Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
Which distinguished Civil War officer commanded the North Atlantic Blockading
Squadron and led naval forces in the 1864 and 1865 assaults against Fort Fisher, North
Carolina?
David D. Porter
What did Union control of the Mississippi River accomplish?
It prevented Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops.
The breakdown of pre-war barriers to the enlistment of African Americans and women
was due to wartime necessity and ____________________.
the growing American support for social equality
How many Allied merchantmen and warships did German and Italian submarines sink
during the war?
3000
The cipher machine used by the Germans for radio communication security was called
the ____________________.
Enigma
So the U.S. and British armed forces could synchronize not only their Atlantic but global
operations and speak with one voice about the need for convoy escort vessels,
amphibious landing craft, and similar materiel, in 1942 the two nations established an
organization named the ______________.
Combined Chiefs of Staff
Early in World War II, which country proved especially effective in signals intelligence
the interception, decryption, and reading of enemy radio signals?
Great Britain
Significant social changes in the Navy during World War II had the greatest impact on
which of the following American minority groups?
Women and African Americans
What U.S. Naval leader took steps to standardize anti-submarine training and tactics?
Admiral Royal E. Ingersoll
For a year after the United States entered the war, German U-boats successfully
operated throughout the ____________________.
Atlantic, Caribbean, and Mediterranean
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German
U-boats?
Jeep carrier
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German
U-boats?
True
On what Japanese island did U.S. Marines raise Old Glory in February 1945?
Iwo Jima
Which battle marked the turning point of the Pacific campaign and was considered the
most decisive naval battle of WW II?
Midway
Select True or False: Although the Battle of Okinawa was the last major operation of
WWII, the U.S. Navy beat their Japanese adversaries with very few casualties.
False
What U.S. naval assets became primary striking assets after the morning of Dec 7,
1941?
Submarines and aircraft carriers
Select True or False: Improvements in the Navys logistical capabilities played a
significant role in victories of the Pacific campaign.
True
What key technical system helped U.S. naval forces locate and track enemy surface
and air naval forces?
Radar
August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island?
Guadalcanal
What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor
attack?
Submarines and aircraft carriers
Littoral Operations:
One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from
a blue water navy to a navy that would ___________________.
project power ashore in the littoral regions of the world
The UN-sponsored intervention in Somalia in the mid-1990s resulted in
___________________.
Somalia
What two U.S. ships did Iraqi mines damage in 1991
USS Princeton and USS Tripoli
What was the name of the 1987-1988 Persian Gulf operation where U.S. naval units
escorted Kuwaiti oil tankers through the Persian Gulf?
Operation Earnest Will
What is the name of the conflict in the Persian Gulf during 1987 and 1988 in which U.S.
naval forces protected Kuwaiti oil tankers?
Tanker War
Which ship was damaged by an Iranian mine and was the catalyst for launching
Operation Praying Mantis?
USS Samuel B. Roberts
From which African nation did American forces withdraw when the UN-sponsored
intervention failed?
Somalia
The Persian Gulf War was instrumental in opening up many opportunities for women in
the following areas:
Combat air squadrons
All major warships
Shore commands
Select True or False: The United States, United Nations (UN), world governments, and
international financial institutions joined to identify and destroy terrorist groups and their
sources of funding immediately following 9/11.
True
What was the Navys primary focus immediately after the 9/11 attacks?
Homeland security
Which U.S. led offensive was launched in October 2001 against Al Qaeda and Taliban
forces in Afghanistan?
Operation Enduring Freedom
Which command delivered large amounts of the tanks, vehicles, and supplies needed
for Operation Iraqi Freedom to staging areas in Kuwait?
Military Sealift Command
Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched to:
Liberate the Iraqi people
Promote democracy in Iraq
Military Formations:
As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what
position?
Attention
Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
From most senior award to most junior
Sailors are in a _________________, when placed in formation one behind the other?
File
Who is known as the Drillmaster of the American Revolution?
Baron von Steuben
Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?
Precision and automatic response
As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your
Sailors?
Prior to the seasonal uniform change
Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of
FRP?
2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
Presence with a purpose provides what?
Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or
on shorter pulse employment periods
The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories:
________________________.
emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed
Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the
Fleet?
Sea Basing
What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within
90 days
The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable
within 30 days?
6
Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month interdeployment training cycle (IDTC)?
Commander, Fleet Forces Command
The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to
embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as
_______________.
homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events,
deterrent operations, or
prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism
Manpower Management:
TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for ________________.
resource sponsors
Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?
Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)
In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements
Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on
available funding and ______________________.
personal inventory
TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to
____________________.
initiate AMD change requests
Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.
commands, Sailors
OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is
to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for
________________________.
national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________.
quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements
Naval Customs:
In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the
War of Independence?
All the answers are correct
The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of
recognition by the midshipmen
All the answers are correct
The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?
Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a
major turning point in favor of the United States
Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was
necessary for what purpose(s)?
All answers are correct
Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh?
It is played today at many athletic events and parades
Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navys heritage.
These days are ____________________.
Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navys Birthday (13 October)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Navy Hymn?
All the answers are correct
Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written?
To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in
1906.
__________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.
Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson
Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered
appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle?
All the answers are correct
What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?
The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could
destroy it.
Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to
contribute to the common good.
False
Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and
objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from
wrong.
Reasoning
False
The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included
____________________.
self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack
The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.
theology, philosophy, and law
The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.
Political leaders
Select True or False: All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed
Conflict and the Geneva Conventions.
True
Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military
leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving
specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.
True
The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________.
reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good
Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decisionmaking authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders.
False
The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.
help to set the military professional apart
Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.
True
The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________.
discrimination and proportionality
Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of
Armed Conflict.
False
The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:
Chaplains and medical personnel.
The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the
ships communications
officer) as a Christmas present. Two months later the
commanding officer is given a framed picture of the
ship worth $7.50 by the
Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the
commanding
officer a stuffed animal for his daughter as an Easter present
worth $8.00.
Which statement is NOT true?
Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own,
unique ethical code.
Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited?
The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a
magazine article concerning
the maintenance scheduling procedures he was
introducing into his squadron.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian
employees. Military personnel are
governed solely by the Uniform Code of
Military Justice.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.
The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the
Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibited?
One of the carriers divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding
Officer a framed picture
of the ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another
division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the
Commanding Officer with a
brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chiefs Mess presents the
Commanding Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200.00.
Privacy Act:
Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access
records maintained by the government and request amendments to erroneous
information that may be contained in those records.
True
Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the
protection provided by the Privacy Act, has the right to access all records held by the
government that pertains to him or her.
False
What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?
All of the answers are correct
A record is ___________________________________________.
any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by
an agency
The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of
personal information, as well as to
_____________________________________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to
as _________________.
Exempt.
The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the
individual of concern, include situations where
____________________________________.
the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research
Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to
access his or her information.
False.
Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose
of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code
__________ are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant
commanders by the President of the United States or the Secretary of Defense.
Missions
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes
the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard,
including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operation is
to:
Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes
the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard,
including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
The list of service-specific functions continues to evolve over time. Initially authored in
Executive Order 9877, the term functions in this context refers to:
Those various activities, operations, and capabilities for which the services are
responsible.
Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the
Joint arena?
The U.S. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration.
Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law?
The U.S. Marine Corps
Maritime power projection includes:
All of these answers are correct.
The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense
directive 5100.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure to
accomplish which one(s) of the following?
Primary functions.
Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose
of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code
The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest
geographic area?
Pacific Command
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a
combatant commander
A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command
and (3) the Armys
Surface Deployment and Distribution Command
Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside
of the United States?
The European Command
The National Security Council's members include, by law, _____________.
the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Functional combatant commanders ___________________.
are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense
The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will
operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts.
Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
Which of the following is not true?
None of the answers are correct
Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.
Experimentation
________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.
The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
A joint concept is __________________.
a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander
might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint
Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow
In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States
enjoys today requires ________________.
a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural
changes across the joint community
Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.
Joint Functional Concepts
____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the
hierarchy of joint publications.
Capstone
A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.
a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to
generate effects and achieve an objective
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept
developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of
future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
Joint Functional Concepts ________________.
receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a
Joint Operating Concept
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept
developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of
future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint
Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow
A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a
strategic objective ______________.
10-20 years in the future
A Joint Operating Concept __________________.
identifies broad principles and essential capabilities
Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?
Joint Integrating Concept
False
During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.
was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a
legitimate nation
Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.
quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army
The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the
Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (volunteer) forces and
proof that the United States didnt need to maintain a large standing army.
True
One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the
American Revolution was ____________________.
the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation
The Second Seminole War _______________.
became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring
victory
Navigation is ____________________.
an art of approximation
Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an
absolute control of the sea.
False
In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your
location to a considerable degree?
GPS
The Navys organizational culture comes from ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions,
threats, tactics, and technologies, its important to know
___________________.
The U.S. Navys organizational culture
Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Navys intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to
limit the enemys freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for
maneuver
U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against
the Russians and, at this time, they ____________________.
have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support
operations
Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is
the not-to-centralize philosophy of the U.S. ________________________.
Navy
Theory of War:
An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war?
It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the
action
The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.
in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and
the tactics employed on
the battlefield to achieve those objectives
The enemys center of gravity ____________________.
can change particularly at the operational and tactical level
An enemys critical vulnerability ____________________.
is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the
enemys ability to resist us
The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.
may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability
Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on
____________________.
the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions
Which of the following is correct?
The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.
Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at
what level of war?
Tactical
The three components of military art are ____________________.
strategy, tactics, and operational art
The enemys center of gravity ____________________.
can change particularly at the operational and tactical level
Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.
concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness
The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.
by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use
of divisions and corps
each commanded by a general officer who
was well versed in his strategic objectives
Doctrine:
Select True or False: Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or
multinational force.
True
Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.
True
Joint doctrine is based on ____________________.
current capabilities
Select True or False: Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.
False
The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.
all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site
The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through
____________________.
NWDC SIPRNET site
CWC Concept:
Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because:
In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.
What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept?
Command by negation
The common operating picture, or COP, includes ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The CWC concept addresses defense against:
All of the answers are correct
After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission:
Shifted in orientation to the littorals.
The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because
___________________ .
that is where the needed C2 assets will be
JFMCC/CWC Challenges:
What are the challenges to the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to
___________________.
developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and
improvement in satellite
communications
Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and
centralized execution.
False
The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which
means ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
A downside of CWCs dependency on communications is ______________.
all of the answers are correct
According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments
against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________.
CWC creates broad war fighting specialists
False
How do the Navys two principal missions influence events on land?
Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while
power projection ashore directly
influences those events.
Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack
targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.
False
CSG:
Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the
Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at
increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class.
False
The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.
sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups
ready to deploy within three
months of an emergency order
Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the
capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its
maximum speed.
False
Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts
have yet to be implemented and tested.
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the
Tomahawk missile?
all of the answers are correct
Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the
Navys strike warfare mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an
organic anti-submarine warfare capability.
False
CV/CVN:
What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?
Reduce the number of aircraft required
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct
___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft
carrier into real and useable power.
Human organization
Successful strike warfare depends upon ?
All of the answers are correct
Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to conduct air
operations in:
Sandstorms
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and
effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?
Improved ship design
What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?
Aircraft carrier
CVW:
Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability; this refers to?
Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.
The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its
versions has all the following advantages except:
ASW capability
What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common?
Recent mission changes
Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:
National Command Authority
B. E-2C Hawkeye
3. electronic attack
C. EA-6B Prowler
4. early warning
D. S-3B Viking
Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the
combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they
reach their targets?
Combat air patrol
What is the principal limitation of PGMs?
Cost
Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are?
Operates in adverse weather
Converts dumb bomb into precision guided weapon
Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include:
battle damage assessment
Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.
Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.
The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single
fighting system.
Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of
the carrier air wing.
What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?
The embarked air wing
Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following:
reduced costs and maintenance expenses
TLAM:
Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?
Surface Warfare:
Which is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander?
Direct submarine operations
Air Defense:
To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense
________ enemy airborne platforms and weapons.
All of the answers are correct
____________________ is the primary mission of air defense.
Defense in Depth
Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?
Point defense ships and patrol craft
Non-organic air defense support refers to:
All of the answers are correct
Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare
commanders facilitates:
Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate
surveillance data; and
security for departing and landing aircraft.
Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include:
Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds
and ranges of weapons
and launch platforms, and increased
difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons.
Naval Logistics:
MSCs Kilauea Class ammunition ships ____________________.
Have no armament
Undersea Warfare:
Which of the following is NOT true?
While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air
Independent Propulsion systems
still must typically snorkel at
least once a day to recharge their batteries.
Which of the following is true?
Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a
submarine or an acoustic
mine.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols.
Which of the following is true?
Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out
of the noise generated
by the ship.
The ASW warfare commanders call sign under the Navys Composite Warfare
Commander concept is ___________________.
AX
Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.
detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earths magnetic field caused
by the submarine
Which of the following is NOT true?
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and
defensive submarine
operations.
When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System
(NMRS) vehicle ___________________.
is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube
The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly
submarines are ___________________.
prevention of mutual interference and water space management
Which of the following is true?
Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing
vessel.
The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.
Acoustic and non-acoustic
Which of the following is NOT true?
Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally
accomplished?
By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and
functions and provides the commander a means to measure, report, and
correct performance?
Control
Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?
U.S. Forces Korea
False
Select True or False: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full
range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key
differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps.
True
Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or
equipment for any primary
U.S. Army mission area.
The Air Assault Division is considered:
All of the answers are correct.
Heavy divisions offer exceptional:
Tactical mobility.
A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to
maneuver and fire.
Platoon
Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to
exercise command and control over all land forces, and may be an allied
or coalition commander.
True
US Air Force:
Select True or False: USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by speciallytrained Special Operations personnel.
False
The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following
aircraft:
B-2
Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery of
troops and cargo, as well as tactical airlift and air drop?
C-17 Globemaster III
Which aircraft is considered the USAFs front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical
close air support to friendly forces on the ground?
A-10
Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time
reference in support of strategic, operational, and tactical operations:
Select all
___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal
risk and collateral damage.
Precision engagement
___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys
center of gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack
Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the
electromagnetic spectrum?
RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint
The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain
flexible and efficient combat operations.
Agile combat support
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint
operations?
Air refueling
The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility
Commands __________.
Strategic airlift concept
The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the
decisive time and place is one of the most constant and important trends
found throughout military history.
Concentration
Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link
frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S. Air Force function:
Counterspace
Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery
systems used.
True
List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the
National Military Strategy.
Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS):
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is/are not considered part of the operating forces of the U.S.
Marine Corps available to the combatant commanders?
The Supporting Forces
Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)?
All of the answers are correct
US Coast Guard:
Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resource supporting
the National Military Strategy?
No
Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant
commander?
Forcible entry from the sea
Which one(s) of the following is/are unique to the USCG?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Article 14, USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military
service at all times.
True
Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guards primary short-range helicopter for SAR and
surveillance?
HH-65A Dolphin
The present day U.S. Coast Guard can trace its roots back to:
Select all
Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory?
MH-68 Shark
Which of the following is not true regarding current and future U.S. Coast Guard
operations?
The non-DOD budget nature of the USCG allows for greater funding and flexibility
than the other military
services.
Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard
Area Commander reports directly to the respective Navy Fleet
Commander.
True
In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable
federal laws on and under the high seas and waters subject to the U.S.
jurisdiction?
The U.S. Coast Guard at all times
The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into
a comprehensive and cohesive national effort involving appropriate
Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called __________?
the National Strategy for Maritime Security
What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement
activities in the United States?
Posse Comitatus Act of 1878
The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be
achieved by ___________________.
blending public and private maritime security measures
Irregular Warfare:
Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.
measures taken to preempt terrorism
In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to
remember that ___________________.
promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some
conditions that foster terrorism
Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the
following?
The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area.
By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .
a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and
release of energy
Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which
of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the
following?
All of the answers are correct.
Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s):
All of the answers are correct.
Political Structure:
Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or underreacting in the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole
arbitrators of what course of action to pursue.
True
Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that
elections have a significant impact on the peacefulness of a democracys
foreign policy toward other democracies.
False
The fact that the worlds leading democracies share common moral values guides them
to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace.
Not true under all circumstances.
Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure
each time a new president is sworn into office.
False
Select True or False: In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war
are remote compared to a multi-polar international system.
True
In a multi-polar international system _____________.
the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar
international system
there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than
in a bi-polar international
system
Select True or False: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline
of its major security threat is that its member states believe there is an
economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation.
True
Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to
independent country is an example of a change in domestic structure.
True
During the Cold War, the world was a(n) _____________ international system.
bi-polar
Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ___________ international system.
multi-polar
Columbia
In the aftermath of September 11, 2001, the United States has focused on countering
__________________ throughout the world, including Latin America.
Terrorism
During the Cold War, the U.S. foreign policy goal was
to___________________________________.
contain Communism across the globe, and Soviet expansionism in particular
Select True or False: During the Cold War, the most important goal for the United
States in Latin America was support for democracy.
False
In 1994,The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) joined the economies of
the _________________________________.
United States, Canada and Mexico
The Good Neighbor Policy is associated with which U.S. president?
Franklin Roosevelt
Latin Americans __________________________ the Good Neighbor Policy.
Welcomed
Which corollary to the Monroe Doctrine claimed that the United States had the right and
moral duty to exercise international police power in the Americas?
Roosevelt corollary
How did Latin America respond to the Monroe Doctrine?
Latin Americans resented the Monroe Doctrine
The United States gained nearly half of the territory of what country in Latin America
from 1845 to 1853?
Mexico
After the Cold War, U.S. policy toward Latin America was focused on
_____________________________.
supporting democracy
During the Cold War, the United States intervened militarily in Central America and the
Caribbean primarily to ____________________.
contain Communism
Which of the following countries in Latin America did not become democratic after
1978?
Cuba
During the first half of the 20th Century a period of growing authoritarianism in Latin
America was the result of _______________________.
the Great Depression
Select True or False: Latin America was more prosperous in the 1990s than in the
1980s.
False
Which institution in Latin America played a primary role in the 19th Century in filling the
vacuum of power created by independence?
The military
Most of the military regimes in Latin America were ______________.
friendly toward the United States
What historical event led to greater political polarization in Latin America?
The Cuban Revolution led by Fidel Castro
The "Washington Consensus" called for all of the below, except for
__________________.
free transportation for the poor
Political polarization in Latin America took place in _________.
1959
The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are
_________________.
Chile and Bolivia
The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay,
Uruguay, and _____________________.
Chile
In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord
with ___________________.
The EU
Select True or False: Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any
countries in the Southern Cone.
True
Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all
became democratic countries.
False
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or
MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries, except
_____________________.
Venezuela and Peru
The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between
_____________________.
Argentina and Brazil
Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures
per year?
Brazil
The United States: _______________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military
expenditures in Latin America, is the only country in its region that has a military
capable of major expeditionary operations.
False
The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military
expenditures is ________________________.
Columbia
Some view ____________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.
Costa Rica
The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of
______________________.
Defense
Historical Framework:
What event caused the Allied European Powers (primarily Britain and France) to divide
the Middle East and take territory away from the Ottoman Empire?
The Ottoman Empire's support for Germany during World War I
The victory of the European combined forces against the Turkish invading army in the
battle at Vienna in 1683 _______________________.
all of the answers are correct
Napoleon's occupation of Egypt is significant for which of the following reasons?
All of the answers are correct
The Sykes-Picot Agreement provides that _____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In the Balfour Declaration, Britain declared _______________________.
its support for a Jewish national home in Palestine
The collapse of which empire resulted in today's configuration of the Middle East map?
The Ottoman Empire
Arab-Israeli Conflict:
Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of
Palestine.
False
Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained
their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal.
False
During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ___________________________
occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in
___________________.
Oslo, in 1992
The Arab League and Palestinian institutions __________________.
rejected the partition plan
The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the
__________________________.
Six Day War in 1967
Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted
by the assassination of Israeli Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November
4, 1995.
True
The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14,
1948, was ________________.
the United States
Following the Camp David Accords _________________________.
Israeli withdrew from the Sinai
The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza
Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of the ________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab
states with Jerusalem ______________________.
to become an International Zone
On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon
______________________________.
Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict
What is the Bush administration's attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is
constructing on the West Bank?
It acquiesced to construction of the wall
False
In the 1950s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by
____________________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as
_______________________________________.
A defense alliance against the Soviet Union
May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis _______________________________.
All of the answers are correct
What does Operation Earnest Will stand for?
The U.S. escorting Kuwait's oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988
The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________________________.
The importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential
battleground in the emerging contest
with the Soviet Union
In 1953, after a coup dEtat backed by Britain and the United States,
_________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
After being defeated by the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA) in 1949, the ROC
armies retreated to ____________________.
the island of Taiwan
Select True or False: Following the Sino-Soviet Treaty of 1950, the PRC became part
of the Soviet Bloc.
True
By placing the U.S. Seventh Fleet in the Taiwan Strait, President Truman helped to stop
__________________________.
All of the answers are correct
How did Chinese Communist forces gain strength during World War II?
The Japanese invasion of China gave them a chance to rebuild
Select True or False: According to the Sino-Soviet Security Treaty the USSR had an
obligation to Beijing to provide military aid if PRC was attacked by Japan.
False
In what year did the PRC explode its first hydrogen bomb?
1967
What was the major goal of the CCP in organizing people into work units?
All of the answers are correct
Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent
state of their own?
Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims
minorities would be denied full
rights.
Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of
Colonial India, including the military assets.
False
The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between
Pakistan and India ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ____________________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and
their mission is to ____________________.
Observe
Select True or False: During the presidency of Bill Clinton in the 1990s, the
relationship between the U.S. and Pakistan improved greatly.
False
Select True or False: During the Cold War, the United States was trying to prevent
India from achieving self-sufficiency and attempted to make it dependant on U.S.
markets.
False
During the Cold War India had a policy of ____________________.
Non-alignment
conducted
five
nuclear
tests
of
its
own
European Civilization:
Select True or False: In 8th Century A.D. the Greco-Roman-Christian civilization on the
territories of the former Roman Empire was replaced by the Arab-Muslim civilization.
False
Due to collapse of the ____________________,the face of Europe radically changed,
as a result of the First World War.
German, Russian, Ottoman and Austria-Hungarian empires
After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Roman traditions, cultural and
linguistic influences continue to thrive in Italy, Southern France and Spain but almost
completely disappeared in the_________________ parts of the former empire.
North-Western
The Triple Entente was a coalition of Britain, France and Russia against Germany and
____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: In 2002, a new single European currency, the EURO, was
introduced to all of EU member countries.
False
Select True or False: The confrontation between Germany and the USSR created an
alliance between the Communist dictatorship and the Western democracies.
True
In the 1920s and 1930s, the rise of ____________________ threatened most European
nations.
All of the answers are correct
By 1871, the process of unification in the form of one nation-state was complete for
several European nations except for the_______________.
Serbs
The Protestant movements took place in Europe as a result of a popular dissatisfaction
with the ____________________.
Catholic Church
In the history of Western Europe, The Hundred Year War (1337-1453) was a long
struggle between ____________________.
England and France
During the Early Middle Ages, in the 8 th and 9th centuries, Western Europe was going
through a time commonly known as ______________.
Dark Ages
The imperial authority as absolute and divine, over the centuries, was deeply implanted
and remains even today part of the cultures of the______________________ peoples.
Balkan and Russian
Some believe that ____________________ is emerging as one of the Americas major
competitors.
Europe
The purpose of the U.S. Marshall Plan for Europe was to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The idea of imperial authority as absolute and divinely instituted originated from
____________________.
Byzantine
Select True or False: Throughout the Middle Ages, the Muslim world served as a
protective barrier between Western Europe and Byzantine Empire.
False
The most populated, largely urbanized and heavily industrialized continent on earth is
____________________.
Europe
Introduction to Planning:
When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action
related to a crisis, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n)
____________________ to implement the approved military course of action
Execute Order
Contingency planning focuses on ___________________.
potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces
A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the
objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike
Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air strikes as
required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and
a list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is
most likely the supported commander for this operation?
The Colonel commanding the MEU.
An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____________________.
a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the
coordinating execution of an
operation
Which of the following is correct?
A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a
supported commander for
another.
A concept plan (CONPLAN) ____________________.
is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable
expansion or alteration to
convert it into an OPLAN
Which situations are not appropriate subjects for contingency planning?
None of the answers are correct
A(n) ___________________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the
initiation of execution planning after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a
military course of action.
Alert Order
Which of the following is correct?
In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the
President or Secretary of
Defense approves a military course of action.
Joint strategic planning ____________________.
All the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Crisis Action Planning only takes place when a situation develops that will
require U.S. military combat
operations as a response.
Scope:
Select True or False: The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the
Navy have issued directives that state that the armed forces of the United States will,
unless otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and spirit
of the Law Of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not
involve armed conflict.
False
Given that it has been determined that the al-Qaida and Taliban members captured in
Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatants, which of the following
statements is true?
The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs
under the Geneva
Conventions, but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic
policy.
Select True or False: The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects
of military operations, are similar to the Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they
apply to all nations.
false
Select True or False: U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva
Conventions as a minimum concerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims
of armed conflict.
FALSE
If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a nonsignatory nation ____________________.
the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention
bind only the signatory
nation
The Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.
a generally accepted body of international law
U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.
a minimum standard
Select True or False: The United States policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when
conducting military operations so that it may more easily punish its enemies after the
cessation of hostilities.
False
Principles:
In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.
incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the
anticipated concrete and direct
military advantage to be gained from the attack
Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.
are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war
camps to provide medical
services to POWs
Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an
acceptable tactic.
False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.
Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemys forces during an
armed engagement, ____________________.
while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status
must be continually verified
to ensure it does not return to civilian object
status
Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict
____________________.
may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured
Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the
U.S. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for
a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.
False
General Principles:
Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will
execute the mission and to
assist planners and operators as they develop or
request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces
____________________.
shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC
Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed
in light of the nations political goals.
False
Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances
and limitations under which U.S. forces will continue combat engagement as only the
nations civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.
False
Select True or False: U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules
of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented to them by the
military establishment.
False
The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.
allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission
Select True or False: Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of
Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect U.S. nationals and their property.
True
Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order
to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners
and tactical level operators enough leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned
missions.
True
of
Rules
of
Engagement
(ROE)
are
Select True or False: Domestic and international public support of a military action is a
factor to be considered when developing Rules of Engagement (ROE).
True
SROE:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces
supporting law enforcement agencies conducting special event security within the U.S.
if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country.
False
Select True or False: The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordination tool with U.S. allies for the
development of combined or multinational ROE.
True
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require
proportionality in the use of force in self-defense as to do so would restrict a
commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include
the destruction of a hostile force under actions permitted in self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are applicable
during peacetime.
True
U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they
____________________.
provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without
repetitively requesting
permission to take certain actions
Select True or False: The guidance concerning the inherent right of self-defense
provided by the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are only applicable to U.S.
forces operating in areas outside of U.S. territorial jurisdiction.
False
Select True or False: The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a
stable international environment consistent with U.S. national interests.
True
When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by
____________________.
the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial
jurisdiction of the U.S. and the
U.S. Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if
responding to a military attack
In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S.
forces during military attacks against the United States.
True
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military
operations ____________________.
occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
Self Defense:
Select True or False: A commanders inherent authority and obligation to use all
necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in self-defense is limited
to the self-defense of the commanders own unit.
False
A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the
use of force in self-defense.
If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force.
The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.
is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act
or demonstration of hostile
intent can be prevented or terminated
When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the
commander ____________________.
should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to
withdraw or cease threatening
actions if time and circumstances permit
Select True or False: As a form of self-defense, the use of riot control agents is always
authorized.
False
Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend
themselves before they are attacked.
True
Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat
requirement for self-defense.
True
Mission Accomplishment:
In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission
____________________.
the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered
In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal
assistant to staff director for operations in developing and integrating Rules of
Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.
Staff Judge Advocate
Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
____________________.all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of
Engagement (ROE).
Political, military and legal objectives
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement
(SROE) contains combat Rules of Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that
a U.S. could be assigned to perform.
False
Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.
RUF:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations
conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas
when they are protecting vital government assets.
True
Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of
Force (RUF) would include disaster relief response.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the
United States in support of another agency (for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may
operate under that agencys Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).
True
Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S.
military forces always operate under Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically
for that operation.
False
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. Naval Ships while in
foreign ports.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the
United States may operate under Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed
specifically for the mission they are assigned.
True
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships
in international waters
True
True
Select True or False: Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for
friendly forces while, when directed, denying it to an adversary, and include the broad
aspect of protection of U.S. and U.S. allied space systems and negation of enemy
adversary space systems.
True
The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning
of ballistic missile launch and nuclear detonation is: _________________________.
Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment
The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and
orbital control is __________________.
Space support
The four military space mission areas are _______________________.
Space Control, Space Support, Force Application, and Force Enhancement
The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on
meteorological, oceanographic, and space environmental factors that might affect
operations in other battlespace dimensions is _______________.
Environmental monitoring
The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force
Enhancement mission area: __________________________.
Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment;
Environmental Monitoring
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our
combat operations.
True
Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance:
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our
combat operations.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or system
must be continuously collecting.
False
The most significant advantage of a space-based Intelligence, Surveillance, and
Reconnaissance sensor is __________________________.
the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage
disseminated
over
Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the
definition of "Attack Assessment" is defined as _______________________.
the evaluation of information to determine the nature and objective of an attack
Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the
definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as _______________________.
a specific threat event that is occurring
Select True or False: U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with
its allies and coalition partners.
True
Environmental Monitoring:
Weather affects ________________________.
All the answers are correct
____________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational
planning.
Meteorological and Oceanographic
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features can be used by
the commander to _________________.
avoid submarine or maritime mine threats
concentrate forces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating
Weather satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability, typically gathering data in
_____ spectral bands.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of
communications.
True
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as
_______ are critical for undersea warfare operations.
All the answers are correct
Communications:
Heavy solar activity ___________________________.
can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing
communications outages in extreme
cases
Select True or False: SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are
particularly affected by rain (the higher the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not
only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage.
True
Wideband satellite communications support ________________.
All the answers are correct
Significant advantages of satellite communication systems
communication systems are _________________________.
global coverage, security, flexibility
over
terrestrial
True
NAVSTAR GPS provides the primary space-based source for U.S. and allied:
All the answers are correct
Although the presence of the highly accurate navigational information from the Global
Positioning System constellation is exploitable by adversary forces, it is unlikely the
Global Positioning System signal will be interdicted to interrupt the signal availability to
adversary forces because ________________.
signal interruption will affect the tremendous civil dependence upon Global
Positioning System
GPS navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation is a local
effect that has daily and seasonal variations. The effects are worse at ________ and will
usually taper off by _______.
local sunset / local midnight
Benefits to Naval forces from GPS include:
All the answers are correct
Global Positioning System is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to
establish a _______________, where all forces are geographically referenced correctly
and precisely synchronized operations are possible.
Common grid
Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held GPS
receivers in areas of ______may have diminished GPS capabilities.
dense vegetation or steep terrain
in
the
chain
of
command,
the
more
you
rely
on
The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the following
reason.
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
All are true statements about information EXCEPT ___________.
information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer
Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for
making a decision. This image-building information will contain _____________ .
status and disposition of our own forces
_____________ is the lifeblood of any C system.
Information
New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to __________.
validate the image or revise it
Select True or False: Secondhand information normally elicits the same natural
intuitive evaluation of reliability.
False
Decisions should be based on ___________.
Information
C2:
_________________ drive(s) the command and control process.
Information
In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the
authority and responsibility for:
health & welfare
discipline
morale
Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to:
Monitor events
Adapt to changing circumstances
Adjust the allocation of resources
The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through
____________________.
a command and control system
Select True or False: Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the
armed forces lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.
True
Select True or False: C refers both to the process and to the system by which the
commander decides what must be done and by how he sees that his decisions are
carried out.
True
Select True or False: Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely
that subordinates will take the proper action in combat. This is control before the action
but nonetheless is still control.
True
While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the
subconscious brain (______________________) that monitors and regulates most
actions.
subordinate commanders and forces
Decision Making:
Select True or False: Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the
operational commander, all phases of the cycle are active at each echelon of command.
True
Select True or False: During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the
execution of operations and gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge
results. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action phase
observations.
False
Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we
_______, _________ , and _________ .
observe / decide / act
Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in _______________.
situational awareness
_______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes
decisions and exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishing an
assigned mission.
C2
After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next
step is to ___________ on a course of action and develop a plan.
Decide
Forcenet:
Select True or False: In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can
have global ramifications, naval professionals must share databases with government
agencies and nongovernmental organizations.
True
By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the
knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by:
Enhancing deterrence
Controlling crises
Sustaining warfighting superiority
The Navy's success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to
unprecedented tactical flexibility made possible by:
Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits
Precision-guided munitions made effective by these systems
Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground
____________________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats,
locate and destroy anti-access challenges and intercept missiles.
Sea shield
____________________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions
afloat.
Sea Basing
Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the
development of high endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend
intra-theatre networking.
True
Seapower 21:
Sea Power 21 divides the Navys roles and missions into three fundamental concepts:
Sea Basing Projecting joint operational independence
Sea Strike Projecting precise and persistent offensive power
Sea Shield Projecting global defensive assurance
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 sets the stage for minimal increases in naval
precision, reach, and connectivity. Joint operations, though important, will come
secondary to blue water capabilities and a shore based support infrastructure.
Innovative concepts and technologies that integrate sea, land, air, space, and
cyberspace will be incorporated if, and when, the need arises.
False
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 represents a clear vision of the Navys part in
future joint warfighting in an unpredictable strategic environment typified by regional and
transnational threats.
True
Select True or False: A major premise of SeaPower 21 is that we will continue the
evolution of U.S. naval power from the blue-water, war-at-sea focus to an emphasis of
From the Sea and Forward from the Sea, strategy.
True
Identify the elements of FORCEnet.
Sea Trial, Sea Warrior, Sea Enterprise
The SeaPower 21 concept is enabled by _________ and that, in turn, is enabled by
___________ .
FORCEnet, information technology
in
1904,
radar
wasnt
very
militarily
useful
until
Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German
submarine activity during World War I?
Sonar
Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be
generations behind the civilian state of the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize
unreliable assets.
True
The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe
____________________.
multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target
Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat
ability more efficient, more cost effective and safer by ________________.
All the answers are correct
Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in
the future include ________________.
unmanned aerial vehicles
Electronic Warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual
threats to its platform because ____________.
many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to
misidentification
Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement
sequence, one can never have too much sensor provided information. The more
information that can be collected, the easier the human decision making process is in a
tense, stressful environment.
False
Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ____________.
None of the answers are correct
Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?
Cover pulse jamming
A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is __________.
that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar
The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a target's radar at unexpected
times is used in __________.
cover pulse jamming
___________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being
detected by an infrared sensor.
How to increase a platforms ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases
Select True or False: Access times for non-volatile memory tend to be slower than for
volatile memory.
True
The assembler converts ____________________.
assembly language code into binary data
Select True or False: The volatile memory in a computer is used for the boot-up
process.
False
The types of memory/storage in a computer, listed in order from fastest to slowest
access are ____________________.
register, cache, RAM, mass storage
What are the four subsystems that make up a computer systems hardware?
Microprocessor, memory, mass storage, input/output devices
The group of logic devices that can perform mathematical operations on data in the
microprocessors registers is called the ____________________.
arithmetic logic unit
What controls the switching of states in the control unit?
Clock
____________________ is the process by which excess RAM is temporarily stored in
mass storage.
Virtual memory
____________________ is the most complicated of the resource management
functions.
Processor management
Stealth Technology:
To determine the RCS of a cylinder, the key consideration is ____________________.
polarization of the cylinder
A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of
____________________.
large RCS and IR signature
Select True or False: Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its
RCS should be much larger.
False
Select True or False: Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a
target, but cannot provide information regarding movement.
False
Methods used to reduce RCS include ____________________.
avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material
Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ____________________.
complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems
Select True or False: Scattering, which occurs when an electromagnetic wave
encounters a physical object, is the dispersal of particle beams of radiation into a range
of directions.
True
Select True or False: At changing higher frequencies, the RCS of a sphere changes
dramatically.
False
A critical capability of sensor systems is to ____________________.
distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data
Select True or False: Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected
a stealth platform can easily be tracked and targeted.
False
Electro-Optic Technology:
Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?
IR
The amount of energy in an electromagnetic wave is ____________________.
proportional to the frequency
Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall
image of the target, from which the attacking force can decide precisely where to
engage the target.
False
Select True or False: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance
so that the reflected spot on the target is centered on the detector.
True
Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
False
____________________ is an example of long range application of passive emission
detection.
Thermal imaging
The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ____________________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
The accuracy of a typical laser designator is approximately ____________________.
5m
An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ____________________.
AM radio waves
The optical spectrum consists of ____________________.
IR, visible and UV
Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good
visual conditions.
True
Radar:
Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit up Doppler while smaller targets have
down Doppler.
False
Blind speeds are a problem with ____________________.
pulse Doppler
How long will it take a radar signal to travel to and from a target 90 KM from the radar?
0.6 milliseconds
Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target
size.
False
Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the
object from which the signal reflected.
True
Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small
antennas arranged in rectangular or circular arrays.
True
Pulse radar is effective at ____________________.
determining a targets relative velocity
Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or
away from a radar.
True
Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be
the same frequency as the transmitted energy.
False
What is the maximum unambiguous range of a radar with a PRF of 5 KHz?
30 km
A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ____________________.
mixer, amplifier, and discriminator
____________________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance
covered by the target.
Inverse synthetic aperture