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SECTION-I Number ef Quesrions e 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 and 2: Answer the questions independently of each other',

1. Raman has a square cardboard off area 4 sq.It (the square given below), from which Iile clips away a smaller squ,are 01 areal sq.ft (the shaded part of the square), from one of the corners. Now, if he wants to cut up the remaining piece of cardboard into exactly four identical smaller pieces" what is the perimeter of each of the smauer pieces?

11 It

1 ft:

1 ft

(1) 4 It

(2} 3.25 It (3) 3.5 n (4) 3.751t

2. In a mixed doubles tennis tournament, a team always consists of one male anc one female player. In a certain mixed double tennis tournament, four females and four males are participating. In every round, every possible pair will play against every other possible pair. After every round, one female and one male will be eliminated. The process continues untill only one female and one male is left and tl1~s pair is called the winning pair of the tournament. What is the total number of matches to be played to decide the winning paiir?

(1) 92 (2} 82 (3) 72 (4) 62

DIRECTIONS for qvestions 3 and 4: Answer the questions on the basis ot tme information given below.

lihe numbers 1, 2, n are written in the natural order.

Numbers ln odd places are struck QuI to form a new sequence. This process is continued till only one number is left

3. !I n :: 1997, the number left is

(1) 1996 (2} 1988 (3) 512

(4) 1024

4. If the number left is 512, the maximum possible value of n is

(1) 1025 (2) 1023 (3) 513 (4) 1024

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 and ,6: Answer the questions independently 01 each other.

5. The value of


(1) 99


(3) 9,18


(4) 924

(2} 3

6. A thin copper wire is wound, uniformly and spirally, in a slnple layer, from the bottom to the top, around a cylindrical 'iron rod. The circumference 01 the iron

rod is 2 em. and its height is 56 cm. If tile number of turns in the spirally wound copper wire is exactly 45, what is the length of the copper wire usedi?

(1) 96cm (2) 102cm (3) 106crn (4) 116cm

DlRECTIIONS for questions 7 and 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the inlorrnafion given below.

Three persons A,. Band C start running simultaneously on three concentric circular tracks from three collinear points P, Q and R respectiveliy which are collinear with the centre and are on the same side of the centre as shown, The speeds of A, Band Care 5 mIs, 9 mls and 8 mls respectively. The lengths 01 the tracks on which A, B and C are running are 400 m, 600 m and 800 m respectively.


If A and B run in clockwise dirsctlon and C in annclockwise dlrectlon, after how much time will the positions of time A, Band C be collinear with the centre and on the same side of the centre, for the first time after t~ey start? (1) 200 seconds (3) 600 seconds

(2) 400 seconds (4) 800 seconds


If A runs in the clockwise direction and C in the anticlockwise direction, after how much time w~11 the, positions 01 A and C be collinear with the centre, (and on the same side), for the fourth time after they start?

(1) 1177 2. seconds (2) 160 seconds



(3) 1145- seconds


(4) 200 seconds

DIRECTIIONS for questions 9 and 10: Answer the, questions independently of each other.

9. Let P represent the set 01 all natural numbers from 1 to 100, each of which differs from the sum of its 'factors by 1, and let Q represent the set of all natural numbers from 1 to 100, each of which is equal to the number of its factors. The L.C.M. of the gireatest element of P and the greatest ellement of Q is

(1)144 (2) 194 (3) 180 (4) 168

111). The multiplication of two numbers is shown below.

AD4 . x E A206

where A, D, and E are alii distinct digits .. The value of A + E is

(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 11

(4) 10

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DIRECTIONS tor questione 11 and 12: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In 8J horticulitura[[ show, a participant arranged a total of 1000 fruits, of four types, in a ~ong straight line. He first placed one Apple, then two Mangoes, three Oranges, four Custard apples, five Apples, six Mangoes; seven Oranges, eight Custard apples and so on (with Apples followed by Mangoes fo[lowed by Oranges followed by Custard apples) upto the 1 OOOlh fruit.

11. What was the position of the 100lh Marlgo?

(1) 387 (2) 423 (3) 417 (4) 437

12. Among the last 700 fruits, which type(s) of trult occurred the greatest number of times?

(1) Apple (2) Mango

(3) Custard apple (4) Both Apple and Mango

DIRECTIONS to, questions 13 and 14: Answer the questions independently of each other.

13. Five persons, working togetner, take 12 days to complete a piece of work. If the five people, instead do the work in a peculiar manner such thai the first person works for two days and takes rest on the third. day, the second person works for three days and takes rest for the next two days, the thiro person works for four days and takes rest for ths next three clays and so on, then in how many days will the work be completed, given all of them start the work en the same day?

(1) 19 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 21


A four-digit number N tactors can N2 have? (1) 29

(3) 45

has 15 factors. How many

(2) 30

(4) Either 29 or 45

DIREC110NS for questions 15 and 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the iniormaliongiven below.

There are 24 Rosaqollas and 3'6 Kulfis in a box, which is givenl to three friends - Anil, Anand and Abhilash. Ani[ eats only Rosaqollas at a rate of x Rosagu~[as per minute, while Anand! eats only IKulfis at a rate of y Kulfis per minute and Abhilash simultaneously eats 2x Rosagol[as and 3y Kul~is per minute, where x and yare both positive inteqers. All the three start eating the sweets at the same time and it is observed that aiter the first two minutes the number of Rosago[las and the number of Kulfis left is same.

15. What ts the ratio of the number of Kultis Abhilash

eats per minute to the eats per minute?

2 4

(1) - (2)-

9 9

number of Rosagu[las Ani[

(3) ~ 4

(4) 9 2

16. What is tihe ratio of the humber of Hosaqullas left after the first minute to the number of Kulfis eaten ~n the first minute?

(1) ~ (2) ~ (3) i 14) ~

323 4

DIRECTIONS tor questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions independently of each other.

17. Two, identical circles, with respective centres A and 8,. intersect each other as shown below, The area of the bjggest circle ihat can be drawn ~111 the common region is 64n cm2, while the circumference ol the smallest circle Ihat can be drawn circumscribing the common region is 64n ern, What is the circumference (incm) of the circle with centre A?

(1) 13611: (2) 68n

(3) 72n:

14) 1441't

18. There are m integers fii, where i =: 1,. 2, 3, .... m. [f S =: n, + n,.n2 + nlfi2l13 + nlf72n3n4+ ....•.... + n,IJ2f73 ..... nm, which of the following statements is always true?

(1) S is even, if m is even.

(2) If there are an odd number of odd ni and m is odd, then S is even.

(3) If the least value of I, for which 1"11 is even, is even, then Sis odd,

(4) If the largest value of i, for which /"Ii is odd, is odd, then S is even.

19. ln a geometric progression, the sum of the fourth, fifth and sixth terms is eight times tthe sum of the first three terms. Find the common rano.

(1) 3 (2) -3 (3) -2 14):;::

20. Sameer marks up an article by p>Jo, (p > 0), gives a discount of E.% and gets a protlt of E..%, If he

4 4

marks up the article by E% and gives a discount off 2

E.% , what would be his profit percentage? 6

(1) 25%

(2) 33.!.% (3) 50% 3


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SECTION -II Number of Questions = 30

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Each of the following questions has a paragraph with one italicised word that does not make sense, Choose the most appropriate replacement for uhat word from the options given below the paragraph.

21. The sentimeli"1t of the investors on the global equity market can be best captured by the Japanese saying. "we're fools, whetner we dance or not, so we might as well dance." Many investors have contemplated stepping off the floor. But the power of the bull market keeps sdpming them to take the view that they may as well be part of the action man see it all from the sidelines.

(1) compelling (2) requestnq

(3) convincing (4) permitting

22. While excavating the tomb of an ancient queen at Ur in Iraq, a gold knob was found. When iit was carefully removed, a hole was seen beneath it. This guesnted that there was somethlnq made of wood which had decayed and had turned to dust leaving only the hole there.

(1) proved (2) implied

(3) suggested (4) hinted

23. Women go through a lot of struggle when tryingl to balance their work and family Ilives. The basic fact is that most women feel family is their primary pnemospity. This could be because of our social structure or the inherent nature of women.

(1) obligation (2) responsibility

(3) oontrol (4) authority

24. Raju is the kind of person who hates being told he is wrong. He disagrees with everyone. His comments are often subtly ossotoie, if not openly negative, which causes a lot of resentment among his peers.

(1) ironic (2) causae

(3) spiteful (4) sarcastic

25. Crude oil production is only barely keeping up with rising global demand, leaving a slim margin for error and experts feel that a suspected nuclear weapoTiis programme would lead to a meumtion in the Persian Gulf supplies. ( 1) dis ru ption (3) conluslon

(2) disorder

(4) disturbance

DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow H.

It looked like the first drop on rain in the desert of drugs policy. Last week Antonio Maria Costa, executive director of the UN Office 011 Drugs and Crime, said w:hatt milllons of liberal-minded people have been waiting to hear. "Law enforcement should shift its focus from drug users to drug trsffickers ... people who take drugs needl medical help, not criminal retribution". Drugs production should remain ill~egal, possession and use should be decriminallisecil. Guardian readers toasted him with bumpers of peppermint tea, and, perhaps, a celebratory splif!. I didn't.

I believe that informed adults should be allowed to inftict whatever suffering they wish - on themselves. But we are not entitled to harm other people. I know people who drink fair trade tea and coffee, shop locally and take cocaine at parties. They are rsvoltinq hypocrites.

Every year cocaine causes some 20,000 deaths in Colombia and displaces several hundred thousand people from their homes. Children are blown up by landmines; indigenous people are enslaved, villagers are tortured and killed, rainforests are razed. You'd causeless human su.ffering if instead of discreetly retiring to the toilet at a media drinks party you went into the street and mugged someone. But the counter-cultural association appears to insulate people from ethical questions. If commissioning murder, torture, slavery, civil war, corruption and deforestation is not a mime, what is?

I am talking about elective drug use, not addiction. I cannot find comparative figun:~s for the United Klng:dom, but in the U.S. casual users of cocaine outnumber addicts by around 12 to one. I agree that addicts should be helped, not prosecuted. I would like to see a revival of the British programme that was killed by a tabloi'd witch-hunt in 1971: until! then all heroin addicts were entitled to clean, legal supplies administered by doctors. Cocaine addicts should be offered residential detox. Bul,at the risk of alier1atUng most 01 the readershlp ov this newspaper, I malntaln thai while cocaine remains Hlegal, casual users should remain SUbject to criminal law. Decriminalisation of the products of crime expands the market fo:r this criminal trade ..

We have a choice of two consistent policies, The ffirst is to sustain global prohibition, while helping addicts and prosecuting casuat users. This means that tile drugs trade will remain the preserve of' criminal gangs. It will keep spreading crime and instability around the world, and ensure that narcotics are stilll cut with contaminants. As Nick Davies arqued duri:ng his investigation 01 drugs policy lor the Guardian, major seizures raise the price 01 drugs. Demand among addicts is inelastic, so higher prices mean that tiley must find more money to buy them. The more drugs the police capture and destroy, the more robberies and muggings addicts will commit.

The other possible policy is to legalise and regulate the global trade. This would undercut the criminal networks and guarantee unadulterated supplies to consumers, There might even be a market for certified talrtrade cocaine.

Mr Costa's new report lbegins by rejecting this option. If it did otherwise, he would no longer .be executive director of the UN Office 011 Drugs and Crime. The report argues that "any reduction in the cost of drug control ... will be offset by much higher expenditure 01"1 public health! (due to the surge of drug consumption)". It admits that tobacco and alcohol kill


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more people than illegal drugs, but claims that this is only because fewer illegal dwgs are consumed, Strangely however, it fails to supply any evidence to support the claim that narcotics are dangerous. Nor does it distinguish between the efifects of the drugs themselves and the effects of the adulteration and disease caused by their prohlbition.

Why not? Perhaps because the evidence would torpedo the rest of the report. A couple of weeks ag:o, Ben Goldacre drew attention to the largest study on cocaine ever undertaken, completed by the World Health Organisation in 1995. I've just read ii, and this is what it says. "Health problems from the use of legal substances, particularly alcohol and tobacco, are greate" than health problems from cocaine use, Few experts describe cocaine as invariably harmful to heallth. Cocaine-related problems are wJdely perceived to be more common and more severe for intensive, high-dosage users and very rare and much less severe for occeeional, low-dosage users ... occasional cocaine use does nott typically lead to severe or even minor physical or social problems", This study was suppressed by the WHO after mreats 0,1 an economic embargo by the Clinton government. Drugs policy in most nations is a matte" of religion, not science.

The same goes for heroin. The biggest study of opiate use ever conducted (at Philadelphia general hospital) found that a,ddlcts suffered no physical harm, even though some 01 them had been taking heroin for 20 years. The devastating heallth effects of heroin use are caused by adlulte"ants and the lifestyles 01 people forced to live outside the law. Like cocaine, heroin is addictive, but unlike cocaine the only consequence of its addiction appears to be ... addiction.

Costa's half-measure, in other words, gives us the worst 01 both wortds: more murder, more destruction, more muggings, more adulteration, Another way of putting it is tlhis: you will, il IMr Costa's proposal is adopted, be permitted without fear of prosecution to ~nject yourself with heroin cut with drain cleaner and brick dust, sold ililegallyand soaked in blood; but not with clean and legal supplies.

His report does raise one good argument, however. At present the CI!ass A drugs trade is concentrated in the rich nations. If it were legalised, we could cope. The use of drugs islikely to rise, but governments could use the extra taxes to help people tackle addiction. But because the wholesale price would collapse with legalisation, these drugs would for the first time beoome widely available in poorer nations, which are easi:er for campaniles to exploit (as tobacco and alcohol firms have fOL!lndl) and which are less able to regUlate, raise taxes or pick up 'the pieces. The widespread use of cocaine or heroin in the poor world could cause serious social problems: I've seen, for example, how a weaker drug - khat - seems to dominate I.ife in Somali-speaking regions of Africa. 'The universal ban on illicit drugs," the UN argues, «provides a great deal of protection to developing countries",

So has Mr Costa's office produced a study comparing the global costs of prohibition with the global costs of legalis at ion, a.llowing IUS to See whether the current pollcy (murder, corruption, war, adulteration) causes less misery than the aJlemative (w~despread addiction in poorer nations)? The hell it has. Even to raise the possibility of such research would be to invite the tsstsrios in Congress to shut off the UN's funding, Tlhe drugs chanty Transform has addressed this question, but only for the U.K_, where the results are clear-cut: prohibition is the worse option. As far as I can discover, no one has attempted a global study. Until that happens, Mr Costa's opinions on this issue are worih as much as millie or anyone else's: nothing at all,

26. The author, in this passage,

(1) avers that a legal drug trade would free society from the clutches of the underworld.

(2) urges the UN to take into account the consequences of the drug policy on the third world countries.

(3) examines the implications of the UN's proposal for decrirnlnallsatlon of drug use,

(4) asserts that legalizing the drug hade is more important than protecting the users ..

2.7, 'Costa's half measures'

(1) protects the dJug users from legal actions and ensures that they have a clean, unadulterated supply.

(2) taps into the benefits to be had by legalizing the entire ooeratlon,

(3) favours the users in tile developed world but mot the producers and traders in the poor countries,

(4) neith.er protects the users from the health hazards of contamination nor decreases the violence and bloodshed that is p,art of the illicit trade.

28.. When the author says, 'drugs poli'cy in most nations is a matter of religion, not science,' he means that (1) peoples beliefs rather than facts and practical Considerations shape anation's drug policy.

(2) the stand of a country's predominant religion on the use of drugs determines fhe nation's druq policy.

(3) the drug policy of a country 'is as sacrosanct as its stand on God and religion.

(4) the religious leaders rather than politicians can help in chang]ng people's atthude [0 drugs.

29. The 'counter cultural association', as inferred from the passage, refers to

(1) the limitations imposed on people through adherence to their culture.

(2) the inability of people to think beyond their wonld. (3) the tension created when two different cultures come face to face.

(4) the failure of people, in general, to understand cultures other than their own.

30. Which of the following cannot be understood about the new report from the UN office on drugs and crime?

(1) The claims in the report are not backed by hard facts,

(2) The report is mot in consonance with the findings of the WHO,

(3) It: claims that the expenditure on public health would lbe higher than the savings on the cost ou drug control.

(4) The report recognises that contamination OU drugs is more harmful than the druq itself.


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DIRECTIONS for questfol1s31 to 35: Each statement has a part missing. Choose the besl option from those given below the statement to make up the missing part.

31. Extremely refined behaviour culnvatod as an art 01

gracious living which have admitted

women as the social equals of men.

(1) have been characteristic of societies only with wealth and leisure

(.2) has been characteristic only of society with wealth and leisure

(3) has been characteristic only of societies witih wealth and Isisur€!

(4) had been characteristic only of societies witl1 wealth and leisure

32, Emerson beli'eved that that would capture

the imagination.

(1) the function of the writer and the artist to help in creating moral faith by clothing it in symbolical and mythological embodiments

(2) it is the function of writer and artist to help in cr'eating morall faith by clothing symbolicalland mythological embodiments

(3) the function of the writer and the artist is to help in creating moral faith by clothing with symbolical and mythological embodiments

(4) it is the function of the writer and the artist to help in creating moral faith by clothing it in symbolical and mythological embodiments

33. The chief weakness of Romanticist poetry was .

(1) too often it takes the form ala relaxed daydreaming, lacking intellectual content a.nd in relevance to actual life

(2) that it too often took the lorm 01 a relaxed daydreaming, lacking in intellectual content and relevance to actual life

(3) that too oftten it took the form of a relaxed daydreaming and lacked intellectual content and relevance to actual life

(4) too often it takes tihe form 01 a relaxed daydreaming, lacking in ntellectual context and in relevance to actual life

34. Law never made men a whit more just; and, ~~~. (1) because of their respect for it, even the welldisposed are made agents of injustice daily

(2) because of their respect for that, the welldisposed are made agents even of injustice

(3) because of their respect for it, even the welldisposed are daily made agents of injustice

(4) because of their respect for it, the well-disposed even are daily made agents of injustice

35. Since the mid·1970s women have been recognized as the primary force at community and household

levels _

(1) for making effective improvements in the use of water and sanitation and to maintain satisfactory environment around tine home

(2) for making effective improvements in trne use of water and sanitation and maintaining a satisfactory environment around the home

(3) to make effective improvements in the use of water and sanitation and maintaining a satisfactory environment around the home

(4) for they made effective improvements in the use of water and sanitation and for maintaining satisfactory environment around the home

DIRECTIONS for questions S6 to 40: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

People's interest in sell-deterrninaflon is their interest in making signifi,cant decisions about their own lives tor themselves, according to their own values or conception of a good life, and having those decisions respected by others. John Rawls has characterized ihis interest as based in people's capacity 1.0 form, revise over time, and pursue a plan of life orconcoption of the good. Of course, reference to a plan of liife should not be taken too literally, as implying that people sit down at any point in time and layout a tully detailed plain for the rest of their lives. lnstead the idea is that because individuals have conceptions of themse.lves as beings who persist over time, with both a past and a future- as weill as a present, they have the capacity to form more or less lonq-term plans, projects, and intentions for their lives. Other things being equal, the further into the future they look, the less detailed and' fixed these plans will typically be.

In addition to desires to pursue various activiti.es and experiences, human beings have the capacity to value having particular desires or motivations. Other animals share with us a capacity for g:oal·directed behaviour, and so perhaps a capacity in some sense tor intentional behaviour. Unlike other animals, however, people have the capacity to engage ln reflection about their aims, ends, and motivations, and to affirm or deny them as their own and as defining not just who they happen to be, but aliso what kind of persons they want to be or' value being.

It is this capacity that makes it sensible to say that, unlike other animals, human beings have a conception of the good, which is more than simply having desires and motivations, the feature they share with other animals. When, as happens to everyone to a greater or lesser extent, people's desires are not as they want them to be, they can, within limits, take steps to change them to bring their actual motivational structure into closer conformity with t'he character that they value or want for themselves,

It is through this capacity for critical reflection abOIUTI what they value having, doing, and becoming that people are able to torm and then act on a conception 01 their good, rather than simply being guided by instinct and environmental stimulus. Of course, mane of this is to deny that people's social and natural environment deeply affects their values and! conception of the good. By having their choices about: the life they want for themselves respected lby others, in the sense at least of not being interfered with even if others disagree with the choices they make, people are able to take some control and responsiblllty for their lives and the kinds of persons they become ..

We characterized selt-deterrnination as people making significant decisions about their own lives lor themselves and accordinp to their own aims and values" but: these two components are distinct. Most people value making important decisions about their lives for themselves rather than having the decisions made [or them by others, even if others might


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make better decisions even as evaluated from the perspective of those individualls' own values. In this respect, selfdetermination is part of a morall ~deal of the person, not simply valuable in maximiizing the satisfaction of people's other desires and interests .. More specitically, the value of individuals making decisions concerning their own reproduction does not lie solely in their being able to make the best or wisest decisions, but also in thisexerdise of self-determination being part of an attractive moral ideal of the person, and one important aspect of individuals helping to define their own identity.

A second necessary point about the vallue of self-dsterrninafion is that its exercise can Ibe more or less important or valuable on different occasions and in different decisions. One of the most important determinants of this differential importance or value is the nalura of the decision and subsequent action in question. Deciding w~at to have lor breakfast tomorrow ~s vaslty less significant than decidimg what career to pursue, whom to marry, or whether and under what conditions to have children. Other things beings equal, the more central and tar-reachinq tile impact of a particular declsion on an individuall's life, the more substantiall a person's self-determination interest in making it. This is why selfdetermination is so important in many of the decisions or choices that we have suggested comprise reproductive freedom. Few decisions that people make are more personal than these (irl the sense that the best choice depends on personal aims and values) or more far-reaching in their impact on people's lives.

Whi:le these aspects of reproductive freedom do centrally affect women and, to a lesser extent, their male reproductive partners, they also affect others - most important the person created Iby their reproductive activity, but other persons as well. Virtrually nothing that people do has no effects on anyone, no matter how insignificant,and self-determination would be empty of moral importance iu lit were limited to such cases. Instead, the impact of people's actions on others is properly understood as a competing moral importance that sometimes places limits em the exercise of selfdetermination. me appeal to self-determination will provide the stronqest protections against interference by others, other things being equal, when the actions in question also have only minimal impacts on others.

This point is important for all aspects of reproductive freedom that involve creating and thereby affecting another being. It is especially important for a particular aspect of reproductive freedom - the cboioe of what kind of children to have. Shaping the nature of children greatly affects a person's own life, and so is properly encompassed by self-determination. However, it is not pr~marily a matter of individual self-determination but as well and, more important, the determination of another. This is so both for choices about genetically-based condition or traits viewed to be undesirable orharmful and for genetic screening or engineering desiqned to enhance an individual's genetic inheritance - whether it be sex selection or the much broader powers that may be available in the future.

Having and raisinq children is a central part of many people's liives, and sell-determination lsnds significant support to parents shaping their children's genetic inheritance, just as it supports their shaping their children's character and lives in other ways durirrq childrearing. The overall m ora II case for determining what another is like, however, even in the context of parent and child, is substantially weaker than the moral case based in self-determination for individuals shaping their own lives,

36. Self-determination is particularly important wilh respect to reproductive freedom because

(1) the mailer is one of personal choice over which no one else has authority.

(.2) the impact of the decision is cent rail and far reachfnq.

(3) any intenierence in this violates the privacy of the person.

(4) one's personal alms and values are determined by it.

37. When the author says 'Human Ibeings have a conception of the good',. me means that

(1) they have desires and motivation as have other animals.

(.2) while people can conceive the good, they are not always able to reach it.

(3) they can modify circumstances to achieve what they want.

(4) they have the capacity for critical thinking and shape themselves accordingly ..

(3) modifying the genetic inheritance of their offsprings is merely am extension of parent's role in child rearing.

(4) parents could go in for disease elimination geneticalliy, but not enhance genetic inheritance.

.39_ All of the fol.lowing am true, according to the passage, EXCEPT:

(1} Self-determlnatlon is the means by which people become what they are,

(2} Society and environment affects what we value and consider as good.

(3} A better decision for a person made by another would amount 'to selt-deterrninafion.

(4) People can modiffy tiheir desires and plans to be the kind of person they want to be.

40. Selt-deterrnlnatlon is part of the moral ideal of a person because

(1}it ~s an exercise in maximizing the benefits one can obtain.

(2} one's definition on one's identity is dependent on making the right choice.

(3) one values making one's own decisions even if they are not: the best.

(4) this is the only way by which they can win respect from others.

38. The author, from a moral respective, opines that

(1) parents do not have the right to determine their offspring's genetic make up.

(2) parents have every right to dstermms how their offsprings should be - be it elimination of diseases Dr' shaping their character geneHcally.


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DIREClilONS for questions 41 to 45: In each of tile questions, a word has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAIPPROPR~ATE.


(1) The young couple decided to set up a house in about a year's time.

(2) The minister admonished the opposition leader asking him to set his house in order before advising others.

(3) Ever since Raju lost the election he has been keeping the house.

(4) Many women have to sacrifice their career to keep house and! raise a tarnilv,

42. LET
(1 )
(4) The documents give him a dear title without let or hindrance.

Prakash has not been able to get along with his brothers, let alone his colleaques.

The violence let loose on the poor tribals sent shock waves across the state.

The prosecution was peeved at the magistrate as he let out the accused with just an admonition,

43. BOOK

(1) The public wanted the police to bring to book the politicians involved in tlile scam,

(2) You cannot expect any lenience from him as he always goes by book

(3) You can now book accommodation, in trains two months before the date of journey.

(4) Anyone wishingl ito serve the sick must take a leal out of Mother Theresa's book.


(1) It is in Smitha's own interest to grab the job offer now as she may not ,get a better orne.

(2) Even though your' frilend has lent: the money, remember it is not interest free.

(3) Karunakar lost the interest in the matter as soon as he ~new that he wouldl not gain anything from it.

(4) It may interest you to know thai I am the final aUlthority in the matter.

45. PLAY

(1) The importance of learning through p!ay can never be overstated.

(2) They have engaged the famous sitarist to play at the inaugural function.

(3) Several factors are at play to determine the rise and fall of the prices of shares traded in the market.

(4) Personal feelings should not come to play when you are making business decisions.

DIREClilONS for questions 46 to 50: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

In has been 7S years since the would economy has had a real depression. There have been plentvot recessions" some of them painful but nothing to match the slemp suffered in the 1930s.

But consider the following: imports into China down 45% year on year. Unemployment in the United States is rising at 600,000 a month. The German economy shrank .by 2.1% in the final three months of last year. Factroryoutput ln Britain is dropping at a rate not seen since industry was on three-day week during the miners' strike of 1974.

So is this the "Big One"? The honest answer is that we don't know and we might as well admit it. One reason we are in this mess is that we assumed far greater foresight than actually existed. All the fancy models purportinq to show o:nly a minusoule risk of financial blow-out were flawed. They assumed the complexity could be captured by mathematics and pseudo-science. One silver lining to the storm cloud over the global economy is that there will now bean overdue revolution in how we do economics. Already, the cutting edge of the profession is looking to other disciplines ~ biology and psychology in particular ~ to explain why models that work in theory come a cropper in practice.

As Richalrd Bronk notes in his fascinating new book, Standard economics assumes that eoonomic agents are perfectly rational; that is the basis of its predictive equilibrium-based models. Modern versions generally allow for certain types of lntormatlon problem and market tauure, and recognize that institutions and even history play' a role: but they still assume thai these factors do not call into question the, underlying model of agents as rational utility maximisers within those constraints,

Bronk's book is about the lessons economists can learn from the Romanli:c movement, from Wordsworth's poetry and the philosophy of Nietzsche. We all have passions, paranoiacs, dreams and delusions, he says, and these shape our future. "In many cases, economic activity is as much a function of creativity, imagination and sentiment as is the act of writing a poem or palntlnq a picture".

There have been many economists down the years who have expressed scepticism about reducing their discipline to a mechanistic subject. Malthus told Ricardo to be wary of becominq too attached to abstract hypotheses; schumoeter talked of creative destruction; Haye'k saw the market as a voyage of discovery; Keynes stressed the importance of "animal spirits",

Somewhere- down 'the years, these insights have been lost. It is as if physlclsts still thought that the Newtonian view of the world was all that mattered, and that Einstein had never been born.


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In retrospect, Chuck prince of Citigroup best summed up why life does mot always turn QUit the way the models say it shouldl. Three weeks before the crisis broke. Prince said there was so much liq~idity around that the financial markets could not be disrupted by tile turmoil already evident in tine U.S. sub-prime markel."When the music stops, in terms of liquidity, things will be complicated, But as long as the music ls playing, you've got to get up and dance, We're stil~1 dancing.'"

Prince's comment is now seen as the height of foHy, but itt was not seen as such at the time. One oommentator noted that defaults on junk bonds were running at their lowest rate since 1995 and it made sense for Citigroup to make money while tihe going was good. Most other players in the financial markets behaved the way Prince did, and those that didn't were investors who put their trust ln judgement, feel and experience rather than on market signals.

What we now ~now is that even the very recent past is an unreliable guide to thefuture; that risks are not distributed in a linear and predictable way; that human beings do not always act rationally even when they think they do and that shocks are much more likely than economic orthodoxy would suggest.

All of which explains why it is virtually impossible to say where the global economy goes from here. The big pictursis of globalisation going into rev-erse, with industrial production and trade flows collapsing. Dharval Joshi, economist at RAB capital, says that if history is any guide the U.K. and the U.S .. could well be braced for the Bigona.

On the four occasions in, the past 100 years whenl households in a major country have seen their net worth shrink there has been a strong correl!ation with lost output. For every three percentage point drop in net household worth in the U.S. during the Great Depression, the Japanese crash off the ~990s the U.K. housing collapse of the late 1980s and the U.S. dotcom bust, thereisa subsequent one point drop in output.

In a downturn, lower house and equity prices have seen wealth as a percentage ot GOP fall by 90% in the U.S. and 80% in the U.K. That would imply a 25-30% shortfall in output in the U.S. and Britain relative to trend - which would fully justify lEd Ball's comment that this could be the most serious global recession in more than 100 years.

This is not yet the conventional wisdom, though the mood is g:eWng gloomier. Mervyn King says Britain is in a deep recession; he says cheap money, fiscal expansion and the 'unconventional measures" the Bank of England has up its sleeve will eventually work. Even so, at its worst point later this year, King thinks the economy will be contractinq at am annual reteot 4°/" - with the risk that it could be worse than that.

lnterestlnqly, the governor cited Keynes at the Bank's inflation report press conference, noting that animal spirits were currently depressed. With confidence so weak, it is, hard to envisage an early or a robust recovery.

Having said that, we may be, as bl:ind to the potential for an upswing as we were to 'the looming crisis. Baroness Vadera was recently pill-oried for mentioning "gr-een shoots", yet there have been a few in recent wee~s - signs of buyer interest returning to the housing market, surveys of manufacturing, services and construction that were s.lightily less dreadful than the previous month, a gradual thaw in the credit markets,

Clearly the good news is outweighed by the bad, but it should not be dismissed out of hand. The consensus is that 2009 is a write off and that 2010 will not be much better, and if I had to stake my life on it that's probably what I would say. But the consensus is invariably wrong, and anybody claiming to [know for sure where t!he economy is heading ~s lying. We have had more than enough strident professions of certainty, it is time to admit we know a lot less than we think, Let's read some Wordsworth instead.

46. The words 'these insights' in the sentence, "Somewhere down the years, these insights have been lost", refer to

(1) economists' take on their discipline. (2) lessons from the Romani'ic movement

(3) reoogniiz~ng the creativity in economic activity. (4) the irrational element: in all human beings.

47. Prince's comment, 'We'~e still dancing", is a relerence to (1) financiers celabratinc the flow of li.Qu.idity.

(2) Gitigroups attempts. at makjmg the most of the liquidity flow.

(3) Ciligroup making money whil-e the going was good.

(4) Citigroup invest~ng in junk. bonds,

48. In the author's view, we are in a mess because (1) we missed the writing on the walli.

(2) we underestimated the threats to the economy. (3) we claimed to know more than we did.

(4) we relied too much on theoretical models.

49. At the end of the passage when the author says, 'Let's read some Wordsworth', what does he seem to slUggest?

(1) Economists can draw tessons from Romantic poetry, which capture human emotions, thoughts and sentiments.

(2) There is no paint in wortying about the global economy that is fraught wit~ uncertainties.

(3) Reading Wordsworth could [help us to understand that economic activity involves human beings, who are influenced by thoughtts and emotions. (4) Economic pundits could draw some lessons from the Romantic movement.

50_ What, according to the author, is the silver lining in the gloomy global economic scenario?

(1) A revamping of the global financial system.

(2) A drastic change in our outlook OJ economic activrty.

(3) Emerging signs of an upsw'ing.

(4) A revolution in the study of economics.

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SECTION - III Number of Questions = 20

DIREClilONS for questions 51 to 55: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below,

The route map given below shows the railway route among eight main stations A through H, Every day, each of eigmt trains, 11 through 18, oriqinates from one of the eight main stations and is destined for one of the remaining seven main stations, al'ong the shortest possible route, No two trains originate from the same main station and no two trains are destined for the same main station, Every day, from 6:00 a.rn, onwards, every hOUJ, exactly one of these e~ght trains departs from its originating main station,

In tM given route map, 81 through ~ are sub-stations, Not more than, one train can halt at I pass through the same sub-stanon simultaneously,

Each train halts at alii those sub-stations throuah which it passes and the haliting time for any train at any substanon is neg~igible,

Solid lines between the main stations represent multiple tracks, on which more than one traln can run ail a time, Dotted Ijnes (ii,e" between Sland 82, between ~ and 84 and between S5 and S~) represent single 'tracks, on which at most one train can run at a time, Each train travels throuqh at least one 0] tihe dotted lines, i.e, single tracks.

[t is known that each train travels at a uniform speed and the speed of all the eight trains is the same,

1 8,3




The number shown on the route map along Iheline connecting any two stations shows the time (in hours) taken by any train to cover the distance between those

two stations. for example, the time taken to cover the distance between sub-station 8, and main station E, by any train, is 3 hours,

The table given below gives partial information about the time at which each train halts at the corresponding substations through which itt passes,

81 82 S,3 S4 S, 86
11', 4:00 p.m.
11'2 x 3:00 p.rn.
11'3 7:00 a.rn.
14 x 2:00 p.m, x
T, '12:00 noon
11'6 9:00a,m,
11'7 x 10:00 a.rn.
16 10:01) a.m, x For e,g" train T, halts at sub-station S2 at 4:00 p.m.

Also, in the table 'x' represents that the train does not pass throuah the corresponding SUb-station,

For e,g" T2 does not pass through SUb-station S3, Further, it is known that exactly one of the e~ght trains takes the maximum possible time (considering the route map given) to cover the distance between its originating station and its destination station,

51. At what time does T3 reach its destination?

(1) 10:00 a.rn, (2) 9:00 a.rn,

(3) 11 :00 a.m, (4) 12:00 noon

52. What is the destination station of the train whose originatilflg station is A?

(1) D (2) C (3) H (4) B

53. How many trains pass through sub-station S3?

(1) 3. (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2

54. Which train starts at 10:00 a.rn, from its originating station?

(1) T4 (2) T, (3) T2 (4) Ts

55. How many sub-stations does Tl pass through?

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2

DIRECTIONS for questions 56 to 5& Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below,

Given below is a bar graph followed by a scatter graph related to the overall financial performance of six companies - A, B, C, D, E and F. However, some of the data is missing trom the graphs,

Operating lncomes of the companies (For the years 2002 al1d2003)

0 A B





ElI 2002



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750 700

650 600 550

q) 500 ~ 450


ct! 400



~ 300

,~ 250 1§ 200


c. 0150

100 50 o







50 OJ
45 0
40 0:
35 "2
30 en
25 s
20 c..
40% 45% ~

'1t n
r"' Profitability percentage

• Profitability percentage of a company Vs operating income of that company for the year 2002

D Profitabilitv percentage of a company Vs operating profit of that company for the year 2003

Note: The profitability percentage of a company is defined as the operating profit of the company expressed as a percentace of its operating income.

56. In the year 2002, which of the following companies made the hig:hestt operating profit?

(1) B (2) C

(3) F (4) Cannot be determined

58. For how many of the companies given iis there a decrease in the profitabilIty percentage from the year 2002 to 2003?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) Cannot be determined

57. For which of tile six companies is t!he percentage increase/decrease in the operating profit in the year 2003 over Ihat in the year 2002 the highest?

(1) E (2) C

(3) 0 (4) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 59 to 63:' Answer the questions on the basis of the in!onnation given below,

In a class, tihem are 80 students, The following table gives the details mgardin!lthe distribution of the marks scored <in percentage terms) by the students in each of the six subjects - Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, History, English and Geography. Every student wrote all the six subjects.

Subject The number of students scoring marks(m) in the range
90%.;;m 75%.;; rn s 90% 60"'/0 .;; m s 75% 40% <: m :s 60"/0 20% <: m :s40%
Mathematics 14 15 13 17 13
Physics 7 23 13 8 17
Chemistry 9 10 '16 12 18
History 11 17 15 11 20
EnQllish 13 19 10 7 27
Geography 8 14 14 9 25 59. Which of the foHowing is a possible number of students who scored more than 2,0% but not more than 90% of marks in each of the six subjects?

(1) 53 (2} 57 (3) 61 (4) 63

60. What is the minimum possible number of students who could have scored more than 40% but not: more than 75% of marks in at leasttwo of the six subjects?

(1) 11 (2) 9 (3) ~5 (4) 13


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61. What is the maximum possible number of students who could have soared more than 40% but not more than 60% ou marks in at ~east four of tihe six subjects?

(1) 16 (2) 15

(3) 14 {4) INane of these

62. What is the minimum possible number of students who scored more than 60% but not more than 90% in at most three of the six subjects?

(1) 40 (2) 38

(3) 36 (4) INane of these

63. What is the maximum possible number of students for each of who the marks scored in all the six subjects are the same?

(1) 47 (2) 60

(3) 51 (4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 64 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information g~ve,n below.

lihe following bar graph gives the average ages, as on 1'<1 April of four consecutive years, of all the employees off each of the three departments - Sales, Accounts and Administration of company XYZ. Each department had at least 5 and at most 10 employees during the given period. In each department, exactliy one employee, on attaining the age of 60, retired during the given period, while in exactly one of thethree departments, a new employee agedl 2S joined in the second, third or the fourth year. No employee. other than those mentioned above, Ie'" or joined any of the departments during tile given period,

1'" year 2"" year 3'" year 4'" yea~ I Sales



64. How many employees were there in the three departments put together, during the second year?

(1) 15 (2) 18

(3) 20 (4) Cannot be determined

65. In whidn department did t'he new person join?

(1) Sales (2) Accounts

(3) Administration (4) Cannot be determined

66. How many people were there in the sales department in the fourth year?

(1) S (2) 7

(3) 8 (4) Cannot be determined

DtRECTIONS for questions 67 to 70: Answer the questions independently of each other.

67. There is an actor and a doctor among Mr. Trevor. hls mother, his wife and his son. Further, it is known that: (i) Ii the doctor is a male, then the actor is also a male,

(ii) If the actor is younger than tile doctor, then the actor and the doctor are not blood relatives,

(iii) If the actor is a female, then she and the doctor

are blood relatives.

Who is the actor?

(1) Mr. Trevor (2) Mr. Trevor's son

(3) Mr. Trevor's wite (4) Mr. Trevor's mother

68. Today, Aman, who is 57 year old, told his friend Amar, "I have seen 15 leap years". After hearing thls, Arnar redefi'ned a leap year as follows: Every

year which is multiple of 'either 2 or3 or both is considered as a leap year. As per Amar's definition 0'1 a leap year, i~ both, the year 01 Aman's birth and the present year' become Ileap years, then how many leap years must Aman have seen according to tthis new definition?

(1) 37 (2) 38 (3) 39 (4) 40

69. Five boys - Vivek, Abhishek, Roy, Das and Ranjan - were compared in terms of height and weight. Vivek is taller and lighter fhan Abhishek. Ranjan is shorter and heavier than Das. Both Abhlshek and Roy are taller and heavier than Das. If Aohishek. is taller than Roy, then Vivek is hsavisrthan Ranjan. Roy is heavier than Abhiishell:.lf Roy is heavier than Das, then Abhishek is taller than Roy. Who is the lightest?

(1) Roy (2) Das

(3) Ranjan (4) Abhishek

70. Five men A, B, C, 0 and E sitting (in this order) at a round 'table had to decide as ,to who amon'g them wOLlld be the Chairman. The best way, of course, was to decide by voting. None of the fiive members voted for himself or tor either of his neighbours. The first ballot was a tie-ott, The second time, C voted for E while the others stuck to their old choices, thereby resulting in E's victory. Then, the person who voted for B in the first ballot was

(1) 0 (2) E

(3) C (4) Cannot be determined


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1_ 1 8_ 1 15_ 4 22 3 29_ 2 36_ 2 43_ 2 50_ 2 57, 2 64. 3
2. '1 9. 2 16. 2 23. 2 30. 4 37. 4 44. 3 51. 2 58. 3 65. 1
3_ 4 10_ 4 17_ 1 24 4 31 3 38_ 1 45_ 4 5:2_ 4 59_ 1 66_ 1
4_ 2 11. 4 18_ 3 25, 1 32_ 4 39_ 3 46_ 1 53_ 1 60, 4 67_ 1
5. 3 12, 3 19_ 4 26_ 3 33_ 3 4,0_ 3 47_ 2 54_ 3 61, 2 68_ 3
6. 3 13. 1 20. 2 27. 4 34. 1 41. 1 48. 4 55. 2 62. 3 69. 2
7. 2 14, 3 21. 1 28, 1 35, 2 4,2. 4 49. 1 56. 1 63, 3 70. 1
Solutions SECTION - I

Solutions for questtons 1 and 2:

1. lhe shaded area must: have been clipped away and the rernalnlnq cardboard can Ibe cut to satisfy the conditions in only in one way.

Consider the followin,g figure. the shaded region shows the piece which R,aman has clipped away. Reg]ons numbered (I), (2), 13) and (4) denotes the regions into which the remaining piece has been divided.

1 It


1 It



Perimeter of aach piece", 4 ft.

Choice (1)

2. In flrst rouno, there are lour lemales and 10m males. 2 females and two males are selected in 'C2 x 4C2 ways. 2 females and two males willi play only :2 matches,

.'. Number 01 matches in first round", 4C. x 4C,2 X 2 ",6x6x2",72

Similarl~, the number of maiohes in the second round ",3C2x C2x2;;;;;Sx3x2;;;;18

Similarly, the number of matches in the third round l.e, final round", 2C2 x 2C2 X 2 '" 2

Afiter tile third round. there will be only one male and one female lel'l.

... Total number of matches « 72 + 18 + 2 '" 92 Choice (1)

Solutions for questtens 3 and 4:

The given sequence is 1, 2, 3, .. ,un After step 1, we have 2,.4, 6, 8, ... _ .. After step 2, we have 4, 8. 12, 16, " ... After step 3, we have 8,16, 24,. 32, ,_

... After the last step (m1h step) we have the highest power of 2:m:s;n.

3. If n '" 1 997, after step 10, we are left with only 1024.

Choice (4)

4. II the last number left is 512, the maximum possible

value 01 n is 1023. Choice (.2)

Solutions for questions 5 and 6:

5. Given

s ~ 33.J3i,J33)3i, --net 82 = 3SJ3i S


:::;. 84,_ 3'3 (S) '" 0 (as S cannot be 0)

19 19

:::;.8",39 = 9111 Choice (3)

6. The copper wire is wound as shown.

As the circumference of the base is 2 cm and a total of 45 turns are wound around the cylindrical rod, total horizontal displacement is 45(2) '" 90 em. Also as the height is 56 ern, the vertical displacement is 56 ern. So, the length of copper wire is equal to ~he hypotenuse of the triangle formed by the horizontal and vertical displacements.

.·.Length 01 tile wire = JS62 + 902 = .. /1 1236 = 106 em Choice (3)

scnrttons for questions 7 and 8::



We denote the three concentric tracks as C1, C2 and C3 (e, is theinner-most 1ir13,Ck)

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As far as the angular positions of A, S, Care concemec, we may assume that all of them are running on the same track (say G1} with equivalent speed.

A is running on C, at 5 m/s,

S is running on C2 at 9 rn/s or equivalently on C, at 6 m/s. e is running on Ca at 8 mJs or equivalently on C, al4 rn/s.

400 400

A and C 'meet' after every - s or- s

. 5 + 4 9

B leads A by a whole number of Irack lengths after 400

every __ s or 4005.


lfherefore, their three positions (actual) would be colllnsar with the centre TIor the first time after the LCM

(400 )

9,400 s or 400 s,

Choice (2)


Proceeding as in the above solution, A and C will 'meet' for the fourth time after they start in

[ 400 J 1600 . 7

4 _'-"-s or ---s or 177- s.

5 + 4 9 9

Choice (1)

Solutions for quesftens 9 and 10;

9. As P represents the set of alii natural numbers from 1 to 100, whose value and sum of the factors differ by 1, all the elements in P are prime numbers. Hence the greattsst element in P is 97. Q"spressnts onliy the numbers 1 and 2_ Hence the greater element of Q is 2_

.', Tile required lCM is 194. Choice (2)

D. x E

110. A_ 4 I.e ~~~

A 206

E can be 4 or 9, but 4 x 0 ... 1 cannot end in zero, hence, E has to be 9.

And also 9 x 4 ", 36

=> 9 x 0 ... 3 ends in zero => D sa 3 Ax9+.3 .. A2

only possible value of A is A '" 1 .·.A+E",I+9",10

Choice (4)

Solutions for ques1ions 11 and 12:

The fruits are arranged as shown in the table below

Apples Mangoes Oranges Custard-Apples
1 2 3 4
5 6 7 8 21 25

22 26

23 27

24 28

41 42 43 44


It the last 'complete" group has n fruits,

n(n + 1)::; 1 000 < (n + 1)(n + 2)

2 2

(44)(45) '" 990 and (45) (46) .,1035 => n., 44

2 2

12_ Consider the first 300 fruits If the last 'complete' gron.ip has m fruits m(m+1) <300:<; (m+1Xm+ 2)

2 -- -- 2

As 24(25)/2 '" 300 and 25(26)/2 = 325, M ", 24

We see from the table above that the last 700 fruits are represented by the last 5 complete rows andl the 10 apples in the finall incomplete row. Then the fruit that appears the greatest n:umber ot times is either apple or custard apple. In each row the number of custard apples exceeds the number of apples by 3_ In the 5 rows, the excess is 15. This is offset only partially by the 10 apples in the last row. Thus the fruit type that appears the greatest number ot times is custard apple.

Choice (3}

Solutions fot questions 13 and 14:

13_ The first person works for the first two days and takes rest on the next day i .. e. in ev,ery three consecutive clays, the first person works for two davs. Similarly, in eV81iY consecutive five days, the seccnd person works for three days. In every consecutive seven days, ttle third person works for four days.

In every consecutive nine days, Itle fourth person works for five days.

In every consecutive eleven days, the fifth person wonks for six days.

Five persons ta~e 12 days twa complete the work, : . lNIumber of mandays required", 12 x 5 ", 60 Going by th:e choices we can find the answer

Lett us take the least value l.e., 18

In first eighteen ('" 6 x 3), the f[rsl person works for 6 x 2 '" 12 days.

:. 12 mandays,

Similarily, the second person works lor 12 days.


The third person works for 12 days [._. 18", 2 x 7 + 4) The fourth person works for 10 days [-. 18 = 2 x 9J The fiiftlh person works for 12 days.

['.18= 1 x 11 +6+ 1]

:. [In eighteen days total number 0·' man days completed ", 12 + 1i2 +. 12 + 10 + 12 =.58

The remaining number of man days = 2

On the nineteenth day, the first person works, the second person takes rsst, the third person takes rest, the fourth person works and Ihelast person takes rest. :.On the nineteenth day the number of rnandays completed = 11+ 1 '" 2, which is equal 10 Ihe remaining number of mandays .

. -. The work will be completed in nineteen days.

Choice (1}

14. If a number of has 15 factors, then it must either be of the form p14 or (p/) (p/) where P, P" P2 are prime numbers. The smallest number of the form pUis 2'4 = 16384 (a five dtgit number) and (P,2)(P/) = 3~ x 24 = 144- Since, the given number is a four-digit number, it cannot be of the fo:rm p14. So, it is of the torm (1P12) (P24).

:. Tlhe square of the number (P14) (P28) which has (4 + 1)

(8 + 1) l.e, 45 factors. Choice (3)

Solutions for questlons 15 and 16:

15_ Conslder the following time chart for Rosagollas·:

111. The mangoes occur in separate groups contalnlnq the following numbers 2, 6" 10, 14, 18, .22, 26, 30, .....

The sum of the first 7 of these (2 to 26) iiS 7[(2 + 26)/21 Or 98. The 1 co" mango is the 2nd one in the 2r1(1 group of in the 8'h set: (row).

The number of all tns fruits upto that is (29(30)12) ". 2

or 437. Choice (4)


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t== 0 min 24
1",1 min Ani! Abhilash
(24 ' - (x) - (2x)
1=2 min Anil Abhilash
(24 - 3x) - (x' - (2x) Time charts for Kulfis.

1'=0 36
t= 1 Anandl AiJhilash
(36) - y - (3y)
1'=2 Anandl Abhilash
(36 - 4y) - y - i3y) Given, ratio of number of Rosagu[las and Kulfis after 2 rnins is 1;


:::> ~~~",1:::> 8y- 6x:::: 12:::> 4y- 3x::::: 6 --- (1) 36-8y

by trial and error; y", 3; x", 2

Hence; the required ratio '" 3y "'~ x 2

Choice {4}


From the a.bove solutions number of ROMgllllas left out after 1 min", 24 - 3x:= 18.

Number of Kulfis eate'n in first minute = 4y = 12;

. 18 3 C ( )

ratio", - = - hoice 2

12 2

Solutions for questions 17 to 20:


Area of C, " 641t cm2

.. ·.its radius ',,, 8 em Circumference of C2 == 6411 em . . ·.its radius '2:= 3.2 em


R -'1

If the radius of each 01 the bi~ger circles is R, we have R2", (R - r,)2 + fi.e.,R2 '" R - 2 r,R + r/ + r/

(,2 + r/ 82 +322

::-R= ~~-" . cm,,(4+64)cm=68cm

2r, 2,(8)

nne circurnterence of each of the bigger circles is 1361t.

Choice (1)

1 S.

Choice (1) need not be true as nothing is known about the parity (odd or even nature) of any ni.

Choice {2): It is possible that all the odd nj occur in the very beginning. There are an odd number of odd terms in S. Then S willi be odd since, all the remaining terms wi:il then be even.

Choice (3): From the above diseusston, as an odd number of odd numbers occur, that too all toge,ther in the very beginning, S will be odd,

Choice (4); If the largest value of I, for which n is odd, is odd (say j" 1) l-: nz, ria, ..... are all even]

s'" a,· + o,n2: + , .. ,= 01 + evel1 '" odd. .: Choice (4) is false

19. Given that al + al + af' = 8(a + ar+ ar), => i' + r' + I' "'" 8(1 +, r+ f}

~(1+f+t)=8(1 +r+l} :::>1",8=>r=2.

Choice (4)

20. Let CP of the article be RS.l 00.

MP = Rs.(100 + p)


After discount, (100 + p) = 100 + f!_

100 4

100+p 100-1-£ __ = __ 4

100 100-£


B d d dlvld d 200+p 200 y componell 0 an IVI en a - = _. _.

p P


:::> 200 + p » 400 :::> P'" 200

when marked up by £.0/0 i.e., 100% 2

MP" 200

After a discount of E,,% i.e., 331%.

6 3

2 1

SP=200x -=Rs.133-

3 3

:. Profit::: Hs. 33.!." 33.!.% 3 3

Choice (2)

Difficulty level wise summary -Section I
Level 0'1 Difficulty Questions
Very Easy -
Easy 16,,19
Medium 4,.5, 8, 9,__1Q, 13,_H,_1§, 18, 20
Difficult 2,3,6,.7,11,12,17
Very Difficult 1 SECTION-II

Solutions for questions 21 to 25:


The best choice is 'compelling' as it means 'forcing or pressu"ising someone to do something.' Here the investors contemplate staying away. But the bun market has the power to force them to dance. 'To convince' is '10 persuade' which is 100 mild a term 10 show the power of the bull market, 'Request'or'permit' does not

fit in the context. Choice (1)


The most appropriate word is "su'ggested' which means 'to make somebody think that something is true'. Here the archaeologists had the evidence and this made them think that it was true, 'To imply' is 'to mean something indirectly' or 'to indicate by suggestion rather than exp~icil reference'. 'Hint' also iis an indi.rect implication and hence cannot be suitable in the glven

context. Choice (3)

Wormen feel that family is their pnimary '~esponsibmty', sornethinq they are morally accountable for, 'Obli{lation' implies being bound to a course of action whereas responsibility implies being answerable to oneself for what one does. 'Cornrol' m'Aulthoriity' shows power or rightt to lnftusnce other'abshavtours, which are V8:rj

strong to be used in the given context. Choice (2)


24. Raju has a negative attitude. His comments are 'sarcastic' or 'convey contempt', Situations are 'ironic' and not 'comments'. It is more appropriate to say 'sarcastic comments' than 10 say 'ironic comments'.


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Choice (3)

'Spiteful' is a word which denotes hatred. Here the sentence continues to say '.... causes a lot of resentment'. Hence this cannot bs used. 'Caustic'

cannot be subtle. Choice (4}

25. If thsrs is a nuclear weapons programme coming up in the Persian Gulf there would be some interruption in the supply, wh~ch would raise lts global demand. 'Disorder' or 'oonfusion' cannot be used as they mean 'lack of order' or 'a situation of panic' which is not tihe case here. 'Disturbance' means actions that upset the normal state that somethinq is in, which is inappropriate in the

context Choice (I)

Solutions for questions 26 to 30:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:

Number of words: 1,181

26. Only choice 3 is right. ihe author examines the implications of the policy and in the process expresses his opinion. The other choices are ruled out by the verbs usedl (urges, asserts, avers) which are strong and

not reflected as in the passage. Choice (3)

27. Refer to para g which begins with the words in quote.

This para in the contest of what Ihas preceded makes

choice 4 apt. Choice (4}

28. Choice 1 is the right answer ~ religion here stands for people's bel~efs and science for hard facts or' reality.

Choice (I)

29, The words in quote occur in para 3 .. From the context we can infer that what lnsutates people from ethical questions is not I,ooking I thirnking beyond. the immediate context. They do not think of the consequences their

action may have. Choice (:2}

30. Choices 1 and 3 are the auibor's opinion of the report (refer to para 7 and 8). Choice 4 is the authors vi:ew but not what the report recognizes. Choice :2 is true - while the WHO report says that drugs do not lead to even mnor problems. the Ilew report says that drugs kill less people (than tobacco or alcohol) because fewer illegal

drugs are consumed. Chclce (4}

Solutions for questions 31 to 35:

31. Choice 1 and 4. are ruled aut because 'have been' and 'had been' are not appropriate in the context, The subject in the sentence is 'behaviour' which is singular in number henoe choice 1 is ruled out; further 'had been' in choice (4) is in the past psrtsct and is not consistent with the tense in the remaining part 01 the sentence. Choice 2 is incorrect because'whicll have' after the blank implies that it should be societies (plural)

not society (Singular). Choice (3}

32, Choice 1 is ruled out because it leaves the sentence incomplete. In choice .2 the deuinit:e article is missing before the words 'artist' and 'writer'. The definite article should precede these words because the sentence refers to 'the imagination' of a particular artist or a writer. In 3, the words 'clothing with' is incorrect The appropriate preposition is 'clothing it in'. Only choice 4 is

grammatically correct. Choice (4}

appropriate way to write it is, 'lacked intellectual content and relevance', this is found only in ciloice (3}.

Choice (3)

34. Choioe 2 is incorrect because 'that' makes it incorrect. 'That' is a relaHve pronoun but il iis not appropriate in the context, The word 'it' .is appropriate because the reference is to 'law' andl 'it'is used to talk about it. lin choice 4, 'even'iis wrongly positioned. In choice 3 the time adverbial 'daily' is incorrectly positioned.

Choice (1)

35. In choices 1 and 3 we find an error in para!llelism. It

should be "for making and for maintaining".

In choice (4) we find that: there iis an inconsistency in

the tense of the sentence. Choice (2)

Soll.!tlQns for questlons 36. to 40;

Number o,f words and Exp:lanatory notes for RC:

Number of words: 1,09.2

36. Refer to para 7, the last 4 lines. Self·determination is valid when it has "onliy minimal impacts on others' but as seen from the next para, reprocucuon is 'the

determination of another'. Choice (2)

37. Refer to para 3. where the words occur in the uirst sentence. The rest of the para and the beqinninq of the

next one point to choice 4. Choice (4)

38. Refer to thejast para, last sentence. (The overall mara I

case own lives). Choice (~)

39. Choioe 3 is not t~L1e - it is negated by para 5. line 5-7

(In this respect desires and interests).

Choice (3)

40. Ohoioe 3 is made true by para 5, last 4 lines. The word

'right' rules out choice 2. Choice (3)

Solutl:ons for questions 41 to 45:

41. 'Set up house' means to start living in a separate

dwelling - 'set up §_ house' is incorrect. Choice (11)

42. 'Let off' means punish lightly. 'Let out' means to set

free. Choice (4)

43. The correct expression is 'go by the book' (article)

which means to follow rules strictly. Choice (.2)

44. It should be· 'Karunakar lost interest' and n01 'Karunakar

lost the interest'. Choice (3)

4.5. The correct expression is 'come into play'.

Choice (4)

$oluti'ons for questtons 46 to 50:

Number o,f words and Exp~lanatory notes for RC:

Number of words: 1,139

46. Read para (6), which precedes the sentence provldeo in the question. The para provides examples of how economists looked at their subject. (expressing scepticism about reducing their discipline 10 a mechanistic subject). Option (1) clearly mentions what

'Ihese insights' refer to. Choice (11)

33. Choices ~ and 4 are ruled out because of the absence of t!he connecting word 'ihat'.ln choice 2 we 'find that the word 'ilacking' is not parallel to 'took'. Henoe Ihe


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47. The eighth and ninth paras discuss Prince's comment and its implication. Note that tihe comment was made three weeks before the crisis broke, The only possible conclusion that could be arrived at is that there was liquidity flow and the company wanted to put it to best use. The remark 'you have got to ge't up and dance' in the context means one has 10 try to use the flow of liquidity till it lasts, 'Celebrating' in choice' (1) is not tihe suggestion provided in the passage. Ch:o'ices (3) and (4) can't be concluded based on what has been stated

in the passage, Choice (2}

48. Refer to the third para, which clearly points to choice {4) as the answer. Missing tihe Writing on the wall (choice 1) is to miss clear signs of an impending problem or unpleasant situation. In this case, there were no clear signs., Choice {2) is wrong because we, realised that there were threats but thought that we could capture the complexity by mathematics and pseudoscience. Choice (3)is inapt because mereliy making claims wouldn't have got us into a mess. We assumed that we knew

more than we did. Choice (4)

49. Choice ~2) is an easy elimination, the reference to 'no point in worrying' in is not suggested. Choice (3) is distorted. Reading Wordsworth will not help us to

realise that economic acttivity involves human beings. Ohoiee (4) is ,generalised and vague. (some lessolls). Cho'ice (1) is preferred. to choice (4) as it is specific. We arrive at the answer based 'on the views discussed in

the fourth and fifth paragraphs. Choice (1)

61). Re'fer to the fifth sentence of the third para ( ... ,. there will now he am overdue revolution in how we do economics), Only choice (2) captures the idea. Choice (4) is inaptlbecause the rsvolutlon is not in the sttudy of economics, but in how we do economics.

Choice (2)

Difficulty level wise summary· Section II
L.eve.lof Difficulty Ouestlons
Very£asv _,
Easy 25,38,41,43,44
Medium 21,22,23,24,26,27,28,30,31,
33,34,35,.36,37, 39,40,42,45,
Difficult 29, 32, 48., 49
Very OifffcuIJ _, S.olutiions for questions 51 to 55:

SEcnON -Ill

From the given table, '13 halts at 85 at 7:00 a.m. and. the time taken to cover the distance Ibetween G and 85 is 1 hour, : .13 is the train, which starts at 6:00 a. m. from G,

To reach 83 from any of the main stations, it takes at least 2 hou rs. As T6 halts at 5~ at 9:00 a.m., it starts at 7:00 a.rn.

As T, halts at 56, it must travel along 8~-S5 (single track).

As T, does not pass through 84, G is its destination main station [:.G is the originating city for TJ.],

If D is the originating station of T" to reach S6 by ~O:OO a.rn, from D is not possible as Te starts at 7;00 a.m . .originating station of Ts can be B or C or F,

:,H is the originating station of T7 and T7 starts at 9>:00 a.rn. : .17 reaches So at 11 :,00 a.m.

~ T8 starts at 8:00 a.m. from B and reaches S, at 110:00 a.rn. Therefore its destination is eitther A or E.

::::;. T5 must have started at 10:00 a.m. or 11 :00 a.m. As, it reaches S, at 12:00 noon" if it starts at 10:00 a.m., its originating station must be B, which is not possible, thus it starts at 11 :00 a.m, from A and reaches S2 [by travelling along 82-8, single track] at 1 :00 p.rn.

As, at: least one of the tralns travels for the maximum possible time, the path must be as follows.

D ~ Ss -> S5 -> S. ~ 53 ~ S2 ~ 5, ~ E. or

E ~ 8, -> 82 -> 83 ~ 84 ---+ 85 ~ 86 ---+ D.

As the originating station of none of T3, T~, To, T, and Te is [) or E, thus none of these trains travel for the, maximum possible time. As each of T2 and T4 does not pass through at least one of the sub-station, neiither of these two trains can travel for the maximum possibl'e trne,

:.Only Tl travels tor the maximum possible time ..

If Tl starts from D, to reach S2 by 4:00 p.rn. it should have started at 9:00 a.m., whidl is not possible. :.11 starts from Eat 12:00 noon and is destined for D,

:,12 and T4 start at 1 0:00 a.m, and 1 :00 p.m, in any order,

If T~ starts at 1 :00 p.rn., to reach S. by 3:00 p.rn., it must have started from G which is not possible. :.lf2 starts at 10:00 a.m. and to reach 84 in 5 hours it must start form D.

As it does not pass through 83, uts destlnatlon must be C.

::::;. T4 starts at 1:00 p.m. and to reach 8. in an hour, it must start from C. As it does not pass ttTIough 8~ and Sa, its destination must be F.

:::} T., starts from IF.

The Destination of T6 cannot be C. It it travels tnrouqh 84, it must have reached 85 by 11 :00 a.m., which is not possible as Ty is

at 85 at 11 :00 a.rn. .

... T6 must travel through 82-8, single 'track,

:. Its destination is either A or IE.

If the destination of Ti) is H, then it must: have reached 841! by 3;00 p.m., which is not possible, .', Its destination is B and the destinanon of 13 is H .

.', Tile tinal tirne table is as tollows


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Destination Reaching Time

Starting Time

Train Origin
T, E
T2 D
13 G
I. C
T5 A
T6 F
T7 H
T8 B S2 83 84
4:00 5:00 6:00 p.m.
o.rn, p.rn,
x x 3:00 p.m, 12:00 noon 3:00




85 86
7:00 8:00 p.rn.
2:00 1:00 p.m.
7:00 8:00 a.m.
x x
x x
x x
11:00 10:00
a.m, a.m
x x o

t too p.m.


4:00 p.m.


6:00 a.rn,


x x
3:00 2:00p.m.
x x
x x
x x 1:00 p.m.

x x
12:00 1 :00
noon p.rn,
11:00 10:00
a.m. a.rn,
x x
10:00 9:00
a.m. a.rn, 1 t :(]O a.rn

7:00 a.m.

9:00 a.rn,

8:00 a.rn.


9:00 a.rn,


5:00 p.m.


2:00 p.m,


2:00 p.m. I 1:2:00 noon


12:00 noon

11:00 p.m.! 1 :00 p.rn,


51. 1 ~ reaches its dsstinanon at 9:00 a.m.

Choice (2)

.56. It is B l.e, IRs.90 crore,

Choice (1)

52. Tine trajn whose originating stanon ~s A, is T 5 and its

destination station is 13. Choice (4)

53. FrO'm the above table, exactly three trains pass through S3.

. Choice (I)

54. T 2 starts at 10:00 a.m. from its origirnating station.

Choice (3)

55. T; passes through all the six sub-stations.

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 56 to 58:

From the bar graph we can conclude that in both 2002 and 2003 the decreasing order of the companies according to thslr operating income is E, A, B,. C, F and D.

By observing the graph between prolitabilities and operating incomes for the year 2002 for different companies, we can understand that prolaability 01

A 18% B 30% C 12%

D 22% E '18% F 20%

:.Now we can find the operating profiits of different companies in the year 2002.

Operatinq profit

.:..P __ ro;;..f .... ita;;;:b::.;.i;.:..lit~y ..

x Operatinq income 100

Company Operating inoome Profitalbility Operating profit
(in Rs. Cr) (in Rs. Cr)
A 35G 15 52.5
B 300 30 90
C 250 10 25
D 150 20 30
E 400 20 80
F 200 20 40 Similarly, from the graph between protitabilitiss and operating profits for the year 2003, we can find the operating incomes of companies and then find their names by using ths decreasing order of operating] incomes.

Operating profit Profitability Operating income Company
(in As. Cr) (in Rs. en
70 25 280 C
60 20 300 B
55 25 220 F
50 12.5 400 A
45 10 450 E
30 15 200 D 57. The operating profit of C grew by almost 200% (Irom 25 to 70). Tilis is the highest percentage change in operating

profit. Choice (2)

.58. The decrease in profttabilities is for A,. B, D and E i.e, 4

companies. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 59 to 63:

.59. II we consider the number of students who scored more than 20% but not more than 90% of marks for each 01 the six subjects, it iis the lowest (56) for Chemistry,

;,At most 56 students would have scored more than 20% but not more than 90% of marks in each of the six

subjects. Choice (1)

160. The number of students who scored more tnan 40% but not more than 75% of marks in Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, History, English and Geography are 30, 21, 28, 26,. 17 and 23 respectively, which add up to 145.

To minimize the number of students who scored in tha given ranqe in at least two subjects, we have to maximize the number of students who scored in the given range in exactly one subject.

To maximize the number of students who scored in the given range in exactly one subject, we have to maximize the number of students who scorec in the given range in each ofthe six subjects and minimize the number of students who scored in the given range in exactly two, three, 'fOUIf ano five subjects.

Let 8 and b be the number of students who scored in the ,given ranlge in exactly one subject and all the six subjects respectively.

_".i'l + b", 80

a," 6b '" 145 ::. Sob '" 65 ::. b", 13 Choice (4)

'61. The number of stcdsnts who scored more than 40% but not more than 60% 01 marks im at I!east four of the six

.. 17+8+12+'11+7+9 .. 64

subJ,ects IS at most II.e., -'" 16,

4 4

which OCClJrs Ii! the number of students who scored in the given range in each of the subjects is 16 or less.

But [or Mathematics, it ~s 17.

., Al most 15 students scored more than 40% but not more than 60% of marks in at least four subjects.

Choice (2)

'62. To minimize the number 01 students, who scored in Ihe given ~ange in at most three subjects, we have to maxlmlze the number of students who scored in the given range in e·xactfly IOUJr subjects.


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The maximum possible number of students who scored more than 60% but not more than 90% in exactly four subjacts is

(15 + 13 + 23 + 13 + 10+ 16 + 17 + 15 + 19 + 10 + 14 + 14) 4

. 1179.

i.e., -. -.-. i.e., 44.


As 44 is not less than the number off students who scored more than 60% but not more than 90% of marks in any of the slx subjects, iit is possible.

:.The minimum possible value of the required number

is 80 - 44 l.e., 36. Choice (3}

63. To get the required number, we have to add the least number in eEich column (i.e., ranges of marks).

Th.e number of students who scored less than or equal to 20% 01 marks in Matl'nemaHcs, Physics, Chemistry, History, English and Geography are 8, 12, 15,6,4 and 10 respectively. Hence, in this r.ange at most 4 students could have g,ot the same marks in all the six subjects. :.The sum of the least numbers in each column is

7 + 10+ 10 + 7 +. 13 + 4 i.e., 51. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 64 to 66:

64.. In administration, even though a person aged 60 retired at the end of the third year, the average age remains the same. This is possible only iI the number of employees was ten initially. Assume there are x employees in the Ulird. year.:::> Slx-60 '" 50(x~ 1):::> x", 10.

Similarly in the accounts department, the average age of 39' years in the third year became 35 years in the next year after a person aged 60 retires. For this to happen tthe number of peopleinitiaJly should have been 5. III sales department, at the end ofthe third year the average age of should have become 47 i.e., 46 +11. But it is only 40 (i.e.,. 7 less). It is due to the joining of new employee and retirement of the aiel employee.

Hence, 46x- 60 + 25" 5 = 40x:::> x = 5

So total employees = 5 + 5 + 10 = 20. Choice (3}

65. The new person joined in the sales department.

Choice (1}

66. Assume the minimum number of people (5) were there in the sales department. Their total age in the second year", 46 x 5 '" 230. l1heir total age next year would be 47 x 5 '" 235. Even if a person aged 60 retires, the total

.. . 2~-® lro

age of the remaining 4 people would be __:...:...._..:...._

4 4!

= 43.75. Since avera.g,e age of tihe persons cannot fall below 43.75 years in the third year and the given value is 40 years, the only possibility is that a person aged 25 years also must have joined the sales department in t~e third year

Only then we get,. tn case of five people illitially.

.. 235-60+25

Average age In third year", 40


Choice (I}

68. Ama.r of age 57 years has seen 15 leap years. This implies that the year in which he was born was a leap year, w~ich is a mUltiple of 4.

It is given that the year in which he was born and the present year would become Ileap years under the new convention. That is the year in which he was born is an even numbered year.

Now the total number of multlplss of 2 im that 58 years (rih year 10 (n + 57)'h year) is 29.

As dh year is a multiple of 2, (n + S7)~h year is not a multip:le of 2, which implies it is a multiple of 3 (as itt is a leap year). Now, the number of multiples of 3 in these 58 years (dh year to (n + 57Yh year) is 20. Of these 20 multiples, every second multiple is a multiple of 2 also. which are already counted in the above case.

Now, the remaining 10 (:20 - 10 = 10) are to be counted,

:. Total number of leap years = 29 + 10 = 3,9

Choice (3)

69. It is given that Boy is tailer and heavier than Das. If Roy is heavier than Das, Ailhishek is taller than Roy. If Abhishek is taller than Roy, Vivekiis heavier than Ranjan .. From the above information, i"l can be deduced that:

(1) A.bhishek is taller than Roy. (2) Vivek is heavier than Ranjan.

[Information given in the question along with the above deductions

is shown in the following table. I.">" implies "rnors" in all the comparisons]

Height Weight
Vive.k > Abhishek Abhishek » Vivek
Das> Ranjan Ranjan> Das
Abhishek> Das Vivek > Ranjan
Roy> Das Roy:> Das
Abhishek> Roy Roy> Abhishek
Vivek > Abhishek> Roy> Abhishek >
Roy> Das > Ranjan Vivek > Ranjan> Das Hence the Ugtltest is Das.

Choice (2)

70. Let us draw a diagram to understand ths seating arrangement before solving this question.





We already know that each person di:d not vote for his neighbours nor for himself.

[It implies that

Person Voted for
A o ere
B EorO
C A or E
0 A or B
E BorG Solutiolils for questions 67 to 70;

67. From (1), if the actor ~s a female, then the doctor is a female, From (3) actor and doctor are blood relatives .. The two females in the groUJp are not blood relatives. Hence, the actor cannot be a female. Hence, Mr. Trevor Of his son is the actor. In view of condition (2), Trevor's son cannot: be the actor as he is a blood relative to ail other persons in the group. Hence, Mr, Trevor is the

actor. Choice (I}


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The tlrst ballot was a tie-ott, implies that all of them !lot one vote each. From the above table we can draw the following conclusions.

Person Voted lor Person Voted lor


B 0
0 A
E B Table A

Table B

Tables A and B are the possible voting patterns which would ensure a tie-of in tthe first round of voting.

Now, we know that in the 200 round, C votes for E, while all others stick to their old choices and thereby E emerges as t~e winner.

This sltuation is possible, if Table A were to be the initial voting pattern but it would not work, if table B were to be the

initial state [Since C votes for IE, as per Table B, it would ,on~y result in status quo and would not yield a result]. Hence table B cannot .be the initial voting pattern. Only Table A is possible. As per lable A, the person voting for B is O.

Choice (I)

Difficulty level wise summerv» Section III
Level of Difficulty Questions
Vel}' Easy _,
Easv 59.63,70
Medium 56, 57, 58, 60, 62, 64, 65,. 66, 67, '69
Difficult 51,52,53,54,55,61,68
Vel}' Difficult _. ~=;.==.===.==.===,==.==.=.",,,,:=.===.==.==,,,,,,=.===.==,,,====================:1F===='=='=='=='============================

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SECTION- I Number of Questions ;;; 20

DIRECTIONS k» questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions 0111 the basis of the information given below.

Oautam gave to his brother Uttam, a chain comprising N closed links numbered from 1 to N (in that order, from one end to the other) and asked him to cut tlhem into sets of one or more linlks such that he can return to Gautam any number of links that Gautam may ask for (i.e, from 1 to N).

Cutting a link. means that the link is cut in only one place. For example if there is a chain comprising 4 Closed links, numbered trorn 1 to 4, we can cut exacfly one link and obtain th:ree sets of links as shown below.

We cut the 2nd link and o'btain three sets of links.

1. If N = 850, firnd the minimum rnumber of links that Ultam needs to cut.

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

2. II it is known that Uttam needed a minimum of 7 cuts (i.e. he cut 7 different links), what is the maximum value that NI can assume?

(1) 5111 (2) 895 (3) 1023 (4) 2047

3. Find th:e number of distinct values that N can assume, if itt is given that Ultam needed more than 6 cuts and less than .8 cuts.

(1) 551 (2) 900 (3) 1152 (4) 1200

4. II Uttam needed a totat of >6 cuts (total number of cuts beinQl minimum), then the number on the link which Utitam cut as his fifth cut (Uttarn cut links in the ascending order, l.e, he always cuts a link with a lower number before cuttinq a link with a higher number) is at least

("1) 222 (2) 95 (3) 99 (4) 105

5. II N == 1000, then tihe sum of the numbers on all the links in a single set of links (til at Uttarn obtains after making all the cuts) is at most

(1) 375250 (2) 374750

(3) 374250 (4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Six teams A through F participated in an inter-college football tournament. The tourname:nt was played in two stages. In the first stage. each team played one match each against exactly three of the other teams. In the second stage. each team played one match each aqainst the remaining two teams (against which it did not play any match in the first stage) ..

In each match, for a. win, a leam gets 3 points and lor a loss, it gets no points. If a match ended in a draw, then sach team gets 1 point each.

'-y--' Set 1

'"-.....--' Set 3

'-.r---" Set 2

each of the six teams in the first stage and in the second stage matches respectively.

Details of tihe first stage matches

leam Goals For Goals Acainst Total points
A 8 6 6
B 7 12 0
C 6 3 9
D 3 6 ~
E 7 6 4
F 7 5 6 Details of the seccnd staqe matches

Team Goals For Goals Against Total points
A 6 4 6
B 3 5 1
C 4 5 l'
0 5 4 3
E 2 6 0
F 6 2 6 Each of the six teams scored at least one goal in each match tnat it played.

6. Which team won against team A in the first stage?

(~) C (2) 0 (3) E (4) F

7. How many goals did team B score against leam E?

(~) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

8. How many goals did team C score in the match which it had drawn? (11) 1 (3) 3

(2) 2

(4) Cannot be determined

9. How many g:o.al& did team F score against team B in the first stage? (11) 1 (3) 3

(2) 2

(4) Cannot be determined

The fo.llowil'1lg two t1lJbles give the Goals For (total goals 10. Whal is the total number of goals scored in the

scored by the team), Goals Againsl (total goals match played between teams E and F?

conceded' by the team) and the total points scoredl by (11) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

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DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 13: Answer the questions on tlhe basis of the information given below.

Students from five schools viz., Kendriya Vidyal.aya, St. Mary's Convent School, S1. Ann's H.S. School, S1. Francis School and Ramkrishna H~gh School participated in five different competitions among Singing, Dancing, Essay Writing, Debate and Painting. At most a total of ten students of any school participated in alii the five competitions put tog:ether. No student participated in more man one competition. Further the fOllowing information is known:

(1) The number of students who part~cipated in Painting from each school other than Kendriya V~dyal8iya is the same.

(2) At least one student from each school other than SI.

Francis School participated in Si'ngingl, while in each competition other than Singing, at least one student of SI. Francis School participated,

(3) Of the total number of students from St. Francis School who participated in dlfferent competitions, the maximum number of students participated in Debate and at least one student from each school participated in each of Debate and Dancing.

(4) The total number of students of Kendriiya Vidyalaya who participated in different competitions is two more than that of Ramkrishna High School,. which in turn, is one more than that of SI. Ann's H.S School, which, in turn, is one more than that of SI. Mary's Convent Sdhool, which in tum.Is one more than that of 81. Francis.

(5) The total number of students who participated in Singing competition was exactly half the tottal n umber of students who participated in each of the other competitions.

(6) The number of students of Kendriya Vidiyalaya who participated in different events is different and no student of Kendriya Vidyalaya participated in Essay Writing competlnon,

(7) Equal number of students of Ramkriishna High School participated in Darncing, Essay WriHng and Debate

11. In which competition did the maximum number of students of 81. Mary's Convent Schoolpartcipata?

(1) Essay Writing (2) Debate

(3) Dancing (4} Cannot be determined

12. The number of students of which school is the maximum in Dancing?

(1) Ramkrisl"ma High School (2) SI. Ann's H.S. School

(3) Kendriya Vidyalaya

(4) 31. Ma.ry's Convent School

13. What is the sum of the number of students of SI.

Francis School who participated in Debate and that of SI. Mary's Convent School who participated in Essay Writiirilg?

(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 3

DIRECTIONS lor questions 14 to 18: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Twenty students participated in an online test. The test 'comprised three sections ~ Section 1 , Section 2 and Section 3, Section 1 comprised three areas ~ Arhhmetic, Pure Maths and Miscetllaneous. Similarly, Section 2 comprised three areas ~ DI, DS and AR, while Section 3 comprised four areas ~ VA, RG, VR and LA. The total score of each student is the sum of his/herswr9S in each of the three sections. nne students are ranked, from 1 to 20, in the decreasinQl order of their total scores. In case two students have the same total score, the student who answered more num'ber of Arithmetic questions correctly will get the better rank. The fo~llowi'ng table gives the scores obtained by the students in each section and the number of questions they answered correctly in 01, OS and Arithmetic. Some of the values have intentionally been removed from the table. The total number of questions in each area is Band all questions carry equal marks, There is no negative marking for wrong answers or unattempted questions.

Student name Score in Score in Score in Total No. of correct No. of correct No. of correct
Section 1 Section 2 Section 31 score answers in D,I answers in DS answers in Arithmetic
Aneesh 91 112 70 I 273 4 7 3
Bhuvan 70 91 56 I 217 3 4 3
Chetan 42 56 105 I 203 3 4 1
Dhruv 35 63 91 I 189 2 1 2
Etaash 49 49 56 I 154 2 1 1
Farah 63 42 77 I 18.2 3 2 2
Gowri 70 63 56 189 2 4 4)
Hamsini 77 56 126 259 3 3 6
Ivan 70 I 287 4 2 8
Jvothi 98 112 5 3 1
Kartik 84 77 133 294 3 2 4)
Lalu 77 49 91 217 4 2 5
Madhu 49 77 98 I 224 3 3 2
Nivedan 77 84 91 I 25.2 5 5 3
Omprakash 98 84 98 280 4 6 8
Payal 91 70 91 25,2 4 2 6
Qureshi 56 63 105 224 5. 1 5
Rehana 28 70 112 2W 6 3 1
Salman 49 91 119 259 7 4 2
Thomas 56 I 266 2 2 2 T~~~ph~~tfrfstit~~;of;M~r'f~g~~~~tEd~~~ti~rfPrtltd.;trJJI.E.")';HO~95B~TJFlo~~,;Sidd~Il~~tt~;C~~~~~,;S~~~de~~bad;-;501l;OO3~;;

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1111. What is tine least possible score that Jyothi coulo have got in Section 2, if it is known that she got the fifth rank?

(1) 56 (2) 57

(3) 55 (4) Nome of these

15. How many students, except Jyothi, answered lesser number of questions correctly in AR Ulan Dhruv?

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) '13 (4) 16

16. The score in Section 1 of at least how many students is definitely less than that of Ivan?

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) None of these,

17. At II east how many questions did Thomas answer correctly in Section 3'1

(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) '10 (4) 8

18. How many students among the top 12 rankers answered at most six questions correctily in [)I and OS put together?

(1) 10 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 9 and 20: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Indicate your responses based on the following directives:

Mark (1) iif the question can be answered using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.

Mark (2) iii Ihe question can be answered using either statementallone.

Mar~ (3) if the question can be answered using A and B together but not using A or B alone,

Mari< (4) if the question cannot be answered even using A and B together.

19. Four students _ Ajay, Bhuvan, Chanchall and Oeepak _, were among the top four rankers in a class in each! of the three subjects P, Q and: R. No two of them got the same rank in any subject and none of them got the same rank in any two subjects. Further, Ajay got the second rank in G, and Chanchal got the fourth rank in P. Whiat are their' respective ranks in each of the three subjects?

A. The sum of the ranks, in all tile three subjects put together, of no two persons is the same and the sum of the ranks of Oeepak is the highest. The rank of Deepak in P is 'the same as the rank of Bhuvan in O.

B. Bhuvan got a Ibetter rank than Deepakin each of the three subjects.

20. There are tour rooms Rl, R2, Rs and R4. Each of the four rooms has a distinct lock from among four locks L" G;, ~ and L!, and each lock, in tum, has a distinct key hom among four keys K" K2, ~ and ~, in no particular order. II is known that for arty room Ra, the lock. of it is Lo and the key lor t.he lock is K", such! that no two of a, band c are equal. Find the corresponding lock and key of room R~.

A. If the lock of room R4 is L.n. ihen its key must be Kn+ 2.

B. The key of the lock of the room R2 is nol K"


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SEcnON~H Number of Questions", 25

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: E.ach question has a pair of CAPITALISED words followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair of words that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.

21. SYCOPHANT: OBSEQUIOUS (1} Poltroon: Diffident

(2} Hypocrite: Bombastic

(3} Curmudg:eon: Cantankerous (4} Sybarite: Abstemious


(1) Answer: Rejoinder (3} Ego: Placate

(2) Rebuff: Claim (4) Dispel: Myth


(1} Articulate: Eloquent (2) Prolix: laconic

(3} Prolific : Productive (4) Recondite: Esoteric

24. WIINE; BOUQUET (1} Coffee: Aroma (3} Flower: Nosegay

(2) Fragrance: Perfume (4) Salad: garnishing

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences,

25. A. From 1950, nota single major public hospital has been built in Mumbai.

B. As for suburban railways, which carry almost B lakh passengers a day, the less said the better ..

C. People have given up hope of seeing any improvement in Mumbai.

D. How, then, can we dream ot making Mumbai a Shanqhal? (1} Aand D (3} A and B

(2) Only C

(4) A, Band D

26. A. If your child has deliberately harmed an animal, try to find out why he behaved in that manner.

B. Make sure me does not repeat the mistake and instilla sense 0,1 respect for animals.

C. Mak.e your child help you ueed birds or rescue animals.

D. With older children, discuss about animalcruelty cases publicized in the media.

(1.) Band 0 (2) Band C

(3) Only A (4) Only D

27. A. Fashion designers Anil and Aa rth i unveiled their latest collection titled 'fusion line' recently.

B. Fllarnboyant in design and sleek in'l silhouette, the collection comprises of a wide variety of Indian fabrics with rich embmidery.

C. Tlhe duo cIIaims the collection is an attempt to make lives simple for party hoppers,

D. F~aLlnting 'fusion line', you can move from a cocktail party to a friend's anniversary with equal elan. (1) A, Band C (3) Only C

(2) Band C (4) Band D

28. A.

We had a German shepherd named Vijay.

8. He grew up with us like one of our family.

C. lHe was very hairy, so we never let him enter the kitchen and the dining room.

D. IHe knew this pretty werl and has never stepped intolhese rooms.

(1) OnlyD (3) C and 0

(2) Band C (4) Band D

DIRECTIONS tor questions 29 to 32: FO! each word given below, match the dictionary definitions given as ABeD with their appropriate usage in EFGH Pick the option where the two are correctly matched.


A. to evade indirectly or by trick E. The man dodged the blow when his attacker
swung his fist.
B. to move out of harm's way F. He is the most suitable man to carry out this
C. to slay out: of an opponent's reach G. Many firms flnd ways and means to dodge the
D. artful or tricky, dangeuou,s or unreliable I H. When it comes to dodging, no uootballm will
never match Maradona. (1 }


.mB ~


o H

D H 3)
c H II
D F I (4)m






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A. a hollow area in the wall or a natural Inollow E. In a very short period she found her niche as
part in a hill a successful model.
B .. tM lob or activity which is exactly suitable for F. The Japanese, with their flexible production
you methods, are able to supply niche markets.
C. orqanise your work to create a secure position G. A unique veiled. Ganesha sat in a niche in the
D. practice of divilding the market into speciialized H The new firm has carved a rniche for itself in
areas handlinQ claims for compensation. (1 )










A. to do something that is against the rules E. He- was thrown out of the- team for using foul
language in the las! match.
B. difficult to cope with F. The new tenant lets her pet foullhelawn.
C. to make something dirty, especially wilth waste G. Players do not hesitate to use foul means to
material win a game.
D. rude, offensive words H. The pilot had to use all his skills to stay aloft in
the foul weather. (l)m





0 E (3)m





0 E A. owned by an individual person or a company, E. The film 'Private Ryan' had a great impact on
rather than by ths state me.
S_ personal relationships and activities rather F. We wanted to have a reasonabliy private place
than your work or business in the countryside.
C. a quiet place where you can be alone G .. My private aftairs do not interfere in my
professional life.
D, a soldier of the lowest rank in an army H. A private hospital in India can provide you the
treatment and care vou reuuire. (l)m







DIREClilONS for questions 33 ro 35: Each question has a main statement followed by five question statements - A, S, C, D and Eo Head the main statement and identify each question statement: as

(U) if the main statement can be derived from the question-statement (UPSTRIEAM ARGUMENT).

(0) if the quaefion-staternent can be derived from the main statement (DOWNSTREAM ARGUMENT).

(L) if the question-statement supports the main statement (LATERAL ARGUMENT).

(I) if the question-statement is not relevant to the main statement (IIRRELEVANT STATEMENT).

Select the answer option that best describes the set of five statements.





33. Main Statement


0 E The new textile minister on Friday held out hope ot lower interest rates and simpler rules in the forthcoming bu.dget to help textile exports recover from the blow dealt by tihe global demand slump.

(A) India's textile exports, which make up 12% off the country's total exports, ffell by about 2% to $21.75 billion in 2008-09 as demand slumped in its major markets in the U.S. and Europe ..

(6) The ministry expects textiile expons to grow by about 8% in 2009-10, aided by new policy measures and lbetter opportunities in nontradltlonal markets such as Japan, New Zealand, West Asia and Australia,


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IC) 'There is need to diversify our exports to new

markets to withstand competition from

l1e~ghboUJrilig countries and overcome

protectionist measures adopted by developed countries", the minister said.

10) The minister promised to initiate measures to formulate a Comprehensive National Fibre Policy and create about 10 million jobs ill the sector,

IE) The minister observed Una! he had no objection to a higher minimum support price for cotton provided it did not affect the textile sector.


34. Maim Statement:

The non-life insurance industryis bearing the brunt of cost-Gutting as both corporates and individuals look at ways to reduce insurance expenses.

IA) Total premium hom sales of fire insurance pollicies has shrunk 2% to RS.3420 crore, according to Gaurav Garg, MD, Tata AIG general insurance.

{B) Fire insurance rates have declined by 30 to 35% in 2008-09 du'€) to competition following Iliberalisation of price controls.

Ic) Mr. Garg said that the industry can now grow the business by creating awareness among rural masses and by b"inging in individual houses IholJds, smalll traders and SMEs_

ID) Traditionally, small businesses without bank finance have not been buyingl insurance because there is no compulsion from lenders.

IE) The health insurance presents a bit of a paradox as it is the fastest-growing segment

but remains loss-making despite increase in premium rates.

(1} LlDIl {2) IIDLL (3) ULOIL (4) LlIDLI

35_ Main Statement:

Keen to arrest the ascalatlon in left-wing extremist violence that has killed over 170 security personnel this year alone, the Centre is giving final touches to its action plan for a major post-monsoon offensive against the Maoists in .Jharkband, ChaUisgarh and Orissa.

(A) The three states, apart from Maharashttra and Bihar, have been witness to a. string of deadly attacks triggered by Maoists over the last couple of months.

(8) The counter-Naxal forces, as part of the offensive, will move deeper into the j(.lngles and based on advance intelmgence. bust Naxallte dens and training camps running there.

(C) Among the additional equipment being

considered for induction into tihe anti-extremist grid are helicopters, armoured persona'i carriers and even drones to spy on the Naxaliles bases as well as movements.

(D) The fact that the central forces were stretched thin In the Naxal-hit states on account of thei~ diversion to election duties only helped the extremists gain an upper hand.

(E] The post monsoon offensive is expected to be a time-bound counter operation that will essentially focus on the €xHemist infested Orissa-ChaUisgarh-Jharkhand tri-juncfion.

(1) DUIDU (2) UDIUID (3) UDLUD (4) UItUD

DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow it

The premise of Kishors Manbubani's latest book is simple: If representative democracy is the best known form. of govemance for nations, tnen it's also the best form for the world.

Witih "The New Asian Hemisphere: The Irresistible Shift of Global P.ower to the East," Ma'hbubani is earnest and blunt, essentially telling the democratic West: We like your rules; please play by them.

The book is a stern message to the West from a man who has mastered its practices. Mahbubani, dean and professor with the Lee Kuan Yew Sehoul of Public Policy, the National University of Singapore,. also had a long diplomatic career that included service as Singapore's ambassador to the United Nations. Overall, the book's tone is mme professoriall than diplomatic.

He takes the ru:les established by the West - on democracy, rule of law and social justice - holding them up like a big mirror and showing the distorted reflection practised by the U,S. and Europe.

The West has two sides, he suggests. The philosophical West has made enormous contributions to humanity, offering ideals such as the equality of people and the dignity off the individual, wl1ile the material West places self-interest above values, regularly choosing leaders who cling to power and wealth. His list of complaints aboullhe U.S. and Europe is long: The West urges free trade until otner countries start to do beUer, demands democracy but frets when enemies win elections, panics about global warming while guzzlin'lg energy and ignorirng science, criticizing developing nations Ior nuclear research while hoarding weapons that could destroy the worldl many times over.

Any loopholes in global rules are dangerous 'for the entire world, but particularly, for the minority communiities of Europe and the U.S. that created those rules. Mahbubani repeatedly reminds that by any measure, one small part of the world has devised rules and standards for tihe rest: of the nations: ASia, Africa and South America outrank Europe and North America when it comes to population (about 85 percent to 15 percent) or global gross domestic product (52 perce-nt to 48 percent).

The West cannot hope to preserve the post-World War II hierarchy indefinitely, Mahbubani argues, a.nd should prepare for an orde:rly transfer of power and the world order by 2045. Neither the U.S. nor Europe has shown the foresight, willingness or conndenca to share power. The leaders who balk at orderly re-distrjbution or refuse to delegate or consult show that they lack trust in their own system.


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An imbalanced distribution of power in global institutions - the World Bank, the Intemational Monetary Fund or the lJnited Naflons - that does not rellect the modem world only weakens tihose organizations. II intemational organizations do not allow for shifts in power based on changIng circumstances, then the emerging powers will establish their own systems and set their own rules. "Both the U.S. and the EU now face a more insecure future, even though they have had two decades to enhance their security without any obvious challenge to them: writes Mahbubani.

The book's examples andl statistics showing the rise of Asia wi:ll probably cause less alarm for readers in the U,S. than those in Europe., Tine U.S. roots for underdogs and actually works better from thai position. U,S. history, short as tihat may be, includes many examples of citizens working hard, displaying creativity, when they or the country is down and forced tocompeta - from the patriots who fought under George Washington to lihomasEdiison or post-Spemik America.

Changil1lg course for world organizations, making room for new players, requires political courage of national leaders. But the leaders who eventually convince cifizens of the West that they are part of a global constituency, that there are other stakeholders, willi lay foundations for stability and peace. New checks and balances can save the most powerful nations as well as the powerless, "We need to develop both institutions and rules to manage the world as a whole, instiitutions andl rules that rellect the wishes and interests of 6.5 billion inhabitants," urges Mahb:ubani.

The world can 'benefit by striving for the ideals of the West, 'but also by adopting tihe pragmatism, patience and cooperation practised by leaders such as Deng Xiaoping, whom Mahbubani describes as the "greatest pragmatist in Asia's history." Deng endured tile humiliation of baing purqed twice for criticizing Maoist economic policies, but returned to government and, atter a visit to the U,S, in 1197'9, took the risk of being truthful with the Chinese people about U.S. affluence. "Deng's gamb~e unleashed the enormous energies of the Chinese people," notes Mahbubani.

If China's citizens could handle their truth during the early 19805, then Europeans and Americans should have lillie problem wiilh a modern sel of facts thai are much less harsh. The pace of social change [has picked up since the 1980s and, in confronting adversity, those who [practise fle:xibiliily and recognize the complexity of problems will probably have greater success in detecting multi-pronged solutions.

Nleither Western nor Asian readers will be thrilled with the book's leading metaphor - describing Asia and the rest of the world ona "March 'to Modernity." Neither set will appreciate the definition that immediately jumps to mind, the notion of steady and rhythmic forward motion in sync with others. Too many people prefer setting their own pace for globalisation - rnarw run, but others stroll or take meanderi'ng turns tthat can lead to discoveries and iinnovattion. Of course" another definition for "march" is a steady advance wllh direct purpose.

Likewise, Mahbubanii's definition of "modernity' is broad, sometimes retsrrinq to prosperity and at other times referring to virtues like intellectual freedom, fairness or willingness to help others.

Mahbubani urg:es optimism because we l'ive in an era where immense problems await, yet most individuals can grasp at great opportunities. Individuals and societies alike have the luxury of selecting a purpose: Anyone can be like the executives who aspire to be the richest person on earth. Or they can be like Phuc Than, who fled Saigon as a boy, fell in love witthcapilalism, sludied electrical enqineering and worked with Inleil. "If I leave the U.S., it won't suffer," Mahbubaniquottes Phuc in explaininq the decision to return to his homeland, "If I come back to Vietnam, I have the opponunity to do somelhing great."

So ~s Phuc Than a product of the West or East or both combined? MahblLIbani's book focuses more on processes and outcomes rather than motivation and their many resources, And perhaps he's correct, The worild agrees about many global problems, but is in dire need of finding a fair and common process before nations cantruly set an agenda. Fortunately, the solution - redlstrlbutlnq power in world insfltutlons ~ is obvious. True optimism is recognizing that higher forms of civilization and governance may yet be available and Ihat: anyone can contribule 10 building Ihem.

36. We can infer from the passage that the book under review is

(1) diplomatiC in its condemnation of the double standards adopted by the' west

(2) scholarly and erudite, appealing to the interests of the academic.

(3) prejudiced against all aspects and practices of the U.S. and Europe.

(4) openly crltlcal of the West for not practising what it preaches.

37'. Western [leaders appear to 'lack trust in their system' because

(1) they are averse to sharing power based on changing Circumstances.

(2) they refuse to extend the benefits of that system to others.

(3) there are, loopholes in the global rules for the world.

(4) they refuse to accept outstanding leaders from the East like Deng Xiaoping.

38" Which of the following is NO"]" Mahbubani's opinion? (1) The contribution of the West to the development of ideas and ideals is noteworthy ..

(2) Though a minority in terms of people and products the West has farmed tM rules for thie entire world.

(3) By the middle of this century, the power equation of the world would have changed.

(4) The West can hang on to the power it has almost inuinitely.


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39. AH of the following are the reviewer's opinion EXCEPT: (1) The U.S. is better placed than ELirope to accept the rise of Asia.

(2) The main imagery in the book is likely to cause constemation to both Asian and Western readers. (3) Global. institutions will be weakened jf they refuse to accommodate to changing power equations. (4) The writer uses the term modernity to encompass prosperity and other virtues.

40. The mirror held up by Mahoubani gives a distorted reflection because

(1) the author being biased is unable to present an objective picture.

(2) the practices of the West do not conform to their own rules.

(3) as a diplomat Mabbuoanl's expectations 01 the West are very high.

(4) the author has mastered the practices of the West and sees lhrouqh them.

DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 45: Read the passage given bellow and answer the questions that follow it.

The complex nature of our existenoe demands explanation; and in seeking to find it man has been led to investigate both the physical and spiritual realms, for the study of llife is the most interesting of all study. The very fact that we exist makes us want to understand the process of life - how and whence we have come into exlstence and what happens after death. The discovery of the theory of evolution by modern science led many to believe that it wOUJld solve the whole problem of Ilife. But the theory as presented in the West does not offer the explanation we require. Western scientists say that the natural struggle for existence must lead every germ of life to progress and that it cannot stop evolving until it has developed the power to resist all difficulties; that by thel!aw of the survival of the fittest, wherever there is a necessity off escaping from greater forces, the lesser forces are strivTng to acq;uire greater power; henoe every living thing, from the most minute insect up to man,is constantly compelled by its inherent nature to try to evolve its liteforce .. They also attempt to show how the body evolves through the lower stages and oontinuesto evolve until it is perfected.

The explanation of modern physical evolution, however, can never fully satisfy us,. ffor it does not account forfhe higher planes of manifestation. Butt this is not the case with the ancient evolutionists of India, I~ke Kapila, who lived in the seventh century Re. and who extended his conception beyond the physical to moral and spiritual evolution. These early Seers realized that there can be no evolution without involufion. The fact: that something cam not come out of nothing, as modern science also affirms, proves that involution must precede evolution. nne relation, indeed, between evolution and involution is an inseparable as between cause and effect; and just as to understand the effect we must know the cause, so to understand our present state of evolution we must know ali that has gone before; 'for what we call our mental and physical inheritances are not matters of chance, but the direct outcome of our past.

The wise ones who have been brave and strong enou:g'h to lift the veil, know that this life cannot be explained until we connect it with a previous existence, and that the future existence wi:11 find its explanation in the present one; Ior the law of life is nothing but the process of evolution. When we grasp this, we are able to comprehend mom clearly the divers~ty and inequality apparent everywhere, Why are not all men alike? Does an Almighty·, Ali-merciful 1L0rd create one happy a.nd another miserable? What brings the distinction? There must be some cause, for there can be no effect without a cause, and the inecualifies in outer condition and mental power among human beings are effects of causes which ~ie imbedded in the character of each individual.

The gross body is not all. There is another know,n as the subtle body, which is composed 01 finer and less destructible material. This subtle bod:y consists of mind, intellect and tihe sense of "I". In it are stored up alii the impressionsgatthered through our different lives. Oin~y by knowing this subtler part of man, wherein dwells the lndividualitv. can we gain insight into the course of his evolution, and understand why each life varies from every other. We create for ourselves these differences either consciously or unconsciously. Our destiny ls not governed, as we imaqme, by a supernaturat power .. The happiness and misery which we experience Ihere are not forced upon us by an arbitrary Providence, but are the inevitable result of our own thoughts and deeds. We must reap what we have sown. No one can give us what we do not deserve, nor can anyone keep from us the blessing we have earned.

We ourselves have the power to make and unmake our destiny. Therefore [f we are born with certain defects in our character', if we are placed in an unhappy environment, although these are due to our own past errore, auch 'Conditions are by no means unalterable, but can be counteracted by our present mode of living. When however, a person dies without cornplefinq his task in life, with his goal unattalnoc, is everything ended for him? Has he no further chance? Sri Krishna answers in the Bhagavad Gita: "There is no loss for Ihim either here or hereafter; for he who doeth good never attaineth an evil condition. In Ihis new birth he regaineth the knowledge acquired in his former incarnations and strivath aqain for his end. He is irresistibly led by his previous tendencies. Thus purified by many births and rebirths, he reacheih the Supreme Goal."

4·1. "lnvolulion" as inferred from the passage could mean (1) the process of involving ..

(2) an entanglement.

(3) intricacy of evolution. (4) pre-evolutionary.

42, The Bhagavad Gila, acoordingto the passage,

(1) affirms that the knowfedge that a person possesses is solely the knowledge acquired in previous births.

(2) declares that life is a continuum.

(3) avers that there is no profit or loss during a human's me on earth,

(4) asserts that the supreme goals of a human being must be to avoid births and rebirths.

43. Which of the fo'lIow~ng poetic lines reneot the content of the passage?

(1) "I am the captain of my soulll am the master of my [ate".


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(2) ''The old order chanqefh yielding place to new and God fulfils Hlmsef in many ways".

(3) "Nobleness enkindleth nobleness",

(4) ''The evil that men. do liveth after them. The good is oft interred with their bones".

44. "But the theory as presented in the West does not offer the explanation we require". What is the explanation we require?

(1) Why is evolution an ongoing phenomenon? (2) When will evolution come to an end?

(3) What happens in the pre-birth and post-deatih periods?

(4) What accounts for the continuous acquirement of greater power by all living beings?

45. What does the author show as evidence to the possibility of "previous births"?

(1) The f,indings of the ancient evolufionists of India which cannot be wrong.

(2) The diversity and inequality apparent everyw~ere. (3) Some persons are able to recount the events that occurred during their previous blrtbs,

(4) Bi:rths and rebirths are part of evolution.


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SECTION-Ill Number of Questions = 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 46 and 47: Answer the questions indepencentjy of each other.


tog ra (Jii 1 1

46. If a " ca ~ , then find the value of a.


1 (1)- 16

(2) _! 2

(3) ~ 64

(4) _11


47. The sides of a righi-angled triangle are in geometric progression. What is the ratio of the sines of its acute angles?

(1) 1 (2)./3

(3)45 +1 2

(4) W

DIRECT[ONS for questions 48 to 50: Answer tlile cusstions on the basis of the information given be[ow.

This morning, Gopal, the ~oca~ milkman, was in a hurry to leave home for selling milk. ln his hurry he asked Suppandi, his servant to pour half of the water from the water drum into the milk drum containing pure milk and then to bring him a full can of the diluted milk for selling. However, Suppandi got confused and he poured hatf the milk from the milk drum into the water drum and brouqht out a full can of the contents from the latter for his master to seili. The concentranon of the milk in me can that Suppandi brought was lIn times that intended by GopaL

4B. If n == 3, what would be the concentration of the milk had Gopal mixed the entire contents of the milk drum and the water drum?

(1) 1 (2) 25%
(3) 20% (4) Cannot be determined 49. Find n, given that initially thetotall quantity of pure milk in ithe milk drum was 4.5 times that of water in tihe water drum.

(1) 1.3 (2) 1.7 (3) 2 (4) 2.2

50. Among the values 0.4, 0.7, 11.2,2.4,3.8,4.3,5,.1 and 6,1, how many values can n assume?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 54;' Answer the questions independently of each other.

51. If a and n are integers, then for how many values of n will the quadratic equation Jf - (10a + 8)x + 2Sfi :;;: 0; have real and equal roots?

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) More than 2

52. A group of boys decided to contribute equally to Ibuy a football costing a whole number of rupees between RS.2S0 and Rs.270. At the last moment, two boys backed out and as a result each boy had to contribute three rupees more than what they had

earlier planned tor, How many boys were there in the group initially?

(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 6 (4) 12

53. If ~ = 4 b 4 c 3 and :!_ ;::; ~, then

b 5c 3d 5 e 2

which of the following is defi nitely not an integer?

(1) bd (2) ae

c b

(3) ae e

(4) None of these

54. An infinite plane has to be tiled (wlthout gaps or overlaps) using identical tiles, each in the shape of a regUilar n-sided polygon, How many values are possible for n? (1) 3 (3) 6

(2) 5

(4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 55 and 56: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Gattu randomly broke two sticks of lengths p andl q into two pieces each - the len piece and the right piece. The lengths of the left pieces of the two sticks are x and y respectively.

55. If p::: o, what is the probability that y:. 2x?

(1) _!. (2)..!. (3).2. (4) 25

6 4 3

56. If the probability that y"> 2x is 0.6, what is the value off !!. ?


(I).!. (2) 1 (3) 3. (4)!

5 4 5 7

DIRECTIONS for questions 57 to' 65: Answer the questions independently of' each other,

57. If three positive numbers a, band c are such that a -< 40, b :. 60 and c -< 20,. then which of the following is definitely false?

(1) (a~b+c)<-10 (2) (b-3c).:.20

(3) (2c ~ b) < -20 (4) None of these

58. A can do a certain piece of worik in 18 days more than the time taken by A and B together to do the same work. B can do the same work in 8 days more than lhe time taken by the two to complete the same work. They agree to do the work for a total compensation of AS,18000 and with the help of C complete it in 10 days. How much money will C get as Ihis snare?

(1) Rs.SOO (2) Rs,2000

(3) RS.3000 (4) Rs,4500

59. If fl(x) = _2_ and fn(x) = 1 , w~ere n:. 1.

2+ x 1+ fn_1(x)

then find the approximate value 01 150(1).

(1) 0.128 (2) 0.618 (3) 0.B66 (4) 0.45


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60. Among a group of 500 persons who have applied for a job requiring mulitillingual skills, 92% knew English, 87'% knew Hindi, 82% Iknew Bengali, 78'% knew Tamil, 75% knew Telugu and 69% knew Mara.thi. 23 persons did not know any of the six languages, What could be the rnlnirnurn number of persons wllo knew all the six languages?

(1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 40 (4) 60

61. X, Y and Z are points on the sides AB, BC and AC of tihe triangle ABC, such that AX : XB = 4 : 3, BY : YC = 2 : 3 and CZ : ZA = 2 : 1. Find the ratio of the area of the triangle XYZ to til at of the trlanqle ABC.

(1) ~ (2) ~ (3) 2. (4) 1:.

35 21 21 14

62, Rajnikant is a florist who sells flowerbouquels. He wanted to sell a minimum of 100 orchids and 200 roses using t'hem in bouquets of two types A and B. I n each bouquet of type A, 'he used <11 orchids and 9 roses, whereas in each bouquet of type 8, he used 2 Orchids and 3 roses. He seus each bouquet of type A for RS.60 and each bouquet of type B for Rs.2·1. What could be the least amount realized by him by selling the bouquets?

(1) IRs.1326 (2) RsJ 356

(3) IRs.1359 (4) RsJ386

63. A certain number 01 cats eat a certain number of mice over a period of several days. All the cats eat the same number of mice. This number is greater than the number of cats. If there are at least three cats and the total number of mice eaten'! is 999919, how many cats were there?

(11) 667 (2) 899

(3) 1147 (4) None of these

94. There are two dnrns 0, and D2, each of which iis filled to the brim with water. Now,. a leak is made at the bottom of each of 0, and D2• such that the leak in 01 takes 6 hours to empty it, while the leak in 02 takes 9 hours to empty it. If the capaciity of Dl iis more than the capacity of O2 lby 60%, then find! the time after wllich the volume of water in D2 will be 25% more than the volume of water in D1.

17 1

(11) 2- hours (2) 4- hours

23 2

(3) 3 hours


(4) 4- hours 3

65. Find the total number of ways in which one can wear three distinct rings on the mve fingers of one's right hand, given that one is allowed to wear more than one ring on a finger,

(11) 120 (2) 360 (3) 480 (4) 210


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1. 2

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2

5. 1

6. 4

7. 3

8. 1

9. 3 10'. 2

11. 1

12. 3

13. 2 19'. 2 25. 3 31. 2 37. 1 43. 1 419. 1
14. 4 20. 3 26. 1 32. 4 38. 4 44. 3 50. 2
15. 4 21. 3 27. 2 33. 4 39. 3 45. 2 51. 2
16. 2 22. 4 28. 1 34. 1 40. 2 46. 1 52. 2
17. 1 23. 2 29'. 3 35. 3 41. 4 47. 4 53. 4
18. 3 24. 1 3D. 11 36. 4 42. 2 46. 3 54. 1
Solutions 55.2 56.3 57,4 58.3 59.2 60. 1

61. 3 62,2 63,4 64,2 65,4


S;olutiions f'or questions 1 to 5;

This problem is based on the concept of dividing N coins into the minimum number of group's sud'! that by giving one or more groups at coins one can give any number of coins from 1 to N.

ToO give one coin, one has to have a group with only one com. To give two coins, one has [0 have another group of one coin or a group of two coins.

If it is a sroup of two coins we can also give three coins by giving both the groups [1 coin ... 2 coins], tthe:refore, to rnaxlrnlze the value of N" for a particular number of groups, we avoid two or more qroups with tihe same number of coins ..

8imilarly, to give four coins we need a 9rouP of four coins or sum of thie number of coins in two or more groups must be 4, As we have to maximize N, we take a group of 4 coins.

., With these three groups viz., 1 coin. 2 coins and 4 coins, we calli give any number of coins from ~ to 7 l.e., if we can give any num.ber of coins urom 1 to x with y number of groups, then the next grollp-i.e., (y ... 11)111 group of coins must have (x + 1) coins in it, such that any number of coins from 1 10 2x + 1 can be given,

The number of coins il1l the groups, where the value of N is the maximum possible, are 1, 2,4,8, 16, and so on. In the above distnbuuon, the number of coins in each group is twice the number of coins in the previous group,

Also, the number of coins in ea.ch group is 1 more than the sum of the number of coins in the precedil1lg groups.

In the given question. if we cut a llink we actually get three sets in which one set has exactly one link (tile link which is be.ing cut).

ToO min'imize the number of cuts for a given value of N, we first find out the maximum value of N for different number of cuts.

From the earlier explanation given (for the case 01 dividing coins) and as with aile cut we can gel tllree sets, these three sets must have 1, ,2 and 4 links to maximize tim value of N,

whic~1, here in this case, is 7.

For two cuts, we get five sets. in whJ.ch two sets have, one link each. With these two sets we can give 1 lin!k or 2 links. .'.The other three sets must be (2 ... 1}, [(.2) ... (2 + 1)J + 1 and {(2) "'" (2 ... 1) "'" [(2), ... (2 + 1 J] '" 1) + 11 l.e. the five sets are 1; 1, 3; 6 and 12,. wlth which we 'can give any number of llnks from 1 to 23,

In the above distirilJution trom the 4tru set onwards the number of links in a set is twice the number of links in the previous set.

Simil'a!rly,if we cut n links, we get 2n + 1 sets of links, in which (J sets have one link each [which ate' been cut]. With these n sets of one link each, we can give any number of [inks from 1 to n.

.vThe remaining (n + 1) sets must contain (n + 1),2 (n + 1),22

{n + 1}, 23 (n + 1), , 2n (n + 1) links.

In thls dlstnbutlon also, the number of links in 91 set [from the I-n ... '1)111 set onwards] ~s the sum ot Ille number of links in the preceding sets.

Hem, the, maximum value of N for n cuts is 2(2" (n + 11)] - 1 . .v'The maximum value of N tor different number of cuts is as follows:

Number of cuts 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 8 1
Maximum value 7 23 63 159 383 895 20471 46071
of N 1. [From the above table, to give any number of links tram 1 to 850, atleast 6 cuts are to be made, Choice (2)

2. For 7 cuts, the maxi mum value of N ~s 2047 ..

Choice (4)

3. As with 6 cuts the maximum value of N is 8950, number of different values of N tor 7 cuts is 2047 - 895 i!.e"

1152. Choice (3)

4. For 6 cuts the ranqe of values of N is (384; 895),

To, minimize the number of tile fifth link to be cui, the value of N to be as minimum as possible . . ·.N" 384

The maximum number of links in a set can be ,384 '" 192, provided the remaining 192 links should be cut in such a way that .2

one must be in a position to give any number of links from 1 to 192.

Similarliy, the second highest number of links in a set cam be 192 '" 96, provided, from the remaining 96 links, one must be 2

able to give any number of links from 1 to 96.

Iff we apply the above concept, we get the least number of the fifth link. to be cut as 95 shown below.

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101 set 1S1 cut 2n~ set 2M :Jed set 3'd 41h set 4th 51h set 5th eU1 set 61n 7'" set
cut cui cut cut cut
Number ot links
in a set after 6 1 -4 6-10 11 - 21 23-45 48-94 96 - 191 193 -384
links have been =12 = 23 = 47 =96 = 192
Number of link 5 11 22 46 95 19'2
in each cut 5. From the above solution, the maximum number of links

.. . 1000

in a single set is at most _. _. _. == 500


For the sum of the links in this set of 500 to be the maximum possible, Ihe numbers of these links must be trom 501 to 1000 ..

:. The required sum is 501 + 1000 x 500 = 375250 2

Ohoice (1)

Solutions for questions 6 to ·10:

From the given information we can say that, nine matches took place in the first stage and six matches took place in the second stage ..

Also, from the details of second stage matches we can say that a match between Band C was drawn and B lost a match wiHl a goal difference of 2 and C lost a match witth a goal difference of 1

Also, in second slage matches, in either oltne matches thai F played, it's opponent scored exactly one goal. In either of the matches that E played, it scored exactly one goal.

Also, A, 0 and F w0112, 1 andz matches respectively.

S, C, 0 and E lost 1, 1, 1 and 2 matches respectrively.

.', E lost to exactly two teams among A, 0 and F in the second stage.

=> E played against 13 and C in the first stage.

Also, a match between [) and E was drawn in the first stage. :. E played against A and F in lhe second staqs.

Also, in the second stage, A and (;:: did not play any match. => A and F played a match in Ihe first stage.

Band D did not play any match against each other in the tlrst stage,

=> Band 0 played a match in Ihe second stage.

From the second table, we can say that team A scored 1 goal more' than the opponent in either of lhe matches in the second stage.

. ·.In the match between A and E, A scored exactly two goals and E scored one goal.

=> E lost to F with 1 - 4.

:.A scored 4 g;oals in the other match.

As, D conceded a total of <I goalls in the two second stage matches and each team scored at least one goal in each match, thus A. and D would not have played against each other.

. '.A and 0 played aga~nst each other in the ffirst stage.

:.A and C pl!ayed a match aga~nst each other and 0 and F played a rnatchaqainst each other in the second stage.

.. <In the secane! stage, D lost to F w~tli 1 -.2 and A won against C with4-3.

:.0 won against B with 4 _ 2 and C drew a match with B with 1 -1.

In the first stage:

B played against A, E and F. D played against A, C and E. => C played a match against F .

.', C won against 0, E and F with 2 - 1 in each maioh.

As a match between 0 and E was drawn, E won a match with a goal difference of 2.

Choice (2)

Also, 0 scored 1 g.oal in each of his first stage matches. :.0 and E draw match between them with 1 - 1.

=:> 0 lost to A with 1 - 3 and E won .against B with 5 - 3. Now, Biasi to A and F w~th goal differences of 1 and 2 in any order.

Also, F won against A and 6 wiih 'goal difference::> of 1 and 2 fn any order.

.: A won a match against B wulh a goal difference by which A

tost to F. . .

Among two matches played by each of these teams - A, B and F, A scored 5 goals and conceded 5 goals, B scored 4 goals and conceded 7 goals, and F scored 6 goals and conceded 3 goals ..

.: The only possibility is that A won againstr B with 4 - 2, A Ilost to F wi:th 1 - 3 and B lost to F with 2 -3.

:. The tinal results will be as follows:

Stage 1:


4 2 3 1 1 3
3 5 2 3 2 1
2 U 2 1 1 1 A-C A-E
4 :3 .2 1
B-C 8-0
1 1 2 4
1 2 1 4 6, Team F won against team A in tile first stage.

Choice (4)

7, Team B scored 3 goals against team E. Choice (3)

8. Team C scoredt g:oalin the match which it Ihad drawn.

Choice (1)

9. Team F scored 3 goals against team B in tihe first stage.

Choice (3)

10. The total number of goals scored in the match played

between E and F is 5, Clloiee (2)

Sofu.tio:ns for questions 11 to 13:

From (6), as from any school at most 10 students can particlpate, the number of students of Kendriya Vidyalaya who participated in the rema~ning four eventts apart from Essay Writimg are 1 , 2, 3 and 4 in any order .

:. The total number of participants from Kendriiya Vidyalaya ls 10.

From {4), the number of participants from Ramkris'hlla High School, SI. Ann's H.S. School, SI. Mary's Convent School and SI. Francis is 8, 7,6 and 5 respectively.

From (5), the total number of students who participated in S~nging are 4 and 8 students parttclpated in each at the remaining events.

From (1), the number of students of Kendriya Vidyalaya who partcipatsd in Painting is 4.

.: The number of students ffrom the remain'ing four schools who participated in Painting is 1 each.

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From (2) and 13), tihe number ou sludents off St Fwancis, who participated in Debate, Dancing and Essay Writing are 2, 1 and 1 respectively.

From (2), students of different schools other than 51. Francis who participated in Singing is 1, 1, 1, 1.

From (7), and above results, from Ramkrishna High School, exactly two students participated in each of Dancinq, Essay Writing and Debate events.

From (6) and above results, 5 students participated in essay Writing from 81. Mary's and 81. Ann's and at least one student of each school participated in Dancing and Deba.te.

:.The only possibility ~s that 1 student each participated in Dancing and Debate from SI. Mary's and. S1. Ann's, and in Essay Writingl 2 andl 3 students are participated from 81. Mary's and SI. Ann's respectively.

Let us tabulate the above results as follows:

Events Singing Dancing Essa~iirrit ing Debate Painting
Schools (4) (81 (8) (8)
Kendriya 1 3 0 :2 4
Vidvalava (10)
SI. Marts
Convent Soh 001 1 j 2 ; 1
St Ann's f-l.S, 1 j 3 1 1
School (7),
81. Francis (5) 0 1 1 :2 1
Rarmkrisima High 1 2 :2 :2 1
School (S} 11. In Essay Writing, the maximum number of students of SI. Mary's Convent School participated. Choice (1)

12. The number of students of Kem:lriya Vidyalayais the

maximum in Dancing. Choice (3)

13. The sum is.2 + 2 i.e., 4.

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 14 to 18:

Each of Bhuvan and Chetan answered 7 questions correctly in 01 and OS put together.

Their scores in section 2 are 91 and 56 respectively.

The number of questions which are answered correctly by Bhuvanand Chelan in AH is not known.

It can vary from 0 to 8.

::::> Each of Bhuvan and Chelan answered any number of q;uestions from 7 to 15in section 2.

"""""" If we consider Chelan's score, the average mark per ouesticn can be one among 56/7,. 56/8, 56/9, 56/10, 56/111, 56112, 56/13, 56/14, 56115 I.e., S, 7, 6.22, 5,6, 5.09, 4,66, 4.3,4,3.7

~ Bhuvan answered correctly at least 91/8 i.e., 12 questions in section 2_

::::> The average mark per question can be 91/12, 9H13, 91/14, ·91115 l.e., 7.58, 7, 6,5, 6.07

::::> Only 7 is common in above two cases. """""" The average marks per question iis 7.

:.We can get the number of questions answered by them in each of the sscnons. if we know the marks they gal in thai section.

Lei us denote each person by the first letter of his/her name.

section 2 to get the fifth rank l.e. she must have answered more than 56/7 i.e., 8 questions in section 2 i.e., she must scored at least 9 x 7 i.e., 63 marks in

section 2 to. get the fifth rank. Choice (4}

15. A, S, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, K, L, MI, N, 0, P, Q, R, Sand T answered 16,13,8,9,7,6,9,8,10,11,7,11,12,12, 10, 9, 10, 13 and 8 questions correctly in section .2 respectively.

::::> They answerec s. 6,1,6,4,1,3,2,4,. 6, 1,5,2,2,4, 3, 1, 2, and 4 questions correctly in AR.

::::} Except B, K and J all the students answered lesser number of questions correctly than 0 in AR.

Choice (4}

Hi. In section 1, lvan answersd at least 8 (arlthmetlc) questions correctly.

.'_Ivan's score in section 1 is at least 56·.

.'. C, 10, E, M,. Rand S scored lesser marks than Ivan in

section 1. Choice (2}

17. To g:et the least number of questions answered correctty by T lin section 3, the number of questions answered by lhimin section 1 must be the maximum possible.

He answered only 2 q;uestions conectly in Arithmetic.

.', He c:ananswer at most 2 + 8 (puremaths) + 8 (miscelraneous) i.e., 18 questions correctly in sscuon 1. He scored 266 - 56 l.e., 210 marks in section 1 and section 3 put together.

He answered 30 questions correctly in section and

section 3 put together.

: .. lhomas answered at least 12 questions correctly in

section 3_ Choice (I}

18. ~ Jyothj's score in section-a is at least 8 x 7 i.e. 56.

::::> Jyothi's total scone is at least 98 + 56 + 112 i.e., 2'66. ::::> Jyothi is one arnonq the top ~2 rankers.

"""""" Aneesh, IHamsini, Ivan, JyOlhi, Kartik, Madhu, Nived1aln, Ornprakash, Payal, Qureshi, Salman and Thomas ars lhe top 12 rankers .

.Among them, Harnslni, Ivan, Kartik, iMadhu,. Payal, Qureshi and Thomas answered six or less than six questions correctly in DI and DS put together ..

Choice (3}

Solutions fol' questions 19 and 20:

19. Let us first calculate the given informanon.

Ajay Bhuvan Chanchal Deepak
p 4
Q 2
R Let us denote each person by first letter off hislher name. From statement A alone, the only possible sums of tile ranks of the ffour persons are 9 (2 + 3 + 4), 8 (1 + 3 + 4), 7 (1 + 2 + 4) and 6 (1 +.2 + 3).

As the sum of the ranks of 0 is the hi'gilest i.e. it is 9, D got the second, the third and the fourth ranks ill tile three subjects in any order.

Let the rank of Deepak in P (or the rank of B in Q) be a ::::> a cannot 4 or 2 and it cannot be 1 also. (:. The rank of D ill amy subject cannot be 1)

::::> a·",3

::::} The rank of A in Pis 1 and that of 13 in P is 2.

::::> The ranks of 0 in Q and A are 4 and 2 respectively and Ihe ranks of C in Q is 1 _

·:·The rank of 15 in R cannot be 4.

14. Since Jyothi answered lesser number of questions correctly in Arithmetic than the person who is fifth among the students whose total score is given i.e., Thomas. Jyothi must ge·t more than 266 marks l.e., she must get more than 266 - (98 + 112) '" 56 marks in


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(:.The sum of the ranks in the three subjects put together is different for each of them.)

Thus the rank of B in R is 1. .

=:>lill€ ranks of C and Air) Rare 3 ana 4 respectively, .·,A alone is sufficient,

From B alone, as B always 'got a better rank than D, B never got 4th rank and Deepak never got l't rank.

And whel'1.ever B got 3m rank in a subject, D got 41h rank

in that subject. .

Similarly, if B got 2nd rank in any subject, D got 3'd rank in that subject and so on. .

In Q, B cannot 'get either 11" or 2nd rank.

:=:- In Q, B got the third rank and tmLUS D got the 4'h rank. :::} C got the 1" rank in Q and A got the 4th rank in R. As D cannot get lSI rank" B gets 1'" rank in R

::::;. D got the second rankin R.

::::;. C got the 3rt! rank. inR, B got the .2nd rank in P and D got the 3rt! rank in P.

=:> A got the first rank in P.

:. B alone is also sufficient. Choice (2)

20. From the ,given data we can conclude the fol~owing.

Room Lock. Kev
Fl., xL1 XK1
R2 xL2 XK2
Rs XL3 XK3
A4 x~ x~ From A alone, the lock and the corresponding key of A4 can be either L1, K3 or L2, K •.

As 1<4 cannot be the key of the lock of R4, the lock and the Ikey of A4 must be L, and K3. But still we cannot conclude the corresponding lock and k.ey of room R1. :.A allone is not sufficient,

B alone is also not sufficient as it contains onlly a Hille information.

Combining the two statements, as K1, K2 and IK3 are not the' key of H2; K4 is tihe key of R2 al1d thus La is the lock ou R2.

:. The correspomling key and lock [or R, is K2 and I~ resp ectively,

.'. Both the statements together are sufficient.

Choice (3)

Difficulty level wise summary - Section I
Level 01 Diffi:culty Questions
Very Easy -
Easy -
Medium 11,12,13
Difficult 14,15,16,17,18,19',20
Very Difficult 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8., H, 10 SECTION - II

Solutions for questions 21 to 24:

2.1. Obsequiousness is a quality which can be attributed to a sycophant (a person who seeks favour by flattering people of wealth or influence),

Cantankerousness (bad-temperedoess) is a qu.al~ty which can be attributed to a curmudgeon (an irascible or an in-tempered person). Hence the words in option 3 are analogous to the words in the question pail'. The remaining options can be eliminated because a Poltroon (a coward) need not be diffident (bashful), a hypocrite is not bombastic (pompous), a sybarite (a hedonist) is not abstemious (selt-disclpllned).

Choice (3)

2.2. The relationship between the' two question wordsis one of collocation. Fears are allayed, similarly myths are dispelled. Claims are not rebuffed (declined; spurned), Ego and placate may seem probable but option 3 can be ruled out because the order of the words is reversed here. Option 1 does not malke any sense in the given

context. Only choice 4 is apt. Choice (4)

23. The words in the question pair share an antonymous relationship. The words demotic (common; informal) and formal are antonyms. Similarly prolix (verbose) and laconic (terse: pithy) are antonyms. The words articulate (communicative) and eloquent are not antonyms, they actually share a synonymous relationship. The words prolific (creative; innovative) and productive are also synonyms and hence can be ruled out. The words recondite (little known) and esoteric (abstruse) are also

synonymous. Choice (2)

:24. Bouquet refers to the characteristic fragrance ot fine wine .. Choice lis analogous to the question pair. Wine has bouquet, slrnllarly, coffee has aroma, Option 3 can be ruled out because flower is part of a nosegay (bouquet). The, words salad and garnishing do not: share an analogous relationship with the question pair. Option 2 may seem probable but it can be ruled out because although it can be said that: perfume has

fragrance it cannot be vice versa. Choice (1)

·Solutions for questions 25 1.0 28:

25. Incorrect use of the preposition 'from' makes statement A wrong;: when we use 'from' to indicate a point 01 time, we usually 'follow it by 'to' sLlggesting till which point of time (eg: From 1950 to 1960): since can be used here. Sentence B is also incorrect beeause rthe' is needed befme'suburbarl'. The adverb 'almost' has been used to indicate numbers, 'nearly', 'approximately' or 'around' are possible alternatives. The other two statements are grammatically correct, which makes option 3 the correct:

answer. Choice (3)

26. Sentence B needs, 'in him', after 'instill'. Issues are discussed and not discussed about (sentence D). Besides, cases publicized in the media is wrong. It is

'by' the media, Choice (1)

:27. Option 2, which includes sentences Band C is the correct answer. 'Comprises of is gmmmatically incorrect. Itt is, either 'consists of' a wide variety or comprises a wide variety. lin C "lives; is incorrect; it should be 'life; -

make li11e simple. Choice (2)

28. All the first three statements are in the past tense,. 'has never' stepped in sentence D is present perfect and hence incorrect It should be 'never stepped'.

Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 29 to 32:

29. 'Dodge' meaning 'to evade indirectly or by tricks' is brought out in option G as many firms adopt such means. A matches G - the options open are 1 and 3. The meaning in option B is exemplified by sentence E, this narrows down the options. Option 3 is therefore

correct. Choice (3)

30. In A the meaning of 'niche' is a hollow area iin the wall, in option G the sentence brings out thls shade of meaning. The meaning of niche as giv'en in B is brought out suitably in option E. This rules out all the other options and] renders the first option correct.

Choice (1)

35. The main statement refers to an action plan to be launched against Maoists in three states.

Statement A relers 10' attacks in five states by' Maoists. This is the reason for the action plan in the ma.in statement. Hence an upstream ar·gument - U. Statement B mentions what the counter offensive will do. This flows from the plan, hence downstream - 0 The additional equipments, mentioned in C, are planned to be inducted. into the anti extremist grid. Hence it offers lateral support - L. Had the statement said 'inducted' instead of 'being consldersc for induction' it: would have been a downstream argument, being consequent to the plan.

Central forces being stretched thin helped the extremists to strike which led to the action plan in the main statement. Hence an upstream argument - U ..

The 'post monsoon ottenslvs' will follow from the plan. Hence a downstream a.rgument - D.

So, UDLUD. Choice (3)


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31. The meaning 01 foul in option A is brought out by the sentence in option G. This rules out options 1, 3 and 4. The sentence in H brimgs out the meaning in option B.

Therefore option 2 is correct. Choice (2)

32. Option A provides the meaning of private. as it is used in the sentence providedl in option H. This rules out options 2 & 3. The sentence in G brings out the meaning mentioned in B. Between 1 and 4, 4 is correct as the meaning ln G is brought out by the sentence in F.

Choice (4)

Solutions f,or quesnons 33 to 35:

33. The maim statement: refers to the textile minister's intention to lower ~nterest rates and to simplify rules to help textile exports recover from a fall in export consequent to global decline in demand.

Statement A refers to the fall in export by 2% in 2008· 09 .. This is the reason the minister is planning to help the textile sector. Hence an upstream arqument ~ U. Statement B refers to what is expected consequent to the new policy. Hence downstream ~ D.

Statement C refers to the need to diversify into new market. While this is different from the rnaln statement (interest rates and sinnple rules), the objective is the same ~ to help textile exporters. Hence a lateral argument - L.

Statement D refers to a fibre policy which is quite distinct from a textile policy. Hence it is irrelevant - 1. Statement IE refers to support price for cotton but the focus is still on the tsxtile sector. ( ... provi'ded it does not affect the textile sector). Hence a lateral argument ~ L.

So UDliL Choice (4)

34. The main statement refers to t~e impact on non-life insurance lndustry as a result of cost cutting by ccrporatas and individuals.

Statement A gives the example of a fall in sales expenenced by fire insurance and thereby offers lateral support to the main statement - L.

Though statement B refers to a problem faced by fire insurance companies, the reason is competition and not cost cutting on part of customers. Hence, it is Irrelevant - I. What Mr. Garg says in statement C is consequenlto the decline in demand. Hence a downstream argument-ID. Statement D talks of small businesses which have never been buying insurance, so they are outside the purview of the main statement. Hence irrelevant - I. Statement E presents a picture quite contrary tto what is said in the main statement, hence irrelevant - 1.

So lID:tI Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 36 to 40:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC;

Number of words: 1,131

36. Refer to the second and ~hird paras .. Tlhe reviewer says the author is 'blunt' and then a 'stern message to the

West'. Choice (4)

37. The words in quote occur at the end of pa.ra 7 and the answer is found in t~e lines preceding the quote.

Choice (1)

38. Refer to para 7 ~ 'The West cannot hope to preserve the post-World War II hierarchy indefinitely' ~ which negates choice 4. Choice 1 is true. (para S, The

phiiosophicaJ West .... .) Choice (4)

39'. The reviewer's opinions are found in para 9 and para 13, 14, Choice 3 is not the reviewer's oplnion, they are

MahabLJbani's (para 8). Choice (3)

40, Refer to para 4. The mirror shows the 'distorted' practices.

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 41 to 45:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:

Number of words: 801

41. The passage refers to the evolution off life. Then it mentions involution as the cause anc evolution as the elleel, which means involution is the process which goes before the evolutionary stage starts. Thougn (1), (2) and (3) are also tns meanings of involution, the given context does not give these meanings for

"involution". Choice (4)

42, As th.e passage talk about births, rebirths etc., choice 12:)

is the most appropriate one. Choice (2)

43. According to tile passage, "We ourselves have the power to make and unmake our destiny' (last para, first line), So (1) is the most appropriate choice,

Choice (1)

44. "Western scientists say that • ~ - ••. evolve is life force" (para 1). These lines show that western scientists have given answer for (1), (2) and (4). 13) is the question for which ·the answer is not provided by western scientists,

Choice (3)

45,. The passage poses the question, "Why are not all men alike?" It goes on to answer that "inequallties in outer condition and mental power among human be.ings are effsets of causes 01 the previous existence" (para 3, last sentence). So (2) is the correct alternative.

Choice (2)

Difficulty level wise summary - Section II
level of Difficulty Questions
Ve/y Easy -
EaslI 31. 32 40
MBdium 22, 27, 28, 29, 30, 33, 35, 36" I
37,38, 39, 4~, 42 I
Difficult 21,23.24,25.26,34.43,44,45
Very Diffjcult - SECTION - III

Solutions for que.stions 46 and 4.7:


C- 1 => ( ... 02)2 '" - 2

~ 1 1 1

=> (8)4 '" - =>8= - ora",-.

2 24 16

Choice (1}


Let the sides of the triang~e be il, sr and af since it is a rught-angled triangle .. therefore i + (81)2 '" (atl (By Pythagoras theorem) 11 + r = ,4 or, I' - r -'1 = 0

:. r,;;;, 1l±,J5

2 Now. since r > 0

.·.1=-./5+1 2






lhe ratio of tthe sines of its acute anqles '" sinA sinG


sln C sinA

..sinA _ Be _ ar _ r _ J J5 * 1 Choice (4)

.. sinG - AB - a - - 2 .

Solll.ltlons for questions 4810 50:

Let the total quantities of the water in the water drum and the milk in the milk drum be Wand M respectively.

Let C, be the concentration of milk in the water drum after Suppandi done as Gopal asked him to (i.e., poured into it half of the water ffrom the water drum)

M 2M

-,.C2= (M+ ~J = 2M+W

Given _s_",__!_=(~)x(2M+WJ ---------- (1)

C2 n W +2M 2M

:::;. ~ = 4 - n (by simplifying equation (I)) (2)

W 2n-2

48_ Given n,= 3

M 4-3 1

=> -=--_.=- => W=4M

W 2x3-2 4

I• G I I' W d M h n M - M - 20°' " .opa m1xes .. an _ .j te .. ------ fQ

M+W M+4M

Choice (3)

Then n '" 4'W + 2M = 13W '" 1 .3

2M+W lOW

Choice (I)

M 50. From equation (2),. it can be observed that when



tends 10 zero, then n tends to 4, and when - tends to W

infinity then n tends to 1. Hence 1 < n < 4.

Only 1.1, 2.4 a.nd 3.8 satisfy. Choice (2)

Soluti'ons for questions 51 to 54:

51. If the roots of the given quadratic equation are real and equal, Ihen the discriminanl should be zero.

:. (1 Oa + 8)2", 4.25"

:::;. 4(58 + 4),2 '" 4.52n

=> 5a + 4 '" S"OR 5a". 4 = -(5")

The onlypossible solution for (a. n) is (-1. 0)

Choice (2)

52. Let the cost of tile football be Rs.(250 + x) and let there be n bovs im the groufJ.

Since each boy contributed equally, the contrbetion by

. 250+ x

each boy '" -~~ n

With two boys backing out, contribution by each boy will be 250+ x


It . . th I 250 + x 250 + x 3

. Isg1vem' .aJ., --- - ---=

n-2 n

=> (250 + xl [-. _1_ -~] = 3

11.-2 11

=> (250 + xl 2 = 3{n - 2) n

::::!> 3tf-'6n- 500-2x,," 0 •• - •• - (1)

Since the cost of the football, ill rupees, was an integer, (6)2 - 4(3) (- 500 - 2x) must be a psrtect square l.s., in a:i + .bx + c = 0, tl- 4ac has to be a perfect square. or. 36 + 12(500 + 2xl has to bea perfect square. Or, 6036 + 24x has to be a. perfect square,

Now 782 = 6084

:. 6036 + 24x '" 6084 x=2

Since 6036 and 24x are both even, therefore the sum must be the perfect square of an even number 802 = 6400 and 822 '" 6724

For 6036 + .24x ,= 6400 we get x", 364 which is not an 24

688 integer. Again for 6036 + 24x '" 6724 we get x ;;;;


which is more than 20.

Therefore the cost of the football is Rs.252.

Alternative solution:

Len the cost of the football be C and Une number of boys initially be n.

Hence _£_-Q = 3 n-2 n

=> C{n - n + 2} = 3 ::::!> C = 3n{n - 2)

n{n-2) 2:

But 250 ::; C :::; 270, and n is a natural number. Hence. by trial and error. we get n = 14 andl G

'" 3(14) (14 - 2) '" 252 Choice (2)


49. From equation (1).

I~M;;;; 4.5W,


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53, Expressingl a, c, d and e in terms of b, we get

4 3 5 5

a '" - b, c'" - b, d" - b and €I" - b.

5 4 4 6

Now substituting b" 60 k(LCM of 5, 4 and 6) we get a " 48 k, b", 60 k; c", 45 k; d", 75 k and e", 50 k

Now, by choosine an appropriate value of k; each of the ihree choices can be made equal to an integer. Hence,

choice 4 is the answer. Choice (4)

54. In order that the floor can be covered (without gaps or overlaps), the internal angle and also the external angle of the regular polygon (~n degrees) have to be a factor of 36,0 greater than or equal to 60 and ~ess than 180, There are 3 such posslblilties for the internal an'gles (60. 90,. 120) and the correspondna external angles are

(120,90 and 60), Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 55 a:nd 58:

This question can be solved using a diagram wherein we can plol values of x o:n the x-axls and those of y on a perpendicular axis,

55. Since p '" q, the sample space is the square shown below and the favourable outcomes are shown by the shaded region (within the sample space and satisfying y> 2x}.

The required probabil:ity '" Area of triangleOMN

, Area of square OABM

The required probabHity Is 1/4.

r:__ --I_"':;"x

o P A

Choice (2)


Since, we are referrirng to the proba.bility of y.> 2,5'" 0.6 (i.e., > 0.5), the line y " 2x should divide the sample space (a rectangle of height q and width p) such that the area enclosed in the sample space above the line v= 2x is 0.6 nrnes tne total area of tlhe sample space. U q » 2p, the sample space would be as shown below. The shaded area 'Would re !J resent the favourable outcomes.

The probability that y> 2x would be Area of quadrilateral ONBM

Area of rectangle OABM

'" p[q+(q~2p)1/2 =P(q~P)=I-£.=O.6

pq pq q

. £"'04"'£

"q . 5

To I
0 P B

..... x


Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 57 to 65:

.57. a_'.: 40, .b :> 60 and C'': 20 Since b> 60, - b .: -60

r. a - b + C <:: 40 - 60 + 20 or, a - b + c-c 0

ChoIce (1) gives a - b ... c <: - 10, whici'n is not false. C'': 20

:::> 3c <: 60 -3c>- 60

.', b - 3c > 60- 60

oro - 3c > 0, thus, choJce (2) is not false 2c.: 40

b » 60,


:. 2c- b « 40,- 60

or, 20 - b <: -2,0, thus choice (3) is not false.

Therefore none of th.e four choices is definitely false.

Thuscholce (4) follows, Choice (4)

.58. Let the time taken by both A and B to do the work oe mdays.

:.A 'takes (m + a) days 'to do Ihe work and B takes m + b days to do it.

1 1 1


m+a m+b m

m(2m + a + b) " rrf + ma + mb + ab rrr '" ab or, m" Jib

Therefore both together can do the work in J18 (8) " 12 days.

to" (5)th

In 10 days, they will complete _ or - of the total

12 6


1 th

So, C does Ihe remaining - of Une work. 6

Thus G gets _!_ (18000)" R.s.3000 Choice (3)



1 5 :::> f3(1) " --" - 3 8 1+-


Hence, the percentaqe change in th.e value of fn(x) decreases as n increases.

Now, when n is large fn{x) =' _

1 + fn(x)

Lei f"ex) '" y 1

.'. Y= -l+-.-y

l+y-1"0 -1:1:-.h+4 y,,- _....:..._


.J5 -1

Since y> 0, therefore y" . .


y== 0.618.

Choice (2)

'60.500 - 23 ;;;; 477 persons knew at least one of the six languages.

Among these, Ie! the number of persons who k:new a[1 the six languages be x and the number off persons who

"'''''''''''''== "'''''''''''''_====''''''''''''''''= "''''=''''''''''''''''''='''''''''=''''''''''''''''''''''''=''''''''''''''' "''''~''''''''';ii''''''''''''''':::;'''='''='''''''''=''''''='''='''=''''''='''=='''''''''===''''''''''''='''=

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did not know at least one of the six languages be y i.e., x ... 477-y.

If x has to be mlmrnum, y has to be maximum.

Now y will be maximum, when persons who did not know anyone of the six Ilanguages am completely disfinct from the persons who did not know anyone of the remaining five languages.

Persons who did not know English;;; 477 ~ 460'" 17 Persons who did not know Hindi '= 477 ~ 435 = 42 Persone who did not know Bengali '= 477 - 410" 67 Persons who did not know Tamil", 477 ~ 390 '" 87 Persons who did not know Telugu = 477 - 375 =102 Persons who did not know Marathi '" 477 -345 = 132 Therefore minimum number of persons who knew all the six languages is''' 477 ~ {17 + 42 + 67 + 87 + 102 + 132) ",477~447=30.

Alternative solution:

477 persons knew at least one of the six languages Min ot n(Eng n HI) ::: 460 + 435 - 477 ::: 418

Min of n(Eng n HI n B) '" 418 + 410 - 477 '" 351

Min of n(Eng n HI n B n Ta) ::: 351 + 390 ~ 477 '" 264 Min of n(Eng n H n B n Tan Te) =264 + 375~477= 162 Min of n(Eng n HI n B n Ta n Te n M)

'" 162 + 345 ~ 477 '" 30

Therefore the minimum number of persons who knew

all the six languages was 30. Choice ('I)







-, ,

" I ~ I

\ I



IB 2 Y 3 C

Area of the triangle ABC '" .~ (AB) (Be) sin LB 2:

'" ~ (AB) (AC) sin LA::: ~ (AC) (BC) sin LC

2 2

Area of b,XYZ '" area of C!.ABC - (Area of t..AXZ + Area of t..BXY + Area of C!.CYZ)

AreaofMXZ ~{AX)(AZ)SinLA (AX) (AZ)

AreaofMBG'" ..!.{AB)(AC)SinLA '" AS AC


S· "I i AreaofC!.BXY - (BX) (BY]

Im!ary, - - -

AreaofMBC BA Be

'" G] (~) '" 365

Areaof aCYZ: (CYJ (CZ) (3) (2) 2

AreaofMBG '" CB CA '" '5 '3 ::: '5

Therefore Areaof t:.XYZ Areaof 6ABC

=_ (20+18+42)=1_.!§.. ~~.

5x7x3 21 21

Choice (3)

'62. L.et the number of bouquets of type A and type B sold by Rajnikant be x and y respectiv,ely ..

Total number of orchids sold '" 4x +- 2.11 where as the total number of roses sold::: 9x + 3y.


4x + 2y", 100 ---- (I) 9x + 3 Y '" 200 ----- (2)

. 50 50

Solvinq (1) and (2), we get x::;; - , y == -

3· 3

Since ths number of bouquets that he sellsot each type cannot be a fraction. let us consider x "" 16 and y '" 16. They add ILIP to Orchids




BOSeS 16(9) ·16(3) ·192

He still needs to sen at least 4 orchids and at least 8 roses. He can sell them iin either 1 type A bouquet.


3 type B bouquets

i.e, he sells either 17 itype A bouquets and 16 type B bouquets or 16 type A bouquets and 19lype B bouquets. l.e. 1 (10 orchids and 201 roses costing RS.1356

or 102 orchids and 201 roses costing Rs.1359 .. Themfore, he realized at least is Rs.1356.

Choice (2)

63. LeI the number of cats be c.

Number of mice eaten by each cat must be more than c say c + k.

Total number of mice", c(c + k) '" 999919

The nearest pertect square is (1000)2::: 1000000. Now 99919 '" 1 0000 - 81 ., (1 OOO)z - (9)2

'" (1000 + 9) (1000 - 9) ::: (1009) (991}

Each cat eats more mice than the total number of cats present. So, there were 991 cats and each cat eats 1009 mice. This is the only possible solution as both

991 and 1009 are prime numbers. Choice (4)

64. Initially the volume of water in D, is more than the volume of water in D2 by 60%

Let the capacities of the drums D, and D2 be V, and V2 respectively.


.', VI '" V2 + _"_. (V2)


Let V2 be 5k, therefore V, '" 8.k

. Bk

Rate at whIch water leaks from V, '" - and the rate at 6

which water leaks ffrom V2 == 5k


Le! the time attar which the volume of watsr lefit in D" becomes 25% mors than the volume of water left in D, be t.


In time t, water leaking out of D, '" -t and the water 6

. 5k

leaking out of D2 ",_:_t 9

Therefore the water left in D, '" 8k - 8k t and the water '6

left in D2 '" 5k_5k r 9

Now, ~ (8k- 86k tJ ::: ('Sk- 59k tJ

5- %1 ~:} (8-~t)

5 5

Or 5- -/= 10--1

'9 3

Or ~I~ ~t =5 '3 9



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Or, -t == 1 9

Or, t == 4.5 hams.

Choice (2)


One can wear the rings in 3 wa.ys.

1. One ring on each of the 3 fingers,

2. 2 rillgs on one finger and 11 ring on another.

3. All 3 rings on a single finger.

Case I: (111) The 3 fingers can be chose in 5C3ways .. Now 3 rings can be arranged in those 3 fingers in 3! ways. Total 3t ~C~ == 60, ways.

Case II: (2" 1, 0) The 2 fingers witil riings can be chosen 5C2 ways. Among them the finge:r with 2 Irings in 2CI or 2 ways. Then the 2 rings on til at finger can be chossnin :JC2wayS and arranged in thai finger in 2! ways. Total5C2 2C, ~C2 (2t)::: 1120 ways.

Case III: (3,0, 0) The Jiinger can be chosen in 5C, ways and the 3 rings arranged on iit in 3! ways.

Total == 5C1 3! == 30 ways

Total number of ways == 120 + 60 + 30 == 210

Case I Case II Case nI


Alternative solutio:n:

There are 5 places for the first ring.

Now for each way ill which one' wears the lSI ring, the second ri'ng can be worn in 6 ways, for there are 6 places for the 2nd ring.

\\ 1/

Similarly after wearing 2 rings, the situation would be as either.


\\jll \\tl/

In each case there are 7 places for the 3rd ring. So total number of ways", 5 x 6 x 7 '" 210 ways.

Alternate II : let the number of rinQ1s in the five fingers be represe:nted by a, b, c, d, e respectively.

Now, a+ b+ c+ d « e== 3,where a, b, c, d, e> O.

Number of non-neqative integral solution for a + b + c + o» e:=: 3 is 3+5-'C5_1:= 704", 703"" 35

Since, the rings are distinct, so they can be arrange among themselves in 3! ways.

Total 35 (6) '" .210 ways. C hoiee (4)

Dif(Jcuftv level wise summarv ~ Section III
I Level of Difficulty Questions
Very Easy -
Easy -
I Medium 48,49,51,,52, 53, 57,58,,63, 64
Difficult 46,47,50,54,59,60,61,62,65
Very Difficult 55,.56 SECTION ~I Number oti'Questions ~ 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 3: In each question, there are five sentences or paris of sentences thaI: form a. paragraph. Identify the sentencets), Of partsis) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of 'grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

1. (A) The fact that Japan and Korea have so far resisted the Great Disruption

(B) is testimony for the power of cuhura to shape economic choices.

(el Both countries, have shown strong cultural preferences for more fraditional female roles,

(D) and bolh retained discriminatory formal laws that make it less likely for women to enter the workforce,

(E) Particularly in Korea, Confucianism gives broad

support to the patriarcnel family.

(1) A and E (2) A, C and E

(3j B" C and D (4) D and E (5) E only

2. (A) Present European lanquaqes emphasize on

time distinctions.

(B) The tense systems are thought of usually (0) as the most basic of verbal inflections. (D) However this was not always so.

(E) Steinberg says that in primitive lndo-European lang'uages special indicator of the present was usually lacking.

(1) A and D (2) A and B (3) B, Cand D

(4) Only C (5) E only

3. CA) Skinner's treatment of the notions "leisure" and "work"

CB) give an interestina insight into the behaviounst system of beliefs ..

(0) He asserts that the level of an o:rganism's activity depends on its environmental hlstory of reinforcement

(D) and that an organism willi range between vi'gorous activity and complete queiscence depending upon the schedules on which it has been reinforced.

(E) According to Skinner. people are at leisure if they'd have I ittleto do.

(1) A and C (2) A, C and D (3) Band C

(4) B, 0 and E (S) 0 and E

DIRECTIONS for questions 4 to 6: In each question there are f~ve sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases ihat are italicised and highl~ghted, From the italicised and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s). Select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Them from the options given, choose the best one.

4. Ironically, the book was a best-seller inspits of its occasions of bathos (Al I pathos (B).

The lack of equipment compelled us to improve (A) / improvise (8).

The opponent's pitying (.A) / piteous (B) look was even more painful than my defeat,

The proposal was eventually (A) I subsequentfy (B) rejected as the majority wasa.gainst it.

Most psychological disorders do not affect the perceptible (Aj I perceptive (8) abilltles,


(4) ABABB (5) B8ABA

5. He impressed every ollie at the party with his urbanized (A) I urbane (B) demeanour.

The latter part of the sentence which is adverse (A) / adversative (8) clear~y negates the author's claim. Her lovely (AJ I loveable (B) ~i.tlle blue eyes would captivate anyone.

With open arms the brave knight weloomed the quietude {A} I quietus (8) and stepped into the world of eternal glory.

Considerinq the statements made by the minister an insult, the opposition irrupted (A) I erupted (B),


(4) ABBBB (5) BBBM

6. Individualism (A) / lndiviai,iaJity (B) coupled with responsibility seldom leads to anarchy,

The speaker had to intertere (A) I intervene (B) as the situation seemed to get out of hand, Contempof'ary (A) / Contemporaneous (8) art n.ever fails to impress even the lover of classical art.

A few crystalline substances am absolutely insoluble (A) I indissoluble (8) in water,

With no proper ventilation, the atmosphere in the hospital was noise (A) J noisome (B).

(1) ABAAB (2) BBAAB {3) MBBA


DIRECTIONS for questions 7 to W:ln each question, there are 'five sentences/paraprapbs. The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and needlto be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.

7. A. nne United States Supreme Court has upheld Ihe three-drug protocol in lethal injections for capital punishment applied ill 36 slates" besides the federal govemment;thus lifting a seven month de facto moratorium on executions.

B, The contention of the two death row inmates in Kentucky State was that the administration of pancuronium bromide, the paralytic, carried the rusk of excruciating pain in the event of inadequate dosage -of the anaesthetic sodium thiopental. They maintained that the continuation of the current protocol was a violation of the bar on cruel and unusual punishment under the Eighth Amendment to the U.S, Constitution,

C. Yet the divergent opinions expressed in the ruling on the constitutionality of the drug regimen and on Ihe deterrent value of the death penalty itselt are hopeful pointers to the ultimate, if distant, goal of the abolition of this barbaric punishment.

D, Moreover, the plaintiffs' plea Ior the anesthetic to be administered in large amounts minus the other two drugs was overruled on grounds that such an alternative, wrnile applied to put animals to sl.eep, may not be the appropnats in the case of human beings.

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E. The judges were not unanimous on the gratuitous harm that could result from the maladiministration of the protocol, or on the preparedness of the KentucKy prison administration to ensure that inmates were rendered unconscious before the paralytic and cardiac drugs were injected.

(11) CBED (2) EBDC (3) BCED

(4) CBOE (5) BCOE

8. A. The most comprehensive study yet of the status of mammals on land and in marine environments, published recently in a popular' science journal, has revealed that, 1,141 species, representing one in four, ar-e threatened with extinction worldwide. Data for many others are deficient, but they are also at considerable risk.

B. The Western Ghats in India with their hi:gh species endemism constnute a hotspot; in Southeast Asia, primates are extremely threatened; globally animals ranging trorn shrews to elephants and whales are distressed.

C. The major tool it has crafted for biodiversity protection is the Red List, which flags indlvtdual species as vulnerable, critically endangered and so on. Yet, the effects of key Iactors - habiitat fragmentation and loss, hunting, and climate change - on listed species are growing more serious.

D. The IUCN resolved at the World Conservation Congress in Barcelona recently that it would work with governments, civil society and the private sector towards a sustainable future.

E. This is unambiguous evidence emerging from the five year study led by the lntemafional Union for Conservation 0,1 Nature and. Natural Resources, better known as the IUCN which has the monumental task 01 helping governments take the right steps to avert more extinction ..

(11) SECD (2) EBDC (3) ECDB

(4) aacc (5) CE:OB

9. A. The medieval period saw significant changes in the art and architecture dedicated to eternal concepts.

B. By the 7th and Slh centuries, it was the intellectuall quest that came to the fore. The eternal concepts and qualities within people wefe stucreo in detail and complex pantheons of deities were created in different faith to personify these.

C. The purpose of ancien! ant was always to help One lose one's ego, and so [personalities were not depicted (with the exception 01 the period of the rule ou the Kushanas, who came from Southern China).

O. The art depicted the dynamism of the intellectual endeavours of the time.

E. By the s" cernury, a few portraits 0'1 kings had been made under the Pallavas ln what is present day Tamil Nadu. Earlier art: had presented the gentlest in images, steeped in the grace of compassion, to dissolve one's ego and transport one t,hrough sublime love.

(1) SC'ED (2) CBE:D (3) DCBE:

(4) EDI3C (5) CEBD

10. A. Imperial history is replete with revelations about the evil capabilities of the human race, as is evident in the genocide of the natives in Africa and America, the holocaust accompanied by unimaginable fascist brutalltles, the two world wars and now the violence unleashed in West Asia.

S. If not Pax Britannica, then it is Pax Americana.

C. This crisis in imperial history Js stubbornly located in the structures of technoloqical dominance, military violence and ideological legitimatioll.

D. lihe wars waged by the West are an example of this deop-seated aggressi,ve behaviour in the Western psyche wherein lies the supremacist attitude of setting goals for the world.

E. European violence is evident in its poliitical and economic adventures, in the very savagery that lies under the veneer off civilization as is apparent in the art of Picasso and Gauguin, which reflects the dark side of the European man.

(1) COES (2) COBE (3) CEOB

(4) DCEB (5) DECB

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15.: Read the following passage and answer' the questions that follow it

According to Senator Jim Bunning, the proposal to purchase $700bn of dodgy debt by the U.S, governmel1lt "is financial socialism, it 'is un-American". The economics professor Nourisl ROUJbini cated George Bush, Henry Paulson and Ben l3ernanke" a troika of Bolsheviks who turned the U.S.A. into the United Socia.iist State RepUJblic of America", Bill Perkins, the venture capilalist who took out all ad in the New York Times attacking the plan, called it "trickle-clown communism".

They are wrong. Any subsidies eventually given to the monster banks of Wall Street will be as American as apple pie and obesity. The sums demanded may be unprecedented, but there is nothin!l new about the principle: corporate wellare is a consistent feature of advanced capitalism. Only one thing has changed: Congress has been forced to contront its contradictions.

One of the best studies of corporate welfare in the U.S. is published by myoid enemies at the Cato Institute. Its report, by Stephen Slivinski, estimates that in 2006 the federal government spent $92n subsidizing business. Much of it went to major corporations such as Boeing, IBM and Gene rail Electric ..

The biggest money crop - $21 bin - is harvested by Big Farmer. Slivillski shows that the richest 10% of subsidized farmers took 66% of the payouts. Every tew years, Congress or the administration promises to stop this swindle, then hands even more state money to agribusiness. The farm bill passed by Conlgress in May guarantees 'farmers a minimum of 90% of the income they've received over the past two years, which happen to be among the most profitable they've ever had .. The middlemen do even better, especially the companies spreading starvation Iby turning maize into ethanoll, which are guzzling billions of dollars' worth of tax credits.


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Slivinski shows how the federal government's Advanced Technology Program, which was supposed to support the development of technologies that are "pre-competitive" or "I'lig:h risk", has instead been captured by big businesses flogging proven products. Since 1991, companies such as IBM, General Electric, Dow Chemical, Caterpillar, Ford, DuPont, General Motors, Chevron and Monsanto have extracted hundreds of millions from this programme. Big business is also underwritten by the Export Import Bank: in 2006, for example, Boeing alone received $4.5bn in loan guarantees.

The government runs something called the Foreign Military Financing programme, which gives money to other countries to purchase weaponry from U.S. corporations. It doles out gralnts to airports for building runways and to jjishing companies to help them wipe out endangered stocks.

But the Cato Institute's report has exposed only part of the corporate welfare scandal. A nsw paper by the U.S. Institute for Policy Studies shows that, through a series of cunning tax and accounting loopholes, the U.S. spends $20bn a year subsidizing executive pay. By disguising their professional fees as capital gains rather than income, tor example, the managers of hedge funds and private eqtuity companies pay lower rates of tax tihan the people who clean their offices. A year ago, the House of IRepresentatives tried to close this loophole, but the bill was blocked in the Senate attar a lobbying campaign by some of the richest men in America.

Another report. by a group called Good Jobs First, reveals that Wal-mart has received at least$lbn of public money. Over 90% of its distribution centres and many of its retail outlets have been subsidized by country and local governments .. They give the chain free land, they pay for the roads, water and sewerage~equired to make that land usable, and they grant it property tax breaks and subsidies (called tax increment ffinancing) originally intended to regenerate depressed communities. Sometimes state govemments give the firm straight cash as well: in Virginia, for example, Wal-Mat1's distribution centres receive handouts from the Governor's Opportunity Fund.

Corporate welfare is arguably the core business of some government departments. Many of the Pentagon's programmes deliver benefits only to its contractors. Ballistic missile defence, for example, which has no obvious strategte purpose and is unlikely ever to work, has already cost the U.S. between $120bn and $150bn. The U.S. is unique among major donors in insisting that the food itt offers In aid is produced on its own soill, rather than in the regions it is meant to be hejping, U.S. Aid used fio boast on its website that "the principal beneficiary of America's foreign assistance programs has always been the United States. Close to 80% of the U.S. Aid's contracts and grants go directly to American firms." There is not and has never been a free market in the U.S.

Why not? Because the Congressmen and women now railing against: financial socialism depend for their re-eiection on the campaniles they subsidise. The legal bribes paid by these businesses deliver two short-term benefits for them. The first is that they prevent proper regulation, allowing them to make spectacular profits. and to generate disasters of the kind Conqress is now confronfing. The second is the public money ihat should be used to help the poorest is instead diverted into the pockets of the rich.

A report published last week by the advocacy group Common Cause shows how bankers and brokers stopped legislators banning unsustainable lending. Over the past financial year, the big banks spent $49m on lobbying and $7m in dir'ect campaign contributions. Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac spent $180m in lobbying and campaign finance over the past eight years. MiLIch of this was thrown at members 01 the House financial services committee and the Senate banking committee.

Whenever Congressmen tried to rein in the banks and mortgage lenders they were bloclked by the banks' money. Dick Durbin's 2005 amendment seekinq to stop predatory mortgage lending, lor example, was defeated in the Senate by 58 to 40. The former representative Jim Leach proposed re-requlaflnq Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac. Their lobbyists. he recalls, managed in "less than 48 hours to orchestrate both parties' leaderslnip" to crush his amendments.

The money these firms spend buys the socialization of financial risk, The $700bn the government was looking for was just one of the public costs of its repeated failure to regulate. i:::ven now the lobbying power of the banks has been making itself fellt: all Saturday the Democrats watered down their demand that the money earned by executives ot companies rescued tly the government be capped. Campaign ffinance is the best investment a corporation can make. You give a million dollars to the right man and reap a billion dollars' worth of state protection, tax breaks and su'bsidies. When the same thing happens in Africa we call it corruption.

European governments are no better. The free market economics they proclaim are a can; they intervene repeatedly on behalf of the rich, while leaving everyone else to fend lor themselves, Just as in the U.S" the bosses of farm companies, oil drillers, supermarkets and banks capture the funds extracted by government from the pockets of people much poorer than themselves, Taxpayers everywhere should roe askingl the same question: why the hell should we be supporting them?

(3) the author condemns government policies which favour the rich at the expense of the poor. (4) the author denounces state subsidies and welfare s,pendings.

(5) the author reviles big businesses which are steeped in corruption.


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111. It can be inferred from the passage that

(1) the author berates those who call tine U.S. government communist.

(2) the author does not believe that free market or capitalism is beneficial to society.

12, The 'socialization of financial risk' in the context of the passage, refers to

(1) regu~ating according to the theory and practices of socialism,

(2) passing on the 108S lncurred to the public.

(3) getting the support of the people before taking financial risks.

(4) obtaining the government's permission before undertaking risky ventures,

(5) risky investments undertaken by banks with its customers money.

13. The author refers fio the reports of the Cato Institute and others to show that

(1) corporates do more harm than good to society. (2) big business have been behind the successful

wOuking of democracy in America.

(3) lobbying in the Congress by corporates is unique to America.

(4) the American government Ihas always tried to ensure the successfuil working of free mariket.

(5) the big corporates and the Congress have always been hand in gllove.

14. 'Congress has been forced to confront its contradictions' because

(1) the issue has attracted a lot of negative publicity. (2) the sum involved is larger than any paid out so


(3) the banks have been on a collision course ..

(4) Congressmen have been accused of accepting bribes.

(5) funds have been mis-appropriated.

15. As inferred from the passage, what might lead to the proper functioning of corporales?

(1) Non-i'nteriference by the government. (2) An end to corporate lobbying

(3) An end to subsidies and welfare schemes. (4) Appropriate governmental regulla'tions.

(5) Complete freedom to corpoates to further their g:o.alls.

DIR.ECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Read the rollowing passage and answer the questions that fol.low it.

Anti-science movements nave burgeoned ln recent years, the ideas behind th:em are not new. In the early part 'of the 20th century, Stephen Toulmin, identified five themes which recur again and again at every stage of the anti-science debate. These are humanism, individualism, imagination, 'quality versus quantity', and the abstract character of scientific ideas and inquiries,

The idea of humanism can be traced back 'to Socrates, who emphasized the primacy ot social, ethical and humane issues, and was healthily skeptical about the, possibility of totally reliable, objective scientific know~edge. So it was with Michel de Montaingne and the humanists of the 1t31h century. Whije the scienttific 'ideas of the classical Greeks had survived through the Middle ages, the humanists had to rediscover the poets, essayists, historians, and tragedians of antiquity. In doing so, they made a unique contribution to European sensibility. 'The humanists tended! - like the romantics of the early nineteenth century - to go on and pillory the scientist for being indifferent, and even callous, about humane issues,' writes Toulmin, They did so 'with the same kind of passion as any of todav's anti scientists denouncing nerve gas research or the alliance between official science and the military-industrial complex.

Individualism is another characteristic claimed uniquely for lliterature and the arts by the enemies of science, because these activities give scope to the individual personality of the writer or artist 111 contrast, science is looked upon as a conformist activiity in whicll research workers riigidly suppress their personal and subjective vi:ews and uBelings in favour of communally imposed orthodoxy. As we nave seen, this is by no means totatty true, but the companson with the arts is accurate and scientists themselves certainly make a virtue of the objective character of their work. Close!y connected with the theme of individualism is that of irnaqlnatlon. Science (the argument runs) is based on mechanical and stereotyped modes of inquiry, which tend to starve creativity and the imagination. Again, although much normal breadand-butter science is pursued on this basis, creativity akin to that of the artiist is important at the major tuminq points of research. Ibut scientists disgUJise the fact when presenting and discussing tthe~r research findings, To that extant, scientists are indeed peculiar people, who make a virtue of denying their own creativity.

The fourth theme, quality versus quantity, was emphasized by Goethe in particular. It stems from scientific method. lihe scientist concerns himself only with the common features shared by many individual things, organisms, phenomena ~ and in the last resort with statistical ave:rages and measurable units. This leads him to neglect individual differences and to ignore qualitative variations, Perhaps the starkest modern example is the sociology of mass observation, accordinq to which one can gain an axhausnvs account off society and groups within society simply by counting heads, totting up salaries. sampling opinions by national opinion poll. One of the grea.test contributions to this interpretation of science was Isaac Newton's 'Philosophiae Naturali::: Principia Mathematica', 8J quarter of a million words on the laws of motion, the mathematical analysis of motion, and the movement of heavenly bodies, which Ihe believed to have established tihat the universe was made by a Rationall Being. As seen by the romantics, writes Toulmin, Newtonian science was gui~ty off 'i'gnming the individual, of subordinating qualitative differences to quantitative uniformities, of killing the animal whose life it pretended to explain, of breaking up into a spectrum (and so destroying) the whiteness of mght, which needed rather to be studied in its primal integrity, and $0 on.' On the romantic view, scientists should cultivate more of the personal, humane insight into the world which good doctors b~ing to their individual patients. They should become not objective automata but artists of the lntetlsct, 'developing a feelling for the personality and uniqueness of each colour, leaf, human being, or meteorological event, without which he could not seriously claim to "understand if'.'


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The abstract character of scientific invest~ga[i(Jn is a related complaint. It is OM which probably comes closest to identifying the psychological traits which drive individuals to become scientists (if, as I suspect, such traits do exist). Scientist 'in general are unhappy about the untidiness of political, social and personal relationships in the real world, and find it difficult to take the actual course of events, or a particular problem, as they find it. 'They begin by imposing certain arbitrary theoretical demands and standards on the variety of mature, and ithey are then prepared to pay serious attention only to those aspects of nature which they choose to accept as "significant" .by those standards,' argues Toulrnln, ;A true humanism by contrast; will be prepared ito accept each new concrete situation in all its complexity and variety, as it arises, and deal with it accordingly.' It is this deficiency which has led to so many attacks on scientists and technologists for callous indifference to the broad, human implications of their work. For a group of scientists, it can be self-evident that their work is beneficial and should be accepted as such by the people likely to be affected. This is true almost trrespecnvs of ttl.e actual merits and osmsrjts of the work in question. Poring over tnelr maps and rainfall ligures., it can be self evident to the senior scientists of a chemical company that their new plant, bringing employment to an area by producing millions of plastic m~lk bottles, must have more water; that therefore a new reservoir will have to be constructed in a particular valley; and that the residents there will simply have to move, Scientists actually try~ng to be directly helpful can be equally blind to human factors - in offering a new synthetic food to the people ot a developing country, for example, or proposing a daring new surgical operation to the anxious parents. of a seriously ill child.

Each of the five dIfferent limbs of the anti-science movement cam, then, be traced back into history. With the tremendous successes of science over the past hundred years" however,they have been increasingly overshadowed, In particular, the revolutions wrought by science in medicine. agriculture, and manufacturing industry have persuaded people that science is a 'good thing'. More than that, because science has proved itself so overwhelrninqly, we tend nowadays to elevate the needs and explanations of SCience, quite wrongly, to a very high level indeed.

16. According to the passage, romantics accused Newtonian science of

(1) reducing everything in Nature to dry

mathematical laws,

(.2) being insensitive to social and ethical issues. (3) failing to study Nature in its entirety,

(4) claiming that the universe was made by a rational being.

(5) disregarding the uniqueness which is

characteristic of all things in the world.

17. In the phrase, 'it is this deficiency which has led to So many attacks on SCientists and technoloqlsts', the reference is to which deficiency?

(1) Callous attitude of scientists

(2) Scientists not being humane

(3) The narrow perspective of scientists (4) The psychological traits of scientists

(5) Scientists turning blind eye 10 the needs 01 society

18. In this passage, the author

(1) shows how the anti-science debate has lost its relevance in the last century.

(2) opines that the questions raised by anti-science activists remain unanswered till this day.

(3) tries to trace the historical precedents of the anti-science debate.

(4) captures the rnanner in which the recurrent theme in the anti science debate are related 10 each other,

(5) does all of t~e above.

19. We can understand from the passage that

(1) scientists do not like to admit that their wo:rk is a result of their imagination.

(2) research workers choose to suppress their personal and subjective views.

(3) in the last century, scientists have proved their critics wrong.

(4) humanists opposed the nerve 9as research tooth and nail.

(5) those who pursue bread and butter science do not challenge conventional wisdom.

20. The author has provided the example of a project worlk in a chemical company most probably to highlight the

(1) no nonsense approach of scientists,

(2) matter of tact behaviours of research workers. (3) practical nature of scientists.

(4) callous attitude of scientists.

(5) theoretical mindset of technologists.


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SECTION -II Number of Questions"" 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24,: Answer the questions on the basis of th,e intormadon given below.

Ms. Radiance went to a supermarket with her two bright kids Chotu and Motu. Chotu and MotiU were always proud of identifying fruits of special kind_ If a ffrult was eithet an apple or an mange, Chottu WOLJld always identify it correctly and if a Iruit was a mango or a guava or a watermelon, then Motu would always identily it correctly. In that supermarket, ifive baskets 01 fruits were there. In each basket, there were twenty fruits, which included at least one huit each of the above mentioned five types. Chotu ldentifled the fruits in each of the five baskets and came up with lhe following details.

Fruirt Basket I Basket II Basket III Basket Iv Basket V
Apple 5 2 1 2 7
Oran'ge 3 3 3 2 7
Mango 7 5 8 2 4
Guava 4 4 I ,2 :3 2:
Watermelon 1 6 I 6 11 0
Total 20 ,20 I 20 20 20 Motu, then identified the fruits in every basket and came LUp with foll!owing details,

Fruit Basket I Basket III Basket III Basket IV Basket V
Apple 5 11 2 2 9'
Orange 1 11 2 1 2
Mango 1 2 2 4 3
Guava 2 5 6 7 4-
Watermelon 11 11 8 6 2
Totall 20 20 20 20 20 21_ Find the least possible number of watermelons in all the baskets put together.

(1) 38 (2) 28

(3) 35 (4) 31

(5) 25

2.2_ Which of the following statements is definitely false? (1) The number of mangoes in basket IV is 1.

(2) The number of mangoes in basket IV is 3.

(3) The number 01 apples in basket I is 3.

(4) The number of watermelons in basket II is 9. (5) None ou the above

23. If the number of guavas in basket IV is '6, then find the numbe:r of oranges in basket IV_

(1} 2

(2) 1

(3) 3

(4) Oannot be determined (5) Data inconsistent

24. With the given intormatlon, in how many of 'the tlve baskets can the number of mangoes be detenmined correctly?

(1) 2

(2) 1

(3) 0

(4) 3

(5) MOie than 3

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28:' Answer the questions om the basis of the information given below.

The F~FA World Cup Football tournament in 2006 had the 32 partidpating countries divided into eight groUJps ~ A to H. Each group had four teams, with each team playing all the oiher teams in the group exactly once. The top two teams in each group advance to the pre-quarters, l.e., the round of '16, from where onwards the tournament is played in the knock-out format, except when the losers of the semi-finals are not eliminated but instead play each other for the 3,d place. The different teams in each group and the fixtures for the SUbsequent matches are as follows:

Group A Group B GroUipe Group 0
Germany Englarnd Argentina Mexico
Costa Rica Paraguay Ivory Coast lran
Poland Trindad and Tobago Serbia Angola
Ecuador Sweden Holland Portugal Group IE; Group F G:roup G Group H
Italy Brazil France Spain
Ghana Croatia Sw~tzerland Ukraine
USA Australia South Korea TLjnisia
Czech Republic Japan Togo Saudi Arabia Trt~~ph~~tlr;'.rtit~~=ofM~~~g:~~~1Educ~tf;n=P~ttd.=(TJ~M:E:rHO~9~B~2~FI;o~~sfdd~~~e~ty=C,;',~plex~S~~~d~·~b:cr~500003.==

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The format of the matches in the knock-out stage

Round of ~6

Group A winners Vs Group BRunner-up

Group C winners Vs Group 0 Runne~-up

Group 0 winners Vs Group C Runner-up Winner

25. The total number 01 matches in the tournament is

(1) 55 (2) 63 (3) 64

(4) 56 (5) None of these

26. II Brazi:l reached thelinals, which of the lollowing could be the teams that it beat in the quarterfinals, i.e., the round 018? (1) Croatia (3) South Korea (5) Japan

(2) Czech Republic (4) U.S.A.

27. II it was known that one match of the tournament was between Czech Republic and Ukraine, it could have taken plaoe in the

I. Semi-finalls III. Round of 8

Ill. Round of 16 IV, Finals

(1) Only lor IV (2) Only lor II

(3) Only I, II or 1111 (4) Only lor III

(5) Only I, II or IV

28. If Argentina was the loser in the finals" whidh of the fo'lIowlng is definitely not the winner of the tournament? (1) U.S.A. (4) Tunisia

(2) Japan (5) France

(3) Paraguay

DIRECTIONS for questions .29 to 33: Answer the questions on the basis of lihe information given below.

FOllr persons A, B, C and D are playing a game of blindly picking the balls from a bag. This bag contains five balis" each of a different colour amonq Red, Green, Blue, Yellow and White, and these f.ive balls fetch 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 points respectively. The game is being played in four rounds. In each round, each person randomly takes out one ball from the bag and places it back into the bag. Based on the colour of the ball, they have been given points as mentioned above. Further il jis known that,

(i) each Iball was picked by at least one person and each Iball was picked a different number of times.

Round of 16

3'" place

Group E winners Vs

Group F Runller-up

Group G winners Vs

Group H Runner-up

Group H winners Vs

Wilmer Group G Runner-up

(ii) none of A, Band C picked the same ball in any two rounds and the maximum points scored by any of A, Band C in all the four rounds put together are 12. (iii) arnonq the four rounds, the maximum points were scored in rouod III and A picked the white ball In round III.

(iv) in each of rounds I, III and IV no two players picked the same ball,

(v) the points scored by A and tthal by B in all the lour rounds put together are equal.

(vi) the green ball was picked more number of times than the white ball. The sum of the points scored by A in round I and that scored by D in round IV is 5. (vii) one of the five balls contributed a score of 20 to the total points scored in all the four rounds put together,

29. Which ball did C pick in round IV?

(1) Red (2) White (3) Green

(4) Blue (5) Cannot be determined

30. What is the sum of the points scored by A in round IV and that by Bin round II?

(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 6

(4) 4 (5) Cannot be determJned

31. Which ball was picked exactly three times?

(1) Green (2) Yellow (3) Blue

(4) Red (5) Cannot be determined

32. Who picked the blue ball in round IV?

(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) 0 (5) Blue ball was not picked

33. How many times was nne yellow ball picked in all the four rounds put together?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3

(4) 4 (5) Cannot be determined


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01 RECTIONS for questiorls 34 to 37;' Answer the questions on the basis of the information gwen below,

The following pie-charts give the information regarding the mea wise distribunon of the number of t-rnark and 2·mark. questions in a test and also the area wise distribution of the marls obtained by Ramesh, a student whlo appeared for the test. nile test corrprised only 1-marrk and 2-mark quesnons.

Distribution of the number of t-mark questions across six sections

QA 15%

VA .20%


Distribullion of the number of 2-mark questions across six sections


VA 30%

QA 20%



Distribution of the total marks obtained by Ralillesh across six sections


VA 15%

5% 01


LA 25%


(i) No nsqativs mark was given for any wrong attempt or for any question left unattempted. (iiI A total of 500 questions were asked ln the test out of which 80 questions were born QA. (iii) Total marks of Ramesh in the test = 300.

·34. The total number of t-rnark questions attempted correctly by Ramesh cannot be

(1) 284 (2) 282 (3) 286

(4) 280 (5) 278

35. The maximum possible total marks in the test are

(1) 600 (2) 650 (3) 700

(4) 750 (5) 800

36. The minimum number of questions which Ramesh could [have attempted in DI is

(1) 25 (2) 15 (3) 14

(4) 16 (5) 24

37. Which of the following statements is defirlitelly true regarding the performance 01 Hamesh in 1119 test?

(1) The number of 2-ma~k questions attempted correctly in QA ls more than that in 01

(2) The number of 2-ma~k questions attempted correctly in DI is less than thai in LA.

(3) The number of 2-ma~k questions attempted correctly in RC is more than that in DI.

(4) The nernoer of t-rnark questions attempted correctly in VA ls less than that in OS.

(5) None 01 the above

DIRECTIONS for questions 38 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the infmmati'on given below.

125 small unpainted cubes are arranged to form a large cube. All the six faces of the large cube are painted green. Nowa 3 x 3 x 3 cube, comprising 27 small cubes, is removed out of one off the corners of the ~arge cube. This 3 x 3 x 3 cube is now painted blue on all six faces, while all the three surfaces (each of which is a 3 x 3 square) of the large cube exposed due to the removal of the 3 :x 3 x 3 cube are painted black. Then. th:e 3 x 3 x 3 cube is put back in its original position in the large cube and the larqe cube is finally painted yellow on all six faces ..

38. What is the number of small cubes which have exactly' three faces painted?

(1) 8 (2) 16

(4) 19 (5) 15

39. What is the number of small cubes with exactly one tace painted? (1) 36 (4) 45

(3) 18

(2) 39 (5) 48

(3) 42

40. What is the painted?

(1) 1

(4) 4.

number of small cubes with no face

(2) 8 (5)12

(3) 10


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SECTION - III Number of Questions", 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 45: Answer the questions independently of each other.

41. If 2x + 3y> 6 and y - x > - 1, the sign of which of the following expressions can be uniquely determined?

A. 3x+ 7y

B. 4x+ l1y

C. x+y

(1) Only A and B (2) Only Band C

(3) Only C and A (4) A, Band C

(5) None of these

42. A said to B, I am four times as old as you were, when I was as old as you are now. If the sum of their ages (in years) is 104, find the age (i:n years) of B.

(1) 35 (2) 2() (3) 45

(4) 40 (5) 50

43. A circle is drawn taking the line joininq the points (7, 3) and (-17, -7) as diameter and another circle of radius 5 units is drawn with centre as (3, - 8). Find the number of common tangents to the two circles.

(1) Zero (2) One (3) Two

(4) Three (5) Four

44. The number of positive integers n, satisfying n3 - '16n ,_ 4rf + 64 ::; 0 is

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 0

(4) :3 (5) 2

45. A man broughtt a certain number of mangoes from the market and gave some of them to his three sons. To his eldest son, he gave one more than half the total number of mangoes, To his second son he gave two more than one-third the number of mangoes that remained after giving to his first son. To his third son he gave three more than one-fourth of the remaining mangoes. Now, after giving to his third son, if he was left with three mangoes, find the number of mangoes. that lie gave to l1is first son?

(1) 5 (2) 17 (3) 91

(4) 32 (5) 24

DIRECTIONS tor questions 46 to 4'8:" Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a competitive exam, there were 75 questions, where 4 marks were awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark was deducted for every wrong answer. No marks were awarded/deducted for unattempted questions.

46. If exactly n students, whose number of attempts were all different, got the same net score of 100 marks each, then what is the maximum possible value of n?

(1) 26 (2) 25 (3) 11

(4) 10 (5) None of these

47. If 1000 students wrote the exam, what is the minimum possible number of students each of whose net score is the same as that 01 at least one of the other students?

(1) 630 (2) 730 (3) 731

(4) 631 (5) None of these

48. What is the maximum possible number of students, each of who attempted a different number of questions, butt secured the same net score?

(1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 20

(4) 19 (5) None of these

DIRECTIIONS for questions 49 to 58: Answer the questions independently of each other.

49. If the 12th term of an arithmetic progression is 23_2.. and its 64th term is 136 22 , find the sum of

29 29

the first 75 terms of the progression.

(1) 1500 (2) 4500 (3) 6000

(4) 9000 (5) None of these


A is the set off first ten consecutive natural numbers .. Find the number of ways in which a subset B can be formed out of set A. such tha.l the sum of alii the elements in B is odd ..

(1) 51.2 (2) 507 (3) 320

(4) 352 (5)310


Th < h . .2 5 10 17 .

e sum all the senes 1+-+--2 +--3 +--4 + ... liS

11 11 11 t r

(2) 32 (3)363

25 250

17 (1) 14

(4) 228 175

154 (5) 125

In how many ways can 40 sweets be given to A, B,. C and D such that B gets at least three sweets and D gets at least five sweets while A and C mayor may not get any sweets?

(1) 4960 (2) ,6545 (3) 9139

(4) 12 (5) 15

53. What is the remainder when 7777 is divided by 28?

(1) 1 (2) 7 (3)3

(4) 21 (5) 25


54. A cubical block has an edge of 24 rn. It is ptaced on a floor such that one of its faces touches a wall.. A 70 rn long ladder is placed such that its top rests on trhe wall and its toot rests on the floor. If the ladder just touches an edge of the block, and the foot of the ladder is closer to the [bottom of tihe wall than its top is to the floor, find the height {in m} at which its top rests.

(1) 56 (2) ,60 (3) 45

(4) 50 (5) 40


If n is an odd multiple of 3, in how many ways can 2" be expressed as the product of 3 factors?

n2 (n+ 6)2

(1) n (2) 3 (3) 9

(n + 3)2 (4) -- 12

(5) (2n+3) 3

56. The indices of the highest: powers of 5 in N! and M! are 64 and 28 respectively. Find trhe maximum d~fference between the values of Nand M.

(1) 120 (2) 136 (3) 140

(4) 144 (5) 180


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57. If the sum of three distinct integers is 16, which of the following statements is true?

(1) To obtain the maximum or the minimum possible product, one of the three integers must be 5.

(2) To obtain the maximum or the minimum possible product, one of the three integers must be 6.

(3) The maximum possible product of the three integers is 150.

(4) More than one off the above. (5) None of these

58. There are liifty tickets numbered O(), 01, 02, 49.

I"f M and N respectiveliy dell ate the sum and the product of the digits on a ticket, what is the probability that a ticket having N '" 0 has M '" 9?

(1) 1 (2) ~ (3} .L

15 12 14

1 (4) 13

1 (5) 16

DIRECTIONS for questions 59 and 60: Answer the questions on tihe basis of the information given below.

Ram Kumar wantedl to come down ffrom the first floor to the ground floor of a shopping mall, whereas Kishore wanted to climb up from the ground noar to tine first floor. Both used the same escalator (a moving staircase) which was ascending from the ground floor to the first floor and both walked towards their respectiive

destlnailons. Both of them started simultaneously from the top and the bottom of the escalator respectiively and crossed each otoerattor exactly 21 seconds. If instead, Kishore had walked at 1f3rO of his speed while· Ram Kumar maintained his speed, they would have crossed each other after exactly 28 seconds from the start. Further, if both Ram Kumar and Kishore had climbed up from the grouncl floorto the first floor using the same ascenciing escalator, the number of steps taken by Kishore to reach the first floor would be 20% I:es$ than the n1.UmI:JH of steps taken by Ram Kumar lor the same.

59. II I were to stand still on the same escalator, how long would it take for tile escalator to take me from the ground floor to the first floor?

(1) 42 seconds (2) 63 seconds

(3) 84 seconds (4) WS seconds

(5) None off these

60. Ram Kumar walked down from the first floor to the glfOunci floor using the same esoalator. However, after some time the escalator stopped moving due to a power failure .. Find the total time taken by Ram Kumar to reach tihe ground floor, given that the time for which he walked on the moving escalato:r was the same as that tor which he walked on the stationary escalator.

(1) 25~ seconds


(3) 48 seconds (5) 70 seconds

(2) 37.!. seconds 3

(4) 56 seconds


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1. 1 7. 1
2. 4 8. 4-
3. 1 9. 5
4. 4 10. 3
5. 2 11. 3
6. 1 12.2 13.5 19. 1 25.3 31. 4 37,2 43. 3 49.3 55.4
14. 1 20. 5 26.3 32.2 38.3 44.1 50. 1 56.4
15.4 21. 4 27.2 33. 1 39.5 45.2 51. 5 57.5
16.5 22, 1 28.3 34,3 40,2 46. 3 52.2 58.3
17.3 23. 1 29.2 35,1 41. 1 47.4 53.2 59.5
18.4 24. 1 30.5 36. 1 42.4 48.2 54. 1 60.3 Solutions


Solutions for questions 1 to 3:


A and E are grammatically correct. In part S, an incorrect preposition 'for' is used after 'testimony'. The correct preposition to oe used is '10'. In C the first comma is incorrect; it is not required. In part 0 an error in parallelism can be seen. As part 'C' is in the present pertect tense, henos the part that follows ~t (D) cannot lake the simple past It should be 'both have retained.'

Choice (1)

In the fourth sentence, the correct word is 'subsequently' which mea.ns after something elise has happened. ~"' the sentence, tile rejection is the result of disapproval by the majority. 'Eventually' meansat 1he end of a period of time or a series of events - B,

In the fifth sentence, 'pe~oeptive' which means connected wilh seeing, hearing or understanding is correct. 'Perceptible' on me other hand means gr,eat enough for you to notice it - S. Hence AIBABB.

Choice {4}


The correct word in the uirst sentence is 'urbane' which means knowingl what to say and how to behave in social situations, 'Urbanized' means having a lot of towns, streets, factories, etc. - B.

In the seeond sentence, 'adversative' is. approprtate. Adversative refeus to a word or phrase expressingl something that is opposed to or the opposite of what has been said. 'Adverse' on the other Ihand refers 10 somethirngl negiative and unpleasant - B_

In the third sentence, 'Iovely' is appropriate. Lovely means beautful and appropriate. 'Loveable or lovable" means having qualities that people find attractive andl easy to love - A.

In the fourth sentence, the appropriate wordis'quiettus" wllich means death. It is clear from the sentence that the brave knight welcomed death with open arms, since his entry into a world of 'eternal glory' has been mentioned. 'Quietud'e' means the state of being calm and quiet - B.

In the fifth sentence, the correct word is 'erupted', 'Erupted" has the meaning of expressing one's feelings suddenly. strongly especially by shouting loudly. 'lnuptsd' means. to enter or appear somewhere suddenly and with a lot of force - B.. Hence BiBABB.


Sentence A is incorrect as the verb 'emphasize' does not take a preposition after it. It is correct to say 'emphasize something' and not 'emphasize on something.' Part 8 is incorrect as the adverb of frequency 'usually' should precede 'thought of: Adverbs such as generally, usually, etc, always precede tile verbs that they qualify. Sentence D is erroneous as t[here is no comma after 'however'. Sentence E is erroneous as the indefimte article 'a' should pIeced€) 'special indicator,' Ihe reference is general.

Choice (4)

41. 'Bathos' means a sudden change that is not always intended, from a serous subject or feeling 10 something that is silly or not important, Pathos on the other hand

refers to feerings of sadness and sympathy - A 6. 'Individualism' means the belief that individual people in

In the second ssntanos, the appropriate word is society should have the right to make their own

'improvlse' which means to make or do something using decisions etc., rather than be controlled by the

whatever is available, usually because you do not have government 'lndividuality' means the qualities that

what you really need. Since the lack of equipment is make somebody or something different from oihsr

mentioned here, 'improvise' is appropriate. 'Improve' people or things- A.

refers to make the same thing better than it was In the second sentence, the correct word is 'intervene'

before - B. which has a positive meaning, It means to become

III the third sentence, the appropriate word is 'pitying' involved in a situation in order to improve or Mlp it.

whicll means showin9 pity for somebody often in a way 'Interfere' means to get involved in and try to influence a

that shows mat you think -you are better than them. T[he situation that does not concern you, in a w.ay that

words, 'even more painful' in the- sentence clearly point annoys other people - B.

to the fact that the opponent's look was 'pitying' anc not In the third sentence, the correct word is 'contemporary'

'pileous' which means deserving or causing pity - A whicil means modem or be,longing to the present time.


A and Care correct. Part B is erroneous as the verb should be 'gives' as it qualifies 'treatment' (singular). Part D is erroneous as the correct spelling (queiscsnce) is 'quiescence'. Sentence E, has an error in the tense fmm. nne correctiorn is ' ..... .tt they have Ilittle to do'.

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 4 to 6.:

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Contemporaneous which is a synonym of contemporary means existing at the same time, but does not have the meaning 01 being modern - A.

In the fourth sentence, insoluble which means something that does not dissolve is right. lndissoluble means something (especially a relationship) that cannot be ended - A.

In the fifth sentence, the correct word is 'noisome' which means extremely unpleasant or offensive. 'Noisy' means full of noise.

Hence ABAAB. Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 7 to 10:

7. Statement A speaks about the lif1iing of tM ban on lethal injections for capital punishment. Statement C follows A by sta.ting that th:ere were divergent opinions On the lifting of the ban, Further, 'this barbaric punishment' in statement C refers to the administration of lethal injections. Hence AC. Statement B substantiates what is stated in C by citing tile example of two deaHl row inmates who expresseo an opinion on the lifting of the ban. Statement E carries the idea forward by stating that the~e was no consensus even among the judges, in this regard. Statement D concludes the paragraph with 'moreover'. D is more conclusive in tone,

Hence ED is better than DE. Choice (1)

8. Statement B, which substantiates th.e data given in A .by citing the example of the Westerln Ghats which are a hot spot for hig:h species endemism logically follows A. 'This is unambigUJous evidence' in statement E refers to the evidsnce of the endemism of wildlife mentioned in B. Statement 0 is a continuation 'Of E as it elaborates on the IUCN mentioned in") E. '1\' in 'C' refers to IUCN and he-nee it follows E. BEDC is thus the' logical sequence.

Choice (4)

9, nne paragraph proceeds in the chronological order.

Statement A speaks about the art in the medieval period or tile ancient period .. Statement C follows A by elaborating on ancient art, Statement E which talks about the 'portrait of kings' links to 'pensonalities' in statement C. Statement B which says that the focus of art during the 7111 and 8111 centuries was on intellectual quest contrasts with E which says that ancient art was steeped in compassion and grace. lherefore IB is a continuation of E, 0 sums up the paraqraph by stating

what art depicted. Choice (5)

10. Statement C is ideally the continuation of A as 'this crlsts in imperiall history' in C refers to the 'evil capabilities' mentioned in A. Statement E follows C linked by the reference to European violence mentioned in AC. Statement D w:ith 'wars waged' links to 'economic adventures' in E. Further 'the dsap-saatsd aggressive behaviour' is an elaboration on 'European violence' in E. Statement B complements D which states that the attitude of setting goals for the world lies in the Western psyche by sayimg it not Pax Brittanica, iii is Pax Americana (i.e., if not Britain it is America), Therefore CEDBis the logical. sequence.

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions '11 to 15:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for IRe:

Number of words 1,1167

11. TtTIe tons of the passage is critical and sarcastic. Choice it) lis incorrect be cause it: finds only a passing mention. Choice (2) is rather mild, Choice (4) is incorrect

because while the author denounces state subsides he is not criticuzing welfare spending (the bank ban out is not a welfars scheme). Choice (5) though true, is not the focus. Choice, (3) is t~e answer. It is the government and its lopsided policies that the author is attacking.

(Refer to line 1 of para 9). Choice (3)

12., Re'fer to the penullimate para which has the words im quote in tile first line. Soclallzatlon ~ere refers to spreading out to society. And what ls being spread out is the risks (and consequent losses) that the banks took .. The government is using the taxpayer's money to bailout the banks or passing on the losses to the

people. Choice (2)

13.. In paras 3, 4 and 5 the author points to the findings of the Cato Institute (and their report). In the subsequent paras he refers to the reports of others such as Good Job First. All these show how the government has used the taxpayer's money to benefit co:rporates because corporates lobby (and bribe), senators and men in the congress, The last 2 sentences off the penultimate paraqraph also summarise the idea across the passage. Hence the two are, and have been, hand in

glove. Choice (5)

14 .. The words ill quote occur at the end of para 2. lhe contradiotlon refers to the govt's continued subsidies even as they promise to stop the practice. The negative publicity has brought to ligilt: what has otherwise been

done quietly several times in the past Choice (1)

15., In para 10 the author points out that legal bribes paid by business to the parties prevents proper regulation. Hence proper regulation by tile government could solve the problem. Choice 3 is not appropriate since stopping subsides and weapons is not suggested - in fact subsides and welfare to the poor should continue - "public money that should be used to help the poorest is

instead being diverted". Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 161020:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:

Number of words. 1,054

1 G., Re'fer to the sentence 'As Seen by Ihe romantics ~ .•. ~ NewtOnian science was guilty of ._ •••.• and SO on", in the fourth para. The idea of ignoring the individual or subordinating qualitative difference to quantitative uniformities comes closest to option 5.

Choice (5)

17., Read the psnulfimate para where the sentence has appeared and the idea (abstract character of selentlfic investigation) has been discussed. The tendency of scientists paying attention to only those aspects of nature which are in line with tnelr theoretical demands and standards is a reflection ot their narrow perspective. They do 1Il0t take a realistic and holistic view. So,ttne deficiency refers to this practice of taking a narrow perspective which contributes to their callous

attitude Choice (3)

18" Chokes (1) and 12) find no support in the passage between choice (3) and (4j,option (4) liS pteferred because while he has touched upon the historical precedents of some thames (humanism and qualiity versus quantity), the historical origins, o,f the other themes have not been specified. However, the connection or the link between these themes have been discussed. So. (4) aptly summarises the essence of the

passage. Choice (4)


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19. R.efe~ to the last two sentences of the third para, where tlhe author refers to the peculiar habit of scientists, Choice (t) can be interred from tile para. The idea as presented in the same para negate options (2) and (5). Option (3) has not been suggested. Option (4) is distorted. Refer to the ~a:st sentence of the second para,

Choice (1)

20. Choice (S) is t~e best answer. The penultimate paragraph expjains hOw scrennsts prefer to stay with arbitrary theoretical standards since they are uncomfortable with social and personal re,lationships. While others may care them callous, the author

considers that they suffer a deficiency, Choice (51

Di:tficultv level wise summary .' Section I
Level of Oifficulfiy Questions
V:elV Easy ~
Easy 16
Medium 2,6,8,13,14,15,17,19
Difficult 1,4,7,11,12,18,20
V:elV Difficult 3,5,9,10 SECTION - II

Solutions for questions 21 to 24:

A", {Apple, Orange}

B '" {Mango,. Guava" Watermelon}

Chotu identifies fruits of set A correctly and Motu identifies fruits of set B corracnv.

Now, if we look at the given information.

Chotu: Identifies apples and oranges correctly i.e., if he looks at an apple, he identifies it as an apple and if he looks at an orange he will identify that as all orange and he cannot identify the other types of fruits properly l.e. if he looks at a guava, 118 may name it as an apple I mange l mango I guava I watermelon,

If Chotu says there are five apples in basket I, there are not more than five apples in basket 1 and slrnllarly in basket I, there are not more than 3 oranges. Butt from table I, we cannot say anything defimite about the other three varieties of fruits.

Similarly, from the second table, in basket I, Motu is saying there are 14 fruits of set B, the number of this set B fruits is at most 14 and Ihus that of set A fruits is at least 6,

Now by combining ths information from Chotu and Motu.

In basket I, there are at least six and at most eight fruits of set A and at least twelve and at most fourt:een fruits of set B.

Range of number of fruits

I Basket
Fruits IMin I lMax Min I Max Min I Max MinI Max MinIMax
A I 6/8 215 4/4 3/4 11/14
B I 12114 15/18 16f16 16/17 619 21. We have to make the number of watermelons as least as, possibls. For that, the number of total trults of set B must be as least as possible and the other varieties of fruits of set B must be as maximum as possible. In basket I, there must be only 12 fruits of set B, there call be at most 2 guavas and 1 mango.

:.Thene must be at least 9 watermelons. Similmly, in baskets II, III, IV and V there must be at least 8, 8, 5 andll wate-rmelons respectively. ., There are at .least31

watermelons on the whole. Choice (4}

22:. 111 basket IV, the least possible number ot mangoes '" least possible number of truus of set B - {maximum possible number of (guavas + wsterrnelonsj)

=16 - (6 + 7) = 3. Hence, (1) is false.

Whereas the other three statements can be lrue.

Choice (1)

23. Number of Guavas in Basket IV '" 6.

:.One exira fruit which is identified as Guava by Motu must be from set A.

., Total num'ber of fruits of set A must be at least 1 +2 + 1 Le,,4.

From the above table, the number of fruits is set A must be exactly 4. Since Chotu identitisd only 4 fruits 1[2 apples and 2 oranges) of set A, there are only 2

oranges and.2 apples in basket IV. Choice (1)

24. As Motu [who identifies mangoes as mangoes) identified only 1 mango in basket I, and there is at least one fruit of each type ill each box, there is only one mango in basket I.

From the above table, we can say that in basket III the total number of fruits in set A is 4 and that of in set B is 16.

As Motu identified 2 mangoes, 6 guavas and a watermelons, in basket III, which add upto 16, there will be exactly 2 mangoes in basket m.

The number 0] mangoes in the other baskets cannot be found uniquely,

Range' of individual fruits

Min Max Min Max Min Max Min Max Min Max
Apple 3 5 1 .2 1 1 1 .2 4 7
Oranue 1 3 1 3 3 3 1 2 4- 7
Man~o 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 4 11 ,3
Guava 1 2 3 5 6 6 6 7 11 4
Waler melon 9 11 8 11 8 8 5 6 11 2 Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 25 to 28:

25. The number of matches ln the tournament were 6)( 8 '" 4.8 matches in the group stage

8 matches in the round of 16

4 matches in the round of 8

2 matches in the quarterflnats and one match each for the 3«1 place and the finals.

:. Total ot 64 matches. Choice (3)

26. Brazil from Group F, could have advanced as the winner or runner up of that gro[Jp.

:. They willi meet Group E winners or the runnse-up in the round of 16 l.e. any of Italy, Ghana, U,S.A. or Czech Republic.

In the qlJ8Jrterfinals il faced a team from either group G

or group HI. Choice (3)

27. The match between Czech RepubliC (Group E) and Ukraine (Group HI) can take place either in the round of

8 or in the semifinals, Choice (2)

28. If Argentina (Group C) were to reach the finals, an other teams in if, half (Group A to 0) would have been eliminated by that stage. So none 01 the teams from their groups can reach the finals and be the winmer.

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions .29 to 33:

From (i), as there are four persons and four rounds, fhe balls were picked 16 times.

:, The given five balls were picked 1,. 2,. 3, 4- and 6 times in any order.

From (vii), the only possibility is that white ball (5 points) was picked up 4 times.


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:. From (vi), the green ball was picked up 6 times.

From (ii), each of A, B and C scored at most 12 points in all tile four rounds put together.

:.11 any of A" Band C picked blue, yellow and white balls in all the four round" put logether, the total points scored by that person will be more than 12.

:.Each of A, Band C picked up red and green balls along with Iwo of blue, yellow and white balls in all tile four rounds put together.

:. Hed ball was picked up exactly three times. [As white ball is picked 4 times and green ball is picked 6 times).

:.Blue and yellow bans were picked 1 and 2 times in any order.

As each of A, Band C picked up different balls, D picked the green ball thrice.

.'.]He must have picked up wilite ball once.

:. Each A, Band G picked the white ball exacny once.

From (vi), tllere is only one possibility that 0 scored 2 points (green) in the fourth round and A scored tllree points (blue) in the first round.

., From {v) and the above results, each of A and B scored 11 (1 + 2 + 3 + 5) points in all tile four rounds put together. :.18 also picked up blue ball, implies yellow bal] was picked exactly once i.e., by C.

From (iv), the only possibility is that, in each of' first, third and fourth rounds, whHe ball was pic'ked once and green ball was picked once and also in tile second round, !)reen ball was picked 3 times and the white ball was picked once. The red ball was pic'ked once in each of I, !II and IV rounds. From (iiil), as the maximum points were scored in round III, tile yellow ball must have [been picked in the Ihird round.

:. The blue ball must have been picked in the fourth round.

let us tabulate the information obtained till now.

A 8 C 0 Points
3 _1, 2., 3, 5
II 2,2,,2,5
III 5 1,2,4,5
IV 2 1,2.,3,5
Points 1,2,3,5 1,2,3,5 1, 2, 4, 5 2,2,2,5 From the above table, as green ball was already picked. in round IV, A must have picked it ill round II and thus he picked red ball in round IV.

As only C picked yellow ball, he must have picked. it in round III. As, D did not pick red ball, B picked red ball in round III and o picked green ball in round Ill.

As, C did not pick blue ball thus B picked the blue ball and C picked the white ball in round IV, As no one picked red ball in round II, C picked red ball in round I and he picked green ball in round II.

:. We get the final table as follows.





II nr IV

I :3 2/5 1 5/2
2 5/2 2 2/5
[ 5 1 4 2
I 1 3 5 2 29. C picked the white ball in round IV.

Choice (.2) Choice (5)

30, Either '6 or 3.

31, Red ball was picked exactly three times. Choice (4)

32. B [picked the blue ball in round IV,

Choice (2) Choice (1)

33. Yellow ball was picked exactly once.

Solutions for questions 34 to 37:

Marks obtained by Ramesil

Section Marks

QA 60

01 30

OS 15

VA 45

RC 75

LA 75

Let nhe total number of r-rnark questions be x and 2-mark questions [be y.

Now, the number of questions in each of the sections is as follows:


0.15x+ 0.20y", 80

'" 0,15 (x+ y) + 0.05y" 80 :) 0.05y" 80 - 75 '" 5

:) Y= 100 and X= 400

Section. 1-marK. 2-marK Total
QA 60 20 80
01 40 5 45
OS 80 15 95
VA 80 30 110.
RC 80 10 90
lA 60 20 80
400(X) 100(y) 500' 34 .. Rameslh got 75 marks in LA. Total number of t-rnark questions in LA is 60. He can attempt correctly a maximum of 59 1-mark questions in LA. SIl, he [has to get remaining 16 marks from 2-mark questions in LA. So, a minimum of 8 questions of 2-ma~k must have been attempted correctly by Rarnash. A maximum of 284 t-mark questions could be attempted,

Choice (3)

35.. Total number of t-rnark questions", 400 Total numosr of 2-mark questions", 1 00

:) Maxilmum total marks " 400 x 1 + 100 + 2 ea 600 enoree (1)

36. Rames'h got ·30 marks in 01 andl thers were 5 questions of 2·mark type im Dl, He may attempt all those 5 questions and the remaining 20 marks must be from t-rnark questions.

:,Minimum nurnbsr e 5 + 20;;;: 25 Choice (1)

37. In DI, only 5 questions (of 2-mark type) were there but in LA,. 20 questions (of 2-mark type) were there. from solution to 075, he must correctly attempt a minimum of 8 questions out of these. So, the number of 2-mark questions attempted cotrectly in 01 (Whatever the number may be) has to be less as compared to lAo

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 38 to 40:

38. Cubes with three races painted would be tile ones at the comers. Now since tilere are two cubes the lotal number of small cubes with three faces painted would be 8 + 7 " 15 (as one corner is common to bOlhthe cubes). Also, there would be three small cubes along tile three edges of the large cube frorn where the 3 )( 3 cube was initially removed which will also have three laces palntsd.

.', Total number of small cubes with three faces painted

= 15 + 3 = 18. Choice (3)


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39. III tihe normalS x 5 cube. the number of small cubes with one face painted", 9 x 6 '" 54.

Here three of the faces are not affected by the removal of the 3 x 3 cube and the subsequent repainting. :.Number of smaller cubes withl just one face painted for these three faces", 9 x 3 '" 27,

Now, there would be one small cubs on each face of the 3 x 3 cube wilh just one taos palntecl. i.e. a total of 6 small cubes.

So, also on the larger cube on the three faces which are affected by t~e removal of the 3 x 3 cube, there would be one cube on each of these faces with just one face painted. Now on the large cube on the surfaces which are newly exposed due to the removal of the 3 x 3 cube after paintiTl{l with black colour, there will be 4 small cubes on each 01' the three surfaces which have only one face painted.

:. Total number of small cubes with just one face

painted", 27 ... 3 + 6 + 12", 48, Choice (5)

410. There will be one small cube in the 3 x 3 cube with no face painted. Now there are seven more cubes in the large cube which would have no face painted, even after rsrnovlnq lhe 3 x 3 cube, from the large cube and

painting the remalnlng part, Choice (2}

Difficulty level wise summary· Section II
Level of Difficulty Questions
Very Easv 25
Easv 26,27,28,35
Medium 34,36,37
Difficult 21,22,23,24,38,40
Very Difficult 29,30,31,32,33,39 SECTION-UI

Solutions for questions 41 to ,45;

41. We are given two inequalltias, We can multiply them by p and q and add the resulting inequalities and get a new inequality, provided p and q have tihe same sign. Conversely, the sign of every expression of the form ax + by can be determined, where a, b are obtained by rnulttplylnq the first and second inequalities by p and q and addlnq the result'inginequalities (ill the giv-en question a '" 2p - q andl b", 3p + q) provided p, q have tihe same sign.

For the three given expressions, p, q are tabulated below.

ax+by p q
3x+ 7V 2 1
4x+ t t y 3 2
5x+ 5V 2 -1 We conclude that the sign of 3x + 7yand 4x + 11y can be determined but not that of 5(x + y) or x + y.

Choice (1)

412. The ages of A and B at the- two times are tabulated below.

PRESENT AGE A B From the data given A '" 4b and B = a

Since the difference betweern the ages of the two persons does not ohange with time,

5 4b - a '" a - b. => a '" '2 b

Sum of thslr present ages

'" 4b+~b'" 8b +5b '" j,3b ",104 ~ b = 16

2 2 2

5 5

Therefore a'" 2_b'" "2{16)== 40 years Choice (4)

43. The diameter of the first circle

'" J(7 - (-17))2 + (3 - {_7))2 '" 26 units Hence, radius .. 13 units

(7-17 3-7)

Also, the centre of the crete '" ---,-- '" (-5, -2)

2 2 . .

The distance between the centres of the two circles == J(3+sf + (2+8)2 '" JS2 + 62 = 10 units.

Let the centres off the circles be C1 and C2and the radii be R1 and Fl:2.

Now, C1C2 =10 and R1 .. R. '" 5 +13 '" 18.

Since IR2 - Ali < G1C2 < IlR2 + Rll, the two circles intersect each otther. Hence, t~ey will have only two

common tangents. Choice (3)

44. n~ - 4n2 - 1617 + 64 s 0 rt(n-41-16 (n-4):SO (rf - 16) (1'1 - 4) :S 0

(n + 4) (n-4)2::; 0

For all values of n, {n - 4)2;:: 0

Since n is positive n + 4 can never be less than zero. Hlence n '" 4 is the only positive integer value of n that is

possible. Choice (1)

45. Let the number off mangoes, which the man lbrought from t!he market be fl.

Gives to son Son 1 .:!+ 1 2

Remaining Mangoes

=> ~-1=15 =>rl=32 2

So, he gave 17 mangoes to his first son. We can now verify this conclusion

Gives to son

Son1 17

80n2 7

Son3 5

Altemative solutiom:

Remaining 15 8 3

This question can also be solved by starting from the end, i.e., before given to his third son, he should have

had (3 + 3) x .± '" 8 mangoes. Before giving to his


second sam, he shootc have had (8 + 2} x ~ '" 15 2

mangoes and be'fore giving to lhis first son, he should

have hao {IS + 1) x _g_ = 32 man90es. Choice (2)



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Solutions for questions 46 to 48:

46. let the number 01 correct answers be e and the number of wrong answers be w.

.'. 4c- w = 100.

II c = 25. then w = 0 ;;;;;> c + w = 25.

For one increase in the value of CO' w must beinoreased by 4, i.e., the number of attempts will increase by 5.

As c + ws 75, ecan be at most 35. when w", 40.

:. c can have 11 values, (i.s., from 25 through 35).

Choice (3)

47. We need to minimise the number of students each of whose score is same as that of' at least one of Ihe other students. That is, we need to minimise the number of students getting a non-dlstnct score. For this we meed to maximise the number of students gelting a distinct score. Required value = (1 000) ~ (Total number of different possible scores ~1).

If a person attempted any number of questions hom 0 to 75 and got all the questions wrong,. any score from 0 to - 75 can be obtained,

Suppose the number of correct answer is 0 and the number of wrong answer (w) are 3, 2, 1 and 0 for four students .

. '. Their scores will be 4c- 3, 4c - 2. 4c - 1 and 40.

For c sa 1 to 72, all tilE, scores from 1 to 288 can be obtained.

For c= 73, w::> 2.

.', 292 ~ 2, 292 - 1 and 292 are possible. For c = 74, W = 1 or O.

. '. 296 ~ 1 and 296 are possible. For c", 75, W '" a ;;;;;> 300 is possible.

:. A total of 76 + 2B8 + 3+ 2 +1 i.,e., 370 different scores are possible.

==:> The required values is 1000 - (370 - 1) = 631.

Choice (4)

48. Suppose one of these students gal G question correct and wquestions wrong.

==:> His met SCOfe '" 4c- w.

For ti'le marks to be equal, ~or every increase of one in c, w must be increased by 4, i.s., a total of' 5 questions should be attempted extra. As there are only 75 questions, at most 15 such increases are possible .

.', At most '16 students can have the same net score

with a different number of attempts. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 49 to 58:

49. Sum 01 the first 75 terms of t~e AP = 75 x middle term

5 T N T T'2 + T64 H . d

= 7 x ae- ow 3!l = . ence, require

. 2

(232.. + 136 22)

29 29

answer = 75 x 75 x 80 = 6000


Choice (3)

50. Since there are all equal number of oddl and even numbers in the set A, there wililbs an equal number of subsets of A which add up to even or odd numbers, Total subsets (including nLl11 set) = 2'°.

Half of this", 512.

Alternative solution:

2 5 10 H

51. let S = 1+11+112+113+1"14 + .. , .... " ... (1)


Multiplying by ..,..,.. , we get


1 1 25 10 17

'1'1S = 11+'1"'i'2+~+ 1"1'4+ ~ + (.2)

SubtraCting (21 from (1), we

10 1 3 5 7 .

get11 S =1+ '11+ 11""2 +1f + 11""4+ (3)

.. 1

Multiplying by 11 . we get

_!_(.!.Q s) = _2_ + ~+ -;.. + --;. + ( 4)

1111 11 11 11 11

Subtract1ing (4) from (3), we get

~~C.~ S)~1+1 ~2 + 1 ~3 + 1 ~4 + .......

=,+ ,~, [,-',J'+ l1~l1X ;; = ~~

S eo 56x 11x11 = 154 55 10x10 125

Choice (5)

52 .

Let the number 01 chocolates given to A, S, C and 0 be denoted by a, b, c and d respectively i.e .. a + b + c'" d ::: 40, where a;:: 0, b? 3, c 2: 0 and d?. 5.

Let b= b1 + 3 and d = d + 5

Now a + b1 + 3 ,.. e + d' +.'3 eo 40

Or, a + b1 + c + d' = 32 where a, b' , c, d' 2: 0

The number of non-nspatlvs 'integral solutions for this

equation is 32. 3Ca = 35C3 = 35 (34) (33) = 6545

3 (2) (1}

Choice (2)


Rem [2..] == 7; Rem [~J == 21 (0) -7);

28. 28

Rem [ ~:] '" Rem [ 3~3] ::: 7;

Now, Rem[~;] =Rem[7xRem[~:]]

= Rem[~:] =21(or-7)

Hence the pattern 01 remainders alternates between 7 and. 21 (or -7).

For 72K+' (i.e., odd powers of 7) the remalncer is 7.

==:>Rem[7;;] =7.

Alterllative solution 1:

Let A and k be the remainder and quotient when 7777 is divided.~ 28. :::;> 7777 = 28k + A

Since 7~ . ancl28k are multiples au 7, R must also be a multiple au 7. So, let R == 7 r

[716] [716]

=? 777'6", 4k + r ~ r'= rem 7 4 = rem (1)4 ::: 1

:.The remainder whsn 7m is divided by 28 is 7 x 1 i.e., 7.

A = {1, 2, 3, ..... 1O},. which has 5 even and 5 odd numbers,

Subse·t B must contain odd number ot odd numbers and amy number of even numbers

Required number of ways = rC1 + sC~ + "Co.] X [5Co + 5C,

+ 5C~ + 5C3 + 5C4 + 5CS] '" 16 x32 '" 512 Choice (1)

Tri~~=ph~~t Ir;=stit~~=of M~~;g~~~nt Ed(;~;ti;r;=p~tld.=(T~LM:E:rHO~95B~2,iiiFl~o~~S,{dd~~;~~=C~~P~~~S~~~d';~b:d=~500003.==

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To arrive N, such Unat the highest power of 5in N!, is say k; start with M as approximately four times k ..

Henes, if the highest power of 5 in N! is 64, Ihen check for N =: 4 x 64 =: 256.

Now, the highest power of 5 in 256!i5 63, hence, we need to move the next multiple of 5 (l.e., 260) to get the highest power as 64. And this highest power willi remain as 64, for N '" 260, 261,262, 263 and also 264. Thus the maximum possible value ot N = 264.


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Alternative soluition 2:

Since Ihe divisor, i.e., 28 '" 7 x 4 (co-prime factors) and 7m, when divided by 7 and 4,. leaves remainders 01 o andS respectively. Now, the smallest number of this kind is 7. Thus, we get that 7T!7 is of the fonn (7 x 4)k + 7, i.e., 28k+ 7. Hence tile required remainder is 7.

Choice (2)


PA = 70 m


Triangles PQR, PSU and UTR are similar. From the similarity 01 triangles LTUR '" LP

:. tanLTUR '" tan LP


.. UT '" PS

y .: 24

24 x

XY= 576 ~-~ {I} PA2 :=. pQ2 + QR2

702 '" (x + 24}2 + (.24 + )1)2

4900';' K + 48x+ 576 + 576 + 48y+-I

4900 '" (x + y)2 - 2xy -t= 48 (x + y) + 2 '(576) (1) =:> 4900 '" (x + y)2 - 2xy + 48 (x + y) + .2xy ::::;> (x + y)2 + 48 (x + y) - 4900 '" 0

x + y = 50 or -98

But x+ r> 0

., x + y = 50 --- (2) given that x + 24 > Y + 24 .'. x>- y ., solving (1) and (2), x""" 32 <lind y '" 18.

:. Height = (x + 24) m= 56 m Choice (1)

55. Let us consider cases with respect to the least power of
2 in the three factors, given n is an odd multiple of 3.
Factor Factor factor 3 Total no of
1 2 possibilities
When tha index of 2u 2"
the least power of .2° 21 2,,"1-1 n+1
2 is zero 210-1)12 21"'11~ 2
When 1he index of 2 2"'"
the least power of 21 22 2,,-3 1!~1
2 is one 2
21"-1)12 21"-1112
22 2"-4 n-3
When 1he index of ---1
the least power of .22 23 2,,-5. 2
2 is two 21": 3")12 21"- 1112
Wlhen ths mdsx of
the least power of n-3
23 2,,-6. ---- -2
2 is three .23 2
21"-3)1ll 21"- 311t n-7
Proceeding "'-2-
When the index of .!!.-1 ~+2
the least power of n 23 23
--~ 2
2is::'~1 23 11 .!!.+1
3 23 23
When the index of
the least power of IJ n Ii
2 is ::. 23 23 23
3 Since n is an odd rnultlple 3, the least power of 2 in the three factors cannot be more than .!!..


H~7 Thus total numberof ways = 1 + 2 + 4 + 5 + .... -- + 2

/1-5 n-1 n+l --+--+ --

2 2 2

Now considering two successive terms as one term, we gel, total number of ways = (1 + 2) + (4 + 5) +.«. +

(n.;7 +";5)+(n;1+n;1)

= 3 + 9 + .... + (n - 6) + n

This is an Arith:metic progression witrh first term as 3, the last term as n and the common difference as 6.

Let the number of terms be m.

:. n = 3 + 6(m - I}

n+3 "".m=--


Sum of the given series = (n + 3) (3 + 11) = (/I + 3)2

12 12

Therefore ~he nurnberot ways in which 2" can be expressed as the product of three factors where n is. an

d..l I' I 1 3' (11 -11- 3f

o u mumple o IS ---


Alternatiive solution:

For n = 3, different ways of expressing 2" as a product of three factors are: 1 x 1 X 23., 1 X 2' X 22, 21 X 2' X 2' l.e., 3 ways.

For n = 9, different ways of expresslnq 2" as a product of three factors an)" where 1 is the smallest factor, are 1 x 1 X 29, 1 x 2" X 26, 1 X 22 x 2:7" 1 x 23 X 26, 1 X 24 X 25, ..... 5 ways.

Similarly, when 2 or 2~ or .23 is the smallest factor, the number of ways will [be 4 or 2 or 1 respectively.

Hence, the total number of ways = 5 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 12:

From the choices for n = 3 and 9, only choice (4)

satisfies. Choice (4)


The index of the hi9hest power of 5 in N !' is 64,

[~J+[~. ]+[~ ]=64 [We do not consider [5~ l for

the number N is definitely less than 625.] N

If 3"' = K, then N = 125K



-+2+3 = 25K + 5K + K = 3tK. For K = 2, we get 555

N. = 2.50. The highest power of 5 that divides 2:50! is 5'>2. So, N! has 64 fives means the minimum value of N is 260 where as maximum value of N is 264.

Si milarly for M = 125, the number of 5's in 125! is 31 . We see t~at the number 125 = Sa. So 1241 will have 31 - 3 or 28 fives. The mirnimum value 01 Mis 120.

So, the maximum difference between the values of M and N is 264 ~ 120 '" 144.

Alternaliive' solution:

Similarly, we can see that the minimum possible value of M, such that highest: power of 5 in M! ~s 28, is 1120. Thus the maximum difference between M and N is

264 - 120 '" 144. Choice (4}

57, When two of the ~ntegers are posluve and the other is negative, we get the product as negative. When two of the integers are negative and the otber ~s positive, we get the product as positive. In bolh the cases, the magnitude of the product can be any thing from ° to 00. Ex: II the integers are 1010, - 1010 and 16, we get the product as - 16 x 1020 and if the integers are -1010, _10lD and (16 + 2.101'1, the product will be (16 + 2 + 1101°) (102°).

:. The range of ths [product is (~, 00) Choice (5}

58. Here lei us first find the case when N (product] '" 0

The elements satisfyirilg' N '" 0 are {'DO. 01.. 09,

110,20,30, 40} i.e., 14 elements.

Of the 14 elements only one element (i.e., 09) satisfies M",9.

Hence the required probability",...2_ . 14

Chclce (3}

Solutions for qussttons 59 and SO:

Let the speeds of Ram Kumar and Kishore ba x steps par second and y steps per second respectively, Both having started simultaneously, the total lenglth covered by them to cross each other must be equal to thatotal I,ength of the escalator.

:.(x + y)21 '" [.X + t) 28 '" Number of steps on the escalator :.9(x + y) 00 4(3x + y)

5y", 3x

y 3

~f 5

Let x = 5k and y = ,31<.

Total steps in the escalator = 21 (5k + 3k) = 168k

Both having started from the ground floor in the time Ram kurnar takes 5k1 steps, Kishore will take Ski steps. So they will be separated by 2kl steps.

Ram Kumar

When Ram Kumar is at A, Kishore will be at Band they are separated by 2k, steps.


Total steps taken by Kishors to, reach the 1S1 floor 20

'" Sk, - --'- Sk, =- 4k,


So in the time Kishore took k, steps, the escalator tonk the remaining (2kl - Kl/ steps.

Thus speed of Kishore '" Speed of the escalator. Speed of tihe escalator '" 3k steps/seconds

59. Time taken by the escalator to take me from the ground floor to the 1 st floor '" 168 k = 56 seconds.


Choice (5)

60., Sines for half tile lime Ram Kumar will be walkillg in opposite direction to that of the escalator, ~elative speed of Ram K.umar '" 5k - 3k ",' 2k steps/seconds,

For the other half of the lime, with the escalator being at rest Ram Kumar's speed will be 5k steps/seconds.

Let Ram Kumar cover n steps at 2k steps/seconds speed and the rernaininq at 5k steps/seconds speed. Simce the time taken is same in both cases,

II. 168 k -11

2k 5k

5n '" 336k~2n

7n;;;; 336kor n= 48k-

Time taken by Ram Kumar to reach the ground floor

11 48k ,

'" 2 x - '" 2 x -- '" 48 seconds Choice (3)

2k 21<:

Dimcuity level wise summafy - Section III
Level of Difficulty Questions
VetyEasy -
Easy 42,49,58
Medium ~ 44, 45,~ 48, .'31,53, .'37
Difficult 41,.50,52,56,59,60
Ve'f)l Diffioult 47,.54,55 T~~~pt;~.~ii~siri~t~"'o1M~~~g:~~~1Ed~~~ii~~PrtiLid."'(Tj~Md::)"'Ho~95B~i;;:ijFi;o'?~sidd~~~~~"'c;,~Pk~~s~~~d~~~"'.:'500003.=-'"

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SECTION -I Number of Questiens e 25

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: In each question, there are five sentences, Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised and high~lighted. From the italicised and highlighted words, select Ihe mosl appropriate words (A or B) to formcorrect sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, wihich may be selected to correctly complete tihe set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.

1. A desperate (A) I disparate (8) nation, with enormous reqional differences, must have efficient leaders to tac'kle problems as and when they surface.

The wealthy and the famous disport (A) I depose (B) themselves in glamorous places,

His unhurried manner merely underlines his rather nonchalant (A) I noncommittal (8) attitude to life.

A serge (A) I surge (8) suit would be the ideal wear for winter adventure.

The terrorists were dressed in tracksuits to dissimulate (A) I disseminate (B) their true purpose ..



2. The charming but effete (A) I efferves.cent (8) gentry could not resist the oppressive and whimsical rule of the monarch,

As this is a serious occasion your faddish (A) I facetious (8) remarks are out of place.

The clouds scud (A) I scuff (B) across the sky driven by a fierce gale.

The disappearance of Mr. Roy, close confidant (A) I confidante (8) of the president, came as a big surprise.

On the steep climb he fell off his horse and suffered a concussion (A) I concision (8).

(1) A8AAA (2) 8ABAA


3. Their views are nonconformist (A) / nondescript (8) and their political opinions are extreme.

People perceived him as a decisive and resolute (A) f dissolute (B) international leader.

He did not fritter away his ttime even when he was in goal (A) f gaol (B).

As a scientist he would deprecate (A) I depreciate (8) any kind of Ilegall control on gene therapy.

The youngster felt no compulsion (A) I compunction (B) about being an accomplice in tile


(1) A8ABA (3) AABAB

(2) AAA88 (4) BBBAA

4. The prime minister was le1ft fuming by the fatuous (A) I felicitous (B) remark of his deputy,

Unexplained as it was, his statement was meaningles.s (A) I valueless (B).

A gaggle (A) I gaffe (B) of journalists awaited the arrival of the president.

The village was deserted and sheaths (A) I sheaves (8) of corn lay abandoned.

The mice skittered (A) I scuppered (B) around in the drains and under the floor boards.



D'IRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Each of the 'following quesfions has a sentence' with two blanks. Given below each question are four pairs off words. Choose the pair thai besl completes the sentence.

5. The tiheory put forth by evolutionary biologists, gave

a of intellectual tespectabnlty to th:e eugenic

horrors which in the Holocaust.

(1) substratum ... terminated

(2) veneer culminated

(3) modicum concluded

(4) facade elaborated

6. to a fault, Douglas ordered the contractors

to assemble the tower in sections first in their yard,

10 thai not a slone was out of place.

(1) Punctilious." secure

(2) Consclentlous ... guarantee

(3) Scrupulous protect

(4) Meticu.lous ensure

7. He was about safety and insisted that the

men work with safety to prevent accidents.

(1) Hn icky manacles

(2) cautious fetters

(3) fastidious harnesses

(4) tussy ... trammels

8. The Indian government, despite huge pressure from

its own media, has shown . and does

no! intend to attack its neighbour.

(1) bellicose restraint

(2) belligerent inhibition

(3) quarrelsome constraint

(4) pu:g:nacious emphasis

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

9. Just as household trash tells you a lot about a family, so mankind's rubbish heaps speak volumes about the species. One of the most revealing lies in the waters around Manhatrtan.

(1) There the oyster trade really took. off with the arrival of the Eumpeans.

(2) There, if the Eumpeans had examined the shell mounds more closely, they would have found something ominous.

(3) There, archaeologists have found mounds ot oyster shells, known as middens, dating back to 69'50 B.C

(4) As the city iis buill on an estuary there is a constant mix of 'fresh and salty water that oysters love,

10. "If music be the toed of love, pl'ay on." And if not?

Well, play on anyway! The production and consumpttion of music is a big part of the eoonomy. The first use of commercial reoording, in the form of Edison'S phonographs. was to bring music to the living roorns and picnic tables of those who could no! aff,ord to pay live musicians. A hundred years

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ago sIngsongs at home, the choir ln Ihe church and fiddles in the pub were all that most people heard. (1) Today, music binds groups of peop~e together

and has resulted in the solidarity of oppressed humans.

(2) Today, people are so surrounded by other people's music that they take it for grallted.

(3) The Shakespearean theory, thai muslc ~s at least one of the foods of love, has a strong claim to be true,

(4) What appetite drives the proliferation of music to the point where the average teenager spends two hours a day-an eighth of his waking li'felistening to it?

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: Read the following passage carefully and choose tihe best answer for each of the questions that follow it.

Tlhe altarpiece of the church of Sta Maria dei Frari in Venice is a glorious work by tile sixteenth-century master Titian. The Madonna with Saints and Members of the Pesaro Family was painted as a token of thanksgiving 'for a victory over the Turks by litian's patron, the Venetian nobleman Jacopo Pesaro. In the painting Titian, scandalously for the time, moves the Virgin Mary from the centre of the canvas, He also depicts Pesaro as kneeling betore the Holly Virgin who looks upon him with great interest, as does St. Peter. Behind the kneeling Pesero is a standard bearer dragging a Turkish prisoner to present to the Madona. Meanwhile" SI. Francis draws the attentlon 01 the baby Jesus to other members of the Pesaro family who are Ikneeling in the corners of the painting.

Titian's worik. shows how far the humanizing spirit mad moved, less than a century separates Bouts' The Entombment from Titian's Madonna with Saints, yet they speak to, and of, very different worlds, The very displacement of the Virgin Mary from the centre of nne canvas, and the depiction not only of Pesaro and his family, but also of the Turkish prisoner, reveal the new status accorded to human subjects and their worldly accomplishments.

The spread of marketrelations through the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries and the slow, but steady, creation of a merchant - or bourqsols - class heightened the sense of the individual as an agent of worldly change_ Part~cllJlarly in the Protestant nations of northern Europe, there was a growing beliet that this new-found wealth and privil,ege was the product of an individual's activities, not simply a divine gift or tme result of one's social status. Just as reason became seen in instrumental terms, so did the self. An individual became a practical agent whose identity resided ~n his being able to act upon both nature and society - and indeed on the self itself - to achieve practical ends.

Titian's altarpiece also reveals a relationship between artists and the elite .. Artists had a.lways worked for weal.thy patrons, and glorified them im their works" What was new, however, was that the celebration of the patron became a celebration of their individual:ity and of thetr individual accomplishments. Tillis new spirit of individualism both accelerated the process of humanizing perceptions au Man and gave it shape.

Titian's work itself marks but the beginning of a process that revolutionized the depiction of tile individual. Eventtually the r'eligious iconography was dispensed with entirely, and in its stead came portraits of merchants and noblemen surrounded by symbols of their wmldly wealth and status. The portrait, as it developed from the works of Hans Holbein (1497 - 1543) and Velazquez (1599 - 1660) to those of' IRembrandt (1606 - 1669) and Vermeer (1632 - 1675), increasingly created! a picture of an individual presence, of a self, heightening the dignity and! value of a person as an incivldual. The, Dutch painter Rembrandt is today regarded as perhaps the greatest of seln·portraitists, certainly the first great self-portraitist. He painted some eighty portraits of himself, his first as a teenager, his last in the final year of his life, leaving behrind a unique autobiography. Yet in the seventeenth century when he worked the term 's elf-portra it' did not exist, let alone 'autobiography'. II was not until the ntneteenth century 'that these terms came into widespread use. Indeed, many of Rembrandt's self-portraits do not appear to be a portrait of a self at all. His early selt-portraits were 'tronies' rather than portraits. A 'tronie' was a seventeenth century word for a painted figu~e that was important for its symbolic significance rather than for the person it depicted. Rembrandt's early self-portraits were mot really about himself, but were really representations of types of people, or kinds of emotions. It is not until his later self-portraits, painted in the final decade 01 his life, that one comes tace to face with a person, a self. It is impossible to look at these paintings of 0[1d! age and not see Rembrandt himself. We are forced to view Rembrandt with new eyes because Rembrandt is viewing himself with new eyes. 'Those keen and steady eyes that we know so well from Rembrandt'S selfportraits must have been able to look straight into the human heart', wrote the art historian Ernst Gombrich. 'I realise that such an expression may sound sentimental', he added, 'but I know of no other way of describing the almost uncanny knowledge Rembrandt appears to have of what the Greeks called the "workings of the soul", These later selfportraits possessed a psychological depth previously undreamt, and one can only imagine the astonishment his contemporaries felt when they gazed at Rembrandt's vision.

11. The term 'humanising spirit' as used in this passaqs re·fer'S to the

(1) compassionate nature of man, which was glori[ied in art.

(2) elevafion of man, portrayed in art ..

(3) new relationship that had developed between artists and patrons in tihe 161h and 1 ih centuries. (4) spirit of the individual as an agent of CMnge.

12. Which of the followimg features of Titian's painting is most closely linked to the theme of this passage?

(1) Depicting of the Virgin Mary with human


(2) Juxtapositioninq of Saints and Nobles.

(3) Human characters dominating the canvas. (4) Celebration of the triumph of good over evil.


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13. The sentence 'we are forced to view Bernbrandt with new eyes, because Rembrandt is viewing himself with new eyes' can be best summarized as:

(1) Rembrandt's wor~ in the later stages of his Ilife show Ihis svolutlon as an artist and a human being.

(2) The artist in Rembrandt reflects on the greatlness of the man.

(3) We are able to see the man behind the artist as Rembrandt gets to capture the artist in the man. (4) We get to appreciate Rembrandt's evolution as all artist as he successfully captures tIMe man in the artist,

14. Accordinq to the passage, the new relationship between artists and the elite

(1) helped in the popularisation of art among the maSses ..

(2) widened the scope of subjects portrayed by artists.

(3) promoted the glorification of the Sell

(4) led to a growing tendency among artists to inflate the ego of their patrons.

15. Wh~ch of the follow~ng views is in line with the beliefs held by Protestant nanons of northern Europe through the 1'6th and 1 ih centuries?

(i) Mall determines his destiny,

(2) Mail'S material success depends on his individual pursuits.

(3) Providence has little to do ~n deciding Man's fortunes.

(4) Divine grace enhances a man's poaition in society,

DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer for each of the questions that: follow it.

While there is no scrap of evidence for a physical difference between the brains of men and women, there is evidence of their differing attitudes. First, Butt's inquiries with gHtted London school children showed that boys had marked p:references in reading, for science, engineering, aeronautics, and the I'atest inventions, and as lighter reading, travel" detective stories, and tales au the sea. The girls liked poetry, [biography,. history, and natural history, Boys' hobbies were building complicated rneccano models, radio sets" toy aeroplanes, telescopes, playing with chemistry sets and electric motors, and collecting stamps and fossils. Girls liked painting, drawing, photography, and writing poetry, but all this can of course be explained by tradition in rearing.

Next, there is the evidence of lntelliqence test results and class of university degree. Women tend to do better in verbally biased! items in tests, and men in numerical and diagrammatic items and also in problems that demand an understanding of mechanical principl'es. Men clearly do better in occupations which require a high Ilevell of visuo-spacial ability.

In the University finals at Cambridge between 1920 and 1952 women display their 'averageness'. They gained the h~gheslfreqLJency of Thirds and Seconds ln mathematics and men the highest ~requency of Firsts. In the natural sciences men were awarded the Ihighest percentage of Firsts and Thirds; women again earned the largest proportion of Seconds. Even in English, despite the fad that women score better in verbal tests men gained more Firsts and more Thirds than the women, who scored a disproportionate number of Seconds.

The male-SCience f female-arts split (seen in many of our schools, particularly in co-educattonal schools) may, as A Heim suggests, be a congenital difference rather then a sociall artifact, butit is hard to tell as long as society continues to treal women as intellectually inferior to men. On the arts I science bias the facts are that out of 62,519 undergraduates admitted to university in 1970,,19,909 were girls: 17,100 of these are studying arts, sociology, commerce, and allied subjects, and out of 10,2:1:2 students admitted! to engineering and technology courses only 243 were girls.

Is a~1 this male-female difference really due to our culture? There is a strong possibility that it may be so. In Russia, where women have more equal opportunities and where them are nurseries for children, about a tthird of the engineers and lawyers and two-thirds of the teachers and lecturers are women. There are more women doctors in Russia. Girls in western societies are given dolls and dish-washers rather than rneccanos and model aeroplanes, and are encouraged 10 be passive, responsive, and eager 10 care for children. Boys on the other hand, are brought up with the idea that their goal in life is a successful, stimulating career, Perhaps all this underlines one tihing, recognized by Byron; that 'Man's love is of man's li'le a thing apart, 'TIs women's whole existence'. And at the basis of this life the brain and hormone system, both genetically determined: the brain discriminating, choosing, recognizing a matte whom we could get on and work witih and whom we love (and this is uppermost in a women's cholce), and the sexual hormone system which in a man drives him towards a woman. In the woman, the effect of the female hormones in creating desire is more dependent on the availabillty of a man whom she can love and who seems worthy to her,

When applied to individuals these 'laws' sometimes break, down because they only apply to the average part of' the curve for qenetic variation, Some women do seem to develop a rather masculine kind of intelligence and temperament and SOme men are the reverse of what is 'expected". But this is part of the range of variation which makes sexuality lie on a contiinuum. This is created not only by the XX - XY chromosomes but aLi the other chromosomes varying and playing their part in delineating the whole character of a man or a woman. But a sound general principle oould be applied 10 tha intelligenoe of the sexes with advanlage : equa.l, but possibly different. This is not an insult smacking of apartheid bill a statement based on curavailable knowledge of genetics, physiology, and psychology.

:.==.=.===:==.===.=.==.=.==.=.===,===.===.==.=.==.========== __ ===========;;a=====.=.==.=.=='=.===========================

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Third, what do women exoel at that men don't know? Women in our society seem to be good at picking up tiny flaws and make good industrial inspectors. They seem to lack the fundamental ability to organize large units without worrying about what is gOing on at floor level. But to be tair, the only way' women migh~ lbe able to progress in industry is to take up some hitherto neglected speciality. As we all know women make first-rate nurses, infant teachers, social workers, andl telephone operators. So, with the exception of industrial lnspactlnq, women thrive im occupations which require an interest and a ~iking for people, All these jobs deal with the concrete rather than the abstract, and all, in this way, need meticulous attention to detail. But let Samuel Johnson have the last word. When asked which am more intelligent men or women, he replied, 'Which man, Sir, which woman?'

16. According to the author, it is difficult to accept Helm's view on gender diflmence with regard to intelligence because

(1) of research findings which have suggested otherwise"

(2) of our biased notions.

(3) the 'laws' on genetic variations do not seem to work on some men and women.

(4) of societal practices and conventional mlndsets.

17. At the end of this passage, the author (1) strikes a diplomatic note.

(2) adopts a non-cornrmtal stance, (3) supports an objective view.

(4) presents an enigmatic opinion.

18, Which of the following closely captures Samuel Johnson's response to a question discussed in this passage?

(1) ~ntelligernt men and women are a rare specie-so (2) ~ntelligernce is not gender specific.

(3) The answer is anybody's guess as subjectivity plays a role in assessing intelligence,

(4) We can't make generalized statements relating intelligence to gender.

19. Which of the following questions does the author primarily address in this passage?

(1) Why are men more intelligent than women?

(2) In what ways do the brain and ir'ilelligence of men and women d~ffer?

(3) Which of the sexes is more intelligent?

(4) Has society been responsible in conditioning the brains of men and women?

20. Pick the option which contains the words that can be grouped together in the context of the passaqe.

(1) Poetry, radio sets, telephone operators, mechanics. (2) Factory inspectors, photography,. social workers,


(3) MathematiCS, engineering, sociology, telescope, (4) Reading, history, numaricals, teachers.

01 RECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Read the following passage carefully and choose tihe best answer for each of the questions that follbw it.

During his historic address to the Turkish Parliament, President Baraek Obarna reached out to the Muslim world by stating in no uncertain terms that, "the United States is not ~ and will never be ~ at war with lslarn," I watched the speech on Turkish TV with a group of young MusHm journalists and activists gaHlered in Istanbul for the second annual Alliance 0] Civilizations conference (Obama briefly addressed the conference later that day). A spontaneous cheer erupted in the room. A college student 110m Syria leaned over to me and, witth emotion in her voice, said, " with those words Obama [ust wiped away the stain of the lasl eiqht years!'

Of course, George W. Bush often made similar statements aimed at mending ties between the U.S. and the Muslim world. 'The enemy of America is not our many Muslim trtands," Bush liked to say, But the fact is that no matter how hard he tried, Bush. could never overcome the anger and mistrust he engendered across the Muslim world. Even in a country like Turkey, arguably America's most vital ally in the MuslJm world, perceptions of the U.S. among Turks had reached record I~ows during the Bush years. In fact, recent polls in Turkey showed that nearly 90% of the population held unfavourable views of the US. This is an astounding figure, considering that Turkey is a modern, moderate, Muslim majority state with close ties to Israel and Eu.rope and a sophisticated and urbane population that has absorbed all things western, from the type of music Turks listen to to the books they read.

And yet, the overwhelming sentiment in Turkey seems to be that the United States is, to borrow a phrase from Osama bin Laden, "a crusading" nation at war with the Muslim world, ln iii is opinion, the Turks are not alone, A poll by WorldPublicOpinion.Org found that nearly two-thirds of Muslims believe that the purpose of the war' on terror is to "spread Christianity in the region."

There is a simple reason for this. From the beginning, the Bush administration consciously conceived of the ldeoloplcal conflict with AI Qaeda and the global Jlhadlst movement as a cosmic contest between good and evil. Indeed, the first time that Bush used the phrase "war on terrorism" he equated it in no uncertain terms witih a "crusade." Over and over again he declared lhat the purpose of the war was to "rid the world of evil." In both word and deed, Bush not only provided an apocalyptic lens through which to view the military conflict with AI Qaeda, he framed the ideological conflict with radical forces in the Muslim worlo in the same cosmo dualism used by those who carried out the attacks of 9/11. As I argue in my new book How 10 Win A Cosmic War, by adopting the same mligiiously charged rhetoric and cosmic worldview as the J~hadists, by viewing AIOa.eda mnnants as a demonic force bent on destroying civilization instead of an internationall criminal conspiracy to be brought to justice, Bush played right into the Jihadists' hands by settting the groundwork for a new and terrifying age of reliqlous war.


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Thanks to the forces of globalisatiorn, which have radically altered the way people define themselves both individually and as a collective, religion is becoming a stronger,. more global force in the world. At the dawn of the twentieth century, one half of the world's population identiuied itself as Catholic, Protestant, Muslim, or Hindu. Today that number stands at nearly two thirds. In an increasingly globalised world, where the old demarcations of nation-states are slowly starling to give way and nationalism no, I]onger has the grip it used to lhave on our collective identifies, religion is once again becoming the primary marker of idenlity in all parts of the world. That is wny it is so important for the new administration to strip the conflicts we are witnessing across the globe, and particularly the War on Terror, of its religiolJs connotafions, Thankfully, President Obama seems to understand this. Hence, a few days before Obama arrived in Turkey, Secretary of State Hillary Clinton made it clear that the new Administration would join the rest of America's European allies and cease using the phrase War on Terror. "The admlnlstratlon has stopped using the phrase and I think that speaks for itself," Clinton said.

This is a g:ood start. But is not enou:gh just to change the rhetoric of the War on Terror. The mew administration must strive to address the very real grievances that fuel the global Jihadist movement-the suffering of the Palesflntans, American support fer Arab dictators, and the everwhelming sense in the Muslim world of feeling under attack. It must reverse course from the Bush administration and stop leok.ing the other way as America's dictatorial allies in Jordan, Egypt, Moreoco,. and Saudi Ambia suppress democratic movementsin their countries. And it must actively enga,ge the democratically elected Islamist leaders in Lebanon and Palestine because, it is inconceivable that political reform could take place in the Middle East without the active participation of groups like Hizbullah and Harnas,

There are obviously rusks in pushing IN democracy in such a volatile region, and no one thinks such a policy would be easy to implement. There- are enormous domestic hurdles in t~e way of promoting political participation amo:ng groups who. maintain anti-American and anti-Israel sentiments. Undoubtedly, some of the governments that will arise from truly democratic elections in UTI€) Middle East may held views that are contrary to our interests in the reqion, But whatever risks there may be in pmmoting democracy in: the Middle East, they pale in comparison to the risks involved in continuing to stifle political refo:rm i~ the hope of achievinq stability in the region. Terrorism as everyone knows, thrives in societies where there is no publlc space for people to vent their grievances, and where no political mechanism exists for those grievances to be addressed.

Addressing these may not satisfy Osama bin Laden and his fellow cosmic warriors, whose sights are set beyond this world, and whose geals (for example, the recreation of the Caliphate) are too absurd to be taken seriously. But it will take away the disaffected Muslims together under a master narrative of oppression and i~justice. Most of all, it wil~ deny jihadist ideologues their principal argumentlhat the War on Terror is, in fact, a war against Islam. On the first day of the Alliance of Civil'iz.ations oonference, Turkey'S Prime Minister Recep Tayyip Erdegan compared Obama to the city of Istanbul-a bridqe between the east and the west Thus far, Obarna seems to have accepted the role of bridge builder. It may take some time for his actions to catch up with his words, but in any ideological contest, sometime our words can be our most effective weapons,

21. nile word 'this' in, 'Thanktolly, president Obama seems to' understand this', stands for

(1) the need to develop an understanding with the Muslims.

(2) the need to free the glebal confrontations of religious undertones.

(3) the meed to. refrain from using the phrase war on terror.

(4) the heed to understand the grieva:nces of the Muslims.

22. lime apocalyptic lens through whi:ch the Bush administration viewed the world

(1) revealed a dichotomy akin to the terrorists'


(2) stoked the fires of a religious war. (3) made an ideologue out ov a criminal, (4) did all the above.

23. To soive the problem of terrorism America, according to the author, must de all but one of the fo~lowing.

(I) lake a non-partisan approach when dealing wiith the countries in the Middle East.

(2) Not support the dictators who thwart democratic movements in their countries.

(3) 'Maintain status quo in the region to ensure stability.

(4) Realise that no reform can take place without the help of parties i1aving peoples' support.

24. The risksinvo'lved in promotina democracy in the Middl'e East does not include:

(1) Probl]ems faced at home in daalinq with countries that are anti-America.

(2) The likely emerqence of governments that hold views against the interests 01 the Americans.

(3) The volatility and unpredictability of the region. (4) Likelihood of greater terrorism in am atmosphere that enoourages violent venting of grievances.

25. As per Ihe passage, one of the following has assisted religion to become the basic identity of people fhe world over.

(1) Globalisation and the oonsequent reduction in the hold! that nationalism has.

(2) The rise of fundamentalism in religion.

(3) A greater consciousness of spiritualism among people.

(4) Growth in materlailsm and the consequent dedine in moral values.


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SECTION -II Number of Questiens e 20

DIRECTIONS for questkms 26 to 29: Answer tile questions independently of eaeh other'.

26. In how many ways can the natural numbers from 1 to 9 be divided into tihree groups of three numbers each, such thai the sum of the numbers in each group is d~visible by 3?

(1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 37 (4) 38

27. Find the minimum value of the expression 3x2 + 41 + 15x- 6y+ 23,

(1) 2 (2) 9 (3) 21 (4) 23

28. In a town, 60% of the adult population is male and a% of the adult males and lJ9/o of the adult fennales are educated. The total number of educated adult males and uneducated adult females is equal in number 10 Ihe total num'ber of uneducated adult males and educated adult females. If a and bare both integers, which of tihe following could be the set of values (a, b)?

(1) (20, 30) (2) (20, 10)

(3) (3~, IS) (4) {3~, 20)

29. The centroid of a triangle is at {1, -1), while its orthocentre is at (5, 3). The clrcurncentre of tihe triangle could be at

(1 ) (-1, -3). (2) (%, oJ.
(3) (o,~) . (4) (i,i) DIRECTIONS for questions 30 and 31 .. Answer the q uestions on the basis of the information given below.

In the figure given below, ABCD is a rectangle. A,B,C,D, is the figure formed by joining the mid-points of AIS, Be, CD and DA respectively. AzBzC2D,. is the figure formed by joining the mid-points of D,A" A,B" B1C, and C1D1 respectively,~B3C3D3 is the figure formed by joining lihe mid-paints of A2B2, B2C2, C2D2 and D:A2 respectively. This process of joining the mid-points is continued indefinitely,


of tile perimeters of the quadrilaterals A181C1D1,

AsBsC3Dg, AsBsCsDs,.. ..... and so on,

(1) 7:4 (2:) 7:5 (3) 5:4 (4) 5:3

D'IRECTIONS for questions 32 and 33; Answer the questions independently of each other.



In the triangle ABC given, DE and FG are drawn parallel to BC, such that the, areas of triangle ADIE, quadrilateral EGFD and quadrilateral GCBF are all equal, What is the ratio of the lengths of DE and FG?

(1) 1:.J2 (2) . .fi: 3 (3) 2: 3 (4).fj : 2

33. Find the sum of all the factors of 18000, which are divisible by 8 but not by 25.

(1 )1560 (2) 1872 (3) 11440 (4) 1300

DIRECTIONS for questions 34 and 35:' Answer the qusstons on the basis of the informaJtion given below.

The square grid shown above comprises 25 small unit squares, each of side 1 cm.

34. How many rectangles whieh are not squares can be observed in 'the above grid?

(1) 225 (2) 100 (3) 45 (4) 170

35. How many rectanqles of area 6 sq.cm. can be observed in the above grid?

P) 12 (2) 18 (3) 24 (4) 30

D'IRECTIONS for questions 36 and 37: Answer the questions independently ot each other.

36. Given that ~ 8 :5 x :5 -5, - 4 :5 y< 2 and -1 :5 Z:5 5, which! of the following statements is/are always true? (1) 9z+5>x+2y

(2) 6z> 5x+ 9y

(3) 2(x+ y) < Sz

(4) More than one of these

30. Find the ratio of the sum of the areas of tlhe quadrilaterals ABCD, A2B2C2[)2,A.tB4C4D4 .... and so on, to the sum of the areas of the quadrilaterals A181C101, A3B3C3D3, AoB5C5D5, .... · and so On.

(1) 5: 4 (2) 41: 3 (3) 3: 2 (4) 2: 1

31. If AD is 3/4·h of AB, lhen find the ratio of the sum of the perimeters of the quadrilaterals ABeD, ~B2C2D2, A!B4C4D4, .. , ... ,. and so on, to the sum


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37. AB is a two digiit number in base n such that (AB)n '" 5(BA)n. Wi1ich of the following is a possible vale of n?

(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 116 (4) 21

DIR'ECTIONS for questions 38 and 39: .Answer tlhe questions on the basis of the irilformation given below.

There are two traffic signals at a certain distance from each other. Each signal Ihas three lights - Green, Red and Yellow. Green signals GO, Red signals STOP and Yellow signals READY. Both the signals are operated by a pollcernan from his control room and are switched on sirnultaneously at time t, such that both show the green light. In the first signal, the green, red and yellow lights stay on for 50 seconds, 35 seconds and 15 seconds respectively, whereas in the second signal the lights, in the same order, stay on for 30 seconds, 20 seconds and 10 seconds respectively. In each Signal, afte:r one light gets switched off the next Ii:ght in the sequence gets switched on immediately and automatically, and at any point of time only one light is on.

38. In the first hour, from the time both the signals were switch.ed on, the total time for which both the signals simultaneously show READY s~gnal is

(1) 0 minutes.

(2) 1 minute.

(3) 1 minute 30 seconds. (4) 2 minutes.

39. In the first hour, from the time both the signals were switched on, the total time for which both the signals simultaneously show GO sigmal exceeds the total lime for which both simultaneously show STOP signal, by

(1) 5 minutes. (2) 14 minutes,

(3) 9 minutes. (4) 7 mlnutes.

DI[RECTIONS for questions 40 to 42: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Indicate your responses based on the following directives:

Mark (1) if the question can be answered using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.

Mark (2) if the question can be answered using either statement alone.

Mark (3) if the question can be answered USing A and B together but not using A or B alone.

Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered even using A and B together.

40. There are two rods LI and 4 ~ one made of metal A and the other made of metal B. They are joined end 10 end to form a third rod II... Due to a rise in temperature, the length of L,increases by 10% and that of L2 by 25%. Find the percentage increase in the length of rod l.

A. The originaillength of rod L was 120 em.

'1 4

B. The sum of 33"3% of the length L, and 449%

of the length of Lz was 44 em,

41. There were 120 students who appeared for an exam in which there were fhree papers, paper I, paper 11 and paper III. 40% of the students failed in paper I, while 62.5% of those who failed in paper I also failed ln paper II. If 21 students fa.i'led in all the three [papers, then find how many passed ln all three papers.

A. The number of students who failed in paper I, those who passed in paper II and those who tailed in paper III were in the ratio of 12 ; 20 ; 9.

B. The number of sludents who passed in exactly two papers was 75% of those who passed in exactly one paper, which, in turn, was 80% of those who passed in at least two papers.

42. If a, band c are natural numbers, is .at! + 2bc + ric even?

A. eb l' d' iis odd]

B. bc1' a is odd

DIRECTIONS for questfons 43 to 45: Answer the questions independently 01 each other.

43. N is tile smallest possible natural number which when successively divided by p, P and q (where p and q are natural numbers) gives respective remainders of 1, 4 and 4. Which of the following statements must be true?

I. N is am odd number.

II. Nis a perfect square. III. N IS a perfect cube,

(1) Only I and II (2) Only II

(3) I, II and III (4} None of these

44. ABC is an equilateral triangle and P is a point which lies on or inside t~e triangle ABC such that the sum of nne distances from P to the 3 sides of the triangle is minimum. Which of the following statements aboul the possible positions of P islare true?

(i) P lies on the incircle of the triangle.

(i~) P lies on the tlfiangle formed by the joining the

midpoints of tihe triangle ABC.

(i~i) P is the orthocentre of the triangle. (iv) Pis the circumcentre of the triangle.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (IV) (2) (iii) and Ov)

(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4} (ii); (iii) and (lv)

45. I purchased two apples, a mango and a banana and paid a total amount ot RS .. 20 for all the fruits together. If the prices (in Rs.) of the fruits were all positive integers, for how many combinations of prices of fruits would this have been possible?

(1) 100 (2) 81 (3) 121 (4) 125


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SECTION -III Number of Questions'" 20

DIRECTIONS forqueslions 46 to 49: Answer the questions on the basis of the information g'iv€lll below.

The bar graph given below, gives information about the planting and chopping of fruit bearing trees, over a period of ten yearn.

f' 50
19 40
~ 30
e:.. 20
0 19,99










IJ Fruit bearil1g trees planted as a percentage of the total number of trees plal1ted.

rill Fruit bearil1g trees chopped as a percentage, of the total number of trees chopped.

For the given period,

• the total number of trees planted in an year increased over that of the previous year in every alternate year starting from ,2000 and in the remaining years it decreased over that of the previous year.

• the total number of trees chopped in an year increased over that of the previous year tor every year.

46. If the total number of trees chopped increased by 10% every year ifrom 1999 to 2003 and in 2001 the number of fruit bearing trees planted is equal to the number 01 fruit bearing trees chopped, then in at least how many years from 1999 to 2003 was the number au fruit bearing trees chopped less than the number of fruit bearinq trees planted?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0

47. Wha.t is the minimum number of years in the 'given period in which the number of fruit bearing trees that are planted, increased over that of the previous year?

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1

48. Wha.tis the maximum number of years from 2000 to 2008 in which the number offruil bearing trees that are chopped can be equal to that of the previous year'?

(1) 2 (2) 1

(3) 3 (4) Cannot be determined

49. The percentage change in the total number of trees planted with respect to the previous year is same every year from 2000 to 200B,. then U1e number 01 fruit bearing trees planted ill the year 2002 can be equal to that of the year

(1) 2000 (2) 2004

(3) 2008 (4) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 50 to 53: Answer the questions on the basis of the info,rmattion given below.

In a shop, five articles - P, Q, R, Sand T - are to be sold. The cost price and the selling price of each of Ihe f~ve articles are among Rs_650, Rs_700, Rs.7.50, Rs_850

and Rs.900. The cost price of each of the articles is different and also line selling price of each of the articles is different. For any article, the selling price is not equal to its cost price.

(1) The cost price of article R is equal to the selling price of article T. While selling R as well as li the shopkeeperincurred a loss.

(2) The cost price of Q is more than that of S and the shopkeeper obtained a profit by selling Q"

(3) The profit made by selling any article is more than RS.50. The profit made on any two articles is not the same. The loss incurred on any two articles is not the same.

(4) On onliy two articles, the shopkeeper made a profit The profit/loss mad.e on any article is not RS.150.

,50. What is the selling price (in Rs.) of article P?

(1) 700 (2) 750 (3) 850 (4) 900

51. What is the difference (in Rs.) between the cost price and the selling price of article S?

(1) 50 (2) 250 (3) 200 (4) 100

.52. Which article's se~ling price is Rs.700?

(1) Q (2) R. (3) S (4) T

53. Which of the uollowing statements is true'? (1) The selling price of Sis IRs.700.

(2) The profit made by selling P is RS.20D" (3) The cost price of T is not Rs.750.

(4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 54 to 57: Answe·r the questions

on the basis of the information given below. -

The following table giVes the distribution of watches sold by five companies- Rado, Omega, swatch, Tag Heuer and Tlssout - at am outlet. In the fiirst table, complete


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data regarding the distribution of watches sold, accordlnq to the price range, is mentioned for each of the oompanies given and in the second table only partial information regarding the company wise distribution of watches sold at a price less than or equal to RS .. 10,'000 is given.

Price wise distribution of watches so,ld by the five companies

(Alii values aie in percentage terms)

Price (P) <In As.) Rado pmega Swatch Tag Tissout
P:S; 10,000 16 12 36 16 18
10,000 < P :;;; 20,000 28 20 16 36 24
20,000 < P < 40,000 18 16 18 12 2.0
40,000 < P :::; 1,00,.000 17 20 17 18 18
P:> 100,.000 211 32 13 18 2.0
Total 100 100 100 100 100 Company wise distribution of watches sold at a price of less than or equal to Rs.10,OOO

(in percentage terms)

Company Price
Less than or equal to RS.H)"OOO
Rado 24
Omega 24
Swatch 118
rrag Heuer ~6
[Tissout 118
[Total 100 Assume tile outlet sells watches of onl:y these five companies.

54. For watches with a price of more tthan Rs.20,000 but not mOr€! than Rs.40,OO(l, the watches of which company had the maximum sales (in units) at the outlet?

(1) Tag Heuer (2) Tissout:

(3) Omega (4) Rado

55. It for watches costing over Rs.100,000, the ratio of the value on sales of Omega watches and Tag Heuer watches is 32 5, what is the ratio of the average cost of an Omega watch sold to that of a Tag Heuer watch sold, in this price range?

(1) 18:5 (2) 16:5 (3) 12:5 (4) 9::5

56, For price P, the ratio of the number of watches sold at the outlet for the ranges P :::; 10,000, 10,000 < P :S 20,000 and 20,000 < P :::; 40,000 is

(1) 3: 4 : 1 (2) 2: 3 : 2

(3) 1:·3: 4 (4) 2: 3 : 1

57. Wlh~ch of the following, when considered

independently, is equal to the number of Omega watches sold at a price of more than Rs.l ,OO,OOO?

L Total number of Tissout watches sold at a price not more than Rs.40,.QOO.

II. Total number of Hade, Omega and Tag Heuer watches sold at a price less than or equal to Rs.10,.000 ..

III. Total number of Omega watches sold att a price not more than Rs.20,OOO.

IV. Total number of Omega, Tag Heuer and Tissout watches togetiher sold at a price more than Rs.20,OOO but not more than Rs.40,OOO.

0) All except I (2) All except II

(3) All except III (4) All except IV

DIRECTIONS for questions 58 to 61: Answerihe questions on the basis of tlhe intonnaton given beiow.

.A team is to' be selected from among ten persons - A, B, C, D,. E, F, G, H, I and] J - subject to the following conditions.

(i) Exactly two among E, J, I and C must be selected. (iii) If F is selected, then J cannot be selected.

(iii) Exactly one among A and C must be selected. (Iv) Unless A is selected, E cannot be selected,

(v) If and only if G is selected, [) must riot be selected. (vi) If 0 is not selected, then H must be selected.

The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.

58. Who among the following cannot be a member of a team of size 4?

(1) E (2) H

(3) F (4) None of these

59. What could be the size of a team that includes both Fand H?

(~) 8 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

60. In how many ways can the team of size 6 be selected, if it includes E?

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

61. What is the ~argest possible size of the team?

(~) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

DIRECTIONS for questions 62 to 65.: e.ach question is followed by two statements, A and B. Indicate your responses based on the following directives:

Mark (1) if the quesnon can be answered using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.

Mark (2) if the question can be answered usinq either statement alone.

Mark (3) if the question can be answered using A and B together but: not usinq A or B alone.

Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered even using A and B together.

62. The total number oi students in class A is 160% more than the total number of students in B, whicih, in turn, is 20% less than the number of students in C. In which class among A, Band C is ths totall number of students who passed the highest?

A. The total number of students of class A who failed is less than the number of students ov class B who failed.

B. The total number of students of class A who failed is less than the number of students ou class C who failed.

63. If 8th Mardh in year X is a Thursday, then find X, given 2000 :5 X < 2018.

A. Year 2018 will have the same calendar as that of X.

B. X + 1 is a leap year.

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64. Six persons - .A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, Is f sitting opposite D?

A. B is sill~ng betwe,en C and E.

B. F is sitting to the left of A, who is sitting opposite B.

65. Ram, RahLJI and Raghav are the top three rankers of the class .. The sum of their total marks is 358. Did Rah u~ get the highest marks?

A. Ram got 175 marks.

B. Rahlll got 119 marks.


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Illiumphanl,ll'IIstilu~ t;t1 Maf:lagflmt!lralIEdUii::alior1Pv'_ Ui1.


1. 4 7. 3 13. 4 19. 2 25. 1 31_ 2 37_ 4 43_ 1 49. 3 55_ 4
2. 1 8. 1 14. 3 :20. 2 26. 3 32. 1 38. 4 44. 1 SO. :2 56. :2
3. 3 9. 3 15. 2 :21. 2 27. 1 33. 2 39. 3 45. 2 51. :2 57. 1
4. 2 10. 2 1'6 .. 4 22. 4 28. 4 34. 4 40. 3 46. 1 52. 4 58. 4
5. 2 11. 2 17. 23. 3 29. 1 35. 3 41. 47. 3 53. 3 59. 4
6. 4 12. 3 18 4 24 4 30 4 36. 4 42. 4 48. 54. 3 60. 3
Solutions SECTION -I

Selutlcnsfnr questions 1 to 4:

1. 'Desperate' is to be in a hopeless situation where as 'disparate' means different in quality or type. In this context as tile sentence also talks about "re!;lional differences", disparate is apt; hence B

'Depose' means forced to give up position where as 'disport' means to amuse or diver! oneself in a happy, energetic way. In this context with reference to 'glamorous places' dlsport is suitable, Ilence A. 'Nonchalarnt" means casual, not to worry or care albout thirlgs.'Noncommittal' means 'deliberately not to express opinion orintention'_ Therefore 'nonchalant attitude' is apt - option A.

Serge is a type of thick woollen rnatsnal. The sentenc>€! speaks of an attire (suit) therefore serge (adjective) is appropriate. Surge is a verb meaning 'to move in waves', hence A.

'Dissimulate' means pretensions whereas "disseminate' is to spread. Hence A is apt.

Hence 8AAAA_ Choice (4)


The coruuncnon 'but' in the sentence iindicates that the next adjective would be a oontrasting one, Thererore it cannot be 'effervescent' {bubbly" full of life). 'Effete' means weak and powerless. Hence A.

'Faceuous' means humorous in a foolish way. Hence il is appropriate, 'Fad' is a craze. Hence IB_

'Scud' means move quickly and smoothly whereas 'soutt' is to make a 'mark on the surface' due to movement. Hence 'scud' A is apt

Mr. Roy in the sentence ~s a man therefore it should be 'confidant' .. 'Confidanle' reters to a woman. Option A. 'Concussion'is damage 10' t.he brain caused by a blow, where as 'concision' is conciseness. Hence option A.

Hence ABAAA. Choice (1)

3. 'Nonconformist' means unconventional. It gels witihl the word extreme ln the context and makes it meaningful. Helice A. 'Nondescript' means lackin.g dlstincffve q:uality. 'Resolute' means determined and f-irm. 'Dissolute' means degenel'ate. Hence A.

In British English 'gaol' means [ail. Theref;ore option B is suitable. 'Goal' means aim Dr purpose.

'Deprecate' is to criticize and 'depreciate' is to lose value. Hence A is apt.

'Compuncflon' is a fee!ling of' guilt and shame. 'Compulsion' is an urge. Henes B. Hence AABAB.

Choice (3)

4. 'Fatuous' is idiotic and 'felicitous' iis suitable. 'Fuming' makes A right.

61. 3 62. 2 63. 64-. 65.

'Mearningless' would mean not making sense while 'valueless' would mean having no applicability. So A. 'Gaggle' is a disorganised and noisy group of people. Therefore A. 'Gafle' is a siuptd mistake.

'Sheaths' are coverlnqs for knives, where as eheaves means a bundle 01 stalks and ears of corn cut down and tied toqstner. Hence B

'Skittered' is to move lightly and quickly, 'scuppered' is an attempt to spoil something. Hence A.

Therefore AAABA is correct. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 5 to 6:

5. In the first blank 'veneer', 'modicum' and 'fa9ade' can fiL In the second blank 'elaborated' and 'concluded' are not suitable, theretors "culminated' is the one most appropriate.

In option 2 both the words are suitable. Choice (2)

'6. In the first blarnk 'punctilious', conscientious 'scrupulous' and 'meticulous' are all suitable, but in the second blank only 'ensure' fits the context. Therefore meticulous and

ensure fit in the bill_ Cl10ice (4)


A f~nicky person is one who worries about small unimportant details andl is difficult to please.

A fastidious person pays attention to details because he wants to be accurate and helps to have thing in good order. Hence it is suitable_ For the second blank 'manacles' and "fetters' are words that refer to devices that prevent movements, 'trammsts' is a 'net to trap' hence all tthe I~ree are not suitable. 'Harness' is used to have conteoltsd movements and provide safety. Therefore it is acceptable. Hence option 3 'fastidious

..... , harness'. Choice (3)


The word attack is a pointer to the aggressiveness ot the media, therstors 'puqnaclous', 'bet:ligerent' and 'bellicose' areaH sultable Jn the first blank. 1111 the second [blank ollly 'rest,raint". Therefore bellicose .....

restraint is the best option. Choice (11)

SolutiQ!"IS for questions 9 and 10;


The paragraph tells us about 'pointers' that reveal information .. The penultimate line speaks ot the region around Manhattan.

Option 1 can be ruled out as it tells us about what happened in that place.

Option 2 is suppositlon and is therefore nDI apt.

Option 4, tells us ihat oysters flDurished thel'e and the reason for it. This cannot torrn the· end of the para.

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It is onliy option 3 that gives us the evidence on the basis of which historical happenings can be inferred.

Choice (3)

10. The paragraph speaks of Ihe origin and lnfluenee of music on the human mind. It also speaks of the condition a hundred years ago wilen the availability 01 music was Ilimited to live performances.

Option 1 speaks of the influence I result of music arnd hence cannot end the para aptly.

Option 3 refers Iback to t:he idea contained in the openlnq sentence of the' para and not tto an end. Option 5 wonders about music's influence on teenagers. This can form the beginning of an other paragraph,

Option 2 contrasts with the idea presented in tlhe penultimate sentence of the para.

Hence it is appropriate to end the para. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 1 , to 15:

Number of words and ExplalTlalo:ry notes forRe:

Number of words: 776

11. Refer to the second para, where 'the expression has been used, The first sentence introduces the idea and the example and explanation which follow elaborate on the point. The last sentence 'New status accorded to

human subjects' supports choice (2}, Choice (2)

12. While choices (1) and (2} are relevant to the passage, the main idea is the glorifica1ion of man and his achievements. So, only option (3) is closely related to

the theme. Choice (4} iis irrelevant. Ch:oice (3)

13. The latter half of the last para deals with Rembrandt's self-portraits. The diffe:rence between his early selfportralts and the later ones is discussed. Choice (I) talks of his evolution as an artist and human being. The reference to evolution as a person is not apt. Choice {2) is vague and does not summarise the idea in the sentence. The second half of choice (3) 'Rembrandt capture the artist in the man' is a distortion. Choice (4)

is correct and concise. Choice (4)

14. Para (4) helps us in picking choice (3) as the answer. In choice (4), 'inflating the ego' has not been suggesled in

the passage. Choice (3)

15. The second sentence in para (3) ~ 'there was a growi:ng belief .. , ... social status' spec[ficaHy refers to material success (new-founded waalm), So, choice (2) is tlhe answer, The word 'destiny' in choice (1) includes more than fortune. Choices (3) and (4) ate easy eliminanons. Note that choice (5) is distorted. The passage states that all these factors may Ihave a role to play in man's

fortunes. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions '16 to 20:

Number of words and ExplalTlato:ry notes for .RC:

Number of words: 857

16. Refer to t!he first sentence of the fourth para. The, words 'as long as socTety continues .... men' is a pointer to societal practices and conventional m.irndsets at work.

Choice (4)

17. If the author had left the question unanswered, choice (2) would have worked. Instead, by say~ng 'let Samuel Johnson have the last word', he seems to subscribe to Johnson's view. He is being diplomatic or tactful. Choice (3) and (4) are not suitabjs because

there is nothing to suggest that the view is objective or

,enigma'tic. Choice (1)

18. Johnson's response 'Which man, sir, which woman'?" in the last para is another way of saying 'il depends on the particular man or woman we are referring to', A ,generalised statement on the issue does not hold good.

Choice (4) captures this idea Ibesl. Choice (4)

19. Choice (2) is the best answer. At the outset, the author talks about there being no evidence of physlcal difference between brains of men and women. The' rest of the passage discuisses the differences in attitudes which reflect on their performance in tests elc. Choice (3), is not apt because the passage does not focus on establishine who ls better. The author merely discusses the dUiference. Choices (4) is not fihe primary issues

discussed in Ihe passage. Choice (2)

20. Choice (2) contains words, which the passage suggests are areas where girls or women are' associated with. Other options have at least one odd word in them.

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 21 to 25:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:

Number of words: 1,139

21, Hefer to [para 5 w:here the sentence occurs. This' refers to the religious connotations in the previous sentence.

Choice (2)

22. Refer to para 4 that refers to the apocalyptic lens of George' Bush. The [para supports all the options,

Choice (4)

23. Rerer to para 6. The para supports all the options except choice 3 ~ maintaining status quo wil'! not help.

Choice (3)

24. Rsfer to Para 7 choice 1, 2 and 3 find support and

choice 4 is negated. Choice (4)

25. Refer to para. 5.

Choice (1)

Difficulty level wise summary· Section I I
Level of Difficulty Ouesnons I
Very Easy ~
Easy 9,.11,12,16,23,24
Medium 3,5,6,8,10,,14,18,20,21,22
{Ji.fficuf( 1,.2,.4,7,13,15,17,.19,.25
Very Difficull - I SEC nON ~II

Solutions for questions 26 to 29:

26. We can classiiy the numbers based on the remainder they leave when divided by 3" as follows:

1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9 Consider the group conlainin9l1. 11 another number of 1he groUJp is also from A, the third aliso has to be from .A. If another number iis from IB,. the t'hird has to be from C. (It another is from C. the third has to be from B),

ThUJ·s to select 3 numbers such that the sum is divisible by 3, one-way is (1, 4, 7) (2, 5, 8) and (3. 6, 9)


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Otherwise we· proceed as follows. Select 1 from A. Select one number from B and one from C. This can be done in 9 ways.

Then take 4 'from A. Select one from B and one from C .. This can now be done in 4 ways. 7 from A gets grouped with the remaill~ng numbers in Band C. Thus, there are

1 + 9(4) or 37 ways to form the group. Choice (3)

27. 31 + 41 + 15x- 6y+ 23

;;;;3(x2 +5x+ 25J+4(l-.!Y+~)+2

4 . 2' 16

" {x+%f +{y-%f +2

Now (x + % rand! (Y - i r are both pertect squares and hence they can never De negative,. their minimum value will be zero.

(x+%r ~Oand (Y-~r ~O

Thus the minimum value of the expression is 3{O) + 4(0)

+ 2 i.e., 2 Choice (11)

28.. Let total adult population of town", T ~ Adult population that is male", 0.6T Adult populalion that is tsmals « 0.4T

a% of adult male population and b% of adUlt fema'ie popuratton is educated.

Given, educated adult males + uneducated adult females "= Sum 01 uneducated adult males + Educated adult lemates

;;;;;;. 0.6Tx__E_ + O.4Tx (100 -b)

100 100

ea 0.6T(10D-a) + (l.4Tb => 3a-2b", 50

100 100

Only choice (4) satisfies ttle above equation.

Choice (4)


Let the orthocentre, the centrold and the circum centre be denoted by H. G and C respectively. For any triangle H,. G and C are collinear and G divides the line joinirng the Hand C in t[he ratio' 2: 1 lnternally.




~ C divides the line joining HG in the ratio 3 : -1. :. The coordinates of Care

[(3)(1) - (1) (5) • (3)(-1) -(1}(3)] = [3 - 5, -3 - 3]

3-1 3-1 2 2

=(-1, -3) Choice (11)

[Note: It is infact sufficient to observe that the lime joining Hand G is x - y ;;; ,2,. whicb is sansfled lor only choice (1)1

Solutions for questions 30 and 31:

ABCD is a rectangle with length and breadth as J and b respectively.







As A"S" C, and D, are mid-points, AA, '" A,B '" CC, '" C,D '" 1/2 and BB, = B,C = DO, = O,A = .bt2

:. We have A,B, ;:: B,C, = C,D, " D,A,

'" J(fl2)2 +{/J/2)2

As all the four sides are equal. the msulting figure formed will be a rhombus.

Area 01 the rhombus A,B"C,D, is~ x I x b (because


B, D, ::: AB and A,C, " Be)

Similarly, if the midpoints of a rhombus are joined we get a rectangle.

From A2 drop a perpend~cular A2P on to AA,.

As A2 is the mid-point of A,D" AP will be halt ot AA,. Similarily, BD will be half 01 A,B l.e, PO will be half of AB Similarly, we get B2C2 as half of Be.

:.Area of A2B2C2D2 is (~x.%) '" (':) "'~ ,

From the above, we can see that Area of ABCD Is Ib

Area of A~B,C,D, is..!. (Ib) 2

Area ot A~B~C2D~ iS~ (lb)

Area of A3B3C3D~ is..!. (lb) 8

Area of (ABCD +A·2B2C~P2 + A<jB<lC4D,j + )

30. Areaof (A,B,C,D, + A3B;)C3D3 + A5B5C5D5 + )

//J+ lb t lb + .

4 16

110 II? Ib

-+-+-+ .

2: 8 32

Choice (4)

Note: Whenever the rnld-polnts of a quadrilateral are joined, the area of the new figure formed is half the area of the quadrilateral.

31. II AD :;;: 6 and AB '" 8,. D, D :;;: 3 and DC, :;;: 4. ::::;> D,G1 =5 ..

;;;;;;. Perimeter of ABCD = 2(6 + 8) and Perimeter of A"I3,C,D, '''' 4 x 5

. Perimeter of (ABeD + A2: 82 C2 O2 + .)

.. Perimeter of (A,B~Cl[)1 + As B3 C3 D3 + )



28+14+....... 2

20+10+ ..... 20

28 7


20 5

1-_!_ 2

:. Required ratio", 7 : 5.

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 32 and .33:

32. Given that DE and FG am both parallel to B. ::::;> DE is parallel to FG.

:. liADE - hAGF


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Since the area of 6.ADE is equal to the area of the quadrHa.terall DEGF, the area of MFG is twice the area of the lIADE.

Area of 6. ADE (AD)2 (AE)2 (DE)2

Areaot 6.AFG" AF = AG = FG

.'. (~~r =~=>~~" ~ Choice (1)


9z + 5 - 2y - x;:: - 8 + 5 9z+S:::-3+2y+x

Therefore statement ( 1) need not be true.

-8 .,:; x.,:; -5 => 25 .,:; _. 5x < 40

-1 ::>Z:5 5 => -6:5 6z::> 30

33. 18000 = 21322353" 2:43253 Consider the expression.

E = (1 + 2 + 22 + 23 ;. 24)

(1 '" 3 + 32)

(1 + 5 + 52 + 53)

Each of tile (5) (3) (4) or 50 terms of the expression is a factor of 18,000 and E itself is the sum of all these factors.

To get the sum of the factors that are divisible by 8 but nol by 25, we modify the first and the last bracket. The required sum is (2~ + 24) (1 + 3 + 3') (I + 5) " 24(13) (6)

= 1872. Choice (2)

25 -18 - 6::;; -5x- 9y+ 6z ~ 40 + 36 + 30 1 ~52-5x-9yS;106

6.2 - 5x - 9y is always positive or 6z- 5x- gy.> 0 6z>5x+9y

Therefore statement (2) is always true.

.Againl - 16:5 2x:::; -10, -8,::; 2y::5 4 andl- 25:::; - 5z:::; 5 - 16 - 8 - 25::; 2x + 2y- 5z::; - 10 + 4 + 5

--49:-; 2x+2y- 5z::;-1


2(X+ y) <: 5z, the~efore statement 3 is true.

Thus both statement.2 and statement 3 are true.

Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 34 and 35·:

34. nne grid can be considered to be formed .by a set of 6 parallel lines intersecting another set of 6 parall'ellines. Then the number of Iparallelograms. that can be observed is sC2 x sCi i.e. 15 x 15 '" 225. But since the two sets of parallel lines are perpendicular to each other, all the parallelograms that can be observed are rectangles (some of them are squares).

:. The number of rectangles ~that are not squares) that can be observed in the grid", 225 ~ 55", 170

Choice (4)

37. (ASI" '" 5 (SA),

.: nA + B ea 5(n8 4- A) => A(n - 5) = 8(5n - 1) A 5n-l

=> -;;;;--

B 1$-5

We consider the values of n given in the choices, and

. 51!-1

the corresponding values of n - 5, 5n - 1 and - .

. n-5

n-5 Sn-1 511-1
12: 7 59 59
14 9 69 23
16 11 79
21 16 104 13
2 35. The size of the grid is 5 x 5. The possible dimensions of me rectangles of area 6 sq.crn that can be observed in tihe square are either 3 x 2 or 2 x 3.

Number of rectangles of 3 x 2 that can be observed '" (6 - 3) 16 - 2) '" 12

Similarly, rectangles of dimension 2 x 3 are also 12. So, 24 rectangles have an area of 6 sq.crn

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 36 and 37:

36. We check each of the given options to determine which of the givenstatement!statements is/are always true. -1S;z::;5

-9:::; 9z;<;;45

- 4 :::; Y < 2 => - 8 :::; 2y :::; 4 => - 4 :s; - 2y:;; 8

- 8 :::; x;<;; -5 ~ 5 s -x:::; 8

- 9 - 4 + 5 :5 9z - 2y - x::::; 45 + 8 + 8


We see that 13/2 is a possible value of AlB.

Afier the expression in the last column has been expressed in its lowest terms, we have to ensure that both the terms (n!lme~a!or and denominator) are less than n.

:. Only 21 is a possible value for n. Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 38 and 39':

The time interval and the corresponding light shown in the two signals are as foll'ows :

Since the LCM of (50 ... 35 + 15) and (30 + 20 + 10) is 300. it is sufficient to analyse the behaviour upto the first 300 seconds, and t~e same pattern will repeal for every additional 300 seconds.

For the first signal

For the Second signal




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38. From the above table the only period during the first 300 seconds (i.e., 5 minutes) when both the signals are showing READY, is 10 seconds, i.e., from 290 to 300 seconds. Hence, ill one hour, this wiill happen for a total

0110>< 60 = 120 seconds or 2: minutes. Choice (4)


39. In t'he first 31]0 seconds both the signals show green light from 0 to 30, then from 120 to 150 and again from 200 to 210 and 240 to 250 i.e., for a total off 30 + 30' t 10 + 10 or 80 seconds. Thus in a time off 1 hour i.e., 1 x 60 x 60 seconds, both will show green light

. . 60 x'60 x 80

simultaneously for '" 960 seconds, or 16



Similarly in the first 300 seconds, both the signal simulitaneously show Red light from 150 to 170 and fhen from 270 to 285 l.e., for a total of (20 + t 5) seconds. Therefore in the first 1 hour bofh wm show

Red light simultaneously for 60 x 60 x 35 '" 420 sees


42:0 . .

::: -- rnmutss ::: 7 minutes


Therefore frOI1l1 the time both the signals are turned on, tihe total time for which both tile signals stmultaneouslv show GO Signal exceeds the total time for which both simultaneously show STOlP signall by 116 -7 '" 9 mlnutes.

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 41!l10 42:

410. To find the p,ercenttage expansion in ·the leogths of rod l, we need to know the lengths of L" and L2 or the ratio of the lengths of L, and l:l ..

From statement A alone, we know that the length of rod lis 120 em i.e., length 01 L, and length of L;/ '" 1.20 em. Without knowing the lengths of l, and. IL2 distinctly we cannot determine the expansion in the length of l. Therefore statement A alone is not sufficient.

From statement B alone, we know that 303.2.% of 3


(Length of l,) + 44-%, of (Lsnqth of 4) '" 44 em:


We cannot answer the question, for we cannot determine any unique value for the lengths of L, and L~.

Thus statement: B atone is not sufficient.

Using both the statements together, considering I, and t. as, the lengths of the rods l, and l2 respectively, we get I, + h. '" 120 ----- (1 )

!l + ~ 12 '" 44 --,--,- (2)

3 9

Solving equation (1) and equation (2), we get I, "" 84 andl/2", 3'6 cm

Expansion in the length of rod L '" 10% (84) + 25%~36) '" 8..4 ern + 9 cm '" 17.4 ern

Thus t'he percentage exoanslon in the length of rod L

'" 17.41 x 100 '" 14.5%


Therefore the question can be answered by using both

the statements together. Choice (3)

411. Failed in paper I 40% of 1120) = 48

Failed in both paper i and paper II 62.5% of (48) = 30

Now 21 students failed in all three papers, so the number of students who passed iin at least one of the papers = 120-2t = 99

Using statement A, the number of students who failed in paper I, those who passed [n paper II those who failed ~n paper III were in the ratio of 12 : 20 : 9

BUll: fmrm this we cannot say how many students passed [n all three papers. Therefore statement A is not sufficient. From statement B, if the number of students who passed in ex.actly one paper is 4k,.

The number of students who passed in exactly two


papers", 7'5% of (4k,) '" 4"14k,) '" 3k,

The number of students who passed in exactly one paper is 80% of the number of students who passed in at: least two papers 4k, '" 80% of (No. of students who passed in at least two papers),

Number of students who passed in at least two papers '" Sk,

Now n(passed in at least two papers) ::: n(passed in exactly two papers) t n(passed in exactly three papers) n(passedl in exactly three papers) '" 5k, - 3k, '" 2k, Number of students who passed in at least one paper '" n(passedl in exactly one paper) + n(passed in exactly two papers) + n(passed in exactlv three papers) '" 4k, + 3k, + 2k, '" 9k,

ltis given that 9k, '" 99 .-,k, '" 11

Therefore 22 students passed in all Ihree papers, Thus statement 13 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Choice (1)

42. From statement A, ab + r! is odd implies the following cases

1 2 3 4-

a b C ab + C' aif + 2bc + tic
Even Even Odd Odd Even
Even Odd Odd Odd Even
Odd Even Odd Odd Odd
Odd Odo Even Odd Odd Therefore we cannot say if a'lf + 2bc + ae is eve:n or odd from the statement A.. Thus statement A alone is not sufficient,

From statement B, be + a is odd implies the' following cases.

1 :2 3 4

b c a bc+a alf + 2bc + a<c
Even Even Geld Odd Even
Even Odd Odd Odd Odd
Odd Even Od~d Odd Odd
Odd Odd Even Odd Even Thus from statement B, we cannot say if ab2 + 2bc + Ie is even at odd. Therefore statement B alone is not s u ffic ie nt,

Even by using both the statements together, we cannot determine if ab2 + 2bc + ;Ie is even or not.

Thus the question cannot be answered even by using

oath the statements t:ogether. Choice (4)


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Solutions tor questions 43 to 45:

43. P P q


---+ Divisors



-;, Remainders

N" (p2q) k+ [4p2 + 4p ... 1]

If N is the smallest such number, k == 0 :,N ""4~ +4p+ 1", (2p+lr

I. N is an odd num'ber.

II. N is a perfect square and

III. N need not be a pertect cube.

Choice (1)

44. The equilateral triangle is given below, A


Whell we consider P to be lying on the vertex A.

Taking .e to be the lenqth of each side- of the equilateral triang:le.

The distance of P from each ou the sides A6 and AC is

zero, where as the distance off P from side Be is r.J3 .


Therefore sum 0'1 the distances of P from tile 3 sides of

, e.J3 eJ3

t.he tnangle '" 0 + 0 + -- '" --,

2 ,2

The minimum distance of P from the 3 sides of the

triangle ABC is always 1!.J3 if IP is located any where


on or inside the trianqls ABC.

Let us consider a case where P lies on side BCat a distance x from vertex A.


Distance of P from side BG " 0

Distance of P from side AB, PO;;;; xJ3


Distance of P from side AC, PR = (e - x) J3 2

Therefore sum of the distances of P from ihe 3 sides of

, x./3 .f3 f!.f3

the tnangle ",0 + -- ... (e-x) - "'--.

2 2 2

If P lies on the centroid which in an equilateral triangle coincides with thainoantsr, the orthocentre as well as t.he olrcumcentre, the distance of Pfrom any side of the

triangle is ff! (-i). Therefore the sum of the distances of P from the 3 sides of the triangle

" t../3 (.!.) (3), " e.J3

2 3 2

Choice (1)

45. Let a, m, b be prices of apple, mango, and banana are respectively. Then the problem is equivalent to finding no of positive integral solutions of

2a+m+b",20 ·--(1)

For a = 9 is the maximum value possible for a = 9; m + b = 2. So, the number of solutions", 1 .

For a = 8; m ... b '" 4. So, the number of solutions " 3; and so on. Finally fora = 1; m + b= 18. So, the number 01 solutions = 17

:.Total number of possible solutions is 1 + 3 + ... + 17

9(1 + 17)= 81 Choice (2)


Difficulty tevei wise summary - Section II

Vel}' Easy

Level of Difticulty Ouesflons




28,2.9, 31, 32, 34, 35, 36, 38,45



Very Difficult


Solutions for questions 46 to 49:

46.. Let the total number off trees planted In 2001 be x and the number of trees chopped in 1999 be 100.

: .. The total number ffruit bearing trees chopped in 1999, 2000, 2001, 2002 and 2003 will be 100{OA}, 110(0.6), 1.21(0,7), 133.1 (0.6) and 146.41(0.6) i.e., 40',66,84,7, 79.86 and 87.846 respectively.


.' .. X=--= 141.1


: .. The total number of trees planted in 2000 wlli be greaterthan 141.

~ The number of 'frurt bearing chopped in ,2000 wm be greater than 70.

As the number of trees planttecl in 1999 can be as low as 10, in this year the number of fruit bearing chopped can be more than the number of fruit bearin.g trees Ipl'anted. Similarly, if the number of trees planted in 2002 and 2003 are 150 an.d 10 respectively, the number of fruit bearing trees chopped will greater then the number of trees planted.

:.In only 2000, the number of fruit beartng trees choppad was definitely less than the number of truit

bearinq trees planted. Choice (1)

47. The years in which the percentage of fruit bearing trees and the total number of trees planted definitely increased, would be the minimum number of years in which the number of fruit bearing trees increased.

This, can .be observed only in the year 2000, 2006 and

2008. Choice (3)

48. We cannot definitely say that the number of fruit bearing trees that ale chopped are equal 10 that 0'1 the previous year but for years 2002 andl 2005 as the total number of trees chopped has been increased in the next year, the percentage of trees chopped has been reduced ill the next year. Hence, there is a possibility that they could be equal. Hence, maximum number of years from 2000 to 2008 in which the number of fruit bearing trees thai are chopped can be equal to that of the previous year

are two, Choice (1)

49. When there is an equal percentage change, increase and decrease alternately, starting with an increase the final quantity is always less than the initial quantity. Let the number of Ir,ees planted inthe years 2002 be x

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Let the number of tnilt bearing trees planted in the years 2000,2004,2006 andl2008 be p, q, rand s.

p» c» t » sand

r.p » x> q » r » s

Considering given choices,

(1) => 0,6p > 0,5x

(2) :::::> Q,4q < O,5x

(3) :::::> O,Sf < 0_5x

(4) => 0,7s can be equal, to 0,.5x.

Choice (3}

Solutions for questions 50 to .53:

Le'! us represent the given information as follows:

p 0 R S T
Profit/loss profit loss loss
Cost price (in Rs.) b a b- a+
Selllnq price (in Hs.) bt a- a
Difference Given proflt » 50 and profit .. 150.

:.The profits can be any two among 100,200 and 25Q,

If one of the p rof Is is 250" then the other profit: cannot be 200 ..

': 250 = 900 - 650 and 200 = 850 - 650 or 900 - 700, which is not possible.

One prom is 100 and the otl1eris 200/250 .. Also 100", 750- 650 or 850 - 750

As neither R nor T made a profit and either the selling price or tne cost price of the article, on whidl the profit made is RS.100, is Rs.750, a #- 750.

As a+ > a > 8-, 8 .. 650, 900..

:.8= 7'00 or 850

As b+ > b ;:. b~, b ¢ 650, 900

If b = 850, Ihen b+ must be equal to 900, in which case, the profit is Rs.SO, which violates the condition {3).,

:. b ~ 7'00 or 750

As profit is greater than RS.50 and not equal to Rs.150, the only possibilities for (b, b-t) are (7'00, 900) and (750,850).

If a = 850, then a+ must be equal to 900.

Also, (b, bt) " (700, 900) => Profit on ,selling Q is 200.

=> b- must be equal 10 650 => On selling a, profit is made, that must be equal to 100.

=> The selling price off S is 750_

As the cost price of R is 850, its selling price cannot [be 700, :. The sel:ling pr~ce of P must be 700, in which case on selling, P as well as T the shopkeeper incurred a loss of Rs.50, which violates condlfion (3) ..

:.8'" 700

=> a-- must be equal to 650.

(b, b+) = (750, 850) => on sellinlg Q a profit Rs.l00 is made. => b- must be equal 10 650.

:.On sel!ling S, a p:rofit is made,

:. The selling price of S must be 900, since the proflt made on no two articles is the same.

=> The selling price off P is RS.7S0.

From condition (4) the cost price of P can no! be Rs.900 Thus, the cost price of IP is RS.BSO and that of T .is RS .. 900 .. :. The final distribution is as follows:

P Q R S i
Cost price (in Rs.) 850 750 700 650 900
Selling price (In Hs.) 750 850 650 900 700 SOl. The selling price of P is Rs.750.

Choice (2}

51. The required difference == 900 - 650 = 250.

Choice (2)

52. The selling price of T is RS.700.

Choice (4}

53. Only choice (3) is true,

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 54 to 57:

For, prke{P) less, than Rs.10,OOO, the percentaqe share of the brands - R.ado, Omega, Swatch, lag Heuer and Tissout are 24, 24, 18, 16 and. 18 respsctlvely.

As shares of Rado and Omega are equal.

'16% of total Rado watches sold = 12:% of total Omega watches SOld

.. Rado: Omega = 12 : 16", 3 : 4.

Sinrilarly. 12% of total Omega watches sold = ~ x 36,0/0 of total Swatch watch sold

=> Omega: Swatch", 144: 36 = 4: 1

Similarty, checking for others. we get the ratio of the total sales of the five brands as 3 : 4 : 1 : 2 :: 2.

Let us say tne number ot watches sold of the brands be 300, 400, 100, 200 and 200.

:, The number of watches sold 01 different brands im different category is as follows.

Price Rado Omega Swatch Tag Heller Tlssout
P <: 1Q,OOO 48 48 36 32 36
10,000 < P < 20,000 84 80 16 72 48
~O 000 < P < 40 000 54 64 18 24 40
~o,OOO < P 5 1,(]O,OOO 51 80 17 36 36
p,. ',00,000 63 ,2B 13 36 40 54. From, the above table, it is the highest for Omega.

Choice (3)

55. R.attio of sales (by value) of Omega and Tag Heuer == 32 : 5 Ratio of sales (by units) '" 128 : 36

If average price of arnomega watch is x and that of a Tag Heuer is 9 (both cases for units costing over 100,000)

128 x 32

=':> 36 x y"=' 5 => x : y = 36 • 20 = 9 : 5

Choice (4)

56. From the above table the required ratio

= 200 : 300 : 200 :::: :2 : 3 : 2 Choice (2)

57. Omega watches with price' more than Rs.1 ,00,000 = 128 (from the table)

I 36 + 48 + 40 of- 128

II 48 + 48 + 32 '" 128. Thus, II is true.

III 48 + 80 " 128. Thus, III is true.

IV 64 + 24 + 40 = 128. Thus, IV is nue,

Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 58 to 61:


(i) E, J, I, C ___" EJ I EI I EC I .III I JC IIG (ii) F, J ___" F I J I 0

(iii) A, C___" Ale

(iv) E___" A

(V) G, 0 ___" G I 0

(vi) D, H ___" H / DI HD

From (ii), arnono F and .J, only J can be selected or only F can be selected or none of them can b'e selected.

From (ill), among .A and E, either both can be selected or none of them can be selected!.

58. The following teamsinclude.s E or H or F but violate none of the givan conditions.


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(1) E,. A, I, G (2) J, H, C, D (3) F, I,. Coo 0

,·.The answer is option (4).

Choice (4)

59. As both F and H are selected.

... EOxactly 1IN0 among EO,. I and C must be selected and exactly one among G and 0 must be selected.

.'.The team which includes both F and H, carmot bs of Ihe size 3 or 4.

The maximum possible size of the team is 7 . . ·.ltcannot Ibe 8.

But,. the size of the team could be 5, a.s follows:

F, H, I, C, G Choice (4)

60. If E is selected, then A must also be selected, _'_C cannot be selected.

. ·.In the 'following ways, the team of l3 can be sel~ected. (1) A, E, J, GfD, H, B ------- .2 ways

(2) A, E, I" F, GfD, IH ----- 2 ways

(3) A, E, I" G/D, H, B --.----- 2 ways

(4) A, E, I,. F, D, B

:_There are a tolal of 7 ways. Choice (3)

61. To maximize the size of the team, we should 10How the steps given below,

{I} Among F and J., I~el us select F_ (ii) Among A and C, let UiS select A.

(iii) As A is selected let us select E atsc.

(iv) Among G, D and HI, let us select D and H or G and IH. (v} Among E, J, I and C, as E is already selected, and J and C cannot be selected. I should be selected.

(vi) Let us include 8 also in the team.

.vThe possible team is F, A, E, D, H, II, lB.

:. The maximum possible size of the team is 7.

Choice (3)

SolUl.iol1lS for questions 6210 65:

62.. Let the number of students in class B be 100, the number of students in A is 260 and the number of students in C ~s 125.

From statement A, the total number of students of class A who failed is less than the number of students of class 8 who 'failed.

Maximum possible number of students failed in B is 100, so the maximum possote students fai:led in A is less 99. Hence, the number of students of A who passed is at least 2:60 - 99 " 161, which is more than the total number of students of C. So, the number 01 students 01 A who are passed is the highest. Hence, A alome is sufficient.

f=rom statement B, the number of students of class A who are failed is Iless than the number of students of class C who are failed.

The mazlrnum possible number of students of class C who are failed is 12.5.

.', Tha maximum possible number of st.udents of class A who are failed is 124.

.', Tlhe numbe:r of students of class A who are passed is at least 260 - 124 .. t 36; which is more than the total number of students of 8·,

:. The number of students of A who are passed is the highest

:.8 alone is also sUlffUci·enl. Choice' (.2)

63. Upto 2000 years (which is a multiple of 400 years), the number of odd days is zero.

:. Tlhe nurnbsr of odd d'ays till 8th March, 201]1 is 3 IJar1UJary) ... 0 (February) + 8::: 11 ~_e .. 4.

=> 8th March 2001, will be a Thursday.

The years in which 8th March is a Thursday are 2007., 2012 and 2018 .

{',' The number of odd days from 2001 to 2007, 200710 2012 and 2012 to 2018, which is zero in each case).

... X can be either 2001 or 2007 or 2012 or 2018.

From A alone, X cen be 2001 or 2007 or 2012_

:.A. alone is not sufficient.

From B alone, as x + 1 is a leap year, X must be 2007.

.: B alone is sufficient. Choice (1)

64. From A alone, as B is sitting between C and c.

.'. F can be Sealed opposite anyone among B, C or E. Thus F is not sitting opposite D.

:.A alone is sufficient.

From B alone, F can be seated opposite C or 0 or E. :. B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)

65. From statement A, we know that Ram got 175 marks.

Therefore, Ihe marks scored by Rahuland Raghav togetther is 183. Hence, we can't find whether Rahul got the hiqhest marks or not.

.', A alone is not sufficient.

From B alone, Rahul got 119 marks.

Therefore, the marks scored by Ram and Raghav together is 239. When we divide 239 into two parts, one part wHI definitely be mora than 119,

Thus we can say that Rahul did not score the highest marks.

.: B alone is sufficient. Choice (1)

Difficulty level wise summary - Section III I
!Level of Difficulty Questions
V~f}'_ Eas)I_ -
Easy 58,64 I
Medium 47, 48, 54, 55, 56, 57,. 59, 60,. 61, 62, 63,65 I
Difficult 49
VBtY Oifficuft 46,50,51,52,53 I "''''''''''''='''=''''''''''-'''='''''=''''':=''''''''''=''''''''''''''=''~'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''=""''''::'''''''''5'''''''''''''''':'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''=''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''

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SECTION-I Number of Questions = 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 and 2: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Following are some statistics regarding the performance of the Indian economy.

(1) The trade deficit" in the month of March 1999 was $3.5 billion.

(2) The economic survey conducted by the Minist!)! of Finance in Februa!)!, 2000 estimated a trade deficit of $48 billion for the year 2000-01, taking into consideration the economic recession allover the world.

(3) The maximum deficit, which was recorded in May, 1999, was only due to an increase in oil prices by 10% per barrel over the previous month (with the volume of oil imported being the same as in the previous month).

(4) Exports for the year 2000-01 are estimated to be $220 billion.

(5) The ratio of the trade deficit in 1997-98 to that in 1998-99 is 6 : 7.

The trade deficit is defined as imports minus exports.

Monthly trends in foreign trade (billion dollars) (April 1999 to March 2000)

24 ~--------------------------------------------------------~

22 .1------_, +.-



+------------------'.------------*- ---.;:....- ---I


. - + - -Irnports

April May June July Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec Jan Feb Mar

• Exports


1. The approximate percentage increase in the imports from 1999-2000 to 2000-01, based on the economic survey conducted by the Minist!)! of Finance, is

(1) 10.5% (2) 7.5%

(3) 5.5% (4) Data insufficient

2. Which of the following questions can be answered from the given data?

(1) What was the tolal trade deficit in the year 1998-99?

(2) What was the percentage increase in the trade deficit for 2000-01 over that in 1999-2000?

(3) What was the ratio of exports in 2000-01 to that in 1998-99?

(4) More than one of the above.

DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

729 small pink cubelets are painted pink on each face and then arranged together so as to form 27 identical medium-sized cubes. Each of these 27 medium-sized cubes is painted black on all the outside faces. The 27 medium-sized cubes are now arranged to form one large cube and the faces of this large cube are painted pink again.

4. What is the number of small cubelets that have at least one face painted pink?

(1) 125 (2) 567 (3) 365 (4) 729

5. What is the number of small cubelets which have an equal number of faces painted pink and black?

(1) 0 (2) 42

(3) 64 (4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.


D English 0 Maths
D Hindi ~
Physics 3. What is the number of small cubelets that have at least one face painted black?

(1) 365 (2) 604 (3) 556 (4) 729


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The diagram above represents the distribution of the number of students of a class who passed in one or more out of four different subjects - Maths,. Physics, Hindi and English.

NOTE: In the figure above, the number of students belonging to any particular combination (i.e., combination of number of subjects passed in) which is not shown is zero.

6.. How many students passed in at least one subject among Hindi and English but failed in at least one subject among Maths and Physics?

(1) 76 (2) 72

(3) 59 (4) None of these

7. How many students failed in at least two of the above mentioned four subjects but passed in Physics?

(1) 20 (2) 22 (3) 29 (4) 44

8. 11 every student, who failed in not more than one of the above mentioned four subjects, gets promoted to the next year, then how many students are promoted to the next year?

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 20 (4) 19

9. How many students failed in at most two of the above mentioned four subjects?

(1) 51 (2) 52 (3)53 (4) No

DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

On 181h May, when my Mawti was showing a kilometre reading of 4440, it stopped in the middle of the road because the petrol got over. I got down from the car and poured the five litres of petrol I had in a can with me. Then, on 251h May, when the kilometre reading was 4474, I got the petrol tank filled to the brim by putting in 28 lltres of petrol. On ih June, my father-in-law filled up another 10 litres but he said that he did not remember the ki lometre reading of the car. On t t" June and 191h June, I got the tank filled completely when the kilometre reading was 5139 and 5689 respectively - each time by filling 25 litres. On 251h June, i.e., today, I again got the tank filled to the brim by putting 221itres when the kilometre reading was 6112.5. Petrol was always filled up the first thing in the morning at the petrol pump next to my house.

Fuel efficiency of a car is defined as the number of kilometres the car gives per litre of petrol.

10. What is the average fuel efficiency of my car from 251h May to 251h June? (1) 19.97 krnJlitre (3) 14.97kmllitre

(2) 18.67 km/litre (4) 15.27 km/litre

11. What is the average fuel efficiency given by my car between 251h May and 191h June?

(1) 13.8 km/litre (2) 19.3 km/litre

(3) 20.25 kmJlitre (4) Cannot be determined

13. What is the average fuel efficiency given by my car between lllh June and 251h June?

(1) 19.5kmllitre (2) 20.7 km/litre

(3) 13.5km/litre (4) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 17: Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

Six. candidates - A, B, C, D, E and F - participated in a quiz competition. A total of 24 questions were asked, four questions to each candidate. If a candidate cannot answer a question, it is passed to the next candidate and if he also cannot answer the question, it is passed to the next candidate and so on until the question is answered or till each of the six candidates gets a chance to answer the question. The questions are always passed in the order A, S,. C, D, E, F and then from F to A,. B and so on. When a question is answered, the candidate gets 6 marks if it is a direct question, i.e., if he was the first candidate to be asked that question; 5 marks if it is passed once, i.e., if he is the second candidate to be asked that question and so on and finally the candidate gets only 1 mark if it is passed five times (i.e., when five persons pass it).

The following table Qives partial information about the number of questions answered by each of the six people.

Question Number of Questions Answered by
directed at A B C D E F
A 2
B 1
C 1 0 1
0 0 2
E 2 0
F 1 0 1 In the above table, for example exactly two questions directed at A were answered by C, i.e., after they were passed from A to B and then from B to C.

The following information is also known:

(i) Each candidate answered at least one and at most three direct questions.

(ii) The number of questions that: were passed by exactly one, exactly two, exactly three, exactly four and exactly five candidates are 2, 5, 3,. 1 and 1 respectively.

(iii) C answered exactly two direct questions.

(iv) The number of questions directed at E but answered by B was same as that directed at A but answered by D.

(v) All the 24 questions were answered and each candidate who answered any question, answered it correctly.

14. If no question directed at F was answered by A, then the difference in the number of points obtained by E and F is

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 5

15. If Band E answered an equal number of questions, then the number of points obtained by the winner is

(1) 27 (2) 24

(3) 26 (4) Cannot be determined

12. What is the average fuel efficiency given by my car between the refuelling on 181h May and 251h June?

(1) 14.5 krn/litre (2) 17.9 km/litre

(3) 18.6 km/litre (4) Cannot be determined


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16. II the number of direct questions answered by A, B and F are different, then the total number of questions answered by C and D together is

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 6

17. If the number of points obtained by C is 25, then the difference in the number of questions answered by A and B is

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 3 (4) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 18 to 20: Answer the questions independently of each other.

18. Six students - Ajay, Suresh, Mahesh, Ramesh, Ravi and Harry sit around a circular table which has six equispaced chairs. Each student studies exactly one subject lrom among Maths, Arts, Engineering, Medicine, Science and Law. Suresh is sitting opposite to Mahesh. The science student is to the immediate right 01 the maths student and opposite to the medicine student. Ravi is to the immediate right of Mahesh. Harry is opposite to the medicine student. Ravi is neither the science student nor the maths student. If Ajay is the medicine student, which of the following subjects is Ramesh studying?

(1) Engineering (3) Maths

(2) Science (4) Arts

19 .. Eight children - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H - are sitting in a row, facing north. B is next to neither C nor E, both of who are at the extreme ends. D is immediately next to both C and G, whereas B is to the left of G. Which of the following statements islare necessary to determine the correct order in which all of them sit?

L F and Hare next to each other II. Band H are next to each other III. F and E are next to each other IV. A and Bare next to each other.

(1) Only I, II and IV (2) Only II and III

(3) Only I and II (4) Only I, II and III

20. Among four girls - Ramya, Rani, Rama and Rajni - no two girls are of the same age. If Rama is older than Rajni,. then Rani is older than Ramya. If Rani is older than Rama, then Rani is younger than Rajni.lf Rani is younger than Rama, then Rani is older than Rajni. If Rajniis older than Rama, then Rani is older than Rajni. Who is the eldest of a.1I the girls?

(1) Ramya (2) Rani

(3) Rama (4) Cannot be determined


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SECTION -II Number of Questions = 30

DIR.ECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: Each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option from those given below the statement to make up the missing part. Please note that more than one choice may fit in to make a syntactically correct sentence, but select the choice that is logical in the context of the sentence.

21. Sophisticated military strategies developed for the conventional battlefield in tackling asymmetric wars fought in densely inhabited theatres of conflict.

(1) are extremely complicated (2) are hopelessly inadequate (3) are highly successful

(4) are woefully futile

22. To face the manifold challenges that we encounter in today's world, which is changed by the vicissitudes of capitalism and the nihilism of religion, we need a

global leadership _

(1) that accepts status quo as the order of life (2) that strives to build a new world order

(3) that is not subordinated to the straitjacket of ideology

(4) that shuns conventional ideologies

23. For India to achieve a 10% share in world trade by 2022, Indian businessmen and administrators must

reorient themselves _

(1) exercising greater tact in carrying out trade negotiations

(2) from thinking of small steps to conceiving great strides

(3) learning to overcome both external threats and internal shortcomings

(4) and lobby for a multilateral trading system, which is most beneficial for developing nations

24. At a time when the economic tsunami is threatening the

livelihoods of millions of people, '

(1) the state must assume responsibility for the security and well being of its citizens

(2) governments must assume the responsibility of rescuing the economy

(3) we must realize that the challenge can be met only through cooperation and collective leadership (4) governments must harmonize moral and environmental concerns with economic growth

25. There is a need in order that women in

India achieve equality in health and social status in the foreseeable future.

(1) for improved medical facilities

(2) for providing subsidised medical treatment for people belonging to the marginalized segments of society

(3) to change social and cultural perspectives (4) for aggressive gender justice

DIHECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

For millions of Romanians, migration has been an economic lifeline. But for 12 year-old Stefan Ciurea, the thought of his mother leaving to work as a maid in Italy was worse than death: he hanged himself with a leather horsewhip from the branch of a cherry tree. After taking one last photograph of himself with his cell phone, Stefan, a quiet, diminutive boy who collected foreign coins and made toy swords out of scrap metal, posted a note to his chest.

"I'm sorry we are parting upset," the note said, referring to his pained efforts to stop his mother, Alexandrina, from migrating to Rome, part of an exodus of one-third of Romania's active worktorce. "You don't have to worry about my funeral because a man owes us money for timber. My sister, you should study hard. Mom, you should take care of yourself because the world is harsh. Please take care of my puppy."

Two years later, Alexandrina Ciurea, a 38-year-old single mother, is a cleaner in Rome, one of an estimated 3 million Romanians who have migrated westward over the past five years. She said Stefan's suicide had given her a stomach ulcer. After his death, she waited a year before deciding to leave her two other children, who were teenagers, behind.

But in the end, economics prevailed: she could earn about $770 a month cleaning houses in Italy, more than three times her wage as a seamstress in Romania. "Stefan's death is the tragedy of my life," she said in a telephone interview from Rome. "But I left because I was poor and couldn't feed my children."

Many in this poor Balkan country of 22 million dreamed of escaping during decades of dictatorship. The exodus of poor, rural Romanians began after the fall of Communism in 1989 and intensified two years ago when Romania joined the European Union. Spain, Italy and a handful of other countries softened immigration rules to attract less expensive workers from the East.

Diligent Romanians became the strawberry pickers, construction workers and housecleaners of choice, doing jobs that workers in richer neighbouring countries no longer wanted. But while migration has brought economic gains - migrants sent home nearly $10.3 bi llion in remittances last year - it has also exacted a heavy toll on the country left behind.

The migration ripped apart the social fabric, creating a generation of what some sociologists call the "strawberry orphans." An estimated 170,000 children have one or both parents working abroad, according to recent study by the Soros Foundation. The same study found that children with parents abroad were more likely to abuse alcohol and cigarettes, have problems with the police and under-per1orm in school. Conversely, some children who blame themselves for their parents' departures become straight-A students.


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Denisa lonescu, a psycho.logist who works with the children of migrants, said they were at higher risk for depression, especially if it was the mother who left, while some of the children suffer from feelings of abandonment. "In Romania, it is the mother who cares for the children," lonescu said. "So when the mother leaves, the child's world falls apart."

Of the children lett behind, 14 have committed suicide over the past three years, according to researchers with the Soros Foundation. II is unclear what role their parents'leaving played in the children's decisions to take their lives, except in the case of Stefan; it is also unclear if the rate is higher or lower than for all children in Romania.

But psychologists say the effects of migration have been especially acute because Romania is a largely rural country where close family ties underpin all aspects of life. In some cases, migration causes already dysfunctional families to implode.

Mihaela Stefanescu, who coordinated the study for the Sores Foundation, said the billions in remittances had helped eradicate extreme poverty and had empowered working mothers like Alexandrina Ciurea. But she said the migration was also redefining the notion of the traditional Romanian family.

Many children of migrants live with grandparents, some of whom are not able to deal with the demands of rearing young children. Divorce among migrants is rising, with sets of parents sometimes migrating to different countries. In extreme cases, children are abandoned or sent to orphanages, child advocates say.

An Emmy Award-winning documentary, "Any Idea What Your Kid's Doing Right Now?" shown on national television, featured a family of six children left with their blind father after the mother went to work as a maid in Germany. She met another man and never returned. Soon, some of the children were forced to stop going to school and find work to survive.

Stefanescu said migrating parents were spoiling their children to allay guilt, "people are going on spending sprees in order to overcompensate for their humiliation and guilt at having had to leave the country to support the family," she said.

Economists warn that the benefits of working abroad may prove short-lived, especially if the global economic down-turn forces workers to return horne to an economy that can no longer absorb them. Some companies dealt with worker shortages caused by the migration by importing workers from Turkey, China and India to fill jobs in construction, agriculture and textiles.

Tens of thousands of Romanians are already out of jobs in Spain and ltaly, and alarm is growing that a mass return could overstretch an already teetering Romanian economy. "The snort-term economic gains 01 migration will not Justify the long-term costs," said Radu Soviani, a leading economist. "II is a national tragedy."

26. The term 'strawberry orphans', in the passage refers to

(1) Romanian children whose parents are employed as strawberry pickers in neighbouring countries. (2) Romanian children left behind by parents who have migrated. due to economic compulsions.

(3) Romanian child.ren who have been abandoned by their parents.

(4) Romanian children whose parents have gone abroad in search of greener pastures.

27. In this passage, the author primarily

(1) highlights how the social fabric of Romania has been torn beyond repair.

(2) opines that Romania's short-term gains can't make up for the long-term losses.

(3) captures the plight of children in Romania.

(4) discusses the social and economic implications of Romania's migration problem.

28. When the author says that "migration causes already dysfunctional famil.ies to implode,." we understand that

(1) separated families collapse from within. (2) family as a unit breaks down.

(3) the split in separated families widens. (4) poor families are the worst hit.

29. In the note to his mother, Stefan Giurea sounds (1) confused and dismayed.

(2) dejected but resigned.

(3) remorseful and apologetic. (4) wistful and tender.

30. Aocording to the passage, whalis the primary reason for migration exacting a heavy toll on Romania?

(1) Extreme poverty

(2) Economic independence of women (3) The country'S rural character

(4) Children bearing the brunt of the problem

DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences.

31. A. Rain or shine, summer or winter Mr.Sharma never misses his morning walk.

B. He leaves his home at 5:00 a.rn, and walks briskly for an hour.

C. He makes sure not to fall sick.

D. If it is winter, he wears woollen andil it rains he wears a raincoat and carries an umbrella.

(1) Only C (2) Band C

(3) A and C (4) C and D

32. A. Sheela hails from a respectable family.

B. Unfortunately, her parents got killed in communal riots that took place in 1980.

C. At that time, she was a 10-years-old child.

D. As she had no close relatives to take care of her, she was brought to the mahila ashram.

(1) Only D (2) A and C

(3) Band C (4) Only B


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33. A.

Our historical monuments are our national treasures and are symbolic of our past glory.

B. They must be preserved at any costs.

C. Most of them are in poor repair.

O. It is high time we should repair and renovate them.

(1) BandO (3) A and. B

(1) OnlyB (3) Band 0

(2) Band C (4) B, C and 0

(2) Only 0 (4) C and 0

35. A. Mr.Ramesh has a hectic schedule.

B. Long work hours and meetings that extend beyond lunch break are an everyday affair.

C. He can't complain for he is the boss.

D. Nor can he quit because he is a working partner of the jolnt venture. (1) Aand B

(3) Band D

(2) C and D (4) A and C

34. A. Teaching is a noble profession.

B. It is said teachers can make or mar a nation.

C. They command a great respect in society.

D. Those who fail to inspire do not make good teachers.

DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

Banking is the industry that failed. Banks are meant to allocate capital to businesses and consumers efficiently; instead, they ladled out credit to anyone who wanted it. Banks are supposed to make money by skilfully managing the risk of transforming short-term debt into long-term loans; instead, they were undone by it. They are supposed to expedite the flow of credit through economies; instead, they ended up blocking it.

The costs of this failure are massive. Frantic efforts by governments to save their financial systems and buoy their economies will do long-term damage to public finances. The IMF reckons that average government debt for the richer G20 countries will exceed 100% of GOP in 2014, up from 70% in 2000 and just 40% in 1980. Despite public rage over bank bail-outs, the industry has also comprehensively failed its owners. The scale of wealth destruction for shareholders has been breathtaking. The total market capitalisation of the industry fell by more than half in 2008, erasing all the gains it had made since 2003.

Employees have scarcely done better. The popular perception of bankers as Porscha-drlvlnq sociopaths obscures the fact that many of the industry's staff are modestly paid and sit in branches, information-technology departments and call-centres. Job losses in the industry have been savage. "Being done" used to refer to hearing about your annual bonus. Now it means getting fired. America's financial-services firms have shed almost half a million jobs since the peak in December 2006,. more than half of them ln the past seven months. Many have gone for good.

The pain is nowhere near over. The credit crunch has been a series of multiple crises, starting with subprime mortgages in America and progressively sweeping thmugh asset classes and geographies. There are now some glimmers of optimism in the investment-banking world, where trading books have already been marked down ferociously and credit exposures to the real economy are more Hmited. But most banks are hunkering down for more misery, as defaults among consumers and companies spiral. In its latest Global Financial Stability Report, the IMF estimates that the total bi II for financial institutions will come to $4.1 trillion.

With so much red ink still to be spilled, it may seem premature to ask, what the future of banking looks like .. For most industries, failure on this scale would mean destruction, after all. Banks, notoriously, are different The most seismic event of the crisis to date, the bankruptcy of Lehman Brothers last September, demonstrated the costs of letting a big financial institution collapse. Trust evaporated and credit dried up. "October was the most uncomfortable moment in my career," recalls Gordon Nixon, the boss of Royal Bank of Canada (RBC). "There was a possibility that the entire global banking system could go under."

Concerted actions by governments since then, first in the form of capital injections and liability guarantees, and more recently via schemes to buy or guarantee loans, have signalled their determination to stabilise and clean up their big banks.

Politics notwithstand.ing, the commitment of governments to d.efend their banking systems removes the existential threat to the biggest institutions (or, more precisely, transfers it to sovereign borrowers). Bank bosses have learnt not to pronounce too confidently about the future. If the IMF's loss predictions turn out to be accurate, there is still too little capital in the system. But most think that the chance of another Lehman-style blow-up has been greatly reduced ..

There is still great uncertainty about the nature and extent of the support that governments will end up offering to their banks. But governments are now deeply embedded in banking systems. They are guaranteeing far more retail deposits than before the crisis, They are guaranteeing the issuance of new debt. They own preferred shares in many banks, common equity in others and stand ready to inject capital in others still. Banks that have not taken a scrap of government money still benefit from their stabilising presence. ''We all exist at the largesse of the government right now," says a bank boss.

With government backing assured and impending losses somewhat more predictable, the big banks are slowly starting to lift their heads from the floor. Meetings with investors have been dominated for the past 18 months by discussions about banks' balance-sheets and, in particular, the amount of capital that banks had. ''This is my first experience of the quarterly-earnings game where no one has cared about earnings," says Bob Kelly, the boss of Bank of New York Mellon.


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That is changing. Even the biggest victims of the crisis expect to return to profitability this year. Galling as it may be to contemplate the returns that will once again accrue to banks, the rest of us badly need them to make money. Just as the prospect of continuing losses is what has stopped private capital from entering the system, the prospect of future profits is what will lure investors back in to replace governments. Profitability is also critical to the ability of banks to cover future losses without calling on further government cash. The sltuatton is fluid but analysts at Barclays Capital reckoned in March that cumulative pre-tax and pre-provision income at the top 20 American banks for this year, .2010 and 2011 will be $575 billion, just enough to cover their estimates of losses in that period of $415 billion-$560billion.

The future looks different to different types of banks. For smaller ones that fall outside the comforting embrace of the state or have less diversified loan portfolios, the outlook is bleaker. American regional banks and Spanish savings banks, or cajas, are among those coming under increasing pressure as commercial-property portfolios suffer. Mike Poulos of Oliver Wyman, a consultancy, expects the number of banks in America, currently some 8,000 or so, to drop by 2,000 or more as a result of the crisis.

But for those banks at the heart of the crisis, the household names of Western finance, the landscape is different Their future is secure enough for them to be able to plan beyond survival. Their failures have been big enough for them to know that everything they do, from the way they manage their balance-sheets to the way they pay their managers, has to change. But in seeking to work out what the new normality will be for banks, the first question to ask is how quickly and on what terms governments will disentangle themselves from the industry.

36. How are banks 'notoriously ... different'?

(1) A collapse does not signify the end lor the industry.

(2) Banks can throw up their hands without facing any repercussions.

(3) Unlike in other industries, the collapse of banks does not bankrupt the owners.

(4) Banks are different because they deal in other people's money.

37. The words 'with so much red ink still to be spilled' imply that

(1) the worst is yet to come.

(2) banks will continue to make losses for some more time.

(3) governments will continue to exercise control over the banks and the industry.

(4) banks cannot tum around for a long time.

38. The author, in this passage

(1) explores the implication 01 the current financial collapse.

(2) points out how and why the banking industry has turned the corner.

(3) examines the extent of government involvement in the banks and what it means for the future.

(4) explores what the future of the banking industry could be.

39. The words, 'Politics notwithstanding,' means (1) that politics was the main culprit.

(2) inspite of the politics involved.

(3) irrespective of political leanings.

(4) apart from politics.

40. The word 'that' in 'That is changing' stands for, (1) concern about the bottom line.

(2) government backing.

(3) concern about survival.

(4) profit made.

DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 45: Attempt these questions independent of each other.

41. Human rights activists vociferously demand that capital punishment must be done away with, even lor perpetrators of dastardly crimes. They contend that the purpose of any punishment must be to

reform the perpetrators of crimes and help them turn over a new leaf. On reformation they would not resort to any heinous crimes and the crime rate would come down automaticallv.

Which of the following, if true, would greatly invalidate the contention of the human rights activists?

(1) Reformation of hardened criminals is an extremely difficult task.

(2) Even in countries topping the human rights index, capital punishment is still in vogue.

(3) Nothing short of capital punishment can deter potential perpetrators of heinous crimes.

(4) Human rights activists do not take into account the sufferings of the relatives of the victims of the crime.

42. With people living longer and healthier lives than they did about thirty years back, thanks to advances in health care, a strong case exists for reducing the life insurance premia rates as death claims due to disease and illness are likely to be less frequent. Which of the following, if true, would show that the life insurance companies are justified in not reducing the premia rates?

(1) The population of the country has gone up by more than filly percent in the last thirty years.

(2) Accident-related claims are now significantly greater than they were thirty years ago.

(3) The value of money has gone down considerably in the last thirty years.

(4) There are not many players in the life insurance sector, so the companies are able to charge premia as they please.

43. Consequent upon the ban imposed by the Government on smoking in public places there has been a decline in the sales of tobacco products, with every seller reporting a reduction of twenty percent or more in sales volume. Smoking appears to be losing its appeal. The Government claims that this is solely due to its ban.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the Government's claim?

(1) Though the number of cigarettes smoked may have come down, there is an increase in the number of smokers.

(2) People continue to smoke in areas other than those notified as 'No smoking' areas.


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(3) There has been ambiguity regarding the classification of areas as 'public places' and 'other places',

(4) Prices of cigarettes have gone up by over fifty percent after the ban was imposed.

44. In our country, limited-overs cricket played in one day is far more popular and draws more spectators to the ground than test cricket played over five days. This clearly shows that shorter duration field games are growing in popularity, and we can expect a resurgence of interest in hockey and football.

Which of the following, if true, would show that the conclusion drawn above is flawed?

(1) The fan following lor twenty-20 cricket played over 4 hours is more than for one-day cricket. (2) Judging by TV viewer ship ratings, cricket matches, even at test level, are more popular than football matches played within two hours.

(3) The proportion of players of international repute appearing in advertisements, to the total number of such players, is far more in the case of cricket than in the case of tennis.

(4) Cricket's appeal lies in the fact that, unlike most

field games, it presents contests between players displaying different skills, rather than between players displaying similar skills.

45 .. Journalists generally decry 'third degree methods' adopted by the police to extract confessions from the accused. They argue that other methods like interrogation and moral suasion are available to the police to make the criminals confess to the crimes and hence the police should not resort to torturing them.

Which of the following, if true, would show that the arguments of the journalists are not founded on sound reasoning?

(1) Relying on self-incriminating evidence alone is not viewed favourably by courts of law.

(2) Adoption of third degree methods to extract confession is not held illegal in the statute books. (3) The methods recommended by journalists are effective when adopted by those who have studied psychology extensively.

(4) The normal tendency of any criminal is to lie - ii's a survival technique.

DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 50: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

Disagreement thrives on uncertainty. In the 1860s, uncertainty over the source of the Nile was the source of a bitter dispute between two English explorers, John Hanning Speke and Richard Burton. Only two men who have shared a camp for many months could disagree so violently. Speke favoured Laks Victoria, which he had discovered while Burton lay ill in a tent at Tabora; Burton insisted that the source lay in or near Lake Tanganyika. The feud only ended in 1864 when Speke shot himself (perhaps accidentally) on the day he was to debate with Burton in public. Speke, by the way, was right.

Watching this dispute from an influential position in the Royal Geographical Society, and occasionally fanning the flames on behalf of Burton, was a distinguished geographer by the name of Francis Galton. It was Galton's fate to ignite an even bigger feud in that same year, one that would run for more than a century: nature versus nurture. The naturenurture debate is a bit like the argument over the source of the Nile. Both thrived on ignorance; the more that came to be known, the less the argument seemed to matter. Both seemed unnecessarily petty. Surely, what mattered more than which lake was the source of the Nile was that Africa contained two vast lakes new to Western science. Likewise, it surely mailers less whether human nature is more innate or more learned, but instead the precise way in which it is both. The Nile is the sum of thousands of streams, no one of which can be truly called its source; the same is true of human nature.

Galton's passion was quantifying. In along career, he invented, ooined or discovered a wide range of things: northern Namibia, anticyclone weather systems, the study of twins, questionnaires, fingerprints, composite photographs, statistical regression and eugenics. But perhaps his most lasting legacy is to have inaugurated the nature-nurture debate and coined the very phrase. Born in 1822, he was a grandson of the great scientist poet and inventor, Erasmus Darwin by his second wife. He found his half cousin Charles's theory of natural section both convincing and inspiring, ascribing this immediately to 'an hereditary bent of mind that both its illustrious author and myself have inherited from our common grandfather, Dr Erasmus Darwin'. Thus emboldened by his own pedigree,. he now found his true calling in the statistics of heredity. In 1865, deserting geography, he published an article of 'hereditary talent and character' in Macmillan's Magazine, in which he revealed thai distinguished men had distinguished relatives. He expanded it into a book called Hereditary Genius in 1869.

Galton was simply asserting that talent runs in families. Exhaustively and enthusiastically, he described the pedigrees of famous judges, statesmen, peers, commanders, scientists, poets, musicians, painters, divines, oarsmen and wrestlers. 'The arguments by which I endeavour to prove that genius is hereditary, consist in showing how large is the number of instances in which men who are more or less illustrious have eminent kinsfolk." It was not very sophisticated reasoning. After all, one might just as well argue the opposite, that the rise of humble men to great eminence would reveal their innate talents triumphing over the disadvantages of circumstance; the clustering of talent in families might indicate shared teaching. Most reviewers thought Galton had overstated the role of heredity and ignored the contribution of upbringing and family. In 1872 a Swiss botanist, Alphonse de Candolle, asserted as much at book length. Candolle pointed out that great scientists in the previous two centuries had come from countries or cities with religious tolerance, widespread trade links, a moderate Climate and democratic governments suggesting that achievement owed more to circumstance and opportunity than to native genius.


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Candolle's attack stung Galton into a second book, English Men of Science: Their Nature and Nurture, in 1874, in which he employed a questionnaire for the firs! time, and repeated his conclusion that scientific geniuses were born, not made. It was in this book that he coined the famous alliteration: the phrase 'nature and nurture' is a convenient jingle of words, for it separates under two distinct heads the innumerable elements of which personality is composed. He may have borrowed the phrase from Shakespeare, who in The Tempest has Prospero insult Caliban thus: a devil, a born devil, on whose nature, nurture can never stick.

Shakespeare may also have been the inspiration for the next of Galton's ideas. Two of Shakespeare's plays turn on the confusion of twins: The Comedy of Errors and Twelfth Night. Shakespeare was himsel.f the father of twins, and he used mistaken twins to make fiendishly ingenious plots. In A Midsummer Night'S Dream, Shakespeare introduced a pair of 'virtual twins' unrelated individuals who had been reared together. Hermia and Helena, despite being 'like to a double cherry, seeming parted, but yet an union in partition', not only look physically unlike each other, but are attracted to different men and end up quarrelling violently.

Galton followed up the hint. The next year he wrote an article entitled "The history of twins, as a criterion of the relative powers of nature and nurture'. At least he had a respectable way to test the heredity hypothesis, free of the objections raised against his pedigrees. Remarkably, he deduced that there were two sorts of twin: identical twins, born from 'two germinal spots in the same ovum', and non-identical twins 'each from a separate ovum. This is not bad. For 'germinal spot' read nucleus and you are close to the truth. Yet in both kinds, the twins shared nurture. So if identical twins resembled each other in behaviour more than fraternal twins, then the influence of heredity was supported.

Galton wrote to 35 pairs of identical twins and 23 pairs of non-identical twins, collecting anecdotes of their similarity and difference. Triumphantly he recounted the results. Twins that resembled each other from birth remained similar throughout their lives, not only in appearance but also in ailments, personality and interests. One pair suffered severe toothache in the same tooth at the same age. Another pair bought identical sets of champagne glasses as presents for each other at the same time at different ends of the country. Twins that were born different, by contrast, grew more different as they grew older. They were never alike either in body or mind, and their dissimilarity increases daily,' said one of his respondents. 'The external influences have been identical; they have never been separated.' Galton sounded almost embarrassed by the strength of his conclusion: There is no escape from the conclusion that nature prevails enormously over nurture ... My fear is, that my evidence may seem to prove too much, and be discredited on that account, as it appears contrary to all experience that nurture should go for so little'.

46. According to the passage, in what way can the Nile be likened to human nature?

(1) Source of neither can be traced.

(2) Both are constituents of a larger whole.

(3) The word 'nurture' has a special significance to both.

(4) Both are made up of more than one part.

47. Which of the fol.lowing facts have been provided in the passage?

(A) Galton was inspired by Shakespeare's plays. (B) lake Victoria is the source of the Nile.

(C) Gallon and Darwin inherited their intelligence from their grandfather.

(D) Human nature is a combination of both heredity and environment.

(E) Galton had a role to play in the debate on the Nile and the debate on nature versus nurture.

(1) Only A andE (2) Only B, D and E (3) Only Band E (4) Only D and E

48. Which of the following findings helped Galton conclude that nature prevails over nurture?

(1) Identical twins, besides resembling each other shared similar tastes and interests.

(2) Environment had a marginal influence on the behaviour of fraternal twins.

(3) The differences between fraternal twins, who were reared together increased as they grew older.

(4) Fraternal twins resembled each other in behaviour more than identical twins

49. It may be inferred that the author of the passage is of the opinion that the debates on the source of the Nile and the basics of human nature

(1) are an exercise in futility.

(2) can never be successfully resolved. (3) were a creation of the ignorant.

(4) were a conundrum of sorts.

50. According to the passage, Candole believed that (1) talent is not inherited.

(2) the truly great were those who had triumphed. over trials and tribulations.

(3) environment plays the key role in the making of scientists.

(4) genius owed more to environment than heredity.


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SECTION - HI Number of Questions = 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 and 52 Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

There are 360 poles, fixed symmetrically, all around a circular track. Four runners A, B, C and D, start simultaneously from the first pole and run, all in the same direction, around the track at speeds of a, b, c and d respectively.

51. For wh ich of the following sets of speeds (in m/s) wi II two or more runners meet at a point between two consecutive poles?

(1) 1,4,6,10

(2) 2,3,.6,9

(3) 1,2,.3,7

(4) More than one of the above

52. II all the lour runners do not run in the same direction, then for which of the following sets of speeds (in m/s) is it not possible lor two or more runners to meet at a point on the track between two consecutive poles?

(1) 1,4,6,10

(2) 2,3,.6,9

(3) 1,2,3,7

(4) More than one of the above

DIRECTIONS for questions 53 to 63: Answer the questions independently of each other.

53. The last digit of the LCM of (32003 - 1) and (32003 + 1) is

(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6

54. What is the remainder when 9091 is divided by 13?

(1) 0 (2) 7 (3) 12 (4) 1

55. The age of a person k years ago was half of what his age would be k years from now. The age of the same person p years from now would be thrice of what his age was p years ago. What is the value of the ratio k : p?

(1) 3:2 (2) 2:3 (3) 1:4 (4) 4:1

56. Two of the three dimensions of a cuboidal box are 9 units and 12 units. Compute the third. dimension of the box, such that the body diagonal of the box is the least possible integer under the given conditions.

(1) 12 units (2) 15 units

(3) 8 units (4) 14 units

57. A computer performs a certain algorithm to compute an output S for an input N, both Sand N being real values. The algorithm is as follows.

Step 1: S = O.

Step 2: If (N s -lor 1 ::; N),. then S = S + 1 else go to step 5.

Step 3: N '" N .,. 10. Step 4: Go to step 2. Step 5: Print S.

Which of the following statements best describes the algorithm?

(1) It calculates the highest power of 10 that can perfectly divide N.

(2) It calculates the number of digits in N.

(3) It calculates the number of zeros on the extreme right of N.

(4) It calculates the number of digits to the left of the decimal point in N.

58. On the 5th of every month, Arvind, Sunil and Ramu go to 'Haldiram Grocery Store' to buy wheat and rice. Arvind always buys 5 kg of rice and 10 kg of wheat. Sunil always buys 10 kg of rice and 5kg of wheat, while Ramu always buys 8 kg of wheat and 8 kg of rice. This month, because of a change in the prices, Arvind and Sunil have to pay 10% and 25% more respectively on their total bills, when compared to the previous month. If the ratio of the price (per kg) of rice and wheat, before the change in prices, was 3 : 2, by what percentage is Ramu's bill this month more than his bill last month?

(1) 16.2% (2) 17% (3) 17.5% (4) 18%

59. Which of the following is NOT a possible number of regions into which three straight lines (of infinite extent) can divide a plane?

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 4

60, The ratio of the incomes of Ajay and Bina is 5 : 4 and the ratio of their expenditures is 6 : 5. If the ratio of their savings is 7 : 5,. what percentage of his income does Ajay save?

(1) .28'%

(4) 16~% 3

(2) 25'%


61. Two cars are connected with an elastic rope.

One car is facing East and the other West. The connecting rope is initially taut and it is in the NorthSouth direction. The initial length of the rope is 100 m. The rope breaks when its length becomes 260 m.lf the cars now start and move with equal speeds in the respective directions that they face, then how much distance would each car have covered by the time the rope breaks?

(1) 110m (2) 120 m

(3) 160 m (4) None of these

62. If the equation of a tangent drawn from the origin to a circle with centre (2, ~ 1) is 3x -I- y = 0, then the equation of the other tangent from the origin to the circle is

(1) 3x-y=0 (2) x+3y",0

(3) x~3y=0 (4) x+2y"'0

63. How many ratios of the form plq do not form an integer, where p and q are distinct and belong to the set{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}?

(1) 58 (2) 48 (3) 23 (4) 81

DIRECTIONS for questions 64 and 65: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A dealer purchases three varieties of precious stones - diamonds, rubies and emeralds - spending a total amount of Rs.2,00,OOO. He has purchased not less than 10 stones of each variety. The cost of a diamond, a ruby and an emerald is Rs.2,OOO, Rs.4,OOO and Rs.3,500 respectively.


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64. If he has purchased exactly two varieties of stones in equal number, then in how many ways could he have bought the stones?

(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9

65. If he has bought 10 rubies, then the total number of diamonds and emeralds bought by the dealer could be

(1) 59 (2) 60 (3) 61 (4) 63

DIRECTIONS for questions 66 to 68: Answer the questions independently of each other.

66. The following graph plots the time of travel (in seconds) and the speed of travel (in rns'") of a particle. What is the total distance (in m) travelled by the particle from t == 0 to t == 4 seconds?



~ 30



'C 20 w





.: \
.: \ "
~ x

67. A person starts writing natural numbers, starting from 1, on a blackboard, at the rate of 60 digits per minute. At the same time, another person begins to erase the digits from 1 onwards, at the rate of 40 digits per minute. Find the difference between the leftmost digit and the rightmost digit on the blackboard immediately after one hour.

(1) 7 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 0

68. Find the area (in sq.units) of the region bounded by the graphs of X' == 4 and i == 4 but lying outside the region bounded by the graphs of y == 1 x ] ~ 2 and y == 2 -I x I· (1) 4 (3) B

(2) 16

(4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 69 and 70 Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The centres 01 two circles C1 and C2, each of radius 3 cm, are separated by a distance of 4./6 cm. A third circle, C, is now drawn such that C touches both C1 and C2 externally and al least one of the common tangents to C, and C:l is also tangential to C.

69. The area (in sq.cm) of circle C is at most

(1) 32n (2) 36n (3) l6n (4) 25n

70. How many of the following are possible values that the radius rof circle C can assume?

I. 1.5 em II. 2 em

III. Scm IV. 6cm

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3


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2 3

Time (seconds)



(1) 60

(2) 65

(3) 70

(4) 80


T!fiumptli!ilnllnSlitu1.e of Manag:em,t:fIt Education PY1_ ltd.


1 . 3 8. 3 15. 1 22 .. 3 29.4 36. 1 43. 1 50.4 57.4 64.4
2. 2 9. 1 16. 4 23. 2 30.3 37.2 44.4 51. 2 58.4 65. 1
3. 2 10. 1 17. 3 24. 1 31. 4 38.4 45.4 52.3 59. 1 66.2
4. 4 11. 3 18. 3 25.4 32.3 39.3 46.4 53.3 60. 1 67.2
5. 3 12. 4 19. 4 26 .. 2 33. 1 40. 1 47 .. 2 54.3 61. 2 68.3
6. 3 13. 2 20.3 27.4 34.2 41. 3 48.3 55.2 62.3 69.4
7. 2 14. 3 21. 2 28. 1 35.3 42.2 49. 1 56.3 63. 1 70.3 Solutions


Solutions for questions 1 and 2:

1. The total imports (in billion dollars) for the year 1999- 2000 are (21 + 22 ...... _ .... + 23)

'" (20 x 12) + (1 + 2 + 2 - 1 + 0 ..... ) := 240 + 14 " 254 The trade deficit (in billion dollars) lor the year 2000-01 is 48.

:. The imports (in billion dollars) for the year 2000-01 are 48 + exports " 48 + 220 := 268

.', Approximate percentage increase in the imports

" 268 - 254 xl 00 '" 5% Choice (3)


2. (I) As we do not know the total trade deficit for the year 1998-99, we cannot answer this questions.

(2) The total trade deficit in 1 999-2000 can be calculated from the graph and the total trade deficit, for the year (2000-01) is given in the data. The percentage increase in the trade deficit from 1999-2000 to 2000-01 can be calcu latsd.

(3) Value of exports, trade deficit and imports are not mentioned. So we can't answer this question.

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 3 to 5:

Here, all the small cubes are painted in pink and the medium sized cubes are painted in black and then the large cube is painted in pink.

3. Consider the medium sized cube which is at the centre of the larger cube:

It has only one small cube. (at the centre of it) painted with pink.

.', Number of small cubes with at least one face painted black « 26.

Consider the middle block of each face of the larger cube. In each of these six blocks, there is only one small cube which initially has only one face painted black. (Now it is painted pink)

:. Number of small cubes with at least one face painted black", 6 x (27 - 2) '" 150. (of tM 2, another one is that at the centre of the cube)

There are twelve edges.

Consider the middle medium sized cube of each edge: in each of these twelve cubes, the small cube which is at the middle of the edge, the two small cubes which are at the centre of the outer surface and the one which is at the centre of the cube are painted fully pink.

:.Number of small cubes with at least one face painted blaek e 12 x (27 - 4) := 276.

Consider the eight medium sized cubes at each of the corners of the large cube. In each of these cubes eight small cubes are painted fully pink.

:.Number of small cubes with at least one face painted black == 8 x (27 - 8) " 152.

:. Total number of small cubes with at least one face painted black e 26 + 150 + 276 + 152 '" 604.

Choice (2)

4. For each of the small cubes, there are at most three faces painted black, Hence at least three faces are painted pink.

As the total number of small cubes is 729, the required

answer is 729. Choice (4)

5. Each comer cube let of Ihe medium size cubes that is to the inside 01 the large cube will have three faces in pink and three in black. The total number of corners ,,8 x 27" 216.

Those not exposed" (1 x 8) + (12 x 2) + (6 x 4) + (8 xl)

= 64. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 6 to 9:

6. The number required should be within the square or rectangle but should not be within both circle and triangle. We get _,. 16 + 1 + 6 + 7 + 7 + 22 := 59.

Choice (3)

7. The numbers should be within the triangle but not within three or more of the figures.

=:- 5 + 6 + 11 := 22_ Choice (2)

8. The number should be in three or more of the figures.

~ 13 + 2 + 4 + 1 = 20 Choice (3)

9. Those who failed in at most 2 subjects " those who passed in exactly 4 or 3 or 2 subjects '" total of all numbers given - the total of the numbers appearing in only one figure:= 109 - (5 + 16 + 22 + 15):= 51.

Choice (I)

Solutions for questions 10 to 13.:

10. onzs" May the tank became full and on .25inJune, it was again full. Between these two,

Distance travelled := 6,.112.5 - 4,474 = 1,638.5 km Petrol consumsd e (10 + 25 + 25 + 22);;;; 821itres :. fuel efficiency := 1 ,638.5/82 := 19.97 km/litre.

Choice (1)

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11. On 251~ May the tank became full after filling in 28 litres and on 19t11 June it was again full,

.'. distance travelled" 5,689 ~ 4,.474 " 1 ,215 Petrol consumed", (10 + 25 + 25) '" 60 litres .'. fuel efficiency" 1 ,215 I 60 " 20.25 kmllitre.

Choice (3)

12. On 18'" May the tank was empty. On 25'" June, the tan k was full. Because the capacity of tank is not known, fuel

efficiency cannot be found. Choice (4)

13. On 11 et June the tan k became full. After pouring 25 lit res on 25'" June the tank is again full.

.'. distance travelled" 6112.5 - 5139 " 973.5 km. Petrol consumed" 25 + .22" 471itres

:. fuel efficiency" 20.7 kmJlitre.

Choice (2)

Sol utlons for questions 14 to 17:

Given that the number of questions passed by two persons is 5.

But from the table, the questions that are directed at E, F and A are answered by A,. Band C respectively (i.e., passed twice.)

Total" 2 + 1 + 2 " 5

:. No questions answered by D, Ear Fare

Given, that the number of questions passed by five persons isone.

But from the table, E answered a. question that is directed at F. No other person had answered a question that is passed by five persons.

Given that the number of questions passed by three persons is 3.

E and F answered one question each directed at Band C respectively.

The remaining question is answered by A, B or D (as C did not answer any question directed at F).

But given that the difference in the number of questions passed by 3 persons and answered by Band 0 is zero (condition iv)


=> B = 0,0" 0 and A" 1

After filling the information till this point, the table appears as follows.

~ A B C 0 E F Total
A 2 0 0 4
B 0 0 1 4
C 1 0 2 0 0 1 4
0 1 0 0 2 0 4
E 2 0 0 0 4
F 1 0 1 4 As each person is asked four questions, E must have answered the question that is directed at D.

Given that the number of questions passed by 4 persons is 1. Also given that C did not answer exactly 2 direct questions. .'. C answered 2 direct questions and A answered the question that is directed at C

:_No other person answered the question passed by 4 persons. Now, we can find that the number of direct questions answered by E is 2 as C did not answer any question passed by 4 persons, i.e. the question directed at E.

The table is as follows:
~ A B C 0 E F
A a b 2 0 0 0
B 0 c d 0 1 0
C 1 0 2 0 0 1
0 1 0 0 2 1 0
E 2 0 0 0 2 0
F e 1 0 0 1 f Here b + d + e = 1 (questions passed by one person, of which E already answered one).

and a + c + f = 6 (24 - 18)

14. Given e = 0 => , = 2

Points (E) = 2(6) + 1 (5) + 1(3) + 1(1) '" 21 Points (F) " 2(6) + 1 (3) '" 15

The required difference = 21 - 15 = 6_

Choice (3)

15. E answered 5 questions ::::> b + c = 4

c cannot be more than 3 and b cannot be more than 1 (as each person answered at least one direct question. :. a is atieast 1).


Points (B) '" 3(6) + 1 (5) + 1 (4) = 27

Which is the maximum possible. Choice (1)

16. Given a, c and f are different l.e., 1, 2 and 3 (in any order) a and f cannot be 3 (as the number of questions directed at any person is 4)


Number of questions answered by C and D together .. 2 + 2 + 2" 6. Choice (4)

17. Points (C) '" 2(6) + d(5) + 2(4) '" 20 + 5d But given it is 25

=>20 + 5d" 25

=> d= 1

=> c= 2

and b = e = 0, a " f = 2

Number 01 questions (answered by A) = 2 + 1 + 1 + 2. = 6 Number of questions (answered by 8) = 2 + 1 " 3

The required difference = 3 Choice (3)

Solutions for questfons 18 to 20;

18. Assume Suresh is in chair 1 and Mahesh is in chair 4.



.-_ Ravi is in chair 3, Ajay is the medicine student Harry is opposite to the medicine student Therefore, Ajay and Harry are opposite to each other and they are sitting in chairs 2 and 5. Science student is opposite the medicine student Therefore, Harry is the science student. Ajay cannot be in chair 5 because the science student is to the right of the Maths student and Raviis not the Maths student Therefore, Ajay sits in chair 2 and Harry in chair 5_


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Ajay I Medicine


As Harry is to the right of the Maths student the rnaths student sits in chair 6, which can be filled by the only

student remaining, who is Ramesh. Choice (3)

19. C and E are at the extreme ends and D is between C and G. The possible arrangements are

C D G - - - - E or E - - - - G 0 C

B can't be to the left of G in the first case. => E F - - - G 0 C (from III)

=> E F H - - G D C (from I)

=> E F H BAG 0 C (Irom II)

Statements I, II, III are required. Choice (4)

20. 1) Rama > Rajni => Rani> Ramya

2) Rani> Rama => Rajni > Rani> Rama

3) Rama > Rani => Rani> Rajni => Ram> Rani> Rajni

4) Rajni > Rama => Rani> Rajni » Rama Let us assume Rani is older than Rama

=> Rajni is elder to Rani

=> Rajni is older than Rama

But Rajni is younger than Rama l: Rani is not older than Rajini, Rajni can not be older than Rama]

Hence assumption is wrong.

:. Rani is younger than Rama

Rama is older than Rajni => Rani older than Ramya

:. Rama is the oldest of all. Choice (3)

Difficulty level wise summary - Section I
Level of Difficulty Questions
VelYEasv -
Easy 4
Medium 1,2,~7,a9,10,1',12, la1S, 1~20
Difficult 3,5,14,15,16,17
Vety Difficult - SECTION - II

Solutions for questions 21 to 25:

21. The sentence states that asymmetric wars are fought in densely inhabited theatres of conflict i.e., they are different from the conventional wars referred to in the first part. The strategies developed lor conventional wariare may not be adequate to tackle asymmetric wars. Hence option 2 can fill the sentence most logically. There is no irnpficatlon of the complexity of the military strategies or their rate of success, hence 1 and 3 are inapt. The sentence does not talk about the futility

of the strategies, hence 4is ruled out. Choice (2)

22. The sentence states that the world is changed by the vicissitudes of capitalism and the nihilism of religion. In order to lace the resulting challenges we need a global leadership that can adapt to these circumstances. Hence option 3 is most logical in the given context. Choice 1 which says that the global leadership should accept status quo as the order of life is illogical in the context. Option 2 is rather vague. Choice 4 speaks of completely shunning conventional ideologies which implies one form of rigidity, not adaptability.

Choice (3)

23. The word 'reorient' would indicate that change is required in outlook and objective, not just in method. Hence choices " 3 and 4 can be ruled out. Choice 2

appropriately completes the sentence. Choice (2)

24. The sentence states that the liveli.hoods of millions of people is threatened, hence option I which indicates that the state must look to the security and well being of its citizens is logical in the context. Choice 2 speaks only about the economy and not of the people. The problem cannot be addressed through cooperation and collective leadership alone, hence choice 3 is illogical. Choice 4 is not pertinent to the given context and hence

are not logical. Choice (1)

25. The sentence focuses on equal health opportunities for women, choice 1 which merely mentions improved medical facilities is not relevant to the problem stated. Choice 2 talks about the marginalized segments and is therefore irrelevant in the given context. Choice 3 is not logical in the context Equal health and social status can be provided to women only if there is gender justice.

Choice 4 Ii lis the blank logically. Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 26 to 30:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for Be:

Number of words: 917

26. Choice (1) restricts the term to only children of strawberry pickers. R.efer to the seventh para. Choice (2) is correct

Choice (3) is incomplete. Choice (2)

27. Choice (1) talks of only the social implication. Besides, social fabric torn beyond redemption is sweeping. The passage does not locus on all children in Romania. So, choice (3) is inapt. Choice (2) incorrectly suggests that

this is the author's opinion. Choice (4)

28. Implode means to collapse inwards and dysfunctional fami.lies are those which are unable to deal adequately with normal social relations or those families which are not operati ng normally or properly. Choice (1) captu res

the implication best. Choice (1)

29. Choice (4) - wistful and tender - is the best answer. In choice (1) dismayed is apt, but not confused. Choice (2) - dejected but resigned is inapt. The conjunction but is not suitable. Dejected and resigned are not contrasting qualities. Choice (3) is an easy elimination

Choice (4)

30. Our attention is drawn to choice 4, since this is what the passage focuses on. However, this is 'the heavy toll' that the author speaks 01. Refer to the tenth para, which suggests that rural character with close family ties

makes the problem acute. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 31 to 35:

31. 'One takes care' not to fall sick, not 'makes sure'. So sentence Cis incorrect. 'Wears woollen' should be 'wears woollens'. Sentence D is incorrect.

Choice (4)

32. Expression 'got killed'in sentence B is unacceptable. 'Were killed', is acceptable. A 10-year§.-0Id child in sentence C should be a 1 u-ysar-old child.

Choice (3)

33. Sentence B should have "at any cost". The use of 'should' in sentence 0 makes it grammatically incorrect. 'It is high time we repaired and renovated' is correct.

Choice (1)


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34. Sentences Band C are incorrect. B needs 'that', "it is said thaf'. In sentence C, the use of the article 'a'is

incorrect since respect is abstract. Choice (2)

35. Sentence B, 'lunch break' should read 'lunch breaks'.

Preposition 'of' in sentence D should be replaced by 'in'.

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 36 to 40;

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:

Number of words: 1,070

36. Refer to para 5 where the words in quote appear.

Banks are different because their collapse can cause the entire economy to collapse and hence the government wants to ensure that they are revived.

Choice (1)

37. Refer to the last lines of para 4 and para 5, linet -the red ink refers to the bottom line being red indicating a loss. Choice 4 is incorrect as 'a long time' is not indicated. The same is true for choice (1).

Choice (2)

38. Refer to para 5,. lines 1·2 - 'what the future of banking

looks like' is the focus of the passage, Choice (4)

39. 'Notwithstanding' here doesnot means 'inspite of' but 'irrespective of'. Choice (2) is a distortion since no

politics is involved here. Choice (3)

40. Refer to the first line of the third para from the end • 'that' refers to what is said in the previous para. The previous para says that for the first time banks were not concerned about what the quarterly earnings were. Hence 'that' is concern for earnings or the bottom line which is changing. The 'profit made' is not 'that'.

Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 41 to 45:

41. The contention of the human rights activists is that the criminals could be reformed and this would reduce the crime rate. However, even if these criminals do not perpetrate the same crime again, there is the possibility of others committing such crimes; only exemplary punishment will deter them from doing so. Hence if (3) is true, capital punishment is needed to bring down crime rate. The difficulty in reforming the criminals is not the issue - (l)is incorrect. What is happening in some countries does not invalidate the argument put forward by the activists, so (2) is wrong. (4) may be an argument regarding death sentence but it does not

invalidate the argument. Choice (3)

42. According to the arpurnent, life insurance premia must be reduced as there must be less claims due to deaths from diseases. However if (2) were true, as claims from accident-related deaths have increased, life insurance companies cannot be expected to reduce the premia rates. (1) is incorrect as the basis is only the possibility of frequent claims due to deaths. (4) does not justify the non-reduction 01 premia rates by life insurance companies. Choice (3) looks valid but since the question is about premia rates, it signifies the quantum of premia in relation to the insured money and hence the value of money would have had a bearing not only on the premium amount but also the amount issued. Hence it cannot justify non-reduction of premia rates.

Choice (2)

43. The government's claim is that it is solely responsible for the decline in the appeal of smoking. This claim is weakened if choice 1 is true - the number of smokers has increased (showing that smoking still appeals to people) even if the sales volume has declined. Choices 2 and 3 are not relevant to the claim. Choice 4 would be right if the government's claim had been about the

reduction in sales. Choice (1)

44. Based on the fact that one-day cricket draws more spectators than test cricket, the author infers that short duration field games like hockey and football will make a comeback.

This conclusion is weakened by choice 4 which accounts for the unique appeal of cricket.

Choice 1 confirms the appeal of short duration field games.

Choices 2 and 3 are in favour of cricket.

Choice (4)

45. The contention of the journalists is that as other methods of obtaining confession are available, so third degree methods should not be adopted by the police. However, if (4) were true, it would show that the accused wont speak the truth under normal circumstances. Hence the police have to resort to 'third degree methods'.

As the journalists do not question the very act of obtaining confessions (1) is incorrect. Choice (2) is wrong as the contention of the journalists is not that adoption of third degree methods is against law. (3) does not invalidate the arguments of the journalist, if anything it adds strength to the argument.

Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 46 to 50:

Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:

Number of words: 1,134

46. Refer to the second para. Only choice (4) has been suggested. Source of the Nile has been traced. So,

option (1) is incorrect. Choice (4)

47. The first para provides the fact that Lake Victoria is the source of the Nile (B is true). The second para suggests that Galton was involved in both the debates - he perpetuated one and initiated the other (E is true). At

the end of para (2) the sentence "Likewise it surely .

it is both" and in para (5), the sentence "It was .

personality is composed," the idea conveyed in statement (D), is presented as a lact. So, statements B, D and E are facts, which make option (2) the answer. Statement A is not a fact. The passage suggests that Galton may have been inspired by Shakespeares plays. Statements (C) is not a fact. It is an assumption.

Choice (2)

48. Refer to the last two paras. The fifth sentence in the last

para. "Twins that grew older" is a finding of the

experiment, which Galton conducted on twins. Option (3) suggests the same idea and is the answer. Other

options do not work. Choice (3)

49. Choice (4) is an easy elimination. The author says that the debate thrived on ignorance, which could imply that they were a product or creation of ignorance. Creation of the ignorant in choice (3) does not capture this idea. It is a distortion. Choice (2) is sweeping, Choice (1 lis the closet to the author's opinion as conveyed in the

second para. Choice (1)

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50. Refer to the last sentence of the fourth para ( ..... achievement owed more to circumstance and opportunity than native genius). Choice (4) captures this idea. Candolle did not say that talent is not inherited. Choice (2) is blatantly wrong. The words "environment plays the key role" in choice (3) is imprecise. Candelle showed that environment played g k.ey role.

Choice (4)

Difficufty_fevel wise summa_ry_ - Section II
Level of Difficulty Questions
Very Easy -
Easy 37,50
Medium 21,22,23,24,25,26,28,30,31,
Difficult 27,29,35,38,40,42,44,47,48
Very Difficult - SECTION -1II

Solutions for questions 51 and 52:

51. For the runners to meet only at the poles along the track, the difference of all pairs 01 terms in the ratio should be a factor of 360.

By observation, in choice (2), 9 - 2 = 7 is not a factor of

360. Choice (2)

52. For the runners 10 meet only at the poles along the track,

(i) the difference of all pairs of terms in the ratio or the difference of the speeds of the runners should be a factor of 360, when the runners are running in the same direction.

(ii) the sum of the speeds of the runners Should be a factor of 360 when they are running in opposite direction.

Only in choice (3), do we lind that the sums as well as the differences of all pairs of terms are all factors of 360. So only in choice (3), will it not be possible for two or more runners to meet at a point

on the track between two poles, Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 53 to 63:

53. 3= - 1, 32003 + 1 are consecutive even numbers So, their GCD is 2

Pr oduct 34006 - 1

LCM", "'---



The last digit of this is ~ = 4 2

Choice (3)


9091 '" [(13) (7) - 1]91

In the expansion of [(13) (7) - 1 r, every term contains 13 except the last The last term is (-1 r = -I .

. '. The number 9091 will be of the form 13k - 1 . .'. The remainder when itis divided by 13 is 12.

Alternative solution:

90 leaves a remainder of 12 (or=-t) when divided by 13. :.90n leaves a remainder of 1 or -1 when divided by 13, depending on whether n is even or odd, i.e, 9091 leaves a remainder 01-1 (or 12) when divided by 13.

Choice (3)

55. Let the present age of the person be y years.

The given data can be written as: 1

(y- k) = 2(Y+ k) and ... (1)

( y + p) '" 3 (y - p) .. - (2)

),+k 2

From (1), --,,-: y-k 1

=> 1: '" ~ (by componendo and dividendo) ._- (3) k 1

y+ p 3. y 4

From (2), --=-, => -=-=2---- (4)

Y- p 1 p 2

Dividing (4) by (3), Lx!!_ "'~; => k: p'" 2 : 3. p y 3

Choice (2)

56. We know that the space diagonal i.e., PO for a cuboid is given by

d= J£2+h2+b2

Let the unknown dimension by 'b'

=>d", JI22+92+b2" J22S+b2 ·-(1)

Since we are asked to find the least 'tJ for which dis an integer, a simple method would be to list the squares greater than 225 (i.e.,) 256, 289,324 - - -

Clearly at b = 8, d", 17 (= .1289 ) Choice (3)

57. In the algorithm S is a counter that counts the number of instances for which the value N lies outside (-1, 1) after every successive division by 10,

Suppose, after n divisions, N becomes less than 1. This means that there were n digits in the initial value of N, to the left of the decimal. (i.e., S", n is the output)

Choice (4)

58. Let the price (per kg) of rice and wheat be 3k and 2k respectively.

Given that

Initial After change
I 1. Arvind 35 k 38.5 k
2. Sunil 40k 50 k Initially they together used to spend 75 k per 15 kg of rice and 15 kg of wheat and now they spend 88.5 k. So

an increase 01 13.5k (100%) '" 18%


.vThe increase in the price of 8 kg of rice and 8 kg of

wheat would also be 18%. Choice (4)

59. In case of three lines the following possibilities occur:

(i) No two lines are parallel and the lines are not concurrent, in this case the plane gets divided into 7 regions,


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(ii) The three lines are concurrent, in this case the plane gets divided into 6 regions.

(iii) The lines are parallel, in this case we get 4 regions.






(iv) In case two lines are parallel, and the third line acts as a transversal, we get a total of 6 regions.

So, three lines can divide the plane into 4, 6 or 7
regions but not 5 regions. Choice (I)
Ajay Bina
Income 5x 4x
Expenditure 6y 5y
Savings 7z 5z Income = Expenditure + Saving

.'. 5x - 6y = 7z (1)

4x- 5y= 5z (2)

5(1) - 6(2) gives

25x- 24x" 35z- 30z ~ X= 5z ~ .!=..!. (3)

x 5

. 7z 7(1)

.'. AJay saves -=- - xl00=28%

5,< 5 5

Choice (1)

61. Let the cars move from A to C and B to D respectively.

The rope is initially aloll9 AS '" 1 00 rn and finally along

DC=260m 2FX

CD (in m. )" Jl 002 + (2.<)2 = 260 . . .

100 m .,/

~x=120m /'

_ .... " .... -"'-

o x B

Choice (2)

62. Since the tangent 3x + y = 0 touches the circle at a point. The radius 01 circle is perpendicular distance 01 centre from the given tangent.

16-11 5

=>1'= =--

h2+12 .J1O

Let the other tangent through the origin be y'" mx

5121!l+1 2

.'. r.:: "'~. => 3m + 8m - 3 '" 0

,,10 Vlll~ +1

1 . . 1 actonzmq; m ;;; -3; - 3

Given. the tangent has slope = -3

Hence, the required tangent has stope « ~

=> y ,,~ or x - 3y = a is the tangent. 3

Choice (3)

63. We count the total number ratios of the form plq. p can be any of the 9 integers and q can be ally of the remaining 8. Thus, there are (9) (8) = 72 possible ratios. The ratios that simplify to an integer are

(i) all the 8 ratios with one as the derrornlnator

(ii) 3 of the ratios (i.e.,~,%,~) with 2 as the denominator.

(iii) 2 of the ratios (i.e.,j,-I)With 3 as the denominator


(iv) one of the ratios (i.e., %) with 4 as the denomi nator => Total of 8 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 14 ratios are integers

=> 72 - 14 = 58 ratios are not integers. Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 64 and 65:

64. Let the initial number of stones purchased be (10 + D) diamonds, (10 + R) rubies and (1.0 + E) emeralds. Taking the costs in Rs.thousands.

2 x (10 + D) + 4 x{1 0 + R) + 3.5 (10 + E) ;;;200 => 2D + 4R + 3.5E '" 1 05

=> 4D+8R + 7E =.210 ---(1) If two of D, Rand E are equal

Case (i) D = R => 12R + 7E = 210

(D, E, R)" (0, 30, 0), (7,.18,.7) and (14,. 6,14) are possible. Case (ii) R == E => 15E + 40 = 210

(0, E, R) ~ (0, 14, 14), (IS, 10, 10), (30, 6, 6) and (45,2,2) are possible

Case (iii) D == E => 11 E + 8R == 210

(0, E, R)" (6,6,18) and (14,14,.7) are possible .

Totally 3 + 4 + 2 == 9 ways. Choice (4)

65. If (10 + R) = 10 (from above solution) The R " 0 and eq (1) above becomes 40 + 7E = 210

Then the possible solutions are

(D, E) '" to, 30), (7, 26), (14, 22) (21, 18), (28, 14), (35, 10), (42,6) and (49,2) are possible.

Hence (20 + D + E) E (50,. 53,56,59,62,.65,68,71) => Only choice (1) is possible

Alternately, eq (2) implies 7D + 7E - 3D = 210

=> 7(D + E) = 210 + 3D => 0 + E is a multiple 01 3 and similarly 4(D + E) " 21 0 ~ 3E

~ 0 -t- E is a multiple of 3.

Consider (59 - 20),. (60 - 20), (61 - 20) and (64 - 20) only for choice (1), this is a multiple of 3.

Choice (1)


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Solutions for questions 66 to 68:

66. The x-axls has time in sees and the j-axls has speed in mts.

Hence the area of the plotted region will give us the distance travelled in m (not km),

Area of the graph is




A 1\
V \
V \ 0,
... x




Q 3

P 2



= Area of 1l0AP + Area of rectangle PBCQ + Area of triangle QCD

= (iX2X20)+ (lx30 l+( iXl X30)

= 20 + 30 + 15 = 65 m

.'. Distance travelled is 65 m

Choice (2)


After exactly 1 hour, the first person would have written exactly 3600 digits. The 3600'" digit (i.e. right most) happens to be the third digit in 1177 --t 7

Since (1 x 9) + (2 x 90) + (3 x 900) + (4 x 177) + 3 = 3600

And the second man would have erased 2400 digits. The 2401 '" digit is the first digit of 837.

:.The left most digit is 8

.'. The required difference", 8 - 7 '" 1 Choice (2)


x =--'2


, ,

~',y '" 2 -I x 1








-, ,

Required Area = Square EFGH - Square ABCD

= 42 - (2.J2)2 = 8 sq.units, Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 69 and 70:

Let us denote the centres of C, and C2 by A and B respectively,. where as the centre of circle C by OlIO a-

From the above figure we can see that there are two possible circles C.

(1) One circle touches the direct common tangent to C, and C a(2) The other (bigger) circle touches the transverse

common tangent to C, and C2•

Now in triangle 0, A C, considering the radius of the circle C with centre at 01 as r.


AB 4./6 ./6

01 C = AD = AE - ED= 3 - r AC = -- = -- =2 6

, 2 2

AO,:: 3 + r

Now (AO,)2 = (0,C)2 + (AC)2

(3 + f)2 = (3 - f)2 + (2,j6)2 or 12(= 24 or, (= 2

Again in triangle CFB, BC '" AS '" 2./6



(BCf = (CF)2 + (BF)2 or (CF)2 = (BCl - (BF)2 or, (CF)z '" 24 - 9 = 15

Considering the radius of circle C with centre at O2 as R,. in triangle 02FC, we get

(02C)2 = (CF)2 + (OZF)2 where (CF)2 = 15 and (02F)2 = R2

In triangle 02BC, we get (OZB)2 '" (BC)2+ (02C)2, where 02B

= R + 3 and BC = 2./6

(R + 3l = (216)2 + 15 + R2 ['. (02C)2 = (CF)2 + (02F)2] R2 + 6R + 9 = 24 + 15 + R2 or, 6R = 30 or, R = 5.

Therefore we see that radius of circle C is either 2 cm or 5 cm.

69. The area of circle C will be maximum when its radius is 5cm.

The area", n (5)2 cm2 '" 25 n sq.cm Choice (4)

70. The radius of circle C, can be 2 cm or 5 em,

Choice (3)

Difficulty level wise summary - Section JJJ
Level of Difficulty Questions
Very Easy -
Easy 54,56,59,60
Medium 53,61,63,66,67
Difficult 55,57,58,62,64,65,68
Very Difficult 51,52,69,70 rriurrip'Fian'iTnsiitUie-6TManagemenfEducatTonPvtlld.-(TJJ.i.E:j-Iio';'95B~2';'1'FToo~,-§idda';;etty-Co-;;p'ieX',-feCu~de-;:i\bad---5CXfoof--

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SECTION-I Number of Questions = 20

DIRE.CTIONS tor questions 1 to 5: Read the passage given below and. answer the questions that lollow it.

Almost everyone seems to agree: governments now face a choice between saving the planet and saving the economy. As recession looms, the political pressure to abandon green policies intensifies. A report published yesterday by Ernst and Young suggests that the EU's puny carbon target will raise energy bills by 20% over the next 12 years. Last week the prime minister's advisers admitted to the Guardian that his renewable energy plans were "on the margins" of what people will tolerate.

But these fears are based on a false assumption: that there is a cheap alternative to a green economy. Last week New Scientist reported a survey of oil industry experts, which found that most of them believe global oil supplies will peak by 2010. If they are right, the game is up. A report published by the US Department of Energy in 2005 argued that unless the world begins a crash programme of replacements 10 or 20 years before oil peaks, a crisis "unlike any yet faced by modern industrial society" is unavoidable.

If the world is sliding into recession, iI's partly because governments believed that they could choose between eoonomy and ecology. The price of oil is so high and it hurts so much because there has been no serious effort to reduce our dependency. Yesterday in the Guardian, Rajendra Pachauri suggested that an impending recession could force us to confront the flaws in the global economy. Sadly it seems so far to have had the opposite effect: a recentlpsos Mori poll suggests that people are losing interest in climate change. Opportunities for energy populism abound: it cannot be long before one of the major parties abandons the pale green consensus and starts invoking an oil cornucopia it cannot possibly deliver.

The British government maintains both positions at once. In his speech last week, Gordon Brown said he wanted "to facilitate a reduction in short term global oil prices" while seeking "to reduce progressively our dependence on oil". He knows that the first objective makes the second one harder to achieve. The government's policy is to build more of everything - more coal plants, more nuclear power, more oil rigs, more renewables, more roads, more airports - and hope no one spots the contradictions.

Is there a way out? Could we abandon the fossil fuel economy without provoking a blistering backlash? Two things are obvious .. We need a global system, and the current one, the Kyoto Protocol, is bust. It sets no cap on global carbon pollution, its targets bear no relation to current science and are unenforceable anyway, it contains loopholes and get-out clauses wide enough to sail an oil tanker through.

Until recenlly I supported an alternative system called contraction and convergence. Every country, this system proposes, should end up with the same quota of carbon dioxide per person. The richest countries must produce much less than they do today; the poorest ones could pollute mote. Another proposal flows logically from this one: carbon rationing. Having been assigned its carbon quota, each nation would divide up part of il equally among its citizens, who could use it to buy energy or trade it among themselves. These proposals have the merit ot capping global pollution, of being fair, progressive and easy to understand and of encouraging us to think about our use of energy.

But, after reading the proofs of a book by the independent thinker Oliver Tickell, to be published this month, I have changed my view. In Kyoto2: How to Manage the Global Greenhouse, Tickell slaughters my favourite ideas. He shows that there is no logical basis for dividing up the right to pollute among nation states. It gives them too much power over this commodity, and there is no. guarantee that they would pass the pollution rights on to. their citizens, or use the money they raised to green the economy. Carbon rationing, he argues, requires a level of economic literacy that's far from universal in the most advanced economies, let alone in countries where most people don't have bank accounts.

Instead Tickell proposes setting a global limit for carbon pollution, then selling permits to. pollute to companies extracting or refining fossil fuels. This has the advantage of regulating a few thousand corporations - running oil refineries, coal washeries, gas pipelines and cement and fertiliser works for example· rather than a few billion citizens. These firms would buy their permits in a glebal auction, run by a coalition of the world's central banks. There's a reserve price, to ensure that the cost of carbon doesn't fall too low, and a ceiling price, at which the banks promise to sell permits, to ensure that the cost doesn't cripple the global economy. In this case companies would be borrowing permits from the future. But because the money raised would be invested in renewables,. the demand for fossil fuels would fall, so fewer permits would need to be issued in later years.

Tiekell calculates that if the cap were set low enough to ensure that the world became carbon neutral by 2050,. the total cost of permits would be about $1 trillion a year, or roughly 1.5% of the global economy. The money would be spent on helping the poor to adapt to climate change, paying countries to protect forests and other ecosystems, developing lowcarbon farming, promoting energy efficiency and building renewable power plants.

But his figure seems too low. Like many of the world's climate scientists, Oliver TickeU proposes that the concentration of greenhouse gases should eventually be stabilised at 350 parts per million (carbon dioxide equivalent) in the atmosphere, and his calculations are based on this target. Last week Lord Stem suggested. that meeting a less stringent

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target (500 parts per million) would cost 2% of world gross domestic product. If the price of the carbon permits sold at auction were much higher than Tickell suggests, the extra money could be used for massive tax rebates and social spending, aimed especially at the poor. But could the world afford it?

This money doesn't disappear, it gets spent. Tickell's proposal could represent a classic Keynesian solution to economic crisis. The $1, $2 or even $5 trillion the system would cost is used to kick-start a green industrial revolution, a new New Deal not that different from the original one (whose most successful component was Roosevelt's Civilian Conservation Corps, which protected forests and farmland). This would not be the first time that business was rescued by the measures it most stoutly resists: there's a long history of corporate lobbying against the kind of government spending that eventually saves the corporate economy.

Do we want to save it, even if we can? It is hard to see how the current global growth rate of 3.7% a year (which means the global economy doubles every 19 years) could be sustained, even if the whole thing were powered by the wind and the sun. But that is a question for another column and perhaps another time, when the current economic panic has abated. For now we have to find a means of saving us from ourselves.

1. The question with which the last para begins

(1) is evidence of the attitude that noth i ng we do can save the world.

(2) shows that we are not concerned about safeguarding our environment.

(3) is rhetorical - meaning that we don't want to save the economy.

(4) reflects the author's belief that the current economic system is not sustainable.

(5) demonstrates our utter disregard for the ecological system that sustains us.

2. All but one of the following are the author's mistaken notions regarding contraction and convergence. Identify the exception.

(1) It sets a limit on the total carbon pollution.

(2) It treats all human beings,. everywhere, on par. (3) It encourages people to think of their use of


(4) It is easy to understand and so would work successfully in all countries.

(5) Carbon rationing would naturally follow this system.


We can infer from the phrase 'saving us from ourselves' that

(1) mankind is on the brink of extinction.

(2) we have none to conquer but ourselves. (3) we are our own enemies.

(4) we have to ensure that we build an economy that benefits all mankind.

(5) we have to save the planet from exploitation.


The positive features of Tickell's system would be all of the following EXCEPT:

(1) It deals with the source of poll ution rather than the end users.

(2) The money earned would be used, among others, to help poor nations affected by climate change. (3) It presents accurate figures which are also financially viable.

(4) It would lead to an automatic fall in the demand for non-renewable energy.

(5) The government's regulatory role becomes simpler in comparison to the contraction and convergence system.

(3) Pretending that the world oil supplies are never ending is not realistic.

(4) Concern for the environment and for oil supplies are mutually exclusive.

(5) Low oil prices would facilitate finding alternate energy sources.

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following.

Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an 'F').

Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an 'I'). Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a 'J').

Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.


(1) It was Eliot, in his essay on the metaphysical poets, who first commented on the similarities between the English metaphysical and the French symbolist poets.

(2) It is in 'Prutrock and Other Observations' that the methods of the Eng.lish metaphysical and the French symbolist poets are amalgamated, adapted and extended.

(3) The first simile in 'The Love Song of Alfred Prufrock' suggests thai there is a kinship between Prufrock and the evening - peaceful, but artificially peaceful.

(4) The pictures which are presented to us of Athenian social life and of the character of Socrates are almost fascinating.

(1) FFIJ (2) JIIJ (3) IFFF

(4) IIFF (5) FJIJ

7. (1) Those who profit from endless economic activities put enormous effort into persuading us that by having more material goods we shall be

5. The contradiction in Gordon Brown's speech is: happy.

(1) Low oil prices would not facilitate finding (2) Happiness does not come from material things

alternate energy sources. alone ~ why else would the number of rich

(2) Building more of everything will not necessarily people visiting psychologists increase so

eliminate poverty. dramatically?


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(3) We need time to be still and contemplate; we need spaces to appreciate and eruoy ourselves.

(4) The spiritual needs cannot be met by turning ourselves into consumers of goods provided by companies who make vast profits at the cost of the environment and ethics and at the expense of future generations.

(1) FFJJ (2) FIJJ (3) JIJJ

(4) FIFF (5) JIFF

8. (1) The sixth century is known as the most turbulent and unsettling period in human history - the Roman Empire began to fall, civilizations in Persia, Indonesia and South America collapsed and major religions experienced considerable change as natural events were viewed as omens.

(2) Many of the social transformations resulted from widespread crop failures and. the explosion of plague around the globe, which in turn were caused by major climatic changes.

(3) Beginning in about the year 535, according to historical and archaeological records, the weather was colder and drier, sunlight diminished, snow fell in summer and regions of persistent drought suffered floods.

(4) The beginning of the Dark Ages may have been a result of a massive volcanic eruption in the 61h century, according to a volcanologist at the Department of Energy's Los Alamos National Laboratory.

(1) FFFF (2) IJFF (3) FJFF

(4) IFFF (5) JJFF

9. (1) Make no mistake, the principal enemies of the media in this country are the politicians.

(2) Politicians try and manipulate us media people, plant stories on us, bribe us with access or cash, lead us up the garden path, entice us into

camps and ensure we stay there, encourage us to make the transition from privileged spectators of the political theatre to active actors.

(3) The politicians do everything in their power to subvert the media and obstruct it from performing its foremost task of attempting to keep the Indian democracy safe and clean.

(4) Our fight is against the ladies and gentlemen in khadi and not against the men in black robes, who might look ridiculous and talk funny, but finally are our allies.

(1) FFFF (2) FIIJ (3) JJJJ

(4) FJJI (5) JJJI

10. (1) It is perhaps one of the biggest ironies of history that China, a country that once prided itself as the leader of the communist world should be pleading for the market economy status today.

(2) Ever since its admission to the WTO in 2001 as a non-market economy, China has been wooing countries like lndla, the US and the EU to accord it market economy status with little ettect, although some 60-odd countries have done so.

(3) On the face of it, the reasons may seem largely economic, given the larqe-scale anti-dumping cases against it.

(4) Authorities administering anti-dumping

legislation on the basis of complaints from local firms can reject information provided by the Chinese companies on costs and prices because of their non-market economy status and turn to surrogate third countries with similar levels of development, to determine the 'fair' price of the product.

(1) JJJJ (2) IFIJ (3) JFIF

(4) FFJJ (5) IFli

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: Head the passage given below and answer the questions that follow it.

John Watson, the founder in the 1920s of behaviouristic psychology, boasted that if he were given an infant at random, he could train him ''to become any type of specialist I might select - doctor. lawyer, artist, merchant-chief and. yes, even beggar-man and thief, regardless of his talents, penchants, tendencies, abilities, vocations and race of his ancestors". His dismissal of anything inborn but a few raw feelings harked back to the philosophical empiricism of John Locke, who denied that the human mind came equipped with innate ideas; mind was a tabula rasa, a blank slate on which experience of the world would write messages. Watson's kind of behaviourism, amended by B. F. Skinner, dominated American psychology in the first half of the 20111 century. The scientific community's reaction to the racism of the Nazis reinforced the doctrine; and events during the civil rights movement and the Vietnam years cautioned even evolutionary biologists about supposing that humans had been subjected to the kinds of forces that mould animal mind and behaviour.

The logic of evolutionary theory, however, seemed inexorable. Humans are, after all, animals. No magic moment occurs when souls rain down on waiting primate bodies to wash away all signs of brute origin. In the 70s, E. O. Wilson developed this logi.c with the support of a wide range of animal studies and anthropological reports about societies still following traditional ways. On this foundation, he constructed socio-biology, which sought to explain basic human social behaviours and mental traits largely as pre-programmed products of evolutionary history. Mating preferences, emotional patterns, intelligence,. even religious convictions became scientifically explicable.

The counter reaction was swift. The biologists Stephen Jay Gould and Richard Lewontin and the anthropologist Marshall Sahlins discovered more right-wing politics than sound science Jilling socio-biology to prominence. Wilson became the target of harsh critical scrutiny and personal attack. Nonetheless, studies in the evolutionary understanding of human nature have proliferated, spawning the various theories that form the sub-discipline of evolutionary psychology. Much of the still acrimonious dispute has congealed into this: is the mind initially blank, only scribbled on after birth by experience? Or does it also contain lessons already written by ancient genes?

In "The Blank Slate: The Modern Denial of Human Nature," Steven Pinker - a psychologist at M.I.T and author of several popular books on cognition and linguistics - attempts to shatter contemporary versions of the blank slate. Pinker sees human nature as largely inscribed by indelible genes. He marshals evidence from empirical studies showing. for


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instance, that individuals living in disparate cultures display the same repertory of emotional expressions. Angry scowls, happy smiles, the arched eyebrow of disbelief, the wrinkled brow of perplexity and scores of other facial signs are universal. They cannot have arisen from a common cultural heritage but must, Pinker argues, stem from the genetic heritage of a small group of humans that left Africa about 100,000 years ago and slowly populated all regions of the world.

Developmental linguistics furnishes him a perspective from which to extend his vision of human nature. Of signal importance is Noam Chomsky's theory of universal grammar, of which the grammars of empirical languages are instances. The theory suggests that this deep grammar lies embedded in genetically determined brain structures, which form our syntactical abilities. The language of young children, for example, reveals grammatical regularities that could not be derived from the speech of parents, but must, it would seem, have been genetically pre-programmed. Pinker proposes that mental categories of this kind shape all of our experience. From birth, the brain begins to organize experience into meaningful patterns whose structures are most easily explained as the results of natural selection having operated on the brains of our Pleistocene ancestors. Experiments, for instance, show that infants as young as 9 months begin reliably to interpret certain behaviours as intentional (e.g., pOinting). Of course, those protohurnans who failed to become adept at reading the intentions of others were quickly shoved into oblivion.

Many battles of the science wars that Pinker re-enacts were fought over the degree of genetic determination of intelligence. He contends that individual differences in intelligence have a strong genetic component, though he is vague about how strong, citing a wide range of values. He does allow that most intellectual differences among races are probably due to unequal experience, but maintains that cognitive traits distinguishing the sexes well up from the genes. In his discussions of intelligence, two salient questions remain unexplored: Is intelligence a single trait that can be simply measured? And, if we could gauge it reliably, can we sensibly parcel out its genetic and experiential components? Any test calibrated on Newton's genius would surely consign Darwin to the country parsonage he once contemplated. While techniques exist for estimating the heritable component of differences in intelligence, geneticists like Lewontin conclude that only the befuddled would attempt this. Gene-environment interaction is dynamic, and the components only artificially separable. The experience that evoked Darwin's genius would merely have made Newton seasick. Genes count, but differently in different environments. Moreover, the brain's neural construction is far too complex to be genetically pre-planned in any detail; so early experience and chance must sculpture the synaptic connections in the developing infant. Recent studies indicate that young children whose mothers constantly talk to them show marked improvements in grammar and vocabulary later on, while children deprived of the experience of language in early years never learn to use it adequately despite any program sealed in their genes.

11. In discussing behaviouristic psychology Sleven Pinker of the view that

(1) it is more right-wing politics than sound science. (2) the human mind can be moulded.

(3) behaviour is an innate tendency of each culture. (4) the human mind cannot be easily influenced.

(5) human behaviour is based on inherited genes.

12. 'Any test calibrated ... contemplated' exemplifies the idea that

(1) any test to measure Newton's intelligence would prove useless.

(2) Newton's intelligence cannot be compared to Darwin's.

(3) a test of Newton's intelligence disproves Darwin's theory of evolution.

(4) different experiences trigger different kinds of intelligence.

(5) the variables of intelligence are so dynamic that no two people's intelligence can be compared.

13. Which of the following is NOT a view held by Noam Chomsky?

(1) Grammar is embedded in the structure of the brain.

(2) The syntactical ability of children stems from a universal grammar.

(3) The language of children is imbibed from parents.

(4) A study of various grammars reveals a basic universality.

(5) The speech of children displays grammatical regularities.

14. E. O. Wilson's theory of socio-biology supports the view that

(1) humans are akin to animals.

(2) the social behaviour of humans has evolved

from inherent traits.

(3) a magical transformation occurs as human beings develop.

(4) the mind is a tabula rasa, or blank slate.

(5) human nature is based on the experiences that one has.

15. Events during the Vietnam years served to

(1) warn evolutionary biologists agai nst assuming that human and animal minds are not similar.

(2) bolster the view that the human mind is a blank slate.

(3) establish. the fact that inheritance is limited to a few basic feelings.

(4) suggest that Nazism was possible because the human mind is easily influenced.

(5) strengthen the belief that intelligence of man is merely an evolved trait.

DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: The following questions have a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

16. The establishment of coalition governments in India has mean! the coming to national prominence of regional leaders and the growing importance of regional parties. Now this is not bad in itself as India needs its states to be well governed as the whole country should be. But the compulsions of coalition have lefllhe national parties at the mercy of regional allies. Instead of national leaders contributing to the rise of regional strongmen, the situation is completely reversed - the regional satrapis the man


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who can actually call the shots as to who heads the

government in Delhi. _

(1) All ideology has become secondary to the pursuit of power.

(2) India's governance is therefore at the mercy of divisive regional issues, when what it needs more than ever is a cohesive national agenda. (3) The response of the national parties has been

extremely opportunistic and extremely


(4) India is not being ruled by the centre, it is actually being dictated to by the periphery.

(5) For all their pretensions of grandeur, the Congress and the BJP must both know that by refusing to introspect and change, they are no longer masters of their own destiny and have failed themselves.

17. Chomsky went on to elaborate what he called a Cartesian theory of language, a theory that presupposed the existence of universal, innate grammatical structures. Chomsky argued that language exists at two levels: a surface structure with which all humans are familiar, and a deep structure, a common form which underlines all

languages. _

(1) The common structure underlying all languages Chomsky called the universal grammar.

(2) A baby can speak any lanquaqe because hardwired into its brain are the rules of universal grammar.

(3) The latter, he suggested, is innate, while the former is culturally shaped. and accounts for a variety of languages in the world.

(4) In other words, the mind is composed of distinct modules each designed to perform a particular task.

(5) Skinner, Chomsky concluded, was play-acting at science.

18. All societies have some stock of social capital; the real differences among them concern what might be called the 'radius of trust'. That is, cooperative norms like honesty and reciprocity can be shared among limited groups of people and not with others in the same society. Families are obviously important sources of social capital everywhere. Whatever low opinions parents may have of their teenage children, it is far more likely that members of the same family will trust and work with one

another more than with strangers. _

(1) Th is is the reason that virtually all businesses start out as family businesses.

(2) BLJt the strength of the family bond differs from society to society and also varies relative to other types of social obligations.

(3) In some cases, there appears to be something of an inverse relationship between the bonds of trust and reciproci.ty.

(4) It is perfectly possible to form successful groups in the absence of social capital, using a variety of formal coordination mechanisms lika contracts, legal systems and the like.

(5) Social capital has benefits that go beyond the economic sphere.

19. Many people would not accept the fact that something done by a corporation in tis own sellinterest can have any moral content. This stems, from the peliectly reasonable distinction most people make between altruistic or moral intentions and rational self-interest. This is all the more true of economists, who want to keep their scienoe free of any kind of dependence on moral motivation. Commonsense moral reasoning tells us, in effeot, that if I am honest and helpful to you only because I want to have repeat business in future, then I am not really being honest and helpful, just

calculating. ~

(1) This Kantian view of moral behaviour stressing intentions rather than results is important to keep in mind, particularly when judging people's character.

(2) A virtue is not a virtue unless it is practiced for its own sake.

(3) We often start out obeying a norm for reasons of self-interest, but oontinue obeying it for what amounts to moral considerations.

(4) We consider market exchange an amoral transaction, whereas we invest reciprocity with moral meaning. Why?

(5) While it is important to maintain a distinction between moral behaviour undertaken for its own sake and rational sell-interest, it is difficult and often unreasonable to delink moral behaviour entirely from self-interest.

20. The problem may therefore be stated quite simply thus: what can be done to bring health to economic life outside the big cities, in the small towns and villages whioh still contain - in most cases - eighty to ninety percent of the total population? As long as the development effort is concentrated mainly on the big cities where it is easiest to establish new industries, to staff them with managers and men, and to find finance and markets to keep them going, the competition from these industries will further disrupt and destroy non-aqricultural production in the rest of the country, will cause additional unemp.loyment outside, and will further accelerate the migration of destitute people into towns that

cannot absorb them. _

(1) Rural unemployment becomes urban


(2) In this oonnection it is neoessary to emphasize that the primary need is workplaces, literally millions of them.

(3) It is necessary that an important part of the development effort should by-pass the big cities and be directly concerned with the creation of an "agroindustrial structure" in the rural and small-town areas.

(4) The open and disguised unemployment in the rural areas is often thought to be due entirely to population growth but those who hold this view still have to explain why additional people cannot do additional work.

(5) The process of mutual poisoning will not be halted.


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SECTION -II Number of Questions = 20

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Demand and Supply of Different Kinds of Fuel in Four Different States

i 225
15. 125
U) 100
P" A
E-9 I
A ....I
r- U U
L.....I Ar"""l I
L.-! I L.f-I E
E U .....
~r-' 25 o





100 125 150 175 200 225 250 275 300 Demand

Note: Here, E, A, U and I denote the fuels, whereas the sym bois 0, 0, 1:::.. and 0 denote states.

E - Kerosene A-Gas

U - Coal

i - Diesel

o o 1:::..





- H.P.

21. For how many kinds of fuel is the supply falling short of the demand in one or more of the given four states?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2

(4) 3 (5) 4

22. In which of the following stales is the demand for all the four kinds of fuel fully met by the corresponding supply?

(1) A.P. (2) M.P. (3) T.N.

(4) H.P. (5) None of these

Additional information for questions 23 and 24:

A group of one or more states (from among the given four states) is said to be self-sufficient in a particular kind of fuel, if and only if the total demand for that type of fuel in all the states of that group put together does not exceed the total supply of that type of fuel in all the states of that group put together.

23. The maximum possible number of states in a group that is self-sufficient in at least three kinds of fuel is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3

(4) 4 (5) Cannot be determined

24. If's' is the maximum possible number of states in a group that is self-sufficient in 'I< kinds of luel, then s + k is at least

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6

(4) 7 (5) 3

DI.RECTIONS for questions 25 to 29: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The President of a club is elected through several rounds of voting by the members of the club. Only members of the club can contest for the post of the President.

Four members - A,. B, C and D - are the candidates in the fray. In each round of voting, the candidate getting the least number of votes is eliminated and the candidate getting more number of votes in the final round of voting is designated the President While voting, in each round, each member must vote as long as he/she is eligible to vote and must vote for exactly one candidate in contention. But the candidates who are themselves in contention are eligible only as long as they are still in the fray.

The fol.lowing table shows some 01 the information regarding the voting pattern in the different rounds of voting that happened:

Round Total Maximum votes for Minimum votes for
votes Candidate Votes Candidate Votes
1 A 60 D 24
2 163 B 64 C 39
3 147 It is also known that;


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(i) A member is eligible to vote for at most two candidates in all the rounds combined.

(ii) Candidates A and B retained their votes from all previous rounds as long as they were in contention.

(.iii) 25%, of those who voted for candidate C in round 1, voted for candidate B in round 2.

(iv) Half of those who voted for candidate C in round 1, voted for candidate B in round. 3.

(v) In every round, all contestants who are in contention voted for themselves.

25. What is the number of votes cast for candidate C in

round 1? (1) 24 (4) 36

(2) 28 (3) 32

(5) Cannot be determined

26. How many members who voted for candidate 0 in round 1,. voted for candidate B in round 2?

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8

(4) 9 (5) Cannot be determined

27. Among the members who voted for candidate C in round 2 and. were still eligible to vole in round 3,. what percent voted for candidate Ain round 37

(1) 60.5% (2) 65.2% (3) 66.68%

(4) 72.5% (5) None of these

28. Which of the following statements must be true?

I. Candidate A won the election in round 3 by a margin of three votes.

II. Sixteen candidates who voted for 0 in round 1,

voted for C in round 2.

(1) Only I (2) Only II

(3) Both I and II (4) Nei.ther I nor II

(5) Either I or II

29. What is the difference between the number of votes cast in round 1 and that in round 3 for candidate 6?

(1) 24 (2) 26 (3) 25

(4) 23 (5) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 30 to 32. Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Irian is an all-rounder in cricket and is good at all the three aspects of the game - batting, bowling and fielding. For this season, he has assigned himself a weekly training schedule, such that each of the three aspects are practiced for exactly three sessions. in a period of seven days. Also, the gap between any two consecutive practice sessions of any of the three aspects, must not be more than two days. He rests completely on exactly one day of the week and only on Wednesdays does he practice all the three - balling, bowling and fielding. During a certain period of six consecutive days, he practiced fielding on the first day, baiting on the second day, bowling on the third day, fielding on the fourth day, bowling on the fifth day and batting on the sixth day. The above mentioned is only a partial list for some of the days, during which he could have practiced more than one of baiting, bowling and fielding on the same day.

30. The day on which lrfan takes rest is

(1) Saturday (2) Sunday (3) Friday

(4) Thursday (5) Cannot be determined

31. If I rfan practiced two of the three aspects of the game on a certain day, it can be a

(1) Tuesday (2) Saturday (3) Thursday

(4) Monday (5) Sunday

32. Irian practices which aspect on a Sunday? (1) Batting

(2) Bowling

(3) Fielding

(4) More than one of the above (5) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 33 to 37: Answer the questions on the basis of the information gtven below.

A school. was started in the academic year 2001-02. The following bar graph gives the number of students who joined in the beginning of each academic year, from .2001-02 to 2007-08, and also the number of students who left the school at the end of each academic year. from 2001-02 to .2007-08.









IGIThe number of students who joined the school DThe number of students who left the school


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