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COMBINED

QUESTION BANK

MATHS
1.

Yard is equal to :
(i)
(iii)

2.

4.5 liters
26 liters

(ii)
(iv)

3.8 liters
None of the above

29.92 inces of Hg
2.992 inces of Hg

29.92 mm of Hg
2.992 cm of Hg

5 kg
2.2 kg

(ii)
(iv)

.45 kg
None

(ii)

6280ft

1 Nautical mile is equal to :


(i)

5280 ft

(iii) 6080ft
6.

(ii)
(iv)

1 Pound is equal to
(i)
(iii)

5.

.9 meter
(ii) +also equal to 73 inches

1013.25 millibar is equal to


(i)
(iii)

4.

(ii)
(iv)

1 gallon is equal to the :


(i)
(iii)

3.

6 meter
1.1 meter

(iv) 5080ft

One micron is
a) 10-3 meter
c) 10-9 meter

b) 10-6 meter
d) None of these

7. One angstrom (A0) is equivalent to


a) 10-9 meters
c) 10-9 seconds
34.

b)
d)

10-10 meters
10-10 seconds

Hydraulic system is based on


(a)
(c)

charles law
boyles law

1 KNOT

= 1.0 nmilesph
= 1.151 mph

1 nautical mile

= 1.151 miles
= 1852m
= 6080 feet

(b)
(d)

pascals law
newtons law

1 bar

= 14.5 psi

AERODYNAMICS
1.

When angle of attack increase


(a)
lift decrease

(b) lift increase (2-39)

2.

Purpose of flaps and slats is


(a)
Increase or decrease the speed of a/c
(b)
To decrease landing and take off speed in turn reduce runway
length. (2-40)
(c)
as in (a) and reduce fuel consumption
(d)
as in (b) and used in high speed aircraft only

3.

Glider has lift due to


(a) high aspect ratio (2-42)
(c)
symmetrical wing

4.

5.

In flight , extending flaps


(a) increase lift
(c)
increase drag
Lift depends upon
(a) velocity of relative wind
(c)
Wing span (area)

(b) high lift ..


(d)reduce stalling speed

(b)
(d)

increase lift and drag both


reduces stalling speed (2-40)
(b)
(d)

density of air
All (2-40)

7.
A device which gives lateral control and is moving with the opposite
surface of wing
(a) spoiler (2-34)
(b) vertex generator
(c) tab (d) flap
8.

In straight and level flight


(a) lift = drag and thrust = weight
(b) lift = thrust and drag = weight
(c)
lift = weight and drag = thrust (2-36)
(d) none of the above

9.

For high speed a/c, it has wing


(a) thicker than low speed a/c
(b) thinner than low speed a/c and thick wing tip
(c)
equal to low speed a/c
(d) any one of the above

10.

Primary control surfaces are


(a) elevator rudder, aileron and leading edge flap
(b) elevator rudder, aileron and trailing edge flap
(c)
elevator slots spoiler and flaps
(d) elevator, rudder and aileron (2-34)

11.

Lift and drag depends upon


(a) more cambered area of upper side and less of lower side of wing (243)
(b) more cambered area of lower side and less on upper side
(c)
both a & b
(d)
AoA
(e) Speed of ac (f) None

13.

Flab tab is
(a) balance tab
(c) servo tab

(b)
(d)

trim tab
none

14.

VentraL fin provides


(a) longitudinal stability
(b) longitudinal and lateral stability
(c)
lateral stability
(d) none of the above

15.

Stalling angle/ critical angle of attack is the


(a) maximum lift angle
(b) minimum lift angle
(c)
as in (a) and at which separation of airflow takes from upper
surface of wing (2-39)
(d) as in (b) and at which separation of airflow takes from lower surface
of wing

16.

Lift of a/c depend upon :(a)


(b)
(c)

17.

Aerodynamic Centre is the point:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

18.

About which pitching moment of the Aerofoil is consant


About which pitching moment of the Aerofoil varies with the AOA
Both (i) and (ii)
As in (i) and it is similar to the C.P.

The resultant force on an Air foil acts :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

19.

Angle of attack + Shape of Aero foil


Angle of attack + Area of Aero foil
Only area of Aero foil

Perpendicular to the chord line


Perpendicular to the relative wind
Either (i) or (ii)
None

(2-38)

Aspect ratio of a wing is


(i)
(iii)

span/average chord
(2-42)
span/mean aerodynamic chord

(ii)
(iv)

span/Area of the Air foil


None

20. Which atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing speed of an
aircraft to be the greatest.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Low temperature with low humidity


High temperature with low humidity
High temperature with high humidity
Low temperature with high humidity

(2-34)

21. If all, or a significant part of a stall strip is missing on an airplane wing, a


likely result will be
(i)
Decreased lift in the area of installation at high angle of attack.
(ii)
Increased lift since it increases the lift by controlling stall at very
low angles of attack
(iii) Asymmetrical lateral control at low angles of attack.
(iv) Asymmetrical lateral control at or near stall angles of attack. (2-42)
(v)
Aircraft will stall
(vi) Increased lift in the area of installation on the opposite wing at
high angles of attack.
(vii) A symmetrical lateral control at low angles of attack.
24. A wing with a very high aspect ratio (in comparison with a low aspect
ratio wing) will have :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
25.

Wings are made Dihedral to


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

27.

Increase the lateral stability


Decreases the lateral stability
Decreases the excessive dynamic stability
Increases the dynamic stability

Purpose of ventral fin


(i)
(iii)

28.

Increased drag at high angles of attack


A low stall speed (2-42)
As in (i) so that stalling speed increases
Poor control qualities at low air speed.

Lateral stability
Vertical stability

(ii)
(iv)

Directional stability (2-34)


None of the above

MTCs
(i)
Vortex generator is used on high speed a/c at leading edge of wing
(2-55)
(ii)
Vortex generator is used on slow speed a/c at trailing edge of tail
plane
(iii) Vortex generator is never used on slow speed a/c

29.

In wing , lift is produced by


(i)
Drop in pressure in upper surface of wing and increase in pressure
below the wing (2-36)
(ii)
Negative pressure below the wing
(iii) The pressure below and above the wing

30.

An increase in aspect ratio at a given velocity results at high angle of


attack

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
31.

When aircraft is flying at a give air speed, the mach number will
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

32.

Increase with increase in altitude


Decrease with increase in altitude
Remain same
None of the above

The desired effect of using winglets on an aircrafts wingtips is to


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

33.

Increase in drag and higher stalling speed


Decrease in drag and a lower stalling speed (2-42)
Decrease in drag and a higher staling speed
Increase in drag and a lower staling speed

Increase the lift to drag ratio.


(2-44)
Reduce the aspect ration
Reduce the fineness ratio.
Optimize wing dihedral and improve lateral stability.

M.T.C.S
(i)
Transition point moves forward towards leading edge as the air
speed increases
(ii)
Transition point is located at approx. 30% of the chord from the L.E.
(iii) Transition Point does not move with the change in speed
(iv) Both (i) & (ii)

34.

Shortest length of runway is required for


(i)
(iii)

35.

Turbojet
Ramjet

Thick cross section


Medium cross section

(ii)
(iv)

High camber
Thin cross section

MICS
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

1.

(ii)
(iv)

High speed airfoils have


(i)
(iii)

36.

Turbofan
Turboprop

Roll causes yaw and seer of a/c


Yaw causes roll & seer a/c
Roll causes yaw & yaw causes roll
None of the above

In a straight and level flight of an aircraft


a) Lift equals aircraft weight
(2-36)
b) Lift is more than weight
c) Lift is less than weight
d) Depends upon size of aircraft and its loading

2.

Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag associated with it.
This is called
a) Form drag
b) Skin friction drag
c) Induced drag (2-44)
d) Shape drag

3.

Lift generated by an airfoil is maximum at an angle of attack of about


a) 0 degrees
b) 4 degrees
c) 12 degrees
d) Stalling value (2-38)

4.

Lift generated by an aircraft depends upon


a) Density, forward velocity & aircraft area
b) Density, square of forward velocity and aircraft area
c) Density, square of forward velocity and wing area (2-40)
d) Density, forward velocity & wing area

5.

Lift on a wing
a) Acts through centre of gravity
b) Acts vertically upwards
c) Is perpendicular to chord line
d) Acts vertically upwards through centre of pressure (2-50)

6.

An object demonstrates positive dynamic stability if the amplitude of motion


a) Decreases with time (2-50)
b) Increases with time
c) Neither increases nor decreases
d) None of these

7.

The angle between the chord of the tail plane and the chord of the main plane is
known as
a) Lateral dihedral
b) Longitudinal dihedral
c) Normal dihedral
d) Vertical dihedral

8.

The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on


a) Position of C of G
(2-50)
b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage
c) Area of the tail plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G
d) All of these

9.

Mark the correct statement for horizontal stabilizer


a) It always produces nose up pitching moment
b) It always produces nose down pitching moment
c) Either a) or b) depending upon the design
d) Provides no pitching moment (2-34)

10.

Slip or side slipping refers to any motion of the Aircraft


a) Towards upper wing
b) To downward
c) Towards the lower wing (2-51)
d) All of these

11.

Rotating the control wheel clockwise will move


a) The right aileron upward
b) The right aileron downward
c) As in a) & flight spoiler on right wing up (2-34)
d) As in a) & flight spoiler on left wing up

12.

At high speed flight, to avoid excessively large rolling moments or unacceptable


structural loading or wing twist, devices used are
a) Flaps
b) Slots
c) Outboard ailerons
d) Inboard ailerons

13.

The principal surface contributing to the lateral stability of an Aircraft is


a) Side surfaces (wings) (2-51)
b) The fuselage
c) Tail plane
d) None of these

14.

Dihedral angle on the main planes provide with


a) Longitudinal stability
b) Dynamic stability
c) Lateral stability (2-51)
d) Horizontal stability

15.

Aft moment of the control stick will cause


a) Both elevators to move up
b) Both elevators to move down
c) Left elevator will move up and right will move down
d) Movement of horizontal stabilizer

16.

For flight equilibrium (longitudinal stability), designer tries to fix the CG


a) and C of P together
b) At rear of C of P
c) In front of most forward position of CP
(2-50)
d) Along aerodynamic C of P

17.

Flight calculations are based on the magnitude and direction of


a) Lift & drag
b) Weight & thrust
c) Lift & thrust
d) Both a) & b) (2-36)

18.

The factors limiting the aspect ratio are


a) Structural consideration
b) Drag consideration
c) Lift consideration
d) Both a) & b)

19.

What is required to reduce the landing speed?


a) A low minimum drag coefficient
b) A small movement of C of P
c) A high max CL
d) A high value of CL3/2/CD

20.

To check the angle of the main structural component in relation to the


longitudinal and lateral axis is known as

a) Incidence check
c) Structural alignment check

b) Dihedral check
d) Verticality check

21.

For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C


of G (Centre of Gravity)
a) And C of P (Pressure) together
b) Rear of C of P
c) Front of C of P
(2-50)
d) Along Aerodynamic C of P

22.

The point on the chord line at which the total lift of a section at an aerofoil is
considered to act is known as
a) Centre of Gravity
b) Centre of Pressure (2-50)
c) Lift
d) None of the above

23.

The type of drag which is produced by non lifting surfaces is known as


a) Parasite drag (2-43)
b) Wing drag
c) Skin friction
d) Induced drag

24.

The stability which is due to features incorporated in the design of the aircraft is
called
a) Inherent stability
b) Neutral stability
c) Static stability
d) Dynamic stability

25.

The angle of attack of an aerofoil such as wing is the angle between the
(a) Chord of the wing and the longitudinal axis
(b) Chord of the wing and the relative airflow (2-38)
(c) Chord of the wing and horizontal axis
(d) Angle of incidence and stall angle

26.

Speed of sound in the atmosphere


(a) Varies according to the frequency of sound
(b) Varies according to the temperature (2-53)
(c) Varies according to the pressure
(d) All of the above

27.

Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of


(a) Wing span to the wind root
(b) Square of the chord to the wing span
(c) Wing span to the mean chord(2-42)

28.

A wing with a very high aspect ratio will have


(a) Low drag at high angles of attack
(b) A low stall speed
(c) Good control at low speed
(d) All of the above(2-42)

29.

Angle of attack is the


(a) acute angle between aircraft longitudinal axis and cord line to which
aerofoil is mounted on the aircraft.
(b) horizontal acute angle between the symmetry of aircraft and wind direction
from which it touches the aircraft.
(c) acute angle between the symmetry of the aircraft and the cord line of the
aerofoil section.

30.

Trim stab control used for


(a) Change the angle of incident of horizontal stabilizer
(b) Change the longitudinal dihedral
(c) Movement of control surfaces fitted at empennage
(d) All of the above

BASIC ELECTRICITY
ELECTRICAL

1.

If Z is impedance, r is internal resistance and R is external


resistance, then
(a)
(c)

Z= R + r
Z= R2 + r 2

(b)
(d)

Z2 = R2 + r2
None

2.

Resistance for a straight conductor does not depends upon


(a) length
(b) shape of cross section
(c)
temperature
(d) material

3.

In a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4.

Identify the symbol


(a) capacitor
(c)
resistor

capacitor
capacity depends on separation of plates and measured in farads
capacity depends on area of plates and measured in farads
capacity depends on nature of dielectric material
all (3-57)
(b)
(d)

condenser
both A&B

5.

Amount of electron that can be stored on capacitor is


proportional to(Capacitance of a capacitor)
(a) both plate area and distance between them
(b) plate area and does not depend upon distance between
them
(c)
plate area and inversely proportional to distance (3-57)
(d) distance between plates and inversely proportional to area

6.

Working voltage of capacitor should be


(a) At least 20% higher than applied
(b) at least 50% higher than applied (3-57)
(c)
equal to applied voltage
(d) less than 50% than applied voltage

7.

When capacitive reactance becomes equal to inductive reactance of a


circuit it is called
(a) phase-in
(b) phase-out
(c)
resonant (3-67)
(d) impedance matching

9.

Ohms law is
(a) I ohm V

11.

(b)

V ohm I

(c) I ohm R (d) V ohm R

The opposition offered in AC circuit are called


(a)
impedence
(b) resistance

(c)

inductance

(d)

All

12.

Relation between volt, ampere and Weber is given by


a.
amp/volt square Weber
b.
amp X volt Weber
c.
volt/amp Weber
d.
None

13.

Which of the following issued as voltage regulator device


(a)
carbon pile voltage regulator
(b)
magnetic amplifier regulator
(c)
transistor regulator
(d)
all are correct

14.

When two sphere of same mass, one is +ve charged and other is ve
charged, then new mass will
(a)
change
(b) unchanged

15.

If the conductor is of 4 ohm and it stretched to twice of its length then its
resistance is
(a)
1 ohm
(b) 8 ohm
(c) 12 Ohm (d) 16 Ohm

16.

A and B are big and small battery having same emf. Internal resistance of
battery A is
(a)
Less than B
(b) Greater than B
(c)
equal to B
(d) Unaffected

17.

Which statement is correct


(a)
force is exerted on charged particle
(b)
force is applied on charged particle moving along with magnetic
field.

18.

Electrical power and energy is expressed in terms of


(a)
Kilo-watt and kilo watt hour respectively (285)
(b)
Watt and joule respectively
(c)
Watt and watt hour respectively
(d)
Watt and Newton

19.

A 3-8 winding rotate with 1800 rpm field having 8 pole, its ferequency will
be

20.

A wire is connected to constant voltage supply while the length and radius
is doubled
(a)
electric field is half
(b) electric field is double
(c)
heat is unchanged
(d) electric field remain same

21.

Heat energy is converted to electrical energy in


(a)
Transducer
(b) Thermocouple

22.

(c)

In straight conductor the resistance do not depend upon


(a)
temperature
(b) length

Both

(c)

material

(d) shape of cross section

23.

Electrical bounding and shielding is used to


(a)
avoid accumulation of static charge
(b)
give stability in radio reception
(c)
both (a) & (b)(271)
(d)
None

24.

The work done on a moving charge from one point to another is depend
upon
(a)
the path taken
(b) position of two points

26.

Which offers uniform magnetic field


(a) earth
(b)
(c)
circular magnet
(d)

bar magnet
horse shoe magnet

27.

If 28 volt current is passed through resistant of 10 ohm the power


consumed by the component is (P=V Square/R)
(a) 78.4 watt
(b) 780 Watt
(c)
784 Watt
(d) 78 Watt

28.

Refer the figure : what will the ohmmeter read


(a) 20 ohm
(b) 0 ohm
(c)
40 ohm

29.

If the rpm of the driver gear is 60 then the rpm of driven gear is
(a) 120 rpm
(b) 100 rpm
(c) 60 rpm
(d) 30 rpm

30.

The resistance of conductor depends on


(a) temperature
(b) length and material
(c)
cross sectional area
(d) all

31.

In an
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

32.

Which one is unpaired


(a) battery accumulator
(c)
AC generator vortex generator

33.

diode NRV
EMF MMF

Zn-carbon

(b)

Lead acid cell

(c)

Alkaline cell

Kirchoffs law is applicable in


(a)
(c)

35.

(b)
(d)

Which one is not primary cell


(a)

34.

inductive circuit
current lags behind voltage by 90 deg.
current leads behind voltage by 90 deg.
cross sectional area
None

dc
dc ckt having resistance

Magnetic flux depends upon


(a) no of turns
(b) rpm (c)

(b)
(d)

ac
both a & c

rate of cutting flux (d) all

36.
37.

38.

Power factor in d.c. circuit is


(a) unity
(b) infinite

(c) zero

Unit of electrical energy is


(a) Kilowatt hour
(c)
watt hour

(b)
(d)

ampear
all

Power can be calculated by


(a) V2/R
(b) l 2/R

(C)

V.I

(d)

(d)

none

all

39.

Effect on the part by varying frequency in eddy current testing


(a) skin effect (b)

40.

Batteries are connect in series


(a)
total current is equal to the sum of the individual current
(b) total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltage
(c)
both a & b
(d) None

41.

When three individual resistance are connected in parallel to each other


which of the following is correct
(a) R=R1+R2+R3
(b) I/R = I/R1 + 1/R2 + I/R3

42.

Unit of magnetic flux is


(a) weber
(c)
both a & c

(b)
(d)

Newton meter
none

43.

A magnetic force always exert on


(a) a charged particle
(b) a uncharged particle
(c)
charged particle parallel to magnetic flux

44.

Essential parameters for calculating power are


(a) force
(b) distance traveled
(c)
time doing work
(d) all of the above

45.

1 HP is usual to
(a) 735 electric watts
(c)
both a & b

46.

(b)
(d)

Ohms law does not hold for


(a) diode
(b)
(c)
Hg
(d)

746 electrical watts


none
NPN transistor
both a & b

47.

When coil of wire is placed horizontal to the earth surface and a bar
magnet dropped form the top
(a) fall with acceleration equal to g
(b) fall with acceleration less than g

48.

A micro switch will open or close a circuit with the movement of


(a) 1/16 or less
(b) 1/16 or more

(c)

both

(d)

None

49.

An ac circuit consists of inductance of 10 ohm , capacitance 1 ohm and


resistance 8 ohm the impedance of the circuit is ..
(a) 6 ohm
(b) 10 Ohm
(c)
5.5 ohm
(d)
8 ohm

50.

An ac circuit has inductance 3 ohm and resistance of 4 ohm then


impedance of the circuit is
(a) 3 ohm
(b) 4 ohm
(c) 5 ohm (d) 7 ohm

51.

Insulation resistance measurement, ground, continuity and short circuit


testing can be done by:
(i)
(iii)

53.

unchanged (9A-272)

Material
Temp

(b)
(d)

Shape of conductor (9A-272)


length

No of turns
Speed of rotation

(b)
(d)

Field strength
all are correct (4-2)

E, B are forward biased and B, C are reverse biased.

The value of di-electric constant k of Mica is(i)


(iii)

60.

(b)

Mark the correct statement regarding transistor :(a)

58.

doubled
None of above

Induced voltage in coil of conductor depend upon :(a)


(c)

57.

Discharge static electricity

Resistance of straight conductor does not depend upon


(a)
(c)

56.

Megger
All are correct ( 3-91)

When dia and length of wire doubled, heat should be


(a)
(c)

55.

(ii)
(iv)

Bonding of Fuel tank done to :(a)

54.

Shunt type ohmmeter


Multimeter

3.0
6.5

(ii)
(iv)

6.0 (3-58)
4.2

To protect vibrating contact from burning, capacitor is connected


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

either across the contact points or in series


across the contact points
in series with contact points

(iv)
61.

Test for insulators


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

62.

Generator and attenuator and Tochelle salt probc


Motor and amplifier
Capacitor and zener diode
Battery

55
56

55
56

(i)
(iii)

(ii)
(iv)

112
110

402 Watts
450 Watts

Rating
160 Watt
20 Watt each
5 amps
3 Amps
(ii)
(iv)

385 Watts
472 Watts

A 12 V electric motor has 1000 watts input and 1H.P. output, maintaining
the same efficiency, how much input power will a 24V, 1H.P. electricl
motor require (Note 1 H.P. = 740w)
(i)
(iii)

68.

60
57

How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a system which


contains the following loads;
Unit
One Motor (80% efficient)
Three position lights
One heating element
One anti collision light

67.

(ii)
(iv)

Max. Frequency (in figure) of reed:


(i)
(iii)

66.

Copper
None

Frequency of A.C (Source):


(i)
(iii)

65.

Aluminum
(ii)
Aluminum and copper (3-15) (iv)

Which one is near to transducer:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

64.

Di-electric strength test


Insulation resistance test
Di-electric resistance test and brake down voltage test
Di-electric strength test and insulation resistance test

A/C electrical bus bars are made of :


(i)
(iii)

63.

None

1000W
500W

(ii)
(iv)

2000W
As in (ii) and less current will flow

How much power is being furnished to the circuit

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
69.

12 V

(ii)

3V

(iii)

24V

(iv)

48 V

If resistor R, is disconnected at the junction of R4 and R5 as shown , what


will the ohmmeter read ?
(i)

71.

w
w
w
w

A 24 V source is required to furnish 48W to a parallel circuit consisting of


four resistors of equal value , what is the voltage drop across each
resistor:
(i)

70.

1150
5750
5290
2300

2.76 Ohm (ii)

3 Ohm

(iii)

12 Ohm

(iv)

6 Ohm

When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit , the true


power is
(i)
More than the apparent power
(ii)
Less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and more than
the apparent power in an induction circuit
(iii) More than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and less than the
apparent power in an inductive circuit.
iv)
Less than the apparent power.(3-64)

72.

The equivalent resistance is


(a)
(c)

73.

4
3

a resistor in series with meter coil (3-89)


a resistor in parallel with meter coil
a capacitor in series with meter coil
None

If resistor R is disconnected at the junction of R4 and R5 as shown, what


will the ohmmeter read ?
(i)
(iii)

75.

(b)
(d)

The ammeter can be converted in to voltmeter by connecting


(a)
(b)

(d)

74.

2
1

2.76
12

(ii)
(iv)

3
6

To ensure the proper demagnetization of a part take near to the compass,


the deflection of compass needle more that
(i)
30 degree minutes require demagnetization again
(ii)
1 degree no demagnetization
(iii) 1 degree require component to be demagnetized again and test to
be repeated
(iv) 1 degree minute to require component to be demagnetized

76.

In a circuit the capacitor and inductor are in parallel then


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

77.

In a circuit the power is 28 watt and voltage is 28 volt then the resistence
is
(i)

78.

1 Ohm

Effective power Kw/apparent power KVA (3-64)


Cosine of phase angle+1
Sine of phase angle +1
Only (i) is correct

reducing edy current loss (9A-361)


Low reductance
1+2

Remains same
Decreases

(ii)
(iv)

Increases
Zero

It runs at half full load


(i)
It runs at full load
Its cu-loss equals iron loss???(iv) It runs slightly overload

The resultant resistance between P & Q as per the figure shown is


(i) 2 Ohm

83.

(iii)

The ordinary efficiency of transformer is maximum when


(i)
(iii)

82.

56 Ohm

If the coil length is decreased in the circuit, the power


(i)
(iii)

81.

(ii)

In transformer thin laminated core is used for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

80.

28 Ohm

Power factor is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

79.

Low voltage drop


No current will pass through the ckt at resonant frequency
Current will flow in the ckt

(ii) 3 ohm

(iii) 6 ohm (iv) 18 Ohm

Which statement is correct for both series & a parallel dc cct


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

Powers are additive


(ii)
Voltages are additive
Currents are additive
Elements have individual currents

84. A magnitude of emf applied across the primary


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

The number of turns in the primary


The number of turns in the secondary
The resistance of primary & secondary

85. Kichoffs voltage law is concerned with


(i)
IR Drops
(III) Junction voltage

(ii)
(iv)

Battery EMF
Both (i) & (ii) (9A-289)

86. A fuse is used in electrical circuit to


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

indicate the consumption of power


Break the circuit when power is off
Maintain constant current
Break the circuit in case of over current

87. In an A.C. ckt the ratio of KW/KVA represents


(i)
(iii)

Power factor
Form factor

(ii)
(iv)

Load factor
Diversity factor

88. On small dia a/c electrical cables only the recommend stripping tools
should be used for removing the insulation. On no account should a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
89.

The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called


(disregard resistance)
(i)
(iii)

90.

Reluctance
Inductance and frequency

Less than the predetermined voltage


Equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage
Greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage
Less than the maximum instantaneous voltage

Instantaneous values
Effective values (3-47)

(ii)
(iv)

Mean values
Maximum values

The potential difference between two conductors which are insulated from
each other is measured in
(i)
(iii)

93.

(ii)
(iv)

Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in an


ac circuit are assumed to be
(i)
(iii)

92.

Impedance
Inductive Reactance(3-53)

In ac circuit the effective voltage is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

91.

Site cutting plier to be used


Knife be used
Heat be used
Any of the above

Volts
Farads

(ii)
(iv)

Amperes
Coulombs

The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
94.

Equal to the voltage of unit


In series with a unit
Between the source voltage and the load.
In parallel with a unit

If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms and 22 ohms are connected in series


in a 28-volt circuit, how much current will flow through the 3-ohm
resistor?
(i)
(iii)

0.39 amperes
1.05 amperes

(ii)
(iv)

9.3 amperes
0.93 amperes

95.

Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease?


(i)
Decreases the length or the cross-sectional area.
(ii)
Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area.
(iii) Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area.
(iv) Decrease the length and the cross section area.

96.

The voltage drop in a conductor of known resistance is dependent of


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

98.

When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac-circuit, the true


power is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

99.

The voltage of the circuit.


Current of the circuit.
Only the resistance of the conductor and does not change with
a change in either voltage or amperage.
The amperage of the circuit.

More than the apparent power.


Less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and more than
The apparent power in an inductive circuit.
Less than the apparent power.(3-65)
Any of the above.

Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the


aid of electrical connections
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Is called induction.
Is called radiation.
Is called air gap transfer.
Will cause excessive arcing and head and as a result is impractical.

100. When referring to an electrical circuit diagram , what point is considered


to be at zero voltage
(i)
(iii)

The circuit breaker


The switch

(ii0
(iv)

The atmosphere reference


The ground reference

101. If an electrode is removed from the cell and to know its potential
difference it is compared with
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

An electrode in another cell


Area of plates
Number of separator

102. MTCS
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Rehostat is 3 terminal and use low voltage


Potentiometer is 2 terminal and use high voltage
Rehostat is 2 terminal and use low voltage
Potentiometer is 3 terminal and use low voltage

103. The magnitude of induced emf produced in a coil when a magnet is


inserted in it does not depend upon
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

no of turns in coil
resistance of coil
magnetic moment of magnet
Speed of rotation of magnet (magnetic strength)

104. A transformer
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

amplifies the low input signal to high output signal


used as a rectifier
used in transducer set
both (a) & (c) are correct

105. EMF is produced in generator by


(a)
(c)

Lenzs law
(b)
Right hand fleming rule (d)

Electromagnetic induction
None

110. High discharge tester is used to check the


(a)
voltage of battery in normal operating condition
(b)
efficiency of condenser
(c)
penerator output
(d)
voltage of battery to find its charge condition and if recharging is
required
111. A cathode (electron emitter) used in thermionic emission must have
following characteristics
(a)
(c)

high matching point


low work function

(b)
(d)

high matching strength


draw extension lines

112. In a transformer is primary frequency changes from 50Hz, keep the pick
voltage constant then frenquency
(a) increases in secondary by ratio 60/50

(b)
(c)
(d)
113. Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)

decreases in secondary by ratio 50/60


both 1 and 2
none
the correct statement for transformer
mutual induction is working principle
output voltage depends on transformation ratio/turn ratio
all of the above

114. Precision wire wound resistors are wounded with


(a) carbon
(b) copper
(c)
magnanin(278)
(d) all of the above
115. Transformer used for :(a)
(b)
(c)

Transfer power at same frequency


Transistor circuit
a and b are correct

116. Which one among following is used to find out that whether concerned
transformer is step up or stepdown:
(i)
(iii)

Ohmmeter (9A-364)
Ammeter

(iv)

(ii)
Voltmeter and ammeter
All of the above

117. Parts of the Airframe must be demagnetized


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

So they will not affect retraction of under carriage


So they will not affect instruments
Otherwise the components may fail to operate
De magnetic sign is required only for engine parts not air frame

118. Current transformer is opened upon


(i)
Step up
(iii) Uni transition

(ii) Step down


(iv) None

119. If voltage of step up transformer is doubled and transformer ratio is 1:2


then the output through the coil is
(i)

Same

(ii)

Half???

(iii)

Doubled

120. A magnitude of the emf of transformer does not depend upon


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

The
The
The
The

magnitude of emf applied across the primary


number of turns in the primary
number of turns in the secondary
resistance of primary & secondary

121. The all day efficiency of transformer depends primarily on


(i)

Its copper loss

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

The amount of load


The duration of load
Both (2) & (3)

122. In ammeter (DArsonavol type), two oppositely wound spring are used, for
the purpose of:
(i)
Compensating expansion and contraction of springs, because of
temperature changes (9A- 322)
(ii)
Removing backlash
(iii) as (i) and having stand by
(iv) All of the above
123. How do you connect an Ammeter in a circuit.
(a)
(c)

across the Battery


in series with the load (3-89)

(b)

across the generator

124. How do you convert the Galvanometers into voltmeter :(a)


(c)

connect high R in series (3-89)


low R in parallel

(b)
(d)

low R in series
high R in parallel

125. Galvanometer is transferred in ammeter


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

By
By
By
By

connecting
connecting
connecting
connecting

low resistance in series to the galvanometer


high resistance in series to the galvanometer
low resistance in parallel to increase range
high resistance in parallel to increase range

126. Shunt ohmmeter measures


(a)
(c)

low resistance(3-91)
precision resistance

(d)

(b) high resistance


infinite resistance

128. Range of ammeter can be increased by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

connecting
connecting
connecting
connecting

high resistance is parallel


high resistance in series.
low resistance in parallel (324)
low resistance in series

129. The sensitivity of voltmeter is measured in


(a)
(e)

Ohm/ volt(3-90) (b) Watt


Volt/meter (f)
Volt/ohm

(c)

Farads

(d) ampere

131. If acid is spilled over skin from an a/c battery then it cleaned with
(a) water
(b) water & boric acid
(c)
water & bicarbonate of soda
(d) all

134. The sensitivity of a meter movement is usually expressed as


(i)
The amount of current required to give full scale deflection
(ii)
The amount of current required to give half scale deflection
(iii) As in (i) and may be expressed as the numbers of mill volts across
the meter when full scale current flows through it (324)
(iv) As in (ii) and may be expressed as the numbers of mill volts across
the meter when full scale current flows through it
135. DArsonval meter movement is a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Current measuring device (3-88)


Voltage measuring device
Resistance measuring device
Both (i) and (iii)

106. For constant voltage, ` generator used is


(a)

series

(b)

shunt

(c)

both a & b (d)

(b)
(d)

Hydraulic motor
Both a & b

none

107. Shunt motor is used in


(a)
(c)

L/G and flap operation


Gyro meter

108. AC induction motor is used in place of the DC motor because


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

of less weight
it requires less maintenance
it is less expensive than dc motor
it does not use brush and commutator

109. A generator relay has silver and copper lining


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

to provide greater bearing surface and low resistance


copper made contact and break contact and increase life
for the purpose of spark
to prevent arcing

136. In the shunt motor the field winding is connected in parallel or in shunt
with the armature winding
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Field winding is connected directly across the power supply(4-34)


Produces low starting torque but high speed at light loads
Relative speed between the field and rotor

137. If load is removed from shunt motor and is in open circuit then the
current is
(i)
(iii)

Maximum
(ii)
Minimum
Depend upon the apparent power

138. In single phase induction motor


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

field is rotating
Armature is rotating
Armature is stationary

139. A series wound d.c. motor will produce


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Low starting torque


High starting torque
1+ its speed depends upon the value of load
2+its speed depend the value of load(4-34)

140. The wastage of energy in a potentiometer can be minimized by keeping


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

The resistance as low as possible


The resistance as high as possible
The resistance potentiometer lower than that of load
None

141. In a differential relay system the charging of battery happens, when 22V
generated voltage is there, through
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Voltage relay coil


Differential relay coil
Main contactor
Both 1 & 2

142. In an aircraft alternator the reverse current cut out relay can be avoided
due to the presence of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
143. In a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Rectifier unit
Voltage regulator
Current limiter
None
brush less alternator there can be
3 field windings & 2 armature windings & one permanent magnet
3 field windings & 2 armature windings & two permanent magnet
2 field windings & 3 armature windings & one permanent magnet
One field windings & 1 armature windings & one permanent magnet

144. Speed of the motor can be increased by


(a) field winding
(b) X-sectional area of the field (armature)
(c)
Exitation winding
(d) All
145. Speed of motor increase when load current decrease because of
(a) frictional loss between motors moving parts
(b) frictional loss between field winding and other parts
(c)
induced back emf decreases(449)

(d)

None

146. Generator frequency depends on


(a) No of poles
(b) RPM

(c)

both a & b (d) None

147. A series wound d.c motor will produce:


(i)
Low starting forque
(ii)
High starting forque
(iii) (i) + its speed depends upon the value of load
(iv) (ii) + its speed depend the value of load(4-34)
148. In a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

single phase inductive motor the field produced is


Rotating field
Pulsating & rotating field
Pulsating stationary field(4-37)
Stationary but not pulsating field

149. The counter emf is induced in the d.c. motor


(i)
Armature(4-31)
(ii)
Field
(iii) Both 1 & 2
(iv) None
150. Which of the following method can be employed for reversing the
direction of rotation of d.c. motor
(i)
Changing the polarity of supply to field & armature
(ii)
Using split field windings(4-32)
(iii) Using double-pole, double throw switch
(iv) Both 2 & 3
151. A permanent magnet rotary inverter consists of
(i)
A d.c. generator & a.c. generator
(ii)
A d.c. motor & a.c. motor
(iii) A d.c. motor & a.c. generator(4-35)
(iv)
A d.c. generator & a.c. motor
152. A thermal switch as used in an electric motor is designed to
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Slow down the speed of motor.


Close the integral fan circuit to allow cooling of the motor.
Open the circuit in order to allow cooling of the motor.
Reroute the circuit to ground.

153. In a series wound DC generator


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

The field coils are composed of a few turns of large wire(4-33)


The field coils are composed of more turns of thin wire
As in (i) and when the load is increased, the voltage decreases
As in (ii) and when the load is increased, the voltage increases

154. An under compounded generator has


(i)

No-load voltage value less than full load voltage

(ii)
Full load voltage less than the no load voltage
(iii) As in (i) and changes in terminal voltage with increasing load
depends upon the degree of compounding
(iv) As in (ii) and changes in terminal voltage with increasing load
depends upon the degree of compounding(4-10)
155. In a DC generator interpoles are used
(i)
To reduce field distortion
(ii)
To As in (i) and they keep the neutral plane parallel distorted field
(iii) As in (i) and they keep the neural plane perpendicular to distorted
field
(iv) As in (ii) and improve the efficiency output and service oife of
brushes
156. Which statement is true regarding differential switch
(i)
It connects the generator to main bus when generator
exceeds the bus voltage by 0.25 to 0.45 v
(ii)
It connects the generator to main bus when generator
exceeds the bus voltage by 0.35 to 0.65 V.
(iii) As in (i) and it disconnects the generator when nominal
current flows from bus to generator
(iv) As in (ii)
and It disconnects the generator when nominal
current flows from bus to generator

voltage
voltage
reverse
reverse

157. In shunt motor


(i)
The field winding is connected in parallel with armature winding
(ii)
The resistance in field winding is high and current through the field
winding is constant
(iii) The torque will vary only with the current through armature
(iv) All the above are correct
159. To exite a self excited DC generator
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
160. How
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A DC generator is used initially to exite


It exite him self with out source
A DC motor is used
many terminals can be taken out from stud
one terminal per stud
two terminal per stud
both a/c and van are kept at equal potential with a wire
any no of terminals can be taken out from one stud

161. Diamagnetic material has permeability


(i)
greater than one AND NON FERROUS METALS
PARAMAGNETIC
(ii)
less than one 9A-302
(iii) very much greater than one (iv) equal to one

ARE

CALLED

BATTERIES
1.

The electrolyte of a NI-cad battery is the lowest when the battery is


(i)
(iii)

2.

Being charged
(iv) Under load condition

How can the state of charge of a nickel cad battery be determined


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

3.

In a charged condition
(ii)
In a discharged condition (314)

By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte


By measured discharged
By the level of the electrolyte
None of the above

When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells


emits gas only
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Toward the end of the charging cycle.(314)


In the beginning of the charging cycle.
When the electrolyte level is low.
If they are defective.

4.

The +ve plate in discharged Ni-cd battery is of


(i)
Nickel hydroxide
(ii)
Nickel oxy hydroxide
(iii) cd-hydroxide
(iv) cd-oxyhydroxide

5.

Storage of Ni-Cd battery


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

6.

The active material of Ni-cd battery are


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

7.

Nickel hydroxide
Powdered cadmium and its hydroxide
30% solution of caustic potash
All of the above.(314)

Aircraft batteries should be disconnected as a precaution against fire


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

8.

Battery fully charged and electrolyte drained


As in 1 clean the terminals
Battery discharged and full with electrolyte
Maintain cored water level also

When
When
When
When

soldering is carried out adjacent to wiring looms or cables


welding is carried out on A/C structure
ground run is given with a external battery
A/C is parked in side the hanger

Lead battery capacity out after initial charge and thereafter


a

(i)
(iii)
9.

(iv)

(ii)
3 months
Every year at the time of C of A renewal

Acid of lead acid battery neutralized with :(a)


(c)

10.

One month
6 months

Boric Acid
None of above

(b)

Bi-carbonate of soda(3-39)

A/C battery is :
(i)
An auxiliary source of electrical energy
(ii)
The main source of electrical energy in large A/C
(iii) (i) + the color of positive plate in the lead acid battery is chocklet
brown (9A-306)
(iv) (ii) + (iii)

11.

In a lead-acid battery the separators have vertical ribs on the side facing
the + ve plate. Its purpose is
(i)
To provide electrical conductivity between + ve & -ve plate through
the electrolyte
(ii)
To provide a path for plate material sediment to settle to the bottom
of the cell (9A-308)
(iii) To prevent electrical short have +ve & -ve plate
(iv) All are correct

12.

The material & color of positive plate in the lead-acid battery is


(i)
(iii)

13.

65 F
(ii)
between 70 degree F & 90 Degree F (9A-272)
between 90 degree 100 degree F (iv) All are correct

Constant Voltage method


(9A-313)
Constant Voltage variable current method
Constant current method
(iv) Any of the above

White powder on a properly serviced Ni Cd battery indicates(i)


(iii)

16.

PbO, chocklet brown


PbO, Gray

In AC batteries are charged by the following method(i)


(ii)
(iii)

15.

(ii)
(iv)

A temperature correction in sp Gravity of electrolyte is not necessary at


the following temp(i)
(iii)

14.

PbO, Gray
PbO2, chocklet brown

Normal operation
lader charging

(ii)
(iv)

Over charging (9A-314)


Overfilled electrolyte

What determines the amount of current which will flow through a


Battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source ?

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
17.

The total plate area of the battery.


The state-of-charge of the battery.
The ampere-hour capacity of the battery.
None of the above.

The purpose of providing a space underneath the plates in a lead


acid batterys cell container is to
(i)
Prevent sediment build up from contacting the plates and causing
A short circuit.(3-35)
(ii)
. of the electrolyte in order to proved from cooling
of the plates
(iii) Ensures that the electrolyte quantity ratio to the number of plates
and plate area is adequate
(iv) 1 & 3 are correct.

18.

The lead acid cell is said to be charged completely when


(i)
The cells starts gasing freely (9A-313)
(ii)
3 consecutive reading of hydrometer is same
(iii) Voltage per cell becomes 2.2V & above
(iv)
All the above

19.

Negative plate of Ni-Cd battery is of


(a) pure cadmium
(c)
cadmium hydroxide

(b)
(d)

nickel hydroxide
none

20.

Which statement is correct


(a)
battery terminal voltage is equal to battery emf.
(b)
Batter terminal voltage is less than batter emf
(c)
batter terminal voltage is more that batter emf.
(d)
depends on direction of current flow.

21.

In nickle cadmium battery


(a)
during discharging the current flows from the negative pole to
positive plate and oxygen atoms are driven out from the positive plate
(b)
electrical leakage is measured by millimeter between cell and
casting
(c)
both a & b

22.

In lead acid battery temperature correction factor is necessary


(a)
for temperature above/below 80 deg F ( .4 every 10 deg plus or
minus)
(b)
for temperature above/below 100 deg F
(c)
for temperature above/below 120 deg F
(d)
no correction is made

23.

When a new Ni-cd battery is installed its cell seal is opened and pour
electrolyte to ensure the full charge battery
(a)
no charge is required
(b)
charge is given and boost up and (A)

(b)
as in (b) and suddenly installed in a/c service
(d)
as in (b) and after two hours check the electrolyte and installed in
service
24.

What type of batter charger is recommended for final charging of Ni-cd


battery
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

25.

Ni-cad battery is rapidly charged with


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

26.

(b)
(d)

Dilute H2SO4
None

during all times in lead acid battery servicing


in Ni-cd battery at the end of charging
when battery is overcharged
both a & c

An A/C battery fails to perform 80% of its rated capacity which one should
be carried out
(i)
(iii)

31.

KOH
Concentrated H2SO4

Hydrogen gas is emits in the battery


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

30.

should have low internal resistance


should have high internal resistance
does not depend on internal resistance
None

Electrolyte used in lead acid battery


(a)
(c)

29.

constant current and variable voltage


constant voltage and variable current(3-40)
variable voltage and variable current
both a & b

For a battery to have high ampere hour capacity and high terminals
voltage
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

27.

constant current charger


constant voltage charger
both a & b
any one of the above

Cell balancing
Voltage recovery

(ii)
(iv)

Recycle Check
None

To neutralize acid deposits in lead acid battery compartments and to treat


acid burns from chemical cleaners use:
(i)
(iii)
(iv)

boric powder
(ii)
Baking soda
(9A-308)
Oil soluble detergent cleaner

mild soap solution

32.

Function of antimony in a grid of lead-acid battery is


(a)
(b)
(C)
(d)

33.

The sp. Gravity of electrolyte in a fully lead acid charged battery must be
between
(a)

34.

36.

1.275 to 1.300 at 80 deg F.


1.2 to 1.25

(b)
(d)

1.23 to 1.25
1.2 to 1.275

Negative plate of lead-acid battery is made of


(a)

35.

to make possible finer casting


providing space for more active material
harden the lead and make it less susceptible to chemical action
all the above

lead (3-35)
lead peroxide

(d)

KOH from eyes is washed with


(i)
Water(ii)
Boric acid (iii)

(b) lead oxide


none
Mild soapy water

Where battery or there acids have been spilled, the affected parts should
then be brushed with a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
cad.
(iv)

Diluted Acetic acid for nickel cd batteries to neutralize electrolytic


Dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate for lead acid batteries
Dilute solution of borax and nitric acid for both lead acid and nickel
batteries respectively
(i) and (ii) are correct (3-39/42)

37. Due to sparking in confined place in the presence of water, what is


produced
(i)
(iii)
38.

Errosion
Sulphuric acid

Nickle hydroxide (ii)


Powdered cadmium and its hydroxide
30% Solution of caustic potash
(iv) All of the above(3-41)

The electrolyte used in the NI-CD battery is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

40.

(ii)
(iv)

The active material of NI-cd battery are


(i)
(iii)

39.

Corrosion
Nitric acid

a 30% solution (by weight) of KOH in distilled water (3-41)


A 40% solution (by weight ) of KOH in distilled water
A 50% solution (by weight) of koh in distilled water
None

.Battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached
because
(i)
The acid in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity
of the solution.

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

41.

To neutralize the surface of Ni-cad battery compartment


(a)

42.

43.

Most of the acid is in the solution.


Increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to
prevent freezing.
Decreased internal resistance does not generating heat to
prevent freezing.

boric acid???check

(b)

water (c)

baking soda

(d)

all

Cellophane is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery from


a) Shorting between plates
c) Avoid leakage of electrolyte

b) Thermal runaway
d) All of these

Vicious cycle is connected to


(a) Nickel cadmium battery
(c) Dry cell

(b) Sulphuric acid battery


(d) None of the above

44. When applying gen left hand rule, your index finger points in the direction
the lines of magnetic flux travel, your thumb indicates the conductors direction of
movement, and your second fingure indicates the direcion of induced EMF.
45. When using the motor right hand rule, your right index finger indicates the
direction the magnectic flux flows, while your second fingure indicates the
direction of current flow and your thumb the direction the coil rotates.
46. Series wound DC generator have poor vol regulation capabilities and are
therefore not suitable for ac. However they are suitable for situations where a const
RPM and const load are applied to the gen.
47. The output and vol regulation capability of shunt type DC generator make them
suitable for light to medium duty use on ac. However, most of these units have
generally been replaced by DC alternators.
48. The amount of vol produced by a compound wound DC generator depends on
the degree of compounding. The flat-compound generator is one in which the no load
and full load vol have the same value. The under compoud gen has full load vol is
less than the no load vol and an over compound gen has a full load vol that is higher
than the no load vol.
ELECTRICITY(QB)
1.

The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to


a) Distance between the plate and inversely proportional to the

plate area
b) Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the
plate.
c) Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between
the plate
d) None of these
2.

The correct way to connect a test volt meter in a circuit is


a. In series with a unit
b. Between the source voltage and the load
c. In parallel with unit
d. Both (a) and (c) are correct

3.

Typical application of Zener diode is as


a. Full wave rectifiers
b. Half wave rectifier
c. Voltage regulator
d. Amplifier

4.

The method used to rapidly charge a Nickel Cadmium battery utilizes


a. Constant current and constant voltage
b. constant current and varying voltage
c. Constant voltage and varying current
d. Varying voltage and varying current

5.

Potential difference between two conductors insulated from each other is


measured in
a) Ampere
b) Coulomb
c) Ohm
d) Volt

7.

Which term means .001 ampere


a) Micro ampere
b) Milli ampere
c) Kilo ampere
d) Nano ampere

8.

Unit used to express electrical power is


a) Ampere
b) Volt
c) Watt

d) Coulomb

9.

Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of
electrical connection is
a) Induction
b) Air gap transfer
c) Not possible
d) Possible but will cause excessive arcing thus not practical

10.

Magnetic lines of force pass most readily through


a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Iron

11.

In a straight conductor, the resistance is not affected by


a) Length
b) Temperature

d) Titanium

c) Shape of cross section d) Material


12.

Power and work are measured in


a) Watt and force
b) Watt and joule
c) Ampere hour and jouled) Farad and joule

14.

The change in resistance depends upon


a) Temperature
b) Material and length
c) Cross sectional area
d) Both b) and c) are correct

15.

Most extensively used material in aircraft electrical cables is


a) Rubber and silk
b) Nylon and cotton
c) Teflon
d) Both b) & c) are correct

16.

In a parallel circuit
a) Total resistance is less than smallest resistor
b) Total resistance decreases when one of the resistance is removed
c) Total voltage drop is same as total resistance
d) All are correct

17.

If there are n numbers of cells, each having a voltage of E and resistance R,


then voltmeter connected across the electrolyte will indicate
a) nE
b) (n-1)E c) n(n - )E d) None of these

18.

A 12V bulb is connected in series and draws 3 amperes current from a 12V
battery. Its resistance and power will be
a) 36 ohms, 4 W
b) 4 ohms, 36 W
c) 1 ohm, 12 W
d) None of these

19.

i) AC current passing through a conductor creates emf around the conductor


ii) Frequency of radio wave radiated equals the frequency of the applied current
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

20.

Flux used for commutator wires and electrical connections


a) Zinc chloride
b) Zinc chloride by diluting with 50% alcohol
c) Alcoholic solution of rosin
d) Rosin

21.

While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspect


a) Ventilation system of a/c
b) Cable for chaffing
c) Quick disconnection mechanism
d) All of these

22.

What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold

a) 42000 10%
c) 12000 5%

b) 42000 5%
d) 22000 10%

23.

One of the effect of negative feed back in amplifiers is to


a) Increase the noise
b) Increase the harmonic distortion
c) Decrease the bandwidth
d) Decrease the harmonic distortion

25.

The device used to measure very high insulation resistance of electric cable is
a) High resistance voltmeter
b) Megger / Insulation resistance tester
c) Iron vane meter
d) Ammeter of high range

26.

If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the
battery will be
a) 6E
b) 3E
c) 4E
d) 12E

27.

Special test equipment comprising a meter and two cables each of specific
length, is required for checking the resistance of bonding. A meter widely
used , consists of an ohm-meter operating on
a) Principle of current ratio
b) Principle of voltage ratio
c) None of these

28.

Cellphane is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery from


a) Shorting between plates
b) Thermal runaway
c) Avoid leakage of electrolyte
d) All of these

29.

Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when


a) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees
b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same
direction
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these

30.

When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit, the true power is


a) More than the apparent power
b) Less than the apparent power
c) As in b) in reactive circuit and as in a) in inductive circuit
d) None of these

31.

Diodes are used in electrical power circuit primarily as


a) Switches
b) Rectifiers
c) Relays
d) Contactors

32.

If three resistors of 3, 5 and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28V circuit,


how much current will flow through the 3 ohms resistor?
a) 9.3 amps
b) 1.05 amps
c) 0.93 amps
d) 10.05 amps

33.

What is the value of a resistance if given colour codes as brown, black, brown,
black and brown.
a) 1010 ohms
b) 1000 ohms
c) 101 ohms
d) 10.1 K ohms

34.

What is the value of a capacitor if given colour codes are orange, orange, blue
and white.
a) 33nF
b) 33F
c) 33pF
d) 3300F

35.

The output of a astable multi-vibrator is


a) Triangular wave
b) Saw tooth wave
c) Sinusoidal wave
d) Square wave

36.

In an oscilloscope by varying intensity control, what actually varied internally?


a) Cathode voltage
b) Anode voltage
c) Grid voltage
d) Cathode current

37.

The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely


resistive circuit is given by
(A) 00
(B) 900
(C) 450
(D) 1350

38.

One micro farad is equal to


a) 0.001 milli farad
c) 1000 milli farad

b) 100 milli farad


d) 10 milli farad

39.

To smoothen the DC in rectifier, we employ


a) LPF
b. HPF
c) BPF
d) None

40.

The Voltage / Current across the short circuit


a)
V = max
I=0
b)
V=0
I = max
c)
V=0
I=0
d)
V = max
I = max

41.

Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel


across a supply, giving 27 ampere, then current through 15 ohm will
be
a) 27 amp
b) 12 amp
c) 15 amp
d) 1 amp

42.

Which plating process provide excellent base for paint


a)
Cd Plating
b) Zn Plating
c)
Granodizing
d) All of the above

43.

Which treatment give excellent base for paint


a) CR Plating
b) Parkerizing
c) Metal spraying
d) Zn plating

44.

The process use zinc as a medium for plating


a) Parkerizing
b) Sheradizing
c) Galvonizing
d) Both b) and c)

45. The term 10-5 farads mean


a. 1 mili-farad
b. 10 micro-farad
c. 10 nano-farad
d. None
46.

A capacitor consists of two


a) conductors separated by an insulator called the di-electric.
b) insulators separated by a conductor.
c) insulators separated by air medium.
d) conductors separated by air medium.

47.

In a capacitor electric charge is stored in


(a) metal plates
(b) di-electric
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

48.

Unit of m.m.f. is
(a) weber

49.

(b) gilbert

Joule/coloumb is the unit of


(a) electric field potential ???
(c) charge

(c) maxwell

(d) henry

(b) potential
(d) none of these

50.

In a lead-acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to


(a) idleness of battery for a long time
(b) low level of electrolyte
(c) persistent under charging
(d) all of them

51.

Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is


(a) dust particle
(b) iron
(c) lead crystals
(d) sodium chloride

52.

Overcharging of lead-acid battery will cause


(a) excessive gassing
(b) loss of active material
(c) increase in temperature resulting in buckling
(d) all of them

53. The energy of a capacitor having capacitance C and voltage V


is given by
(a) 0.5 CV2
(b) CV
2
(c) C V
(d) 0.5 C2V
54.

One unit of magnetic flux is given by


(a) Weber
(b) Weber per meter square
(c) Square root of Weber (d) Henery

55.

Generators works on the principle of


(a) Faradays law of electromagnetic induction
(b) Ohms law
(c) Biot - severts law
(d) Gausss law

56.

The Capacitance of a parallel plate is given by


(a) Ac / d
(b) A2C / d
(c) Ad / c

57.

If there are N number of cells, each having voltage E and


internal resistance r are connected in series, then the resulting e.m.f
of the circuit is given by
(a) NE volt

60.

(d) None

(b) E/N volt

(c) E volt

(d) NEr volt

The ability of magnet to restore magnetism is called


(a) Retentivity
(c) Store ability

(b) Permitivity
(d) both (a) & (c)

61.

If Im is the maximum current for sine AC then its R.M.S value


is given by
(a) 0.707 Im
(b) Im
(c) 0.5 Im
(d) 1.414 Im

62.

The relationship between voltage and current in a purely


inductive circuit is given by
(a) Voltage leads the current by 90
(b) Current lags the voltage by 90
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

63.

64

65.

By voltage division rule the voltage drop V1 in the circuit will be


(a) V1 = (R2 x Vs) / (R1+R2)
(b) V1 = (R1 x Vs) / (R1+R2)
(c) V1 = Vs x (R1+R2) / R1
(d) None
If inductance is doubled and the capacitance is halved , then
resonant frequency F0
(a) Doubled
(b) Halved
(c) Remains same
(d) Squared root of F0
50000000 Hz stands for
(a) 5 MHz (b) 0.5 MHz

(c) 50MHz

(d) 500 MHz

69.

Which statement is correct?


a) Battery terminal voltage is equal to battery emf.
b) Battery terminal voltage is less than battery emf.
c) Battery terminal voltage is more than battery emf.
d) Depends on direction of current flow.

71.

High discharge tester is used to check the


a) voltage of battery in normal operating condition.
b) efficiency of condenser.
c) generator output.
d) voltage of battery to find its charge condition and whether
recharging is required.

72.

Electrical power and energy is expressed in terms of


(a) Kilo Watt and Kilo Watt Hour respectively
(b) Watt and Joule respectively
(c) Watt and Watt Per Hour respectively
(d) Watt and Newton

73.Three phase winding rotate with 1800 rpm in magnetic field having 8 poles, its
frequency will be
(a) 120 Cycle/Sec
(b) 800 Cycles/ Sec
(c) 1200 Cycles/ Sec
(d) 1800 Cycles/ Sec
74.

Kirchoffs Law is applicable to


(a) DC
(b) AC
(c) DC circuit having resistance (d) AC & DC

75.Two wires each one meter long are kept at a distance of 0.02mt. apart. If 1 amp
current is flowing through each wire, then force acting in the wire will be
a) attractive if the direction of the current flowing through wires is same.
b) attractive if the direction of the current will be opposite.

c) repulsive if direction of the current will be reverse.


d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
76.

The symbol represents

(a) SCR, rheostat respectively


(b) rheostat, thyristor respectively
(c) resistor, FET (field effect transistor) respectively
(d) none of the above
77.

In which condition the bridge is said to be balance?


(a) R1 is increased, R2 is decreased
(b) R3 is increased, R4 is decreased
(c) R2 is increased, R3 is decreased
(d) when G is constant

78.

In case of battery which of the following quantity can be stored?


(a) energy
(b) charge
(c) current
(d) none of the above

79.

In a dry cell battery


(a) carbon electrode is placed centrally surrounded by
aluminium chloride electrolyte.
(b) zinc chloride is placed centrally surrounded by aluminium
chloride electrolyte.
(c) carbon electrode is placed centrally surrounded by zinc
chloride electrolyte.
(d) both (a) and (c) are correct.

80.The identical insulated wire coils are hung from air so that they are facing each
other and supplied with same direction a.c.
(a) both are attracted to each other
(b) both are repelled
(c) clockwise rotation
(d) anticlockwise rotation
81.

82.

Rheostat varies
(a) amount of current
(c) both (a) & (b)

(b) amount of voltage


(d) none

Potentiometer varies
(a) amount of current
(c) both (a) & (b)

(b) amount of voltage


(d) none

83.

At the center of a coil, amount of flux is concentrated maximum at


(a) starting of a coil
(b) end of a coil
(c) center of a coil
(d) remain equal at all places

84.

Negative plate of lead acid battery is


(a) lead
(b) lead peroxide
(c) lead sulphide
(d) spongy lead

85.

Plates of lead acid battery is made of


(a)lead + antimony on which active material is attached.
(b)lead + iron on which active material is attached.
(c)antimony + iron on which active material is attached.
(d) none

86.

MMF. is measured in Gilbert and symbolized by the capital letter.


(a) G
(b) F
(c) M
(d) W

87.

Solenoid relay is operated on


(a) high current
(b) low current
(c) high voltage
(d) low voltage

88.Construction of separator of a lead acid battery is made in such a way that it


circulates the electrolyte freely around the plates in addition it also provides a path
for sediments to settle.
(a) at the side of cell
(b) at the top of cell
(c) at the bottom of cell
(d) none
89.

Thermal protector is used to


(a) protect a motor
(b) to open the circuit automatically
(c) it operates when temperature is very high
(d) all of the above

90.

S/W designed for momentarily operation


(a) micro s/w
(b) push button s/w
(c) toggle s/w
(d) none

91.

Rotary S/W are used in


(a) voltmeter selector s/w
(c) both (a) & (b)

92.

(b) ignition s/w


(d) none

Starter relay s/w is made to operate


(a) intermitenty
(b) continuously
(c) could cause over heating if operated continuously
(d) both (a) and (c)

93.

Oil capacitors generally restricted to be used in


(a) radio transmitting equipment
(b) radar transmitting equipment
(c) both
(d) none

94.

In fixed mica capacitor the dielectric is made of


(a) metal plate
(b) mica
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none

95.

Mica prevents as a dielectric


(a) arching between the plates
(b) can withstand higher voltage
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

96.

The capacitor which provides large capacitance in small physical size is


(a) oil capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
(d) paper capacitor

97.

Wet-electrolytic capacitors must be mounted on


(a) horizontally
(b) vertically
(c) any position
(d) none

98.

The working voltage of a capacitor depends on


(a) type of material used as a di-electric
(b) thickness of di-electric
(c) frequency
(d) all of the above

100. Power factor is the ratio of


a) True power / apparent power
b) Apparent power / true power
c) Zero power / true power
d) None of the above
101. Transformer works on the principle of
a) Self induction
b) Mutual induction
c) Electromagnetic induction
d) Magnetic induction
102.

The factor, which determines whether a given transformer is stepped up or


steeped down, is given by
a) Current ratio
b) Voltage ratio
c) Power ratio
d) Turns ratio

103. The purpose of iron core in transformer is


a) Given electrical energy from the source
b) Isolates primary with secondary
c) Join primary with secondary
d) Provides low reluctance for magnetic lines of force
104.

If the ratio of the transformer input voltage to the output voltage is same as the
turn ratio then, transformer is said to be
a) 50% efficient
b) 110% efficient
c) 100% efficient d) 25% efficient

105. Which of the following transformer can approach 100% efficient


a) Iron core transformer
b) Ferrite core transformer
c) Copper core transformer
d) None of these
106. The range of frequency in the case of audio transformer is
a) 40 to 20000 c.p.s
b) 20 to 20000 c.p.s (360)
c) 100 to 10000 c.p.s
d) 10 to 10000 c.p.s
107. RF transformer utilizes
a) Iron core
b) Copper core
c) Magnetic core
d) Air core (360)
108. The symbol of autotransformer used for communication or navigation circuit is
(there is no symbol for iron core)
109. Copper loss in a transformer is caused by
a) Due to iron core
b) The resistance of the conductor comprising of the turns of the
coil
c) Due to no. of turns
d) None of the above
110. The range of paper capacitor is given by
a) 200 micro micro farads to several micro farads
b) 400 micro farads to 20 micro farads
c) 1 micro farad to 1000 micro farads
d) 200 micro farads to 400 micro farads

111. In radio and radar transmitters we generally prefer to use


(a) Oil capacitor
(b)Paper capacitor
(c)Mica capacitor
(d)Electrolyte capacitor
112. The range of mica capacitor is
(a)50 micro micro farads to 0.02 micro farads
(b)10 micro farad to 40 micro farads
(c)Greater than 40 micro farads
(d)None of these
114. Clamper is used to
a) Cut any portion of AC cycle
b) Shift its DC level
c) Change the frequency
d) Adjust the AC level
115. In conductor
a) Valence band is empty only
b) Conduction band is full only
c) Both are overlapped
d) VB, CB never combined
116. Two resistors (R1, R2) of 30 and 20 ohms respectively, are connected in parallel
across a 20V source. The current through R1 branch would be
a) 12A
(b) 10A
117. Which letter show as process code for achromatise
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
118. Symbol indicate
a) Electrical s/w
b) Chemical s/w
c) Electrolytic s/w
d) Electro-thermal s/w
119. The vacuum tube has
a) Directly heated anode
c) Directly heated cathode

b)
d)

Indirectly heated cathode


Indirectly heated anode

120. For aircraft generation plant inductor is 1H. The value of


capacitor should be
a) 1 / (800 )2 farad
b)
(800 ) farads
c) (400 ) farads
d)
800 farads

121. In one time constant, the capacitor charges to


a) 36.8% of its maximum value
b) 63.2% of its maximum value
c) 98% of its maximum value
d) None
1TC- 63.2 %
2TC- 86.5%
3TC- 95%
4TC- 98%
5TC- 100%
122. Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel
across a supply, giving 27 ampere., then current through 15 ohm will
be
a) 27 amp
b)
12 amp
c) 15 amp
d)
1 amp
136. Which is true statement about capacitor?
a) Blocks DC
c) Blocks AC

b)
d)

Allows DC
None

137. In a series connection


(a)Voltage is same across each element
(b)Current is same in each element
(c)Both are correct
(d)None
138. The symbol
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

indicates
Conductor
Capacitor
Condenser
Variable Condenser

139. If supply voltage = 30V, then working voltage of capacitor could be


a.
90V
b.
45V (50% more than supply vol)
c.
50V
d.
55V
140. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is split in the battery
compartment, which procedure should be followed

(a) Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by the
water
rinse
(b) Rinse the affected area thoroughly with the clean water.
(c) Apply sodium-bi-carbonate solution to the affected area followed by the
water rinse
(d) All of the above

ELECTRICAL GENERATORS AND MOTORS


GENERATOR
1.

Generators works on the principle of


a) Faradays law of electromagnetic induction(4-2)
b) Ohms law
c) Biot-severts law
d) Gausss law

2.

The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx.


a) 6 Psi
b) 8 Psi
c) 10 Psi
d) 12 Psi

3.

A four pole generator will have


a) 2 interpole
b) 4 interpole(4-11)
c) 6 interpole
d) 8 interpole

4.

In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the


voltage induced is
a) 90o apart
b) 120o apart(4-21)
c) 60o apart
d) 180o apart

5.

To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The
method used is
a) Interpole Method
b) Brush setting method
c) both (a) & (b)(4-11) d) None of these

6.

Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding to


a) Increase the life of brushes
b) Distortion of field
c) Reduces radio interference
d) All the above

7.

Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator to


a) Minimise ripple voltage
b) Maintain constant output
c) Minimise eddy Current loss
d) None of these above

8.

A 3 four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency of


a) 100 c/s
b) 200 c/s
c) 300 c/s
d) 400 c/s

9.

AC generator works on the principle of


a) Faradays law of electro-magnetic induction
b) Mutual induction
c) Self induction
d) All of these

10. The relationship between back emf and applied voltage in case of a dc motor is
given by
a) Eb = V + Ia Ra
b) Eb = V Ia Ra
c) Eb = V
d) None of these
11.

The direction of rotation of dc motor can be determined by


a) Flemings right hand rule
b) Flemings left hand rule(4-3)
c) Lenzs law
d) Amperes law

12.

An engine driven 50 Hz alternator has a speed of 750 rpm. How many poles it
has?
a) 6 poles
b) 4 poles
c) 2 poles
d) 8 poles

13.

The frequency of emf generated by a generator depends upon its


a) Speed
b) No. of ploles
c) Machine rating
d) Both a) & b)(4-26)

14.

Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when


(a)The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees
b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same
direction
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these

15.

The figure shown here is of


a) A simple gear train and the gear D moves at half speed of
gear A
b) As in a & the gear D moves in the same direction of the
gear A
c) A compound gear train & the gear D moves in the opposite
direction of the gear A
d) A simple gear train and the gear D moves in the opposite
direction at a double speed of gear A
100T 30
A

16.

30
C

50T
D

To get a basic D.C. generator from A.C. generator which of the

following arrangement is made?


(a) By replacing the slip rings of the A.C. generator with
commutator(390)
b) By the addition of extra slip rings
c) By connecting a rectifier
d) None of the above
17.

The rotating part of a DC generator is called


a) Field coil
b. Yoke
c. Armature (4-6) d. None of these

18.

Variations of D.C. voltage generated by D.C. generator is called


a) Ripple(4-4)
b. R.M.S. c. Average
d. Crest

19.

The brushes in generator are generally made up of


a) High grade carbon(4-4)
b) High grade silicon
c) High grade selenium
d) High grade zinc

22.

The e.m.f generated in armatures conductor of a D.C. machine is of nature


a) A.C
b)
D.C
c) Both
d)
AC and DC

24.

The ripples generated in DC generator may be reduced by using


a) More loops or coils(4-4)
b)
Less loop or coils
c) Both
d)
None of the above

25.

There must be an ______ number of poles in any generator


a) Even(391)
b)
Odd
c) Both
d)
None of the above

26.

The purpose of slotting in armature is


a) To increase mechanical safety(392)
b) To increase electrical safety
c) To increase both safety
d) None of these

28.

In DC machine the commutator surface is highly polished to


a) Reduce friction(393)
b) Reduce eddy current loss
c) Both
d) None of these

29.

Which of the following DC generator(s) can never be used with airplane?


a) Series wound D.C generator( because of poor regulation)(394)
b) Shunt wound D.C generator
c) Compound wound D.C generator

d) All of the above


32.

The output voltage of a series wound D.C generator may be controlled by


a) Using a rheostat in parallel with the field windings(394)
b) Using a rheostat in series with the field windings
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
This kind of gen can be used where constant load and constant RPM are applied
to gen.

33.

If a constant voltage is desired, which one of the D.C generator we would


prefer
a) Series wound D.C generator
b) Shunt wound D.C generator(4-9)
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

34.

In a compound wound generator the magneto motive force is equal to the


a) Sum of series and shunt field component(4-10)
b) Multiplication of series and shunt field component
c) Square of series and shunt field component
d) Square root of series and shunt field component

35.

A generator in which the no load and full load voltages have the same value is
called
(a) Flat compound generator(4-10)
Shunt generator
(B) Series generator
Both b and c

36.

Compound generators are usually designed to be


a) Over compounded(4-10)
b) Under compounded
c) Flat compounded
d) All of these

37.

In a situation where voltage regulation is of prime importance we prefer to use


a) Compound generator(4-10) b)
Series generator
c) Shunt generator
d)
All of these

38.

Differential generators are


a) Constant current generator(4-10)
b) Constant voltage generator
c) Constant power generator
d) None of these

39.

The main application of differential generator is


a) Electric arc welding(4-10)

b) Fans
c) Turbines
d) All of these
40.

If the shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the armature
and series field, then the connection is said to be
a) Long shunt connection(4-10)
b) Short shunt connection
c) Parallel connection
d) Both a and b

41.

Three wire generators are designed to deliver


a.
240 or 120 volts from either side of the neutral wire
b.
120 volts or 360 volts
c.
220 V or 440 V
d.
Both a and c

42.

The distortion of the magnetic field is called


a) Armature reaction(4-10)
b) Field reaction
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

43.

For parallel operation, the generators normally preferred are


a) Shunt generators
b) Series generators
c) Both a and b
d) Compound generator

44.

In D.C generators, a inter pole field coils are connected


a.
In series with armature winding
b.
In parallel with armature winding
c.
In series with load(4-12)
d.
In parallel with load

45.

In D.C generators the brushes are always placed along


a) Magnetic neutral axis
b) Geometrical neutral axis
c) Bisector of GNA and MNA
d) There is no hard and fast rule for this

ELECTRONICS
1.

2.

In outer shall of semiconductor, number of electrons are:


(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(ii) and (iii)

Zenes diode used for :(a)


(c)

3.

two terminal
(b) three junction
Two are forward biased and two are reversed bias

Increases
None

(b)

decreases

For junction transistors and vaccum tubes, which one is correct


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

7.

as an amplifier

When temp increases resistance of semiconductor


(a)
(c)

6.

As a amplifier

Silicon control Rectifier consist :(a)


(c)

5.

(b)

P.N. Junction diode not used :(a)

4.

Voltage Regulation
All are correct

they
they
they
they

have high input impedence


have low input impedence
are most efficient and are very cheaper
have high input and out put resistance

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Tick or pick the correct option :


A IGFET
(a) Intrupted Gate Field Effect transistor
B BJT
(b) Indicated Gate Field effect transistor
C MOSFET
(c) Bipolar Junction Transistor
D JFET
(d) Insulated Gate Field Effect transistor
(e) Metal oxide semiconductor Field effect Transistor
(f) Junction Field effect transistor
(g) Metal oxide silicon field effect transistor
(h) Junction field effect transistorized transist
A-d, B-c, C-e, D-f
A-b, B-C, C-g, D-f
A-a, B-c, C-e, D-h
A-a, B-c, C-e, D-f

8.

BREAKDOWN DIODE IS
(i)

Vaccume diode

(ii)

Zener diode(M-86)

(iii) None

9.

A vaccum diode can be used as a


(i)
(iii)

10.

No.
No.
No.
No.

of
of
of
of

electron increase while holes decrease


holes increase while holes decrease
electron and holes remain same
electron and holes increase equally (M-23)

Switches
Transformers

(ii)
(iv)

Rectifiers
Relays

In an N-P-N transistor application, the solid state device is turned


on when the
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

14.

Depletion of the positive charges near the junction


Concentration of charges near the junction
Depletion of negative charges near the junction
Concentration of (+ve) & (-ve) charges near the junction(M-28)

Diodes are used in electrical power circuits primarily as


(i)
(iii)

13.

Amplifier
Oscillator

When semi conductor is heated


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

12.

(ii)
(iv)

The cause of the potential barier in PN Junction diode is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

11.

Rectifier
Modulator

Emitter is positive with respect to the base.


Base is negative with respect to the emitter.
Emitter is negative with respect to the base
Base is positive with respect to the emitter.

Forward biasing of a solid state device will cause the device to


(i)
(iii)

Induct
Conduct

(ii)
(iv)

Conduct via zener break down


Turn off.

15.

Pure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

semiconductor shows
infinite resistance at 0 degree
increase in resistance with increase in temperature
decrease in resistance with increase in temperature
None

16.

In a transistors symbol the direction of arrow indicates


(a)
direction of electron flow in emitter
(b)
direction of majority charge carrier in emitter
(c)
direction of minority charge carrier in emitter
(d)
direction of hole flow in emitter

17.

When NPN transistor is used as an amplifier the electron flow from


(a) emitter to base
(b) base to collector
(c)
collector to base
(d) base to emitter

18.

Transistor used as
(a) voltage regulator/double
(c)
amplifier

(b)
(d)

rectifier
all are correct

19.

Zener diode
(a) has high forward voltage rating
(b) Has negative resistance
(c)
has sharp breakdown of low reverse voltage
(d) used as amplifier

21.

In tetrode the screen grid is


(a) Always at positive potential and the voltage is less than
the plate voltage

22.

In PNP transistor , holes diffuse from P region N regiont..


(a) higher level of energy
(b) thrillision
(c)
higher concentration of holes in P region
(d) none

23.

In a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

PN junction diode hole move from P region to N-region because of


diffusion(M-28)
pressure difference
higher concentration of holes in P-region
electrons in N-region attracts holes from P-region

24.

In a
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

PNP transistor application a solid state device is turned on when the


base is negative with the emitter
base is positive with the emitter
emitter is negative with the
any one of above

26.

If two end terminals of PN junction is connected through a connecting


wire
(a) a steady current flows from P type to N-type material
(b) no steady current flows from wire
(c)
steady current flows from n type material to p type material
through wire
(d) any one of the above

ELECTRONICS(QB)
1.

The vacuum tube has


a) Directly heated anode
b) Indirectly heated cathode (3-71)
c) Directly heated cathode
d) Indirectly heated anode

2.

The emitter resistor RE in a transistor amplifier is bypassed by a capacitor


a) To reduce the voltage gain
b) To increase the voltage gain
c) Causes thermal runaway
d) Stabilises the Q point

3.

A transistor is operating in the active region. Under this condition


a) Both the junctions are forward-biased
b) Both the junctions are reverse-biased
c) Emitter-base junction is reverse-biased, and collector-base junction is
forward-biased
d) Emitter-base junction is forward-biased, and collector-base junction is
reverse-biased

4.

The potential-divider method of biasing is used in amplifier to


a) Limit the input ac signal going to the base
b) Make the operating point almost independent of
c) Reduce the dc base current
d) Reduce the cost of the circuit

5.

For generating 1 KHz tone, the most suitable circuit is


a) Hartley Oscillator
b) Colpits Oscillator
c) Tuned-collector Oscillator
d) Wein-bridge Oscillator

6.

To generate a 1 MHz signal the most suitable circuit is


a) Wein-bridge Oscillator
b) Phase shift Oscillator
c) Colpits Oscillator
d) Hartley Oscillator

7.
In N-type semiconductors, the concentration of minority carriers mainly
depends upon
a) Doping technique
b) Number of donor atoms
c) Temperature of material
d) quality of intrinsic material
8.
Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV) across the non-conducting diode (Reverse biased) in
center tap full wave rectifier is equal to
a) Vm
b) 2/Vm
c) Vm/2
d) 2Vm
9.

Zener Breakdown in a diode is due to


a.
High electric field which causes covalent bonds to break (3-76)
b.
Due to the increased velocities of minority carriers
c.
Due to heating of junction due to heavy current
d.
None of the above

10.

The material used as heat sink in semiconductors is


(a) Silicon
(b) Germanium
(c) Carbon
(d) Selenium

11. When the conduction-band orbit of one atom may intersect the
hole orbit of another atom, merging of a free electron and a hole takes
place. This merging of electron and hole is known as
(a) Current flow
(b) Minority current flow
(c) Combination
(d) Recombination(M-25)
12.

The barrier potential at 25C in respect of silicon and germanium is


(a) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.3V (M-28)
(b) Si-0.3V and Ge-0.7V
(c) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.7V
(d) Si-0.3V and Ge-0.3V

13.

Once the breakdown voltage is reached, the diode can conduct


(a) Heavily(M-31)
(b) Very flow
(c) Moderately
(d) None of these

14.

An electronic device which converts alternating current into d.c. is called


(a) Detector
(b) Rectifier
(c) Oscillator
(d) None of these

15.

Which is low energy logic circuit?


(a) TTL
(b) ECL
(c) both (a) & (c)

(d) none

16.

For N P N transistor, arrowhead indicates the direction of


a) Minor holes current
b) Major holes current
c) Minor electron current
d) None

17.

To bypass the AC components, in any device, select most appropriate


a.
Inductor is connected in series
b.
Capacitor is connected in series
c.
Inductor is connected in parallel
d.
Capacitor is connected in parallel

18.

In a P-N-P transistors, the device is ON only when


a) Base is positive with respect to emitter
b) Base is negative with respect to emitter
c) Emitter is negative with respect to base
d) None

20.

The unit of magnetic flux is


a) wb/m2
b)
c) wb
d)

Mili Henry
Farads

DIGITAL
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Convert 37 decimal into binary


(a) 100101
(c)
101010

(b)
(d)

111111
110110

The logic symbol indicates


(a) OR-gate
(c)
NOT-gate

(b)
(d)

AND-gate
XOR-gate

Convert 11.75 into binary


(a)
1011.11
(c)
1011.10

(b)
(d)

1101.11
1111.01

Figure indicate
(a)
X-OR
(C)
CMOS-OR

(b) X-NOR
(D) X-NAND gate

Choose correct no used in hexadecimal


(a)
2
(b) 8
(c)

10

(d)

16

6.

Which statement is correct


(a)
Out put is energized when all the inputs energized in AND gate
(b)
Output is energized when more than one input energized in OR gate
(c)
Both (a) & (b)
(d)
None

7.

Convert 27 in binary no
(a) 11111
(b) 10111

8.

9.

(c)

11011

Which booleans algebra is not true


(a) A+B=B+A
(b)
(c)
A.A=0
(d)

(d)

11101

A.0=0
A.1=0

Which is used as universal building block (gate)


(a) AND
(b) NAND
(c)
OR

(d)

XOR

10.

Output is zero when one input is 1 or both inputs are 1, the gate is
(a) AND gate
(b) NAND gate
(c)
NOR gate
(d) OR gate

11.

Which is low energy logic circuit


(a) TTL
(b) FCL

(c)

Both a & b (d)

The truth table is for


(a) OR-gate
(c)
AND gate

(b)
(d)

X-OR gate
Both a & b

(110)2 is the binary of decimal


(a) 3
(b) 5
(c)

12.

13.

(d)

None

14.
15.
16.

For given figure which is correct .


(a) 0 0 1
(b) 1 0 1

(c)

110

(d)

100

(0.625)10=( )2
(a) 0.110

(b)

0.101

(c)

0.011

(d)

0.100

(1010101)2 = (
(a) 110

)10
(b)

85

(c)

75

(d)

95

17.

Which of the following are universal gates


(a) NAND & AND
(b) NOR & OR
(c)
NAND & NOR
(d) NONE

18.

Convert the 11.75 in to Binary.


(a)
(c)

19.

NAND or NOR

1100101000
100101000

(ii)
(iv)

1010101000
100010100

Any input being 1 will produce a 0 output


Any input being 1 will produce a 1 output
All inputs must be 1 to produce 1 output
All inputs must be 0 to produce 1 output

101

(ii)

111

(iii)

100

(iv)

None of the above

The binary number 11101 indicates the following decimal numbers


(i)
(iii)

24.

(b)

Binary equivalent of decimal 4 is


(i)

23.

AND or OR
NAND or OR

Which statement concerning the depicted logic gate is true


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

22.

1101.11

296 is equal to following binary


(i)
(iii)

21.

(b)

Which is universal gate :(a)


(c)

20.

1011.10
1011.11

28
30

(ii)
(iv)

29
27

Which gate has parallel gate


(i)

AND gate

(ii)

OR gate

(iii)

NOR gate

DIGITAL ELECTRONICS(QB)
1.

Minimising the expression


Y=A B C + A B C D + A B C D E + A B + A B C D E + A the output is
a) Y=A
b) Y=1
c) Y=A+ AB
d) Y=AB

2.

Y= (5, 15, 23, 29, 37, 47, 55, 61) + X (7, 13, 21, 31, 39, 45, 53, 63)
a) Y=EF
b) Y= AB c) Y=CD + EF
d) Y=BD

3.

In excess 3 codes, BCD 1001 will be written as


a) 9
b) 1011
c) 1100

d) 1001

4.

If active low output is required for checking odd parity we will use
a) AND gateb) OR gate
c) XOR gate
d) XNOR gate

5.

Which series of ICs is used for military purpose?


a) 7400 series
b) 74H00 series
c) 5400 series
d) 74 L S 00 series

6.

If a demultiplexer is converted into decoder, to get output high on required


output lines, we will tie date line to
a) OV
b) Ground
c) Either a) or b)
d) +VCC

7.

Which of the following relation is correct?


a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vc/Vd]
b) Vo=AcVc[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]
c) Vo=AdVd[1+CMRR . Vc/Vd]
d) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]

8.

Due to which action, flip flop act as memory unit


a) Feedback action
b) Amplifying action
c) Oscillating action
d) All of these

9.

In RS flip flop R=O, S=1 then action of flip flop is


a) Reset
b) Set
c) No change
d) Forbidden

10.

In D flip flop, the input to S & R terminals will be


a) S=R
b) R=S
c) Both of these
d) None of above

11.

If a D flip-flop is to switch from 0 to 1, then input is to be kept high for at least


time T where
a) T= t setup + t hold
b) T= t setup + t hold + t propagation delay
c) T= t setup + t hold - t propagation delay

d) T= clock period
12.

JK Flip flop is dividing the input frequency by 2, then its condition is


a) J=0, K=0
b) J=0, K=1
c) J=1, K=0
d) J=1, K=1

13.

In decimal to BCD decoder


a) 1 input, 10 output
c) 4 input, 10 output

b) 10 input, 4 output
d) 10 input, 1 output

14.

If SUB pin is high in a Adder-subtractor circuit, then circuit is;


a) Adding Two bytes
b) Subtracting input byte from output
c) Subtracting output byte from input
d) Adding 2s complement byte to the other byte

15.

The output of NOT gate is always


a) High
b) Low
c) Same as input
d) Complementary of input

16.

Two switches are connected ___________ to obtain AND gate function


a) In series
b) In parallel
c) Either parallel or series
d) None of above

17.

Which gate is known as universal gate


a) OR gate
b) NOR gate
c) AND gate
d) XOR gate

18.

The fastest logic gate is


a) TTL
b) ECL
c) DTL
d) RTL

19.

The Boolean expression Y of two inputs ExNOR gate is


a) Y = A . B + A B
b) Y = A . B + A B
c) Y = A . B + A B d) Y = A . B + A B

20.

To remove half cycle of AC input voltage, we can employ


a) Clamper circuit
b) Clipper circuit
c) Zener diode
d) LED
One nibble is equal to
a) 8 bits
b)
4 bytes c) 8 bytes d) 4 bits

21.
22.

Binary equivalent of (29)10 is

a) 11101

b) 10101

c) 10011

23.

Decimal equivalent of (10111011101)2 is


a) 1500 b) 1401 c) 1501 d) 1600

24.

Binary equivalent of (91.75)10 is


a)
010110.11
b) 1110011.11
c)
1011011.11 d) 1011010.1

25.

Binary addition of (11011+111+11)2


a)
100101
(b) 110101
c)
010101
(d) 101101

26.

The Boolean expression for output A


B
C
a) Y=(A.B).C
b) Y=A.B.C
c) Y=(A.B).C
d) Y=A.(B.C)

27.

d) 11111

How many bits are there in 1KB?


a) 1000 bits
b) 1024 bits
c) 2048 bits
d) 108 bits

28. The output is high only when both input are different. The device is
a) AND gate
c) EXOR gate
29.

NAND gate
EXNOR gate

A FET is a device, which is


a)
b)
c)
d)

30.

(b)
(d)

Current driven
Voltage driven
Power driven
None

The condition for sustaining oscillations in resonant circuit is


a)
b)
c)
d)

XL > XC no feed back


R = XL and +VE feedback
XL=XC and positive feedback
R=XC no feedback

31.

The oscillator, which does not employ LC tank circuit


a) Hartlay
c) Crystal

b)
d)

Collpit
Clapp

COMPUTER
1.

Which one is input device


(a)
(c)

2.

(b)
(d)

millions of instruction
None

consists of finite no of steps and outputs are definite


consists of infinite no of steps
May not have out put
None

programme
disk operating system

(b)
(d)

processing unit
All

hard disk

(b)

ROM

(c) RAM

(d) Floppy

programme
Operating system

(b)
(d)

language
All

(b)
(d)

diode
chips

Most latest device used in computer


(a)
(c)

9.

one instruction
two instruction

Software is
(a)
(c)

8.

a software
operating system

A starting date is given on


(a)

7.

(b)
(d)

DOS is a
(a)
(c)

6.

a part of CPU
a input/output peripheral

Algorithm
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

5.

mouse
all are correct

Computer processes at a time


(a)
(c)

4.

(b)
(d)

MODEM (Modulator-demodulator) is
(a)
(c)

3.

keyboard
telephone line

microprocessor
transistor

The main control unit of computer in present is


(a) VDU
(b) CPU
(C) Key board
(d) Hard disk

10.

Analogue computer is
(a) more correct than digital computer
(b) less accurate than digital computer
(c)
equal to digital computer
(d) none

11.

In computer machine level language is


(a) high level language
(b)
(c)
very high level language
(d)

low level language


none

Decimal equivalent to binary no 110 is


(a) 2
(b) 3
(c)

12.
13.

UNIX
(a)
(b)
(c)

14.

The most powerful computer is


(a) micro computer
(b)
(c)
mini computer
(d)

(d)

is
single operating unit
double operating unit (multi purpose)
CAD and record of engineering organization
super computer
laptop computer

15.

The difference between digital and analog computer


(a) analog computer has large memory
(b) digital computer has high cost and is difficult to program
(c)
analog computer is less accurate
(d) (b) and (c) are correct

16.

Excess speed of computer depends upon


(a) software used
(b) frequency and signal received
(c)
both software and hardware used
(d) only on hardware used

17.

The devise having greatest memory


(a) Winchester type disk
(b) tape type recording instrument
(c)
floppy disk
(d) None

18

Which is related to memory


(a)

hard disk

(b)

key board

19.

Representation of GATES is
(diagrams)

20.

A modern digital computer use


(a)
Octal No
(b) Hex (c)

(c) CD-ROM (d) Monitor

Binary No.

(d)

None

21.

Computer perform only the calculation


(a)
Simple
(b)
Complex
(c)
Problem which split into no of logic steps
(d)
None

22.

The input of computer primarily goes to the


(a)
RAM
(b) ROM (c) Floppy disc

(d) Hard disc

24.

Digital system of computer is working on


(a) decimal
(b) binary
(c)
hexagonal
(d) octagonal

25.

The process capacity of a computer is determined by


(a) MHZ
(b) KHZ
(c)
RAM
(d)
frequency

26

Computer consist :(a)

27.

8 bits
24 bits

(ii)
(iv)

16 bits
32 bits

Primary storage device


Input device

(ii)
(iv)

Secondary storage device


Output device

Process management
Security

(ii)
(iv)

Memory management
All of the above

Milli seconds
Nono seconds

(ii)
(iv)

Micro seconds
Mega seconds

EDP stands for


(i)
(iii)

37.

RAM, ROM, PROM

Modern computers work with a speed in


(i)
(iii)

36.

(b)

Main functions of operating system is


(i)
(iii)

35.

RAM, CAM, DCM

Scanners are
(i)
(iii)

32.

Out put device, CPU, Input device

1 byte is equal to how many bits


(i)
(iii)

30.

(b)

Computer Memory consists of :(a)

28.

ALU, CU, CPU

Electrical Data processing


Entry data processing (iv)

(ii)
Electronic data processing
Electronic discrete programme

Input unit of a computer communicate between

(i)
(iii)
39.

600 to 1200 dpi


700 to 1200 dpi

None of the above

(ii)
(iv)

page printer
Embossed printer

Language processing
Lingustics processing

(ii)
(iv)

List processing
(i) and (ii)

Microprocessor unit should have at least


(ii)

ALU

(iii)

Memory

(iv)

Monitor

(ii)
(iv)

Program of flow chart


All

Algorithm is
(i)
(iii)

46.

(iv)

(ii)
800 to 1600 dpi
(iv) None of the above

impact printer
Line printer

(i) CPU
44.

LSI

LISP stands for :


(i)
(iii)

43.

ULSI (iii)

Laser printers are :


(i)
(iii)

42.

VLSI (ii)

Laser printers have resolution of


(i)
(iii)

41.

Memory with printer


Out put and computer

Fifth generation uses which technology


(i)

40.

Operator and computer (ii)


CPU with monitor
(iv)

Program
Calculations

Which of the following best describes a computer based information


system
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Inputting Data
Processing data
A system in which a computer is used to turn data into information
Performing complex mathematical calculation

1.

The unit where calculations are processed is called


a) Central processing unit (CPU)
b) Control unit
c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU)
d) Computing unit

2.

Sequence of steps for computing a program is known as


a) Flow chart
b) Sequence process
c) Algorithm
d) None of these

3.

Basic function of a computer is


a) Addition
b) Multiplication

c) Division

d) All are correct

4.

EDP stands for


a) Electrical data processing
b) Electronic data processing
c) Entry data processing
d) Electronic discrete programme

5.

A computer basically
a) Processes data
b) Stores data as per given instructions
c) Perform mathematical calculations
d) All are correct

6.

Computer stores instructions in


a) English language
b) Decimal number system
c) Octal number system
d) Binary

7.

Assembler is
a) An individual who assembles computer
c) Programme

b) Language
d) None of these

8.

Input unit of a computer communicates between


a) Operator & computer
b) Memory with printer
c) CPU with monitor
d) Output & computer

9.

Primary memory of a computer are


a) RAM, ROM
b) RAM, ROM, PROM
c) RAM, ROM, CPU
d) RAM, ROM, Hard Disc

10.

Hard disc & floppies are


a) For different purpose
b) For same purpose but hard disc stores more information
c) For same purpose but hard disc stores less information
d) None of these

11.

The symbol for hexa-decimal is


a) 2
b) 8
c) 10

14.

Which of the following is a storage device?


a) Mouse
b) Monitor
c) CPU
d) Hard disk

15.

RAM stands for


a) Read & access memory
c) Record and maintain

d) 16

b) Random access memory


d) None of these

16.

In computer terminology, MICR means


a.
Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
b.
Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition
c.
Monitor Indicating Computer Relay
d.
Mass Information Computer Record

17.

Which of the following memories has got equal access time for
all locations of the memory limit?
a) Read Only Memory (ROM)
b) Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM)
c) Random Access Memory (RAM)
d) Erasable ROM

20.

The unit where calculations are preferred is called


(a) Central processing unit (CPU)
(b) Control Unit
(c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU)
(d) Computing unit

27.

Computer performs only the calculation i.e.


(a) simple
(b) complex
(c) problem with split into number of logic step
(d) none

28.

Out of the following memory types, one that is volatile


a.
Magnetic Disk
b.
Ferrite Core
c.
Semi Conductor ROM
d.
Semi Conductor RAM

30.

The heart of digital computer is


(a) I/O
(b) Processor (c) CPU

31.

(d) None of the above

Semi conductor memories are


a.
Volatile
b.
Non-Volatile
c.
Volatile as well as Non-Volatile
d.
Neither Volatile nor Non-Volatile

32. The decimal number 422 is equal to which of the following hexadecimal number
(a) 6A
(b) A6
(c) 6A1
(d) 1A6
33.

The decimal equivalent of 101.101 is


a) 5.625
(b) 7.625
(c) 45

(d) 47

34. High speed semi conductor memory, which is used as additional memory device
(a) ROM (b) PROM (c) Cache memory (d) None of these

35. From the point of view of integration, a microprocessor chip employs


a) S.S.I (Small Scale Integration)
b) M.S.I (Medium Scale Integration)
c) L.S.I (Large Scale Integration)
d) G.S.I (Grand Scale Integration)
36.

Floppy disk is a
(a)
Flexible storage
(b)
Permanent storage
(c)
ROM
(d)
Fast storage

37.

MODEM is a
a) Code changing system
b) Programme conversion system
c) Modulator Demodulator system
d) Demodulator modulator system

38.

Every processor must necessarily have a


a)
Data bus
b)
Data bus & Address bus
c)
Control bus
d)
Data bus, Control bus & Address bus

39. A device that works in conjunction with a computer but not as part of it is called
(a) Hardware
(b) Memory
(c) Microprocessor
(d) Peripheral device
41. Which of the following storage has greatest capacity with less cost per bit?
a) Semi conductor memory
b) Magnetic tape
c) Magnetic drum
d) None of these
42.

Which of the following statement is true?


a) Compiler is the name given to the computer operator
b) Compiler is the part of the digital machine to store the information
c) Compiler is the translator of source program to object program
d) Compiler is the name given to the punched tape

43. Trace the value for binary addition


(a) 0 with a carry of 1
(b) c1 with a carry of 1
(c) 1 with no carry

(1 + 1)

(d) 0 with no carry


45. The access time for semi conductor memories is of the order of
a) A few milliseconds
b) A few microseconds
c) A few nanoseconds
d) A few seconds
46. Semiconductor memories are faster than magnetic memories
True
False
47.

The memory unit that communicates directly with the CPU is called
a) Main memory
b) Auxiliary memory
c) Cache memory
d) EPROM

48. The flow chart is a


a) Systematic representation of a task
b) Systematic representation with logical decision
c) Systematic pictorial representation with logical decision
d) Random representation of a task
50.

Access speed of computer depends upon


a) Software used
b) Frequency and signal received
c) Both Software and Hardware
d) Only Hardware

51. Which are related to the memory


1. Hard disk
2. Key board

3. CD ROM

A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 2 & 4
53.

Which language is the oriented language?


a) PASCAL
b) BASIC
c) FORTRAN
d) COBOL

54.

In third generation computer


a) Integrated circuits are used

4. Monitor

b) Microprocessor is used
c) Transistors are used
d) None of the above
55.

The unit of Memory is


a) Bytes
b) Mega bite
c) Mill
d) Byles

57.

In computer machine level language is


a) A High Level Language
b) Low Level Language
c) Very High Level Language
d) None

58.

A modern computer uses


a) Decimal language
b) Binary language
c) Hexadecimal language
d) All of the above

59. When data has to be read, the control structure will be


a) In sequence
b) In sequence and repetition
c) Repetition and sequence
d) None of them
60. Universal Gates are
a) AND & OR Gates
b) NAND & NOR Gates
c) NOT & NAND Gates
d) Ex. OR & Ex. NOR Gates
63.

The conversion of (010100)2 into Octal is


(a) (24)8 (b) (28)8 (c) (26)8 (d) (50)8

64. A computer consists of


(a) Printer, Decoder, Memory
(b) Input, Output, CPU
(c) Input, Output, Printer
(d) None of the above
65. Computer viruses can spread from one computer to another by means of
a) An infected disk
b) Links to a network
c) Any electronic communication medium

d) All of the above are correct


66. FORTRAN & COBOL are
a) High Level Language
c) Machine Language
31.

Super computers use


(i)
(iii)

33.

Parallel processing
All of the above

Floppy
Magnetic disk

(ii)
(iv)

CD
Floppy and CD

Sequency and selection


Sequence and repetition

(ii)
(iv)

Repetition and selection


Sequence

Which of the following is the internal memory of the computer


(i)
(iii)

12.

(ii)
(iv)

To solve fifteen step problem computer will work in


(i)
(iii)

45.

Multiprocessing
Multiprogramming

Which one, among following is having fastest running speed:


(i)
(iii)

38.

b) Assembly Language
d) Fourth Generation Language

CPU Register
Main memory

Algorithm uses
a) One input, one output
c) One input, multiple output

(ii)
(iv)

Cache
All of the above

b) One input, two output


d) None of these

18.

Which of the following is more useful for taking backups?


(a) Floppy disk
(b) Hard Disk
(c) Optical Disk
(d) Cartridge

19.

One Megabyte is _____________ bytes.


(a) 1048576 (b) 1000
(c) 102756

(d) 10

44. Which of the following memories will be used to store variable quantities or data
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) PROM
d) EPROM

DRAWING
1.

The missing edge or planes are shown by


(a) dotted line
(b) dashed line
(c)
hidden line
(d) all

2.

The line used for reference of parts is


(a) reference line
(b)
(c)
phantom line (5-13)
(d)

hidden line
black line

3.

In engineering drawing the line indicate the alternate position of parts or


relative position of a missing part
(a) Hidden line
(b) Phantom line (5-13)

4.

Vertical location of the structure in aircraft is indicated by


(a) butt line
(b) Water line (5-17) (c)
station line

5.

What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blue print


to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer:
(i)
Medium weight continuous line
(ii)
(iii) Alternate short and long light dashes
(iv) Medium weight dashed line (5-13)

6.

(d) all

Medium curved line

Lines made up of alternate long and short dashes in the drawing are
called
(i)
(iii)

Dimensional line
Datam lines

(ii)
(iv)

Centre lines(5-13)
Hidden lines

7.
In the drawing lines indicated the alternate position of parts of the object
and are composed of one long and two short evenly spaced dashes is known as
(i)
(iii)
8.

Break lines
Phantom lines(5-13)

(ii)
(iv)

Sectioning lines
Stitch lines

Drawing line consisting of a series of evenly spaced dashes is called


(i)
(iii)

Stitch lines(45)
centre lines

(ii)
(iv)

dutum lines
dimensional lines

9.
In the drawing, lines consists of short dashes evenly spaced and
frequently referred as dash lines are known
(i)
(iii)
10.

Phantom lines
Sectioning lines

(ii)
(iv)

Break lines
Hidden lines(5-13)

Phantom lines indicate:


(i)

Alternate position of the parts of the object(5-13)

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
11.

Short break lines are made:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

13.

Phantom line.
Break line.

(ii)
(iv)

Hidden line(5-13).
Broken line.

The sketch giving the description of object made up of two or more parts
(a)
(c)

15.

by solid ruled lines with Zig-Zag


by the solid, thick free hand line(5-13)
evenly spaces sort dashes
Both (i) and (iii)

A line used to show an edge is not visible is a


(i)
(iii)

14.

Relative position of the parts of the object


Both (i) and (ii)
Exposed surfaces of an object

detail drawing
installing drawing

(b)
(d)

assembly drawing (5-3)


none

In drawing which shows the position of part in relation to other is


(a)
(c)

detail drawing
installation drawing(5-3)

(b)
(d)

assembly drawing
sectioning drawing

16. What type of diagram is used to explain a principle of operation , rather


than show the parts as they actually appear
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
17.

One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

18.

Functional location of components within a system(5-8)


Physical location of components within a system
Location and lay out of pipe line
Size and shape of components within a system

Schematic diagrams are used mainly for


(a)
(c)

19.

A schematic diagram( (ii)


Medium curved line
As in (i) and it will show how they function
A Block diagram

a/c maintenance and repair


installation of parts

(b)
(d)

trouble shooting(5-8)
all of the above

A hydraulic system schematic drawing typically indicates the


(i)
(ii)

Specific location of the individual components within the a/c


Direction of fluid flow through the system(5-8)

(iii) Amount of pressure in the pressure and return lines, and in system
components
(iv)
None of the above
20. What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an a/c wing
skin repair
(a)
(c)
21.

may out the repairs


draw extension lines

Auxiliary view (5-10)

(ii) Front view

(iii)

Top view

In first angle projection


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

23.

(b)
(d)

A part at an angle to the plane is truelly designated by


(i)

22.

draw heavy guide ness


Block in the views (49)

Plan is above the front view


Plan is below the front view (BL/1-4)
Plan is one of the side view
None of the above

Orthographic projection shows


(i)
the objects as they actually are in shape when viewed from vertical
and Horizontal plane
(ii)
the objects as they actually are in size when viewed from vertical
and Horizontal plane
(iii) Both (i) and (ii)
(iv) As in (iii) unless for convenience the drawing is scaled up or down
(BL/1-4)

24.

Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection?


(i)
It will have only 3rd angle projection
(ii)
There are always a least two view
(iii) It could have as many as eight view.
(iv) One-view, two-view and three-view drawings are the most common
(5-10)

25.

A revolved section shows :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26.

The shape of the cross section of a part (42)


Curvature of the round shaped parts
Cross section such as spoke of a wheel (42)
None

Limits of partial view or sections when the line is not on axis are shown in
the drawing by
(i)
Continuous (thin) lines
(ii)
Continuous short dashes (thin) lines
(iii) Continuous irregular (thin) lines
(iv) Chain (thin) lines

27.

Which of the following statement is not correct


(i)
In pyramid shapes all the faces are rectangular
(ii)
In prismatic shapes all the faces are rectangular
(iii) In pyramid shapes all the edges meet at a point
(iv) In prismatic shapes all the edges are parallel to each other

28.

The measurements showing the ideal or perfect sizes of parts on drawings


are called
(i)
(iii)

29.

(ii)
(iv)

Dimensions(5-14)
Tolerance

Which material symbol is frequently used in drawings to represent all


metals
(i)
(iii)

30.

Allowances
1 & 2 are correct

Steel
Wood

(ii)
(iv)

Cast iron(5-13)
Aluminium

When a right circular cone is cut by a plane perpendicular to the axis it is


obtained
(i)
(iii)

Circle
(ii)
Hyperbola (iv)

Ellipse
Both (i) & (ii)

1.

Choose the correct sets of angles of set square of one piece


a) 450 x 300
b) 300 x 900
c) 450 x 600
d) 600 x 600

2.

Phantom line is used for indicating the __alternate_ position of part


a) Actual
b) Hidden
c) Relative
d) None of these

3.

Mark the correct statement


a) The arrow head length is equal to double of its width
b) The arrow head length is equal to triple of its width
c) The arrow head length is equal to its width
d) None of these

4.

Top view falls on the


a) Horizontal plane
b) Vertical plane
c) Half in horizontal and half in Vertical plane
d) All above cases may be possible

5.

For accurate location of particular area on an a/c, which of the following is


necessary?
a) Water line
b) Buttock line

c) As in a) & b) in conjunction with fuselage station line (5-16)


d) None
6.

Taper on a shaft is indicated along the


a) Centre line
b) Base line

c) Dimension line

7.

Set squares can be used for drawing


a) Vertical line
b) Inclined line
c) Parallel line
d) All of the above

8.

The basic difference in datum line and phantom line is


a) Thickness of lines
b) Length of lines
c) No. of lines
d) None of these

9.

A straight line parallel to a vertical plane has


a) A line of same length in front view and point in top view
b) A line of same length in both views
c) A line of same length in top view and point in front view
d) None of these

10.

Chain (thick line of 0.7mm) indicates


(a) Visible outlines and edges
(b) Hidden outlines and edges
(c) Surface which have to meet special requirements (BL/1-4)
(d) Cutting planes.

12. In _______________ projection, the projectors are perpendicular to the plane of


projection.
(a) isometric
(b) oblique
(c) orthographic
(d) perspective
13. In third angle projection method, the top view is always above the ___________
view.
(a) front
(b) right side
(c) left side
(d) pop
14. In isometric projection, each of the three axes makes an angle of
_____________ with the other two.
(a) 60o
(b) 90o
(c) 180o
(d) 120o (6-11)

15.

A full size drawing paper is available approximately of


(a) 565 x 565mm
(b) 565 x 765mm
(c) 765 x 565mm
(d) none of these

16.

The size of the title block as recommended by the B. I.S. is


(a) 185 x 65mm
(b) 18.5 x 6.5cm
(c) 184 x 6cm
(d) 18.9 x 6.9cm

17.

An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of ___________


(a) two parts only
(b) two or more parts(5-3)
(c) four parts only
(d) none of these

18.What is the primary purpose of showing the assembly drawing?


(a) Relationship of the various parts(5-3)
(b) Clear picture of different parts
(c) clear view of single part
(d) None of these

WEIGHT AND BALANCE


1.

Wt of A/C which includes all operating equipment that has a fixed location
and is actually installed on the aircraft is called:(i)
(iii)

2.

(ii)
(iv)

Tare weight
Empty weght (56)

The maximum weight of an aircraft is the


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

3.

Pay load
Use ful load

Empty
Empty
Empty
Empty

weight
weight
weight
weight

plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo and baggage.


plus crew, passengers and fixed equipment.
plus useful load (56)
only.

Zero fuel weight is the


(i)
Max permissible weight without passenger, crew and cargo.
(ii)
Dry weight plus the weight of full crew, passengers and cargo.
(iii) Basic operating weight without crew, fuel and cargo.
(iv) Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (ie. With
passenger, Crew and cargo) without fuel (58).

4.

The max. allowable weight of a loaded aircraft with out fuel is known as :
(i)
(iii)

5.

(ii)
(iv)

Zero fuel weight(58)


(ii) and (iii) are correct

When an a/c with full oil tanks is weighed the weight of the oil
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

6.

Empty weight
Pay load

Must be added in the recorded readings


Must be subtracted in the recorded readings to arrive at EW.(59)
Must be added in the empty weight
None of the above

The empty weight of an airplane is determined by


(i)
Adding the net weight of each weighing point and multiplying the
measured distance to the datum
(ii)
Adding the net weight(Subtracting the tare weight from the scale
reading) of each weighing point (63).
(iii) Multiplying the measured distance from each weighing point to the
datum times the sum of scale reading less the target WEIGHT.

7.
When computing weight and balance an airplane is considered to be in
balance when
(i)
Ballast weight is added
(ii)
The average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG
range

(iii) All moment arms of the plane falls within CG range


(iv) The moment of the passengers will not cause the moment arms to
fall outside the CG range
8.

Substrating the empty weight from the allowable gross weight is to


determine:
(i)
(iii)

9.

Useful load(56)
Zero fuel weight

(iv)

(ii)
Pay load
Ballast weigh

Useful load consists of :


(i)
max. oil, fuel and passengers
(ii)
max. oil, fuel, passengers and their baggage
(iii) max oil, fuel, passengers baggage, pilot, copilot
members(56)
(iv) Passengers, baggage, pilot copilot and crew members

10.

crew

Ballast is used for


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

11.

and

Bringing the c.g. within c.g. points


leveling the lateral arm on central point
both a & b
none

A point on Aircraft about which the nose and tail heavy moments are
exactly equal in magnitude is known as :
(i)
Datun
(ii)
Centre of gravity
(iii) As in (ii) and it is the point at which the weight of an aircraft is
concentrated (56)
(iv) None of the above

12.

Operating centre of gravity range is determined at the time of :


(i)
(iii)

13.

Design and manufacture(57) (ii)


Issuing the C of A
(iv)

Loading the aircraft


All of the above

While weighing an Aircraft unless, other wise noted in the Aircraft


specification
(i)
(ii)
filled
(iii)
(iv)

Hydraulic reservoirs and system should be drained


Drinking and washing water reservoirs and lavatory tanks should be
Constant speed drive oil tanks should be filled (61)
All of the above

14. Which of the following can provide the empty weight of an aircraft if the
aircrafts weight and balance records become lost, destroyed, or other wise
inaccurate?

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
15.

Reweighing the aircraft


The applicable aircratt specification or type certificate data sheet
The applicable flight manual or pilots operating handbook.
Both (ii) and (iii) are correct

Empty weight centre of gravity range.


(i)
It is an allowable variation of travel within the C.G. limits
(ii)
When loading the a/c it is impossible to exceed the EWCG limits
(iii) Not all a/c have this range indicated on the a/c specification or type
certified data sheet
(iv) This range is valid only as long the a/c is loaded according to the
standard specification
(v)
All the above. (57)

16.

The location of the M.A.C. in relation to the datum is given in the


(i)
a/c specification
(ii)
Type certificate data sheet
(iii) The weight and balance report
(iv) As in (i), (ii) & (iii) and also the a/c flight manual(57)

17.

A manufacturer can weight the Aircraft to compute the weight and


balance report. A manufacturer is permitted to weigh one Aircraft out of
each:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

18.

An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal measurement


Are taken with A/C in level flight attitude in known as :
(i)
(iii)

19.

100 Aircraft manufactured


50 Aircraft manufactured
20 Aircraft manufactured
10 Aircraft manufactured(53)

The datum(6-4)
The armn

(iv)

(ii)
The C.G
The fulcrum

The choice of locating the datun


where it is most convenient for
measurement locating equipment etc is of :
(i)
(iii)
(iv)

A.M.E.
(ii)
Owner or operator of A/C
The manufacturer(6-5)
Regulating Authority of country of manufacture

WEIGHT AND BALANCE(QB)


1.
What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty
weight
(a) Remove all items except those on aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and
hydraulic fluids

(b) Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and
hydraulic fluid weight
(c) Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and
fill hydraulic reservoir(6-7)
(d) All of these
2.

Useful load of an aircraft is the


a) Difference between the maximum gross weight and empty
weight
b) Difference between the net weight and total weight
c) Some of the empty weight and the max. gross weight
d) Weight of the fuel

3.

Addition of avionics equipment forward of CG limits will affect


a) Maximum gross weight and datum
b) CG limits and useful load
c) Empty weight and useful load
d) Useful load only

4.

Ballast is used on a/c


a) To attain the desired c.g (6-19).(b) To increase the weight
c) For making nose heavy
d) None of these

5.

Zero fuel weight means


(a) AUW minus weight of fuel
(b) Weight of cargo, passenger and crew
(c) Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement (b)
(6-2)

(d) All of these


6.

Regarding permanent ballast


a) Lead bar or plate is used
b) Painted red and placarded
c) Bolted as near as possible to CG
d) Both A and B(6-19)

7
For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be
achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of Gravity)
(a) end C of P (Pressure) together
(b) rear of C of P
(c) front of C of P
(d) along aerodynamic C of P
9.

The useful load of an aircraft consists of


(a) Crew, useable fuel, passengers and cargo(6-2)
(b) Crew, useable fuel, oil and fixed equipments
(c) Crew, passengers, useable fuel, oil, cargo and fixed equipments
(d) None of the above

10.The maximum weight of an aircraft is


(a) Empty weight + crew, maximum fuel weight
(b) Maximum fuel weight, cargo, baggage and passenger
(c) Empty weight + crew, passengers and fixed equipments
(d) Empty weight + useful loads(6-2)
11.

Zero fuel weight is


(a) Dry weight + the weight of full crew, passenger and cargo
(b) Basic operating weight without crew, fuel and cargo
(c) Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft without fuel(6-2)
(d) None of the above

12. Amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and


corresponding C.G is
(a) Empty fuel tanks
(b) Useable fuel
(c) The amount of fuel necessary for half hour of operation
(d) Full tank fuel
13. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are replaced in
an airplane so that their distance from C.G are 4 feet and 2 feet
respectively. How far forward of the C.G should a third box weighing
20 pounds be placed so that the C.G will not be changed.
(a) 3 feet
(b) 2.5 feet
(c) 3.5 feet
(d) 8 feet

(d)

AIRCRAFT HARDWARE
1.

Aircraft harware includes various types of fasteners and


misc items used in repair and manufacture of aircraft.

2.
Safe and efficient operation of ac is dependent upon the correct
selecion of ac hardware.
3.
Most items of ac hardware are identified by AN (Airforce-Navy),
NAS (National aircraft standards) or MS (Military standards).
4.

Bolts and screws are type of fastening devices that give the
required security of attachment and rigidity.

5.

Bolts are used where great strength is required and screw


are used where strength is not the deciding factor.

6.

Extreme care and caution must be used in selecting


substitutes for a/c afsteners.

7.

Diff between bolt and screw.


BOLT
1. Threaded end is always
blunt.
2.Nut is screwed to compleate
the assy
3.Has short threaded section
and a long grip
length.
4.Head of the bolt may or
may not be designed
for turning

8.

SCREW
Either blunt or pointed
Fits into a female receptacle
Has long threaded section and
no clearly defined grip
length.
Screw is always tightened by
turning its head.

The classification of ac bolts,screws and nut threads are as


follows:-

NC (American National Coarse)


NF (American National Fine)
UNC( American standard unified coarse)
UNF (American standard unified Fine)

9.
The difference between NF series and UNF series is that in 1
inch size,the NF thread has 14 threads per inch and in UNF thread
has 12 threads per inch.
10.

Class 1 fit- loose fit, Class 2 fit- free fit, Class 3 fit medium fit ,
Class 4 fit- close fit, Class 5 fit tight fit.

SCREW
1.

Headless grub screws are installed by


(a) allen key
(b) Special type of ratchet spanner
(c)
Suitable screw driver
(d) Special tool

2.

How will you removed the screw


(a) by welding
(b)
(c)
both A & B
(d)

drill the head


None

3.

Grub
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

screw is used for


locking threaded fasterners
by soldering it is locked
locked by peening
both a & c

4.

A hole is corroded which cannot be removed, is repaired by


a.
Scrap out the part
b.
Helicoil
c.
Acres sleeve
d.
Use special washer

5.

A grub screw is a
a)
Headless type set screw
b)
Cap screw with fine threads
c)
Machine screw with flat countersunk head
d)
Cylindrical piece threaded at both ends and is plain in the middle

6.

Grub screws are used for


a. Locking the bolt

b. Locking the nut


c. Locking two threaded components
d. To stop end movement of piston

BOLT
1.

A/c bolts are almost always manufactured with

(a) Class-1 fit of thread


b) Class-2 fit of thread
(c) Class-3 fit of thread(121) d) Class-4 fit of thread
3.

A bolt should be installed


(a)
(c)

upward and downward


downward & forward

(b)
(d)

upward, top & forward(8-21)


down ward & rearward

5.

Clevis bolt used in fork end of cable fitting


(a) AN-CRS bolts
(b) NAS-CRS bolts
(c)
--(d) --

6.

Lock bolt which indicates flat head is


(a) ALPP
(b) ALPB
(c)

ACST

(d)

7.

Identify the bolt figure


(a) 12 point bolt
(b) 12 point drilled bolt
(c)
12 point extender washer bolt (cup washer locked)
(d) 1 double hexagon head bolt

8.

Internal wrenching bolt takes


(a) shear load
(c)
both shear & tension load(123)

(b)
(d)

Clevis bolt is used for


(a) shear load(123)
(c)
both shear & tension load

tension load
none

9.

(b)
(d)

ALSF(125)

tension load
none

10.

Stump type lock bolt is driven with the help of


(a) pneumatic pulling gun
(b) special driving tool
(c)
pneumatic riveting hammer and bucking bar(124)
(d) all

11.

Finished threads on bolt is checked by


(a) screw pitch gauge
(b)
(c)
filler gauge
(d)

ring thread gauge


All

The numbering system (ALPPHT 88) for


(a) blind type lock bolt
(c)
stump type lock bolt

(b)
(d)

12

pull type lock bolt(125)


none

13.

One dash on bolt head indicates


(a) CRS bolt
(b) NAS close tolerance bolt
(c)
AN standard steel bolt(corrosion resistant) (122) (d) None

14.

Close
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

17.

Where is an AN- clevis bolt used


(a) for tension and shear load condones
(b) where external tension load are applied
(c)
only for shear load application(123)
(d) Only for taking radial loads

18.

When bolts and rivets are used to joint the metal sheets then both should
be protected from corrosion by
(a) applying grease on both
(b) By plating bolt and rivets
(c)
By painting bolt and rivets
(d) They must be placed separately approximately, two times then the
thickness of the metal being joint.

19.

Close tolerance bolts


(a) can be used in machined parts
(b) corrosion resistance area
(c)
tight fit is permissible(123)
(d) bolt will be moved into position when struck with 12 to 14 ounce
hammer
(e) both c & d

20.

Identify the given bolt :-

tolerance bolt is identified by


triangle marking on head
crossed triangle marking on head
circle marking on head
triangle on head with plus marking on head

(a) Close tolerance bolt used with grease coating.


21.

Identify the given marking :(a)

23.

When safety-wiring the widely spaced bolts the max number of bolts in a
series that can be safety wired is(i)
(iii)

24.

Reworked Bolt

6
24

(ii)
(iv)

3 (146)
12

One Difference b/w the bolt and the screw is:


(i)
Bolt has a fairly short threaded section and comparatively longer
grip length
(ii)
Screws has a longer threaded portion and may have no clearly
defined grip length

(iii)
(iv)
25.

Screws has grip length


Both (i) and (ii) are correct (121)

M.T.C.S
(i)
AN-3 & AN-73 series bolts are inter changeable
(ii)
AN hex head bolts and internal wrenching bolts are interchangeable
(iii) AN hex head bolts and internal wrenching bolts are not inter
changeable as they do not have the required strength.
(iv) Both (i) and (iii) (123)

26.

An astrix mark on the head of the bolt indicates


(i)
bolts material is 2330
(ii)
bolts material is 2017
(iii) Special purpose(122)
( note that clevis bolt, eye bolt , Jo bolt and lock bolt are special purpose
bolt)
(iv) Corrosion resistant steel

27.

Mark the correct statement


(i)
lock bolts combines the features of a high strength bolt and
rivet(124)
(ii)
Used in structural attachment (used in major structural
attachements)
(iii) Lock bolts are pull type, press type, stump type and blind type
(iv) (ii) & (iii) both are correct

28.

Mark the correct answer


(i)
Eye bolt is used under shear loads
(ii)
Eye bolt is used under external tension load only
(iii) Eye bolt is used for attachment of such devices as fork of a turn
buckle, a clevis or a cable shackle (123)

29. Alloy steel bolts smaller than No.10-32 and AL alloy bolts smaller than
inch diameter are not used in
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
30.

Primary Aircraft Structure(123)


Secondary aircraft structure
Tertiary Aircraft structure
In any of the above structure

When Internal wrenching bolts are used is steel parts, the bolt hole must
be
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Spot faced
Counter bored
Slightly counter sunk

(iv) Slightly counter sunk to seat the large corner radius of the shank at
the head (123).
31.

Jo-bolts are used to areas which are not often subjected to:
(i)
Tensile load
(ii)
Replacement or servicing
(iii) As in (ii) and it is blind rivet(124)
(iv) As in (i) and may be used in torsion load

32.

When removal of lock bolt becomes necessary, remove the collar by


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

33.

Jo-Bolt is
(i)
(ii)
high
(iii)
(iii)

34.

Drilling with one size small drill than the lock bolt size
Splitting it axially
As in (ii) with a sharp cold chisel(126)
Chiseling the head of a lock bolt

Three piece internally threaded rivet


High shear and tensile strength makes it suitable for use in cases of
stresses.(124)
Resistance to vibration, weight saving and fast installation
Not a bolt but solid rivet

DZUS fastener has


(i)
Al alloy stud, steel alloy grommet
(ii)
It is type of turnlock fastener which is used to secure plates, doors
and other removable panels.
(iii) Steel alloy stud and al alloy grommet(141)
(iii) Steel alloy stud and rubber grommet

35.

The class of fit required for a tight drive fit is


(a) Class-1
(b) Class-2
(c)
Class-3
(d) Class-5(8-16)

38.

Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolthead are


(i)
(iii)

39.

made of aluminum alloy


AN standard steel bolts (122)

(ii)
(iv)

close tolerance bolts


stainless steel bolts

Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct ?


(i)
AL alloy bolts smaller than -inch diameter should not be used in
primary structure (123)
(ii)
When tightening castellated nuts or drilled bolts, if the cotter pin
holes do no line up, it is permissible to tighten the nut up to 10 percent
over recommended torque to permit alignment of the next slot with the
cotter pin hole
(iii) In general, bolt grip lengths should equal to material thickness(820)

(iv)
40.

None of the above

Which statement is true regarding Jo-bolts


(i)
It is a tradename for an internally threaded rivet
(ii)
It is a tradename for an externally threaded rivet
(iii) As in (ii) and it consists of three parts, and it is available in three
head styles
(iv) As in (i) and available in four diameters( 3/16, 4/16, 5/16, 6/16)
(124)

41.

Which statement is true regarding lock bolts


(i)
Pull type lock bolts are used mainly in aircraft primary structures
and secondary structures.
(ii)
Stump type lock bolts are used where clearance will not permit the
installation of a pull type lock bolt
(iii) Blind type lock bolts are used where only one side of the work is
accessible
(iv) All(124)

42.

Lock bolts are more easily and quickly installed than the conventional
rivets or bolts and eliminate the use of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

43.

Lock washers and cotter pins (124)


Safety wire and dzus fastener
Pinning and burning
None of the above

When safety wiring closely spaced bolts the number that can be safely
wired
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

group of five bolts


Group of three should be the max number in a series
by a 24 length of wire is the maximum in a series(146)
None of the above

44.

Mark the correct answer


(i)
Eye bolt is used under shear loads
(ii)
Eye bolt is used under Tension load only
(iii) Eye bold is used for attachment of such devices as fork of turn
buckle, a clevis or a cable shackle
(iv) 2 & 3 are correct(123)

46.

When tightening nuts on bolts, cotter pin hole may not align with the nut
slot in case of highly stressed engine parts
(i)
The nut may be over tightened to align the hole and slot
(ii)
The nut may be under tightened to align the hole and slot
(iii) Nut may be turned in clock wise direction
(iv) None of the above

47.

AN-186

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
48.

It is closed tolerance bolt(123)


As in (i) and dia is 3/8
It is drilled head bolt and dia is 3/8
As in 3 and dia is 6/16
As in (i) and dia is 11/4 and length is 3/4

MS 20073
(i) It is close tolerance bolt
(ii) It is drilled head engine bolt
(iii) As in (ii) and dia is 3/16 (8-19) (iv) It is an eye bolt and dia is 3/8

49.

Decode AN-31-32
(i)
AN standard clevis bolt
(ii)
An standard clevis bolt with dia. of 1/16 & length is 2(8-20)
(iii) AN standard clevis bolt dia is 1/6 material is Nickle alloy and
length is 31/4
(iv) As in (i) and dia is 11/4 and length is 3/4

51.

Dzus fastener to be locked by a


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

52.

1/16 of an inch
1/64 of an inch

(ii)
(iv)

1/3th of an inch
In hundredths of an inch

Hi-tigue fasteners is used in


(i)
(iii)

54.

turn clockwise

Dzus fastener stud length is measured in :


(i)
(iii)

53.

One complete turn clock wise


(ii)
Quarter turn clockwise(141)
As in (iii) and locked with locking wire

Close tolerance fit


Interference fit

(ii)

Loose fit

Hi-tigue fastenersis used for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Encircle the bottom of its shank


Bead preloads the hole it fills(8-13)
Used in interference fit
All

BOLT(QB)
1.

2.

Bolt can be identified


a)
by material
c)
a) & shape of head

b)
d)

The head marking on bolt indicate

by method of securing
all of the above (123)

(a) bolt material


(b) name of manufacturer
(c) a), b) & whether bolt is a standard type or special purpose bolt.
d) (a) & (b) are correct
6.

Grip length of the bolt is


a)
Total length of the bolt
b)
Plain shank length of the bolt(8-17)
c)
Length under the head to the end of the bolt
d)
None of these

7.

Aircraft bolts are made of


a)
Mild steel
b)
Stainless steel
c)
Aluminum alloy
d)
Cadmium or Zinc plated corrosion resistant steel, unplated corrosion
resistance steel and anodised aluminum alloy(122)

8.

Which statement is correct?


a)
Al-alloy bolt smaller than mm diameter are not used in primary
structure
b)
Al-alloy bolts and nuts are used where they will be
repeatedly removed for purpose of maintenance and inspection
c)
Both are correct
d)
None of these(123)

10.

During installation of Jo-bolt


a)
The nut is turned while the bolt is held
b)
The bolt is turned while the nut is held(124)
c)
Bolt are turned at the same time
d)
None of these

11.

The lock bolt combines the features of a


a)
High strength bolt and nut
b)
High strength bolt and rivet(124)
c)
High strength bolt, rivet and nut
d)
None of these

12.

Blind type lock bolts are


a)
Used where only one side of the work is accessible
b)
As a) & they have exceptional strength
c)
As b) & sheet pull together characteristic
d)
As c) & where it is difficult to drive a conventional rivet(124)

13.

How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal recurred?


a) With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit with no strain
imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin.

b) With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs


between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached.
c) With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut
tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork
d) None of these
14.

Clevis bolt are used for


(a) Tension load
b)
(c) Shear load
d)

Tension & shear load


None

15.

Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is


a)
Plain nut
b)
Castle nut
c)
Castellated shear nut
d)
Self locking nut

16.

In hex bolt, the length is measured


a)
Under the head to the end of the bolt(8-17)
b)
Plain portion of the shank
c)
Total length
d)
Threaded length

17.

Raised countersunk heads bolt nominal length is measured from


a. Under the head to the tip
b. Total length of the bolt
c. Threaded length
d. Distance from upper surface of the head (excluding the raised portion) to the
extreme end of shank

18.

19.

20.

Bolt head is of
a
Steel
c.
Al. Alloy

Corrosion resistant steel(122)


Brass

Bolt head is of
a.
Steel
c.
C.R.S. close tolerance(122)

b.

Al. Alloy
d.
Al. Alloy close tolerance

Which of the bolt head code marking shown identifies a internal hex head
bolt?
a)
b)
c)

1) a
22.

b.
d.

Eye bolt is used

2) b (122)

3) c

4) none

a.
b.
c.
d.

where internal tension load is applied.


head is slotted to received common screw driver.
used for external tension load(123).
both b) & c) are correct.

23. Mark the correct statement.


(a) where, there is not much clearance, stump type lock bolt is used.
(b) alloy steel lock bolt may be used to replace steel Hi-shear rivets.
(c) as in b) provided the diameter and head is similar.
(d) both a) & c) are correct.
24.

Bolt of class 4 fit is


a)
Loose fit
c)
Close fit(121)

b)
d)

Free fit
Tight fit

30.

The hardware pre-lubricated & must not be degreased before assembly is/are
a)
Jo-bolt
b)
Avdelok Fastener
c)
Both a) & b) are correct
d)
Huck mechanical lock rivet

31.

AN-73 drilled head bolt is similar to the


a)
Close tolerance bolt
b)
c)
Standard hex-bolt(123)
d)

32.

10 KB 105
a)
Flat head
c)
Countersunk

b)
d)

33. 10 KB 107
a)
Closed end and a key
c)
As a and countersunk head

Special bolt
All of these

Flat head & countersunk


None
b)
d)

Flat head
None

34. AN 10 DH5A where H indicate


a)
5/8 diameter head drilled
b)
5/8 diameter head and shank drilled
c)
5/8 diameter & shank drilled
d) None
35.

37.

The AN-3 to AN-20 (hex head a/c bolt) is


a)
General purpose bolt(122)
b)
c)
Internal wrenching bolt
d)
For a bolt, part no. AN3DD5A indicates
a)
bolt is drilled for saftying
b)
material of bolt is 2017 Al-alloy
c)
diameter bolt is 5/16

Close tolerance bolt


Special purpose bolt

d)

length of bolt is 5/8(123)

38.

Bolt part noALSF E 88 indicates


a)
brazier head, stump type lock bolt
b)
flat head, stump type lock bolt(125)
c)
counter sunk, stump type lock bolt
d)
counter sunk, pull type lock bolt

39.

AN 4 - 7 bolt shows
a)
7/8 dia
b) 1/4" length

40.

c) 4 length

d) 1/4" dia(123)

Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where


(a)
Bolt is installed at angle to surface(131)
(b) Bolt is installed head down
(c)
It can be used any where
(d) None of these

41. Worm threads have a thread angle of


(a) 45 degrees and is similar to ACME threads
(b) 29 degrees and is similar to ACME threads
(c) 29 degrees and depth of threads are deeper than ACME threads
(d)
29 degrees and ACME threads are deeper than worm threads
NUT
1.

How is the locking feature of the fiber type locknut obtained


(i)
By tightening nut fill four threads are risible
(ii)
By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert(128)
(iii) By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying
section
(iv) By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those
in the load carrying section(128)

2.

Fiber Collor self locking nut is used


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

3.

At
At
At
At

temperature more than 250 degree C


temperature more than 250 degree F
temperature below 250 degree F (129)
Temperature below 350 degree F

In the code marking of Nut, the letter R stands for


(i)
(iii)

material is Red brass


nut is subjected to rotation

(ii)
(iv)

right hand threads


Both (ii) & (iii)

4.

Castle Nut (AN 310) is used under


(i)
Can withstand large tension loads
(ii)
Castellations are designed to accommodate a cotter pin or lock wire.
(iii) Designed to fit on standard airframe bolt with Class 3 fit.
(iv) Used with AN hex head bolt, Clevis bolt, eye bolts, drilled head bolt
or studs.
(v)
All are correct (126/8-22)

5.

Self locking Nuts are used on a/c


(i)
To provide tight connection which will not shake loose under severe
vibration
(ii)
Where it is not subjected to rotation
(iii) In antifriction bearings and control pulleys
(iv) All (127)

6.

AN 320 10 Nut has


(i)
(iii)

7.

5/8 dia
10 TPI

(ii)
(iv)

10/32 dia
10 shank length

Self locking nuts are acceptable for use on certificated Aircraft subject to
the
(i)
Where tight connections are required
(ii)
As in (i) and which will not shake loose under severe vibration
(iii) Restrictions of the manufacturer
(iv) As in (i), (ii) and (iii) and these nuts should not be used at joints
which subject either the nut or bolt to rotation(127)

8.

After the self locking nut has been tightened, make sure:
(i)
Four threads of the bolt are visible out side the nut
(ii)
The rounded or cham-fered end of the bolt extend at least the full
round or chamfer through the nut
(iii) Flat end bolts should extend at least 1/32 through the nut
(iv) (ii) and (iii) are correct(129)

9.

Plain washers are used under nuts or bolt heads:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

10.

They provide a smooth bearing surface


They prevent damage to the surface material
They prevent dissimilar material corrosion
All above are correct(131)

Al alloy washer may be used under bolt heads or nuts on Al alloy or Mg


structure
(i)
To prevent Inter grannular corrosion
(ii)
Where corrosion caused by dissimilar metal is a factor
(iii) Will resist the cutting action of nut or bolt head on the structure
(iv) (ii) and (iii) are correct (131)

11.

When tightening nuts on bolts, cotter pin hole may not align with the nut
slot. In case of highly stressed engine parts
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

13.

The nut may be over tightened to align the hole and slot
The nut may be under tightened to align the hole and slot
Nut may be turned in clock wise direction
None of the above

How is the locking feature of the fiber typed locknut obtained?


(i)
By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert
(ii)
By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying
section.
(iii) By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those
in the load carrying section
(iv) None

15.

Which of the following fastners does/does not have grommet


(i)

16.

Dzus (ii)

Cam Lock

(iii)

Airlock(142)

(iv)

None

Which statement is true regarding Rivnuts


i)
Rivnuts are commonly available with flat heads and with 80 degree
counter shunk heads
(ii)
As in (i) and counter shunk Rivnuts are made with both 0.048
and 0.063 head thickness
(iii) As in (ii) and the thinner head used when it is necessary to install a
Rivnut in a machined countersunk hole in thin material
(iv) Closed end Rivnuts are available for installation in a pressurized
structure or scaled compartment(8-15)

17. When reusing elastic stop nuts be sure the fibre has not lost its locking
friction. If a nut can be
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
18.

the spanners replace it


the fingers replace it(129)
the fingers replace the fibre or nylone ring
above

Decode AN 310 D5R


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

19.

Turned with
Turned with
Turned with
None of the

An standard Al alloy shear castle nut


An standard Al alloy castle nut
As in (ii) and dia is 5/16 and having right hand thread(130)
As in (i) and dia is 5/16 and having right hand thread

Lock washers should never be used under the conditions


(i)

With fasteners to primary or secondary structure

(ii)
Where the screw is subject to frequent removal
(iii) Where failure would permit the opening of a joint to the air flow
(iv) Any of the above(131) (Used with machine screws or bolts where
self locking or castellated type nut is not appropriate)
22.

23.

Shear nut thickness depends on


(a) as per the dia of nut
(c)
as per the location of nut

(b)
(d)

half of the usual nut


none

When re-torqueing is required for a ?????


(a) re-tighten the nut without leading/off the nut one turn
(b) re-tighten the nut with leading/off the nut one turn
(c)
re-tighten the nut with leading off by one turn
(d) never re-tighten the nut

NUTS (QB)
1.

Which statement is correct?


a)
Self-locking nuts are used on a/c to provide tight connections which will
not shake loose under severe vibration(127)
b)
S.L.N are used where bolt or nut subject rotation
c)
Both a) & b)
d)
None of these

2.

Elastic stop nuts are not used


a)
Where temperature is lower than 250oF
b)
Higher than 250oF(129)
c)
Between 250oF to 750oF
d)
None of these

3.

Castellated shear nut(AN320) is used


a)
in tension application.
b)
in shear application only.
c)
as in a) & with drilled clevis bolt, taper pin etc.
d)
as in b) slotted for safety.(126)

4.

Stainless steel self locking nut


a)
having locking shoulder & key.
b)
used in application where temperature exceed 250 F.
c)
b) & also called high temperature self locking nut.(8-23)
d)
all are wrong.

5.

Material used for Tinnerman instrument mounting nut is


a)
Al-alloy
b)
Steel alloy
c)
Brass(8-25)
d)
Monel

6.

Mark the correct statement.


a.
Elastic stop nut can be used many time.

b.
c.
d.
7.

8.

As in a) & when turn with fingers, replace it.(129)


Every time the parts disassembled, replace the elastic stop nut.
As in c) & used at place where temperature exceed 250F.

A fiber type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is
a)
Under shear loading
b) Under tension loading
c.)
Subject to rotation
d) All of these
Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is
(a)
Plain nut
(b) Castle nut
(c)
Castellated shear nut(126)
(d) Self locking nut

9.
Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on
threaded bolt or rod
(a) Self-locking nut
(b) Jamb but
(c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin
(d) None of these
10.

The specification AN 335 indicates


a)
fine thread, light hex nut
b)
fine thread, plain hex nut
c)
coarse thread, check nut
d)
coarse thread, plain hex nut(126)

11.

Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one


direction?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Acme
Square
Worm
Buttress

WASHERS
1.

Special washers are used


a) Where a bolt is installed at an angle to a surface (131)
b) Where perfect alignment with a surface is not required
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these

5.
To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut
and bolt, the washer used is
a) AN 936
b) AN 935
c) AN 970(130)
6.

Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where


a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface (131)

d) AN 960

b) Bolt is installed head down


c) It can be used any where
d) None of these
7.

8.

AN 935 is
a. Plain washer
c. Shake proof washer

b. Lock spring washer(131)


d. None of above

AN 936 is
a. Shake proof washer
c. Plain washer

b. Lock spring washer


d. None of above

TURNLOCK FASTENERS

1. Dzus Fastners consist of a stud, grommet and receptacle. The stud length is
measured in
a) Tenth of an inch
b) Sixteenth of an inch
c) Hundredth of an inch
d) Thousandth of an inch
2. The marking found on the head of the stud
a) Body diameter, length & shank type
b) Body diameter, length & head type (141)
c) Only length
d) None of these
3. Airloc Fasteners consists of three parts
a.Stud, grommet and receptacle
b.Stud & grommet
c.Stud, cross pin and receptacle(142)
d.None
PINS
1.
Three types of pins are used viz. taper pin, flathead pin and cotter
pin.
2.
1.

Pins are used in shear application and safetying.


Cotter pins
(i) Anodized Al-alloy
(ii) AN380 is made of Cd-plated, low carbon steel
(iii) AN381 is made of Corrosion resistant steel
(iv) AN 381 is used in locations where non magnetic material is required.
(14 5)

2.

Taper pins are used in Joints:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

3.

Which carry shear loads


Which carry shear and tensile loads
As in (i) and where absence of play is essential(145)
As in (ii) and mostly used in control lay outs

If safetying with cotter pin, the prong bent over the bolt and should not
exceed beyond the
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Nut diameter
Equal to the dia of cotter pin
Bolt diameter (150)

(iv)
4.

Two times to the dia of cotter pin

Which statement is true regarding a roll pin


(i)
It is a press fit pin with chamfered ends
(ii)
It is slotted the full length of the tube
(iii) Pressure exerted by it against the hole walls keeps it in place and
has to be removed with a punch.
(iv) As the above (145)

5.

Taper pin are manufactured with taper of


a. 1 in 48

8.

d. 1 in 60

It is made of cadmium plated steel and have grip length in 1/16


increment.
As in (i) and also known as flat pin and dia is 6/16
As in (i) and also known as flat head pin
As in (iii) and also known as clevis pin (8-29)

Which of the following pin is used to take shear load


(a)
(c)

11.

c. 1 in 50

AN 406
(i)
inch
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

10.

b. 1 in 10

taper pin(145)
roll pin

(b) clevis pin


(d) cotter pin

Clevis pin used


(a) with head up position
(b) as in (a) & washer must be placed at the opposite end and insert
cotter pin through the hole to lock the pin in place
(c)
as in (a) & (B) and used in tie rod terminals and in secondary
controls which are not subject to continous operation.(8-29)

12.

Cotter pin for castelled nut is made of


(a)
(c)

15.

steel/CRS
(b) cadmium plated low carbon steel
corrosion resistant steel
(d) both b & c(8-29)

Roll pin is used where


(a)
frequent removal is not required
(b)
frequent removal is required
(c)
as in (a) and made of brass
(d)
as in (a) and made of spring steel and is rolled into cylindrical shape
(8-28)

RIVETS

1.

In figure (reveting) what fault is shown.


(a) damage due to
(b) damage due to bucking bar
(c)
sheet metal bulging

2.

Material of the rivet is


(a) 5056 al-alloy
(b)

4.

2024

Al-alloy rivets can be heat treated


(a) maximum 5 times
(b)
(c)
infinite times
(d)

(c) monel (d)

none

maximum 15 times
none

5.
If countersunk is not possible to use on thin sheet to get flush surface,
then.. use
(a)
round head rivet
(b) brazier head rivet
(c)
counter sunk rivet with (d) flat head
6.

Friction lock rivet


(a)
can not replace solid shank rivet(8-7)
(b)
can be replaced by sold shank rivet
(c)
as in (b) and available in hollow self plugging and self leaking
(d)
as in (b) and increase the diameter thrice

7.

Cherry lock rivet can


(a)
replace solid shank rivet (due to high fatigue strength)(8-8)
(b)
if reduced diameter used compressive strength less
(c)
as in (b) and increase the diameter twice
(d)
as in (b) and increase the diameter thrice

8.

Which hammer is used for riveting


(a) ball peen hammer(9-2)
(b)
(c)
cross pin hammer
(d)

9.

Rivet
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

10.

10 KB-105 rivet has


(a) flat head
(c)
as in (a) & key(162))

straight pin hammer


riveting hammer

of (4)? Diameter is replaced by


two 1/16 diameter rivet
three 1/16 diameter rivet
three 1/32 dia rivet
none for 1/16 dia rivet
(b)
countersunk head
as in (b) and key

11.

10 KB-107 rivet is
(a) flat head
(b) counter sunk head
(c)
as in (a) and with key and close end
(d) as in (b) and with key and close end(162)

12.

Dia of rivet is
(a) 2 times of thickness of sheets
(b) 3 times of thickness of thickest sheet

(c)
(d)
13.

3 times of thickness of joint sheet


equal to grip length

Which al-alloy rivet has highest strength


(a) 5056-T
(b) 2117-T
(c)
2024-T(8-6)

(d) 5056-W

14.

In selecting rivets
(a) no type and size depends on shear stress
(b) as in (a) and tensile strength and does not depends on
bearing strength
(c)
rivet dia should be twice the thick ness of metal being
joined
(d) none of the above

15.

In a rivnut parts number the letter KB represents:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

16.

Open end and has a key


Close end and without a key
Close end and with a key(162)
Counter Bored head

M.T.C.S regarding the Hi-Shear(PIN)rivets


(i)
is a blind type rivet.
(ii)
has same shear strength as that of a bolt of equal diameter
(iii) As in (ii) + contains a metal collar, which is swaged onto the
grooved end effecting a firm tight fit.(163)
(iv) All are correct

17.

If a copper rivet is inserted into an Aluminum structure then:


(i)
Dissimilar metal corrosion would occur.(152)(Copper can be used
with copper alloy or non metallic material.
(ii)
Dissimilar metal corrosion would over if the Al-structure is made of
2024-T4
(iii) Dissimilar metal corrosion would not occur.
(iv) Both (i) & (ii) are correct

18.

M.T.C.S
(i)
If an ice box rivet is removed from the refrigerator, it should not be
mixed with the rivets still in the cold storage.
(ii)
Ice box rivets should always be used after 10 min from the removal
from the refrigerator
(iii) Ice box rivets should necessarily be used with in 15 min after its
removal from the refrigerator other wise be re-heat treated.(152)
(iv) All are correct.

19.

Rivets having anodized finish can be identified by


(i)

Letter A on the head

(ii)

Its pearly gray color(152)

(iii)
20.

A dimple mark on the head

riveting Mg structure(8-5)
Riveting Titanium Structure

(ii)
(iv)

riveting Monel structure


All are correct

One raised dot or the head of a rivet indicates its material is:
(i)
(iii)

23.

(iv)

Rivets made of materials 5056 are used in:


(i)
(iii)

21.

Its yellowish color

2024-T
2017-T(8-5)

(ii)

CRS

Round head rivets are used in


(i)
Exterior surfaces of the A/C
(ii)
Interior surfaces of the A/C
(iii) (i) + except where clearance is required for adjacent member
(iv) (ii) + except where clearance is required for adjacent member
(153)

24.

Rivet dia. and length is measured in


(i)
1/16 and 1/32
(iii) 1/16 and 1/8
range of (158) 1/16 (8-3)

25.

Two hours
Five hours

Zinc chromate is yellow


(ii)
Zinc chromate is green
Anodised surface is pearl grey (iv) (i) & (iii) are correct (152)

3/64 to 1/8(160)
3/32 to 1/8

(iv)

(ii)
3/32 to 3/16
1/32 to 3/16

Ice box rivets attain full strength after driving


(i)
(iii)

29.

(ii)
(iv)

In blind riveting, the thickness of the material being riveted determines


the overall length of the shank of the rivet. The shank of the rivet should
extend beyond the material thickness approximately :
(i)
(iii)

28.

One hour (152)


12 hours

The protective coating on a rivet is identified by its colour. A rivet coated


with :
(i)
(iii)

27.

1/32 and 1/8


1/32 increment and total grip

Ice box rivets attain about one half their max strength in approximately
after driving
(i)
(iii)

26.

(ii)
(iv)

In about one week


(ii)
In about four days(152)
Require prepitation heat treatment (iv) In about fort night

Shank dia of solid rivets is measured in increments of

(i)
30.

(iv)

3/64

ADD 2024 rivet one size larger


A steel rivet driven while it is hot
A close tolerance bolt
Nothing may be substituted for hi- shear rivet

Dimple both the skin and the frame


Dimple the frame and counter sink the skin
Counter sink the frame and dimple the skin
Counter sink both the skin and the frame

Which produces a lift


(ii0 Inside the a/c
Where temperature of 250 deg C are more likely to encountered
Which are directly in contact with exhaust gases

Counter boring is required


Dimpling is required
Spot facirty is required
None of the above

In solid rivet reveting the shop head dia and thickness is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

35.

3/32

In riveting counter sinking is employed where sheet thickness is greater


than the depth of the rivet head but for thinner sheets
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

34.

(iii)

Cadmium plated steel rivets should not be used in areas


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

33.

1/32 (8-3)

How would you prepare the hole to use 1/8 flush rivet to fasten a piece
of 0.032 skin to a 0.064 frame.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

32.

(ii)

To replace a high shear rivet and no facilities to install a new hi-shear


rivet, you may use
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

31.

1/16

O.S.D. and I.S.D. respectively


I.S.D. and O.S.D. respectively
I.D. and I.S.D. respectively
I.S.D. for dia and thickness

In solid rivet riveting an allowance of I.S.D. is sufricient to form a shop


head for counter sunk
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

O.S.D. is sufficient
I.S.D. is sufficient
O.T.S.D. is suficnet
I.D. is sufficient

RIVETS
1.

Which is correct statement


(a) Pin rivet are used only in shear application
(b) They should never be used where the grip length is less than the shank
diameter
(c) Both. (163)
(d) None

2.

Pin rivets
(a) are Hi-shear rivets
(b) Used where access to both side of the material is required
(c) They are approximately three times as strong as solid shank rivets
(d) All. (163)

3.

Stainless steel rivet head


a) Raised double dash
c) Raised cross

b) Raised dash
d) No marking on head

4.

Solid rivet of 1/8 diameter is replaced by (CAP)


a.
Two rivet of 1/16 diameter
b.
Three rivet of 1/16 diameter
c.
Four rivet of 1/16 diameter
d.
Cannot be replaced

5.

Grip length of cherry lock rivet is measured in increments


(a) 1/8
b) 3/32
c) 1/16
d)1/32

6.

Identifying marks on the head of Al-alloy rivet indicate


a) Shank size
b) Head treatment given by manufacturer
c) Specific alloy and manufacturer
(152)
d) All are correct

7.

The solid shank rivet, which is used in interior of a/c, where


maximum strength is needed
a) round head
b) brazier head
c) flat head
d) as in c) & is AN-442. (153/8-3)

8.

The standard range for counter sunk head angle is


a) 72 - 120 b) 78- 120. (153) (c) 78 d) 100

9.

To repair or replacement of protuding head rivet


a) round head
b) counter sunk head is needed
c) universal head is used.(153)
d) any rivet can be selected

10.

For riveting Mg alloy sheet


(a) 5056 rivet should be used. (151)
(b) monel rivet should be used
(c) mild steel should be used
d) All of the above

11.

Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet


a) Monel.(151) b) 2017-T
c) 2024-T6

d) Mild steel

12. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received &
need no further heat treatment.
a) 2117-T. (151) b) 2017-T
c) 2024
d) 1100
13.
14.

Ice-Box rivets are


a)2017-T b) 2117-T

c) 2024-T

d) a) & c) are correct. (151)

The specification for universal head rivet


a) AN-470.(153) b) MS-20613
c) MS-20615

d) all

15.

The protective film of zinc chromate over rivet identified by


a) its yellow colour. (152)
b) pearl gray
c) its white colour
d) its silver gray colour

16.

Part No. AN 470B 3 8 indicates


(a) shank diameter is 3
b) rivet length is 8
16
32
c) material is 5056 Al alloy. (153) d) all of the above

17.

Mark the correct statement.


a) Identification marking shall appear either on shank or head
of rivet.
b) The rivet length shall be taken in fraction of 32 of an inch.
(c)Group-A, Al-alloy can be used with Group-B Al-alloy keeping in view the
dissimilar metal corrosion factor.
d) Both a) & b) are correct.

18.

The material code for 2024 T composition rivet is


a) D
b) AD
c) DD. (153)
d) B

19. The absence of latter following the AN-standard number for rivets indicate
a) material is Al-alloy
b) material is steel
c) material is mild steel. (153)
d) any of the above
20.

The head marking Raised triangle, indicate the rivet is

a) 5056

b) 2219

c) 7075

d) Monel

21.

The head marking for 2024-T is


a) raised dot
b) raised double dash. (154)
c) raised three dash
d) recessed double dash

22.

The marking recessed single dash indicate the rivet is


a) QQW 423
b) QQS-633
c) 2117
d) QQ1-281

23. The shank length used for making blind head in a pull thru rivet should extend
the thickness by
a) 1
b) - c) 3/64
d) 3/64 1/8 (157)
24. Its proven fatigue strength make it the only blind rivet
interchangeable structurally with solid rivet is
a) wire draw cheeylock rivet
b) dill lock rivet
c) bulb cherrylock rivet. (157)
d) deutsch rivet
25.

To joints requiring an excessive amount of sheet take-up, you may select


a) pin rivet
b) wire draw cherrylock rivet. (157)
c) bulb cherry lock rivet d) all of the above

26.

Riv nut is
a) hollow, blind rivet
b) made of 6053-Al alloy & a)
c) counter bored & threaded inside
d) all of the above. (161)

27.

In Part No. 10 KB 106, KB indicates


a) close end & keyless
b) close end & keyed. (162)
c) open end & keyed
d) open end & keyless

28.

Part No. 10 - B -107 indicates


a) Riv nut having flat head
b) Pin rivet having round head
c) Riv nut having counter sunk head(162)
d) Deutsch rivet

29.

Pin rivet a) not a blind type


b) have the same shear strength as bolt of equal diameter.
c) as in b) & are about 40% weight of bolt
d) all of the above. (163).

30.

Pin rivets are used


a) in compression
b) in tension

c) in shear.(163)
d) all of the above & also carry bending load.
31.

The Part No. NAS 177 14 17 indicates


a) flat head Jo-bolt
b) flat head Avdelok fastener
c) flat head pin rivet
d) counter sunk head, pin rivet.(163)

32. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the
center of the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet)
a) 2d to 4d
b) 8d
c) 6d
d) 75% of the pitch
39.

Aircraft rivets are identified by


(a) Head style
b. Alloy
c. Length & diameter
d. All. (153)

40.

Rivets are designed


(a) Stronger in shear
(b) Stronger in tension
(c) Should not be subjected to excessive tension load
(d) Both a) and c)

42.

Pitch of the rivet should be


(a) 1 d
(c) 1 x d

(b) 6d to 8d
(d) All of these

43.

The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet
is
(a) 2 d
(b) 4 d
(c) 1 x d
(d) 8 d

44.

Chamfering of the patch plate is done at the angle of


(a) 25
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 15

45.

In patch repair, clearance between the rivet and hole should be


(a) 0.008
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.002 to 0.004
(d) 0.4

46.

A rivet with part no. AN 470 AD 3-5 is having a diameter of


(a) 3/32(153)
(b) 5/32
(c) 3/16
5/16

47.

Pull thru rivets are fabricated in two common head styles


(a) universal head
(b) brazier head
(c) 100 countersunk head
(d) both (a) & (c) are correct. (156)

48.

A rivet head having raised cross indicates

(d)

(a) 5056 T. (154) (b) 2024 T


(c) carbon steel
(d) corrosive resistant steel
49.

A) Rivet smaller than 3/32 diameter are never used on stressed structure.
(B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117rivet.
(a) both are correct.
(b) both are incorrect
(c) only (A) is correct
(d) only (B) is correct

50.

Transverse pitch is
(a) twice the rivet diameter
(c) 75% of rivet pitch

51.

(b) 70% of rivet pitch


(d) 6-8 diameter

Rivet pitch is
(a) distance between center of rivet in a row
(b) distance between edge to center of rivet
(c) four times the rivet diameter
(d) both (a) & (c) are correct

CONTROL CABLES (CC)


Note. 1.
Control cable are the most widely used linkage in primary flight
control system. Also used in engine controls, emergency extension for LG
etc.
2.
Cable type linkage has several advantages viz: strong and light in
weight, flexible and easy to route .
3.
A/c cable has high mechanical efficiency and can be set up without
backlash which is very important for precise control.
4.
Cables may be equipped with several different types of fittings such
as terminals, thimbles, shackles and bushings.
2.

A/C control cables are constructed in diameter range from


(i)
(iii)

4.

(ii)
(iv)

1/16 0- 3/16
3/8

Control cables are made of


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

1.

1/8 3/8
1/16 3/8(144)

Carbon steel
(i) + stainless steel(143)
(ii) + heat treated Al-alloy
(i) + 2024 T4 AL-ALLOY

In engine controls, trim tab controls & indicator controls, the type of
cable used is:
(i)

7 x 19 extra flexible

(ii)

7 x 7 medium flexible(143)

(iii)
8.

1 x 19

(iv)

1x7

Extra flexible cable (7x19) is used in primary control surfaces and in


places where operation over pulleys is
(i)
(iii)

Seldom
Slow

(ii)
(iv)

Frequent(143)
Abruptly

9.
Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a
control cable showing approximate 20% wear on several of the individuals
outer wires at a fairlead?
(i)

Wear within acceptable limits, repair not necessary(8-37)

( flexible or non flexible cables will be replaced when the individual wires
in each strand appear to blend toether or when the outer wires are worn
out 40 to 50 %.)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
10.

Removed and replaced the control cable and rerigged the system
Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from fairlead
None of the above.

Choose the incorrect statement regarding control cables


(i)
They are fabricated from carbon steel or stainless steel
(ii)
Tension must be adjusted frequently due to stretching and
temperature changes.
(iii) 7x19 cable is made of seven strands of 19 wires each.
(iv) 7X19 cable is extra flexible and is used in primary control systems
systems and in other places where operation over pulley is frequent.
(v)
7 x 19 cable is made of seven wires of 19 strands each

16.

A/C control cable is connected to control surface horn by means of


(i)
(iii)

14.

Clevis pin
Nut and bolts

(ii)

Cottor pin
(iv) Welding or brazing

Turn buckle
(a) is a mechnical screw device consisting of two threaded terminals
and a threaded barrel.
(b) is for minor adjustment in cable length and cable tension
(b) barrel has matching left and right hand internal threads
(c)
has externally threaded end terminals
(d) all of the above(144)

15.

Turn
(a)
(b)
(c)

buckle consists of
brass barrel with left and right hand thread(8-36)
stainless barrel with either left hand or right hand thread
only cadinium plated steel barrel and end fitting

(d)
7.

one of the above

All turn backle terminals be screwed in to the barrel until not more than:
(i)
three threads are exposed on either side of the turn buckle
barrel(144)
(ii)
Five threads are exposed in either side of the turn buckle barrel
(iii) Three threads are exposed on one side of the turn buckle barrel
(iv) None of the above

3.

In a Turn buckle
(i)
Left hand threaded end is identified by a groove or knurl around
that end(144)
(ii)
When installing a turn buckle in a control system, it is necessary to
screw both the terminals a equal number of turns into the barrel.
(iii) Not more than four threads

4.

Largest size wire, AWG (American wire gages number is :


(i)
(iii)

0000

(ii)
(iv)

40
60

During inspection after swaging if it is found that


(a) shank dia is too large that means it is overswaged
(b) shank dia is too small it means it is overswaged it should be
rejected.
(c)
shank dia too small it means underswaged
(d) shank dia is too large it means underswaged and it should be
rejected

CONTROL CABLES(QB)
1. 7x19 & 7x7 cables is made up
a) Seven strands of 7 wires
b) Nineteen strands of seven wires each
c) Seven strands of nineteen wires each & Seven strands of seven wires each (143)
d) 19 strands of 19 wires each
2. The diameter range of 7x19 & 7X 7 cables are
(a)
1/8 to 3/8 & 1/16 to 3/32 each (143)
(b)1/16 to 3/32
(c)1/8 to
(d)1/8 to 1/16
3. Turnbuckle assembly is a
(a)
Mechanical screw
(b)
Making minor adjustment in cable length and adjusting
cable tension
(c)
Consisting two threaded terminals and a threaded barrel

(d)
2.

All the above(144)

For safetying turnbuckles, locking wire is used in


a) Single wrap
b) Double wrap
c) Double wrap spiral d) All are correct

4. Push-pull tubes are generally made in short lengths to


(a)
Prevent vibration and bending under tension load
(b)
Prevent vibration and bending under compression
load(144)
(c)
Only prevent vibration
(d)
None
Note.
Push pull tubes are used as linkage in various types of
mechanically operated systems. This type of linkage eliminates the
problem of varying tension and permits the transfer of either
compression or tension stress through a single tube.
5.

Which is incorrect statement?


a)
If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced
b)
Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone
c)
For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay
d)
Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating

HARDWARE MISC
7.

Do not install elastic stop in place where the temperature is higher than
(i)
(iii)

2.

250 degree F
350 degree F

(ii)
(iv)

300 degree F
400 degree F

Included angle of acme thread

(i)
60 degree
(ii)
29 degree
(iii) 90 degree
(iv) 45 degree
40. Cotler pin for castellected nut is made of
(a) steel
(b) cadmimum plate low carbon steeel
(c)
stainless steel
(a)
Carbon steel
28.

Identify the figure


(a) lead & zinc
(b) rubber
75. Cleco clamps are used to align parts prior to being riveted to an a/c th
ecolour of the cleco clampos indicate the dia rivet to be use4d with . The colour
glod denotes
(i)

5/32 (ii)

3/16 (iii)

1/8 (iv)

3/32

78.

The paper lok fastener is effective in absorbing


(i)
(iii)

12.

Torsion loads
Bending loads

(ii)
(iv)

Either static or dynamic loads


tensile loads

Dia and length of the screws is decoded by the dash number -516-10
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Dia is 5/16 and length is 1


Length is 5/16 and dia is 10/16
Dia is 5/16 and length is 5/8
Dia is a size and length is 10/16

37. When power is to be transmitted inn one directionally and the force is
transmitted parallel to axis ie use
(i)
(iii)
0.

Plain washers
Tab washers

(ii)
(iv)

Spring washers
Crinkle washers

Internal and external threads per inch


No. of external threads per inch
Pitch diameter of the threads and double depth of threads
Both (i) and (iii)

The thread angle of the square thread is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

10.

Flanks are the sides of the threads


Pitch is the no of threads in a inch
Lead is the distance covered by an external thread in 720 rotation
All of the above.

Screw pitch gage measures


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

41.

ACME thread
Knuckle

Washers as safety device often used in lightly loaded applications in


instrument and electrical instrument and electrical installations are
(i)
(ii)

69.

(ii)
(iv)

Mark the correct statement


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

41.

Square thread
Buttress

29 deg
90 deg
More than 90 deg to provide correct fit
Less than 90 deg to provide correct fit

Generally speaking ball grip length should be


(a) one and one half times the thickness of the material through which
they extend
(b) equal to the thickness of the material through which they
extend plus approximately one diameter
(c)
equal to the thickness of the material through which they extend

(d)

which the thickness of the material through which they extend

35.

For repairing the oversize hole with sleeve, the hole must be drilled
oversized by
(a) 3/16
(b) 1/32
(c) 1/64
(d) 3/64

36.

7 X 19 size of cable indicates


(a) 7 wires of 19 strand
(c)
7 strand of 19 strand

(b)
(d)

40.

An 12 H5 indicates
(a) dia 3/5 and head is not drilled
(b) dia 6/8 and head is drilled
(c)
dia 6/8 and head is drilled
(d) dia 6/8 and shank & head is drilled

42.

AN 12115 indicates
(a) dia 3/5 and head
(b) dia 6/8 and head
(c)
dia 6/8 and head
(d) dia 6/8 head and

45.
3.

10.

11.
53.

35.

37.

7 strand of 19 wire
none

is not drilled
is not drilled
is drilled
shank is drilled

While riveting hole center can be marked by


(a) center punch
(b) template

(c)

hole finder

Edge distance is
(a) 2 times the shank diameter
(b) 2 times the sheet thickness
(c)
2 times of head diameter
(d) none
Rivet can be removed by
(a) center punch
(b) prick punch
(c)
pin punch (drift punch drive or punch)
(d) alignment punch
While riveting center hole can be located by
(a) center pitch
(b) template
(c)
hole finder
(d) all of the above
Edge distance is
(a) 2 times the shank diameter
(b) 2 times the sheet thickness
(c)
2 times of head diameter
(d) none
For repairing the oversize hole with sleeve, the hole must be drilled
oversized by
(a) 3/16
(b) 1/32
(c) 1/64
(d) 3/64
Which of the following pin is used to take shear load
(a) taper pin
(b) clevis pin
(c)
roll pin
(d) cotton pin

42.

10.

AN 12115 indicates
(a) dia 3/5 and head
(b) dia 6/8 and head
(c)
dia 6/8 and head
(d) dia 6/8 head and

is not drilled
is not drilled
is drilled
shank is drilled

Generally speaking ball grip length should be


(a) one and one half times the thickness of the material through which
they extend
(b) equal to the thickness of the material through which they
extend plus approximately one diameter
(c)
equal to the thickness of the material through which they extend
(d) which the thickness of the material through which they extend

TOOLS
HAMMER
1.

Soft faced hammers should


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

2.

Always be used to strike chisel head


Always be stored in clean rooms
Not be used for rough work(529)
As in (iii) and to striking punch heads bolts or nails

When striking a blow with the hammer


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Use the fore arm as an extension of the handle


Always strike the squarely with the full face of the hammer
Swing the hammer by bending the elbow not the wrist
Any of the above(529)

3.

What amount of load is acting on the bold extension bar is used on the
torque wrench as shown in figure
(a) 150 lbs
(b) 125 lbs
(c)
175 lbs
(d) 200 lbs

When precision tightening of nut is required, which tool is used


(a) allen wrench
(b) torque wrench
(c)
spanner wrench
(d) combination wrench

5.

Box end wrenches are made with


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

6.

Allen wrenches are six sided bars and they range in size from
(i)
(iii)

7.

3/64 to 1
3/32 to

(ii)
(iv)

1/8 to
3/64 to (534)

In the adjustable wrench the angle of the opening to the handle is


(i)
(iii)

8.

12 point and used in places having a little as 15 degree swing(532)


16 point and used in places having a swing of 50 degree
8 point and used in open places
12 points used in restricted places

15 degree
32 degree

(ii)
(iv)

22 degree(533)
55 degree

If A = Lever length of a wrench, B= Lever of a wrench plus extension,


Te= required torque on bolt and Tw=Torque reading on wrench dia then
which of the relations between them is true

9.

(i)

Te

Tw x A
------B

(iii)

Te

=
AxB
-----Tw

(ii)

Tw

(iv)

None

Te x A
------- (9-29)
B

Torque is defined as the arm multiplied by the


(i)
9iii)

Torsion
Length of range multiplier

(ii)
(iv)

Length of the lever


Applied force(2-15)

10.

Combination set can be used as


(a) vernier caliper
(b) depth gauge, height gage, normal tri square and scriber(543)
(c)
micrometer
(d) all

11.

Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft of other cylindrical work
(i)
(iii)

12.

Combination set(9-33)
Micrometer caliper

(ii)
(iv)

Dial indicator
Slip gauge

Mark the correct statement


(i)
Torque wrenches must be tested at least once a month
(ii)
(I) fro corrosion resisting steel nut, use torque values give for shear
type nuts
(iii) If during tightening operation the head of the bold is turned in stead
of the nut, the max. torgue values may be increases by an amount equal
to the shear strength of the bolt.
(iv) All are correct

13. The pliers which are known as DIKES are


(i)
(iii)
14.

(ii)
(iv)

Round nose pliers


Needle nose pliers

Low pressure angle result in


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

15.

Nose pliers
Diagonal pliers(531)

Stronger teeth
(ii)
Weaker teeth
Strength has nothing to do with pressure angle
Could be stronger or weaker depending on module adopted

Round nose pliers are used to


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Safety wire the component


Gripping objects with large diameters
Crimp metal(530)
Hold odd shaped parts

16.

Diagonal pliers are used


(i)
(iii)

17.

For safety wiring (ii)


To grasp packing nuts

To cut wire, rivets and cotter pins(531)


(iv) None of the above

Which statement is true regarding files


(i)
Triangular files are single cut and used for filing gullet between saw
teeth(537)
(ii)
Triangular files are double cut and used for filing gullet between saw
teeth
(iii) Three square files are single cut and used for filing gullet between
saw teeth
(iv) Filing angles clearing out corners, and filing taps and cutters

18.

Triangular file used for :(a) filing acute angle


(c)
a and b both

(b)
(d)

hex saw tooth


none

19.

Aviation snip is used for cutting


(a) thick metal sheet
(b) thick stainless sheet
(c)
heat treated al-alloy and stainless steel sheet(534)
(d) all types of thick sheet

21.

Name the snip shown in the figure


(i)
Trozon snips
(ii)
Hawks-bill snips
(iii) Circle snips
(iv) Duck bill snips

22. Aviation snips are designed especially for cutting heat treated Al alloy
and stainless steel as thick as
(i)

.031 (ii)

.051(534) (iii)

.075 (iv)

.085

23.

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension


(a)
mechanic scale
(b) surface gauge
(c)
dial indicator
(d) all are correct

24.

The size of the cold chisel is determined by


(a)
length of cutting edge
(b) weight
(c)
width of cutting edge(536)
(d) none

25.

In chisel the shape of the cutting edge is grounded


(a) convex
(b) convex to concentrate the shock at the center of the cutting
edge(536)

26.

For general use chisel, the cutting angle should be


(i)
(iii)

27.

flat chisel
Round nose chisel (536)

(ii)
(iv)

cape chisel
Diamond point chisel

round nut having slot at intervals (ST/510)


square nut having slot at interal
Hexagonal nut having slot at internal
All

round nut having series of knotches or slots on its side


hexagonal nut with slots
??? nut with slots
all

is used for inside measurement


range from 5/16 to 6
range from to 1
both A & B (9-40)

Hole gage is used for


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

33.

Diamond point chisel(536)


None of the above

Telescoping gage
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

32.

(ii)
(iv)

Block spanner is used on


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

31.

Round nose chisel


Cape chisel

The hook spanner is used for


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

30.

45 to 55 degree
55 to 75 degree

Chisel used to recenter a drill which has moved away from its centre
(i)
(iii)

29.

(ii)
(iv)

Chisel used to cut B grooves and sharp angles


(i)
(iii)

28.

60 to 70 degree(536)
50 to 75 degree

measuring grooves and slots


measuring small holes
both A & B (ST/78)
None

Plug gage is used for


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

checking
checking
checking
all of the

the internal dia of cylindrical shaft


the size of plug needed for blanking
the accuracy of holes (ST/107)
above

34.

Which gage is used to measure the back lash between gears


(a)
(c)

35.

lead is equal to pitch


pitch is 2 times of lead

(b)
(d)

lead is 2 times of pitch (ST-257)


None

scale punch
center gage

(b)
(d)

screw pitch gage (ST/79)


all

depth,width and space is equal


strong
all (ST/260)

on both side
(b)
use on slat by diameter and (d)

.. on one side only


both A & C

A combination set is used as


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

42.

on a lathe with a specially shaped cutting tool.


On spiral machine using rotary cutter
by rolling on spiral machine using dies.
all

Needle file are


(a)
(c)

41.

ring thread gauge (ST/268)


Plug thread gauge

In square thread
(a)
(b)
(c)

40.

(b)
(d)

No of threads per inch can be checked by


(a)
(c)

39.

screw pitch gauge


thread gauge

In double start thread


(a)
(c)

38.

screw pitch gage


DTI (LG/66)

Thread may be produced by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

37.

(b)
(d)

Accuracy of a finished screw threads determined by


(a)
(c)

36.

filler gage
filler gage

depth gauge, tri-square, scriber


protractor ,scriber, tri-square
center head, protractor, scriber (ST/74)
none

Die is used for


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

cutting internal threads


cutting external threads
as in 2 and made of steel, hardened and tempered (547)
as in 1 and made of steel

43.

When material is forced through a die to take the shape of die is called
(a)
(c)

44.

heat to cherry red colour


as in (a) and dipped in sand
heat to dazzling white
as in (b) and heat to purple colour

60 degree (531) (ii) 80 degree (iii) 45 degree (iv) 35 degree

A prick punch is made of hardened tool steel and ground to a slender


point having a included angle of
(i)
(iii)

47.

30 to 60 (ST/41)

35 to 75

(ii) Gun metal


(iv) to place reference marks on the metal (531)

The size of the punch is determined by the


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

49.

(ii)
(iv)

Pricks punches are use for


(i) For locating steel
(iii) Removing pins

48.

rolling
Casting (Mg)

A centre punch is ground to a point with an angle of about


(i)

46.

(b)
(d)

A punch made of tool steel is heat treated to


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

45.

Forging
Extrusion

According to metal to be punched


Width of the face
As in 2 and which is usually 1/8 to (531)
As in 2 and width is usually 1/16 to 3/16

Mark the correct statement


(a) Off set screw drivers are constructed with both ends bent at 90 deg
to the shank (ST/43)
(b) Rachet screw driver is used for heavy duty
(c)
Reed and prince screw driver is interchangeable with Philips so
(d) all are correct

50.

Mark the correct statement


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

51.

Philips screw driver has sharp end


Reed and prince screw driver has sharp end (530)
Reed and prince screw has larger area in center
Both are interchangeable

Screw driver can be classified by its


(i)

Shape and type of blade

(ii)

Thickness of the blade

(iii)
52.

(ii)

75% (529)

(iii)

25%

for sawing clearance


ripsaw

(b)
(d)

raker
none

Thick walled tubing


Thin walled tubing and thick sheet metal
Thin walled tubing and sheet metal (535)
None of the above

Hacksaw strokes should be long and steady with a speed not more than
35 to 40 strokes per minutes
40 to 50 strokes per minutes (535)
45 to 55 strokes per minutes
100 strokes per minutes

57.

Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)

the correct statement:Drill should have properly grounded cutting edge


90 degree angle for soft metal
A and b both are correct

58.

Drill comes in various shank:(a)

bit, straight, tappered and ratchet shank (ST/154)

To reduce the friction between the drill and the sides of the hole
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

60.

90%

between center of end holes (ST/52)


from the one end of blade to other end

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

59.

(iv)

Use a 32 teeth per inch backsaw blade for cutting


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

56.

50%

Every third tooth of Hacksaw is made straight


(a)
(c)

55.

As in (i) and blade length (529)

Hacksaw blade length is measured


(a)
(b)

54.

(iv)

The common screw driver must fill at least.. percent of screw slot
(i)

53.

Shape of the handle

Shank is slightly larger in dia than the margin


Shank is slightly smaller in dia than the margin
The drill is slightly tapered from shank to tip
As in (ii) and drill is slightly tapered form tip to shank (ST/153)

When drilling soft metal, the more efficient cutting angle is


(i)
(iii)

59 degree
(ii) 45 degree
90 degree (539) (iv) 118 degree

61.

If no marking of drill,identification of drill can be measured by


drill gauge having
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

63.

Highest size of drill is


(a)
(c)

64.

(b)
(d)

3/16 (0.1875)
E (0.2500)

.003 to .007 under size(539)


.005 to .007 under size

(ii)
(iv)

.003to .007 over size


.005 to .007 over size

Blad type drill bit is best suited for drilling of


(i)
(iii)

66.

No 80 (0.0135)
3.75mm (0.1475)

The hole which is to be reamed to exact size must be drilled about


(i)
(iii)

65.

fraction on right and not on left


fraction on left and not on right
both a & b
found by drill size gage No of right fraction left
none of the above

Fiberglass
Carbon/graphite

(ii)
(iv)

Aramid
Epoxes

The dia of a twist drill may be given is one or three ways. The more
accurate system for classification
(i)
(iii)

The number system(539)


(ii)
By fraction
By letter
iv)
As in (ii) & in 1/16, 1/32 and 1/64

67.

A dull drill is indicated if the drill :


(i)
penetrates the work fastly
(ii)
as in (i) and produces rough surface and becomes hot
(iii) penetrates the work slowly or not at all(159)
(iv) both (ii) and (iii) are correct

68.

Which method of specifying diameter of a drill is most accurate


(i)
(iii)

69.

By fraction
By numbers(539)

(ii)
(iv)

Margin of drill is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Difference b/w outside and inside dia


Difference between helix and flutes
Body of the drill
None of the above

By letters
By decimal

70.

Drilling in plastic sheets it is recommended not special multi stepped drills


having
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

71.

Burrs around drill hole is removed by


(a)
(c)

72.

before reaming
before and after reaming

(b)
(d)

after reaming
none

making hole in conductive metal


making hole in non-conductive job
making hole clearly and fairly
both a & c are correct

2.5

(b)

2.1667

(c)

3.5 (d)

2.75

Extension tap is longer that the usual tap is used for


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

76.

empty paper

What size of the hole should be bored before cutting a 2.5


internal acme thread having 8 thread per inch
(a)

75.

(b)

Dis intergration used to


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

74.

file
oversize drilling

Hole must be inspected for cracks or burs


(a)
(c)

73.

Small incremental increases in dia are used


Standard twist drill can be used
Slow spiral and a hide polished flute are also suitable
(i) & (iii) are correct

cut full threads in blind hole to bottom


cut the thread in deep hole and for tapping nuts by machine ( ST261)
thread cuts on long shaft
all of the above

Which statement is correct regarding hand tap


(a) Taper, plug, bottoming
(b) As in (a) & bottoming tap is used to cut thread at bottom(9-20)
(c)
measure the radioactive contamination of a/c flying above
stratosphere
(d) check the condition of a/c after heavy landing
(e) check the penetration of a/c by ultraviolet rays above stratosphere
(f)
none of the above

77.

Mark the correct statement.


(a)
(b)

straight fluted, reamer prevents chattering


spiral fluted reamer is tapered to aid in starting(541)

(c)
(d)

bottoming reamer is tapered to aid in starting


none of the above

78.

Hand reamers have

(i)

Pyramid shank
(iii) Hexagonal shank

79.

Reamer are used for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

80.

(ii)

Square end shank(539)


(iv) Taper shank

Drilling holes
Smoothing and enlarging holes to exact size(539)
Polishing the holes
Repairing the holes

Mark the correct statement


(a) single needle pointed end scriber should be sharp and
surface should be checked for flatness with straight edge
(b) single needle pointed end scriber should be sharp
(c)
90 deg bend, scriber should not be sued as far as possible
(d) all of the above

81.

The angle of the standard counter sink is


(i)
(iii)

82.

(b)
(d)

forging
both a & b

65 to 85 degree
30 to 45 degree

(ii)
(iv)

40 to 45 degree(536)
70 to 80 degree

40 to 45 degree
70 to 80 degree

(ii)
(iv)

30 to 45 degree
65 to 85 degree(536)

The first row of file teeth is reffered to as


(i)
(iii)

86.

machining
extrusion

The single cut file has a single row of teeth extending across the face at
an angle of
(i)
(iii)

85.

118 degree
(iv) 135 degree

The double cut file has two rows of teeth which cross each other the angle
of first row is
(i)
(iii)

84.

(ii)

Black smith anvil is made by


(a)
(c)

83.

59 degree
100 degree (J 9-18)

Over cut(536)
Double cut

Mark the correct statement

(ii)
(iv)

Up cut
Under cut

(i)

Choose the right file for the material and work to be performed

(ii)
Keep all files racked and separated so they dont bear against each
other
(iii) Apply oil and grease to the file when not in use
(iv) As in (i) & (ii) and keep the files clean(538)
87.

Hand shears are needed to make large holes or curved parts. They have
coloured handles which identifies direction of cuts. The red colour
(i)
(iii)

88.

Cuts straight
(ii) Cut curves both left and right
Cuts curves left (J 9-12) (iv) Cut curves right

A Hyd . Operated squaring shear can cut at alloy sheet thick up to


(i)

1/16 (ii) 1/8 (iii)

3/16

(iv)

16 gauge

89.

90 deg angle made on the working edge of the scriber is


(a) used to scribe or marks the line on metal surface
(b) for reaching and marking through holes
(c)
to help the correct marking
(d) all

90.

Herringbone reamer is best reamer for reaming of


(i)
(iii)

91.

(ii)
(iv)

Carbon/graphite
Ceramic

Spade type drill bit is best for drilling of


(i)
(iii)

92.

Aramid
Fiberglass

Ceramic
Aramid

(ii)
(iv)

Baron
Carbon/Graphite

The operation of pushing and pulling a across the work and holding
(i)
(iii)

Draw filing
Safe

(ii)
(iv)

Cross filing
Pinning

93. Draw filing means


(i)
(ii)
work
(iii)
(iv)
94.

Filing straight
File is moved by holding at each end and moving length wise to
or side ways across the work (537)
Filing cross wise
Filing width wise

While riveting hole center can be marked by


(a)

center punch

(b)

template

(c)

hole finder

95.

Counter sinking is the operation of


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

96.

producing an angular surface at the end of hole


made in many diameter, sizes and angles
making screws and bolt to flush with the surface
all(541)

Identify the figure


(a)
(c)

glat drill
twist drill

(b)
(d)

straight fluited drill


none

97.

Mark the correct statement


(a) prick punch is used to mark center mark for drilling
purpose
(b) centre punch is used for removing binded rivets, bolts
(c)
prick punch is used for marking reference marks on sheet
metal(531)

98.

Cetre drill is used to produce


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

99.

short hole and CSK hole (countersunk)


short hole and large hole
both a & b (ST-192)
none

Extension tap is used to


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

cutting threads in deep holes and cutting the thread in nut


cutting threads in nut
start the cutting of the threads
production and automatic tapping machine

100. Broken tap in the hole is remove by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

tap extractor
easy out screw extractor (for broken screw)
by drilling on the top of tap
None

104. The tool shown is


(a)

flap wrench

(b)

die stock

(c)

none

105. Which is used to transfer rivet size from template to new sheet is
(a)
(c)

centre punch
alignment punch

(b)
(d)

pin punch
transfer punch(532)

109. The angle of the standart counter sink is


(i)
(iii)

50 degree
(ii)
100 degree(542) (iv)

118 degree
135 degree

110. In threads the bottom of flank attached by


(i)

Root ( ST-259) ( top is crest) (ii)

Face (iii)

Pitch circle

PRECESION INSTRUMENT
1.

A hermaphrodite caliper is generally


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

2.

Calipers are used for the purpose of


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3.

shaft gage
All

Dial indicator(9-39)
Protractor

(iv)

(ii)
Shaft gauge
None of the above

Dial test indicator


Micrometer caliper

(ii)
(iv)

Combination set
Depth gauge

Accuracy of the V blocks can be checked by


(i)
(iii)

7.

(b)
(d)

What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main
bearing journals for out of round wear
(i)
(iii)

6.

dial indicator (9-39)


protector

Which tool can be used to measure the out of round condition on a shaft
or the plane of rotation of a disk?
(i)
(iii)

5.

Measuring inside diameter


(9-34)
Measuring outside dia
to help the correct marking through holes
all

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the
plane of rotation of disk.
(a)
(c)

4.

Used to transfero measurement


Used to mark a specific distance from a radius edge.
Should not be used for precision measurement
(ii) & (iii) are correct(9-34)

Gage block
(ii)
DTI
Surface plate or surface gage
(iv)

Depth micrometer

Surface plate is checked for accuracy by


(a) thickness gauge
(b) surface gauge

(c)

DTI

(d)

None

8.

Backlash in the gear can be measured by


(a) DTI(9-40)
(b) micrometer
(c)
thread gauge (filler gauge) (d) telescoping gauge

9.

Side clearance of piston ring is measured by(a) micrometer


(b) thickness gauge(9-34)
(c) depth gauge
(d) dial gauge

10.

The diameter of the aluminium sheet increases


(a)
as the gauge No. increase
(b)
as the gauge No decrease
(c)
remain constant
(d) varies from gauge to gauge

11.

Vernier scale is also used in


(a) micro scope and spectrometer
(b) Sextant and spectrometer
(c)
both A & B
(d) None

12.

Vernier scale is used on


(a)
microscope
(c)
spheroscope

13.

(b)
(d)

boroscope
All

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy


(i)
(iii)

Gauge block(9-37)
Machinist scale

(iv)

(ii)
Dial indicator
None of the above

14.

The precision measuring tool most universally used is


(a) dial gage
(b) depth gage
(c)
micrometer caliper(9-35)
(d) vemier caliper

15.

The dimensional inspection of a bearing in rocker arm can be


accomplished by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

depth gage and micrometer


telescoping gage and micrometer
thickness gage and push .
all are correct

16.

For very accurate readings during such calibrations the thimble may be
viewed under a microscope of
(a) low magnification
(b) medium magnification
(c)
High magnification

17.

If the thimble scale zero mark is above the zero mark of barrel
mark in micrometer it indicates

(a)
(c)
18.

negative error
None

0.169
0.170

(ii)
(iv)

0.174
0.173

Identify the correct statement.


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

20.

(b)
(d)

If a micrometer having 0.002 (+ve) error, The micrometer reads 0.171.


The actual reading is
(i)
(iii)

19.

Positive error
zero error

An outside micrometer is limited to measuring diameters.


Trammels are used to scribe small area.
Tools used on certificated aircraft must be an approved type.
Dividers do not provide a reading when used a measuring device.

The Zero line of the sleeve is above the datum line of the barrel in a
micrometer, the error is
(i)
(iii)

Positive error
Backlash error

(ii)
(iv)

Negative error
Any of the above

21.

Bevel protractor has accuracy


(i)
5 and 9 divisions of main scale are divided in 10 divisions of vernier
scale
(ii)
10 and 9 divisions of main scale are divided in 10 divisions of
vernier scale
(iii) 5 and 23 of main scale are divided in . Divisions of vernier scale
(iv) 10 and 23 of main scale are divided in 24 divisions of vernier scale

22.

The reading of the micrometer shown in the figure is :


(i)
(iii)

23.

(ii)
(iv)

5.64 mm
5.64 cm

In a micrometer in the main scale each cm divided into 10 equal parts


and in circular scale 9 division of main scale equals to 10 divisions of
circular scale the least count of the micrometer is.
(a)

24.

5.39 mm
5.39 cm

1 mm

(b) 0.01 mm

(c)

0.01 cm

(d)

0.001 mm

In a micrometer the smallest division on main scale is 0.5mm. The


vernier scale is divided into 25 division and it moves one division on the
main scale for complete rotation of the vernier scale then the least count
of the micrometer is
(a)

0.01mm

(b) 0.002 cm

(c) 0.01 cm (d) 0.001 mm

25.

If a line is divided into 25 division so that 25 divisions of this line is equal


to 24 division of another line so that minimum distance that be measured
is equal to difference between the value of each division it is the principle
of
(a)

DTI

(b)

Micrometer (c)

Vernier scale

(d)

rules

26.

If 1 cm of main scale is divided in 20 equal division 24 division of


main scale is divided in 25 equal division of vernier scale, least count
is
(a) 0.0002 cm (b) 0.002 cm (c) 0.2 cm
(d) 2.0 cm

27.

In a venire micrometer 9 parts of the main scale is divided into 10 parts


of the vernier scale the main scale has graduation of 1mm> The least
count is
(a)

28.

29.

30.

0.01 mm

(b) 0.020 mm (c) 0.009 mm (d) 0.001 mm

Pitch of the micrometer is


(a) 20 TPI
(c)
30 TPI

(b)
(d)

40 TPI
50 TPI

Least count of micrometer is


(a) 0.01 mm
(c)
0.0001mm

(b)
(d)

0.001 mm
0.1 mm

Bevel protractor has accuracy


(i)
5 and 9 divisions of main scale are divided in 10 divisions of vernier
scale
(ii)
10 and 9 divisions of main scale are divided in10 divisions of
vernier scale
(iii) 5 and 23 divisions of main scale are divided in 12 divisions of
vernie scale
(iv) 10 and 23 divisions of main scale are divided in 12 divisions of
vernier scale

31.

One cm on the main scale of a vernier caliper is divided in 20 equal parts


and 24 divisions of the main scale are equal to 25 divisions of vernier
scale, what will be the accuracy of the vernier calipers :
(i)
(iii)

0.02 cm
0.01 cm

(ii)
(iv)

0.002 cm
0.001 cm

HAND TOOLS(QB)
1.

Tw=100;

Te=? Extension=5,

A=20 (Torque wrench)

150 in lbs
175 in lbs

b) 125 in lbs
d) 200 in lbs

GAGE
1.
Which tool is used to measure the clearance between the surface plates and a
relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness.
a. Depth gauge
b. Thickness gauge
c. Dial indicator
d. Vernier Caliper
2.

Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylinder work
a. Combination set
b. Dial indicator
c. Micrometer caliper
d. Set square

3.

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy


a. Gauge block
b. Dial indicator
c. Machinist scale
d. None of these

4.

A quality of precision gage have the accuracy of


(a) 0.000008 inch
(c) 0.000002 inch

(b) 0.000004 inch


(d) 0.000004 inch

5.
The convenient gages which are designed to inspect the
thickness of paper, plastic, steel metal, leather and so on with great
accuracy are
(a) indicating depth gage
(b) indicating thickness gage
(c) amplifying comparative gage (d) indicating gage
6.

Telescoping gage
(a) is used for inside diameter (b) range from to 6
(c) range from to 1
(d) both (a) & (b)

7.

Whole gage is used for measuring


(a) Grooves and slots
(b) small hole
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none

8.
An amplifying, comparative gage is an instrument that amplifies
the variation in the size of two similar parts by
(a) 2 times
(b) 5 times
(c) 10 times
(d) 20 times
9.

Johansson precision gage blocks, the second series of gage blocks contains
(a) 19 blocks
(b) 49 blocks
(c) 81 blocks
(d) none of these

HAMMER
1.

Hard hammers are made of


a) High carbon steel
b) Carbon steel and forged to shape and size
c) Tool steel
d) Mild steel

2.

Which hammers have large smooth faces and are lightweight?


a) Ball peen hammers
b) Body hammers(9-3)
c) Cross peen hammers
d) Sledge hammers

3.

Which hammers are used for riveting & stretching of metals


a) Ball peen hammer(9-3)
b) Straight peen hammer
c) Soft faced hammer
d) Both a and b are correct

4.

Soft hammers are made of


1) Babbitt 2) Brass 3) Carbon steel 4) Wood

5) Tool steel

5.

The most commonly used driving tool by a mechanic is


a) Ball peen hammer
b) Cross peen hammer
c) Claw hammer
d) Sledge hammer

6.

(i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground
(ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metal
a) Only (i) is correct
b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct (9-3)

7.

i) Mallets can be termed as soft hammers


ii) Plastic mallets are more useful than raw hide mallets
a) Only (i) is correct
b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (9-3)
d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

8.

(i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out nails
(ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handle
a) Only (i) is correct (9-2)
b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

PUNCH
1.

A punch is used to
a) Mark a location
c) Locate a drill properly

2.

b) Remove a damaged rivet


d) All are correct

i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet
head has been chiselled off
ii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the
rivet to be removed
a) Only i) is correct (9-5)
c) Both i) and ii) are correct

3.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

i) Location given by a prick punch should always be punched later with a


centre punch.
ii) Goggles must be used while using any type of punch.
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct(9-5)

4.

i) A mushroom head on a punch is better than a crown head since chances of


hammer slip are reduced
ii) A centre punch can be used for a variety of punching applications
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct

5.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct(9-4)

Punch used for making a series of light pops along scribed line, which will be
machined or filed away
a) Pin punch
c) Light centre punch

6.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

b) Stout punch
d) Parallel pin punch

A punch made of tool steel is heat treated to


(a) heat to cherry red colour
(b) as in (a) & dipped in sand
(c) heat to dazzling white
(d) as in (b) & heat to purple colour

7.

Prick punch has an included angle of


a) 150

b) 450

c)650

d) 900

8.

While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch should be
a) Larger than the size of the pin
b) Smaller than the size of pin
c) Same size of the pin
d) Can be of any size

10.

Punch holders are used to hold


a.
Punches
b.
Chisels
c.
Both a & b are correct (9-4)
d.
As in a, when a hard blow is required

PLIER
1.
2.

Most commonly used slip joint plier has a length of


a) 4 inches
b) 6 inches (9-6)
c) 10 inches
Duckbill plier
a) Is a flat nose plier
b) Is used for twisting safety wires
c) Have serrations on their jaws
d) All are correct (9-7)

3.

Needle nose pliers are used for


a) Extracting thin/sharp components
b) Extracting nails
c) Gripping small electronic components (9-7)
d) All are correct

4.

Vise grip pliers is also known as


a.
b.
c.
d.

5.

Heavy pliers
Lever jaw wrench
Monkey pliers
None

Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire


operation?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Safety wire pliers


Diagonals & duck bill pliers
Both a & b are correct(9-6)
As in a & diagonals

d) 12 inches

6.

The shape of long nose pliers is


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

7.

The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

9.

Round
Half-round
Square
None

A small lever at each handle


A compound lever at both handles
A small lever at one of the handles (9-6)
None

In interlocking-joint pliers,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

There are a number of holes at the hinge point


There are two holes at the hinge point
There are several curved grooves at the hinge point (9-6)
None

CHISEL
1.

i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself


ii) A die is a cutting tool
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct

2.

Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of


a) 30 degrees
c) 90 degrees

3.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

b) 70 degrees (9-8)
d) 110 degrees

Regarding a cutting chisel which statement is incorrect?


a) It is made from high grade steel
b) Its cutting edge is always wider than the shank
c) Cutting edge is flat so that force is applied uniformly on the surface (9-6)
d) Chisel body is either square or octagonal

4.

i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it
has been drilled through
ii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold chisel

a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct (9-8)
5.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

The size of flat cold chisel is determined by


(a) width of cutting edge
(b) length of cutting edge
(c) length of chisel
(d) all

SNIPS

1.

Aviation snip
a) Is same as Dutchman snip
b) Has serrated cutting edges
c) Can easily cut thick sheet metals
d) All are correct

FILES

1.

Files are classified with regard to


a) Physical shape
c) Type of cut

2.

Various types of cut of a file are


a) Single cut
c) Rasp

3.

b) Length
d) All are correct (536)

b) Smooth cut
d) Both a) & b) are correct (536)

Rasp file is used for


a) Hard material
b) Lead, wood or leather (9-10)
c) Both a) & b)
d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather

4.

Vixen file have


a) Curved teeth
b) No taper either in width or thickness
c) A special file holder
d) All are correct(9-10)

5.

i) Wood rasp files have individual teeth cut on to their surfaces


ii) Wood rasps are used to remove wood from a surface where it is not practical
to use a saw or a plane
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct (9-10)

6.

i) Mill files have uniform thickness, but are tapered in width


ii) Hand files have uniform thickness and width
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct

7.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct(9-10)

i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and width


ii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in width
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct(9-10)

8.

b) Round files
d) All are correct

Most files used in aviation have a length of


a) 4-10 inches
c) 6-16 inches

10.

b) 6-12 inches
d) 10-20 inches

The part of a file that fits into the handle is called


a) Heel

11.

b) Fitting end

c) Tang (9-9)

d) Point

i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edges


ii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsaws
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct (9-9)

12.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

For filing acute angles, one should use


a) Knife files(9-10)
c) Triangular files

9.

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at
a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees (9-9)
b) 45 degrees and 45 degrees
c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees
d) None of these

13.

There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the
wrong one
a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest (9-9)

14.

File should be kept clean by


a) Tapping it against the bench
b) Brushing it with a wire brush
c) Lubricating it occasionally
d) Both a) & b) are correct (538)

15.

Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth
a) Vixen (537)

16.

Hand file is related to _______ of file

b) Only ii) is correct


d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct (536)

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft


or the plain of rotation of a disc
(a) Dial indicator
(c) Protector

20.

b) Cut of file
d) Section of files

(i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work
(ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work
a) Only i) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct

19.

d) Triangular

b) High grade tool steel that is hardened and tempered (536)


d) Mild steel

a) Length of file
c) Grade of file
18.

c) Knife

Files used in fitting shop are made from


a) Cast iron
c) Chrome steel

17.

b) Wood rasp

(b) Shaft gauge


(d) Micro meter

Needle file are


(a) knurled on both sides
(b) knurled on one side
(c) used on slot by dye maker and watch maker
(d) both (b) & (c)

SAW
1.

A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called a


a) Cross cut saw
c) Back saw

2.

b) Rip saw
d) Wood saw

A cross cut saw has


a) 4-6 teeth per inch
c) 10-15 teeth per inch

b) 6-12 teeth per inch


d) 12-18 teeth per inch

3.

Find out the incorrect statement regarding back saw


a) It is used for cutting precision parts
b) It has 18-32 teeth per inch
c) It is same as hacksaw
d) Cutting teeth has very little set

4.

Hacksaw blades are


a) Made from stainless steel
b) 12 inches in length
c) Held under tension in the frame
d) Having 10-14 teeth per inch

5.

i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum
steel
ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade
should be lifted for the return stroke
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

6.

i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used
ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are
there on each side of the tube as it is cut
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

7.

Length of hacksaw is measured from


a) The outer edge
b) toothed part of blades
c) Between the centre of fixing holes
d) Both a) & b) are correct

8.

Slotting hacksaw blade is usually of


a) 18 long 3/4" wide

b) 8 long 1/2" wide

c) 12 long 3/4" wide

d) None of these

9.

Hacksaw is used by
a) Putting same pressure for forward and backward stroke
b) Putting pressure for forward stroke and release the pressure in backward
stroke
c) Putting less pressure in forward stroke and more pressure in backward stroke
d) Any of these

10.

A cross cut saw has


a) 4-6 teeth per inch
c) 10-15 teeth per inch

b) 6-12 teeth per inch


d) 12-18 teeth per inch

11.

i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used
ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are
there on each side of the tube as it is cut
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

12.

Every third tooth is made straight for


(a) sawing clearance
(b)
(c)
rap saw
(d)

racker and for cleaning


all of the above

BITS
1.

Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are


a) Generally 7-10 inches long
b) - one inch in diameter
c) Used only with a bow type hand brace
d) All are correct

SCREW DRIVER
1.

2.

A screw driver can be used


a) For driving screws
c) As a chisel
Stubby screw driver has
a) A blunt edge
c) Only wooden handle

b) As a punch
d) All are correct
b) Blade length of up to 2
d) All are correct

3.

Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called
a) Closed area screw driver
b) Stubby screw driver
c) Off set slot screw driver
d) Any one of the above

4.

Air driven power screw driver should be used


a) For large diameter screw
b) For removing screw that are jammed

c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back


d) When removing screws from harder material
5.

A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain
width of the screw slot. It should cover at least
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 75%
d) 90%

6.

i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driver
ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw driver
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

7.

Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of


a) 730
b) 530
c) 600
d) 930

8.

Screw drivers are classified by


a) Type and length of blade
b) Type, grade, cut and section
c) Length and type
d) Overall length of screw driver

9.

Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are
not parallel
a) Phillips screwdriver
b) Reed & prince screwdriver
c) Both are correct
d) None

10.

The hallow magnetized shafts of interchangeable screwdrivers hold hex bits of


a) 1/2 inch size
b) 3/4 inch size
c) 3/8 inch size
d) 1/4 inch size

11.

The shape of which screwdriver permits the use of a wrench to assist in


tightening?
a) Stubby screwdriver
b) Phillips screwdriver
c) Heavy duty screwdriver
c) Double ended screwdriver

WRENCHES
1.

`With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement


a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel
b) These are generally die cast
c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes
d) These are plated to improve their appearance

2.

Open end wrenches


a) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in restricted
space
b) Are available in British & Metric sizes

c) Open a nut faster than box end wrenches


d) All are correct
3.

Box end wrenches are used


a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light
b) Where there is restricted space
c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size
d) When open end wrench is not available

4.

Combination wrenches means, its two ends have


a) Open and box end
b) Open and cut box end
c) Open and flare nut end
d) All are correct

5.

i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end wrench is used
ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips the nut at
many places compared to an open ended wrench
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

6.

i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrench


ii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelines
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

7.

Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used


a) Open end wrench
b) Box end wrench
c) Standard socket wrench
d) All are correct

8.

With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement


a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel
b) These are generally die cast
c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes
d) These are plated to improve their appearance

9.
Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated
jaws for gripping round pipes?
Warnok type
Stillson type
Super wrench tool
Williams type
10.

Spanners are classified by


a) Type
b) Material
c) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits d) All are correct

11.

Set spanners are off set to an angle


a) So that it can be used in restricted places

b) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner over


c) For proper grip
d) Both a) & b) are correct
12.

Ratchets
a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement
b) Are available with long and short handles
c) Can easily fit into sockets
d) All are correct

13.

Pinning is related to
a) Chisels
c) Screw drivers

b) Punches
d) None of these

14.

Snaps are used to


a) Support the markers head of rivets
b) To make the shop head during riveting
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these

15.

Steel drifts should be used


a) On soft materials
c) Hardened steel

16.

b) For driving ball or roller bearing


d) None of these

Ring spanners are used for


a) Fitting the nut all around
b) Fitting the nut from opened jaws
c) Fitting the splined nut
d) None of these

DRILL
1.

The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is
a) Dead centre
b) Point
c) Margin
d) Lip

2.

The angle between a lip and axis of the drill bit is known as ______ and mostly
590
a) Heel angle
b) Lip angle
c) Lip clearance
d) None of these

3.

Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled
is known as
a) Point
b) cutting lips
c) Margin
d) Flutes

4.

Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of

a) 2 : 3

b) 3 : 2

c) 1 : 4

d) 4 : 1

5.

Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are


a) Generally 7-10 inches long
b) - one inch in diameter
c) Used only with a bow type hand brace
d) All are correct

6.

The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is
(a) dead centre
(b) point
(c) margin
(d) lip

7.

The angle between a lip and axis of a drill bit is known as ___________ and
mostly 59.
(a) heel angle
(b) lip angle
(c) lip clearance
(d) none of these

8.

Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled
is known as
(a) point
(b) cutting lips
(c) margin
(d) flutes

9.

Thread may be produced by


(a) on a lathe with specially shaped cutting tool.
(b) on spiral machine using rotary cutter (Tapes).
(c) by rolling on spiral machine using dies.
(d) all.

10.

Hook spinner is used on


(a) round nut having series of knotches or slots cuts on its
side.
(b) hexagonal nuts with slots.
(c) octagonal nut with slots.
(d) all.

11. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on


threaded bolt or rod
(a) Self-locking nut
(b) Jamb nut
(c) Stainless steel nut with cotter pin
(d) None of these
12.

Diagonals are used for


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Cutting steel wires & rods


Cutting bolt heads
Both a & b are correct
None

MEASURING INSTRUMENTS(QB)
1.

Measuring capacity of Vernier Caliper is


(a) Full graduated length of main scale
(b) Full graduated length of main scale minus the length of the vernier scale.
(c) Full graduated length plus vernier scale
(d) All above

2.

Vernier caliper is checked for accuracy with the help of


(a) Slip gauge
(b) Micrometer
(c) Straight edge (d) both (a) and (b)

3.

Calliper Micrometer is used for measurement of


(a) Small internal diameter
(b) Big internal diameter
(c) External diameter
(d) All above

4.

For measurement of cutting a lapping dimension of Drills, Taps and Reamers


instrument used in
(a) External micrometer
(b) Internal micrometer
(c) Vee-block micrometer
(d) All above

5.

Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement


for faster work
(a) Vernier micrometer
(b) Vernier calliper
(c) Micrometer caliper
(d) none of these

FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS

1.

AN coupling used in Al tube diameter


(a)
(c)

2.

AN 818-5
AN-818-8

(b)
(d)

AN 818-2
any one

Which state is correct relating to swaging


(a) if the diameter of fitting is too large it has been over swaged
(b) if the diameter of fitting is too small it has been under swaged
(c ) if the diameter of fitting is too small it has been over swaged and
cable fitting must be ..ed.
(d) None

3.

Lay lining in the fitting indicates


(a) size of the hose
(c)
year and quarter of manufacture
symbol
(e) All (10-15)

4.

Regarding the plumbing of rigid tube, which is true


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

5.

inside diameter in increment of 1/16.


inside diameter in increment of 1/32.
out side diameter in increment of 1/16(10-3)
out side diameter in inreament of 1/32

The size of flexible hose is determined by :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

9.

smoothness
more concentric
seats better
all (10-6)

The rigid fluid tubes are sized by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

7.

less dia tubing requires less distance support


less dia tubing requires more distance support
large dia tubing required less distance support
large dia tubing requires more distance support

Double flaring (3/8 or smaller) provides


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

6.

(b) MIL spec no.


(d) manufacturers name or

Its inside dia in increments of 1/16 inch (10-16)


Its out side dia
Inside dia and wall thickness
Out side dia and type of rubber

Rigid metal tubing is classified according to its

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
10.

Flared tube fitting used in a/c are made of


(a)

11.

All are coorect(10-8)

body sleeve flared tube and nut


body sleeve and nut (10-9)
sleeve nut and end terminals
sleeve shoulder beaded tube and nut

tubing size and specification stamped on it


small tubing by color code and marking
both a & b (10-2)
none

low melting point and ductile (10-4)


hard and high melting point
should expand on solidifying
both a & b are correct

not more than 10% of tube diameter


less than 20% of tube dia (10-12)
not more than 40% of tube dia
must be rejected if dent occurs

16

(b)

21

(c)

(d)

36

All long extruded parts such as bar, tube, pipe etc are stored
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

17.

Steel (d)

The minimum distance between two clamps of a/c tubes is


(a)

16.

(c)

Denting in metal tube is acceptable if


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

15.

Cu

Fusible metals are used for tube (1/4 inch and below) bending has
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

14.

(b)

Mark the correct statement


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

13.

Al-alloy

Flareless tube fitting consists of following parts


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

12.

Wall thickness & outside dia in 1/16 increment (10-3)


Outside dia 1/16 increment
Wall thickness in 1/8 increment
2+3

horizontally
Horizontally well supported along its length
vertically inclined at an angle of 60 deg.
all

Minimum bend radius of flexible hose depends upon


(a)

type of the material

(b)

size of the hose

(c)

working pressure

(d)

all (10-20)

18. While testing for magnetic testing it was found non magnetic. In nitric
acid it was found rapid action greenish blue color. The material is
(a)

Ni-steel (9A 99)

(b)

18-8 steel (c)

Monel(d) CRS

CARBON - STRONGLY MAG- SLOW CHEMICAL ACTION, BROWN


18.8 - NON MAGNO ACTION
PURE NI- STRONGLY MAGSLOW CHEMICAL CTION, PALE GREEN
MONEL SLIGHTLY MAGNETICRAPID ACTION, GREENISH BLUE
NI STEELNON MAG---RAPID CATION, GREENISH BLUE
19.

Bending radius of Al-alloy tube is


(a)
(c)

20.

(b)
(d)

5 to 8 % of total length (10-17)


10 % of total length

yellow / blue (10-13)


yellow

(b)
(d)

Red
green

C.R.S either annealed or hard (10-2)


Al-alloy either annealed or hard
Tempered steel
(iv) None

The operating Temperature range for Teflon hose is(i)


(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

24.

2 to 3 % of total length
3 to 9 % of total length

For high pressure hydraulic installations, the tubing should be(i)


(ii)
(iii)

23.

12 times of its radius


3 times of its radius

Color of band on hydraulic fluid line :(a)


(c)

22.

(b)
(d)

In flexible hoses slack is given


(a)
(c)

21.

1
6 times of its radius

-65 degree F
-65 degree C to +350 Degree C
+65 degree F + 450 degree F
-65degree F to +450 Degree F ( 10-14)

During a proof test of a hose the pressure should be maintained for


(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

1.5 timesthe system pr for at least 30 sec (115)


b/w 30 60 sec
Not more than 30 sec
1 minute

25.

Fluid lines are identified by


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26.

The color of AN steel and aluminum fittings is


(i)
(iii)

27.

Black

(iv)

Red (100)

(ii)

Green

(iii)

Purple (100)

(iv)Red

Green
Blue and yellow

(ii)
(iv)

Brown and yellow (100)


Grey

b) 14

c) 9.5

d) 11.5(119)

9 (ii)

11

(iii)

12

(iv)

14 (119)

The maximum distance between supports for aliuminium alloy tubing of


5/16 dia is
12

(ii)22

(iii)

15 (119)

(iv)

18

The max distance between supports for Al alloy tubing of 3/8 (6/16)
dia tubing is as
(i)

52.

(iii) Grey

The max distance between supports for steel tubing of 3/16 dia is

(i)
64.

Purple

Maximum distance between support for fluid tubing of 1/8 (2/16) size of steel

(i)
31.

(ii)

Black

a) 12
30.

Blue
Black & Blue respectively (10-8)

The rigid pipe lines can be identified for the material by a colour band
painted on the tube. If the Al alloy is 7075, the colour is
(i)
(iii)

29.
is

(ii)
(iv)

The rigid pipe lines can be identified for the material by a colour band
painted on Tube . If the Al alloy is 5052 , the colour is
(i)

29.

Gray
Black

The rigid pipe lines can be identified for the material by a colour band
painted on the tube. If the Al alloy is 2024 the colour is
(i)

28.

Color codes and words


Color codes, words and geometric symbols (10-13)
Color codes, words, geometric s/s and digit numbers
None

12

(ii)

15

(iii)

19

(iv)

16 (119)

In a/c plumbing and fittings, a tube is permissible to be bent only by hand


if
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Tube dia. Is more than 14


Tube dia. Is more than
Tube dia is less than (10-4)

(iv)
61.

Tubing may be beaded with a hand beaded tool if the tube dia is not more
than
(i)
(iii)

31.

to 1 (10-10)
to 1

(ii)
9iv)

to 1
1/8 to

Lines containing Fuel are marked as


(i)
(iii)

32.

Both (ii) and (iii)

PHDAN
FUEL (10-13)

(ii)
(iv)

FLAM (10-13)
FLEM

When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing


(i)
paint removal from the tube is not recommended as it will inhibit
corrosion
(ii)
remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location (10-12)
(iii) Paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to prevent corrosion
(iv) use at least two coat of zinc chromate

33.

Due to excessive tightness of clamp or rubber hoses will lead to


(i)

34.

(ii)

Hot flow

(iii)

None

Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion


& contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

36.

Cold flow (114)

Using short sections of tubing between fixed parts of the a/c


Not subjecting the a/c to sudden changes in temperature
Providing bends in the tubing (10-11)
Installing the tubing of dia not more than

If a/c hose is removed from the system and to reinstall that hose it should
have
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

socket, nipple, nut


Clamp, nipple, nut
Clamp, socket, nipple
cap, socket, nut

37.

When bending oxygen pipes, to avoid contamination are generally filled


with
(i)
Fusible alloys of low melting temperature
(ii)
Wax
(iii) Sand
(iv) None of the above

38.

With the hose assy suspended from one end ball should pass truly
through and check should be repeated from other end. If the ball fails to
pass through the hose, the hose must be
(i)

Pressure tested

(ii)

The hose must be blown with air

(iii)
(iv)
39.

Pushed out with the steel wire


Rejected as unserviceable

Hydraulic tubing which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent


that a repair is necessary, may be repaired
(i)
By cutting out the damaged area and inserting a replacement
section of same size and material utilizing a flared tube fitting to join the
tube ends using standard unions, sleeves and nuts. (10-13)
(ii)
Only by replacing the entire tubing using the same size and
material as the original.
(iii) By cutting out the damaged section and soldering in a replacement
section of tubing.
(iv) None of the above.

40.

The term cold flow is generally associated with


(i)
(iii)

41.

Vaporizing fule.
(ii)
Rubber hose (flexible tubes) (114) (iv)

Rigid pipe lines.


Welding and sheet metal.

A gas or fluid line marked with the letter PHDAN


(I)
Is carrying substance which is not harm
(ii)
Is a high pressure line . The letters mean pressure high. Discharge
a nacelle.
(iii) Is carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel (1013)
(iv) Is carrying a substance that cannot be made non toxic

42. Which maintenance record entry best describe the action taken by FAR
when a 0.125 dent in a straight section of alloy tubing is found.
(a) dent is acceptable limit and repair not necessary
(b) dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing
flared 45.
(c)
Dent removed by drawing appropriate size bullet through the
tubing. (10-12S)
(d) Deferred to maintenance check.
44.

A new piece of tubing should be cut ..longer than the tube to be


replaced to provide for minor variations in bending.
(i)
(iii)

45.

10% (10-3)
5 to 8% longer

(ii)

15%
(iv) 20% longer

If a tube cutter is not available and tubing is of hard material, is to be cut,


use a hacksaw preferably
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

one having 20 teeth per inch


one having 28 teeth per inch
One having 32 teeth per inch (532)
one having 20 or 22 teeth per inch

46.

Twisting of the hose can be determined from identification:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

47.

Plate attached at one end


Stripe running along it length
Deecal put in the center of hose
As in (ii) and the stripe should not spiral around the hose (10-15)

Flexible hoses are used for


(i)
Connecting moving parts with stationary parts
(ii)
Location subjects to vibrations and where greater flexibility is
needed
(iii) It can also serve as a connector in metal tubing system
(iv) All are correct (10-14)

48.

The advantage of Teflon hose is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Compatible with nearly every substance(10-13)


Sticky viscous materials will adhere to it.
It has more volumetric expansion than rubber
None

BUNA-N- Synthetic rubber compound - excellent resistance to


prtroleum products. Do not use with phosphste easter base
hydraulic fluid.
NEOPERENE - Synthetic rubber compound which has a acetylene
base - resistance to prtroleum products is not as good as Buna -N.
Do not use with phosphste easter base hydraulic fluid.
BUTYL Synthetic rubber compound made from petroleum raw
materials. Excellent material to use with phosphste easter based
hydraulic fluid.
TEFLON Du Pont trade name for terafluoroethylene resin. It is
compatible with every substance or agent used. It offers little
resistance to flow. Sticky viscous materials will not adhere to it. It
has less volumetric expansion then rubber and the shelf service
life is practically limitless.

49.

The size measurement of plumbing fittings having pipe threads is given as


(i)
(ii)

a dash no. indicating the I.D in 1/8 of an inch


a dash no. indicating the O.D in 1/8 of an inch

(iii)
(iv)
51.

In a flared tube fitting AC sleeve is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

53.

a dash no. indicating the I.D in 1/16 of an inch


a dash no. indicating the O.D in 1/16 of an inch (Fig. 10-21)

longer than AN sleeve


Shorter than AN sleeve (10-8)
Equal to the AN Sleeve
None

Mark the correct statement


(i)
In Al metal tube lines nicks, deeper than 10% of the wall thickness
is permissible if they are in the heel
(ii)
In Al metal tube lines nicks no deeper than 20% of the wall
thickness is permissible if they are not in the heel
(iii) In Al metal tube lines nicks not deeper than 10% of the wall
thickness is permissible if they are not in the heel (10-12)
(iv)

54.

All are correct

Mark the correct statement


(i)
A dent of less than 20% of the tube dia is not permissible in the
heel of a bend
(ii)
As in (i) + a dent less than 20% of the tube dia is not
objectionable useless it is in the heel of a bend (10-12)
(iii) A dent more than 20% of the tube dia is permissible in the heel of a
bend
(iv) Both (ii) & (iii)

55.

A certain amount of slack be left in a flexible hose during installation


because, when under pressure, it
(i)
Expands in length and contracts in diameter
(ii)
Contracts in length and contracts in diameter
(iii) Contracts in length and expands in diameter
(iv) As in (iii) and a slack of 5 to 8 % of its length will allow for freedom
of movement (10-17)

56.

In most aircraft hydraulic systems , two-piece type connectors consisting


of a sleeve and a B nut are used when a tubing flare is required. The use
of this type of connector eliminates
(i)
The flaring operation prior to assembly
(ii)
The damage to the flare caused by the wiping or ironing during the
tightening process (10-3)
(iii) Wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening process
(iv) None of the above

58.

Teflon hoses

(i)
Offers little resistance to flow
(ii)
No. sticky viscous material will stick to it
(iii) Has less volumetric expansion than rubber
(iv) As in (i), (ii) & (iii) and the shelf and service life is practically
limitless (10-14)
59.

Tube fitting which has a shoulder between the end of the threads and the
flare cone is of:
(i)
(iii)
(iv)

60.

A.C. Standard
(ii)
M.S. Standard
AN Standard(10-8)
As in (ii) and (iii) and the AC fitting does not have shoulder

Quick connect couplings provide a means of quickly disconnecting a line


(i)
In case of emergency
of regulator valve
(iii) Without loss of fluid
air in system (108)

1.

In case of high pressure due to failure

(iv)

As in (iii) and preventing entrance of

In a metal tubing installation


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2.

(ii)

Rigid straight line runs are preferable


Tension is undesirable because pressurisation will cause is to expand and
shift (10-17)
A tube may be pulled in if the nut will start on the threaded coupling
None of the above

A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to 3/8


inch metal tubing used in the same system will
(a) Have about the same outer diameter
(b) Have equivalent flow characteristic
(c) Usually have interchangeable application
(d) Have same internal diameter

4.

An O-ring intended for use in hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (Mineral


base) fluid will be marked with
a.
A blue strip or dot (167)
b.
One or more white dots
c.
A white and yellow strip
d.
Red strip

5.

A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow strip running the
length of the hose. This stripe
a) Identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only
b) Is used to insure that the hose is installed without excessive

twisting
c) Identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and
may be suitable for a wide range of operation
d) Both a) and b) are correct
6.

To protect packing rings or seal from damage, when it is necessary to install


them over or inside threaded section, the
a) Threaded section should be coated with a heavy grease
b) Packing should be stretched during installation to avoid
contacts with the threads
c) Threaded section should be covered with a stiff paper sleeve
d) Packing should be lubricated

7.

No-12 tubing has outside diameter of


a)

8.

48.

b)

c)

3/8 d)

What kind of rigid tubing can be flared with a double flare?


a)
b)
c)
d)

9.

5052-O Al-alloy
6061-T Al-alloy tubing with size from 1/8 3/8 OD
7075-T
Both a) and b) (111)

Identify the figure


(a) flared tublar
(c)
head and stamp

(b) plateless fitting


(d) imaged plumbing

Counter sinking is the operation of


(a) producing an angular surface at the end of hole
(b) made in many diameter, sizes and angles
(c)
making screws and bolt to flush with the surface
(d) all

NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING


1.

Interior condition is checked by which N.D.T :(a)


(c)

2.

(ii)
(iv)

Voltage
All (11-19)

Amperes
(ii)
Voltage range (11-19) (iv)

Penetrating power
Electromagnetic radiation

Exposure to radiation including preparation


Processing of film
Interpretation of the radiograph
All of the above

Radiographic inspection techniques are used to locate defects with:


(i)
(iii)

8.

Thickness of material
Type of material

Major step in x-ray process


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

7.

Material thickness
Shape of object
Character of x-ray
All are correct (11-19)

In NDT, X-Ray equipment are graded according to


(i)
(iii)

6.

Eddy current and X-ray


Eddy current and Magnaflux
Magnetic flaw detection and Ultrasonic tech.
Magnaflux and Radio graphy

X-RAY effectiveness depends upon


(i)
(iii)

5.

Fibroscope
All are correct (11-2)

Radiographic Inspection depend upon :(a)


(b)
(c)
(d)

4.

(b)
(d)

NDT used to find internal flaws


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

3.

Boroscope inspection
Endoscope

Disassembled parts
Little or no disassembly

(ii)
(iv)

Paint removed parts


Magnetized parts

Minute cracks, checks and voids too small to be seen by X-ray:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Are located by ultrasonic Inspection


Are located by M.P Inspection
Are located by Edd current testing

9.
In Radiological examination of aircraft parts, fluoroscopic images are
greatly

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
10.

In the x-ray process which of the following process is not required


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

11.

Superior to those produced by radiograph


Inferior to those produced by radiography
fluoroscopic is seldom used in a/c work
(ii) and (iii) are correct (BL/8-4)

Exposure to radiation including preparation


Processing of film
(i) & (ii) interpretation of the radiographic
Removal of paints is must for better radiography

Radiation from X-ray units and radio isotope source


(i)
is destructive to living tissues
(ii)
One must keep out side primary X-ray beam at all times
(iii) As in (i) and (ii) and adequate protection must be provided to
human beings
(iv) Radiation hazards are not dangerous to health

12.

By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion easily


a) Ultrasonic method
c) Magnetic particle

13.

b) Eddy current
d) X-Ray (BL/8-4)

In radiography inspection, the wave length of x-rays are in order of


(a) 10-6

(b) 10-10

(c) 10-11

(d) 10-6 10-9

14.

Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by


a.
X-Ray (BL/8-4)
b.
Ultrasonic method
c.
Eddy current
d.
None of these

15.

Longer wavelength of x-ray beam have quality of


a)
b)
c)
d)

16.

More penetrating power


Less penetrating power
As in b) and indicated by half value layer (BL/8-4)
As in a) and indicated by full value layer

Which statement is correct regarding sensitivity of x-rays?


a) The darkness of radio graph does not depends on the
radiation penetrating in the cylinder.
b) Thicker the specimen, lighter the image. (BL/8-4)
c) Thicker the specimen, darker the image.
d) None.

17.

The penetration power of X-rays increases with an increase in


(a) voltage (BL/8-4)
(c) wave length

18.

(b) frequency
(d) both (a) & (b)

Fluroscopy is applicable to
(a) normal X-ray sources
(c) X-rays

19.

(b) low energy X-rays (BL/8-4)


(d) both (a) & (b)

The degree of blackening of radiograph is


(a) contrast
(b) definition
(c) density (BL/8-4) (d) penumbra

20.

The sharpness of image details on a radiograph is


(a) density
(c) resolution

(b) definition (BL/8-4)


(d) contrast

21. Blurring at the edges of a radiographic image due to the radiation source being
of finite dimensions
(a) penumbra (BL/8-4) (b) resolution
(c) unsharpness
(d) none of these
22.

The presence of water can be detected by


(a)

23.

USI

(b)

DPI

(c)

endoscope (d)

Radiography

Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect


(i)
(iii)

Distortion
Longitudinal cracks only

(ii) Deep subsurface flaws


(iv) Flaws on or near the surface (11-7)

24. Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is


true
(i)
Substance discontinuities are made readily apparent
(ii)
It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing
procedures
(iii) It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for
stressed applications (11-10)
(iv) None of the above
25.

Circular magnetization of a part is used to locate


(i)

Defects running in sub surface

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
26.

In longitudinal magnetization, the magnetic field is produced:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

27.

(ii)
(iv)

45 Degrees (11-8)
Transverse.

on surface
on sub surface
As in (ii) and due to amount of flux leakage is less (11-10)
Part is not properly magnetized

In the M.P Inspection, fatigue cracks give:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

30.

Lateral.
Longitudinal.

In the M.P Inspection, when fewer particles are held in place and a
fainter and less sharply defined indication is obtained, the defect is:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

29.

By the solenoids
As in (i) and by induction from the magnetic field (11-8)
By consisting of concentric circles
None of the above

Which type of crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection


using either circular or longitudinal magnetization
(i)
(iii)

28.

Defects running parallel to the axis of the part (11-8)


Defects running across the longitudinal axis of the part
None of the above

Dull unclear patterns uniform and unbroken through out


Dull patterns in the new parts
Sharp clear patterns, uniform and unbroken throughout (11-11)
Smooth outline but are usually less clear

In the M.P Inspection, grinding cracks are:


(i)
Fine and sharp but seldom have build up because of their limited
depth (11-11)
(ii)
Sharp clear pattern uniform and unbroken
(iii) Found in parts that have been in service but not found in new
Parts
(iv) Sharp clear pattern and the line in usually very jagged

31.

The magnetic pattern for an inclusion is a buildup forming


(i)
(iii)

A fernlike pattern.
Transverse lines.

(ii)
(iv)

A single line.
Parallel lines (11-12).

32. Grinding cracks on small radius bends appeares as __________ in magnetic


particle inspection
a) Irregular lines over affected area
c) Dotted patch

b) Short parallel lines(BL/8-5)


d) Scattered small lines

33. In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the


magnetic field flux lines is generally indicated as
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
34.

Magnetization at the surface can be greater with alternating current than


with direct current but direct current has the advantage of
(i)
(iii)

35.

Greater depth of penetration (BL/8-5)


Easily demagnetization

6 to 10 turns (BL/8-5) (ii)


6 to 12 turns
(iv)

4 to 8 turns
2 to 5 turns

For demagnetizing parts in situ


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

37.

Magnetizing large area (ii)


Clarity of cracks
(iv)

Parts magnetizing by coil method, AC coils have a 2 to 4 turn and DC


coils
(i)
(iii)

36.

A large disruption in the magnetic field (11-7)


Early damage of component
A minimal disruption in the magnetic field
No disruption in the magnetic field

DC current yoke is used


AC current yoke is used (BL/8-5)
Demagnetizing current is used
None of the above

Magnetizing force that is continually rever sing in direction and at the


same time gradually decreasing in strength this is for
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Demagnetizing the parts (11-12)


Magnetizing the part
Magnegle the parts
Non-ferrous metals

38. One way a part may be demagnetizing after magnetic particle inspection
is by
(i)
Subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage ac.
(ii)
Slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient
strength (11-12)
(iii) Slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient
strength
(iv) Demagnetizations is not required when part is fitted away from
cockpit
39.

In magnetic flaw detection method, black ink suitable for use on bright
machined components but red inks may be more suitable for
(i)
(ii)

Coated parts
Forged parts

(iii)
(iv)
40.

Magnetic flux passes through


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

41.

Nickel as it has low reluctance


Aluminum and it has high reluctance
Soft Iron as it has high permeability and it gets easily magnetised
Only (ii) is wrong (300)

Porosity in steel castings is detected by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

42.

unmachined parts (BL/8-5)


As in (iii) and irregular shaped parts

MPI
As in (a) but DPI is more efficient
both are equally efficient
none

Scattered acts in MPI indicates


(a)
(c)

fine porosity and pitting


tight crack

(b)
(d)

welding cracks
laps

43
What method of magnetic particles inspection is used often to
inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks
(a) Residual
(c) Intermittent
44.

(1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a


magnetizing force from alternator which is gradually reduced in strength
(2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a
magnetizing force from direct current alternatively reversed in direction
and gradually reduced in strength
(i)
(iii)

45.

Both (1) & (2) are correct


Only (2) is correct (11-12)

(ii) Only (1) is true


(iv) None of the above

How is an item demagnetized after a magnetic particle inspection


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

46.

(b) Inductance
(d) Continuous

Rinse it with a non magnetic solution


Lay it aside for a period of time
Subject it to an alternating current energized coil (11-12)
Subject the item to direct current

De-magnetization is carried out by


(a) moving the part away at least 1.5 mts from the alternating field of
solenoid energized by alternating current. (this procedure develops a
reversing and gradually devreasing magnetizing force in the part)
(b) subjecting the part to a magnetizing field continuously
reversing in direction and at the same time gradually decreasing
the strength

(c)
passing the alternating current througho the part being
demagnetised and reduce the current to zero ( this procedure is used
with portable units)
(d)
all are correct (477)
47.

What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation,


is used to detect surface or near surface defects in most metals, and may
also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treat conditions ?
(i)
(iii)

Eddy current inspection (11-13)


Magnetic particle inspection

(ii)
(iv)

Ultrasonic inspection
None of the above

48. The thickness of conducting or non conducting coating on ferrous or non


ferrous bases can be measured by using
(a)
(c)
49.

All of the above

Al
All type of metals (11-15)

(b)

Mg

Which of the NDT method can measure the thickness


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

53.

Insp. for sub surface defects only


Insp for surface and subsurface defects
as in (b) and Insp. by comparative test (11-13)
Open defects

Ultrasonic inspection carried out on


(a)
(c)

52.

magnetic particle test


all

What are the advantages of Eddy current testing


(a) Does not require extensive preparation of parts
(b) Parts can be checked in Insitu condition
(c) It do not interfere with other parts
(d)

51.

(b)
(d)

Eddy current inspection is a


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

50.

basic eddy current (BL/8-8)


micrometer caliper

Radiography can measure the thickness between .025 to 3


Ultrasonic method can measure the thickness between .025 to 3
Eddy current method can measure the thickness up to .775
Measurement can not be taken by N.D.T method

Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the


inspection of most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and
subsurface defects ?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Eddy current inspection


Magnetic particle inspection
Ultrasonic inspection(11-15)
None of the above

54.

Ultrasonic flow detection is used to detect


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

55.

One of the method used for the ultrasonic inspection


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

56.

Surface and internal flaws in the parts


Only for surface and sub surface cracks
And thickness can also be measured of the part
(i) and (iii) correct (BL/8-3)

Immersion testing in liquids (BL/8-3)


Immersion testing in powder
Contact testing which is readily adaptable to field use
(i) & (iii) are correct

The ultrasonic testing is used to check


(a) fatigue crack
(c) void and inclusion on casting

57.

(b) disbond
(d) all are correct (BL/8-3)

In ultrasonic test scanning is carried out by moving both probes simultaneously


in opposite direction for
(a) flash butt joint (Welding) (BL/8-3) (b) heavy forging
(c) heat treatment defect
(d) thickness measurement

58.

Hollow propeller thickness can be checked by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

59.

Velocity of trans verse wave is


a.
b.
c.
d.

60.

Equal to sound wave


Twice of sound wave
Half of sound wave
There is no relation between transverse wave and sound wave

Frequency chosen for defect scanning in ultrasonic method depends upon


a)
b)
c)
d)

61.

eddy current insp


eddy current by opening it
UFD (BL/8-3)
None

Size of the object


Possible location of defect
Grain size of material
All of these (BL/8-3)

A transducer converts
(a)
(b)

electrical energy into mechanical energy


mechanical energy into electrical energy

(c)
(d)
62.

Piezo electricity is produced


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

63.

white line of chalk (thin) (BL/8-1)


green line on dark
red line none of the above

In oil and chalk process, defect occurs as


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

66.

voltage given to crystal and crystal vibrates (11-15)


Frequency induced by crystal depend upon thickness
a and b are correct

In Bristol modified method, defect occurs as


(a)
(b)
(c)

65.

by the vibration of ceramic


by the vibration of quartz Rochelle salt and ceramic
sound waves have no connection with this
all are wrong

Pizo electric effect of quarts crystal :(a)


(b)
(c)

64.

chemical energy into electrical energy


one form of energy into another (electrical) energy

dark gray line on light grey background (BL/8-1)


dark line on red back ground
green line on dark background.
none of the above

Which of the following NDT process is not suitable for the detection of the
minute flaws of tightly shut crack.
(i) dye penetrant
(iii) Oil and chalk process

67.

(ii) Magnaflux
(iv) Ultrasonic method

Dye-penetrant method is used for finding out


(a) cracks
(b) porosity
(c) defects open to the surface (d) all of these(BL/8-2)

68.

Dye-penetrant method is not applicable on


(a) ceramics
(b) moulded nibber
(c) plexi-glass (BL/8-2) (d) all of these

69.

Surface defects are best detected by


(a) dye penetrant method (BL/8-2) (b) eddy current method
(c) radiography
(d) all of these

70.

In dye penctrant test cleaning of parts is carried out by


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

71.

Color of defect in DPZ shown under black


(a)
(c)

72.

black

That the developer be applied to a flat surface.


Dry developer be applied.
A longer-than-normal penetrating time (11-7).
The surface to be highly polished.

Non ferrous material


Perspex (BL/8-2)

(ii)
(iv)

Ferrous material
Ceramic

In the dye perctrant method of inspection the penetrant action of the dye
will retard if temperature is below
(iii)

75.

(b)

Dye penetration process is not manly used on below given material


(i)
(iii)

74.

green
red

To detect a minute crack using dye penetrate inspection usually requires


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

73.

Petroleum solvent (11-5)


Pickeling
detergent and water
No cleaning is required

80 deg F

(iv)

60 deg F (BL/8-2)

In performing a dye-penetrate inspection, the developer


(a) Act as blotter to produce a visible indication (BL/8-2)
(b) Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of cracks
(c) Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to the inspection
(d)Perform no function

76.

To avoid the risk of corrosion, dye-penetrant test of magnesium alloys are done
after
(a) anodising
(c) carburizing

77.

(b) chromatizing (BL/8-2)


(d) parcolubrizing

In dye-penetrant method, the penetrant time does not depend upon


a.
the characteristics of process being used
b.
the size of parts (BL/8-2)
c.
the temperature of parts and dye
d.
none of these

78.

Mark the correct statement regarding dye-penetrant method


a.
the shallow cracks indication takes less time where as
normal cracks indication takes more time.
b.
the rate of staining is an indication of volume where as the
extent of staining is an indication of width and depth of defect.
c)
scattered dots of dye indicate fine porosity or pitting where as gross
porosity may result in an entire area becoming stained. (BL/8-2)
(d) all of these.

79.

In steel casting, porosity can detect more easily by


a.
Dye penetrant method
b.
Magnetic particle inspection
c.
Eddy current
d.
X-Ray

80.

In dye pentrant inspection, the volume of defect is interpreted by


(a) staining rate
(b) staining speed
(c) staining extent
(d) all

81.

Rate of staining is an indication of


a)
Volume of defect
b)
Width of defect
c)
Depth of defect
d)
Both b and c

82.

Which of the following can use as a leak tester


a)
Ultrasound method (Water immersion method)
b)
Dye-penetrant method (BL/8-2)
c)
Magnetic particle inspection
d)
None of these

83.

In fluoro cent penetrant process, developer will reveal crack by


(i)
Pinkish yellow lines or patches
(ii)
Greenish yellow lines or patches
(iii) As in (ii) and under the rays of an ultra violet lamp (BL/8-7)
(iv) As in (i) and under the rays of an ultra violet

84.

In flourescent method
a) if wet developer is applied, it must be dried.
b) if wet developer is applied, it must not be dried.
c) dry for long period.
d) none

85.

The cable end fitting should be checked for cracks using as


(i)

Electromagnetic method

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
86.

Dye penetrant test if fitting is of stainless steel


Oil and chalk method
(i) & (ii) are correct

To see intern surface condition of combustion chamber which one is used


(i)
(iii)

Reflectoscope
X-ray

(ii)
(iv)

Boroscope
None

CORROSION
1.

Corrosion on Al alloy and Mg generally appears as


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

2.

Grey in colour and in the form of etching and pitting


powder white in colour and in the form of etching and pitting (12-5)
Redish brown in colour and in the form of etching and pitting
None

Mark the correct statement:


(i)
Corrosion appears on Al alloys and Mg in grey or white powder
deposit
(ii)
On copper and copper alloys the corrosion forms a greenish film
(iii) on steel a reddish rust
(iv) All of the above are correct (12-5)

3.

(1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or dissimilar


cathodic material that corrodes
(2) In the galvanic or electro chemical series for metals, the most
anodic metals are those that will gain electrons most easily
(i)
(iii)

4.

When two metals of different potentials are joined together:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

5.

will cause corrosion


Inter granular corrosion
As in (i) and will be electrolytic corrosion (12-5)
Surface corrosion

Corrosion on stainless steel is indicated by


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

6.

Only (1) is true


(ii) Only (2) is true
Both (1) & (2) are true (iv) None of the above (12-5/6)

Red rust deposits and pitting (12-5)


White powderly deposits
Greenish powderly deposits
Black pits or reddish brown surface

The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of

a. A tendency for them to return their natural state (12-5)


b.
Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between
dissimilar metal
c.
Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area
d.
All of the above
7.

On copper and copper alloy corrosion forms on the surface as


a) White powder
c) Blue

8.

b) Greenish film (12-5)


d) Black

Basically corrosion reduces the strength of materials by the process of


(a) Chemical reaction
(c) Both (a) & (b) (12-5)

9.

(b) Electrochemical reaction


(d) Electromagnetic process

Evidence corrosion on stainless steel is an appearance of


(a) Brown color rust
(c) White color debris

10.

Corrosion on the metal is due to


a) Chemical attack
c) Both a) & b) (12-5)

11.

(b) Green color scum


(d) None of these (12-5)

b) Electro chemical attack


d) None

The metal that is oxidized due to the corrosion attack that is called as
(a) Neutralized agent
(c) Cathodic change

(b) Anodic change (12-6/7)


(d) None of these

12. Which material is the most anodic


(a) Cadmium
(b) Magnesium (12-6)
c) Zinc d) 7075-T6
13.

(d) Gold

Which is most cathodicinc


a)

14.

(c) Copper

Stainless steel

b) Chromium (12-6)

c) Al-alloy

Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to
occur
a.
Presence of electrolyte
b.
Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area
c. Presence of passive oxide film (12-8)

d.
15.

None of these

When corrosion product is removed from surface corrosion, which type of


corrosion appeares on it?
(a) Oxidation corrosion
(c) Pitting corrosion (12-8)

16.

(b) Dry corrosion


(d) Wet corrosion

Mark the correct statement:


(a) Under corrosive environment, most active metal become
cathodic
(b) Under influence of corrosive agent less active metal become
anodic
(c) Established condition for corrosion due to the presence of anode and cathode
is called as local cell
(d) All of the above are true

17.

Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of


(a) Excessive Anodization
(b) Contact between two unlike metals (12-9)
(c) Excessive etching
(d) Surface carburization

19.

Crevice corrosion is an example of


(a) Surface corrosion
(c) Electrolytic cell corrosion

20.

Galvanic corrosion occurs between.


(a)
(b)
(c)

22.

(b) Concentration cell corrosion (12-9)


(d) Exfoliation corrosion

dissimilar metals joined without insulation between them


al-alloy structured assembled with steel screw
both A and B are correct (12-9)

Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when


(i)
the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than surface area
of the anodic metal
(ii)
The surface area of the anodic and cathodic metals are
approximately the same
(iii) The surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface
area of the cathodic metal (12-9)

23.

Corrosion usually occurs under thin oil grease or varnish films on metal
surfaces, if there is evidence of lack of adhesion of the film. It is known
as

(i)
(iii)

24.

Stress corrosion
Filiform(12-11)

Fretting corrosion
Surface corrosion

When metal is in contact with plastics, glass wool (non-conducting material) the
corrosion form is known as
a. Fretting

25.

(ii)
(iv)

b. Pitting c. Crevice corrosion ??? (12-11) d. None of above

Which type of corrosion is present in contact area of metal and


non-metal joint?
(a) O2 concentration cell corrosion
(b) Metal ion concentration cell corrosion
(c) Filiform corrosion
(d) Crevice corrosion ??? (12-11)

28.

Crevice corrosion caused due to


(a) metal and non metal comes in contact and acid is present
between them (12-11)
(b) contact between metal and non metal
(c)
plastic and metal contact
(d) due to improper heat treatment

29.

Which corrosion primarily occurrs due to improper heat-treatment and


welding defects?
(a) Metabolic corrosion
(c) Trans-granular corrosion

(b) Inter-granular corrosion (12-12)


(d) Weld decay corrosion

30. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part


a.
b.
c.
d.
31.

May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit


Appears as thread like filament
Cannot always be detected by surface indication (12-12)
All of the above

Mark the correct statement:


(a) Inter-crystalline corrosion occurs along grain boundaries of an alloy
(b) This is a from of electrochemical attack
(c) As in (b) & occurs due to lack of uniformity
(d ) All of the above (12-12)

33.

Inter granular corrosion is repaired by


(a)
(b)

cleaning the part and coating the zinc chromate primer


replace the part (12-12)

(c)
(d)
34.

Inter granular corrosion


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

35.

both a & b
None

occurs along grain boundaries


causes exfoliation when it becomes severe
as in (a) and (b) and detected by UFD
as in (c) and detected Eddy current equipment (12-12)

The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delaminatiion of


grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product
buildup is called
(i)
(iii)

Brinelling
(ii) Granulation
Exfoliation (12-12) (iv) Freting

36. Very severe inter granular corrosion may some times cause the surface of
the metal
(i)
(iii)
37.

(ii)
(iv)

to Exfoliate (12-12)
to deep pitting

Exfoliation Corrosion is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

38.

to corrode
for galvanic action

Extreme case of intergranular corrosion


Effects the grain boundaries of metal
1+2 (12-12)
Only (i) is correct

Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts


(i)
May be detected by surface pitting and white powdery deposit
formed on the surface of the metal
(ii)
Commonly appears as threadlike filaments of corrosion products
under a dense film of paint
(iii) Cannot always be detected by surface indications
(iv) As in 3 and can be detected by ultrasonic and eddy current
inspection method (12-12)

40..

MTCS
a) Inter-granular corrosion is attack along the grain boundaries
b) Al-alloy and some stainless steel are particularly susceptible
c) Ultrasonic and radiographic inspection method are used
d) Both a) and b) are correct (12-12)

41.

Pressure indentation or false brinnelling appears in which type of corrosion


a) Fatigue corrosion
c) Inter granular corrosion

b) Fretting corrosion (12-13)


d) Stress corrosion

43.

Stress corrosion can be prevented by


(a) Shot-penning
(b) Shot-bursting
(c) As in (a) & increase in the fatigue strength
(d) As in (a) & increase in the tensile strength (12-13)

44.

Stress corrosion can be detected by


(a) Eddy current
(c) X-ray

(b) Dye-penetrant (12-13)


(d) Ultrasonic method

45. Corrosion caused by when two mating surfaces normally at rest with
respect to one another are subject to slight relative motion is called:
(i)
(iii)
46.

Stress corrosion
Fretting corrosion (12-13)

(ii)
(iv)

Inter granular corrosion


galvanic action corrosion

Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur


(i)
When two surfaces fit tightly together but can move relative to one
another (12-13)
(ii)
Only when two dissimilar metals are in contact
(iii) When two surfaces fit loosely together and can move relative to one
another

47.

One way to obtain increased resistance to stress corrosion is obtained by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

48.

Microbial corrosion occurs in


(i)
(iii)

49.

(ii)
(iv)

Integral fuel tanks


Hydraulic reserving

inter granular corrosion


fretting corrosion (12-13)

(b)
(d)

surface corrosion
stress corrosion

Fretting corrosion occurs due to


(a)
other
(b)
(c)
(d)

52.

Fuel tanks (12-15)


Lubricating oil tanks

Corrosion between the reveted joints is


(a)
(c)

50.

releasing compressive stress on metal


creating compressive stress on metal (12-13)
producing non-uniform deformation while cold working
all are correct

Stationary parts are subjected to relative motion to each


(12-13)
Direct contact with caustic liquid and battery fumes
Improper heat treatment
combination of tensile stress and corrosive environment

Stress corrosion occurs in

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

wing skin (wing is subjected to tensile force as shown in fig 2-23)


compressed parts
bolt hole
tubing with tappered thread fitted in cast alloy (12-13)

53. The internal surface of sealed structural steel tubing is best protected
against corrosion by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

a coating of hot linseed oil (12-21)


evacuation of tubing before sealing
a coating of Zn- chromate primer
none

54. The process of Al and its alloys been covered with pure aluminium to avoid
corrosion is called
a) Sherardizing
c) Cladding (12-25)
55.

b) Anodizing
d) Chromating

In anodizing of Al alloys, a thin layer of film on the surface is formed of


a) Al oxide (12-26)
c) Potassium oxide

b) Sodium oxide
d) Calcium oxide

56.

When an anodising surface coating is damaged, it can be partially restored by


a) Metal polish
b) Complete penetration of air inhibitor
c) Chemical surface treatment (12-26)
d) Any one of the following

57.

Alodizing
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

58.

Increase their corrosion resistance


Improve the quality of cadmium plating
Improve paint bonding qualities
(i) and (iii) are correct (12-26)

Most effective method of removing rust from ferrous metal is


(a) Steel wire brush
(b) Sand paper
(c) Abrasive paper, wire brush or by abrasive blasting using sand, aluminium
oxide or glass beads. (12-27)
(d) Washing with hot soap solution

59.

What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel part
a) Steel wire brush

b) Remove absolute minimum amount of material using a fine stone, fine


abrasive paper or even pumice.
c) Abrasive blasting using a very fine grit Al-oxide or glass beads. (12-27)
d) Medium grade carborendum paper
60.

Rust in steel is removed by


(a)
(c)

61.

wire brush
controlled sand brushing

(b)
(d)

Which of the following coating function as sacrificial protection?


(a) Cadmium plating (.005 inch) (12-28)
(c) Cladding

62.

steel wire brush


(b)
stiff hog bristle brush (12-29) (d)

carborundum abrasive
all of the above

Which acid is used for cleaning of Mg-alloy?


(a) Chromic acid (12-29)
(c) Nitric acid

64.

(b) Galvanizing
(d) Metal spraying

Corrosion product in magnesium is removed by


(a)
(c)

63.

Emery paper
all are correct (12-27)

(b) Phosphoric acid


(d) Sulphuric acid

Corrosion should be removed on Mg-alloy component with


a) Metallic bristle brush
b) Nylon scrubber (12-29)
c) Carborundum paper
d) Plain scrapper

65.

Magnesium parts are protected for temporary storage with


a) Cladding
c) Plating

66.

Dichromate treatment is given to


a) Al parts b) Steel parts
d) Copper parts

67.

b) Anodizing
d) Chrome pickle treatment (12-29)

c) Magnesium parts (12-29)

Why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after the corrosion


preventive mixture has been put into the cylinders on engines
prepared for storage.
(i)
(ii)

Engine may not start after removal of mixture.


Fuel may be drawn into one or more cylinders and dilute or wash
off the corrosion preventive mixture.

(iii)
(iv)
68.

Corrosion resistance to steel is increased by addition of


(i)
(iii)

69.

Electrolytic action
Scaling

(ii)
(iv)

Corrosion
(i) & (ii) are correct

aluminium
CRS

(b)
(d)

Mg
Al and stainless steel

corrosion
fettlers

(b)
(d)

abrasion
all

Chemically transfer of metal from one to another is done to


(a)
(c)

76.

susceptible to corrosion
Has tendency to corrosion
Resistance to corrosion
Both a & b (LG/19)

The part which is dry and un-lubricated which of the following occurs
(a)
(c)

75.

raised ring/dash
no head marking

Stress corrosion is likely to occur in


(a)
(c)

74.

raised dash (single) (Fig 8-27)(b)


recessed triangle
(d)

Two different material in one assembly will cause


(i)
(iii)

73.

control processing of computer programme


corrosion prevention and control programme (CAR)
corrosion prevention and cause detection programme
corroded parts corrugation programme

Mg is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

72.

Sulphur,phosphorus lead
Tungsten, Molybdenum,
vanadium chromium

Head marking of corrosion resistance steel (CRS) bolt is


(a)
(c)

71.

Chromium and nickel (LG/05) (ii)


Vanadium, Aluminum
(iv)

CPCP refer to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

70.

The seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be broken (12-30).


Engine may damage.

corrosion resistance
resistance to tarnish

Corrosion of titanium and its alloys are


(a)

difficult to detect

(b)
(d)

build up
all

(b)
(c)
(d)
77.

In cable strand the wire are performed to provide


(a)
(c)

79.

corrosion resistance
prevents from raveling

Paint stripper is made of


(b) Emery cloth
(d) Non-metallic material

Corrosion resistant steel cotter pin is used in locations where


a)
b)
c)
d)

82.

flexibility
both a & b

Austenitic in nature
Austenitic but only when heated above critical range
Never in austenitic nature
None

(a) Steel wool


(c) Aluminium wool
81.

(b)
(d)

18-8 corrosion resistance steel are:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

80.

easy to detect
as in (a) & increase with high temperature and salt.
as in (b) & removed with Al-grid or Al-polished

Magnetic material is required


Resistance to corrosion is desired
Both
None

The pickling solution can be


a) H2SO4

b) HCL

c) HNO3

d) All of the above

83. The type of corrosion that is generally present in aircraft but not visible is
a) Exfoliation

b) Fretting c) Electrolytic

d) Inter-surface

84. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline upto
height of _____________ above water line
(a) 1 Feet

(b) 2 Feet

(c) 1 meter

(d) 2 meter

85.

Mark the correct statements


a) Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal
b) Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method
c) Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease
d) All of the above

86.

Chromate film treatment is carried on __________ material

(a) Al-alloy
(c) Steel-Alloy

(b) Mg-alloy (12-29)


(d) Titanium

87. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up action of


chromate bearing conversion coating treatment?
(a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover
(b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover
(c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water
(d) Nitric acid + water
88.

Mark the correct statement regarding battery component


a) Lead-acid battery compartment neutralized by bi-carbonate of soda
b) Ni-Cd battery compartment neutralized by acetic acid
c The sump vent jar contains moist absorbent pad with neutralizing agent
d) All of these

89.

Types of corrosion depends upon


(a) Type of materials
(c) Shape of metal

90.

Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact may best be prevented by


a)
b)
c)
d)

91.

(b) Size of metal


(d) All of the above

Placing a nonporous dielectric material between the surface


Cleaning both surface with a non residual solvent
Apply paper tape between the surface
None of these

Inter-crystalline corrosion is generally occurred in


a) Al-alloy containing copper composition
c) 24 S

92.

Al. Alloy bell cranks employing pressed in taper pins are suspected to
a) Fatigue corrosion
c) Stress corrosion(12-13)

93.

b) 17 S
d) All of these

b) Fretting corrosion
d) None of these

Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after


electric arc welding?
a.
Pitting
b.
Galvanic
c.
Inter crystalline
d.
Fretting

94.

Which type of corrosion is occurred in mounting bolts of engine and wings ?


(a) Inter-granular corrosion
(c) Concentrating cell corrosion

(b) Stress corrosion


(d) Fretting corrosion

95. Which type of corrosion occurs in high-strength materials used


as brackets, attached to Al-alloy skin of aircraft
(a) Galvanic corrosion
(c) Stress corrosion

(b) Fretting corrosion


(d) Dry corrosion

96. Coca is formed in which type of corrosion?


(a) Filiform corrosion
(c) Fretting corrosion
97.

Which type of corrosion will occur in welded parts?


(a) Stress corrosion
(c) Fretting corrosion

99.

(b) Exfoliation corrosion


(d) Microbial corrosion

(b) Inter-crystalline corrosion


(d) Dissimilar metal corrosion

In tapered sectioned metal piece, which area is more susceptible


to corrosion
(a) Exterior surface
(c) Thin portion

(b) Interior surface


(d) Thick portion

100. Which type of stripper is used on plastic or windows parts?


(a) Water-miscible paint remover
(b) Solvent-miscible paint remover
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
101.

Anodic film can be removed by a solution of


a)
b)
c)
d)

10% Sulphuric acid + 4% Potassium fluoride


20% Sulphuric acid + 10% Potassium fluoride
20% Sulphuric acid + 20% Potassium fluoride
All of the above

102. Cadmium plating can be removed by


(a) Mechanical cleaning
(c) Both (a) & (b)

(b) Chemical cleaning


(d) None of these

103.` Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of Al-

alloys
a) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent
b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemically
c) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed
mechanically
d) All of the above
104. The correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steel
a) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solution
b) Phosphoric acid can also be used
c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surface
d) All of the above
105. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up
action of chromate bearing conversion coating treatment?
(a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover
(b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover
(c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water
(d) Nitric acid + water
106.

Steel and Non-clad Al-alloy can be cleaned by


(a) Wet glass paper
(c) Dry sand paper

(b) Dry emery paper


(d) As in (a) & water acts as lubricants

107. Which type of scraper is used for corrosion removal on casting or


forging parts?
(a) Steel carbide tipped
(b) Plastic copped tip scraper
(c) Abrasive tipped cap scraper (d) None of these
108. Evidence of surface corrosion and extent of pitting should be
tested by
(a) Hardness testing
(c) Probing with a fine needle

(b) Impact testing


(d) None of these

109. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless steel forms__ due to high temperature
(a) Crevice corrosion
(c) Inter-granular corrosion

(b) Electrolytic corrosion


(d) Stress corrosion

110. Heated section checked with magnet for corrosion detection,


basically that indicate their relative

(a) Conductivity of part


(c) both (a) and (b)

(b) Permeability of part


(d) None of these

111. Which is most suitable condition for storage of Aircraft part?


(a) Less than 60% humidity
(c) More than 60% humidity

(b) Equal to 60% humidity


(d) None of these

112. Speed of electro-chemical attack is increased in _________


climate
(a) Hot and dry
(b) Cold and moist
(c) Hot & moist
(d) Cold & dry
113.

Which type of acid is produced by electrical sparks when


combined with moisture in confined spaces?
(a) Sulphuric acid
(c) Phosphoric acid

(b) Nitric acid


(d) Chromic acid

114. PARKETON is used for protection of


(a) steel

(b) Aluminium

(c) Mg

(d) as in (a) and cable

115. The rust and corrosion is removed from highly stressed steel parts by
(a) abrasive paper
(c) wire brush

(b) fine buffling cloth or buffling wheel


(d) all

116. Which treatment give excellent base for paint


(a) CR-Plating
(b) Parkerizing
(c) Metal spraying
(d) Zn-plating
117. The process which uses zinc as a medium for plating
(a) Parkerizing
(b) Sheradizing
(c) Galvonizing
(d) both (b) & (c)
118. Galvanic corrosion at the interface of a dissimilar metal part may be best
be prevented by
(i)
placing a non porous di-electric material between the surfaces
(ii)
Conducting frequent inspections, and keeping all exposed areas of
the parts clean
(iii) Sealing exposed seam edges with a recommended sealing
compound.
119. Electric plating is the process of
(a)

provide corrosion resistance surface

(b)
(c)

provide good surface for further plating


all the above

121. The transferring metal from one object to another by chemical and
coating is done to protect the base metal from
(a) corrosion
(b) Wear
(c)
Increase the dimension to protect the base metal against chemical
reaction
(d) All
122. Combination of corrosion resistance steel
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

8% Ni and 18% chromium


18 % Ni & 8 % chromium
29 % chromium & 8% nickel
8% chromium & 29% nickel

123. Alluminium alloy surfaces superficial corroded areas can be treated


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

with a 10% solution nitric acid and water


with a 10% solution of chromic acid and sylphuric acid
5% solution dichromate
None of the above

124. Corrosion in a hole is removed by


(a)
(c)

helicoil insertion
scrap the part

(b)
(d)

acres sleeve used


drilling

126. Corrosion in Alclad surface removed by :(a)

abrasive

(c)

Chemical

(b)

Al wire brush

127. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a


(i)
(iii)

silicon carbide brush


(ii)
fine grit aluminium oxide
Medium grit carborundum paper
(iv) steel wire brush

128. Which solvent is used for removing the corrosion products from Mg alloy
(i)
10-15% sulphuric acid in water
(ii)
25% HCL in water
(iii) 10% Chronic acid and 0.1 % sulphuric acid
(iv) 10% chronic acid & 0.1% sulphuric acid
(v)
5% sulphuric acid solution with a suitable wetting agent
(vi) Solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in distilled water with
0.1% salphuric acid
(vii) Almagmated mercuric acid

130

Chromium plating usually has a minimum thickness of:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

131

Chromatizing:
(i)
(ii)
acid
(iii)
(iv)

132

.00005
.001 to .005
.002 to .015
.0002 to .0005

This is a dip process which uses the chronic acid bath


As in (i) and the part has to be Immersed for 5 minutes in chronic
bath
As in (ii) and then rinsed in hot water and dried
It consists of oxidixing by immersion in a solution sodium carbonate

For magnesium alloy parts pickling solution consists of:


(i)
Nitric sulphuric acid and 90 parts of water
(ii)
As in (i) and 8 parts of concentrated nitric acid and 2 parts of
sulphuric acid
(iii) As in (ii) and bath temperature of 120F and rinsed in hot water
(iv) As in (i) and bath temperature of 120F and rinsed in hot water

133. Thickness of electroplating is measured by


(i)
(iii)

Eddy current
BNJ Jet Test

(ii)
(iv)

Magnaflux
Micrometer

134. After completion of cadmium plating operation, the work to be removed


from both and :
(i)
Rinsed with clean warm water
(ii)
As in (i) and immersed from 1 to 2 minutes in a 3 to 5% solution of
chromic acid.
(iii) Rinsed with clean cold water
(iv) As in (iii) and immersed for the minutes in Alkali bath
135. Effectiveness of anodic bath should be checked:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Monthly
Submitting them to a salt spray test
Salt spray test consists of 20% sodium solution
As in (i), (ii) and as in (iii) for 30 days

138. Materials which are cadmium plated


(i)
Can be spot welded
(ii)
No attempt should be made to spot weld
(iii) Cadmium plating should be removal before spot welding
(iv) 2 & 3 are correct

139. Anodic coating in the process of hard anodizing the coating thickness
should be
(i)
(iii)

.0003 and .0005


.003 to .005

(iv)

(ii)
.001 to .003
.0001

140. When an anodized surface coating is damaged in service , it can be


partially resorted by
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
64.

Water break test is for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

6.

checking the presence of oil, grease mointure


as (i) and for an contamnants(12-26)
Applicable for plastic
All of the above

Zinc chromate primer have:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

47.

Applying a thing coat or zinc chromate primer


Chemical surface treatment(12-26)
Use of a suitable mild cleaner
Alodine

Fire proof properties


Fire resistant properties
Dope proofing qualities(12-27)
Paint resisting qualities

MTCS
(i)
Al oxide in a protective layer of Al. which is porous and prevent
further corrosion and iron oxide in non porous and eat away the metal
(ii)
Al oxide is non porous and prevent further corrosion but iron oxide
is porous and eat away the metal
(iii) Only (i) is correct

4.

Designed to fit in to a slot in the socket or spindle of as machine and also


make it easy the remove the drill from the spindle socket is called
(i)
(iii)

26.

Tang of a drill
Bit shank

(ii)
(iv)

Shank of a drill
Tapered shank

The shot peening process consists of :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Throwing hardened steel balls at the surface of the work


Throwing sand under Pr. To the surface of the works
Throwing speed under Pr. For the surface of the work
It is the process of cleaning the files

64.

In highly stressed locations and parts in a stressed region to be marked


by
(i)
Electro engraving
(ii)
Etching
(iii) Electro chemical method
(iv) (ii) & (iii) are correct

63.

Spilled mercury on aluminium


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

9.

Effects the heat treatment of surface


Increase susceptibility to hydrogen embitterment
May cause impaired corrosion resistance it left in prolonged contact
Causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very difficult to control

Paralketone used on
(a) cable
(c)
conduit

(b)
(d)

iron
none

52.

PARKETON is used for protection of


(a) steel
(b) numinium
(c)
Mg
(d) as in (a) & cable

70.

Cd-plating is done on steel parts


(a) to prevent corrosion
(c)
to give texture and brightness

(b)
(d)

Electroplating provides
(a) corrosion resistant surface
(c)
both a & b

wear resistance surface


none

72.

64.

(b)
(d)

too built up
All are correct

In chrome-plating process the crisis deposited on the part from


(a) cathode
(b) electrode (c)
electrolyte (d) tank

GROUND HANDLING
1.

Bottle jack is used


(a) to raise one wheel to remove brake unit
(b) to raise single wheel
(c)
to raise single wheel to remove one brake unit
(d) all are correct(525)

2.

When jacking the a/c


(a) a/c nose put to the wind
(b) select hard and smooth surface
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none

3.

Bottle jack is used for


(a) removing a wheel ..
(b) only removing brake unit
(c)
only removing small unit
(d) all of the above

4.

During jacking the a/c outside the hangar


(a) face the a/c tail to winds
(b) face be jacked in any direction
(c)
surface should be hard and level(524)
(d) none

5.

While jacking one wheel of an aircraft


(a) tripode type jack is used
(b) aircraft should be raised 6 to 8 above the ground
(c)
the remaining wheel should be chocked properly(525)
(d) all are correct

6.

The function of the jack point is to


(a) ensure that the a\c load is properly distributed at the jack point
(b) prevent damage of the structure of the a/c
(c)
both (a) & (b)
(d) none

7.

To change only one tire, the jack should be used.


(a)
To just clear the tire from ground
(b)
hydraulic jack (single base pack)
(c)
chocks used with remaining wheel
(d)
all are correct(525)

8.

While jacking the approved procedure is


(a) both wheels are raised together(525)
(b) wheels are raise one after another

In some large ac in the . There is a hydraulic jack


(a) to jack up the a/c when one wheel is to be raised.
(b) to serve the oleo .. when a/c is to be pulled up.
(c)
to jack up the aircraft completely

(d)

all are correct

10.

Levelling of a/c
(a) lateral leveling of H/A is more critical than L/A(61)
(b) jacking points are located on longitudinal axis
(c)
leveling is always done on longitudinal axis
(d) leveling of lateral point is always done on longitudinal axis

11.

Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

12.

Before raising an aircraft on jacks:

the correct statement


lateral leveling in heavy airplane is more critical(61)
leveling lateral point always on longitudinal axis
leveling is always done in longitudinal axis
none

(i)
Jack should be inspected for lifting capacity
(ii)
Check proper functioning
(iii) All work stands and other equipment should be removed from under
and near the Aircraft
(iv) All of the above(523)
13.

A single under carriage or part of a bogie beam for the purpose of


changing a wheel
(i)
(iii)

14.

Tripod jack is used


Actuator is used

(ii)
(iv)

Bottle jack is used


Mechanical screw is used

Aircraft jacks in constant use usually check for leaks corrosion hose
condition etc at intervals of
(i)

6 months (ii) 3 months (iii) 2 months (iv) One week

15. Large multi engine aircraft when towed by tractor the tow bar is fitted
with a
(i)
Shear pin or bolt
(ii)
Wheels to move on the ground
(iii) As in (i) and to prevent excessive force being Applied to the nose
under carriage
(iv) Hook to engage in a tractor
16. While towing the large multi engine a/c the centre ofr gravity of the a/c
must be determined before towing
(i)
For the purpose of weight and balance
(ii)
To right aircraft
(iii) To ensure that there is sufficient weight on the nose wheel
(iv) Ballast may some times be required to achieve a safe CG
operation+3
17.

While towing the large multi engine A/C before towing is commenced
(i)

The undercarriage must be .

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Ground . Should be installed


The statring if Applicable to ..
(ii) & (iii) are correct

18. When taxing (or towing) an a/c , an alternating red and green light rom
the control tower means
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
19.

Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately


Taxi out the a/c little faster
OK to proceed but use extreme caution
Return to starting point

A minor check and major check of all tow bars to be carried out
(i)
Once weekly and three months intervals respectively
(ii)
Twice weekly and either 3 months or 6 months intervals respectively
(iii) As in (ii) and depending on the complexity and amount of usage of
a particular to bar
(iv) None of the above

20.

When first starting to move an aircraft while taxing, it is important to


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Check the extension of shock struts.


Test the brakes.
Closely monitor the instruments.
Notify the control tower(519)

21.

In towing the ac(light), mark the correct statement


(a) all tail wheel a/c towing towards backward
(b) all nose wheel a/c towing towards backward
(c)
if steerable nose wheel a/c locking scissors are set to full
swivel position(517)
(d) none of the above

22.

Choose the correct statement regarding towing


(a) a/c equip with tail wheel and towed generally from forward
(b) nose wheel of a/c are generally towed form forward
(c)
nose wheel steering should be set to full steer position
(d) all are correct

23.

Mark the correct statement


(a) On a/c with steerable nose wheel the locking scissors are set to full
swivel for towing(519)
(b) Tail wheel a/c should always be towed backward
(c)
Release all the hydraulic charge before towing
(d) all of the above

24.

Mark the correct statement


(a) On a/c with a steer able nose wheel the locking scissors
are set to full swivel for towing .
(b) the pulse feathers of acoustic emission is analysed to
detect microscopic defect in acoustic emission

(c)
Thermos copy is most difficult method since it require
material with high thermal conductivity
(d) all of the above
25.

Before the Aircraft is being towed:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26.

Pre flight inspection is to be carried out


A qualified man must be in the cockpit to operate the brakes(519)
Power plant must be serviceable
All of the above and weather must be clear

The person incharge of towing the Aircraft should verify that on Aircraft
with a stearable nose wheel :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

The locking scissors are locked in position for towing


Locking scissors are removed
Locking scissors are set to full swivel for towing(519)
Shock strut extension is correct

27. A tailwheel type airplane has a greater tendency to weathervane during


taxi than a nosewheel type because on a tail wheel airplane , the
(i)
(ii)
23)
(iii)
28.

stop and wait for a green light


move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately
Return to starting point
Stop wherever you are

In landing gear wheel alignment is done


(i)
(iii)

30.

Surface area ratio behind the pivot point (main gear is less

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft , a flashing red light from the control
tower means
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

29.

vertical stabilizer to fuselage proportion is greater


Surface area ratio behind the pivot point (main gear) is greater(13-

Drag strut (ii)


Torque link
A groove in the outer cylinder of the sock strut

While moving the tail wheel a/c


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Face
Face
Face
Face

a/c
a/c
a/c
a/c

into the wind devator fully up position


into the wind and elevator is in fully down position
intoi the wind and elevator is in neutral position
into the wind and elevator is 2 down position

31. Which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some
aircraft
(i)
Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent accidental operation of
the nose wheel steering mechanism

(ii)
Tail wheel a/c must be towed backward
(iii) If the a/c has a steerable nose wheel , the torque link lock should
be set to full swivel(519)
(iv) None of the above
32.

A minor check of all tow bars should be carried out :


(i)
Once weekly
(ii)
Twice weekly
(iii) Once monthly
(iv) Once yearly

33.

Which statement (s) is/are true regarding the down of small aircraft?
(i)
Manla (help) rope has a tendency to stretch when it gets wet
(ii)
Nylon or Dacron rope is preferred to manila rope
(iii) The aircraft should be headed downwing in order to eliminate or
minimize wing lift
(iv) Leave he nose wheel or tail wheel unlocked

34.

In normal tied down the Aircraft should be headed as nearly as possible


(i)
Across the wind
(ii)
Against the wind
(iii) In to the wind
(iv) Lateral to the wind

35.

Tie down anchors sometimes called


(i)
(iii)

36.

(ii)
(iv)

Pad eye
Pin eye

To tie down light Aircraft ropes to capable of resisting a pull of approx:


(i)
(iii)

38.

Bull eye
Anchor eye

6000 lbs
4000 lbs

(ii)
(iv)

5000 lbs
3000 lbs

Which statement (s) is/are true regarding tiedown of small aircraft


(1) Manila(hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch when it gets wet
(2) Nylon or Dacron rope is preferred to manila rope
(3) The aircraft should be headed downwind in order to eliminate or
minimize wing lift
(4) Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked
(i)
(iii)

(1), (2),(3)& (4) (ii)


(2)
(iv)

(1) & (2)


(1) & (3)

39.

Mooring is the process in which


(a) head of the a/c is in prevailing wind whenever possible
(b) choke all wheels fore and aft
(c)
tie down the point on aircraft
(d) all(509)

40.

Mark the correct statement


(a) light a/c is tied down after every flight(509)

(b)
(c)
(d)

light a/c is not required tied down


only when strong air being to flow then tie down
both a & c

42.

Overnight parking shall be done


(a) position the a/c in down wind direction
(b) position the a/c in up wind direction
(c)
as in (b) and light a/c must be tied
(d) as in (c) and heavy a/c must be tied

43.

Zinc chromate primer have :


(i)
(iii)

Fire proof properties


Dope proofing qualities

(ii)
(iv)

Fire resistant properties


Paint resisting qualities

44. Surface oil hyd fluid, grease or fuel can be removed from a/c tyres by
washing with a
(i)
(iii)
45.

A/C is internally cleaned by


(i)
(iii)

46.

Mild soap solution and water(12-4)


(ii)
ATF or 100 octan
C.T.C.
(iv) None of the above

Vaccume cleaner
Jet of compressed air

(ii)

Liquid or mild soap

When an a/c is in same it should be cleaned periodically chlorinated


solvent such as trichloroethylene or carbon tetra chloride should not be
used in side the a/c
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Due to the danger of fire


Due to the danger of corrosion
Due to danger of toxic fame ozone depleting chemicals
Any of the above

47. A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise non approved cleaning


compounds should not be used washing aircraft is because their use can result
in
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
48.

Hydrogen embrittlement in metal structure


Hydrogen embrittlement in non metallic materials
A general inability to remove compount residues
None of the above

What is used for general cleaning of aluminum surfaces by


mechanical means ?
(i)
(iii)

Carborundum paper
Aluminum wool(12-3).

(ii)

Steel wool
(iv) Crocus cloth

49. Caustic cleaning products used on aluminium structures have the effect of
producing

(i)
(iii)

Passive oxidation
Anticorrsive surface

(ii)
(iv)

Improved corrosion resistance


Corrosion

50. What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease
come in contact with a tire
(i)
Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth and then rinse with clean
water
(ii)
Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a wash down and rinse
with soap and water(12-4)
(iii) Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic naphtha and
then wipe dry with a clean cloth
(iv) Wash with as jet of pressure
51.

Before starting an A/C Engine, position the Aircraft:


(i)
(iii)

52.

Head to wind
To any direction of wind

must be supplied with compressed air


to be guarded with the air intake guard
must be kept clear of personnel property or debries
As in (iii) and also the exhaust area must be kept clear

Before starting as piston engine shut down for more than 30 minutes
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

54.

(ii)
(iv)

Before starting an Aircraft Jet Engine the area in front of the Jet Inlet:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

53.

Oblique to wind direction


Tail to wind

Check the ignition for off


As in (i) and turn the propeller three to four complete revolutions
To be primed

While refueling an Aircraft with funnel, the funnel should be of :


(i)
(iii)

Metal
Tufnol

(ii)
(iv)

Plastic
Perspex

55. Compressed air in like electricity an excellent tool as long as it is under


control. It should never be used for:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

To charge the A/C tyres


To charge the Hyd. Accummulators
Seed or Sand blasting
Horse Play (507)

56. Welding on an Aircraft to be performed outside. If done in side the hanger


precautions should be observed that:
(i)

Aircraft to be jacked up

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
57.

The hyd. Test stand is usually mounted on four pneumatic wheels:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

58.

Surface is scratched
Treat the surface with an anti static charge
Static charge is build up
(ii) & (iii) are correct

Soak in 20% caustic soda solution


Spray with MEK(Methyl ethyl ketone)
Wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonizes and scrape or grit
(12-3)
Soak in 70% caustic soda

Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber


(i)
(iii)

63.

Used as a retarded
2&3

How may magnesium engine parts be cleaned


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
blast
(iv)

62.

Used as a thinner
(ii)
Used in zinc chromate (iv)

Because of the high surface and volume resistirities of Acrylic sheet when
it is rubbed with a dry cloth
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

61.

To replace the Aircraft wheels


it may be self propelled
it may be towed by hand or vehicle (496)

Toluence is
(i)
(iii)

60.

No. Aircraft shall be within 35 feet


Fire fighting eqpt. Is available
Hanger doors are kept wide open (508)

Aliphatic naphtha (12-3)


Aromatic naptha
(iv)

(ii)
Methyl ethyl ketone
Gasoline

A scratch on a/c surface during maintenance and handling


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

on high speed cause corrosion


In high speed cause crack
Fill farm corrosion
All the above

GROUND HANDLING(QB)
1.
When approaching the front of an idling jet engine the hazard area extends
forward of the engine approximately
a. 10 feet
b. 15 feet
c. 25 feet
d. 35 feet

2.
Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a
carburetor or intake fire
a. Dry chemical
b. A fine water mist
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Form
3.
When approaching the rear of an idling turbo jet engine the hazard area extends
aft of the engine approximately
a. 200 feet
b. 100 feet
c. 50 feet
d. 25 feet
4.

When towing a large aircraft


A person should be in the cockpit to watch the obstruction
Person should be stationed at the nose
Person should be positioned each wing tip and the empennage
A person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes

5.

During towing operations


a) Pilot must be in the cockpit to operate brakes
b) A qualified person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes
c) A person should be in the cockpit to look for obstructions
d) Persons should be stationed at the nose and each of the wing-tips

6.
Tail-wheel type aeroplanes have the greatest tendency to move side-ways during
taxing when there is
a) Cross wind
b) Tail wind
c) Head wind
d) None of these
7.

When parking a aircraft after towing, the nose wheel should be left
a) Pointed straight ahead b) As it was when towing stopped
c) Unlocked
d) All are correct

8.

Before towing a large aircraft


a) Ballast should be put in the cockpit
b) Tow bar should be fitted with a strong bolt
c) Tow bar should be fitted with a shear bolt
d) None of these

9.

While towing a large aircraft, personnel required are


a) Two in cockpit
b) As in a) plus one each on wing tips
c) As in b) plus one at the tail
d) As in c) plus one in overall control of operation

10.

While pushing a small and light aircraft, generally


a) Rudder control should not be locked
b) It should be pushed backward rather than forward
c) Flats of the hands should only be used

d) All are correct


11.

While moving an aircraft from the runway after an emergency


a) It should be towed away fast
b) It should never be towed away with deflated tyres
c) Brakes should never be applied
d) All are correct

12.

For picketing a light aircraft


a) Cable or any rope should be used
b) Sufficient slack should be given for all types of ropes
c) Aircraft should be parked into the wind
d) Both a) & c) are correct

13.

Before jacking an aircraft


a) Empty the fuel tanks
b) Fit critical stress panels
c) Level aircraft laterally d) Remove all optional equipment

14.

It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why?


a) To set the weighing scales to zero
b) To stabilize the weighing scales
c) For first determining its empty weight
d) For making aircraft level

15.

Direction of rotation of external gears are


a) Opposite
b) Same
c) Either a) or b)
d) None of the above

16. Choose incorrect statement


Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strength
Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement
Manila rope requires extra slak due to shrinks
17.

Weather waning tendency is greatest than taxying


(a) Either type of aeroplane in a quartering tail wind
(b) A tail wheel type aeroplane in a direct cross wind
(c) In a nose wheel type aeroplane quartering head wind
(d) A tail wheel type aeroplane parallel wind

18. When taxying an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from
the control tower means
(a) Move clear of the runway/taxy way immediately
(b) OK to proceed but used extreme caution
(c) Return to starting point
(d) Stop where are
19.

Choose incorrect statement:

(a) Yellow polypropylene provide insufficient strength


(b) Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement
(c) Manila rope requires extra slack due to shrinks
(d) The rope from tail should pull away at about 450 to each side
of tail
20.

Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check


(a) Single base jack
(b) Bottle neck jack
(c) Screw jack
(d) Tripod jack

FUEL
1.
2.

The color code of fuel line is


(a) Red(102)
(b) Black

(c) Blue

The color of 100LL& 100HL fuel is


(a) Blue & green
(b)

(d) Yellow
(c)

(d)

3.
Flow of aviation fuel which passes greater antiknock quality than 100
octane areClassified
(a) according to the multiplier of lead
(b) by reference to normal neptane
(c)
by performance number(95)
(d) none
4.

When de-fuelling is done on swept back wing a/c best precaution is


(a) outboard tank drain first
(b) fuselage tank drain first
(c)
inboard tank drain first
(d) fuel nozzle inserted before grounding

5.

When a/c fuelling with pressure fuelling. Precaution taken


(a) fuel nozzle pressure kept minimum to the fuel filter
(b) pressure should be adequate(13-31)
(c)
electric s/w on the indicate the fuel quantity on gauge
(d) fuel nozzle inserted before gounding

6.

During fuelling the most necessary precaution to be observed


(a) grounding connection first made to aircraft and then fuelling vehicle
(b) grounding connection first made to fuelling vehicle and then the
aircraft
(c)
skill ness of fuelling person
(d) all are correct

7.

The fluid use for all types for aircraft engine except rocket is
(a) gasoline
(b) air
(c) ATF
(d) all are correct

8.

The hose of 100 low lead

AVGAS dispenser is

(a)

red

(b)

blue

(c)

black

(d)

green

9.

Mark the correct statement in respect to fuelling


(a) a/c can be grounded with carbon strip embedded in the tires
(b) refueling van can be grounded with metal chain dragged
behind the van
(c)
both the a/c and van are kept at equal potential with a wire
(d) all of the above(498)

10.

Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine
fuel. Which statement is true in reference to the advantages of each
(i)
Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit weight than gasoline
(ii)
Gasoline has a higher heat energy per unit weight than kerosene
(iii) Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume than
gasoline(77)
(iv) Kerosene has a lower heat energy per unit weight than gasoline

11.

Jet fuel number identifiers are


(i)
Performance numbers to designate the volatility of the fuel.
(ii)
Performance numbers and are relative to the fuels performance in
the aircraft engine.
(iii) Type numbers and have no relations to the fuels performance in the
Aircraft engine(78)

12.

Which statement is true regarding fuel identification


(i)
All aviation turbine fuels are identified by name using white letters
on red background
(ii)
All gasoline fuels are identified by name using red letters on white
back ground
(iii) All aviation turbine fuels are identified by name using white letter on
black back ground
(iv) All aviation turbine fuels are identified by name using white letters
on red back ground

13.

Additive is used in fuel to


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

14.

Prevent microbial growth in tanks


Prevent corrosion and increase in efficiency of fuel
Prevent detonations
(iv) All(13-28/32)

If an engine produces 1000 H.P with 100-octane fuel and 1800 H.P with a
specimen fuel then :
(i)
Specimen fuel has octane no. 18
(ii)
Specimen fuel has 18 performance no.
(iii) Specimen fuel has 180 performance no(75).
(iv) Both 1 & 3 are correct

15.

Additives in fuel
(i)
Prevents the formation of microbial growth & fungus
(ii)
Prevent detonation
(iii) Increase the octane rating
(iv)
Any of the above(75/79)

16. Rigid tanks may be pretested by filling with few gallons of kerosene and
applying a mixture of whiting and methylated spirit to all secure and joints
apply a air pr. Of
(i)
(iii)
17.

3 PSI
2 PSI

(ii)
(iv)

3.5 PSI
1.5 PSI

Characteristics of detonation are


(i)
Cylinder pr. remains the same excessive cylinder head temp. and a
decrease in engine power
(ii)
Rapid increase in cylinder pr. Excessive cylinder head temperature
and a decrease in engine power(75)
(iii) Rapid rise in cylinder pr. Cylinder head temp normal and a decrease
in engine power
(iv) None of the above

18.

To protect the inside of the fuel tank:


(i)
Should be given regular finish and two coats of acid proof paint
(ii)
Must be given as coating of Linseed oil
(iii) Must be given a coating of china wood oild and temperature of 130F
(iv) It should be boiled after anodic treatment in 4% potassium
dichromate solution for 30 minutes

FUEL(QB)
1.

A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause


a. Hard starting b. Detonation c. Vapor lock

d. None of these

2.

The main difference between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are
a. Volatility and lead content
b. Volatility, lead content and colour
c. Lead content and colour
d. All of these

3.

Tetra ethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to


a. Retard the formation of corrosive

b. Improve the gasoline performance in the engine


c. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
d. None of these
4.
If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is
trippled, the volume will
a. Triple
b. Reduced to one third its original volume
c. Remains same
d. Multiply by a fixed factor
5.

Aviation gasoline is having relative density of


a) 0.70
b) 0.72
c) 0.80

d) 0.5

6.

Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of


a) 5 microns
b) 8 microns
c) 4 microns
d) 10 microns

7.

Fuel used for turbo jet engine is


a) Gasoline
b) Aviation kerosene
c) Petrol
d) None of these

8.

Rigid fuel tanks are tested for leak with the air pressure of
a) 2.5 PSI
b) 1.5 PSI
c) 2 PSI
d) 3 PSI

9.

Flexible fuel tanks are tested for fuel leak with the air pressure of
a) 0.25 PSI
b) 1.5 PSI
c) 2.5 PSI
d) 0.5 PSI

10.

Fuel leak of the tank is checked for the seepage for the period of
a) 15 min
c) 30 min
c) 45 min
d) 60 min

11.

The bladder type of fuel cell is made to size in the cavity when it sit
a) Larger b) Smaller
c) Equal
d) All of these

12.

The color of 100 ll fuel is


(a) Blue
(b) Colorless or straw
(c) Red
(d) Green

13.

A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause


(a) Vapour lock
(b) Detonation
(c) Hard starting
(d) None

14.

During fuelling the most necessary precaution to be observed


a)
grounding connection first made to aircraft and then fuelling vehicle.
b)
Grounding connection first made to fuelling vehicle and then the aircraft.
c)
Either (a) or (b)

15.

The fluid is used for all type of aircraft engine except rocket is
(a) gasoline
(b) air
(c) aviation turbine fuel
(d) all of the above

16.

The hose of 100 LL AVGAS dispense is


(a) red
(b) blue
(c) black

(d) green

FIRE
1.

It takes three things to start as fire:


(i)
(iii)

Heat, fuel and Spark


Heat, fuel and oxygen(501)

(ii)

Fuel, Oxygen and water


(iv) Fuel heat and Aircraft

2.

Class-B fire includes


(a) fire in wood, paper product
(b) fire is petroleum product(500)
(c)
fire in combustiable material
(d) all are correct

3.

For extinguishing fire in Class B fires


(a) CO2 type extinguishing is used(501)
(b)
Dry chemical extinguisher is used
(c)
Carbon tetra chloride extinguisher is used
(d) Halogenated type extinguishant is used

4.

Class D fires respond to application of


(i)
(iii)

5.

7.
8.
9.

(ii)
(iv)

Dry powder
Foam

Flammable petroleum products or other combustible products liquids,


solvents etc. are known:
(i)
(iii)

6.

Water and water based agents


C.O.2

Class A fires
Class C fires

(ii)
(iv)

Colour of fire extinguisher fluid line is


(a) yellow (b) brown or yellow (c)

Class B fires
Class D firm
red(102)

(d)

Which fire extinguisher is best for electrical fires


(a) water
(b) CO2(501)
(c)
Foam
Indication of Class B fire is
(a) Red(504)
(b) Yellow (c) Green

(d)

maroon
(d)

Brown

While starting the piston engine which type of fire extinguisher is


permitted
(a) Water and water based agent
(b) CO2, 5 lb capacity(489)

All

(c)
(d)

Dry chemical
CC 14 ( balon gas)

10. Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use
on a carburetor or intake fire
(i)
(iii)
11.

A fine water mist


(iv) Methyl bromidetype extinguisher

Plastic
(ii)
Metal
Tufnol
As in (ii) and material should not generate static electricity (501)

Fires in Aircraft wheel brakes can be extinguished


(i)
(ii)

13.
by

(ii)

The discharge of CO2 through a horn it should not be of :


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

12.

Dry chemical
Carbon dioxide(491)

By CO2
By dry chemicals (503)

(ii)
(iv)

By water
By C.T.C

The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked


a) Weight and pressure gauge
c) By operating the extinguisher

b) Marking on neck
d) All of these

14. If air intake fire occurs before the engine picks up an ideal ground fire
extinguishes used is
(a) methyl bronze
(c) BCF
15.

(b) CO2
(d) both (b) & (c)

Fire extinguisher kept in storage should be checked for weight once in


(a) 2 years

(b) 1 year

(c) 3 years

(d) 5 years

DOCUMENTATION
1.

When a component exceeds the alert value


(a) it should be subjected before flight
(b) it should continue in flight and corrective action taken
(c)
it can be replaced in night or at 10 hrs which ever is earlier
(d) none of the above

2.

Alert value for a component is


(a) recalculated at every 3 years

(b)
(c)
(d)

recalculated at every 1 month


recalculated if it found unreliable
none of the above

3.

Alert
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

value for a component


recalculated at every 3 years
recalculated at every 1 month
recalculated if it found unreliable
as in 3 & it should be less than original alert value

4.

When is component exceed the alert value


(a) it should be rejected before the flight
(b) it should continue in flight
(c)
it can replace in flight or 10 hrs which is earlier
(d) none

5.

The ATA-100 specification no for hydraulic . And engine is


(a) 55.36.29.77
(b) 36.29.55.77
(c)
29.36.55.77
(d) 29.36.77.55

6.

In ATA-100 systems 36 represents


(a)
hydraulic system (29)
(b)
oxygen system (32)
(c)
pheumatic system
(36)
(d) landing gear system (32)

7.
As per ATA-100 specification . Of air conditioning fuel navigation
and oil system is
(a) 21, 28, 34, 70
(b) 21, 31, 28, 79
(c)
31, 34, 52, 80
(d) 32, 28, 34, 79
8.

ATA-100 code of hydraulic power, pneumatic fire and engine oil is


(a) 36, 26,79, 83
(b) 29, 36, 26,78
(c)
29, 36, 26, 79
(d) 79, 36, 29, 26

9.
as

In ATA-100 specification of cable electrical wire No and letter are marked


(a)
(c)

10.

11.

prefix and suffix


in middle

ATA-37 indicates
(a) vaccum/pressure
(c)
pneumatic
Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)

(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)

side by side
at the end

water/waste
none of the above

the correct statement


ATA-code 30 indicates light
ATA-61 code indicates propeller
ATA-29 indicates power plant

(d)

all are correct

12. In ATA coding system the size and type of the electrical cables/wires in
a/c are given by
(i)
(iii)
13.

Prefix and suffix


Numbers and letters

(ii)
(iv)

Side by side
None of the above

Which of the following is not contained in type certificate date sheet


(a) minimum fuel grade to be used
(b) ADS
(c)
Location of the datum
(d) control surface adjustment

RADIO
RADIO(QP)
1.

Radio equipment is protected from vibration damage by


a) Shock mounts
b) Aluminium alloy jumpers
c) Doubler plates around the mounting points
d) All are correct

2.

To communicate with ground control from an aircraft, pilot uses


a) VOR receiver
b) VHF trans receiver
c) HF transmitter
d) ADF

3.

Basic components of a communication system are


a) Receiver & transmitter
b) As in a) plus receiver / transmitter antennas
c) As in b) plus microphone
d) As in c) plus loudspeaker

4.

Power output of large commercial aircraft VHF transmitter is of the order of


a) 1-15 watts
b) 20-30 watts
c) 50-100 watts
d) 150-200 watts

5.

An antenna is a special type of electrical circuit designed to transmit & receive


a) Audible signals
b) Visual signal
c) Electro magnetic energy
d) All are correct

6.

Operating frequency of marker beacon is


a) 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz b) 328.6 MHz to 335.4 MHz
c) 100 MHz fixed
d) 75 MHz fixed

7.

The facilities provided by a localiser is


a) Give indication of correct descending angle
b) Distance from touch down point

c) Indication of lateral deviation with respect to centre line of runway


d) None of these
8.

The correct descending angle is approximately


a) 1 degree
b) 2 degrees
c) 2.25 degrees
d) 2.75 degrees

9.

The flag appears at the end of ILS indicator, indicates


a) Reading is correct
b) Partially correct
c) Incorrect & misleading
d) None

10.

The middle marker carrier is modulated on


a) 3000Hz
b) 1300Hz
c) 400Hz

d) 4000Hz

11.

Typical airborne installation of GPS is carried out by


a) ARINC 249
b) ARINC 429
c) ARINC 629
d) Both b) & c)

12.

How many GPS satellites are required to locate an aircraft?


a) 1
b) 2
c) Minimum 3
d) Minimum 4

13.

The control segment of GPS consists of


a) A ground station
b) Various ground based monitoring stations
c) A master control station
d) Both b) & c)

14.

Basically, GPS consists of


a) One independent segment
b) Two independent segment
c) Three independent segment d) Four independent segment

15.

The purpose of weather radar is


a) To enable the pilot to look ahead to see if dangerous weather exist
b) To inform pilot of pleasant weather
c) To inform about clouds
d) None of these

16.

Weather radar works on


a) Echo system
c) VHF system

b) LOS system
d) HF system

Antenna size for DME is


a) 1
b)
c) /4

d) /8

17.
18.

The name Superhet is used for


AM receiver
FM receiver

AM transmitter
FM transmitter
19.

In modulation, the available band is


(a) one
(b) two
(c) no band

(d) many band

20. The modulation in which, amplitude is kept constant and frequency is changed
is called
(a) amplitude modulation
(b) space modulation
(c) frequency modulation
(d) phase modulation
21.

The self exited mixer is economical because


It does not require separate amplifier
It does not require tank circuit
It needs to generate f0 + fs
None

22.

There is no carrier present in


(a) DSBFC (b) SSBFC (c) DSBSC (d) USBFC

23. The ionospheres D-layer reflects


(a) HF wave
(b) LF wave
(c) MF wave
(d) a) and b)
24. Main drawback of TRF AM Receiver was
More complex circuit
Tuning to fix frequency of different stages was difficult
Un-economical
None
25.

In a superhet receiver, the first most stage is


(a) IF amp
(b) AF amp (c) RF amp (d) Mixer

26.

In a superhet receiver, the name, first detector is often given to


(a) 1st RF amp (b) Local Oscillator (c) IF amp (d) Mixer

27.

The oscillator, which does not employ LC tank circuit


(a) Hartlay (b) Collpit (c) Crystal (d) Clapp

28.

Advantage of modulation is
(a) Low frequency signals can be sent over long distance
(b) Size of antenna is greatly reduced
(c) No interference with other transmitters
(d) All of the above

29.

In frequency modulation

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

The amplitude changes while frequency constant


The frequency changes while amplitude constant
Both constant
Both vary

30. If the signal frequency band is between 550 1500 KHz., and local oscillator
frequency band [1045 1995] KHz then I.F. will be
(a) 405 KHz (b) 495 KHz (c) 500 KHz (d) 1000 KHz
31.
32.

The operating frequency of ADF is


a) 90Hz
b) 90KHz c) 150Hz
The ADF operates on
a) LF Band b) MF Band

d) 90KHz to 1800KHz

c) LF & MF Band d) VHF Band

33.

In ADF antenna system at a point signal fades out this is called


a) Null position
b) Figure of eight
c) Cardiod
d) None of these

34.

ADF receiver essentially is


a) TRF receiver
b) Superhetrodyne receiver
c) Double superhetrodyne receiver
d) Suppressed carrier receiver

35.

Types of antenna / antennas used for ADF receiver


a) Half wave
b) Full wave
c) Sense aerial
d) As in c) and loop aerial

36.

Which of the following frequency is used for space propogation


(a) 2 KHZ
(b) 30 MHZ
(c) upto 30 MHZ
(d) 20 KHZ- 200 KHZ

37.

VHF is used for


(a) short distance communication
(b) in broad casting
(c) long distance communication
(d) point to point microwave
19. Immediately after picking up of signal by a super het type receiving antenna, the
signal goes to
a) RF stage
b)
Detector stage
c) IF stage
d)
AF stage
21.

In line of sight communication, we use


a) UHF wave
b) VHF wave
c) VLF wave

d) HF wave

INSTRUMENT
1.

In pilot static system ,static vents are placed separately in a/c to reduce
(a) problems that are created by pressure effects.(57)

2.

Altimeter in absence of manometer may be checks.


(a) vaccum gauge
(b) vacuum chamber
(c) micromanometer
(d) all

3.

An altimeter has
(a) Stack of three evacuated bellows
(b) Stack of two evacuated bellows
(c)
Barometric pressure setting provision
(d) All

4.

Which statement is correct regarding ASI


(a) pitot pressure is given inside capsule
(b) static pressure is given outside the capsule
(c)
measure differential pressure
(d) all are correct (86)

5.

The static vents with the flat surface plate at two position to
(a) minimize position error
(b) have is formation freedom
(c)
both (a) & (b)
(d) none

6.

In uniform fluid flow the fluid is first made to flow through a tube and the
pressure exerted by the fluid is measured by
(a) dynamic pressure
(b) static pressure
(c)
reynolds no.
(d) all

7.

Which instrument is affected by position error.


(a) Altimeter (b) ASI
(c)
VSI (d)

Both a & b(56)

Pitot pressure is used in


(a) altimeter (b) ASI

all

8.
9.

(d)

low frequency high amplitude


high frequency high amplitude
low frequency low amplitude
high frequency low amplitude

When flying along magnetic equator dip will be


(a)
(c)

11.

VSI

Instrument panels are usually shock mounted to absorb shock


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

10.

(c)

increased
decreased

(b)
(d)

remain unchanged(166)
depend upon direction of flight

When journey from magnetic equator towards pole, the dip and

(a)
(c)

increased(166)
depend upon direction

(b)
(d)

decreased
None

12.

A/C instrument range marking is used to indicate

13.

Temperature in the Troposhpere:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

14.

Remains Constant and it is -56.5 degree C


Decreases as the alt. Increases(65)
Increases as the alt. Decreases
None

Which statement is true regarding a VSI


(i)
It works on principle of differencial pressure
(ii)
As in (i) and the difference in pressure of pitot pressure and static
pressure
(iii) As in (i) and the difference in pressure in the capsule and in the
case (100)
(iv) As in (i) and the difference in pressure out side the capsule and in
the case

15.

Hair springs in instruments


(i)
Are basically intended to act as control spring as well as antibacklash devices(13)
(ii)
Also act as temperature compensator
(iii) Also act as damping device
(iv) Correct for zero error

16.

The speed of sound in the atmosphere


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

17.

Varies according to the frequency of the sound


Changes with a change in temperature( JP/2-5)
Varies according to weather
Changes with a change in pressure

Instruments connected in to a ptot static system are


(i)
(iii)

Air speed indicator


Altimeter

(ii)
(iv)

Rate of climb indicator


All of the above(50)

20. Instruments that measure pressures in relatively high-pressure fluid


systems are usually operated through a mechanism known as
(i)
(iii)
21.

Diaphragm type (ii)


Bourdon type(302)

Bellows capsure type


(iv) All of the above

Which gyro instrument have free rltation in all three axis

(i)
(iii)
22.

(ii)

Free gyro & spaced gyro(116)

Turn and bank indicator work on the principle of


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

23.

Tide gyro
Earth gyro

Change in pressure
Magnetism and electricity
Gyroscopic action(149)
Change in temp

Basic flight instrument in an a/c are


(i)
Altimeter, Gyroscopic direction indicator and vertical airspeed
indicator
(ii)
Air speed indicators, altimeter , the magnetic direction indicator
(iii) Air speed indicator, bank indicator outside air temperature indicator

24.

Engine instruments operated by


(i)
(iii)

Atmospheric impact
Gyroscope

(ii)
(iv)

Difference or static pressure


All of the above

25.

The following is a vertical axis gyro


(i)
Direction gyro
(ii)
Gyro horizon(121)
(iii) Turn & slip indicator
(iv) Both 2 & 3 are correct

26.

Mark the correct statement regarding electrically driven gyro instruments:


(i)
Electrically driven gyrohoizon is designed to operate from a 400 Hz
supply or 28 volt direct current supply system
(ii)
The alternating current is supplied form a invertier system or from
engine driven alternators(127)
(iii) Turn and slip indicators are designed to operate from an a/c supply
at a controlled frequency 407 Hz.
(iv) None of the above

27.

Mark the correct statement regarding direction indicators:


(i)
The caging knob should be checked for freedom of rotation and
axial movement
(ii)
As (1) and with gyro running and cages, a heavy resistance to
rotating of knob should be felt
(iii) As 2 and a maximum drift of 3 in 15 min is usually accepted
(iv) As (1) and a maximum drift of 3 in 15 min is usually accepted

28. In direction indicator instrument after uncaging the drift from this heading
should be noted a max. drift of
(i)
(ii)

1 deg in 30 minutes in acceptable


2 deg in 15 minutes acceptable

(iii)
(iv)

3 deg in 15 minutes acceptable


5 deg in 30 minutes acceptable

INSTRUMENT
1. Pitot head is mounted parallel to the
(a) Latitudinal axis of aircraft
(b) Longitudinal axis of aircraft
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
2.

With increase in altitude, pressure & temperature


a) Drops
b) Will rise
c) Pressure drops, temperature increases
d) Temperature drops, pressure increases

3.

Pitot pressure varies with


a) Speed
c) Speed and Air density(53)
d) None of these

b) Air density

4.

Pitot static system have heating elements to


a) Remove moisture from the air
b) Prevent ice formation(54)
c) To permit flying at high altitude
d) All are correct

5.

Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it


a) Impairs their thermal efficiency
b) May cause obstruction of orifices
c) None of the above
d) Both a) and b) are correct

6.

Leak test of pitot static system should be carried out


a) After installation of a component / instrument
b) Whenever malfunctioning is suspected
c) At specified periods indicated in servicing schedules
d) All are correct

7.

During daily inspection of pitot static system


(a) Pitot pressure entry hole, drain holes, static holes, or ports should be
inspected that they are unobstructed
(b) Static holes and drains holes must be cleared of obstruction with tools
likely to cause enlargement
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above

8.

During Leak test of pitot static system


(a) Rate of discharge of pressure should not be at high rate

(b)
(c)
(d)
9.

High rate may cause damage to the instruments


Both A and B
None of the above

Leak test provides a means for


(a) Check those instruments connected to system, are functioning properly.
(b) It serves as a calibration test also
(c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

10. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static system?
a) Vertical speed indicator
b) Altimeter
c) Airspeed indicator
d) All are correct
11. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static pressure is
a) Altimeter
b) Pressure gauge
c) Airspeed indicator
d) Vertical speed indicator
12.

Altimeter and rate of climb indicator utilize


a) Static pressure
b) Pitot pressure
c) Either a) or b)
d) Both a) and b)

13. When QNH is set on milibar scale, the altimeter reads


(a) Altitude above mean sea level(75)
(b) Height above the airport elevation
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
14.

When QFE is set on milibar scale, altimeter reads


(a) Altitude above mean sea level
(b) Height above the airport elevation(75)
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above

15.

All the altimeter


(a) Are constructed on the principle of Aneroid barometer
(b) They have pressure responsive elements
(c) Aneroid mechanism
(d) All of the above(68)

16.

Hysterisis error in altimeter


(a) Is induced by aircraft maintaining a given altitude for certain period of
time and suddenly making a large altitude change
(b) This error will eliminate itself with slow climbs and descends
(c) After maintaining a new altitude for a reasonable period of time
(d) All of the above

17.

Installation errors in altimeter mechanism is


(a) Caused by change of alignment of static pressure port with the relation
wind
(b) Speed of aircraft and angle of attack of aircraft
(c) By location of the static port in a disturbed pressure field
(d) All of the above

18.

An ROCI is connected to
(a) Static pressure only(99)
(b) Pitot pressure only
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above

19.

In ROCI during dive of aircraft, the diaphragm


(a) Contracts
(b) Expands(101)
(c) Both a & b
(d) No effect

20. Any sudden or abrupt change in the aircraft altitude may cause
erroneous indications of ROCI
(a) Due to a sudden change of airflow over static port
(b) Sudden change of air flow over pitot head
(c) On both A and B
(d) None of the above
21.

An instantaneous ROCI is
(a) Recent development
(b) Incorporates acceleration pumps
(c) Eliminates limitations associated with calibrated leak assembly
(d) All of the above(105)

22.

An ASI is
(a)
A sensitive differential pressure gauge
(b) Indicates differential between the impact and static
pressure surrounding an aircraft
(c) Consists of a sensitive metallic diaphragm
(d) All of the above

23.

Machmeter indicates
(a)The ratio of aircraft speed to the speed of sound at any altitude
(b)Mechanism is similar to that of True airspeed indicator
(c)Mechanism is similar to that of altimeter
(d)Both A and B

24.

The mechanism of pressure switches are similar to those employed in


(a) ASI
(b) Mach meter
(c) Altimeter

(d) All of the above


Gyro
1.

The earth rotates at its own axis at a rate of


(a) 20 degrees per hour
(b) 30 degrees per hour
(c) 15 degrees per hour(122)
(d) 25 degrees per hour

2.

Heating element fitted around the pitot tube casing is to


a Prevent ice formation
b Reduce position error
c Reduce instrument error
d Reduce density error

3. Static vents are always located one on each side of a fuselage and inter connected
so as to balance out pressure effect resulting from
a Any yawing or side slip motion of an aircraft
b Sudden pitch up
c Sudden pitch down
d None of the above
4.
A gyro having freedom in three planes at right angles to each other but
controlled by some external force is called
a. Free gyro
b. Tied gyro
c. Earth gyro
d. Rate gyro
5. Ability of gyro to resist any force, which tends to change the plane of rotation
is termed as
a. Gyroscopic Inertia
b. Gyroscopic Rigidity
c. Gyroscopic Precession
d. Both A and B(117)
6.
On application of an external force, the angular change at right angle to the
applied force is called gyroscopic
(a)Rigidity
(b)Precession(118)
(c)Inertia
(d)All of the above
7.

The example of earth gyro fitment is


Directional gyro
Artificial Horizon
Turn and bank indicator

d)

All of the above

8.

The example of tied gyro fitment is


Artificial Horizon
Directional Gyro
Turn and Bank indicator
None of the above

9.

Angular momentum is
a) Moment of inertia
c) Product of a) & b)

b) Angular velocity
d) Sum of a) & b)

10.

Mark the incorrect statement


a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied
force.
b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor.
c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor(118).
d) None of the above

11.

Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:


a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as
appropriate
b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to
the earth rate.
c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude
d) All of these

12. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one
or the other of the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is
termed as
a) Gimbal lock(125)
b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift
13. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at
right angles to each other is termed as
a) Gimbal Lock

b) Gimbal Error (126)

c) Apparent Drift

14.
The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope
which is regulated by a relief value at
a) 3.5 in Hg
b) 4.5 in Hg
c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg(126)
d) None
15.

The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is


a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure.
b) Weight due to pipelines
c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.
d) All of these(126)

16. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction
motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are
possible of approximate.
a) 23000rpmb) 24000rpm(127) c) 24500rpmd) None
17.

Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative position of
a) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol)
c) Both a) & b) (128)
d) None of these
18. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in gyro
horizon is ______ respectively
a) 3600 and 900
b) 3600 and 800
c) 3600 and 850(129)
d) None
19.

The reason for restricting pitch movement of gyro horizon is to prevent


a) Gimbal error
b) Gimbal lock(122)
c) Transport wander
d) None

20.

The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is


a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure.
b) Weight due to pipelines
c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.
d) All of these

21.
Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage
induction motor and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds
are possible of approximate.
a) 23000rpm
b) 24000rpm
c) 24500rpm
d) None
22.
In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear
from gyro rotor shaft, the speed of holder being__________
a) 25 rpm(135)
b) 20 rpm
c) 30 rpm
d) 35 rpm
23. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the supply fed to
the centre electrode is
a) 25V AC
b) 20V AC(137)
c) 12V AC
d) 15V AC
24.
25.
26.

Fast Erection system is supplied with


a) 28V DC
b) 115V AC (140) c) 25V AC
Erection rate of normal erection system is
a) 50/sec
b) 50/min(140)

c) 30/min

Erection rate of fast erection system is


a) 50/sec
b) 50/min
c) 30/min

d) None
d) 30/sec
d) 30/sec

27. In electromagnetic method of fast erection, the output of


secondary winding of transformer is:
115V AC
b. 20 V AC
c. 28V DC
d. 185V AC(141)
28. For compensation of pendulosity error, the amount of inclination is governed by
value of:
a. 0.50
b. 1.750
c. Either a) or b) (149)
d. None
29.Caging device is used to erect the gyro to its normal operating condition
(a) Prior to flight
(b) After tumbling of gyro
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
30.Gyro horizon
(a) Utilizes vertical spin axis gyro
(b) Provides visual indications of any change of pitch and roll
attitude of aircraft
(c) Both A and B(127)
(d) None of the above
31.With gyro horizon in operation gyro rigidity
(a)Maintains the spin of axis in its normal operating position
(b)Maintains horizon bar with respect to aircraft symbol
(c)A and B both(121)
(d)None of the above
32.In Electrically driven attitude indicators, the gyro rotates
approx., at
(a) 20000 rpm
(b) 21000 rpm
(c) 21500 rpm
(d) None of the above
33.

During functional test of direction indicator, the drift should be


checked which should not exceed
(a) 2 degree in 15 minutes
(b) 3 degree in 15 minutes
(c) 2 degree in 30 minutes
(d) 3 degree in 30 minutes

34.

Direction indicator provides a stabilized directional reference


(a) For maintaining a desired course
(b) For turning on a new heading
(c) Used as complementary instrument to direct reading
magnetic compass
(d) All the above

35.

Setting knob at the front of the case of direction indicator is for


Setting the magnetic heading
Caging the gyro assembly to prevent the damage during transit & installation

Both a and b
None of the above
36.

In turn & ship indicator, the precession of gyro is equal to


a) Angular momentum of gyro
b) Rate or turn
c) Product of a) & b) (151)
d) None

37.

In TSI, in practice, the gimbal ring deflection is generally not more than
a) 50
b) 120
c) 80
d) 60(151)

38.

Under banked turn in TSI means


a) Skid out of turn(152) b) Slip into turn

c) None

39. To prevent the entry of water and other foreign matter, the pilot pressure tube is
provided with
(a) mast
(b) baffles(55)
(c) drain hole
(d) moisture trap
40. If at mean sea level ambient temperature decreases than ICAO standard
atmosphere
(a) altimeter under read
(b) altimeter over read(71)
(c)
no indication error
41. In order to compensate for barometric error i.e. altitude error due to atmospheric
pressure change an altimeter is incorporated with
(a) capsule of suitable material
(b) bimetallic strip
(c) barometric pressure setting device(74)
(d) hair spring
42. A mach meter is a compound flight instrument and uses the following
mechanism to compute the required ratio.
(a) air speed mechanism
(b) altitude mechanism
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) & (b) (92)
43.

In vertical speed indicator (VSI) during descent the capsule will


(a) expand(101)
(b) contract
(c) no effect

44.
will

During a descent, the static vent become blocked by ice, the air speed indicator
(a) under read due to static pressure increasing.
(b) fall rapidly to zero due to differential pressure equalizing.
(c) over read due to static pressure increasing.
(d) continue to indicate correctly because the instrument only
uses pilot pressure.

45. An aircraft is flying a constant rate of descent at 650 fpm when the static vents
become blocked by ice. A few seconds after the blockage occurs the most likely VSI
indication will be

(a) zero
descent
46.
is

(b) 550 fpm descent


(d) 750 fpm descent

(c) 650 fpm

In TSI, the slip indicator is of the ball and liquid filled tube type the liquid used
(a) silicon fluid

(b) alcohol

(c) white spirit(155)

47.

The turn and Bank indicator is called


(a)Turn and slip indicator
Needle and ball indicator
Shows correct execution of a bank and turn and indicate the lateral attitude of
aircraft in level flight
All of the above

48.

Turn pointer of TSI is operated by a gyro driven by


Vacuum
Air pressure
Electricity
All of the above

49. TSI is normally consisting electrical driven gyro so in case of failure of vacuum
driven artificial horizon and direction indicator, it acts as
Safety factor
Stand by instrument for emergency operation
Both A and B
None of the above
50.

The fluid inside the slip indicator tube of TSI


Provides damping action
Ensuring smooth movement of the ball
Both A and B
None of the above

51. The tube of slip indicator is curved so that horizontal position of the ball tends to
seek
(a) The lowest point
(b) The highest point
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
52. In T.S.I a small projection on the left end of tube contains a bubble of air, which
compensates for
(a) Expansion of the fluid during change in temperature
(b) Contraction of the fluid during change in temperature
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above

53. Two stands of wire wound around the glass tube of bank indicator of T. S. I.
(a) Fasten the tube to the instrument case
(b) Serve as reference makers
(c) Indicates the correct position of ball in the tube
(d) All of the above
54. During coordinated straight and level flight, the force of gravity causes the ball to
rest
(a) In the lowest part of the tube
(b) Centered between the reference wires
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above
55.

Fast erection switch should not be pressed


(a)Before 15 seconds have elapsed after switching on the supply
(b) For more than one minute at a stretch
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above

General
1.
The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument panel is
determined by the
a) Size of the panel(38)
b) Type of the panel
c) Weight of the complete panel unit
d) Number of instruments to be installed
3.
on

The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends


a) Instrument manufacturer
b) Design of the instrument case
c) Design of the aircraft fuselage
d) Design of the instrument panel

4.

How is a flange less instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?


a) By four screws which extend through the instrument panel
b) By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened
by a screw from the front of the instrument panel(44)
c) By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument panel
d) By press fit into the instrument panel and held in place by friction

5.

Why are most electrical instruments mounted in iron or steel cases?


a) To avoid damage to the instrument during maintenance
b) To facilitate removal or installation
c) To prevent interference from outside magnetic fields

d) To reduce heat build up in the instrument


6.
When installing instruments in an aircraft who is responsible for making sure it
is properly marked?
a) An authorised inspector
b) The aircraft owner
c) The instrument installer
d) The instrument manufacturer
7.

i) Instrument panels absorb low frequency high amplitude shocks.


ii) Shock absorbers of instrument panel permit instruments to operate under
conditions of minor vibrations.
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

8.

EDAS means
a) Electrical and digital Aircraft system
b) Electronics / digital Aircraft system
c) Electronics digital and avionics system
d) None of these

9.

The purpose of EDAS is


a) Modernise the various Aircraft system and their display system
b) To reduce the work load of the pilot
c) To reduce the space in the Aircraft
d) All of these

10. The satellites are placed in geo-synchronous orbit for sat com system and they
provide coverage between
a) Longitude 750
b) Between latitude 750 North and South
c) Both a) & b) above
d) None of these
11.

Which of the following can use as leak tester


Ultrasound method (Water immersion method
Dye-penetrant method
Magnetic particle inspection
None of these

12.

Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known as


a) Shear wave
b) Compression wave
c) Surface wave
d) Tension wave

13.

Performance test of instruments should be carried out


(a) Before installation
(b) At times when indication and operation are suspected
(c) At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manual
(d) All of the above

14. The mounting of the instruments having flangeless cases is


(a)From the front of panel
(b)Fixing screws and nuts are un-necessary
(c)A special type of clamp suited to the instrument case is secured to the rare of
the face of the panel
(d)All the above(44)
15.

Performance test of instruments should be carried out


(a)Before installation
(b)At times when indication and operation are suspected
(c)At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manual
(d) All of the above

16.

Mark the incorrect statement about a bimetallic strip


(a) It consists of two metals joined together at their interface to
form a single strip.
(b) One of the metal is invar, a form of steel with a 26% nickel
content and a negligible coefficient of linear expansion. (15)
(c) The other metal may be brass or steel both of which have high linear
expansion coefficient.
(d) None of these.

17. Many of the instruments depend for their operation on sensitive


electrical circuits which are protected against adverse effects of
atmospheric temperature, pressure and humidity by
(a) filling the cases with nitrogen
(b) filling the cases with helium
(c) filling the cases with argon
(d) either (a) or (b) (18)
18.
Instruments displaying information which is to be read
accurately and at frequent intervals have scale about _____________
in length fitting into standard ____________ in cases.
(a) 6 in & 3
(b) 7 in & 3
(c) 7 in & 3(20)
(d) none of these
19.

White arc on ASI dial indicates airspeed range


(a) normal operating range
(b) maximum & minimum limits
(c) aircraft landing flaps may be extended
(d) none of these

20.

Mark the correct statement about


A field effect LCD
(a)It incorporates additional plates called polarizers on the
front & back glass plates of the assembly.
(b)It contains a specially prepared inside glass surface which
causes liquid crystal.
(c)The molecular configuration causes the plane of polarization
to be reflected by 90 as it passes through LCD.
(d)All the above. (36)

21.

If information of physical data is large such as in altimeter, display is known as


(a) long range display
(b) short range display
(c) smooth range display
(d) wide range display

22.

Nick name of digital display is


(a) alphanumeric display(26) (b) straight scale display
(c) circular scale display
(d) platform scale display

23.

The tropo pause marks the point at which


(a) air pressure stops decreasing (with increasing altitude) and
remains constant. (65)
(b) air temperature starts increasing
(c) air temperature reaches to freezing point temperature

24.

Fuel pressure indicator is the means for


(a) warning for low pressure.
(b) warning for high pressure.
(c) as in (a) & indicate pressure at which fuel is being supplied.
(d) as in (b) & indicate pressure at which fuel is being
supplied.

25. In square law compensating devices, the principle being made in use is that the
length of lever is altered as progressive deflection of the capsule takes place causing
the
(a) mechanism & pointer movement to be increased for small
deflection and decreased for large deflection. (88)
(b) mechanism & pointer movement to be decreased for small
deflection and increased for large deflection.
(c) either (a) or (b).
(d) none of these.
26. The number, size and disposition of shock proof mounting requires are
governed by
(a)the size of the panel.

(b) number of instrument to be installed.


(c) as in (a) & the distribution of the total weight.(38)
(d) as in (a) & (b).
27.

Micro desynn synchronous data transmission system is used for


(a) air brake, flap position indication
(b) oil or fuel pressure indication
(c) liquid content indication
(d) none of the above

28. The average value of AC is given by


Im / 2
(b) Im / 2 (c) 2Im / (d) Im / 2
29.

Red radial line on the scale of instrument indicates


a. Take off and precautionary ranges
b. Normal operating ranges
c. Maximum and minimum limits(28)
d. Range in which operation is prohibited

30.

Red arc on scale of instrument indicates


a. Take off and precautionary ranges
b. Normal operating ranges
c. Maximum and minimum limits
d. Range in which operation is prohibited(28)

31. Yellow arc on scale of instrument indicates


a. Take off and precautionary ranges(28)
b. Normal operating ranges
c. Maximum and minimum limits
d. Range in which operation is prohibited
32. Qualitative display presents information in the form of
a Symbolic form only
b Pictorial form only
c Both A and B(29)
d None of the Above
33 Spacing of marks on indicator scale is generally
(a ) Linear only
(b) Non-Linear only
(c) Both A and B(20)
(d) None of the above
34. In troposphere temperature decreases at a rate of
a) 1.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude(65)
b) 2.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude
c) 0.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude
d) 3.98 degrees centigrade per thousand feet increase in altitude

35. Bimetallic device connected in magnification lever system of altimeter is for


a) Compensation of installation error
b) Compensation of scalar error
c) Compensation of temperature error(69)
d) All of the above
36.

Setting knob in front of altimeter is for


a) Setting QNH only
b) Setting QFE only
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

37. Direction indicator provides a stabilized directional reference


a) For maintaining a desired course
b) For turning on a new heading
c) Used as complementary instrument to direct reading
magnetic compass
(d) All the above(177)
38.

Setting knob at the front of the case of direction indicator is for


a) Setting the magnetic heading
b) Caging the gyro assembly to prevent the damage during transit & installation
c) Both a and b(177)
ENGINE

1.

The piston engine works on


(a) Boyles law
(c)
charlies law & otto cycle

(b)
(d)

Brayton cycle
Both a & b

2.

The mechanical efficiency of piston engine is determined by


(a) Engine speed
(b) fuel used
(c)
mean effective pressure
(d) mixture ratio (throttle setting)

3.

Piston engines mechanical by


(a) difference of pressure
(b) difference of temperature
(c)
difference of grade of fuel used
(d) difference in mass of fuel

4.

Piston engine is depends on


(a) charlies law
(c)
boyles low

5.

Engine fires once in

(b)
(d)

brayton cycle
both a & c

(a)
(c)

one Rev. of crankshaft


360 deg Rev. of crankshaft

(b)
(d)

two Rev. of crankshaft


none of the above

6.

In 1 to ten major data, the structure control of comp.


(a) sequence
(b) selection
(c) a & re peatation
(d) b & repeatation

7.

Mark the correct statement


(a) turboprop engine requires length runway than piston engine of
same power
(b) turbojet has more weight than piston engine of same
power
(c)
turbofan required short runway as compare to turbojet
(d) all of the above

8.

Mark the correct statement


(a) turbo jet engines require shorter runway length than
turbofan engine
(b) Turbo fan engines require lesser runway length for take off
than turbo jet engine
(c)
with torch heat heating the welded area only slightly.
(d) both b & c are correct

9.

Engine fires once in


(a) one revolution of crankshaft
(b) two revolution of crankshaft
(c)
360 deg revolution of crankshaft
(d) none of the above

10.

The type of compressor used in air cycle cooling machine is


(a) axial compressor
(b) inward flow compressor
(c)
outward flow compressor
(d) none

11.

Mark
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

12.

When hydraulic lock is detected in an engine then


(a) propeller is pulled through in the opposite direction
(b) spark plug is removed and propeller is rotated in opposite direction
(c)
spark plug is removed and propeller is turned in normal
direction(13-19)
(d)
none

13.

A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause


(i)

the correct statement


Turbofan takes less runway than turbo prop
Turboprop takes less runway than turbofan
As in 1 and turbojet takes longest runway
As in 2 and turbofan takes less runway tha a turboject

Hard starting

(ii)

Detonation

(iii)

More consumption

(iv)

Vapor lock(13-27 & 78).

14. How is a flooded engine , equipped with a float type carburetor, cleared of
excessive fuel
(i)
Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture
control in cutoff, ignition switch off, and the throttle fully open, until the
fuel charge has been cleared(13-19)
(ii)
Turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the starting attempt
until the excess fuel has cleared.
(iii) Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture
control in cutoff, ignition switch on , and the throttle fully open, until the
excess fuel has cleared or until the engine starts.
15.

Variable canvery pump is used where


(a) output does not change with requirement of engine
(b) output varied as per engine requirement
(c)
as in (a) and fitted with no valve
(d) as in (c) and fitted with compensated valve for automatic adjusted

16.

Aircraft Instrument panel is made of


(i)
(iii)

Al alloy 2024
Carbon steel

(ii)
(iv)

Mag. Alloy
1 & 2 are correct

ENGINE
1.

Crank case of a piston engine is made up of:


a) One piece construction
b) Two piece construction
c) Multiple piece construction
d) All of the above

2.

Crank case provides


a) Attachment of the cylinder
b) Attachment of propeller
c) Tight enclosure for lubricating oil & a)
d) All of the above

3.

In radial engine, impeller & blower are found in


a) Power section
b) Nose section
c) Super charger section d) Accessory section

4.

Crank shaft
Converts heat energy in propulsive force
Converts heat energy in mechanical work
Transform reciprocating motion of piston in to rotary motion

As in c) & to rotating propeller shaft


5.

Double throw crankshaft, also known as


a) 3600 crank shaft
b) 600 crank shaft
c) 800 crank shaft
d) 1800 crank shaft

6.

Total horse power developed by piston engine is


(a) IHP
(b) BHP
(c) FHP
(d) Actual horse power

7.

Factor affecting volumetric efficiency is


(a) improper fuel injection
(b) cylinder bore
(c) low engine power
(d) improper valve timing

8.

In the formula indicated


HP= PLANK
, where N stands for 33000
(a) number of power stroke per minute
(b) number of cylinder per engine
(c) number of RDM per power stroke
(d) none of these

9.

Piston engines mechanical efficiency differs due to


(a) difference of pressure
(b) difference of temperature
(c) difference of grade of fuel used
(d) difference in mass of fuel

10.

Output power of piston engine is depend upon


a)
Intensity of spark produced by spark plug
b)
Heat energy applied on piston head
c)
Mean effective pressure during power stroke
d)
Moisture available in ambient air

11.

The working fluid used in reciprocating engine is


a) Solid fuel
b) Oxidizer & Fuel
c) Fuel / Air Mixture
d) All of these

12.

Mark the correct statement


a) Turbo prop engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
b) As in a) & Piston Engine also accelerate large mass of air through small
velocity change
c) Turbo Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
d) Pulse Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change

13.

To compress the engine working fluid, Piston Engine uses


a) Turbine driven compressor
b) Pressure rise due to combustion
c) Positive displacement, piston type compressor
d) Both a) & c) are correct

14.

Piston engine classified according to


a) Thrust
b) No. of stroke
c) Cylinder arrangement with respect to crank shaft
d) Both b) & c)

15.

Radial engine classified as


a) Upright, inverted
b) According to no. of rows
c) Cylinder arranged on cam shaft
d) Both a) & c)

BEARING
1.
Roller bearing take more radial load than ball bearing of same size
because
(a) Larger contact area(LG/150) (b)
(c)
(d)
2.

Which of the statement is correct regarding bearing


(a)
if corrosion is found on the outer surface it should be treated.
(b)
bearing must be inspected periodically at least once in a year
(c)
shielded bearing is used be inspected for corrosion
(d)
both B & C are correct

3.

Bearing strength is the force resist the


(a) Stretching & lengthening
(c)
all the point of tearing

(b)
(d)

sliding
none

4.

Mark the correct statement


(a) thrust bearing can take radial load
(b) radial bearing are used in gears, shaft and control end
fittings(LG/148).
(c)
roller bearing can take less radial load
(d) all

5.

Needle roller bearing is used where movement is


(a) oscillatory rather than rotary(LG/150)
(b) rotary rather than oscillatory
(c)
both a & b
(d) none of the above

6.

Which type of load taken by given bearing :(Figure of cylindrical roller bearing and Tappered roller bearing)
(a)
(c)

7.

Which type of bearing is provided at the small end of connecting rod:


(i)
(iii)

8.

Bushing
Ball Bearing

(ii)
(iv)

Roller bearings(LG/150)
Needle bearing

Neelde bearing are:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

10.

Only Radial
(b) Only axial
A-Radial and B-Radial & axial(LG/150)

it is kind of roller bearing


as in (i) and used where oscillatory movement are required
as in (ii) and used where space is minimum
as in (iii) and is used for pure radial load only(LG/150)

Which type of bearing will you select for combined radial and axil loads in
one direction only
(i)

Spherial roller bearing

(ii)

Taper roller bearing (LG/150)

(iii)
11.

None

Pure radial load


Only (i) is correct

(ii)

1+ Oscillatory motion(LG/150)

Taper roller bearing are used


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

13.

(iv)

Needle bearing is used for


(i)
(iii)

12.

both (i) and (ii)

Where
Where
Where
Where

thrust load occur


the radial load occur
the thrust as well as radial load (LG/150)
axial load

Thrust bearing are designed for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Most suitable for carrying heavy loads at low speeds


Heavy radial loads only
Radial and axial loads only
As in (i) and for axial loads only(LG/149)

14. Which type of bearing will you select for combined radial and axil loads in
one direction only
(i)
Spherial roller bearing
(ii)
Taper roller bearing(LG/150)
(iii) Both 1 & 2
(iv) None
15.

Bearing to be cleared first with dry compressed air then after


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

16.

Bearing is cleaned by
(i)
(iv)

17.

petrol
(ii)
all are correct

kerosene oil

(iii)

whit spirit

False brinelling in bearing is known as :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

18.

Should be soaked or swilled in benzene


Should be cleaned in kerosene
Should be soaked or swilled in white spirit
None of the above

Fretting corrosions
as in (i) and also called exfoliation corrosion
Crevis corrosion
All of the above

Mark the correct statement regarding bearing


(i)
(ii)

Radial load acts perpendicular to the axis of rotation of shaft


Thrust load acts parallel to the axis of rotation of shaft +1

(iii) Roller bearings are classified according to the type of rolling


contact+2
(iv) Plain bearing is classified according to size+3
19. Spherical roller bearing are used in
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

20.
21.

Helicopter rotor gear box


Crankshaft main bearing
Where oscillation occur
All

pered roller bearing support


a. Radial load
b. Thrust load

c. Both (a) and (b)

lain bearings are used for


a) Connecting rods
b) Crank shaft
c) Cam shaft

d) All of these

22

Bearing used on high powered aircraft engine is


a. Ball bearing
b. Roller bearing
c. Plain bearing
d. Both (a) and (c)

23.

Plain bearings are used for


a. Connecting rods
b. Crank shaft
c. Cam shaft
d. All of these

24.

Bearings are used to take


a. Thrust load
c. Side load

b. Radial load
d. Both (a) and (b)

25.

Bearing used where high compressive pressure, is generally made of


a. Babitt
b. Bronze
c. Siliver bronze
d. All of these

26.

earing which offer more friction is made of


a. Bronze
b. Babitt
c. Silicon
d. None of these
Tapered roller bearing support
a) Radial load
b) Thrust load
c) Both (a) and (b)

27.
28.

earing used on high powered aircraft engine is


a) Ball bearing
b) Roller bearing
c) Plain bearing
d) Both (a) and (c)

GEAR
1.

Bevel gear is used to


(a) transmit single load
(b) Transmit heavy load
(c)
transmit motion at an angle(ST/450)
(d) transmit motion between two parallel shaft

2.

The term associated with worm gear is


(a) Throat
(b)
(c)
pitch
(d)

throat radius
both A&B(ST/454)

3.

Mark the correct statement


(a)
The diametrical pitch and pitch diameter in a spur gear are same
(b)
If the dia pitch (DP) is given you can find out the
addendum(ST/445)
(c)
If we divide DP by PD we can get size of teeth.
(d)
If the DP is given you can not find out the addendum

4.

Meshing gear have same


(a)
teeth
(c)
dedendom

5.

Gear
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b)
(d)

pitch number of same size(ST/444)


all

rack is used for


change rotary motion to reciprocating motion(ST/448)
change reciprocating motion to rotary motion
transmit motion to parallel with it
none of the above

6.
Rack is meshed with a gear, it is used to change (the purpose of rack and
pinion is to change )
(a) rotary motion to reciprocating motion
(b) reciprocating motion to rotary motion
(c)
both a & b
(d) none
7.

Dimetral Pich of Gear :(a)

8.

No. of teeth / Pitchdia(ST/440)

Backlash of gears can be measured by using


(i)
(iii)

Feeler gage
Micrometer

(ii)
(iv)

Fillet gage
D.T.I

9.
The distance measured parallel to the axis to represent the distance
advanced by each tooth per revolution is known as
(i)
(iii)

Pitch
Normal pitch

(ii)
(iv)

Axial pitch
Lead

10. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts
whose axes are
(i)
(iv)

Parallel
None

(ii)

Perpendicular(2-13)

(iii)

1 & 2 both

11. Which of the following does not change with the conditions of the mating
gears
(i)
(iii)
12.

(ii)
Base circle
All of the above

In skew bevel gears the Axes


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

13.

Pitch circle diameter


Pressure angle
(iv)

Are non-parallel and non intersection and the teeth are curved
Are non paralleled and non intersection and the teeth are straight
Intersect and the teeth are curved and oblique
Intersect and the teeth are curved and can be ground

Clearance in spur gear is the


(i)
Difference between the dedendum of 1 gear and the addendum of
the mating gear
(ii)
Difference between the tooth space of one gear and the tooth
thickness of the mating gear measured on the pitch circile
(iii) Intentional extension of the center distance between two gear
(iv) Does not exist

14.

The surface of the gear tooth below the pitch surface is called
(i)
(iii)

15.
(c)
16.

Fleuk
Land

(ii)
(iv)

Face
tooth space

What is the speed B gear


(a) 200 rpm
300 rpm
(d)

(b) 600 rpm


166.3 rpm

Identify the figure


(a) bevel gear
(c)
spur gear

(b)
(d)

helical gear
worm gear

17.

Direction of rotation of external gears are


a) Opposite
b) Same
c) Either a) or b)
d) None of the above

18

Gear sector gives


a) Continuous motion

b) Intermittent motion

c) Reciprocating motion

d) None of these

19.

Helical gears are


a) More quiet than spur gear
b) Having more number of teeth in contact
c) Smooth in operation
d) All of these

20

Addendum + Duodenum =
a) Working depth
c) Tooth space

21.Meshing gear have same


(a) teeth
(c) dedendum
22.

Identify the figure


(a) bevel gear
(c)
spur gear

b) Whole depth
d) Backlash

(b) pitch of same size


(d) all

(b)
(d)

helical gear
worm gear

AIRCRAFT STRUCTRUAL MATERIALS


PROPERTIES OF MATERIAL

1.
The property of a metal to resist ABRASION CUTTING ACTION,
penetration or permanent distortion is called: (J 7-2) & 9A-191
(i)
(iii)

Brittleness
Toughness

(ii)
(iv)

Hardness
Malleability

2.
The property of a metal which allows them to bent (FORMED SHAPED
WITHOUT CRACKING /BREAKING . MALLEABILTIY IS OPPOSITE OF
HARDNESS)or permanently distorted without rupture is called (J 7-3)
(i)
(iii)

Malleability
Conductivity

(ii)
(iv)

Brittleness
Toughness

3.
The property of a metal to return its original shape when the force
causing the shape of change is removed is called: (J 7-3)
(i)
(iii)
4.

(ii)
(iv)

Ductility
Elasticity

Toughness
Brittleness

(ii)
(iv)

Hardness
None

Malleability
Toughness

(ii)
(iv)

Ductility
None

The property of a metal to transmit heat or Electricity is known as:


(i)
(iii)

8.

Funbility
Conductivity

The property of an metal where by it can be drawn in to wires without


breaking is called: GFT-4
(i)
(iii)

7.

Malleability
Conductivity

The property of a metal to resist change in the relative position of


molecules OR the tendency to fracture without change of shapes is known
as (BRITTLENESS AND HARDNESS ARE CLOSELY RELATED). GFT-3
(i)
(iii)

6.

(ii)
(iv)

The property of a metal to transmit heat or Electricity is known as: (J 7-3)


(i)
(iii)

5.

Ductility
Elasticity

Fusibility
Conductivity(J7-3)

(ii)

Ductility
(iv) Elasticity

Max tensile load P.S.I which a material can with stand is known as
(i)
Tensile strength

(ii)
As in (i) and also known as ultimate tensile strength AND IS
COMPUTED BY DIVIDING THE MAX LOAD OBTAINED IN A TENSILE TEST
BY THE ORIGINAL CROSS SECTIONAL AREA OF THE TEST SPECIMEN GFT3
(iii) Stress
(iv) As in (iii) and also strain

9.
10.

Unit of tension is
a) N
b) N/m

c) KN/m2

d) Kg/cm2

Specific conductivity of copper wire


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

increase as its temperature increases


remains constant as temperature changes
decreases as temperature decreases
decreases as temperature increases

11.

Maximum load per square inch a material can with stand is:
(a) Yield strength
(b) Tensile strength
(c) Proof stress
(d) Elasticity

12.

Size of specimen taken for reverse bending test is:


(a) 5 inches
(b) 10 inches
(c) 15 inches
(d) 20 inches

13.

In reverse bending test, number of bends require for small wires


(a) 50 bends
(b) 7 bends
(c) 10 bends
(d) 90 bends

14.

Torsion test is carried out on


(a) Aircraft tubes
(b) Wires
(c) Sheets & strips
(d) Bars & rods

15. For tensile testing, it is permitted to taper the gauge length of


the specimen towards center, maximum by:
(a) 0.001 inch
(b) 0.002 inch
(c) 0.002 inch
(d) 0.004 inch
16.

For elastic limit determination, the extensometer reading is taken from:


(a) 5% load of expected elastic limit
(b) 10% load of expected elastic limit
(c) 15% load of expected elastic limit
(d) 20% load of expected elastic limit

17.

For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is:
a) 1 to 1 inch wide with suitable length
b) 1 by in cross section
c) Full section
d) None of these

18.

In reverse bending test, the specimen is bent through an angle of:


(a) 600
(b) 900
(c) 1200
(d) 1800

19. In Hydrostatic test, welded exhaust tubing are subjected to an


internal pressure sufficient to put the welded seam under a tensile
stress of:
(a) 1000 PSI
(b) 10000 PSI
(c) 100000 PSI
(d) 1000000 PSI
20.

In torsion testing of wires, speed of revolution should not be more than:


(a) 80 revolution/min
(b) 70 revolution/min
(c) 60 revolution/min
(d) 50 revolution/min

21.
In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of
material will not occur is known as:
(a) Plastic limit
(b) Elastic limit
(c) Proof stress
(d) Endurance limit
22.

Specimen is tested for which strength during tensile testing


(a) Proof stress
(b) Fatigue strength
(c) as in a and Yield strength
(d) as in c and Ultimate Tensile Strength

23.

(1) For tensile testing the specimen must be straight


(2) Specimen can be straighten by hammering or bending.
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(b) (2) is true and (1) is false
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(c) Both (1) and (2) are false

24.

Proof stress is the stress at which a permanent set occurs:


(a) 0.001 inch per inch of gauge length
(b) 0.0001 inch per inch of gauge length
(c) 0.00001 inch per inch of gauge length
(d) 0.01 inch per inch of gauge length

25. (1) For checking elastic limit, load can be released upto zero,
where as
(2) For checking proof stress load is released up to 20%
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
26.

(b) (2) is true and (1) is false


(d) Both (1) and (2) are false

Yield point of a metal can be determined by:

(a) Divider method


(c) Extension under load method

(b) Set method


(d) both (b) and (c)

27. For bending test, the diameter of the pin over which bend is to
be performed, should be:
a
b (a) Equal to the diameter of the test specimen
c (b) Equal to the thickness of the material
(c) Equal to diameter of thickness of the test specimen
(d) None of these
28.
be:

For bending test of forging stock specimen, the corners are to


(a) Made round
(c) Rounded to 1/16 inch radius

29.

d
e

(b) Broken by file


(d) None of these

The jaws of the vice are to be rounded for reverse bending test:
(a) 3/16 inch radius for wire above 3/16 inch diameter
(b) 3/16 inch for wire below 3/16 inch diameter
(c) 3/16 inch radius up to 3/16 inch wire
(d) None of these

30. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire less than 0.033
inch diameter:
(a) 10 inch
(b) 20 inch
(c) 30 inch
(d) 40 inch
31. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire more then 0.033
inch diameter:
(a) 10 inch
(b) 20 inch
(c) 30 inch
(d) 40 inch
32.

33.
34.

35.

Flattening test is
a) Bending test
c) For tube testing

b) Only for copper wires


d) Both a) & c)

Max rate of bending per minute in reverse bend test is


a) 50
b) 60
c) 10
Izod test measures
a) Toughness
c) Energy in breaking

b) Height of upswing
d) Hardness

Fatigue test is for determining


a) Stress in material
b) Strain in rod

d) 40

36.
37.

c) Stress limit for material

d) Elongation of wire

Torsion test is essential for


a) Wires
b) Tube

c) Rods

d) Sheet

Bending test indicates


a) Ductility
b) Brittleness

c) Hardness

d) Density

38.

Bearing strength of a material refers to


a) Direct tensile load it can bear
b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load
c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load
d) Resistance to shear

39

Bearing strength of a material refers to


a) Direct tensile load it can bear
b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load
c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load
d) Resistance to shear

40

Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits


a) Welding
b) Drawing into thin sheets
c) Drawing into wires
d) Good thermal conductivity

41.

A metal part or structure fails under repetitive or fluctuating loading or stress is


called:
(a) Fatigue fracture
(b) Ductile fracture
(c) Creep fracture
(d) Brittle fracture 121. Conductivity and Expansion
are physical terms which are related to:
(a) Electricity
(b) Heat
(c) Cooling
(d) None of these
42. Permanent deformation of metal caused by applied load is called:
(a) Stress
(b) Elastic deformation
(c) Plastic deformation (d) None of these
43. The point at which marked increase in deformation occurs
without increasing the load during tensile testing of a material, is:
(a) Yield point
(b) Yield strength
(c) Proof strength
(d) Tensile strength
44. For tensile testing, the extensometer must be calibrated to:
(a) 0.0001 inch
(b) 0.0002 inch
(c) 0.0003 inch
(d) 0.0004 inch
45.

Yield strength of a metal can be determined by:


(a) Divider method
(b) Drop of beam method
(c) Set method
(d) None of these

46.
47.

The rolled section having dimension of 6x 6 or larger & approximately square


is called
(a) bloom
(b) billet
(c) slab
(d) none of these
In metal powdered parts, property of the metal will be of:
(a) Particles of maximum quantity
(b) Individual particles will held there property
(c) Uniform nature
(d) None of these

48. Tensile strength of powdered metal parts can be obtained upto:


(a) 80% of solid metal parts
(b) 70% of solid metal parts
(c) 90% of solid metal parts
(d) 95% of solid metal parts
49. Strength is the ability of a material to resist external loads where
as toughness is to:
(a) Resist fracture
(b) Resist deflection
(c) Resist elastic deformation
(d) Withstand bending or torsion without fracture
50. Permeability of material is the function of
(a) Magnetizing force
(b) Flux density
(c) Both a) and b) are correct
(d) None of the above
51.

Extrusion is used for making


(a) channels
(b) angle

(c)

T-section

(d) All

52.

In joined part, the opposition offered in crushing


(a) shear strength
(b) bearing strength
(c)
compression strength
(d) ---

53.

Fatigue crack occurs due to


(a) continuous reversal load
(b) in new parts
(c)
both a & b
(d) none
The heat conductivity of a metal depends upon
(a) Heat treatment
(b) alloy in the material
(c)
tensile strength/hardness
(d) all are correct

54.

55.

The load per unit square inch at which material breaks


(a)
ultimate tensile strength GFT 5
(b) yield point

56.

Aircraft structural members made from sheet metal can normally be


a) Repaired, except when subjected to compressible loads

b) Repaired, except when subjected to tensile loads


c) Repaired using approved method
d) Not repaired & need replacement only
57.

Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is called ductility.


Most ductile material is
a) Copper
b) Gold
c) Lead
d) Tin

58.

i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivity


ii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the addition of iron & silver
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

59. Ductility of a material is its property to be drawn into:


(a) Wire
(b) Sheet
(c) Tubes (d) Both (a) and (c)
60. Bonds formed in materials due to Vander Walls forces of
attraction, is:
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Mettalic bond
(d) Secondary bond
61. Elastic limit of a material is considered to have been reached if a
permanent set obtained is:
(a) 0.0003 inch
(b) 0.00002 inch
(c) 0.00001 inch
(d) 0.00004 inch
62.

Proof stress of a specimen of 2 inch gage length will be at a


permanent set of:
(a) 0.0004 inch
(b) 0.0003 inch
(c) 0.0002 inch
(d) 0.0001 inch

METAL WORKING PROCESSES


1.

Up setting is a forging operation :


(i)
In which a hot piece of metal is Increases in thickness and
decreased in Length BY HAMMERING ON THE END. GFT-85
(ii)
In which a hot piece of metal is increased in Length and decreased
in thickness
(iii) In which a hot piece of metal neither increases in length nor in
thickness
(iv) In which hot piece of metal is increase in length and thickness

2.

A process which makes the cable more flexible and easier to splice and
more resistant to kinking is known as
(i)
(iii)

Preforming J 8-35
Proof loading

(ii)
(iv)

Pre-stretching
Tensile testing

3.
The load per sq inch beyond which the increases in strain ceases to be
directly proportional to the increases in stress
(i)
(iii)
4.

(ii)
(iv)

Yield strength
Yield point

Forged parts are:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

5.

Proof stress
Proportional limit GFT 6

Not
Not
Are
Are

of a good quality than rolled


of a good quality then cast parts
of a good quality than rolled parts
not used in the aircraft

Up setting is a forging operation:


(i)
In which a hot piece of metal is increases in thickness and
decreased in length GFT85
(ii)
In which a hot piece of metal is increased in length and decreased
in thickness
(iii) In which a hot piece of metal neither increases in length nor in
thickness
(iv) In which hot piece of metal is increases in length and thickness

6.

Cold drawing of wire increases the tensile strength tremendously but


greatly reduces the J 7-5
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

7.

Rolling of metal should not be done below the critical range because:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

8.

Rolled surface will not be true


The grain of the metal will be crushed and distorted
The grain will not remain fine
1 & 3 are correct

When metal is cold worked it is customary


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

9.

Tenacity
Malleability
Ductility
therefore must be annealed frequently
Hardness

To relieve the Internal strains after fabrication


To give a heat treatment
To anneal or normalize the parts GFT88
All the above are correct

All castings should be :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Heat treated
Annealed
Heat treatment temperature should not be less than 1800 F
As in (i) (ii) & (iii) and quenched in cold water

10.

Colour of extruded bar of aluminum alloy in 5 inches is


(a) red marking near the end of each length
(b) blue marking near the end of each length
(c)
stamp of blue and white color
(d) none of the above

11.

L shaped channels are produced by


a) Forging
b) Extrusion
c) Machining
d) Casting

12.

Which element is responsible for Red hardness property?


a) Ti
b) Ta
c) Mo
d) W

13.

Which elements are responsible for Penetration hardness?


a) Mn, S
b) Mn, P
c) Mn, Cr
d) Cr, C

14.

The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by


a) Cold work
b) Hot rolling
c) Heat treatment
d) All the above

15. Property of a material to resist indentation is known as:


(a) Toughness
(b) Hardness
(c) Brittleness
(d) Strength

16.

17

Which of the following is a mechanical treatment in shaping of metal:


(a) Casting
(b) Sand blasting
(c) Rolling
(d) Centrifugal cast
While shaping of a metal if the sectional dimension is less than
6X6 inch and approximately square, the shape is called:
(a) Billet
(b) Bloom
(c) Slab
(d) Mold

18. Complicated sections or sections required in small quantity are usually:


(a) Hot rolled
(b) Cold rolled
(c) Drawn
(d) Forged
19.

In drop forging, the inside faces of the die are given a slope of 30
70 to permit drawing out the finished parts. This slope is referred to
as:
(a) Up setting
(b) Drawing angle
(c) Draft
(d) Fin

20.

When finely powdered metal is placed in a die and pressed


through a plunger, it forms a compact mass by:
(a) Attraction forces of the particles
(b) Forming a bond
(c) By welding the particles together
(d) By interlocking of particles

21.

Cold working of metal increases its:


(a) Toughness and ductility
(b) Strength and ductility
(b) Hardness and ductility
(d) Strength and hardness

22.

Size of hot drawn rod used for cold drawing of wires are:
(a) 1/8 3/4 inch diameter (b) 1/16 1/32 inch diameter
(c) 1/32 5/8 inch diameter (d) None of these

23. Blow hole is a defect in steel, which can occurs in


(a) Ingots
(b) Rolling
(c) Drawing

(d) Forging

24. The type of forging in which two dies are used, one is attached
to the hammer and other to anvil, is known as:
(a) Hammer forging
(b) Drop forging
(c) Cold forging
(d) Press forging
25. After hot rolling, it is necessary to cold roll:
(a) To avoid cracking
(b) To avoid scaling
(c) To avoid oxidation
(d) To impart smooth surface and accurate dimensions
26. When cold drawing of wire, reduction in diameter in each draw
can be up to:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
27.

Fins and Laps is a type of defect in steel, which can occurs in


(a) Cold drawn seamless tube
(b) Rolling
(c) Ingots
(d) Forgings

28.

I-Beam is produced by
(a) extruding
(b) forging

(c) casting

(d) rolling

30.

T-series, Z-section and angles are formed by


(a) rolling
(b) forging
(c)
extrusion
(d) all

31.

What Inspection are desirable for all castings and forging of steel ?

(i)
(iii)
32.

(ii)
(iv)

Ultra sonic
None

All aircraft tubing is finished to size :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

33.

Visual
Magna flux

By
By
By
By

hot drawing
machining
cold drawing
cold rolling

THROUGH A DIE J 7-5

Due to improper rolling the defect caused are :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

scabs or cold shuts


Snakes
As in (ii) and also fins and laps
All are correct GFT95

FERROUS AIRCRAFT METAL


1.

% of carbon in high carbon steel


Low Carbon Alloy 0.10 - 0.30
Medium
0.30 0.50
High
0.50 1.05
(a)
(b)
(c)

2.

J 7-13

Annealed steel :- GFT48


(a)
(c)

3.

0.50 %
0.50 to 1.05 %
0.30 %

Soft
Not strong

(b)
(d)

ductile
All

30% to 70% & of carbon in the steel. The steel known as :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

High Carbon steel


Wrought Iron (UPTO 0.08 %)
Medium Carbon steel
Low Carbon Steel
CAST IRON (2.2 4.5 %) GFT 24

4.
The higher carbon content of steel is, the greater will be the ultimate
strength and :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Ductility
Malleability
Hardness GFT 24
Toughness
The range through which it can be heat treated.

5.
Sulphur is a very undesirable Impurity in Steel which must be limited in
amount to not : GFT 26
(i)
(iii)
6.

More than .04 %


More than .6 %

(ii)
(iii)

More than .05 %


More than .06 %

Presence of Phosphorous in steel is responsible for:


(i)
Hot shortness ( THE PRESENCE OF SULPHUR RENDERS THE STEEL
BRITTLE AT ROLLING AND FORGING TEMPERATURES AND THIS IS
CALLED HOT SHORT
(ii)
Brittleness
(iii) Cold shortness
(iv) 2 & 3 are correct GFT 26
NOT MORE THAN 0.05 %

7.

The commonly used nickel steels contains GFT 27


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

8.

Steel is (hardenable chromium)


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

9.

Stainless Steel

GFT97

Vanadium
Tungsten 14 to 18 %
GFT 28
And Chromium 2-4 %, property known as Red Hardness, High
Speed Steel and used for tools which will retain their cutting edge
even when heated to dull redness.

Mark the correct statement:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
GFT
(iv)

11.

High Carbon Steel


Chrome Molybdenum

For the manufacture of cutting tools the steel contains:


(i)
(ii)
(ii)
(iv)

10.

3 to 5 % nickel
5 to 7 % nickel
nickel
25% nickel

Chrome molybdenum sheet may be bent COLD through an angle of


180 over a diameter Equal to its own thickness GFT 40
SAE4140 is used for wing hinges fittings trunion etc. GFT 40
SAE 4340 is used to manufacture propeller hubs and crank shaft
41
All are correct GFT

Classification of Iron and steel is based on the percentage of carbon


present. If the carbon is .10 to .30%. The steel known as

(i)
(iii)
12.

Longerons
Spars
Propeller hubs
Under Carriage axle

Low carbon Steel


High Carbon Steel GFT35
Wrought Iron
Cast Iron

Malleable
Ductile
Weldable
All the above

Percentage
Percentage
Percentage
Percentage

of
of
of
of

impuntes
Carbon
Carbon in hundredths of 1 %
Major alloying

Among Nickel alloys which one is having high strength at elevated


temperatures?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

18.

Wrought Iron
High Carbon Steel

SAF 4 30 The last two digit indicates


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

17.

(ii)
(iv)

Nickel is GFT 27
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

16.

Cast Iron GFT 24


Medium Carbon Steel

Springs are made form


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

15.

(ii)
Cast Iron
Medium Carbon Steel

Chromium Nickel .. Steel is commonly used to manufacture.


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

14.

(iv)

2.2 to 4.5 % Carbon to Steel. The steel known as


(i)
(iii)

13.

High Carbon Steel


Low Carbon Steel

K-Monel
Inconel GFT 123
Monel
None

Commonly used A/C forgings are :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Chrome Molybdenum
Chrome Nickel Molybdenum
18-8 CRS
(i) and (ii) GFT 40-41 & 86

19. The presence of Sulphur renders steel brittle. In this condition the steel
in said to be
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Cold shortness
Hot short
As in 2 and at rolling or Forging temperature GFT 26
As in 1 and at rolling or freezing temperature

20. Phosphorus is an undesirable Impurity In steel.


more than :
(i)
(iii)

.09 %
.05 %

(ii)
GFT27

It should not exceed

.6 %
(iv) .06%

21. Hard grey metal with a high melting point, when added to steel imparts
hardness and strength wear and corrosion resisting qualities. The metal is :
GFT 27
(i)
Nickel WHITE AS SILVER, MALLEABLE, DUCTILE, WELDABLE AND
DOES NOT CORRODE
(ii)
Chromium
(iii) Tungsten HARD SPEED STEEL , NO USE ON AIRCRAFT
(iv) Titanium REDUDES EMBRITTLEMENT AT EXHAUST COLLECTORS
AND STACKS AT OPERATING TEMPERATURES.
22.

SAE 1045 Steel is mostly used to manufacture:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

23

Ball bearings, Roller bearings and races are made from the material:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

24.

SAE 8620(bushes ,rollers)


SAE 6195
GFT42
SAE9260(heavy duty springs)
SAE 1045(chainsprockets,hubs,crankshafts)

Steel castings are used in aircraft for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

25.

Locking wire
Chains & Sprockets GFT 34
Axles
Longerons & Spares

Engine crank shaft


Aircraft hand tools
Aircraft tail wheel forks
As in (iii) and landing gear yokes. GFT90
LANDING GEAR AXLES, TURBO SUPERCHARGER BUCKETS AND
AIRCRAFT FITTINGS

Brake drums and gears are being made by

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
26.

Static casting
Centrifugal casting GFT 93
Molding
Cold rolling

Turn buckle barrels are made from material


(i)
(iii)

C.R.S
Brass or bronze

(ii)
(iv)

2330 Nickel alloy


K monel

27.

Nickel in steel increases


(a) Hardness
(b) yield strength
(c)
Elastic limit
(d) None of these

28.

Hot shortness is caused by the presence of


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

29.

Chrome Molybdenum Steel is used for :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

30.

Phosphorous
Mangancse
Sulphur
GFT26
Silicon

Fire wall
Engine mount GFT39
Oil tank
Oil lines

Presence of phosphorous in steel is responsible for:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Hot shortness
Brittleness
Cold shortness
2 and 3 are correct GFT27

31.

Chromium nickel-molybdenum Steel is commonly used to manufacture :


(i)
Longerons
(ii)
Spars
(iii) Propeller hubs GFT41
(iv) Under Carriage axle

32.

Which cable has resistance to fatigue


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Carbon steel
Stainless steel
Copper

33.

18-8 steel contains


(i)
(ii)
(iv

34.

Name the element which lower the critical range of steel


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

35.

Nickle
Chromium
Magnese
(i) & (iii)GFT45

White iron is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

36.

18% Cr, 8% Ni GFT27


18 % cr, 8% Vanadium
18 % Ni , 8 % Cr

Soft and brittle


Hard and brittle 9A 210
Hard and ductile
None of the above

Nickel in steel
(i)
Improve wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness.
(ii)
Refine grain size and produces less tendency to carbonization
improves corrosion and heat resistance properties. GFT 27
(iii)
Improves cutting ability and reduces harden ability
(iv)
Gives ductility,toughness ,tenacity strength and anti-corrosion
properties

37.

Tungsten in steel
(i)
Improve wear resiststance cutting ability and toughness.GFT28
(ii)
Refine grain size and produces less tendency to carbonization
improves corrosion and heat resistance properties.
(iii) Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenbility.
(iv) Gives ductility, toughness, tenacity strength and
anti-corrosion properties.

38.

SAE 1045 Steel is mostly used to manufacture :


(i)
Locking wire
(ii)
Chains & Spockets GFT35
(iii) Axles
(iv) Longerons & Spares

39.

Vanadium in high speed steels


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Promotes decarburization
Tungsten in steel
Forms very hard carbides and thus increases wear resistance.
Promotes retention of austenite 50.

40.

18-8 and Inconel steels are used :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

41.

to manufacture cowlings
Propeller hubs
Propeller blades
Exhaust collector 9A -196 & J 7-11

Titanium can be identified by


(a)
Spark test (used for various metal & some time from ??
(b)
moisturing and scratching with pencil
(c)
chemical test
(d)
both a & b are correct 9-A 201

42. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine fire walls
a. Stainless steel
b. Chromium Molybdenum alloy steel
c. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel
d. Wrought iron
43.

Characteristics of steel are controlled by


a) Removal of carbon from iron
b) Types of alloying elements added to it
c) Amount of alloying elements added to it
d) All are correct

44.

Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of


a) 0.1 0.3 b) 0.3 0.5 c) 0.5 1.0 d) 1.0 2.0

45.

High carbon steel is generally used for


a) Shock absorbers
b) Landing gear struts
c) Engine mounting bolts
d) Springs & files

46.

Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium


a) It is highly corrosion resistant
b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures
c) It has good resistance to creep
d) It is magnetic

47.

The balls used for ball bearings are made of


a) Cast iron
b) Cast steel
c) Wrought iron
d) Carbon chrome steel

48.

i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings.


ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

49.

SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel

50. Engine mounts are made up of


a) 18-8 corrosion resistance mild carbon steel
b) Chrome molybdenum mild carbon steel
c) Chrome molybdenum high carbon steel
d) None of these
51.

Weldability is poorest in case of


a) Plain carbon steel
c) High carbon steel

b) Low carbon steel


d) Wrought iron

52.

Carbon steel is
a) Refined form of cast iron
b) Extremely hard
c) Made by adding carbon to steel
d) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur & phosphorous

53.

Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of


a) Silicon
b) Cobalt
c) Chromium
d) Manganese

54.

Manganese is added to low carbon steel to


a) Make them tough & hard
b) Raise their tensile strength
c) Improve machine ability
d) Increase corrosion resistance

55.

All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel has
a) Two critical points
b) Three critical points
c) Four critical points
d) Six critical points

56.

In steel, grain becomes coarser when


a) It is heated to a temp just below critical point
b) It is heated above critical range
c) Depends upon carbon percentage
d) It does not happen at all

57.

Creep in metals is
a) Elongation due to temperature
b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses
c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation
d) All are correct

58.

SAE 13XX represents


a) Magnesium Steel
c) Silicon Steel

b) Manganese Steel
d) Chromium Steel

59.

Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium


a) It is highly corrosion resistant
b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures
c) It has good resistance to creep
d) It is magnetic

60.

SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel

61.

During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
3a) Monel metal
b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel
d) 18-8 steel

62.

Weldability is poorest in case of


a) Plain carbon steel
c) High carbon steel

b) Low carbon steel


d) Wrought iron

63.

Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of


a) Silicon
b) Cobalt
c) Chromium
d) Manganese

64.

In magnet steel, the alloying elements are


a) Nickel, Cobalt
b) Silicon, Nickel
c) Molybdenum, Copper
d) Tungsten, Cobalt

65.

MS 20004 is a
a) Internal wrenching bolt
c) Clevis bolt

b) Close tolerance bolt


d) None of these

66.

Corrosion resistant steel used in Aircraft construction is


a) 18 8 steel
b) Medium carbon steel
c) 18 6 steel
d) Silicon steel

67.

Major alloying elements of stainless steel are ( in order of % composition)


a) Ni Cr
b) Ni V
c) W Ni
d) Cr Ni

68.

Forging steel is

a) Low Carbon steel


c) High Carbon steel

b) Medium Carbon steel


d) Either a) or c)

69.

Exhaust collector is made up of


a) Silicon steel
b) Titanium steel
c) Chromium steel
d) Ni Cr steel

70.

Stainless steel is
a) Ni Cr steel
c) Ni W steel

b) Cr Mo steel
d) Cr Va steel

Silicon in steel acts as


a) Oxidiser
b) Deoxidiser

c) Impurity d) Both b) & c)

71.
72.

Mark the correct statement


a) SAE 2330 is chromium steel
b) SAE 3250 is used in making axle shafts because of high strength
c) SAE 3115 is used for making piston pins, cam rings

73.

Steel is preheated before welding to


a) Include strength
b) Enhance its creep resistance
c) Enhance its creep resistance

74.

Steel used for wing-hinge fittings & flying wire trunnions is


a) SAE 4140
b) SAE 6150
c) SAE 1015

75.

Steel used commercially for automatic machine production is


a) SAE 4135
b) SAE 4615
c) SAE 6115

76.

Steel used as an alternate for SAE 4130 steel is


a) SAE 8620
b) SAE 8630

c) SAE 9260

77.

To identify Ferrous metal


a) hardness test is used
b) Spark test is used
c) Heat treatment is carried out d) Grinding stone is used

78.

Main constituents of Inconel are


a. Nickel and Iron
b. Nickel and Chromium
d. Nickel and Copper
d. Copper and Manganese

79.

Aircraft wheels, brake pedals, control columns are made out of


a. Nickel alloy
b. Magnesium alloys
c. Magnesium alloy castings
d. Wrought Magnesium alloy

80.

The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by


a) Cold work
b) Hot rolling

c) Heat treatment

d) All the above

81. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of


producing
a. Passive oxidation
b. Improved corrosion resistance
c. Corrosion
d. None
82.

Diamond is a:
(a) Metal (b) Non-metal

(c) Glass

(d) Composite

83.

Number of atoms in a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal are:


(a) Ten
(b) Seventeen
(c) Nine
(d) Fourteen

84.

A crack in a metal due to corrosive atmosphere and static tensile stress is


known as:
(a) Bauschingers effect
(b) Work hardening
(c) Season cracking
(d) Strain aging

85.

(1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel


(2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel
(a) Both are true
(b) Both are false
(c) (1) is true (2) is false
(d) (1) is false and (2) is true

86. High carbon steel is used for:


(a) Great hardness and low ductility
(b) Great ductility and strength
(c) Great hardness and machinability
(c) All of these
87. Maximum permissible silicon in steel is:
(a) 0.3%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 0.5%

(d) 0.6%

88.

An element of steel which is white in colour and increases the strength, yield
point and hardness without effecting the ductility:
(a) Chromium
(b) Molybdenum
(c) Silicon
(d) Nickel

89.

An alloying element of steel which improves its homogeneity and reduces the
grain size, is:
(a) Nickel
(b) Molybdenum
(c) Chromium
(d) Silicon

90.

The High Speed Steel used for tools, which will retain its cutting edge even
when heated to dull redness by working:

(a) Nickel-chromium
(c) Vanadium-Tungsten steel
91.

(b) Tungsten-chromium steel


(d) Chromium-molybdenum steel

In SAE steel numbering system, first digit indicate:


a (a) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy
(b) Average carbon content
b (c) Type of steel
(d) None of these

92. In SAE steel numbering system, the second digit indicates:


(a) Average carbon content
(b) Type of steel
(c) Number of alloying elements
(d) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy
93.

94.

In SAE steel numbering system, last two or three digits indicate:


(a) Average carbon content
(b) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy
(c) Type of steel
(d) Number of alloying elements.
The numerals and digits for 3.50% Nickel steel in SAE steel numbering system
is:
(a) 25xx
(b) 2xxx
(c) 23xx
(d) 24xx

95.

It is a grey metal which impart hardness, strength, wear


resistance and corrosion resistance of steel:
(a) Chromium
(b) Nickel (c) Silicon (d) Titanium

96.

Which of the alloying element of steel is most expensive:


(a) Vanadium
(b) Titanium
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Tungsten

97. The numerals and digits for 1.25% Nickel, 0.60% Chromium of
Nickel-chromium steel in SAE numbering system is:
(a) 32xx
(b) 31xx
(c) 33xx
(d) 30xx
98.

Military specification (MIL) are developed jointly by technical


services of Army, Navy and Air force and are issued by:
(a) American National Specification
(b) Munitions Board Standard Agency
(c) American Military
(d) Air force-Navy Specification Board

99.

SAE 4037 steel is used for aircraft bolts, its AN specification is:
(a) AN-S-85
(b) AN-S-13-B
(c) AN-S-9a
(d) QQ-S-624

100. First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast furnace is
a) Pig Iron
b) Wrought Iron
c) Cast Iron
d) Steel
101.

Siderite is
a) Oxide ore of Iron
c) Sulphide ore of Iron

102. Coke used in blast furnace is


a) Fuel
c) Reducing agent
103. In upper reduction zone, we get
a) Iron
c) Carbon monoxide
. 104 Steel is alloyed to improve
a) Hardenability
c) Fatigue strength
.105
.

Cast Iron sparks are


a) Red
c) Straw coloured

b) Carbonate ore of Iron


d) Flux used in furnace
b) Flux
d) Both fuel & reducing agent
b) Carbon dioxide
d) Both Fe & CO2
b) Toughness
d) All of the above
b) White
d) First Red then Straw coloured

Steel has fine grain structure when


(a) When heated above the critical temperature GFT46
(b) when heated below the critical temperature

.106 Steel parts are pickled before plating with the solution of :
(i)
Sulphuric acid 5% to 10% by weight
(ii)
Hydrofluoric acid part of acid per gallons of solution
(iii) Two parts of borax to 1 part of boric acid
(iv) As in (i) or a hydrochloric acid solution 15 % 25% KEPT IN STONE
WARE TANK AT 140-150 DEG CENTIGRADE BY MEANS OF STEAM COIL
GFT 251

107. In order to increase elasticity and strength and reduce tackiness


in rubber, the process is known as
a. Vulcanizing
b. Calendering
c. Hardening
d. None
108. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as
(2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution
(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect
(b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect
(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct
109. SAE 1435 steel is used for structural tubings, its Military specification is:

(a) MIL-T-6737
(c) MIL-T-6732

(b) MIL-T-6731
(d) MIL-T-6735

110. Carbon is in chemical combination with iron as iron carbide, which is known as:
(a) Austenite
(b) Pearlite
(c) Martensite
(d) Cementite
111. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is known as:
(a) Hyper-eutectoid
(b) Hypo-eutectoid
(c) Eutectoid
(d) None of these
112. Steel above 0.85% carbon content is composed of:
(a) Austenite
(b) Cementite and martensite
(c) Martensite and troostite
(d) Pearlite with excess cementite
113. Main constituent of hardened steel is:
(a) Austenite
(b) Troostite
(c) Sorbite
(d) Martensite
114. The hardest structure obtained in the steel is:
(a) Pearlite
(b) Troostite
(c) Martensite
(d) Sorbite
115. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
a) Monel metal
b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel
d) 18-8 steel
116. Special steel HY-TUF has a good toughness at a tensile strength of:
(a) 2,30,000 psi
(b) 2,40,000 psi
(c) 2,50,000 psi
(d) 2,60,000 psi
117. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is known as:
(a) Eutectoid
(b) Hypo-eutectoid
(c) Hyper-eutectoid
(d) None of these
118. Steel below 0.85% carbon content is composed of:
(a) Pearlite
(b) Pearlite with excess ferrite
(c) Pearlite with excess cementite
(d) Pearlite and Austenit
119. Number of atoms in a Face Centered Cubic (FCC) crystal are:
(a) Fourteen
(b) Seventeen
(c) Nine
(d) Fifteen
120. When a metal is deformed plastically, forces required to
deformed it in reverse direction will be less, this is known as:

(a) Work hardening


(c) Strain aging
121.

(b) Bauschingers Effect


(d) None

Failure of component under high temperature and stress


conditions is known as:
(a) Creep fracture
(b) Ductile fracture
(c) Fatigue fracture
(d) Brittle fracture

122. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as


(2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution
(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect
(b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect
(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct
123. Iron changes its forms at different temperatures, thats why it is
known as :
(a) Ferrous metal
(b) Magnetic metal
(c) Allotropic
(d) None of these
124. Number of atoms in a Hexagonal Closed Pack (HCP) crystal are:
(a) Fourteen (b) Nine
(c) Eleven (d) Seventeen
125. (1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel
(2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel
(a) Both are true
(b) Both are false
(c) (1) is true (2) is false
(d) (1) is false and (2) is true
126. Presence of manganese in steel is mainly to
(a) Eliminate ferrous oxide
(b) Improve forging quality
(c) Induce penetration hardness (d) All of these
127. Modules of elasticity is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Stress/strain within elastic limit


Stress/strain after elastic linist
Stress/strain

HEAT TREATMENT
1.

For commercial annealing cooling is done in


(a)

Furnace

(b)

Air

(c)

Mica (d)

both

A & B GFT48

ASHES , SAND OR OTHER SUBSTANCE THAT DOES NOT CONDUCT HEAT


READILY (9A 211)
2.

Liquid quenching causes


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3.

Temperature of work in a furnace can be measured by


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4.

cold water quenching does minimize distortion and eliminate cracks.


hot water quenching does minimize distortion and eliminate cracks.
hardness of the surface with brittleness..
All

thermistor
pyrometer (9A 206)
color of work
thermocouple

How long piece of steel is left in a furnace for soaking.


(a)
For longer PARTS enough to ensure a good even heat throughout
(9A 208)
(b)
For 2 hrs for per cubic inch of piece
(c)
one hour for each square inch of cross section area.
(d)
Both A & C

5.

Seak often forms on the surface of the metal and dirt blocked on it
.. by
(a)
Steel wire brush
(b)
sand blasting
(c)
scrap
(d)
All

6.

The heat of the furnace can be controlled on regulated by


(a)
watching the color of the furnace
(b)
PYROMETER
(c)
thermo meter
(d)
all

7.

Annealing is done on heat treatable parts to


(a) relief internal stresses set up during cold working
(b) as in (a) and harden the metal
(c)
as in (a) and soften the metal
(d) none of the above

8.

Heat treated parts having bake-dirt and scale can be leased

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9.

wire brush
scraping
sand blasting
all

The soaking time varies as


(a)
till alloy uniformly heated
PLEASE
(b)
2 hrs/unit volume
(c)
1 hr/unit c.s. area
(d)
none

10. What
it has been
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

9A 208 SOMEBODY RECHECK THIS

is the descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after


annealed
Rapid cooling high strength
Rapid cooling low strength
slow cooling low strength
slow cooling (high strength) and increasing resistance to wear

11.

Heat treated defect in metal is detected by


(a) ultrasonic test
(b) eddy current testing
(c)
dye penetrant testing
(d) radiography testing
CAN DETECT SURFACE AND SUBSURFACE FLAWS
DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN METALS AND ALLOYS
CAN DETECT METALS HEAT TREAT CONDITION
EDDY CURRENT TESTING DEPENDS ON PERMEABILITY , CONDUCTANCE ,
MASS AND PRESENCE OF VOIDS AND FAULTS.
CONDUCTIVITY VARIES WITH GRAIN SIZE, DEGREE OF HEAT TREATNENT
AND TENSILE STRENGTH. J- 11-13

12.

Heated treated and non heat treated metal is distinguished by


(a) magnetic particle inspection
(b) eddy current test
(c)
dye penetrant inspection
(d) ultrasonic test

13.

Re-heating is done to
(a) remove strain and stresses
(b) remove effect of heat treatment
(c)
remove hardness and brittleness
(d) none

14.

In 7075 - 0 indicates
(a) annealed 9A 200
(b) strain hardened
(c)
solution IIT
(d) None

15.

Normalizing is applicable to
(a) cu-alloys
(b) Al-alloy
(c)
Ferrous alloy only
(d) Ferrous alloy only

16.

Embrittelment in steel is reduced by GFT52


(a) beating the steel at 150 deg-200 deg C (tempering)
(b) increasing the carbon percentage
(c)
by annealing
(d) none

17.

After
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

18.

When the time between soaking and quenching increases, then


(a) hardness increases
(b) softer the metal
(c)
re-precipitation takes place 9A213
(d) tensile strength increase

19.

When the time b/w soaking and quenching increases


(a) hardness increases 9A214
(b) softer the material

20.

After cyaniding quenching is done in


(a) water
(b) brine
(c)

heat treatment tempering is done to


reduce brittleness and ductility GFT52
increase brittleness and ductility
increase hardness and strength
increase hardness only

oil

(d) both A & B GFT54

21. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Annealing
Normalising
Tempering
Hardening

gft5

22. Immersion of the heated metal in a liquid either in oil, brine or water to
accelerate cooling is termed as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Dipping
Quenching
Carbonizing
Refining

gft 5

23. The process of reheating the hardened steel to a temperature below


critical point and cooling is known as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Normalizing
Tempering ------gft5
Drawing
(ii) & (iii) are correct

24. Heat treatment which relieves the strains in hardened steel, decreases the
brittleness and restores ductility is :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
25.

Normalizing
Annealing
Tempering
As in (iii) and drawing also

Soaking period for tempering


(i) 30 minutes to 1 hour
(ii)
1 hour to 1.30 hour
(iii) As in (i) and depending on the thickness of the
material-----gft53
(iv) As in (ii) and depending on the thickness of the material

26.

During anneaaling, soaking time is approximately:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

30 minutes per inch thickness


2 hrs for per inch thickness
1 hour for per inch thickness----9A211
Not specified

27. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Annealing
Normalising
Tempering
Hardening

28. The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding
torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
29.

When tabular parts are quenched they should be Immersed the


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

30.

Spherodizing
Normalizing
Shop annealing -----GFT48
Annealing

Long axis vertical to reduce war page---GFT54


Lateral axis horizontally to reduce war page
One end blocked
Both the end closed

On furnace the temperature is controlled by

(i)
(iii)
31.

Purpose of tempering is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

32.

Pyrometer
(ii)
Hydrometer
By pouring water into the furnace

Increase toughness decrease ductility


Increase hardness and ductility
Increase ductility and decrease hardness

Which is the most severe quenching liquids during cooling


(i)

Water(ii) Brine 9A208 (iii) Oil

(iv) None of the above

33.

When stainless steels are heated the formation of chromium carbide


within the metal reduces the amount of chromium available and may
decrease its resistance to corrosion this effect is known as
(i)
Loss of strength
(ii)
(iii) Resistance
(iv) Resistance to soldering

34.

Heat treatable alloys may require a fuel heat treatment to restore then
properties after welding magnesium alloys
(i)
Should not be heat treated at all
(ii)
Should not be heat treated more than three times
(iii) Should be heat treated only once
(iv) Require only hardening

35.

Unless the pipes are annealed the loading unloading operations must be
completed
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

36.

In solution heat treatment of rivets the time between removal from the
bath and quenching must be not more than
(i)
(iii)
(iv)

37.

After solution heat treatment


After normalizing
As in (i) and within two hours
None of the above

10 seconds
(ii)
30 seconds
As in (i) and to achieve satisfactory properties
As in (ii) and to avoid reheat treating

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal


To increase the hardness of the weld
To increase ductility in a metal

(iv)
38.

To remove the surface scale formed during welding

In the process of annealing the soaking period is about:


(i)
(ii)
(ii)
(iv)

One hour per inch thickness


30 minutes per inch thickness
15 minutes only
one hour for ferrous and 30 minutes for nonferrous metal

39. The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding
torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
(iii)

Spherodizing
Shop annealing

(iv)

(ii)
Normalizing
Annealing

40. In the process of heat treatment, During soaking period the temperature
of the furnace:
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
41.

Most severe Quenching medium is


(i)
(iii)

42.

Must be lowered
(ii)
Must be increased
To be determined as per the metal
Must be hold constant

Water
Paraffin

(ii)
(iv)

Oil
Brine9A 208

Mark the correct statement:


(i)
Quenching oil is normally maintained between 100 to 150 degree F
(ii)
Quenching water is normally maintained above 65 degree F
(iii) Quenching oil temperature about 80 to 150 degree F and water
below 65 degree F
(iv) As in 1 and water temperature below 65 degree F to be maintained

43.

Heating Steel to upper Critical Point holding it at that temperature and


then cooling it very slowing. This process is known as
(i)
(iii)

44.

(ii)

Hardining
(iv) Normalising

In heat treatment of steels, the presence of nickel slows down:


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

45.

Tempering
Annealing J 7-15

Rate of hardening
(ii)
Rate of Annealing
As in (i) and increases the depth of hardening
None of the above

In relieve the internal stresses and refine the grain all welded parts should
be
(i)

Annealed ater fabocation

46.

(ii)

Normalized after fabrication

(iii)

Tempered before fabrication (iv)

48.

No heat treatment to given

Ageing of heat treated alloy may be retarded :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

47.

J 7-15

For about 24 hrs


As in (i) provided kept at or below temperature of 32 F
By precipitation heat treatment
As in (iii) and kept at a room temperature for 24 hrs

Pyrometer is used to
a) Measure the temperature
c) Give protective atmosphere

b) Protect the furnace

The fastest rate of cooling is given by


a) Brine
b) Oil
c) Water

49. The heat range for salt bath Furnaces are


A) Depending upon composition of bath
B) As in a) & normally 6500 F to 17000F
C) As in a) & normally 3250F to 24500F
D) None of these
50.

The heat range for salt bath furnances are


(a) depending upon composition of bath.
(b) as in (a) & normally 650F to 1700F.
(c) as in (a) & normally 325F to 2450F.
(d) none of these.

51.

While heating the steel, the critical points are designated by:
(a) Ac1, Ac2,
(b) Ar1, Ar2,
(c) Ar3-2
(d) Arcm

52.

At what percentage of carbon content, two upper critical points


merge together and forms a single critical point known as Ar3-2
(a) Slightly above 0.1%
(b) Slightly above 0.2%
(C) Slightly above 0.4%
(c) at 0.85%

53. Fine grain of the steel is obtained when it is heated:


(a) Below critical range
(b) Well above critical range
(c) Slightly above critical range (d) Up to upper critical point
54.

Soaking time for steel is:


(a) 4 hours per inch thickness
(b) 3 hours per inch thickness
(c) 2 hours per inch thickness

(d) 1 hour per inch thickness


55.
56.

Dry heat furnace are fired by:


(a) Oil
(b) Gas
(c) Electricity

(d) Any one of these

To prevent scaling, better temperature regulation and for


uniform heating, the type of furnace to be used is:
(a) Liquid furnace
(b) Dry heat furnace
(c) Open hearth furnace
(d) Electric furnace

57. Sufficient period of soaking of aircraft steel parts is:


(a) 30 60 minutes
(b) 15 45 minutes
(c) 30 45 minutes
(d) 1 hour 2 hour
58.

59.

For water quenching, temperature of water must be maintained:


(a) Below 600F
(b) Below 650F
(c) Below 700F
(d) Below 800F
For normalizing SAE 1025 mild carbon steel, the temperature should be:
(a) 1600 16250F
(b) 1625 16750F
(c) 1650 17000F
(d) 1675 17250F

60.

While cooling the steel, its critical points are designated by:
(a) Ac3, Ac2,
(b) Ar3, Ar2,
(c) Arcm
(d) Ar3-2-1

61.

At what percentage of carbon, all three critical points will merge


together and forms a single critical point known as Ar3-2-1
(a) 0.85%
(b) 0.65%
(c) 0.45%
(d) 0.25%

62.

63.

Spheroidizing is a type of annealing which improves machinability of :


(a) Low carbon steel
(b) Medium carbon steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Alloy steel
Normalizing is carried out to:
(a) Induce ductility
(b) Improve hardness and strength
(c) Improve machinability
(d) All of these

64. The most severe quenching medium is:


(a) Brine
(b) Water
(c) Oil

(d) Air

CASE HARDENING
1.
2.
3.

After cyaniding , quenching is done in


(a)
brine
(b) water
(c)

oil

(d)

In SAE-1030
carbon percentage is
(a) 30 % (9A-195)
(b) 9.5 %

(c)

10 %

Cyniding of low carbon steel is quenched in


(a)
oil
(b) brine
(c)
water

(d)

both A & C
(d)

30 %

both a & b

4.

In case hardening nitriding process


(a) a with the part this heated ammonia gas is circulated within the
furnace chamber (J-7/17)

5.

Which non-ferrous metal can be case-hardened


(a) Ni
(b) Ti
(c)
Cu
After cyaniding , quenching is done in
(a)
brine
(b) water
(c)
oil
(d)

6.
7.
8.

(d)

Al

both A & C

In SAE-1030
carbon percentage is
(a) 30 % (b) 9.5 %
(c)
10 %

(d)

30 %

Cyniding of low carbon steel is quenched in


(a)
oil
(b) brine
(c)
water

(d)

both a & b

9.

In case hardening nitriding process


(a) a with the part this heated ammonia gas is circulated within the
furnace chamber

10.

Which non-ferrous metal can be case-hardened


(a) Ni
(b) (b)
Ti (9A-218
(c)
Cu
In case hardening the depth to be maintained for Aircraft work.

11.

(i)
(iii)
12.

(ii)
(iv)

Al

from to 1/8
from 1/32 to 1/64

Nitriding is the Surface hardening of Special alloy steels by heating the


metal:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

13.

from 1/8 to 1/16


from to

(d)

In contact with hydrogen gas


In contact with Ammonia gas
As in 1 or with ammonia gas
As in (ii) and or other nitrogenous gas (J-7/17)

Shot peening :
(i)
It is a sand blasting
(ii)
It is a shot blasing
(iii) It improves the fatigue and resistance m steel
(iv) As in (ii) & (iii) and increases the life of parts subjected to repeated
stress

14. In case hardening , Nitriding and corburizing can be used to produce a


wear resistant case of
(i)

0.0001 to 0.0002 in depth (9A-218

(iii)

.0005 to .001 in depth

(ii)

.0004 to .0005 in

depth
15.

(iv)

.001 to .002 in depth

Which one is not a form of case harding


(i)
(iii)

Carburizing (ii0
Nitriding

Cyaniding
(iv)

Sulphating (9A-218)

16.

The steel to be used for case hardening purpose is:


(a) Low carbon steel
(b) Medium carbon steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Alloy steel

17.

For solid carburizing, the metal box is having 2 inches legs


(a) To avoid touching of box with furnace
(b) For free circulation of furnace gases
(c) For proper support of the box
(d) All of these

18.

Liquid carburizing is used for small parts, where case depth required upto:
(a) 0.010 inch
(b) 0.020 inch
(c) 0.030 inch
(d) 0.040 inch

19.

In gas carburizing, the parts are heated in:


(a) Carbon atmosphere furnace
(b) Amonia gas
(c) Carbon-dioxide gas
(d) Any one of these

20. The sequence of case hardening consists of:


(a) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining
(b) Carburizing, core refining, case hardening and tempering
(c) Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining
(d) Carburizing, case hardening, core refining and tempering
21.

For case hardening MIL-S-6709 describe two types of nitralloys,


in which composition-A is:
(a) Free machining steel
(b) High carbon steel
(c) Nitriding stainless steel
(d) High core strength steel

NONFERROUS METALS
ALUMINUM AND ITS ALLOYS
1.

2.

Head marking shows


(a)
(c)
Al-alloy (2024)
Color
(a)
(c)
(d)

of 2024-T Al-alloy is
grey
blue + yellow
red

(b)
(d)
(b)
.

green

3.

Colour of extruded bar of aluminum alloy in 5 inches is


(a) red marking near the end of each length
(b) blue marking near the end of each length
(c)
stamp of blue and white color
(d) none of the above

4.

N-alloy 7075 contains


(a)
(c)

2.5 mg
5.6 Zn 9A 199 FIG 6-63

(b)

1.2

Mg
(d)

2.5 Zn

5.

In four digit N-alloy index system, No.-2024, the first digit indicates(a) the % of Al-added.
(b) the different alloy in this group
(c)
alloy group
(d) copper is the major alloying element. ALLOY TYPE 9A 198-1 / 2

6.

Which is the correct statement at regarding best treatment of Al-alloy.


(a) longer soaking time and lower cooling rate result in greater
softening. 9A-211
(b) longer soaking time and higher cooling rate result in greater
softening.

7.

Identification of alloy is made of by


(a)
alloy identified by color , content by stripes 9A- 100
(b)
alloy by stripes and content by color

8.

The colour of 6053 Al-alloy is


(a) Red 2024 (b) black

(c)

grey 2014 (d)

9.

The maximum radius for bending of Al-alloy should be


(a) 3 times the sheet thickness
(b) 6 times the sheet thickness
(c)
9 X sheet thickness
(d) 10 X sheet thickness

10.

Which one is heat treatable alloy


(a) 24 S
(b) clad 24 S (c) A17S

white 1100

(d) Any Al-cu alloy

11.

To roll a pure Al-sheet over Al-alloy is called


(a) Al-clad
(b) Pure clad
(c)
Laminated Al
(d) both a & b(9A-201)

12.

The main alloying element is 7075 al-alloy is


(a) Cu
(b) Mn
(c)
Zn 9A-199

13.

14.

Which one is stable wrought alloy


(a)
piston
(b)
(c)
crankshaft
(d)

cylinder head
alclad

Main content of 5056 Al-alloys is


(a) Zn
(b) Mg

(c)

Cu

(d)

(d)

Si

Si

15.

Al-alloy is not heat treated properly to have uniform grain boundries


(a) stress corrosion
(b) galvanic corrosion
(c)
inter granular corrosions
(d) fretting corrosion

16.

Which has increasing order of strength


(a) 2S A14ST 17ST 24 ST
(b)
(c)
2S 17ST 24ST A14ST
(d)

17.

18.

19.

2S 24ST 17ST A17ST


2S 117ST 24 ST 24 ST

Mark the correct statement


(a) Al-alloy bolts of dia less than 1/4 mm are not used in primary
structure 9A-123
(b) All Al-alloy nuts and bolts are NOT used where frequent removal is
required
(c)
Both a & b are correct
(d) none of these
Which one is stable wrought alloy
(a)
piston
(b) cylinder head
(c)
crankshaft
(d) alclad
The colour of 6053 Al-alloy is
(a) Red
(b) black

(c)

grey

(d)

white

20.

Which al-alloy rivet has highest strength 9A151, J8-6


(a) 5056-T
(b) 2117-T
(c)
2024-T
(d) 5056-W

21.

Main content of 5056 Al-alloys is J8-5


(a) Zn
(b) Mg
(c)

Cu

(d)

Si

22.

Al-alloy is not heat treated properly to have uniform grain boundaries


(a) stress corrosion
(b) galvanic corrosion
(c)
inter granular corrosions J12-12 (d) fretting corrosion

23.

Which has increasing order of strength


(a) 2S A14ST 17ST 24 ST
(b)
(c)
2S 17ST 24ST A14ST
(d)

2S 24ST 17ST A17ST


2S 117ST 24 ST 24 ST

24.

The maximum radius for bending of Al-alloy should be


(a) 3 times the sheet thickness
(b) 6 times the sheet thickness
(c)
9 X sheet thickness
(d) 10 X sheet thickness

25.

Which one is heat treatable alloy


(a) 24 S
(b) clad 24 S (c) A17S

(d) Any Al-cu alloy

26.

To roll a pure Al-sheet over Al-alloy is called


(a) Al-clad
(b) Pure clad
(c)
Laminated Al
(d) both a & b

27.

The main alloying element in 7075 al-alloy is


(a) Cu
(b) Mn
(c)
Zn

28.

29.

30.

9A200

(d)

Si

End of steel bar sometimes painted in various colors and color


combination as a mean of identifying different grade of steel
(a) solid colors identify the alloy and strips identify the carbon contents
(b) strips identify the alloy and solid colors identify the carbon
content
(c)
both a & b
(d) none of the above
Al. Alloy sand castings can not be manufactured with a wall thickness of
(i)

Less than

(ii)

Less than

(iii)

Less than 3/16

(iv)

Less than 1/8 GFT186

Aluminium alloy 1100 implies


a) Pure aluminium
b) It contains 11% copper
c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy

31
Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit signifies
something. In 2024, the first digit indicates
a) Copper is the major alloying element
b) Two alloying elements have been added
c) Total percentage of alloying elements
d) None of these
32.

Alclad is a metal consisting of


a) Aluminium alloy core with pure Al surface
b) Pure aluminium core with Al alloy surface
c) Alternating layers of pure Al & Al alloys
d) None of these

33.

Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged?
a) 3003-F
b) 5052-H
c) 6061-O
d) 7075-T6

34.

Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are


a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys
b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys
c) Easily heat treatable
d) Less susceptible to corrosion

35.

Which of the statement is correct?


a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain
hardened
b) Strain hardening is same as cold working
c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working
d) All are correct

36.

Cold bending of an aluminium sheet


a) Is not permitted
b) Softens the material at the bend
c) Strain hardens material at the bend
d) Results in material failure irrespective of bend radius

37.

i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high hydraulic
pressure
ii) Clad metals mean forged non ferrous metals
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

38.

Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment
medium to quench tank within 10 seconds or so. A delay results in
a) Retarded age hardening
b) Reduced corrosion resistance
c) Dull/Strained surface
d) Hard/brittle surface

39.

S in Al-alloy designation indicates


a) Cast alloy
b) Wrought alloy
c) As in b) and used for a/c structure d) None

40

Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant?


a) 2 S
b) 3 S
c) 17 S
d) 52 S

41

Al clad is generally of
a) 17 S & 24 S
b) 24 S & 52 S
c) 52 S & 53 S
d) 53 S & 62 S
Aluminium alloy 1100 implies
a) Pure aluminium
b) It contains 11% copper
c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy

42.

43

Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are


a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys
b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys
c) Easily heat treatable
d) Less susceptible to corrosion

44.

Which of the statement is correct?


a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain
hardened
b) Strain hardening is same as cold working
c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working
d) All are correct

45.

Al clad is generally of
a) 17 S & 24 S
b) 24 S & 52 S
c) 52 S & 53 S
d) 53 S & 62 S
46. Solution heat treatment & artificially eged is indicated by
a) T5
b) T7
c) T6
d)T8
47. Solution heat treated & artificially edged is indicated by
(a) T5
(b) T7(c) T6 (d) T8
48.
49.

50.

The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by


(a) cold work
(b) hot rolling
(c) heat treatment
(d) all the above
The major alloying element in 7075 Al-alloy is
(a) magnesium
(b) silicon
(c) magnesium & silicon
d) Zinc
T-6 designation of Al-alloy indicates
(a) solution heat treated and then artificially aged.
(b) solution heat treated and then stabilized.
(c) artificially aged only.
(d) solution heat treated and then cold worked.

51
Al- Alloy AND MAGNESIUM ALLOYS are :(a)
(b)
(c)
52.

Solution heat treated


Precipitation heat treated
a and b are correct 9A 212 & 216

Those Alloy gets its full strength in 4 to 5 days known as :(a)

Artificially aged alloy

(b)
53.

54.

55.

Naturally aged alloy J 7-8

When Al Allay surface coated with pure Al, called :(a) Pure clad
(b) Alclad
(c)
both a and b are correct (9A-201)
Aclad is a metal consisting of
(i)
Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aliuminium core
(ii)
Pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy
J 7-6
(iii) Al. and capper
(iv) A homogenous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy
Clad Al alloys during super annealing, soak the material
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

core

At temp 400-425 C for at least one hour


At temp 300 to 325 C for at least two hour
As in (i) and followed by slow cooling at about 15C per hour
As in (ii) and followed by slow cooling at about 10 C for 30 minutes

56. Pure aluminum sheet laminated over base aluminum alloy is called
(i)
(iii)
57.

(ii)
InconeL layer
All the above

An 2024 AL ALLOY
(i)
(iii)

58.

Alclad layer (9A-201)


k-monel layer
(iv)

Ni is main constituent (ii)


Cu is main constituent
Magnesium is main constituent

J 7-6

Mark the correct statement


(i)
Al clad alloys sheet should NOT normally be polished with
mechanical buffing wheels
(ii)
Interior cleaning of A/C should be done with an efficient vacuums
cleaner
(iii) Steel wool NOT should be used on Al alloys surfaces for cleaning
(iv) Spilled acids of lead acid batteries should be brushed with a diluted
BICARBONATE OF SODA , AMMONIA acetic acid to neutralize the effect

59.

60.

61.

2117 ALOLLOY
(i)
(ii)
Coat of zinc chromate is given after attachment
(iii) Known as field rivets J 8-5
AD, DIMPLE IN THE CENTRE, REQUIRE
NO HEAT TREATMENT
Color of 2024-T Al-alloy is
(a) grey
(b) green
(c)
blue + yellow
(d) red
Which is the correct statement at regarding best treatment of Al-alloy.

(a) longer soaking time and lower cooling rate result in greater
softening.
(b) longer soaking time and higher cooling rate result in greater
softening.
62.

Identification of alloy is made of by


(a)
alloy identified by color , content by stripes
(b)
alloy by stripes and content by color

COPPER AND ITS ALLOY


1.

Beryllium copper has greater advantage of


(a) creep
(b) High strength and uniform properties GFT 139, 140 & J 7-12
(c)
corrosion resistance
(d) uniform grain structure

2.

Bronze is Cu-alloy containing


(a) tinGFT 142 (b) zinc

(c) titanium

(d) all

3.

Red brass is used


(a) for fuel and oil line fittings
(b) as in (a) and also called bronze GFT-142
(c)
as in (b) and has poor GOOD CASTING, FINISHING PROPERTIES
AND MACHINES FREELY casting and forming quality
(d) none

3.

Muntz metal is used


(a)
to made oil and hydraulic filling
(b)
to make nut and bolts for used in salty atmosphere GFT 140 GFT140
(c)
to made nut and bolts which are not affected by fresh water
(d)
none

4.

Muntz metal consists of


(a) 60% of Cu and 40% of Zn
(b) 60% of Zn and 40% of Cu
(c)
as in (a) and basically brass GFT 140
(d) as in (b) and basically brass.

5.

Beryllium copper has greater advantage of


(a) creep
(b) High strength and uniform properties GFT 139, 140 & J 7-12
(c)
(d)

6.
7.

corrosion resistance
uniform grain structure

Bronze is Cu-alloy containing


(a) tin
(b) zinc
(c) titanium
(d) all
In K-Monel material are heat treated for
(i)

Hardening GFT135

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Annealing
Tempering
As in (ii) and will relieve

8.

Copper tubing can be annealed by heating it in an air Furance at temp. of


(i)
800 to 900 F and quenching in brine
(ii)
1100 to 1200 F and quenching to water
(iii) 100 to 1500 F and quenching in oil
(iv) 2200 to 2300 F and quenching in water

9.

Among following which is non-magnetic


(i)
K-Monel
GFT133
(ii)
Pure Nickel
(iii) Steel
(iv) None

10.

Muntz metal contain


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

11.

40% copper & 60% zinc


60% copper & 30% zinc
60% copper & 40 % zinc GFT140
(ii) and it is contact with the part than is contact with salt water

Copper, brass and bronze parts must be pickled prior to plating in a


solution of GFT 253
(i)
Solution of hydrofluoric for at least 30 seconds PICKLED
(ii)
Sodium cyanide for at least 30 seconds IMMERSED
(iii) As in (i) and 4 ounces of hydrofluoric and gallon of water
(iv) As in (ii) and 2 ounces of Sodium Cyanide in 1 gallon of water
IMMEDIATELY BEFORE PLATING

12.

Red brass is used


(a) for fuel and oil line fittings
(b) as in (a) and also called bronze GFT 142
(c)
as in (b) and has poor casting and forming quality
(d) none

13.

i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brass


ii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i)

14.

Monel metal is an alloy of


a) Nickel & copper
b) Nickel & chromium
c) Copper & chromium
d) Copper, nickel & chromium

14.

Muntz metal is used for


a) Nuts & bolts
c) Fuel & oil lines

b) Parts in contact with salt water


d) Both a) & b) are correct

16.

i) Bronze is superior to brass in corrosion resistance property


ii) Duralumin can be age hardened
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

17.

Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic?


a) Inconel
b) K-Monel
c) Monel
d) All of these

TITANIUM AND ITS ALLOYS


1.

Titanium can be identified by


(a)
Spark test BRILLIANT WHITE SPARKS (used for various metal &
some time from ??
(b)
moisturing and scratching with GLASS LEAVES PENCIL LIKE MARKS
pencil
(c)
chemical test
(d)
both a & b are correct 9A -201

MAGNESIUM AND ITS ALLOY


1.

For maximum ductility elongation and impact resistance of Mg-alloy is


(a)
solution heat treatment J 7-10
(b)
casted
(c)
precipitation heat treatment
(d) both a & c

2.

Magnesium surface should be cleared with


(a) stiff hog bristle
(b) steel wool
(c)
crocus cloth
(d) steel wire brush

3.

In Magnesium :(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4.

Tensile strength and ductility of Mg increases by :(a)


(c)

5.

Susceptible to corrosion
Not Susceptible to corrosion
Susceptible to crack
a and c are correct J 7-10

Solution heat treatment


aging

J 7-10
(d)

Magnesium alloys are:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Non sparking
Non magnetic
Used adjacent to magnetic compass

(b) PHT
None

(iv)

All are correct GFT 193

6.
To clean aluminum and magnesium. Alloys surfaces steel wool should not
be used
(i)
To avoid electro-chemical attack
(ii)
To avoid scratching the surface because of soft metal
(iii) Particles may be lodged in crevices or embedded on organic
coatings may cause corrosion
(iv) (i) & (iii) are correct J 12-24
7.

Magnesium surface should be cleared with


(a) stiff hog bristle
(b) steel wool
(c)
crocus cloth
(d) steel wire brush

8.

Metalling is a process of
(a) rolling pure Al-alloy on Al-alloy surface
(b) Ni and cd plating on steel
(c)
By sparying Ni, or on steel with oxy-acctylene flame GFT 257
(d) all of the above

9.

In four digit N-alloy index system, No.-2024, the first digit indicates(a) the % of Al-added.
(b) the different alloy in this group
(c)
alloy group
(d) copper is the major alloying element.

10.

For maximum ductility elongation and impact resistance of Mg-alloy is


(a)
solution heat treatment J 7-10
(b) casted
(c)
precipitation heat treatment
(d) both a & c

10.

N-alloy 7075 contains


(a) 2.5 mg
(c)
5.6 Zn

11.

1.2 Mg
2.5 Zn

Magnesium alloy castings are used extensively in aircraft construction


such as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

12.

(b)
(d)

Wheels and brake pedals GFT199


Aircraft axles
Under carriage attachment brackets
Shock absorbers

After welding magnesium alloy remove the flux immediately:


(i)
Wash in hot running water and scrub with a stiff bristle brush
(ii)
Immerse in solution for one minute of sodium di-chromate and
concentrated nictric acid
(iii) By boiling for 1 to 2 hrs in a solution of sodium di chromate and
enough water

(iv)
13.

Magnesium alloy castings are solution heat treated to improve


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

14.

All of the above method GFT230

Tensile strength
Ductility
Shock resistance
All of the above 9A-216

Magnesium alloys are


a) Magnetic
c) Cheap & easy to machine

b) Light in weight
d) Highly prone to corrosion

HEAT TREATEMENT NON FERROUS METALS


1.

2.

Al-alloy can be heat treated by


(a) solution heat treatment
(b) precipitation heat treatment
(c)
artificial aging indicated with W
(d) both (a) & (b)
Treating the parts in anhydrous ammonia is
(a) carburizing CARBON
(b) nitriding
AMMONIA GAS GFT 75
(c)
cyaniding SODIUM OR POTASSIUM CYANIDE
(d) normalizing

3.

In artificial ageing hardening is done at


(a) moderate temperature 9A212
(b) room temperature (natural ageing)
(c)
critical temperature
(d) none

4.

Mark the correct statement.


(a) Hot water quenching minimizes distortion and alleviates crack
9A214

5.

High
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

heat of al-sheet from fire causes


Increase ductility
Decrease ductility
Increase resistance
None (increase, conductance)

6.

Purpose of heat treatment of titanium is


(a) thermal hardening to improve strength
(b) annealing for subsequent working
(c)
relieve stresses
(d) all of the aboveAG LG28
7.
Heat treatment of N-alloy is carried out by
(a)
solution heat treatment
(b)
solution and precipitation HT
(c)
age hardening
(d)
all
8.
Nitriding operation Consists of heating the steel to 950 F in the presence
of ammonia gas for
(i)
(iii)
9.

From 10 to 30 hrs
(ii)
From 20 to 100 hrs ---GFT77

From 20 to 50 hrs
(iv) None of the above

Precipitation heat treatment consists of


(i)
Aging material previously subject to solution heat treatment
(ii)
Holding the material at elevated temperature for quite a long period
of time
(iii) Alloying constituents in sold solution prvecipitate out.
(iv) All are correct
9A 214

10.

11.

Temper designation for solution heat treated cold worked and then
artificially aged the letter is :
(i)
T4
(ii)
T6
(iii) T8
(iv) T10
Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy. The soaking time ranges from
(i)
10 to 18 hours---(ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in (i) and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness----9A217
(iv)
None of the above

12.

Precipitation heat treatment temperature ranges from

(i)
25 to 325 degree F
(ii)325 TO 500 degree F---9A217
(iii) 325 to 600 degree F
(iv) 500 to 725 degree F
13. Some aluminum alloys develop their full properties as a result of solution
heat treatment followed by :
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
14.

Quenching
(ii)
Soaking
Aging for about four days-----GFT156
As in (iii) and aging at room temperature

. Tifical and age hardening treatment is given at temperature :


(i)
365 to 380 F
(ii)
465 to 480 F
(iii) As in 1 and for approximately 6 hrs will greatly improve the
mechanical properties
(iv) As in (ii) and for approximately 3 hrs will greatly improve the
mechanical properties

15.

Ageing of heat treated alloy may be retarded:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

16.

for about 24 hrs


As in (i) provided kept at or below temperature of 32 F
By precipitation heat treatment
As in (iii) and kept at a room temperature for 24 hrs

Spherodizing is a form of :
(i)
annealing above lower critical temperature and making globular
ferrite structure in cementite matrix.
(ii)
Annealing below lower critical temperature and making globular
cementile structure in ferrite matrix
(iii) Annealing above lower critical temperature and making lamellar
structure of ferrite and cementile
(iv) None of the above

17.

In solution heat treatment of magnesium alloy


(i)
Welding the metal at high temperature for sufficient time and
quenched in water
(ii)
Welding the metal a high temperature for sufficient time and
quenched in air9A217
(iii) Welding the metal at high temperature for sufficient time and
quenched in furnace
(iv) None of the above

18.

The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch


(i)
Has little or no effect on a metals heat-treated characteristics
(ii)
Can significantly alter a metals properties in the reheated area
(iii) Has accumulative enhancement effect on the original heat
treatment
(iv)

19.

Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy , the soaking time ranges form
(i)
10 to 18 hours 9A--216
(ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in 10 and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness
(iv) As in 3 and 10 hours
What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received
no hardening or tempering treatment ?

20.

(i)
(iii)

3003-F
6061 O

(ii)
(iv)

5052-H36.
7156- T

21. Precipitation heat treatment of Aluminum alloys consist in heating the


material for
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
22.

24 to 48 hrs
At a temperature around 300 F
As in (ii) and for 8 to 24 hrs
As in (i) at a temp of 600 F

Artifical & age hardening treatment is given at tempreture:


(i)
365 to 380 F
(ii)
465 to 480 F
(iii) As in (i) and for approximately 6 hrs will greatly improve the
mechanical properties
(iv) As in (ii) and for approximately 3 hrs will greatly improve the
Mechanical properties

HARDNESS TEST
1.

Hardness tesing equipments measured hardness in term of


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

2.

Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Resistance to impact
(ii)
Resistance to penetration
Resistance to change in its length
None of the above
the correct statement regarding the hardness tester
brinell system uses diamond point
vikers uses round ball
above are correct
none

3.
In Vickers Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals of diamond
pyramid is:
(a) 1260
(b) 1360
(c) 1460
(d) 1560
4.
While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from
edges should be there to avoid:
(a) Buldging at opposite side
(c) Ridge scales

(b) Deflection while testing


(d) Scratches

5.

Load applied in Shore Scleroscope hardness test is:


(a) 30 kg
(b) 50 kg
(c) 10 kg
(d) None of these

6.

In Izod impact test, the specimen is :


(a) Supported on two supports
(b) Clamped in heavy jaws
(c) Attached with pendulum
(d) None of these

7. Treatment given to a metal to relieve internal stresses and


induce softness is:
(a) Tempering
(c) Normalizing

(b) Hardening
(d) Annealing

8. A series of heating and cooling to improve physical properties of


a metal is known as:
(a) Normalizing
(c) Tempering

(b) Hardening
(d) Heat treatment

9.
For checking the area of depression in Brinell Hardness Test,
Accuracy of microscope should be:

(a) 0.05mm (b) 0.005mm


10.

(c) 0.5mm (d) 0.0005mm

Load applied for soft material in Vickers hardness test is:


(a) 20 kg
(c) 10 kg

(b) 15 kg
(d) 5 kg

11.

Hardness induced in a metal due to deformation is known as:


(a) Stress hardening
(b) Age hardening
(c) Work hardening
(d) None of these

12.

Which of these is indicator of elasticity & plasticity both?


a) Rockwell hardness test
b) Brinell hardness test
c) Shore Scleroscope
d) Vickers hardness test

13.

Hardness tesing equipments measured hardness in term of


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

Resistance to impact
(ii)Resistance to penetration J7-18
Resistance to change in its length
None of the above

ROCKWELL TESTER
1.

Rockwell hardness tester


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2.

measures resistance to penetration


measures diameter of indention
measures depth of penetration
both A & C are orrect(218).

In rock well hardness testing


(a)
softer the piece of metal, the deeper will penetration under given
load.
(b)
the hardness is indicated on dial gauge graduated the B & C scale.
(c)
For non ferrous metal the steel ball should be used and hardness
No. be read on B scale
(d)
All the above(ST/526)

3.

In Rockwell hardness testing the minor preliminary load is applied


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

to securely lock the part in place


to make indentation in the part
to get accuracy of the readily
all are correct

4.
A Rockwell hard ness tester determines hardness by forcing a penetrator
into a sample and measuring
(i)
The diameter of the resulting impression
(ii)
The depth of the resulting impression
(iii) As in 1 an d10 Kg load is called minor load
(iv) As in 2 and a conical diamond, a 1/16 ball and a 1/8 ball can be
used 9A 218,219

5.

Mark the correct statement


(a) brinell hardness tester measure depth of penetration and
reading is directly indicated on dial
(b) bareel is used for testing steel
(c)
Rockwell tester measure dia of penetration
(d) None of the above

6.

Mark the correct statement


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

7.

brinell hardness is the dia of ball


lesser the rock well No, softer the material
more the Rockwell No, softer the material
none

Maximum size of ball for Rockwell hardness test is:


(a) 5mm

8.

(b) 10mm

(d) 1 mm

In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of the B scale is:


(a) B0 B150
(c) B0 B20

9.

(c) mm

(b) B0 B100
(d) None of these

In Rockwell hardness test, B scale is a combination of:


a) Diamond cone, 150kg load and Red dial
b) 1
/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Black dial
c) Diamond cone, 100kg load and Black dial
d) 1
/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Red dial

10.

Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell hardness test is:
(a) 0.027 inch
(c) 0.0027 inch

(b) 0.27 inch


(d) None of these

11. In Rockwell Hardness Test, if B scale is used for material harder


than B-100
(a) It will give inaccurate reading

(b) Ball may get flattened


(c) No reading will be their
(d) None of these
12. In Rockwell hardness test, red dial is used for:
(a) Ball penetrator
(c) both (a) and (b)

(b) Diamond point penetrator


(d) None

13. In Rockwell hardness test, combination used for aircraft material


are:
(a) A and B
(b) C and D
(c) A and D
(d) B and C
14. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of C scale is:
(a) C10 & upward
(c) C20 & upward

(b) C15 & upward


(d) C25 & upward

15. In Rockwell hardness test, a ball penetrator as large as inch


diameter should be used for soft metal with:
(a) 60kg load
(c) 100kg load

(b) 20kg load


(d) 150kg load

BRINELL TESTER
1.
In brinell hardness testing, the thickness of material should not be less
than
(a) 5 times (b) 10 time(ST/526)
(c) 20 times
(d) 50 times
2.

Brinnel harness tester is used for


(a) Larger part and low hardness(ST/526)
(b) small part and low hardness
(c)
small part and large hardness
(d) large part and high hardness

3.

Brinell hardness tester


(a) uses steel ball(10+-0.01mm) penetrator
(b) as in (a) and measure depth of impression
(c)
as in (a) and measure dia of impression(ST/526)
(d) none of the above

4.

Hardness testing method of steel is


(a) brinell or barcol
(b)
(c)
brinell or Rockwell(218/220)

barcol or Rockwell
(d) none of the above

Brinell tester used for :(a) Al


(c)
Brass

Structural steel
a and c are correct

5.

(b)
(d)

6.

Mark the correct statement :(a)


(b)

Brinell hardness no measure dia of ball


less the Rockwell hardness no. softer the metal

7.
In brinell tester, during testing of hardness of non ferrous metal pressure
uses ir of
(i)
(iii)

8.

3000kg
1000 kg

(ii)
(iv)

(1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to inches, where as
(2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg.
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(c) Both are true

9.

500kg
100 kg

(b) (2) is true and (1) is false


(d) Both are false

Brinell Hardness Number is obtained by:


a)
b)
c)
d)

Size of ball divided by area of depression


Area of depression divided by size of ball
Load applied divided by area of depression
None of these

10.

For Brinell Hardness Testing, application of load should be for at


least:
(a) 20 second
(b) 15 second
(c) 10 second
(d) 5 second

11.

Brinelling is
(i)
(iii)
(iv)

a hardness test ---GFT13


(ii)
Lateral defects
Logitudinal defects
Lateral defects and defects at 45 degree angle with the axis

12. In brinell tester, during testing of hardness of non ferrous metal pressure
uses ir of
(i)
(iii)

3000kg(FOR STEEL)
1000 kg

(iv)

(ii)
100 kg

500kg J 7-17

BARCOL TESTER
1.

Barcol tester is used by


(a)
harder material
(c)
all type of material

(b)
(d)

softer material(220)
none

2.

Barcol Tester is used to test the hardness of


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

C.R.S.
Al-alloy, copper, brass or other relatively hard materials
Relatively soft material (Al Cu etc.)
None

NON METALLIC STRUCTURAL MATERIAL


1.
2.

The properties of a composite material is


(a) do not corrode
(b) stress fatigue resistant
(c)
it reduce wear
(d) all(CF/1-4)
Composite has
(a) resistance to wear
(b) high strength to weight ratio
(b) resistance to corrosion
(d) All(CF/1-4)

3.

Strength of composite depends upon


(a) fiber
(b) matrix material
(c)
heat treatment
(d) all(CF/1-5)

4.

Strength of composite depending upon


(a)
type of fiber (bonding material)
(b)
process of manufacture
(c)
heat treatment
(d)
all(CF/1-5)

5.

In composites the strength is provided by


(a) bonding substance & reinforced fiber(CF/1-1)
resin (d)

6.
7.

Which fibre has higher compressive strength


(a) carbon fibre(CF/2-4)
Mark
(a)
4)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b)

(b)

core (c)

aramin

the correct statement


carbon graphite has more compressive strength than keylar(CF/2Keylar has more compressive strength than carbon graphite
Carbon graphite has more tensile strength than keylar
all of the above

8.

Which fiber glass is used for structural repair


(i)
(iii)

9.

A-Glass
E-Glass

(ii)
(iv)

S-Glass(CF/2-2)
C-Glass

Which one is the best known for its high tensile resistance
(i)
(iii)

10.

(ii)
(iv)

Aramid(CF/2-3)
Boran

GFRP stands for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

11

Fiber glass
Carbon

Granular form of Reinforced plastic


Graphite form of reinforced plastic
Either (i) or (ii)
Glass Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CF/1-2)

Novalox is
(i)
ortho aramid
(ii)
Para aramid
(iii) Meta aramid
iv)
Ortho and meta aramid but meta-aramid is more oftenly used to
manufacture a/c part

12.

Kevalor is
(a)
White gliming cloth
(b)
4 times more tensile strength than aluminum(CF/2-3)

13.

Which statement is correct


(a)
boron fibre is made by depositing boron
(b)
tungsten and ceramic fibre in high heat application
(a) ceramic used in heat application dissipating heat slowly
(b) both A & B(CF/1-4)

14.

Which statement is correct


(a)
fibre glass has more weight and have less strength than compare to
other composite material(CF/2-2)

15.

Fibre glass is
(a)
Also known as E-glass or electric glass
(b)
E-glass or borosilicate glass
(c)
both A & B(CF/2-2)
(d) None

16.

Ceramic fibers are


(a) used for high temperature application(CF/2-6)
(b) heat resistance and dissipates heat slowly
(c)
both (a) & (b)
(d) none

17.

Fibre glass is
(a)
Also known as E-glass or electric glass

(b)
(c)
(d)

E-glass or borosilicate glass


both A & B(CF/2-2)
None

18.

In aramid
(a) Kevlar has 4 times the strength of aluminum(CF/2-3)
(b) white colour
(c)
All
(d) None

19.

Boron fibres are


(a) made by depositing tungsten on boron
(b) boron on tungsten deposit(CF/2-5)

20.

Hybrid is
(a)
used as a core material in composite
(b) two or more different layer of reinforcing material(CF/2-15)
(c)
used as a met rise material
(d) refrigeration of the film

21.

Matrix is used to
(a) transfer stress of fibers
(b) takes stress from the fiber
(c)
increase the hardness of adhesive
(d) (a) and give hardness to fiber(CF/3-1)

22.

Catalvst in a composite acts as


(a) hardner
(c) to increase the properties of resin

23.

resin is reinforced with metal


resin and fibers are reinforced with metal
fibers are reinforced with metal during molten stage(CF/3-18)
all are correct

Plastic materials which repeatedly soften when heated and harden when
cooled are:
(i)
(iii)

25.

curing agent(CF/3-1)
all

Metal matrix composite is a recent conceptional material in which


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

24.

(b)
(d)

Thermoplastics(CF/3-1)
Protein plastics

(ii)
(iv)

Thermosetting plastics
Natural resins

Plastics which will not softer on further application of heat and can not be
reshaped are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Thermosetting
Thermoplastic
Protein Plastics
Natural resins

26.

In hardness testing of composite the hardness is measured


(a) resin
(b) reinforcing fiber
(c)
specific chart
(d) both a & c are correct

27.

The core of reinforce polymer thermoplastic is filled as :(a) metal


(b) aluminium
(c)
fibre glass and plastic resin
(d) all of the above

28.

Synthetic thermoplastic :(a) when heated becomes soft


(b) when heated becomes hard
(c)
when cools become hard
(d) both A & C are correct

29.

The teat resistance resin is


(a)
epoxy (cyclo eliphatic resin)
(c)
thermosetting plastic

30.
by

(b)
(d)

polyester
thermoplastic

In composite impact damage and disbounding in honey comb is detected


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

thermography
heat resistant and dissipates heat slowly
visual inspection
none

31.

In composites repair the part is steeped rather than to be serafed for


(a) uniform shear stress
(b) uniform tensile stress
(c)
smoothness
(d) both a & b

32.

After honeycomb repair the moisture entrapment is inspected by


(a) radiography
(b) ammeter
(c)
laser holography
(d) all

33.

During repair procedure of composite part treatment is done for


(a) small disbands
(b) restore surface protection
(c)
seal honeycomb casting
(d) none

34.

For the lightening protection of the composite material used


(a) carbon/graphide composite on the surface
(b) Al-layer to provide a conductive path
(c)
No lightening protection is needed for the composite
(d) Aromide layer is used
In composites repair the part is steeped rather than to be serafed for
(a) uniform shear stress
(b) uniform tensile stress
(c)
smoothness
(d) both a & b

35.

36.

synthetic rubber used in the aircraft is designated GRM as

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

poly sulphide poloymer


isobutylene
complex of butylenes and crosylonitrile
government rubber mono-vinyl acetylene or ncoptene

37. In plastics minute crack occurring at weaker area due to applied


load and extends both sides
(a) crazing
(b) creeping
(c) fatiguing
(d) crevice corrosion
38.

Peel
(a)
(c)
(c)
(d)

39.

Which core material gives defection in composite


(a) honey comb
(b) synthetic resin
(c)
foam
(d) all

40.

Nomex and Kevlar are used for making composites as


(a) they are used interchangeably
(b) both have some molecular size
(c)
both have same internal structure
(d) both have same strength
(d) none

41.

Nomex is a
(a)
honey comb material
(b)
reinforced material
(c)
matrix material
(d) none

42.

With adhesives
With washers
Snap and dolly
Ball peen hammer only

Non Scatterable glass is used for wind shields on most a/c with min .
thickness:
(i)
(iii)

44.

Plastic materials are usually joined by means of rivets and bolts: when
using rivets it is advisable to use:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

43.

ply means
prevent excess resists
remove after cure
prevent vacuum bagging from striding to the paint
all are correct

1/8 to 3/16
to 5/16

(ii)
(iv)

3/16 to 1/4
5/16 to 5/8

In composites the strength is provided by


(a) reinforced fiber (b) core (c)
resin (d)

(a) & fiber

45.

Syntactic core is:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Sphere filled resin


Honey comb
Sphere filled resin in honey combform
None

46. Urea formaldehyde resin glue at normal temp is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
47.

In which of the plastic molding mold is continuously cooled by water


(i)
(iii)

48.

Injection molding
Compression molding

carbon fibres
Fibre glass

(ii)
(iv)

Aramid
None

Prepreg of carbon/graphite
As (i) and usec as flooring of A/C
Pre-Prg of Aramid
As (iii) and used as flooring of A/C

STANDARD DGEBA is
(i)
(iii)
(iv)

51.

(ii)
(iv)

Novniox is :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

50.

Transfer molding
Jet molding

In composite material which one requires oxidative surface treatment


(i)
(iii)

49.

Poor resistant to water will not deteriorate if heated in water


Water resistant and will deteriorate if heated in water
Water has no effect on it whether cold or hot
Poor fugus resistant

epoxy resine
(ii)
polyester resine
(i) and its if called as diglycidyl Bisphenot AA
as (i) and called as Diglycidyle Bishemd A

M.T.C.S
(i)
Reinforced plastic components of A/C are formed of either solid
laminates or semisolid laminates
(ii)
Reinforced plastic components of A/C are formed of either solid
laminates or semisolid laminates
(iii) (i) + Resins used to impregnate glass clothes are in liquid or solid
state
(iv) (ii) + Resins used to impregnate glass clothes are in liquid state
which can vary in viscosity from a water like consistency to a thick syrup

52.

CFRP stands for

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
53.

Syntactic core may be


(i)
(iii)

54.

Carbon fiber reinforced plastic


Composite fiber reinforced plastic
Cross fiber reinforced plastic
Crystalline form of reinforced plastic

epoxy filled sphere


Metal matrix filled sphere

(ii)
(iv)

Resin filled sphere


(i) and (ii)

To manufacture composite brake disk which one is used


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Ceramic
Aramid and carbon/graphite
Carbon/graphite
Ceramic and carbon graphite

55.

Syntactic core is :
(i)
Sphere filled resin
(ii)
Honey comb
(iii) Sphere filled resin in honey comb form
(iv) None

56.

Which of the epoxy resin is fire resistant


(a) DGEBSA
(b) Flexible
(c)
Telogeneted
(d) Cyclo aliphatic
The honeycomb materials used in fibre glass laminations can be
sandwiched between thin sheets of Alalloy the type of core referred to as

57.

58.

(i)
metal core
(ii)
wood core
(iii) Aluminum honey comb core
(iv) Metal faced honey comb core
Syntactic core is :
(i)
(iii)
(V)

Sphere filled resin


(ii)
Honey comb
Sphere filled resin in honey combform
None

59.

Prepregs material is
(a)
eliminate manual mixing and weighing
(b)
must be stored in freeze
(c)
also made in unidirectional
d)
all are correct

60.

Strength of composite depending upon


(a)
type of fiber (bonding material)
(b)
process of manufacture
(c)
heat treatment
(d)
all

61.

The teat resistance resin is

(a)
(c)
62.

63.

64.
65.

66.

67.

(b)
(d)

polyester
thermoplastic

Ceramic fibers are


(a) used for high temperature application
(b) heat resistance and dissipates heat slowly
(c)
both (a) & (b)
(d) none
12
Teflon nose is designed to meet the requirement of
(a) higher operating temperature and pressure
(b) highly resistant to vibration and fatigue
(c)
high operating strength
(d) all are correct
Which takes primary load
(a) fibre
(b) metrix

(c)

both a & b (d)

none

Which takes in part of transferred load


(a) fibre
(b) metrix
(c)

both a & b (d)

none

Paralketone used on
(a) cable
(c)
conduit

(b)
(d)

iron
none

Ribbon direction is referred as


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

7.

epoxy (cyclo eliphatic resin)


thermosetting plastic

direction
direction
direction
direction

in
in
in
in

which
which
which
which

honey
honey
honey
honey

What is the work of catalyst ?


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

as curing agent
as hardener
mixed with resin
all are correct AC CF 33

comb
comb
comb
comb

structure
structure
structure
structure

can
can
can
can

with stand max load


be cut
be teared
be cut and teared

NON METALLIC COMPONENTS


1.

Naturai rubber is
(i)
(iii)

Polymer of isoprene
(ii) polymer of neoprene
Copolymer of isoprene and neoprene
(iv) None

2.

O-ring can be checked by


(a) 4 times magnification
(b) rolling the ring on a dowell and inner dia can be checked.
(c)
rolling the ring on inspection cone & inner dia can be checked
(d) all of the above

3.

Teflon hose is designed to meet the requirement of


(a) higher operating temperature and pressure
(b) highly resistant to vibration and fatigue
(c)
high operating strength
(d) all are correct

4.

Synthetic rubber used in the aircraft is designated GRM as


(a) poly sulphide poloymer
(b) isobutylene
(c)
complex of butylenes and crosylonitrile
(d) government rubber mono-vinyl acetylene or ncoptene

5.

Rubber which has good resistance to oil and excellent resistance to heat
air light and flame is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

6.

7.

Rubber which has highest resistance to deterioration but the lowest


physical properties and resistance to Aromatic hydro carbons is:
(i)
Thiokol
(ii)
Buty1
(iii) Neaprene
(iv) Buna-N
Rubber which has the highest resistance to deterioration but the lowest
physical properties
(i)
(iii)

8.

Natural rubber
Buty1
Neoprene
Thiokol

Butyl
Neoprene

(ii)

Thiokol
(iv) Buna-N

BUNA-S is a copolymer of
(i)
(iii)

Isoprene and styrene


Butadiene and Acrylonitride

(ii)
(iv)

Butadiene and styrene


Styrene & naetril

9.

Carburetor diaphragms are made rom


(i)
(iii)

Buna-N
Neoprene

(ii)
(iv)

Buna-S
Butyl

10. Where only better tensile strength & resistance is required the rubber
used as

11.

(i)
(iii)

Neoprene rubber (ii)


Synthetic rubber (iv)

Natural rubber
Butyl rubber 19. Buna-s is used for

(i)

Tyre & tubes

Flexible fuel tanks

Synthetic rubber
Natural rubber

Synthetic rubber
Buna-n

Buna-N
Synthetic Rubber

Chloroprene

(iii) Isoprene

(ii)
(iv)

Buna-s
Natural rubber

(iv)

(ii)
Buna-s
Natural rubber 39.

Natural

(ii)

Beoprene

(iv) Polysulphide

Skydrol hydro fluids are compatible with rubber seals made from :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Butyl rubber
Neopren rubber
Natural rubber
Synthetic rubber

O RINGS
1.

Butyl rubber
Neopron rubber

Rubber is a polymer of
(i)

16.

(ii)
(iv)

Rubber, which has excellent resistance to oil and will resist heat up to
250F is :
(i)
(iii)

15.

Fluid & vapors compatibility


Date of manufacture
Shows lightest portion of seal

Rubber which has better tensile strength and resilience but deteriorates
much more rapidly is:
(i)
(iii)

14.

O rings

Buna-S is normally used for tyres and tubes as a substitute for


(i)
(iii)

13.

(iii)

Colour coading on O ring is given for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

12

(ii)

O-rings can be detected by

a)
4 power magnifying glass
b)
Small cracks, particles of foreign material or other irregularities are
checked by rolling
c)
Slight stretching of the ring checked by dowel
d)
All
2.

Colour code for o-rings


a) Red dot for hydraulic fluid
b) Green dot for fuel
c) Yellow dot for skydrol fluid
d) d) None

3.
To increase mechanical strength and tackiness
To reduce mechanical strength and tackiness
To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness
To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness
4.

O ring packings are used for preventing


a) Internal leak
b) External leak
c) One direction leak
d) Both a) & b)

49.

O-ring can be checked by


(a) 4 X magnification
(b) by rolling the ring on a dowel inner dia can be checked
(c)
by rolling the ring on insp. cone inner dia can be checked
(d) all

RUBBER
1.
Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of
aircraft tubeless tyre
a. Butyl rubber
b. Neoprene rubber
c. BUNA-N d. thiokol
2.
Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and
wire insulation
a. Silicon rubber b. Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d. BUNA-N
3.
Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property is the
characteristic of which kind of synthetic rubber.
a. GR I
b. GR S
c. GR P
d. GR A
4.

To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be added


a. Sulfur
b. Sulfur oxide
c. Zinc
d. Zinc oxide

5.

Natural rubber attains fibrous structure when


a. It under goes at low temperature
b. It is frozen
c. It is heated to 1300C
d. It undergoes continues stress at normal temperature

6.
Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base
hydraulic fluids
a. Butyl
b. Buna-N
c. Neoprene d. Buna-S
7. Natural rubber is a polymer of
a) Isoprene
b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of these
8. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural rubber?
a) Sulpher
b) Phosphorus
c) Sodium d) Carbon
9. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S
a) White
b) Black
c) Red
d) Green
10. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands for
a) Butadieneb) Acrylonitrile
c) Monovinyl
d) Nitrile
11. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is stands
a) Monovinyl
b) Chloroprene
c) Acrylonitrile
d) Styrene
12.

GR-I designated for which type of rubber


a) Neoprene b) BUNA-S
c) BUNA-N

d) Butyl

13. Which type of properties is introduced in rubber after vulcanising process?

a) Elasticity
c) Reduce the tackiness

b) Strong ness
d) All of these

SEALS
1.

Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston seal


a. Styrene butadiene seal b. Nitrile rubber
c. Flexon rubber
d. Fluoro carbon rubber

COMPOSITE MATERIAL(QB)
1.
Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation
field are
a. Kevlar with carbon / graphite
b. Kevlar with fiber glass
c. Carbon / graphite with fiber glass
d. None of these
2.

The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structure


a. Kevlar 49
b. Kevlar 149
c. Kevlar 29
d. Kevlar 129

3.

The composition for E glass is


a. Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass
b. Lime-alumina borosilicate glass
c. Soda borosilicate glass
d. None of the above

4.

Plexiglass is
a. Thermoplastic
c. Laminated

b. Thermoset
d. None of these

5.

Mark the correct answer:


Apart from strongest adhesive characteristics of epoxy resin, it has other
advantages
a. Useful at very high temperature
b. It withstand bending stress
c. Reasonable rigidity and flexibility
d. All of these
6.
Mark the correct answer:
The advantages of fillers to add to resins are
a. To control viscosity and weight
b. To increase pot life and strength
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
7.

Nomex is a
a. Filler material
c. Reinforced fiber

b. Matrix
d. Core material

8.
Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to
high stress and vibration
a. Fibergalss
b. Aramid
c. Carbon/Graphite
d. None of these

9.
Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of
fiber
a. S glass
b. Hollow fibre glass
c. A
glass
d. Carbon glass
10.

Which composit material is difficult to cut or drill


a. Glass fibre
b. Aramid
c. Carbon / Graphite
d. None of above

11.

Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibre


a. Is used to fabricate primary structure
b. It has high strength and high rigidity
c. It takes compressive load
d. It is ductile in nature

12.
Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to
aluminium
a. A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie
b. Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly
c. Both (a) and (b) will be applied together
d. None of the above
13.

Mark the correct statement


a. Carbon fiber are electrically non conductive
b. Carbon fibers have high thermal expansion
c. Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance

14.

Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of material
a. Titanium
b. Tin
c. Tungsten
d. All above

15.

Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses
a. Ceramic fiber
b. Boron fiber
c. Fiber glass
d. Graphite fiber

16.

Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientation


a. Warp direction is designated at 900
b. Weft is designated at 00
c. Bias is at 450 angle of fill threads
d. None of the above

17.

For repairing of fabric, which weave to be used


a. Plain weave
b. Basket weave
c. Satin weave
d. All of these

18.

In fiber science, which acts as a curing agent


a. Resin
b. Matrix c. Catalyst
d. All of these

19.

aximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional fabric


a) Warp
b) Weft
c) Biased d) Fill

20

hich of the following is the unidirectional fabric style?


a) Mats
b) Tapes
c) Kevlar d) Fiber glass

21.

Thermoplastic material is originally


a) Hard
b) Soft and pliable when exposed to heat
c) It retains the moulded shape when cooled
d) All of these

22.

Remoulding and reshaping cannot be done on


a) Thermosetting plastic
b) Thermoplastic
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these

23.

Plastic should be stored in bins which are tilted at


a) 200
b) 100 c) 150 d) 250

24.

Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are


a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these

25.

With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is
a) Mineral
b) Vegetable
c) Synthetic
d) All of these
a.

26.

Ribbon direction is referred as


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

direction
direction
direction
direction

in
in
in
in

which
which
which
which

honey
honey
honey
honey

comb
comb
comb
comb

structure
structure
structure
structure

can
can
can
can

with stand max load


be cut
be teared(CF-47)
be cut and teared

WELDING(QB)
1.

Hole and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be
taken
a) Re-weld the defective portions
b) Remove all the old weld and re-weld the joint (258)
c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect and re-weld all gaps / holes
d) Can be used in the same way

2.

Which condition indicate a part has cooled too quickly after being welded
a.
Cracking adjacent to the weld (257)
b.
Discoloration of the base metal
c.
Gas pockets and porosity
d.
Slag inclusion

3.

Which of the following material is used for spot welding?


a) Clad alloys
b) 52 S Al-alloy
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these

4.

Which is most suitable for spot welding, in stainless steel?


a) Low-voltage
b) High-amperage
c) Low-voltage and High-amperage
d) High-voltage and Low-amperage

6.

Heat generated in spot welding is measured by


Resistance x (Current)2 x Time
b.
Resistance x Time / (Current)2
c.
(Current)2 / Resistance x Time
d.
Resistance x Current
a.

7.

Spot welding electrodes should be


(a) Good conductor of Electricity
(c) High strength & Hardness

(b) Good conductor of heat


(d) Both (a) & (c)

8.
Oxy acetylene welding process is suitable for joining metal sheets and plates
having thickness of
a) 1 to 30mm
c) 2 to 40mm

b) 2 to 50 mm
d) All of these

9.
In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod is required as a filter metal when welding
is carried out above
a) 15mm

b) 10mm

c) 40mm

d) 5mm

10.

In oxyacetylene welding, neutral flame produces a maximum temperature of


a) 30000F

b) 32000F

c) 32000C

d) 30000C

11.The color of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is


(a) Maroon & Black
(c) Yellow & Black
12.
13.

(b) Black & Maroon


(d) Black & Yellow

Standard colour for oxygen hose is


a) Black
b) Red
c) Green

d) None of these

In gas welding of oxygen and acetylene regulators has


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

left hand thread and right hand thread respectively.


right hand thread and left hand thread respectively.
both have left hand thread.
both have right hand thread.

14.

Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by


a) X-Ray
b) Ultrasonic method
c) Eddy current
d) None of these

15.

After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by


Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes
a.
Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in
b.
water
Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3
c.
Vacuum blasting
d.

16.

Seam welding is
(a) Pressure welding
(c) Electric resistance

(b) Non-pressure welding


(d) Both (a) & (c)

17.In which type of welding, the electrode is non-consumable


(a) TIG
(c) Electric resistance
18

(b) MIG
(d) Oxyacetylene

In leftward welding
(a) Filler rod precedes torch
(b) Torch precedes filler rod
(c) A 60 V is prepared at the end of plate
(d) Both (a) & (c)

19.

The normal solder technique of Al is


a)
b)
c)
d)

20.

similar to that of other material.


differ to control the expansion and contraction of matter.
differ to the extent a low heat input is required.
both (b) & (c) are correct.

Flux is used in wielding of Al alloy for


(a) better penetration
(c) for better fusion

21.

(b) getting rid of oxidation


(d) slow down the flow of molten metal

Flux used in silver soldering is


(a) zinc chloride
(c) sulphuric acid

22.

(b) ortho phospheric acid


(d) all are correct

Rust in steel is removed by


(a) wire brush
(b) emery paper
(c) control sand blasting (d) all

WELDING
1.

The weld is
(a)
(c)

2.

B (double beveled T-joint)

V butt weld
Beveled butt weld

(b)
(d)

U butt weld
T butt weld

In a spot welding a typical defect is :(a)


(c)

3.

porosity
Irregular shape

(b) Crack
d) both B & C (CAIP-6/12-363)

In oxyacetelene welding while shutting off the flame


(a)
(b)
(c)
4.

oxygen is shut out first


acytelene is shut off first (15A-253)
both are shut off simultaneously

Oxyacetelence flame with equal volume of oxygen and acytelene gives


the types of flame as shown :(a)
(c)

carbonizing
neutral (LG/307)

(b) oxidizing
(d) there is no such flame

5 The silver solder metal melts at :-

(a)
(c)

lower than 427 degree cent (15A-261) (b)


300-600 degree cent
1000-2000 degree cent
(d) 850-1200 degree cent

6. A crack may be repaired by :(a)


(c)
7.

but welding(15A-256)
lap welding

(b)

spot welding

Which of the following depicts deficiency in cold welding


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

un sufficient heat
rough and irregular appearance
not feather into the base metal
all are correct

7. Fillet weld is a weld which


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9.

joins the surfaces which are perpendicular to each other


joins the two parts in the same place by clamping
joins the two parts in the same place by overlapping
both A & c are correct. (15A-273)

To obtain clean and good weld


(a) weld may be filled evenly and slowly
(b) filed with solder and brazing metal
(c) none of the above(258)

10.

In brazing, the flame to be used is


(a)
(c)

neutral flame (15A-261)


slightly carbonizing

(b)
(d)

oxidizing flame
any flame

11.

Why it is considered good practice to normalize a part after welding.


(a) to relieve internal stresses developed with in base metal(15A-2).
(b) To introduce a slight amount of carbon to improve the surface
hardness of the weld
(c)To remove the surface scales formed during welding
(d) All are correct

12.

Select the characteristics of a good gas weld


(a) the depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure
fusion of filler rod
(b) the height of weld healed shout be 1/8 above base metal.
(c)The weld should taper off smoothly into base metal(15A-258)
(d) These should be no oxide on the weld.

13.

Flux is used in soldering because


(a) of necessity for having the base metal chemically clean
(b) increase strength (CAIP-6/1-272) (261)

14.
but

In cooler or radiators, where temperature are high, soldering is not done


(a) soldering can be done with approved flux.
inert gas CAIP 6/4-283)
(c)
spot welding

15.

The function of flux in brazing operation is to


(a)
minimize oxidation (CAIP)
(b)
to break the surface tension of filling material
(c)
to flow filler material all round
(d)
to obtain a good union between the base metal and filler metal(261)

16.

Cracks in thick material welding can be checked by


(a) eddy current
(b) dye penetrant
(c)
ultrasound (CAIP-8/3-584)

17.

Weld
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

18.

Flame heating is done


(a)
When hardness is required only for a limited depth of material ST523
(b)
for small part
(c)
both A & B
(d)
None

19.

To prevent solder from running away from the surface to be jointed


(a)
flux is used
(b)
temperature is maintained
(c)
clay is commonly used to surround the area to be jointed.
(d)
All

20.

Braze
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

21.

Which statement is correct


(a)
low temperature brazing is also known as hard soldering or silver
soldering
(b)
silver welding has equal strength of material
(c)
after silver soldering further heat treatment is required
(d)
Both A & B (CAIP-6/2-281)

22.

Welding decay in stainless steel is reduced by


(a)
stainless steel containing titanium GFT-113
(b)
Low temperature
(c)
by reducing heating time

decay can be prevented by


presence of titanium and nycheum
quick heating
both A & B CAIP
low temperature

welding is
known as force welding (bronze welding)
a welding is which base metal is not fuse
a combination of brazing and welding
all CAIP

(d)

all are wrong

23.

Hard soldering (silver soldering is low temperature brazing)


(a)
is done at low temperature brazing
(b)
produces strength equal to parent metal
(c)
both A & B are (CAIP-6/2-281)
(d)
None

24.

Flame is used to heat metal during heat treatment for


(a)
small parts
(b)
where furnace is not available
(c)
heat treatment requirement is not .
(d)
large parts and where a particular area is to be heated.ALSO
CALLED FLAME HARDENING ST-522

25.

Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

26.

To stop solder from flowing, normally


(a) clay is used
(b) flux is used.

27.

28.

the correct statement.


detection welds in thicker material UFD is best.
X-ray best for welds in sheets
both A & B
All (CAIP-8/3-584,8/4-590)

In brazing
(a)
post heat treatment may be carried to relieve stresses (CAIP-6/2294)
(b)
post heat treatment may not be carried to relieve stresses
Precaution in Al welding
(a)
neutral flame is used
(c)
flux is used

(b)
(d)

preheating is needed
all (15A-260).

29.

The normal soldering technique of Al is


(a)
similar to that of the other material
(b)
differ to control the expansion and contraction of the metal (CAIP6/1-280)
(c) Differ to the extent a low heat input is required
(d)
both b & c are correct

30.

Flux is used in welding of AL-alloy is for


(a)
better penetration
(b)
preventing oxidation(15A-260). CAIP
(c)
for better fusion
(d)
slow down the flow of melted metal

31.

Flux used in silver soldering is


(a)
Zinc chloride GFT-244
(c)
Sulphuric acid

(d)

(b) ortho phaspheric acid


All are correct

Most N-weld able material is


(a)
2S
(b) 17 S

(c)

52 S

32.

(d)

53 S

33
34.

Which is preferred in a/c


(a) TIG welding (CAIP-6/5-317)

(b)

The cracks adjust to weld is due to


(a) rapid cooling adjacent J-11-4
(c)
excessive O2H2
(d)

35.

Welding fault can be detected by


(a) Dye penetrant method
(b) Ultrasonic test CAIP
(c)
X-ray
(d) Magnetic particle detection

36.

After welding part must be


(a) hardened
(c)
annealed

MIG welding

(b) excessive O2
all are correct

(b) normalized (9A-211)


(d) tempered

37.

Where high temperature is used for brazing


(a) for high power solder
(b) special type of flux is used
(c)
not used for brazing(15A-2).
(d) none

38.

After welding of butt joint


(a) heat treatment is required as cold working to be done
(b) heat treatment is not necessary as no cold working is to be
performed
(c)
with torch heat heating the welded are only slightly
(d) it is not necessary

39.

Acctylene gas is
(a) colorless
(b) as in (a) and if stored above 15 PSI it becomes highly unstable
(c)
as in (b) and produced by reaction of calcium carbide with water
(d) as in (a) and produces a yellow coloured flame and smoky
flame(15A-248).

40.

For most metals which oxy-acetylene flame is used


(a) neutral flame(15A-252).
(b)
(c)
carburizing flame
(d) None

oxidizing flame

41.

The soldering of al-alloys differs from other metals due to


(a) high heat expansion and contraction
(b) greater heat input (CAIP-6/1-280)
(c) uneven expansion and contraction
(d) all

42.

Aircraft structural is welded by


(a) butt welding
(b)
(c)
butt and spot welding (d)

spot welding & sea welding


spot welding(15A-247).

43.

Pressure of gas on acetylene welding is depend upon


(a) area of welding surface
(b) type of material being welded(15A-2).
(c)
as the welder will want
(d) none

44.

Flux used in welding for the purpose of :(a)


(c)
(d)

45.

Prevent Oxidation (b) To flow filling material all around


Break the surface tension of the filling material.
All are correct (CAIP-6/2-283

The function of flux is


(i)
to dissolve oxides
(ii)
as (i) and to increase surface tension of the molten filler alloy
(iii) as (i) and to decrease surface tension of the molten filler alloy
(CAIP-6/2-283)
(iv) None

46.

Flux residue after brazing


(i)
Can be neutralized with suitable chemicals
(ii)
Cant be neutralized
(iii) As (ii) and should be removed either mechanically or chemically
(CAIP-6/2-289)
(iv) None

47. While Gas welding stainless steel if an excess of oxygen is used the metal
will bubble :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
48.

Weld
Weld
Weld
Weld

will
will
will
will

be stronger
be porous(CAIP-6/4-304)
have crators
have no adhesion

Electric arc welded material is subject to carbide precipitation and :


(i)
(iii)

Inter crystalline corrosionGFT-107 (ii)


Surface corrosion
Stress corrosion
(iv) Fretting Corrosion

49. In order to remove all traces of flux from the joint the finished work is
washed with a solutions of : 10% OF NITRIC ACID IN WATER FOR 20 MIN
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

3 parts of nitric acid and in 1 part of water


1 Part Nitric acid and in 3 parts of water
1 Part of hydrochloric acid and 3 parts of water
None of the above Please recheck this

50.

Welding flux resulting from gas welding should be removed by


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

51.

Chrome pickling
Etching for 10 seconds with a 10 to 50 % solution of acctic acid
As in (i) and boiling in a dichromate solution
Any of the above

In welding stainless steel, the filler rod dia should be


(i)
More than the thickness of the material being welded
(ii)
Lesser than the thickness of the material being welded
(iii) Same as the thickness of the material being welded
(iv) As in (iii) and welding rod should also be of composition simillar to
the welded material GFT-106

52.

Inconel welds should be cleaned after fabrication by immersing in a:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

53.

For welding monel, flame used is :


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

54.

Oxidising
Slightly Reducing GFT 132
Neutral
Can not be gas welded

Slightly reducing flame is often used in welding


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

55.

50% sulphuric acid solution


50% cold nitric acid solution
As in (ii) and for 5 to 10 minutes GFT-128
As in (i) and for 10 to 20 minutes

SAE 2330 steel


4130 steel
Corrosion resisting steel OR STAINLESS STEEL 15A 259
SAE to 1025 steel

Welding rod dia should be approximately


(i)
1/3 more to the thickness of the metal being welded
(ii)
Always should be of lesser dia than the thickness of the metal being
welded
(iii) Equal to the thickness of the thickest that being welded
(iv) Equal to the thickness of the metal being welding GFT 106

56.

The flux used in brazing:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Two parts of borax and one part of nitric acid


One part of boric acid and one part of water
Borax only
Two parts of borax and one part of boric acid(15A-261).

57.

The function of flux is


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

58.

to dissolve oxides(15A-2).
as (i) and to increase surface tension of the molten filler alloy
flux will decide the composition of filler rod
None

Mark the correct statement


(i)
Filler rods are made of the same material composition as the metal
to be welded GFT -168
(ii)
As (i) but there are exceptions with Aluminum alloys that may lead
to crack
(iii) Flux will decide the composition of filler rod
(iv) None

59.

Cracks at the surface should be welded by


(i)
(iii)

60.

(iv)

(ii)
Filleft welding
As in (i) and (iii)

The depth of fusion in a weld is known as :


(i)
(iii)

61.

Butt welding 15A-256


lap welding

Identation
Penetration 9A-486

(ii)

Precipitation
(iv) None

(ii)
(iv)

Insufficient heat 9A 487


Oxidizing flame

Cold laps in weld caused by:


(i)
(iii)

Excessive heat
Carborizing flow

62. Edge notching is recommended in alluminium welding because it aids in


getting:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
63.

MIG welding is a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

66.

Full penetration and also prevents local distortion 15A-261


Prevents from oxidation
Prevents from back firing and flash back
All are correct

Automatic gas welding


Semi automatic inert gas welding 15A-269
Automatic arc welding
Semi automatic arc welding

In inert gas arc welding, Inert gas is used


(i)
(iii)
(iv)

To stable the arc


(ii)
To keep weld lead stable
To produce temperature
To protect the melt metal from oxidation 15A-267

67.

Nitrided parts can be successfully welded by :


(i)
(iii)

69.

Gas welding
Inert gas welding

(ii)
(iv)

Arc welding
Spot welding GFT-77

Magnesium alloys can be gas welded


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

By using oxidizing flame


By using neutral flame
By using slightly reducing flame
(ii) and (iii) are correct 15A -262

70. To relieve the internal stresses and refine the grain all welded parts
should be :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
71.

Colour of oxygen and accytelene hose is (GREEN AND MAROON)


(i)
(iii)

72.

TIG

(ii)

Arc

(iii)

MIG (iv)

Oxy-acetylene

Crack adjacent to the weld J-11-4


Distortion of the base metal
Excess amount of pudding
All are correct

Bucking bars are widely used with automatic T I C welding and seve to
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

76.

Multi spot welding process


Continuous spot welding process GFT-240
Used to form mesh
Used for welding cylindrical objects

When a welded joint cools too quickly it will show


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

75.

(iv)

(ii)
Red & Green
Maroon & Black

Grey cast iron is best welded by


(i)

74.

Black & Red 15A-251


Green and Black

Seam welding is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

73.

Annealed after fabrication


Normalized after fabrication CAIP 6/4-306
Tempered before fabrication
No heat treatment to be given

Prevent corrosion
Prevent oxidation
Minimise distortion and to control penetration CAIP-615-323
None of the above

A welding defect porosity is caused due to :

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Selection of wrong electrode


Moisture in the flux
Too low welding speed
Excessive heat

77.

Mark the correct statement regarding arc welding:(i)


When breaking the arc the arc should be made as short as possible
and circular motion should be made in the center of the weld
(ii)
As (I) and arc should be broken slowly to avoid formation of craters
of porosity
(iii) As (I) but circular motion should be made in the welding pool and
terminating at the center of the weld CAIP-6/5-314
(iv) As 2 and to recommence welding, the arc should be struck at the
end of previous run, going back over the tail rather quickly and the
welding in the usual way

78.

Non corrodible and heat resisting austenitic stainless steels before brazing
to be picked in a solution of
(i)
Sulphuric and chromic acid
(ii)
Hydrofluoric and Sulphuric acid
(iii) Hydrofluoric acid ferric sulphate and water CAIP-6/2-284
(iv) Any of the above

79.

The oxyacetylene welding process should not normally be used for


welding
(i)
Magnesium alloys
(ii)
SAEH130
(iii) High nickel alloys
(iv) As in 1 & 3 and stainless steel 15A-260 CAIP-6/4-296
INERT GAS AND PLASMA ARC WELDING IS ALSO SUITABLE
80.

Welding gas cylinders should be stored in well ventilated rooms in the


(i)
Lying position
(ii)
Upright position
(iii) If standing in the open should be protected from extremes of
temperature
(iv) 2 & 3 and also should not be placed on wet soils CAIP-6/4-297

81.

When acetylene gas generators are in use a daily check for acertaining
purity is necessary, a bloating paper soaked in a 10% aquous solution of
silver nitrate should show
(i)
Darkening when placed in the gas stream
(ii)
No darkening when placed in the gas stream CAIP-6/4-297
(iii) Changing colour to blue
(iv) Changing colour to pink

82.

Welding filler rods should be stored in a warm dry atmosphere to prevent


the pick up of
(i)
Moisture CAIP-6/4-298
(ii)
UPRIGHT POSITION
(iii) As in 1 which can cause porosity in weld
(iv) As in 2 which caused pour weld

83.

In welding damp flux will cause


(i)
Corrosion in weld
(ii)
Porosity in weld CAIP-6/4-298
(iii) Crator in weld
(iv) Improper fusion

84.

Cleaning surfaces for welding , all scale, grease, dirt or other extraneous
matter should be removal from each side of the edges for min. distance of
(i)
25 mm OR I INCH CAIP-6/4-300
(ii)
50 mm
(iii) As in 1 and 1
(iv) 1.5
Welding jigs should be fairly rigid but not so rigid that the parts becomes
stressed
(i)
During cooling
(ii)
During expansion and contraction of the parts
(iii) During welding
(iv) 1 & 2 are correct CAIP-6/4-301

85.

86.

When butt welding sheets and jigs are not available , distortion can be
considerably reduced
(i)
If the joints lack welded
(ii)
If temperature is not allowed to exceed 500C

If edge notching is carried out (15A-261)


(iv) None of the above

87.

The oxyacetylene welding process is used mainly for all alloys sheets
which is approximately
(i)
Greater than 14 S.W.G.
(ii)
Lesser than 14 S.W.G. 2mm
(iii) Sheets of greater thickness are normally welled by the inert gas
welding process
(iv) 2 & 3 are correct CAIP-6/4-302

88.

Before welding to minimize the possibility of cracking and to reduce the


effects of expansion sheet metal should be
(i)
Cooled down
(ii)
Fixed in jigs
(iii) Pre-heated by playing the flame over the joint area before welding
CAIP 6/4-303
(iv) Tacked

89.

When starting to weld the two joint edges


(i)
Should not begin to weld before the filler rod is added
(ii)
Should begin to melt before the filler rod is added CAIP-6/4-303
(iii) Should begin to weld along the filler rod when added
(iv)
None of the above

90.

The blow pipe and welding rod should be held at angles of about

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

30
45
60
75

and
and
and
and

60
75
30
45

respectively
respectively
respectively CAIP-6/4-304
respectively

91.

In welding corrosion resisting steels excessive oxygen will produce a


porous weld and while excessive acetylene will produce a
(i)
Brittle weld GFT-106
(ii)
Brittle as weld as porous weld
(iii) Burnt joint
(iv) Stronger joint

92.

After welding flux can be removed from ferrous parts by immersing them
in
(i)
Icy water for a period of not less than 20 minutes
(ii)
Boiling water for a period of not less than 30 minutes water being
changed frequently CAIP-6/4-304
(iii) Bath of salphuric acid
(iv) Solution of hydrofluoric acid ferric sulphate and water

93.

The arc which is shrouded in an inert gas is struck between a non


consumable tungsten electrode and the parts to be welded in known as
(i)
T.I.G. welding(15A-267).
(ii)
M.I.C. welding
(iii) Spot welding
(iv) Seem welding

94.

Nickel alloys should be annealed prior to welding in order to avoid


(i)
Corrosion
(ii)
Buckling CAIP-6/5-310
(iii) Brittle
(iv) None of the above

95.

Cylinders containing argon are painted


(i)
Blue CAIP-6/5-318
(ii)
Maroon
(iii) Green
(iv) 1 & 3 are correct

96.

Bucking bars are widely used with automatic T.I.C. welding and serve to
(i)
Prevent corrosion
(ii)
Prevent oxidation
(iii) Minimize distortion and to control penetrationCAIP-6/5-323
(iv) None of the above

97.

After cleaning the completed weld should be examined


(i)
The area surrounding the weld should be examined
(ii)
For dimensions of the weld for correctness
(iii) For satisfactory fusion between weld and parent weld
(iv) 1,2,3 and weld should be free from porosity scale stag or burn
marks CAIP-6/5-326

98.

Excessive spacing in spot weld would result in the joint as a


(i)
Whole being strong
(ii)
whole being weak CAIP-6/12-349
(iii) Less airtight
(iv) 2 & 3 are correct

99.

In spot welding the joining of more than three sheets together would
resultion
(i)
weak welds CAIP-6/12-350
(ii)
Very strong weld
(iii) As in 1 and solutions attempted
(iv) None of the above

100. Surface cracking in spot welding occurs


(i)
Due to excessive welding current
(ii)
In sufficient forging time or pressure too low
(iii) Due to excessive heating and rapid cooling
INADEQUATE SURFACE PENETRATION
(iv) All of the above CAIP-6/12-363
101. Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action
should be taken ?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Reweld the defective portions.


Remove all the old weld and reweld the joint. J-11-4
Remove the flax residues.
Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect and reweld all gaps/ holes.

102. One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on


the base metal at a distance from the weld of more than
(i)
103. Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

inch J-11-3

(ii)

1 inch

(iii)

1 inch

(iv)

inch

the correct statement


lap joint is best for oxy-acetylene welding
single lap joint is resistance to shearing
single lap joint is resistant to bending
all of the above are wrong (15A-257).

104. Silver soldering is used to solder the metals that fuse at temperature of :
(i)
(iii)

1000F GFT-243
1800F

(ii)
(iv)

1400F
2000F

105. In order to remove all traces of flux from the joint the finished work is
washed with a solution of :
(i)

3 Parts of nitric acid and in 1 part of water

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

1 Part Nitric acid and in 3 parts of water


1 Part of hydrochloric acid and 3 parts of water
None of the above

106. The silver soldering is done at


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

200 degree C to 400 degree C


500 degree C to 850 degree C
1000 degree C to 1600 degree C
600 degree C to 850 degree C CAIP-6/2-281

107. Flux residue may be removed from Al alloy brazed joints


(a)
C for
(b)

(d)

wash in a solution of 10% nitric acid in water at a temperature of 60


20 minutes CAIP-6/2-289
wash in a solution of chronic acid maintained at a temp of 10C
Wash in a solution of sulphuric acid and sodium dichromate
Any of the above

108. Brazing of alloys containing more than 2% Mg


(i)
is not recommended
(ii)
As in (i) and because of the difficulty of removing the oxide film
CAIP-6/2-290
(iii) is recommended
(iv) As in (iii) as it helps in stronger joint
110. Ultrasonic brazing is used for
(b)
(ii)
(iii)

Honey comb structure


Alluminium alloy CAIP-6/1-280
Zinc

111. Which type of brazing is used for prcised localized parts


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Furnace blazing CAIP-6/2-286


Resistance brazing
Torch brazing

112. The best results are obtained in brazed joint provided the gap in joint is
kept
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

0.05mm to 0.1mm
0.1mm to 1.5 mm
0.002 to 0.004
1& 3 are correct CAIP-6/2-285

113. Forged parts are :


(i)
Not of a good quality than rolled
(ii)
Not of a good quality then cast parts
(iii) Are of a good quality than rolled parts

(iv)

Are not used in the aircraft

114. Silver brazing temperature


(i)
505 c to 850c
(ii)
600c to 800c CAIP-6/2-281 850 DEGREES
(iii) 900c to 950c
(iv) 1500F to 2000F
115. The soldering of aluminum with aluminum solder and a suitable flux is
possible and is sometimes used for radio and instrument assemblies but is
not normally permitted.
(i)
For electrical assemblies
(ii)
For other aircraft purposes
(iii) For aero engines
(iv) None of the above
116. Before an iron can be used for soldering the bit must be
(i)
Cleaned with 0 emery paper
(ii)
Ground
(iii) Tinned
(iv) As in (iii) the tip of the bit should be filed to remove dirt and rough
edges CAIP-6/1-274
117. Irrespective of the nature of the flame used for heating the soldering iron
some oxides will form on the bit these should be removed by
(i)
Dipping the tip in a cleaning solution after the completion of job
(ii)
Dipping the tip is to a cleaning solution each time it is removed from
the flame
(iii) Dipping the tip in a clearing solution made by mixing one pound of
melted sal ammoniac with one pint of distilled water
(iv) 2 & 3 are correct CAIP-6/1-275
118. After soldering the joints should be wiped clean and thoroughly washed in
hot water. Before washing be cleaned with a
(i)
A thorough washing in spirit solvent should preculy the acid bath on
such applications where paste flux asaneam
(ii)
Spirit solvent such as petrol or industrial methylated spirit if paste
fluxes used CAIP-6/1-276
(iii) Hydrochloric acid solution preferably with a suitable wetting agent
additive if zinc chloride fluxes lased
(iv) All are correct
119. Aluminum alloy when soldered expands more than must materials
requires
(i)
Light jigging
(ii)
As in 1 which will allow the parts to expand and contract should be
used when meaisary CAIP-6/1-280
(iii) Template to avoid expansion and contraction
(iv) Material being soldered to be tacked

120. A joint clearance which will allow the solder to fill the gap by capillary
action and give max. strength the clearance should be
(i)
.002 to .004
(ii)
As in 1 and may be .05mm to 0.1 mm CAIP 6/1-280
(iii) .004 to .006
(iv) As in 3 and may be 0.1mm to 0.15 mm
121. The strength of a joint brazed with silver brazing alloy if properly designed
is often equal to the strength of
(i)
The material joined CAIP-6/2-281
(ii)
Welding
(iii) Pivetting joint
(iv) None of the above
122. The strength and efficiency of brazed joints depend on a number of
factors including the
(i)
Design of the joint
(ii)
Cleanliness of the surface to be joined
(iii) The method of applying the process
(iv) 1,2,3 & composition of the materials to be brazed CAIP-6/2-281
123. Flux should be removed from parts by washing in hot water, washing
should not be carried out while the parts are
(i)
Still in a light jigging
(ii)
Still hot from brazing CAIP-6/2-282
(iii) Still on the soldering table
(iv) None of the above
124. The area to be brazed may be prepared by aluminum blasting or by
brushing with a wire brash or sand shot blasting when a blasting process
is used
(i)
The material should be brazed as soon as possible after blasting
CAIP-6/2-284
(ii)
The material to be washed in hot water
(iii) The material should not be braze within 24 hrs after this process
(iv) None of the above
125. Brazing often used where precisely localized heating is required to prvent
loss of mechanical properties through out the parent metal this brazing
known as
(i)
Furnace brazing
(ii)
Torch brazing
(iii) Resistance brazing CAIP-6/2-286
(iv) Induction brazing
126. Flame produced by an excess of acetylene in proportion to oxygen giving
a furry edge to the inner flame is known as
(i)
Oxdiging flame
(ii)
Carbonizing flame
(iii) Neutral flame
(iv) As in 2 also known as reducing flame CAIP-6/2-288

127. The brazing of alloy is not recommended because of the difficulty of


removing the oxide film containing
(i)
More than 2% magnesium CAIP-6/2-290
(ii)
More than 2% silicon
(iii) More then 5% manganese
(iii)
More than 5% magnesium
128. The main advantages of using a furnace for brazing are, that :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

high rates of o/p can be achieved


as (i) and uniform result obtained
as (ii) and an inert or reducing atmosphere used to prevent oxides
as (iii) and particularly suitable for large batches of large articles

129. Argon cylinders should not be used if the pressure is less than
a. 20 lbf/in
b. 30 lbf/in
c. 10 lbf/in

d. None

NOT KNOWN
1.

TERSIL stands for


(i)
(iii)

2.

Tinned copper
Ni plated

(ii)
(iv)

Cd plated
2+3

When hydraulic fluid lines and electrical line is passing through same
portion of a/c then
(a) hoses should be fitted above the wires and should be secured to a/c
structure
(b) Electrical wire should be fitted above and be secure to a/c structure
(c)
A minimum of 4-distance should be maintained between
two and any of two can be unstable above
(d) Either of wire can be installed above and minimum of

3.

Which statement is correct


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

tank inserted into handle is knows as safe edge


when filling is done use lubricant
blade is made of steel and is not heat treated
none

4. Tubular members are protected


a) Internally and externally
b) Internally during assembly and sealed to prevent
accumulation of moisture.
c) Ultrasonic and Radiological method gives indication of
reduction of thickness during inspection
d) All of these
5.

Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane


of articulation through
(a) 120

6.

31.

(b) 90

(c) 180

(d) None

For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement


a)
b)
c)
d)

Every third inner plate is extended in one direction


Every second outer plate is extended in one direction
Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction
All are wrong

The shot peening process consists of : GFT 81


(i)
(ii)

Throwing hardened steel balls at the surface of the work


Throwing sand under Pr. To the surface of the work

(iii)
(iv)

Throwing speed under Pr. For the surface of the work


It is the process of cleaning the files

QUESTIONS.
1.
When it is necessary to use electrical connectors where they may be
exposed to moisture.
= Use a special type of moisture proof connector.
2.

When joining electrical connectors they should be connected by


=
Hand only.

3.

It is best to set the voltage regulator


=
When engine is warmed up.

4.

High tension ignition wires are checked for current leakage with
=
Hardness tester

5.
The wheat stone bridge utilize in a particular type of oil temperature
gauge. It is an electrical device for measuring electrical resistances and in this
instance the resistance of wire bridge.
=
Increase with rise in oil temperature
6.
to

The use of small bundles of wire in a/c electrical system is desirable due
=

Better flexibility

7.

The Al cable must be numbers smaller than the copper cable


=
As the size no get smaller the cable itself is larger

8.

The purpose of sepecial washers on electrical terminals is


=
To better contact and locking purpose

9.

When electrical cables or bundles are exposed to high temp.


=
The size of the cable or bundle will increase

10.

The material used is bounding the a/c should be


=
The same material as the bounded surfaces

11. If the generator output were fluctuating how would you place a resistor in
the line to settle out the fluctuations
=
In series with the generator
12.
13.

In most aircraft lighting circuits are


=
In parallel to each other
As the temperature of a wire increases the current carrying capacity
=
decreases

14.

What do you use to excite an alternator


=
DC generator exciter

15.

The internal resistance of a battery depends on


=
Area of the plate

16.

You are about to paint a battery compartment the point should be


=
Acid resistance paint

17.

A growler may be used to check


=
Faulty insulation shorts in a generator commutator

18.

Frequency = No of poles/2 X RPM/60 = PN/120

19. When an a/c is in flight the cabin bater?? combustion motor get its power
from the
=
battery
20.

Landing lights are hooked upto the main line because


=
High amperage is required.

21.

Two preferred locations for VOR antenna are


=
Top of tail section and top forward of the fuselage.

22.

The heat extinguishing agent for electrical fires is


=
Carbon di-oxide

23.

A generator field can be flashed by


=
Closing the contact point

24.
as

The type of control switch used for a retractable landing light is described
=

25.

A single pole double throw (SPDT)

The term spaghells in electrical installation describes as


=
The plastic tubing used to cover electrical wires and terminals

26. The voltage regulator has a broken wire in the coil under this
circumstances you will obtain
= Zero voltage
27.

When putting in a storage battery you should install


=
The +ve lead first

28.

Circuit breakers are located


=
close to the power source

29.

Generator voltage causes the points of a reverse current relay


=
to close

30.

Which type of winding used in electric starter motor


=
Series circuit of heavy wire

31.

The vibrator type voltage regulator has


=
Many turns of fine wire

32. During the operation of a four engine aircraft which of the following
generator control are available to the pilot

Each of the four generators has a switch that is in series


with each generator field

33.

The freezing of fully charged batteries is greatly reduced owing to


=
The very low freezing point to the acid solution of the charged
batter.
34. During flight all the gear down lock indicator lights burn out. How would
this affect the gear warning born system.
=
It would have no effect
35. You are about to install some parachute flares before actual installation
you should.
=
Turn both the master switches and flare switch to the off- position.
36.
will

During flight when more electrical power is needed the generator voltage
=

37.

remain at a constant voltage however the current flow will increase

Excessive resistance at high current . Should be determined by


=
A milivolt drop

38. The tensile strength of the cable to terminal joints should be at least
equivalent to
=
The tensile strength of the cable itself
39. When frequent disconnections are required in the electrical system, the
mechanic should use in order to facilitate maintenance
=
Connectors (plugs and receptacles)
40.

Soldered electric splices should not be used because they are


=
Particularly brittle

41. Electric wiring that offers the advantages of case of installation, simple
maintenance and reduce weight is known as
=
Open wiring method
42. Junction boxes should be mounted with the open side facing downward,
this arrangement permits
=
Loose metallic objects, such as washers bolts etc to fall out of the
box and prevent possible short circuits
43. An arcing fault between an electric cable and a metallic flammable. Fluid
line may puncture the line and result in a serious fire, when separation is
impracticable, the electrical cable should
=
Be places over flammable fluid line and securely clamped to the
structure
44.

Junction boxes should be proved with


=
Adequate drain holes

45.

One of the most common used of rheostats is to vary the

Intensity of the tight throughout the aero plane

46.

Wheat stone bridge


=
When bridge is balanced. Current will zero.

47.

After annealing component is cooled in


=
Furnace itself and s/w off the heating source

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1.

a)
What is the purpose of circuit breakers & lines ? What is the
property of fuse?
(b) What is the purpose of self locking nut? Describe any three types of
self locking nut.
(c)
What are the chemical treatment applicable of Aluninium.

3.

a)
What is the purpose constant voltage & current charging method?
Why they are used?
(b) Write down truth table for NAND & NOR gates along with a neat
sktch?
Why they are called univers.
(c)
What are the chemical treatment applicable for Aluminum.

4.

(a) What is corrosion?


Describe its control and types.
(b) What are the inspections to be carried out on turnbuckle and what
is the
Precaution during turnbuckle installation.
(c)
Describe various types of calipers.
(d) What are the different types of turbine engines used in a/c.

5.

a)
What do you mean by impedance Calculate the impendance of the
given circuit and current flow in the gird.
(b) What are the six special inspection to be carried out on airframe as
well as engine.
(c)
Show with a neat diagram, Flexible extra flexible and on flexible
cables.
a)
Name the various parts of the micromenter & calculate its least
count in inch.
b)
What is the angle of attack and what are its effects on lift and drag.
(c)
Name the various instruments used for checking the performance of
piston engine.
(d) Describe the principle of NDT by ECL.

6.

HT
1.
2.

For commercial annealing cooling is done in


(a)
Furnace
(b) Air
(c)
Mica (d)

both

A&B

Liquid quenching caused


(a) cold water quenching does minimize distortion and eliminate cracks.

(b) hot water quenching does minimize distortion and eliminate


cracks.9A 212
(c)
hardness of the surface with brittleness..
(d) All
3.

Temperature of work in a furnace can be measured by


(a) thermistor
(b) pyrometer
(c)
color of work
(d) thermocouple

4.

How
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

long piece of steel is left in a furnace for soaking.


For long enough to ensure a good even heat throughout
For 2 hrs for per cubic inch of piece
one hour for each square inch of cross section area.
Both A & C

5.
Seak often forms on the surface of the metal and dirt blocked on it
.. by
(a)
Steel wire brush
(b) sand blasting
(c)
scrap
(d) All
6.

The heat of the furnace can be controlled on regulated by


(a)
watching the color of the furnace
(b)
pyrometer
(c)
thermo meter
(d)
all

7.

What is the work of catalyst ?


(a)
as curing agent J7-22 (b)
(c)
mixed with resin
(d)

as hardener
all are correct

8.

Annealing is done on heat treatable parts to


(a) relief internal stresses set up during cold working
(b) as in (a) and harden the metal
(c)
as in (a) and soften the metal
(d) none of the above

9.

Heat treated parts having bake-dirt and scale can be leased


(a)
wire brush
(b) scraping
(c)
sand blasting gft--240
(d) all

10.

The soaking time varies as


(a)
till alloy uniformly heated
(c)
1 hr/unit c.s. area

(b)
(d)

11.

Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

the correct statement


T4 solution heat treatment
T5 solution heat treatment
T6 solution heat treatment
Both A & C 9A 200

12.

Monel is
(a) heat treatable and non heat treatable

2 hrs/unit volume
none

(b)
(c)
(d)

non heat treatable


magnetic
as in B and weldable 9A 203

13.

Titanium is heat treated for


(a) relief of stresses set up during cold working
(b) proved maximum durability
(c)
thermal hardening to improve strength
(d) all are correct

14.

Titanium is heat treated by


(a) normalizing
(c)
Case hardening

(b)
(d)

full annealing
All

15.

Titanium is heat treated for following purpose


(a)
Thermal hardening to improve strength
(b)
annealing offer hot working and cold working to provide maximum
durability for subsequent cold working.
(c)
Both a & b
(d)
None

16.

Which hardening heating (hardness) as best suitable for sleep and alloy
(a) Brinell and Bareol
(b) Brinell and Rockwell
(c)
thermal hardening to improve strength
(d) all are correct

17. Improve tensile strength, ductility and sleek (shock) resistance of Mg


alloy casting are normally
(a) Case hardened
(b) s0lution heat treatment
(c)
none
18. What
it has been
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

is the descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after


annealed
Rapid cooling high strength
Rapid cooling low strength
slow cooling low strength GFT 48
slow cooling (high strength) and increasing resistance to wear

19.

Al-alloy can be heat treated by


(a) solution heat treatment
(b) precipitation heat treatment
(c)
artificial aging indicated with W
(d) both (a) & (b)9A 212

20.

Heat treated defect in metal is detected by


(a) ultrasonic test
(b) eddy current testing
(c)
dye penetrant testing
(d) radiography testing

21.

Heated treated and non heat treated metal is distinguished by


(a) magnetic particle inspection
(b) eddy current test

(c)

dye penetrant inspection

(d)

22.

Maximum bending in case of copper . Is


(a) three times to internal diameter
(b) six times to internal diameter
(c)
nine times to internal diameter
(d) twelve times to internal diameter

23.

Pickling of steel is carried out in


(a) H2SO4
(b) Muriatic acid

(c)

ultrasonic test

all

(d)

24.

Re-heating is done to
(a) remove strain and stresses
(b) remove effect of heat treatment
(c)
remove hardness and brittleness
(d) none

25.

In 7075 - 0 indicates
(a) annealed
(c)
solution IIT

(b)
(d)

strain hardened
None

Normalizing is applicable to
(a) cu-alloys
(c)
Ferrous alloy only

(b)
(d)

Al-alloy
Ferrous alloy only

26.

27.

Freating the parts in anhydrous ammonia is


(a) carburizing
(b) nitriding
(c)
cyaniding
(d) normalizing

28.

In artificial ageing hardening is done at


(a) moderate temperature
(b)
(c)
critical temperature
(d)

None

room temperature
none

29.

Mark the correct statement.


(a) Hot water quenching minimizes distortion and alleviates crack

30.

High
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

31.

Purpose of heat treatment of titanium is


(c)thermal hardening to improve strength
(d) annealing for subsequent working
(c)
relieve stresses
(d) all of the above

heat of al-sheet from fire causes


Increase ductility
Decrease ductility
Increase resistance
None (increase, conductance)

32.

Embrittelment in steel is reduced by


(a) beating the steel at 150 deg-200 deg C (tempering)
(b) increasing the carbon percentage
(c)
by annealing
(d) none

33.

Mark
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

the correct statement regarding monel


it can not hardened by heat treatment
it can be hardened by heat treatment
either a & b
none of the above

34. To improve tensile strength ,durability ,shock resistance, Mg casting are


normally
(a) SITT
(b) PITT
(c)
Annealing (d) None
35.

Metalizing is the process of


(a) rolling pure Al layer on Al alloy surface
(b) Ni and cad plating on steel
(c)
By spraying Ni cad on steel with oxy-accetylene torch GFT257
(d) all

36.

After
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

37.

When the time between soaking and quenching increases, then


(a) hardness increases
(b) softer the metal
(c)
re-precipitation takes place
(d) tensile strength increase

38.

The heat conductivity of a metal depends upon


(a) Heat treatment
(b) alloy in the material
(c)
tensile strength/hardness
(d) all are correct

39.

For maximum elongation ductility.Mg-alloy is


(a) solution heat treatment 9A 216
(b) casted
(c)
precipitation heat treatment
(d) None

40.

Nickel in steel increases


(a) hardness
(c)
clastic limit

41.

heat treatment tempering is done to


reduce brittleness and ductility
increase brittleness and ductility
increase hardness and strength
increase hardness only

(b)
(d)

yield strength
None of these

Mark the correct statement


(a) brinell hardness is the dia of ball
(b) lesser the rock well No, softer the material

(c)
(d)

more the Rockwell No, softer the material


none

42.

When the time b/w soaking and quenching increases


(a) hardness increases
(b) softer the material

43.

Pot life and shelf life


(a) pot life is related to mixed resin mixture while shelf life is related to
resin and hardened individually
(b) (a) if catalyst is mixed in less amount, then it will increase pot life
but reducing curing properties
(c)
both a & b
(d) none

44. End of steel bar sometimes painted in various colors and color
combination as a mean of identifying different grade of steel
(a) solid colors identify the alloy and strips identify the carbon contents
(b) strips identify the alloy and solid colors identify the carbon
content
(c)
both a & b
(d) none of the above
45.

Steel has fine grain structure when


(a) When heated above the critical temperature
(b) when heated below the critical temperature

46.

PARKETON is used for protection of


(a) steel
(b) numinium
(c)
Mg
(d) as in (a) & cable

47.

Color code of 2024 Al-alloy tubing is


(a) White
(b) green
(c)

red

(d)

After cyaniding quenching is done in


(a) water
(b) brine
(c)

oil

(d) both A & B

48.

49.

Heat
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

black

treatment of N-alloy is carried out by


solution heat treatment
solution and precipitation HT
age hardening
all

50. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as:
(i)
(iii)

Annealing
Tempering

(ii)
(iv)

Normalising
Hardening

51. Immersion of the heated metal in a liquid either in oil, brine or water to
accelerate cooling is termed as :
(i)
(iii)

Dipping
Carbonizing

(ii)
(iv)

Quenching
Refining

52. The process of reheating the hardened steel to a temperature below


critical point and cooling is known as :
(i)
Normalizing
(ii)
Tempering
(iii) Drawing
(iv) (ii) & (iii) are correct
53. Heat treatment which relieves the strains in hardened steel, decreases the
brittleness and restores ductility is :
(i)
Normalizing
(iii) Tempering
GFT52also
54.

(ii)
(iv)

Annealing
As
in
(iii)

and

drawing

Soaking period for tempering


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

30 minutes to 1 hourGFT52
1 hour to 1.30 hour
As in (i) and depending on the thickness of the material
As in (ii) and depending on the thickness of the material

55. Nitriding operation Consists of heating the steel to 950 F in the presence
of ammonia gas for
(i)
(iii)

56.

From 10 to 30 hrs
From 20 to 100 hrs GFT77

(ii)

From 20 to 50 hrs
(iv) None of the above

Precipitation heat treatment consists of


(i)
Aging material previously subject to solution heat treatment
(ii)
Holding the material at elevated temperature for quite a long period
of time
(iii) Alloying constituents in sold solution prvecipitate out.
(iv) All are correct

57

2024 Rivets age hardens:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

58.

within one hour


within 30 minutes
within 20 minutes
None of the above

Rivets may be reheat treated:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
59.

The heat treatable alloys can not be welded by:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

60.

Not more than 15 time


Any number of times
Re heat treatment is prohibited
Aluminum rivets do not require any heat treatment

Oxy acetylene torch


Argon Arc welding
As in (i) without destroying their mechanical properties
As in (ii) without destroying their mechanical properties

Brinelling is

(i)
a hardness test J
(ii)
Lateral defects
(iii) Logitudinal defects
(iv) Lateral defects and defects at 45 degree angle with the axi
OCCERANCE OF SPHERACAL DEPRESSIONS IN A SURFACE PRODUCED BY PART
HAVING SMALL RADIUS IN CONTACT WITH SURFACE UNDER HIGH LOAD.15A
130
61.

Granodizing:
(i)
It is identical to Parkerizing except from fail that the solution is of
iron fillings and phosphoric acid:
(ii)
As in (i) and process is completing in 3 to 5 minutes
(iii) Is carried in a 15% solution of potassium dichromate
(iv) It is an Electro plating process by which zinc phosphate is deposited
on the surfaces treated.GFT256

62.

63.

Temper designation for solution heat treated cold worked and then
artificially aged the letter is :
(i)
T4
(ii)
T6
(iii) T8 J7-9
(iv) T10
During anneaaling, soaking time is approximately:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

64.

30 minutes per inch thickness


2 hrs for per inch thickness
1 hour for per inch thickness
Not specified

Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy. The soaking time ranges from
(i)
10 to 18 hours (ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in (i) and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness 9A 217
(iv)
None of the above

65.

Precipitation heat treatment temperature ranges from


(i)

25 to 325 degree F

(ii)

325 TO 500 degree F9A217

(iii)

325 to 600 degree F

(iv)

500 to 725 degree F

66. the temper designation consist of a letter indicating temper in addition the
or more limits. The stain hardened stabilized denoted by ;
(i) H (ii)

H1

(iii)

H2

(iv)

H3 9A200

67. The temper designation consists of a letter indicating temper. The letter O
indicates

68.

(i)

As fabricated

(iii)

Strain hardened (iv)

ANNEALED
Stain hardened and partially annealed

Al alloys are heat treated artificially age hardened only denoted as


(i)

69.

(ii)

T3

(ii)

T4

(iii)

T5

(iv)

T9

Artificially aged and then cold worked Al alloy are denoted as


(i)

T10

(ii)

T8

(iii)

T6

(iv)T4

70. Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still
air this process is known as :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Annealing
Normalising
Tempering
Hardening

71. The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding
torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
72.

Spherodizing
Normalizing
Shop annealing GFT48
Annealing

When tabular parts are quenched they should be Immersed the


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Long axis vertical to reduce war page


Lateral axis horizontally to reduce war page
One end blocked
Both the end closed

73. Some aluminum alloys develop their full properties as a result of solution
heat treatment followed by :
(i)
(iii)

Quenching
(ii)
Aging for about for days

Soaking

(iv)
74.

As in (iii) and aging at room temperature

. Tifical and age hardening treatment is given at temperature :


(i)
365 to 380 F
(ii)
465 to 480 F
(iii) As in 1 and for approximately 6 hrs will greatly improve the
mechanical properties
(iv) As in (ii) and for approximately 3 hrs will greatly improve the
mechanical properties

75.

Ageing of heat treated alloy may be retarded:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

76.

for about 24 hrs


As in (i) provided kept at or below temperature of 32 F
By precipitation heat treatment
As in (iii) and kept at a room temperature for 24 hrs

Spherodizing is a form of :
(i)
annealing above lower critical temperature and making globular
ferrite structure in cementite matrix.
(ii)
Annealing below lower critical temperature and making globular
cementile structure in ferrite matrix
(iii) Annealing above lower critical temperature and making lamellar
structure of ferrite and cementile
(iv) None of the above

77.

Barcol hardness tests is used for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

78.

On furnace the temperature is controlled by


(i)
(iii)

79.

Pyrometer
(ii)
Hydrometer
By pouring water into the furnace

Purpose of tempering is
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

80.

Al, Cu, Brass or any other soft material


Hard material
Thermo plastic only

Increase toughness decrease ductility


Increase hardness and ductility
Increase ductility and decrease hardness

Which is the most severe quenching liquids during cooling


(i)

Water(ii) Brine

(iii) Oil

(iv) None of the above

81.

In solution heat treatment of magnesium alloy


(i)
Welding the metal at high temperature for sufficient time and
quenched in water
(ii)
Welding the metal a high temperature for sufficient time and
quenched in air (9A-217)
(iii) Welding the metal at high temperature for sufficient time and
quenched in furnace
(iv) None of the above

82.

The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch


(i)
Has little or no effect on a metals heat-treated characteristics
(ii)
Can significantly alter a metals properties in the reheated area
(iii) Has accumulative enhancement effect on the original heat
treatment
(iv)

83.

Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy , the soaking time ranges form
(i)
10 to 18 hours (9A-217)
(ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii) As in 10 and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in
thickness
(iv) As in 3 and 10 hours

84.

When stainless steels are heated the formation of chromium carbide


within the metal reduces the amount of chromium available and may
decrease its resistance to corrosion this effect is known as
(i)
Loss of strength
(ii)
(iii) Resistance
(iv) Resistance to soldering

85.

Heat treatable alloys may require a fuel heat treatment to restore then
properties after welding magnesium alloys
(i)
Should not be heat treated at all
(ii)
Should not be heat treated more than three times(CAIP-BL6/5)
(iii)
(iv)

86.

Unless the pipes are annealed the loading unloading operations must be
completed
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

87.

Should be heat treated only once


Require only hardening

After solution heat treatment


After normalizing
As in (i) and within two hours
None of the above

In solution heat treatment of rivets the time between removal from the
bath and quenching must be not more than

(i)
(iii)
(iv)
88.

What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received
no hardening or tempering treatment ?
(i)
(iii)

89.

10 seconds
(ii)
30 seconds
As in (i) and to achieve satisfactory properties
As in (ii) and to avoid reheat treating

3003-F
6061 O (9A-200)

(ii)

5052-H36.
(iv) 7156- T

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding


(i)

To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

To increase the hardness of the weld


To increase ductility in a metal
To remove the surface scale formed during welding

90.

The rubber which swells and often softens in all A/C fuels and in solvents
is known as :
(i)
Butyl rubber
(ii)
Synthetic rubber
(iii) Natural rubber
(iv) (i) and (iii) are correct
(9A-165)

91.

Skydrol hydro fluids are compatible with rubber seals made from :
(i)
Butyl rubber (9A-165vv
(ii)
Neopren rubber
(ii)
Natural rubber
(iv) Synthetic rubber

92. Which of the following describe the effect of annealing steel and
aluminum alloys?
(1) Decrease in internal stress
(2) Softening of the metal
(3) improved corrosion reisstence
(i)
(1),(2) (9A-211 (ii) (1),(3)
(iii) (2),(3)
(iv) (1),(2), (3)
93.

Normalising is a process of heat treating


(i)
Alluminium alloy only (ii)Iron base metals only(9A-211
(iii) Both aluminum alloys and iron base metals
(iv)
Clad alluminium alloy

94.

The reheating of a heat treated metal , such as with a welding torch


(i)
has little or no effect on a metals heat treated characteristics
(ii)
Can significantly alter a metals properties in the reheated area
(iii) Has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment
(iv) None of the above

95.

Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful


effects?
(i)
Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form
(ii)
6061-T9
stainless
steel (iii) Clad alluminium alloy (CAIP-9/1-644

96.

The core material of alclad 2024-T4 is

Clad alluminium alloy (CAIP-9/1-644


(ii)
Commercially pure alluminium,
and the surface material is heat treated alluminium alloy
(iii) Strain hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is
commercially pure aluminum
(iv) None of the above
97.

98.

Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding?


(i)
To relieve internal stress developed within the base metal
(ii)
to increase the hardness of the weld
(iii) to remove the surface scale formed during welding
(iv) As in (i) and (ii)
Neoprene is not used for
(i)

99.

Aromatic (9A-165)

(ii)

Aliphatic

(iii)

Synthetic

Etching treatment of composite fiber can


(i)
Increase the fiber surface roughness
(ii)
Give improved mechanical keying at interface
(iii) As 2 increase the fiber surface roughness
(iv)
Decrease the fiber surface roughness to improve draping
properly.

MATERIAL
103. If plastic is stored horizontally, the height should not be more than
a) 6
b) 24
c) 12
d) 18
93.

Gaskets are made of


a) Asbestos b) Copper

c) Cork

d) All of these

68.

Mark the incorrect statement, regarding K monel metal


a) It is ferrous alloy
b) It is used for gears and chain
c) It is non ferrous alloy d) It is corrosion resistant

46.

Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length


a) Upsetting
b) Down setting
c) Swaging
d) Rolling

69.

The symbol is for


a) Wood
c) Steel

b) Cast iron
d) Rubber

91.

The tip of the rivet is upset to form a second head and that is known as
a) Round head
b) Shop head
c) Flat head
d) Brazier head

94.

While bending tubing, a small flattening is allowed but the small diameter of the
bend should not be less than _______ of the outside diameter

a) 90%
97.

b) 25%

c) 75%

d) 80%

Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness?


a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometer
c) Profilometer
d) Hilsegmetometer

102. Crazing appears on the plastic surface in forms of


a) Straight line crack
b) Zigzag crack
c) A network of crack running in all direction
d) Not visible
106.

Anti-corrosive treatment given to copper and its alloys in order


to reduce electric potential between these parts and its adjacent steel
or aluminium parts is
a. Galvanizing
b. Parkerizing
c. Metal spraying
d. Cadmium plating

3. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the


danger of
a. Forming passive oxide
b. Entrapping corrosive material
c. Corrosion by embedded iron oxide
d. All of the above
116.

Type of bond formed in a material by sharing of electrons in different atoms is:


(a) Ionic Bond
(b) Covalent Bond
(c) Metallic Bond
(d) Electrostatic bond

122. Addition of carbon to the surface of steel to make it hard, is known as:
(a) Case hardening (b) Carburizing
(c) Quenching
(d) None of these
127. Gamma rays used for inspecting aircraft material for internal
cracks / defects are having wave length of:
(a) 10-3
(b) 10-6
(c) 10-9
(d) 10-11
141. In AN-QQ-S-689 specification, AN indicates:
(a) Army-Navy (Aeronautical) standard
(b) Air force-Navy (Aeronautical) specification
(c) American National (Aeronautical) specification
(d) None of these

175. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid
lanoline upto height of _____________ above water line
(a) 1 Feet
(b) 2 Feet
(c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter
176. Mark the correct statements
(a) Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal
(b) Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method
(c) Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease
(d) All of the above
177. What percentage of manganese and sulfur will completely form manganese
sulfide in steel, which is harmless in small quantity:
(a) 0.3% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese
(b) 0.30% Manganese and 0.06% Sulfur
(c) 0.03% Sulfur and 0.06% Manganese
(d) None of these

47.
63

Which of the following have greatest tensile strength?


a) Fibreglass
b) Aramid
c) Carbon

d) Ceramic

. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc


welding?
a) Pitting
b) Galvanic
c) Inter crystalline
d) Fretting

196. Type of bond forms in a material by loosing or gaining of


electrons is:
(a) Covalent Bond
(b) Ionic Bond
(c) Metallic Bond
(d) Secondary Bond
209. The purpose of turnbuckle is to
(a) make minor adjustment in cable length
(b) adjust cable tension
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none
212. Fibre glass is also known as
(a) E glass or Electric glass

(b) S glass or Borosile glass

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) All

213. Well threads are


(a) detection for warp direction (b) direction is 45 to warp
(c) bias
(d) perpendicular to warp
214. Strength of composite depends upon
(a) type of fiber
(b) process of manufacture
(c) heat treatment
(d) all
215. Which statement is correct?
(a) Force is exhorted on uncharged particle.
(b) Force is applied on charged particle moving along the
magnetic field.
(c) Both (a) & (b)
216. Barcol tester is used on
(a) harder material
(b) softer material
(c) all type of material
(d) none
218. Which one is stable wrought alloy
(a) piston (b) cylinder head

(c) crank shaft

(d) Al-clad

219. The load per unit square inch at which material breaks
(a) ultimate tensile strength
(b) yield point
(c) tensile strength
(d) all are correct
221. Sand blasting is not done on
(a) Steel
(b) Cast aluminium cylinder head
(c) Where strength is not primary concern
(d) Copper
222.. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness?
a) Spectrometer
b) Prosfetrometer
c) Profilometer
d) Hilsegmetometer
11.

Metalling is a process of
(a) rolling pure Al-alloy on Al-alloy surface
(b) Ni and cd plating on steel
(c)
By sparying Ni, or on steel with oxy-acctylene flame
(d) all of the above

58.

Hi-stressed parts are marked by


(i)
(iii)

9.

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Brilliant white burst


Dull white burst

(ii)
(iv)

Brilliant red burst


Dull red burst

Rolling of metal should not be done below the critical range because:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

27.

Brass composed of 50% copper and 50% copper and 50% zinc
Brass composed of 60% copper and 40% zinc
Copper brass and zinc is equal proporation
Tin composed of 20% copper 50% and zinc 30%

Titanium can be identified by the spark test when ground


(i)
(iii)

24.

By punching
Electro engraving

Temper designation for aluminium alloys the leter for as fabricated is


(i)

27.

(ii)
(iv)

Muntz metal is a :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26.

Electrical etching
Electroplating

Rolled surface will not be true


The grain of the metal will be crushed and distorted
The grain will not remain fine
1 and 3 are correct

Which one is the best known for its high tensile resistance
(i)
(ii)

. Glass
Carbon

(ii)
(iv)

Aramid
Boran

74. If the material used in the size as delivered and must not bear any incised
marking the these parts should be marked by
(i)

Etching

(ii)

Stamping

(iii)

Electro engraving

5.
Eutectic alloy is the name given to that alloy of two substance which has
lowest
(i)
(iii)

Heating point
Pouring point

(ii)
(iv)

Fusing point
All

55. NACA 0019 indicates


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Symmetrical aerofoil
(i) and its thickness is 19% of the chord
(i) and thickness is 9% of the chord
All of the above

31.

Crazing in plastics occurs due to


(a) manganese
(c)
silicon

(b)
(d)

phosphorus
sulphur

33.
(a)

To reduce the precipitation the medium used is


water
(b) air
(c)
oil
(d)

52.

T6 indicates
(a) artificially aged only
(b) SHT and cold worked
(c)
SHT and their artificially aged
(d) solution heat treated

53.

Mental fatigue of human is caused by


(a) long period of duty
(b)
(c)
noise
(d)

54.

emotional stress
all of the above

End of the steel bars sometimes painted in various


(a)
color and color combination as a means of identifying the carbon
content
(b)
strips identifying the alloy and solid color identifying the carbon
mark the correct statement 44.
What beneficial features offered by
satin weave
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

55.

brine 1.

It is stable weave
It is improve draping quality
It is porous after weaving
All of the above

Octal No of 189 is
(a) 235
(b)

237

(c)

265

(d) 275

10.

O-ring can be checked by


(a) 4 times magnification
(b) rolling the ring on a dowell and inner dia can be checked.
(c)
rolling the ring on inspection cone & inner dia can be checked
(d) all of the above

1.

With
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

23.

Which one is having break away properties 9A - 165


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

prepregs
manual application not required.
has to be kept in freezer
both a & b
none

Buna N
Buna S
Neoprene
Thiokol

WHEN USED IN CONTACT WITH METAL

24.

Vulcanizing is a process which


(i)
increases the elasticity AND STRENGTH
(ii)
reduce the tackiness of rubber like material
(iii) increases elasticity, STRENGTH and reduce tackiness of rubber like
material GFT 331
(iv) decreases tackiness and elasticity

25.

PEEK stands for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

38.

17.

10.

12.

POLY ETHER ETHER KETONE LG 37


Poly either ketone
Polyme of other ether kevlon
(iv)

None

Heating part in an atmosphere of zinc oxide to make its surface corrosion


resistance this treatment is
(i)
Parkerizing
IRON PHOSPHATE GFT 255
(ii)
Sherardizing
(iii) Spheriodizing FORM OF ANNEALING GFT 48 and Bonderizing
(iv) Galvanizing
ZINC PLATING
Which hardening heating (hardness) as best suitable for sleep and alloy
(a) Brinell and Bareol
(b) Brinell and Rockwell
(c)
thermal hardening to improve strength
(d) all are correct
Pre & past treatment of Cd-plating and ferrous part depends on
(a)
strength of part
(b)
surface hardening and hard spots
(c)
corrosion resistance
(d)
All
Mark the correct statement
(a) T4 solution heat treatment
(b) T5 ARTIFICIALLY AGED
(c)
T6 solution heat treatment AND THEN ARTFICIALLY AGED
(d) All are correct 9A 200

13.

Monel is
(a) heat treatable and non heat treatable
(b) non heat treatable ONLY BY COLD WORKING 9A 203
(c)
magnetic
(d) as in B and weldable AND HAS VERY GOOD MACHNING
CHARECTERISTICS J 7-11

14.

Titanium is heat treated for


(a) relief of stresses set up during cold working
(b) proDUCE maximum durability
(c)
thermal hardening to improve strength
(d) all are correct AGE LG 28

15.

Titanium is heat treated by

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

normalizing
full annealing MILL , DUPLEX AND TRIPLEX ANEALLING AGE LG 28
Case hardening
All

16.

Titanium is heat treated for following purpose


(a)
Thermal hardening to improve strength
(b)
annealing offer hot working and cold working to provide maximum
durability for subsequent cold working.
(c)
Both a & b
(d)
None
18. Improve tensile strength, ductility and sleek (shock) resistance of Mg
alloy casting are normally
(a) Case hardened
(b) solution heat treatment
(c)
none
23.

Maximum bending in case of copper . Is


(a) three times to internal diameter
(b) six times to internal diameter
(c)
nine times to internal diameter
(d) twelve times to internal diameter

24.

Pickling of steel is carried out in


(a) H2SO4
(b) Muriatic acid IS HYDROCHLORIC ACID
(c)
all
GFT-251
(d) None
35. To improve tensile strength ,durability ,shock resistance, Mg casting are
normally
(a) SITT
(b) PITT
(c)
Annealing
(d) None
36.

Metalizing is the process of


(a) rolling pure Al layer on Al alloy surface
(b) Ni and cad plating on steel
(c)
By spraying Ni cad on steel with oxy-accetylene torch GFT57
(d) all

34.

Mark the correct statement regarding monel


(a) it can not hardened by heat treatment (only by cold working)
(b) it can be hardened by heat treatment
(c)
either a & b
(d) none of the above
For maximum elongation ductility.Mg-alloy is
(a) solution heat treatment
GFT200
(b) casted
(c)
precipitation heat treatment
(d) None
Pot life and shelf life

40.

42.

52.

(a) pot life is related to mixed resin mixture while shelf life is related to
resin and hardened individually
(b) (a) if catalyst is mixed in less amount, then it will increase pot life
but reducing curing properties
(c)
both a & b
(d) none
2024 Rivets age hardens:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

53.

Rivets may be reheat treated:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

54.

within one hour


within 30 minutes
within 20 minutes
None of the above (10 MINUTES) 9A 216

Not more than 15 time


Any number of times
Re heat treatment is prohibited
Aluminum rivets do not require any heat treatment --GFT341

The heat treatable alloys can not be welded by:


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Oxy acetylene torch---GFT234


Argon Arc welding
As in (i) without destroying their mechanical properties
As in (ii) without destroying their mechanical properties

61. the temper designation consist of a letter indicating temper in --addition


the or more limits. The stain hardened stabilized denoted by ;
(i) H (ii)

H1

(iii)

H2

(iv)

H3---J7-9

62. The temper designation consists of a letter indicating temper. The letter O
indicates

63.

(i)

As fabricated

(iii)

Strain hardened (iv)

Stain hardened and partially annealed

T3

(ii)

T4

(iii)

T5J7-9

(iv) T9

Artificially aged and then cold worked Al alloy are denoted as


(i)

72.

ANNEALED--9A 201

Al alloys are heat treated artificially age hardened only denoted as


(i)

64.

(ii)

T109A 200

(ii)

T8

(iii)

T6

(iv)T4

Barcol hardness tests is used for


(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Al, Cu, Brass or any other soft material 9A220


Hard material
Thermo plastic only

88.

Which one is best known for damage tolerant property


(i)
(iii)

89.

90.

Fiberglass
Carbon/graphite

(ii)
(iv)

Aramid
Ceramic

Which one is acidic resistant


(i)
E-glass
(iii) S-glass

(ii)
(iv)

C-glass
A-glass

Among following which are the properties of aramid


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

91.

With
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

High compressive strength


High tensile strength
Remarkable flexibility
(ii) and (iii)
prepregs
manual application not required.
has to be kept in freezer
both a & b
none

12.Granodizing:
(i)
It is identical to Parkerizing except from fail that the solution is of iron
fillings and phosphoric acid:
(ii)
As in (i) and process is completing in 3 to 5 minutes
(iii) Is carried in a 15% solution of potassium dichromate
(iv) It is an Electro plating process by which zinc phosphate is deposited
on the surfaces treated.---GFT256
10. The shrinkage allowance for Al Alloy sand castings is:
(i)
3/32 per foot
(ii)
5/32 per foot GFT-186 IF MACHINING IS REQUIRED 1/16 IS TO
BE ALLOWED FOR MACHINING
(iii) 5/32 per inch
(iv) 5/32 per meter
12.

Coslettisting is a treatment that


(i)
(ii)
(iii)
AND
(iv)

5.

gives dull grey finish


as in (i) and it is similar to Parkerizing
gives black non rusting surface ,IDENTICAL WITH PARKERISING
USED FOR ENGINE PARTS. GFT-256
As in (i) and similar to sherardizing

Type of bond formed in a material by Electrons cloud is:


(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Mettalic bond
(d) Electrostatic
32. To locate a defect in a material with the help of magnaflux test,
it is essential that the magnetic lines of force pass approximately
(a) Parallel to defect

(b) Perpendicular to defect


(c) Any direction of defect
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
42.In charpy impact test, the V notch of the specimen faces:
a) Opposite to the pendulum
(b) Towards the pendulum
c) Above the jaws
(d) None of these
43.when carrying out crushing test on aircraft tubing, the tube
should be in:
(a) Annealed condition
(b) Normalized condition
(c) Heat treated condition
(d) Any one of these
46. X-rays are used efficiently for the inspection of steel parts upto
thickness of:
(a) 8 inch
(b) 6 inch
(c) 3 inch
(d) 2 inch
55. 250 HB 10 indicates
a) Strength only
b) Hardness only
c) Both a) & b)
d) Toughness
23. Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane of articulation
through
(a) 120
24.

(b) 90

(c) 180

(d) None

For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement


a) Every third inner plate is extended in one direction
b) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction
c) Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction
d) All are wrong