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1. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in an atom of 19F (Z = 9)?
A) 9 protons, 9 neutrons and 9 B) 19 protons, 10 neutrons and C) 9 protons, 10 neutrons and 9
electrons 19 electrons electrons
2. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in an atom of 22Ne (Z = 10)?
A) 10 protons, 10 neutrons and B) 22 protons, 12 neutrons and C) 10 protons, 12 neutrons and
10 electrons 22 electrons 10 electrons
6. If copper has an atomic number of 29, Cu-63 and Cu-65 both have?
A) 29 protons & 29 electrons B) 29 protons & 34 neutrons C) 36 neutrons & 29 electrons
7. If oxygen has an atomic number of 8, O-16, O-17 and O-18 all have?
A) 8 protons & 8 neutrons B) 8 Protons & 8 electrons C) 9 Neutrons and 8 electrons
9. If the Br-Br bond length in Br2 (g) is 228 pm, what is the bond length in Å?
A) 0.0228 Å B) 22800 Å C) 2.28 Å
10. An enzyme reaction was carried out in 500 µL vessel. What is the volume of vessel?
A) 5.00 x 10-1 ml B) 5.00 x 10-4 ml C) 5.00 x 10-7 ml
11. A gold coin with a mass of 96.5 g is placed in exactly 100 ml of water. If 5 ml of water is
displaced, then the density gold of coin is?
A) 1.02 g/ml B) 19.3 g/ml C) 0.0518 g/ml
12. The density of bismuth is 8.90 g/cm3. What would be the mass of 1 in3 of Bi?
A) 3.50 g B) 22.6 g C) 146 g
1. If carbon is burnt in limited supply of oxygen, then the product is rich in?
A) Carbon monoxide B) Carbon dioxide C) Both have equal D) No such gas is
volumes evolved
2. A mole of magnesium and a mole of iron have same number of?
A) Atoms B) Molecules C) Masses D) Protons
5. Which of the following is a reasonable value for the number of atoms in 1.00 f of Helium?
A) 0.25 B) 1.51 C) 1.51 x 10-23 D) 1.51 x 1023
6. Which of the following is the reasonable value for the mass of a calcium atom?
A) 6.7 x 10-23 g B) 40.1 g C) 6.7 x 10-23 u D) 6.7 x 1023 u
7. Which of these compounds contains the greatest mass of sulphur per gram of compound?
A) BaSO4 B) Li2SO4 C) Na2SO4 D) PbSO4
9. You have available 10.0 g of each of the following solutes. Which among them, when used to
prepare 100.ml solution will yield the solutions of greatest molarity?
A) CO(NH2)2 B) C6H12O6 C) CH3CH2OH D) NH3
10. How many moles of nitrogen atoms are present 10.62 g of Nitrogen gas?
A) 0.758 mole B) 0.379 mole C) 1.516 mole D) 2.636 moles
11. How many moles of hydrogen are present in 8.8 g of Methane (CH4)?
A) 0.55 moles B) 1.1 moles C) 2.2 moles D) 0.2 moles
12. How many atoms of oxygen are present in 1 m mole of Ozone (O3)?
A) 1.81 x 1021 B) 1.81 x 1027 C) 6.2x 1029 D) 6.2 x 1020
13. How many hydrogen atoms are present in 56.8 moles of Hydrogen gas?
A) 3.42 x 1025 B) 6.84 x 1025 C) 6.84 x 1023 D) 7.04 x 1025
16. A compound of nitrogen and hydrogen contains 87.4% N. What is the empirical formula of
the compound?
A) NH2 B) N2H4 C) NH3 D) None
17.A compound composed of Chromium and Oxygen contains 68.42% Cr. What is the formula of
the compound?
A) Cr2O3 B) Cr4O3 C) Cr4O6 D) Cr3O2
18. Sodium metal of mass 0.584 reacts with Phosphorous to form 0.846 g of a pure compound.
What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A) NaP3 B) NaP C) Na3P D) None
19. When 8.64 g of vanadium is combined with oxygen, 15.4 g of a compound is formed. What is
the formula of this compound?
A) VO3 B) V2O5 C) V4O5 D) V3O5
20. The molecular mass of terephthalic acid is 166 g and its empirical formula is C4H3O2. What
is the molecular formula of the acid?
A) C12H9O6 B) C4H3O2 C) C16H12O8 D) C8H6O4
21. The molecular mass of ethyl acetate is 88 g and its empirical formula C2H4O. What is the
molecular formula of the compound?
A) C2H4O B) C4H8O2 C) C6H12O3 D) C8H16O4
22. How many atoms of Vanadium can be extracted from 4 moles of vanadinite
(PbO)9(V2O5)3PbCl2?
A) 24 B) 8 C) 12 D) 6
23. How many moles of Boron can be extracted from 2.5 moles of Borax, Na2B4O7.10H2O?
A) 2.5 B) 4 C) 10 D) 100
24. How many moles of carbon monoxide are produced when 0.488 moles of SnO2 react with
excess of carbon? The equation of the reaction is:
SnO2 + 2 C >Sn + 2 CO
A) 0.844 mole B) 0.422 mole C) 0.211 mole D) 0.122 mole
25. How many moles of carbon are required to react 1.88 moles of SnO2 completely? The
equation of the reaction is:
SnO2 + 2 C >Sn + 2 CO
A) 1.88 moles B) 0.94 mole C) 1.41 mole D) 3.76 mole
26. How many moles of nitric acid will be prepared from 8 moles of NO2 and 3 moles of H2O?
A) 16 moles B) 5.33 moles C) 6 moles D) 10 moles
27. If 15 moles of NaN3 and 4 moles of NaNO3 react according to the following chemical
equation, how many moles of N2 are produced?
A) 32 moles B) 2.7 moles C) 24 moles D) 27 moles
28. Predict that if 2 moles of N2 are produced, how many moles of Na2O will be produced?
A) 0.75 moles B) 0.067 moles C) 5.3 moles D) 12 moles
29. Predict that if 0.75 moles of Na2O are produced, how many moles N2 of will be produced?
A) 0.28 moles B) 0.094 moles C) 18 moles D) 2 moles
30. How many moles of Al are produced from 1.00 mole of each reactant?
A) 1 mole B) 0.333 mole C) 0.167 mole D) 2 mole
31. How many moles of Al are produced from 3 moles of each reactant?
A) 6 moles B) 0.5 mole C) 1 mole D) 9 mole
32. How many moles of OH- ions are contained in 125 ml of 0.625M Ba(OH)2?
A) 0.156 mole B) 0.0391 mole C) 0.0781 mole D) 0.312 mole
33. How many moles of H+ ions are presented in 125 ml of an aqueous solution that is 0.625 M
oxalic acid, H2C2O4?
A) 0.156 mole B) 0.0391 mole C) 0.0781 mole D) 0.312 mole
34. Combustion analysis of 12 mg sample of ibuprofen produced 9.50 mg of water. What is the
percentage of hydrogen in ibuprofen?
A) 4.40% B) 17.6% C) 8.80% D) 11.11%
35. Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to make 2.50 L of 1.09M sodium sulphate,
Na2SO4.
A) 155g B) 387g C) 62g D) 142g
36. Calculate the volume of 0.755 M Na2S2O3 that should be used to prepare 15 L of 0.319 M
Na2S2O3.
A) 19.9 L B) 4.79 L C) 6.34 L D) 12.7 L
1. Which of the following is not a gas at room temperature and normal pressure?
A) Fluorine B) Chlorine C) Bromine D) All are gases
2. Which of the following is not a gas at room temperature and normal pressure?
A) Argon B) Iodine C) Neon D) All are gases
3. Which of the following represent the elements in most stable form at 25°C and 1atm?
A) Br2 (l) and I2 (s) B) Br2 (g) and I2 (g) C) Br2 (l) and I2 (l) D) None
8. Separation of alum crystals from solution takes place according to the process of?
A) Crystallization B) Filtration C) Melting D) Heating
10. Conversion of hard waters into soft waters is a chain of process. It also includes?
A) Flocculation B) Distillation C) Decantation D) Crystallization
11. Sodium Chloride is commonly known as Table salt. It could be separated from sea water by?
A) Flocculation B) Distillation C) Decantation D) Crystallization
12. Froth Floatation and Induced gas floatation are the examples of which type of separation
technique?
A) Decantation B) Solid Phase C) Dissolved Air D) Flocculation
Extraction Floatation
13. Water waste from a fast food restaurant has oil traces. A student has been assigned with the
task to separate the oil from water. He would go for which of the following separation process?
A) Filtration B) Distillation C) Decantation D) Solid Phase
Extraction
14. A researcher needs to extract oil from oil seeds. Hw may use which of the following process?
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CHEMICAL TECHNIQUES EXTRA MCQS HANDOUT 3
PREPARED BY OSAMA HASAN
15. For the situation provided in Q14. Which of the following will have highest efficiency?
A) SCFE B) n-hexane C) Expeller Press D) All have the same
16. Two liquids of different density have been mixed properly. A student has to separate them.
Which method will opt for?
A) Distillation B) Centrifugation C) Flocculation D) None
17. In an advanced industry, a workman mistakenly mixed water with alcohol. By which method
could he separate this mixture?
A) Centrifugation B) Vacuum C) Fractional D) Fractional
Distillation Freezing Distillation
18. Kerosene oil is a by-product of crude oil which yields petroleum. It is separated from the
fraction by?
A) Fractional B) Critical Fluid C) Decantation D) None
Distillation Extraction
20. The separation process that separates mixture due to difference in densities is/are?
A) Flocculation B) API oil-water C) Centrifugation D) All of them
separator
21. Melting point is the basic separating characteristic for which of the following processes?
A) Fractional B) Fractional freezing C) Fractional boiling D) Fractional melting
distillation
31. A gas is exposed to HCl gas container, white fumes are formed. The gas may be?
A) Chlorine B) Hydrogen Sulphide C) Carbon dioxide D) Ammonia
32. White precipitates are formed when a gas is passed through lime water. The gas may be?
A) Chlorine B) Hydrogen Sulphide C) Carbon dioxide D) Ammonia
33. A yellowish green gas has an irritating odour. The gas may be?
A) Chlorine B) Hydrogen Sulphide C) Carbon dioxide D) Ammonia
34. A laboratory attendant accidently dropped AgNO3 in an unknown gas’s beaker. White
precipitates are formed. The gas may be?
A) CO2 B) HCl C) NH3 D) CO
35. In a laboratory, several beakers of different gases are arranged. One of the beakers smells like
rotten eggs. The gas may be?
A) Cl2 B) H2 C) SO2 D) H2S
36. In a laboratory, a student accidently removed the lid of an unknown filled gas. The vicinity air
became reddish brown. The gas may be?
A) NO B) N2 C) N2O D) SO2
37. The flame test of Sodium salt is?
A) Silver B) White C) Yellow D) Green
40. Smell of vinegar is smelt when dilute HCl is added to an unknown salt. The salt may have
which ion?
A) Acetate B) Carbonate C) Bicarbonate D) Sulphide
41. The salt contains the Chlorine anion if the fumes are __________ coloured.
A) White B) Brown C) Violet D) Colourless
43. The fumes if exposed to a chemical would turn white. The chemical is?
A) AgCl B) HNO3 C) NH4OH D) AgNO3
44. The salt might contain Bromine anion if the fumes are __________ coloured.
A) White B) Brown C) Violet D) Colourless
45. The salt might contain Iodine anion if the fumes are __________ coloured.
A) White B) Brown C) Violet D) Colourless
1. Which transition element has no electrons in its outer most sub shell?
A) Nickel (Z=28) B) Palladium (Z=46) C) Platinum (Z=78) D) None
2. “One-half the distance between the nuclei of adjacent atoms in a solid metal” is called?
A) Covalent Radius B) Metallic Radius C) Ionic Radius D) Both (A) and (B)
6. The elements with smaller number of electrons in their outermost shell are?
A) Metals B) Non-Metals C) Metalloids D) Inert gases
7. The elements with greater number of electrons in their outermost shell are?
A) Metals B) Non-Metals C) Metalloids D) Inert gases
10. Among the following, which element has the largest atomic radius?
A) Be B) Al C) P D) I
11. The representive element with the smallest atomic radius in the periodic table is?
A) He B) F C) Ne D) O
14. Fluorine gained an electron from a metal atom. The atomic radius is expected to?
A) Increase B) Decrease C) Remain same D) None
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PREPARED BY OSAMA HASAN
15. Calcium donated two electrons to a non-metal atom. Its atomic radius will?
A) Increase B) Decrease C) Remain same D) None
16. The outermost valence electrons are equidistant in atoms of two different elements. They are
supposed to have same?
A) Atomic Radius B) Ionization Potential C) Electron Affinity D) None
17. The nuclear charge of two atoms could only be same when they have equal?
A) Electrons B) Neutrons C) Protons D) Both (B) and (C)
19. The element with the least value of ionization potential is?
A) Rb B) Cs C) Mg D) Fr
20. The element with the highest value of ionization potential is?
A) Al B) O C) F D) Ne
21. The distance of valence electrons of atom A is twice that of the electrons of atom B. The
expected ionization potential of A would be
A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) twice D) Can’t be told
22. Elements with stable electronic configuration have _________ values of electron affinity.
A) Higher B) Lower C) Zero D) Moderate
23. The highest value of electron affinity has been calculated for?
A) F B) Cl C) Br D) I
25. Increase in atomic radius, makes the value of electron affinity get?
A) Lower B) Higher C) It fluctuates D) None
26. Which of the following has the smallest value for electron affinity?
A) Na B) B C) Li D) O
27. Which of the following has the largest value for electron affinity?
A) Na B) B C) Li D) O
34. The lowest ionization energy would be found with the least _______ atom.
A) Lowest Radius B) Largest Radius C) Electropositive D) Electronegative
2. The molecules of a gas are in such a rapid motion that they seem to resist __________ forces.
A) Attractive B) Repulsive C) Gravitational D) Both (A) and (B)
3. The speed and direction of motion of any given molecule are at all times __________?
A) Same B) Different C) Predictable D) Unpredictable
4. The molecules of a cold sample of gas moves __________ than those of hot sample.
A) Equally B) More fast C) More slowly D) Can’t be predicted
6. The density of air decreases when the height above the earth’s surface is?
A) Decrease B) Increased C) It doesn’t matter D) It’s constant
9. For the information given in 8. Which container carries the maximum pressure?
A) III B) IV C) I D) II
10. What is the pressure drop below atmospheric pressure, during the inspiration of air to lungs?
A) 3 torr B) 3 atm C) 3 Pa D) All of the above
11. What is the total pressure, during the expiration of air from lungs?
A) 763 Pa B) 3 mm of Hg C) 763 mm of Hg D) Both (B) and (C)
12. The volume of air that is moved in and moved out, to and from the lungs during respiration is
called “Tidal Volume”. What is its value for a normal person?
A) ½ litre B) 0.5 cm3 C) 1 dm3 D) It’s not a constant
13. The volume of a gas in a cylinder is 2.00 L at 398 torr. The piston is moved to increase the
gas pressure to 5.15 atm. Which of the following is the reasonable value for volume?
A) 0.20 L B) 0.40 L C) 1.00 L D) 16.0 L
14. A gas is enclosed in a 10.2 L tank at 1208 torr. Which of the following is a reasonable value
for the pressure when the gas is transferred to a 30.0 L tank?
A) 0.40 atm B) 25 lb/in2 C) 400 mm of Hg D) 3600 torr
15. For each Celsius degree rise in temperature, the volume of a gas expands by 1/273 of it
volume at?
A) Initial temperature B) 25 °C C) 0°C D) 0 K
19. A sample of nitrogen occupies a volume of 2.50 L at -120°C and constant pressure. To which
of the following approx. temperatures should the gas be brought in order to double its volume?
A) -240°C B) -60°C C) -12°C D) 30°C
21. The hydrated crystals that lose the water of crystallization on exposure to air at ordinary
temperature are called?
A) Hydroscopic B) Deliquescent C) Efflorescent D) Both (A) and (B)
22. The crystals that absorb water from air and become wet are called?
A) Hydroscopic B) Deliquescent C) Efflorescent D) Both (A) and (B)
23. At standard conditions, the number of molecules of a gas in a cubic metre is?
A) 3 x 1025 B) 6.02 x 10 C) 3 x 10-25 D) 3 x 10-10
24. The molar volume occupied by one mole of any gas at N.T.P is?
A) 22.4 dm3 B) 24.46 dm3 C) 2.05 dm3 D) None
25. The molecules to which water molecules are attracted are called?
A) Hygroscopic B) Hydroscopic C) Hydrophilic D) None
27. Sublimation is a process in which solid directly changes to gaseous state without being
converted into liquid. Such type of a phase change occurs in solids due to?
A) High Vapour B) Very Low C) High Boiling D) Both (A) and (B)
Pressure Melting Point Point
28. On reducing the pressure, what change is expected to be observed in a system of gases?
A) Collisions will B) Molar Masses C) Gas density will D) No Change
become faster will be reduced decrease.
29. Honey is viscous and water is mobile. This could be due to the difference in?
A) Molecular size B) Nature of liquid C) Temperature D) Pressure
30. Viscosity and Surface tension are examples of which type property?
A) Colligative B) Additive C) Constitutive D) Intensive
33. The mass of atmospheric layer on human body at sea level is about?
A) 14.7 psi B) 29.92 in. Of Hg C) 1.36 mm of water D) Both (A) and (B)
34. The tires of automobiles are filled with air until the gauge shows the pressure of about?
A) 28 psi B) 42.7 psi C) Both (A) and (B) D) None
37. For the molecules of a liquid at surface, there is resultant attractive force acting?
A) Sideward B) Upward C) Downwards D) All forces are in
equilibrium
38. The surface tension of water as compared to most of the organic liquids is?
A) Higher B) Lower C) Equal D) It varies
40. The dispersion forces act as the principal forces in which system of crystals?
A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Metallic D) Molecular
42. On increasing the concentration of solute in a solution, the vapour pressure is/remains?
A) Same B) Lowered C) Increased D) It’s a constant
45. Which crystal system exhibits the property of indefinite growth of crystals?
A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Metallic D) Molecular
46. The lowest melting points are exhibited by which crystal system?
A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Metallic D) Molecular
51. If 80 g of NaOH is dissolved in 2000g of water, what will be the freezing point of solution?
A) -0.51°C B) -1.86°C C) -3.72°C D) -6.58°C
52. 180 g of acetic acid is mixed with 3kg of water. What would be the boiling point of the
solution?
A) 100°C B) 101.53°C C) 101.02 D) 100.51°C
53. 900g of C6H12O6 are mixed 1 kg of water. What would be the expected freezing point of this
saturated solution?
A) 102.55°C B) -9.3°C C) 9.3°C D) -102.55°C
Q54. 3 moles of a substance is dissolved in 1 litre water. What would be the boiling point?
A) 100.51°C B) 102.04°C C) 101.53°C D) 102.55°C
Q55. The pressure on a system containing water is reduced. The melting point will be?
A) Increased B) Decreased C) Remains Constant D) Can’t be told
Q56. If 10 g of ice melts, then the total quantity of heat absorbed is?
A) 10 calories B) 80 calories C) 800 calories D) 800 kilocalories
Q57. 1 kg of water was heated from 4°C to 14°C. The total usage of calories would be?
A) 10 calories B) 100 calories C) 100 kilocalories D) 10 kilocalories
Q58. When the excited liquid molecules leave the surface and go into vapour state, the average
kinetic energy of the molecules left at the surface becomes?
A) Higher B) Lower C) Remains Same D) Can’t be told
1. Which gas was an important fuel gas for homes and industry before the advent of natural gas
industry?
A) Methane Gas B) Water Gas C) Laughing Gas D) Producer Gas
4. In an electrolytic process, how much electrical energy is required to produce 1 mole of H2?
A) 0.1 KWh B) 1 KWh C) 0.01 KWh D) 10 KWh
5. In the electrolysis of water, the volume of H2 gas produced is __________ to that of O2.
A) Equals B) One-half C) Twice D) One-fourth
10. Which hydride among covalent hydrides violates the general trend of low boiling point?
A) Hydrogen B) Hydrogen Chloride C) Hydrogen D) Hydrogen Iodide
monoxide Bromide
13. The hydride that is the most appropriate source of nascent hydrogen, is?
A) Ionic Hydrides B) Covalent Hydrides C) Metallic Hydrides D) Polymeric
Hydrides
16. The Hydride family which comprised of the largest number of compounds, is?
A) Ionic Hydrides B) Covalent Hydrides C) Metallic Hydrides D) Polymeric
Hydrides
19. The Hydride family has the least number of compounds, is?
A) Ionic Hydrides B) Covalent Hydrides C) Metallic Hydrides D) Polymeric
Hydrides
23. Which hydrogen compound is used in the manufacture of fertilizers, plastics and explosives?
A) NH3 B) NaOH C) HCl D) None of the above
27. The oxyhydrogen torch is used to melt Tungsten. The minimum temperature of it’s flame is?
A) 3400°C B) 3000°C C) 1500°C D) 1000°C
29. The precipitates of CaCO3, MgCO3, and FeCO3 are commonly called?
A) Boiler Scale B) Carbonate Ions C) Hard water residue D) Soft water residue
32. On softening of permanent hard water by Na2CO3, the remaining salts in solution are?
A) NaCl B) NaCO3 C) Na2SO4 D) Both (A) and (C)
35. Sevaral compound such as CO, CO2, SO2, SO3 with higher molecular weight than water are
gases at room temperature, but water(mol. Wt= 18) is a liquid. This is primarily because of?
A) Polar Covalent B) Laten Heat Values C) Hydrogen Bonding D) None
Bond
36. On freezing at O°C, the volume of water expands by about how many percent?
A) 9 % B) 20 % C) 200 % D) 50 %
37. In water cluster, a single water molecule is connected with _____ water molecules by H
bonds.
A) three B) four C) five D) six
CHAPTER # 1 CHAPTER # 2
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E
CHAPTER # 3 CHAPTER # 4
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E
CHAPTER # 5 CHAPTER # 13
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E 1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E 2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E 3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E 4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E 5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E 6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E 7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E 8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E 9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E 10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E 11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E 12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E 13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E 14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E 15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E 16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E 17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E 18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E 19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E 20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E 21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E 22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E 23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E 24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E 25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E 26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E 27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E 28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E 29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E 30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E 31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E 32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E 33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E 34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E 35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E 36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E 37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E
2. The properties which mainly depend on the arrangement of atoms in a molecule are called?
A) Physical B) Constitutive C) Chemical D) None
Properties Properties Properties
3. The properties which are the sum of the corresponding properties of individual components of
a system are known as?
A) Additive B) Colligative C) Chemical D) None
Properties Properties Properties
6. The tiny particles that make up all the gases are called?
A) Ions & molecules B) Atoms& molecules C) Ions & Radicals D) Radical&molecules
7. In KMT of gases, a force among the molecules of gases is accepted which is?
A) Attractive B) Repulsive C) Gravitational D) Negligible
10. At the same temperature, the molecules of every gas have the same __________ energy.
A) Potential Energy B) Rotational Energy C) Vibrational Energy D) Kinetic Energy
14. Which one of the following is the most strongly polar liquid? 1
A) Water B) Alcohol C) Hydrogen chloride D) Gasoline
19. Rain drops have spherical shape because a sphere has the least?
A) Area B) Volume C) Length D) Surface to Volume
Ration
20. Which liquid doesn’t wet glass?
A) Water B) Mercury C) Alcohol D) Ether
26. According to KMT, kinetic energy of molecules increases when they are?
A) Mixed with mol. of B) Frozen in to solid C) Condensed into a D) Melted from solid
low temp. liquid to a liquid state.
27. Which of the following gases has the lowest density under room temperature?
A) CO B) NH3 C) N2 D) O2
2
28. The volume of a gas would theoretically be zero at?
A) 0 °C B) O K C) 273 K D) 273 °C
30. The breaking system of a car contains liquid. The reason for using a liquid because it?
A) Cannot be B) Readily turns to a C) Takes up the D) Distributes pressure
compressed gas shape of in all directions
container uniformly
31. Microscopic view of two liquids is:
37. The property of a substance which depends on the arrangement of atoms is?
A) Colligative B) Constitutive C) Additive D) Anisotropic
ASWER KEY
1. A B C D E 38. A B C D E
2. A B C D E 39. A B C D E
3. A B C D E 40. A B C D E
4. A B C D E 41. A B C D E
5. A B C D E 42. A B C D E
6. A B C D E 43. A B C D E
7. A B C D E 44. A B C D E
8. A B C D E 45. A B C D E
9. A B C D E 46. A B C D E
10. A B C D E 47. A B C D E
11. A B C D E 48. A B C D E
12. A B C D E 49. A B C D E
13. A B C D E 50. A B C D E
14. A B C D E 51. A B C D E
15. A B C D E 52. A B C D E
16. A B C D E 53. A B C D E
17. A B C D E 54. A B C D E
18. A B C D E 55. A B C D E
19. A B C D E 56. A B C D E
20. A B C D E 57. A B C D E
21. A B C D E 58. A B C D E
22. A B C D E 59. A B C D E
23. A B C D E 60. A B C D E
24. A B C D E 61. A B C D E
25. A B C D E 62. A B C D E
26. A B C D E 63. A B C D E
27. A B C D E 64. A B C D E
28. A B C D E 65. A B C D E
29. A B C D E 66. A B C D E
30. A B C D E 67. A B C D E
31. A B C D E 68. A B C D E
32. A B C D E 69. A B C D E
33. A B C D E 70. A B C D E
34. A B C D E 71. A B C D E
35. A B C D E 72. A B C D E
36. A B C D E 73. A B C D E
37. A B C D E 74. A B C D E