Succession and Natural Selection

Exam 1- page 1
A Genetics EXAM IA
1. Shown below is the structure of a Drosophilia gene, divided into 10 segments, designed A through J. What segment or
segments of the gene will be represented in the initial RNA’s transcript?
________________________________________________________________________________________________
A B C D E F G H I J
promoter leader exon 1 intron 1 exon 2 intron 2 exone 3 AATAAA
________________________________________________________________________________________________
a. CDFHIJ b. DFHIJ c. DEFGHIJ d. BCEGIJ e. CDEFGHIJ
2. What segment or segments of the gene will be found in the completely processes transcript?
a. EGIJ b. DFHIJ c. CDEFGHIJ d. CDFHIJ e. none of these above
3. What segment or segments of the gene in the processed transcript will have additional nucleotides added in them?
a. B & I b. D & I c. C & J d. B & J e. B & G
4. What segment contains the TATA box?

a. B b. C c. D d. E e. I
5. What segment will contain the translation initiation codon?

a. B b. C c. D d. E e. I
The mutation cinnabar cn (bright red eyes), c ( cut wing) and plexus (px, extra winged veins) are linked on chromosome 2 of
Drosophilia. Assume 2 true-breeding individuals having different phenotypes for each of these traits are crossed to produce and
F1 individual who is then test-crossed, producing the following offspring types
cn c px 296
cn c + 63
cn + + 119
cn + px 10
+ c px 86
+ c + 15
+ + + 329
+ + px 82
Total 1000
6. What is the linkage grouping of the alleles in the parents?

a. cn, c, px, + + + b. cn, +, px, and +, c, +
c. +, +, px and cn c + d. +, c, px, and cn, +, +
e. none of these above
7. What is the order of the gentetic loci?

a. cn, c, px b. c, cn, px c. cn, px, c d. none of these
8. What is the map distance in centiMorgans between c and cn?

a. 13 b. 17 c. 35 d. 40 e. none of these above
9. What is the map distance in centiMorgans between c and px?

10. What is the map distance in centiMorgans between cn and px?

11. What is the interference in this problem?

a. 0.36 b. 0.64 c. 0.73 d. -0.14 e. none of the above
12. Researchers mated 2 heterozygous yellow mice with the following progeny: 55 yellow, 31 wild-type. They hypothesized that
this represented a 3:1 ratio. Calculate the chi-squared value for this hypothesis
a. 0.065 b. 5.597 c. 2.798 d. 8.407 e. none of these above
A
Exam 1- page 2
13. What conclusion would you reach from the results of the chi-squared analysis of the previous problem
a. There is less than 5% probability of obtaining this result if the hypothesis was true
b. this result demonstrates that the hypothesis is true
c. the data are consistent with the hypothesis
d. there is less than 5% probability that the hypothesis was false
e. none of the above
14. A parent molecule of DNA containing only 15N is placed in a environment containing only 14N. After 4 replications, how
many DNA molecules would still contain some 15N?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 16
15. Intermediate bands of (14N/15N) would be expected to appear after sedimentation equilibrium centrifugation in the Messelson-
Stahl experiment after:
a. round one of replication if it was semi-conservative
b. round 1 of replication if it was dispersive
c. round 2 of replication if it was semi-conservative
d. round 2 of replication if it was dispersive
e. all of these above
16. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for joining newly formed segments of the suger phosphate backbone of the
DNA togheter?
a. endonucleases b. exonucleases c. ligases d. gyrases e. primases
17. In the above pedigree inheritance can be explained by all of the following except:
a. dominant sex-linked gene b. a recessive sex-lined gene
c. a sex-limited autosomal dominant d. a sex-limited autosomal recessive
e. it is explained by all of the above
18. Itchihyosis is a reare genetic disease. What conclusions can be drawn from the results of the following crosses Male with
ichthyosis X normal female (have all offspring with normal phenotype). Normal male X female with ichthyosis (all male offspring
with ichthosis, all female offspring normal).
a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. sex-linked dominant d. sex-linked recessive e. none of the above
19. During interphase of the cell cycle:

a. DNA recombines b. sister chromatids move to opposite poles
c. the nuclear membrane disappears d. DNA content essentially doubles e. none of the above
20. The central scaffold

a. is found only in prokaryotes b. is largely composed of the enzyme topisomerase II
c. is the site where DNA polymerase binds d. is the attachment site for centromeric microtubules
e. is made up of histone proteins
21. How many telomeres are there in non-dividing human liver cell?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 23 d. 46 e. 92
22. The following pedigree concerns the autosomal recessive disease PKU. The couple marked A and B are contemplating having
a baby, but are concerned about the baby’s having PKU. What is the probability of the first child having PKU? Unless you have
evidence to the contrary, assume that a person marrying into the pedigree is not a cancer. The filled in individuals have PKU.
a. 0 b. 1/12 c. 1/4 d. 3/4 e. 9/4

A Exam 1- page 3
23. In a plant which is 2n=24, which is the total number of chromatids present during prophase I of meiosis?
a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48 e. 96
24. In a plant which is 2n=24, which is the total number of chromosomes present during prophase I of meiosis?
a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48 e. 96
25. The following pedigree depicts the inheritance of a rare hereditary disease affecting muscles. What is the most likely mode of
inheritance of this disease?
a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant

d. X-linked recessive e. Y-linked
26. The pedigree above shows the inheritance of attaches earlobes, (black symbols) and unattached earlobes. Both alternative
phenotypes are quite common in human populations. If the phenotypes are determined by alleles of one gene, then attached
earlobes are inherited as?
d. X-linked recessive e. could be more than one of the above
27. In a cross between parents who both exhibit the dominant curly and dark-haired traits, one child has straight, light colored
hair. What is the hair genotype of the parents?
a. CCdd x ccDd b. CcDd x CcDd c. CcDd x ccdd d. Ccdd x CcDd e. CCDD x CcDd
28. In a cross of AaBbCc x AaBbCc, what is the probablility of producing the genotype AABBCC?
a. 1/4 b. 1/8 c. 1/16 d. 1/32 e. 1/64
29. Barring in chickens is due to a sex-linked dominant gene. The sex of chicks at hatching is difficult to determine, but barred
chicks can be distinguished from non-barred at that time. To use this trait so that at hatching all chicks of one sex are differently
colored than those of the opposite sex, what cross would you make?
a. barred males X barred female b. barred males X non-barred females
c. none-barred males X barred females d. non-barred males X non-barred females
e. none of the above crosses will produce differently
30. If cytosine makes up 22% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism, then adenine would make up what % of
the bases?
a. 22 b. 44 c. 28 d. 56 e. it cannot be determined
31. The problem of replication the lagging strand 5’ direction is solved by DNA through the use of :
a. base pairing b. replication forks
c. the unwinding enzyme helicase d. Okazzaki fragments e. topoisomerases
32. What kind of chemical bonds are found between the paired bases of the DNA double-helix?
a. hydrogen b. ionic c. covalent d. sulphydral e. phosphate
33. suppose one were provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine had been added.
What would if the cell replicated once in the presence of this radioactive base?
a. one of the daughter cells but not the other would have radioactive DNA
b. neither of the daughter cells would be radioactive
c. al four bases of the DNA would be radioactive
d. radioactive thymine would pair with non-radioactive guanine
e. DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive
A
Exam 1- page 4
34. Which of the following statements does not apply to the Watson and Crick model of DNA?
a. the two strands of the helix are anti-parallel
b. the distance between the strands of the helix is 20 angstroms
c. the framework of the helix consists of sugar phosphate units of the nucleotides
d. the 2 strands of the helix are held together by covalent bonds
e. the purines are attracted to pyrimidines
35. Where is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?

a. structural gene region b. initiation region c. promoter region d. operator region e. regulator region
36. What is an anticodon part of?

a. DNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. ribosome e. activating enzyme
37. Which of the following is true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression?
a. after transcription a 3’ poly-A tail and a 5’ cap are added to the mRNA
b. translation of mRNA can begin before transcription is complete
c. RNA polymerase may recognize the promoter region upstream from the gene
d. mRNA is synthesized in a 3’ to 5’ direction
e. the mRNA transcript is the exact complement of the gene from which it was copied
38. A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the number of nucleotides in the
DNA necessary to generate this protein?
a. 3 b. 100 c. 300 d. 900 e. 1800
39. Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a protein depends on the specificity in the:
a. binding of ribosome to the mRNA b. the shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes
c. binding of the aniticodon to the codon d. attachment of amino acids to the tRNA e. both C and D are correct
40. What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?
a. introns b. exons c. codons d. replicons e. transposons
41. From the following list which is the first event in the translation of eukaryotes?
a. elongation of the polypeptide
b. base paring of activated methionine tRNA to AUG of a messenger first two amino acids
c. binding of the larger ribosome subunit to smaller ribosome subunits
d. covalent bonding of the first two amino acids
e. both B and D occur simultaneously
42. What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule?
a. covalent bonding between sulpher atoms
b. ionic bonding between the phosphates
c. hydrogen bonding between the base pairs
d. Van der Wanis interactions between hydrogen atoms
e. peptide bonding between amino acids
43. If the triplet UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalinine in bacteria then in plants UUU should code for:
a. leucine b. valine c. cystine d. phenylalanine e. proline
44. A possible sequence of nucleotides in DNA that would code for the poly peptide sequences phe-leu-ile-val would be?
a. 5’ TTC.CTA.CAG.TAG3’ b. 3’AAA.GAA.TAA.CAA5’ c. 5’AUG.CTG.CAG.TAT3’
d. 3’AAA.AAT.ATA.ACA5’ e. 3’AAA.CAA.TAA.CAA5’
45. a peptide has a sequence NH2-phe-pro-lys-gly-phe-pro-COOH. What is the sequence in DNA that codes for this peptide?
a. 3’UUU.CCC.AAA.GGG.UUU.CCC5’ b. 3’AUG.AAA.GGG.TTT.CCC.AAA.GGG5’
c. 3’AAA.GGG.TTT.CCC.AAA.GGG5’ d. 5’GGG.AAA.TTT.AAA.CCC.ACT.GGG3’
e. 5’ACT.TAG.CAT.AAA.CAT.TAC.UGA3’
46. What is the sequence of the peptide based mRNA sequence 5’UUU.UCU.UAU.UGU.CUU3’
a. leu-cys-tyr-ser-phe b. cyc-phe-tyr-cys-leu c. phe-leu-ile-met-val
d. leu-pro-asp-lys-gly e. phe-ser-tyr-cys-leu
Exam 1- page 5
A 47. Which of the following represents the similarity between RNA and DNA?
a. the presence of a double-stranded helix
b. the presence of uracil
c. the presence of an OH group on the 2’ carbon of the sugar
d. nucleotides consisting of phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base
e. repair systems that correct genetic code errors
48. All of the following are transcribed from DNA except:

a. protein b. exons c. rRNA d. tRNA e. mRNA
49. Which of the following does not occur during the termination phase of translation?
a. a termination codon moves into the A site
b. the newly formed polypeptide is released
c. a tRNA with the next amino acid enters the P site
d. the two ribosomal subunits separate
e. translation stops with the next amino acids enters the P site
50. In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around?

a. polymerase molecules b. ribosomes c. mRNA d. histones
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B Genetics EXAM IB
XYZ 365
xyz 367
xYz 110
XyZ 105
xYZ 3
Xyz 4
X 25
xyZ 21
Total 1000
1. Disregarding gene order, which alleles are linked in the individual being test crossed
a. XYZ & xyz b. xYz and Xyz c. xyZ and Xyz d. Xyz and xYZ e. none of these
2. The order of the genes are:

a. XYZ b. YZX c. YXZ
3. Distance between X & Y is:

a. 21.5 cM b. 4.6 cM c. 22.2 cM d. 5.3 cM e. 27.5 cM
4. Distance between X & Z is:

5. Distance between Y & Z is:

6. Coefficient of Coincidence is:

a. 0.7 b. 1.0 c. 2.3 d. 0.59 e. none of these
7. The interference is
a. 0.3 b. 0.0 c. -1.3 d. 0.41 e. none of these
8. Which of the following Okazzaki fragment was made first?

Exam 1- page 6
B a. left fragment b. middle fragment c. right fragment d. all made simultaneously e. no pattern exists
9. Which RNA primer would be first to be removed?

a. the one in the left fragment b. the one in the middle fragment c. the one in right fragment
d. they will be removed simultaneously e. no pattern exists
10. After DNA polymerase I removes the middle Okazzaki fragment and fills the gap with DNA, where does
DAN ligase function?
a. at 1 b. at 2 c. at 1 and 2 d. at neither 1 or 2
11. A short-winged dark bodied fly is crossed with a long-winged tan bodied fly. Al F1 progeny are long-winged and tan bodied
flies. The F2 flies are crossed among themselves to yield 84 long-tan flies, 27 long-dark, 35 short-tan and 14 short-dark. What
phenotypic ratio would Mendel have expect in F2
a. 3:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 d. 9:3:3:1 e. none of these
12. Calculate the appropriate chi-squared test for testing Mendel’s hypothesis in previous problem
13. What can you concluded based on your chi square test in the previous problem?
a. data is inconsistent with the hypothesis b. data proved Mendel’s hypothesis correct
c. Data are consistent with Mendel’s hypothesis; therefore, there is no evidence to reject his hypothesis at this current time
d. the data are based on too small of a sample size to be significant e. none of these
14. Which of the following has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity?

a. RNA polymerase b. DNA polymerase I c. DNA polymerase II d. DNA polymerase III e. none
15. percent of cytosine in double standed DNA = 17. What is % of adenine in DNA?
a. 17 b. 83 c. 66 d. 33 e. none of these
16. For double stranded DNA which of the following base ratio isn’t always equal 1?
a. (A + T) / (G + C) b. (A+G)/(C+T) c. C/G d. (G+T)/(A+C) e. none of these
17. Interphase is a period corresponding to the cell cycle phases of:

a. mitosis b. S phase c. G1 + S + G2 d. G1 + S + G2 + M e. none of these
18. Chromatids joined together by centromere are called

a. sister chromatids b. homologs c. alleles d. bivalents e. none of these
19. In Meselson & Stahl experiment

a. Dispersive replication was ruled out after one generation
b. conservative replication could only be ruled out after two generations
c. semiconservative replication was conclusively established after one generation
d. semi conservative replication was conclusively established after 2 generations
e. none of these
20. A diagram of a linear chromosome is shown below. The end of each strand is labeled with an A, B, C, D. Which ends could
not be replicated with DNA polymerase?
5’-A --------------------------B-3’
3’-C---------------------------D-5’
a. A and C b. B and D c. C and D d. D and A e. B and C
21. PKU is recessive inborn error if ________ of amino acid phenylalanine that results severe mental retardation of affected kids.
What is probability offspring of III1 & III2
a. 1/4 b. 1/16 c. 1/12 d. 1/36 e. none

B Exam 1- page 7
22. Which of the following statement is not true?
a. A DNA strand can serve as a template on many occation
b. DNA double helix may contain 2 strands of DNA mode at the same time
c. following semi-conservative replication, one strand is a newly made daughter strand and the other is a parent strand
d. A DNA double helix could contain one strand that is 10 generations older than the other
e. none of these
23. A tRNA has anticodon 3’ CAG 5’. What amino acid does it carry
a. glutamine b. valine c. histidine d. leucine e. none of these
24. Which statement is true?

a. sequence of anticodons in tRNA directly recognizes codon sequences in mRNA with some room for wobble
b. the amino acid attached to the tRNA directly recognizes codon sequence in mRNA
c. the amino acid attached to the tRNA directly affects the binding of the tRNA
d. both A & C are true
e. none of these
25. How many different sequences of mRNA could encode a peptide with the sequence
Proline - Glycine – Methonine – Serine
26. An mRNA encodes a polypeptide that is 312 amino acids in length. The 53rd codon in this polypeptide is a tryptophan codon.
A mutation in the gene that encodes this polypeptide changes this tryptophan codon to a stop codon. How many amino acids
would be in the resulting polypeptide?
27. A plant that has the genotype AabbccDDEE is mated with one that is aaBBCCddee. F1 individuals are selfed. What is the
chance that an F2 individual has exact genotype of the original parent on the left?
a. 1/4 b. 1/1024 c. 1/512 d. 1/32 e. none of these
28. PKU and altruism are two autosomal recessive disorder unlinked in human. If two people, each heterogynous for both traits.
produce a child. What is the chance that the child has both traits
a. ¼ b. 1/2 c. 2/3 d. 1/16 e. none of these
29. How many aminoacyl-tRNA synthelases are there

a. 1 b. 3 c. 20 d. 61 e. 64
30. How many single has deletions are required to restore the reading frame of a messenger RNA
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. there is no consistent pattern
31. A nonsense mutation is one in which:

a. a codon for an amino acid is converted to a stop codon
b. a codon for an amino acid is converted to a codon for another amino acid
c. a codon for an amino acid is converted to another codon for the same amino acid
d. an anticodon is modified
32. Which of the following regions of DNA might mutate with the least probable effect on the organism’s phenotype?
a. promoter b. intron c. exon d. TATA box
e. all of the above would usually be highly deleterious
33. You have isolated a mutant that makes a temperature-sensitive rho molecule; rho functions normally at 30ºC but not at 40ºC.
If you grow this bacterial strain at both temperatures for a short period of time. Which of the following would be true?
a. no newly synthesized RNA would be produced
b. no new polypeptide would be produced
c. newly synthesized RNA would be longer at 40ºC than 30ºC
d. newly synthesized RNA would be shorter at 40ºC than 30ºC
B Exam 1- page 8
34. The gene dumpy wing (d), clot eye (cl), and apterous wing (ap) are linked. In a series of two point crosses the following
genetic distance were obtained
dp-ap 42 a. dp-ap-cl
dp-cl 3 b. dp-cl-ap
dp-cl 39 c. ap-dp-cl
35. What is the probability of attaining an offspring that is AABbCc from parents that are AaBbCC and AABbCc
36. The following pedigree is for myopia in humans. Predict the mode of inheritance for this disorder
a. sex-linked recessive b. sex linked dominant

c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal dominant
e. none of these
37. How many different types of gametes can be formed by individuals having the genotype AaBBCc
38. When Mendel performed a dihybrid cross, he obtained F2 offspring in the following phenotypic ratio
a. 3: 1 b. 1:2:1 c. 1:2:1:2:1:2:1:2:1 d. 9:3:3:1 e. none of these
39. Which of the following is c_________ prokaryotic mRNA

a. 7 methyl guamine cap b. poly A tail c. introns d. Shine-Dalgano sequence e. none of these
40. RrCcHh x RcCcHh would yield RrccHh. What fraction of the time
41. Of a reciprocal cross was performed for a recessive sex-linked trait which of the following observations would be expected?
a. The F1 for both crosses would be phenotypically different
b. the male F1 for both crosses would differ phenotypically; but the females would be the same for the crosses
c. the female F1 would be different phenotypically but the male F1 would be the same for both crosses
d. all F1 would be phenotypically identical
e. none of these
42. Which of the following would you consider not to be typical of sex-linked dominant inheritance?
a. affected males  100% affected offspring
b. affected females about twice as common as affected males
c. affected males  50% affected some
d. both A and C
e. none of these
43. In translation of mRNA, the start codon:

a. indicates only an amino acid
b. indicates an amino acid and the start of translation
c. indicates an amino acid for the start codon of translation and set the reading frame
d. indicates the start of translation and sets the reading frame
e. indicates only the start of translation
44. 25 female rabbits from a true-breeding strain with Himalayan coat color were mated to 1 gray rabbit of unknown origin. The
progeny contained 61 Himalayan + 56 gray rabbits. What would you conclude?
a. Himalayan is dominant and the unknown was heterogeneous
b. Himalayan is dominant and the unknown is homogenous
c. Himalayan is recessive and the unknown is homogenous
d. Himalayan is recessive and the unknown is heterogeneous
B Exam 1- page 9
45. A genes A & B are linked and separated by 14 map units, what percentage of the progeny produced in a testcross will be
parental
a. 7% b. 14% c. 43% d. 86% e. 68%
46. A nucleus would contain the highest DNA content during a meiotic cell cycle where it was in
a. telophase I b. telophase II c. G1 d. G2 e. all have the same amount of DNA
47. Which enzyme is responsible for most of the elongation of a newly synthesized DNA strand in prokaryotes?
a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA polymerase II
c. DNA polymerase III
d. DNA polymerase alpha
48. When AaBb x AaBb what is the chance of obtaining an offspring Aabb
a. 1/4 b. 3/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/16 e. none of these above
49. In the wobble hypothesis put forth by Watson and Crick

a. The first base of a codon is inconsequential
b. the second base of a codon can be any of four nucleotides; but it is never different from the first base in the codon
c. The first 2 bases are usually the same for a specific amino acid but the 3rd base is varied
d. the last 2 bases are usually the same for a specific amino acid and the first base is varied
50. An alpha helix is an example of what type of protein structure?

a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary e. none of these
C ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Genetics EXAM IC
1. The following pedigree depicts the inheritance s-, a rar hereditary disease affecting muscles
What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this disease?

2. If genes assort independently, a testcrosses dihybrid characteristically produces progeny phenotypes in the ration
a. 1:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 3:1 d. 9:3:3:1 e. 1:1:1:1
3. Which of the following is not a component of the _________iotional system in cells

a. RNA polymerase b. DNA c. promoter d. Shine-Dalgorno Sequence e. Haupin loup
4. Which of the following sequence is the closet to the termination site for transcription
a. the promoter
b. the termination site for translation
c. the template for the AAU.AAA sequence on the mRNA
d. the template for furthest downstream exon
e. the TATA box
5. A process that occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis is

a. pairing of homologs b. chromatid formation
c. cell divisions d. separation of homologous centromeres to opposite pair
e. chromosome condensation (shortening)
C Exam 1- page 10
The following description pertains to the next 5 answers
Singed bristles (sn), crossveinless wings (cv), and vermillion eye color (v) are due to recessive mutant alletes in Drosophila
mehangaster. When a female heterozygous for these three genes was test crossed the following progeny ware obtained
singed, crossveinless, vermillion 3
crossveinless, vermillion 392
vermillion 34
crossveinless 61
singed, crossveinless 32
singed, vermillion 65
singed 410
wild-type 3
total 1000
6. What is the original linkage groups of these alleles?
a. cv v+ and + + sn b. sn cv v and + + + c. v + + and + cv sn
d. sn v + and + + cv e. none of these
7. What is the correct order of these genes?

a. sn v cv b. v sn cv c. v cv sn d. all of these e. none of these
8. What is the map distance between sn and cv (in cMs)

9. What is the map distance between sn and v (in cMs)

a. 7.2 b.. 13.2 c. 20.4 d. 20.2 e. none of these
10. What is the map distance between cv and v (in cMs)

a. 7.2 b.. 13.2 c. 20.4 d. 20.2 e. none of these
11. This attaches to the tRNA at the CCA 3’ end

a. a small ribosomal subunit b. the large ribosomal subunit
c. the appropriate amino acid d. the appropriate codon e. the 7 methylguanosine cap
12. The central scaffold

a. is found only in prokaryotes b. is largely composed of the topoisomerase II
c. is the site where DNA polymerase binds d. is the attachment site for centromeric microtubules
e. is made up of histone protein
13. Which of the following acts before the others?

a. tRNA alignment with mRNA b. Aminocyl- tRNA synthelase c. RNA polymerase
d. ribosome movement to the next codon e. amino acid chain elongation
14. A protein fragment has the following sequence NH2-his-met-leu-ile-lys-COOH . The DNA template strand sequence (3’-5’)
a. GUG UAC AAU AUU UUU b. GTG TAC AAT ATT TTT
c. GTA TAC AAT TAT TTT d. GUA UAC AAU UAU UUU
e. CAT ATG TTA ATA AAA
15. Base pairing in DNA is restricted to 2 base pairs; represented as follows. Which is correct?
a. A=T and G=C b. A= T and G=C c. A= G and T=C d. A=C and G=T e. A=C and G=T
16. Okazaki fragments form on the

a. mRNA b. 3’ end of a polymerizing strand of DNA c. leading strand
d. lagging strand e. major groove of DNA
17. Experimeters on chromosome structure and function have shown that in eukaryotic chromatids
a. There are at least 50 DNA molecules per chain
b. There is more than one DNA replicating point per chromatids
c. DNA molecules duplicate conservatively rather than semi-conservatively
d. DNA segregation to daughter chromatids occur in a dispersive pattern
e. moste DNA synthesis occurs during the m(mitosis) phase
C
Exam 1- page 11
18. Pedigree for autosomal recessive disease PKU. What is the probability their first child will have _________?
a. O b. 1/2 c. 1/4 d. 3/4 e. 9/64
19. A C/ccn female rabbit is crossed to a cr / c male rabbit. What proportion of the baby rabbits do you expects to be C2/Ce in
genotype?
`a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. none e. all
20. A plant of genotype C/C; d/d is crossed to c/c; D/D and an F1 testcrossed to c/c; d/d. If the genes are unlined; the percentage
of c/c; d/d recombinants will be
a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 50 e. 75
21. In Drosophila the genes R and S are linked. Flies of genotype Rs/Rs and rS/rS are crossed and an F1 obtained. The F1 allele
arrangement is called?
a. recombinant b. complementary c. coupling (cis) d. repulsion(trans) e. crossover
22. The Dropsophila, the 2 genes wand sn are X-linked and 25 map units apart. A female fly of genotype w=Sn+/W Sn is crossed
to a male from a wild-type line crossed to a male from a wild-type line. What % of a male progeny will be W+Sn?
a. 0 b. 12.5 c. 25 d. 37.5 e. 50
23. Out of 800 progeny of a 3-pt testcrossed, there were 16 double crossovers. Whereas so had been expected on the basis of no
interference, the interference is
a. 10 b. 0.20 c. 0.05 d. 0.50 e. 0.80
24. The F, G, and H loci are linked in the order WNA. There are 30 map units between F and G, and 30 map units between G and
H. If a plant F G H/ fgh is testcrossed, what proportion of progeny plants will be fgh/fgh if there is no interference
a. 0.690 b. 0.310 c. 0.155 d. 0.090 e. 0.045
25. Te Maize genes sh and bz are linked, 40 m u apart. If a plant sh+ bz/sh bz+ is selfed, what proportion of the progeny will be
sh bz/ sh bz?
a. 0.40 b. 0.20 c. 0.50 d. 0.10 e. .04
26. In a diploid organism 2n=6 and there are 2 long 12 intermediate, and 2 short chromosomes. What is the most accurate
representation of a gamete resulting from melosis in the organism?
b. c. d.
27. A Characteristics of homologous chromosomes is that

a. they carry alleles from the same genes in the same relative position
b. they regularly exchange parts by crossing over at meiosis
c. they physically pair at meiosis
d. they are found in pairs but they do not physically pair in interphase in a diploid cell
e. all of the above
28. These structures are hetorochromatic and are found at the ends of chromosomes
a. centromeres b. centrioles c. kinetochores d. telomeres e. none of these
29. In a nucleotide, the phosphate group is bound to which carbon on the deoxyribose sugar?
a. 1’ b. 2’ c. 3’ d. 4’ e. 5’
30. Mammals typically have more DNA in their genes than do less advanced eukaryotes. This is primary due to
a. mammals requiring more complicated proteins b. mammals having much longer exons
c. mammals having many more introns d. mammals primarily being diploid organism
e. there is no obvious pattern explaining this trend
C Exam 1- page 12
31. The redundancy of the genetic code is evident in the effect of different bases in codon position
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
32. Which of the following is not necessary for a splicosome to assemble about an intron
a. 5’ GU b. AG 3’ c. an A to serve as the branch point
d. the Shine-Delgarno sequence e. none of these
33. This enzyme unwinds the DNA helix at the start of replication
a. gyrase b. helicase c. primase d. topoisomerase e. none
34. Which enzyme is involved in the synthesis of mRNA in prokaryotes

a. RNA polymerase I b. RNA polymerase II c. RNA polymerase III d. RNA polymerase e. all of these above
35. If the nontemplate DNA strand is 5’AACTGCA 3’ the RNA sequence that would be transcribed from that region of DNA
would be
a. 5’ TTGACGT 3’ b. 3’ TTGACGT 5’ c. 5’ AACUGCA3’ d. 3’AACUGCA5’ e. all of these
36. Mice from wild population have agouti colored fur, but a lab strain has some mice with yellow fur. Through controlled
matings individuals were produced that were heterozygote. When these heterozygous individuals were crossed, they produced 80
offsrping; 54 of whom were yellow and 36 were agouti. What would be the chi-2 value for testing whether these data a 3:1
phenotypic ratio?
a. 7.048 b. 1.286 c. 5.762 d. 3.444 e. none
37. What would be the correct interpretation of the chi2 test from the proceeding 9?
a. The results prove that a 3:1 ratio is correct
b. the results are consist with the 3:1 hypothesis, so there is currently no reason to reject it
c. the results are too different from the hypothesis to accept the hypothesis so there is currently no reason to reject the
hypothesis
d. the result is too ambiguous for making any decision
38. Which of the following structures moves along its template in a 5’ to 3’ direction?
a. RNA polymerase b. DNA polymerase reading lagging strand template
c. DNA polymerase reading leading strand template d. ribosomes reading the mRNA
e. none of these
39. This enzyme has a significant role in preventing linear double stranded-DNA shortening with each replication
a. topoisomere b. telomerase c. amino acyl synthetase d. primase e. none
40. Which is false regarding the genetic code?

a. it is a triplet b. it is redundant c. it is ambiguous d. it is commaless e. it has stop signals
D --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
GENETICS EXAM I-D
1. An RNA molecule has a sequence consisting of a 5’ purine pyrimidine pyrimidine purine 3’. which of the following can be the
nucleotide base sequence?
a. 3’ AUCG 5’ b. 5’ ATTC 3’ c. 5’ ATTG 3’ d. 3’ GAUC 5’
2. Which of the following will be translated?

a. the first three nucleotides transcribed b. the last three nucleotides transcribed
c. all nucleotides included in the codons of introns d. all nucleotides included in the codons of exons
e. all of the nucleotides are transcribed
3. Which of the following is true?

a. there are usually many more introns than exons in eukaryotes
b. there are usually many more exons than introns in eukaryotes
c. exons in Eucharistic taxa that have evolutionarily recently arisen are not very much longer than their counterparts in older taxa
d. mature mRNA in Eucharistic taxa that have recently arisen are very much longer than their counterparts in older taxa
D
Exam 1- page 13
4. In prokaryotes this portion of DNA is where RNA polymerase attaches and about ten nucleotides downstream from the
TATA box begins transcription?
a. the enhancer b. the promoter c. the 5’ methylated cap d. an AUG codon c. none of the above
5. Which of these histone molecules does not exists as a dimmer and is not part of the nucleosome?
a. H1 b. H2A c. H2B d. H3 e. H4
6. When a chromose has its centromere at the end of the DNA molecule it is referred to as
a. telocentric b. aerocentric c. submetacentric d. metacentric e. none of these above
**7. This is a sequence of about fourty base pairs along a DNA molecule that has a stretch rich in GC’s followed by six or A’s on
the template. You might suspect that it is a
a. termination signal for transcription
8. DNA polymerase reads in a ______ to _____ direction and RNA polymerase reads DNA in a ____ to ____ direction
a. 3’ to 5’ and 3’ to 5’ b. 3’ to 5’ and 5’ to 3 c. 5’ to 3 and 5’ to 3 d. 5’ to 3 and 3’ to 5’
**9. What is the last thing that is done in processing on RNA molecule within the nucleus of a Eucharistic organism?
a. removing introns and splicing exons
**10. In prokayotes,
a. translation begins prior to the completion of transcription
**11. aminoacyl tRNA synthetase function in

a. charging tRNA’s
12. The level of protein structure is extablished via peptide bonds forming between adjacent amino acids
a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quartiary e. none
13. The wobble hypothesis involves

a. hydrogen bonding of the first nucleotide on the 5’ end of a codon
b. hydrogen bonding of the central nucleotide of a codon
c. hydrogen bonding of the nucleotide on the 3’ end of a codon
d. hydrogen bonding of the nucleotides on a codon depending of pH
14. Both of the Shine-Delgarno sequence and the 7 methylguanosine cap function in
a. passing the RNA through nucleopores b. terminating translation
c. attaching the mRNA to the small ribosomes subunit
d. the formation of peptide bonds e. none of the above
15. A transcribed mRNA is

a. antiparallel to the nontemplate strand of DNA b. synthesized by DNA polymers
c. reading 3’ to 5’ direction during translation d. is translated in its entirely e. none of the above
16. Which of the cellular molecules is typically the smallest?

a. DNA b. mRNA c. rRNA d. tRNA d. there is no typical pattern
17. Which of the following lists correctly ranks molecules from those occurring with the most different kinds in a cell to those
with the fewest different kinds?
a. codons> tRNA> aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases b. codons = tRNA > aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
c. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases> codons> tRNAs d. codons=tRNAs = aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
18. If Meselson and Stahl had carried their density centrifugation experiment out for another generation ( the third), how many
bands would they have detected in the third generation?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 0
19. These enzyme unwinds the DNA at the replication bubble

a. helicase b. gyrase c. SSBD d. ligase e. none of the above
Exam 1- page 14
20. In which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. mitosis b. G1 c. S d. G2 e. none
21. Which of the following is not closely associated with the others?
a. leading strand b. lagging strand c. Okazaki fragments d. discontinuous synthesis e. all are equally associated
22. The primase used in DNA replication is really only a form of

a. gyrase b. helicase c. DNA polymerase d. RNA polymerase e. none of the above
23. How many autosomal chromosomes does a somatic human cell contain during prophase of mitosis
a. 23 b. 22 c. 44 d. 46 e. none of the above
24. Crossing over normally occurs during

a. prophase of mitosis b. the S phase of the cell cycle c. prophase 2 of meiosis
d. prophase 1 of meiosis e. none of the above
25. What was Mendel’s most important contribution to the modern understanding of biology?
a. the concept of meiosis
b. the concept of chromosomes
c. the concept that hereditary information is particulate
d. recognition that populations of organisms are more important than individual in biology
e. the concept that genes are ordered along chromosomes
26. The DNA extracted from a bacteriophage contains 28% A; 28% I; 22% G; and 22% C. What can be concluded about its
structure from this information?
a. it is linear b. it is circular c. it is single stranded d. it is double stranded e. none
27. The dominant autosomal trait polycystic kidney disease causes death due to kidney failure at about age 50. A man marries a
woman whose father has the disease. Only 1 of her grandparents had the disease. She is age 25 and it can’t be diagnosed be
diagnosed until age 40. What is the probability that their first child will develop the disease?
a. 0 b. 0.25 c. 0.5 d. 0.75 e. none of the above
28. What is the probability (disregard crossing over) that 2 brothers inherit the same X choromosome from their mother?
a. 0 b. 0.25 c. 0.5 d. 0.75 e. none of the above
29. If an individual with genotype AABbCcDd mated with an individual with genotype AaBbCcDd. What is the probability that
an F1 offsrping has genotype AaBbCcDd
a. 0 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/16 e. none of the above
The following description holds for questions 30-36

In corn, the alleles C and c result in colored vs colorless seeds wx ad wx. In non waxy vs. waxy endosperm , and Sh and
sh in plump vs shrunken endosperm. When plants grown from seeds heterozygous for each of these pairs of alleles were
testcrossed with plants from colorless, waxy, shrunken seeds, the progeny seeds were as follows
colorless non-waxy shrunken 84
colorless non-waxy plump 974
colorless waxy shrunken 20
colorless waxy plump 2349
colorless waxy shrunken 951
colorless waxy plump 99
colorless non-waxy shrunken 2216
colorless non-waxy plump 15
Total 6708
30. What are the linkage group of alleles (independent of order)?

a. C Wx Sh and C wx sh b. C wx sh and c Wx Sh c. C wx Sh and C Wx sh d. C wx Sh and c Wx Sh e. none
31. What is the order of these loci along the chromosome (do not be concerned with which cells are linked)?
a. C Wx Sh b. Wx C Sh c. Wx Sh C d. none of these
Exam 1- page 15
D
32. What is the map distance between C and Wx?
33. What is the map distance between C and Sh?

34. What is the map distance between Wx and Sh?

35. What is the coefficient of coincidence?

36. What is the coefficient ofinterference?

37. Which of the following statement is true?

a. the best way to establish X-linked inheritance is via a testcross
b. mammalian females are heterogametic
c. males of all animal species are heterogametic
d. the best way to establish X-linked inheritance is via a reciprocal cross
e. none of these
38. Genetic recombination is the result of

a. independent assortment b. corssing over c. mutations d. A and B are correct e. A, B, and C are correct
39. When Mendel crossed a true breeding pea plant with round, green seeds to another with wrinkled, yellow seeds and carried the
matings to the F2 stage, he observed a phenotypic ratio of approximately
a. 1:2:1 b. 3:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 e. none
40. 20 female rabbits from a true breeding strain with Himalayan coat color were mated to 1 gray rabbit of unknown origin. The
progeny contained 61 Himalayan and 56 gray rabbit. Which of the following is true for this trait
a. the female was heterozygous dominant and male was homozygous recessive
b. The female were homozygous dominant and the male was heterozygous
c. The female were homozygous recessive and the male was homozygous dominant
d. the female were homozygous recessive and the male was heterozygous
e. none of these
41. Use the data and hypothesis you formed in question 41 to calculate a chi-square statistic for this problem
a. 0.21 b. 1.48 c. 0.83 d. 4.76 e. none
42. What would you conclude from the results of a chi squared analysis?
a. the results were inconsistent with the hypothesis so the hypothesis should be rejected based on this experiment
b. the results agree with the hypothesis so the hypothesis is correct
c. the results agree with the hypothesis so there is no current reason to reject the hypothesis
d. little can be established using such a small sample
e. none of these
43. The followings concern the autosomal recessive disease phenylketonuria (PKU). The couple marked A and B are
contemplating having a baby but are concerned about the baby having PKU. What is the probability of the first child having
PKU? Unless you have evidence to hthe contrary assume that a person marrying into the pedigree is not a carrier. The filled in
individuals have PKU
a. 0 b. 1/12 c. 1/4 d. 3/4 e. 9/64

Exam 1- page 16
44. The following pedigree shows the inheritance of attached earlobes and unattached earlobes. Both alternative phenotypes
are quite common in human populations. If the phenotypes are determined by alleles of one gene then the attached earlobe is
inherited as

45. The following pedigree predicts the inheritance of a rare hereditary diseasse affecting the muscles
What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this disease?

46. In prokaryotes, which DNA polymerase adds the majority of nucleotides to the growing DNA polymer
a. DNA polymerase I b. DNA polymerase II c. DNA polymerase III
d. DNA polymerase α e. none of these
47. If a triply heterozygous individual was test crossed, how many phenotypes would be expected in the offspring (allow for
crossing over)
48. In eukaryotes, which enzyme synthesites mRNA

a. RNA polymerase I b. RNA polymerase II c. RNA polymerase III
d. RNA polymerase IV e. none of the above
49. In a cross between AaBbCcDD and AaBbCcDd, what is the probability that an offspring would have the dominant phenotype
for all four traits?
E --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
GENETICS EXAM I-E
Exam 1- page 17
Exam 1- page 18
Exam 1- page 19
E --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
GENETICS EXAM I-G
1. Messenger RNA is transcribed using which of the following enzymes in eukaryotes?

a. RNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase I c. RNA polymerase II d. RNA polymerase III e. none
2. The sequence AAUAAA is part of the eukaryotic

a. promoter b. 5’ cap c. the 3’ UTR of the mRNA
d. the 5’ UTR of the mRNA e. none of the above
3. This histone serves as a linker and is not part of the nucleosome core
a. H1 b. H2A c. H2B d. H3 e. H4
4. DNA and RNA polymerase read nucleic acids during polymerization in a

a. 5’ to 3’ direction b. 3’ to 5’ c. 3’ and 5’ and 5’ to 3’ respectively
d. 5’ and 3’ and 3’ to 5’ respectively. e. none of the above
5. Typically, how thick is a mature chromosome in a eukaryotic nucleus

a. 10nm b. 30 nm c. 100nm d. 700nm e. none of these
6. When a protein is composed of a single polypeptide and chemical bonds involving the side chains of its component amino acids
causes a 3-dimensional structure to arise, we refer to this 3-dimensional configuration as the protein’s
a. primary structure b. secondary structure c. tertiary structure d. quaternary structure e. none of these
7. Aminocyl t-RNA synthetases

a. speed up the bonding between codons and anticodons
b. function in transcribing tRNA
c. allow tRNA to fold properly into their secondary structure that is maintained by hydrogen bond
d. attach a particular amino acid to its appropriate tRNA
e. none of these
8. How many codons are used to code for all of the amino acids necessary for biological proteins?
a. 4 b. 20 c. 1 d. 64 e. none
9. If one divides the total number of telomeres by the total number of centromeres and obtains the number 2, this indicaes that the
eukaryotic organism is
a. haploid b. diploid c. triploid d. tetraploid e. all of these are possible
10. If the nontemplate strand of DNA from a region being transcribed is 5’ ATCGAA3’, then the mRNA produced would have the
sequence
a. 5’ATCGAA3’ b. 3’ ATCGAA3’ c. 5’AUCGAA3’ d. 3’AUCGAA5’ e. none of these
11. If methionine is the first amino acid included in a polypeptide chain, what part of methionine is used to form a peptide bond
with the second amino acid
a. its carboxyl group b. its amino group c. its 5’ carbon d. its 3’ carbon e. none of these
**12. Which of the following nontemplate strands of DNA would be more ________________________ DNA complement?
a. AAATCGATA b. ATATTTCGC c. CG________GA__G d. TATAGGACA e. TTTTATCAT
13. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the sturture of DNA?

a. most DNA exists in a right handed helix configuration
b. Watson and Crick suggest that one complete turn of the helix encompasses 10 base pairs
c. there are equal amounts of pyrimidines as there are purines
d. nitrogenous bases are bound to the 3’ carbon
e. all of the above are true
14. DNA polymerase constructs new strands of DNA using these as the raw material
a. nucleoside monophosphates b. nucleoside diphophates c. nucleoside triphosphates
d. nucleotide triphosphates e. none of these
E Exam 1- page 20
15. In general, which of the following bas substitutions in mRNA would have the highest probability of leading to an
alternative polypeptide being synthesized?
a. replacing an A with a U in codon postion 3 b. replacing an A with a G in codon postion 3
c. replacing an T with a U in codon postion 3 d. replacing an C with a G in codon postion 3
e. all base substitutions have an equal probability of effecting the polypeptide
16. What stage of the cell cycle does crossing over occur within?
a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. M e. none of these
17. DNA polymerase III has an important function in prokaryotes, it:

a. removes the RNA primer b. repairs thymine dimmers
c. is responsible for most of the polymerization of new DNA d. primes the DNA for synthesis
e. none of these
18. H1 and FEN1 perform a similar role in eukaryotes to this in prokayotes

a. the 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
b. the 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I
c. the 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III
d. the 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase III
e. none of these
19. If during RNA splicing, the 2’ carbon from the branch point attacked the U at the 5’ end of the intron (i.e. the U from the GU
grouping) instead of the G and with that exception splicing occurred identically to normal, the result would be a
a. base substitution
b. frameshift mutation
c. crossing over
d. left handed lariat
20. This enzyme is used to avoid chromosomes in wukaryotes shortening with every nuclear division
a. gyrase b. topoisomerase c. primase d. helicase e. none of these
21. Which of the following could not occur?

a. a male has the same X chromosome as his maternal grandmother
b. a female has the same X chromosome as her maternal grandmother
c. a female has the same X chromosome as her maternal great-great-grandmother
d. a male has the same X chromosome as his paternal grandmother
e. all of the above
22. red green color blindness is inherited as an X-linked disorder. Suppose a phenotypically normal female has a brother who is
color blind. If this female mates with a male having normal vision, what is the probability she will have a color-blind sone?
Assume the female of interest as phenotypically normal parents
a. 0 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. none of the above
23. which of the following occurs only during Meiosis?

a. separation of joined chromatids within a pair of sister chromatids
b. pairing of homologous chromosomes
c. alignment of centromeres on the equatorial plane
d. attachment of centromeres to both poles
e. all of the above occur in both mitosis and meiosis
24. If AABbCcddEe X AaBbCcDdee, what would be the probability of an offspring AaBbCcDcEe?

a. 1/128 b. 1/32 c. 1/1024 d. 1/256 e. none of the above
25. In the above cross, what would be the probability of an offspring with the phenotype A_B_C_ddee
a. 9/64 b. 27/1024 c. 243/1024 d. 0 e. none of these
26. If 20% of the DNA was A, what percentage of the NDA would be ____G?
a. 20% b. 60% c. 30% d. 15% e. none of these
E Exam 1- page 21
A trait in garden peas involves the curling of leaves. A dihybrid cross was made involving a plant with yellow pods and curling
leaves to a plant with green pods and normal leaves. All F1 had green pods and normal leaves. The F1 plants were then crossed
with plants having yellow pods and curling leaves. The following results were obtained
117 green pods, normal leaves
115 yellow pods, curling leaves
78 green pods, curling leaves
80 yellow pods, normal leaves
27. Calculate a chi-squared value to test the hypothesis that the genes are not linked
a. 14.02 b. 3.62 c. 1.76 d. 2.42 e. none of the above
28. What would you conclude from the previous chi-square analysis?
a. the genes are assorting independently
b. the date are consistent with independent assortment, so there is currently no reason to reject that hypothesis
c. there is less than a 5% chance that the data represent results from two independently assorting genes, so we reject that
hypothesis
d. a larger sample must be taken to decide if we should reject the hypothesis
e. none of these
29. If DNA was radioactively labeled in the fertilized egg of a eukaryotic individual, and then the development of the egg was
allowed to proceed in conditions which would not lead to any further radiation. how many cells would show signs of irradiated
DNA at eh 32 cell stage of embryogenesis?
30. How many different genetic types of gametes can be produced by an individual AaBbCcDD?
31. the pedigree below is for myopia (nearsightedness) in humans. Determine the mode for inheritance
a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. X-lined dominant d. X-linked recessive e. none
32. Consider the F2 of Mendel’s dihybrid cross. Determine the conditional probability that F2 plants expressing both dominant
traits are heterozygous at both loci
33. If a genetic disease is inherited on the basis of an autosomal dominant gene; one would expect to find which of the following?
a. affected fathers only have affected children
b. affected mothers never have affected sons
c. if both parents are affected , all of their offspring have the disease
d. if a child has the disease, one of his or her grandparents also has the disease
e. none of the above would be expected
34. If a genetic disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive, one would expect to find which of the following?
a. two affected individuals never have an unaffected child
b. two affected individuals have affected male children but no affected female offspring
c. if a child has the disease, one of his or her grandparents had it
d. in a marriage between an affected individual and an unaffected individual, all the children are unaffected
e. none of the above are expected
35. Which of the following statements are not true for a disease that is inherited as a rare X-linked dominant trait?
a. all daughters of an affected male will inherit the disease
b. sons will inherit the disease only if their mother has the disease
c. both affected males and affected females will pass the trait to half of their children
d. daughters will inherit the disease only if their father has the disease
e. all of the above
E
Exam 1- page 22
The following data apply to problem 36-40:
Three genes that influence three traits respectively in fruit flies exist in an individual heterozygous for each gen. This individual is
test crossed and the phenotypes of the offspring are shown below
gray body, red eyes, normal wings 411
gray body, red eyes, vestigial wings 61
gray body, purple eyes, normal wings 2
gray body, purple eyes, vestigial wings 30
black body, red eyes, normal wings 28
black body, red eyes, vestigial wings 1
black body, purple eyes, normal wings 60
black body, purple eyes, vestigial wings 412
36. what is the order of the three genes on the chromosome?

a. body color, eye color, wing type
b. body color, wing type, eye color
c. wing type, body color, eye color
37. Which alleles are linked together in the heterozygous parent of these offspring?
a. black body, purple eyes, vestigial wings and gray body, red eyes, normal wings
b. gray body, red eyes, vestigial wings and black body, purple eyes, normal wings
c. gray body, purple eyes, normal wings, and black body, red eyes, vestigial wings
d. gray body, purple eyes, vestigial wings and black body, red eyes, normal wings
38. What is the map distance (in CM) between the body color and eye color genes?
39. What is the map distance (in cM) between body color and wing type?
40. What is the coefficient of interference in this region?

a. 0.75 b. 0.75 c. 0.25 d. 0.6 e. none of the above

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Exam 1- page 1

4. What segment contains the TATA box?

5. What segment will contain the translation initiation codon?

6. What is the linkage grouping of the alleles in the parents?

7. What is the order of the gentetic loci?

8. What is the map distance in centiMorgans between c and cn?

9. What is the map distance in centiMorgans between c and px?

10. What is the map distance in centiMorgans between cn and px?

11. What is the interference in this problem?

19. During interphase of the cell cycle:

20. The central scaffold

a. 0 b. 1/12 c. 1/4 d. 3/4 e. 9/4

a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant

35. Where is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?

36. What is an anti- codon part of?

48. All of the following are transcribed from DNA except:

50. In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around?

2. The order of the genes are:

3. Distance between X & Y is:

4. Distance between X & Z is:

5. Distance between Y & Z is:

6. Coefficient of Coincidence is:

8. Which of the following Okazzaki fragment was made first?

9. Which RNA primer would be first to be removed?

14. Which of the following has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity?

17. Interphase is a period corresponding to the cell cycle phases of:

18. Chromatids joined together by centromere are called

19. In Meselson & Stahl experiment

a. 1/4 b. 1/16 c. 1/12 d. 1/36 e. none

24. Which statement is true?

29. How many aminoacyl-tRNA synthelases are there

31. A nonsense mutation is one in which:

a. sex-linked recessive b. sex linked dominant

39. Which of the following is c_________ prokaryotic mRNA

43. In translation of mRNA, the start codon:

49. In the wobble hypothesis put forth by Watson and Crick

50. An alpha helix is an example of what type of protein structure?

What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this disease?

3. Which of the following is not a component of the _________iotional system in cells

5. A process that occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis is

7. What is the correct order of these genes?

8. What is the map distance between sn and cv (in cMs)

9. What is the map distance between sn and v (in cMs)

10. What is the map distance between cv and v (in cMs)

11. This attaches to the tRNA at the CCA 3’ end

12. The central scaffold

13. Which of the following acts before the others?

16. Okazaki fragments form on the

a. O b. 1/2 c. 1/4 d. 3/4 e. 9/64

27. A Characteristics of homologous chromosomes is that

34. Which enzyme is involved in the synthesis of mRNA in prokaryotes

40. Which is false regarding the genetic code?

2. Which of the following will be translated?

3. Which of the following is true?

**11. aminoacyl tRNA synthetase function in

13. The wobble hypothesis involves

15. A transcribed mRNA is

16. Which of the cellular molecules is typically the smallest?

19. These enzyme unwinds the DNA at the replication bubble

22. The primase used in DNA replication is really only a form of

24. Crossing over normally occurs during

The following description holds for questions 30-36

30. What are the linkage group of alleles (independent of order)?