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Biology Discretes

Test

Time: 30 Minutes
Number of Questions: 30

This test consists of 30 discrete questions—questions


that are NOT based on a descriptive passage. These
discretes comprise 15 of the 77 questions on the
Physical Sciences and Biological Sciences sections of
the MCAT.
MCAT

BIOLOGY DISCRETES TEST

DIRECTIONS: The following questions are not based


on a descriptive passage; you must select the best
answer to these questions. If you are unsure of the
best answer, eliminate the choices that you know are
incorrect, then select an answer from the choices that
remain. Indicate your selection by blackening the
corresponding circle on your answer sheet.

1 . Which of the following are characteristic of animal 3 . The solid line in the figure below shows the course
and fungal cells, but NOT bacterial cells? of the reaction A + B → C + D in the absence of its
catalyst. Which of the dotted lines would best
I. They are eukaryotic. represent the course of the same reaction in the
II. They possess ribosomes. presence of its catalyst?
III. They possess cell walls.
IV. They reproduce asexually. 2

potential energy
A. I only 3
B. I and 1I only
C. I, II, and III only
D. II III, and IV only
4
1

reaction coordinate
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
2 . What is the function of a lysosome’s membrane? D. 4
A . It provides an acidic environment for the
lysosome’s hydrolytic enzymes within the
neutral environment of the cell.
B . It is continuous with the nuclear membrane,
thereby linking the lysosome with the
endoplasmic reticulum.
C . It is used as an alternative site of protein
synthesis.
4 . A culture of red blood cells is grown on a nutrient
D . The cytochrome carriers of the electron transport
medium containing dinitrophenol which is a poison
chain are embedded within it.
that blocks the electron transport chain. Under these
conditions:
A. ATP production will remain the same.
B. ATP production will decrease.
C. oxygen consumption will increase.
D. lactic acid production will increase.

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Biology Discretes Test

5 . Down’s syndrome is a human genetic disorder that 1 0 . Strontium is preferentially incorporated into growing
can be caused by the nondisjunction of chromosome long bone. Therefore, if a child were exposed to
21 during meiosis. During which phase of meiosis strontium, where would the highest concentration of
does nondisjunction occur? strontium most likely be found?
A. Interphase A. In the cartilage lining the joints
B. Prophase B. In the center of long bones
C. Anaphase C. Near the epiphyseal plates of long bones
D. Metaphase D. Evenly distributed throughout long bones

6 . Brain cells of the housefly Musca domestica have 6


pairs of chromosomes. Therefore, it can be concluded
that: 1 1 . A patient with a peptic ulcer takes a large overdose
of an antacid. As a result, the activity of which of the
A. the fly’s diploid number is 24. following enzymes would be most affected?
B. the fly’s haploid number is 12.
C. the fly’s gametes contain 3 chromosomes. A. Trypsin
D. the fly’s gametes contain 6 chromosomes. B. Procarboxypeptidase
C. Lipase
D. Pepsin
7 . Fetal lungs are supplied with only enough blood to
nourish the lung tissue itself, since fetal lungs are
nonfunctional prior to birth. Obstruction of which of
the following fetal structures would cause an increase
in blood supply to fetal lungs? 1 2 . Pancreatic lipase is involved in the digestion of:
A. Aorta A. starch.
B. Ductus arteriosus B. protein.
C. Ductus venosus C. fat.
D. Pulmonary artery D. cellulose.

8 . Which of the following pairs of differentiated tissue


might be malformed if only one of the primary germ
layers failed to properly differentiate during 1 3 . Which of the following would trigger an increase in
development? breathing rate?
A. Brain and skeleton A. High blood CO2 partial pressure
B. Muscle and kidneys B. Low blood CO2 partial pressure
C. Kidneys and brain C. High blood pH
D. Intestinal epithelium and kidneys D. High blood O2 partial pressure

9 . Which of the following statements illustrates the


principle of induction during vertebrate development?
A . The presence of a notochord beneath the ectoderm 1 4 . If a tracer substance is injected into a patient’s
results in the formation of a neural tube. superior vena cava, which of the following structures
B . A neuron synapses with another neuron via a would the tracer reach last?
neurotransmitter. A. Right ventricle
C . The neural tube develops into the brain, the B. Left ventricle
spinal chord, and the rest of the nervous system. C. Pulmonary veins
D . Secretion of TSH stimulates the secretion of the D. Left atrium
hormone thyroxine.

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KAPLAN 3
MCAT

1 5 . Stenosis is a condition in which the leaves of a heart 2 0 . If the victim of an automobile accident suffered
valve adhere to each other, decreasing the volume of isolated damage to the cerebellum, which of the
blood flow through the valve. A patient diagnosed following would most likely occur?
with stenosis of the mitral valve would experience the
greatest increase in blood pressure in his: A. Loss of voluntary muscle contraction
B. Loss of sensation in the extremities
A. left ventricle. C. Loss of muscular coordination
B. left atrium. D. Loss of speech
C. right atrium.
D. aorta.
2 1 . Ingestion of the insecticide Parathion, which blocks
acetylcholinesterase function, would cause a(n):
A . decrease in postsynaptic depolarization.
1 6 . All of the following thermoregulatory mechanisms B . halt to all synaptic nervous transmission.
are involved in heat conservation EXCEPT: C . increase in acetylcholine concentration in
synapses.
A. piloerection. D . decrease in acetylcholine concentration in
B. perspiration. synapses.
C. shivering.
D. blood vessel constriction.
2 2 . How many different types of gametes would be
produced by an organism of genotype AabbCcDdEE,
if all of the genes assort independently?

1 7 . An increased plasma osmolarity would most likely A. 6


result in: B. 8
C. 10
A. excretion of dilute urine. D. 16
B. decreased water permeability in the nephron.
C. increased ADH secretion.
D. dehydration. 2 3 . The gene for color-blindness is X-linked. If normal
parents have a color-blind son, what is the probability
that he inherited the gene for color-blindness from his
mother?

1 8 . A patient’s anterior pituitary gland is removed due to A. 25%


the presence of a malignant tumor. Plasma B. 50%
concentration of which of the following hormones C. 75%
would be LEAST affected following surgery? D. 100%

A. FSH
B. Insulin 2 4 . What is the sequence of linked genes D, E, F, and G,
C. Estrogen given the following recombinant frequencies?
D. ACTH
GE: 23% ED: 15%
GD: 8% GF: 15%
EF: 8% DF: 7%
A. GDFE
1 9 . If a patient with high blood glucose levels (a
B. GFDE
diabetic) accidentally took an overdose of insulin,
C. EFGD
which of the following would most likely occur?
D. FGDE
A . Convulsions due to decreased blood glucose
concentration
B . Increased glucose concentration in urine
C . Dehydration due to increased urine excretion
D . Increased conversion of glycogen to glucose GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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Biology Discretes Test

2 5 . In fruit flies, the gene for wing type is located on an 2 9 . In a particular population, for a trait with two
autosomal chromosome. The allele for wild-type alleles, the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.6.
wings is dominant to the allele for vestigial wings. If What is the frequency of individuals expressing the
a homozygous dominant male fly is crossed with a dominant phenotype?
female with vestigial wings, what percentage of their
female progeny are expected to have wild-type wings? A. 0.16
B. 0.36
A . 0% C. 0.48
B . 25% D. 0.64
C . 75%
D . 100%

3 0 . Sexually reproducing species have a selective


advantage over asexually reproducing species, because
sexual reproduction:
2 6 . A cell is placed in a medium containing radioactively
labeled thymidine. If the cell undergoes two rounds of A. is more energy efficient.
replication while in this medium, the radioactivity B. creates novel genetic recombinations.
will appear: C. decreases the likelihood of mutations.
D. always decreases an offspring’s survival ability.
A. in both strands of all the DNA molecules.
B. in both strands of half the DNA molecules.
C. in one of the strands of every DNA molecule.
D. in both strands of half the DNA molecules; the
other half of the DNA molecules will have one
labeled strand.

2 7 . Which of the following is an acceptable nitrogen


base composition for double-stranded DNA?
A. 31% A; 19% T; 31% C; 19% G
B. 36% A; 36% U; 24% C; 24% G
C. 48% A; 48% T; 52% C; 52% G
D. 31% A; 31% T.; 19% C; 19% G

2 8 . What would be the sequence of mRNA transcribed


from the DNA segment: 5’ -ACGTCA-3’ ?
A. 5’ -TGCAGT-3’
B. 5’ -UGCAGU-3’
C. 5’ -UGACGU-3’
D. 5’ -UCGAGU-3’

END OF TEST

KAPLAN 5
MCAT

ANSWER KEY:
1. A 11. D 21. C
2. A 12. C 22. B
3. D 13. A 23. D
4. A 14. B 24. A
5. C 15. B 25. D

6. D 16. B 26. D
7. B 17. C 27. D
8. B 18. B 28. C
9. A 19. A 29. D
10. C 20. C 30. B

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BIOLOGY DISCRETES TEST TRANSCRIPT

1. The correct answer is choice A. This question requires you to know the differences between your basic animal
cell, fungal cell, and bacterial cell. You should know by now that all animal cells (as well as plant cells) are eukaryotic and
that all bacterial cells are prokaryotic, but what about fungal cells? Though they now have their own kingdom in the
classification scheme, fungi used to be considered part of the Plant kingdom, which should tell you something about fungal
cells: they’re EUKARYOTIC. This means that choice D must be wrong because it doesn’t contain roman numeral I. Fungi
are heterotrophic organisms that come in all shapes and sizes; they can be either multicellular, like mushrooms, or
unicellular, like yeast. And like plant cells, fungi have cell walls, along with all the other eukaryotic organelles. Bacteria also
have cell walls, though they’re different in structure from plant cell walls and fungal cell walls. Remember, however, that
animal cells are NOT surrounded by cell walls. Therefore, roman numeral III can be eliminated, which means that so can
choice C. As you know, animals reproduce sexually. The primary means of reproduction in fungi, however, is asexual, via
spores. Bacteria reproduce asexually via binary fission; therefore, roman numeral IV is not a common characteristic of animal
and fungal cells, and so it can be eliminated. This doesn’t help you any since roman numeral IV only appears in choice D,
which has already been eliminated. So now you’re down to choices A and B. Since we’ve established that both animal cells
and fungal cells are eukaryotic, this means that both cell types have ribosomes--the organelles responsible for translating a
strand of mRNA into a protein. Bacteria also synthesize proteins with ribosomes. And even though prokaryotic ribosomes are
structurally different from eukaryotic ribosomes, they are ribosomes nonetheless. Therefore, roman numeral II must be wrong
along with choice B, since this is a characteristic shared by ALL THREE cell types. So, of the four characteristics, the only
one shared by animal cells and fungal cells, but NOT by bacterial cells, is that they are both eukaryotic. So, choice A, I only,
must be the correct answer.

2. Choice A is the correct answer. Lysosomes are membrane-bound sacs containing hydrolytic enzymes
involved in intracellular digestion. Lysosomes fuse with intracellular vesicles and digest their contents, such as proteins,
polysaccharides, fats, and even nucleic acids. The end results are breakdown products that can now be directly used by the cell.
Lysosomes also play a role in the recycling of cell organelles; lysosomes engulf and digest old organelles, releasing their
component molecules into the cytosol for reuse. The reason these hydrolytic enzymes are contained within the lysosome is
that they are optimally functional at a pH of 5, which is acidic. Like the stomach, which “accommodates” its enzymes by
maintaining a pH of 2, the lysosome pumps in hydrogen ions from the cytosol to maintain an internal pH of 5. The
lysosomal enzymes would not function optimally in the neutral environment of the cytosol; the lysosome membrane enables
the lysosome to maintain the acidic environment needed by its enzymes. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choice B
sounds nice, but it isn’t quite correct. Although lysosomes, like the other membrane-bound organelles in the cell, are
considered to be a part of the cell’s endomembrane system--a system of membranes linked through direct contact or
“communication” via tiny vesicles--lysosome membranes are NOT in direct physical contact with the nuclear membrane and
do NOT provide a link between it and the endoplasmic reticulum. The endoplasmic reticulum doesn’t need a link because it IS
continuous with the nuclear membrane itself at certain points; thus, choice B is wrong. Choice C is incorrect because it says
that lysosomes are an alternate site of protein synthesis; the RIBOSOME is ALWAYS the site of protein synthesis, no
matter what type of protein is being synthesized. Lysosomes are involved in protein degradation, not synthesis. Choice D is
incorrect because the cytochrome carrier molecules of the electron transport chain--the third stage of aerobic respiration--are
embedded in the inner membrane of the MITOCHONDRION, not the lysosome. Again, choice A is the correct answer.

3. The correct answer is choice D. This question tests your understanding of the function of a catalyst. A
catalyst is a substance, typically a protein, that increases the rate of a reaction by LOWERING THE ACTIVATION
ENERGY OF THE REACTION. The activation energy is the energy required by the reactants to get the reaction to go to
completion. A catalyst is neither altered nor consumed during the reaction. Furthermore, a catalyst does not change the initial
potential energy of the reactants, nor the final potential energy of the products. In other words, a catalyst doesn’t change the
delta G of a reaction. In terms of the figure, since the solid curve corresponds to the reaction rate of the uncatalyzed reaction,
the dotted line that corresponds to the catalyzed reaction must begin and end at the same points as the solid line. Therefore,
curves 1 and 3 can be immediately ruled out, and so choices A and C must be wrong. Since the activation energy of the
uncatalyzed reaction--the solid curve--correlates to the distance between the initial potential energy and the potential energy at
the peak of the curve, the activation energy of the catalyzed reaction would necessarily be lower. In other words, the distance
between the peak potential energy and the initial potential energy would be lower. Therefore, curve 2--choice B--is incorrect,
and choice D--curve 4--is the correct answer.

4. The correct answer is choice A. To answer this question you need to recall that red blood cells are enucleated
cells--that is, they don’t have nuclei. Why? Because when red blood cells mature in the bone marrow, they lose their nuclei,
mitochondria, and other membranous organelles. According to the question stem, the poison dinitrophenol blocks the electron
transport chain. And you know from your introductory biology that the electron transport chain is embedded within the inner
mitochondrial membrane. However, since red blood cells lack mitochondria, they are not affected by drugs, such as
dinitrophenol, that disrupt the electron transport chain. Red blood cells derive their ATP anaerobically via glycolysis.
Therefore, ATP production in red blood cells poisoned with dinitrophenol will remain the same, and so choice B is wrong and

KAPLAN 7
MCAT

choice A is correct. Choice C is wrong because oxygen consumption must remain the same if ATP production remains the
same. Choice D is wrong because lactic acid buildup would occur only in an aerobic cell forced to revert to anaerobic
metabolism in the absence of adequate oxygen supply. It’s actually beneficial for an organism’s red blood cells to be
anaerobic. Red blood cells are the oxygen-carrying component of the blood. If red blood cells were aerobic, they would require
oxygen for metabolism, which would most likely be acquired from the very supply of oxygen that they transport. This means
that an aerobic red blood cell would deliver less oxygen to the tissues than an anaerobic red blood cell, which would be an
extremely inefficient system. Again, choice A is the correct answer.

5. The correct answer is choice C. Before looking at the answer choices, let’s briefly review meiosis. During
prophase I, the DNA, which was already replicated during interphase, condenses into chromosomes. Homologous
chromosomes pair up during prophase I. Homologous chromosomes are those that code for the same traits; humans have 22
pairs of homologous chromosomes and a pair of sex chromosomes. During metaphase I, the homologous pairs align
themselves at the center of the nucleus along the metaphase plate. During anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes are
pulled toward opposite poles of the cells by the spindle fibers attached to their centromeres. During telophase I, the
chromosomes reach the opposite sides of the cell, cytokinesis occurs, and two daughter cells are formed. These daughter cells
then undergo the second round of meiotic division. During prophase II, the chromosomes move toward the equator of the cell.
During metaphase II, the chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate, and during anaphase II, the sister chromatids separate
and move toward opposite poles of the cell. During telophase II, cytokinesis occurs and a nuclear membrane reforms around
each haploid set of chromosomes. The end result is four daughter cells, each with a unique set of N chromosomes.
This question involves the nondisjunction of chromosome 21, which is known to be one of the ways in which
Down’s syndrome occurs. Nondisjunction occurs when a pair of chromosomes (either homologous chromosomes during
meiosis I, or sister chromatids during meiosis II) fail to properly separate. Since chromosomes normally separate during
anaphase, the correct answer is choice C.

6. The correct answer is choice D. All non-sex cells in a eukaryotic organism are known as autosomal, or
somatic, cells and contain the diploid number of chromosomes, which is also referred to as 2N. All sex cells, or gametes,
contain the haploid number of chromosomes, or N, which amounts to half of the diploid number. If the brain cells of the fly
contain 6 pairs of chromosomes, which is 12 chromosomes in total, then all of its other somatic cells must also contain 12
chromosomes as well. Since the diploid number is the number of chromosomes in a somatic cell, this species of fly has a
diploid number of 12. The only cells in the fly that are haploid are its gametes. Therefore, the fly’s gametes must contain 6
chromosomes, and so choice D is correct. During fertilization, the diploid number is restored when two haploid nuclei fuse to
become one cell--the zygote. Let’s take a look at the wrong answers. Choice A is wrong because the fly’s diploid number is
12, not 24. Choice B is wrong because the fly’s haploid number is 6, not 12. Choice C is wrong because every sperm and
egg of this fly species contain 6 chromosomes, not 3. Again, the correct answer is choice D.

7. The correct answer is choice B. Answering this question gives us the perfect opportunity to review fetal
circulation. Fetal circulation differs from adult circulation in several important ways. The major difference is that in fetal
circulation, blood is oxygenated in the placenta (because fetal lungs are nonfunctional prior to birth), while in adult
circulation, blood is oxygenated in the lungs. In addition, the fetal circulatory route contains three shunts that divert blood
flow away from the developing fetal liver and lungs. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the
fetus. The blood bypasses the fetal liver by way of a shunt called the ductus venosus, before converging with the inferior vena
cava. The inferior and superior venae cavae return deoxygenated blood to the right atrium. Since the oxygenated blood from
the umbilical vein mixes with the deoxygenated blood of the venae cavae, the blood entering the right atrium is only partially
oxygenated. Most of this blood bypasses the pulmonary circulation and enters the left atrium directly from the right atrium by
way of the foramen ovale, a shunt that diverts blood away from the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. The remaining blood
in the right atrium empties into the right ventricle and is pumped to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. Most of this blood is
shunted directly from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via the ductus arteriosus, diverting even more blood away from the
lungs. This means that in the fetus, the pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs, though this blood is by no
means saturated with oxygen. The blood that is delivered to the lungs is further deoxygenated there, because the blood unloads
its oxygen to the fetal lungs, which need it for proper development. Remember, gas exchange does not occur in the fetal
lungs--it occurs in the placenta. The deoxygenated blood then returns to the left atrium via pulmonary veins. Despite the fact
that this blood mixes with the partially oxygenated blood that crossed over from the right atrium (via the foramen ovale)
before being pumped into the systemic circulation by the left ventricle, the blood delivered via the aorta has an even lower
partial pressure of oxygen than the blood that was delivered to the lungs. Deoxygenated blood is returned to the placenta via
the umbilical arteries.
Obstruction of the ductus arteriosus would cause an increase in blood supply to the fetal lungs. Why? Because ALL
of the blood pumped into the pulmonary arteries by the right ventricle would then have to flow through the lungs--there
would be no place else for it to go. So choice B is correct. Let’s look at the other choices. If the aorta were obstructed, the
blood supply delivered to the tissue would be greatly diminished, but this would not have an effect on the volume of blood
delivered to the fetal lungs. Thus, choice A is wrong. Choice C is wrong, because obstruction of the ductus venosus would
greatly increase the blood supply to the fetal liver, since all of the oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein would be forced

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Biology Discretes Test

to pass through the liver before being sent to the heart. Choice D is wrong, because obstruction of the pulmonary artery
would result in a DECREASE, not an increase, in blood supply delivered to the fetal lungs. Again, the correct answer is
choice B.

8. The correct answer is choice B. This is really a simple knowledge question--either you knew which of the
pairs of tissue are derived from the same primary germ layer or you didn’t. Let’s go through each of the choices. Choice A is
incorrect because the brain, along with the rest of the nervous system, is an ectodermal derivative, while the skeleton is a
mesodermal derivative. Choice B is correct since both muscle and the kidneys are derived from mesoderm. Choice C is
incorrect because the kidneys are mesodermal in origin while the brain, as noted, is an ectodermal derivative. Choice D is
incorrect because the epithelial linings of both the digestive and respiratory tracts are endodermal in origin, while, as just
noted, the kidneys arise from mesoderm. it is important that you know which tissues derive from which embryonic germ
layers, as this has always been a favorite MCAT discrete question topic. A more detailed discussion of this topic can be found
in the Embryology chapter of your Biology Review Notes. Again, the correct answer is choice B.

9. The correct answer is choice A. In terms of vertebrate development, induction is defined as the process by
which a particular group of cells causes the differentiation of another group of cells. Choice A is an example of induction: the
group of cells that form the notochord induces the formation of the neural tube. Other examples of induction in vertebrate
development include the formation of the eye, where the optic vesicles induce the ectoderm to thicken and form the lens
placode, which in turn induces the optic vesicle to form the optic cup, which in turn induces the lens placode to form the
cornea and the lungs. Let’s look at the other answer choices. In choice B, while it IS true that a neuron synapses with another
neuron via a neurotransmitter--the chemical messenger of the nervous system--this is NOT an example of induction. Thus,
choice B can be eliminated. In choice C, while the neural tube DOES develop into the nervous system, it is not induced to do
so by another group of cells or tissue--at least not as far as we know. Therefore, choice C is also wrong. Finally, choice D is
also a true statement--TSH, or thyroxin stimulating hormone, DOES stimulate the secretion of thyroxine, as its name
implies. However, this is not an example of induction. Remember, just because an answer choice is a true statement does not
mean it’s the correct answer. It’s only correct if it answers the question that was asked. Again, the correct answer is choice A.

10. The correct answer is choice C. This question is simply asking you where growth occurs in long bone. The
answer is: the epiphyseal plates. The epiphyseal plates are regions of cartilaginous cells separating the shaft of the long bone,
called the diaphysis, from its two dilated ends, called the epiphyses. The epiphyseal plates are located at either end of long
bone, which are referred to as the proximal and distal ends. Since growth occurs only at the epiphyseal plates, the strontium
would be incorporated near the plates. Therefore, choice C must be the correct answer. Choices B and D are incorrect because
they incorrectly identify the location of long bone growth. Choice A is incorrect because the question is only dealing with
long bone growth; joints are what link two bones together--they are not part of the long bones themselves, so you’re not
going to find strontium there. Again, choice C is correct.

11. The correct answer is choice D. An individual develops a peptic ulcer either when her gastric mucosa
overproduces hydrochloric acid (HCl), or when her mucosal defenses are inadequate to protect the stomach mucosa from the
normal concentration of HCl in the stomach. The pH in the stomach is normally very low--around 2--due to this secretion of
HCl. This acidic environment is needed by the stomach enzyme pepsin, which works optimally at a pH of 2. One way to
treat a peptic ulcer is to take antacids, which neutralize the HCl in the stomach and thereby raise the gastric pH. By raising
pH, pepsin becomes nonfunctional. Therefore, pepsin activity would be most affected by an antacid overdose, and so choice D
is the correct answer. By contrast, the contents of the small intestine are relatively alkaline, due to the secretion of
bicarbonate, and the enzymes secreted into it function best at this higher pH. Trypsin, procarboxypeptidase, and lipase are all
products of the exocrine pancreas secreted into the small intestine, and function best in the alkaline environment there.
Therefore, they would not be affected by an antacid overdose, and so choices A, B and C are incorrect. Trypsin and
procarboxypeptidase are both protein-digesting enzymes, while lipase is involved in fat digestion. Again, choice D is the
correct answer.

12. The correct answer is choice C. Lipases are enzymes involved in lipid digestion. Lipids are a category of
nonpolar organic substances that include fats, oils, waxes, and steroids. Therefore, pancreatic lipase is an enzyme involved in
the digestion of fat. If you didn’t know this outright, you might have been able to deduce it from prefix “lip” shared by lipase
and lipid and liposuction. Thus, choice C is the correct answer. As for the other answers--starch, choice A, is digested by
amylase, which is secreted by both the salivary glands and the pancreas. Protein, choice B, is digested by proteases such as
pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin, just to name a few. Choice D, cellulose, is actually an indigestible molecule for most
mammals. Cellulose is the plant equivalent of starch, and vertebrates do not have an enzyme capable of digesting it.
Mammals that consume a lot of cellulose-rich plant material, such as elephants, horses, and cows, have bacterial symbiotes
in their guts that digest cellulose for them. So, choices A, B, and D are all incorrect, and choice C is the correct answer.

13. The correct answer is choice A. When the partial pressure of the respiratory gases are abnormally high or
low, chemoreceptors located in the medulla oblongata, on the carotid arteries, and on the aorta, detect and signal the

KAPLAN 9
MCAT

respiratory centers in the medulla to modify the breathing rate. The chemoreceptors are most responsible to changes in the
concentrations of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion; only extreme changes in oxygen concentration are relayed to the medulla.
To answer this question correctly, it’s important to understand that the concentration of hydrogen ion in the blood is
directly proportional to the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. Inside red blood cells, carbon dioxide combines
with water to form carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate ion and hydrogen ion. And an increase in hydrogen
ion concentration leads to a decrease in blood pH. So if the chemoreceptors detected an increase in the partial pressure of CO2
in the blood, or an increase in the concentration of hydrogen ion, they would send a signal to the brain that would result in an
increase in breathing rate. Therefore, choice A must be correct and choices B and C must be wrong. As for choice D, a high
partial pressure of oxygen in the blood goes hand in hand with choices B and C. In other words, choices B, C, and D would
most likely trigger a decrease, not an increase, in breathing rate. Again, choice A is the correct answer.

14. Choice B is the correct answer. This question is simply a matter of knowing the pathway traveled by blood
in the heart. Deoxygenated blood drains into the right atrium from both the inferior vena cava and the superior vena cava.
From the right atrium the blood flows into the right ventricle, which then pumps it to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries.
Carbon dioxide is exchanged for oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs. Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium via the
pulmonary veins. From the left atrium the blood drains into the left ventricle, which pumps it into the aorta for circulation
throughout the body.
Okay, getting back to our question. Based on the previous discussion, if a tracer substance is injected into the
superior vena cava, it would take the longest amount of time to reach the left ventricle. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
Remember, following injection, the tracer would first enter the right atrium, then drain into the right ventricle, choice A. The
blood with the tracer would travel to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries and return through the pulmonary veins, choice C,
into the left atrium, choice D. The tracer would then travel from the left atrium into the left ventricle, choice B. Therefore, the
tracer reaches the left ventricle last. Again, choice B is the correct answer.

15. The correct answer is choice B. The key to answering this question hinges on our knowledge of the mitral
valve. The mitral valve sits between the left atrium and the left ventricle, preventing the backflow of blood into the left
atrium when the left ventricle contracts. In general, the term stenosis refers to a narrowing of the valve such that the volume
of blood pumped through it decreased. So in an individual suffering from stenosis of the mitral valve, blood flow from the left
atrium into the left ventricle is impeded. Therefore, the effect is a great increase in blood volume in the left atrium and a
reduced net movement of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle. This means that there will be an increased left
atrial pressure and decreased left ventricular pressure. Therefore choice A is wrong and choice B is the correct answer. Let’s
take a quick look at the other choices. Blood flows out of the left ventricle into the aorta, which branches off into the arterial
system. Since pressure in the left ventricle is reduced, you would also expect to see decreased pressure in the aorta as well.
Therefore, choice D is also incorrect. The right atrium, where deoxygenated blood is returned by venous circulation, is too far
removed from the mitral valve to be much affected by mitral valve stenosis. Therefore, choice C is also incorrect. Again, the
correct answer is choice B.

16. The correct answer is choice B. Perspiration, or sweat, is the secretion of water, salts, and urea from the
sweat pores of the skin. As the sweat comes into contact with air, it evaporates, thereby cooling the skin. Thus, perspiration
is a thermoregulatory mechanism involved in cooling down the body, or heat dissipation, NOT heat conservation. Let’s take a
look at the wrong choices. Choice A, piloerection, refers to a reflex contraction of the small muscles found at the base of skin
hairs. Contraction of these muscles causes the hairs to stand erect, forming an insulating layer that prevents the loss of body
heat. Piloerection in humans is commonly known as “goose bumps.” So, choice A is incorrect. Choice C, shivering, is also
wrong, because shivering is a thermoregulatory mechanism designed to conserve heat. Shivering is an intensive, rhythmic
involuntary contraction of muscle tissue that increases internal heat production. Choice D is incorrect since the selective
constriction of blood vessels at the skin’s surface reroutes blood flow from the skin to deeper tissues, minimizing the loss of
body heat. Again choice B, perspiration, is the correct answer.

17. The correct answer is choice C. To answer this question, you need to figure out which of the physiological
responses listed in the answer choices would be the most effective method for the body to return plasma osmolarity to a
normal level. When plasma osmolarity rises above normal levels, it is detected by the osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus,
which send signals to the pituitary gland that stimulate it to secrete ADH. ADH, or vasopressin, acts directly on the nephron
to increase its permeability to water, thereby increasing water re-absorption. Increasing water re-absorption serves to decrease
plasma osmolarity. So, increased ADH secretion alleviates elevated plasma osmolarity and therefore, choice C is correct.
Let’s look at the other answer choices just to make sure. Choice A, excretion of dilute urine, is incorrect since this
would be a result of LOW plasma osmolarity or inhibition of ADH secretion by substances such as alcohol and caffeine. A
low solute concentration in the blood would decrease pituitary secretion of ADH, which in turn, would reduce water re-
absorption, which would lead to the excretion of dilute urine. Excretion of dilute urine serves to raise plasma osmolarity, not
decrease it; thus, choice A is incorrect. Choice D is wrong, due to its association with choice A. Dehydration results from an
excess excretion of dilute urine, known as diuresis, which can be caused by excessive loss of fluid and an increased plasma
osmotic pressure. Therefore, dehydration increases plasma osmolarity, and would therefore not be a likely result of increased

10 as developed by
Biology Discretes Test

plasma osmolarity. Choice B, decreased water permeability in the nephron, is incorrect because, as mentioned before,
increased plasma osmolarity would lead to increased ADH secretion, which in turn leads to increased water re-absorption. And
as we previously discussed, ADH increases water re-absorption by increasing water permeability of the nephron. Therefore,
decreasing water permeability would serve to increase plasma osmotic pressure, not return it to normal, and so choice B is
also incorrect. Again, the correct answer is choice C.

18. The correct answer is choice B. If the anterior pituitary gland is removed, then all of the hormones that it
normally synthesizes and secretes would no longer be present in the bloodstream. These hormones include luteinizing
hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH), prolactin, and growth hormone. Since the secretion of estrogen and progesterone is stimulated by the secretion of FSH
and LH, the plasma levels of both these hormones--estrogen and progesterone--would also decrease if the anterior pituitary
were removed. Likewise, since ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoid hormones, the levels of these
hormones would also decrease. Thus, choices A, C, and D are wrong. Insulin, on the other hand, is secreted by the pancreas in
response to high blood glucose levels, and would therefore be the LEAST affected by the removal of the anterior pituitary.
Thus, choice B is the correct answer.

19. The correct answer is choice A. Insulin is the hormone secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas in response
to high blood glucose levels. Insulin decreases blood glucose by stimulating cells to uptake glucose, and by stimulating the
conversion of glucose into its storage form, glycogen, in liver cells and muscle cells. An overdose of insulin can, and often
does, lead to convulsions, due to the sharp decrease in blood glucose concentration that results. Therefore, choice A is the
correct answer. Choice B is incorrect because the presence of glucose in urine is indicative of a high blood glucose
concentration and is actually one of the symptoms of untreated diabetes. A person with diabetes has high blood glucose levels
because of an insufficiency in, or a complete lack of, insulin production, or because insulin-specific receptors in the body are
insensitive to insulin. As a result, in untreated diabetes, there is a high blood glucose concentration along with a high urine
glucose concentration, since the kidneys aren’t equipped to re-absorb the excess glucose in the blood. Controlled doses of
insulin are used to alleviate the symptoms of diabetes, so clearly, insulin wouldn’t cause an increased glucose concentration in
the urine, and so choice B is wrong. Choice D is wrong, because as just discussed, one of the effects of insulin is to increase
the conversion of glucose into glycogen, NOT vice versa. Therefore, an overdose of insulin would not cause an increase in the
conversion of glycogen back into glucose. It is actually the hormone glucagon, also secreted by the pancreas, that stimulates
the conversion of glycogen into glucose. Diabetics DO become dehydrated if untreated because, in the kidneys, the excess
glucose in the nephrons causes water to diffuse into the nephrons, not out of them, as it would under normal circumstances.
The net result is an increase in urine production and excretion. Insulin would decrease urine excretion by decreasing blood
glucose, and so choice C is also wrong. Again, choice A is the correct answer.

20. The answer is choice C. The cerebellum is located in the hindbrain along with the pons and medulla. All
higher brain sensory neutrons and motor neurons pass through the hind brain. The main function of the cerebellum is
coordinating unconscious movement. Hand-eye coordination, posture, and balance are all controlled by the cerebellum.
Therefore, damage to the cerebellum would most likely result in loss of muscle coordination, and so choice C is the correct
answer. Let’s look at the other choices briefly. Loss of either voluntary muscle contraction, choice A, sensation in the
extremities, choice B, or loss of speech, choice D, may be caused by damage to specific areas of the cerebrum. The cerebrum
is located in the forebrain and is divided into two hemispheres, the left and the right. Each hemisphere is further subdivided
into four lobes. The cerebrum is responsible for the coordination of most voluntary activities, sensation, and “higher
functions”, including speech and cognition. Sensation of the extremities may also be controlled in part by the spinal cord.
Since choices A, B, and D are not under the control of the cerebellum, they are all incorrect. Again, choice C is the correct
answer.

21. The correct answer is choice C. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter, which causes depolarization of the
postsynaptic membrane of one neuron when released by the presynaptic terminal of another neuron. Acetylcholine is removed
from the synapse by way of hydrolysis; that is, in the synapse, the enzyme acetylcholinesterase catalyzes the hydrolysis of
acetylcholine into choline and acetate. ANTIcholinesterases, such as the insecticide Parathion, disrupt the activity of
acetylcholinesterase, which means that acetylcholine can’t be degraded. And this means that the concentration of acetylcholine
in the synapse will INCREASE, especially since the presynaptic membrane will continue to secrete the same amount of
acetylcholine that it normally secretes in response to incoming action potentials. So, choice D must be wrong and choice C
must be the correct answer. Choice B is wrong because an anticholinesterase won’t affect the activity of other
neurotransmitters, such as epinephrine and norepinephrine, so it certainly won’t bring ALL synaptic nervous transmission to
a halt. As for choice A, if acetylcholinesterase were blocked, then there would be an INCREASE, not a decrease in
postsynaptic depolarization, because if acetylcholine is not degraded, it will continuously bind to its receptors on the
postsynaptic membrane and depolarize it. Hence, choice A is incorrect. Again, choice C is the correct answer.

22. The correct answer is choice B. The number of genetically unique gametes produced by a given individual can
be determined by using the formula “two to the nth power”, where “n” is the number of heterozygous gene pairs that the

KAPLAN 11
MCAT

individual has. Heterozygous pairs are those in which the two alleles are not the same. The number of homozygous gene pairs
is not a factor in the formula because homozygous gene pairs do not contribute to the total number of possible variations in a
gamete’s chromosome content. Why? Because all the gametes will have the same allele if the parent has two identical copies
of the gene. If an organism has only two traits, and its genotype is big A little a, big B big B, there are only different types
of gametes that it can produce: big A big B, and little a big B. Since the organism is homozygous for the B gene, there is no
variation in the gametes for this allele--every gamete will have the big B allele. And if we used the formula, 2 to the nth
power we get 2 different gametes for this organism. How did we figure that out? Since there is only one heterozygous pair for
this organism, which is big A little a, n is equal to 1. So we get 2 raised to the first power, which is 2. Now let’s look at the
question. The individual in the question has the genotype big A little a, little b little b, big C little c, big D little d, big E
big E. Well, there are three heterozygous gene pairs out of a total of five pairs. So, using the formula, we get two raised to
the third power, which equals 8, choice B. All eight of these gametes will have the little b gene and the big E gene; what
these gametes do differ in is which type of A gene, C gene, and D gene they wound up with as a result of independent
assortment during gametogenesis, or meiosis. Since you were only dealing with three gene pairs, you didn’t really need the
formula to figure this one out--you probably could have done it in your head. The formula is much more useful as the number
of heterozygous gene pairs increases. Again, choice B is the right answer.

23. The correct answer is choice D. The important thing to remember about questions dealing with X-linked
traits is that females have two X chromosomes--one inherited from her mother, one inherited from her father, while males
have one X chromosome inherited from his mother and one Y chromosome inherited from his father. So if a male expresses
an X-linked trait, that means he must have inherited it from his mother. So if normal parents have a color-blind son, he
MUST have inherited the color-blind gene, which is X-linked, from his mother. His mother MUST be a carrier of the color-
blindness allele. So the probability that a color-blind son inherited the gene for color-blindness from his mother is 100%,
choice D, which is the correct answer.

24. The correct answer is choice A. Recombinant frequencies of linked genes are used for mapping the relative
locations of genes on a single chromosome. Recombinant frequencies are determined by crossing individuals that differ in
allele for all the genes in question, and then determining the genotypes of their offspring. The recombinant frequencies are the
frequencies at which nonparental genotypes appear, since these genotypes can arise only by genetic crossover. The premise of
mapping is based on the assumption that the PROBABILITY of a crossover occurring between two points INCREASES as
the distance between these two points INCREASES. Therefore, the FARTHER apart two genes are, the GREATER their
recombinant frequency; that is, the chance that these two genes will be inherited together, or will be linked, is less the father
apart two genes are on a given chromosome. One map unit is defined as a 1% recombination frequency, and recombinant
frequencies are roughly additive. However, if the genes are very far away, then the recombination frequency will reach a
maximum of 50%, at which point the genes are considered to be assorting independently. As we go through the problem, it
might help you write down your own gene map.
Okay, we’re given four genes--D, E, F, and G--and we’re given the recombinant frequencies between each possible
pair. In making your map, start with the pair that has the highest recombinant frequency. In this case, the recombinant
frequency is greatest between G and E; it’s 23%, which means that G and E are 23 map units apart, and they must be on the
two ends of the genetic map we’re trying to construct. From this one piece of information you can eliminate choices B and C
because they do not show G and E to be at the two ends. So, your chances of getting this question correct have already
improved to 50%. Now fill in the intervening genes by looking for the genes that are closest to the two endpoints. G and D
are 8 map units apart, and this is the shortest distance between G and anything, so D must be next to G. So now you can
eliminate choice B. So by the process of elimination, the correct sequence of genes on this chromosome must be G, D, F, E,
which makes choice A the correct answer. By the way, EFDG is equally correct, which is the answer you would have gotten
if you created your map in the opposite direction; but this isn’t one of the answer choices. But let’s work through the rest of
the problem anyway. As a check, notice that D and E are 15 map units apart. This makes sense, because the distance from G
to D, which is 8, plus the distance from D to E, which is 15, equals the distance from G to E, which is 23. We also see that
G and F are 15 map units apart, while F and E are 8 units apart. By the way, in this case the numbers add up exactly; that is,
the distance from G to E equals the distance from G to D plus the distance from D to E. This is not always the case, however.
Sometimes, the numbers will be off by one or two units, but this doesn’t necessarily mean that you’ve made a mistake. As I
said before, map distances are only roughly additive. Again, choice A is correct.

25. Choice D is the correct answer. This is your basic cross using our friend, Drosophila melanogaster. You’re
told that the gene for wing type is located on an autosomal chromosome--a non-sex chromosome, which means that it is
NOT inherited as a sex-linked trait. You’re also told that the dominant allele codes for wild-type wings; wild-type simply
means that this is the phenotype that predominates in nature. The recessive allele codes for the vestigial wing type, which is a
stumpy wing. The gender of the flies is of no relevance here; gender only comes into play for sex-linked traits. So, our male
fly is homozygous dominant for wing type and our female fly is homozygous recessive--she has to be homozygous recessive,
since she exhibits the recessive phenotype, vestigial wings. A cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous
recessive yields 100% heterozygous individual, which in this case, means that 100% of the progeny have wild-type wings--
males and females. Throwing in the condition about “female progeny” was just a red herring, since gender only comes into

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play with sex-linked inheritance patterns. So, choice D is correct. If you can’t figure out the results of this cross in your head,
just assign letters to the alleles and work out the Punnett square; it’s common practice to assign the dominant allele a capital
letter and assign the recessive allele the same lowercase letter. Again, choice D is the correct answer.

26. The correct answer is choice D. DNA replication is semiconservative. This means that the parental strands of
the double helix unwind and each then acts as a template for synthesis of a complementary strand. So, after the DNA has been
replicated, two new daughter helices each consist of one parental strand base-paired to one newly synthesized strand. Now that
we understand the way in which DNA replicates, let’s get back to the question. If a cell is grown in a medium containing
radioactively labeled thymidine--which is one of the nucleotides needed to synthesize DNA--after the first round of replication,
all of the DNA molecules will have one labeled strand and one unlabeled strand. Why? Because the radioactively labeled
thymidine will be incorporated into the newly synthesized strands. If the cell undergoes ANOTHER round of replication in the
same medium, the same sequence of events will occur. The previously labeled parent strands, which are now the daughter
strands, will base pair with free nucleotides, including more labeled thymidine, so these new daughter helices will have both
of their strands labeled. The unlabeled original parent strands will base pair with the labeled thymidine, so these new daughter
helices will have only one labeled strand. Hence, choice D is the correct answer; after the second round of replication, the label
will appear in both strands of half the DNA molecules, and the other half will have only one labeled strand.

27. The correct answer is choice D. Because DNA is double-stranded and because of the rules of complementary
base-pairing, the quantity of adenine in a DNA helix MUST EQUAL the quantity of thymine, and the quantity of cytosine
MUST EQUAL the quantity of guanine. Why? Because in DNA, adenine binds only with thymine, and cytosine binds only
with guanine. So you can eliminate choices A and B right off the bat because they don’t have either A and T or G and C in
equal percentages. Choice B can also be eliminated on account of it having the base uracil, U, which does not even appear in
DNA. So now you have to choose between C and D, which both have equal amounts of A and T, and equal amounts of C and
G. Well what about choice C? This choice has equal quantities of cytosine and guanine, and equal quantities of adenine and
thymine. However, if you’ll notice, adding all of the numbers together gives you 200%, which, of course, is impossible.
Therefore, choice C is incorrect and choice D must be the correct answer. Choice D meets both requirements. The base
percentages are correct, and totaling these percentages gives you 100%. So choice D is the right answer.

28. Choice C is the correct answer. Transcription is the synthesis of a strand of messenger RNA using a strand
of DNA as a template. The segment of DNA to be transcribed uncoils from its complementary strand, thereby exposing
unpaired bases to the actions of RNA Polymerase--the enzyme responsible for synthesizing mRNA. Just like the DNA
Polymerases, RNA Polymerase synthesizes only in the 5’ to 3’ direction. What essentially happens is very similar to what
happens during DNA synthesis: free RNA nucleotides temporarily bind to the DNA bases according to the rules of
complementary base pairing, and the end result is a strand of mRNA with a base sequence complementary to the segment of
DNA from which it was transcribed. Another thing you need to keep in mind is that nucleic acids have a polarity--there is a 5
prime end and a three prime end to every strand of nucleic acid. The two strands of DNA are situated antiparallel to each other;
that is, if you imagine reading the strands from left to right, one strand is in the 5’ to 3’ orientation, while the other strand is
in the 3’ to 5’ orientation. The one other really important thing to remember is that RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.
So you’ll never find thymine in a segment of RNA--any type of RNA. Therefore, you should have immediately eliminated
choice A because it contains thymine. Okay, we want to know the base sequence of the strand of mRNA synthesized from a
strand of DNA with the sequence ACGTCA in the 5’ to 3’ direction. Since adenine pairs with uracil and guanine pairs with
cytosine, the mRNA would have the sequence UGACGU in the 5’ to 3’ direction, which is choice C. Choice B is wrong
because it has the wrong polarity, and choice D is wrong because it has the wrong sequence. Again, choice C is the correct
answer.

29. The correct answer is choice D. To answer this question we must use the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p2 + 2pq
+ q2 = 1, where p equals the gene frequency of the dominant allele, and q equals the gene frequency of the recessive allele.
Hence, p2 is the frequency of homozygous dominants in the population, 2pq is the frequency of heterozygotes, and q2 is the
frequency of homozygous recessives. For a trait with only two alleles, p + q must equal 1, since the combined frequencies of
the alleles must total 100%. In this problem we are told that the frequency of the recessive allele for a particular trait is 0.6;
hence, q = 0.6. Since p + q = 1, p = 0.4. You’re asked to determine the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant
phenotype--not the dominant genotype, so that’s equal to the number of individuals homozygous for the dominant trait, p2,
added to the number of heterozygotes, 2pq, since they also express the dominant phenotype.

p2 = (0.4) x (0.4) = 0.16,


and 2pq = 2 x (0.6) x (0.4) = 0.48.
So, p2 + 2pq = 0.16 + 0.48, which equals 0.64, and so the answer is choice D.

Choice A, .16, is the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals; choice B, .36, is the frequency of homozygous
recessive individuals; and choice C, .48, is equal to the number of heterozygous individuals.

KAPLAN 13
MCAT

30. The correct answer is choice B. Asexual reproduction is more efficient than sexual reproduction in terms of
the number of offspring produced per reproduction, the amount of energy invested in this process, and the amount of time
involved in the development of the young, both before and after birth. Overall, sexual reproduction is a much more time-
consuming, energy-costly process. So, choice A is incorrect. However, asexual reproduction must rely heavily on mutation to
introduce phenotypic variability in future generations, since asexual reproduction almost exclusively produces genetic clones
of the parent. Sexual reproduction, on the other hand, involves the process of meiosis, which consists of two rounds of cell
division, which carries with it increased likelihood of cross-over events, chromosomal inversions, and nondisjunction events
during the two anaphases. Therefore, there is a much greater risk of mutation occurring with sexual reproduction, especially at
the level of the entire chromosome, sometimes known as chromosomal aberrations or macromutations. So, choice C is
wrong, too. The reason those species that reproduce sexually have a selective advantage is because gene recombination is a
given with every fertilization--two genetically unique nuclei--the sperm nucleus and the egg nucleus--fuse to form an equally
genetically unique zygote. This is the main means of introducing phenotypic variability into a population. This variability
does not always benefit or hinder the individual. The new phenotype may be disadvantageous OR it may be advantageous; so
choice D is also wrong. If the new phenotype is advantageous, this individual is more likely to survive and pass his genes on
to future generations; this is one of the main principles of natural selection. Again, choice B is the correct answer.

14 as developed by

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