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GENERAL NAVIGATION

CRP5
Q.1 What is the ETA at Z if TAS=120 Kts? 42 nm a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. d. Q.3 a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. 70 nm X Y Z 1255 UTC 1305 UTC 1320 UTC 1325 UTC Given the following: True track: 192o Magnetic variation: 7oE Drift angle: 5o left What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track? 190o M 192o M 197o M 188o M Given the following: Magnetic heading : 060o Magnetic Variation:8oW Drift angle: 4oright, what is the true track? 058o 054o 052o 056o An aircraft is following a true track of 048o at a constant TAS of 210 kt.. The wind velocity is 350o/ 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are? 192kt, 7oright 196kt, 7.5oright 192kt, 7oleft 196kt, 7.5oleft Given FL350, Mach0.80, OAT -55oC. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS) 460 kt, LSS 575 kt. 460 kt, LSS 570 kt 465 Kt, LSS 575 kt. 460 kt, LSS 567 kt. For a given track the : Wind component =+ 45 kt Drift angel= 15o left TAS= 240 kt What is the wind component on the reverse track ? 85 kts. -65 kts. -85 kts -45 kts Given: Magnetic heading = 255oVAR= 40oW GS= 375 kt W/V= 235(T)/120 kt Calculate the drift angle ? 4o left 9o left 7o left

d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d. Q.11 a. b. c. d. Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d. Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c.

7o left Given: True Heading = 180o TAS=500kt W/V 225o / 100 kt Calculate the GS? 435 kt 575 kt 400 kt 350 kt Given : True heading = 310o TAS= 200 kt GS= 176 kt drift angle 7o right. Calculate the W/V? 273o /33 kt 270o /33 kt 265o /33 kt 270o /33 kt Given : True Heading= 090o TAS= 180 kt Drift 5o right Calculate the W/V 360o /15 kt 360o /25 kt 360o /5 kt 300o /15 kt Given: True Heading =090o TAS=200 kt W/V =220o / 30 kt. Calculate the GS 200 kt 240 kt 180 kt 220 kt An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090o . The W/V is 045o / 50 kt. How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour ? 85 nm. 90 nm. 75 nm. 100 nm. The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt, True HDG 090o, Drift angle 5o right, TAS 480 kt SAT ( static air temperature)-51o C. The W/V being experienced is? 322o / 60 kt 320o / 60 kt 322o / 45 kt 322o / 60 kt The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240o /35 kt. Runway 30(300o ). What is the cross-wind component? 30 kt. 35 kt. 26 kt. 25 kt. Given: TAS=485 kt, OAT= ISA+10oC, FL410. Calculate the Mach number? 0.852. 0.833 0.825 0.815 2645 US-GAL equals? ( Specific gravity 0.80) 803 kg. 810 kg. 800 kg

d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 a. b. c. d. Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20 a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b. c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c.

813 kg. 730 ft/mn equals? 3.9m/sec 3.4m/sec 3.7m/sec 3.2m/sec How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt? 1 min 11 sec. 1 min 07 sec. 1 min 10 sec. 1 min 17 sec. An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed? 160 kt. 266 kt. 26.6 kt. 166 kt. What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330? -56.5oC. -53oC. -50oC. -52oC. Given : TAS 487 kt, FL 330, Temperature ISA+15. Calculate the MACH Number ? 0.81 0.80 0.83 0.79 Given: M0.80, OAT 50oC, FL 330, GS 490 kt, VAR 20oW, Magnetic heading 140o, Drift is 11o Right, Calculate the true W/V? 025o/95kts 020o/80kts 025o/90ts 020o/95kts Given : Pressure Altitude 29000 FT, OAT-55oC. Calculate the Density Altitude? 28900 ft 28000 ft 27850 ft 27500 ft. Given: Compass Heading 090o, Deviation 2oW, Variation 12oE, TAS 160 kt. Whilst maintaining a radial 070o from a VOR station, the aircraft files a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN. What is the W/Vo(T)? 160o/50 kt 150o/50 kt 160o/60 kt 150o/60 kt How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt? 3.45. 3.25 3.95

d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27 a. b. c. d. Q.28 a. b. c. d. Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a.

4.35 Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL. What is the endurance ? 4 hr 32 min 3 hr 46 min 4 hr 46 min 3 hr 32 min What is the ration between the litre and the US-GAL? 1 US-GAL equals? 3.5 litres 4.3 litres 3.78 litres 3.65 litres Given: true track is 348o, drift 17 o left, variation 32o W, deviation 4 o E. What is the compass heading? 041 o 141 o 044 o 033 o An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 min, how long does it take to travel 215 nm? 50 min 46 min 48 min 51 min Given: TAS=220 kt; Magnetic course = 212 o, W/V 160 o (M)/50kt, Calculate the GS. 192 kt. 186 kt 190 kt. 180 kt. Given : FL250, OAT - 15 o C TAS250 kt. Calculate the Mach No.? 0.45. 0.40 0.46 0.38 An aircraft travels 100 stature miles in 30 min, how long does it take to travel 215 nm? 74 min 50 min 77 min 49 min Given: TAS= 250 kt; Magnetic course= 212o, W/V 160o (M)/50kt, Calculate the GS 222 kt. 225 kt. 215 kt. 230 kt. Given: True track 180o Drift 8oR Compass heading 195o Deviation -2o Calculate the variation? 23oW 20oW 21oW 21oW. Given: True track 175o Drift 10oR Compass heading 195o Deviation -3o Calculate the variation? 25oW

b. c. d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b. c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d.

27oW 25oW 29oW Given: True course 300o drift 8oR variation 10o W deviation -4o Calculate the compass heading? 298o. 296o 304o 306o Given true track 352o variation 11o W deviation is -50 drift 10o R. Calculate the compass heading 355o. 358o. 348o. 350o. Given true track 070o variation 30o W deviation is +10 drift 10o R. Calculate the compass heading 089o. 091o. 087o. 090o. Given : TAS= 270 kt. True HDG= 270o, Actual wind 205o(T)/ 30 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 12R 269 kt. 6L- 259 kt. 6R-259 kt. 6R-269 kt. Given : TAS= 270 kt. True HDG= 145o, Actual wind 205o(T)/ 30 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 6oL- 256 kt. 6oR- 256 kt. 6oL- 275 kt. 6oR- 275 kt. Given : TAS= 470 kt. True HDG= 317o ,W/V=045o(T)/ 45 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 5oR- 470 kt. 5oL- 460 kt. 5oL- 470 kt. 5oR- 460 kt. Given : TAS= 140 kt. True HDG= 302o ,W/V=045o(T)/ 45 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 16oR- 156 kt. 16oL- 156 kt. 16oL-166 kt. 16oR- 166 kt. Given : TAS= 290 kt. True HDG= 171o ,W/V=310o(T)/ 30 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 4oR- 314 kt. 5oL- 325 kt. 5oR- 325 kt. 4oL- 314 kt. Given : TAS= 485 kt. True HDG= 226o ,W/V=110o(T)/ 95 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 9oR- 533 kt. 9oL- 533 kt. 9oR- 540 kt. 9oL- 540 kt.

Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b. c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c. d. Q.51 a. b. c. d. Q.52 a. b. c. d. Q.53 a. b. c. d. Q.54 a. b.

Given : TAS= 472 kt. True HDG= 005o ,W/V=110o(T)/ 50 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 6oR- 487 kt. 6oL- 487 kt. 4oR- 487 kt. 4oL- 487 kt. Given : TAS= 190 kt. True HDG= 085o ,W/V=11o(T)/ 50 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 8oR- 146 kt. 8oL- 146 kt. 8oL- 140 kt. 8oR- 140 kt. Given : TAS= 132 kt. True HDG= 257o ,W/V=95o(T)/ 35 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 4oL- 165 kt. 4oR- 155 kt. 4oL- 155 kt. 4oR- 165 kt. Given : TAS= 370 kt. True HDG= 181o ,W/V=95o(T)/ 35 kt, Calculate the true track and GS 186 370 kt 176- 370 kt. 186- 350 kt. 176- 350 kt. Given : TAS= 375 kt. True HDG= 124o ,W/V=130o(T)/ 55 kt, Calculate the true track and GS 125 320 kt 123- 320 kt. 123- 330 kt. 125- 330 kt. Given : TAS= 125 kt. True HDG= 355o ,W/V=320o(T)/ 30 kt, Calculate the true track and GS 005 102 kt 345- 102 kt. 005- 112 kt. 345- 112 kt. Given : TAS= 198 kt. HDG(oT)= 180o ,W/V=359/25, Calculate the true track(oT) and GS 000 223 kt 180-213 kt. 180-223 kt. 000- 213 kt. Given : TAS= 135 kt. HDG(oT)= 278 ,W/V=140/20, kt Calculate the true track(oT) and GS 283 150 kt 005 -150 kt. 273- 150 kt. 280 - 150 kt. Given : TAS= 225 kt. HDG(oT)= 123o ,W/V=090/60, kt Calculate the true track(oT) and GS 134 168 kt 130-178 kt. 134- 178 kt. 130- 168 kt. Given : TAS= 480 kt. HDG(oT)= 40o ,W/V=90/60, kt Calculate the true track(oT) and GS 034 445 kt 046-445 kt.

c. d. Q.55 a. b. c. d. Q.56 a. b. c. d. Q.57 a. b. c. d. Q.58 a. b. c. d. Q.59 a. b. c. d. Q.60 a. b. c. d. Q.61 a. b. c. d. Q.62 a. b. c. d. Q.63 a. b. c. d. Q.64

040-440 kt. 030- 440 kt. Given : TAS= 155 kt. HDG(T)= 216o ,W/V=90/60, kt Calculate the true track(oT) and GS 231 196 kt 201-196 kt. 231 -190 kt. 201- 190 kt. Given : TAS= 170 kt. HDG(T)= 100o ,W/V=350/30, kt Calculate the true track(oT) and GS 91 182 kt 109-182 kt. 109-186 kt. 91- 186 kt. Given : TAS= 235 kt., HDG(T)= 076o ,W/V=040/40 kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS 7R 214 kt 7R -204 kt. 7L -210 kt. 7L- 204 kt. Given : TAS= 440 kt., HDG(T)= 349o ,W/V=040/40 kt, Calculate the drift and GS 4R 415kt 4R -415 kt. 4L -405 kt. 4R- 405 kt. Given : TAS= 465 kt., HDG(T)= 124o ,W/V=170/80 kt, Calculate the drift and GS 8R 415 kt 8L -405 kt. 8L -415 kt. 8R- 405 kt. Given : TAS= 95 kt., HDG(T)= 075o ,W/V=310/20 kt, Calculate the drift and GS 9L 108 kt 9L -104 kt. 9R -104 kt. 9R- 108 kt. Given : TAS= 140 kt., HDG(T)= 005o ,W/V=265/25 kt, Calculate the drift and GS 10L 214 kt 10R -204 kt. 10R -210 kt. 10L- 204 kt. Given : TAS= 190 kt., HDG(T)=355o ,W/V=165/25 kt, Calculate the drift and GS 1R 215 kt 1L - 215 kt. 1L - 212 kt. 1R - 212 kt. Given : TAS= 230 kt., HDG(T)=250o ,W/V=205/10 kt, Calculate the drift and GS 2L 223 kt 2R - 220 kt. 2L - 220 kt. 2R - 223 kt. Given : TAS= 205 kt., HDG(T)=180o ,W/V=240/25 kt, Calculate the drift and GS

a. b. c. d. Q.65 a. b. c. d. Q.66 a. b. c. d. Q.67 a. b. c. d. Q.68 a. b. c. d. Q.69 a. b. c. d. Q.70 a. b. c. d. Q.71 a. b. c. d. Q.72 a. b. c. d. Q.73 a. b. c.

6L 192 kt 6L - 194 kt. 6L - 196 kt. 6R - 194 kt. Given : TAS= 250 kt., HDG(T)=029o ,W/V=035/45 kt, Calculate the drift and GS 1L 205 kt 1L - 202 kt. 1R - 205 kt. 1R - 202 kt. Given : TAS= 132 kt., HDG(T)=053o ,W/V=205/15 kt, Calculate the Track (oT) and GS 053 150 kt 055 - 145 kt. 050 - 145 kt. 055 - 140 kt. Given : TAS= 90 kt., HDG(T)=3555o ,W/V=120/20 kt, Calculate the Track (oT) and GS 344 102 kt 346 - 102 kt. 003 - 102 kt. 346 - 106 kt. Given : TAS= 485 kt., HDG(T)=168o ,W/V=130/75 kt, Calculate the Track (oT) and GS 174 428 kt 172 - 428 kt. 170 - 425 kt. 179- 425 kt Given : TAS= 155 kt., Track (T)=305o ,W/V=160/18 kt, Calculate the HDG (oT) and GS 301- 165kt 301- 169kt 293-169 kt 293-165 kt Given : TAS= 130 kt., Track (T)=003o ,W/V=190/40 kt, Calculate the HDG (oT) and GS 001 170 kt 003 - 170kt 000 -172 kt 001 -175 kt Given: TAS= 227 kt., Track (T)= 316o ,W/V=205/15 kt, Calculate the HDG (oT) and GS 310 232 kt 314 230 kt 312 -232 kt 312 - 232 kt Given: TAS= 465 kt., Track (T)= 007o ,W/V=300/80 kt, Calculate the HDG (oT) and GS 358 428 kt 356 428 kt 358 - 420 kt 356 - 424 kt Given: TAS= 200 kt., Track (T)= 73o ,W/V=210/20 kt, Calculate the HDG (oT) and GS 077 210 kt 070 215 kt 073 -213 kt

d. Q.74 a. b. c. d. Q.75 a. b. c. d. Q.76 a. b. c. d. Q.77 a. b. c. d. Q.78 a. b. c. d. Q.79 a. b. c. d. Q.80 a. b. c. d. Q.81 a. b. c. d. Q.82 a. b. c. d. Q.83 a.

077 - 215 kt Given : TAS = 200 kt, Track(T) = 110o, W/V= 015/40 kt. Calculate the HDG (oT) and GS 099 199 kt. 099 202 kt. 096 - 199 kt. 096 - 200 kt. Given : TAS = 270 kt, Track(T) = 260o, W/V= 275/30 kt. Calculate the HDG (oT) and GS 261 240 kt. 262 241 kt. 260 - 241 kt. 260 - 242 kt. Given : True HDG = 307o TAS = 230 kt. Track (T) =313o , GS= 210 kt. Calculate the W/V? 263/30 kt. 260/30 kt. 260/33 kt. 263/33 kt. Given : True HDG = 233o TAS = 480 kt. Track (T) =240o , GS= 523 kt. Calculate the W/V? 110/75 kt. 109/70 kt. 110/80 kt. 109/80 kt. Given : True HDG = 133o TAS = 225 kt. Track (T) =144o , GS= 206 kt. Calculate the W/V? 072/50 kt. 072/45 kt. 075/50 kt 109/80 kt. Given : True HDG = 074o TAS = 230 kt. Track (T) =066o , GS= 242 kt. Calculate the W/V? 180/40 kt 175/45 kt. 180/50 kt. 180/35 kt. Given : True HDG = 206o TAS = 140 kt. Track (T) =207o , GS= 135 kt. Calculate the W/V? 183/08 kt. 179/04 kt. 184/03 kt. 180/05 kt. Given : True HDG = 054o TAS = 450 kt. Track (T) =059o , GS= 416 kt. Calculate the W/V? 010/50 kt. 008/40 kt 010/40 kt. 012/45 kt. Given : True HDG = 145o TAS = 240 kt. Track (T) =150o , GS= 210 kt. Calculate the W/V? 112/30 kt. 118/33 kt. 115/35 kt. 115/40 kt. Given : True HDG =002o TAS = 130 kt. Track (T) =353o , GS= 132 kt. Calculate the W/V? 090/25 kt.

b. c. d. Q.84 a. b. c. d. Q.85 a. b. c. d. Q.86 a. b. c. d. Q.87 a. b. c. d. Q. 88 a. b. c. d. Q. 89 a. b. c. d. Q. 90 a. b. c. d. Q. 91 a. b.

095/20 kt. 090/30 kt. 098/25 kt. Given : True HDG = 35o TAS = 245 kt. Track (T) =046o , GS= 220 kt. Calculate the W/V? 340/55 kt. 340/50 kt. 345/50 kt. 340/45 kt. Given : course required =085o (T), Forecast W/V = 480 kt. Track (T) =240o , GS= 523 kt. Calculate the W/V? 075o, 39 min. 075o, 42 min. 070o, 39 min. 073o, 42 min. Given : course A to B =090o, TAS= 460 kt. W/V = 360/100 kt, Average variation= 10o E, Deviation= -2o. Calculate the compass heading and GS? 069o - 448 kt. 065o - 449 kt. 067o446 kt.. 069o, 458 kt. For a landing on runway 23 ( 227o magnetic surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30 kt. VAR is 13o E. Calculated the cross wind component? 20 kt. 22 kt. 25 kt. 19 kt. Given: Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 Kt. Planned runway 05 (047o magnetic). The direction of the surface wind reported byATIS 210o. Variation is17oE Calculation the maximum allowable windspeed that can be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit? 5 kt. 18 kt. 14 kt. 11 kt. Given: Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt. Runway 06, RWY QDM 063o(M). Wind direction 100o(M) Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed? 33 kt. 30 kt. 36 kt. 26 kt. Given: true course A to B = 250o Distance A to B= 315 NM TAS=450 kt. W/V=200o/60kt. ETD A= 0650 UTC. What is the ETA at B? 0726 UTC. 0659 UTC. 0732 UTC. 0736 UTC. Given: GS=510 kt. Distance A to B=43 NM what is the time (MIN) from A to B? 5. 4.5.

c. d. Q. 92 a. b. c. d. Q. 93 a. b. c. d. Q.94 a. b. c. d. Q.95 a. b. c. d. Q.96 a. b. c. d. Q.97 a. b. c. d. Q.98 a. b. c. d. Q.99 a. b. c. d. Q.100 a. b. c. d.

4. 6.5. Given: GS=122 kt. Distance from A to B= 985 NM. What is time from A to B? 6 hr 15 min. 8 hr 04 min. 8 hr 24 min. 4 hr 08 min. Given: GS=236 kt. Distance from A to B= 354 NM. What is time from A to B? 1 hr 35 min. 2 hr 03 min. 1 hr 15 min. 1 hr 30 min. Given: GS=435 kt. Distance from A to B= 1920 NM. What is time from A to B? 6 hr 15 min. 8 hr 04 min. 8 hr 24 min. 4 hr 08 min. Given: GS=345 kt. Distance from A to B= 3560 NM. What is time from A to B? 10 hr 23 min. 10 hr 15 min. 10 hr 25 min. 10 hr 19 min. Given: GS=480 kt. Distance from A to B= 5360 NM. What is time from A to B? 11 hr 10 min. 11 hr 15 min. 11 hr 20 min. 11 hr 1 min. Given: GS=95 kt. Distance from A to B= 480 NM. What is time from A to B? 5 hr 05 min. 5 hr 10 min. 5 hr 03 min. 5 hr 08 min. Given: GS=105 kt. Distance from A to B= 103 NM. What is time from A to B? 00 hr 59 min. 00 hr 50 min. 00 hr 45 min. 00 hr 54 min. Given: GS=120 kt. Distance from A to B= 84 NM. What is time from A to B? 00 hr 40 min. 00 hr 44 min. 00 hr 41 min. 00 hr 42 min. Given: GS=135 kt. Distance from A to B= 433 NM. What is time from A to B? 3 hr 16 min. 3 hr 12 min. 3 hr 20 min. 2 hr 05 min.

Q.101 Given: Runway direction 083o (M), Surface W/V 035/35kt. Calculate the effective headwind component? a. 24 kt. b. 20 kt. c. 22 kt. d. 26 kt Q.102 Given: For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt. And has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60o, calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds? a. 20 kt and 40 kt. b. 20 kt and 45 kt. c. 25 kt and 35 kt. d. 25 kt and 30 kt. Q.103 Given: Runway direction 230o (T), Surface W/V 280o (T)/40kt. Calculated the effective cross-wind component? a. 31 kt b. 25 kts. c. 33 kts. d. 34 kts. Q.104 Given: Magnetic track= 075o, HDG=066o (M), VAR= 11oE, TAS= 360 kt, Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN Calculate the true W/ Magnetic a. 345o/50 kt. b. 340o/35 kt. c. 340 o /45 kt. d. 345 o /35 kt. Q.105 Given: Magnetic track= 210o Magnetic HDG 215o VAR= 15o E , TAS- 360 kt, Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN, Calculate the true W/V a. 265o/50 kt. b. 265o/40 kt. c. 260 o /50 kt. d. 260 o /40 kt. Q.106 Given: Course 040o (T), TAS is 120 kt, Wind speed 30 kt. Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of: a. 120o. b. 130o. c. 210o. d. 330o. Q.107 Given: IAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT + 20oC. What is the TAS? a. 145 kts b. 135 kts. c. 144 kts. d. 141 kts. Q.108 Given: FL120, OAT is ISA standard, CAS is 200 kt, Track is 222o(M), Heading is 215o(M), Variation is 15o W. Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN. What is the W/V? a. 050o(T) / 75 kt. b. 070o(T) / 75 kt. c. 050o(T) / 50 kt. d. 050o(T) / 70 kt.

Q.109 Given: Course 095o(T), TAS is 220 kt, Wind speed 70 kt. Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of: a. 165o. b. 185o . c. 215o . d. 335o . Q.110 What is the time to go if groundspeed is 240 knots distance to go is 500 nm? a. 25 Min. b. 29 Min. c. 125 Min. d. 134 Min. Q.111 What is the ETA at Z if TAS = 120 Kts? 40 nm X a. b. c. d. 1255 UTC 1320 UTC 1330 UTC 1325 UTC Y 75 nm Z

Q.112 What is the ETA at C? 30 nm A a. b. c. d. Q.113 1035. 1040. 1036 1038. What is the ETA at Z? 30 nm X a. b. c. d. Q.114 a. b. c. d. Q.115 Y 20 nm Z B 20 nm C

1506 1510 1512 1515 What is the true altitude if OAT= +35 and Pressure altitude= 5000 feet? 4290 ft. 4555 ft. 5320 ft. 5550 ft. What is the true altitude if OAT = +30oC and Pressure Altitude= 7000 feet?

a. b. c. d. Q.116 a. b. c. d. Q.117 a. b. c. d. Q.118 a. b. c. d. Q.119 a. b. c. d. Q.120 a. b. c. d. Q.121 a. b. c. d. Q.122 a. b. c. d. Q.123 a. b. c. d. Q.124 a. b. c.

7750 ft.. 7555 ft.. 7320 ft. 7050 ft. Given IAS 125 kt, FL 60, OAT+ 25oC. What is the TAS? 142 kts. 115 kts. 142 kts. 121 kts. Given IAS 130 kt, FL 160, OAT+5oC. What is the TAS? 162 kts. 173 kts. 154 kts. 181 kts. What is the time to go if groundspeed is 440 knots distance to go is 500 nm? 68 Min. 59 Min. 120 Min. 114 Min. How far will an aircraft fly in 42 minutes at a ground speed of 400 knots? 328 Min. 305 Min. 280 Min. 260 Min. How far will an aircraft fly in 47 minutes at a ground speed of 420 knots? 338 Min. 329 Min. 380 Min. 360 Min. Given: IAS 130 kt, FL 60, OAT+20oC. What is the TAS? 139.5 kt. 149.0 kt. 150.0 kt. 146.5 kt. Given: IAS 110 kt, FL 20, OAT+25oC. What is the TAS? 116 kt. 119 kt. 121 kt. 113 kt. Given: IAS 100 kt, FL 45, OAT+15oC. What is the TAS? 108.5 kt. 119.5 kt. 112.0 kt. 113.5 kt. Given: IAS 97 kt, FL 75, OAT -15oC. What is the TAS? 111.5 kt. 107.5 kt. 109.0 kt.

d. Q.125 a. b. c. d.

105.5 kt. Given: IAS 89 kt, FL 25, OAT+10oC. What is the TAS? 92.5 kt. 91.0 kt. 90.5 kt. 95.5 kt.

CHART THEORY
Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. d. Q.3 a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that? True North is East of Magnetic North. True North is West of Magnetic North. Magnetic North is West of Compass North. Magnetic North is East of Compass North. The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the? Scale at the standard parallels. Scale at eh Equator. Scale at the midway point between the two standard parallels. Everywhere on the chart. A Positive ( easterly) magnetic variation signifies that? True North is East of Magnetic North. True North is West of Magnetic North. Magnetic North is West of Compass North. Magnetic North is East of Compass North. The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a? Lamberts Conformal. Transverse Mercator. Stereographical projection. Direct Mercator. On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians is? The same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin. The same as the Scale. Most accurate at the standard parallels. Least accurate at the parallel of origin. On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a ? Curve concave to the nearest poles. Curve conjvex to the nearest pole. Straight line. Curve convex to the equator. On a Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels the scale is? Correct only along the parallel of origin. Correct only at eh poles. Correct only along the standard parallels. Correct at all points on the chart. On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the quoted scale is correct? Midway between the two standard parallels. only along the two standard parallels. Only at the parallel of origin. Only at the centre of the chart.

Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d. Q.11 a. b. c. d. Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d. Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d.

On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a? Straight lines. Curves convex to the equator. Curve concave to the equator. curves concave to the nearest pole. On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the? Standard parallels. Outside the standard parallels. At all points between the standard parallels. Parallel of origin. On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the? Meridian of tangency. Prime meridian. Standard latitudes. latitude of origin. The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic chart, between the arrival and departure track is equal to? Departure angle. Map convergence. Secant of latitude. Secant of longitude. Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are? Rhumb lines. Great circles. Curves convex to the nearest pole. Curves concave to the nearest pole. On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are? Parallel, equally spaced, horizontal straight lines. Conveging curved lines Parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines. Diverging curved lines. On which of the following chart projections is it not possible to represent the north or south poles? Polar stereographic. Transverse Mercator. Lamberts Conical Direct Mercator. Which one of the following concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is correct? With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator Straight lines. Curves concave to the nearest pole. With the exception of meridians and the equator, as curves convex to the equator. On a Lambert conformal conic, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart? Increases between and reduce outside of the standard parallels. Reduces between, and expands outside, the standard parallels. Is constant between the standard parallels. Is constant outside of the standard parallels.

Q.18 a. b. c. d. Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20 a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b. c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27

Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole? The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to straight lines. Never approximate to straight lines. Always approximate to straight lines. Which one of the following describes the appearance or rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart? Straight lines Curves concave to the Pole. Approximately straight lines. Curves closer to the pole than the equivalent Great Circle. What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart? 2.0. 1.5. 1.0. 0.5. On a Direct Merecator, rhumb lines are? Straight lines. Curves concave to the nearest pole. Curves convex to the nearest pole. Curves concave to the Equator. A perfectly straight line on a Lamberts chart is? A parallel of latitude. A rhumb line. A meridian of longitude. A great circle. Which of the following statements best describes how scale varies on a Mercator chart? It is correct on the standard parallels, but expands outside them, and contracts within them. Expands as the secant of the East/west great circle distance. Expands as the secant ( x co-latitude). Expands directly with the secant of the latitude. How do rhumb lines, (other than meridians), appear on Polar Stereographic charts? As straight lines. As lines concave to the nearer pole. As lines convex to the nearer pole. As ellipses around the pole. Where is the convergency correct on a Transverse Mercator chart? At the datum meridian and the Equator. Only at the Equator and Poles. Only at the datum meridian. At the Parallel of Origin. In which of the following projections will a plane surface touch the reduced earth at one of the Poles? Lamberts. Direct Mercator. Transverse Mercator. Stereographic. How are great circles shown on a direct Mercator chart.

a. b. c. d. Q.28 a. b. c. d. Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a. b. c.

Curves concave to the nearest pole. Curves convex to the nearest pole. Straight lines. Rhumb lines The scale on a Lamberts conformal conic chart? Is constant. Is constant along a parallel of latitude. Is constant along a meridian of longitude. Varies slightly as a function of longitude and latitude. The scale is correct on a Transverse Mercator chart? Along the datum meridian and meridians at 90o to is. At the prime meridian. Along the great circle of tangency. At the poles and the equator. What is the symbol for an FIR boundary? .. ---------------------------------.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-. _______________________ How is an uncontrolled route marked on an aeronautical chart?

----------------------------------What is the symbol for a Control Zone (CTR) on an aeronautical chart. ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ________________________________ ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, Please refer to page 58. What is the chart symbol for a lightship? 6. 8. 13. 15. Please refer to on page 58. Which is the symbol for a VOR? 13. 8. 6. 15. Please refer to page 58. What is the symbol for an unlighted obstacle? 1. 15. 13.

d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b. c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45

14. Please refer to page 58. Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an aeronautical ground light? 10. 14. 3. 15. Please refer to page 58. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VORTAC? 1. 3. 7. 14. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for an exceptionally high (over 300 m above terrain) lighted obstruction? 9. 11. 10. 15. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for an unlighted obstacle? 9. 11. 10. 15. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for a group of obstacles? 9. 11. 10. 15. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for a VOR DME? 4. 5. 7. 14. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for VOOR TAC? 4. 5. 7. 14. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for TACAN? 4. 5. 7. 14. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for DME? 4. 5. 7. 14. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for NDB?

a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b. c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c. d.

1. 2. 3. 4. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for a lighted group of obstacles? 9. 10. 11. 12. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for a lighted obstacle? 9. 10. 11. 12. Please refer to page 58. Which of the following is the symbol for lighted group of obstacles? 6. 10. 11. 12. The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the? Scale at the standard parallels. Scale at the parallel of origin. Scale at the poles. Constant at all points on the chart. What type of projection is generally used for charts used for navigation in North and South polar areas? Lanberts Conformal. Polar Stereographical projection. Direct Mercator. Oblique Mercator.

CIRCLES

Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. d. Q.3. a.

A great circle track joins position A ( 59o S 141 o W) and B (61 o S 148 o W). What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B? It increases by 6o. It decreases by 6o. It increases by 3o . It decreases by 3o . Given: Position A 45o N, ?o E, Position B 45 o N, 45 o 15E Distance A-B =280 NM, B is to the East of A, What is the longitude of position A? 38 o 39E. 49 o 57 E. 51 o 51E. 40 o 33E. A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75. The initial course of a straightline track drawn on this chart from A(40o N 050o W) to B is 043o(T) at A; course at B is 055o (T). What is the longitude of B? 34 o W.

b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8

36 o W. 38 o W. 41 o W. What is the great circle track ( measured from the starting position) from 70 o S 030 o W, to 70 o S 060 o
.

a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d.

048o T 090 o T 132o T 228o T What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58o 42N 094o 00W? 093 o 53.1W. 094 o 12.0W. 093 o 48.5W. 093 o 54.0W. As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35o 32.7N 139o 46.3W are input instead of 35o 32.7N 139o 46.3E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point 52o N 180o W, the longitude value shown on the INS will be? 080o 27.4W. 099o 32.6W. 099o 32.6E. 080o 27.4E.. An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04o 00N 030o 00W: 600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM West. The final position of the aircraft is? 04 o 00N 030 o 00W. 03 o 58N 030 o 02W. 04 o 00N 029 o 55W. 04 o 00N 030 o 02W. Which of the following differences in latitude will produce the greatest difference between the initial great circle track and the mean great circle track, between two points which are separated by 10 o change of longitude? change of longitude? 30o S and 25o S. 30o S and 30o N. 60 o N and 55o N. 60 o N and 60 o S . What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed from position 60 00N 030 00W ? South for 3600 NM, East for 3600 NM, North for 3600 NM, West for 3600 NM? 59 o 00N 090 o 00W. 60 o 00N 090 o 00W. 60 o 00N 030 o 00E. 59 o 00N 060 o 00W. The Great Circle bearing of B(70o S 060o E), from A(70o S 030o W), is approximately? 150o(T). 090o(T). 315o(T). 135o(T).

An aircraft at position 60o N 005o W tracks 090o (T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will be? a. 002o 10W. b. 000o 15E c. 000o 40E. d. 005o 15E. Q.12 An aircraft autopilot is coupled to the INS steering from Waypoint 1 at 60o N 040oW.to Waypoint 2 at 60o N 030o W .What is the approximate latitude of the aircraft on passing 35o W. a. 60o05N. b. 60o19N. c. 60o30N. d. 59o15N. Q.13. A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the sonc of 0.80 A straight line course drawn on this chart from A ( 53o N 004 o W) to B is 080 o at A Course at B is 092 o (T) What is the longitude of B? a. 011oE. b. 009o36E. c. 008oE. d. 019oE. Q.14 An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following points have been entered in the INS computer: WPT 1:60o N 030 o W, WPT 2: 60 o N 60 N 020o W. When 025 o W has been passed, the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be? a. 60o 10.0N b. 59o 49.0N c. 60o 11.0N d. 60o 05.0N Q.11 Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 The departure between positions 60o N 160o E and 60o N x is 900 NM. What is the longitude of x? 170oW 140oW 145oE 175oE Given: The autopilot is coupled to the inertial Navigation System steering from Waypoint 1 at 60o N 030o W, to Waypoint 2 at 60o N 020o W, to Waypoint 3 at 60o N 010o W. What is the approximate track change on passing WPT 2? Zero 4 o decrease. 9 o decrease 9 o increase. An aircraft autopilot is coupled to the INS steering from Waypoint 1 at 60oN 050oW, to Waypoint 2 at 60oN 040oW. What is the approximate latitude of the aircraft on passing 45oW. 60o30N. 59o15N. 60o05N. 60o19N. The departure between positions 60oN 160oE and 60o N x is 1200 NM. What is the longitude of x?

a. b. c. d. Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20

160o W. 140o W. 145o E. 175o E. The departure between positions 60oN 60oE and 60o N x is 1800 NM East. What is the longitude of x? 145o E. 145o W. 120o E. 120o W. An aircraft with its autopilot connected to its inertial system, flies from point A at 45 o S 010 o W, to point B at 45 o S 030 o W, What is the true course of the aircraft (to the nearest degree) when it arrives at B? 265o . 275o . 277o . 286o . The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS). The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3(55o 00N020o 00W) and No.4 (55o 00N 030o 00W). With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No.3 will be? 266o . 270o . 274o . 278o . An aeroplane flies from A (59o S 142o W) to B (61o S 148o) with a TAS of 480 kt. The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB track is active. On route AB, the true track? Varies by 10o. Decreases by 6o. Varies by 4o. Increases by 5o. The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference between initial track read-out and the average true course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of 10o? 60o N to 60o N. 60o N to 50o N. 30o S to 30o N. 30o S to 25o S. position A is 55o N 030o W and B is 54o N 020o W. What is the rhumb line bearing from A to B, if the great circle track from A to B, measured at A, is 100oT? 110oT. 284oT. 104oT. 090oT. The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from waypoint No. 2(60o 00s 070 o 00W) to

a. b. c. d. Q.21

a. b. c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25

a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27 a. b. c. d. Q.28 a. b. c. d. Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d.

No. 3 ( (60 o 00S 080 o 00W). Comparing the initial track (o T) at 070 o 00W and the final track (o T) at 080 o 00W, the difference between them is that the initial track is approximately? 9 o greater than the final one. 5 o less than the final one. 9 o less than the final one. 5 o greater than the final one. An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the aircrafts inertial system. The coordinates of A ( 45 o S 010 o W) and B ( 45 o S 030 o W) have been entered. The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is? 277 o 284 o. 263 o. 270 o. The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS). WPT 1:60o N 30 o W, WPT 2:60 o N 20 o W, WPT 3:60 o N 10 o W. The inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route ( 1-2-3). The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately? Zero. A 9 o increase. A 4 o decrease. A 9 o decrease. What is a rhumb line? The vertex of a conformal polyformic projection. The shortest distance between any two points on the Earths surface. A straight line on a Lamberts conformal chart. A line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle. Given: Waypoint 1.60 o S 030 o W, Waypoint 2.60 o S 020 o W. What will be the approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude 025 o W? 060 o 11S. 059 o 49S. 060 o 00S. 060 o 06S. In order to fly from position A ( 10 o 00N, 030o 00W) to position B ( 30 o 00N, 050 o 00W, maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly? The great circle route. A straight line plotted on a Lambert chart A rhumb line track. The constant average drift route. The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb line track joining the following points: A(60 o S 165 o W) B (60 o S 177 o E), at the place of departure A, is? 7.8 o. 9 o. 15.6 o. 5.2 o. Which of the following is true of all parallels of latitude? They are neither rhumb lines nor great circles. They are rhumb lines but not great circles. They are both rhumb lines and great circles. They are great circles but not rhumb lines.

Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a. b. c. d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a.

An aircraft departs from position A ( 04 o 10 S 178 o 22W) and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of position B are? 53 o 20N 172 o 38E. 45 o 00N 172 o 38E. 53 o 20N 169 o 22W. 45 o 00N 169 o 22W. A Rhumb line is? A line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection. A line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle. The shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection. Any straight line on a Lambert projection. Given: A is N55o 000 o B is N54 o E010 o. The average true course of the great circle is 100 o. The true course of the rhumb line at point A is? 096 o. 104 o. 107 o. 100 o. An aircraft passes position A ( 60 o 00N 120 o 00W) on route to position B (60 o 00N 140 o 30W). What is the great circle track on departure from A? 279 o. 288 o. 261 o. 270 o. Parallel of latitude, except the equator, are? Rhumb lines. Great circles. Both Rhumb lines and Great circles. Neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles. Given: The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are N48 o 50 E002 o 16.5. The coordinates of the antipodes are? S41 o 10 W177o 43.5. S41 o 10 E177o 43.5. S48 o 50 W177o 43.5. S48 o 50 E177o 43.5. On a Lambert Conformal conic chart great circles that are not meridians are? Curves concave to the pole of projection. Straight lines within the standard parallels. Curves concave to the parallel of origin. Straight lines regardless of distance. On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a? Curves convex to the Equator. Curves concave to the nearest pole. Straight ling. Complex curves concave to the Equator. On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole a straight line joins position A ( 70o S 065 o E) to position B (70 o 025oW). The true course on departure from position A is approximately? 315o .

b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b. c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b. c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c.

225o. 250o. 135o. On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a ? Straight lines. Complex curves convex to the Equator. Curve concave to the equator. Complex curves concave to the Poles. Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are? Rhumb lines. Complex curves. Great circle. Curves convex to the nearest pole. On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a ? Curve convex to the equator. Curve concave to the equator. Complex curve. Straight line. Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart is correct? With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator. Their centre cannot be that of the Earth. They are represented by straight lines. They do not include the meridians nor the equator. On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a? Small circle concave to the nearer pole. Spiral curve. Curve convex to the nearer pole. Straight line. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole? The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. They are all represented by straight lines. They can never be approximated as straight lines. A perfectly straight line on a Lamberts chart is? A parallel of latitude. A rhumb line. A meridian of longitude. A great circle. How do rhumb lines, (other than meridians) appear on Polar Stereographic charts/ As straight lines. As lines concave to the nearer pole. As lines convex to the nearer pole. As ellipses around the pole. how are great circles shown on a direct Mercator chart? Curves concave to the nearest pole. Curves convex to the nearest pole. Straight lines

d. Q.51 a. b. c. d. Q.52 a. b. c. d. Q.53 a. b. c. d. Q.54 a. b. c. d. Q.55 a. b. c. d. Q.56 a. b. c. d. Q.57 a. b. c. d. Q.58

a. b.

Rhumb lines. On a Polar stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70o N 060o W to B 70o N 060 o E is approximately? 030 o (T) 330 o (T) 150 o (T) 210 o (T) A straight line on a Lambert conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes? Is approximately a Great Circle. Is a Loxodromic line. Is a Rhumb line. Can only be a parallel of latitude. On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are? Ellipses Curves convex to the equator. Straight lines. Curves concave to the equator. Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart? Ellipses around the Pole. Curves convex to the Pole. Straight lines. Curves concave to the Pole. On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37o N and 65 o N), with respect to the straight line drawn on the map between A ( N49 o W030 o) and B ( N48 o W 040 o), the? Great circle and rhumb line are to the south. Great circle and rhumb line are to the north. Great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south. Rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south. On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A ( 75 o S 065 o E) to position B ( 75 o S 025 o W). The true course on departure from position A is approximately? 225 o. 450 o. 313 o. 320 o. Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A (80 o N 000 o ) and B ( 70 o N 102 o W ) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035 o W. At point B, the true course is? 230 o. 203 o. 23 o. 30 o. An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer: WPT 1:60 o S 030 o W WPT 2:60 o S 020 o W. When 025 o W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be? 60 o57S. 60 o05.7S.

c. d. Q.59 a. b. c. d. Q.60 a. b. c. d. Q.61 a. b. c. d. Q.62 a. b. c. d. Q.63 a. b. c. d. Q.64 a. b. c. d. Q.65 a. b. c. d. Q.66 a.

60 o75S. 57 o 06S. Given: Position A 45o N, ?o E, Position B 45 o N, 45 o 15E Distance A-B= 350 NM, B is to the East of A, What is the longitude of position A. 37o 00E. 48o 00E. 51o 15E. 8o 15E. Given: Position A 45o N, ?o E, Position B 45 o N, 45 o 15E Distance A-B= 200 NM, B is to the East of A, What is the longitude of position A. 51o 20E. 48o 33E. 40o 32E. 51o 58E. A great circle track joins position A(57o S 140 o W) and B ( 63 o S 150 o W). What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B? It increases by 9 o. It decreases by 9 o. It increases by 6 o. It decreases by 6 o. Given: Position A 45o N, ?o E, Position B 45 o N, 50 o 15E Distance A-B= 280 NM, B is to the East of A, What is the longitude of position A. 43o 39E. 45o 57E. 52o 53E. 40o 33E. A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.85. The initial course of a straightline track drawn on this chart from A (40o N 050 o W) to B is 043 o (T) at A; course at B is 055 o (T). What is the longitude of B? 34 o W. 36 oW. 38 oW. 41 oW. What is the great circle track ( measured from the starting position ) from 70o S 035 o W, to 70 o S 065 o E? 048 oT. 090 oT. 137 oT. 228 oT. What is the longitude of a position 15 NM to the east of 58 o 42N 094 o 00W? 093 o 51.3W. 094 o 13.0W. 093o 31.1W. 122o 31.1W. The INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 45 o 32.7N 139 o 46.3W are input instead of the correct coordinates, 45o 32.7N 139o 46.3E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point 52o N 180o W, the longitude value shown on the INS will be? 081o 26.4W.

b. c. d. Q.67 a. b. c. d. Q.68 a. b. c. d. Q.69 a. b. c. d. Q.70 a. b. c. d. Q.71 a. b. c. d. Q.72 a. b. c. d. Q.73 a. b. c. d.

099o 32.6W. 099o 32.6E. 081o 26.4E. An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04o 00N 030o 00W: 700 NM South, then 700 NM East, then 700 NM North, then 700 NM West. The final position of the aircraft is? 04 o 00N 030 o 30W. 03 o 58N 030 o 02W. 04 o 00N 029 o 55W. 04 o 00N 029 o 55E. Which of the following differences in latitude will produce the greatest difference between the initial great circle track and the mean great circle track, between two points, which are separated by 15o change of longitude? 30o S and 25o S 30o S and 30o N 60o S and 55o N 60o N and 60o S What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed from position 60o 00N 030o 00W? South for 360 NM, East for 360 NM, North for 360 NM, West for 360 NM? 59o 00N 090o 00W. 60o 00N 031o 48W. 60o 00N 031o 48E. 59o 00N 060o 00W. The Great Circle bearing of B (70o S 050oE,) from A (70o S 030oW), is approximately? 150o (T). 090o (T). 115o (T). 128o (T). An aircraft at position 60 o N 005 o W tracks 090 o (T) for 350 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will be? 002o 10W. 000o 15E 001o 19E. 001o 19W. An aircraft autopilot is coupled to the INS steering form Waypoint 1 at 60oN 050o W. to Waypoint 2 at 60oN 020o W. What is the approximate latitude of the aircraft on passing 35o W? 60o 51N. 60o 05N. 60o 30N. 59o 15N. A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53o N 004oW) to B is 075o at A Course at B is 095o (T). What is the longitude of B? 021o E. 009o 36E. 021o W. 019o. E.

Q.74

An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer: WPT 1:60o N 040o WPT 2:60o N 010oW. When 025o W has been passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be? a. 60o 55.0N. b. 59o 49.0N. c. 60o 11.0N. d. 60o 05.0N. Q.75 The departure between positions 60o N 100o E and 60o N x is 1200 NM. What is the longitude of x? a. 140o E. b. 140oW. c. 175o W. d. 175o E. Q.76 Given : The autopilot is coupled to the Inertial Navigation System steering from Waypoint 1 at 60o N 040oW, to Waypoint 2 at 60o N 030o W, to Waypoint 3 at 60o N 020o W. What is the approximate track change on passing WPT2? a. Zero b. 4o decrease. c. 9o decrease. d. 9o increase. Q.77 An aircraft autopilot is coupled to the INS steering from Waypoint 1 at 60o N 060oW, to Waypoint 2 at 60o N030oW. What is the approximate latitude of the aircraft on passing 45o W. a. 60o54N. b. 59o15N. c. 60o23N. d. 60o19N. Q.78 The departure between positions 60o N 90o E and 60o N x is 1200 NM. What is the longitude of x? a. 130o E. b. 130oW. c. 145o E. d. 145o W. Q.79 The departure between positions 60o N 160o E and 60o N x is 1800 NM. What is the longitude of x? a. 120o E. b. 140o E. c. 140o W. d. 120o W. Q.80. An aircraft with its autopilot connected to its inertial system, flies from point A at 50o S 010oW, to point B at 50oS 030oW. What is the true course of the aircraft (to the nearest degree) when it arrives at B? a. 265o. b. 275o. c. 279o. d. 286o. Q.81 The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS). The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No.3 (65o 00N

020o 00W) and No. 4(65o 00N 030o 00W) With DSTRK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be? a. 266o. b. 270o c. 275o. d. 279o. Q.82 An aeroplane flies from A ( 59 o S 140 o W) to B ( 61 o S 149 o W) with a TAS of 480 kt. The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB track is active. On route AB, the true track? a. Varies by 10o. b. Decreases by 6o. c. Varies by 4o. d. Increases by 8o. Q.83 The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. Which pair of latitude will give the greatest difference between initial track read-out and the average true course given, in each case a difference of longitude of 10o? a. 35o S to 35o N. b. 30o S to 25o S. c. 60o N to 60o N. d. 65o N to 65o N. Q.84 Position A is 58 o N 030 o W and position B is 51oN 020oW. What is the rhumb line bearing from A to B, if the great circle track from A to B, measured at A, is 100oT? a. 110oT. b. 284o T. c. 104oT. d. 090oT. Q.85 The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from waypoint No.2 ( 70o 00S 070 o 00W) to No. 3( 70 o 00S 080 o 00W) comparing the initial track (o T) at 070 o 00W and the final track (o T) at 080 o 00W, the difference between them is that the initial track is approximately? a. 9.4o greater than the final one. b. 5.4o less than the final one. c. 9.4o less than the final one. d. 5.4o greater than the final one. Q.86 An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the aircrafts inertial system. The coordinates of A ( 65o S 010o W) and B ( 65o S 020o W have been entered. The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is? a. 275o. b. 286o. c. 265o. d. 270o. Q.87 The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS). WPT 1:70o N 50o W, WPT 2:70o N 40o W, WPT 3:70o N 30o W. The inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route ( 1-2-3). The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately? a. Zero. b. A 9o increase. c. A 6o decrease. d. A 9o decrease.

Q.88 a. b. c. d. Q.89 a. b. c. d. Q.90 a. b. c. d. Q.91 a. b. c. d. Q.92 a. b. c. d. Q.93 a. b. c. d. Q.94 a. b. c. d. Q.95 a. b. c. d. Q.96

What is a rhumb line? A line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle. The vertex of a conformal polyformic projection. The shortest distance between any two points on the Earths surface. A straight line on a Lamberts conformal chart. Given: Waypoint 1.75o S 030oW, Waypoint 2.75oS 020oW. What will be the approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude 025o W? 060o 11S. 059o 49S. 060o 00S. 060o 07S. In order to fly from position A ( 10o 00N, 030o 00W) to position B ( 30o 00N, 050o 00W) maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly? A rhumb line track. The constant average drift route. The great- circle route. A straight line plotted on a Lambert chart. The angle between the true great- circle track and the true rhumb line track joining the following points: A ( 70o S 160o W) B ( 70o S 179o E) at the place of departure A is? 8.9 o. 6.9 o. 15.6 o. 5.2 o. Which of the following is true of all parallels of latitude? They are both rhumb lines and great circles. They are great circles but not rhumb lines. They are neither rhumb lines nor great circles. They are rhumb lines but not great circles. An aircraft departs from position A (09 o 10 S 178 o 22W) and flies northward following the meridian for 2750 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 400 NM to position B. The coordinates of position B are? 53o 20N 172 o 38E. 36o 40N 173 o 19E. 36o 20N 169 o 22W. 40o 00N 169 o 22W. A Rhumb line is? The shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection. Any straight line on a Lambert projection. A line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection. A line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle. Given A is N55o 000 o B is N54o E 010 o . The average true course of the great circle is 100 o. The true course of the rhumb line at point A is? 100 o. 096 o. 104 o. 107 o. An aircraft passes position A ( 75o 00N 120o 00W) on route to position B ( 75o 00N 140o 30W.) What is the great circle track on departure from A?

a. b. c. d. Q.97 a. b. c. d. Q.98 a. b. c. d. Q.99 a. b. c. d. Q.100 a. b. c. d. Q.101 a. b. c. d. Q.102 a. b. c. d. Q.103 a. b. c. d. Q.104 a. b. c. d. Q.105

280 o. 285 o. 267 o. 275 o. Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are? Both Rhumb lines and Great circles. Neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles. Rhumb lines. Great circles. Given : the coordinates a position are N48o 50 E 002 o 16.5. The coordinates of the antipodes of that position are? S 48o 50 W 177o 43.5. S 48o 50 E 177o 43.5. S 41o 10 W 177o 43.5. S 41o 10 E 177o 43.5. On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are? Curves concave to the parallel of origin. Straight lines regardless of distance. Curves concave to the pole of projection. Straight lines within the standard parallels. On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a? Curves convex to the Equator. Complex curves concave to the Equator. Curves concave to the nearest pole. Straight line. On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A ( 75 o S 065 o E) to position B(7 S 025o W). the true course on departure from position A is approximately? 315 o. 225 o. 250 o. 135 o. On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a? Curve concave to the equator. Complex curves concave to the Poles. Straight lines. Complex curves convex to the Equator. Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are? Great circle. Curves convex to the nearest pole. Rhumb lines. Complex curves. On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a? Complex curves Straight lines. Curve convex to the equator. Curve concave to the equator. Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is correct?

a. b. c. d. Q.106 a. b. c. d. Q.107 a. b. c. d. Q.108 a. b. c. d. Q.109 a. b. c. d. Q.110 a. b. c. d. Q.111 a. b. c. d. Q.112 a. b. c. d. Q.113 a. b. c. d. Q.114

They are represented by straight lines. They do not include the meridians nor the equator. With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator. Their centre cannot be that of the Earth. On a Direct Meracator chart a rhumb line appears as a ? Curve convex to the nearer pole. Straight line. Small circle concave to the nearer pole. Spiral curve. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles, with the exception of meridians. on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole? They are all represented by straight lines. They can never be approximated as straight lines. The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. A perfectly straight line on a Lamberts chart is? A meridian of longitude. A great circle. A parallel of latitude. A rhumb line. How do rhumb lines, other than meridians appear on Polar Stereo charts? As lines convex to the nearer pole. As straight lines. As lines concave to the nearer pole. As ellipses around the pole. How are great circles shown on a direct Mercator chart? Curves concave to the nearest pole. Rhumb lines. Curves convex to the nearest pole. Straight lines. On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 75o N 060o W to B 75o N 060o E is approximately? 032o (T). 330o (T). 150o (T). 210o (T). A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purpose? Is a Rhumb line. Can only be a parallel of latitude. Is approximately a Great Circle. Is a Loxodromic line. On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are? Ellipses. Curves concave to the equator. Curves convex to the equator. Straight lines. Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart?

a. b. c. d. Q.115 a. b. c. d. Q.116 a. b. c. d. Q.117 a. b. c. d. Q.118 a. b. c. d. Q.119 a. b. c. d. Q.120 a. b. c. d.

Ellipses around the Pole. Curves concave to the Pole. Curves convex to the Pole. Straight lines. On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37o N and 65o N) with respect to the straight line drawn on the map between A (N49o W 030o and B (N48o W 040o) the? Great circle and rhumb line are to the north. Great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south. Rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south. Great circle and rhumb line are to the south. On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A (75oS 045oE) to position B (75oS 025oW). The true course on departure from position A is approximately? 235o. 450o. 320 o. 225 o. Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A ( 80o N 000o) and B ( 70o N 102o W) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035o W. At point B, the true course is? 230 o. 203 o. 23 o. 30 o. An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer : WPT 1:60 o S 030 o W WPT 2: 60 o S 020 o W, When 025 o W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation. 60 o 57S. 60 o 05.7S. 60 o.75S. 57 o.06S Given: position A 45 o N, ?o E, Position B 45 o N, 45o 15E Distance A-B= 350 NM, B is to the East of A, What is the longitude of position A? 37 o 00E. 48 o 00E. 51 o 15E 8 o 15E. Given: position A 45 o N, ? o E, Position B 45 o N, 45 o 15E Distance A-B= 200 NM, B is to the East of A, What is the longitude of position A? 51 o 20E. 48 o 33E. 38 o 32E 51 o 58E.

MAGNETISM & COMPASSES Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. When accelerating on as easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn? Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the South. Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north. Sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is? Proportional to the vertical component of the magnetic field of the earth. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the magnetic field of the earth. Inversely proportional to the horizontal components of the magnetic field of the earth.

d. Q.3 a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d. Q.11

Proportional to the horizontal component of the magnetic field of the earth. When turning right from 320o (C) to 050o (C) in the Southern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will? Over indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect. Over indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect. An aircraft is completing a timed turn in the Northern hemisphere from 330oC to 040oC. After the turn has been stopped but before the direct indicating magnetic compass settles down, will the compass (1) over-read or under-read, and (2) is this error increased or decreased by liquid swirl? (1) over-read (2) increased. (1) over-read (2) decreased. (1) under-read (2) increased. (1) under-read (2) decreased. What is magnetic variation? The angle between Magnetic North and True North. The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North. The angle between the direction indicated on the compass and Magnetic North. The angle between True North and Compass North. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330o, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read? 060o. More than 060o. More or less than 060o depending on the pendulous suspension used. Less than 060o. At the magnetic equator? Deviation is Zero. The isogonal is an agonic line. Dip is Zero. Variation is Zero. Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass? T V M D C 130 2W 128 -1 127. 130 2E 128 -1 129. 130 2E 132 -1 133. 130 2W 132 -1 133. The horizontal component of the earths magnetic field? Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles. Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic poles. Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitude less than 60o. Is approximately the same at magnetic latitude 50o N and 50oS. What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism? 45o. 60o. 90o. 180o. Which of the following is correct when the variation is West?

a. b. c. d. Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d. Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 a. b. c. d. Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20

True North is East of Magnetic North. Magnetic North is West of Compass North. True North is West of Magnetic North. Compass North is West of Magnetic North. A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an? Agonic line. Aclinic line. Isogonal. Isotach. How is the direct reading magnetic compass made aperiodic or dead beat? Using a pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly. Using the lower possible viscosity liquid in the compass. Using short magnets. Positioning the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping wires. Isogonals converge at the? Magnetic equator. North magnetic pole only. North and South magnetic poles only. North and South geographic and magnetic poles. Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time? Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase. Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase or decrease. Increases in the magnetic field, cause it to increase. Reduction in the magnetic field, cause it do decrease. What is the compass heading if true track is 348 o, drift is 17 o left, variation is 32 o W, and deviation is 4o? 009 o. 033 o. 339 o. 337 o. The value of magnetic variation? Must be 0 o at the magnetic equator. Varies between a maximum of 45 o East and 45 o West. Cannot exceed 90 o. Jas a maximum of 180 o. At what point on the earth is a magnetic compass most effective? At the geographic equator. Close to the magnetic North Pole. Close to the magnetic South Pole. Approximately midway between the magnetic poles. Which of the following is true of the value of magnetic variation? It is 0o at the magnetic equator. It varies between 45o East and 45oWest. It cannot exceed 90o. It cannot exceed 180o. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the initial heading was 135o after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read?

a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b. c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27 a. b. c. d. Q.28 a. b. c. d.

225 o. Less than 225 o. More or less than 225 o depending on the pendulous suspension used. More than 225 o When suing a direct reading magnetic compass in the northern hemisphere? A longitudinal acceleration on a Westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the South A longitudinal acceleration of an Easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the North A longitudinal deceleration of a Westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the North A longitudinal acceleration on an Easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the South What is the main cause of permanent magnetism in aircraft? Electrical currents in internal wiring and electrical storms. Exposure to the terrestrial magnetic field during normal operation. The combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the terrestrial magnetic field. Hammering and the effect of the earths magnetic field, whilst under construction. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn? Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north. Clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south. Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north. Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south. What is the main advantage of a remote indicating compass compared to a direct reading compass is that it? It has less moving parts. It requires less maintenance. It magnifies the earths magnetic field in order to attain greater accuracy. It senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian. Where do the isogonal lines converge? At the both the North and South Geographic Poles. At both the North and South Magnetic Poles. Only at the magnetic equator. Only at the Magnetic North Pole. When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn? Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south. Anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north. Why are the detector units in slaved gyro compasses usually fitted in or close to the wingtips of an aircraft? In order to isolate the detector unit form the terrestrial magnetic field. In order to reduce or eliminate turning and acceleration errors. Having one detector in each wingtip, cancels out compass deviation. In order to isolate the detector unit form the aircraft deviation sources. Which of the following statements is true of the Earths magnetic field? It may be permanent, temporary, transient. It does not affect aircraft deviation. It acts like a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada. The dip angle is between the vertical and the total magnetic force.

Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a. b. c. d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d.

In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimized by? Positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft. Using a vertically mounted gyroscope. Mounting the detector unit in the wingtip. The use of repeater cards. What is the angle between True North and Magnetic North? Drift. Variation. Dip. Deviation. An aircraft using a direct reading magnetic compass in the Northern hemisphere starts a Rate 1 turn to the right from 145oC. What will be the indicated heading if it rolls out of the turn after 30 seconds? It is not possible to answer this question using the information given. Greater than 235o. Less than 235o. 235o. The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies? Inversely with the vertical component of the earths magnetic field. Directly with the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field. Directly with the vertical component of the earths magnetic field. Inversely with both the vertical and horizontal component of the earths magnetic field. An aircrafts compass must be swung? If the aircraft has been in the hanger for a long time and has been moved several times. If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering. Every maintenance inspection. After a change of theatre of operations which leads to a change of magnetic longitude. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole? 00o. 90 o. 180 o. 64 o. At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a direct reading compass? Underreads. The heading indicates a turn to the south. Indicates the correct heading. Overreads the heading. What is the name for a line of equal magnetic variation? An isocline. An isogonal. An isogriv. An isovar. The agonic line? Is midway between the magnetic North and South Poles. Follows the geographic equator. Is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South Poles. Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe and the other through the USA.

Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b. c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a.

Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have? The same variation. 0o magnetic dip. The same grivation. The same horizontal magnetic field strength. Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely correct? An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip. An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic connects place with the same magnetic field strength. An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variations; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip. An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the agonic line is the line of zero magnetic dip. An aircraft is accelerating in the Northern hemisphere heading West. Will a direct reading magnetic compass (1) over-read or under-read and (2) Indicate a turn to the north or to the south? (1) over-read (2) north (1) over-read (2) south (1) under-read (2) north (1) under-read (2) south What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass ( slaved gyrocompass over the direct reading magnetic compass? It is lighter. It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate. It senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive. It is not affected by aircraft deviation. Isogrivs on a chart indicate lines of? Zero magnetic variation. Equal magnetic dip. Equal horizontal directive force. Equal grivation. Compass deviation is defined as the angle between? True North and compass North. The horizontal and the total intensity of the earths magnetic field. Magnetic North and Compass North. True North and Magnetic North. Isogonic lines connect positions that have? The same angle of magnetic dip. The same variation. 0 o variation. The same elevation. When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to? Lag behind the turning rate of the aircraft. Indicate a turn towards the south. Turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft. Indicate a turn towards the north. When is the magnetic compass most effective? In the region of the magnetic North Pole.

b. c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c. d. Q.51 a. b. c. d. Q.52 a. b. c. d. Q.53 a. b. c. d. Q.54 a. b. c.

On the geographic equator. About midway between the magnetic poles. In the region of the magnetic South Pole. An agonic line is a line that connects? Positions that have 0o variation. Positions that have the same variation. Points of equal magnetic dip. Points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength. A direct reading compass should be swung when? The aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings. There is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude. There is a large change in magnetic longitude. The aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently moved. The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used when? Synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements. Compensating for deviation. Setting local magnetic variation. Setting the heading pointer. The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic ( dead beat) by? Using long magnets. Pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly. Keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping wires. Using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid. The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the? Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earths surface. Blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up the earths surface. Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earths surface. Blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earths surface. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives? Magnetic track. Compass heading. True heading. Magnetic course. The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called? Compass deviation. Compass error. Magnetic variation. Alignment error. Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass? Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude. After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability. Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content.

d Q.55 a. b. c. d. Q.56 a. b. c. d. Q.57 a. b. c. d. Q.58 a. b. c. d. Q.59 a. b. c. d. Q.60 a. b. c. d. Q.61 a. b. c. d. Q.62 a. b. c.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass? Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes. Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudes. Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes. Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes. Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote reading compass as compared with a standby compass? It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by pendulously suspending the detector unit. It is more reliable because it is operated electrically and power is always available from sources within the aircraft. It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass sensitivity. It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it employs, apart from the detector unit, existing aircraft equipment. Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation. The charted values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually due to? Magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or decrease. Magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase. A reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to decrease. An increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to increase. The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earths surface where? The value of magnetic variation equals 90o. A freely suspended compass needle will stand vertical. Isogonals converge. A freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal. The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is? To ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft for ease of maintenance. By having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation effects caused by the aircraft structure. To minimize the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits. To maximize the units exposure to the earths magnetic field. The main advantage of a remote indicating compass over a direct reading compass is that it? Requires less maintenance. Is able to magnify the earths magnetic field in order to attain greater accuracy. Senses , rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian. Has less moving parts. The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to? Place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft. Reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits. Facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earths magnetic field. Place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors. Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from? The combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earths magnetic field. The effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms. hammering, and the effect of the earths magnetic field, whilst under construction.

d. Q.63 a. b. c. d. Q.64 a. b. c. d. Q.65 a. b. c. d. Q.66 a. b. c. d. Q.67 a. b. c. d. Q.68 a. b. c. d. Q.69 a. b. c. d. Q.70 a. b. c. d. Q.71 a. b.

Exposure to the earths magnetic field during normal operation. Which of the following statements concerning the earths magnetic field is completely correct? Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component. The blue pole of the earths magnetic field is situated in North Canada. At the earths magnetic equator, the inclination varies depending on whether the geographic equator is north or south of the magnetic equator. The earths magnetic field can be classified as transient, semi-permanent of permanent. The lines on the earths surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called? Isogrives. Isoclines. Isogonals. Isotachs. Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern hemisphere, it can be said that? On an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South. On a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South. On a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North. On an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North. At a specific location the value of magnetic variation? Depends on the type of compass installed. Depends on the magnetic heading. Depends on the true heading. Varies slowly over time. Isogonals are lines of equal? Wind velocity. Magnetic variation. Compass deviation. Pressure. In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate? A heading of East. A decrease in heading. An increase in heading. An apparent turn to the South. A negative ( westerly) magnetic variation signifies that? Compass North is East of Magnetic North. Compass North is West of Magnetic North. True North is East of Magnetic North. True North is West of Magnetic North. The purpose of compass check swing is to? Cancel out the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field. Cancel out the effects of the magnetic field found on board the aeroplane.. Measure the angle between Magnetic North and Compass North. Cancel out the vertical component of the earths magnetic field. You are turning from 330oC to 040o in the northern hemisphere. At the time that you stop the turn, but before the compass settles down, will the compass over-read or under-read(i), and will liquid swirl tend to increase or decrease the error(ii)? (i) Over-read (ii) Decrease. (i) Over-read (ii) Increase.

c. d. Q.72 a. b. c. d. Q.73 a. b. c. d. Q.74 a. b. c. d. Q.75 a. b. c. d. Q.76 a. b. c. d. Q.77 a. b. c. d. Q.78 a. b. c. d. Q.79 a. b. c. d. Q.80 a. b. c.

(i) Under-read (ii) Decrease. (i) Under-read (ii) Increase. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is? Inversely proportional to the horizontal and vertical components of the earths magnetic field. Directly proportional to the horizontal and vertical components of the earths magnetic field. Proportional to the horizontal components of the earths magnetic field. Proportional to the vertical components of the earths magnetic field. The magnitude of variation? has a maximum of 90o. has a maximum of 180o. Is zero at the equator. has a maximum value of 45o E or 45o W. Which of the following statements about the earths magnetic field is most accurate? It has no effect on aircraft deviation. It may be permanent, temporary or transient. It acts as if there were a large red magnetic pole in northern Canada. The dip angle is the angle between the total magnetic field and the earth horizontal. At the magnetic equator? Variation is zero. Deviation is zero. Dip is zero. The agonic line is also an isogonal line. Which of the following is the best definition of magnetic variation? The angle between the magnetic heading and the magnetic north. The angle between the magnetic north and the true north. The angle between the true north and the compass north. The angle between the direction indicated on a magnetic compass and magnetic north. At which point on the surface of the earth is a magnetic compass most effective? On the geographical equator. close to the magnetic north pole. Close to the magnetic South Pole. Approximately midway between the magnetic poles. Which of the following statements about the earths magnetic field is most accurate? It has no effect on aircraft deviation. It may be permanent, temporary or transient. It acts as if there were a large blue magnetic pole in northern Canada. The dip angle is the angle between the total magnetic field and the earth vertical. An aircraft is accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere. Will the compass be over-reading or under-reading (i) and will it indicate a turn to the north or south (ii)? (i) Over-reading (ii) South turn. (i) Over-reading (ii) North Turn. (i) Under-reading (ii) South turn. (i) Under-reading (ii) North turn. What advantage does the remote indicating or slaved gyro compass have in comparison to the direct reading magnetic compass? Not affected by deviation. Lighter. More accurate because it is not connected to any source of electrical power.

d. Q.81 a. b. c. d. Q.82 a. b. c. d. Q.83 a. b. c. d. Q.84 a. b. c. d. Q.85 a. b. c. d. Q.86 a. b. c. d. Q.87 a. b. c. d. Q.88 a. b. c. d. Q.89 a.

Is more sensitive because it senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeking it. An aircraft is on a heading of 135oC using a direct reading magnetic compass in the northern hemisphere. After carrying out a rate 1 turn for 30 seconds on what indicated heading should it roll out of the turn? 225. More than 225. Less than 225. It is not possible to answer this question using the data provided. What are indicated by isogrive on a chart? Lines of equal grivation. Lines of zero magnetic variation. Lines of equal magnetic dip.. Lines of equal effect horizontal magnetic force. The variation is 20oE and you are heading 345oM when you take a radar bearing of an island which is 30o left of the nose. What bearing do you plot? 155oT 160oT 170oT 180oT The agonic line? Follows the geographical equator. Follows two separate paths out of the North polar regions. One currently passes through the USA while the other passes through Western Europe. Is midway between the magnetic north and South Poles. Is the shorter of the distance between the true and Magnetic North and South Poles. What is the angle between True North and Magnetic North known as? Alignment error. Dip. Deviation. Variation. Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time? Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease. Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease. Movement of the magnetic poles causing an increase. Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase. Where do isogonal lines converge? At the North and South Magnetic Poles. At the Magnetic equator. A the North Magnetic Pole. At the North and South Magnetic and Geographical Poles. Why are the detector units of a slaved gyro-compass system usually located in or near to the aircraft wingtips? Having one detector unit in each wingtip, cancels out compass deviations. To isolate the detector unit from the aircraft deviation sources. To isolate the detector unit from the magnetic field of the Earth. To minimize turning and acceleration errors. What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle? 45o.

b. c. d. Q.90 a. b. c. d. Q.91 a. b. c. d. Q.92 a. b. c. d. Q.93 a. b. c. d. Q.94 a. b. c. d. Q.95 a. b. c. d. Q.96 a. b. c. d. Q.97 a. b. c. d.

66o 90o. 180o When must the compass of an aircraft be swung? If the aircraft has been in the hanger for a long time and has been moved several times. After a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude. If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering. Every maintenance inspection. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole? 0o. 64o. 90o. 180o. What is the title of a line of equal magnetic variation? An isocline. An isobar. An isogonal. An isogriv. How is the direct reading magnetic compass made to be aperiodic ( dead beat)? using long magnets. Using a pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly. using the lowest practicable viscosity compass liquid. By keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping wires. If variation is West? True North is West of Magnetic North. True North is East of Magnetic North. Magnetic North is West of Compass North. Compass North is West of Magnetic North. Which of the following conversions from True to Compass is correct? T V M D C 130 2W 132 +1 131. 130 2E 132 +1 131. 130 2W 132 +1 133. 130 2E 132 +1 133. What will be the effect on its direct reading compass when an aircraft on the Equator accelerates whilst traveling westwards. No change. indicates a decrease in heading. indicates a increase in heading. indicates a apparent turn to the North. Given: Magnetic heading 311o, Drift angle 10o left, Relative bearing of NDB 270o, What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft? 208o. 211o. 180o. 221o.

A ground feature appears 30o to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355o. (M) and the magnetic variation is 15o. East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is? a. 310o. b. 130o. c. 160o. d. 220o. Q.99 An aircraft is over position HO ( 55o 30N 060 o 15W), where YYR VOR ( 53 o 30N 060 o 15W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31 o W at HO and 28 o W at YYR. What is the radial from YYR? a. 031o. b. 332o. c. 028o. d. 208o. Q.100 The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called? a. Drift. b. Variation. c. Deviation. d. Compass error. Q.98

DESCENTS Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. At what approximate distance from the threshold would an aircraft intercept the glide path if the aircraft height is 2500 feet, and the ILS glide path angle is 3o? 7.0 nm. 7.8 nm. 13.0 n.m. 14.5 nm. Convert 70 meters/ second into knots? 35 kts. 55 kts. 136 kts.

d. Q.3 a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d.

146 kts. If there is a 10 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 30 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 30 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 50 ft/ min. It must be increased by 50 ft/ min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 540 knots? 3130 ft/ min. 4830 ft/ min. 6550 ft/ min. 8740 ft/ min. An aircraft flying down a 3o ILS glideslope is at 25 nm DME from the threshold. Using the 1 in 60 rule and approximating 1 nm to 6000 ft, calculate the aircraft height above the runway threshold, assuming that the ILS glidepath crosses the threshold a t height of 50 ft? 6450 ft. 7455 ft. 7650 ft. 8015 ft. 730 FT/MIN equals? 5.2 m/sec. 1.6 m/sec. 2.2 m/sec. 3.7 m/sec. If there is a 15 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be decreased by 79 ft/ min. It must be increased by 79 ft/ min. It must be increased by 35 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 35 ft/ min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down 10o glide slope, at a groundspeed of 500 knots? 7440 ft/min. 5900 ft/min. 6500 ft/min. 8440 ft/min. An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at FL120. If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is approximately? 1650 FT/MIN. 2400 FT/MIN 1000 FT/MIN. 1550 FT/MIN An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt. The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately? 4550 FT/MIN. 3900 FT/MIN 6500 FT/MIN. 650 FT/MIN

Q.11 a. b. c. d. Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d. Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 a. b. c. d.

If there is a 25 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be decreased by 125 ft/ min. It must be increased by 125 ft/ min. It must be increased by 135 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 135 ft/ min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 5% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 450 knots? 1540 ft/min. 1750 ft/min. 2175 ft/min. 2124 ft/min. At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, is on the direct track to VOR X 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR X at FL80. For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt, the latest time at which to commence descent is? 0451. 0454. 0445. 0448. An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain. Its height is approximately? 3640 Ft. 2210 FT. 680 Ft. 1890 FT. If there is a 10 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 30 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 30 ft/ min. It must be increased by 50 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 50 ft/ min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 8% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 400 knots? 3242 ft/min. 3500 ft/min. 4320 ft/min. 3420 ft/min. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 1800 FT/MIN. 1900 FT/MIN. 1600 FT/MIN. 1700 FT/MIN. If there is a 15 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 50 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 50 ft/ min. It must be increased by 75 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 75 ft/ min.

Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20. a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b. c. d. Q.22. a. b. c. d. Q.23. a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d.

An aircraft at FL 290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80. The mean GS during descent is 271 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 1800 FT/MIN. 1900 FT/MIN. 1900 FT/MIN. 1700 FT/MIN. The equivalent of 70m/sec is approximately? 136 kt. 145 kt. 210 kt. 35 kt. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 10% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 350 knots? 3000 ft/min. 3405 ft/min. 3545 ft/min. 3455 ft/min. An aircraft at FL 330 is required to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100. The mean GS during descent is 330 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 1850 FT/MIN. 1950 FT/MIN. 1650 FT/MIN. 1750 FT/MIN. If there is a 20 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 210 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 210 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 100 ft/ min. It must be increased by 100 ft/ min. Assuming zero wind, what distance is covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN? 16.0 NM. 26.7 NM. 19.2 NM. 38.4 NM. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 7% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 250 knots? 1575 ft/min. 1737 ft/min. 1773 ft/min. 1377 ft/min. An aircraft at FL 370 is required to commence descent when 120 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL130. The mean GS during descent is 288 kt. the minimum rate of descent required is? 860 FT/MIN. 890 FT/MIN. 920 FT/MIN. 960 FT/MIN.

Q.27 a. b. c. d. Q.28 a. b. c. d. Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d.

If there is a 20 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 210 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 210 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 100 ft/ min. It must be increased by 100 ft/ min. Given: Aircraft height 2500 FT, ILS GP angle 3o. At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP? 8.3 NM. 7.0 NM. 13.1 NM. 14.5 NM. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 240 knots? 2198 ft/min. 2189 ft/min. 2819 ft/min. 2918 ft/ min. Given ILS GP angle= 3.5 DEG, GS= 150 kt, Approximate rate of descent is? 900 FT/MIN. 1000 FT/MIN. 700 FT/MIN. 800 FT/MIN. If there is a 17 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 58 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 58 ft/ min. It must be increased by 85 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 85 ft/ min. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is? 69 NM. 79 NM. 49 NM. 59 NM. An aircraft at FL 390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 248 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence is? 68 NM. 53 NM. 58 NM. 63 NM. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 8% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 340 knots? 2577 ft/min. 2757 ft/min. 2755 ft/min. 2775 ft/min.

Q.35 a. b. c. d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d.

An aircraft at FL 350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt. The minimum rate of descent required is? 1340 FT/MIN. 1390 FT/MIN. 1240 FT/MIN. 1290 FT/MIN. Given: TAS = 197 Kt, True course = 240o, W/V = 180/ 30 kt. Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM. What is the approximate rate of descent? 800 FT/MIN. 950 FT/MIN. 1500 FT/MIN. 1400 FT/MIN. By what amount must you change the rate of descent to maintain a 3o glideslope if you meet an increase in headwind of 10 knots? 30 feet per minute increase. 30 feet per minute decrease. 50 feet per minute increase. 50 feet per minute decrease. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 150 knots? 1823 ft/min. 1283 ft/min. 1382 ft/min. 1832 ft/min. When 65 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL 330 with the intention of arriving at the VOR at FL100. What rate of descent is required if your mean ground speed is 240 knots? 1259 ft/min. 1420 ft/min. 1650 ft/min 1800 ft/min. What is the rate of descent on a 12% glide slope if groundspeed is 540 knots? 3150 ft/min. 4620 ft/min. 6550 ft/min. 8640 ft/min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a ground speed of 175 knots? 2127 ft/min. 2217 ft/min. 1227 ft/min. 7122 ft/min. At 100 nm from a VOR an aircraft commences a descent from FL330 in order to arrive overhead the VOR at FL100. What rate of descent is required if the mean groundspeed in the descent is to be 240 knots? 1300 ft/min. 920 ft/min. 1130 ft/min. 820 ft/min.

Q.43 a. b. c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b. c. d. Q.47

a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b.

An aircraft is on an ILS 3 degree glideslope, which passes over the runway threshold at a height of 50 feet. The DME range is 25 nm from the threshold. What is the height above the runway threshold elevation? ( Use the 1 in 60 rule and the approximation 6000 feet = 1 nautical mile) 6550 feet. 7450 feet. 7550 feet. 8110 feet. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 5% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 540 knots? 2375 ft/min. 2537 ft/min. 2735 ft/min. 2573 ft/min. For an aircraft at a height of 2500 feet, interception of a 3o ILS glide path will occur at approximately? 7.0 nm from the threshold. 8.0 nm from the threshold. 13.1 nm from the threshold. 14.5 nm from the threshold. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 6% glide slope, at a ground speed of 500 knots. 3903 ft/min. 3309 ft/min. 3039 ft/min. 9303 ft/min. At 0430 an aircraft is in level cruise flight at groundspeed of 350 knots, at FL370, 185 nm from a VOR. It is required to descend at a mean rate of 1800 feet/min, to be at FL 80 overhead the VOR. What is the latest time to commence descent, if the mean ground speed in the descent is to be 232 knots? 0456. 0432. 0451. 0421. When 65 nm form VOR you commence a descent from FL330 with the intention of arriving at the VOR at FL100. What rate of descent is required if your mean ground speed is 340 knots? 1500 ft/min. 1750 ft/min. 2000 ft/min. 2100 ft/min. At 75 nm from a VOR an aircraft commences a descent from FL350 in order to arrive overhead the VOR at FL120. What rate of descent is required if the mean groundspeed in the descent is to be 250 knots? 1500 ft/min. 1474 ft/min. 1744 ft/min. 1447 ft/min. An aircraft is on an ILS 3 degree glideslope, which passes over the runway threshold at a height of 50 feet. The DME range is 25 nm from the threshold. What is the height above the runway threshold elevation?( Use the 1 in 60 rule and the approximation 6000 feet = 1 nautical mile) 7550 feet. 8110 feet.

c. d. Q.51 a. b. c. d. Q.52 a. b. c. d. Q.53 a. b. c. d. Q.54 a. b. c. d. Q.55 a. b. c. d. Q.56 a. b. c. d. Q.57 a. b. c. d. Q.58 a. b. c. d.

6550 feet. 7450 feet. At what approximate distance from the threshold would an aircraft intercept the glide path if the aircraft height is 2500 feet, and the ILS glide path angle is 8o? 2.8 nm. 3.1 nm. 8.0 nm. 4.5 nm. Convert 95 meters/ second into knots? 135 kts. 155 kts. 185 kts. 166 kts. If there is a 12 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 35 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 35 ft/ min. It must be decreased by 61 ft/ min. It must be increased by 61 ft/ min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 7% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 540 knots? 3130 ft/min. 4830 ft/min. 3830 ft/min. 3740 ft/min. An aircraft flying down a 3o ILS glideslope is at 35 nm DME from the threshold. Using the 1 in 60 rule and approximating 1 nm to 6000 ft, calculate the aircraft height above the runway threshold, assuming that the ILS glidepath crosses the threshold at a height of 50 ft? 6450 ft. 7455 ft. 10550 ft. 10015 ft. 850 FT/MIN equals? 5.2 m/sec. 4.6 m/sec. 3.2 m/sec. 4.3 m/sec. If there is a 35 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be decreased by 186 ft/min. It must be increased by 186 ft/min. It must be increased by 235 ft/min. It must be decreased by 235 ft/min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 10o glide slope, at a groundspeed of 400 knots? 6440 ft/min. 6900 ft/min. 6700 ft/min. 6753 ft/min.

Q.59 a. b. c. d. Q.60 a. b. c. d. Q.61 a. b. c. d. Q.62 a. b. c. d. Q.63 a. b. c. d. Q.64 a. b. c. b. Q.65 a. b. c. d. Q.66 a. b. c. b.

An aircraft at FL 370 is required to commence descent when 120 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at FL 100. If the mean GS during the descent is 390 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is approximately? 1460 FT/MIN. 1400 FT/MIN. 1500 FT/MIN. 1550 FT/MIN. An aircraft is descending down a 10% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt., The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately? 4500 FT/MIN. 5900 FT/MIN. 5470 FT/MIN. 5650 FT/MIN. If there is a 5 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope It must be decreased by 25 ft/min. It must be increased by 25 ft/min. It must be increased by 35 ft/min. It must be decreased by 35 ft/min. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 5.5% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 450 knots? 2540 ft/Min. 2290 ft/Min. 2390 ft/Min. 2324 ft/Min. At 0400 an aircraft at FL 370, GS 420 kt. Is on the direct track to VOR X 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VORX at FL80. For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 250 kt, the latest time at which to commence descent is? 0451. 0434. 0417. 0428. An aircraft maintaining a 5.5% gradient is at 9 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain. Its height is approximately? 2640 FT. 2870 FT. 2680 FT. 2830 FT. If there is a 45 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 130 ft/min. It must be decreased by 130 ft/min. It must be increased by 225 ft/min. It must be decreased by 225 ft/min What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 7.5% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 400 knots? 3040 ft/min. 3100 ft/min 4170 ft/min. 3020 ft/min

Q.67 a. b. c. d. Q.68 a. b. c. d. Q.69 a. b. c. d. Q.70 a. b. c. d. Q.71 a. b. c. d. Q.72 a. b. c. d. Q.73 a. b. c. d. Q.74 a. b. c. d.

An aircraft at FL 350 is required to commence descent when 105 NM from a VOR facility and to cross the VOR at FL 80. If the mean GS for the descent is 370 kt, What is the minimum rate of descent required ? 1955 FT/MIN. 1855 FT/MIN. 1920 FT/MIN. 1790 FT/MIN. If there is a 65 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 255 ft/min. It must be decreased by 255 ft/min. It must be decreased by 325 ft/min. It must be increased by 325 ft/min An aircraft at FL 290 is required to commence descent when 75 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 290 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 1855 FT/MIN. 1355 FT/MIN. 2055 FT/MIN. 1700 FT/MIN. The equivalent of 170 m/sec is approximately? 330 kt. 345 kt. 300 kt. 355 kt. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 10% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 450 knots? 5000ft/min. 4405ft/min. 4560ft/min. 4455ft/min. An aircraft at FL330 is required to commence descent when 95 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100. The mean GS during the descent is 360 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 1485 FT/MIN. 1455 FT/MIN. 1650 FT/MIN. 1750 FT/MIN. If there is a 12 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 42 ft/min. It must be decreased by 42 ft/min. It must be decreased by 60 ft/min. It must be increased by 60 ft/min. Assuming zero wind, what distance is covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 375 kt and maintaining rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN? 23.35 NM. 31.25 NM. 29.25 NM. 38.45 NM.

Q.75 a. b. c. d. Q.76 a. b. c. d. Q.77 a. b. c. d. Q.78 a. b. c. d. Q.79 a. b. c. d. Q.80 a. b. c. d. Q.81 a. b. c. d. Q.82 a. b. c. d.

What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 7% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 375 knots? 2575ft/min. 2737ft/min. 2660ft/min. 2377ft/min. An aircraft at FL 370 is required to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL130. The mean GS for the descent is 290 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? 1860 FT/MIN. 1895 FT/MIN. 1920 FT/MIN. 1791 FT/MIN. If there is a 22 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 120 ft/min. It must be decreased by 120 ft/min. It must be increased by 110 ft/min. It must be decreased by 110 ft/min. Given: Aircraft height 3000 FT, ILS GP angle 3o. At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP? 9.9 NM. 9.0 NM. 9.1 NM. 9.5 NM. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 340 knots? 4190ft/min. 2190ft/min. 2925ft/min. 4135ft/min. Given : ILF GPP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS= 250 kt, Approximate rate of descent is? 1480 FT/MIN. 1400 FT/MIN. 1780 FT/MIN. 1800 FT/MIN. If there is a 27 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to maintain a 3o glideslope? It must be increased by 158 ft/min. It must be decreased by 158 ft/min. It must be increased by 135 ft/min. It must be decreased by 135 ft/min. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL 80. Maximum rate of descent is 2000 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 275 kt. The minimum range form the DME at which descent should start is? 62 NM. 69 NM. 49 NM. 59 NM.

Q.83 a. b. c. d. Q.84 a. b. c. d. Q.85 a. b. c. d. Q.86 a. b. c. d. Q.87 a. b. c. d. Q.88 a. b. c. d. Q.89 a. b. c. d. Q.90 a. b. c. d.

An aircraft at FL 390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL 70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 290 kt. The minimum range form the DME at which descent should commence is? 68 NM. 62 NM. 58 NM. 73 NM. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 8% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 240 knots? 1577ft/min. 1757ft/min. 1945ft/min. 1975ft/min. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL 110 and to commence descent when 125 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent is 350kt. the minimum rate of descent required is? 1120 FT/MIN. 1290 FT/MIN. 1140 FT/MIN. 1190 FT/MIN. Given : TAS= 197 kt, True course= 240o, W/V= 180/30 kt. Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 50 NM. What is the approximate rate of descent? 1800ft/min. 950ft/min. 1200ft/min. 1092ft/min. By what amount must you change the rate of descent of maintain a 3o glideslope if you meet an increase in headwind of 14 knots? 50 feet per minute increase. 50 feet per minute decrease. 70 feet per minute increase. 70 feet per minute decrease. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 350 knots? 4255ft/min. 4283ft/min. 4382ft/min. 4832ft/min. When 95 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL 330 with the intention of arriving at the VOR at FL 100. What rate of descent is required if your mean ground speed is 250 knots? 1059ft/min. 1010ft/min. 1150ft/min. 1100ft/min. What will be the rate of descent on a 12% glide slope if groundspeed is 320 knots? 3750ft/min. 3620ft/min. 3890ft/min. 3640ft/min.

Q.91 a. b. c. d. Q.92 a. b. c. d. Q.93 a. b. c. d. Q.94 a. b. c. d. Q.95 a. b. c. d. Q.96 a. b. c. d. Q.97

a. b. c. d. Q.98 a. b. c. d.

What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 375 knots? 4560ft/min. 4217ft/min. 4227ft/min. 4422ft/min. At 80 nm from a VOR an aircraft commences a descent from FL330 in order to arrive overhead the VOR at FL100. What rate of descent is required if the mean groundspeed in the descent is to be 240 knots? 1300ft/min. 1150ft/min. 1120ft/min. 1020ft/min. An aircraft is on an ILS 3 degree glideslope, which passes over the runway threshold at a height of 50 feet. The DME range is 15 nm from the threshold. What is the height above the runway threshold elevation? (Use the 1 in 60 rule and the approximation 6000 feet = 1 nautical mile) 3550 feet. 4450 feet. 4550 feet. 4310 feet. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 5% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 175 knots? 1375ft/min. 537ft/min. 886ft/min. 973ft/min. For an aircraft at a height of 1500 feet, interception of a 3o ILS glide path will occur at approximately? 7.0 nm from the threshold. 5.0 nm from the threshold. 6.0 nm from the threshold. 4.5 nm from the threshold. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 6% glide slope, at a groundspeed of 250 knots? 1403ft/min. 1509ft/min. 1520ft/min. 1303ft/min. At 0430 an aircraft is in level cruise flight at groundspeed of 350 knots, at FL370, 165 nm from a VOR. It is required to descend at a mean rate of 1800 feet/ min, to be at FL 80 overhead the VOR. What is the latest time to commence descent, if the mean ground speed in the descent is to be 200 knots? 0456. 0439. 0449. 0421. When 85 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL 330 with the intention of arriving at the VOR at FL 100. What rate of descent is required if your mean ground speed is 340 knots? 1503ft/min. 1650ft/min. 1633ft/min. 1533ft/min.

Q.99

At 105 nm from a VOR an aircraft commences a descent from FL350 in order to arrive overhead the VOR at FL120. What rate of descent is required if the mean groundspeed in the descent is to be 250 knots? a. 950ft/min. b. 913ft/min. c. 744ft/min. d. 847ft/min. Q.100 An aircraft is on an ILS 3 degree glideslope, which passes over the runway threshold at a height of 50 feet. The DME range is 18 nm from the threshold. What is the height above the runway threshold elevation? (Use the 1 in 60 rule and the approximation 6000 feet = 1 nautical mile) a. 5522 feet. b. 5110 feet. c. 6550 feet. d. 5650 feet.

INS IRS FMS EFIS Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. d. Q.3 Gyro compassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode selector switched to? ALIGN. STBY. NAV ATT FEF. Which of the following lists all of the methods that can be used to enter Created Waypoints into the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? Identifier range, location name; Height above MSL; latitude and longitude. Identifier bearing /distance; place bearing/ place bearing; along-track displacement; latitude and longitude. Identifier name and range; location name; Height above MSL; latitude and longitude. Identifier grid reference, location name, Height above MSL, latitude and Rhumb line position. Some inertial reference and navigation system are known as strapdown. This means that?

a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d. Q.11 a. b. c. d.

The accelerometers are fixed to the aircraft structure but the gyros are stabilised. The gyro are stabilized but the accelerometers are fixed to the aircraft structure. The gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the units fixture to the aircraft structure. The indicator units are strapped to the aircraft structure. As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35o32.7N 139 o 46.3W are input instead of 35 o 32.7N 139 o 46.3E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point 52 o N 180 o W, the longitude value shown on the INS will be? 099 o 32.6E. 099 o 32.6W. 199 o 32.6W. 299 o 32.6W. In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device? With damping and a period of 84.4 MIN. With damping and a period of 84.4 SEC. With damping and a period of 48.4 MIN. With damping and a period of 48.4 SEC. In what way does IRS differ from INS? Has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock. Does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration. Has longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity. Does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down. Which of the following statements in true of a Ring Laser Gyro? It is not necessarily fixed to true north and is quick to erect. It is fixed to true north and is quick to erect . It doesnt suffer from lock in and is unaffected by the earths gravitational force. It is not necessarily fixed to true north but takes along time to erect. In a laser reference system (IRS), as compared to gyro reference system (INS): The accelerometers are strapped down but the platform gyro stabilized. Accelerometers and platform are both strapped down. The platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised Accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised. In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither motor is to: Compensate for transport wander. Stabilise the laser frequencies. Enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates. Overcome laser lock. A pilot turns off the power to his IRS whilst in flight. He switches it on again after just a few seconds. What will be the effect? It can be repositioned whilst in flight. There will be no effect. It cannot be used and must be shut down. It cannot be used for navigation, but can be used to provide attitude information. In which IRS mode does gyro- compassing take place? ATT ALIGN. ON. NAV.

Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d. Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 a. b. c. d. Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20 a. b. c. d.

A gyro is said to drift when its spin axis moves in the? Horizontal and vertical. Neither, because its definition is not related to these axes. Horizontal. Vertical. What do the sensors of an INS measure? Acceleration. The horizontal component of the earths rotation. Velocity. Precession. The IRS position is updated? Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over- flying a known position (VOR station or NDB) IRS positions are updated by pressing the Take-off/ Go-around button at the start of the take-off roll. During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC. Only on the ground during alignment procedure. Some inertial reference systems are known as strap down. This means: The system is mounted on a stabilized platform. The gyros are fixed but the accelerometers are stabilized. The system is mounted and fixed to the aircraft structure. The accelerometers are fixed but the gyros are stabilized. Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE gives: Vehicle longitude. Distance east/west. Distance north/south. Velocity east/west. The principle of Schuler Tuning as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to: Only gyro-stabilised systems. Both gyro-stabilised platform and strapdown systems. Both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non strapdown mode. Only to strapdown laser gyro systems. In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), what is the output of the first stage North/South integrator? Velocity along the local meridian. Groundspeed. Latitude. Change of latitude. Alignment of INS and IRS equipments can take place in which of the following modes? ALIGN only. ALIGN and .ATT ATT and ALGN. NAV and ALIGN. On a triple-fit IRS system, present positions on the CDU? Are likely to differ as the information comes from different sources. Will only differ if one IRS has been decoupled due to a detected malfunction. Will only differ if an initial input error of aircraft position has been made. Will not differ as the information is averaged.

Q.21

What are the positions ( in the order left to right ) on the Boeing 737-400 IRS Mode Selector Unit (MSU)? a. OFF STBY ATT NAV b. OFF ALIGN NAV ATT c. OFF STBY NAV ATT d. OFF STBY ALIGN NAV Q.22 Gyro-compassing in an INS? a. It is not possible in flight because the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. b. Is possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. c. Is possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors d. Is not possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. Q.23 In an INS/IRS, an azimuth gyro is found to have a drift rate, If t is the time since selecting the MSU from ALIGN to NAV the azimuth gyro heading error is? a. Proportional to t. b. Proportional to the square root of t. c. Proportional to t/2. d. Sinusoidal. Q.24. On the IRS, Selection of ATT mode gives attitude? a. Altitude, and heading. b. Only. c. And heading. d. Heading, and groundspeed. Q.25 How long does it take to align an IRS(Laser Ring Gyros)? a. 1 minute. b. 5 minutes. c. 10 minutes. d. 15 minutes. Q.26 What is the purpose of the piezo-electric motor in an IRS system? a. Dither. b. Vibrate. c. Shake. d. Shudder. Q.27 In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an Aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device? a. Without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN. b. Without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC. c. With damping and a period of 84.4 MIN. d. With damping and a period of 84.4 SEC. Q.28 The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right angles to the local vertical by applying corrections for the effects of? a. Aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis. b. Movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation. c. Gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift. d. Vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport drift.

Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30

In an Inertial Navigation System(INS), Ground Speed(GS) is calculated? By integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively. From TAS and WN from Air Data Computer (ADC). By integrating measured acceleration. From TAS and WN from RNAV data An aircraft equipped with an Inertial navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from way-point A to B. The inertial systems, Central Display Units (CDU) show? XTK on INS 1 = 0 XTK on INS 2 = 8L (XTK = cross track)

a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a. b. c. d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a.

What can be deduced from this information? Only inertial navigation system No. 1 is drifting. At least one of the inertial navigation systems in drifting. Only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting. The autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode. If an IRS loses its position mid-flight it must? Not be used in N A V mode. Be turned OFF Have a new position inserted. Be selected to ALIGN and then to N A V. What does INS need for wind calculations? EAS TAS Mach Number. Heading. What do you call a system of gyros and accelerometers that is fixed to the aircraft? Laser. Stabilised. Fixed. Strapdown. When is the last point at which an INS or IRS may be selected to NAV mode? After passengers and freight are aboard. Immediately prior to push back or taxi from the gate. At the holding point. On operation of TOGA switch when opening the throttles for the take-off. In what form are positions entered in all INS systems? Geographic coordinates. Ranges and bearings. Way point names. Hexadecimals. Which mode selection on the CDU of an INS is required to display initial Great Circle track? HDG\DA. DSRTK\STS. TK\GS. XTK\TKE. An IRS differs from an INS in that it? Has a longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity.

b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b. c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b.

Does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration. Does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down. Has a shorter spin- up time and suffers from laser lock. Which of the following statements is true of Ring Laser Gyro? Ito doesnt suffer from lock in and is unaffected by the earths gravitational force. It is not necessary fixed to true north but takes long time to erect It is not necessary fixed to true north and is quick to erect. It is fixed to true north and is quick to erect. In a laser reference system (IRS), as compared to a gyro reference system (INS): The accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilized. Accelerometers and platform are both strapped down. The platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised. Accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised. The dither motor in a ring laser gyro sis used to? Compensate for transport wander. Stabilise the laser frequencies. Enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates. Overcome laser lock. A pilot turns off his IRS whilst in flight, then switches it on again after just a few seconds. What will be the effect? It can be repositioned whilst in flight There will be no effect. It cannot be used and must be shut down. It cannot be used for navigation, but can be used to provide attitude information. In which IRS mode does gyro-compassing take place? ATT ALIGN. ON. NAV Gyro drift occurs when the spin axis moves in the ? Horizontal and vertical. Neither, because its definition is not related to these axes. Horizontal. Vertical. What do the sensors of an INS measure? Acceleration The horizontal component of the earths rotation. Velocity. Precession Where and when are the IRS positions updated? During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC Only on the ground during the alignment procedure. Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position(VOR station or (NDB). IRS positions are updated by pressing the Take-off/ Go- around button at the start of the take-off roll. Some inertial reference systems are known as strapdown . This mean: The system is mounted on a stabilized platform. The gyros are fixed but the accelerometers are stabilized.

c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c. d. Q.51 a. b. c. d. Q.52 a. b. c. d. Q.53 a. b. c. d. Q.54 a.

The system is mounted and fixed to the aircraft structure. The accelerometers are fixed but the gyros are stabilized. What is produced by double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) when it is in the NAV MODE? Distance north/south. Velocity east/west. Vehicle longitude. Distance east/west. The principle of Schuler Tuning as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/Inertial Reference Systems in applicable to: Only gyro-stabilised systems. Both gyro-stabilisd platform and strapdown systems. Both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non strapdown mode. Only to strapdown laser gyro systems. In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), what is the output of the first stage North/South integrator? Velocity along the local meridian. Groundspeed. Latitude. Change of latitude. Alignment of INS and IRS equipments can take place in which of the following modes? ATT and ALIGN. NAV and ALIGN. ALIGN only. ALIGN and ATT. On an aircraft equipped with a triple-fit IRS system, present positions on the CDU? Will only differ if an initial input error of aircraft position has been made. Will not differ as the information is averaged. Are likely to differ as the information comes from different sources. Will only differ if one IRS has been decoupled due to a detected malfunction. What are the positions ( in the order left to right) on the Boeing 737-400 IRS Mode Selector Unit (MSU)? OFF STBY ATT NAV. OFF STBY NAV ATT. OFF STBY ALIGN NAV. OFF ALIGN NAV ATT. Gyro-compassing in an INS? It is not possible in flight because the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. Is possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. Is possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors Is not possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. If t is the time since selecting the MSU from ALIGN to NAV the azimuth gyro heading error caused by drift rate of an INS/IRS azimuth gyro is? Proportional to t/2

b. c. d. Q.55 a. b. c. d. Q.56 a. b. c. d. Q.57 a. b. c. d. Q.58 a. b. c. d. Q.59 a. b. c. d. Q.60 a. b. c. d. Q.61

Sinusoidal. Proportional to t. Proportional to the square root of t. On the IRS, selection of ATT mode gives attitude? Altitude, and heading. Only. And heading. Heading, and groundspeed. How long does it take to align an IRS ( Laser Ring Gyros)? 10 minutes. 15 minutes. 1 minute. 5 minutes. What principle is utilized by the piezo-electric motor in an IRS system? Shake. Shudder. Dither. Vibrate. By what means is an accurate vertical maintained using a pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device? With damping and a period of 84.4 MIN. With damping and a period of 84.4 SEC. Without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN. Without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC. The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right angles to the local vertical by applying corrections to counter the effects of? Gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift. Vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport drift. Aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis. Movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation. In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground speed (GS) is calculated? By integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively. From TAS and WN from Air Data Computer (ADC). By integrating measured acceleration. from TAS and WN form RNAV data. An aircraft equipped with an Inertial navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems, Central Display Units (CDU) show? XTK on INS 1 = 0 XTK on INS 2 = 15L (XTK = cross track)

a. b. c. d. Q.62 a.

What can be deduced from this information? Only inertial navigation system No. 1 is drifting. Only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting. The autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode At least one of the inertial navigation systems in drifting. If an IRS loses its position mid-flight it must? Not be used in NAV mode.

b. c. d. Q.63 a. b. c. d. Q.64 a. b. c. d. Q.65 a. b. c. d. Q.66 a. b. c. d. Q.67 a. b. c. d. Q.68. a. b. c. d. Q.69 a. b. c. d. Q.70 a. b. c. d. Q.71

Be turned OFF. Have a new position inserted. Be selected to ALIGN and then to NAV. What does INS need for wind calculations? EAS. TAS. Mach Number. Heading. What do you call a system of gyros and accelerometers that is fixed to the aircraft? Laser. Stabilised. Fixed. Strapdown. The latest point at which an INS or IRS may be selected to NAV mode is? At the holding point. On operation of TOGA switch when opening the throttles for the take-off. After passengers and freight are aboard. Immediately prior to push back or taxi from the gate. What format is used to enter positions into INS systems? Waypoint names. Hexadecimals. Ranges and bearings. Geographic coordinates. Which mode on the CDU of an INS must be selected in order to display initial Great Circle track? DSRTK\STS TK\GS. XTK\TKE. HDG\DA. When can a pilot change the data in the FMS database? Every 28 days. When it is deemed to be necessary. When there is a fault. Never, because the FMS database is read -only The FMC position is? The average of the IRS positions. Computer generated from the radio navigation positions. Half way between the IRS and radio navigation positions. Computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions. What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management System(FMS)? The main directional gyro, which is coupled to the magnetic sensor ( flux valve) positioned in the wingtip. The FMS calculated MH and MT from the FMC position. Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS. Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading. What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?

a. b. c. d. Q.72 a. b. c. d. Q.73 a. b. c. d. Q.74 a. b. c. d. Q.75 a. b. c. d. Q.76 a. b. c. d. Q.77 a. b. c. d. Q.78 a. b. c. d. Q.79 a. b. c. d.

Warning and Advisory. Caution and Advisory. Urgent and Routine. Warning and Caution. In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during preflight to? manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information. Manually initialize the IRSs, FMC and Auto throttle with dispatch information. Automatically initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information. Manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information. The FMS on a 737-400 provides? Automatic navigation & manual performance management. Automatic navigation & automatic performance management. Manual navigation & manual performance management. Manual navigation & automatic performance management. What is the sequence of pages on start-up of the Boeing 737-400 FMS? POS INIT, IDENT, DEPARTURES. IDENT, POS INIT, RTE. POS INIT, RTE, IDENT. IDENT, POS INIT, DEPARTURES. FMC aircraft position determined by radio navigation is derived on the B737 -400 FMS from? VOR/DME. DME/ADF. VOR/VOR. DME/DME. When initial position is put into a B737-400 FMS, the system? Rejects initial latitude error, but it will accept longitude error. Rejects initial longitude error, but it will accept latitude error. Rejects initial latitude or longitude error. Cannot detect input errors, and accepts whatever is put in. The period of validity of an FMS database is? 56 days. One week. 28 days. Variable. On the Boeing 737-400 EFIS EHSI, on which modes is a Weather Radar Display available? MAP, PLAN, FULL VOR/ILS. MAP, PLAN, EXP VOR/ ILS. MAP, EXP VOR/ ILS, EXP NAV. MAP, FULL VOR/ILS, FULL NAV. In what formats can created waypoints be entered into the scratch pad of the B737-400 FMS? Place Bearing/ Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude. Place Bearing/Distance, Place Distance/Place Distance, Along=Track Displacement Latitude and Longitude. Place Bearing/ Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing, Across-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude. Place, Place Bearing/Distance, Along=Track Displacement Latitude and Longitude.

Q.80 a. b. c. d.

Which EFIS symbol below represents the selected course? A. B. ! C. D. A B C D

Q.81 a. b. c. d. Q.82 a. b. c. d. Q.83 a. b. c. d. Q.84 a. b. c. d. Q.85 a. b. c. d. Q.86 a. b. c. d. Q.87 a. b. c. d.

How does the FMS calculating groundspeed? Input form DME with change of range integrated with respect to time. Input of heading from either the IRS or gyro compass, TAS from ADC and wind velocity from selected meteorological data. Input from IRS. input from ADC of TAS and wind velocity. When can a pilot change the data in the FMS database? When there is a fault. Never, because the FMS database is read-only. Every 28 days. When it is deemed to be necessary. How is the FMC position produced? The average of the IRS positions. Computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions. computer generated from the radio navigation positions. Half way between the IRS and radio navigation positions. From what source does an FMS obtain magnetic variation information? Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS. Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading. The main direction gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor ( flux valve) positioned in the wingtip. The FMS calculated MH and MT from the FMC position. What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 EFIS? Caution and Advisory. Urgent and Routine. Warning and Caution. Warning and Advisory. The CDUs in the B737-400 Flight Management System are used during preflight to? Manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information. Manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information. Manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information. Manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information. The Boeing 737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) provides? Manual navigation & manual performance management. Manual navigation & automatic performance management. Automatic navigation & manual performance management. Automatic navigation & automatic performance management.

Q.88 a. b. c. d. Q.89 a. b. c. d. Q.90 a. b. c. d. Q.91 a. b. c. d. Q.92 a. b. c. d. Q.93 a. b. c. d.

List the sequence of pages on start-up of the Boeing 737-400 FMS? IDENT, POS INIT, RTE. POS INIT, RTE, IDENT. IDENT, POS INIT, DEPARTURES. POS INIT, IDENT, DEPARTURES. In the Boeing 737-400 aircraft the FMC aircraft position determined by radio navigation is derived from? DME/DME. VOR/DME. DME/ADE. VOR/VOR. When aligning the B737-400 FMS, the system? Rejects initial latitude or longitude error. Cannot detect input errors, and accepts whatever is put in. Rejects initial latitude error, but it will accept longitude error. Rejects initial longitude error, but it will accept latitude error. What is the period of validity of an FMS database ? 56 days. One week. 28 days. Variable In what modes is the Weather Radar Display available on the Boeing 737- 400 EFIS EHSI? MAP, EXP VOR/ILS, EXP NAV. MAP, FULL VOR/ILS, FULL NAV. MAP, PLAN, FULL VOR/ILS. MAP, PLAN, EXP VOR/ILS. In what formats can created waypoints be entered into the scratch pad of the B737-400 FMS? Place Bearing/ Distance, Place Distance/Place Distance, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude. Place Bearing/Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing, Across-Track Displacement Latitude and Longitude. Place, Place Bearing/ Distance, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude. Place Bearing/Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing Along=Track Displacement Latitude and Longitude.

Q.94 a. b. c. d. Q.95 a.

Which EFIS symbol below represents the Trend vector? A. B. C. D. A B C

What information is required by the FMS to enable it to calculate groundspeed? Input from IRS.

b. c. d. Q.96 a. b. c. d. Q.97 a. b. c. d. Q.98 a. b. c. d. Q.99 a. b. c. d. Q.100 a. b. c. d. Q.101 a. b. c. d. Q.102

a. b. c. d. Q.103 a.

Input from ADC to TAS and wind velocity. Input form DME with change of range integrated with respect to time. Input of heading from either the IRS or gyro compass, TASS from ADC and wind velocity from selected meteorological data. Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power application to the B 737- 400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? IDENT. POS INIT. PERF INIT. RTE. Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electric Flight Instrument System? POS INIT IDENT- RTE. RTE-POS INT-IDENT. IDENT- POS INIT- RTE. PERF INIT- POD IDENT- INIT. A pilot accidentally turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this incident? It cannot be used for the remainder of the flight. It can only be used for attitude reference. It must be switched off or its gyros will topple. It can be used as normal. If an INS temporarily loses its power supply in flight? It will function normally. It will be usable only in the NASV mode. It must be switched off for the remainder of the flight. It can only be used for attitude reference. The sensors of an INS measure? Position. Acceleration. Velocity. TAS. Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats. In which of the following formats can waypoints be entered into all INS system? Grid references. Airport names. Geographic coordinates. Index numbers. An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems Central Display Units (CDU) shows. XTK on INS 1 = 0-XTK on INS 2= 10L( XTK = cross track). What can be deduced from this information? Both systems are drifting. Both systems are serviceable as this error is within limits. The INS2 is drifting. At least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting. How often can a pilot update the data in the FMS database? Every 28 days.

b. c. d. Q.104 a. b. c. d. Q.105 a. b. c. d. Q.106 a. b. c. d. Q.107 a. b. c. d. Q.108 a. b. c. d. Q.109 a. b. c. d. Q.110 a. b. c. d. Q.111 a. b. c. d.

When it is deemed to be necessary. When there is a fault. Never, because the FMS database is read-only. From what information is the FMC position calculated? Computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions. The average of the IRS positions. Computer generated from the radio navigation positions. Half way between the IRS and radio navigation positions. How does an FMS obtain magnetic variation information? The main directional gyro, which is coupled to the magnetic sensor ( flux valve) positioned in the wingtip. The FMS calculated MH and MT from the FMC position. Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading. Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS.. What is the highest priority and lowest priority, message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 EFIS? Caution and Advisory. Warning and Advisory. Urgent and Routine. Warning and Caution. What is the function of the MCDUs in the B 737-400 Flight Management System when carrying out preflight checks? Manually initialize the IRSs, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information. Automatically initialize the IRSs, and FMC with dispatch information. Manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information. Manually initialize the IRSs, and FMC with dispatch information. The functions of the Boeing 737-400 FMS include? Automatic navigation & automatic performance management. Manual navigation & manual performance management. Manual navigation & automatic performance management. Automatic navigation & manual performance management. In a Boeing 737-400 FMS the sequence of pages on start up is? POS INIT, IDENT, DEPARTURES. IDENT, POS INIT, RTE. IDENT, POS INIT, DEPARTURES. INIT, POS,RTE, IDENT. From what source is the FMC aircraft position determined by radio navigation in the Boeing 737-400 aircraft derived ? VOR/DME. DME/DME. DME/ADE. VOR/VOR. When the Boeing 737-400 FMS is being initialized prior to flight, the system? Rejects initial latitude error, but it will accept longitude error. Cannot detect input errors, and accepts whatever is put in. Rejects initial longitude error, but it will accept latitude error. Rejects initial latitude or longitude error.

Q.112 a. b. c. d. Q.113 a. b. c. d. Q.114 a.

For how long does the data in the FMS database remain valid ? 56 days. One week. 28 days. Variable Weather Radar Display are available on the Boeing 737-400 EFIS EHSI, when the system is set to? MAP, PLAN, FULL VOR/ILS. MAP, PLAN, EXP VOR/ILS. MAP, EXP VOR/ILS, EXP NAV. MAP, FULL VOR/ILS, FULL NAV. In what formats can created waypoints be entered into the scratch pad of the B737-400 FMS? Place Bearing/Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing, Across-Track Displacement Latitude and Longitude. b. Place, Place Bearing/ Distance, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude. c. Place Bearing/Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing Along-Track Displacement Latitude and Longitude. d. Place Bearing/ Distance, Place Distance/Place Distance, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude. Q.115 Which white EFIS symbol below represents the aircraft? a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. Q.116 a. b. c. d. Q.117 a. b. c. d. Q.118 a. b. c. d. Q.119 a. b. c. d. Q.120 a. A B C D How does the FMS calculating groundspeed? Input from IRS. Input from ADC of TAS and wind velocity. Input from DME with change of range integrated with respect to time. Input of heading from either the IRS or gyro compass, TAS from ADC and wind velocity from selected meteorological data. In what way does IRS differ from INS? Has a longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity. Does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down. Has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock. Does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration. A ring Laser Gyro? It is fixed to true north and is quick to erect. It doesnt suffer from lock in and is unaffected by the earths gravitational force. It is not necessarily fixed to true north but takes along time to erect It is not necessarily fixed to true north and is quick to erect. In a laser reference system (IRS), as compared to gyro reference system (INS): The accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilized. Accelerometers and platform are both strapped down. The platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro stabilized. Accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised. In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither motor is to: Compensate for transport wander.

b. c. d. Q.121 a. b. c. d. Q.122 a. b. c. d. Q.123 a. b. c. d. Q.124 a. b. c. d. Q.125 a. b. c. d. Q.126 a. b. c. d. Q.127 a. b. c. d. Q.128 a. b. c. d. Q.129

Stabilise the laser frequencies. Enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates. Overcome laser lock. What will be the effect if the crew of an aircraft switch off the power to his IRS whilst in flight, before switching it back on a few seconds later? It cannot be used for navigation, but can be used to provide attitude information. It must be re-aligned whilst in flight. The system will operate normally. It cannot be used and must be shut down or the gyros will topple. In which IRS mode does gyro-compassing take place? ATT. ALIGN. ON. NAV. In which plane must the spin axis move to cause a gyro to drift? Horizontal Vertical Horizontal and vertical Neither, because its definition is not related to these axes What do the sensors of an INS measure? Acceleration The horizontal component of the earths rotation Velocity Precession Where and when are the IRS positions updated? Only on the ground during the alignment procedure. Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or NDB) During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC IRS positions are updated by pressing the Take-off/Go-around button at the start of the take-off roll. Some inertial reference systems are known as strapdown . This means: The system is mounted on a stabilized platform. The gyros are fixed but the accelerometers are stabilized. The system is mounted and fixed to the aircraft structure. The accelerometers are fixed but the gyros are stabilized. What output is calculated by double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) when the system is engaged in the Nav mode? Vehicle longitude. Distance east/west. Distance north/south. Velocity east/west. The principle of Schuler Tuning as applied to the operation of inertial Navigation Systems/Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to: Only gyro-stabilised systems. Both gyro-stabilised platform and strapdown systems. Both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non strapdown mode Only to strapdown laser gyro systems. In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), the output of the first stage North/South integrator is?

a. b. c. d. Q.130 a. b. c. d. Q.131 a. b. c. d. Q.132 a. b. c. d. Q.133 a. b. c. d. Q.134 a. b. c. d. Q.135 a. b. c. d. Q.136 a. b. c. d. Q.137

Velocity along the local meridian. Groundspeed. Latitude. Change of latitude. Alignment of INS and IRS equipments can take place in which of the following modes? ALIGN only. NAV and ALIGN. ALIGN and ATT. ATT and ALIGN. When a triple-fit IRS system is employed, the present positions on the CDU? Will only differ if one IRS has been decoupled due to a detected malfunction. Will only differ if an initial input error of aircraft positions has been made Will not differ as the information is averaged. Are likely to differ as the information comes from different sources. What are the positions (in the order left to right) on the Boeing 737-400 IRS Mode Selector Unit (MSU)? OFF ALIGN NAV ATT OFF STBY ATT NAV OFF STBY NAV ATT OFF ALIGN ALIGN NAV In an Ins the process of gyro-compassing ? Is possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. Is not possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. Is possible in flight because the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors. Is possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors If an INS/IRS, an azimuth gyro is found to be drifting in flight, and if t is the time since selecting the system from ALIGN to NAV, the azimuth gyro heading error will be? Proportional to the square root of t. Proportional to t/2. Sinusoidal. Proportional to t. On the IRS, selecting of ATT mode gives attitude? Altitude, and heading. Only. Heading, and groundspeed. And heading. How much time is required to align an Inertial Reference System? 1 minute. 5 minutes. 10 minutes. 15 minutes. What principle is utilized by employing a piezo-electric motor to overcome laser lock in an IRS system?

a. b. c. d. Q.138 a. b. c. d. Q.139 a. b. c. d. Q.140 a. b. c. d. Q.141

a. b. c. d. Q.142 a. b. c. d. Q.143 a. b. c. d. Q.144 a. b. c. d. Q.145 a. b. c.

Shake. Shudder. Dither. Vibrate. In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an Aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device? Without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN. Without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC. With damping and a period of 84.4 MIN. With damping and a period of 84.4 SEC. In order to keep the platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) at right angles to the local vertical in flight, corrections must be applied to compensate for? Aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis. Vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal force and transport drift. Movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation. Gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift. An Inertial Navigation System (INS), calculates Ground Speed (GS)? From TAS and WN from Air Data Computer (ADC) By integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively. By integrating measured acceleration. From TAS and WN from RNAV data. An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems Central Display Units (CDU) shows. XTK on INS 1 = 12L XTK on INS 2= 0 (XTK = cross track). What can be deduced from this information? Only inertial navigation systems No. 1 is drifting. At least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting. Only inertial navigation systems No. 2 is drifting. The autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode. After an IRS has lost its position mid-flight it must? Not be used in NAV mode. Be turned OFF. Have a new position inserted. Be selected to ALIGN and then to NAV. What does INS need for wind calculations? EAS. TAS. Mach Number. Heading. What do you call a system of gyros and accelerometers that is fixed to the aircraft? Laser Stabilised. Fixed. Strapdown. What is the latest time at which the INS/IRS may be selected to NAV mode? After passengers and freight are aboard. Immediately prior to push back or taxi from the gate. On operation of the TOGA switch when opening the throttles for the take-off.

d. Q.146 a. b. c. d. Q.147 a. b. c. d. Q.148 a. b. c. d.

At the holding point. What can be used to enter positions on all INS systems? Waypoint names. Hexadecimals. Geographic coordinates. Range and bearings. The INS CDU mode selection required to display initial Great Circle track is? HDG\DA. TK\GS. XTK\TKE. DSRTK\STS. Which Cyan symbol below represents an off-route waypoint? A. B. C. D.

DVR

A B C D Q.149 Which of the following lists all of the methods that can be used to enter Created waypoints into the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? a. Identifier name and range; location name; Height above MSL; latitude and longitude. b. Identifier grid reference, location name, Height above MSL, latitude and Rhumb line position. c. Identifier range, location name; Height above MS; latitude and longitude. d. Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place bearing; along track displacement; latitude and longitude Q.150 Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as strapdown . This means that? a. The gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the units fixture to the aircraft structure. b. The indicator units are strapped to the aircraft structure. c. The accelerometers are fixed to the aircraft structure but the gyros are stablised. d. The gyros are stablised but the accelerometers are fixed to the aircraft structure.

PLOTTING
Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. d. Q.3 a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. What facilities are located at position N52 10.9 W009 31.4 on the Jeppesen chart E(Lo)1? Civil airport : ILS:NDB. Military airport: ILS:NDB. Civil airport: VOR:ILS. Military airport: VOR: ILS. What is the radial and distance from CRK VOR ( N51 50.4 W008 29.7) to position N52 20.0 W009 10.0 on the Jeppesen chart E( LO)1? 322oM 39 nm. 322oM 41 nm. 330oM 41 nm. 330oM 39 nm. What is the radial and distance from SHA (N 52 43.3 W008 53.1) to Birr ( N53 04.0 W007 54.0 ) on the Jeppesen chart E (LO)1? 068oM 42 nm. 060oM 40 nm. 068oM 40 nm. 060oM 42 nm. What is the latitude and longitude of the point bearing 239oM at 36 NM. Range from the SHA VOR (N52 43.3 W008 53.1) on the Jeppesen chart E ( LO) 1? N52 15 W009 30. N52 12 W009 15.

c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9

N52 20 W009 37. N52 12 W009 30. What is the mean true track and distance from the BAL (N 53 18.0 W006 26.9) to CRN ( N53 18.1 W008 56.5 ) on the Jeppesen chart E (LO)1? 272o 89 nm. 272o 88 nm. 270o 89 nm. 270o 86 nm. Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N51 50.4 W008 29.7 on the Jeppesen chart E(LO)1? VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point. Civil airport: VOR: DME: compulsory reporting point. VOR: DME: NDB: ILS. Civil airport: VOR: non-compulsory reporting point. Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N53 1801 W008 56.5 on the Jeppesen chart E(LO)1? Civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point. VOR: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting point. VOR: NDB: DME: compulsory reporting point. Civil airport: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting point. What is the aircraft position on the Jeppesen chart E(LO)1, given the following data? SHA VOR ( N52 43.3 W008 53.1) radial 205o CRK VOR ( N51 50.4 W008 29.7) radial 317o N 51 18 W009 13. N 52 05 W009 15. N 52 10 W009 10. N 52 15 W009 17. Given the following information determine the aircraft position using the Jeppesen chart E(LO01? CRN ( N53 18.1 W 008 56.5) 18 DME SHA VOR (N52 43.3 W008 53.1) 20 DME Heading 270o M. Both DME ranges decreasing.

a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d. Q.11 a. b. c.

N 52 01 W009 08. N 53 01 W009 08. N 53 02 W008 43. N 52 03 W008 43. What is the mean true track and distance from the BAL VOR (N53 18.0 W006 26.9) to CFN NDB ( N55 02.6 W 008 20.3) on the Jeppesen chart E(LO)1? 148o 134. 328o 125. 148o 125. 328o 134. At position N53 40 W008 00 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, what is the magnetic bearing from the SHA VOR ( N52 43.3 W008 53.1)? 217. 037 209.

d. Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d. Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 a. b. c. d. Q.19 a.

029. What is the aircraft position on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart, given the following data? The radial from the SHA VOR (N52 43.3 W 008 53.1) is 120o M. The radial from the CRK VOR (N51 50.4 W 008 29.7) is 033o M. N 53 20 W008 00. N 52 20 W008 21. N 52 30 W008 00. N 52 40 W008 21. What is the aircraft position on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, given the following data? SHA VOR ( N52 43.3 W008 53.1) DME 41 NM. CRK VOR ( N51 50.4 W008 29.7) DME 30 NM. N 52 05 W009 15. N 52 15 W009 15. N 52 15 W008 05. N 52 25 W009 10. The aircraft position is at N53 30 W008 00. At that position the VOR radial from SHA (N52 43.3 W008 53.1) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, would be (1) and the radial from CON (N53 54.8 W 008 49.1) would be (2). The correct combination is? (1) 042o (2) 138o (1) 213o (2) 310o (1) 033o (2) 130o (1) 221o (2) 318o What is the average track (oT) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0 W00911.7) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 075o 81 nm. 277o 83nm. 286o 81 nm. 294o 80 nm. What is the magnetic track and distance from Connaught VOR/DME (CON, N53 54.8 W008 49.1) to overhead abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5336 W007 39)? 124o 47 nm. 116o 46 nm. 296o 46 nm. 304o 47 nm. What is the average magnetic track and distance between KER NDB (N52 10.9 W009 31.4) and CRN NDB (N53 18.1 W008 56.5) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 017o 70 nm. 25o 70 nm. 197o 71 nm. 205o 71 nm. What is the airport at N52 11 W009 32 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? Shannon. Waterford. Kerry. Cork. What is the approximate course (T) and distance between Waterford NDB ( WTC N52 11.3 W007 04.9 ) and Sligo NDB ( SLG N54 16.7 W008 36.0) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 156o 136 nm.

b. c. d. Q.20 a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b. c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27 a.

164o 142 nm. 336o 137 nm. 344o 139 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N51 50.4 W008 31.4) and CRN NDB (N53 18.1 W008 56.5) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 104o 76 nm. 106o 38 nm. 113o 38 nm. 293o 39 nm. An aircraft is on the 025oradial from SHA VOR (N52 43.3 W008 53.1) at 49 DME on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart. What is its position? N53 29 W008 30. N53 29 W009 30. N52 29 W009 30. N52 39 W008 30. What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5220 W00810 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 030o 33 nm. 130o 33 nm. 030o 53 nm. 033o 30 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5210 W00920 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 311o M 76 nm. 311o 38 nm. 030o M 38 nm. 030o M 58 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230 W00750 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 039o M 24 nm. 139o M 48 nm. 139o M 58 nm. 039o M 48 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140 W00730 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 113o M 38 nm. 123o M 38 nm. 013o M 48 nm. 113o M 19 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300 W00940 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 309o M 33 nm. 300o M 53 nm. 300o M 39 nm. 139o M 33 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230 W00750 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 045o M 40 nm.

030o M 35 nm. 035o M 35 nm. 035o M 30 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5220 W00810 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 139o M 35 nm. b. 130o M 30 nm. c. 135o M 55 nm. d. 139o M 45 nm. Q.29 What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5210 W00920 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 214o M 57 nm. b. 210o M 37 nm. c. 214o M 37 nm. d. 210o M 57 nm. Q.30 What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5430 W00900 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 358o M 36 nm. b. 358o M 30 nm. c. 350o M 46 nm. d. 350o M 36 nm. Q.31 What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5400 W00800 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 088o M 29 nm. b. 088o M 39 nm. c. 080o M 19 nm. d. 080o M 29 nm. Q.32 What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5340 W00820 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 140o M 33 nm. b. 140o M 23 nm. c. 145o M 23 nm. d. 145o M 33 nm. Q.33 What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5330 W00930 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 230o M 35 nm. b. 230o M 25 nm. c. 233o M 55 nm. d. 233o M 35 nm. Q.34 What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 236o M 44 nm. b. 236o M 54 nm. c. 230o M 44 nm. d. 230o M 54 nm. Q.35 What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 278o M 54 nm. b. c. d. Q.28

b. c. d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a.

270o M 44 nm. 278o M 44 nm. 270o M 54 nm. What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5500 W00700 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 315o M 34 nm. 315o M 44 nm. 310o M 34 nm. 319o M 44 nm. What is the average track (oM) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 278o M 80 nm. 278o M 90 nm. 270o M 90 nm. 270o M 80 nm. What is the average track (oM) and distance between CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 357o M 89 nm. 357o M 80 nm. 350o M 89 nm. 350o M 90 nm. What is the average track (oM) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 142o M 90 nm. 140o M 95 nm. 140o M 90 nm. 142o M 95 nm. What is the average track (oM) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 026o M 71 nm. 026o M 75 nm. 020o M 71 nm. 020o M 75 nm. What is the average track (oM) and distance between KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 035o M 75 nm. 035o M 70 nm. 025o M 70 nm. 035o M 70 nm. What is the average track (oM) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 316o M 96 nm. 316o M 90 nm. 310o M 96 nm. 136o M 96 nm. What is the average track (oM) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 057o M 120 nm.

b. c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b. c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c. d. Q.51 a.

123o M 126 nm. 057o M 126 nm. 123o M 120 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 063o T 101 nm. 063o M 101 nm. 060o T 120 nm. 060o T 101 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between SLG NDB (N416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 011o M 47 nm. 011o T 57 nm. 011o T 47 nm. 111o T 57 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0 W00911.7) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 286o T 81 nm. 286o M 81 nm. 280o T 61 nm. 280o T 81 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 036o T 130 nm. 030o T 137 nm. 036o T 137 nm. 036o T 130 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 002o T 72 nm. 002o T 62 nm. 015o T 75 nm. 012o T 72 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 270o T 45 nm. 270o T 90 nm. 270o T 104 nm. 275o T 90 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 327o T 124 nm. 320o T 124 nm. 327o T 120 nm. 232o T 124 nm. What is the average track (oT) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.0 W00856.5) and EKN NDB (N5423.6 W00738.7) on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 035o T 90 nm.

b. c. d. Q.52 a. b. C. d. Q.53 a. b. C. d. Q.54 a. b. C. d. Q.55 a. b. C. d. Q.56 a. b. C. d. Q.57 a. b. C. d. Q.58 a. b. C. d. Q.59

030o T 80 nm. 030o T 90 nm. 035o t 90 nm. Given : SHA VOR (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223o CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322o on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? N5220 W00920. N5520 W00920. N5220 W00720. N5520 W00720. Given: SHA VOR (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 205o CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317o on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? N5220 W00920. N5210 W00920. N5210 W00910. N5220 W00910. Given: SHA VOR (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120o, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033o on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? N5230 W00900. N5230 W00810. N5220 W00800. N5230 W00800. SHA VOR (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 129o CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047o. What is the aircraft position? N5220 W00750. N5220 W00850. N5220 W00700. N5210 W00750. Given: SHA VOR (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 143o CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050o on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? To solve this type of problem: N5210 W00850. N5220 W00800. N5220 W00850. N5210 W00800. SHA VOR/DME (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120o/35 NM on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? N5230 W00800. N5230 W00850. N5220 W00800. N5220 W00850. Given: SHA VOR/DME (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 165o/36 NM on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? N5210 W00800. N5210 W00830. N5220 W00830. N5220 W00850. Given: SHA VOR/DME (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 232o/32 NM on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position?

a. b. C. d. Q.60 a. b. C. d. Q.61 a. b. C. d. Q.62 a. b. C. d. Q.63 a. b. C. d. Q.64 a. b. C. d. Q.65 a. b. C. d. Q.66 a.

N5220 W00930. N5220 W00900. N5210 W00930. N5210 W00900. Given: SHA VOR/DME (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 025o/49 NM on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? N5330 W00800. N5320 W00830. N5330 W00830. N5320 W00800. Given: SHA VOR/DME (N 5243.3 W00853.1) radial 048o/22 NM on the Jeppesen E(LO) 1 chart. What is the aircraft position? N5300 W00800. N5300 W0830. N5330 W00830. N5330 W00800. Given: SHA VOR N 5243.3 W00853.1CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7 Aircraft position N5220 W00910 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? SHA 212o CRK 328o. SHA 032o CRK 140o. SHA 220o CRK 322o. SHA 200o CRK 328o. Given: SHA VOR N 5243.3 W00853.1CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7 Aircraft position N5230 W00820 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? SHA 125o CRK 010o. SHA 049o CRK 017o. SHA 131o CON 017o. SHA 131o CRK 017o. Given: SHA VOR N 5243.3 W00853.1CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7 Aircraft position N5230 W00930 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? SHA 068o CRK 145o. SHA 248o CRK 325o. SHA 240o CRK 315o. SHA 248o CRK 315o. Given: SHA VOR N 5243.3 W00853.1CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1 Aircraft position N5330 W00800 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? SHA 042o CON 138o. SHA 045o CON 130o. SHA 052o CRK 138o. SHA 042o CRK 130o. Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1 Aircraft position N5320 W00950 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart, which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? SHA 325o CRK 230o.

SHA 145o CON 055o. SHA 325o CON 235o. SHA 320o CRK 230o. Given: SHA VOR (N 5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM, Aircraft heading 270o (M), Both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position on the Jeepesen E (LO)1 chart? a. N5200 W00930. b. N5200 W00935. C. N5210 W00935. d. N5210 W00930. Q.68 Given: SHA VOR (N 5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM, Aircraft heading 270o (M), Both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position on the Jeepesen E (LO)1 chart? a. N5210 W00800. b. N5215 W00805. C. N5225 W00800. d. N5225 W00805. Q.69 Given: CRN VOR (N 5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM, Aircraft heading 270o (M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position on the Jeepesen E (LO)1 chart? a. N5308 W00920. b. N5210 W00830. C. N5310 W00830. d. N5310 W00920. Q.70 Given: CRN VOR (N 5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM, Aircraft heading 090o (M), Both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position on the Jeepesen E (LO)1 chart? a. N5255 W00815. b. N5255 W00934. C. N5200 W00934. d. N5200 W00815. Q.71. Given: CON VOR (N 5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM, CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM, Aircraft heading 270o (M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position on the Jeepesen E (LO)1 chart? a. N5330 W00820. b. N5335 W00920. C. N5335 W00820. d. N5330 W00920. Q.72 Given: CRK VOR/DME (N 5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM, CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM, Aircraft heading 270o (M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position on the Jeepesen E (LO)1 chart? a. 307o 43 nm. b. 302o 43 nm. c. 300o 45 nm. d. 310o 43 nm. Q.73 Given: SHA VOR/DME (N 5243.3 W00853.1) Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754) What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Birr aerodrome on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? a. 073o 41 nm. b. C. d. Q.67

b. c. d. Q.74 a. b. c. d. Q.75 a. b. c. d. Q.76 a. b. c. d. Q.77 a. b. c. d. Q.78 a. b. c. d. Q.79 a. b. c. d. Q.80 a. b. c. d. Q.81 a. b. c. d. Q.82

068o 41 nm. 068o 45 nm. 065o 41 nm. Given: SHA VOR/DME (N 5243.3 W00853.1)Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928) What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Connemara aerodrome on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 330o 37 nm. 333o 30 nm. 330o 30 nm. 333o 37 nm. Given: CON VOR/DME (N 5254.8 W00849.1) Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917) What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Castlebar aerodrome on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 265o 17 nm. 262o 17 nm. 260o 20 nm. 260o 17 nm. Given: CON VOR/DME (N 5354.8 W00849.1) Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917) What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Castlebar aerodrome on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? 124o 42 nm. 122o 46 nm. 124o 46 nm. 122o 42 nm. What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 W00931 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? KERRY / Farranfore Aerodrome. CORK Aerodrome. SHANNON Aerodrome. LOOP HEAD. What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 W00612 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? STRUMBLE VOR HAVERFORDWEST NDB. WATERFORD NDB. TURKAR ROCK LT.H.NDB. What feature is shown on the chart at position N5311 W00637 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? BALDONNEL Casement. PUNCHTOWN Aerodrome. NEW CASTLE Aerodrome. BALDONNEL Aerodrome. What feature is shown on the chart at position N5351 W00917 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? CONNAUGHT VOR. EAGLE ISLAND LHT.H. CASTLEBAR Aerodrome. CONNEMARE Aerodrome. What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417 W01005 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? TUSKAR ROCK LT.H EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB. LOOP HEAD. SLIGO NDB Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart?

a. b. c. d. Q.83 a. b. c. d. Q.84 a. b. c. d. Q.85 a. b. c. d. Q.86 a. b. c. d. Q.87 a. b. c. d. Q.88 a. b. c. d. Q.89 a. b. c. d. Q.90 a. b. c. d. Q.91 a. b.

Civil Airport, VOR, DME, Compulsory reporting point. Military airport, NDB, ILS. Military airport, VOR, DME, Non-compulsory reporting point. Civil Airport, NDB, ILS, Compulsory reporting point. Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7 on the Jeppesen E(LO)1 chart? Civil Airport, VOR, DME, Compulsory reporting point. Military airport, NDB, ILS. Military airport, VOR, DME, Non-compulsory reporting point. Civil Airport, NDB, DME, Compulsory reporting point. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols on page 186 indicates a VOR/DME? 1. 4. 7. 13. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols on page 186 indicates a DME? 1. 4. 7. 13. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols on page 186 indicates a VOR? 1. 4. 7. 13. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols on page 186 indicates a NDB? 2. 4. 7. 13. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols on page 186 indicates a basic, non-specified, navigation aid? 1. 4. 7. 13. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols on page 186 indicates a TACAN? 5. 7. 13. 14. Which of the aeronautical chart symbols on page 186 indicates a VORTAC? 5. 7. 13. 14. Which of the aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates an unlighted obstacle? 15. 9.

c. d. Q.92 a. b. c. d. Q.93 a. b. c. d. Q.94 a. b. c. d. Q.95 a. b. c. d. Q.96 a. b. c. d. Q.97 a. b. c. d. Q.98 a. b. c. d. Q.99 a. b. c. d. Q.100 a. b. c. d.

10. 12. Which aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates a lighted obstacle? 9. 10. 11. 12. Which aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates a group of unlighted obstacle? 9. 10. 11. 12. Which aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates a group of lighted obstacle? 9. 10. 11. 12. Which aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates an exceptionally high lighted obstacle? 9. 10. 11. 12. Which aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates a group of obstacle? 9. 10. 11. 12. What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 3 on page 186? Aeronautical ground light. An unlighted obstacle. A lighted obstacle. An exceptionally high lighted obstacle. What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No.9 on page 186? Aeronautical ground light. An unlighted obstacle. A lighted obstacle. An exceptionally high lighted obstacle. Which aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates an aeronautical ground light? 3. 9. 12. 15. Which aeronautical chart symbol on page 186 indicates a lightship? 6. 8. 9. 15.

PSR & PET


Q.1. a. b. c. d. Q.2 a. b. c. d. Q.3 What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots headwind? 1458 nm. 1505 nm. 1554 nm. 1625 nm. What is the time to the point of safe return (PSR) if the distance from A to B is 2368 nautical miles, the outbound groundspeed in 365 knots, the homebound ground speed is 480 knots, and safe endurance is 8 hours 30 minutes? 190 nm. 209 nm. 219 nm. 290 nm. What is the distance from Q to the point of Safe Return (PSR) for an aircraft that was over Q at 1320 hours flying direct to R given the following data? Distance Q to R 3016 nm, True airspeed 480 kt, Safe endurance 10 Hours, if the mean wind component outbound -90 kt, and the mean wind component homebound is +75 kt. 1320 nm. 1530 nm. 2290 nm. 2375 nm. What is the distance to B from the equal-time point given the following data? Distance A to B is 360 nm Wind component A B is -15 kt TAS is 180 kt Wind component B-A is +15 kt 165 nm. 170 nm. 175 nm. 180. nm. An aircraft is flying at a TAS of 300 knots over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 500 nm apart. What is the distance from the first airfield to the equal time point (ETP) if the wind component is 60 knots head? 200 nm. 250 nm. 280 nm. 300 nm. How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour, when flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090o, if the W/V is 045o/50kt? 58 nm. 85 nm.

a. b. c. d. Q.4

a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b.

c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d. Q.11 a. b. c. d. Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d.

88 nm. 175 nm. For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed out of 385 kt, a ground speed back of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is? 1685 NM. 1532 NM. 930 NM. 1865 NM. Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS= 490 kt. On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt. On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt. What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the point of Equal Time (PET)? 470 NM. 455 NM. 500 NM. 530 NM. An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090o. The W/V is 045o/50kt. How for can the aeroplane fly out from its base and returns in one hour? 85 NM. 88 NM. 56 NM. 176 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2346 NM, Groundspeed out 365 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 167 MIN. 219 MIN. 290 MIN. 197 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2346 NM, Groundspeed out 365 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt. Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 290 MIN. 219 MIN. 197 MIN. 209 MIN. An aircraft was over A at 1435 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A to B 2900 NM, True airspeed 470 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 1744. 1846. 1721. 1657. An aircraft was over A at 1435 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A to B 2900 NM, True airspeed 470 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 2844 NM. 2141 NM. 1611 NM. 1759 NM.

Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 a. b. c. d. Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20 a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b.

Given: Distance A to B 2484 NM, Groundspeed out 420 kt, Groundspeed back 500 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 193 MIN. 163 MIN. 173 MIN. 183 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2484 NM, Mean groundspeed out 420 kt, Mean groundspeed back 500 kt. Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between A is? 1630 MIN. 1940 MIN. 1908 MIN. 1736 MIN. An aircraft was over Q at 1320 hours flying direct to R. Given : Distance Q to R 3016 NM, True airspeed 480 kt, Mean wind component out -90 kt, Mean wind component back +75 kt, Safe endurance 10:00 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) R is? 1510 NM. 2290 NM. 2370 NM. 1310 NM. Given: Distance A to B 1973 NM, Groundspeed out 430 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 130 MIN. 145 MIN. 162 MIN. 181 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 1973 NM, Groundspeed out 430 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt. Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 1664 MIN. 1698 MIN. 1422 MIN. 1490 MIN. Given: Distance Q to R 1760 NM, Groundspeed out 435 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)between 'Q' and R is? 1467 NM. 1642 NM. 1838 NM. 1313 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1760 NM, Groundspeed out 435 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt, The time from Q to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and R is? 110 NM. 106 NM. 102 NM. 114 NM. Given : Distance A to B 3623 NM, Groundspeed out 370 kt, Groundspeed back 300 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 238 NM. 263 NM.

c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27 a. b. c. d. Q.28

a. b. c. d. Q.29

288 NM. 323 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1860 NM, Groundspeed out 400 kt, Groundspeed back 370 kt, Safe endurance 7 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)between 'Q' and R is? 1345 NM. 1442 NM. 1538 NM. 1313 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1970 NM, Groundspeed out 475 kt, Groundspeed back 485 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between 'Q' and R is? 1967 NM. 2142 NM. 2160 NM. 2313 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 2160 NM, Groundspeed out 535 kt, Groundspeed back 585 kt, Safe endurance 6 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between 'Q' and R is? 1667 NM. 1677 NM. 1613 NM. 1775 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 2467 NM, Groundspeed out 500 kt, Groundspeed back 400 kt, Safe endurance 9.5 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 2111 NM. 2001 NM. 2175 NM. 2167 NM. What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 350 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots headwind? 1714 nm. 1750 nm. 1754 nm. 1725 nm. What is the time to the point of safe return (PSR) if the distance from A to B is 3000 nautical miles, the outbound groundspeed in 350 knots, the homebound ground speed is 460 knots, and safe endurance is 8 hours 30 minutes? 209 nm. 190 nm. 229 nm. 290 nm. What is the distance from Q to the point of Safe Return (PSR) for an aircraft that was over Q at 1400 hours flying direct to R given the following data? Distance Q to R 3050 nm, True airspeed 480 kt, Safe endurance 10 Hours, if the mean wind component outbound 90 kt, and the mean wind component homebound is +75 kt. 2290 nm. 1530 nm. 2190 nm. 2375 nm. What is the distance to B from the equal-time point given the following data?

Distance A to B is 560 nm TAS is 280 kt a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a. b. c. d. Q.36

Wind component A B is -15 kt Wind component B-A is +15 kt

265 nm. 270 nm. 275 nm. 280. nm. An aircraft is flying at a TAS of 500 knots over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 700 nm apart. What is the distance from the first airfield to the equal time point (ETP) if the wind component is 60 knots head? 300 nm. 350 nm. 380 nm. 392 nm. How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour, when flying at TAS 260 kt on a track of 090o, if the W/V is 045o/50kt? 158 nm. 128 nm. 188 nm. 175 nm. For a distance of 1900 NM between Q and R, a ground speed out of 390 kt, a ground speed back of 450 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is? 1671 NM. 1632 NM. 1930 NM. 1655 NM. Two points A and B are 1200 NM apart. TAS= 480 kt. On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt. On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt. What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the point of Equal Time (PET)? 670 NM. 655 NM. 600 NM. 624 NM. An aeroplane is flying at TAS 380 kt on a track of 090o. The W/V is 045o/50kt. How for can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour? 188 NM. 88 NM. 156 NM. 176 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2400 NM, Groundspeed out 365 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 267 MIN. 224 MIN. 190 MIN. 197 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2500 NM, Groundspeed out 400 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt. Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is?

a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b.

278 MIN. 259 MIN. 297 MIN. 290 MIN. An aircraft was over A at 1700 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A to B 2900 NM, True airspeed 480 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 1934. 1946. 1821. 1920. An aircraft was over A at 1630 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A to B 3000 NM, True airspeed 490 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 2254 NM. 2238 NM. 2211 NM. 2259 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2700 NM, Groundspeed out 450 kt, Groundspeed back 500 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 189 MIN. 165 MIN. 177 MIN. 159 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2600 NM, Mean groundspeed out 420 kt, Mean groundspeed back 500 kt. Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between A is? 1930 MIN. 2081 MIN. 2091 MIN. 1998 MIN. An aircraft was over Q at 1545 hours flying direct to R. Given : Distance Q to R 3016 NM, True airspeed 550 kt, Mean wind component out -90 kt, Mean wind component back +75 kt, Safe endurance 10:00 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) Q is? 2610 NM. 2650 NM. 2670 NM. 2710 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2450 NM, Groundspeed out 450 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 151 MIN. 165 MIN. 182 MIN. 201 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2100 NM, Groundspeed out 430 kt, Groundspeed back 365 kt. Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 1464 MIN. 1540 MIN.

c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b. c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c. d. Q.51 a. b.

1420MIN. 1228 MIN. Given: Distance Q to R 1650 NM, Groundspeed out 450 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1767 NM. 1742 NM. 1867 NM. 1813 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1760 NM, Groundspeed out 450 kt, Groundspeed back 370 kt, The time from Q to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between Q and R is? 121 NM. 116 NM. 100 NM. 106 NM. Given : Distance A to B 3600 NM, Groundspeed out 395 kt, Groundspeed back 300 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 283 NM. 236 NM. 288 NM. 323 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1960 NM, Groundspeed out 400 kt, Groundspeed back 470 kt, Safe endurance 7 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1513 NM. 1542 NM. 1538 NM. 1353 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1970 NM, Groundspeed out 400 kt, Groundspeed back 485 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1964 NM. 2072 NM. 1973 NM. 2013 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 2160 NM, Groundspeed out 500 kt, Groundspeed back 585 kt, Safe endurance 6 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1767 NM. 1618 NM. 1803 NM. 1675 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 2550 NM, Groundspeed out 500 kt, Groundspeed back 500 kt, Safe endurance 9.5 HR. The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 2250 NM. 2201 NM. 2275 NM. 2267 NM. What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 350 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots headwind? 1713 nm. 1605 nm.

c. d. Q.52 a. b. c. d. Q.53

a. b. c. d. Q.54

1754 nm. 1725 nm. What is the time to the point of safe return (PSR) if the distance from A to B is 2500 nautical miles, the outbound groundspeed in 375 knots, the homebound ground speed is 480 knots, and safe endurance is 9 hours 30 minutes? 390 nm. 309 nm. 319 nm. 320 nm. What is the distance from Q to the point of Safe Return (PSR) for an aircraft that was over Q at 1520 hours flying direct to R given the following data? Distance Q to R 3120 nm, True airspeed 450 kt, Safe endurance 10 Hours, if the mean wind component outbound -80 kt, and the mean wind component homebound is +75 kt. 2320 nm. 2530 nm. 2170 nm. 2275 nm. What is the distance to B from the equal-time point given the following data? Distance A to B is 560 nm Wind component A B is -15 kt TAS is 200 kt Wind component B-A is +15 kt 259.0 nm. 170.5 nm. 375.5 nm. 380.5 nm. An aircraft is flying at a TAS of 375 knots over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 500 nm apart. What is the distance from the first airfield to the equal time point (ETP) if the wind component is 60 knots head? 300 nm. 350 nm. 280 nm. 290 nm. How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour, when flying at TAS 280 kt on a track of 090o, if the W/V is 045o/50kt? 158 nm. 135 nm. 188 nm. 175 nm. For a distance of 2000 NM between Q and R, a ground speed out of 375 kt, a ground speed back of 475 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is? 1676 NM. 1632 NM. 1930 NM. 1565 NM. Two points A and B are 1500 NM apart. TAS= 490 kt. On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt. On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt. What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the point of Equal Time (PET)?

a. b. c. d. Q.55 a. b. c. d. Q.56 a. b. c. d. Q.57 a. b. c. d. Q.58

a. b. c. d. Q.59 a. b. c. d. Q.60 a. b. c. d. Q.61 a. b. c. d. Q.62 a. b. c. d. Q.63 a. b. c. d. Q.64 a. b. c. d. Q.65 a. b. c. d.

NM. NM. 750 NM. 795 NM. An aeroplane is flying at TAS 250 kt on a track of 090o. The W/V is 045o/50kt. How for can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour? 123 NM. 145 NM. 136 NM. 116 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2500 NM, Groundspeed out 375 kt, Groundspeed back 485 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 267 MIN. 226 MIN. 290 MIN. 297 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2750 NM, Groundspeed out 365 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt. Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 290 MIN. 229 MIN. 297 MIN. 209 MIN. An aircraft was over A at 1735 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A' to B 2750 NM, True airspeed 470 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 1944. 1846. 1921. 1950. An aircraft was over A at 1735 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A to B 2950 NM, True airspeed 470 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 2844 NM. 2141 NM. 1611 NM. 1759 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2750 NM, Groundspeed out 420 kt, Groundspeed back 500 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 213.5 MIN. 163.0 MIN. 173.5 MIN. 183.5 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2950 NM, Mean groundspeed out 450 kt, Mean groundspeed back 500 kt. Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 1930 MIN. 2012 MIN. 1998 MIN. 2036 MIN.

Q.66 a. b. c. d. Q.67 a. b. c. d. Q.68 a. b. c. d. Q.69 a. b. c. d. Q.70 a. b. c. d. Q.71 a. b. c. d. Q.72 a. b. c. d. Q.73 a. b. c.

An aircraft was over Q at 1620 hours flying direct to R. Given : Distance Q to R 3050 NM, True airspeed 480 kt, Mean wind component out -90 kt, Mean wind component back +75 kt, Safe endurance 10:00 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) Q is? 1910 NM. 2290 NM. 2270 NM. 2310 NM. Given: Distance A to B 1950 NM, Groundspeed out 450 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 120 MIN. 135 MIN. 142 MIN. 111 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 1950 NM, Groundspeed out 400 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt. Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 1464 NM. 1498 NM. 1422 NM. 1438 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1760 NM, Groundspeed out 455 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1867 NM. 1838 NM. 1877 NM. 1713 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1760 NM, Groundspeed out 475 kt, Groundspeed back 365 kt, The time from Q to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between Q and R is? 91 MIN. 106 MIN. 92 MIN. 97 MIN. Given : Distance A to B 3623 NM, Groundspeed out 390 kt, Groundspeed back 330 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 238 MIN 255 MIN 288 MIN 323 MIN Given: Distance Q to R 1860 NM, Groundspeed out 420 kt, Groundspeed back 350 kt, Safe endurance 7 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1336 NM. 1432 NM. 1538 NM. 1353 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1970 NM, Groundspeed out 495 kt, Groundspeed back 465 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 2267 NM. 2242 NM. 2157 NM.

d. Q.74 a. b. c. d. Q.75 a. b. c. d. Q.76 a. b. c. d. Q.77 a. b. c. d. Q.78

a. b. c. d. Q.79

2313 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 2160 NM, Groundspeed out 535 kt, Groundspeed back 595 kt, Safe endurance 6 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1667 NM. 1690 NM. 1613 NM. 1675 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 2467 NM, Groundspeed out 500 kt, Groundspeed back 450 kt, Safe endurance 9.5 HR. The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 2250 NM. 2221 NM. 2275 NM. 2267 NM. What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 375 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots headwind? 1842 nm. 1850 nm. 1854 nm. 1825 nm. What is the time to the point of safe return (PSR) if the distance from A to B is 3000 nautical miles, the outbound groundspeed in 380 knots, the homebound ground speed is 430 knots, and safe endurance is 8 hours 30 minutes? 289 nm. 290 nm. 259 nm. 271 nm. What is the distance from Q to the point of Safe Return (PSR) for an aircraft that was over Q at 1500 hours flying direct to R given the following data? Distance Q to R 3050 nm, True airspeed 435 kt, Safe endurance 10 Hours, if the mean wind component outbound -90 kt, and the mean wind component homebound is +75 kt. 2058 nm. 2530 nm. 2190 nm. 2075 nm. What is the distance to B from the equal-time point given the following data? Distance A to B is 650 nm Wind component A B is -15 kt TAS is 320 kt Wind component B-A is +15 kt 309 nm. 297 nm. 375 nm. 280 nm. An aircraft is flying at a TAS of 475 knots over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 800 nm apart. What is the distance from the first airfield to the equal time point (ETP) if the wind component is 60 knots head? 398 nm. 350 nm. 480 nm.

a. b. c. d. Q.80 a. b. c.

d. Q.81 a. b. c. d. Q.82 a. b. c. d. Q.83 a. b. c. d. Q.84 a. b. c. d. Q.85 a. b. c. d. Q.86 a. b. c. d. Q.87 a. b. c. d.

451 nm. How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour, when flying at TAS 350 kt on a track of 090o, if the W/V is 045o/50kt? 158 nm. 173 nm. 180 nm. 157 nm. For a distance of 2100 NM between Q and R, a ground speed out of 365 kt, a ground speed back of 435 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is? 1588 NM. 1532 NM. 1630 NM. 1555 NM. Two points A and B are 1300 NM apart. TAS= 485 kt. On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt. On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt. What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the point of Equal Time (PET)? 647 NM. 655 NM. 690 NM. 676 NM. An aeroplane is flying at TAS 345 kt on a track of 090o. The W/V is 045o/50kt. How for can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour? 171 NM. 188 NM. 156 NM. 163 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2600 NM, Groundspeed out 395 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 267 MIN. 217 MIN. 190 MIN. 237 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2900 NM, Groundspeed out 420 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt. Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 272 MIN. 295 MIN. 249 MIN. 290 MIN. An aircraft was over A at 1600 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A to B 2900 NM, True airspeed 450 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, . The ETA for reaching Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 1834. 1846. 1835. 1827.

Q.88 a. b. c. d. Q.89 a. b. c. d. Q.90 a. b. c. d. Q.91 a. b. c. d. Q.92 a. b. c. d. Q.93 a. b. c. d. Q.94 a. b. c. d. Q.95 a. b.

An aircraft was over A at 1600 hours flying direct to B. Given : Distance A to B 3000 NM, True airspeed 390 kt, Mean wind component out +55 kt, Mean wind component back -75 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN . The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 2254 NM. 1752 NM. 1711 NM. 1795 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2700 NM, Groundspeed out 465 kt, Groundspeed back 515 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 183 MIN. 165 MIN. 177 MIN. 159 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2600 NM, Mean Groundspeed out 380 kt, Mean Groundspeed back 475 kt. Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 1730 NM. 1794 NM. 1691 NM. 1978 NM. An aircraft was over Q at 1545 hours flying direct to R. Given Distance Q to R 3016 NM, True airspeed 525 kt. Mean wind component out -90kt, Mean wind component back +75 kt, Safe endurance 10:00 HR. The distance from Q to the point of Safe Return (PSR) Q is? 2510 NM. 2522 NM. 2570 NM. 2610 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2450 NM, Groundspeed out 350 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt, The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 220 MIN. 195 MIN. 182 MIN. 201 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 2100 NM, Groundspeed out 440 kt, Groundspeed back 375 kt. Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN. The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 1464 MIN. 1540 MIN. 1447 MIN. 1484 MIN. Given : Distance Q to R 1650 NM, Groundspeed out 465 kt, Groundspeed back 385 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR. The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1867 NM. 1842 NM. 1896 NM. 1853 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1760 NM, Groundspeed out 450 kt, Groundspeed back 360 kt. The time from Q to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between Q and R is? 109 MIN. 116 MIN.

c. d. Q.96 a. b. c. d. Q.97 a. b. c. d. Q.98 a. b. c. d. Q.99 a. b. c. d. Q.100 a. b. c. d. Q.101 a. b. c. d. Q.102 a. b. c. d. Q.103 a. b.

114 MIN. 104 MIN. Given: Distance A to B 3600 NM, Groundspeed out 378 kt, Groundspeed back 400 kt. The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is? 283 MIN. 294 MIN. 288 MIN. 323 MIN. Given : Distance Q to R 1960 NM, Groundspeed out 380 kt, Groundspeed back 470 kt, Safe endurance 7 HR. The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1471 NM. 1442 NM. 1538 NM. 1453 NM. Given: Distance Q to R 1970 NM, Groundspeed out 436 kt, Groundspeed back 485 kt. Safe endurance 9 HR. The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1964 MIN. 2079 MIN. 2066 MIN. 2013 MIN. What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 4 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 20 knots headwind? 2.1 hours. 2.6 hours. 2.9 hours. 2.4 hours. Given: Distance Q to R 2160 NM, Groundspeed out 535 kt, Groundspeed back 585 kt. Safe endurance 6 HR . The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? 1767 NM. 1677 NM. 1776 NM. 1567 NM. Given: Distance A to B 2500 NM, Groundspeed out 370 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt, Safe endurance 6 HR 30 MIN . The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 220 MIN. 215 MIN. 229 MIN. 230 MIN. What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 40 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots headwind? 2.1 hours. 2.3 hours. 1.9 hours. 1.1 hours. Given: Distance A to B 2900 NM, Groundspeed out 420 kt, Groundspeed back 400 kt, Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? 272 MIN. 249 MIN.

c. 259 MIN. d. 290 MIN. Q.104 Given : Distance Q to R 2550 NM, Groundspeed out 550 kt, Groundspeed back 400 kt. Safe endurance 9.5 HR. The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between Q and R is? a. 2200 NM. b. 2250 NM. c. 2275 NM. d. 2267 NM. Q.105 Given: Distance A to B 2900 NM, Groundspeed out 400 kt, Groundspeed back 380 kt, Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 272 MIN. b. 295 MIN. c. 249 MIN. d. 290 MIN. Q.106 What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 5 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 30 knots headwind? a. 2.3 hours. b. 3.6 hours. c. 2.9 hours. d. 2.75 hours. Q.107 Given: Distance A to B 2000 NM, Groundspeed out 420 kt, Groundspeed back 480 kt, Safe endurance 3 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 112 MIN. b. 195 MIN. c. 149 MIN. d. 190 MIN. Q.108 What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 30 knots headwind? a. 1485 nm. b. 1505 nm. c. 1554 nm. d. 1625 nm. Q.109 Given: Distance A to B 2600 NM, Groundspeed out 220 kt, Groundspeed back 280 kt, Safe endurance 3 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 172 MIN. b. 195 MIN. c. 149 MIN. d. 118 MIN. Q.110 What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 200 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 45 knots headwind? a. 6.1 hours. b. 5.9 hours. c. 6.3 hours. d. 5.8 hours. Q.111 Given : Distance A to B 1500 NM. Groundspeed out 120 kt. Groundspeed back 180kt. Safe endurance 10 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 378 MIN. b. 395 MIN.

c. 399 MIN. d. 390 MIN. Q.112 What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 350 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots headwind? a. 1458 nm. b. 1714 nm. c. 1554 nm. d. 1625 nm. Q.113 Given : Distance A to B 1000 NM. Groundspeed out 190 kt. Groundspeed back 180 kt. Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 248 MIN. b. 255 MIN. c. 239 MIN. d. 260 MIN. Q.114 What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 7 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 65 knots headwind? a. 4.32 hours. b. 4.26 hours. c. 3.91 hours. d. 4.11 hours. Q.115 Given : Distance A to B 500 NM. Groundspeed out 120 kt. Groundspeed back 130 kt. Safe endurance 6 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 203 MIN. b. 215 MIN. c. 209 MIN. d. 220 MIN. Q.116 What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots tailwind? a. 1548 nm. b. 1505 nm. c. 1458 nm. d. 1625 nm. Q.117 Given : Distance A to B 900 NM. Groundspeed out 220 kt. Groundspeed back 250 kt. Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 278 MIN. b. 295 MIN. c. 271 MIN. d. 290 MIN. Q.118 What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 100 knots and a safe endurance of 5 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 65 knots headwind? a. 3.0 hours. b. 2.0 hours. c. 1.9 hours. d. 3.1 hours. Q.119 Given : Distance A to B 400 NM. Groundspeed out 95 kt. Groundspeed back 110 kt. Safe endurance 5 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 177 MIN. b. 195 MIN.

c. 149 MIN. d. 169 MIN. Q.120 What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 200 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 15 knots headwind? a. 994 nm. b. 1505 nm. c. 1554 nm. d. 1625 nm. Q.121 What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 20 knots headwind? a. 5.3 hours. b. 5.6 hours. c. 4.9 hours. d. 5.1 hours. Q.122 What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 6 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 20 knots headwind? a. 3.4 hours. b. 2.6 hours. c. 2.9 hours. d. 3.2 hours. Q.123 Given : Distance A to B 275 NM. Groundspeed out 82 kt. Groundspeed back 80 kt. Safe endurance 3 HR 30 MIN. The time from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is? a. 72 MIN. b. 104 MIN. c. 149 MIN. d. 190 MIN. Q.124 What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 200 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 85 knots headwind? a. 819 nm. b. 505 nm. c. 854 nm. d. 865 nm. Q.125 What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 400 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 75 knots headwind? a. 1994 nm. b. 1805 nm. c. 1654 nm. d. 1930 nm.

SCALE
Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2 On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians spaced 5o apart at latitude 60o N is 8 cm. The Scale of this chart at latitude 60oN is approximately? 1 : 3 500 000. 1 : 5 000 000. 1 : 2 000 000. 1 : 4 500 000. On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5o apart along latitude 37o North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates?

a. b. c. d. Q.3 a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d.

1 : 3 500 000. 1 : 5 000 000. 1 : 4 000 000. 1 : 4 500 000. A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1: 3 704 000. What is the scale at latitude 60o S? 1 : 1 500 000. 1 : 2 000 000. 1 : 1 852 000. 1 : 7 408 000. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is? 1 : 6 000 000. 1 : 5 000 000. 1 : 4 500 000. 1 : 6 500 000. In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately? 1 : 2 000 000. 1 : 2 300 000. 1 : 1 600 000. 1 : 1 300 000. On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45o North, a certain length represents 70 NM. At latitude 30o North, the same length represents approximately? 86 nm. 75 nm. 45 nm. 90 nm. At 60o N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 :3 000 000. What is the scale at the equator? 1 : 5 000 000. 1 : 4 500 000. 1 : 12 000 000. 1 : 6 000 000. What is the chart distance between longitudes 179o E and 175oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 5 000 000 at the equator? 133 mm. 100 mm. 113 cm. 125 mm. At 47o North the chart distance between meridians 10o apart is 5 inches. The scale of the chart at 47o North approximates? 1 : 600 000. 1 : 6 000 000. 1 : 12 000 000. 1 : 5 000 000. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000 ? 130 nm. 130 cm. 200 nm. 240 nm.

The total length of the 53o N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the approximated scale of the chart at latitude 30oS? a. 1 : 26 000 000. b. 1: 2 600 000. c. 1 : 125000. d. 1: 6 000 000. Q.12 A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM. The scale of this chart is approximately? a. 1 : 6 000 000. b. 1: 5 500 000. c. 1 : 6 500 000. d. 1: 7 000 000. Q.13 On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15oS, a certain length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10oN, a distance of? a. 122.3 nm. b. 135.4 nm. c. 156.5 nm. d. 100.2 nm. Q.14 On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 45oN, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30oN, a distance of? a. 100 nm. b. 110 nm. c. 120 nm. d. 125 nm. Q.15 On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45o N and 46o N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately? a. 1 : 1 850 000. b. 1: 2 000 000. c. 1 : 1 500 000. d. 1: 1 650 000. Q.16 Given : Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000. The chart distance between two points is 4 centimeters. Earth distance is approximately? a. 40 nm. b. 35 nm. c. 55 nm. d. 50 nm. Q.17. On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60o N, the distance measured between W002o and E 008o is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60oN is approximately? a. 1 : 2 780 000. b. 1: 278 000. c. 1 : 27 800 000. d. 1: 788 000. Q.18 Assume a Mercator chart. The distance between positions A and B, located on the same parallel and 10o longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1: 9 260 000. What is the latitude of A and B? a. 30o N or S. b. 60o N or S. c. 45o N or S. d. 75o N or S. Q.11

Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20 a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b. c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 a. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27 b.

A course pf 120o (T) is drawn between X ( 61o30N) and Y ( 58o 30N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1: 1 000 000 at 60oN. The chart distance between X and Y is? 600 cm. 6.7 cm. 66.7 cm. 76.6 cm. Given: Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 200 000 at equator; Chart length from A to B in the vicinity of the equator, 11 cm. What is the approximate distance from A to B? 12 nm. 10 nm. 15 nm. 22 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 15 cm on a map with a scale of 1:3 000 000? 130 nm. 243 nm. 200 nm. 250 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 20 cm on a map with a scale of 1: 2 000 000? 216 nm. 130 nm. 200 nm. 250 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 10 cm on a map with a scale of 1: 5 000 000? 256 nm. 270 nm. 240 nm. 290 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 35 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 500 000 80 nm. 85.5 nm. 90 nm. 94.5 nm. The total length of the 75oN parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 140 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30oS? 1 : 25 000 000. 1 : 2 900 000. 1 : 125000. 1 : 6 000 000. The total length of the 70o N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 120 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 40oS? 1 : 16 050 000. 1 : 2 600 000. 1 : 7 250 000. 1 : 25 500 000. The total length of the 45o N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 200 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 60oN? 1 : 26 050 000. 1 : 10 000 000.

c. d. Q.28 a. b. c. d. Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a. b.

1 : 125000. 1 : 6 000 000. What is the chart distance between longitude 179oE and 175oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 15 000 000 at the equator? 44 mm. 10 mm. 33 cm. 25 mm. What is the chart distance between longitude 165oE and 175oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 25 000 000 at the equator? 33 mm. 100 mm. 133 cm. 89 mm. What is the chart distance between longitude 170oE and 170oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 20 000 000 at the equator? 133 mm. 111 mm. 125 cm. 100 mm. What is the chart distance between longitude 175oE and 175oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 7 000 000 at the equator? 159 mm. 176 mm. 163 cm. 145 mm. What is the chart distance between longitude 179oE and 179oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 500 000 at the equator? 159 mm. 333 mm. 444 cm. 467 mm. What is the chart distance between longitude 176oE and 176oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 400 000 at the equator? 222 mm. 276 mm. 263 cm. 245 mm. Given: Chart scale is 1: 2 000 000. The chart distance between two points is 4 centimeters. Earth distance is approximately? 30 nm. 43 nm. 55 nm. 50 nm. Given: Chart scale is 1: 3 000 000. The chart distance between two points is 24 centimetres. Earth distance is approximately? 38.9 nm. 389 nm.

c. d. Q.36 a. b. c. d. Q.37 a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41 a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b.

3.89 nm. 839 nm. Given: Chart scale is 1: 5 000 000. The chart distance between two points is 10 centimetres. Earth distance is approximately? 230 nm. 243 nm. 255 nm. 270 nm. Given: Chart scale is 1: 250 000. The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres. Earth distance is approximately? 3.0 nm. 5.4 nm. 6.5 nm. 5.0 nm. Given: Chart scale is 1: 2 000 000. The chart distance between two points is 12 centimetres. Earth distance is approximately? 20 nm. 13 nm. 25 nm. 10 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 40oN, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 20oN, a distance of? 100 nm. 110 nm. 120 nm. 125 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 70oN, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10oN, a distance of? 259 nm. 210 nm. 220 nm. 265 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 85oN, a certain length represents a distance of 60 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30oN, a distance of? 605 nm. 580 nm. 620 nm. 596 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 45oN, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 60oN, a distance of? 100 nm. 65 nm. 78 nm. 68 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 45oN, a certain length represents a distance of 25 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30oN, a distance of? 45 nm. 31 nm.

c. d. Q.44 a. b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46 a. b. c. d. Q.47 a. b. c. d. Q.48 a. b. c. d. Q.49 a. b. c. d. Q.50 a. b. c. d. Q.51 a. b. c. d. Q.52 a.

20 nm. 25 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 75oN, a certain length represents a distance of 75 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30oN, a distance of? 200 nm. 210 nm. 125 nm. 251 nm. The scale on a Lamberts conformal conic chart? Is constant. Is constant along a parallel of latitude. Is constant along a meridian of longitude. Varies slightly as a function of longitude and latitude. The scale is correct on a Transverse Mercator chart? Along the datum meridian and meridians at 90o to it. At the prime meridian. Along the great circle of tangency. At the poles and the equator. The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the ? Scale at the standard parallels. Scale at the parallel of origin. Scale at the poles. Constant at all points on the chart. On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45o North, a certain length represents 70 NM. At latitude 40o North, the same length represents approximately? 86 nm. 76 nm. 45 nm. 90 nm. At 60oN the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 4 000 000. What is the scale at the equator? 1 : 6 000 000. 1 : 4 500 000. 1 : 12 000 000. 1 : 8 000 000. What is the chart distance between longitudes 179o E and 175oW on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 2 000 000 at the equator? 333 mm. 300 mm. 313 cm. 325 mm At 47o North the chart distance between meridians 10o apart is 6 inches. The scale of the chart at 47o North approximates? 1 : 600 000. 1 : 6 000 000. 1 : 12 000 000. 1 : 5 000 000. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 15 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000? 162 nm.

b. c. d. Q.53 a. b. c. d. Q.54 a. b. c. d. Q.55 a. b. c. d. Q.56 a. b. c. d. Q.57 a. b. c. d. Q.58 a. b. c. d. Q.59 a. b. c. d. Q.60 a. b. c. d. Q.61

130 nm. 156 nm. 140 nm. The total length of the 53oN parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 127 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30oS? 1 : 27 300 000. 1 : 2 600 000. 1 : 12 500 000. 1 : 6 000 000. A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 100NM. The scale of this chart is approximately? 1 : 2 000 000. 1 : 3 500 000. 1 : 5 500 000. 1 : 4 000 000. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15oS, a certain length represents a distance of 130 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10oN, a distance of? 132.5 nm. 135.4 nm. 146.5 nm. 125.2 nm. Given: Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 200 000 at equator; Chart length from A to B in the vicinity of the equator, 27 cm. What is the approximate distance from A to B? 29 nm. 20 nm. 25 nm. 22 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 25 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 3 000 000? 430 nm. 405 nm. 400 nm. 450 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 13 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000? 140 nm. 130 nm. 100 nm. 150 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 9 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 5 000 000? 256 nm. 243 nm. 240 nm. 256 nm. Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 7 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 500 000? 19 nm. 17 nm. 29 nm. 22 nm. The total length of the 75oN parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 115 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30oS?

a. b. c. d. Q.62 a. b. c. d. Q.63 a. b. c. d. Q.64 a. b. c. d. Q.65 a. b. c. d. Q.66 a. b. c. d. Q.67 a. b. c. d. Q.68 a. b. c. d. Q.69 a. b. c.

1 : 30 000 000. 1 : 28 000 000. 1 : 12 500 000. 1 : 6 000 000. The total length of the 70oN parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 95 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 40oS? 1 : 32 250 000. 1 : 26 000 000. 1 : 17 250 000. 1 : 25 500 000. The total length of the 45oN parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 85 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 60oN? 1 : 26 500 000. 1 : 23 500 000. 1 : 12 500 000. 1 : 16 500 000. On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians space 5o apart at latitude 60oN is 12 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60oN is approximately? 1 : 2 300 000. 1 : 3 200 000. 1 : 2 000 000. 1 : 1 500 000. On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5o apart along latitude 37o North is 11 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates? 1 : 3 500 000. 1 : 4 000 000. 1 : 5 000 000. 1 : 4 500 000. A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1: 3 000 000. What is the scale at latitude 60o S? 1 : 1 700 000. 1 : 2 000 000. 1 : 1 500 000. 1 : 3 400 000. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 125 NM. The chart scale is? 1 : 5 000 000. 1 : 6 000 000. 1 : 4 500 000. 1 : 6 500 000. In a navigation chart a distance of 55 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately? 1 : 2 300 000. 1 : 2 700 000. 1 : 1 600 000. 1 : 1 500 000. On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45o North, a certain length represents 79 NM. At latitude 30o North, the same length represents approximately? 97 nm. 78 nm. 65 nm.

d. Q.70 a. b. c. d. Q.71 a. b. c. d. Q.72 a. b. c. d. Q.73 a. b. c. d. Q74 a. b. c. d. Q.75 a. b. c. d. Q.76 a. b. c. d. Q.77 a. b. c. d. Q.78 a. b.

93 nm. At 60o N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 500 000. What is the scale at the equator? 1 : 3 500 000. 1 : 4 500 000. 1 : 500 000. 1 : 7 000 000. A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1: 2 400 000. What is the scale at latitude 60oS? 1: 1 500 000. 1: 2 300 000. 1: 1 200 000. 1: 3 600 000. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.5 cm and represents 125 NM. The chart scale is? 1 : 5 100 000. 1 : 6 200 000. 1 : 4 400 000. 1 : 6 200 000. In a navigation chart a distance of 55 NM is equal to 14 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately? 1 : 300 000. 1 : 700 000. 1 : 600 000. 1 : 725 000. On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45o North, a certain length represents 98 NM. At latitude 30o North, the same length represents approximately? 120 nm. 128 nm. 115 nm. 99 nm. At 60o N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 2 750 000. What is the scale at the equator? 1 : 3 500 000. 1 : 2 500 000. 1 : 1 500 000. 1 : 5 500 000. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 70oN, a certain length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10oN, a distance of? 259 nm. 346 nm. 320 nm. 365 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 85oN, a certain length represents a distance of 98 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30oN, a distance of? 905 nm. 880 nm. 920 nm. 974 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45oN, a certain length represents a distance of 96 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 60oN, a distance of? 97 nm. 68 nm.

c. d. Q.79 a. b. c. d. Q.80 a. b. c. d.

64 nm. 78 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45oN, a certain length represents a distance of 39 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30oN, a distance of? 45 nm. 48 nm. 40 nm. 37 nm. On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 75oN, a certain length represents a distance of 55 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30oN, a distance of? 200 nm. 210 nm. 195 nm. 184 nm.

SOLAR SYSTEM & TIME


Q.1 a. b. c. d. Q.2. a. b. c. d. Q.3 a. b. c. d. Q.4 a. b. c. d. Q.5 a. b. c. d. Q.6 a. b. c. d. Q.7 a. b. c. d. Q.8 a. b. c. d. Q.9 a. b. In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest? March and September. June and December. November and February. January and July. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate? Because the Earths spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun. Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year. Because the Earths orbital speed round the sun varies according to the time of the year. Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and Calendar year. How would you define standard time in relation to UTC? It is local time. It is local time adjusted to whole or half hours difference from UTC. It is based on local sunrise and sunset. It is another term for UTC. T time difference of 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds is equivalent to which change longitude? 81o30. 78o15. 79o10. 80o05. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the? Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic. Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator. Earths rotation. Gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth. The sun rises at 50oN and 025oE on the 25th January at 0254UTC. On the same day what time does it rise at 50o N and 040oW? 0254 UTC. 2154 UTC. 0714 UTC. 0514 UTC. On the 27th February, at 52oS and 040oE. The sunrise is at 0243UTC. On the same day, at 52oS and 035oW, the sunrise is at? 2143 UTC. 0243 UTC. 0743 UTC. 0523 UTC. On the 27th February, at 55oS and 020oW. The sunrise is at 0250UTC. On the same day, at 55oS and 075oW, the sunrise is at? 0630 UTC. 0243 UTC. 0743 UTC. 0523 UTC. The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately? 27.5o. 66.5o.

c. d. Q.10 a. b. c. d. Q.11 a. b. c. d. Q.12 a. b. c. d. Q.13 a. b. c. d. Q.14 a. b. c. d. Q.15 a. b. c. d. Q.16 a. b. c. d. Q.17 a. b. c. d. Q.18 a. b.

23.5o. 25.3o. At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)? Beginning of July. End of September. Beginning of January. End of December. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly? Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice. Spring (Vernal ) Equinox and Autumn Equinox. Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice. Spring (Vernal) Equinox and Summer Solstice. Civil twilight occurs between? Sunrise and sunset. Sunset and when the sun 6o below the horizon The times when the sun is between 6o and 12o below the horizon The times when the sun is between 12o and 18o below the horizon What is the highest latitude on the Earth at which the sun can be vertically overhead? 23.2o. 66.2o. 45.0o. 90.0o. The UTC of the end of evening civil twilight in position 51oN 008W on 15 August is? 1942. 1958. 2031. 1926. What is the Standard Time in Hawaii when it is 0600 ST on the 16 July in Queensland, Australia? 1000 on the 15 th. 2000 on the 15 th. 1000 on the 16 th. 1000 on the 17 th. If it is 0700 hours Standard Time in Kuwait, what is the Standard Time in Algeria? 0300 hours. 0500 hours. 0900 hours. 1200 hours. At 1200 Standard Time on the 10th July in Queensland, Australia, what is the Standard Time in Hawaii, USA? 1600 09 th July. 0200 10 th July. 1200 10 th July. 1000 10 th July. What is the time of sunrise in Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada ( 49N 123o 30W) on the 6th January expressed in UTC. 0754 UTC. 0717 UTC.

c. d. Q.19 a. b. c. d. Q.20 a. b. c. d. Q.21 a. b. c. d. Q.22 a. b. c. d. Q.23 A. b. c. d. Q.24 a. b. c. d. Q.25 a. b. c. d. Q.26 a. b. c. d. Q.27 a.

1608 UTC. 2340 UTC. The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately? 66.5o. 90.0o. 23.5o. 32.5o. The duration of civil twilight is the time? Between Sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6o below the true horizon. Between Sunset and when the top of the sun is 6o below the visual horizon. Between Sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6o below the visual horizon. When the Sunset and Sunrise. On the 27th of February, at 52oS and 034oW, the sunrise is at 0743 UTC. On the same day, at 52oS and 040oE, The sunrise is at? 0243 UTC. 0543 UTC. 1243 UTC. 0743 UTC. Which is the highest latitude listed below below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day? 66o. 23.5o. 32.5o. The tropics of Cancer and Capricorn. The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG (Canada) ( 49o 50N 097o30W) is? 1215. 0730. 1411. 1900. When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard Time in Angola is? 1200. 0800. 0700. 1400. An aircraft takes off from Guam at 2300 Standard Time on 30 April local date. After a flight of 11 HR 15 MIN it lands at Los Angeles ( California). What is the Standard Time and local date of arrival ( assume summer time rules apply)? 1715 on 30 April. 1715 on 01 May. 1715 on 29 April. 2415 on 30 April. When it is 1300 Standard Time in Queensland (Australia) the Standard Time in Hawaii (USA) is? 1200. 1500. 1700. 1000. What is the meaning of the term standard time? It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of country.

b. c. d. Q.28 a. b. c. d. Q.29 a. b. c. d. Q.30 a. b. c. d. Q.31 a. b. c. d. Q.32 a. b. c. d. Q.33 a. b. c. d. Q.34 a. b. c. d. Q.35 a. b. c. d. Q.36

It is just another term for UTC. It is time related to the Prime meridian. It is constant at all points on the earth. What is the local mean time, position 65o25N 123o45W at 2200 UTC? 0615. 1815. 1345. 1415. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the? The changing distance between the Sun and the Earth. The changing speed of rotation of the earth. The changing shape of the orbit to the Earth around the Sun. The inclination of the ecliptic to the Equator. In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest? February and November. March and July. June and December. January and August. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an angle of 90o above the horizon at some time during the year. 23o. 32o. 66o. 60o. Assuming mid-latitudes ( 40o to 50o N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the greatest rate? Winter Solstice. Spring equinox and autumn equinox. Summer solstice. Mid July. At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)? 21 March. 21 September. Middle of June. Beginning of January. At what approximate date is the earth furthest to the sun (aphelion)? Beginning of July Beginning of January. 21 March. 21 August. The UTC of the end of civil twilight in position 051N 008W on the 15th August? 1927. 2030. 1959. 1730. What is the UTC time at sunrise in Vancouver, British COLUMBIA, Canada 49N 123 30 W on the 6th December?

a. b. c. d. Q.37. a. b. c. d. Q.38 a. b. c. d. Q.39 a. b. c. d. Q.40 a. b. c. d. Q.41

a. b. c. d. Q.42 a. b. c. d. Q.43 a. b. c. d. Q.44 a.

0736. 1012. 1550. 0813. The ratio of the ellipticity of the earth is 1/297, if the major axis is 6956 km at the equator, what is the minor axis (poles)? 6879 km. 6862 km. 6932 km. 6952 km. At which of the following latitudes does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occur? 00o. 60o. 45o. 90o. When standing at the South Pole in which direction will you be facing? North. South. East. West. What is the approximate circumference of the earth? 5400 nm. 11800 nm. 21600 nm. 43400 nm. Two aircraft are flying eastwards around the earth. Aircraft A is flying along the 60N parallel of latitude and aircraft B is flying along the equator. If aircraft A is flying at a groundspeed of 240 knots, what would be the groundspeed of aircraft B both aircraft fly once round the Earth in the same journey time? 120 knots. 240 knots. 480 knots. 600 knots. The circumference of the Earth is approximately? 5,600 Km. 13,200 Km. 16,400 Km. 40,000 Km. The sun rises at 55o N and 050oE on the 25th January at 0254 UTC. On the same day what time does it rise at 55o N and 040oW? 0854 UTC. 2154 UTC. 0714 UTC. 0514 UTC. The sun sets at 45o N and 025oE on the 21st March at 1633 UTC. On the same day what time does it rise at 45o N and 060oW? 2254 UTC.

b. c. d. Q.45 a. b. c. d. Q.46

a. b. c. d. Q.47

a. b. c. d. Q.48

a. b. c. d. Q.49

a. b. c. d. Q.50

a. b. c.

2154 UTC. 1714 UTC. 2213 UTC. The sun rises at 50o N and 025oW on the 25th January at 0654 UTC. On the same day what time does it rise at 50o N and 040oE? 0254 UTC. 0154 UTC. 0234 UTC. 0514 UTC. Two aircraft are flying eastwards around the earth. Aircraft A is flying along the 50N parallel of latitude and aircraft B is flying along the equator. If aircraft A is flying at a groundspeed of 340 knots, what would be the groundspeed of aircraft B both aircraft fly once round the Earth in the same journey time? 529 knots. 540 knots. 480 knots. 600 knots. Two aircraft are flying eastwards around the earth. Aircraft A is flying along the 45N parallel of latitude and aircraft B is flying along the equator. If aircraft A is flying at a groundspeed of 300 knots, what would be the groundspeed of aircraft B both aircraft fly once round the Earth in the same journey time? 420 knots. 424 knots. 480 knots. 600 knots. Two aircraft are flying eastwards around the earth. Aircraft A is flying along the 60N parallel of latitude and aircraft B is flying along the 20oN parallel. If aircraft A is flying at a groundspeed of 240 knots, what would be the groundspeed of aircraft B both aircraft fly once round the Earth in the same journey time? 212 knots. 245 knots. 451 knots. 560 knots. Two aircraft are flying eastwards around the earth. Aircraft A is flying along the 75N parallel of latitude and aircraft B is flying along 45S. If aircraft A is flying at a groundspeed of 300 knots, what would be the groundspeed of aircraft B both aircraft fly once round the Earth in the same journey time? 920 knots. 740 knots. 820 knots. 860 knots. Two aircraft are flying eastwards around the earth. Aircraft A is flying along the 30N parallel of latitude and aircraft B is flying along the equator. If aircraft A is flying at a groundspeed of 400 knots, what would be the groundspeed of aircraft B both aircraft fly once round the Earth in the same journey time? 320 knots. 462 knots. 480 knots.

d.

560 knots.

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