MITRC REFRESHER

1. a. b. c. d.

ANSWER KEY
c. d. 13. travel, a. b. c. d.

ACOUSTICS & BROADCASTING

Pitch and loudness Rarefactions and compressions When waves bend away from straight lines of it is called Reflection Diffraction Rarefaction Refraction

Which best describe the sound wave? It may be longitudinal It is always transverse It is always longitudinal All of the above

2. Which of the following can not travel through a vacuum? a. Electromagnetic wave b. Radio wave c. Soundwave d. Light wave 3. Through which medium does sound travel fastest? a. Air b. Water c. Steel d. Mercury 4. a. b. c. d. 5. a. b. c. d. Speed that is faster than that of sound. Ultrasonic Supersonic Subsonic Transonic What is the speed of sound in air at 20C? 1087 ft/s 1100 ft/s 1126 ft/s 200 ft/s

14. The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum displacement of each air particle, is the property which perceive as _____ of a sound a. Pitch b. Intensity c. Loudness d. Harmonics 15. It is the weakest sound that average human hearing can detect. a. SPL = 0 dB b. Threshold of hearing c. Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2 d. A, b, c 16. What is a device that is used to measure the hearing sensitivity of a person? a. Audiometer b. OTDR c. SLM d. Spectrum analyzer 17. What is the device used in measuring sound pressure levels incorporating a microphone, amplification, filtering and a display. a. Audiometer b. OTDR c. SLM d. Spectrum analyzer 18. What weighted scale in a sound level meter gives a reading that is most closely to the response of the human ear? a. Weighted scale A b. Weighted scale B c. Weighted scale C d. Weighted scale D 19. For aircraft noise measurements, the weighting scale that is used is _____. a. Weighted scale A b. Weighted scale B c. Weighted scale C d. Weighted scale D 20. a. b. c. d. It is the device used to calibrate an SLM? Microphone Pistonphone Telephone Filter

6. Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound of 16000 Hz a. 35 ft b. 10 ft c. 0.035 ft d. 100 ft 7. The lowest frequency that a human ear can hear is a. 5 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 20 Hz 8. Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz) a. Subsonic b. Ultrasonic c. Transonic d. Stereo 9. whose a. b. c. d. The frequency interval between two sounds frequency ratio is 10 Octave Half octave Third-octave Decade

10. A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher than a 500 Hz sound a. 2 b. 5 c. 4 d. 8 11. Sound waves composed of but one frequency is a/an a. Infra sound b. Pure tone c. Structure borne d. Residual sound 12. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are a. Highness and loudness b. Tone and loudness

21. _____ is the sound power measured over the area upon which is received. a. Sound pressure b. Sound energy c. Sound intensity d. Sound pressure level 22. A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity a. Phon b. Decibel c. Pascal d. Watts 23. Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2. a. 95 dB

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b. c. d. 24. sound a. b. c. d. 91 dB 98 dB 101 dB

ANSWER KEY

ACOUSTICS & BROADCASTING

34. Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound absorption 140 sabins. a. 0.3 sec b. 3.5 sec c. 3 sec d. 0.53 sec 35. It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic pressure in air into its equivalent electrical impulses a. Loudspeaker b. Amplifier c. Baffle d. Microphone 36. _____ is a pressure type microphone with permanent coil as a transducing element. a. Dynamic b. Condenser c. Magnetic d. Carbon 37. A microphone which has an internal impedance of 25 k is _____ type. a. High impedance b. Low impedance c. Dynamic d. Magnetic 38. a. b. c. d. A microphone that uses the piezoelectric effect Dynamic Condenser Crystal Carbon

What is the sound pressure level for a given whose RMS pressure is 200/m2? 200 dB 20 dB 140 dB 14 dB

25. What is the sound intensity for an RMS pressure of 200 Pascal? a. 90 W/m2 b. 98 W/m2 c. 108 W/m2 d. 88 W/m2 26. The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the pressure is doubled. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 27. The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the intensity is doubled. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 28. If four identical sounds are added what is the increase in level in dB? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 29. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings. a. Flanking transmission b. Reflection c. Refraction d. Reverberation 30. audible a. b. c. d. 31. dB a. b. c. d. _____ is the continuing presence of an sound after the sound source has stop. Flutter echo Sound concentration Sound shadow Reverberation Required time for any sound to decay to 60 Echo time Reverberation time Delay time Transient time

39. _____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange audio frequency. a. Tweeter b. Woofer c. Mid-range d. A or C 40. _____ is measure of how much sound is produced from the electrical signal. a. Sensitivity b. Distortion c. Efficiency d. Frequency response 41. It describes the output of a microphone over a range of frequencies. a. Directivity b. Sensitivity c. Frequency response d. All of the above 42. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated efficiency? a. -10 dB b. -20 dB c. -30 dB d. -40 dB 43. An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is the maximum intensity 300 ft from it? a. 10 dB b. 20 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB 44. a. b. waves c. Speaker is a device that Converts sound waves into current and voltage Converts current variations into sound Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy

32. A room containing relatively little sound absorption a. Dead room b. Anechoic room c. Live room d. Free-field 33. A room in which the walls offer essentially 100% absorption, therefore simulating free field conditions. a. Dead room b. Anechoic room c. Live room d. Closed room

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d. Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic energy

ANSWER KEY
c. d. 56. carrier a. b. c. d. 57. station a. b. c. d.

ACOUSTICS & BROADCASTING

Broadcasting Mixing What is the frequency tolerance for the RF in the standard AM radio broadcast band? Zero 20 Hz 10 Hz 20 KHz The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast should have a _____ polarization. Vertical Horizontal Circular Elliptical

45. The impedance of most drivers is about _____ ohms at their resonant frequency. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 46. energy a. b. c. d. It is a transducer used to convert electrical to mechanical energy. Microphone Baffle Magnetic assemble Driver

47. It is an enclosure used to prevent front and back wave cancellation. a. Loudspeaker b. Driver c. Baffle d. Frame 48. A circuit that divides the frequency components into separate bands in order to have individual feeds to the different drivers. a. Suspension system b. Dividing network c. Magnet assembly d. Panel board 49. a. b. c. d. _____ is early reflection of sound. Echo Pure sound Reverberation Intelligible sound

58. The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6 AM local time a. Daytime b. Nighttime c. Bed time d. Experimental period 59. The service area where the signal is not subject to fading and co-channel interference. a. Primary Service Area b. Secondary Service Area c. Intermittent Service Area d. Quarternary Service Area 60. It is a resistive load used in place of an antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded condition without actually radiating the transmitters output signal. a. Auxiliary Tx b. Main Tx c. Secondary Tx d. Artificial Antenna 61. The operating power of the auxiliary transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never greater than the authorized operating power of the main transmitter. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 62. band? a. b. c. d. What are the frequency limits of the MF BC 300-3000 kHz 3-30 MHz 535-1605 kHz 88-108 MHz

50. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. a. Dolby b. DBx c. dBa d. dBk 51. Using a microphone at less than the recommended working distance will create a _____ which greatly increases the low frequency signals. a. Roll-off b. Proximity effect c. Drop out d. None of the choices 52. a. b. c. d. What is the unit of loudness? Sone Phon Decibel Mel

53. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level a. Noy b. dB c. Sone d. Phon 54. What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2? a. 100 phons b. 105 phons c. 110 phons d. 100 phons 55. What is the process of sending voice, speech, music or image intended for reception by the general public? a. Navigation b. Telephony

63. The center to center spacing between two adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____. a. 9 kHz b. 200 kHz c. 36 kHz d. 800 kHz 64. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest modulating frequency is 10 kHz? a. 10 b. 15 c. 7 d. 14 65. a. b. c. d. 66. a. b. Short wave broadcasting operates in what band? MF HF VHF VLF What does the acronym STL stand for? Station-to-link Signal-to-loss-ratio

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ANSWER KEY

ACOUSTICS & BROADCASTING

78. The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier is _____ KHz. a. 67 b. 76 c. 38 d. 19 79. A monaural FM receiver receives only the _____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission. a. L+R b. LR c. Both a & b d. 67 KHz 80. When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what form are the L R signals? a. AF b. DSBSC c. 19 kHz d. 38 kHz 81. An additional channel of multiplex information that is authorized by the FCC for stereo FM radio stations to feed services such as commercial-free programming to selected customers. a. STL b. EBS c. EIA d. SCA 82. The class of FM station, which has an authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW: a. Class C b. Class A c. Class D d. Class B 83. An FM broadcast station, which has an authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW and ERP not exceeding 30 KW: a. Class D b. Class C c. Class A d. Class B 84. height a. b. c. d. A class of FM station which is limited in antenna of 500 ft. above average terrain Class D Class C Class A Class B

c. Shout-to-live d. Studio-to-transmitter-link 67. One of the main considerations in the selection of antenna site is (AM) a. Conductivity of the soil b. Height of the terrain c. Elevation of the site d. Accessibility 68. One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary services is: a. Remote pick-up b. STL c. Communication, Coordination and Control d. All of the above 69. What is the spacing between any two adjacent channels in the FM broadcast band? a. 20 KHz b. 36 KHz c. 200 KHz d. 800 KHz 70. center a. b. c. d. The first channel in the FM BC band has a frequency of 88 MHz 88.1 MHz 88.3 MHz 108 MHz

71. What is the radio transmission of two separate signals, left, and right, used to create a multidimensional effect on the receiver? a. SCA b. Stereo system c. Pilot transmission d. Monophonic transmission 72. The carrier frequency tolerance for FM broadcasting is _____. a. 25 kHz b. 2 kHz c. 20 kHz d. 30 kHz 73. What is the modulation used by the stereophonic subcarrier? a. FM b. PM c. ISB d. DSB 74. a. b. c. d. What is the pilot signal for stereo FM? 4.25 MHz 10 kHz 19 KHz 38 KHz

75. With stereo FM transmission, does a monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo does? a. Yes b. No c. Either a or b d. Neither a or b 76. Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM system? a. Before the matrix at the TX b. Before the matrix at the RX c. After the matrix at the TX d. After the matrix at the RX 77. stereo a. b. c. d. Where is the pre-emphasis added in a FM system? Before the matrix at the TX Before the matrix at the RX After the matrix at the TX After the matrix at the RX

85. What type of broadcast service might have their antennas on top of hills? a. FM b. AM c. TV d. A&C 86. How are guardbands allocated in commercial FM stations? a. 25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting signal b. 50 kHz on each side of the carrier c. 75 kHz deviation d. 15 kHz modulation 87. How many commercial FM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV station? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

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ANSWER KEY
c. d. 99. carrier a. b. c. d.

ACOUSTICS & BROADCASTING

498 MHz 500 MHz What is the frequency tolerance in the color of TV broadcasting? 2 kHz 20 Hz 10 Hz 1 kHz

88. How many international commercial AM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV station? a. 100 b. 200 c. 125 d. 600 89. What kind of modulation is used for the sound portion of a commercial broadcast TV transmission? a. PM b. FM c. C3F d. AM 90. sound a. b. c. d. Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the portion of a TV transmission in US. 25 kHz 800 kHz 80 kHz 200 kHz

100. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for frequency for channel 7 offset by 10 KHz? a 175.25 MHz b 175.26 MHz c 174 MHz d 175.24 MHz 101. a. b. c. d. 102. a. b. c. d. TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as _____. Mid band UHF Low band UHF High band VHF low band UHF What is eliminated by using interlaced scanning? Noise Excessive BW Frame Flicker

91. What is the main reason why television picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice is frequency modulated? a. Better efficiency b. Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio c. Maintain synchronized scanning between transmit and received video d. To minimize interference between signals at received end 92. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver are _____ respectively. a. 41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz b. 45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz c. 41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz d. 45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz 93. What is the separation between visual and aural carrier in TV broadcasting? a. 1.25 MHz b. 4.5 MHz c. 5.75 MHz d. 0.25 MHz 94. What is the separation between the lower limit of a channel and the aural carrier? a. 1.25 MHz b. 4.5 MHz c. 5.75 MHz d. 0.25 MHz 95. a. b. c. d. 96. a. b. c. d. 97. a. b. c. d. What is the visual carrier for channel 12? 205.25 MHz 55.25 MHz 65.75 MHz 59.75 MHz What is the aural carrier for channel 3? 61.25 MHz 55.25 MHz 65.75 MHz 59.75 MHz What is color subcarrier for channel 2? 68.83 MHz 211.25 MHz 58.83 MHz 214.83 MHz

103. What percentage of the primary colors used in color TV are needed to produce the brightest white? a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. 33% red, 33% green, 33% blue c. 50% red, 28% green, 22% blue d. 58% red, 20% green, 22% blue 104. The color with the most luminance is Red Yellow Green Blue

105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the luminance signal a. 0.498 b. 0.254 c. 0.1325 d. 1.4 106. In the previous problem, calculate the chrominance signal a. 0.305 b. 0.304 c. 0.498 d. 0.022 107. a. b. c. d. The three complementary colors are: White, yellow, cyan Black, white, gray Yellow, magenta, cyan Violet, indigo, fushcia

108. When the colors Magenta and Yellow are mixed the resultant color is: a. Red b. White c. Blue d. Green 109. Which of the following consist of two of the three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b) violet, c) yellow, and d) blue a. A and B b. B and C c. C and D d. A and D

98. If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is 529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuners local oscillator, when turned to this channel? a. 571 MHz b. 511 MHz

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ANSWER KEY
c. d. 121. a given a. b. c. d.

ACOUSTICS & BROADCASTING

Carrier Monochrome Which of the following represents the intensity of color? Hue Saturation Carrier Monochrome

110. The studio camera produces a luminance signal that contains information about a. The musical content b. The speech content c. The brightness of the scene d. The color content of the scene 111. Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal? a. I b. Q c. Y d. Z 112. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz? a. I signal b. Q signal c. Y signal d. X signal 113. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5 MHz? a. I signal b. Q signal c. Y signal d. Z signal 114. The _____ affects the difference between black and white on the picture tube and controls the gain of the video amplifier a. Brightness control b. Volume control c. Power control d. Contrast control 115. Which of the following is not a requirement for a color TV signal? a. compatibility with b lack and white receivers b. Within 6 MHz bandwidth c. Simulate a wide variety of colors d. Functional with baron super antenna 116. How many electron beams actually leave the electron gun of a single-gun color CRT? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1/3 117. carrier a. b. c. d. 118. a. b. c. d. 119. a. b. c. d. What is the difference between the sound and color subcarrier frequencies? 1.25 MHz 3.58 MHz 4.5 MHz 0.92 MHz What does aspect ratio mean? Ratio of the screen width to its height Ratio of the screen height to its width Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system? 4/3 9/7 19/6 16/9

122. The _____ ensures that the electron beam will strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen. a. Coating b. Aperture Mask c. Diplexer d. Duplexer 123. In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal frequency? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 15750 Hz d. 157625 Hz 124. In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal frequency? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 15750 Hz d. 157625 Hz 125. What scheme is employed to cause the electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron beam in the studio camera to track identically? a. Interlacing b. NTSC c. Interleaving d. Transmission of sync pulses 126. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during a. Horizontal blanking b. Vertical blanking c. The serrations d. Equalizing intervals 127. What is the return of the electron beam in a CRT from right to left or from bottom to top? a. Relay b. Flyback c. Utilization d. Resolution 128. a. b. c. d. What is the North American TV standard video? PAL SECAM NTSC FCC

129. What is the maximum allowable frequency deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for PAL/SECAM? a. 25 kHz b. 50 kHz c. 75 kHz d. 100 kHz 130. What is the frame frequency in the US TV system? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 15750 Hz d. 157625 Hz 131. FCC for a. b. c. d. What is the highest video frequency set by the commercial TV? 4.2 MHz 15 MHz 6 MHz 5.5 MHz

120. The signal that will give the exact color wavelength is _____. a. Hue b. Saturation

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132. vertical a. b. c. d.

ANSWER KEY
142. a. b. c. d. 143. can be a. b. c. d.

ACOUSTICS & BROADCASTING

The components of composite video signal are: Chroma signal Blanking pulse Synchronizing pulse All of these What is the smallest amount of information that displayed on a television screen? Blip Burst Pixel Bits

What determines the maximum number of picture elements? Number of frames per second Number of lines on the screen Number of pixels Number of fields per second

133. How many horizontal lines are used to develop a TV raster? a. 615 b. 525 c. 750 d. 15750 134. a. b. c. d. The channel width in the U.S. TV system is : 2 MHz 6 MHz 7 MHz 8 MHz

144. It is the quality of the TV picture after imperfections a. Aspect ratio b. Utilization ratio c. A1 d. Monochrome 145. What section of a TV receiver determines the bandwidth and produces the most signal gain? a. RF amplifier b. Audio amplifier c. IF amplifier d. Tuned circuit

135. It is the popular TV camera designed with much smaller package and lower cost than its earlier designs a. Image orthicon b. Iconoscope c. Vidicon d. Plumbicon 136. In a composite video signal, what is the relationship between the amplitude of the signal and the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver picture tube? a. The greater the amplitude the darker the picture b. The lower the amplitude the darker the picture c. The greater the amplitude the lighter the picture d. No effect 137. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the number of lines per field are: a. 1250 b. 312.5 c. 625 d. 2500 138. What is the process of placing the chrominance signal in the band space between portions of the luminance signal? a. Interlacing b. Fitting c. Sneaking d. Interleaving 139. of one a. b. c. d. How much time elapses between the start horizontal sync pulse and the next? 10.2 s 63.5 s 16.67 s 100 s

140. Which of the following frequencies is wrong? a. 15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning b. 60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning c. 31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse d. 31,500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency 141. arsenic a. b. c. d. The camera tube that uses selenium, and tellurium Plumbicon Vidicon Saticon Silicon Vidicon