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laDefending the

Defending the New Nation:


Who was the last active Continental Navy officer and the first U.S. Navy commissioned
officer?
John Barry
Why were the border lakes between the U.S. and Canada of strategic importance
during the War of 1812?
The Americans planned to win the war by conquering Canada and needed control
of the lakes to do so.
Which of the following was NOT an innovation in naval warfare introduced by the U.S.
between 1775 and 1815?
Who fought at anchor in Plattsburg Bay to nullify Royal Navy long guns and maximize
American carronades, and won the most strategic naval victory of the War of 1812?
Thomas Macdonough
During the War for independence, which countries came to the assistance of America
with their navies?
France, Spain, and the Netherlands
How did the frigate Philadelphia complicate the Navys task in the War with Tripoli?
The crew was captured after the frigate ran aground in Tripoli Harbor and the
Pasha of Tripoli demanded
ransom for its three hundred sailors taken as
prisoners of war.
In 1794, Congress authorized the president to create a naval force of 6 frigates in
response to ____________________.
the threat from the Barbary Powers of Africa's Mediterranean coast

Sailing in Distant Waters:


Which of following changes in the naval service did NOT pertain to enlisted Sailors in
the era before the Civil War?
Establishment of a retirement system
In what years did the Second Seminole War take place?
1835-1842
Between the War of 1812 and the Civil War, the Navy had a variety of missions. These
included ____________________.

All of these answers are correct


In the years before the Civil War, U.S. Squadrons established a regular presence in
____________________.
the Mediterranean, off Africa and South America, in the Pacific, and in Asia
Which of the following tasks did the Navy NOT undertake in the Mexican War?
Blockade the coast of Cuba
What tactical advantage did steam power have over sail power in naval warfare?
Steam power enabled a warship to operate independent of the wind when
engaged in battle.
____________________ designed a steam engine that was 40% more efficient, half the
size, and significantly cheaper than standard steam engines.
Benjamin Franklin Isherwood
Which war left the U.S. with two seacoasts to defend, and propelled the U.S. into Pacific
affairs?
The Mexican War
Select True or False: To encourage temperance onboard vessels, in 1831 the Navy
allowed Sailors to receive money in lieu of the spirit, or grog ration.
True
____________________ commanded the South Sea Exploring Expedition from 1838 to
1842. This six-vessel expedition surveyed South Pacific islands, charted continental
coastlines, proved Antarctica is a continent, and collected natural history and
ethnological specimens that formed the basis of the Smithsonian Institution's
collections.
Charles Wilkes
Which Antebellum Navy leader earned the title Pathfinder of the Seas for his
contributions to ocean science?
Matthew F. Maury
What was the main advantage of the bottle-shape of the Dahlgren gun?
It kept the gun lighter by removing metal where it was not needed.
Which of the following accomplishments was NOT Matthew Fontaine Maurys?
Proved Antarctica is a continent.
What was the significance of Matthew C. Perrys expedition to Japan?
The Japanese opened their ports to American ships.

The Civil War and its Aftermath:


What did the Union naval blockade of the Confederacy accomplish?.
It captured transport vessels, creating acute supply shortages.
Which of the following best characterizes the Navy between 1866 and 1880?
Decreasing in size and deteriorating, with old and outmoded ships.
The Naval War College was established in 1884:
To provide officers the opportunity to study naval tactics, strategy, and policy.
What international developments stimulated resurgence of American naval power in the
1880s?
European nations competing and building large navies to defend their empires.
______________was in charge of Upper Mississippi River forces that participated in the
captures of Fort Henry, Tennessee, Fort Donelson, Tennessee, and Island Number Ten,
in the Mississippi River.
Andrew Hull Foote
____________ made his first of several expeditions in 1886 that placed him in the
vanguard of Arctic explorers.
Robert Edwin Peary
What did the Confederate raiders accomplish?
They drove the carrying of trade to foreign ships, hurting the U.S. Merchant
Marine fleet.
Select True or False: Union forces controlled the western rivers, dividing the
Confederacy and stopping Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops, a strategic
advantage that resulted in greater mobility for Union troops.
True
Select True or False: After the Civil War the U.S. Navy fell into neglect, while navies of
other countries modernized. In the 1880's, the U.S. Navy was modernized and joined
the ranks of major world powers
True
In January 1865, the last Confederate port open to blockade-runners fell. Where was
this port located?.
Wilmington, North Carolina
For what is David W. Taylor known?

Which distinguished Civil War officer commanded the North Atlantic Blockading
Squadron and led naval forces in the 1864 and 1865 assaults against Fort Fisher, North
Carolina?
David D. Porter
What did Union control of the Mississippi River accomplish?
It prevented Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops.

The Navy on a Global Stage:


Select True or False: In 1889, eleven nations had warship fleets larger than that of the
United States, but less than two decades later only the British Royal Navy was larger
than the U.S. Navy.
True
What organization did the Navy establish to institutionalize the contribution of female
medical personnel?
Navy Nurse Corps
Who was the strategic thinker and Naval War College professor who developed the
Theory of Sea Power?
Alfred T. Mahan
What two new weapons systems of the early 20 th century enabled the Navy to fight over
and under the surface of the ocean?
The airplane and the submarine
The dawn of undersea warfare dates from 1900 with the launch of the
____________________.
USS Holland
As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, the United States and the other
victorious Allied powers ____________.
drastically reduced their battle fleets, hoping to stop the arms race and prevent
another global conflict.

WWII in the Atlantic and European Waters:


Select True or False: To man its tens of thousands of naval vessels, aircraft, and shore
bases, the Navy enlisted over 3 million Sailors.
True

The breakdown of pre-war barriers to the enlistment of African Americans and women
was due to wartime necessity and ____________________.
the growing American support for social equality
How many Allied merchantmen and warships did German and Italian submarines sink
during the war?
3000
The cipher machine used by the Germans for radio communication security was called
the ____________________.
Enigma
So the U.S. and British armed forces could synchronize not only their Atlantic but global
operations and speak with one voice about the need for convoy escort vessels,
amphibious landing craft, and similar materiel, in 1942 the two nations established an
organization named the ______________.
Combined Chiefs of Staff
Early in World War II, which country proved especially effective in signals intelligence
the interception, decryption, and reading of enemy radio signals?
Great Britain
Significant social changes in the Navy during World War II had the greatest impact on
which of the following American minority groups?
Women and African Americans
What U.S. Naval leader took steps to standardize anti-submarine training and tactics?
Admiral Royal E. Ingersoll
For a year after the United States entered the war, German U-boats successfully
operated throughout the ____________________.
Atlantic, Caribbean, and Mediterranean
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German
U-boats?
Jeep carrier
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German
U-boats?
True

WWII in the Pacific:

On what Japanese island did U.S. Marines raise Old Glory in February 1945?
Iwo Jima
Which battle marked the turning point of the Pacific campaign and was considered the
most decisive naval battle of WW II?
Midway
Select True or False: Although the Battle of Okinawa was the last major operation of
WWII, the U.S. Navy beat their Japanese adversaries with very few casualties.
False
What U.S. naval assets became primary striking assets after the morning of Dec 7,
1941?
Submarines and aircraft carriers
Select True or False: Improvements in the Navys logistical capabilities played a
significant role in victories of the Pacific campaign.
True
What key technical system helped U.S. naval forces locate and track enemy surface
and air naval forces?
Radar
August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island?
Guadalcanal
What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor
attack?
Submarines and aircraft carriers

The Cold War:


What was the first major armed conflict of the Cold War?
Korean War
Greater than 95% of supplies and logistical support for troops in Vietnam came from this
organization:
Military Sealift Command (MSC)
Which fleet improvements were introduced in the Navy in the later Cold War years?
Ticonderoga-class cruisers and Los Angeles-class submarines
In what way did the U.S. Navy contribute to the successful resolution of the Cuban
Missile Crisis of 1962?

Navy ships blocked the delivery of Soviet missiles to Communist Cuba.


What was the U.S. strategy in the early period of the Cold War for dealing with the
Soviet Union and its allies?
Containment Strategy
The Navy's Cold War mission was to enforce containment of the USSR and its allies
through:
Maintenance of sea control in the world's oceans
Forward deployment of naval forces to the periphery of Communist bloc nations
Deployment at sea of nuclear-armed submarines to deter Soviet nuclear attack
Navy-wide directives, or Z-grams, that were issued to improve the life of enlisted
Sailors were the inspiration of what Admiral?
Admiral Elmo R. Zumwalt, Jr.
At the climax of the Cold War 1989, the SECNAV had generated enough support to
build the size of the Navy to almost ____________________ ships.
600
Why is the North Vietnamese naval attack on the USS Maddox in August 1964
important?
It prompted Congress to pass the Tonkin Gulf resolution, which authorized U.S.
military operations in the Vietnam Conflict.
What naval vessel types did the Navy deploy during the Cold War to discourage Soviet
nuclear attacks on the United States?
Submarines armed with nuclear ballistic missiles
Which attack submarine was lost at sea with her entire crew while returning from
operations in the Mediterranean Sea during the Cold War?
USS Skorpion
Who were the first African American and female officers promoted to flag rank?
Samuel L. Gravely and Alene B. Duerk
The climax of the Cold War was marked by U.S. Naval involvement in conflicts such as
____________________.
Naval forces deployed to Grenada and Panama

Littoral Operations:

One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from
a blue water navy to a navy that would ___________________.
project power ashore in the littoral regions of the world
The UN-sponsored intervention in Somalia in the mid-1990s resulted in
___________________.
Somalia
What two U.S. ships did Iraqi mines damage in 1991
USS Princeton and USS Tripoli
What was the name of the 1987-1988 Persian Gulf operation where U.S. naval units
escorted Kuwaiti oil tankers through the Persian Gulf?
Operation Earnest Will
What is the name of the conflict in the Persian Gulf during 1987 and 1988 in which U.S.
naval forces protected Kuwaiti oil tankers?
Tanker War
Which ship was damaged by an Iranian mine and was the catalyst for launching
Operation Praying Mantis?
USS Samuel B. Roberts
From which African nation did American forces withdraw when the UN-sponsored
intervention failed?
Somalia
The Persian Gulf War was instrumental in opening up many opportunities for women in
the following areas:
Combat air squadrons
All major warships
Shore commands

Global War on Terrorism:


Select True or False: The destruction of terrorist cells following 9/11 was primarily
confined to the Middle-East
False
Al Qaeda had established a training complex in ____________________, from which it
supported terrorist activities worldwide.
Afghanistan

Select True or False: The United States, United Nations (UN), world governments, and
international financial institutions joined to identify and destroy terrorist groups and their
sources of funding immediately following 9/11.
True
What was the Navys primary focus immediately after the 9/11 attacks?
Homeland security
Which U.S. led offensive was launched in October 2001 against Al Qaeda and Taliban
forces in Afghanistan?
Operation Enduring Freedom
Which command delivered large amounts of the tanks, vehicles, and supplies needed
for Operation Iraqi Freedom to staging areas in Kuwait?
Military Sealift Command
Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched to:
Liberate the Iraqi people
Promote democracy in Iraq

Military Formations:
As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what
position?
Attention
Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
From most senior award to most junior
Sailors are in a _________________, when placed in formation one behind the other?
File
Who is known as the Drillmaster of the American Revolution?
Baron von Steuben
Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?
Precision and automatic response
As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your
Sailors?
Prior to the seasonal uniform change

Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies:


What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign country is played?
Salute
What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?
Staff Sergeant
What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?
The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?
At six paces or closest point of approach
The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of
_____________.
Chief Master Sergeant
What is meant by under arms?
When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
What is the U.S. Armys highest enlisted pay grade?
Sergeant Major
What is the definition of prescribable items?
Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic
uniform. Items may be worn with
basic uniform at the individuals discretion
unless otherwise directed

Fleet Response Plan:


When is a CSG considered surge ready?
When they have completed integrated phase training
When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable?
After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including
completion of underway CIV sustainment phase training and certification of the
unit for forward deployed operations
At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is _________________.
a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan

Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of
FRP?
2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
Presence with a purpose provides what?
Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or
on shorter pulse employment periods
The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories:
________________________.
emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed
Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the
Fleet?
Sea Basing
What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within
90 days
The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable
within 30 days?
6
Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month interdeployment training cycle (IDTC)?
Commander, Fleet Forces Command
The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to
embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as
_______________.
homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events,
deterrent operations, or
prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism

Chief Petty Officer History:


In the early 1900s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?
Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Strengthen chief petty officer standards
According to the 1918 BlueJackets Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were
________.

Technical expert and example setter


The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the
_____.
hat device
On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty
officer. Which of the following was a defined role?
The top technical authority and expert within a rating
On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the
Navy.
GMCM Delbert Black

Manpower Management:
TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for ________________.
resource sponsors
Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?
Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)
In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements
Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on
available funding and ______________________.
personal inventory
TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to
____________________.
initiate AMD change requests
Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.
commands, Sailors

OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is
to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for
________________________.
national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________.
quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements

Naval Customs:
In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the
War of Independence?
All the answers are correct
The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of
recognition by the midshipmen
All the answers are correct
The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?
Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a
major turning point in favor of the United States
Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was
necessary for what purpose(s)?
All answers are correct
Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh?
It is played today at many athletic events and parades
Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navys heritage.
These days are ____________________.
Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navys Birthday (13 October)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Navy Hymn?
All the answers are correct
Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written?
To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in
1906.
__________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.
Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson

Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered
appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle?
All the answers are correct
What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?
The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could
destroy it.

Customs and Traditions:


Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________.
Pollywogs
Formal dinners promote ____________________.
all the answers are correct
Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.
a violation of SECNAV Instructions
Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a
significant line of longitude?
Golden
Which statement is true concerning morning colors?
Honors to foreign ensigns may be rendered by the playing of appropriate foreign
national anthems
Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?
Avoid walking on varnished areas
The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by ____________________.
OPNAV Instruction 1710.7
The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle
____________________.
Blue Nose
What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to
shore?
Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.
Morning and evening colors have been governed by Navy regulations since
__________.
since the mid 19th century

The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______.


the burial at sea
SecNav Instruction 1610.2A concerns ____________.
Hazing
The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America
(Cape Horn) is ____________________.
Mossback
A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor
____________________.
should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency

Ships Customs and Traditions:


Before commissioning, a ship must ____________________.
complete and pass a series of Sea Trials
Todays Returning Home Pennant ____________________.
all the answers are correct
What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?
All the answers are correct
All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT
____________________.
walking on the port side
You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat
approaches. You call out Boat ahoy! and the boats coxswain replies, John Paul
Jones! He is ____________________.
announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat
Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________.
are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ships sponsor and
other prominent guests in attendance
While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) ____________________.
All of these answers are correct
All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT
____________________.

the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive


Boat hailing protocols became necessary ____________________.
in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and
boating was required
The Navys battle streamers ____________________.
span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovospan the period from the
Revolutionary War to Kosovo
On modern ships, the quarterdeck ___________________.
is designated by the Commanding Officer
While a ship is at anchor or at a pier, ____________________.
the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck
The Returning Home Pennant ____________________.
is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port
The sloop Concord is notable because ____________________.
it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman

Honors and Ceremonies:


Passing honors are ____________________.
All the answers are correct
There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at
noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are
____________________.
Washingtons Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day
At the end of their careers, all Sailors may ____________________.
all the answers are correct
Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in
____________________.
MILPERSMAN 1800-010
Half-masting the national ensign ____________________.
is a symbol of mourning and respect
Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________.
in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable

Military Ethics Overview:


Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come
from pursuing the greatest happiness for the greatest number.
False
Select True or False: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion
there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for
all people and all situations.
True
Freedom-based ethics focus on __________________.
decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses
Thoughts such as: life has no purpose or meaning, truth can not be known, and
what I do doesn't matter best typify which one of the following?
Nihilism
An ethical person is __________________.
someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live
Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________.
Consequentialism
Thoughts such as: I do whatever I want, no one can stop me, and I take what I want
and harm anyone who gets in my way best typify which one of the following?
Criminality
Select True or False: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately
assessed or measured.
True
Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdales leadership were founded upon the
ethical approach of __________________.
character-based ethics
A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to
a conclusion that is true typifies __________________.
a reason-based approach to truth and justice

Ethics in the Profession of Arms:


What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?
The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.
Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally
____________________.
All the answers are correct
Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning.
What is the ideal toward which moral development leads?
It is the path to becoming a person of character
Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to
act ineffectively?
Yes
The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are
____________________.
All the answers are correct.
The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what
transforms an association into a profession.
Responsibility
Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values
governing military professionals?
All of the answers are correct.
An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor
best defines ____________________.
A professional
____________________ is a common bond all military professionals share based on
the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation.
Corporateness
Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving
moral____________________.
Effectiveness
Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of
ones knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action.
Effectiveness

Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to
contribute to the common good.
False
Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and
objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from
wrong.
Reasoning

Ethics and the Warfighter:


Select True or False: The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country
adheres to the Geneva Convention.
False
Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?
I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?
Professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths.
The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for ____________________.
Prisoners of war
Select True or False: A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to
demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa.
False
The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it
____________________.
clearly states a Sailors duty from the moment of enlistment

Just War Tradition:


The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________.
that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not
outweigh the good
accomplished by the operation
Select True or False: In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of
the criteria of jus ad bellum.

False
The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included
____________________.
self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack
The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.
theology, philosophy, and law
The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.
Political leaders
Select True or False: All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed
Conflict and the Geneva Conventions.
True
Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military
leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving
specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.
True
The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________.
reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good
Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decisionmaking authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders.
False
The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.
help to set the military professional apart
Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.
True
The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________.
discrimination and proportionality
Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of
Armed Conflict.
False
The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:
Chaplains and medical personnel.

Military Justice System:


Which of the following is true?
A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a
prosecutor and at least five
members.
Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________.
provides a service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against
his or her commanding
officer
The Constitution ______________________.
all of the answers are correct
The maximum punishment which may be given at a special court-martial is limited to
_______________.
one year confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement,
forfeitures of two-thirds pay for not
more than one year, reduction to paygrade
E-1, and bad conduct discharge
Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice, is also known as _____________.
Captains Mast
A member of a general court-martial _________________.
is the military equivalent of a civilian juror
Which of the following is NOT true?
Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the
Department of Defense is
part of the legislative branch of the federal
government
A convening authority is responsible for ___________.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true?
Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the
authority of the federal
government.
A service member _____________.
does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captains Mast

Conduct and Government Ethics:


Which of the following would be prohibited?

The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the
ships communications
officer) as a Christmas present. Two months later the
commanding officer is given a framed picture of the
ship worth $7.50 by the
Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the
commanding
officer a stuffed animal for his daughter as an Easter present
worth $8.00.
Which statement is NOT true?
Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own,
unique ethical code.
Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited?
The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a
magazine article concerning
the maintenance scheduling procedures he was
introducing into his squadron.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian
employees. Military personnel are
governed solely by the Uniform Code of
Military Justice.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.
The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the
Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibited?
One of the carriers divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding
Officer a framed picture
of the ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another
division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the
Commanding Officer with a
brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chiefs Mess presents the
Commanding Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200.00.

Privacy Act:
Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access
records maintained by the government and request amendments to erroneous
information that may be contained in those records.
True
Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the
protection provided by the Privacy Act, has the right to access all records held by the
government that pertains to him or her.
False

What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?
All of the answers are correct
A record is ___________________________________________.
any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by
an agency
The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of
personal information, as well as to
_____________________________________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to
as _________________.
Exempt.
The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the
individual of concern, include situations where
____________________________________.
the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research
Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to
access his or her information.
False.

Lawful and Unlawful Orders:


A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base
commander. Which of the following is true?
The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the
Uniform Code of Military
Justice.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only
required to obey orders
from a military police officer if the military police
officer is a warrant or commissioned officer.
A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except
__________.
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine


major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major before, the
major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey
the given order. Which of the following is true?
The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know
that the individual giving him
the order was a Marine major.
A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load
a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a
plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who is
also the LTs commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the units radios in
preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help
with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help
load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately
report his actions to his
commanding officer and explain the necessity of
diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer
ordered them to
accomplish.
Which of the following statements is true?
An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one
giving the contradicting order
may be a lawful order.
Which of the following is true?
A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty
Officer may be prosecuted
under Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice.
What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is
obviously illegal?
Refuse the order and report to higher authority.
An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received
from another superior (CAPT). The LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the
orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR. The CDR
insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do?
Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to
the CAPT.
_______ provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a
military senior.
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039

Roles, Missions, and Functions of DON:

Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose
of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code
__________ are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant
commanders by the President of the United States or the Secretary of Defense.
Missions
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes
the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard,
including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operation is
to:
Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes
the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard,
including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
The list of service-specific functions continues to evolve over time. Initially authored in
Executive Order 9877, the term functions in this context refers to:
Those various activities, operations, and capabilities for which the services are
responsible.
Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the
Joint arena?
The U.S. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration.
Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law?
The U.S. Marine Corps
Maritime power projection includes:
All of these answers are correct.
The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense
directive 5100.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure to
accomplish which one(s) of the following?
Primary functions.
Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose
of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code

The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest
geographic area?
Pacific Command
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a
combatant commander
A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command
and (3) the Armys
Surface Deployment and Distribution Command
Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside
of the United States?
The European Command
The National Security Council's members include, by law, _____________.
the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Functional combatant commanders ___________________.
are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

National Military Organization:


____________ is responsible for developing the National Military Strategy.
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
Functional combatant commanders ___________________.
are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President

Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside


of the United States?
The European Command
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift
Command and (3) the Armys Surface Deployment and Distribution
Command
The Chief of Naval Operations ___________.
must place his duties as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties
to the Secretary of the
Navy as a military service chief
The overseas area where U.S. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the
area of responsibility of ______________.
the Central Command
The Joint Staff ____________.
is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The European Command ___________.
has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations Enduring
Freedom and Iraqi Freedom
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a
combatant commander
The Unified Command Plan ________________.
establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the combatant
commanders
The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________.
is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight
provided by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the
area of responsibility of ______________.
the Central Command and the Pacific Command

The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________.


is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The Presidents cabinet includes ________________.
the Secretary of Defense as a military representative
The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest
geographic area?
Pacific Command
The lead combatant command(s) in planning, directing and executing the Global War on
Terrorism is/are _________________.
the Special Operations Command

National Security Strategy:


The National Security Strategy states that ___________ is America's most immediate
challenge.
Terrorism
To complete the task of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will
________.
help build stable, prosperous, and peaceful societies
make foreign assistance more effective
The National Security Strategys essential task of global economic growth includes
___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The National Security Strategy states that ___________.
globalization has exposed us to many new challenges
globalization presents many opportunities
As addressed in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy, ________
must take the lead in order for the world to successfully confront problems like
human trafficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
The United States
The National Security Strategys essential task of transforming the nations National
Security Institutions will require _______________.
reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which
promotes effective democracy
and responsible sovereignty
The National Security Strategy states that _____________.

peace and international stability are most reliably built on a foundation of


freedom.
The National Security Strategy takes the position that ____________.
left unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states
The current National Security Strategy _____________.
builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy, updated to take
into account the time that
has passed and the events that have occurred
The National Security Strategy points out that _____________.
because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD, the United
States will not rule out the
use of preemptive force

National Defense Strategy:


The National Defense Strategy deals with ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The National Defense Strategy _______________.
recognizes that a secure international system requires collective action
The National Defense Strategys view of deterrence is ____________.
that there needs to be increased emphasis on protecting against attacks
In order to establish favorable security conditions, the United States _______________.
All of the answers are correct
Stability operations, as discussed in the National Defense Strategy, __________.
include operations ranging from peacekeeping to substantial combat action
When and if actual combat operations are necessary against a hostile force, the
National Defense Strategy contemplates the use of all of the following except
_____________.
combat operations only when they can be conducted with other nations

National Military Strategy:


The complex battle space used by adversaries to threaten the United States include
_______________.
All of the answers are correct

As discussed in the National Military Strategy ________________.


an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability to impose severe
consequences in response to hostile or potentially hostile actions for
deterrence to be successful
Which of the following statements is not true?
Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to gaining a
decisive victory, post-conflict stability is the role of civilian government
agencies and departments.
The non-state actors that menace stability and security may include
__________________.
terrorist networks, international criminal organizations, illegal armed groups and
individuals
The National Military Strategy is _________________.
the highest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer
The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is
__________________.
the protection of the United States against attack
Which of the following will make the statement not true?
The National Military Strategy _______________.
states that defending the United States against missile attack is no longer a
priority
The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the National
Military Strategy are: ______________.
winning the War on Terrorism while protecting the United States; (2) enhancing
our ability to fight as a
joint force; and (3) transforming the Armed
Forces by fielding new capabilities and adopting new
operational
concepts
Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by ___________.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true?
The combatant commanders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in
developing the National
Military Strategy.

Joint Guidance and Resources:

The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will
operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts.
Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
Which of the following is not true?
None of the answers are correct
Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.
Experimentation
________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.
The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
A joint concept is __________________.
a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander
might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint
Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow
In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States
enjoys today requires ________________.
a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural
changes across the joint community
Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.
Joint Functional Concepts
____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the
hierarchy of joint publications.
Capstone
A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.
a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to
generate effects and achieve an objective
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept
developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of
future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
Joint Functional Concepts ________________.
receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a
Joint Operating Concept

At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept
developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of
future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint
Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow
A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a
strategic objective ______________.
10-20 years in the future
A Joint Operating Concept __________________.
identifies broad principles and essential capabilities
Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?
Joint Integrating Concept

Sea Power 21:


_____________ is central to the Sea Shield concept.
Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters
Which of the following is NOT true?
ForceNet is the follow-on program to Task Force EXCEL a fully integrated force
wide network of linked
computers.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.
Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought on by ________.
the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new
platforms
The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of
expeditionary deployments and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital
equipment and supplies in-theater is ____________________.
Sea Basing
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
ForceNet is the glue that binds together Sea Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea
Enterprise.

Which of the following is NOT true?


Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our
forward presence globally.
Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navys ability to counter the
increased risk to the United States in the future?
None of the answers are correct.
Sea Strike ______________.
is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea
Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________.
The Chief of Naval Operations
The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is
____________.
Sea Basing
The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________.
Sea Enterprise
Sea Trial is concerned with ______________.
the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology
development
Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on
____________.
control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence

The American Way of War:


Select True or False: The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the
French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the American View that wars were
won by the utilization of conventional armies.
False
Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought
solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics.
False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War.
Select True or False: In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers
moving West, a large standing army was maintained by the United States after
the Civil War.

False
During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.
was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a
legitimate nation
Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.
quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army
The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the
Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (volunteer) forces and
proof that the United States didnt need to maintain a large standing army.
True
One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the
American Revolution was ____________________.
the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation
The Second Seminole War _______________.
became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring
victory

The Naval Way of War:


By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will
____________________.
have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the
lines of communication
Select True or False: Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex
technology available.
True
All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the
greatest peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the
second greatest peril is ____________________.
Fire
During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms
of safety of the ship and operating environment?
The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job

Navigation is ____________________.
an art of approximation
Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an
absolute control of the sea.
False
In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your
location to a considerable degree?
GPS
The Navys organizational culture comes from ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions,
threats, tactics, and technologies, its important to know
___________________.
The U.S. Navys organizational culture
Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Navys intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to
limit the enemys freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for
maneuver
U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against
the Russians and, at this time, they ____________________.
have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support
operations
Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is
the not-to-centralize philosophy of the U.S. ________________________.
Navy

Theory of War:
An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war?
It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the
action
The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.

in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and
the tactics employed on
the battlefield to achieve those objectives
The enemys center of gravity ____________________.
can change particularly at the operational and tactical level
An enemys critical vulnerability ____________________.
is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the
enemys ability to resist us
The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.
may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability
Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on
____________________.
the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions
Which of the following is correct?
The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.
Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at
what level of war?
Tactical
The three components of military art are ____________________.
strategy, tactics, and operational art
The enemys center of gravity ____________________.
can change particularly at the operational and tactical level
Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.
concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness
The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.
by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use
of divisions and corps
each commanded by a general officer who
was well versed in his strategic objectives

Doctrine:
Select True or False: Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or
multinational force.
True

Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.
True
Joint doctrine is based on ____________________.
current capabilities
Select True or False: Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.
False
The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.
all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site
The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through
____________________.
NWDC SIPRNET site

Command and Control:


Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ .
It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing
circumstances.
Control is the ___________________ .
commanders means of guiding a military operation
Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ .
all of the answers are correct
OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ .
JTF commanders
Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the
functioning of the human nervous system?
All of the answers are correct
C enables the Commander to ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through
___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following are considered command and control support?
The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders.

OPCON and TACON:


All of the answers are correct
The C organization is defined to include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON?
Organization, logistics and training

Joint Force Maritime component commander:


The JFMCC concept is _______________________ .
still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions
have been finalized
According to the concept, the JFMCC _______________________ .
All of the answers are correct
What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations?
Sea control
Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC?
All of the answers are correct
The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________.
Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies
upon the Navy service
component commander
The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to:
Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commanders
campaign plan.
The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to:
All of the answers are correct
Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ .
both OPCON and TACON
Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime
missions?
The JFMCC

The JFMCCs subordinate commanders include:


Both CSG and ESG commanders.

CWC Concept:
Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because:
In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.
What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept?
Command by negation
The common operating picture, or COP, includes ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The CWC concept addresses defense against:
All of the answers are correct
After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission:
Shifted in orientation to the littorals.
The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because
___________________ .
that is where the needed C2 assets will be

CWC Roles and Responsibilities:


If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be
______________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Decentralized command is an effective approach because?
It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information overload.
It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to
achieve mission objectives.
What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar?
The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates
understood the plan and their
roles in it.
The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander
include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct

Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure?


JTF commanders
Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to:
Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.
Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .
immediately subordinate to the CWC
What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
The CWC will have _____________________ .
TACON
TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ .
held by only one commander and any given time

JFMCC/CWC Challenges:
What are the challenges to the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to
___________________.
developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and
improvement in satellite
communications
Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and
centralized execution.
False
The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which
means ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
A downside of CWCs dependency on communications is ______________.
all of the answers are correct
According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments
against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________.
CWC creates broad war fighting specialists

Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.


All of the answers are correct
According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the
flagship, must be in the radius of ___________________.
20NM

Origins and Development:


Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while
simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is
necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent
from the Joint Air Component Commander.
False
Strike operations are a component of which navy mission?
Projecting power ashore
Select True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to
deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi infrastructure.
False
Select True or False: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf
War, resulted in the new mission of close-air support being assigned to
OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.
False
Select True or False: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new
mission, made possible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack
Missile.
False
Select True or False: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance
on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no dumb bombs
were utilized.
False
Select True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's
power ashore projection mission because the main components of such
operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units.
False
Select True or False: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly
effective way, it cannot sustain such operations for an extended period.

False
How do the Navys two principal missions influence events on land?
Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while
power projection ashore directly
influences those events.
Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack
targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.
False

CSG:
Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the
Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at
increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class.
False
The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.
sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups
ready to deploy within three
months of an emergency order
Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the
capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its
maximum speed.
False
Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts
have yet to be implemented and tested.
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the
Tomahawk missile?
all of the answers are correct
Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the
Navys strike warfare mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an
organic anti-submarine warfare capability.
False

CV/CVN:
What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?
Reduce the number of aircraft required
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct
___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft
carrier into real and useable power.
Human organization
Successful strike warfare depends upon ?
All of the answers are correct
Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to conduct air
operations in:
Sandstorms
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and
effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?
Improved ship design
What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?
Aircraft carrier

CVW:
Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability; this refers to?
Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.
The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its
versions has all the following advantages except:
ASW capability
What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common?
Recent mission changes
Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:
National Command Authority

Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:


All of the answers are correct
Match the aircraft with their primary mission.
A
A. F-14 Tomcat
1. air defense and strike
D

2. ASW, air refueling

B. E-2C Hawkeye

3. electronic attack

C. EA-6B Prowler

4. early warning

D. S-3B Viking

Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the
combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they
reach their targets?
Combat air patrol
What is the principal limitation of PGMs?
Cost
Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are?
Operates in adverse weather
Converts dumb bomb into precision guided weapon
Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include:
battle damage assessment
Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.
Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.
The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single
fighting system.
Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of
the carrier air wing.
What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?
The embarked air wing
Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following:
reduced costs and maintenance expenses

TLAM:
Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?

survivability in a high threat environment


Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component
Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the
tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path?
Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch
Area Coordinator (TAC),
TLAM firing unit
The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________.
is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent
and is responsible for all
TLAM strike planning, coordination, and
reporting strikes
The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________.
either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both
protects the missile during
transport and serves as the missile's
launch tube
Which of the following is not true?
Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral
damage is not a concern
Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ___________.
while submerged to avoid damage to the system
Submarines can communicate with surface units _____________.
when operating at periscope depth
Submarines have the ability to launch ______________.
Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped
The _____ assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can
execute the launch.
Launch Sequence Plan (LSP)
The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ________.
reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets
redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver

Surface Warfare:
Which is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander?
Direct submarine operations

The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following


assets:
All of the answers are correct
Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of combat
boats has which of the following effects:
Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces.
Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?
Maverick and Hellfire
Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include:
Chemical weapons
Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force
because they are:
All of the answers are correct

Air Defense:
To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense
________ enemy airborne platforms and weapons.
All of the answers are correct
____________________ is the primary mission of air defense.
Defense in Depth
Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?
Point defense ships and patrol craft
Non-organic air defense support refers to:
All of the answers are correct
Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare
commanders facilitates:
Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate
surveillance data; and
security for departing and landing aircraft.
Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include:
Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds
and ranges of weapons
and launch platforms, and increased
difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons.

Naval Special Warfare:


Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?
All of the answers are correct
Select the statement that is NOT true.
Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and
indicators to foreign audiences to
influence their actions.
Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United
States ____________________.
are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified
commander
Direct Action missions ____________________.
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions
The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is
____________________.
Counterterrorism
A clandestine operation ____________________.
is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself
The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.
is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew
The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________.
delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from
submarines
The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________.
is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant
commanders
A SEAL team is composed of ____________________.
a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons
MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by
____________________.
Special Boat Teams
The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________.
low to medium threat environments

A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.


is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core
training requirements

Introduction to Expeditionary Warfare:


The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to
previously deployable forces?
All of the answers are correct
The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The amphibious planning process ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?
All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the
Navys concept of Forward from the Sea. It accomplishes this by
___________________.
All of the answers are correct
An amphibious force might include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct

Naval Logistics:
MSCs Kilauea Class ammunition ships ____________________.
Have no armament

The sustainment element of the logistics process is ____________________.


the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain
operations
The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered ____________________.
organizational-level maintenance
Which of the following is NOT true?
Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ships company.
The Navys two hospital ships ___________________.
contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each
The Military Sealift Commands eight fast sealift ships ____________________.
can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized
division
The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is
____________________.
the Military Sealift Command (MSC)
The Military Sealift Commands Combat Prepositioning Force ____________________.
supports Army prepositioning requirements
The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which
class of supplies?
Class V
The bulk of the Navys combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by
____________________.
the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force
The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces
describe which general element of the Navys logistics process?
Distribution
Prepositioned equipmentboth afloat and ashoreis considered logistics support at
the ___________________.
strategic level
The Dry Cargo Office ____________________.
handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be
accommodated by regularly scheduled
ocean liner service

Undersea Warfare:
Which of the following is NOT true?
While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air
Independent Propulsion systems
still must typically snorkel at
least once a day to recharge their batteries.
Which of the following is true?
Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a
submarine or an acoustic
mine.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols.
Which of the following is true?
Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out
of the noise generated
by the ship.
The ASW warfare commanders call sign under the Navys Composite Warfare
Commander concept is ___________________.
AX
Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.
detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earths magnetic field caused
by the submarine
Which of the following is NOT true?
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and
defensive submarine
operations.
When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System
(NMRS) vehicle ___________________.
is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube
The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly
submarines are ___________________.
prevention of mutual interference and water space management
Which of the following is true?
Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing
vessel.
The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.
Acoustic and non-acoustic
Which of the following is NOT true?

U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship


platforms.
Which of the following is NOT true?
At then end of its preset battery life, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded
information can be
downloaded for analysis.
The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________.
features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle

Fundamentals of Joint Warfare:


Select True or False: Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action
synchronizes and/or integrates joint and single-service operations with the
actions of supporting combatant commands, other military forces during
multinational operations, and nonmilitary and other federal government
agencies.
True
Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; Cooperation among
the combatant commanders and their supporting joint force and
component commanders is crucial?
Unity of Effort
On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer.)
Geographic or functional
Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship?
Administrative Control (ADCON)
The Combatant Commanders campaign is based on which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Which command is NOT a functional combatant command?
U.S. Southern Command
The term joint forces includes which of the following commands?
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?
A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander
composed of forces from two or
more military departments.

Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally
accomplished?
By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and
functions and provides the commander a means to measure, report, and
correct performance?
Control
Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?
U.S. Forces Korea

Fundamentals of Information Operations:


Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information
to both domestic and
foreign audiences.
The Combatant Commanders plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are
approved by ________________.
the Office of the Secretary of Defense
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Information Operations is only concerned with information collected, processed
and disseminated
through networked computer systems operated
by an adversary.
Which of the following statements is true?
The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack,
electronic protection, and
electronic warfare support.
The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence
decision making, the flow of information, and the interpretation of
information by individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization
are properties associated with which dimension of the information
environment?
Cognitive
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of
Operations Security
actions.
Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following except
______________.

prisoner of war interrogation


Department of Defense policy describes information superiority as:
the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and
disseminate an uninterrupted flow
of information while exploiting
or denying an adversarys ability to do the same.
Which of the following statements is true?
Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or
adversary automated
information systems or networks.
Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or
adversary automated information systems or networks are a part of
___________________.
computer network exploitation
Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.
the J-3 (Operations)

The United States Army:


Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following?
The Mechanized Infantry Division
The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is:
Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations; light infantry does
not.
The U.S. Armys ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad
range of land power options to shape the security environment.
strategic responsiveness
The ___________________ is the largest division in the U.S. Army.
Mechanized Infantry Division
What are the hidden transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division?
Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.
Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support,
aeromedical evacuation, command and control, and special operations
support to combat, stability, and support operations?
UH-60L Blackhawk
Select True or False: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift.

False
Select True or False: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full
range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key
differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps.
True
Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or
equipment for any primary
U.S. Army mission area.
The Air Assault Division is considered:
All of the answers are correct.
Heavy divisions offer exceptional:
Tactical mobility.
A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to
maneuver and fire.
Platoon
Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to
exercise command and control over all land forces, and may be an allied
or coalition commander.
True

US Air Force:
Select True or False: USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by speciallytrained Special Operations personnel.
False
The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following
aircraft:
B-2
Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery of
troops and cargo, as well as tactical airlift and air drop?
C-17 Globemaster III

Which aircraft is considered the USAFs front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical
close air support to friendly forces on the ground?
A-10
Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time
reference in support of strategic, operational, and tactical operations:
Select all
___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal
risk and collateral damage.
Precision engagement
___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys
center of gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack
Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the
electromagnetic spectrum?
RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint
The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain
flexible and efficient combat operations.
Agile combat support
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint
operations?
Air refueling
The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility
Commands __________.
Strategic airlift concept
The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the
decisive time and place is one of the most constant and important trends
found throughout military history.
Concentration
Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link
frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S. Air Force function:
Counterspace
Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery
systems used.
True

Introduction to the United States Marine Corp:


Select True or False: The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces
who sizes are set by law?
False
Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?
MEU
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF?
Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions
Select True or False: The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a
forcible entry capability and therefore can offload equipment and supplies
in a hostile environment.
False
Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade?
All of the answers are correct
An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n):
MAGTF
Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as rapid
employment of the MAGTF by air or surface means to objectives in the
littorals and beyond?
Ship-to-object maneuver
The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and
supplies during the ship-to-shore movement of an amphibious assault,
and during subsequent operations ashore:
CH-53 E Super Stallion
Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet
Nam?
The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang.
Select True or False: U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based
on the principle of Maneuver Warfare.
True
The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for
___________________.
expeditionary force; overseas deployment

List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the
National Military Strategy.
Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS):
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is/are not considered part of the operating forces of the U.S.
Marine Corps available to the combatant commanders?
The Supporting Forces
Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)?
All of the answers are correct

US Coast Guard:
Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resource supporting
the National Military Strategy?
No
Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant
commander?
Forcible entry from the sea
Which one(s) of the following is/are unique to the USCG?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Article 14, USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military
service at all times.
True
Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guards primary short-range helicopter for SAR and
surveillance?
HH-65A Dolphin
The present day U.S. Coast Guard can trace its roots back to:
Select all
Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory?
MH-68 Shark
Which of the following is not true regarding current and future U.S. Coast Guard
operations?

The non-DOD budget nature of the USCG allows for greater funding and flexibility
than the other military
services.
Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard
Area Commander reports directly to the respective Navy Fleet
Commander.
True
In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable
federal laws on and under the high seas and waters subject to the U.S.
jurisdiction?
The U.S. Coast Guard at all times

Special Operations Forces:


The development of joint special operations tactics is a responsibility of
____________________.
the Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)
A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This
battalion is most likely under the command of ____________________.
a geographic combatant commander
Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by
____________________.
AC-130 aircraft
Direct Action missions ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All of the answers are correct
A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Special operations in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or
verify information of strategic or operational significance is a part of which
Special Operations core task?
Special Reconnaissance
Which of the following statements is NOT true?

U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those


officer and enlisted
personnel that are attached to Special
Operations Forces units.
The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a
foreign nation in organizing and training its military and paramilitary forces
to combat internal subversion is ____________________.
the 6th Special Operations Squadron
U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all
of the following EXCEPT ____________________.
assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to
combat an internal insurgency
A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.
that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic
combatant
commanders in waging the global war on terrorism.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
Army Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world
by the U.S. Army Special
Operations Command.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All of the answers are correct

Homeland Security/Homeland Defense:


Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to
mobilize and organize our Nation to secure the U.S. homeland from
terrorist attacks.
True
Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland
Defense?
All of the answers are correct
Which of following is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland
Security?
All of the answers are correct

The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into
a comprehensive and cohesive national effort involving appropriate
Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called __________?
the National Strategy for Maritime Security
What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement
activities in the United States?
Posse Comitatus Act of 1878
The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be
achieved by ___________________.
blending public and private maritime security measures

Irregular Warfare:
Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.
measures taken to preempt terrorism
In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to
remember that ___________________.
promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some
conditions that foster terrorism
Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the
following?
The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area.
By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .
a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and
release of energy
Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which
of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the
following?
All of the answers are correct.
Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s):
All of the answers are correct.

Political Structure:
Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or underreacting in the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole
arbitrators of what course of action to pursue.
True
Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that
elections have a significant impact on the peacefulness of a democracys
foreign policy toward other democracies.
False
The fact that the worlds leading democracies share common moral values guides them
to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace.
Not true under all circumstances.
Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure
each time a new president is sworn into office.
False
Select True or False: In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war
are remote compared to a multi-polar international system.
True
In a multi-polar international system _____________.
the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar
international system
there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than
in a bi-polar international
system
Select True or False: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline
of its major security threat is that its member states believe there is an
economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation.
True
Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to
independent country is an example of a change in domestic structure.
True
During the Cold War, the world was a(n) _____________ international system.
bi-polar
Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ___________ international system.
multi-polar

Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior:


Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a
collectivity because the study of political culture focuses on behavior
patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.
False
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively
explain the propensity of a society toward democracy or authoritarianism.
False
Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the
behavior and action of a political leader.
True
The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
is shaped by the totality of all lifes influences on multiple generations
Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate
leaders with a variety of personality types.
True
Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer
a leader with a quiet, reserved personality over one with a gregarious
personality.
True
Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture,
controlled experiments that can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of
its members can be useful.
True
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeons position is that an examination of
institutional causal factors to explain a political action should be
undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors.
True
Select True or False: By understanding a collectivitys political culture, it is possible to
determine the personality of a person belonging to that collectivity.
False
Select True or False: Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of
why states and individuals interact the way they do in international affairs.
True

Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.


None of the answers are correct
According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may
contribute to the creation of a political culture that could have a significant
impact on political action.
whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state

Democracy and Nationalism:


Select True or False: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed
hatred and nationalistic feelings.
True
Select True or False: Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime
transitions.
False
Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because
______________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the
below, except ________________________.
Ethno nationalism
After World War II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis
powers was to _________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
The political system which aims to protect a nation's distinct culture, history and
traditions, expresses the doctrine of _________________.
Nationalism
Select True or False: According to Snider, the transition toward democracy is always
awakening nationalist desires.
True
Select True or False: Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and interethnic violence.
False

The Future of Democracy and Democratization:


________________ gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy.
Samuel Huntington
The Optimistic Scenario of democracys future _______________.
believes that democratization in the East will lead to the integration of the Eastern
economies with those of
the West
Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy's future, the
twenty first century may be the century of collectivism.
False
Francis Fukuyama believes that _____________________________.
The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a
prosperous and secure
future
Which of the following is not true?
Because liberal democracies operate under the theory of majority rule, the
rights of minorities are often
unprotected.
Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all
of the following, except ____________________.
Low debt.
Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule?
Over eighty.
The Pessimistic Scenario of democracys future ________________.
sees transnational corporations becoming a greater source of order within the
international community
George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing
__________________________.
A Balanced Perspective
The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold
War world is __________________.
Islam

Latin America and the United States:


In the new millennium, the United States has committed several billion dollars to assist
which country on its war on drugs?

Columbia
In the aftermath of September 11, 2001, the United States has focused on countering
__________________ throughout the world, including Latin America.
Terrorism
During the Cold War, the U.S. foreign policy goal was
to___________________________________.
contain Communism across the globe, and Soviet expansionism in particular
Select True or False: During the Cold War, the most important goal for the United
States in Latin America was support for democracy.
False
In 1994,The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) joined the economies of
the _________________________________.
United States, Canada and Mexico
The Good Neighbor Policy is associated with which U.S. president?
Franklin Roosevelt
Latin Americans __________________________ the Good Neighbor Policy.
Welcomed
Which corollary to the Monroe Doctrine claimed that the United States had the right and
moral duty to exercise international police power in the Americas?
Roosevelt corollary
How did Latin America respond to the Monroe Doctrine?
Latin Americans resented the Monroe Doctrine
The United States gained nearly half of the territory of what country in Latin America
from 1845 to 1853?
Mexico
After the Cold War, U.S. policy toward Latin America was focused on
_____________________________.
supporting democracy
During the Cold War, the United States intervened militarily in Central America and the
Caribbean primarily to ____________________.
contain Communism

Politics in Latin America:

Which of the following countries in Latin America did not become democratic after
1978?
Cuba
During the first half of the 20th Century a period of growing authoritarianism in Latin
America was the result of _______________________.
the Great Depression
Select True or False: Latin America was more prosperous in the 1990s than in the
1980s.
False
Which institution in Latin America played a primary role in the 19th Century in filling the
vacuum of power created by independence?
The military
Most of the military regimes in Latin America were ______________.
friendly toward the United States
What historical event led to greater political polarization in Latin America?
The Cuban Revolution led by Fidel Castro
The "Washington Consensus" called for all of the below, except for
__________________.
free transportation for the poor
Political polarization in Latin America took place in _________.
1959

The Balance of Power in the Southern Cone of Latin America:


Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at
the highest level its ever been.
False
In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ____________.
Chile
Geopolitics is __________________________.
the study of the relationship between geography and power politics

The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are
_________________.
Chile and Bolivia
The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay,
Uruguay, and _____________________.
Chile
In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord
with ___________________.
The EU
Select True or False: Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any
countries in the Southern Cone.
True
Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all
became democratic countries.
False
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or
MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries, except
_____________________.
Venezuela and Peru
The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between
_____________________.
Argentina and Brazil

Latin American Militaries:


Which of the following statements is true?
The military is widely respected in Chile.
According to most observers, South America has been
________________________________ since at least the mid-1990s.
a Zone of Peace
What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace?
South America
Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?
All of the answers are correct

Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures
per year?
Brazil
The United States: _______________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military
expenditures in Latin America, is the only country in its region that has a military
capable of major expeditionary operations.
False
The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military
expenditures is ________________________.
Columbia
Some view ____________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.
Costa Rica
The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of
______________________.
Defense

Historical Framework:
What event caused the Allied European Powers (primarily Britain and France) to divide
the Middle East and take territory away from the Ottoman Empire?
The Ottoman Empire's support for Germany during World War I
The victory of the European combined forces against the Turkish invading army in the
battle at Vienna in 1683 _______________________.
all of the answers are correct
Napoleon's occupation of Egypt is significant for which of the following reasons?
All of the answers are correct
The Sykes-Picot Agreement provides that _____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In the Balfour Declaration, Britain declared _______________________.
its support for a Jewish national home in Palestine
The collapse of which empire resulted in today's configuration of the Middle East map?
The Ottoman Empire

How did modern Turkey emerge from the Ottoman Empire?


The Turkish forces seized control over most of what is today Turkey by defeating
the occupying allied
armies
The kingdom of Iraq was created in ___________.
1920
What part of the Ottoman Empire became autonomous following the Russo-Turkish war
in 1829?
Serbia
Following the ________________________ , the Ottoman Empire was abolished and
British mandated territories were formalized.
Treaty of Sevres
Which goal did Britain not have for the partition of the Middle East following World War
I?
To promote settlements of the British citizens in the Middle East on its mandated
territories

Arab-Israeli Conflict:
Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of
Palestine.
False
Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained
their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal.
False
During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ___________________________
occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in
___________________.
Oslo, in 1992
The Arab League and Palestinian institutions __________________.
rejected the partition plan
The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the
__________________________.
Six Day War in 1967

Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted
by the assassination of Israeli Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November
4, 1995.
True
The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14,
1948, was ________________.
the United States
Following the Camp David Accords _________________________.
Israeli withdrew from the Sinai
The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza
Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of the ________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab
states with Jerusalem ______________________.
to become an International Zone
On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon
______________________________.
Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict
What is the Bush administration's attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is
constructing on the West Bank?
It acquiesced to construction of the wall

United States Security Strategy and Policy:


The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was __________________.
Great Britain
In August of 1945, the Saudis gave the United States permission to start building
____________________________.
An Air base
During the 1990s, the U.S. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region
was to _____________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle
East for the liberation of Iraq from the oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein.

False
In the 1950s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by
____________________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as
_______________________________________.
A defense alliance against the Soviet Union
May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis _______________________________.
All of the answers are correct
What does Operation Earnest Will stand for?
The U.S. escorting Kuwait's oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988
The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________________________.
The importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential
battleground in the emerging contest
with the Soviet Union
In 1953, after a coup dEtat backed by Britain and the United States,
_________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct

The Early Years of the Peoples Republic of China:


Since 1981, PRC was in possession of ____________________.
intercontinental ballistic missiles
Why is China increasingly important today?
China's economic, political, and military power is rising
During the Korean War (1950-1953) the U.S. and UN forces had to retreat from the
northern part of the Korean peninsula as a result of ____________________________.
the sudden intervention of thousands of Chinese forces
In 1949 and in early 1950s, the PRC established a close relationship with
__________________.
Stalinist USSR
How was the PRC created?
Armies led by Mao Zedong defeated the Republican Chinese government under
Chiang Kai-Shek

After being defeated by the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA) in 1949, the ROC
armies retreated to ____________________.
the island of Taiwan
Select True or False: Following the Sino-Soviet Treaty of 1950, the PRC became part
of the Soviet Bloc.
True
By placing the U.S. Seventh Fleet in the Taiwan Strait, President Truman helped to stop
__________________________.
All of the answers are correct
How did Chinese Communist forces gain strength during World War II?
The Japanese invasion of China gave them a chance to rebuild
Select True or False: According to the Sino-Soviet Security Treaty the USSR had an
obligation to Beijing to provide military aid if PRC was attacked by Japan.
False
In what year did the PRC explode its first hydrogen bomb?
1967
What was the major goal of the CCP in organizing people into work units?
All of the answers are correct

China: Alone and Joining the World:


President Nixon went to China because ____________________
he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in
Vietnam
In the 1950 and 60s, the U.S. policy of containing China included
____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Deng Xiaoping's reforms ____________________.
legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign
investment and trade
Deng Xiaoping's reforms stressed ____________________.
the expending the role of international trade and investment in China's
development
The Tiananmen demonstrations ____________________.

All of the answers are correct


At the end of the 1950's and in the beginning of 1960s, the hallmark of Chinese policies
was ____________________.
to promote self-reliance
In the 1960's, China pursued policies of self-reliance because
____________________.
in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no
other choice
The Great Leap Forward ____________________.
resulted in three years of famine and the deaths of millions of people
China's break from the USSR meant that ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960s ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: By the end of the1960's, China continued to regard the U.S. as
its main adversary.
False

South Asia Before Independence:


The Indian national Congress Party and the Muslim League ____________________.
Demanded the British leave India
The dominant religions in the South Asian Region include all of the below except:
Christianity
What was the name of the explorer who led the first Europeans to India in the late 15 th
century?
Vasco Da Gama
Before 1947, the British colonial empire in South Asia consisted of the present states:
Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Afghanistan and all of the below, except
________________________.
Burma
The first Europeans to arrive in India were the ____________________.
Portuguese

Why was 1857 a landmark year in South Asian history?


Indian Sepoys participated in the first armed mutiny against the British authority.
Select True or False: In Pakistani society the moderates as well as the religious
hardliners have traditionally supported organizations such as the Taliban and an AlQaeda.
False
Since Muslims made up only twenty five percent of the population of South Asia, their
leaders ____________________.
Called for partition after British leave

Independence and the Partition of the Indian Subcontinent:


The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between
Pakistan and India ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
________________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country
populated mostly by Muslims and one country populated mostly by non-Muslims.
The Muslim League
Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U.S.-led war against terrorism is due to
____________________.
Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups
The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ____________________ issues.
All of the answers are correct
The Mohajirs were ____________________.
The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders
Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been
no major clashes between Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs.
False
The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action day, were
provoked by ____________________.
Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations
The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India,
ended as a result of ____________________.
The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities

Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent
state of their own?
Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims
minorities would be denied full
rights.
Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of
Colonial India, including the military assets.
False
The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between
Pakistan and India ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ____________________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and
their mission is to ____________________.
Observe

South Asia and the Outside World:


The cultural behavior associated with ____________________ is a major cause of
current religious intolerance and terrorism in South Asia.
Jihad
What events contributed to India's decision to turn to Russia for aid in 1971?
All of the answers are correct
What prompted Washington to remove or waive all proliferation and democracy related
restrictions on U.S. aid to Pakistan in 2001?
Following the 9/11 terrorist attack, the Musharraf government severed all ties with
the Taliban and joined
the U.S.-led anti-terrorism campaign as a front-line state
Select True or False: In January 2004, Pakistan became a member of NATO.
False
Select True or False: After the Cold War and the fall of Communism in the Soviet
Union, military and economic cooperation between Russia and India continued to
develop.
True
During the Cold War the United States and India ____________________.
Had convergent interests on many issues

Select True or False: During the presidency of Bill Clinton in the 1990s, the
relationship between the U.S. and Pakistan improved greatly.
False
Select True or False: During the Cold War, the United States was trying to prevent
India from achieving self-sufficiency and attempted to make it dependant on U.S.
markets.
False
During the Cold War India had a policy of ____________________.
Non-alignment

India-Pakistan Military Competition:


Select True or False: Since 1947, the Kashmir region has been the cause of four IndiaPakistan wars.
False
After the withdrawal of British colonial rule, the partition of the Indian subcontinent in
1947 was justified on the grounds of ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ____________________.
Shias and Sunnis
Kashmir ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In May 2001, after Islamabad
____________________.
All of the answers are correct

conducted

five

nuclear

tests

of

its

own

The part of Kashmir region controlled by India is known as ______________________.


Jammu Kashmir
The Third Option stands for ____________________.
Kashmiri independence
In 2002, an all-out India-Pakistan war was averted because ____________________.
The intervention by the United States and the restrained attitude of the leaders of
both countries helped to
resolve this conflict
Under the British partition plan, Kashmir _________________.

would be free to accede to either India or Pakistan


Select True or False: The United Nations has maintained an observatory presence in
the disputed area since December 1971.
False
Which of the following statements is true?
Pakistan claims that Kashmir should have become part of Pakistan in 1947 due
to the regions
demographics.
The dominant religion of the disputed area of Kashmir is ____________________.
Islam
The so-called Smiling Buddha represents ____________________.
The first nuclear explosive test detonated by India in 1974

European Civilization:
Select True or False: In 8th Century A.D. the Greco-Roman-Christian civilization on the
territories of the former Roman Empire was replaced by the Arab-Muslim civilization.
False
Due to collapse of the ____________________,the face of Europe radically changed,
as a result of the First World War.
German, Russian, Ottoman and Austria-Hungarian empires
After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Roman traditions, cultural and
linguistic influences continue to thrive in Italy, Southern France and Spain but almost
completely disappeared in the_________________ parts of the former empire.
North-Western
The Triple Entente was a coalition of Britain, France and Russia against Germany and
____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: In 2002, a new single European currency, the EURO, was
introduced to all of EU member countries.
False
Select True or False: The confrontation between Germany and the USSR created an
alliance between the Communist dictatorship and the Western democracies.
True

In the 1920s and 1930s, the rise of ____________________ threatened most European
nations.
All of the answers are correct
By 1871, the process of unification in the form of one nation-state was complete for
several European nations except for the_______________.
Serbs
The Protestant movements took place in Europe as a result of a popular dissatisfaction
with the ____________________.
Catholic Church
In the history of Western Europe, The Hundred Year War (1337-1453) was a long
struggle between ____________________.
England and France
During the Early Middle Ages, in the 8 th and 9th centuries, Western Europe was going
through a time commonly known as ______________.
Dark Ages
The imperial authority as absolute and divine, over the centuries, was deeply implanted
and remains even today part of the cultures of the______________________ peoples.
Balkan and Russian
Some believe that ____________________ is emerging as one of the Americas major
competitors.
Europe
The purpose of the U.S. Marshall Plan for Europe was to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The idea of imperial authority as absolute and divinely instituted originated from
____________________.
Byzantine
Select True or False: Throughout the Middle Ages, the Muslim world served as a
protective barrier between Western Europe and Byzantine Empire.
False
The most populated, largely urbanized and heavily industrialized continent on earth is
____________________.
Europe

Introduction to Planning:

When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action
related to a crisis, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n)
____________________ to implement the approved military course of action
Execute Order
Contingency planning focuses on ___________________.
potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces
A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the
objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike
Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air strikes as
required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and
a list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is
most likely the supported commander for this operation?
The Colonel commanding the MEU.
An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____________________.
a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the
coordinating execution of an
operation
Which of the following is correct?
A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a
supported commander for
another.
A concept plan (CONPLAN) ____________________.
is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable
expansion or alteration to
convert it into an OPLAN
Which situations are not appropriate subjects for contingency planning?
None of the answers are correct
A(n) ___________________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the
initiation of execution planning after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a
military course of action.
Alert Order
Which of the following is correct?
In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the
President or Secretary of
Defense approves a military course of action.
Joint strategic planning ____________________.
All the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Crisis Action Planning only takes place when a situation develops that will
require U.S. military combat
operations as a response.

The Role of Intelligence:


Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All the answers are correct
What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB)
for conventional war vice for Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)?
The focus
The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.
the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the
operations area and the
nonphysical dimensions that may extend well beyond
the designated operational area
Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order
to help the JFC attain battlespace knowledge?
Determine adversary potential COAs.
Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers,
television broadcasts and the internet is a part of which intelligence discipline?
Open-source Intelligence
Select True or False: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the
Battlespace (IPB) process remain the same across the spectrum of conflict, they may
be compacted or expanded as time permits.
True
Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB)
focus?
Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue
Select True or False: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to
review them in light of U.S. doctrine.
False
The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to
____________________.
support the commanders planning and decision making by identifying,
assessing and estimating the
adversary
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?

All the answers are correct


Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is
conducted exclusively prior to an operation to support the commanders planning effort.
False
Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of
intellegence at what level of war?
Strategic level

Navy Planning Process:


Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provides to the operation?
All the answers are correct
The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command?
All the answers are correct
The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumptions
about ____________________ and ____________________.
the battlespace environment; the adversary
Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process?
A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff
Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an
existing Course of Action.
True
Select True or False: The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that, if
followed, will lead the staff to a decision.
False

Law of the Sea and Airspace:


Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas, which
_______________.
All the answers are correct
References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following?
All the answers are correct

Why does the law of the sea and airspace matter?


All the answers are correct
National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include
which of the following?
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: According to UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum
breadth of 12 nautical miles and may be temporarily closed (with the exception of
international straits) by a coastal nation for security purposes.
True
Historic bays are __________.
Exempt from normal rules.

Scope:
Select True or False: The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the
Navy have issued directives that state that the armed forces of the United States will,
unless otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and spirit
of the Law Of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not
involve armed conflict.
False
Given that it has been determined that the al-Qaida and Taliban members captured in
Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatants, which of the following
statements is true?
The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs
under the Geneva
Conventions, but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic
policy.
Select True or False: The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects
of military operations, are similar to the Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they
apply to all nations.
false
Select True or False: U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva
Conventions as a minimum concerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims
of armed conflict.
FALSE
If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a nonsignatory nation ____________________.

the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention
bind only the signatory
nation
The Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.
a generally accepted body of international law
U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.
a minimum standard
Select True or False: The United States policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when
conducting military operations so that it may more easily punish its enemies after the
cessation of hostilities.
False

Principles:
In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.
incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the
anticipated concrete and direct
military advantage to be gained from the attack
Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.
are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war
camps to provide medical
services to POWs
Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an
acceptable tactic.
False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.
Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemys forces during an
armed engagement, ____________________.
while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status
must be continually verified
to ensure it does not return to civilian object
status
Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict
____________________.
may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured
Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the
U.S. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for
a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.
False

Select True or False: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified


simultaneously as both a civilian and a combatant.
False

General Principles:
Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will
execute the mission and to
assist planners and operators as they develop or
request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces
____________________.
shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC
Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed
in light of the nations political goals.
False
Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances
and limitations under which U.S. forces will continue combat engagement as only the
nations civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.
False
Select True or False: U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules
of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented to them by the
military establishment.
False
The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.
allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission
Select True or False: Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of
Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect U.S. nationals and their property.
True
Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order
to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners
and tactical level operators enough leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned
missions.
True

Judge advocates are ____________________.


used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will
execute the mission and to
assist planners and operators as they develop or
request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
The three major components
____________________.
political, military and legal

of

Rules

of

Engagement

(ROE)

are

Select True or False: Domestic and international public support of a military action is a
factor to be considered when developing Rules of Engagement (ROE).
True

SROE:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces
supporting law enforcement agencies conducting special event security within the U.S.
if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country.
False
Select True or False: The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordination tool with U.S. allies for the
development of combined or multinational ROE.
True
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require
proportionality in the use of force in self-defense as to do so would restrict a
commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include
the destruction of a hostile force under actions permitted in self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are applicable
during peacetime.
True
U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they
____________________.
provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without
repetitively requesting
permission to take certain actions

Select True or False: The guidance concerning the inherent right of self-defense
provided by the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are only applicable to U.S.
forces operating in areas outside of U.S. territorial jurisdiction.
False
Select True or False: The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a
stable international environment consistent with U.S. national interests.
True
When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by
____________________.
the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial
jurisdiction of the U.S. and the
U.S. Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if
responding to a military attack
In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S.
forces during military attacks against the United States.
True
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military
operations ____________________.
occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.

Self Defense:
Select True or False: A commanders inherent authority and obligation to use all
necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in self-defense is limited
to the self-defense of the commanders own unit.
False
A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the
use of force in self-defense.
If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force.
The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.
is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act
or demonstration of hostile
intent can be prevented or terminated
When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the
commander ____________________.

should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to
withdraw or cease threatening
actions if time and circumstances permit
Select True or False: As a form of self-defense, the use of riot control agents is always
authorized.
False
Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend
themselves before they are attacked.
True
Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat
requirement for self-defense.
True

Mission Accomplishment:
In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission
____________________.
the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered
In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal
assistant to staff director for operations in developing and integrating Rules of
Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.
Staff Judge Advocate
Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
____________________.all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of
Engagement (ROE).
Political, military and legal objectives
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement
(SROE) contains combat Rules of Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that
a U.S. could be assigned to perform.
False
Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.

augment the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific


ROE, if any and should be
constantly reviewed by commanders to ensure they
are sufficient to successfully accomplish the mission
The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned
mission should/may include all of the following except ___________.
requests for supplemental measures
Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific
Rules of Engagement are required to ____________________.
constantly review them and modify as necessary
Select True or False: Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment
and Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible targets.
True
Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________.
but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics
Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.
is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive
coordination

RUF:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations
conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas
when they are protecting vital government assets.
True
Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of
Force (RUF) would include disaster relief response.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the
United States in support of another agency (for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may
operate under that agencys Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).
True

Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S.
military forces always operate under Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically
for that operation.
False
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. Naval Ships while in
foreign ports.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the
United States may operate under Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed
specifically for the mission they are assigned.
True
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships
in international waters
True

Military Space Mission Areas:


Select True or False: A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement
Information Superiority is effective use of space assets.
True
Space capabilities__________________________:
All the answers are correct
Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications,
people, and other support structures that
Include command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commercial
communications systems used to
transmit DOD data
Serve DOD information needs
Select True or False: Currently, space force application assets are operating in space
False
Select True or False: Space support operations consist of operations that launch,
deploy, augment, maintain, sustain, replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces,
including the command and control network configuration for space operations.
True
Select True or False: Space force application operations consist of attacks against
terrestrial-based targets carried out by military weapons systems operating in or through
space.

True
Select True or False: Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for
friendly forces while, when directed, denying it to an adversary, and include the broad
aspect of protection of U.S. and U.S. allied space systems and negation of enemy
adversary space systems.
True
The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning
of ballistic missile launch and nuclear detonation is: _________________________.
Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment
The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and
orbital control is __________________.
Space support
The four military space mission areas are _______________________.
Space Control, Space Support, Force Application, and Force Enhancement
The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on
meteorological, oceanographic, and space environmental factors that might affect
operations in other battlespace dimensions is _______________.
Environmental monitoring
The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force
Enhancement mission area: __________________________.
Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment;
Environmental Monitoring
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our
combat operations.
True
Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance:
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our
combat operations.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or system
must be continuously collecting.
False
The most significant advantage of a space-based Intelligence, Surveillance, and
Reconnaissance sensor is __________________________.
the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage

Select True or False: Satellite systems may be affected by a variety of atmospheric


disturbances which affect the ability of imaging systems to detect adversary activity,
missile launches, and battle damage.
True
Select True or False: Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures
that provide limited numbers of low or medium orbital systems are well suited to the
reconnaissance mission.
True
ISR support:
All the answers are correct
In Operation Iraqi Freedom, space-based ISR:
Was a central factor in assuring rapid military success.

Integrated tactical warning and Attack Assessment:


Select True or False: Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) will combine scanning
with staring sensors to provide continuous tracks of tactical missiles.
True
Select True or False: DSP detected Iraqi Scud missile launches during Desert Storm.
True
Select True or False: Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches.
Voice and data warning information is immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real
time to support tactical decision making to counter the threat.
True
The SBIRS ground architecture______________________.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the
diverse threats of the post-communist era.
False
Select True or False: The Defense Support Program (DSP) constellation of
geosynchronous early-warning satellites is a quintessential Cold War system which was
originally conceived to provide warning of strategic-missile launches against the United
States and its allies.
True

Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning _____________________.


All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became
operational in 2001, fully replacing the old DSP ground architecture the following year.
As a result, tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in Iraqi Freedom than
they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War.
True
Theater missile warning data is:
Gathered by ground stations, then processed and
communications networks, including
space assets.

disseminated

over

Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the
definition of "Attack Assessment" is defined as _______________________.
the evaluation of information to determine the nature and objective of an attack
Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the
definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as _______________________.
a specific threat event that is occurring
Select True or False: U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with
its allies and coalition partners.
True

Environmental Monitoring:
Weather affects ________________________.
All the answers are correct
____________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational
planning.
Meteorological and Oceanographic
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features can be used by
the commander to _________________.
avoid submarine or maritime mine threats
concentrate forces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating
Weather satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability, typically gathering data in
_____ spectral bands.
All the answers are correct

Select True or False: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of
communications.
True
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as
_______ are critical for undersea warfare operations.
All the answers are correct

Communications:
Heavy solar activity ___________________________.
can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing
communications outages in extreme
cases
Select True or False: SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are
particularly affected by rain (the higher the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not
only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage.
True
Wideband satellite communications support ________________.
All the answers are correct
Significant advantages of satellite communication systems
communication systems are _________________________.
global coverage, security, flexibility

over

terrestrial

Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with:


All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly
exceed the capacity of current MILSATCOM systems.
True
Select True or False: Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller
antennas that increase its mobility, enabling wider use of submarine, airborne, and other
mobile terminals.
True

Position, Timing, Velocity and Navigation:


Select True or False: The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct placement of
GPS receivers on various platforms all improve jamming resistance.

True
NAVSTAR GPS provides the primary space-based source for U.S. and allied:
All the answers are correct
Although the presence of the highly accurate navigational information from the Global
Positioning System constellation is exploitable by adversary forces, it is unlikely the
Global Positioning System signal will be interdicted to interrupt the signal availability to
adversary forces because ________________.
signal interruption will affect the tremendous civil dependence upon Global
Positioning System
GPS navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation is a local
effect that has daily and seasonal variations. The effects are worse at ________ and will
usually taper off by _______.
local sunset / local midnight
Benefits to Naval forces from GPS include:
All the answers are correct
Global Positioning System is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to
establish a _______________, where all forces are geographically referenced correctly
and precisely synchronized operations are possible.
Common grid
Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held GPS
receivers in areas of ______may have diminished GPS capabilities.
dense vegetation or steep terrain

Data and Information:


Select True or False: The concept of operations and commander's intent should
convey only a general idea or mental image of the operation and the desired outcome.
Details will always come later.
False
Information systems consist of _____________________.
entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and components that collect,
process, store, transmit, display,
disseminate, and act on information
The higher you are
_________________.
Information systems

in

the

chain

of

command,

the

more

you

rely

on

The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the following
reason.
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
All are true statements about information EXCEPT ___________.
information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer
Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for
making a decision. This image-building information will contain _____________ .
status and disposition of our own forces
_____________ is the lifeblood of any C system.
Information
New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to __________.
validate the image or revise it
Select True or False: Secondhand information normally elicits the same natural
intuitive evaluation of reliability.
False
Decisions should be based on ___________.
Information

C2:
_________________ drive(s) the command and control process.
Information
In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the
authority and responsibility for:
health & welfare
discipline
morale
Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to:
Monitor events
Adapt to changing circumstances
Adjust the allocation of resources
The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through
____________________.
a command and control system

Select True or False: Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the
armed forces lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.
True
Select True or False: C refers both to the process and to the system by which the
commander decides what must be done and by how he sees that his decisions are
carried out.
True
Select True or False: Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely
that subordinates will take the proper action in combat. This is control before the action
but nonetheless is still control.
True
While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the
subconscious brain (______________________) that monitors and regulates most
actions.
subordinate commanders and forces

Decision Making:
Select True or False: Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the
operational commander, all phases of the cycle are active at each echelon of command.
True
Select True or False: During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the
execution of operations and gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge
results. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action phase
observations.
False
Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we
_______, _________ , and _________ .
observe / decide / act
Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in _______________.
situational awareness
_______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes
decisions and exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishing an
assigned mission.
C2

After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next
step is to ___________ on a course of action and develop a plan.
Decide

Forcenet:
Select True or False: In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can
have global ramifications, naval professionals must share databases with government
agencies and nongovernmental organizations.
True
By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the
knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by:
Enhancing deterrence
Controlling crises
Sustaining warfighting superiority
The Navy's success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to
unprecedented tactical flexibility made possible by:
Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits
Precision-guided munitions made effective by these systems
Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground
____________________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats,
locate and destroy anti-access challenges and intercept missiles.
Sea shield
____________________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions
afloat.
Sea Basing
Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the
development of high endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend
intra-theatre networking.
True

Seapower 21:
Sea Power 21 divides the Navys roles and missions into three fundamental concepts:
Sea Basing Projecting joint operational independence
Sea Strike Projecting precise and persistent offensive power
Sea Shield Projecting global defensive assurance

Select True or False: SeaPower 21 sets the stage for minimal increases in naval
precision, reach, and connectivity. Joint operations, though important, will come
secondary to blue water capabilities and a shore based support infrastructure.
Innovative concepts and technologies that integrate sea, land, air, space, and
cyberspace will be incorporated if, and when, the need arises.
False
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 represents a clear vision of the Navys part in
future joint warfighting in an unpredictable strategic environment typified by regional and
transnational threats.
True
Select True or False: A major premise of SeaPower 21 is that we will continue the
evolution of U.S. naval power from the blue-water, war-at-sea focus to an emphasis of
From the Sea and Forward from the Sea, strategy.
True
Identify the elements of FORCEnet.
Sea Trial, Sea Warrior, Sea Enterprise
The SeaPower 21 concept is enabled by _________ and that, in turn, is enabled by
___________ .
FORCEnet, information technology

Force Multiplication: Sensors Throughout Military History:


Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?
Sonar
Infrared systems are best used to detect ____________________.
a warm object against a relatively cool background
Night vision goggles see in the dark by using ____________________.
ambient light
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?
AIM-9 Sidewinder missile
Select True or False: The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment
as its limited success has not justified its high cost.
False

Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to


____________________.
defend against attack
seize the initiative
The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Although first patented
____________________.
World War II

in

1904,

radar

wasnt

very

militarily

useful

until

Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German
submarine activity during World War I?
Sonar

How do Sensor Systems Work?:


A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ___________.
has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range
If system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4, which
statement is not true?
System Bs signals power per unit area is one fourth that of system As signal.
A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having __________.
a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another
Which is not typically considered a component of a sensor system?
Warhead
Which statement is true?
Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in
the parameter being
measured.
Refraction refers to ______________.
the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium
the signal is traveling
through
Interference may be ___________.
constructive and destructive
Spectroscopy is used to determine __________.
what wavelengths are coming off a target

Understanding the Frequency Spectrum:


The speed of sound through water changes with ____________________.
water temperature
A hull-mounted sonar transmits a 3 KHz acoustic signal into fresh water at 20 degrees
C. What is the wavelength of the signal?
.5m
Select True or False: The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea
water at 20 degrees C would be the same for underwater and above water platforms.
False
Select True or False: The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water.
False
Select True or False: For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more
effectively than a smaller one
False
Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to wavelength.
True
What is the most appropriate platform for an acoustic sensor operating at 20 Hz?
Surface ship
What is an alternative way of writing 7.4 x 10 8 Hz?
740 MHz
Gamma rays are a good example of ____________________.
high frequency and low wavelength
Select True or False: The terms standard industry, standard international, and
standard military are synonymous when referring to frequency band designations.
False

Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems:


Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ________.
None of the answers are correct

Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be
generations behind the civilian state of the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize
unreliable assets.
True
The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe
____________________.
multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target
Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat
ability more efficient, more cost effective and safer by ________________.
All the answers are correct
Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in
the future include ________________.
unmanned aerial vehicles
Electronic Warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual
threats to its platform because ____________.
many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to
misidentification
Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement
sequence, one can never have too much sensor provided information. The more
information that can be collected, the easier the human decision making process is in a
tense, stressful environment.
False
Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ____________.
None of the answers are correct
Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?
Cover pulse jamming
A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is __________.
that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar
The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a target's radar at unexpected
times is used in __________.
cover pulse jamming
___________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being
detected by an infrared sensor.
How to increase a platforms ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases

Maintaining Technical Superiority:


Select True or False: All officers that have been involved in Navy program
management are barred from working for defense contractors after retirement because
to do so would be a conflict of interest.
False
Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically
___________________.
All the answers are correct
___________________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a
Systems Command.
Program Executive Offices
Unmanned autonomous sensor carrying vehicles are being developed in order to
___________________.
increase personnel safety
Select True or False: Because of the rapid increase of computing power, and every
indication that such increases will continue at least for at least the next 10 years, there
is no longer the danger of what is commonly referred to as information overload.
False
Select True or False: The Navy's development of new technologies is managed
completely by Department of the Navy civilian personnel.
False

Computer for the Warfighter:


Select True or False: Embedded microprocessors are tailored to limited applications.
True
The compiler converts ____________________.
high level code into assembly language code
Select True or False: One of the keys to effective personal computer use is to isolate
the user from high level programming language and hardware.
False
Select True or False: The microprocessors in personal computers are called limited
purpose microprocessors.
False

Select True or False: Access times for non-volatile memory tend to be slower than for
volatile memory.
True
The assembler converts ____________________.
assembly language code into binary data
Select True or False: The volatile memory in a computer is used for the boot-up
process.
False
The types of memory/storage in a computer, listed in order from fastest to slowest
access are ____________________.
register, cache, RAM, mass storage
What are the four subsystems that make up a computer systems hardware?
Microprocessor, memory, mass storage, input/output devices
The group of logic devices that can perform mathematical operations on data in the
microprocessors registers is called the ____________________.
arithmetic logic unit
What controls the switching of states in the control unit?
Clock
____________________ is the process by which excess RAM is temporarily stored in
mass storage.
Virtual memory
____________________ is the most complicated of the resource management
functions.
Processor management

Stealth Technology:
To determine the RCS of a cylinder, the key consideration is ____________________.
polarization of the cylinder
A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of
____________________.
large RCS and IR signature

Select True or False: Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its
RCS should be much larger.
False
Select True or False: Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a
target, but cannot provide information regarding movement.
False
Methods used to reduce RCS include ____________________.
avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material
Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ____________________.
complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems
Select True or False: Scattering, which occurs when an electromagnetic wave
encounters a physical object, is the dispersal of particle beams of radiation into a range
of directions.
True
Select True or False: At changing higher frequencies, the RCS of a sphere changes
dramatically.
False
A critical capability of sensor systems is to ____________________.
distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data
Select True or False: Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected
a stealth platform can easily be tracked and targeted.
False

Electro-Optic Technology:
Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?
IR
The amount of energy in an electromagnetic wave is ____________________.
proportional to the frequency
Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall
image of the target, from which the attacking force can decide precisely where to
engage the target.
False

Select True or False: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance
so that the reflected spot on the target is centered on the detector.
True
Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
False
____________________ is an example of long range application of passive emission
detection.
Thermal imaging
The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ____________________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
The accuracy of a typical laser designator is approximately ____________________.
5m
An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ____________________.
AM radio waves
The optical spectrum consists of ____________________.
IR, visible and UV
Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good
visual conditions.
True

Radar:
Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit up Doppler while smaller targets have
down Doppler.
False
Blind speeds are a problem with ____________________.
pulse Doppler
How long will it take a radar signal to travel to and from a target 90 KM from the radar?
0.6 milliseconds
Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target
size.
False

Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the
object from which the signal reflected.
True
Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small
antennas arranged in rectangular or circular arrays.
True
Pulse radar is effective at ____________________.
determining a targets relative velocity
Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or
away from a radar.
True
Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be
the same frequency as the transmitted energy.
False
What is the maximum unambiguous range of a radar with a PRF of 5 KHz?
30 km
A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ____________________.
mixer, amplifier, and discriminator
____________________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance
covered by the target.
Inverse synthetic aperture