Name: _ Date: Test Title: evolution (created by Aditi Patil, on August 09, 2010 at 05:28:33 PM) 1.

All mutations are harmful. A. 2 B. False C. True D. 1 2. Fossil evidence suggests that whales evolved from: A. grazing mammals B. sharks C. wolf-like land mammals D. marine fish 3. Horses are most closely related to A. pigs B. rhinoceroses C. cattle D. deer 4. How do transitional fossils best serve as evidence for evolution? A. They show the intermediate steps in the evolution of a species B. They show that every species of animal developed separately C. They show that most species have remained the same for very long periods of time D. They show animals that once existed but now do not 5. Miller and Urey performed experiments to A. confirm atm. gases B. find early forms of life C. test oparin's hypothesis D. make cells 6. The parasites of freshwater stingrays offer evidence for which hypothesis? A. All of these B. The Amazon River once emptied into the Pacific Ocean rather than the Atlantic C. The ancestor of all stingrays arose in the Indian Ocean D. Freshwater stingrays are not closely related to marine stingrays 7. The sialic acid, N-glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc), is found in many animals but not in humans. It has a role in cell metabolism. Which of the following is NOT true? A. The Neu5Gc gene is sometimes turned back on in cancer tumors B. We possess the gene for Neu5Gc, but it doesn't work C. The lack of Neu5Gc may have helped us grow larger brains D. Great apes also don't have a working Neu5Gc gene 8. Upon close examination of the skeleton of an adult python, a pelvic girdle and leg bone can be observed. These features are an example of A. homologous structures B. vestigial structures C. comparative emryology D. artificial selection 9. What, exactly, is the theory of evolution? A. Humans evolved from apes B. New species have arisen through a process of random mutations C. Life always becomes more complex D. Living things are related to each other through common ancestry from earlier forms that were different from them 10. Why are scientific theories an important part of research and understanding? A. Scientific theories determine the work that future scientists can do. B. Scientific theories allow scientists to make assumptions. C. Scientific theories allow scientists to make predictions.

D. Scientific theories determine the subjects that scientists research. 11. Francesco Redi performed an experiment in the mid-1600s to show that organisms A. can generate spontaneously B. come from preexisitng organisms C. need air to live D. require food to survive 12. "Imperfect design" is a concept that makes sense from an evolutionary perspective, but not a creationist one. Many living things have parts that seem to be suboptimal or jury-rigged, because they have evolved these parts from the "toolbox" that they had. Perhaps the most famous example of imperfect design is the giant panda's thumb. Why is it used as an example? A. Pandas don't have anything resembling a thumb, but they should, given their diet B. It isn't a thumb at all, it's a modified wrist bone C. It has a claw, but a nail would work much better in that situation D. It is so humanlike, but pandas aren't related to people 13. Which of the following is NOT a component of Evolution by Natural Selection? A. competition for food and space B. variation among species C. inheritance of acquired characteristics D. survival and reproduction 14. Creationists often claim that evolution is "JUST a theory" as though this somehow makes evolution less likely. Alas for creationists, atomic theory, the theory of gravity, germ theory, electromagnetic theory, etc, are every bit as much JUST theories as evolution is. What, exactly, do scientists mean by "theory"? A. It has no definitive meaning; "theory" means whatever the scientist wants it to mean in a specific context B. A testable and falsifiable concept that explains a given phenomenon based on available facts C. A guess about what causes a phenomenon that does not need to be supported by scientific evidence D. "Theory" and "fact" are synonymous; there is no difference between scientific theory and scientific fact 15. The theory of evolution is known as the unifying theory of biology because: A. it helps to understand relationships between organisms B. it is absolute and unchangeable C. it answers the question of where we came from D. it allows biologists to classify organisms 16. DNA evidence suggests that the closest relative to the human is the: A. gorilla B. chimpanzee C. dolphins D. humans have no animal relatives 17. Whales and snakes both have tiny leg bones that are not visible or used. This would suggest that: are related B. they are evolving into animals with legs C. leg bones are not necessary D. both evolved from animals that had legs 18. Larmarck is to "Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics" as Darwin is to A. homologous structures B. divergence of related species C. evolution by natural selection D. speciation by common descent 19. A bird's wing, a bat's wing, a dolphin flipper and the human arm are all examples of... A. homologous structures B. monophyletic clades C. polyphyletic clades D. analogous structures 20. A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediately colored snails are rare. A. stabilizing selection A. whales and snakes

B. directional selection C. sexual selection D. diversifying (disruptive) selection 21. A clear fish imprint in a rock indicates that the rock is probably A. igneous B. metamorphic C. sedimentary D. volcanic 22. A factor that is necessary for the formation of a new species is? A. natural selection B. different mating behaviors C. selective breeding D. species isolation 23. According to Darwin's theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the A. Possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness B. adaptation to their habitat C. Darwin's theory of natural selection D. competing with other species 24. According to Darwin's theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have A. smaller beaks B. more offspring C. long necks D. variations best suited for that environment 25. Alexander Oparin proposed that life originated A. in early freshwater ponds B. on seashore C. in early oceans D. on mudflats 26. All of the following assumptions allow a population to remain in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium EXCEPT: A. No natural selection occurs and no mutation B. Members of the population mate at random. C. The population is large. D. Immigration and emigration take place at equal rates. 27. Although we know that natural selection is always there, we cant __ its effect. A. deny B. measure C. predict D. reconstruct 28. Apes and humans are believed to have diverged about: A. 5 million years ago B. 5 thousand years ago C. 5 billion years ago D. 5 hundred years ago 29. Archaeopteryx might have been the missing link between: A. dogs and cats B. reptiles and birds C. apes and humans D. amphibians and reptiles 30. Aristotle and Erasmus Darwin A. (a) shared an interest in evolutionary principles. B. (c) were forerunners of Charles Darwin. C. A and C

D. (b) shared little in common. 31. Artificial selection experiments have produced new species according to which species concept? A. Phenetic species concept B. Artificial species concept C. Reproductive species concept D. none 32. Bacteria and viruses are mentioned in the Bible. A. 2 B. False C. True D. 1 33. Bird wing and human arm are homologous structures A. 2 B. 1 C. FALSE D. True 34. Charles Darwin and __ proposed the theory of natural selection. A. William Smith B. Charles Lyell C. Alfred Wallace D. Alfred Hitchkook 35. Charles Darwin drew on the work of this accomplished economist in developing the theory of natural selection. A. Charles Lyell B. Alfred Wallace C. Admiral Buckworth D. Thomas Malthus 36. Complete the following sentence so that it is correct: Scientific theories are based on A. general assumptions of how systems work. B. large amounts of data collected over time. C. mathematical principles that can be proven true. D. observations from within only one scientific discipline. 37. Convergent evolution accounts for the fact that _. A. marine fossils are better preserved than continental fossils B. cladistics are predecessors of cladoclams C. Australian marsupials resemple Asian placental mammals D. most species evolve in a few thousand years 38. Creationists often criticize the fossil record because it has large gaps in it. Which is NOT a scientific reason that such gaps occur A. Rock often cannot form quickly enough to fossilize many animals B. Most fossils have not been found yet C. Some types of animals do not fossilize well D. Fossil-bearing strata were often destroyed in volcanic eruptions 39. Darwin discovered natural selection when the Beagle visited the Galapagos. A. True B. false C. 1 D. 2 40. Darwin is famous for introducing the idea of adaptation in Origins. A. false B. True C. 2 D. 1

41. Darwin thought the modern armadillo might be descended from the: A. porpoise B. tortoise C. pterydactyl D. glyptodont 42. Darwins great work of 1871 about the origins of humans was called A. Evidence of Mans Place in Nature. B. Sexual Selection and the Descent of Man. C. Origins of the Human Species. D. On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection. 43. Did Darwin coin the phrase "survival of the fittest"? A. No B. 2 C. Yes D. 1 44. Differential success in reproduction" is just another way of saying A. genetic drift B. recombination C. natural selection D. mutation 45. Diploidy means A. Reproducing by means of meiosis B. Having 23 pairs of chromosomes C. none D. Having two sets of chromosomes 46. Documentation of many stages of evolution of most of the families of modern mammals exists in transitional fossil series. A. False B. 1 C. 2 D. True 47. During which eon did the first eukaryotes appear on Earth? A. Archaeon B. Proterozoic C. Hadeon D. Phanerozoic 48. Ecological adaptations can become widely spread within a wild population by A. differential reproduction B. none C. discretionary breeding. D. artificial selection. 49. Entire organisms, with their most intricate parts intact, have been found preserved in A. igneous rock formation and ice B. mineral deposits and metamorphic rock C. amber and mineral deposits D. amber and ice 50. Evolution is impossible because it breaks the Second Law of Thermodynamics, which states that the entropy (disorder) of a system increases over time. A. 1 B. False C. True D. 2 51. Evolution is just a theory, which means it can't really be a fact. A. False

B. 2 C. 1 D. True 52. Evolution is properly defined as the change in the genetic makeup of a population over time. Natural selection is the principal agent of evolution. Which of the following is NOT also a source of change in genetic frequencies? A. Adaptation B. Genetic drift C. Migration D. All the above 53. Evolutionists have used transitional fossil series to document that men evolved from modern-day monkeys. A. 2 B. True C. 1 D. False 54. Fossilized resin of ancient trees is called A. amber B. insect C. petrification D. fossils preservation 55. Genetic analysis has shown that the closest relatives to human tapeworms live in which other animals? A. Hyenas and lions B. Lemurs and bushbabies C. Kangaroos and koalas D. Gorillas and chimpanzees 56. Heterochrony means A. variations best suited for that environment B. There has been an evolutionary change in the timing of one developmental process relative to others C. Evolutionary later adult forms have descended from the juvenile ancestral stages D. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny 57. How are DNA sequences spliced into rings of existing DNA? A. The DNA molecules are chopped into numerous fragments, separated by molecular weight, then combined into one long sequence B. The DNA molecules are boiled in the same test tube with combination enzymes C. The two DNA molecules are cut with restriction enzymes, then connected together with the use of additional enzymes D. The DNA molecules are mixed in a test tube, and their successful union is signaled by a change in the color of the solution 58. How old is the Earth? A. 4 billion years B. 2 billion years C. 6 billion years D. 4.5 billion years 59. Human embryos have tails. A. 3 B. False C. True D. 1 60. Humans are thought to have evolved during the __ Era. A. mesozoic B. palezoic C. cenozoic D. precambian

61. If a plant that is heterozygous for tallness (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous tall plant (TT), which could not be among the offspring? A. All tall plants B. TT plant C. tt plant D. Tt plant 62. If a population has genotype frequencies as follows, then what is the frequency of the A allele? AA: 0.20 Aa: 0.40 aa:0.40 A. 0.4 B. 0.6 C. 0.33 D. 0.5 63. If a population has genotype frequencies as follows, then what is the frequency of the A allele? AA: 0.25 Aa: 0.5 aa: 0.25 A. 0.44 B. 0.3 C. 0.8 D. 0.5 64. If an organism decays to form an empty space that is then filled to the the exact shape of the organism,a(an) _ is formed A. petrified B. cast fossil C. mold fossil D. imprint fossil 65. If water penetrates the hard parts of a dead organism, minerals may eventually make a(an) A. petrified fossil B. imprint C. cast D. trace fossil 66. In _ selection, individuals with both extreme forms of a trait are at a selective advantage A. natural B. stabilizing C. disruptive D. directional 67. In 1971, scientists released ten lizards from Italy onto a small island. 37 years later, they surveyed the population, which had grown to 5000 lizards. What did they find? A. The lizards had not changed at all B. The lizards already were very different from those on the mainland C. The lizards gave live birth rather than laying eggs D. The lizards had developed mutations that let them swim 68. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive homozygous genotype is 0.09. The frequency of individuals with the heterozygous genotype is: A. 0.49 B. 0.7 C. 0.09 D. 0.42 69. In addition to Darwin, who also determined that natural selection was a major force in evolution? A. Malthus B. Cuvier C. Lyell D. Wallace 70. In Arizona, there live some strange little whiptail lizards that are one of the few parthenogenic reptiles- the females can lay fertile eggs all by themselves, without males. What odd quirk, explainable through evolution, do these lizards have? A. The female lizards are much more fertile if they are courted by another female B. The females care for their young, unlike other lizards C. Some of the eggs are born as males, but these are killed at birth D. They give milk, unlike any other reptile

71. In regards to evolution, what, exactly, does "fittest" mean in "survival of the fittest"? A. The longest-lived organism B. The organism that is healthiest C. The strongest organism D. The organism that produces the most surviving offspring 72. In terms of biochemical evidence for evolution, which 2 organisms have the most similar DNA? A human and monkey B. human and ape C. human and chicken D. human and horse 73. In the diagram below, which layer represents fossils of the least complex organisms? A. Layer 6 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 1 74. Is a dolphin flipper and a fish fin a homology or an homoplasy in the pre-Darwinian sense of the terms? A. none B. analogy C. Homology D. Homoplasy 75. Is the fact that the number of vertebrae in the necks of camels, mice, and humans are all the same a homoplasy or a homology? A. Homology B. Homoplasy C. none D. analogy 76. Male humans have one less pair of ribs than female humans. A. 2 B. False C. 1 D. True 77. Microevolution can be defined as: A. small-scale changes in allele frequencies B. small-scale changes in phenotypes C. large-scale changes in allele frequencies D. large-scale changes in phenotypes 78. Natural selection acts upon variation in a population. Without such variation, there can be no selection and evolution cannot occur. What do biologists call variation that is caused by a change in a gene in a germ cell (reproductive cell) of an individual? A. Gene flow B. Migration C. Mutation D. allele 79. Natural selection always "selects for" traits that favor an individual's survival. A. False B. 2 C. 1 D. True 80. Natural selection has a goal- to produce the most perfect organisms possible, balanced with their environments. A. 1 B. True C. 2 D. False 81. Natural selection is a random process. A. 1

B. 2 C. True D. False 82. Nineteenth-century creationists interpreted the individuals of species as exact replicas, whereas Darwin saw them as having variability. A. 1 B. False C. 2 D. True 83. On the Origin of Species was written in what decade? A. 1890s B. 1830s C. 1870s D. 1850s 84. One of the most interesting transitional series is that between fish and amphibians. What surprising discovery does this series reveal? A. That legs evolved in fish long before amphibians emerged on land B. That tadpoles evolved before amphibians C. All of these D. That amphibians evolved from sharks 85. One prediction of evolutionary theory is A. humans evolved from monkeys B. features acquired during an organism's lifetime are inheritable C. mammals should appear in the fossil record after reptiles D. species are fixed and immutable 86. Parasitism is a relatively rare phenomenon; few animal species are parasitic. A. 2 B. True C. 1 D. False 87. Progenesis and neoteny are two processes that generate A. Paedomorphosis B. Recapitulation C. none D. Allometry 88. Researchers working with chicken embryos in Britain and France were able to stimulate the embryos to do what? A. Grow bodies covered with reptilian scales B. Grow hair C. Grow teeth D. Grow extrawings 89. Ruminants (cloven-hooved, cud-chewing animals like deer, goats, antelope and cows) share several examples of imperfect design. Which of the following do they all share? A. They have skeletal remnants of a five-toed foot, even though they have only 2 toes B. Fetuses have upper incisors, but these are later resorbed C. They eat a diet high in cellulose, which they cannot digest by themselves D. All of these 90. Scientists who study fossil evidence of ancient life are A. primatologist B. anthropologist C. paleontologist D. geologist 91. Select the correct statement: A. whales are reptiles that returned to an aquatic environment B. mammals and dinosaurs existed together

C. amphibians evolved from the reptiles D. archeopteryx was a type of mammal 92. Some features of vertebrates only make sense if looked at from an evolutionary perspective. Let's look at baleen whales as an example. Which of the following is NOT true about baleen whale development? A. Baleen whale embryos grow teeth, which are later resorbed B. Baleen whales have vestigial hind legs C. Actually, all of these are true D. Whale fetuses have very well-developed gills which are later resorbed 93. Species are populations that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. A. False B. 2 C. 1 D. True 94. stars are born when enough gas and dust bunches together, heats up and begins fusing hydrogen to helium A. superman B. none C. planets drifting into clouds of gases D. supernova shock waves 95. The biblical story of creation is the basis of the theory known as Fixity of Species, which is now discredited. A. False B. 1 C. 2 D. True 96. The case of independent segregation is equal to what recombination rate? A. 0.25 B. 0.5 C. 0.6 D. 0.9 97. The closest biological relative to modern day human beings is the: A. lion B. dog C. chimpanzee D. monkey 98. The deepest strata of the Earth contain fossils that are: A. young and complex B. old and complex C. young and simple D. old and simple 99. The difference between the number of individuals born in a population and the number that actually reproduce suggests that adaptation is at work. A. 1 B. 2 C. false D. True 100. the discoveries of Pakicetus and Ambulocetus fossils were clearly transitional forms in the evolution of what group of mammals? A. whales B. horses C. bats D. apes 101. The evidence of organisms that have lived in the past are called A. metamorphic rocks B. paleontology C. vestigial organs

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D. fossils 102. The finches on the Galapagos islands: A. had beaks adapted for eating different food B. migrated to the mainland periodically C. were remarkably similar to each other D. were much larger than other finches 103. The flagellum is quite literally an outboard motor that some bacteria use to swim. It is a rotary device that, like a motorboat, turns a propeller to push against liquid, moving the bacterium forward in the process. It consists of a number of parts... Like a mousetrap, the flagellum is irreducibly complex. And again like the mousetrap, its evolutionary development by "numerous, successive, slight modifications" is quite difficult to envision. In fact, if one examines the scientific literature, one quickly sees that no one has ever proposed a serious, detailed model for how the flagellum might have arisen in a Darwinian manner, let alone conducted experiments to test such a model.What is the biggest problem with these statements? A. No bacteria have flagella, only protozoans do B. Scientists do have an explanation for how the flagellum could have evolved C. The description of what a flagellum does is incorrect D. The flagellum is actually a very simple structure 104. The forces that shape reproductive success are called A. selective pressures B. population drive C. none D. adaptations 105. The founder of modern genetics is Charles Darwin. A. False B. 1 C. 2 D. True 106. The hair stands up on the back of our necks when we are afraid. What does this have to do with evolution? A. It shows our muscular structure is similar to that of apes B. none C. Only humans have evolved this gesture D. Our ancestors looked bigger when they were frightened if their hair stood up 107. The idea that evolution occurs rapidly giving rise to new species in few thousand years is the basis of _concept. A. phyletic gradualism B. punctuated equilibrium C. rapid counterbalance D. specialization 108. The idea that organisms are able to pass along characteristics acquired during their lifetime is most closely associated with: A. Lamarck B. Darwin C. Mendel D. Wallace 109. The individual in a population which is considered the most fit would be A. The individual who produces the greatest number of fertile offspring B. The individual who lives the longest C. The individual who is able to acquire the most food D. The individual with an appearance most attractive to the opposite sex 110. The National Academy of Sciences advises that students in biology classes should be taught creation theory as well as evolution. A. True B. 2 C. False D. 1

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111. The oldest fossils usually A. have the longest half-lives B. are found in the deepest strata C. are found in sediments from the Cenozoic era D. contain more radioactive isotopes than younger fossils 112. The only way that two populations can assure their integrity as distinct biological species is by A allopolyploidy B. allopatry C. sympatry D. reproductive isolation 113. The process in which a population moves into a relatively unexploited environment and then undergoes rapid evolutionary divergence to produce many separate species is called A. disruptive selection B. adaptive radiation C. convergent evolution D. punctuated equilibrium 114. The ragworm, a marine invertebrate that looks like a centipede but is a type of annelid worm, holds an interesting clue to eye evolution. What is it? A. Alll B. They are the most primitive animals to have a retina C. They have two types of photoreceptors; one found in vertebrates and one in invertebrates D. They are the most primitive animals to have a retina 115. The recurrent laryngeal nerve, which travels from the brain to the larynx (voicebox) in mammals, is often used as an example of imperfect design. Why? A. It has not changed from the type of nerve found in reptiles B. There are more copies of it than is necessary C. It takes a much more circuitous path than is necessary D. It is nonfunctional and unnecessary 116. The Scala Naturae was an early classification scheme. At the very bottom was: A. fungi B. plants C. single cells D. inanimate matter 117. The scarlet oak is adapted to moist bottomland whereas the black oak is adapted to dry upland. A. gametic isolation B. temporal isolation C. behavioral isolation D. habitat isolation 118. The separation of a small group of individuals from the main population is known as A. fossil formation B. chromosomal mutation C. geographic isolation D. reductive division 119. The shortest span of time that it takes for evolution to occur is A. not knowable B. 1 million years. C. a generation. D. measured in years. 120. The smallest unit of life that can evolve is: A. population B. species C. cell D. gene

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121. The theory that life comes only from other forms of life is called A. genesis B. abiogenesis C. pangenesis D. biogenesis 122. The two theories combined in the synthetic theory of evolution, or neo-Darwinism, are A. none B. Natural selection and blending inheritance C. Natural selection and Mendelian inheritance D. Evolution and natural selection 123. The variation among modern house sparrows in North America has originated since? A. none B. The 1940s C. An uncertain time in the past D. The 1850s 124. There are many current theories of how complex organic molecules, a necessary precursor to life, evolveD. One of these theories involves bubbles of iron sulfide, which (to simplify a theory greatly!)could serve as protective "cell walls" while chemical reactions that depended on iron and sulfur and could produce organic molecules occurred insidE. Where are these iron-sulfur bubbles found? A. all B. o Deep within iron ore deposits C. Deep-sea thermal vents D. o Volcanoes 125. There are three things that must be present for natural selection to occur. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Variation B. Differential reproduction C. Heredity D. Mutation 126. This individual wrote the book "Origin of Species": A. Albert Einstein B. Charles Darwin C. Gregor Mendel D. James Watson 127. True or false: All mutations are disadvantagious. A. true B. false, they dont effect individuals C. false, they can effect or not effect individuals in many different ways D. false, there only advantagious 128. True or false: Charles Darwin invented evolution. A. small-scale changes in allele frequencies B. true C. false, Mr. Polous invented evolution. D. false, evolution was around WAY before him. 129. True or false: Fossils and comparative anatomy are the only important evidences of evolution. A. true B. false, only molecular evolution is important C. false, only fossils are important D. false, comparative embriology and molecular evolution are just as important 130. true or false: The four points in Darwins Theory of evolution(in order) are 1)each species have more offspring than can survive 2) natural selection 3) individuals amongst species have variation and 4) variation is passed to offspring A. false, points 3 and 4 are switched B. false, point 3 and 4 are not a point of Darwins Theory C. false, point 2 is not a point of Darwins Theory

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D. false, points 2 and 3 are switched 131. Two plant species can often hybridize. The hybrid progeny may become self-fertile through polyploidy, giving rise to a distinct new species. A. genetic drift B. geographical isolation C. sympatric speciation D. allopatric speciation 132. We humans have lower back pain, varicose veins, and childbirth difficulties- what do these have to do with evolution? A. They are shared with chimpanzees B. They are examples of inferior design C. They cannot have evolved because they are harmful D. none 133. What are the 3 types of natural selection? A. stabilizing, directional, and disruptive B. stablilizing, comparative, and molecular C. stablilizing, directional, and comparative D. disruptive, molecular, and comparative 134. What do goosebumps have to do with evolution? A. Our ancestors were warmer when they fluffed up their hair B. none C. They prove we are related to birds D. They are unique to humans 135. What is a transitional fossil? A. A fossil intermediate between two other fossils B. A fossil that contains material not usually fossilized (such as muscular structure or hair) C. A fossil of a type of living thing that no longer exists D. none 136. What is continued artificial selection's usual effect on genetic diversity? A. It promotes additional variation for humans to choose from B. It leads to the creation of genetically homogeneous populations C. It causes maladaptive genes to be more common in the gene pool D. It reinforces the close relationship between domestic and wild stocks 137. What is evolution? A. the process of how animals became smarter B. the process of animals passing inherited traits down to children to give advantages C. a process of change in only animals over time D. a process of change in only plants over time 138. What is most likely the reason ostriches and penguins do not have the gift of flight? A. none B. ostriches and penguins occupy niches in their ecosystems that dont require flight C. they both can fly but choose not to D. they both are too dumb to fly 139. What is the best definition of the term theory,as it is used in science? A. A theory is based on verifiable laws and can be proven true. B. A theory is a guess or hunch about something that has occurred in nature. C. A theory is a comprehensive set of ideas explaining a phenomenon in nature. D. A theory is a hypothesis that uses laws and observation to make an assumption. 140. What is the biggest problem that creationists face when discussing the origin of parasites? A. Parasites are evil, and why would God create an evil thing? B. Most creationists claim that they are degenerate forms, when in fact they are not C. The Bible does not mention parasites

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D. Parasites could not have survived on the Ark 141. What is the main argument given by scientists for why creationism should not be given 'equal time' in our science classes A. Most scientists accept creationism B. Scientists do not believe in God C. Science is not a democratic process D. Scientists think that they have all the answers 142. What is the Mendelian ratio for the cross Aa x Aa? A. AA: 1/2 Aa: 1/4 aa: 1/4 B. none C. AA: 1/4 Aa: 1/2 aa: 1/4 D. AA: 1/3 Aa: 1/3 aa: 1/3 143. What is the most likely effect of killing 80% of a colony of bacteria with a certain antibiotic? A. The remaining bacteria will re-grow into a new colony more resistant to the antibiotic B. The remaining bacteria will die because of the drastic decimation C. The bacteria will not cause any further infections because their numbers have been drastically reduced D. The bacteria will try to start a new colony where the antibiotic will not be found 144. What kind of change has occured in the brain size of humans? A. Allometric B. Macromutational C. disruptive D. Heterochronic 145. What kind of paedomorphic change have humans possibly undergone? A. Neoteny B. Natural selection and Mendelian inheritance C. Terminal addition D. Progenesis 146. What name did Donald Johansen give to the fossils of Astralopithecus afarensis? A. Java man B. Linus C. Peking man D. Lucy 147. What type of molecule had to be formed on earth in order for life to evolve? A. An enzyme or other large protein B. A self-replicating molecule C. A molecule containing carbon D. A molecule now found in modern life forms 148. What type of natural selection is occuring when the average phenotype is selected for and the extreme phenotypes are selected against? A. disruptive B. directional C. reductive D. stabilizing 149. What type of selection would favor individuals of intermediate rather than extreme sizes? A. Stabilizing selection B. Disruptive selection C. Natural selection D. Directional selection 150. What was the theory put forward by Lamarck? A. Creationism B. Transformism C. none

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D. Evolution 151. What would be the best technique for determining the phylogenetic relationship among several closely related species? A. DNA analysis and protein comparison B. comparative embryology C. comparison of homologous structures D. examining the fossil record 152. When a farmer selects and breeds his or her best livestock, the process invovled is? A. natural selection B. selective breeding C. artifical selection D. nature's callin 153. When closely related organisms develop similar characteristics __ occurred. A. parallel evolution B. congruent evolution C. convergent evolution D. divergent evolution 154. When we say that one organism is better adapted than another organism we mean that it A. competes for food more successfully than others of its species. B. mates more frequently than others of its species C. utilizes resources more efficiently than other species occupying similar niches. D. leaves more viable offspring (copies of its genes) than others of its species 155. Where is the only other place that linstowiid tapeworms are found other than south america? A. Australia B. North America C. Africa D. Europe 156. Which animal shown in the table above is most closely related to human beings? A. bird B. lamprey C. Macaque D. dog 157. Which best describes the theory of punctuated equilibrium? A. It states that species generally remain stable but this stasis is occasionally interrupted by rapid evolutionary change B. It postulates slow evolution that due to geological processes does not appear in the fossil record C. It argues that random genetic changes are more important than natural selection in speciation D. It states that species tend to remain stable but individuals vary a great deal 158. Which best exemplifies an active dead-end replicator? A. A gene in a sperm cell B. A meme in the mind of an active individual C. A computer virus on the internet D. A gene in a body cell 159. Which bird parasites are studied to determine the evolutionary relationships between different families of birds? A. Feather lice B. Soft ticks C. Blowflies D. Louseflies 160. Which feature of animals that are parasitized is the most difficult for creationist theory to explain? A. Animals carry parasites that are specific to their species B. Animals have defense systems to ward off parasite infestation C. Some parasites of man are also found on other animals D. Some parasitized animals die from their infections

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161. Which gas was not present in large amounts in the early atmosphere of Earth? A. methane B. oxygen C. water vapour D. ammonia 162. Which group of organisms is believed to have been the earliest to evolve? A. aquatic plants B. dinosaurs C. reptiles D. cyanobacteria 163. Which is a true statement about the immune system? A. It consists of only one mechanism of response to invasion B. It isn't really very specific and simply attacks all pathogens the same way C. It is unique to primates D. The manufacture of immune-system cells uses the principle of natural selection 164. Which is characteristic of an "arms race" between the human immune system and an invading pathogen? A. The immune system will eventually evolve to consistently defeat the pathogen B. The pathogen will evolve to attack other species besides just humans C. Beneficial changes to the immune system will generally be counteracted by changes in the pathogen, and vice versa D. The pathogen will run amok through the human population 165. Which is most closely associated with the process of sexual selection? A. The extravagant feathers of a male peacock B. The evolution of mimicry by walking sticks and other insects C. Apparently altruistic acts between siblings D. A desire on the part of males to mate with their sisters 166. Which is not a danger associated with somatic-cell gene therapy? A. Genes may not produce any protein, even if appropriate regulatory sections are included B. Inserted genes may have cancer-causing effects C. Therapeutic genes may be inserted into the middle of another gene, disrupting its function D. Inserted genes may have profound effects on the genomes of the subject's children 167. Which is NOT a pattern documented in this fossil sequence? A. Transition from the three-chambered reptilian heart to the four-chambered mammalian heart B. Transition from the many-boned reptilian jaw to the differently-hinged, one-bone mammalian jaw C. Transition from reptilian limbs sticking out from the body to mammalian limbs under the body D. Transition from reptilian teeth, which were all identical, to the several types of teeth found in mammals 168. Which is not an apparent paradox resolved by replicator theory? A. The existence of bacterial cells B. The existence of altruism between siblings C. The existence of sexual reproduction D. The existence of untranscribed DNA 169. Which is NOT an argument included in evolution of horses, which includes a superb series of transitional fossils A. Fossils of Hyracotherium and later horses are found in the same strata B. The shape of the eye orbit in modern horses is unique and not found in any of the animals said to be ancestral to the horse C. Different fossil horses have differing numbers of pairs of ribs D. The "dawn horse," Hyracotherium (Eohippus) was really a hyrax, not a horse at all 170. Which of the following animals has the most ideally-engineered eye-i.e., from an engineering standpoint, the eye that makes the most "sense" in the arrangement of its structures? A. Human B. fly C. Squid D. eagle 171. Which of the following are adaptations for bipedalism?

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A. opposable big toe B. large brain C. foramen magnum at back of skull D. bowl-shaped pelvis 172. Which of the following conditions is necessary for speciation to occur? A. interbreeding among neighboring populations B. reproductive isolation C. sympatric allopatry D. mass extinction 173. Which of the following does NOT provide evidence for evolution as opposed to species fixity ? A Natural variation across the species border occuring in ring species B. The fossil evidence for extinct species C. none D. Evolutionary change in artificial selection experiments 174. Which of the following fish is a masterpiece of imperfect design A. The eel B. The shark C. The flounder D. all of the above 175. Which of the following is a type of genetic drift? A. stabilizing selection B. directional selection C. bottleneck D. mutation 176. Which of the following is an example of natural selection? A. A cold spell wipes out most mice in a population, but some survive and multiply B. Dog breeders select the most trainable individuals to breed C. Fur farmers select only the mink with unusual coat colors for breeding D. Hunters shoot the deer with the biggest antlers, so only smaller-antlered deer remain 177. Which of the following is correct for a comparison of human and ape jaw? A. human - triangular, ape - box B. human - box, ape - rounded C. human - rounded, ape - rounded D. human - rounded, ape - box 178. Which of the following is likely to have been the product of sexual selection? A. different sizes of male and female pine cones B. camouflage coloration in animals C. a male lion's mane D. bright colors of female flowers 179. Which of the following is most characteristic of a dominant gene? A. It masks the effects of other alleles B. It always produces only one phenotypic effect C. It is always the most prevalent in the gene pool D. Its effects are masked by other alleles 180. Which of the following is not a prerequisite for natural selection's operation?An innate desire to change A. More offspring than can possibly survive B. Competition for resources C. answer needed here D. Differential reproduction 181. Which of the following is not a risk resulting from increased antibiotic resistance among bacteria? A. We may be forced to administer antibiotics that are more dangerous or have more severe side effects than those used in the past B. We may not have any available treatment for certain bacterial diseases

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C. Resistant bacteria may share their resistance genes with other bacteria, thus exacerbating the problem D. Humans may become more vulnerable to viral infection 182. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a reproductive isolating mechanism? A. sterile offspring B. feeding behavior C. habitat isolation D. gametic incompatibility 183. Which of the following is the most powerful driving force of evolution? A. radom mutation B. Genetic drift C. isolation D. Natural selection 184. Which of the following is true about evolution? A. Individuals evolve when environmental pressures are strong. B. Natural selection occurs when individuals compete for survival. C. Natural selection is survival of the strongest organisms. D. Natural selection is random. 185. Which of the following pairs is/are a good match? A. All the above B. Megatheres and Armadillos C. Galapagos and Mockingbirds D. Darwin and Beagle 186. Which of the following phrases best describes the result of natural selection? A. long neck giraffes gettin food frm a tall tree B. changes in the inherited characteristics of a population over time C. white tail deer living in a snowy area D. species living in different locations 187. Which of the following was NOT an important theme of Origins? A. natural selection B. phylogenetic relationships C. adaptation D. recapitulation 188. Which of the following was the first tool user? A. Homo sapiens neanderthalensis B. Homo erectus C. Astralopithecus africanus D. Homo habilis 189. Which of these is NOT a condition for natural selection? A. Variation in fitness B. Excess fecundity C. none D. Reproduction 190. Which of these is NOT a requirement for maintaining the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A. Infinite (or very large) population size B. Selection C. noen D. Random mating 191. Which of these is the most scientifically effective criticism of Darwin's original theory? A. It lacks a theory of heredity B. Evolution cannot occur by chance C. All species were created separately D. none

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192. Which one of the following "human ancestors" is most closely related to modern humans? A. Dryopithecus B. Homo habilis C. Australopithecus afarensis D. Homo erectus 193. Which one of the following gives the correct order for the evolution of vertebrates? A. fish, reptiles, mammals, amphibians B. reptiles, fish, mammals, amphibians C. amphibians, reptiles, fish, mammals D. fish, amphibians, reptiles, mammals 194. Which one of the following is considered to be a human "vestigial" (I e. unused) structure: A. chromosome B. appendix C. pelvis D. eyebrow 195. Which organism experienced a specific type of directional selection called Industrial Melanism? A. dog B. chimpanzee C. peppered moth D. horse 196. Which pair of structures is homologous? A. tentacles of hydra and flippers of whale B. front leg of insect and bones in leg of human C. bones in a front lef of dog and wing of bat D. wing of insect and wing of bird 197. Which scientist was the first to elaborate the concept of the meme? A. Richard Dawkins B. Charles Darwin C. Leda Cosmides D. Stephen Jay Gould 198. Which statement below correctly identifies the difference between laws and theories? A. Laws explain why phenomena exist, while theories explain how. B. Laws describe phenomena, while theories explain why phenomena exist. C. Laws are a prediction of phenomena, while theories are an explanation D. Laws are a statement of fact, while theories are a statement of opinion. 199. Which statement best characterizes natural selection? A. Blind, random chance hitting upon lucky combinations B. Absolute dependence on carbon-based biochemistry C. Organisms perishing when unexpected calamities occur D. The slow accumulation of adaptive mutations 200. Which statement is true of artificial selection? A. It is essentially the same process as natural selection B. It is fundamentally different from natural selection C. It is related to the domestication of animals, but not to agriculture D. It was elaborated as a theory long after natural selection was first discussed 201. Which theory says that changes occur within a lineage of populations but that lineages do not split? A. altruism B. Transformism C. Creationism D. Evolution 202. Which trait is most likely governed by a single gene? A. Sickle-cell anemia B. Skin color C. Obesity D. Hair color

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203. Which type of dating can be used to date the Earth? A. carbon dating B. biostratigraphy C. potassium-argon dating D. palynology 204. Who is the author of the 'Theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics'? A. Alfred Wallace B. George Mendel C. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck D. Charles Darwin 205. Why are concerns about the individuality of clones scientifically questionable? A. Clones of plants are made all the time when gardeners grow new plants from cuttings B. Identical twins have very different personalities, and they are essentially clones of each other C. No clone would ever want to be exactly the same as his parent D. The environment and not the genes is the major shaper of the personality 206. Why are fossils not a complete record of evolution? A. the bones of the dinosaurs are actually rock B. Genetic constraints C. fossilization is a rare occurance and there are gaps in the chain D. fossils arent real 207. Why aren't organisms considered replicators? A. They do not pass on their acquired characteristics; they only pass on their genes B. They aren't the main unit of selection C. They are macroscopic D. They can act to maximize their own happiness rather than their number of offspring 208. Why do men and other male mammals have nipples? A. There is no reason, they were just created that way B. As embryos, all mammals start out phenotypically female C. Some male mammals give milk D. Males need them to produce hormones 209. Why do scientists develop a hypothesis before conducting research? A. It helps to predict outcomes and define the parameters of the research. B. Hypotheses give the researcher an outcome to shape their work around. C. Hypotheses help a researcher decide which observations to record and ignore. D. It gives them direction on how to interpret the results of their research. 210. Why is Plasmodium affected by antibiotics in stead of being protozoan? A. It is descended from bacteria B. It does not have a cell membrane C. It contains cell organs that were once part of a bacterium D. It has symbiotic bacteria inside of it 211. What type of selection could lead to a population splitting into two? A. Natural selection B. Disruptive selection C. Stabilizing selection D. Directional selection 212. What causes new genetic variation at a particular site in the DNA sequence? A. Mutational changes in the DNA B. Sexual reproduction C. none

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D. Recombination 213. Mutation is often said to be "undirected". What does this mean? A. Mutation occurs spontaneously, without an apparent directing cause B. Mutations occur independently at different sites down the DNA C. noen D. Mutation is not directed toward the adaptive needs of the organism 214. What is the equilibrium frequency of a dominant gene whose chance of arising by mutation is 0.01 while selection against the gene is 0.2? A. 0.2 B. 0.05 C. 0.3 D. 0.001 215. Below are given the fitnesses of three genotypes at a locus. Which of the three is an example of heterozygous advantage? A. AA: 1 Aa: 0.9 aa: 1 B. AA: 0.9 Aa: 0.9 aa: 1 C. None D. AA: 0.9 Aa: 1 aa: 0.9 216. Which of these processes does NOT maintain polymorphism in a population? A. Mutation-selection balance B. none C. Heterozygous advantage D. Positive frequency-dependent selection 217. If samples taken from a species show an excess of homozygotes, which of the following would you regard as the most likely explanation? A. Heterozygous advantage is operating B. Negative frequency-dependent selection is operating C. none D. The samples do not come from a single population 218. There are two populations of a species, population 1 and population 2. The frequency of the A allele is 0.75 in population 1 and 0.50 in population 2. Migrants move from population 1 to 2 so that in the next generation, 10% of population 2 is composed of migrants.What do you expect the frequency of A alleles to now be in population 2? A. 0.45 B. 0.535 C. 0.525 D. 0.55 219. In what situation would you expect to find random drift? A. A small population B. A diploid population C. noen D. A population not experiencing selection pressures 220. In a diploid population of 100, what is the chance of a unique, selectively neutral allele coming to fixation? A. 1/200 B. 1/1000 C. 1/500 D. 1/250 221. In a population of 100 individuals there are 100 A genes and 100 a genes. If the three genotypes are selectively neutral, what would you expect the heterozygosity to be after 10,000 generations? A. 1 B. 2 C. 0.5 D. 0 222. What is the effect of random drift? A. It increases variation in a population

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B. none C. It prevents adaptation D. It reduces variation in a population 223. Which theory advocates a selection coefficient which rarely deviates from zero? A. Neutralism B. none C. Pan-neutralism D. Selectionist 224. Which one of these observations about a population could be used to argue that neutral evolution had occurred? A. The functionally less constrained parts of molecules evolving at a slower rate B. none C. Inconsistent rates of molecular evolution D. High levels of polymorphism 225. If 95% of a population die because of selection at a single locus, how many offspring must each survivor produce to maintain the population? A. 30 B. 10 C. 20 D. 5 226. If almost all mortality in a population is due to selection, what is the population experiencing? A. none B. Constant evolution C. Hard selection D. Soft selection 227. Which of these must exist for selection to generate linkage disequilibrium? A. Non-random mating B. Epistatic fitness C. Multiplicative Fitness D. Random mating 228. A fitness surface displays the relation between A. The average fitness of an organism and the intensity of natural selection B. The average fitness of a population and gene frequencies C. none D. The average fitness of a genotype and gene frequency 229. There are two alleles, A and a, governing beak size in a population: AA and Aa individual's beaks are 1.5cm while aa individual's are 1cm. If the frequency of the A allele in a population is 0.25, what is the population mean ignoring environmental effects? A. 1.25 cm B. 1.22 cm C. 1.30 cm D. 1.5 cm 230. What is the variance of the following numbers: 3, 4, 6, 7, 10? A. 5 B. 7.5 C. 8 D. 5.7

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231. If all the variance in a character is additive and genetic, what value is heritability? A. 3 B. 2 C. 0 D. 1 232. If additive variance for a character is 3 and total phenotypic variance is 6, then what is the heritability of the character? A. 0.33 B. 0.5 C. 0.4 D. 0.2 233. What would you expect to happen to average prickliness in the long term? A. It will continue to rise but at an increasing rate as evolution builds up steam B. It will continue to rise at a constant rate C. none D. It will slow down as variation is reduced 234. Which of the following has not been proposed as an explanation for adaptation? A. Kimura's theory of molecular evolution B. The inheritance of acquired characters C. Natural theology D. none 235. 'Gradualism' in Darwin's theory means that A. It took Darwin thirty years to develop his theory B. none C. Complex adaptations evolve in many small stages D. Evolution proceeds at a constant rate 236. What would you call a character maintained by natural selection in a population which has changed its function in the evolutionary historical past? A. none B. Preadaptation C. Pleiotropy D. Adaptive constraint 237. What explains the existence of sickle cell anemia in populations? A. none B. Developmental constraints C. Genetic constraints D. Historical constraints 238. What best explains the maladaptive behavior of hedgehogs which roll into a ball when confronted by a moving car? A. none B. Developmental constraints C. Time lags D. Historical constraints 239. If one character is in an allometric relationship with another, what does it suggest to a biologist? A. Pleiotropic constraint B. none C. Historical constraint D. Trade-off constraint 240. What best explains the fact that winged aphids are less fecund than wingless ones? A. Adaptive trade-off B. Pleiotropic constraints C. Genetic constraints D. Historical constraints

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241. Segregation distortion means that A. One of the two genes at a locus has more than a 50% chance of being passed on to the offspring B. none C. The segregation of organisms into groups is genetically non-random D. Recombination is locally suppressed 242. Who benefits if organisms show reproductive restraint? A. The individual organism, but at a cost to its species B. none C. A local group of organisms at a cost to its individual members D. Both the individual organism and the species that the organism belongs to 243. According to the theory of kin selection, would an individual be selected to help his sibling when benefit to the sibling is valued at 5 and the cost of the act is 3? A. yes B. no C. 1 D. 2 244. Again, according to kin selection, would an individual help its cousin when benefit to the cousin is valued at 6 and the cost of the act is 2? A. 1 B. 2 C. No D. Yes 245. The 50:50 sex ratio is explained by which level of selection? A. Selection on the individual organism B. Species selection C. none D. Group selection

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246. Under what circumstances would you expect group selection to be an important force? A. none B. When a group of individuals are genetically related C. When food resources are scarce D. If extinction rates are extraordinarily high and migration rates very low 247. The argument that sex is advantageous because it produces a faster rate of evolution assumes which of the following? A. High rate of deleterious mutations B. Small population size C. none D. High rate of favorable mutations 248. Here are three properties in which asexual and sexual populations can differ. Which of the three requires group selection if it is to explain the existence of sex? A. The extinction rates of the populations B. The rate of removal of deleterious mutations from a population C. none D. The rate of the coevolutionary arms race between parasites and hosts 249. Sexual dimorphism is more common in which species? A. none B. Species which tend to be polygynous C. Species which tend to be monogamous D. Species which have undergone rapid evolution 250. In whose theory of sexual selection does the male character have to be costly from the start? A. Darwin's B. Fisher's C. Zahavi's D. none 251. A population will evolve a female biased sex ratio when there is A. Polygyny B. Local mate competition C. none D. A high rate of deleterious mutation 252. By reference to tree above, which of the following is an accurate statement of relationships? A. A green alga is more closely related to a red alga than to a moss B. A green alga is related to a red alga, but is not related to a mass C. A green alga is more closely related to a moss than to a red alga D. A green alga is equally related to a red alga and a moss 253. By reference to the tree above, which of the following is an accurate statement of relationships? A. A crocodile is more closely related to a lizard than to a bird B. A crocodile is related to a lizard, but is not related to a bird C. A crocodile is equally related to a lizard and a bird D. A crocodile is more closely related to a bird than to a lizard 254. which of the following is an accurate statement of relationships acc to tree above ? A. A seal is related to a whale, but is not related to a horse B. A seal is more closely related to a whale than to a horse C. A seal is more closely related to a horse than to a whale D. A seal is equally related to a horse and a whale 255. Which of the five dots in the tree above corresponds to the most recent common ancestor of a mushroom and a sponge? A. e B. a C. c D. d

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256. If you were to add a trout to the phylogeny shown above, where would its lineage attach to the rest of the tree? A. b B. d C. c D. e 257. Which of the four trees above depicts a different pattern of relationships than the others? A. d B. a C. c D. b 258. Which of the four trees above shows a different pattern of relationships than the others? A. c B. d C. a D. b 259. In the above tree, assume that the ancestor had a long tail, ear flaps, external testes, and fixed claws. Based on the tree and assuming that all evolutionary changes in these traits are shown, what traits does a sea lion have? A. long tail, ear flaps, external testes, and fixed claws B. ) short tail, no ear flaps, abdominal testes, and fixed claws C. short tail, ear flaps, abdominal testes, and fixed claws D. short tail, no ear flaps, external testes, and fixed claws 260. In the above tree, assume that the ancestor was an herb (not a tree) without leaves or seeds.Based on the tree and assuming that all evolutionary changes in these traits are shown, which of the tips has a tree habit and lacks true leaves? A. oak B. Lepidodendron C. Psilotum D. Clubmoss 261. The diagram below shows a comparison of nitrogen base sequences in the DNA of some organisms to those of a human. According to this diagram, humans may be most closely related to the A. ancestral primate B. orangutan C. chimpanzee D. gorilla 262. Blood proteins in horses are chemically similar to blood proteins in monkeys. This similarity suggests that horses and monkeys A. have a common ancestor B. evolved at the same time C. can interbreed D. live in the same habitat 263. The diagram below shows the gradual change over time in the anatomy of the horse. Which concept is best illustrated by the physical variations in the horse as its body size and structure change over time? A. artificial selection B. organic evolution C. intermediate inheritance D. acquired characteristics 264. Fossils of an extinct species of giant armadillo were found to be similar to a smaller species of armadillo presently inhabiting the same region. This similarity could best be explained on the basis of A. the heterotroph hypothesis B. evolution from older forms C. inheritance of acquired characteristics D. use and disuse

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265. A study of the position and shape of the bones in the forelimbs of a flying squirrel, a bat, and a beaver showed that the beaver and the flying squirrel appear to be most closely related. This determination was most likely based on a study in the field of comparative A. cytology B. biochemistry C. embryology D. anatomy 266. Fossils would most likely be found in A. amber that is over 8 billion years old B. volcanic rocks that are 50 million years old C. sedimentary rocks that are 500 million years old D. icebergs that are 500 billion years old 267. The diagram below shows undisturbed sedimentary strata at the bottom of an ocean. The fossils found in layer B resemble the fossils found in layer A. This similarity suggests that A. modern forms of life may have evolved from earlier forms of life B. vertebrate fossils are only found in sediments C. the fossils in layer B were formed before the fossils in layer A D. the fossils in layer A must be more complex than those in layer B 268. According to Darwin's theory of evolution, differences between species may be the result of A. natural selection B. the transmission of acquired characteristics C. the disuse of body structures D. mutagenic agents 269. Two nucleotide sequences found in two different species are almost exactly the same. This suggests that these species A. contain identical DNA B. have the same number of mutations C. may have similar evolutionary histories D. are evolving into the same species 270. According to Charles Darwin, one factor that affects the evolution of a species is A. exposure to environmental pollutants B. survival of the fittest C. variation due to genetic mutations D. rapid fossil formation 271. The diagrams below represent stages in the embryonic development of four organisns. The similarities in embryonic development shown in the diagram suggest that these organisms A. have adaptations for the same environment as adults B. are all members of the same species C. may have evolved from a common ancestor D. all undergo external development 272. In the diagram of a whale below, the bones labeled "pelvis" and "femur" appear to be useless. The possibility that these bones were once useful gives support to the A. concept of stable gene frequencies B. concept of fossil formation C. modern theory of evolution D. heterotroph hypothesis 273. Which statement best describes evolution? A. Evolution is a process of change through time. B. Evolution often proceeds from complex to simpler organisms. C. Evolution is a predictable change from simple to complex organisms. D. Evolution causes organisms to develop characteristics they need. 274. Which of these is a reproductive species concept? A. The recognition species concept B. The ecological species concept C. The phenetic species concept

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D. none 275. What type of isolation mechanism is hybrid sterility? A. Prezygotic B. none C. 1 D. Postzygotic 276. What type of isolation is seasonal isolation? A. Postzygotic B. 1 C. Prezygotic D. none 277. Which of the following has been argued to produce a problem in the ecological species concept? A. Different life stages within the members of a species can occupy different niches B. Species can be shown, by examples such as the mule, to be maintained by non-interbreeding C. none D. No clear examples exist in which the niches of related species are distinct 278. If a population exhibited clear divergence and there was large gene flow between them, which species concept would be more appropriate? A. Western taxonomists and non-westernized peoples see much the same phenetic clusters in nature B. Reproductive species exist in a real rather than nominal sense C. Biological species concept D. Ecological species concept 279. In which theory of speciation does a new species emerge from within the geographic range of its ancestor? A. Sympatric speciation B. none C. Parapatric speciation D. Allopatric speciation 280. Which theory of speciation does NOT require the process known as reinforcement? A. Sympatric speciation B. Parapatric speciation C. none D. Allopatric speciation 281. Under what type of speciation might we expect evolution to be faster during speciation than between speciating events? A. Peripheral speciation B. Allopatric speciation C. Sympatric speciation D. Hybridization 282. Which of these would lead to a steeper cline? A. Strong selection against heterozygotes B. Extensive migration C. none D. Stabilizing selection throughout the region 283. Reinforcement means that A. Hybrids have lower fitness than either of the two parental forms B. none C. Natural selection acts to increase the prezygotic isolation between two populations D. Speciation is proceeding either sympatrically or parapatrically, rather than allopatrically 284. What types of characters are used to infer phylogenies? A. none B. Homoplasies C. Ancestral homologies D. Shared derived homologies

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285. If we are absolutely ignorant about the phylogeny of a group, which of these methods cannot tell us anything about character polarity? A. The fossil record B. The embryological criterion C. Outgroup comparison D. none 286. Which of these molecules would you use to work out the phylogenetic relations over long periods of time, such as hundreds of millions of years? A. none B. Minisatellites C. Nuclear ribosomal RNA genes D. Mitochondrial DNA 287. Here are the orders of genes (or some other markers) along the chromosomes of three species: (1) adebcfg (2) abcdefg (3) abedcfg A. 1<->3 <->2 B. none C. 1<->2<->3 D. 2<->1<->3 288. Distance methods of phylogenetic inference, when used with molecular evidence, assume A. The polarities of changes can be inferred B. Neutralism C. The molecular clock D. none 289. Which taxonomic school is non-evolutionary? A. Phylogenetic systematics B. Cladism C. none D. Phenetics 290. Which taxonomic school recognizes paraphyletic but not polyphyletic groups? A. Phenetics B. Neutralism C. Evolutionary taxonomy D. Cladism 291. Which taxonomic school uses only shared derived homologies in classification? A. Phenetics B. Cladism C. Neutralism D. Evolutionary taxonomy 292. hat type of character is found in some but not all the descendants of a common ancestor? A. Shared derived homology B. Neutralism C. Homoplasy D. Ancestral homology 293. Which taxonomic school classifies according to the phylogenetic tree and is therefore unambiguous? A. Phenetics B. Cladism C. NOne D. Evolutionary taxonomy 294. How would you describe a species which is not confined to a single area but distributed in more than one region with a gap between them? A. Disjunct distributions B. Cosmopolitan distributions C. Endemic distributions D. None

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295. According to Simpson's index how similar is area A which has 42 species to Area B if there are 26 species which they share in common and there are less species in area A than in area B? A. 82% B. 62% C. 50% D. 46% 296. When the Bering strait was above water, what kind of dispersal route was it? A. Filter Bridge B. Corridor C. Sweepstake D. none 297. What tends to happen to plant ranges when the weather cools? A. Simpson's index increases B. They contract C. Simpson's index decreases D. They move south 298. In Yellowstone National Part, some species of algae and bacteria can survive and reproduce in hot springs at temperatures near the boiling point of water. The ability to survive and reproduce at these temperatures is an example of A. adaptation B. aggregate formation C. artificial selection D. reproductive isolation 299. The diagrams below show embryos of three different vertebrate species. According to one theory, similarities in these embryos suggest common ancestry. As these embryos mature, they will most likely A. continue to closely resemble each other as adults B. develop the distinctive characteristics of their species C. show no similarity as adults D. develop new organs according to the nutritional requirements of each organism 300. Darwin's studies of finches on the Galapagos Islands suggest that the finches' differences in beak structure were most directly due to A. acquired characteristics in the parent finches B. the size of the island where the finches live C. adaptations of the finches to different environments D. mating behaviors of the different finch species 301. The diagrams below represent homologous structures. The study of the evolutionary relationships between these structures is known as comparative A. biochemistry B. embryology C. anatomy D. cytology 302. Biologically similar organisms have similar DNA and proteins. This statement supports the concept of A. organic evolution B. use and disuse C. diversity in species D. acquired characteristics 303. The embryos of fish, chickens, and pigs have gill slits and a tail. The presence of these features suggests that A. all these animals can swim B. these animals may have had a common ancestor C. gill slits and tails are required for embryonic development D. pigs developed from chickens 304. Characteristics of a species that make its members better able to live and reproduce in their environment are known as A. homologous structures B. biotic factors

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C. abiotic factors D. favorable adaptations 305. The diagram below represents undisturbed rock strata in a given region. A representative fossil of an organism is illustrated in each layer. Which statement best describes a relationship between these representative organisms? A. Organism A was probably more primitive than organism B and organism C. B. All of these organisms probably evolved at the same time. C. Organism C probably gave rise to organism A and organism B. D. Organism A was probably more structurally advanced than organism B and organism C. 306. . In the early stages of development, the embryos of birds and reptiles resemble each other in many ways. This resemblance suggests that they A. share a common ancestry B. belong to the same species C. are adapted for life in the same habitat D. are both animal-like protists 307. In his theory of evolution, Charles Darwin was not able to explain A. reproduction B. overproduction C. variation D. competition 308. The site of life's origin is A. the ocean's edge B. unknown C. under frozen oceans D. near deep sea vents 309. The earliest cellular life forms appear to have been A. viruses B. one-celled plants C. one celled animals D. bacteria 310. Life on earth is carbon based. Similar molecules could be formed with A. potassium B.aluminium C. iron D. silicon 311. Scientists generally agree that the first molecules formed as life evolved were A. proteins B. RNA C. Peptides and nucleic acids D. None Feedback: There is no general agreement among scientists as to which molecules formed first. 312. Of the following, _ was not contained in the Miller-Urey original mixture. A. water B. nitrogen C. hydrogen D. phosphorus 313. Which of the following organisms alive today is likely to be most similar to the first life forms that evolved on the earth? A. methane-producing bacteria B. cyanobacteria C. algae D. dinosaurs E. humans 314. Which of the following gases is least likely to have existed in the early atmosphere of the earth?

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A. B. C. D. E.

NH3 CO2 N2 H2O O2

315. How old is the earth? A. 4.6 billion years old B. 3.5 billion years old C. 2.5 billion years old D. 1.5 billion years old E. 0.5 billion years old 316. How long did the earth exist before life appeared on it? A. 4.6 billion years old B. 3.5 billion years old C. 2.5 billion years old D. 1.0 million years old E. 1.0 billion years old 317. Which of the following was not a source of energy on the early earth? A. lightning B. ozone C. ultraviolet radiation D. volcanic eruptions E. all of the above were a source of energy 318. How long have bacteria lived on the earth? A. 4.6 billion years old B. 3.5 billion years old C. 2.5 billion years old D. 1.0 million years old E. 1.0 billion years old 319. Within our own solar system, the most likely candidate for having life on it is A. Our moon B. Jupiter C. Venus D. The sun E. Europa, the moon of jupiter 320. The oldest fossils found so far date back to the A. Cambrian Period B. Archean era C. Phanerozoic era D. Proterozoic era 321. Multicellular fossils appear at the beginning of the A. Cambrian Period B. Archean era C. Phanerozoic era D. Proterozoic era 322. Which of the following traits evolved last (i.e., most recently)? A. prokaryotic cells B. eukaryotic cells C. multicellularity D. photosynthesis

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E. heredity 323. Approximately what percentage of today's atmosphere is oxygen? A. 21 % B. 73% C. 1% D. 50% E. 13 % 324. Miller and Urey's experiments proved that

A. B. C. D. E.

life evolved on earth from inanimate chemicals coacervates were the first type of protocells complex organic molecules can form spontaneously under conditions that probably existed on the early earth RNA can act as an enzyme and assemble new RNA molecules from RNA templates bacteria were the first type of living organism to appear on the earth

325. Which of the following is not a characteristic of all living organisms?

A. B. C. D. E.

reproduction heredity metabolism movement from place to place all of the above are characteristics of all living organisms

326. Which of the following is not found in a lipid coacervate droplet or a proteinoid microsphere?

A. B. C. D. E. A. B. C. D.

the ability to grow a nucleus a two-layer boundary division by pinching in two the ability to carry out chemical reactions

327. The Miller-Urey experiments yielded urea hydrogen cyanide amino acids all of the above

328. What did Miller and Urey use as a source of energy in their experiments? A. actual lightning B. UV lightan C. electrical spark D. Radioactivity E. volcanoes 329. The oxygen that is present in our atmosphere comes primarily from the

A. B. C. D. E.

eruption of volcanoes breakdown of ozone breathing of animals photosynthesis of plants, algae, and bacteria none of the above

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330. All of the following have been proposed as a type of protocell except

A. B. C. D. E.

Coacervates microspheres endosymbionts micelles protobionts

331. According to the scientific theory of the origin of life on earth, life arose spontaneously from inanimate chemicals. Do scientists think this process is still going on on our planet today? A. yes, it probably is B. no, because conditions on earth have changed and are no longer conducive to spontaneous evolution of life 332. Which of the following possible explanations of the origin of life on earth allows testable hypotheses to be constructed? A. evolution B. spontaneous origin C. extraterrestrial origin D. all of the above E. none of the above 333. The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated A. how RNA could have been the first organic molecule B. that simple molecules could not have evolved spontaneously C. the kinds of molecules that could have been produced on the early earth D. that oxygen was required for the formation of molecules on early earth E. the formation of the first cells 334. What molecule produced in experiments performed by others (using Miller-Urey's model) is key to explaining the evolution of the hereditary molecules (DNA and RNA)? A. hydrogen gas B. oxygen C. proline D. aspartic acid E. adenine 335. Evidence indicates that microfossils already existed at least: A. 4.6 billion years old B. 3.5 billion years old C. 1.3 billion years old D. 1.0 million years old E. 6000 years old 336. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the first cells? A. heterotroph B. single-celled C. genome composed of RNA D. anaerobic E. prokaryotic 337. Microfossils of the earliest organisms indicate that they resemble the present day spirochetes. A. TRUE B. FALSE 338. The early earth was a harsh environment and present day organisms that could possibly have survived that type of environment are A. eukaryotic organisms B. archeabacteria C. early plants called blue-green algae D. protobionts

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E. eubacteria 339. Microfossils found in rocks that date to be about 1.5 billion years old A. are believed to be fossils from Mars meteorites that fell to earth B. look very similar to present day cyanobacteria C. are larger organisms compared to earlier microfossils D. are simple in structure with no internal membranes E. were originally thought to be the first eukaryotic cells but this has since been disproved 340. The endosymbiotic theory explains A. the origin of all organelles in eukaryotic cells B. how bacterial cells can invade eukaryotic cells and cause disease C. how mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from free-living cells D. how eukaryotic cells consume food E. none of the above 341. Multicellularity arose only once in earth's history but this line branched out 4 times. A. TRUE B. FALSE 342. Living organisms are classified into 6 different kingdoms. However, these kingdoms are not static and will change in the futurE. A. TRUE B. FALSE 343. The flippers of penguins and dolphins are A. homologous structures. B. analogous structures. C. evidence of the molecular clock. D. evidence that both are closely related on the molecular family tree. 344. The forelimbs of mammals are an example of A. vestigial organs. B. homologous structures. C. analogous structures. D. all of the above 345. Which one of the following would cause the Hardy-Weinberg principle to be inaccurate? A. The size of the population is very large. B. Individuals mate with one another at random. C. Natural selection is present. D. There is no source of new copies of alleles from outside the population. 346. The lack of allele variation in the cheetah population is an example of A. mutations. B. founder effect. C. artificial selection. D. bottleneck effect. Feedback 346.: The lack of allele variation in the cheetah population is an example of the bottleneck effect. All living cheetahs are practically identical genetically. The simplest explanation is that in the past a drastic reduction in the size of the cheetah population occurreD. All cheetahs living today have descended from a very few individuals; they have passed through a genetic bottleneck. 347. Which one of the following populations would most quickly lead to two groups with few shared traits? A. a population with disruptive selection B. a population with directional selection C. a population with stabilizing selection D. a population with no selection Feedback 347.: In a population with disruptive selection, the intermediate phenotypes are selected against (eliminated). Although disruptive selection is less common than stabilizing and directional selection, it would most quickly lead to two groups with few shared traits.

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348. Even though sickle-cell anemia is usually fatal to homozygous individuals, the disease persists because A. gene therapy has alleviated the condition. B. the disease is carried on a dominant allele. C. individuals with one allele for sickle-cell anemia are resistant to malaria. D. a combination of all of the above Feedback 348: The defective allele that causes sickle-cell anemia persists in central Africa because individuals who are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele are much less susceptible to malaria--one of the leading causes of death in central Africa. 349. The change in coloration of the peppered moth is an example of A. a population with disruptive selection. B. a population with directional selection. C. a population with stabilizing selection. D. a population with no selection. Feedback: The change in coloration of the peppered moth is an example of a population with directional selection--individuals exhibiting forms of a trait at one extreme become more common. 350. An example of adaptive radiation would be A. the peppered moth. B. the cheetah. C. domestic dogs. D. Darwin's finches. 351. Prezygotic isolating mechanisms include all of the following except A. hybrid sterility B. courtship rituals C. physical separation D. seasonal reproduction Feedback: Prezygotic isolating mechanisms, which prevent the formation of a zygote, include courtship rituals, physical separation, and seasonal reproduction. Hybrid sterility is one form of a postzygotic isolating mechanism. 352. Thomas Malthus proposed the concept of natural selection prior to Darwin's voyage around the worlD. A. TRUE B. FALSE 353. You could use carbon-14 to date fossils up to 1.3 billion years old. A. TRUE B. FALSE 354. Radioactive dating of fossils gives a more reliable estimate of their age than using relative dating involving positions and rates of erosion. A. TRUE B. FALSE 355. The presence of gill slits and a tail in the early stages of development of an embryo indicates its future as a fish. A. TRUE B. FALSE Feedback: The presence of gill slits and a tail in the early stages of development of an embryo does not indicate its future as a fish; rather, these relict developmental forms suggest that our development has evolved with new instructions being layered on top of old ones. 356. Evolutionary changes within a species are referred to as microevolution. Evolutionary changes within a species are referred to as microevolution. A. TRUE B. FALSE 357. Mutations tend to have little effect on the allele frequency in a population. A. TRUE B. FALSE

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358. The effects of genetic drift are most apparent in small populations A. TRUE B. FALSE 359. Inbreeding increases the proportion of homozygous individuals in a population. A. TRUE B. FALSE 360. The direction of evolution is determined by the environment. A. TRUE B. FALSE 361. Fossil evidence appears to support the hypothesis of gradualism over the hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium. A. TRUE B. FALSE Feedback: The fossil evidence appears to support the hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium over gradualism. New lines might persist unchanged for a long time in "equilibrium". Eventually there would be a new spurt of evolution, creating a "punctuation" in the fossil record. 362. The analytical approach to understanding the diversity and relatedness of both extant and extinct organisms is called A. Systematics B. Evolution C. Taxonomy D. Binomial nomenclature E. Phylogeny 363. Which one of the following methods to establish phylogenetic relationships among organisms has been developed most recently? A. comparing morphology (shape and structure) B. comparing physiology (the functioning of structures and systems) C. comparing the component sequences of proteins and nucleic acids D. comparing behavioral patterns E. comparing embryonic development 364. Which example below is not a weakness of the fossil record? A. It is biased in favor of species with hard shells or skeletons. B. It is biased in favor of species that were widespread and abundant. C. A large number of Earth's species may not have died in the right place or time to be fossilized. D. Only animals can be fossilized; thus, the fossil record cannot be used to study the evolutionary history of plants. E. All of the above are weaknesses of the fossil record. 365. The wings of a hummingbird and a bee are _____. A. Homologous B. Phylogenetic C. Analogous D. Binomial E. taxonomic 366. Which of the following would be the least useful in determining the relationships among various species? A. a comparison of DNA base sequences B. homologous structures C. fossils D. amino acid sequences of proteins E. analogous structures 367. Researchers can use molecular homologies to _____ A. . estimate how long ago the common ancestor lived B. reveal the amount of mutations in a particular sequence that have occurred between the species since they diverged from a common ancestor C. hypothesize about the morphological structures of a common ancestor D. hypothesize about the behavior of a common ancestor E. all of the above

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368. What is the focus of the branch of biology called taxonomy? A. evolution B. the classification of life-forms by their similarities and differences C. genetics D. the history of the field of biology E. the environment 369. The binomial system assigns to each organism a unique name that describes its _____. A. order and family B. body plan and habitat C. species and genus D. family and species E. evolutionary history 370. The two-part format of the scientific name, referred to as binomial, ensures that A. each species is assigned a unique name B. each species has a name that is understandable regardless of language barriers among scientists C. systematists can easily specify the closest relatives of any species D. all of the above E. none of the above 371. All the members of which one of the following groups have the greatest number of characteristics in common? A. class B. genus C. kingdom D. phylum E. species 372. A taxon _____. A. is a formal grouping at any given level B. is a formal grouping in any level from phylum to species C. is a clade D. is a species E. of one type of organism at one level is comparable to another type of organism at the same level. 373. Two worms in the same class must also be grouped in the same _____. A. order B. phylum C. genus D. family E. species 374. Goldfish and guppies are in the same class. Therefore, they must also be members of the same _____. A. order B. phylum C. genus D. family E. species 375. Species A and Species B are in the same phylum. Species A and Species C, but not Species B, are in the same order. From this information you can conclude that _____. A. Species C could be in the same class as Species A and B B. Species A and Species B are in the same family C. Species B and Species C share a less recent ancestor than do Species A and B D. all three species are members of the same genus E. all three species are not members of the same phylum 376. A phylogenetic tree of bird families constructed by cladistic analysis would be a hypothesis about which of the following? A. characteristics shared by all bird families B. evolutionary relationships among families C. families that look most alike D. analogous structures shared by various species E. relative ages of living species of birds

39

377. What information cannot be inferred from studying a cladogram? A. patterns of shared characteristics B. absolute dates of branch points C. whether the clade is valid D. if the shared characteristics are explained by common ancestry E. the relative sequence in which certain traits originated 378. Many researchers who study the kingdom Protista argue that all of these organisms should not be placed in the same kingdom, because these organisms could not have evolved from a common ancestor. In other words, they argue that the kingdom Protista is A. polyphyletic B. paraphyletic C. monophyletic D. heterophyletic E. none of the above 379. Using cladistic analysis, a taxonomist wishes to construct a phylogenetic tree showing the relationships among various species of mammals. Which of the following would be the least useful for this purpose? A. descriptions of various types of limbs (wings, legs, flippers, etc.) B. the fact that all mammals have hair C. data about skull bones D. the fact that teeth vary among types of mammals E. DNA base sequences 380. Which statement below is true about an outgroup? A. Outgroup comparison is based on the assumption that homologies present in both the outgroup and ingroup must be derived characters. B. The outgroup would be found at one of the highest branches of a phylogenetic tree. C. The outgroup and ingroup display a mixture of shared and derived characters. D. The outgroup should be less closely related to any members of the ingroup than they are to each other. E. None of the above is true. 381. Which statement about cladogram branches is true? A. The lengths of the branches that connect the taxa and the order of the branch points are both arbitrary. B. The order of the branch points is arbitrary, but the lengths of the branches that connect the taxa are not. C. Neither the lengths of the branches that connect the taxa nor the order of the branch points is arbitrary. D. The lengths of the branches that connect the taxa are arbitrary, but the order of the branch points is not. E. The length of a branch reflects the number of evolutionary changes that have taken place in that lineage.

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Answer Key. Test Title: evolution (created on August 09, 2010 at 05:28:33 PM) 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. B 40. B 41. D 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. D 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. A 52. A 53. D 54. A 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. D 59. C 60. C 61. C 62. A 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. D 70. A 71. D 72. B 73. D 74. D 75. A 76. B 77. A 78. C 79. A 80. D 81. D 82. D 83. D 84. A 85. C 86. D 87. A 88. C 89. D 90. C 91. B 92. D 93. D 94. D 95. D 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. D 100. A 101. D 102. A 103. B 104. A 105. A 106. D 107. B 108. A 109. A 110. C 111. B 112. D 113. B 114. C 115. C 116. D 117. D 118. C 119. C 120. A 121. D 122. C 123. D 124. C 125. D 126. B 127. C 128. D 129. D 130. D 131. C 132. B 133. A 134. A 135. A 136. B 137. B 138. B 139. C 140. B 141. C 142. C 143. A 144. D 145. A 146. D 147. B 148. D 149. A 150. B 151. A 152. B 153. A 154. D 155. A 156. C 157. A 158. D 159. A 160. B 161. B 162. D 163. D 164. C 165. A 166. D 167. A 168. A 169. B 170. C 171. D 172. B 173. B 174. C 175. C 176. A 177. D 178. C 179. A 180. C 181. D 182. B 183. D 184. B 185. A 186. B 187. D 188. D 189. B 190. B 191. A 192. D 193. D 194. B 195. C 196. C 197. A 198. B 199. D 200. A 201. B 202. A 203. C 204. C 205. B 206. C 207. A 208. B 209. A 210. C 211. B 212. A 213. D 214. B 215. D 216. D 217. D 218. C 219. A 220. A 221. D 222. D 223. C 224. D 225. C 226. D 227. B 228. B 229. B 230. B 231. D 232. B 233. D 234. A 235. C 236. B 237. C 238. C 239. A 240. A 241. A 242. C 243. B 244. C 245. A 246. D 247. D 248. A 249. B 250. C 251. B 252. C 253. D 254. D 255. D 256. C 257. C 258. C 259. C 260. B 261. C 262. A 263. B 264. B 265. D 266. C 267. A 268. A 269. C 270. B 271. C 272. C 273. A 274. A 275. D 276. C 277. A 278. A 279. A 280. D 281. A 282. A 283. C 284. D 285. C 286. C 287. A 288. C 289. D 290. D 291. B 292. D 293. B 294. A

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295. B 296. A 297. B 298. A 299. B 300. C 301. C 302. A 303. B 304. D 305. A 306. A 307. C 308. B 309. D 310. D 311. D 312. D 313. A 314. E 315. A 316. A 317. B 318. B 319. E 320. B 321. B 322. C 323. A 324. C 325. D 326. B 327. D 328. C 329. D 330. C 331. B 332. A 333. C 334. E 335. B 336. C 337. B 338. B 339. C 340. C

341. B 342. A 343. B 344. B 345. C 346. D 347. A 348. C 349. B 350. D 351. A 352. A 353. A 354. A 355. A 356. A 357. A 358. A 359. A 360. A 361. B 362. A 363. C 364. D 365. C 366. E 367. B 368. B 369. C 370. D 371. E 372. A 373. B 374. B 375. A 376. B 377. B 378. A 379. B 380. D 381. D

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