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PMP Sample Questions based on PMBOK Fourth Edition 1. You are the project manager for a project.

While reviewing the cost estimates for the project you notice that one of the cost estimates for an element in the WBS is 20% higher than the previous project for very similar work. What should you do next? A. Accept the estimate B. Ask the person responsible about the difference C. Ignore it D. Reduce the estimate Answer: B Explanations: Best option is ask the person responsible about the difference and create the most accurate estimate that is practical. 2. You are a project manager of ABC Company and your project is currently in an execution phase. The customer has requested you for additional work. This work will affect the budget but not the schedule of the project. What should you do next? A. Add the additional requirements to the project plan. B. Ignore the request C. Explain the change procedure and ask to submit a request for change. D. Discuss with the project team about the change. Answer: C Explanations: Explain the change procedure and ask to submit a request for change is the best choice. 3. Your company policy allows to gift exchange with customer within certain limit. By mistake, you have given a gift to the customers representative already which is beyond the limit mentioned in your company policy . What should you do? A. Forget it and dont tell anyone. B. Contact your companys senior management and ask for assistance. C. Ask your customer to return the gift D. Ask your customer to gift you which cost same. Answer: B Explanations: Best option is Contact your companys senior management and ask for assistance. 4. Your company policy allows accepting gifts from customer within certain limit. Your customer is giving you a gift which is beyond limit of your company policy. You have given a gift to

the customers representative already with of similar value. What should you do? A. Accept it and dont tell anyone. B. Contact your companys senior management and ask for assistance. C. Ask your customer to about company policy. D. Refuse it. Answer: B Explanations: Best option is Contact your companys senior management and ask for assistance. 5. You are a project manager of Software Product Company. After hired a person you got to know that many of this persons ideas were developed by the competing company. Are you going to implement the same ideas? A. Accept the new ideas. B. Ignore the ideas because it may be violation of code of conduct. C. Ask to sign NDA. D. Tell the person that he should not mention that the ideas came from another company. Answer: A Explanations: Unless the employee signed the NDA with his or her previous organization, there is no obligation for him or her not to share knowledge that was gained while working for the competitor. 6. Which of the following processes involves measure project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes ? A. Collect Requirements B. Define Scope C. Verify scope. D. Control scope Answer: D Explanations: The control scope process involves measure project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes. 7. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 100 engineering components. The QA team randomly selected 5 components for inspection. This exercise can best be described as example of: A. Statistical Sampling B. Flowcharting C. Inspection D. Benchmarking
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Answer: A Explanations: entire process of random selection and inspecting a work product is known as Statistical Sampling. 8. You are a Project Manager and takes over a project currently in the execution phase. Where you are going to find best source of information on the costs associated with each level of expertise needed for the project: A. Project Quality Management Plan B. Project Schedule Management Plan C. Project Staffing Management Plan D. Project Cost Management Plan Answer: C Explanations: Based on the PMBOK, this information would be available in Staffing plan. The Cost management plan would contain cost of scheduled activities. 9. In which type of organization, the project manager has total control of projects? A. Projectized organization B. Balanced Matrix organization C. Strong Matrix D. Weak Matrix organization Answer: A Explanations: Projectized organization: The project manager has total control of projects. Personnel are assigned and report to a project manager. 10. At which stage, stakeholders have maximum influence on project? A. Initial stage B. Closing stage C. Execution stage D. Control stage Answer: A Explanations: It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have maximum influence at Initial stage. 11. Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. Accepted deliverables B. Change Requests C. Project document updates.
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D. Project scope statement Answer: D Explanations: Project scope statement is an output of Define Scope. 12. Reserve Analysis technique NOT used during __________. A. Control Costs B. Estimating Activity Duration C. Determine Budget D. Estimate Costs Answer: A Explanations: Reserve analysis is used during Estimate Costs to calculate contingency buffers that apply to individual or group of activities. Reserve analysis is used during Determine Budget to calculate management contingency buffers that apply to the entire project. Reserve analysis is done during Activity Duration estimation in order to calculate duration buffers for individual or group of activities. 13. Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of: A. Develop Project Management Plan process B. Control Costs process C. Determine Budget process D. Estimate Costs process Answer: A Explanations: There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process. 14. Analogous Estimate Costs is _________. A. Generally Accurate B. Generally less accurate C. Bottom-up estimating D. Top-up estimating Answer: B Explanations: Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert Judgment . It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the project. 15. Which of the following Enterprises Environmental factors is not input for Develop Human Resource Plan processes: A. Organizational Chart Tempates B. Reduced Training Funds
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C. Hiring Freeze D. Technical competencies of project staff Answer: A Explanations: Enterprise Environmental Factors: The definition of project roles and responsibilities is developed with an understanding of the ways that existing organizations will be involved and how the technical disciplines and people currently interact with one another. Inputs are Reduced Training Funds , Technical competencies of project staff and Hiring Freeze etc. 16. Which of the following is most important element of Project Management Plan that is useful in Develop A Human Resource Plan process: A. Risk Management activities B. Activity Resource requirements C. Budget Control activities D. Quality Assurance activities Answer: B Explanations: Activity Resource requirements is a primary input to Develop Human Resource Plan process. 17. Which of the following is not used to document team member roles and responsibilities ? A. Text-oriented Format B. Functional Chart C. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart D. Matrix-based Responsibility Chart Answer: B Explanations: Functional Chart is not listed in PMBOK as a type of Organizational Chart 18. Which of the following is developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities. A. Resource planning B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs Answer: B Explanations: Estimate Costs:Assessing how much it will cost the organization to provide the product or service 19. Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan .
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A. Stakeholder requirements B. Project performance C. Control schedule D. Project controls Answer: B Explanations: Project performance must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. 20. Which of the following is ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service ? A. Project scope B. Project verification C. Project control D. Product scope Answer: B Explanations: Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service 21. A process that is NOT part of Project Risk Management is: A. Identification B. Solicitation C. Quantification D. Response development Answer: B Explanations: All are part of Project Risk Management except Solicitation. 22. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is: A. Project scope B. Project verification C. Project control D. Product scope Answer: A Explanations: Project Scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. 23. With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____. A. 30.0 B. 22.5 C. 25.0 D. 27.5 Answer: A
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Explanations: mean = (20+30+40)/3 = 30 24. The scope management provides: A. A basis for future decisions about the project. B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures. C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes. D. All of the above. Answer: D Explanations: Project Scope Management is a group of processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project. 25. Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to all of the following EXCEPT: A. See what mistakes others have made B. See how others have solved problems C. Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives D. Predict political situasion for the next project Answer: D Explanations: Lessons learned can not be used predict political situasion for the next project 26. The major project scope management processes include: A. Change order control B. Initiation C. Program evaluation D. Scope statement Answer: B Explanations: Initiation included in major project scope management processes 27. A graphic display of resource usage hours is: A. Organizational chart B. Responsibility matrix C. WBS D. Histogram Answer: D Explanations: Histogram that is useful in determining how much time is expected from the various team members and or functions. 28. Which of the following is an input to resource planning?
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A. Historical information B. Cost baseline C. Cost management plan D. Chart of accounts Answer: A Explanations: Develop Human Resource Plan Inputs: Enterprise Environmental Factors, Historical information, Organizational Process Assets and Project Management plan. 29. Which of the following tools or techniques are not used in Sequence Activities? A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM) C. Expert judgment D. Network templates Answer: C Explanations: Expert judgment is not used in Sequence Activities. Sequence Activities: Identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships. 30. Name the ethical code youll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy of Ethics B. Project Management Professional Standards C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics and Standards D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct Answer: D Explanations: The Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct is published by PMI. 31. Which of the following ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. A. Project controls B. Controlling process C. Control logs D. Project chart Answer: B Explanations: Controlling process ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary. 32. An example of a project is:
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A. Billing customers B. Managing an organization C. Constructing a building D. Providing technical support Answer: C Explanations: An example of a project is Constructing a building. 33. Inputs to Team Development include all except A. Project staff B. Reward and recognition systems C. Performance reports D. Project plan Answer: B Explanations: Inputs to Team Development include all except Reward and recognition systems. 34. In optimal organization structure , the project manager is: A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Projectized D. Dedicated project team Answer: D Explanations: Dedicated project team 35. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies A. Finish-to-start B. Start-to-start C. Finish-to-finish D. Start-to-finish Answer: A Explanations: Finish-to-start An activity must finish before the next activity begins. Finish-to-finish An activity must finish before the next activity can finish. Start-to-start An activity must start before the next activity can start. Start-to-finish An activity must start before the next activity can finish. 36. Which is not a tool or technique for Source Selection? A. Contract negotiation B. Weighting system C. Payment system D. Screening system Answer: C
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Explanations: Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are . 37. Which of the following is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning? A. Staffing management plan B. Templates C. Human resource practices D. Organizational theory Answer: A Explanations: Staffing management plan is not tools and techniques of Organizational Planning. Other options are true. 38. Control Costs is concerned with: A. Managing changes when they occur B. Resource rates C. Chart of accounts D. Organizational policies Answer: A Explanations: Control Costs is concerned with Managing changes when they occur 39. The closing process scope includes: A. Contract closeout B. Final reporting C. Activity List D. Exit interview Answer: A Explanations: closing process scope includes Contract closeout. 40. Collect Requirements is: A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions C. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope D. Planning project milestones Answer: B Explanations: Collect Requirements:Process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that produces the product of the project 41. Which of the following is NOT input to Define Activities: A. Scope baseline
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B. Product description C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Organizational process assets Answer: B Explanations: Define Activities-Inputs: Scope baseline, Enterprise environmental factors, and Organizational process assets. 42. When the project team directs staff assignments, what is NOT considered in the selection of a staff? A. Previous experience B. Staff age C. Availability D. Personal interest Answer: B Explanations: Staff age is not considered in the selection of a staff 43. Which of the following involves estimating the cost of individual work items: A. Computerized B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Square foot Answer: B Explanations: Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total, more accurate 44. The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is: A. Square foot estimating B. Template estimating C. Computerized estimating D. Analogous estimating Answer: C Explanations: Computerized estimating rapid Estimate Costs technique 45. Which of the following is another term for top down estimating? A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating Answer: A Explanations:
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Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. 46. In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared? A. Initiation B. Collect Requirements C. Define Scope D. Verify Scope Answer: A Explanations: A Schedule Management Plan is developed as part of Develop Project Management Plan. 47. _______ is the most accurate Estimate Costs technique. A. Parametric modelling B. Bottom up estimating C. Analogous estimating D. None Answer: B Explanations: Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total - more accurate 48. __________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modelling D. Bottom up estimating Answer: C Explanations: Parametric modeling: Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square foot). 49. Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _____ which will adversely affect project objectives. A. Likely events B. Complex activities C. Complex schedules D. Uncertain occurrences Answer: D Explanations: Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.
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50. Which is generally the least accurate. A. Using stakeholders to predict cost B. Parametric modelling C. Analogous estimating D. Computerized estimating Answer: C Explanations: Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also called topdown estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. 51. Close Procurements tools and technique contains all of the following EXCEPT: A. Negotiated settlements B. Procurement audits C. Records management system D. Closed procurements Answer: D Explanations: Procurement audits, negotiated settlements and Records management system are tools and techniques of Close procurement. Close procurement is an output of Close procurement 52. Which is NOT included in General Management: A. Finance and accounting B. Strategic planning C. Sales and marketing D. Developing a new product or service Answer: D Explanations: Developing a new product or service is not included in General Management. 53. A program is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the process of managing multiple on going projects B. A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome C. A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome D. The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments Answer: A Explanations:

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A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the process of managing multiple on going projects 54. Which of the following processes is NOT included in Project Time Management? A. Define Activities B. Sequence Activities C. Develop Schedule and Control Schedule D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) Answer: D Explanations: Work breakdown structure (WBS) is not included in Project Time Management but all other options provided in Project Time Management. 55. Which of the following is NOT included in Performance improvements: A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked B. Improvements in skills C. Improvements in team cohesiveness D. Improvements in competence Answer: A Explanations: Improvements in amount of overtime worked is not included in Performance improvements. 56. Which of the following describes how cost variances will be managed? A. Cost management plan B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimate D. Chart of accounts Answer: A Explanations: Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed. 57. ___________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan. A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Resource planning C. Resource leveling D. Executing process Answer: D Explanations: Executing process coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
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58. The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called: A. Procurement planning B. Source selection C. Contract administration D. Contract closeout Answer: A Explanations: Procurement planning: Determining what project needs can best be met by procuring products or services outside the organization 59. The Critical Path Method of scheduling is: A. A mathematical analysis technique for Develop Schedule B. A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration C. A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule D. A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates Answer: C Explanations: Critical Path Method (CPM): Calculates a single, deterministic early and late start and finish date for each activity, to be used to determine which activities must be completed on time to avoid impacting the finish date of the project 60. During ______ part of the Procurement Management process does procurement negotiations happened. ? A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Answer: B Explanations: In Conduct Procurements process negotiations occurs. 61. You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP(Request for proposal). RFP(Request for proposal) is done in _______. A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Answer: A Explanations: RFP(Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process,

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62. Create Procurement document is done in _______. A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Answer: A Explanations: Create Procurement document is done in Plan Procurements process. 63. You are project manager and now you are middle of comparing proposals received from sellers . Comparing proposals received from sellers done in _______ . A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Answer: B Explanations: Comparing proposals received from sellers done in Conduct Procurements. 64. Make payment to seller is done in _______ . A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Answer: C Explanations: Make payment to seller is done in Administer Procurements. 65. Complete final contract performance reporting and verify the product is done in _______ . A. Plan Procurements B. Conduct Procurements C. Administer Procurements D. Close Procurements Answer: D Explanations: Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements. 66. Which of the following is controlling changes to the budget. A. Control Costs B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Estimate Budget
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Answer: A Explanations: Control Costs is controlling changes to the budget. 67. All of the following are keys management skills EXCEPT: A. Leading B. Communicating C. Negotiating D. Active listening Answer: D Explanations: Leading, comuunicating and Negotiating are keys management skill, but active listening is not key management skill. 68. Which of the following is NOT output from Control Schedule: A. Schedule updates B. Revisions C. Corrective action D. Lessons learned Answer: B Explanations: Outputs of Control Schedule: Schedule updates, Corrective action and Lessons learned 69. A resource pool description provides: A. The unit cost for each resource B. What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns C. Performance of the pool resources D. Duration of the project Answer: B Explanations: A resource pool description: What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns 70. Which of the following processes recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization. A. Initiating process B. Solicitation process C. Scoping process D. Planning process Answer: A Explanations: Initiating process:recognizes that a project or phase should begin and commits the organization. 71. Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
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A. Accepted deliverables B. Change Requests C. Project document updates. D. Project scope statement Answer: D Explanations: Project scope statement is an output of Define Scope. 72. Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project. A. Manager B. harm C. Schedule D. Budget Answer: B Explanations: Risk event is the description of what may happen to the harm of the project. 73. A RAM is: A. Random access memory B. Rapid and movement C. Responsibilities and methods D. Responsibility assignment matrix Answer: D Explanations: The Responsibility Assignment Matrix is used to give an overview of personnel responsibility for particular tasks. 74. Contingency planning is a means to _____ risks to the project through a formal process and provides the resources to meet the risk events. A. Address B. Classify C. Assign D. Resolve Answer: A Explanations: Contingency Planning: The development of a management plan that identifies alternative strategies to be used to ensure project success if specified risk events occur. 75. Which of the following devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address. A. Development process B. Scoping process
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C. Planning process D. Information development process Answer: C Explanations: Planning process 76. Staffing requirements do not define: A. What types of skills are required B. What time frames C. What kinds of individuals or groups D. What type of resource planning is required Answer: D Explanations: Staffing requirements do not define What type of resource planning is required. 77. A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that activity durations must be _____. A. Statistically dependent B. Variance distributed C. Statistically independent D. Deterministic Answer: C Explanations: Statistically independent 78. Constraints do not include: A. Impacts of weather B. Organizational structure of the performing organization C. Collective bargaining D. Expected staff assignments Answer: A Explanations: Impacts of weather 79. Which of the following is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Contract change control system B. Contract negotiation C. Payment system D. Performance rating Answer: B Explanations: Contract negotiation is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration.

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80. Which of the following documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to build. A. Resource plan B. Project charter C. Project description D. Scope statement Answer: C Explanations: Project description documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to build. 81. A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result. A. Project plan B. Process C. Schedule D. Flowchart Answer: B Explanations: Process 82. Which of the following involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities. A. Resource planning B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs Answer: A Explanations: Resource planning:Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups. 83. Which of the following is the Estimate Costs technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project. A. Analogous estimating B. Life-cycle costing C. Parametric modeling D. Bottom up estimating Answer: A Explanations: Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also called topdown estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.

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84. A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style: A. Hierarchal B. Authoritarian C. Charismatic D. Associative Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 0 85. You are responsible of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics is based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of: A. Statistical sampling B. Metrics C. Benchmarking D. Operational definitions Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 1 86. The two closing procedures are called: A. Contract close out and Verify Scope B. Contract close out and administrative closure C. Project closure and product verification D. Project closure and lessons learned Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 2 87. Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of: A. Constrained optimization models for selecting a project B. Benefit measurement models for selecting a project C. Quality measurement techniques D. Distribute Information tools Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 3 88. During the Develop Schedule process the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during this process: A. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements

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B. Resource Levelling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars C. Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT D. GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 4 89. Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves the issue in the long term? A. Problem solving B. Withdrawal C. Forcing D. Smoothing Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 5 90. The To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is calculated by: A. Subtracting the actual costs to date from the estimate at completion B. Dividing the budgeted cost of the remaining work by the difference between the estimate at completion and actual costs to date C. Multiplying the estimate at completion by the cumulative cost performance index D. Adding the estimate at completion to the actual costs to date and multiplying by the cumulative cost performance index Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 6 91. A complex project will fit best in what type of organization? A. Functional B. Cross-functional C. Matrix D. Balanced Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 7 92. Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0? A. 1.4
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B. 1.1.1.1 C. 1.2.3.4 D. b and c Answer: D Explanations: No Expl 8 93. Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components? A. Collect Requirements B. Initiation C. Scope Change Control D. Define Scope Answer: D Explanations: No Expl 9 94. The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called all of the following EXCEPT: A. phase exit B. kill point C. stage gate D. phase end Answer: D Explanations: No Expl 10 95. Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions? A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end, and drop rapidly as the project nears completion. B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project. C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project. D. Cost and staffing are high at the start, lower towards the end, and drop rapidly as the project nears completion Answer: A Explanations: No Expl 11 96. Project scope is: A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.

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B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract. D. A narrative description of execution time of the project Answer: A Explanations: No Expl 12 97. What is the purpose of the WBS? A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units. B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework. C. To show the organizational structure of a program. D. To show the risk structure of a program. Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 13 98. The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as: A. The work package codes B. The project identifiers C. The code of accounts D. The element accounts Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 14 99. Change requests can occur due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. An external event such as a change in government regulation. B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product. C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project. D. An error calculation in cost estimating of the project Answer: D Explanations: No Expl 15 102. All of the following are outputs of the Control Scope Process EXCEPT: A. Work performance measurements B. Change requests C. Project management plan updates D. Scope baseline Answer: D
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Explanations: No Expl 18 103. Who should contribute to the development of the project plan? A. Project manager B. Entire project team including project manager C. Senior management D. Just the planning department Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 19 105. Which of the following tools and techniques is commonly used in the Define Scope Process? A. Benefit/cost analysis B. Decomposition C. Inspection D. Alternatif identification Answer: D Explanations: No Expl 21 106. Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? A. Gantt chart B. Milestone chart C. Fishbone diagram D. Network diagram Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 22 107. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a milestone chart? A. To show task dependencies. B. To show resource constraints. C. To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables. D. To highlight the critical path. Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 23 108. When should the project manager be assigned? A. As early in the project as feasible. B. Preferably after project planning has been done.
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C. At least prior to the finish of project plan execution. D. Any time during project execution. Answer: A Explanations: No Expl 24 109. In which type of organization(s) is the project managers role most likely part-time? A. Functional B. Balanced Matrix C. Weak Matrix D. Functional and Weak Matrix Answer: D Explanations: No Expl 25 110. A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer) A. A project plan B. A risk analysis C. A scope management plan D. A scope statement Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 26 112. During what Time Management Process are the specific activities that must be performed to produce the deliverables in the WBS identified and documented? A. Sequence Activities B. Define Activities C. Develop Schedule D. Estimate Activity Durations Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 28 113. A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called: A. Elapsed Time B. Duration C. Effort D. Earned Time Answer: A Explanations: No Expl 29
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114. The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called: A. Negative Float B. Positive Float C. Float D. Accumulative float Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 30 115. What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack? A. Lots of free float B. Idle resources C. Negative float D. Positive float Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 31 116. Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average? A. 6 B. 4 C. 6.3 D. 6.1 Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 32 117. What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem? A. 0.6 B. 2 C. 1.5 D. 0.5 Answer: A Explanations: No Expl 33 118. In crashing the schedule, you would focus on: A. Accelerating as many tasks as possible B. Accelerating just the non-critical tasks C. Accelerating the performance of tasks on the critical path D. Accelerating the performance of task selected by project team
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Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 34 119. To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks, you must do: A. An analysis of the critical path B. A forwards pass C. A backwards pass D. An upward pass Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 35 120. An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency exists between two activities is called: A. A milestone B. A hammock C. A dummy activity D. A critical path Answer: C Explanations: No Expl 36 121. A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is represented by: A. Lead time B. Lag time C. Negative Lag D. Lead time or Negative Lag Answer: D Explanations: No Expl 37 122. Assuming a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of completing the project within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the mean? A. 68% B. 99.74% C. 95% D. 75% Answer: B Explanations: No Expl 38 123. Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________: A. Estimate Activity Durations
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B. Control Schedule C. Sequence Activities D. Estimate Activity Resources Answer: A Explanations: Activity Resource Requirements is an input to Estimate Activity Durations. 124. Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which Sequence Activities techniques? A. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] B. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM] C. Fragment Network D. Barchart Method Answer: A Explanations: Dummy activities are used to show complete relationships between tasks, and the fact that ADM uses only finish-to-start dependences. 125. Which of the following relationships is used in Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]: A. Start-to-Finish B. Finish-to-Start C. Start-to-Start D. Finish-to-Finish Answer: B Explanations: Dummy activities are used to show complete relationships between tasks, and the fact that ADM uses only finish-to-start dependences. 126. Which of the following is NOT a technique for Sequence Activities ? A. Rolling Wave Planning B. Mandatory Dependencies C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM] Answer: A Explanations: Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique for Sequence Activities. 127. Which of the following is a technique used to Define Activities ? A. Rolling Wave Planning B. Mandatory Dependencies
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C. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM D. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM] Answer: A Explanations: Rolling wave planning is a technique for Define Activities. Other options are technique for Sequence Activities. 128. Reserve Analysis is a technique for: A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Sequence Activities D. Define Activities Answer: A Explanations: Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the activity duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk. 129. Resource Leveling is a technique for: A. Develop Schedule B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities Answer: A Explanations: Resource Levelling Heuristics: Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first etc. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are: Mathematical analysis, Duration compression, Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management software, Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure. 130. Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for: A. Develop Schedule B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities Answer: A Explanations: Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are: Mathematical analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resourceleveling ,Project management software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
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131. Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process: A. Develop Schedule B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Sequence Activities D. Estimate Activity Resources Answer: B Explanations: Tools and Techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are: Analogous estimates , Parametric Estimating, Three-Point Estimates and Reserve Analysis. 132. Three-Point Estimates includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Most likely B. Optimistic C. Pessimistic D. Realistic Answer: D Explanations: Three-Point Estimates includes Most likely, Optimistic and Pessimistic. 133. Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which process: A. Sequence Activities B. Develop Schedule C. Define Activities D. Estimate Activity Durations Answer: A Explanations: Sequence Activities: Identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships 134. A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000. What term can best describe the difference of $10,000? A. Cost Variance B. Management Overhead C. Management Contingency Reserve D. Schedule Variance Answer: C Explanations: The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the project. So C is true.

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135. Cost performance baseline is created as a part of: A. Estimate costs process B. Determine budget process C. Control costs process D. Calculation costs process Answer: B Explanations: Cost performance baseline is created in determine budget process. 136. Which of the following is NOT a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget? A. Management Contingency Reserve B. Management Overheads C. Project Management Planing D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve Answer: A Explanations: The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost baseline. 137. Which of the following is NOT part of the Earned Value calculations ? A. Unknown Unknowns B. Project Budget C. Known Unknowns D. Amount of work completed Answer: A Explanations: Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations. 138. Resource reallocation from non critical to critical activities is an example of ________ Project Scheduling technique: A. Resource Leveling B. Schedule Compression C. Critical Path Method D. What if Analysis Answer: A Explanations: Resource Leveling:Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first . 139. Trend Analysis is best described as: A. Examining project performance over time
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B. Calculating Earned Value C. Calculating Cost Variance D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time Answer: A Explanations: Trend Analysis is Examining project performance time by time 140. Which of the following is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure? A. Project task B. Work package C. SOW D. RBS Answer: B Explanations: A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure. 141. Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is most likely to give rise to which of the following dependencies: A. Finish-to-Start dependency B. External dependency C. Mandatory dependency D. Soft Logic Answer: D Explanations: This kind of dependency is also known as Soft Logic, Preferential Logic, or Preferred Logic 142. Reserve Analysis involves: A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate B. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk D. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates Answer: D Explanations: Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the activity duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk. 143. Reserve Analysis technique NOT used during __________. A. Control Costs
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B. Estimating Activity Duration C. Determine Budget D. Estimate Costs Answer: A Explanations: Reserve analysis is used during Estimate Costs to calculate contingency buffers that apply to individual or group of activities. Reserve analysis is used during Determine Budget to calculate management contingency buffers that apply to the entire project. Reserve analysis is done during Activity Duration estimation in order to calculate duration buffers for individual or group of activities. 144. Which of the following is NOT true about Resource Leveling: A. Projects critical path may be altered B. Reverse resource allocation scheduling C. Resource based scheduling method D. Projects critical path may be removed Answer: D Explanations: All are true about Resource Levelling. Resource Levelling is another tool in Develop Schedule. Resource Levelling removes the peaks and valleys of resource allocation. This technique also examines resource over allocation and critical resource allocation. This technique lets the schedule and cost slip. 145. If you are project manager, after a change request has been denied, you should: A. Record it and save it. B. Pass on to the project team. C. Forget it. D. Remove it. Answer: A Explanations: You have to keep track of all change requests. 146. Change requests are made against the ____________? A. Project baseline B. SOW C. Charter D. Executive summary Answer: A Explanations: All change requests are made against a project plan that has the project baseline. 147. Change requests should be ______ ?
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A. Formal B. Interesting C. Short D. Informal Answer: A Explanations: Record of changes request should be maintained. 148. The Change Control Board should NOT be: A. Flexible B. Include the project manager C. Appropriate authority D. Relaxed Answer: D Explanations: CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics. 149. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions included in the __________? A. Execution Plan B. Project Scope C. Product scope D. Statement of work. Answer: B Explanations: Product scope - The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. Project scope - The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. 150. The outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself is called a _______ ? A. Deliverable B. Work Statement C. Project Plan D. WBS Answer: A Explanations: The outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself is called a Deliverable. 151. All of the following are a valid response to positive risks EXCEPT: A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance
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D. Insurance Answer: D Explanations: Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may be responded by - Exploit, Enhance, Share, Accept. 152. Which of the following is a valid response to negative risks? A. Exploit B. Share C. Enhance D. Mitigation Answer: D Explanations: Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may be responded by - Exploit, Enhance, Share, Accept. 153. Which of the following processes has risk register as the primary output? A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis B. Monitor and Control Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Identify Risks Answer: D Explanations: Process of Identify Risks has Risk register as the major output. 154. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact? A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis B. Monitor and Control Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Identify Risks Answer: A Explanations: Risk probability and impact are defined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. 155. Which of the following compression techniques increases risk? A. Crashing B. Resource leveling C. Fast tracking D. Lead and lag Answer: C
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Explanations: Fast tracking is a compression technique that increases risk and potentially causes rework 156. Which of the following performance measurements tells us how much more of the budget is required to finish the project? A. ETC B. EV C. EAC D. AC Answer: A Explanations: Estimate to completion calculates how much more of the budget is needed to complete the project if everything continues at the current level of performance. 157. Project risk is characterized by three factors. What are they ? A. Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact B. Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact C. Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake D. Occurrence, frequency and cost Answer: C Explanations: Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake are the factors. 158. A project is defined in the PMBOK as: A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan B. A group of ideas managed in a coordinated way to obtain a desired outcome C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service D. A collection of activities with a beginning and an end Answer: C Explanations: A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service 159. Which of the following is best for handling cross functional project needs for a large, complex project? A. A strong matrix organization B. A project coordinator C. A project expeditor D. Direct executive involvement Answer: A
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Explanations: Strong Matrix: Power rest with Project Manager. 160. Project Stakeholders are defined as all of the following EXCEPT: A. Individuals and organizations who use the projects product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. Individuals and organizations who have no relation with the project Answer: D Explanations: No explanation 161. The tools and techniques used in the initiation process are: A. Product analysis B. Project Develop Schedule C. Expert judgment D. Project budget Answer: C Explanations: Expert judgment is required in the initiation process 162. Likely schedule durations for Estimate Activity Durations are available from historical information that is derived from the following sources except: A. Commercial duration databases B. Project files C. Project team knowledge D. Outside consultants Answer: D Explanations: All are inputs to Estimate Activity Durations except Outside consultants. 163. Your spouse works for a vendor and the vendor bidding on a project at your company. You are not affiliated with the specific project team evaluating bids, but you are part of the executive project management team. What should you do? A. Inform your company of the relationship B. Inform the vendor of the relationship C. Inform your company and vendor about the relationship D. Does not inform the vendor
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Answer: C Explanations: It is your responsibility to disclose to both the vendor and your company . 164. Which of the following process involves measures project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes ? A. Collect Requirements B. Define Scope C. Verify scope. D. Control scope Answer: D Explanations: Control scope process involves measures project and product scope performance and managing scope baseline changes. 165. Which of the following is NOT one of the triple constraint of a project? A. Scope B. Time C. Cost D. Resources Answer: D Explanations: Projects triple constraints are 1) Scope, 2)Time and 3)Cost 167. Which of the following organization is same as Functional organization? A. Projectized organization B. Balanced Matrix organization C. Strong Matrix D. Weak Matrix organization Answer: D Explanations: Weak Matrix: Power reset with Functional Manager and Functional organization: Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales engineer etc. 168. A Schedule Management Plan is developed in which of the following knowledge areas: A. Develop Project Management Plan B. Project Cost Management C. Project Scope Management D. Project Time Management Answer: A
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Explanations: A Schedule Management Plan is developed as part of Develop Project Management Plan. 169. Define Activities is typically performed by which of the following: A. Project Manager who created the WBS B. Management C. Project Team Members responsible for the work package D. Project Stakeholder Answer: B Explanations: Define Activities is typically performed by Project Team Members. identify the activities that need to be done to complete the project. 170. Which of the following is not an activity attribute: A. Time when to perform the activity B. Location where to perform the activity C. Leads and Lags D. Person responsible for the activity Answer: A Explanations: Activity attributes are an input for project Develop Schedule. The scheduling information is not a part of the activity attribute. 171. Which of the following does not create changes to the Project Scope Statement or Work Breakdown Structure ? A. Estimate Activity Durations B. Define Activities C. Estimate Activity Resources D. Sequence Activities Answer: A Explanations: Estimate Activity Durations: Process of taking information on project scope and resources and then developing durations for input to schedules. 173. At which stage, project cost is maximum? A. Initial stage B. Closing stage C. Middle stage D. Planning stage Answer: C Explanations:

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Middle stage: Execution stage has the resources and cost usage is maximum. 174. Which of the following is NOT correct about initial phase of a project? A. The cost associated at the initial phase of the project is highest. B. Stake holders have maximum influence during this phase C. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project. D. The resources associated at the initial phase of the project is lowest Answer: A Explanations: Minimum cost at the project initiation stage because minimum requirement of resources . 175. Process analysis is a function of ____________. A. Process Improvement Plan B. Quality Improvement Plan C. Quality Metrics D. Performance Analysis Answer: A Explanations: process analysis is simply execution of the steps outlined in Process Improvement Plan. 176. Root Cause Analysis related to ________. A. Process Analysis B. Quality Audits C. Performance Measurements D. Quality Assurance Answer: A Explanations: Root Cause Analysis relates to Process Analysis. 177. Trend Analysis is performed using ______. A. Run Chart B. Scatter Diagram C. Pareto Chart D. Control Charts Answer: A Explanations: Trend Analysis involves forecasting the future trend based on past performance. Run Chart shows the past pattern of variation. 178. A Pareto diagram can be best described as: A. Histogram
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B. Control Chart C. Scatter Chart D. Cause and Effect Diagram Answer: A Explanations: Pareto diagram mainly helps the project management team to quantify and categories the defects/issues according to sources (engineering defects, setup problems, etc) 180. The process of Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of which process? A. Planning B. Monitoring and Control C. Executing D. QA Answer: B Explanations: Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of Monitoring and Control process. 181. Which of the following is not an example of formal communication? A. Contract B. email C. Project status report D. Status meeting Answer: B Explanations: Communication via email is not considered a formal communication. 182. Which of the following processes is not included in project communication knowledge area? A. Communication Planning B. Documenting Project Closure C. Managing stakeholders D. Distribute Information Answer: B Explanations: Document Project Closure is not a part in Project communication knowledge area. 183. You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next? A. Create WBS B. Verify Scope
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C. Value analysis D. Control Scope Answer: A Explanations: Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope. 184. Reserve Analysis a technique not used in: A. Estimate Costs B. Estimating Activity Duration C. Control Costs D. Determine Budget Answer: C Explanations: Reserve Analysis: Many cost estimators include reserves, also called contingency allowances, as costs in many schedule activity cost estimates. Reserve Analysis a technique not used in Control Costs . 185. A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000. What term can best describe the difference of $10,000? A. Cost Variance B. Management Overhead C. Management Contingency Reserve D. Schedule Variance Answer: C Explanations: The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the project. So C is true. 187. Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget? A. Management Contingency Reserve B. Management Overheads C. Project Management Planing D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve Answer: A Explanations: The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost baseline.

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189. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, What does it means: A. There is no cost variance B. There is no schedule variance C. Schedule Variance Index is 1 D. Project is on budget and on schedule Answer: A Explanations: Cost Variance = EV - AC. Therefore if EV = AC, the Cost Variance is zero . 190. Trend Analysis is best described as: A. Examining project performance over time B. Calculating Earned Value C. Calculating Cost Variance D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time Answer: A Explanations: Trend Analysis is Examining project performance time by time 191. Which of the following is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure? A. Project task B. Work package C. SOW D. Activity Answer: B Explanations: A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure. 192. Which of the following is not part of Performance Measurements? A. Calculating Earned Value B. Calculating ETC C. Calculating Cost Variance D. Calculating Planned Value Answer: A Explanations: Calculating Earned Value is not done as part of Performance Measurements. 193. Management Contingency Reserve is identified in which process: A. Determine Budget B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Estimate Costs
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D. Estimate Activity Durations Answer: C Explanations: The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is identified in Estimate Costs process. 194. Resource Breakdown Structure is an example of: A. Text-oriented Format B. Functional Chart C. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart D. Matrix-based Responsibility Chart Answer: C Explanations: Resource Breakdown Structure is a type of hierarchical chart breaks down the project by resource types so that the project manager can see quickly which resources can be grouped together. The RBS does not have to be only for human resources and may include materials, communication technologies, and other types of resources needed to execute the project 195. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be best used to track project costs: A. Organizational Breakdown Structure B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix C. Resource Breakdown Structure D. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart Answer: C Explanations: Resource Breakdown Structure is a type of hierarchical chart breaks down the project by resource types so that the project manager can see quickly which resources can be grouped together. The RBS does not have to be only for human resources and may include materials, communication technologies, and other types of resources needed to execute the project. A RBS can be aligned with Organizations accounting system. 196. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM): A. Defines all people associated with each activity B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component C. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities D. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity Answer: C Explanations:

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The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart. 197. Which of the following is true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM): A. Defines all people associated with each activity B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component C. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity D. Details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart Answer: D Explanations: The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart. 198. War room creation during project deployment phase is an example of: A. Team Building activity B. General Management Skills C. Working together on Co-Location D. Establishing Ground Rules Answer: C Explanations: War room: Working together on Co-Location 199. Building a virtual team for a project will limit the usability of which of the following tools and techniques for Team Development: A. Team Building B. Reward and Recognitions C. Working together on Co-Location D. Establishing Ground Rules Answer: C Explanations: Virtual team for a project will limit the usability of Working together on Co-Location. 200. A single source seller is ____________. A. There is only one seller the company wants to do business with. B. There is only one qualified seller. C. There is only one seller in the market. D. There are many seller in the market Answer: A Explanations: A single source seller is only one seller the company wants to do business with.
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