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MOCK TEST IBPS PO MAINS

Time Allowed: 120 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200


IBPS PO Mains

Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATE
1. This booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the following 5 parts:
Part - (I): REASONING APTITUDE
(50 Question)
Part (II): QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
(50 Question)
Part (III): ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(40 Question)
Part (IV): COMPUTER
(20 Question)
Part (V): GENERAL AWARENESS
(40 Question)
2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
3. Before you start to answer the question you must check up this booklet and ensure that it contains
all the pages and see that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any defect in this booklet, you
must get it replaced immediately.
4. The paper carries negative marking. 0.25 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.
5. You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the
details of Name, Roll number, Test Id and name of the examination on the Answer -Sheet
carefully before you actually start answering the questions. You must also put your signature
on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be fully complied with,
failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ZERO mark.
6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer Sheet against the relevant question number by HB pencil or Bl ack/ blue ball pen only.
7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is
incompletely /different from the information given in the application form, the candidature of
such candidate will be treated as cancelled.
8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination
Hall.
9. Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will render a candidate liable to such
action/penalty as may be deemed fit.
10. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult
and others easy. Do not spend too much time on any question.
11. Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination
halls/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless
communication devices with them even switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply
with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will
be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.
12. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.

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Page 1

REASONING APTITUDE
Directions (1-7): Study the following information and
answer the questions given below:
Eight persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S from two families are
taking breakfast around a round table. Three members
are from one family and five belong to other family.
Four of them are male members.
P, a male member is sitting second to right of R, a
female member. In all cases N has same position with
respect to O, who is second to left of M, a female
member. O is wife of S and is sitting adjacent to her
husband. Q is sister of S and is not sitting exactly
between R and P. M is immediate left of R. S is sitting
immediate right of L.
1. Which of the given statement is wrong?
(1) Q is immediate right of O
(2) P is immediate left of L
(3) M is sitting between Q and R
(4) N is second to left of S
(5) R is second to right of Q
2. Who is second to the left of L?
(1) M
(2) R
(3) N
(4) O
(5) Q
3. How many persons are sitting between L and M
when we count anticlockwise?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) None
(5) Cannot be determined
4. How many members are there in Ss family?
(1) 2
(3) 3
(3) 5
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Directions (5-7): One out of five groups does not match
on the basis of sitting arrangement. Find that group5. (1) QOM
(2) NRP
(3) PNL
(4) SLO
(5) None of these
6. (1) PS
(2) LO
(3) SQ
(4) OM
(5) PR
7. (1) R
(2) M
(3) O
(4) Q
(5) L
Directions (8 12): In these questions symbols @, $, #,
&, % are used with different meanings as follows.
M @ N means M is neither smaller than nor equal to N
M # N means M is neither greater than nor equal to N
M $ N means M is neither greater nor smaller than N
M % N means M is not greater than N
M & N means M is not smaller than N
In each of the following questions assuming the given
statements to be true, find out which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is /are definitely
true.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
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Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true.


Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II is true
8. Statements: A @ B, B $ C, C # D
Conclusions: I. A#D
II. B@D
9. Statements: P&Q, Q%R, R$S
Conclusions: I. Q $ S
II. P#S
10. Statements: P&Q, Q@R, R%S
Conclusions: I. Q%S
II. P%S
11. Statements: A@B, B#C, C%D
Conclusions: I. B#D
II. D@A
12. Statements: A@B, B%C, C@D
Conclusions: I. D$B
II. B@D
Directions (13-17): Study the following information
and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons P, Q, R,S, T, U, V and W are playing a game
of musical chairs. The chairs placed around a circular
table face away from the table. Each person knows a
different language Oriya, Telugu, Kannada, Punjabi,
Bengali, Bhojpuri, Hindi and Malyalam but not
necessarily in the same order. When all of them are
sitting in the chairs during the game, the following
conditions were fullled.
R is a Hindi speaker and sits third to the left of T.
The Bhojpuri and the Punjabi speaker are
immediate neighbours of each other. Neither the
Punjabi nor the Bhojpuri speaker is an immediate
neighbour of either T or R.
The Telugu and the Malyalam speaker are
immediate neighbours of each other.
Neither T nor S speaks English.
The one who speaks Punjabi sits to the left of Q,
who speaks Kannada.
P speaks Telugu and is not an immediate neighbour
of the Hindi speaker.
Only U sits between the Punjabi and the Oriya
speaker.
V sits third to the left of the person who speaks
Malyalam.
13. Which of the following pairs represents
theimmediate neighbours of the Oriya speaker?
1) Punjabi and Bengali
2) Malyalam and Punjabi
3) Telugu and Bengali
4) Kannada and Bhojpuri
5) None of these
14. Who among the following speaks Malyalam?
1)V
2) W
3) U
4)T
5) None of these
15. How many persons sit between the Hindi speaker
and S when counted in clockwise direction from the
Hindi speaker?
1)None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four
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16. T speaks which of the following languages?


1)Bhojpuri
2)Bengali
3) Punjabi
4) Oriya
5) None of these
17. Who among the following sits exactly between Q
and W?
1) Telugu speaker 2) Bhojpuri speaker
3) Punjabi speaker 4) Oriya speaker
5) Hindi speaker
Directions (18-22):Study the following information
and answer the given questions.
In a certain code language:
driving is not easy is written as joro ho go,
rough and tough driving is written as no sajo da,
looks easy but dangerous is written as airo to po,
and is rough tough dangerous driving is written as ho
jo no ai da
18. What is the code for easy in the given code
language?
1)go
2) no
3) sa
4)ro
5) da
19. What is the code for tough in the given code
language?
1) no
2) da
3) sa
4) Either sa or da 5) Either no or da
20. What may be the possible code for rough but nice?
1)po bi no
2) no poai
3) no to po
4) no to ai
5)tajo bi
21. What may be the possible code for easy and solved
inthe given code language?
1) sa go ro
2) saro cu
3) no rosa
4) curo go
5) saro to
22. What is the code for dangerous in the given code
language?
1) no
2) sa
3) to
4) ai
5) ho
Directions (Q. 23-27): In each question below are
given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion l follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(23-24)
Statements: All Power are Muscles.
No Tower is a Root.
Some muscles are Root.
23. Conclusions:
I. All root being power is a possibility.
II. Some powers are muscles.
24. Conclusions:
I. No muscles is a Tower.
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II. Some Tower are muscles.


For (25-26)
Statements: No sweet is a drink.
Some liquids are solids.
All drinks are liquids.
25. Conclusions:
I. All drinks are solids.
II. Some liquids are denitely not sweets.
26. Conclusions:
I. All sweets being liquids is a possibility.
II. All liquids being sweets is a possibility.
27. Statement: Some copy are pen.
Some pen are not pencil.
All marker are copy.
Conclusions :
I. Some copy are not pencil.
II. All marker are pen.
Direction (28-29): In each question below is given
a statement followed by two or three assumptions
numbered I ,II and III. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer
28. Statement:
Unable to manage with the present salary, Arun has
decided to join another company.
Assumptions:
I. The new company has better work environment.
II. The present company offers moderate pay
packets.
III. The new company offers higher salary to all its
employees.
1. None is implicit
2. Only II is implicit
3. All are implicit
4. Only II and III are implicit
5. None of these
29. Statement:
The two countries have signed a fragile pact, but the
vital sovereignty issue remains unresolved.
Assumptions:
I. The two countries cannot have permanent peace
pact.
II. The two countries may become hostile again
after a short spell of time.
1. Only assumption I is implicit
2. Only assumption II is implicit
3. Either I or II is implicit
4. Neither I nor II is implicit
5. Both I and II are implicit
Direction (30): Each question given below consists of a
statement, followed by three or four arguments
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to decide which of
the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments) and which
is/are 'weak' arguments) and accordingly choose your

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answer from the alternatives given below each


question.
30. Statement:
Should the income generated out of agricultural
activities be taxed?
Arguments:
I. No. Farmers are otherwise suffering from natural
calamities and low yield coupled with low
procurement price and their income should not be
taxed.
II. Yes. Majority of the population is dependent on
agriculture and hence their income should be
taxed to augment the resources.
III. Yes. Many big farmers earn much more than the
majority of the service earners and they should be
taxed to remove the disparity.
1. Only I is strong
2. Only I and II are strong
3. Only II and III are strong
4. All are strong
5. None of these
Direction (31): In each question below is given a
statement followed by two assumptions numbered I
and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
31. Statement:
A's advice to B - "Go to Jammu via Amritsar - the
shortest route".
Assumptions:
B wishes to go to Jammu.
A gives advice to everybody.
1. Only assumption I is implicit
2. Only assumption II is implicit
3. Either I or II is implicit
4. Neither I nor II is implicit
5. Both I and II are implicit
Direction (32): In each question below is given a
statement followed by two courses of action numbered I
and II. You have to assume everything in the statement
to be true and on the basis of the information given in
the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of
action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer
(1) If only I follows
(2) If only II follows
(3) If either I or II follows
(4) If neither I nor II follows
(5) If both I and II follow.
32. Statement:
There has been large number of cases of internet
hacking in the recent months creating panic among
the internet users.
Courses of Action:

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I. The government machinery should make an allout effort to nab those who are responsible and put
them behind bars.
II. The internet users should be advised to stay
away from using internet till the culprits are caught.
Directions (33-37):Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: new 11 bold 22 carve hundred 32 29 45 houses
it 38
Step I: 11 22 new bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses
it 38
Step II: it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 32 29 45
houses 38
Step III. 29 32 it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 45
houses 38
Step IV. bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred 45
houses 38
Step V: 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred
houses
Step VI: houses hundred 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new
11 22
Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the desired
arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed
above find the appropriate step for the given input.
Input:ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify 35
eligible 41 browse candidates 10
33. Which of the following represents the position of
ice' in Step VI?
1) Third from the left
2) Fifth from the right
3) Sixth from the right
4) Fourth from the left
5) None of these
34. Which step will be the last but one?
1) IX
2) VI
3)V
4) VII
5) None of these
35. Which word/number would be at the 5th position
from the right in Step V?
1) ice
2) qualify
3)10
4)12
5) money
36. How many steps will be required to complete the
arrangement?
1) VI
2) VII
3)VIII
4)X
5) IX
37. How many elements (words or numbers) are there
between '21' and '12' in Step VII?
1) Eight
2) Five
3) Three
4) Six
5) None of these
Directions (38-40):
38. Govt. of India is providing a unique identity card to
every citizen. Some important information like his
blood group, permanent address, bank account
number and mobile/telephone number is
mentioned on this card to identify that person for

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security purpose or in case some serious accident


takes place.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn
from the above information?
1) In a country like India, which is one of the most
populated countries in the world, it is not possible
to provide every citizen a unique identification card.
2) None is supposed to forget his phone number
under any circumstances.
3) Blood cannot be transfused until its group is
mentioned on the card.
4) The police need this information (on the card),
especially when the accident is fatal.
5) None of these
39. The government is soon going to introduce a bill in
the parliament to allow global retail chains to set up
shops in India.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in
the above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Such directions can also be issued without
informing the parliament.
2) This move would benefit the country. So the bill
must be passed after a discussion in the parliament.
3) Foreign biggies would turf out small retailers.
4) Majority ofthe members in the parliament would
never support this bill because it will hurt the poor
and its time of arrival is not right.
5) None of these
40. A recent review reported that India's fashion
industry has been affected severely due to a slump
in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods,
besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well as
international market.
Which of the following contradicts the views
expressed in the above statement?
1) India's fashion industry had been growing till last
year.
2) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the
sentiments of international market.
3) The share of the international market is
negligible for the fashion goods manufactured in
India.
4) Govt has helped India's fashion industry to grow
in the past.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 41-42): Study the following
information to answer the given questions.
Though Punjab cultivates only 16 lakh tones of rice of
premium quality, with rice becoming the second largest
food to be consumed in the world after wheat, the
government has been trying to export it through sea
route which is cheaper.
(A) Punjab exports good-quality wheat too.
(B) There is no problem in exporting rice through other
routes.
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(C) Punjab cultivates a large number of medium -orbelow- medium quality of rice.
(D) Quality rice is preferred for export.
41. Which of the given statements A, B, C and D is
definitely false?
1) Only (B)
2) Only (C)
3) Only (A)
4) Only (B) and (C) 5) None of these
42. Which of the following statements A, B, C and D is
definitely true?
1) Only (B)
2) Only (C)
3) Only (D)
4) Both (B) and (D)
5) None of these
Directions (43-47): Study the following information to
answer the given questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line facing
north. Each one of them lives on a different oor in the
same building which is numbered from one to seven.
B sits fourth to the left of the person living on the
6thoor. Either B or the person living on the6thfloor sits
at the extreme ends of the line.
Only one person sits betweenB and G. G lives on the
3rdoor.The person living on 1stoor sits third to right
of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of G. Only one
person lives between E and the person who lives on the
2ndoor.
A and C are immediate neighbours of each other. A does
not live on the 6thoor. One who lives on5thoor sits
third to right of the one who lives on the 7thoor.
43. Who amongst the following lives on the 4thfloor?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
44. On which of the following oors does E live?
(1) 1st
(2) 2nd
(3) 5th
(4) 6th
(5) 7th
45. On which of the following oors does F live?
(1) 1st
(2) 2nd
(3) 3rd
th
th
(4) 4
(5) 5
46. Which of the following is true with respect to the
given arrangement?
(1)The one who lives on the 5th floor is an
immediate neighbour of D
(2) F lives on the 1st floor
(3)E sits second to the left of the person who lives
on 2ndoor
(4)C and F are immediate neighbours of each other
(5) The one who lives on the4th oor sits at one of
the extreme ends of the line
47. If all the persons are made to live in alphabetical
order from the bottom-(i. e. A lives on the 1st floor. B
lives on the 2nd floor and finally G lives on the 7th
floor) who would still live on the same floor as the
original arrangement?
(1) C
(2) F
(3) G
(4) E
(5) D
Directions (48-50): Study the following information
to answer the given Questions.
In a six-letter English word (which may or may not be
meaningful) there are three letters between L and E. R

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Page 5

is placed on the immediate right of E, which is on the


5) None of these
immediate right of V.A is between B and L and L, is at
49. If all the persons are looking towards north then the
the right end of the row. All the above letters are six
first letter of all the names will be in the order
alphabets of the names of the persons and all are
1) REBVAL
2) VERLAB
3) VERBAL
looking towards south.
4) VARBEL
5) None of these
48. Which of the following is correct with respect to the
50. What is the positions of A with respect to V?
above information?
1) 4th to the right 2) 3rd to the left
1) B is between A and R.
2) E is between R and V.
3) Immediate right 4) 2nd to the left
3) R is between B and E.
4) All the above
5) None of these
MATHS
Directions (5155): Study the following table
carefully and answer the questions given below.

(d) 26
(e) None of these
Directions (56-62) Study the graph carefully to
answer the following questions.

Number Of Males and Females Staying In


Various Societies
Societies
Males
Females
A
250
350
B
400
150
C
300
275
D
280
300
E
180
250
F
325
300
Percentage of Children ( Males and Females In
the Societies)
Societies
Children Male
Female
Children
Children
A
25%
40%
60%
B
40%
75%
25%
C
16%
25%
75%
D
25%
80%
20%
E
40%
50%
50%
F
24%
46%
54%
51. What is the respective ratio of the number of adult
females to the total number of female children
staying in all the societies together?
(a) 243 : 82
(b) 112 : 71
(c) 82 : 243
(d) 71 : 112
(e) None of these
52. What is the total number of female children staying
in all the societies together?
(a) 314
(b) 433
(c) 410
(d) 343
(e) None of these
53. What is the respective ratio of the total number of
adult males in societies A and B together to the total
number of adult males in societies E and F together?
(a) 75 : 79
(b) 14 : 17
(c) 79 : 75
(d) 17 : 14
(e) None of these
54. What is the total number of members staying in all
the societies together?
(a) 3520
(b) 3360
(c) 4100
(d) 3000
(e) None of these
55. What is the difference between the number of male
children t in society B and number of male children
in society F?
(a) 84
(b) 14
(c) 96
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56. Scheme M offers simple interest at a certain rate of


internet (per cent per annum). If the difference
between the interest earned by Gautam and Rudra
from scheme M after 4 yr in Rs. 4435.20. What is the
rate of interest (per cent per annum)?
(a) 17.5
(b) 18
(c) 16.5
(d) 20
(e) 15
57. What is the respective ratio between total amount
invested by Gautam in schemes O and Q together
and total amount invested by Rudra in the same
scheme together?
(a) 31: 44
(b) 31 : 42
(c) 27 : 44
(d) 35 : 48
(e) 29 : 38
58. If scheme P offers compound interest (compounded
half yearly) at 16% per annum, then what would be
sum of interest earned by Gautam and Rudra from
scheme P after 1yr?

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(a) Rs. 10244


(b) Rs. 10464 (c) Rs. 9872
(d) Rs. 9984
(e) Rs. 9442
59. If scheme O offers compound interest (compounded
annually) at 12% per annum, then what is the
difference between interest earned by Gautam and
Rudra from scheme O after 2 yr?
(a) Rs.1628.16
(b) Rs. 1584.38 (c) Rs. 1672.74
(d) Rs. 1536.58
(e) Rs. 1722.96
60. What is the average amount invested by Gautam in
schemes M, N, O, P and Q together?
(a)Rs. 29248
(b) Rs. 30562 (c) Rs. 31126
(d) Rs. 29688
(e) Rs. 28848
61. Rudra invested in scheme R for 4 yr. If scheme R
offers simple interest at 7% per annum for the first
two years and then compound interest at 10% per
annum (compound annually) for the 3rd and 4th
year, then what will be the interest earned by Rudra
after 4 yr?
(a) Rs.13548
(b) Rs. 12096 (c) Rs. 12242
(d) Rs. 12364
(e) Rs. 11886
62. Amount invested by Gautam in scheme S is equal to
the amount invested by him in scheme N. The rate
of interest per annum of schemes S and Nare same.
The only difference is scheme S offers compound
interest (compounded annually), whereas the
scheme N offers simple interest. If the difference
between the interest earned by Gautam from both
the schemes after 2 yr is Rs. 349.92, then what is the
rate of interest?
(a) 9%
(b) 5%
(c) 13%
(d) 11%
(e) 7%
Direction (63-67) Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions.
Percentage of population interested in different sports
(cricket, football, badminton, tennis, volleyball and
hockey) in pie chart and percentage of females
interested in these sports in Bar chart.

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63. What is the ratio of the number of people interested


in tennis and hockey together to that interested in
cricket and volleyball together?
(a) 23 : 32
(b) 34 : 43
(c) 101 : 130
(d) 11 : 32
(e) None of these
64. For which of the sports, the percentage of
population interested with respect to that of
females interested is minimum?
(a) Volleyball
(b) Badminton (c) Tennis
(d) Football
(e) None of these
65. What is the difference between the number of
females interested in badminton and that in
volleyball?
(a) 1.5 lakh
(b) 2.2 lakh
(c) 1.8 lakh
(d) 1.9 lakh
(e) none of these
66. For which of the sports, the number of males
interested is less than that of females interested?
(a) Tennis, Volleyball
(b) Volleyball, Badminton
(c) Badminton, Tennis, Hockey
(d) Badminton, Tennis, Volleyball
(e) None of the above
67. What is the ratio of the number of males interested
in badminton and football together to that of
females interested in hockey and tennis together?
(a) 124 : 117
(b) 128 : 119 (c) 19 : 17
(d) 23 : 19
(e) None of these
Direction (68-72) Study the following information
carefully to answer these questions.
An institute having 450 employees has sent all its
employees for training in one or more areas out of HRM,
computer skills and financial skills. The employees are
classified into two categories officers and clerks, who
are in the ratio of 4:5. 10% of the officers take training
only in computer skills, 16% of the clerks take training
only in HRM, which is equal to the number of officers
taking training only in financial skills and is equal to the
40% of the number of officers taking training only in
HRM and financial skills both.

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6% of the total employees take training in all of which


two-third are officers. 10% of the total employees take
training only in HRM and computer skills, which is five
times the number of clerks taking training only in
computer skills and financial skills. 10% of clerks take
training only in HRM and computer skills.
The number of officers taking training only in HRM is
25% of the number of clerks taking training only in
HRM. 20% of the total number of employees take
training only in computer skills. Number of clerks
taking training in HRM and financial skills both is 20%
of the total number of clerks.
68. Total how many officers take training in HRM?
(a) 110
(b) 128
(c) 118
(d) 98
(e) None of these
69. Total how many clerks take training in computer
skills but not in HRM?
(a) 113
(b) 104
(c) 88
(d) 79
(e) None of these
70. Total how many employees take training in
financial skills but not in HRM?
(a) 106
(b) 135
(c) 127
(d) 134
(e) None of these
71. Total how many clerks take training in financial
skills?
(a) 115
(b) 106
(c) 47
(d) 97
(e) None of these
72. What per cent of the total number of officers take
training in computer skills but not in financial
skills?
(a) 25%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
(e) None of these
73. Mithilesh makes 750 articles at a cost of 60 paise
per article. He fixes the selling price such that if only
600 articles are sold, he would have made a profit of
40% on the outlay. However, 120 articles got spoilt
of 40% on the outlay. However, 120 articles got
spoilt and he was able to sell 630 articles at this
price. Find his actual profit percent as the
percentage of total outlay assuming that the unsold
articles are useless.
(a) 42%
(b) 53%
(c) 47%
(d) 46%
(e) None of these
74. A tradesman fixed his selling price of goods at 30 %
above the cost price. He sells half the stock at this
price, one-quarter of his stock at a discount of 15%
on the original selling price and rest at a discount
30% on the original selling price. Find the gain
percent altogether.
(a) 14.875%
(b) 15.375 %
(c) 15.575%
(d) 16.375% (e) 16.5%
75. A dishonest dealer marks up the price of his goods
by 20% and gives a discount of 10% to the
customer. Besides, he also cheats both his supplier
and his buyer by 100 grams while buying or selling
I kilogram. Find the percentage profit earned by the
shopkeeper
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(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 32%
(d) 27.5%
(e) None of these
76. My brother is 3 years elder to me. My father was 28
years of age when my sister was born while my
mother was 26 years of age when I was born. If my
sister was 4 years of age when my brother was
born, then what was the age my father when my
brother was born?
(a) 35 years, 33 years
(b) 35 years, 29 years
(c) 32 years, 23 years
(d) 32 years, 29 years
(e) None of these
77. There are two kinds of alloys of tin and copper. The
first alloy contains tin and copper such that 93.33%
of it is tin. In the second alloy there is 86.66% tin.
What weight of the first alloy should be mixed with
some weight of the second alloy so as to make a 50
kg mass containing 90% of tin?
(a) 15 kg
(b) 30 kg
(c) 20 kg
(d) 25 kg
(e) 45 kg
78. A bag contains a total of 105 coins of Rs. 1,50 p and
25 p denominations. Find the total number of coins
of Re 1 if there are a total of 50.5 rupees in the bag
and it is known that the number of 25 paise coins
are 133.33% more than the number of 1 rupee
coins.
(a) 56
(b) 25
(c) 24
(d) 42
(e) None of these
79. The J&K express from Delhi to Srinagar was delayed
by snowfall for 16 minutes and made up for the
delay on a section of 80 km travelling with a speed
10 km per hour higher than its normal speed. Find
the original speed of the J&K express (according to
the schedule)
(a) 60 km/h
(b) 66.66 km/h
(c) 50 km/h
(d) 40 km/h
(e) None of these
80. Amartya Sen had to cover a distance of 60 km.
However, he started 6 minutes later than his
scheduled time and raced at a speed 1 km/h higher
than his originally planned speed and reached the
finish at the time he would reach it if he began to
race strictly at the appointed time and raced with
the assumed speed. Find the speed at which he
travelled during the journey described.
(a) 25 km/h
(b) 15 km/h
(c) 10 km/h
(d) 6 km/h
(e) 24 km/h
81. The cost of packaging of the mangoes is 40% the cost of
fresh mangoes themselves. The cost of mangoes
increased by 30% but the cost of packaging decreased by
50%, then the percentage change of the cost of packed
mangoes, if the cost of packed mangoes is equal to the
sum of the cost of fresh mangoes and cost of packaging :
(a) 14.17%
(b) 7.14%
(c) 8.87%
(d) 6.66%
(e) None of these

82. An alloy contains zinc, copper and tin in the ratio


2:3:1 and another contains copper, tin and lead in
the ratio 5:4:3. If equal weights of both alloys are

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melted together to form a third alloy, then the


weight of lead per kg in new alloy will be:
(a) 1/2 kg
(b) 1/8 kg
(c) 3/14 kg
(d) 7/9 kg
(e) None of these
83. A part of Rs. 38,800 is lent out at 6% per six months.
The rest of the amount is lent out at 5% per annum
after one year. The ratio of interest after 3 years
from the time when first amount was lent out is 5 :
4. Find the second part that was lent out at 5%.
(a) Rs. 26,600
(b) Rs. 28,800 (c) Rs. 27,500
(d) Rs. 28,000
(e) None of these
84. The RBI lends a certain amount to the SBI on simple
interest for two years at 20%. The SBI given this
entire amount to Bharti Telecom on compound
interest for two years at the same rate annually.
Find the percentage earning of the SBI at the end of
two years on the entire amount.
(a) 4%
(b) 3(1/7)%
(c) 3(2/7)%
(d) 3(6/7)%
(e) Cannot be determined
85. In the adjacent circular figure, find the area of the
shaded region. (Use = 22/7)

(a) 15.28 cm2


(b) 61.14 cm2 (c) 30.57 cm2
2
(d) 40.76 cm
(e) None of these
86. If ABC is a quarter circle and a circle is inscribed in
it and if AB = 1 cm, find radius of smaller circle.

(a)
(b) +1)/2 (c)
1/2
(d) 1 2
(e) None of these
87. In a hotel where rooms are numbered from 101 to
130, each room gives an earning of Rs. 3000 for the
first fifteen days of a month and for the latter half,
Rs. 2000 per room. Find the average earning per
room per day over the month. (Assume 30 day
month)

(a) 2250
(b) 2500
(c) 2750
(d) 2466.66
(e) 2483.33
88. A box contains 5 green, 4 yellow and 3 white
marbles. Three marbles are drawn at random. What
is the probability that all they are not of the same
colour?
a) 3/44
b) 3/55
c) 52/55
d) 41/44
e) None of these
89. What is the probability of getting a sum of 12 when
rolling 3 dice simultaneously?
a) 10/216
b) 12/216
c) 21/216
d) 23/216
e) 25/216
90. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52
cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is
not a face card?
a) 1/13
b) 3/13
c)
d) 9/52
e) None of these
Directions (91 - 95): Two equations (I) and (II) are
given in each question. On the basis of these equations
you have to decide the relation between x and y and
give answer.
(1) if x > y
(2) if x < y
(3) if x y (4) if x y
(5) if x = y, or no relation can be established between x
and y.
91. I. x =
II. 2y2 - 9y - 56 = 0
92. I. 5x2 + 3x - 14 = 0
II. 2y2 - 9y + 10 = 0
93. I. 8x2 + 31x + 21 = 0
II. 5y2 + 11y - 36 = 0
94. I. 3x - y = 12
II. y =
95. I. 15x2 + 68x + 77 = 0
II. 3y2 + 29y + 68 = 0
Directions (96-100): In the following number series
only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
96. 4 3 4.5 8.5 20 53 162.5
(1) 3
(2) 4.5
(3) 8.5
(4) 20
(5) 53
97. 12000 2395 472 89.8 12.96 -2.408 -5.4816
(1) -5.4816
(2) 472
(3) 12.96
(4) - 2.408
(5) 2395
98. 1 8 28 99 412 2075 12460
(1) 28
(2) 99
(3) 412
(4) 2075
5) 12460
99. 144 215 540 1890 8505 46777.5 304053.75
(1) 215
(2) 540
(3) 1890
(4) 8505
(5) 46777.5
100. 2222 1879 1663 1538 1474 1447 1440
(1) 1879
(2) 1538
(3) 1474
(4) 1447
(5) 1440

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (101-110): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
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A recent report in Newsweek says that in American


colleges students of Asian origin outperform not only
the minority groups students but the majority whites as
well. Many of these students must be of Indian origin,
and their achievement is something we can be proud of.

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It is unlikely that these talented youngsters will come


back to India, and that is the familiar brain drain
problem. However, recent statements by the nations
policy makers indicate that the perception of this issue
is changing. Brain bank and not brain drain is the
more appropriate idea, they suggest, since the
expertise of Indians abroad is only deposited in other
places and not lost.
This may be so, but this brain bank, like most of
other banks, is one that primarily serves customers in
the neighbor-hood. The skills of the Asian now excelling
in Americas colleges will mainly help the USA. No
matter how significant, what non-resident Indians do
for India and what their counterparts do for other Asian
lands in only a by-product.
But it is also necessary to ask, or be reminded, why
Indians study more fruitfully when abroad. The Asians
whose accomplishments Newsweek records would
have probably had a very different fate if they had
studied in India. In America they found elbow room,
books and facilities not available and not likely to be
available here. The need to prove themselves in their
new country and the competition of an international
standard they faced there must have cured mental and
physical laziness. But other things helping them in
America can be obtained here if we achieve a change in
social attitudes, especially towards youth.
We need to learn to value individuals and their
unique qualities more than conformity and
respectability. We need to learn the language of
encouragement to add to our skill in flattery. We might
also learn to be less liberal with blame and less tightfisted with appreciation, especially to those showing
signs of independence.
101. What is unique about the Asian students as
compared to other groups of students in American
colleges?
1) Asian students are of more mixing nature than
other groups of students.
2) Asian students are the most successful
academically.
3) Asian students get much attention in American
colleges than any other group of students.
4) Asian students get easy availability of work in
America than any other group of students.
5) None of these
102. What do you understand by the idea of brain
bank?
1) the restoration of manpower
2) the number of manpower
3) wastage of our manpower
4) Indians gathering experience abroad
5) None of these
103. What is the basic difference between brain bank
and brain drain?
1) Whereas brain drain means losing our talent,
brain bank means depositing our talent.
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2) Whereas brain drain means serving other


countries, brain bank means serving our own
country.
3) Whereas brain drain means getting no return
for ones work, brain bank means becoming
successful in life.
4) brain drain is a national issue whereas brain
bank is a global concept.
5) None of these
104. In general, the Indian students studying in
America.
1) can solve the brain drain problem because of
recent changes in policy.
2) have a reputation for being excellent in all fields.
3) will not return to pursue their careers in India.
4) are behind the concept of brain bank.
5) are behind the concept of brain drain.
105. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) America is facing the brain problem.
2) Brain bank is a term which has been talked
about by American policy-makers.
3) Asian students cannot compete with the
majority whites in American colleges.
4) The students of Asian origin in America include
a fair number from India.
5) None of these
106. Which of the following is false in the context of the
passage?
1) Asian students in America will be beneficial for
that country.
2) Asian students are arrogant in their behavior
and find hard to study abroad.
3) Indians do not study as fruitfully at home as
they do abroad.
4) Indian policy-makers have talked about the
concept of brain bank.
5) None of these
107. What makes Indian students excel in the area of
education abroad as compared to that in their
motherland?
1) the job opportunities abroad
2) the education-related facilities and proper
environment
3) their promise to the family members
4) the cost incurred on getting their education
abroad
5) None of these
108. The author feels that some of the conditions other
than the level of facilities that make abroad
attractive
1) are available in India but young people do not
appreciate them.
2) can never be found here because we believe in
western brand of education.
3) can also give respectability to our traditions and
customs.

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4) can be created if our attitudes and values


change.
5) can be shared or borrowed from America.
Directions (109): Choose the word which is same in
meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
109. EXPERTISE
1) basics
2) demand
3) technique
4) specialty
5) skill
Directions (110): Choose the word which is opposite
in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
110. ACCOMPLISHMENTS
1) soothing
2) laurels
3) laziness
4) failures
5) negativity
Directions (111-120): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Close and confidential relations between Russia
and India are based on the proximity of their
fundamental national interests and rest upon the
centuries-old history of peaceful and mutually
beneficial contacts between the two nations. The
strength of these bonds has been tested many times in
critical situations. Time and again, in moments of crisis,
both New Delhi and Moscow have turned to each other.
India has been and remains, without any
reservations, Russias closest and most reliable friend
and partner. Of principal importance is the national
consensus existing in the two countries regarding the
necessity for developing further cooperation between
both bilaterally and in the international arena. The
intensity of political dialogue has been on a steady rise,
embracing ever new challenges and issues emerging in
the context of a rapidly-changing situation in the world.
It is based on the convergence of views with regard to
major problems of the present days. Summit-level talks
between president VV Putin and prime minister AB
Vajpayee and meeting of the ministers of foreign affairs,
including their interaction at the UN, have become an
annual feature.
Trilateral interaction among Russia, India and
China is gaining momentum and acquiring substance,
Deliberations on a number of joint working groups set
up by the foreign ministries are yielding noticeable
results. The first rounds of the working group on global
challenges and the working groups on international
terrorism in Sep-Oct 2003 brought the two countries
together as de facto allies, once again providing the
effectiveness and regional security. Russia has
supported the advancement of the process of
normalization between India and Pakistan.
Vajpayees 12 steps to peace initiative addressed to
the leadership of Pakistan has received our full support.
It provides a realistic and durable basis for the
resumption of dialogue and settlement of all
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outstanding problems between these two South Asian


countries on the basis of the 1972 Shimla Accord and
1998 Lahore Declaration. No doubt, to make it possible,
favourable conditions should be created. First of all, the
acts of trans-border terrorism along the Line of Control
in Jammu and Kashmir must be stopped.
New Delhis views on the situation in Afghanistan
and Iraq are consonant with the assessments of our
diplomacy. Together we are doing our best to restore
peaceful life there. We are consistently upholding the
centrality of the coordinating role of the United Nations,
and the necessity of concerted actions of the entire
comity of nations when such crises with international
ramifications take place. We have been successful
jointly in mapping the means and avenues of expanding
the scope of trade and economic cooperation. Highly
productive deliberations have been held on the
Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Scientific,
Technological and Cultural Cooperation. Experts are
actively working out a mechanism for investing the
rupee assets available to Russia as a result of the
repayment of Indias debt into promising projects in
both countries.
The prospects of cooperation in this sphere give
rise to optimism. Military and technical cooperation,
being a significant and inalienable segment of the
special nature of the bilateral relationship, is doing
splendidly. A number of major deals in the pipeline are
now being finalised. When signed, they will make a
considerable contribution to strengthening Indias
defence capability and security while promoting peace
and stability in the region. Among the top priorities on
the Russian-Indian agenda are also our traditionally
warm people-to-people contacts and cooperation in the
field of culture. An example of this is the successful
functioning of the Russian-Indian International Roerich
Memorial Trust in Naggar in Kullu Valley, Himachal
Pradesh. Every year the Roerich Museum and Art
Gallery there are visited by over 100,000 tourists from
around the country and abroad. It is symbolic that as
the prime minister visits Moscow, an exhibition on
Russian culture is on in all major Indian metros,
drawing large audiences.
This colorful gala marks the renaissance of active
cultural cooperation between the two countries and
highlights the special spiritual affection the Russians
and Indians have for each other. For many centuries,
this magic bridge of culture, stretching over the
Palmaris and the Himalayas, has spanned our nations,
and together with our Indian friends we keep walking
along it towards the future horizons of our strategic
partnership.
111. Which of the following is a unique feature of IndoRussian relationship?
1) It is based on mutual cooperation and sharing of
knowledge in key areas.
2) It has stood firm even in trying times.

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3) It is the oldest relation between any who


countries in the world.
4) This relationship has been envied by many
countries.
5) None of these
112. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
1) There is much closeness in the primary national
interests of India and Russia.
2) Russia has offered to mediate in solving the
Indo-Pak problem.
3) Indias views on the situation in Afghanistan and
Iraq is different from that of Russia.
4) Russia wants Pakistan to accept Indias
conditions for normalization of relations at any
cost.
5) None of these
113. What has maintained the Indo-Russian relations
even amidst rough weathers?
1) their sense of respect for each other
2) their age-old experience in tackling the odds
3) the powerful international image of both the
countries
4) the attitude of both the countries to help each
other at difficult times
5) None of these
114. Majority of the India and Russian populations want
both the countries jointly
1) to emerge a superpower on the global scene.
2) to extend their area of cooperation.
3) to counter any superpower on the international
front.
4) to address their concerns on the international
and national front as well.
5) to operate against any terrorist activities within
their regions.
115. Which of the following is false in the context of the
passage?
1) The interaction between the leaders of India
and Russia has increased in recent years.
2) Russia supports the solving of Indo-Pak dispute
in view of the 1972 Shimla accord and 1998
Lahore Declaration.
3) Favourable conditions should be built if IndoPak dispute is to be settled.
4) Afghanistan and Iraq crises are not without
international consequences.
5) None of these
Directions (116-118): Choose the word which is same
in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
116. PROXIMITY
1) closeness
2) unity
3) awareness
4) unanimity
5) depth
117. CONVERGENCE
1) weight
2) similarity
3) acceptance
4) exchange
5) reflection
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118. RAMIFICATIONS
1) norms
2) scale
3) significance
4) consequences 5) carnage
Directions (119-120): Choose the word which is
opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in
the passage.
119. CONSONANT
1) hostile
2) aloof
3) inconsistent
4) deprived
5) criticising
120. INALIENABLE
1) unfamiliar
2) unconditional 3) prime
4) secondary
5) trivial
Directions: (121-125): In each of the following
sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each
sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by
numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of
words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in
the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.
121. Now, the educational courses in many institutions
are sold and even ________ for _______ prices.
1) auctioned, fabulous
2) glamourised, soaring
3) bought, competitive
4) advertised, cover
5) demanded, handy
122. Limited _______ of resources and their limited
potential is everybodys ________.
1) assess, responsibility 2) reach, game
3) availability, concern
4) area, knowledge
5) scope, story
123. The right to livelihood is an _________ facet of the
right to life, _________ as a fundamental right under
the Constitution.
1) important, enjoying
2) integral, guaranteed
3) utmost, covered
4) ideal, procured
5) essential, denied
124. For a large majority of poor people, labour power
is the only productive _________ they _________ for
securing a living.
1) energy, gain
2) field, deliver
3) assignment, carry
4) asset, possess
5) area, work
125. The committees _________ is to create a space for
democratic _________ of conflicts.
1) efforts, solution
2) tasks, finding
3) finding, settlement
4) concern, adherence
5) endeavour, resolution
Directions (126-130): Rearrange the following seven
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then
answer the questions given below.
(A) If the balance is insufficient to cover the debit, the
difference becomes payable immediately or else a
service fee is levied.
(B) Debit cards are the same as credit cards.
(C) Quite obviously, a debit card may not be the
appropriate card for those who would like to have a
credit.

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(D) If the amount payable is overdue for a long period,


the card may be cancelled.
(E) As the transactions in the debit card are debited to
the account instantaneously, they are relatively less
risky to banks than credit card.
(F) The only difference in this card is that the amount of
dues from the cardholder for each and every
transaction is debited to cash holders account as soon
as each transaction is notified to the issuer.
(G) This, has, however, an advantage in the sense that it
replaces the requirement of carrying cash or cheque
book, when the transactions are being carried out.
126. Which of the following would be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement?
1) G
2) B
3) D
4) C
5) A
127. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) C
3) E
4) F
5) B
128. Which of the following would be the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) G
4) E
5) C
129. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) B
5) F
130. Which of the following would be the LAST
(SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) B
2) A
3) G
4) F
5) E
Directions (131-140): In the following passage, there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against

each five words are suggested, one of which fits the


blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.
Yet another Childrens Day has (131) but the children of
India (132) to be a neglected (133). The children of
working women are (134) to the (135) of ayahs and
(136) even denied mothers milk. (137) sad is the lot of
those children who (138) their time in creches. Schoolgoing boys and girls are (139) of their mothers (140)
for long hours.
131. 1) presided
2) witnessed 3) passed
4) celebrated
5) marched
132. 1) continue
2) branded
3) emerge
4) deprived
5) suppose
133. 1) children
2) teenagers
3) students
4) lot
5) volunteers
134. 1) charged
2) entrusted
3) ensured
4) adopted
5) deposited
135. 1) schools
2) mercy
3) tyranny
4) destiny
5) care
136. 1) poorly
2) fortunately
3) consequently 4) astonishingly 5) intentionally
137. 1) Same
2) Equally
3) Proportionate 4) Basically
5) Tragically
138. 1) spend
2) celebrate
3) allow
4) gather
5) sacrifice
139. 1) ignored
2) rebuked
3) scolded
4) yearning
5) deprived
140. 1) milk
2) cooperation 3) routine
4) company
5) privilege

COMPUTER
141. Special effect used to introduce slides in a presentation
are called ________.
1) Effects
2) Custom animation
3) Transition
4) Animation
5) Preset animation
142. Computers send and receive data in the form of ________
signals.
1) Analog
2) Digital
3) Modulated
4) Demodulated
5) All of these
143. Most World Wide Web pages contain commands in the
language ________.
1) NIH
2) URL
3) HTML
4) IRC
5) FTP
144. ________ are graphical objects used to represent
commonly used application.
1) GUI
2) Drivers
3) Windows
4) Application
5) Icons
145. Which of the following operating systems is not owned
and licensed by a company?
1) Unix
2) Linux
3) Windows 2000
4) Mac
5) Windows

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146. In any window, the maximize button, the minimize button


and the close buttons appear on
1) The title bar
2) Menu bar
3) Status bar
4) Ruler bar
5) Tool bar
147. Which is the slowest internet connection service?
1) Digital Subscriber Line 2) Tl
3) Cable modem
4) Leased Line
5) Dial-up Service
148. Every component of your computer is either
1) software or CPU/RAM
2) hardware or software
3) application software or system software
4) input devices or output devices
5) None of these
149. Checking that a pin code number is valid before it is
entered into the system is an example of
1) error correction
2) backup and recovery
3) data preparation
4) data validation
5) None of these
150. A compiler translates higher-level programs into a
machine language program, which is called
1) source code
2) object code
3) compiled code
4) beta code
5) None of these

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151. A field that uniquely identifies which person, thing, or


event the record describes is a.
1) file
2) data
3) field
4) key
5) None of these
152. The ability to find an individual item in a file
immediately
1) sequential access
2) file allocation table
3) direct access
4) directory
5) None of these
153. Computers connected to a LAN (Local Area Network)
can ________.
1) run faster
2) go on line
3) share information and/or share peripheral equipment
4) E-mail
5) None of these
154. A CD-RW disk ________
1) has a faster access than an internal disk
2) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be written once
3) holds less data than a floppy disk
4) can be erased and rewritten
5) None of these
155. The two major categories of software include
1) operating system and utility
2) Personal productivity and system
3) system and application
4) system and utility

5) None of these
156. Windows 95, Windows 98 and Windows NT are known
as
1) processors
2) domain names
3) modems
4) operating systems
5) None of these
157. Information on a computer is stored as
1) analog data
2) digital data
3) modem data
4) watts data
5) None of these
158. A program that works like a calculator for keeping track
of money and making budgets ________.
1) calculator
2) scholastic
3) keyboard
4) spreadsheet
5) None of these
159. To take information from one source and bring it to your
computer is referred to as ________.
1) upload
2) download
3) transfer
4) de-link
5) None of these
160. Each box in a spreadsheet is called a
1) cell
2) empty space
3) record
4) field
5) None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS
161. A telecom operator named Uninor is renamed as
Telenor. Its new tagline is
A. Ab life full paisa vasool
B. Life time paisa vasool
C. Ab life with paisa vasool
D. None of these
E. life time recharge
162. Who has been appointed as the new President of
the Federation of Motor Sports Clubs of India
(FMSCI)?
A. Bharath Raj
B. Zayn Khan
C. Raj Saxena
D. None of these
E. Rahim Khan
163. Who has been appointed as the head of National
Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
by the Union Women and Child Development
Ministry?
A. Radhika Bajaj B. Stuti Narain C. Rubi Punani
D. None of these E. Rupali Narain
164. Who has been appointed as the additional
secretary of NITI Aayog in September 2015?
A. Alok Kumar
B. Yudhvir Singh Malik
C. Jitendra Kumar D. Kaushalendra Kumar
E. Bibek Debroy
165. Who is going to host the 2016 World Cup and the
2019 Presidents Cup golf tournaments?
A. South Africa
B. Bangladesh C. Australia
D. South Korea
E. India
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166. Who has won the women doubles in China Open


final held in Beijing?
A. Casey Dellacqua and Yaroslava Shvedova
B. Roberta Vinci and Simona Halep
C. Sania Mirza and Martina Hingis
D. Hao-Ching Chan and Yung-Jan Chan
E. Sania Mirza and Leander Pace
167. According to the 3rd Quarter 2015 report of web
analytics and statistics firm Stat Counter, which
browser has topped in mobile browsing in India?
A. Opera
B. Internet Explorer
C. Google Chrome D. Alibabas browser UC
E. Mozila
168. Which Indian actor has been appointed as New
Zealand tourism ambassador and has become New
Zealands first Indian ambassador from India?
A. Varun Dhawan B. Sidharth Malhotra
C. Ranbir Kapoor D. Shahid Kapoor
E. None of these
169. Recently, who has been appointed as the Secretary
of the Department of Official Language under
Home Ministry?
A. Manoj Sachdeva B. Rahul Saxena
C. Girish Shankar D. Viren Gaykward
E. None of these
170. Who has recently resigned from the Sahitya
Akademi General Council?

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A. Shashi Deshpande
B. Mukul Sachdeva
C. Vipin Garg
D. Gaurav Malik
E. None of these
171. Who has been appointed as atomic Energy
Secretary and Chairman of Atomic Energy?
A. Krishna Banerjee
B. Shekhar Basu
C. VK Sinha
D. Roshan Malhotra
E. None of these
172. Who has been awarded with the 5th Hridaynath
Mangeshkar Award?
A. Anupam Kher B. Javed Akhtar C. AR Rahman
D. Amitabh Bachchan
E. None of these
173. Which private sector bank has started a digital
nationwide campaign named Har Zaroorat Poori
Ho Chutki Mein, Bank Aapki Mutthi Mein?
A. HDFC
B. ICICI
C. Axis Bank
D. Yes Bank
E. None of these
174. Recently a group is launched by Vulnerable
Nations to Foster Greater Investment in Climate
Resiliency during the annual meeting of
International Monetary Fund (IMF) and World
Bank in Lima, Peru. How many Vulnerable Nations
launched the group?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 25
E. None of these
175. Bollywood actor Akshay Kumar donated how
much amount to Maharashtra governments
Jalyukt
Shivar
Abhiyaan
(local
water
conservation scheme)?
A. 25 lakh
B. 30 lakh
C. 50 lakh
D. 60 lakh
E. None of these
176. Where is the SAARC Sufi festival, a three-day
carnival of Sufi dance, music and poetry was
organised from 10th to 12th October, 2015?
A. Noida
B. Gurgaon
C. Jaipur
D. Varanasi
E. None of these
177. When is World Mental Health Day Observed?
A. October 10
B. October 13 C. November 4
D. March 2
E. None of these
178. RBI lowers repo rate by ___ basis points to 6.75 per
cent
a. 50
b. 20
c. 10
d. 40
E. None of these
179. In case of state-run banks, government has its
stake 52% and above, but recently it has decided
to bring down its stake to 49% in which of the
following bank?
A. IDBI
B. Canara Bank
C. Bank of Maharashtra
D. Vijaya Bank
E. None of these
180. Who has been appointed as the Flag Officer
Submarines?
A. Rear Admiral Ravneet Singh
B. Rear Admiral S V Bokhare
C. Rear Admiral Sanjay Mahindru
D. Rear Admiral M S Pawar
E. None of these
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181. Who has been announced as the first-ever global


advocate for girls and women at the United
Nations Foundation to highlight the plight of
females?
A. Marie Claire
B. Lynda Lopez
C. Priyanka Chopra
D. Jennifer Lopez
E. None of these
182. RBI approves ___ entities to set up Small Finance
Banks
a. 30
b. 40
c. 10
d. 60
E. None of these
183. _____ state tops in ease of doing business in India:
World Bank Report
a. Gujarat
b. Uttar pradesh
c. Jammu and kashmir
d. Tamil Nadu
E. None of these
184. Union Cabinet allows ____ per cent FDI under
automatic route for white label ATMs
a. 100
b. 90
c. 80
d. 70
E. None of these
185. _____ launches IndPay mobile app service
a. Indian Bank
b. SBI
c. RBI
d. PNB
E. None of these
186. Reserve Bank of India granted in-principle
approval to __ applicants to start a payments bank
a. 12
b. 11
c. 10
d. 9
E. None of these
187. According to the annual list of the richest Indians
released by Forbes, Industrialist Mukesh Ambani
has been named as Indias richest. He has been
named as richest Indian for _____ year in a row.
A. sixth
B. ninth
C. fifth
D. seventh
E. None of these
188. Narendra modi is the first Indian Prime Minister to
visit Irelend in how many years?
A. 56 years
B. 65 years
C. 60 years
D. 62 years
E. None of these
189. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on his visit to
Ireland met Irish Prime Minister ____
A. Michael D. Higgins
B. Clark Davinson
C. Enda Kenny
D. Ram Kenny
E. None of these
190. ____ Bank launches Smart Vault digital locker
facility
a. ICICI
b. PNB
c. SBI
d. RBI
E. None of these
191. The functions of the lead bank are performed by:
a. SBI
b. RBI
c. Any bank
d. A bank designed for this purpose
E. None of these
192. Central Co-operative banks work at:
a. District level
b. National level
c. Block level
d. State level
E. None of these
193. The largest public sector commercial bank of India
is the ____

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a. SBI
b. RBI c. Bank of india
d. Union bank of india
E. None of these
194. PAN card issued by the income tax department
cannot be used for which of the following purpose?
a. Proof of identity
b. Proof of a registered tax payer
c. Proof of address
d. Proof of date of birth
E. None of these
195. Which one of the following statements is correct
regarding increase in the CRR in India?
a. It increases credit creation
b. It reduces credit creation
c. It does not affect credit
d. It denoted liberal monetary policy
E. None of these
196. Which among the following sectors contributes
most to the saving in India?
a. Banking and financial sector
b. Private corporate sector c. Export sector
d. Household sector
E. None of these
197. Govt. recently appointed a committee under the
chairmanship of which of the following on
differential premium system for bank in India?
a. Deepak Mohanty
b. Jasbir Singh
c. R Gandhi
d. Parth Sarthi Som
E. None of these
198. Brihadeeswarar Temple is located at which place?
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Maharashtra C. Tamilnadu
D. Jharkhand
E. None of these
199. To bring in more flexibility for the banks in case of
bad loans, the Reserve Bank of India has allowed
the banks to convert the status of their stressed
loans to a company into standard ones if
A. if the loan amount is not paid within 1 and a half
years.
B. that company is actually not in a condition to
provide the loan for next 3 years.
C. that company is sold to a new major stakeholder
D. Both A and B
E. None of these
200. Which bank is launching services on October 1st,
2015 with motto hatke bank which will be a
move of not having its own ATMs and making
transactions at rivals ATMs free for customers?
A. Bandhan Bank
B. IDFC Bank
C. IDBI Bank
D. HDFC
E. None of these

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