanning-tree uplinkfast was issued in global configuration mode.
The command no spanning-tree backbonefast was issued in global configuration mode.
The command spanning-tree etherchannel guard misconfig was issued in global configuration mode.
The command spanning-tree etherchannel guard misconfig was issued in interface configuration mode.
Correct!
The command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default was issued in global configuration mode.
The command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default was issued in interface configuration mode.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about STP root guard? (Choose two.)
Correct!
Root guard is enabled on a per-port basis.
Root guard requires that PortFast be enabled on a switch port.
Correct!
Root guard re-enables a switch port once it stops receiving superior BPDUs.
Root guard should be configured on all ports on the desired root bridge to prevent another bridge from becoming the root.
If a root guard enabled port receives a inferior BPDU from a nonroot switch, the port transitions to the blocking state to prevent a root
bridge election.
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Correct!

Question 5
pts
1/1
Users complain that they lost connectivity to all resources in the network. A network administrator suspects the presence of a bridging
loop as a root cause of the problem. Which two actions will determine the existence of the bridging loop? (Choose two.)
Confirm MAC port security is enabled on all access switches.
Correct!
Check the port utilization on devices and look for abnormal values.
Verify that the management VLAN is properly configured on all root bridges.
Correct!
Capture the traffic on the saturated link and verify if duplicate packets are seen.
Ensure that the root guard and loop guard are properly configured on all distribution links.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Correct!
Correct!
Question 7
Correct!
1 / 1 pts
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Which protocol extends the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree (RST) algorithm to multiple spanning trees?
STP
RSTP+
CST
Correct!
MST
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Assuming that all switches in a network have the default bridge priority for each MST instance, what effect does the command
spanning-tree mst 10 root primary have when entered on a single switch?
Correct!
4096 x 6 = 24576, so the concerns of the reviewer are met.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. STP is enabled on all switches in the network. The port on switch A that connects to switch B is half duplex. The port
on switch B that connects to switch A is full duplex. What are three problems that this scenario could create? (Choose three.)
Switch B will become the root switch.
Correct!
Switch B may unblock its port to switch C, thereby creating a loop.

Correct!
Switch A is performing carrier sense and collision detection, and switch B is not.
Autonegotiation results in both switch A and switch B failing to perform carrier sense.
Correct!
BPDUs may not successfully negotiate port states on the link between switch A and switch B.
Spanning tree will keep re-calculating, thereby consuming all the CPU normally used for traffic.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
bridge ID
STP ID
Correct!
port ID
link-state ID
Correct!
cost of path
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Question 13
What will happen when a BPDU is received on a loop guard port that is in a loop-inconsistent state?
The port will transition to blocking state.
The port will transition to forwarding state automatically.
1 / 1 pts
The port will be disabled and the administrator must re-enable it manually.
Correct!
The port will transition to the appropriate state as determined by the normal function of the spanning tree.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
Correct!
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
What effect does the global configuration command spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default have when enabled on an access switch?
All PortFast enabled ports become designated ports.
All PortFast enabled ports start participating in the spanning-tree calculations.
All switch ports start filtering the superior BPDUs coming from other switches and the access switch becomes a root bridge.
Correct!
All PortFast enabled ports stop sending BPDUs, but if a BPDU is received on the port, the port gets out of the PortFast state, thereby
disabling the BPDU filtering.
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Which three parameters should match all switches within an MST region? (Choose three.)
port costs on trunk ports
Correct!
configuration
name
revision number
Correct!
trunk encapsulation method
bridge priority
VLAN-to-instance mappings
Correct!
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
UDLD
PortFast
BPDU guard
BPDU filtering
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
What priority value should be entered on a switch, via the spanning-tree vlan 20 priority priority command, if the desired
priority for VLAN 20 is 4116?
4116
You Answered
4106
Correct Answer
4096
32788
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
Which STP timer defines the length of time spent in the listening and learning states?
hello time
forward aging
Correct!
forward delay
max age
max delay
Chapter 5 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
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Attempt 2
10 minutes
20 out of 20
LATEST
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20 out of 20
Attempt 1
10 minutes
19 out of 20
Submitted Apr 30 at 9:30am

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been properly configured for the trunking interface. Which statement is true about the
routing table on the router?
It will show a next hop address of the switch for both VLANs.
It will show one trunking route to 10.0.0.0/8.
Correct!
It should contain routes to the 10.10.10.0/24 and the 10.10.11.0/24 networks.
Because the switch is not configured properly to trunk VLAN 1 and VLAN 2, the routing table of the router will not show routes to either VLAN .
Because the switch port fa0/1 is in access mode, the routing table of the router will not show any routes.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
What is an advantage to using a trunk link to connect a switch to an external router that is providing inter-VLAN routing?
Correct!
works with any switch that supports VLANs and trunking

lowers latency
provides redundancy to the VLANs
reduces CPU overhead
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which message will be sent back to the client by the DHCP server to confirm that the IP address has been allocated to the client?
DHCPDISCOVER unicast
DHCPDISCOVER broadcast
DHCPOFFER unicast
DHCPOFFER broadcast
DHCPREQUEST unicast
DHCPREQUEST broadcast
Correct!
DHCPACK unicast
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping the IP address 172.16.20.1 from RouterA. What will the router output be?
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 172.16.20.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

!!!!!
Correct!

.....

U.U.U
%Unrecognized host or address, or protocol not running
%Source quench: destination or port unreachable
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/13, changed state to down
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on router RTA. Users on VLAN 5 cannot communicate with the users on
VLAN 10. What should be done to fix the problem?
A dynamic routing protocol should be configured on the router.
Two static routes should be configured on the router, each pointing to each subnet.
The Fa0/0 interface should be configured with a primary IP address of 10.10.5.1/24 and a secondary IP address of 10.10.10.1/24.
Correct!
The subinterfaces of the router should be configured with 802.1Q encapsulation.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about switched virtual interfaces (SVI) on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
An SVI behaves like a regular router interface but does not support VLAN subinterfaces.
An SVI is a physical switch port with Layer 3 capability.
Correct!
By default, an SVI is created for the default VLAN

(VLAN1). Only one SVI can be associated with a VLAN.
Correct!
To create an SVI requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Which statement describes what occurs when a DHCP request is forwarded through a router that has been configured with the
ip helper-address command?
The router replaces the source MAC address included in the DHCP request with its own MAC address.
The router replaces the source IP address of the DHCP request with the IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command.
Correct!
The router replaces the broadcast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified with the ip
helper-address command.
The router replaces the unicast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified with the ip
helper-address command.
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug ip dhcp server packet output, which statement is true?
The client sends a DHCPDISCOVER that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP server.
The client sends a DHCPREQUEST that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP server.
The client sends the BOOTREPLY broadcast message to inquire for a new IP address.
Correct!
The client accepts the offer from the DHCP server for the 10.1.10.21 IP address.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
A client computer is set up for DHCP and needs an IP configuration. During the DHCP client configuration process, which
response will enable the client to begin using the assigned address immediately?
Correct!
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on routers RTA
and RTB. All users can ping their gateways, but users on VLAN 5 and
VLAN 10 cannot communicate with the users on VLAN 20. What should
be done to solve the problem?
Correct!
A dynamic routing protocol or static routes should be configured on the routers.

A trunk should be configured between routers RTA and RTB.
RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each with ISL encapsulation.
RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each with 802.1Q encapsulation.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
A client sends a request for an IP address to a DHCP server. Which DHCP message to the client will provide the
configuration parameters that include an IP address, a domain name, and a lease for the IP address?
DHCPDISCOVER
Correct!
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
How is the Layer 2 functionality restored to a port configured for Layer 3 operation?
switchport access vlan
switchport mode access
no switchport
Correct!
switchport
A DHCPREQUEST message has been sent from the client to the DHCP server. What information is included in the message?
initial message to locate a DHCP server

Correct!
formal request for the offered IP address
confirmation that the IP address has been allocated to the client

denial message to reject the first offer from the DHCP server
Question 14
Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces.
A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability.
Correct!
A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN.
Correct!
To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.
The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port.
1 / 1 pts
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which three statements about a routed port are true? (Choose three.)
A routed switch port is a physical device that is associated with several VLANs.
Correct!
A routed switch port is created by configuring a Layer 2 port with the no switchport interface configuration command and assigning
an IP address.
A routed switch port is created by entering VLAN interface configuration mode and assigning an IP address.
A routed switch port is a virtual Layer 3 interface that can be configured for any VLAN that exists on a Layer 3 switch.
A routed switch port provides an interface that may provide a Layer 3 connection to a next-hop
Correct!
router. A routed switch port can serve as a default gateway for devices.
Correct!
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the diagram and show ip route command output?
Because no routing protocol has been configured, the router will not forward packets between workstations.
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0 IP address of the router.
Correct!
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.1 IP address of the router.
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.2 IP address of the router.
Because their packets are being trunked, hosts on VLAN 10 do not need a default gateway.
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required for host A to receive IP configuration from the DHCP server?
The ip address dhcp command is required on interface Fa0/0.
The ip dhcp information option command is required on interface Fa0/1.
Correct!
The ip helper-address 10.1.2.10 command is required on interface Fa0/0.
The ip forward-protocol 37 global configuration command is required to forward DNS requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.
The ip forward-protocol 67 global configuration command is required to forward DHCP requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.
The ip forward-protocol 69 global configuration command is required to forward TFTP requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping the IP address 172.16.20.1 from RouterA. What will the router output be?

!!!!!
Correct!

.....

U.U.U
%network or host unreachable, TTL exceeded
%Unrecognized host or address, or protocol not running
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/13, changed state to down
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration should be applied on router R1 in order for host 1 to receive its IP configuration from
the DHCP server?
ip helper-address 10.1.1.2 applied to the Fa0/0 interface

Correct!
Question 20
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. Which procedure would solve this problem?
Use the command ip helper-address 10.1.2.1 on interface Fa0/0 of router RTA.
Correct!
Use the command ip forward-protocol 67 on interface Fa0/0 of router RTA.
1 / 1 pts
Quiz Score:
out of 2
Chapter 6 Exam
Due No due date
Points 15
Questions 15
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
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Time
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KEPT
Attempt 2
7 minutes
15 out of 15
LATEST
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7 minutes
15 out of 15
Attempt 1
22 minutes
13 out of 15

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What action does the command standby 1 track Serial0/0/0 on router R1 perform?
It links the default gateway virtual address 192.168.21.10 to the IP address 192.168.31.1 on interface Serial0/0/0.
It links the default gateway virtual address 192.168.21.10 to the IP address 192.168.42.2 on interface Serial0/0/0.
It tracks the state of the Fa0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of standby group 1 if the interface goes down.
Correct!
It tracks the state of the Serial0/0/0 interface on R1 and brings down the priority of standby group 1 if the interface goes down.
Question 2
Which statement is true about the gateway redundancy protocols ?
GLBP allows multiple routers to participate in a virtual router group that is configured with a virtual IP address. One member is elected to
be the active router for the group and the other routers are passive until the active router fails.
Correct!
By making use of a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses, GLBP provides load balancing over multiple routers
(gateways) . All routers in the virtual router group participate in forwarding packets.
1 / 1 pts
By making use of a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses, HSRP provides load balancing over multiple routers
(gateways). All routers in the virtual router group participate in forwarding packets.
By making use of a single virtual IP address and multiple virtual MAC addresses, VRRP provides load balancing over multiple routers
(gateways). All routers in the virtual router group participate in forwarding packets.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following GLBP load-balancing options is configured if the host is guaranteed the use of the same virtual MAC address?
Correct!
host-dependent
round-robin
weighted load-balancing
none
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?
The priority value of 255 means the router is ineligible to become the master router for the VRRP group.
The priority value of 255 means the router has stopped participating in the VRRP group.
Correct!
The priority value of 0 means the router has stopped participating in the VRRP group.
The priority value of 0 means the router is ineligible to become the master router for the VRRP group.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about best practice and the exhibited network design?
Correct!
The Layer 2 VLAN number should be mapped to the Layer 3 subnet for ease of use and management.
The HSRP active router for VLAN 55 and VLAN 60 should be the same switch.
A Layer 2 access port should be placed between the access switches.
The uplink between the access switches and the distribution switches should be trunk links.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Two routers are configured for an HSRP group. One router uses the default HSRP priority. What priority should be assigned to
the other router to make it more likely to be the active router?
1
100
Correct!
200
500
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
What are two functions of the standby router in an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
Correct!
to monitor the operational status of the HSRP group
to physically forward packets that are sent to the MAC address of the virtual router
to reply with the virtual router MAC address in the event an ARP request is received
Correct!
to quickly assume packet-forwarding responsibility if the active router becomes inoperable
to contend for the active router role with all other routers in the group in the event the active fails
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the output of the show standby command?
The current priority of this router is 120.
Correct!
The router is currently forwarding packets.
This router is tracking two properly operating interfaces.
This router is in the HSRP down state because its tracked interfaces are down.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Switch DSw1 is the active virtual gateway (AVG) and DSw2 is an active virtual forwarder (AVF). Based on this
information, which two GLBP statements are true? (Choose two.)
GLBP is a Cisco proprietary protocol and is supported on all Cisco Catalyst and Cisco router platforms.
None of the switches have had their priority configured.
Switch DSw1 assigns the virtual IP addresses to switch DSw2.

Correct!
Switch DSw2 has been configured with the glbp 1 priority 95 command.
Correct!
Two more multilayer switches could join this group.
When host A sends an ARP message for the gateway IP address, switch DSw1 returns the physical MAC address of switch DSw2.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
What are two characteristics of Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) operation? (Choose two.)
GLBP will attempt to balance traffic on a per-router basis by the use of the round-robin algorithm.
Correct!
GLBP will attempt to balance traffic on a per-host basis by the use of the round-robin algorithm.
Correct!
The active virtual forwarder (AVF) is assigned a virtual MAC address and forwards packets sent to that MAC address.
The active virtual gateway (AVG) is the backup for the AVF.
GLBP members communicate with each other through hello messages sent every 3 seconds to the multicast address 224.0.0.104.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA has been configured as the active HSRP router. Router RTB is to be the standby HSRP router.
However, once the indicated configuration was applied to router RTB, the console began to display the message %HSRP-4DIFFVIP1. What is the cause of the message?
The command standby preempt should only be applied on the active router.
The subnet mask is missing from the standby 50 ip 10.1.1.10 command.
The group number is not the same as the active router.
Correct!
The virtual IP address is not the same as the active router.
The ports on the switch must be configured with the spanning-tree PortFast feature.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose two.)
A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages to all routers in the group to acquire a virtual IP address.
Correct!
A router in the speak state sends periodic hello messages and actively participates in the election of the active or standby router.
A router in the standby state forwards packets that are sent to the group virtual MAC address.
Correct!
The router in the standby state is a candidate to become the next active router.
The router that is not the standby or active router will remain in the speak state.
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided configuration, which routers are the master and the backup virtual routers for the
hosts that are connected to the VRRP group 1?
Router R1 is the master for all hosts, and router R2 is the backup for all hosts in the group.
Correct!
Router R1 is the master for Host1 and Host2. Router R2 is the master for Host3 and Host4.
Router R1 is the master for Host3 and Host4. Router R2 is the backup for Host3 and Host4.
Because of incorrect configuration of the default gateway on the hosts, none of the routers is the master for the VRRP group.
Question 14
Which one of the following GLBP functions answers ARP requests?
1 / 1 pts
AVF
Correct!
AVG
Active
MVP
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements about VRRP are true? (Choose two.)
VRRP does not support preemption.
VRRP cannot track interfaces or objects.
Correct!
A VRRP group has one master router and one or more backup routers.
The virtual IP address for the VRRP group must be different from active and standby IP addresses.
Correct!
VRRP provides redundancy for the IP address of a router or for a virtual IP address shared among the VRRP group members.
Chapter 7 Exam
Due No due date
Points 15
Questions 15
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
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Attempt 1
4 minutes
15 out of 15

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about NTP? (Choose two.)

Correct!
Stratum 1 devices have directly attached radio or atomic clock.
Network devices will always synchronize with NTP server with the highest stratum number.
Higher stratum number always indicates greater quality and reliability.

Correct!
Stratum number represents the distance from a reference clock.
Stratum numbers are directly related to the routing metric.
1 / 1 pts
Question 2
In a AAA architecture, what is the name of the role given to the client running 802.1x software?
AAA peer
authenticator
authentication server
Correct!
supplicant
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Match the term with the correct definition.
Correct!
Authentication
Prevents unauthorized clients from
Correct!
Authorization
Allows for the control of the level o
Correct!
Accounting
Allows for the collection of informat
Other Incorrect Match Options:
Process of a identifying a user before the user is allowed to access a

protected resource
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
What is the command to configure a device to be an authoritative NTP server?
ntp server 172.16.1.1

Correct!
ntp master
ntp peer 172.16.1.1
ntp synchronize 172.16.1.1
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Which three are characteristics of the SNTP protocol? (Choose three.)
Provides a secure means for NTP transmissions.
Correct!
SNTP and NTP cannot coexist on the same device because they use the same port
number. SNTP is a simplified, client-only version of the NTP.
Correct!
Correct!
SNTP cannot be used to provide times services to other services.
SNTP provides complex filtering.
SNTP can be used to provide time services to other systems.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which feature does a SNMP manager need in order to set a parameter on switch ACSW1?
a manager using an SNMP string of K44p0ut
a manager using host 172.16.128.50
Correct!
a manager using SNMPv1, 2, or 2c
a manager using authPriv
Question 7
What SNMP attribute provides the best security?
authNoPriv
Correct!
authPriv
community string
noAuthNoPriv
SNMPv2
1 / 1 pts
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
Authentication can only be initiated by the host.
Authentication can only be initiated by the switch.
Correct!
Authentication can be initiated by either the switch or the host.

If the host does not receive a response to a start frame, it goes into the shutdown mode.
When a host comes up that is attached to a switch port, the authentication server queries the host for 802.1x authentication information.
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Network policy dictates that security functions should be administered using AAA. Which configuration
would create a default login authentication list that uses RADIUS as the first authentication method, the enable password as
the second method, and the local database as the final method?
SW-1(config)# aaa new-model
SW-1(config)# radius-server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication default group-radius local

SW-1(config)# aaa authentication default group-radius enable local
Correct!

SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius enable local

SW-1(config)# radius server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius enable local none

SW-1(config)# radius server host 10.10.10.12 key secret
SW-1(config)# aaa authentication login default group-radius enable local none
Question 10
Which three commands are necessary to configure NTP authentication between devices? (Choose three.)
Correct!
ntp authenticate
Correct!
ntp authentication-key 1 md5
1 / 1 pts
Correct!
ntp trusted-key 1
ntp authentication
ntp trusted-key authentication 1
ntp md5 authentication-key 1
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Which SNMP message is sent from the manager?
get response
inform request
Correct!
set request
trap
Which SNMP version provides authentication and encryption for transmission of critical data between managed devices?
SNMPV2
SNMPv3noAuthnoPriv
Correct!
SNMPv3authPriv
SNMPv3 authNoPriv
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration on the ALSwitch, what is the end result?
forces all hosts that are attached to a port to authenticate before being allowed access to the network
Correct!
disables 802.1x port-based authentication and causes the port to allow normal traffic without authenticating the client
enables 802.1x authentication on the port
globally disables 802.1x authentication
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
What are three advantages of implementing the AAA

framework model in a network? (Choose three.)
Offers automatic failover solutions for gateway redundancy

Correct!
Standardized authentication methods
Faster convergence
Username and passwords are stored in a local database for scalability.

Correct!
Increased flexibility and control of access configuration

Correct!
Multiple backup systems
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A switch is being configured to support AAA authentication on the console connection. Given the
information in the exhibit, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
The authentication login admin line console command is required.
Correct!
The login authentication admin line console command is required.
The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a named access list called group as the first authentication method, a TACACS+ server as the
second method, the local username database as the third method, the enable password as the fourth method, and none as the last method.
The configuration creates an authentication list that uses a TACACS+ server as the first authentication method, the local username
Correct!
database as the second method, the enable password as the third method, and none as the last method.
The none keyword enables any user logging in to successfully authenticate if all other methods return an error.
Correct!
The none keyword specifies that a user cannot log in if all other methods have failed.
Chapter 8 Exam
Due No due date
Points 15
Questions 15
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
LATEST
Attempt
Time
Score
Attempt 1
8 minutes
15 out of 15

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about a local SPAN configuration?
A port can act as the destination port for all SPAN sessions configured on the switch.
A port can be configured to act as a source and destination port for a single SPAN session.
Correct!
Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switched ports can be configured as source or destination ports for a single SPAN session.
Port channel interfaces (EtherChannel) can be configured as source and destination ports for a single SPAN session.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about the PoE negotiation process?
The PoE switch keeps the power on a disabled port up, just in case a device that needs PoE will be connected.
Correct!
With 802.3af and 802.3at, the switch tries to detect the powered device by supplying a small voltage across the Ethernet cable.
Cisco Inline Power has the same method of negotiating power as both of the IEEE standards.
IEEE 802.3af power classes are numbered 1-5.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
Which two statements are true about SDM templates? (Choose two.)
The show SDM version command is used to display the current SDM template.
Correct!
They are used to allocate system resources.
Correct!
Modifying the SDM template requires a reload on the switch before the settings take effect.
The default SDM template support IPV6 routing.
The current template can be viewed using the show platform tcam utilization command.
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP SLA statement is true?
IP SLA operation 99 has been incorrectly configured.
IP SLA operation 99 has stopped monitoring the target device.
Correct!
IP SLA operation 99 had 211 successful replies from the target device.
IP SLA operation 100 has been incorrectly configured.
IP SLA operation 100 has stopped monitoring the target device.
IP SLA operation 100 had 211 successful replies from the target device.
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
What is a requirement for configuring an IP SLA to measure network performance?
The frequency of the SLA test must be configured.
Correct!
The required SLA operation type must be configured.

At least one IP SLA responder and one IP SLA monitor must be configured.
The communication protocol that is used for SLA communications must be configured.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Which statement is true about UDLD?
It is automatically enabled.
It allows devices to transmit traffic one way.
It will disable an EtherChannel bundle if one link has failed.
Correct!
It allows a switch to detect a unidirectional link and shut down the affected interface.
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the local SPAN configuration on switch SW1?
Correct!
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1.
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1, but only if port Fa3/1 is configured in
VLAN 10.
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 a copy of all traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1, but only if port Fa3/1 is
configured as trunk.
The SPAN session transmits to a device on port Fa3/21 only a copy of unicast traffic that is monitored on port Fa3/1. All multicast and
BPDU frames will be excluded from the monitoring process.
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
What is the command to view the SDM template settings?
show sdm current
show sdm template
show platform tcam utilization

Correct!
show sdm prefer
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to resolve an execution problem with an IP SLA. What is the problem?
The IP SLA must be set up in conjunction with an ICMP echo reply.
IP SLAs are not supported on switch platforms.
Correct!
The IP SLA test has not been scheduled to run.
ICMP-ECHO tests must have frequency schedules of less than 10 seconds.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the VSPAN configuration on switch SW1?
The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the ingress traffic for any of the VLANs.
The VSPAN session that is configured on port Fa3/4 can monitor only the egress traffic for any of the VLANs.
Port Fa3/4 must be associated with VLAN 10 or VLAN 20 in order to monitor the traffic for any of the VLANs.
Correct!
The VSPAN session transmits a copy of the ingress traffic for VLAN 10 and the egress traffic for VLAN 20 out interface Fa3/4.
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What are the two modes of UDLD operation? (Choose two.)
full
Correct!
normal
bidirectional
Correct!
aggressive
active
Question 12
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about this SLA monitor?
Two SLA samples have been captured.
No more SLA information is being gathered.
The SLA measurement is being taken every 5 milliseconds.
Correct!
There is one SLA monitor session operating on this switch.
1 / 1 pts
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. What is the state of the monitoring session?
This is a remote monitored session.
Correct!
No data is being sent from the session.
SPAN session number 2 is being used.
The session is only monitoring data sent out Fa0/1.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of LLDP? (Choose three.)
LLDP helps to detect spanning-tree failures.
Correct!
LLDP supports enabling or disabling either transmitting or receiving capabilities per port
LLDP helps to detect unidirectional link activity.
LLDP is a Cisco Proprietary protocol.
Correct!
LLDP allows network management applications to automatically discover and learn about network devices.
LLDP operates in one of two modes: aggressive or normal.
Correct!
To view LLDP neighbors, the show lldp neighbors command is used.
Question 15
Which SDM template should be enabled if you have a large number of VLANs to support?
sdm prefer access

Correct!
sdm prefer VLANs
sdm prefer dual-ipv4-and-ipv6
sdm prefer access
1 / 1 pts
Quiz Score:
out of 1
Chapter 9 Exam
Due No due date
Points 15
Questions 15
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
Attempt
Time
Score
KEPT
Attempt 3
2 minutes
15 out of 15
LATEST
Attempt 3
2 minutes
15 out of 15
Attempt 2
3 minutes
14.67 out of 15
Attempt 1
21 minutes
10 out of 15
Submitted May 1 at 10am

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Which supervisor redundancy mode offers the fastest failover time?

Correct!
SSO
RPR
RPR+
NSF
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Which three redundancy modes are supported by Catalyst 6500 Series switches? (Choose three.)
Correct!
Route Processor Redundancy (RPR)
Supervisor Engine 720 mirroring
Supervisor Engine 720 load balancing
Correct!
Single Router Mode with Stateful Switchover (SRM with SSO)
Manual Switchover
Correct!
Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) with SSO
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
When using RPR, what two events can trigger a switchover from the active to the standby Supervisor Engine? (Choose two.)
Correct!
clock synchronization failure between the Supervisor Engines
loss of packets from the root bridge
Correct!
an RP or SP crash on the active Supervisor Engine

frames received on a port that is in blocking mode
port failure
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
What is the expected failover time for SSO mode for Layer 2 switching on the Catalyst 4500 family of switches?
Less than 3 seconds

Correct!
Subsecond
1 to 2 minutes
None of the above
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Which one is NOT a valid supervisor redundancy mode?
RPR
SSO
RPR+
Correct!
NSF
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
What are three benefits of implementing VSS in a network? (Choose three.)
Correct!
Single management point
VSS is implemented in the access layer which supports a more simplistic design.
Supported on all platforms
Correct!
Neighbors see the VSS as a single switch
VSS can logically combine up to 9 switches.
Correct!
Interchassis stateful failover
Question 7
What is the main purpose of implementing Cisco NSF?
Correct!
to continue forwarding IP packets following an RP switchover
to forward all STP updates to all switches in the network
to keep a backup copy of the latest MAC table in the event of RAM failure
to move switch ports that are currently in blocking mode to forwarding mode with minimal packet loss
1 / 1 pts
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Which one of the following features provides the fastest failover for supervisor or route processor redundancy?
RPR+
NSF
RPR
Correct!
SS0
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
What are three characteristics of the VSS technology? (Choose three.)
Correct!
Correct!
VSS combines a pair of physical switches into a virtual switch.
Once the VSS is formed, only the control plan of one of the member's is active.
VSS is a network system virutalization technology that combine a pair of Catalyst 3500, 4500 or 6500 series switches into one virtual switch.
Correct!
VSS increases system bandwidth capacity.
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Which command can be used to verify StackWise configuration to include their stack number, stack role, MAC address,
hardware priority, hardware version and current state?
show version
show stack
Correct!
show switch
show platform
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What is considered a best practice for an optimal redundant network?
Correct!
Access switches should have redundant connections to redundant distribution switches.
Access switches should have a backup connection to at least one core device
Dual distribution switches should connect individually to separate core switches.
Three distribution switches should be implemented so that the third switch can take the role of active or standby, as necessary.
Question 12
Which two technologies can be used to reduce the number of logical network devices and simplify Layer 2 and Layer
3 network toplogies? (Choose two.)
Correct!
1 / 1 pts
VSS
TCAM
NSF
VRRP
Correct!
StackWise
Question 13
1 / 1 pts
What are two characteristics of the StackWise technology? (Choose two.)
The stack can support up to 12 switches managed as a single unit.
The StackWise technology creates a virtual connection between the devices without additional cabling.
Correct!
Multiple switches can create an EtherChannel connection.

Unites multiple access switches in the same rack.
Correct!
Reduces the number of Layer 3 routing neighbors
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
A network administrator is designing a network with redundancy features such SSO with NSF. What protocol is should the administrator
avoid while designing the routing topology?
BGP
Correct!
RIP
OSPF
EIGRP
ISIS
Question 15
1 / 1 pts
To display configuration and status information for a VSS, which show command can be used?
show virtual switch

show vss brief
Correct!
show switch virutal
show virtual link
Chapter 10 Exam
Due No due date
Points 20
Questions 20
Time Limit None
Take the Quiz Again
Attempt History
Attempt
Time
Score
KEPT
Attempt 2
9 minutes
20 out of 20
LATEST
Attempt 2
9 minutes
20 out of 20
Attempt 1
24 minutes
19 out of 20

Question 1
1 / 1 pts
How should unused ports on a switch be configured in order to prevent VLAN hopping attacks?
Configure them with the UDLD feature.
Configure them with the PAgP protocol.
Configure them as trunk ports for the native VLAN 1.
Correct!
Configure them as access ports and associate them with an unused VLAN.
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The web servers WS _1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external and internal users. For security reasons, the
servers do not have to communicate with each other although they are located on the same subnet. Both servers need to communicate
with the data server that is located on the inside network. Which configuration will isolate the servers from inside attacks?
Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN community ports.
Correct!
Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary
VLAN promiscuous ports.
Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN community ports. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary
VLAN promiscuous ports.
Question 3
1 / 1 pts
What is one way to mitigate spanning-tree compromises?
Correct!
Statically configure the primary and backup root bridge.
Implement private VLANs.
Place all unused ports into a common VLAN (not VLAN 1).
Configure MAC address VLAN access maps.

Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is securing a network against DHCP spoofing attacks. On all switches, the engineer
applied the ip dhcp snooping command and enabled DHCP snooping on all VLANs with the ip dhcp snooping vlan command.
What additional step should be taken to configure the security required on the network?
Correct!
Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all uplink interfaces on SW1, SW2 and SW3.
Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW2 and SW3.
Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW1, SW2, and SW3.
Issue the ip dhcp snooping trust command on all interfaces on SW1, SW2, and SW3 except interface Fa0/1 on SW1.
Question 5
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The DNS servers DNS1 and DNS2 are redundant copies so they need to communicate with each other
and to the Internet. The SMTP server should not be reachable from the DNS Servers. Based on the partial configuration that
is provided, what private VLANs design will be implemented?
Correct!
Community VLAN 202 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be associated with the primary VLAN 100.
Isolated VLAN 202 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be associated with the primary VLAN 100.
Community VLAN 100 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be associated with the primary VLAN 202.
Isolated VLAN 100 will be created to host both DNS servers, and this VLAN will be associated with the primary VLAN 202.
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
What is one way to mitigate ARP spoofing?
Correct!
Enable dynamic ARP inspection.
Configure MAC address VLAN access maps.
Enable root guard.
Implement private VLANs.

Question 7
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration has been applied to

ACSw22, frames that are bound for the node on port FastEthernet 0/1
are periodically being dropped. What should be done to correct the

issue?
Correct!
Add the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command to the interface configuration.
Change the port speed to speed auto with the interface configuration mode.
Use the switchport mode trunk command in the interface configuration.
Remove the switchport command from the interface configuration.

Question 8
1 / 1 pts
What technology can be used to help mitigate MAC address flooding attacks?
root guard
Private VLANs
DHCP snooping
Correct!
VLAN access maps
Dynamic ARP Inspection

Question 9
1 / 1 pts
What switchport port-security keyword causes MAC addresses to be added to the running configuration?
aging
Correct!
mac-address sticky
maximum
violation
Question 10
In which location or situation is a private VLAN appropriate?
a DMZ segment
ISP SOHO connections
Correct!
a web hosting environment at an ISP
two recently merged companies that have overlapping IP addressing schemes
1 / 1 pts
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
Which statement best describes how traffic is handled between different port types within a primary pVLAN?
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to promiscuous ports in the same primary VLAN.
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to community and promiscuous ports in the same primary VLAN.
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to isolated and community ports in the same primary VLAN.
Correct!
The traffic is forwarded from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the same primary VLAN.
Question 12
1 / 1 pts
Refer to the exhibit. The DNS servers DNS1 and DNS2 are redundant copies so they need to communicate with each other and to the
Internet. The web server and the SMTP server need to communicate with the Internet, but for security purposes the web and the SMTP
servers should not be reachable from the DNS servers. What private VLAN design should be implemented?
All servers should be configured in separate isolated VLANs. All isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.
All servers should be configured in separate community VLANs. All community VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.
Correct!
The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in a community VLAN. The web and SMTP servers should be configured in an isolated
VLAN. Both the community and isolated VLANs should be part of the primary VLAN.
The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. The web and SMTP servers should be configured in a community
VLAN. Both the community and isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.
Question 13
Which statement describes the purpose of the configuration that is shown?

Switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping
Switch(config)# ip dhcp snooping vlan 3
Switch(config-if)# ip dhcp snooping trust
Switch(config-if)# ip dhcp snooping limit rate 30
1 / 1 pts
It is meant to disable any host that is configured to be in VLAN 3.
It is meant to disable any rogue DHCP servers that are attached to VLAN 3.
Correct!
It is meant to monitor VLAN 3 for DHCP attacks that will deplete the DHCP pool.
It is meant to monitor VLAN 3 and disable any hosts that are using static IP addresses rather than DHCP addresses.
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
What are two purposes for an attacker launching a MAC table flood? (Choose two.)
to initiate a man-in-the-middle attack

Correct!
to initiate a denial of service (DoS) attack

Correct!
to capture data from the network
to gather network topology information
to exhaust the address space available to the DHCP

Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Which configuration guideline applies to using the capture option in VACL?
Capture ports transmit traffic that belongs to all VLANs.
The capture port captures all packets that are received on the port.
The switch has a restriction on the number of capture ports.
Correct!
The capture port needs to be in the spanning-tree forwarding state for the VLAN.
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
How does MAC address flooding cause a vulnerability in the network?
Correct!
The CAM table will be full, causing legitimate frames to be forwarded out all ports within the VLAN and allowing unauthorized users to
capture data.
An attacking device can send or receive packets on various VLANs and bypass Layer 3 security measures.
An attacking device can exhaust the address space available to the DHCP servers for a period of time or establish itself as a DHCP server in
man-in-the-middle attacks.
Information that is sent through CDP is transmitted in clear text and is unauthenticated, allowing it to be captured and to divulge network
topology information.
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Which countermeasure can be implemented to determine the validity of an ARP packet, based on the valid MAC-address-to-IP
address bindings stored in a DHCP snooping database?
DHCP spoofing
Correct!
dynamic ARP inspection
CAM table inspection
MAC snooping
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
A network administrator is tasked with protecting a server farm by implementing private VLANs (PVLANs). A server is only
allowed to communicate with its default gateway and other related servers. Which type of PVLAN should be configured on
the switch ports that connect to the servers?
isolated
promiscuous
secondary VLAN
Correct!
community
Question 19
1 / 1 pts
Which type of output would be produced on a switch after entering the command, Switch# show ip dhcp snooping binding?
DHCP servers on the snooped network
DHCP clients on all DHCP snooped switches on the network

Correct!
DHCP clients that are connected to DHCP snooped ports on the switch
all active protocols on all DHCP clients that are connected to DHCP snooped ports on the switch
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
All access ports on a switch are configured with the administrative mode of dynamic auto. An attacker, connected to one
of the ports, sends a malicious DTP frame. What is the intent of the attacker?
Correct!
VLAN hopping
DHCP spoofing attack
MAC flooding attack
ARP poisoning attack


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Chapter 2 Exam

Due No due date

Time Limit None

Allowed Attempts Unlimited

Take the Quiz Again

Score for this attempt: 20 out of 20

Submitted Apr 10 at 3:15pm

run an IGP at the access, distribution and core layers

What plane on a network device is accessed using SSH or SNMP?

In its network design, a company lists this equipment :

Catalyst 4503 switches

Cisco 5500 security appliance firewall

Catalyst 6509 switches

lightweight access points

Catalyst 2960 switches

VLANs are extended into the distribution layer.

VLANs are terminated on the access layer devices.

Layer 3 switching in the access layer is a cheaper implementation option.

For what is the control plane on a catalyst switch responsible?

control and remote management of the switch

control of the routing protocols and processes running on the switch

control of the layer 2 switching process used by the switch

Refer to Chapter 2 of the Foundation Learning Guide

collapsed core Layer

It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach.

access list filtering

high-speed backbone switching

interconnection of distribution layer devices

redundancy between the core devices only

Which statement is true about the CEF forwarding process?

The FIB table contains the Layer 2 rewrite information.

Adjacency table lookups use the closest Layer 3 prefix match.

Refer to curriculum topic: 4.4.2

Netflow LAN switching

content-addressable memory (CAM)

ternary content addressable memory (TCAM)

address resolution protocol (ARP) memory

TCAM includes only Layer 3 lookup information.

A single TCAM lookup provides Layer 2, Layer 3, and ACL information.

Refer to curriculum topic: 4.4.2

Refer to curriculum topic: 1.1.5

Which family of Cisco switches is specifically designed for data centers?

Which two features are unavailable on a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping

Time to Live (TTL) decrementing

rewrite of the source and destination MAC addresses

less equipment required

segmentation of broadcast domains

lower bandwidth requirements

collapsed core layer

Refer to Chapter 2 of the Foundation Learning Guide

Quiz Score: 20 out of 20

Chapter 3 Exam : CCNP SWITCH 2016

Time Limit None

Allowed Attempts Unlimited

Score for this attempt: 18 out of 20

Refer to curriculum topic: 2.2.3

Refer to curriculum topic: 2.3.1

Chapter 3 Exam : CCNP SWITCH 2016

Refer to curriculum topic: 2.3.3

Failures at Layer 2 are isolated to a small subset of users.

Local VLANs are limited to the access and distribution layer.

Refer to curriculum topic: 2.1.1