*Points Awarded* *105.00* *Points Missed* *-5.00* *Percentage* *105.0%* Correct Incorrect Ungraded 1.

The most common error in measuring the glomerular filtration rate using the creatinine clearance is: A) Diurnal variations in creatinine production B) Inaccurate timing of urine collection C) Calculation errors D) Errors in the chemical analysis Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 2. Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from the following data: Urine volume: 720 mL for 12hrs/ Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL/ Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL A) 60 mL/min B) 80 mL/min C) 100 mL/min D) 120 mL/min Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 3. Infection of the bladder is termed: A) Pyelitis B) Nephritis C) Cystitis D) Bacteriuria Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 4. Most renal calculi are composed of: A) Ammonium phosphate B) Magnesium C) Uric acid D) Calcium Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 5. Phenylketonuria is caused by:

A) Excessive ingestion of milk products containing products containing phenylalanine B) Inability to metabolize tyrosine C) Lack of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase D) A mousy odor in the urine Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 6. A routine urinalysis is performed on a specimen that has turned dark after standing in the laboratory. The urine is acidic and has negative chemical tests except for the appearance of a red color on the ketone area of the reagent strip. One should suspect: A) PKU B) Diabetic ketosis C) Alkaptonuria D) Melanuria Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 7. Urine with an odor of "sweaty feet" and a positive ketone test indicates: A) Cystinuria B) Alkaptonuria C) Organic acidemia D) Tyrosyluria Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 8. The finding of a "blue diaper" is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of: A) Phenylalanine B) Tyrosine C) Tryptophan D) Cystine Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 9. The presence of "orange sand" in an infant's diaper is indicative of: *(Bonus)* A) B) C) D) Cystinuria Bilirubinuria Maple syrup urine disease Lesch-Nyhan disease

Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 10. As supervisor of the UA laboratory, you have procedure. You should: A) Place the package insert in the procedure B) Perform a cost analysis and put it in the C) Notify the other laboratory departments D) Place a complete, referenced procedure in Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

just adopted a new manual procedure manual the procedure manual

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 11. Urinalysis procedure manuals are reviewed: A) By the supervisor on each shift B) On a weekly schedule C) Annually by a designated person D) Only when a procedure is changed Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 12. When you receive a specimen and a requisition form that do not match, you should: A) Notify the personnel who collected the specimen B) Test the specimen, and note the error on the requisition C) Immediately discard the specimen D) Analyze the error, and make appropriate changes to the label Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 13. Instruments used in the urinalysis laboratory are kept in good working condition by: A) Unplugging when not in use B) Performing routine preventive maintenance C) Retraining personnel on a monthly basis D) Both B and C Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 14. Proficiency testing should be performed: A) When control results exceed the confidence limits

B) By personnel performing the tests routinely C) By the laboratory supervisor only D) During an accreditation site inspection Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 15. All of the following are accrediting agencies recognized as meeting CLIA'88 standards except: A) COLA B) NCCLS C) CAP D) JCAHO Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 16. Waived tests performed in a hospital urinalysis laboratory must meet the CLIA'88 standards for: A) Waived testing B) Provider-performed microscopy C) Moderate-complexity testing D) High-complexity testing Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 17. A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) Nonmatching label and requisition form B) Specimen contaminated with feces C) Contamination on the exterior of the container D) The container uses a screw-top lid Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 18. The primary cause of the changes that take place in unpreserved urine is: A) Bacteria growth B) Excessive exposure to light C) Oxidation of chemical constituents D) Precipitation of crystals Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded

19. A urine specimen containing a large amount of precipitated amorphous material may have been preserved using: A) Refrigeration B) Phenol C) Formalin D) Toluene Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 20. Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be: A) Warmed to 37C B) Examined for crystal formation C) Examined for changes in color D) Returned to room temperature Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 21. All the following specimens are acceptable for a urine culture, EXCEPT: A) Catheterized specimen B) Timed specimen C) Suprapubic aspiration D) Midstream clean-catch specimen Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 22. Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on a: A) Timed overnight specimen B) First morning specimen C) 24-hour specimen D) 2-hour postprandial specimen Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 23. Where should labels on urine specimen container be placed: A) Container B) Lid C) Bottom D) Placement does not matter Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 24. What is the maximum length of time a urine specimen should remain unpreserved at room temperature before testing? A) 30 mins B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 6 hours Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 25. A dark yellow urine producing yellow foam may contain: A) Hemoglobin B) Protein C) Red Blood Cells D) Bilirubin Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 26. Which of the following colors and causes match: A) Red---carotene B) Dark Yellow---porphyrins C) Black---melanin D) Green---Pyridium Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 27. The addition of dilute acetic acid to a cloudy urine specimen will dissolve: A) Amorphous urates B) WBCs C) Yeast D) Amorphous phosphate Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 28. A urine specimen is diluted 1:10, and the specific gravity reads 1.006. The actual specific gravity is: A) 1.006 B) 1.016 C) 1.060 D) 10.006 Points Earned: 1.0/1.0

*Correct Answer(s):*

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 29. Bacterial decomposition of urea produces urine that has an odor resembling: A) Aromatic amines B) Asparagus C) Ammonia D) Bleach Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 30. Urine specific gravity can be measured by both physical and chemical methods A) True B) False Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* True

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 31. The density of urine specimen can affect the frequency of a sound wave. A) True B) False Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* True

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 32. Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an A) Abnormal result is obtained B) Different person performs the test C) New bottle of strips is opened D) Student is training in the laboratory Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 33. Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in interpretation caused by: A) Excess dilution B) Runover C) Reagent leaching D) Chemical concentration Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 34. When performing reagent strip quality control, the: A) Positive reading should match the reference value by plus or minus one color block B) Negative readings should match within one color block or the reference value C) Positive readings except protein and bilirubin should match the reference value D) Negative values except glucose and nitrite should be negative Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 35. When performing an SSA test, false-positive results may be obtained in the presence of: *(Bonus)* A) Ketones B) Alkali C) Glucose D) Radiographic contrast media Points Earned: 0.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 36. The SSA test should be performed on: A) All negative reagent strip proteins B) Specimens with Bence Jones protein C) Urine that has not been refrigerated D) Urine that has been centrifuged Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 37. Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of: A) Glucose using Clinitest B) Galactose using Multistix C) Lactose using Multistix Pro D) Galactose using Clinitest Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 38. While performing a Clinitest, you observe that the color changes rapidly form blue to orange and then back to blue. You should: *(Bonus)*

A) Report the test as negative because the final reaction color is blue B) Report the test as negative because the brief orange color probably was from detergent in the tube C) Repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to check for "pass through" D) Repeat the test using more drops of urine to prevent "pass through" Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 39. What do the following results suggest? Color: Yellow/ Protein: Trace/ Blood: Negative/ Clarity: Hazy/ Glucose: Negative/ Urobilinogen: 0.1EU/ SG: 1.019/ Ketones: Negative/ Nitrite: Positive/ pH: 8.0/ Bilirubin: Negative/ Leukocytes esterase: Positive A) Diabetes mellitus B) Unsatisfactory specimen C) Urinary tract infection D) Normal female specimen Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 40. The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituent is: A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20 Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 41. The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to: A) Identify the types of casts B) Detect renal tubular epithelial cells C) Evaluate the overall sediment composition D) Detect the presence of casts Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 42. All the following are reported as the quantity per *high*-power field EXCEPT: A) Casts B) Red blood cells

C) White blood cells D) Bacteria Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 43. Centrifugation of less than the recommended 12mL of urine for the microscopic examination will: A) Produce a false-negative SSA B) Produce a false-positive SSA C) Increase the number of cellular elements D) Decrease the number of cellular elements Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 44. To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using: A) Increased light under high power B) Increased light under low power C) Reduced light under high power D) Reduced light under low power Points Earned: 0.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 45. Differentiation among RBC's, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT: A) Observation of budding in yeast cells. B) Increased refractility of oil droplets C) Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D) Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 46. Glitter cell is term used to describe a specific type of: A) Ketone body B) Renal tubular epithelial cell C) Neutrophil D) Oval fat body Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 47. The organisms attached to a clue cell are:

A) Gardnerella vaginalis B) Trichomonas vaginalis C) Escherichia coli D) Candida albicans Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 48. Which of the following structures could be found in both a vaginal wet prep and a urine sediment? A) Yeast cells B) Transitional epithelial cell C) Clue cell D) Both A and C Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 49. To differentiate a bacterial cast from a granular cast, a technologist should: A) Perform a Gram stain B) Use polarizing microscopy C) Perform a Hansel stain D) Add acetic acid to the sediment Points Earned: 0.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 50. The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the: A) RBC B) RBC cast C) WBC cast D) Hyaline cast Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 51. Normal crystals found in acidic urine include: A) Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates B) Calcium oxalate, uric acid, sulfonamides C) Uric acid, amorphous urates, triple phosphate D) uric acid, calcium carbonate, bilirubin Points Earned: 0.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 52. Which of the following crystals occur in two very distinct forms? A) Ammonium biurate B) Calcium oxalate C) Leucine D) Cholesterol Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 53. /Schistosoma haematobium/ would most likely be found in the urine from a: *(Bonus)* A) Foreign-service employee B) Marathon runner C) Diabetic patient D) Health-care employee Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 54. The screening test result for PKU is: A) Ferric Chloride B) Clinitest C) Acetest D) Nitroso-naphthol Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 55. The odor of Phenylketonuria: A) Sweet B) Sulfur C) Mousy D) Sweaty feet Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 56. Before analysis, semen specimens should be: A) Refrigerated B) Incubated at 56C C) Allowed to liquefy D) Centrifuged Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 57. Sperm function tests include all of the following EXCEPT the: A) Hamster egg penetration assay B) Cervical mucus penetration test C) Meiosis and mitosis assay D) In vitro acrosome reaction Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 58. The third tube of CSF collected from a lumbar puncture should be used for: A) Chemistry test B) Cytology examination C) Microbiology tests D) Hematology tests Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 59. Examination of a CSF shows 1000 WBCs, of which 75% are lymphocytes and 25% are monocytes. This finding is consistent with: A) Normal spinal fluid B) Bacterial meningitis C) Viral meningitis D) Multiple sclerosis Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 60. Using the lab results to determine the type of infection they represent: WBC count: 1000 per L/ Lymphocytes: 10%/ Neutrophils: 90%/ Protein: 150 mg/dL/ Glucose: 15 mg/dL/ Blood Glucose: 90 mg/dL/ Lactate: 40 mg/dL A) Bacterial B) Viral C) Fungal D) Tubercular Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 61. Crystals found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are: A) Monosodium urate B) Calcium pyrophosphate C) Cholesterol

D) Apatite Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 62. A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with 100,000 WBCs, a predominance of neutrophils, and a decreased glucose is classified as: *(Bonus)* A) Noninflammatory B) Inflammatory C) Septic D) Crystal-induced Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 63. Peritoneal fluid is collected by a procedure called: A) Thoracentesis B) Asciticentesis C) Paracentesis D) Abdominalcentesis Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 64. A pleural fluid pH of less than 6.0 is indicative of: A) Tuberculosis B) Malignancy C) Pancreatic disorders D) Esophageal rupture Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 65. A milky pleural fluid that *stains strongly positive with Sudan III* indicates: A) Thoracic duct leadkage B) Nephrotic syndrome C) Malignancy D) Chronic inflammation Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 66. A screening test performed on a cloudy, green ascitic fluid would be a/an: A) Clinitest B) Albumin C) Reagent strip nitrite D) Ictotest Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 67. Proper collection of a semen specimen should include all of the following except collection: A) in a sterile container B) after a 3-day period of sexual abstinence C) at the laboratory followed by 1 hour of refrigeration D) at home and delivery to the laboratory within 1 hour Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 68. Prior to reporting a postvasectomy specimen as negative for the presence of sperm, the specimen must be:*(bonus)* A) stained B) examined under polarized light C) diluted D) centrifuged Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 69. Measurement of amniotic fluid creatinine levels can be used to: A) determine approximate fetal age B) diagnose hydramnios C) differentiate between amniotic fluid and maternal urine D) both A and C Points Earned: 0.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 70. The foam, or shake, test is a screening test for amniotic fluid: A) bilirubin B) surfactants C) alpha fetoprotein D) phosphatidyl glycerol Points Earned: 1.0/1.0

*Correct Answer(s):*

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 71. When using the cytocentrifuge, a daily control slide of saline and albumin is prepared to check: A) The correct centrifuge speed B) For the presence of WBCs C) For bacterial contamination D) The pH of staining buffer Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 72. To determine if fluid draining from the ear of a patient with severe head injury is CSF, the fluid should be: A) Centrifuged and examined for the presence of ependymal cells B) Electrophoresed for the presence of transferrin isoforms C) Analyzed for the presence of glutamine D) Tested for a low protein concentration Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 73. The CSF glucose in a patient with a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is 60mg/dL. These results are representative of: *(Bonus)* A) An improperly preserved specimen B) Bacterial meningitis C) Normal CSF D) Damage to the blood-brain barrier Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 74. To determine is an unknown fluid is synovial fluid, the fluid can be tested: A) By performing a differential B) Using compensated polarized light C) By adding acetic acid and observing clot formation D) By measuring the concentration of uric acid Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 75.

Vacuolated macrophages containing ingested neutrophils seen in synovial fluid are called: A) Reiter's cells B) Ragocytes C) LE cells D) RA cells Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 76. The normal brown color of the feces is produced by: A) undigested foodstuffs B) urobilin C) pancreatic enzymes D) celluose Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 77. Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of: A) barium sulfate B) mucus C) blood D) fat Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 78. A black, tarry stool is indicative of: A) Upper GI bleeding B) Lower GI bleeding C) Excess fat D) Excess carbohydrates Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 79. A pale, frothy stool is indicative of: A) Upper GI bleeding B) Lower GI bleeding C) Excess fat D) Excess carbohydrates Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded

80. The recommended specimen for quantitative fecal testing is a: A) specimen collected after overnight fasting B) 24-hour specimen C) 72-hour specimen D) random specimen Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 81. The unpleasant odor associated with fecal analysis is caused primarily by: A) undigested foodstuffs B) bile salts C) bacterial metabolism D) pancreatic secretions Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 82. Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III represent: A) fatty acids B) soaps C) neutral fats D) cholesterol Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 83. Wet preparations for the detection of fecal neutrophils are stained with: *(Bonus)* A) Gram's stain B) Wright's stain C) Sudan III D) methylene blue Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 84. Increased neutrophils in a stool may indicate: A) staphylococcal food poisoning B) pancreatic insufficiency C) lower GI bleeding D) /Salmonella/ infection Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 85. To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood tests, patients should avoid eating all of the following for 3 days before testing /*except*/: A) horseradish B) chicken C) melons D) red meat Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 86. Which needle gauge has the largest lumen? A) 18 B) 20 C) 21 D) 22 Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 87. A tube with a green stopper normally contains A) EDTA B) Citrate C) Heparin D) Oxalate Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 88. Which additive is usually present in a tube with a lavender stopper? A) Citrate B) EDTA C) Heparin D) Oxalate Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 89. According to CLSI standards, which tube is filled last when using a syringe: A) EDTA B) Heparin C) Sodium Citrate

D) Sterile SPS Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 90. EDTA is the most common source of carryover problems A) True B) False Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* True

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 91. In a routine ETS venipuncture, the lavender tube should be drawn before the red tube. A) True B) False Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* False

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 92. There is a request to draw a specimen from an inpatient by the name of John Doe. Which of the following is an acceptable way to confirm the patient's identity? *(Bonus)* A) Ask the patient, "Are you Mr. John Doe?" and see if he says "Yes" B) Check the patient's ID band and say, "I see that you are John Doe." C) Match the ID band and requisition with his verbal statement if ID. D) See if the ID band matches the requisition to be sure of his identity. Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 93. The following tests have all been ordered at the same time on different in inpatients. There is only one phlebotomist on duty. Which test should the phlebotomist collect first? A) ASAP CBC in the cardiac unit B) Routine Hgb in long-term care C) STAT electrolytes in the ER D) Timed blood culture in ICU Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 94. Never leave a tourniquet on for more than

A) 30 seconds B) 1 minute C) 2 minutes D) 3 minutes Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 95. What is the most critical error a phlebotomist can make? A) Collecting a timed specimen late. B) Failing to collect a specimen. C) Giving a patient a hematoma. D) Misidentifying a patient specimen Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 96. The priority designation for a test request is based on all of the following EXCEPT: A) age and gender B) diet restrictions C) patient condition D) timed collection Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 97. Which of the following vascular access devices is placed in a peripheral vein for the purpose of blood collection and administration of medication? A) Fistula B) Heparin lock C) Implanted port D) PICC Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 98. A phlebotomist has attempted twice to draw a partial thromboplastin (PTT) specimen from a patient with difficult veins. Both times the phlebotomist has been able to draw only a partial tube. What should the phlebotomist do? A) Collect the specimen by skin puncture. B) Have another phlebotomist attempt to draw the specimen C) Pour the two tubes together and mix well. D) Submit the fullest tube for testing, noting the draw was difficult. Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 99. Why are capillary blood gases less desirable than arterial blood gases (ABGs)? A) Skin puncture blood contains tissue fluid B) Skin puncture blood is only partly arterial C) The blood is exposed to air during collection D) All of the above Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 100. Why are EDTA specimens obtained before other specimens when collected by skin puncture? A) To minimize effects of platelet clumping B) To minimize tissue fluid contamination C) To prevent contamination from a carryover D) To reduce negative effects of hemolysis Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 101. Which of the following is the safest area for infant heel puncture? A) The area of the arch B) The central area C) The lateral plantar surface D) The posterior curvature Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 102. The purpose of wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture is to A) avoid bacterial contamination B) eliminate tissue fluid contamination C) minimize platelet aggregation D) reduce effects of hemoconcentration Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 103. It is necessary to control depth of lancet insertion during capillary puncture to avoid A) bacterial contamination B) excessive bleeding C) injuring the heel bone

D) puncturing an artery Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 104. Of the following tests, which is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified? A) Blood cultures B) Drug screen C) Potprandial glucose D) Type and crossmatch Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* D

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 105. When performing a GTT, the timing should begin A) as soon as the patient finishes the drink. B) one-half hour after the drink is finished. C) right after the patient arrives in the lab. D) when the fasting specimen is collected. Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* A

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 106. Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as treatment. A) Acute leukemia B) Autologous donation C) Hemochromatosis D) Rh incompatibility Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 107. An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood A) directly from the donor to the patient. B) donated by the patient for the patient. C) donated by a compatible relative. D) given by an anonymous donor. Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 108. A patient who is suspected of having lead poisoning should have his or

her lead test specimen drawn in a light blue tube. *(Bonus)* A) True B) False Points Earned: 1.0/0.0 *Correct Answer(s):* False

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 109. An example of a preanalytical error happening during specimen processing is A) faulty collection technique. B) inadequate centrifugation. C) insufficient specimen. D) patient stress and anxiety. Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* B

Correct Incorrect Ungraded 110. What is the most important factor in choosing which gauge needle to use for venipuncture? A) Age and weight of the patient B) Number of tubes to be drawn C) Size and condition of the vein D) Type of test being performed Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 *Correct Answer(s):* C