DIAMS

1. The second maturation division of the human ovum occurs at the time of a. Fertilization b. Implantation c. Ovulation d. Puberty 2. Implantation of fertilized ovum occurs a. 24 hrs after entry into uterine cavity b. 3-4 days after entry into uterine cavity c. 11 days after entry into uterine cavity d. None of the above 3. Embryo stage is a. 3 8 weeks b. 8 weeks 3 months c. First 14 days d. After fertilization 4. The volume of amniotic fluid at term is a. 200 ml b. 400 ml c. 600 ml d. 800 ml 5. The hormones chiefly produced by placenta are the following except a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. H.C.G. d. F.S.H. 6. False statement regarding HCG is a. It is secreted by cytotrophoblast b. It acts on same receptor as LH c. It has luteotrophic action d. It is a glycoprotein 7. Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detect all of the following except a. Neural tube defects b. Duodenal atresia c. Talipes equinovarus d. Omphalocele 8. The uterus enlarges transversely with a transversely attached placenta is denoted by the following eponymous sign a. Osianders sign b. Chadwicks sign c. Hegars sign d. Piskaceks sign 9. Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in a. Hydatidiform mole b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Anencephaly d. None of the above 10. Engagement of foetal head is a. When the occiput has gone below the pelvic inlet b. When the widest diameter of the presenting part has passed through the pelvic inlet c. When the presenting part can be pushed into the pelvic cavity d. Synonymous with fixation of head 11. In primigravida, engagement of head of fetus takes place at a. 36 weeks b. 38 weeks 12.

Obs,/ Gynae
c. 40 weeks d. Prior to the onset of labor Commonest type of vertex presentation a. Left occipito transverse b. Left occipito anterior c. Right occipito anterior d. Right occipito posterior With reference to fetal heart rate, a non stress test is considered reactive when a. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 20 minutes b. One fetal heart rate accelerations is noted in 20 minutes c. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 10 minutes d. Three fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 30 minutes In face presentation the diameter of engagement is a. Sub mento bregmatic b. Biparietal c. Sub occipito bregmatic d. Vertico mental Longest foetal skull diameter is a. Bip emporal b. Biparietal c. Mento vertical d. Occipito frontal Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is a. Roberts pelvis b. Naegeles pelvis c. Rachitic pelvic d. Osteomalacic pelvis Manning score for fetal well being includes all except a. Non stress test b. Oxytocin challenge test c. Breathing movements d. Body movements of fetus The daily requirement of folic acid during pregnancy is a. 50 mcg b. 100 mcg c. 200 mcg d. 500 mcg Fetal scalp blood Ph is used to determine a. IUGR b. Fetal hypoxia c. Fetal diabetes d. Estimation of alpha feto protein The following pregnancies may be associated with PIH except a. Twin b. Vesicular mole c. Hydrops fetalis d. Cirrhosis liver During suction evacuation in MTP the negative pressure of suction should be a. 100 to 200mm Hg b. 200 to 300mm Hg c. 400 to 600mm Hg d. 700 to 900mm Hg The best method for inducing mid trimester abortion is a. Injection of Hypertonic Saline

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

Helplines: 9891436206 / 9891334352

DIAMS
b. Etharcydine c. Prostaglandins d. D and C In a case of recurrent spontananeous abortion following investigation is unwanted a. Hysteroscopy b. Testing Antiphospholipid antibodies c. Testing for TORCH infections d. Thyroid function tests Treatment of acute hydromnios with respiratory depression a. Amniocentesis b. Termination of pregnancy c. Diuretics d. Sedation A 21 year old primigravida is admitted at 39 weeks gestation with painless antepartum haemorrhage. On examination uterus is soft nontender and head engaged. The management for her would be a. Blood transfusion and sedatives b. A speculum examination c. Pelvic examination in OT d. Tocolysis and sedatives Which of the following test is the most sensitive of detection of iron depletion in pregnancy a. Serum iron b. Serum tranderrin c. Serum ferritin d. Serum Erythropoietin Spladings sing is seen in a. Mummification Maceration b. Putrefaction c. Putrefaction d. IUD The dose of anti D gamma globin given after term delivery for a Rh negative mother & Rh positive baby is a. 50 micro gram b. 200 micro gram c. 300 micro gram d. 100 micro gram Commonest cause of breech presentation a. Prematurity b. Post maturity c. Oligohydramnios d. Polyhydramnios Ventouse in 2nd stage of labour is contra indicated in a. Persistent occipito-posterior b. Heart disease c. Uterine inertia d. Preterm labour The danger of internal podalic version in obstructed labour is a. Perineal tear b. Cervical tear c. Rupture of lower uterine segment d. Rupture of upper uterine segment Forceps delivery is done in all except a. Mentoposterior b. Deep transverse arrest c. After coming head d. Maternal heart disease Cord compression cause ____ deceleration

Obs,/ Gynae
a. Early b. Late c. Variable d. None RU 486 is a. Anti progestogen b. Anti eostrogen c. Anti androgen d. Anti gonadotropin In partial mole, chromosome number is a. 46 XY b. 46 XX c. 69 XXY d. None of the above Lynch suture is applied in a. Cervix b. Uterus c. Fallopican tubes d. Ovaries Monoamniotic monochorionic twins develop when the division of cell mass occurs a. Within 72 hours after fertilization b. Between 4th and 8th day of fertilizing After 8th day of fertilization d. After 2 weeks of development of embryonic disc Which tumour marker is most often elevated in ovarian granulose cell tumour a. Inhibin b. Alpha fetoprotein c. Beta-HCG d. CA 125 All are true about macrosomic baby except a. Weight is 4 kg on USG b. Abdominal circumference is more than c. 95th percentile for that gestational age on USG d. Can be a feature of DOPE e. McRoberts maneuvers is done stallworthy sign is seen in a. Twin b. Breech c. H. mole d. Low lying placenta Narrowest portion of fallopian tube a. Interstitial b. Isthmic c. Ampulla d. Fimbria serum level of Mg04 at which respiratory depression can occur is a. 7 meq /L b. 8 meq / L c. 10 meq / L d. 9 meq / L Pondral index is used for diagnosis of a. Macrosomia baby b. Congenital anamoly c. IUD d. IUGR baby Which is not criteria for physiology anemia of pregnancy a. RBC 32 ,illiom / mm3 b. Hb 10 gml

23.

34.

24.

35.

36.

25.

37.

26.

c.

38.

27.

39.

28.

40.

29.

41.

30.

42.

31.

43.

32.

44.

33.

Helplines: 9891436206 / 9891334352

DIAMS
45. PIV 30% d. Occurus in 1st half of pregnancy All are about congenital adrenal hyperplasia except a. Most common enzyme deficiency is 21 hydroxylase b. Hydrocortisone c. Diagnosed by increased 17 ketosteroid in urine d. Treatment includes ACTH injection spot out wrong statement a. testicular feminization causes female pseudo hermophrodistism b. in testicular feminization gonadectomy is done c. 21 hydroxylase deficiency is seen in congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. Chromosomal pattern of testicular feminization is 46 XY All are true regular depot provera except a. Contains progesterone b. Good cycle control c. Dose or 150 mg 3 monthly d. Used in lactating females All are true regarding GnRH analogues a. Drug of choice for precocious puberty b. Side effect is osteosporosis c. Multiple pregnancy occurs in large numbers when used in IVF technique d. None A 22 year female presents with nulliparous proplase best management would be a. Fothergill operation b. LAVH c. Abdominal cervicopoxy d. Ring pessary Which of the following is incorrect about 3 physioogical change during pregnancy a. 40% increase in blood volume b. Decreased hematocrit c. Increased residual volume d. Increased album globulm ratio Absolute indication for caesarean section is a. Dystocia b. Previous rupture of uterus c. Breech presentation d. Fetal distress All of the following statement are true except a. Oxytocin sensitive is increased during delivery b. Prostglandins may be given for inducing labour during III trimester c. In lactating women genital stimulation enhances oxytocin release d. Oxytocin is used for inducing abortion in 1st trimester Which of the following is correct for the calculation of pearl index a. No.of accidental pregnancies x 1200 No. of patient observed x months of use b. No.of accidental pregnancies x 1200 No. of patient observed x 2400 c. No. of patient observed x months of use No.of accidental pregnancies c. d. 54.

Obs,/ Gynae
No. of patient observed x 2400 No.of accidental pregnancies x 1200 About PCOD all are true except a. Secondary amenorrhoea b. Necklace pattern on UCG c. FSH / LH ratio raised d. Risk of endometrial carcinoma Lung metasis belongs to which stage of trophoblastic tumour a. Stage I b. StageII c. Stage III d. Stage IV Which is lowest dose OCP a. Novelon b. Femilon c. Minipill d. Tripuilar Most reversible factor of infertility a. Tubal factor b. Ovulatory factor c. Uterine factor d. Male factor MERENA is what type of contraception a. Barrier b. Hormonal c. IUCD d. Immunological OCPs are known to be protective against which cancer a. Brest b. Endometrium c. Ovary d. Cervix Investigation of choice in a 5 year old post menopausal women who has presented with post menopausal bleeding a. Fractional curettage b. TVS c. Pap smear d. CA-125 The effective sperm count normally is 09) a. 20 million /ml b. 30 million /ml c. 40 million /ml d. 50 million /ml Mestranol act as a contraceptive by a. Inhibiting FSH secretion b. Inhibiting LH secretion c. Inhibiting tubal motility d. Inhibiting nidation A 22 year old nulliparous present with an unrupture ectopic pregnancy treatment of choice a. Linear salpingotomy b. Salpingoctomy c. Resection and end to end anastomosis d. Milking of the tube Indications for first trimester ultrasound examination include all except: a. Evaluate suspected ectopic pregnancy b. Estimate geatationl age c. Confirm cardiac activity d. Placental localization Breast milk contains all vitamins except: a. Vitamin A

55.

46.

56.

57.

47.

58.

48.

59.

49.

60.

50.

61.

51.

62.

52.

63.

53.

64.

65.

Helplines: 9891436206 / 9891334352

DIAMS
b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin K Regarding aminocentesis, which one is false: a. Can cause abortion b. In easily performed at 10 weeks of gestation c. In used in the prenatal diagnosis of Downs syndrome d. Should be followed by anti D immunoglobulin infection in RH negative mothers In a case of post menopausal bleeding, which is not a very useful investigation: a. High vaginal swab for culture b. Trans vaginal sonography c. Pap swear d. Hysteroscopy Complications of episiotomy can be of the following except: a. Vulval hematoma b. Complete perineal tear c. Recto vaginal fistula d. Vesico vaginal fistula Cryoprecipitate is a rich source of factor a. V b. VII c. VIII d. IX Following are the branchs of internal iliac, artery except a. Superior vesical b. Inferior vesical c. Ovarian d. Uterine The bacteria most commonly associated with toxic shock syndrome is a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium difficle c. Enterococcus faecium d. Salmonella enteridis The umbilical cord contains a. Two umbilical arteries and two umbilical veins b. Single umbilical artery and vein c. Two umbilical arteries and a vein d. Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery A 43 year old woman presets with prolonged menstrual cycles with heavy bleeding. Endometrial sampling shows simple hyperiasia without atypia. The treatment of choice is : a. Estrogen + Progestogen b. Progestogens c. Endometrial ablation d. Hysterectomy As per vaginal examination anterior fontanelle and supraorbital ridge is felt in the second stage of labour. The presentation is a. Brow presentation b. Deflexed head c. Flexed head d. Face presentation All of the following are contraindications to TCRE except

Obs,/ Gynae
a. Young woman b. Enlarged uterus, fibroid c. Endometrial carcinoma d. Premenopausal woman All of the following are correct statement regarding cephalhematoma except a. Develops few hours after birth b. Disappear in 2-3 months c. Crosses suture line d. No treatment needed Which of the following is not absolute contraindication of hormonal replacement therapy: a. Breast cancer b. Endometrial cancer c. Liver,gall bladder disease d. Ischemic heart disease About tibolone all re correct except a. It is estrogenic b. Has no androgenic side effect c. Main use is cadioprotection d. Relieve vasomotor symptoms All are true regarding TB of female genital tract except: a. Fallopian tubes are involved in 90 percent b. Menorrhagic is the most common clinical feature c. Produces frozen pelvis d. In a proven case of genital TB HSG is contraindicated Which of the following is not true: a. Nulliparous uterine prolapse Shirodkar sling operation b. Pregnancy with prolapse:pessary treatment c. Prolapsed pouch of Douglas: posterior colpoperineorrhaphy d. None of the above Swiss cheese endometrium is seen in a. Simple endometrial hyperplasia b. Cystic glandular hyperplasia c. Proliferative endometrium d. Endometriosis Composition of MALA D includes a. 30 g EE + 1mg desogestrel

66.

76.

77.

67.

78.

68.

79.

69.

70.

80.

71.

81.

72.

82.

73.

74.

75.

20 g EE + 1.5mg d- norgestrel 83. Uterus: cervix ratio up to 10 year of age is a. 2:1 b. 1:2 c. 3:2 d. 3:2 84. Pinards manoeure is seen in a. Low LSCS b. To bring down extended leg of breech c. To bring down extended arm d. To bring head (after coming) in breech 85. All are features of dysfunctional uterine bleeding except a. Uterus size is 8-10 weeks b. Uterus is tender c. Menorrhagia d. Proliferative endometrium 86. Mobility of a pelvic mass is restricted in

b. c. d.

30 g EE + 0.3mg d norgestrel 30 g EE + 1mg d- norgestrel

Helplines: 9891436206 / 9891334352

DIAMS
a. Intra ligamentary extension b. Malignancy c. Endometriosis d. All of the above Which of the following is a short acting IUCD a. Progestasert b. Lippes loop c. Copper T d. Copper T-200 Asthnospermia means a. Failure of the formation of sperms b. No spermatozoa in the semen c. Reduction in the motility of sperms d. Sperm count less than 20 million/ml of semen Total blood volume increased during pregnancys is about a. 10 % b. 20 % c. 30 % d. 60 % Which is contraindicated in pregnancy a. INH b. Rifampicin c. Streptomycin d. Pyrazinamide Commonest cause of jaundice during pregnancy a. Viral hepatitis b. Intra hepatic c. Fatty liver d. Gall stones Epidual analgesia is anesthtists choice in which of the following heart conditions a. Mitral stenosis b. Eisenmengers syndrome c. Aortic stenosis d. Tricuspid stenosis About antiphospholipid antibody syndrome all are true except a. ANA titre seen b. ACA seen c. Multiple thrombi formation d. Cause recurrent abortions All are criteria for terminating pregnancy in case of severe PIH except a. Acute renal failure b. Severe IUGR c. LDH > 500 IU/L d. Reversed umbilical diastolic blood flow Investigations to be done in diabetics to predict congenital anomaly in baby a. USG b. Amniocentesis c. Hb, Ac d. CVS profile Which is dangerous placenta previa a. Type I b. Type II posterior c. Type III d. Central During pregnancy plasma volume increases by a. 20 % b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% 98. Surest a. b. c. d.

Obs,/ Gynae
sign of labour is which one of the following Show Progressive cervical dilatation Rupture of membrane Harderning of uterus

87.

99. Components of active management of 3rd stage of

labour include all of the following EXCEPT a. Controlled cord traction b. Manual removal of placenta c. Administration of oxytocic d. Fundal massage 100. A 22 year old multipara develops a second degree uterine prolapse treatment of choice is a. Ring pessary b. Sling surgery c. Fothergills operation d. All of the above 101. The most important reason for surgical repair of a double uterus such as bicornuate uterus is a. dysmenorrhoea b. dyspareunia c. habitual abortion d. dysfunctional bleeding 102. The anatomical sites for endometriosis can be a. Uterosacral ligaments b. Casarean scar c. Bladder d. All of the above

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

Helplines: 9891436206 / 9891334352