Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
b) possession of picklocks
c) libel
d) malicious mischief
b) degree of education
b) espionage
c) duel
d) treason
b) ignominy
c) scoffing
d) outraging
b) adultery
c) concubinage
d) disloyalty
c) blackmail
d) defamation
b) cuadrilla
c) delitos
d) evident premeditation
8. It is the deliberately augmenting the suffering of the victim which is not necessary in the
commission of the crime.
a) ignominy
b) cruelty
c) scoffing
d) outraging
b) ignominy
c) pompous
d) outraging
10. The following are the requisites of a valid marriage except one.
a) authority of the solemnizing officer
b) legal capacity of the contracting parties who must be of the same sex
c) a valid marriage license
d) marriage ceremony
11. The following cannot be prosecuted de oficio except one.
a) rape
b) seduction
c) acts of lasciviousness
d) adultery
12. The following are the crimes against the civil status except one.
a) bigamy
b) premature marriages
c) abandoning a minor
d) simulation of birth
13. It is the doctrine which states that the contributory negligence of the party injured will not
defeat the action if it be shown that the accused might, in the exercise of reasonable
care and prudence, have avoided the consequences of the negligence of the injured
party.
a) right of pre-emption
b) fortuitous event
d) emergency
rule
14. It is a question where the validity of the second marriage is a liability for bigamy.
a) negative pregnant b) political question
d) prejudicial question
c) judicial question
15. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the State except one.
a) arbitrary detention b) violation of domicile
c) illegal detention
d) delaying release
16. In the following cases, a person who committed parricide is not punishable with reclusion
perpetua to death except one.
a) committed thru negligence
c) committed by mistake
17. It is the unlawful killing of a person which is not parricide or infanticide provided
qualifying aggravating circumstances are present.
a) homicide
b) abortion
c) murder
d) parricide by mistake
18. The following are the requisites of evident premeditation except one.
a) any act manifestly indicating that the culprit has clung to its determination
b) a sufficient lapse of time between the determination and the execution
c) a sudden and an unexpected attack to ensure the consummation of the crime
d) the time when the offender determined to commit the crime
19. If a person shoots at another with any firearm to cause danger in a public place, what
crime is committed?
a) discharge of firearm
b) alarm
c) grave threat
d) light coercion
b) infanticide
c) abortion
d) murder
b) infanticide
c) parricide
d) murder
22. It is the penalty that has a duration of 6 months and 1 day to 6 years.
a) reclusion temporal b) arresto menor
c) prision mayor
d) prision correccional
23. It consists of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs which having been
committed publicly, have given rise to public scandal to persons who have accidentally
witnessed the same.
a) grave scandal
b) indecency
c) vagrancy
d) prostitution
b) non-feasance
b) non-feasance
26. B gave Inspector XYZ a gift of considerable amount which the latter received in
exchange for the issuance of a fake Police Investigation Report, what crime did
Inspector XYZ commit?
a) direct bribery
b) indirect bribery
d) dereliction of duty
b) condominium unit
c) hotel
d) dwelling
28. A quack doctor who treated a sick man resulting to the latters death, what crime was
committed?
a) frustrated homicide
b) murder
c) reckless imprudence resulting to homicide
d) reckless imprudence resulting to murder
b) affidavit
d) certificates
30. If a person points a gun to pregnant woman, at the same time telling her that he will her,
and because of fright she absorbs, she suffer an abortion, what crime is committed.
a) intentional abortion
b) grave threats
c) unintentional abortion
d)
threat
31. It means the lopping or clipping off some part of the body.
a) castration
b) mutilation
c) assaulting
d) beating
32. The following are the acts of committing falsification except one.
a) imitating handwriting
b) falsification c) perjury
d) false testimony
c) impossible crime
d) imprudence
b) confidential
c) correspondence
d) privilege communication
36. It is the practice of putting to death a person suffering from some incurable disease.
a) giving assistance to suicide
b) suicide
c) euthanasia
d) murder
37. It is a crime committed by more than three armed persons who form a band of robbers
for the purpose of committing robbery in a highway to be attained by means of force and
violence.
a) brigands
b) brigandage c) robbery
b) domestic
c) teacher
d) brother
39. The following are the acts penalizing white slave trade except one.
a) promoting prostitution
b) profiting by prostitution
40. It is the taking away of a woman from her house or place where she may be for the
purpose of carrying her to another place with intent to marry or to corrupt her.
a) kidnapping
b) seduction
c) illegal detention
d) abduction
41. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a
judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal properties
and bring it before the judge.
a) search
b) arrest
c) search warrant
d) warrant of arrest
42. H seduced Ws daughter because H refused to marry her. W threatened H with death,
unless H would marry her daughter, what crime did W commit?
a) light threat
b) blackmail
c) grave threat
d) grave coercion
43. It is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a) search
b) arrest
c) search warrant
d) warrant of arrest
44. The following are the subject of a search warrant except one.
a) subject of the offense
b) accident
c) fulfillment of a duty
d) obedience of an order
46. The following are the causes which may produce the legal dissolution of the first
marriage except one.
a) judicial declaration of presumptive death
b) death of one of the contracting parties
c) judicial declaration annulling a void marriage
d) judicial declaration annulling a voidable marriage
47. It is the taking of a personal property belonging to another with intent to gain, by means
of violence against or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things.
a) piracy
b) theft
c) robbery
d) qualified theft
48. The following are the civil liability of persons guilty of crimes against chastity except one.
a) to support the offspring
b) to indemnify the offended woman
c) to marry the offended woman
d) to acknowledge the offspring
50. The following are crimes against the civil status except one.
a) bigamy
b) premature marriages
c) libel
d) simulation of birth
a.
b.
c.
d.
7. When does the court acquire jurisdiction over a case filed by the law
enforcement agencies?
the moment the case is filed with the fiscal office
the moment that it is filed with the court
the moment that the trial or the case begins
the moment that the parties presents their evidence
8. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for
by law is the protection against self-incrimination and right is found on
the grounds of ;
a. public policy and morality
c. humanity and conscience
b. public policy and humanity
d. humanity kindness
9. What rule or doctrine in criminal jurisprudence requires mandatory preinterrogation warnings concerning self-incrimination and the right to
counsel of the suspect?
a. Doctrine of the First of the Poisonous Tree
b. Doctrine on the Presumption of Innocence
c. Due Process Law
d. Miranda Doctrine
10.
11.
12.
a. operations
b. planning
c. management
d. administration
a. Headquarters procedures
procedures
b. Field procedures
c. special operating
d. characteristics of plans
14. A standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the
duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron and other personnel concerned which
may be reflected in the duty manual.
a. Headquarters procedures
procedures
b. Field procedures
c. special operating
d. operational plans
15. A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of special
divisions like, patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency control.
a. Policies or procedures
b. Operational plans
c. tactical plans
d. extra-office plans
16. A type of plan that includes those procedures for coping with specific
situations at known locations, such plans for dealing
with an attack
against building with alarm systems and an attack against. Headquarters of
the PNP.
a. tactical plans
c. management plans
b. Extra-office plans
d. operational plans
17. A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in
the organization, management of personnel and material and in the
procurement and disbursement of money, etc.
a. management of plans
b. extra-office plans
c. operational plans
d. characteristics of plans
18.
19. A steps in planning, that states that no attempt shall be made to develop
a plan until all facts relating to it have been gathered.
a. collecting all pertinent facts
c. developing alternative
plans
b. analyzing the facts
d. selecting the most appropriate
alternative
20. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been
gathered, a careful study and evaluation shall be made; this provides the
basis from which a plan or plans are evolved.
a. developing alternative plans c. selecting the most appropriate
alternative
b. developing the facts
d. selling the plan
21. One of the steps in planning, where a careful consideration of
usually leads to
the selection of a best alternative proposals.
a. analyzing the facts
b. selecting the most appropriate alternative
c. selling the plan
d. arranging for the execution of the plan.
facts
22. One step in planning, that is necessary in order to know whether a correct
alternative was chosen, whether or not the plan is correct, which phase was
poorly implemented, and whether additional planning may be necessary.
a. evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
b. arranging for the execution of the plan
c. selecting the most appropriate alternative
d. selling the plan
23.What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the
Philippine National Police and its units subordinates to establish rapport
or good relationship
with other law enforcement agencies of the
government?
a. Police Executive Training
c. Business like Activity
b. Coordination and Cooperation
d. Socialization
24.
25. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that
involve one or both of the elements namely;
a. motor vehicles and traffic way
c. motor vehicle and victim
b. victim and traffic way
d. victim and traffic unit
26. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of
traffic law enforcement is;
a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
b. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
c. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
d. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
27.
a. Formal Organizations
Organizations
c. Administration
authority
b.
d.
and
Informal
All
of
the
above
a. Formal Organizations
Organizations
c. Administration
36. The structured group of
achieving police goals and
called:
b.
Informal
a. Police Management
b. Police Organization
c. Organizational Structure
d.
Police
Administration
37. The study of the processes and conditions of the Law Enforcement
pillar that is also called police in action:
a. Police Management
b. Police Organization
c. Organizational Structure
d. Police Administration
38. The ability of police administrators in winning support for
departmental programs from people with in the department as well as
the citizens is called:
a. Community relation
b. Police Leadership
c. Police planning
d. Community Policing
which
48. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their
capabilities best fit them is referred to as:
a. Staffing
b. Organizing
c. Directing
d. Planning
49. The structural changes to be made when need arise to provide a
more effective medium of work that can be performed and distributed
is called:
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. Planning
50. The nature of service in which an employee shall receive order
from only one superior is called:
a. Scalar Chain
b. Unity of Command
c. Chain of Command
d. Unity of Direction
CRIMINALSITICS
1.
b.
simple forgery
c.
traced forgery
d.
carbon tracing
2.
Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate
and proper,
should contain a cross section of the material from known sources.
3.
4.
a.
disguised document
b.
questioned document
c.
standard document
d.
requested document
letters
c.
exemplars
c.
6.
d.
samples
documents
5.
b.
disputed document
requested document
b.
standard document
d.
questioned document
drafting
b.
calligraphy
c.
art appreciation
d.
gothic
certificate
warrant
b.
subpoena
d.
document
7.
8.
9.
ulnar loop
b.
tented arch
c.
accidental whorl
d.
radial loop
ridge
b.
island
c.
delta
d.
bifurcation
divergence
b.
island
c.
delta
d.
bifurcation
of the
10.
The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop
except one:
a.
c.
looping bridge
11.
12.
a delta
b.
a sufficient recurve
d.
a core
a ridge count across a
pathology
b.
fingerprinting
c.
dactyloscopy
d.
printing press
pathology
b.
fingerprinting
c.
dactyloscopy
d.
printing press
13.
Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround the
pattern area.
14.
ridges.
a.
ridges
c.
type line
b.
delta
d.
bifurcation
A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and
a.
type line
c.
pattern area
15.
Fingerprints left
are not clearly visible.
a.
b.
d.
bifurcation
forrow
plane impressions
b.
visible fingerprints
c.
rolled impressions
16.
The impressions
various surfaces.
left
by
d.
the
patterns
latent fingerprints
of
ridges
and
a.
kiss marks
b.
finger rolls
c.
thumb marks
d.
fingerprints
depressions
on
17.
Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
pattern?
a.
arch
b.
accidental
c.
loop
d.
whorl
18.
The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between
two points.
a.
eighteen
c.
twelve
b.
d.
fifteen
nine
19.
A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals
around core axes.
20.
a.
whorl
b.
c.
double loop
d.
accidental
loop
b.
radial loop
c.
ulnar loop
d.
tented arch
21.
A person allowed to give an opinion or conclusion on a given scientific
evidence.
22.
a.
interrogator
b.
expert witness
c.
prosecutor
d.
judge
a.
Administration
c.
Criminalistics
Criminal Psychology
23.
24.
concave lens
c.
negative lens
Forensic
d.
b.
b.
center
convex lens
d.
positive lens
of a paper or film.
25.
a.
30-60 minutes
c.
5-10 minutes
b.
d.
20-30
minutes
1- 2 minutes
a.
b.
view finder
c.
shutter
d.
view finder
26.
A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal
material.
27.
28.
a.
telephoto lens
c.
normal lens
b.
d.
31.
32.
long lens
Potassium Bromide
c.
Sodium Sulfite
b.
Sodium Carbonate
d.
Hydroquinone
view finder
c.
shutter
b.
lens
d.
29.
A component of the polygraph instrument
the subject.
30.
of its negative
a.
cardiosphygmograph
b.
pneumograph
c.
galvanograph
d.
kymograph
cardiosphygmograph
b.
pneumograph
c.
galvanograph
d.
kymograph
cardiosphygmograph
b.
pneumograph
c.
galvanograph
d.
kymograph
33.
of
34.
35.
38.
39.
40,
41.
d.
forgery
b.
emotion
c.
the mind
d.
deception
fear
c.
response
b.
stimuli
d.
reaction
36.
The
question.
37.
c.
in
a.
positive response
b.
specific response
c.
normal response
d.
reaction
the
relevant
Terminal Ballistics
b.
Internal Ballistics
c.
External Ballistics
d.
Forensic Ballistics
Trajectory
c.
Velocity
b.
yaw
d.
gyroscopic action
extractor
b.
ejector
c.
striker
d.
trigger
yaw
c.
velocity
b.
range
d.
trajectory
This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after
striking a resistant surface.
a.
misfire
b.
mushroom
c.
ricochet
d.
42.
Bordan primer
b.
Berdan Primer
c.
Baterry Primer
d.
Boxer Primer
43.
This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the
bore.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
a.
swaging
b.
ogive
c.
rifling
d.
breaching
trajectory
b.
yaw
c.
velocity
d.
gyproscopic action
calibre
c.
gauge
a.
Hans Gross
c.
Albert Osborne
rifling
b.
Charles Waite
d.
Calvin Goddard
Void Document
c.
Forged Document
b.
d.
c.
d.
e.
50.
c.
mean diameter
a.
49.
b.
Illegal Document
Questioned Document
forgery
except one:
Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and
for the purpose of comparison with the questioned document.
a.
relative standards
b.
collected standards
c.
extended standards
d.
requested standards
a.
natural variation
b.
rhythm
c.
retracing
d.
shading
A. Circumstantial evidence
B. Associative evidence
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus Delicti
9. If the purpose of the informer in giving information to the police is merely to gain a
pecuniary material, then his motive is
A. Remuneration
C. Repentance of sins
B. Revenge
D. Vanity
10. Which of these is a statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his criminal
guilt?
A. Admission
C. Confession
B. Acknowledgement
D. Deposition
11. The New York Chief of Detectives who introduce the Modus Operandi system in
the field of Criminal Investigation was:
A. Thomas Byrnes
C. Sir Richard Henry
B. Sir Francis Galton
D. Dr. Paul Kirk
12. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. Heel
C. Butt
E. None of these
B. Bed ladder
D. Fly ladder
13. What is the simpler method of computing the distance between the heel of the
ladder and the building?
A. Divide the length of ladder by 4 and add 2
B. Divide the length of the ladder by 4
C. Divide the ladder by 5 and add 2
D. Divide the ladder by 6 and add 2.
14. Which of the following restricts the spread of the fire to the point of origin or at least
to the area involved?
A. Extinguishments
C. Suppression
B. Confinement
D. Control
15. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke
ejector is:
A. Smoke ejector
C. Forced ventilation
B. Horizontal ventilation
D. Vertical ventilation
16. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to
as:
A. Vertical ventilation
C. Cross ventilation
B. Forced ventilation
D. Combination of cross horizontal
17. Which of the following occurs when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over
the entire surface?
A. Backdraft
C. Flashover
B. Oxidation
D. Combustion
C. All of these
18. Who was the French Chemist who proved in 1777 that burning is the result of rapid
combination of oxygen with other substance?
A. Antoine Lavoisier
C. Thomas Alva Edison
B. John Walker
D. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit
19. The piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an
electrical system is called
A. Jumper
C. damper
E. wiring
B. explosive
D. metal piece
20. The sudden burning of accumulated radical gases resulting to the production of a
fireball is called:
A. Flash fire
C. bite back
E. explosion
B. back draft
D. flashover
21. A blue flame is an example of
A. Flames
C. luminous
E. laminar
B. non-luminous
D. diffusion
22. Which one of the following items enumerated below is a good indicator of the
intensity of the fire and an important factor in determining incendiarism?
A. Size of fire
C. smoke marks
E. color of flame
B. Direction of travel
D. color of smoke
23. The presence of chlorine is indicated by
A. Black smoke
C. biting smoke
B. reddish smoke
D. white smoke
24. What is the lowest temperature of a liquid in an open container at which vapors are
evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion?
A. Boiling point
C. vapour pressure E. velocity
B. flashpoint
D. fire point
25. Spontaneous heating is an example of what kind of reaction?
A. Exothermic reactions
D. Flame
B. endothermic reaction
E. kindling point
C. oxidation
26. A person who burns a building and pretends to discover it or turn the alarm or make
some works to appear as the center of attraction is a form of pyromania called
A. Alcoholics and addicts
D. Abnormal youth
B. sexual perverts
E. Hero types.
C. pyromania
27. The rising movement of heat, which is also deemed as the normal behavior of fire is
called:
A. Thermodynamics
C. Thermal imbalance
E. thermal balance
B. fire behavior
D. wavering
28. What is the law amending the law on arson?
A. PD No. 1613 B. RA 6975
C. RA 1813
D. RA 8551
29. If the offender had tried to burn the premises by gathering jute sacks laying this
inside the room. He lighted these, and as soon as the jute sacks began to burn, he
ran away. The occupants of the room put out the fire, what crime is committed?
A. Attempted stage
D. none of the above
B. frustrated arson
E. any of the above
C. consummated
30. What is the act that when performed will neutralize a fire hazard?
A. Offense
C. incendiary act
E. accident
B. abatement
D. delinquent act
31. DNA stands for:
A. DEOXYREBONUCLEIC ACID
C. DEOXIRIBONOCLIEC ACID
B. DEOXYRIBUNOCLIEC ACID
D. DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID
32. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination of lungs and
blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your
interpretation under such circumstance?
A. The person died because of the burning
B. The person died of asphyxia
C. The person was killed before it was burned
D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
E. The person died because of the autops
33. The official inquiries made by the police on the facts and circumstance surrounding
the death of a person that is expected to be unlawful is referred to as
A. official investigation D. homicide investigation
B. death investigation
E. post-mortem investigation
C. murder investigation
34. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson
A. The fire must have been started by the suspect with his own hand.
B. The property does not belong to the suspect of the crime.
C. The evidence of incendiarism must be direct and positive, not circumstantial.
D. The presumption that the fire was accidental in origin must be overcome.
35. In arson case, it is necessary to introduce evidence to prove all but one of the
following is not necessary to prove
A. That the fire actually occurred at a specified time and within the jurisdiction of the
court.
B. That the building was burned by a criminal design and by a person who is
criminally responsible.
C. That the fire was applied by the hand of the defendant of the case.
D. None of the above is applicable.
36. The different changes that take place in the body after death are referred to as
D. pos-mortem rigidity
A. post-mortem signs
E. post-mortem flaccidity
B. post-mortem changes
C. none of these
37. The part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking are:
A. digestive system and nervous system
B. brain and veins of the body
C. the lungs and heart
D. None of the above
38. The stage of alcohol addition where there is the loss of control becomes more
complete is known as:
39.
40.
41.
42.
A. slight inebriation
D. trouble on the road
B. crucial phase
E. alcoholic
C. slight ineberation
Which alcohol is also known as wood alcohol?
A. ethyl
B. methanol C. grain D. ethanol E. A or C
A kind of beverage which are fermented from fruits such as grapes and contain from
8% to 12% when fortified by adding alcohol is called
A. tapey
C. basi
E. whisky
B. wine
D. gold eagle
These are also known as the selective prostitute. These are called
A. professional
D. call girl
B. pick-up girls
E. occasional
C. street girls
The annual crime prevention week is celebrated every 1 st week of
A. August
C. July
E. June
B. April
D. September
43. The state of psychic a physical dependence or both an dangerous drugs arising in a
person following the use of drugs on periodic or continuos basis is known as
A. physical dependence
C. drug dependence
B. physical sickness
D. psychological dependence
44. The physical characteristics brought about by the repeated use of drugs having the
tendency to increase the dosage is called
A. convulsion
C. delirium
B. tolerance
D. over dose
45. Generally, the drugs that produces a relaxing state without impairment of high
facilities or the inducement of sleep are known as
A. barbiturates
C. tranquilizers
E. None of these
B. stimulants
D. narcotics
46. What is the first natural stimulant discovered?
A. nicotine
C. caffeine
B. ephedrine
D. epinephrine
47. What is the term used to describe the intoxicating effect of a drug in the lingo of the
drug users?
A. Stoned
B. Rush
C. High
D. Trip
48. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by
means of special electric current?
A. Topical method
C. Injection method
B. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method
49. Among the following, who was the German pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug?
A. Allan Heithfield
C. Troy Mcweigh
B. Freidrich Serturner
D. Alder Wright
C. None of these
50. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug?
A. Amphetamine Sulfate
C. Diacetylmorphine
B. Acetonyl Dioxide
D. Methamphetamine
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
A. Prostitution
C. Begging
B. drug addiction
D. drug pushing
10. What is the difference between the crime of murder and homicide?
A. revenge
C. premeditation
B. victim is dead
D. insanity
11. Eric Pecson committed a theft as he said his family needs food and
he cannot find a job. What factor is he citing?
A. socio-political
D. socio-economic
B. political military
E. cultural and traditional
C. All of these
12. Piolo Askal killed Mario Bangkay as the latter murdered his
father. What was the motive of the former?
A. nationalism
C. jealousy
E. patriotism
B. remuneration
D. revenge
13. Which of the following pertains to the planned used of
communication techniques designed to effect the fine/s emotion of a
given target group on certain issues?
A. Opinion
C. Rumors
E. all of these
B. Propaganda
D. Information
14. What is the Uncontrollable impulse of a person to burn anything without
motivation?
A. Kleptomaniac
C. Arsonist
E. B and D
B. Pyromania
D. Fire Addicts
15. What is the collective term for mental disorders that begin at or shortly
after puberty and usually lead to general failure of the mental faculties,
with the corresponding physiological impairment?
A. Delirium
C. Demetia Praecox
E. None of these
B. Demaphobia
D. Delusion
16. Peter, a German national obtains sexual gratification from various forms
of sexual intimacies with the young. He is considered as
A. Sex maniac
C. Pedophilia
E. Child-like
B. Masochism
D. Homosexual
17. What is the type of multiple murder which kills at two or more locations
with almost no time to break between murders?
A. Mass murders
C. Attempted murder
B. Serial murder
D. Spree murder
B. physical crisis
D. family crisis
21. Which of the following is not a common sign of moral disturbances?
A. thrill seeking behavior
C. failure to alter behavior
B. pathological lying
D. dramatic attention seeking
22. When an individual experience tension and anxiety increases making
him/her helpless, there is
A. crisis
C. frustration
E. All of these
B. conflict
D. hallucination
23. Among the following, who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and
threats?
A. police
C. parents
E. B and D
B. children
D. animals
24. Which of the following best defines the term Costa Nostra?
A.one thing
D. two things
B.crime confederation
E. none of these
C.organized syndicate
25. What is the strict code of conduct that governs the organized crime
group behavior?
A.Omerta
C. Camorra
E. Secret code
B.Mob
D. Tamero
26. Which of these is not one of the characteristics of an organized
crime group?
A. Economic gain is the primary goal.
B. Economic gain is achieved through illegal means
C. Employs predatory tactics such as intimidation, violence and
corruption.
D. Organized crimes include terrorist dedicated to political change.
E. None of these
27. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by a
person of respectability and high social status in the course of his
or her occupation?
A. E. Sutherland
C. R. Quinney
E. None of these
B. E. Durkheim
D. C. Darwin
A. Fencing
C. Forgery
E. Accessory to
theft
B. Larceny
D. None of these
31. What is the act of bartering of sex favor for monetary
consideration, either gift or cash, without emotional
attachment between partners?
A. Pornography
C. Prostitution
E. Sex for hire
B. Homosexuality D. all of these
32. In the Organized crime world, who bribes, buys, intimidates and
negotiates into a relationship with the police or public official?
A. Enforcer
C. Reporter
E. Instigator
B. Corrupter
D. Corruptee
33. For an effective or successful PCR program A. each community must be studied carefully in its many social,
economic and cultural aspects.
B. no study is needed as the PCR package applies to all
C. the community is secondary to police objectives
D. as long as there is cash, OK is the word
E. All of these
34. A police unit performing its job efficiency and effectively will
A. require minimal PCR program
B. require more intense program
C. require off and on program
D. need no program at all
E. none of these
35. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
A. harass the people
D. perform his job well
B. dress well
E. none of these
C. run after crooks
39. What is the program designed to harmony and mutual support between
the police and the community?
A. Public Information
D. Civic Action
B. Public Relation
E. Psychological
C. A and B
40. Which of the following is not a principle of police community
relation?
A. public support must be maintained
B. public resentment must be encouraged
C. public goodwill must be developed
D. none of these
41. Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino
nation that implements the policies of the national and local
government?
A. family
C. society
E. A and A
B. community
D. barangay
42. What is the formal act or a set of formal acts established by
custom or authority as proper to special occasion in the PNP?
A. custom
D. tradition
B. courtesy
E. ceremony
C. D and E
43. Which of these has the same meaning as Pariah complex?
A. social gathering
D. social understanding
B. social behavior
E. social outcast
C. None of these
44. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to run after
an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her mobile phone. PO3
Gomez declined claiming that the man was already a block away from them and
besides the police officer alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent
matter at home. The officers refusal to help the old woman is an example
of
A. nonfeasance C. malfeasance
E. None of these
B. misfeasance D. misconduct
46. Among the following Core Values of the Philippine National Police, which
is the most supreme?
A. Love of God.
B. Respect for authority.
C. Respect for women
D. Respect for sanctity of marriage.
E. Stewardship over material things.
47. P/Supt. Calderon went to Criminal Justice College and punched Prof. Ramos
in the stomach after berating the professor for scolding the police
officials son who is a Criminology student. P/Supt. Calderons act should
be condemned because it is an act
A. of irregularity in the performance of duty
B. of incompetence
C. of misconduct
D. of malfeasance
E. B and C are correct
48. Which of the following aims to address the flaws on the human
resources development system of the PNP?
A. Career Management the Key in Professionalism
B. Police Management Leadership
C. Observance of Delicadeza
D. Equality in the Service
E. Political Patronage
49. Police Officers are duty bound to observe the constitutional rights
of every citizen. Among those rights, which is the topmost
priority?
A. right of life
D. right to liberty
B. right in property
C. suspects rights
50. Every PNP officer shall observe Commitment to Democracy which
includes
A. emphasis on Public office is a public trust
B. upholding public interest over and above personal interest.
C. proper use and disposal of government properties
D. providing service to everyone without discrimination
E. All of these
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISRATION
a. Insular prisoner
c. City prisoner
b. Provincial prisoner
d. Municipal prisoner
30. The foregoing are form of executive clemency, except:
a. Commutation
c. Furlough
b. Reprieve
d. Probation
31. What is the color of the uniform of minimum security prisoners?
a. Brown
c. Orange
b. Blue
d. Black and white stripe
32. Inmates who commit suicide are considered as in any of the following:
a. Liability of the jail administration
b. No liability because inmate is insane
c. Liability of the sentencing court
d. Liability of the inmates himself
33. Probation proceeds on the theory that the best way to pursue this goal is to orient
the criminal sanction toward the _______________in sentencing.
a. Community setting
c. none of these
b. Individual setting
d. prison setting
34. Amnesty is granted by whom?
a. Commission on human right
b. Chief Executive
c. Legislative
d. Judiciary
35. He opened Borstal prisons, considered that best reformatory institution for young
offenders.
a. Macanochie
c. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Z.B. Brokway
d. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
36. It is one of the earliest devise for softening brutal severity of punishment through
a compromise with the church.
a. Parole
c. Benefit of Clergy
b. Public Humiliation
d. Amnesty
37. A recipient of absolute pardon is ______________ from civil liability imposed
upon him by the sentence.
a. partially exempted
c. exempted
b. conditionally exempted
d. not exempted
38. The Republic Act that fully deducts the period of the offenders preventive
detention from the sentence imposed by the courts.
a. RA 6036
c. RA 7371
b. RA 7137
d. RA 6127
39. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one
or a longer term to a shorter term.
a. Amnesty
c. Commutation
b. Reprieve
d. None of these
40. _________________is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to as a
matter of right.
a. Pardon
c. Parole
b. Probation
d. Nota
41. These are the group of prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence
of the institution under guard escorts. Generally they are employed as
agricultural workers.
a. Medium Security Prisoner
b. minimum Security Prisoner
c. maximum Security Prisoner
d. Super Security Prisoner
42. Upon the assumption of the IPPCs work, the united Nation preferred to identify
its
activities
and
programs
under
the
broader
concept
of
______________________.
a. Social justice
c. social offense
b. Social defense
d. juvenile justice
43. Aside from the court, these are other authorities who can commit a person to jail,
Except:
a. Board of indeterminate sentence
b. None of these
c. Deportation board
d. Police authorities
44. In probation systems philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has
the ability to __________and to modify his anti-social behavior with the right kind
of help.
a. Challenge
c. None of these
b. Change
d. Aggravate his behavior
45. Can a probationer pursue a prescribed secular study or vocational training while
on probation?
a. Neither
c. none of these
b. No
d. Yes
46. What was the first Probation Law in the Philippines?
a. PD603
c. None of these
b. PD 968
d. RA 4221
47. All person in custody shall, before final conviction be entitled to bail as matter of
___________.
a. Preference
c. Right
b. Privilege
d. Choice
48. It is one which will relieve inmates feeling of insecurity about his situation; it is
likewise essential in effecting changes which affect the masses or inmate
population.
a. Good communication
c. food and dormitory
b. Conjugal leave
d. all of these
49. The bureau of Corrections is under the
a. DSWD
c. DOJ
b. DILG
d. DOH
50. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three years is a-
a.
b.
c.
d.
Municipal prisoner
Detention prisoner
National prisoner
City prisoner