ALGEBRA

1. The sum of two numbers is 11. The sum of their reciprocals is 11/30. Find the smaller number.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
2. The sum of the squares of two numbers is 58 and the difference of their squares is 40. Find the larger no.
a. 7 b. -7 c. 3 d. 3
3. Find the smallest positive integer, which leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 4, 6 and 8.
a. 98 b. 50 c. 26 d. 74
4. The sum of two numbers is 4 and their product is 2. Find the sum of their reciprocals.
a. b. c. 2 d. 4
5. A number has two digits whose sum is 10. The difference between the original number and the number resulting
from an interchange of its digit is 54. What is the original number?
a. 45 b. 54 c. 28 d. 82
6. A number is less than 100, and its tens digit is four more than its units digit. If the number with the digits reversed
is subtracted from the original number, the remainder is three times the sum of the digits. Find the original number.
a. 84 b. 48 c. 26 d. 62
7. A fathers age is now five times that of his first-born son. Six years from now, the old mans age will be only three
times that of his son. Find the sons present age.
a. 12 b. 30 c. 6 d. 36
8. A mother is now three times as old as her daughter. In 4 years, the mother will be four times as old as the daughter
was, two years ago. How old is the daughter?
a. 36 b. 12 c. 20 d. 60
9. If the altitude and the base of a triangle were each increased by 2 cm, the area would increase by 19 cm
2
. If the
altitude is increased by 3 cm and the base is decreased by 4 cm, the area will be decreased by 5 cm2. Find the base of
the triangle.
a. 7 b. 10 c. 9 d. 8
10. A rectangular piece of cardboard has an area of 150 cm
2
. By a cutting a square 2 cm wide on each side from each
of the corners and folding up the sides, an open box is formed having a volume of 132 mL. Find the length of the
original cardboard.
a. 8 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15
11. How soon after three oclock will the hands of a clock be together?
a. 3:16:22 b. 3:15:00 c. 16:22 d. 15:00
12. At what time between 6 and 7` oclock are the hands of a clock coincident?
a. 6:30 b. 6:32.73 c. 6:32.5 d. 6:35
13. One pipe alone can fill a tub in 12 minutes. Another pipe can fill it in only 8 minutes. How long would it take both
pipes to fill the tub?
a. 4.7 mins b. 20.0 mins c. 4.8 mins d. 4.9 mins
14. A pipe can alone fill a tank in 5 hrs, while a drain could do the contrary in 12 hrs. How long would it take the
pipe to fill thE tank if the drain was simultaneously opened during the duration of the filling job and if the tank were
entirely emptied at the start?
a. 7.6 hrs b. 8.6 hrs c. 4.42 hrs d. 4.06 hrs
15. A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hrs while a drain pipe can empty the tank in a matter of 11 hrs. If for the first 4 hrs, the
drain was left open while the pipe was filling it, how much longer would it have taken the input pipe to fill the tank
full if the tank was emptied at the start?
a. 5.5 hrs b. 7.6 hrs c. 15.2 hrs d. 6.12 hrs
16. An ocean going vessel traveling at 20 kph between two ports of call of a short distance of 45 km, takes an hour
and 12 minutes less time when going with the low tide current than against it. What was the rate of the current?
a. 0.44 kph b. 225 kph c. 20.5 kph d. 5 kph

17. A job can be done in as many days as there are men in the group. If the number of men is reduced by 4, the work
is delayed by 5 days. How many were there in the original group?
a. 18 b. 16 c. 20 d. 24
18. A project can be done by 8 girls in 5 days. 5 boys can do the same project in 6 days. How long will it take for 3
boys and 6 girls to do the job?
a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6 days d. 8 days
19. The sum of two numbers is 14. The sum of the squares of the numbers is 100. Find the product of the two
numbers.
a. 42 b. 48 c. 54 d. 56
20. The amount of 135 is to be divided among three brothers in the ratio 3: 5: 7. What is the biggest amount received
by a brother?
a. 54 b. 63 c. 72 d. 75
21. A high concentrated solution having a volume of 100 liters is 25% gasoline. How much gasoline should be added
to thE solution to produce a 50-50% mixture?
a. 50 L b. 75 L c. 40 L d. 60 L
22. The gasoline tank of a car contains 50 liters gasoline and alcohol, the alcohol comprising 25%. How much of the
mixture should be drawn off and replaced by alcohol so that the tank contains a mixture of 50-50% solution?
a. 14.5 L b. 15 L c. 16 L d. 16.67 L
23. The number 142 is divided into two parts such that when the greater part is divided by the smaller part, the
quotient is 3 and remainder is 14. What is the greater part?
a. 110 b. 112 c. 114 d. 116
24. Two jet planes traveling toward each other took off at the same time from two airports located 4800 km apart. If
they passed each other after 2 hours, determine the speed (kph) of the faster plane if one plane is flying at 160 kph
faster than the other.
a. 1280 b. 1300 c. 1320 d. 1350
25. A man driving his car at a certain speed will reach his destination 6 hours. If he increased his speed by 24kph, he
would have reached his destination in 5 hours. Find the distance of his destination.
a. 750 km b. 720 km c. 650 km d. 600 km
26. Find the value of x if : (a + b)
x
= (a
2
+ 2ab + b
2
)
x-3

a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
27. Find the value of x
2
+ 1/x
2
if : x + 1/x

= 7
a. 45 b. 47 c. 49 d. 51
28. Find the value of x if : Log x = ln (2x)
a. 0.254 b. 0.294 c. 0.354 d. 0.394

29. Simplify : 7
a+2
8(7
a+1
) + 5(7
a
) + 49(7
a-2
)
a. 5
a
b. 3 c. 7
a
d. 7
a


30. If 33
y
=1, what is the value of y/33?
a. 0 b. 1 c. undefined d. infinity
31. Which of the following is true?
a. 2 X 2 = 2 b. 24 = 4( 6 )
c. 10 = 5 + 2
d. 5
5
+ 5
5
+ 5
5
+ 5
5
+ 5
5
= 5
6

32. Find k so that 4x
2
+ kx +1 = 0, will only have one real solution.
a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
33. If the sum of the first 50 positive odd integers is subtracted from the sum of the first 50 positive even integers,
then the difference is
a. 100 b. 50 c. 150 d. 250
34. Find the 347
th
digit in the decimal expansion of 825/999.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 8 d. 2
35. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . .
a. 2/3 b. 4/3 c. 1.312 d. none of the above
36. Find the sum of the series 1 + - 1/8 + 1/16 + . . . .
a. 2/3 b. 4/3 c. 1.312 d. none of the above
37. A tank full of alcohol is emptied one-sixth of its content and then filled up with water and mixed. If this is done
six times and the tank has a capacity of 6 liters, how much alcohol remains?
a. 3 liters b. 2 liters c. 1 liter d. 0 liter
38. Solve for x in the equation
3 ... = + + + x x x

a. 6
b. 3
c. 3
d. 3 3

39. Evaluate log
6
3
a. 0.61 b. 0.08 c. 216 d. 729
40. Find a quadratic equation whose roots are 2- 5 and 2 + 5 .
a. x
2
4x + 1 = 0 b. x
2
+ 4x + 1 = 0
c. x
2
4x 1 = 0 d. x
2
+ 4x-1 = 0
41. Find the 6
th
term of the expansion of (
1
/
2a
3)
16
.
a. 11
256
22113
a

b. 11
128
66339
a

c. 11
128
22113
a

d. 11
256
66339
a

42. What is the sum of the coefficients of the expansion of (2x 1)
20
?
a. 1 b. 0 c. 215 d. 225
43. Find the middle term in the expansion of
6
2
4
1
2
|
|
.
|

\
|
+
y
x

a.
|
|
.
|

\
|
3
6
2
5
y
x
b.
3
6
5
y
x


c.
3
6
4
5
y
x

d.
|
|
.
|

\
|
3
6
8
5
y
x

44. In the complex number 3 + 4i, the absolute value is
a. 10.0 b. 7.2 c. 5.0 d. 5.7
45. Simplify : i
1997
+ i
1999

a. 1 + I b. I c. 1 I d. 0
46. Evaluate : 7 10
a. imaginary
b. 70 c. 10 d. 70
47. A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25) is called
a. Fourier series b. Fermats number
c. Eulers number d. Fibonacci number
48. If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are classified as
a. trivial solutions
b. extraneous solutions
c. conditional solutions
d. hypergolic solutions

49. Infinity minus infinity is
a. Infinity b. 0 c. Indeterminate d. 1
50. The logarithm of 1 is
a. 0 b. 1 c. data insufficient d.
51. The polynomial x
3
+4x
2
3x+8 is divided by x-1, then the remainder is
a. 10 b. 14 c. 5 d. 7
52. Which of the following is not a factor of 2x
4
+11x
3
+16x
2
+x-6=0?
a. 1 b. 2 c. -3 d.
53. Given 3 X 3 matrix,
1 -2 3
-1 2 2
0 1 3
. Find its determinant.
a. 0 b. 2 c. -1 d. 5
54. Determine the value of y:
2x + y 3z = 3
x + y 2z = 1
x y z = 4
a. 2 b. 4 c. 1 d. 0


TRIGONOMETRY

1. Add : 273452 + 322518
a. 60010 b. 595970 c. 60100 d. 5910
2. Solve for x if tan 3x = 5 tan x
a. 15.705 b. 20.705 c. 35.705 d. 30.705
3. Solve for x : tan
-1
(x+1) + tan
-1
(x-1) = tan
-1
(12)
a. 1.50 b. 1.20 c. 1.25 d. 1.33
4. If sin A = 2/5, what is the value of 1 cos A?
a. 0.08 b. 0.92 c. 0.40 d. 0.61
5. Find the supplement of an angle whose complement is 62
a. 28 b. 118 c. 152 d. 35
6. For what value of u (less than 2t) will the following equation be satisfied? sin
2
u + 4sinu + 3 = 0
a. t b. t/4 c. 3t/2 d. t/2
7. If sinu - cosu = -
1
/
3
, what is the value of sin 2u?
a. 1/3 b. 1/9 c. 8/9 d. 4/9
8. Given : cos3u - 2cos2u + cosu = 0. Find u
a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 30
9.Find the minimum positive value of
B
A
cos 5 3
sin 3 5
+
+

a. 5/8 b. c. 1 d. 5/3
10. If cosu = 0, then secu - sinu tanu =?
a. sinu b. cosu c. tanu d. 1
11.sinA sin3A + cosA cos3A = ?
a. cos2A b. sin2A c. cos4A d. sin4A
12. If tan x = , tan y = 1/3, what is the value of tan (x+y)?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
13,Simplify:
2
2
2
tan 1
tan 2
u
u
+

a. cos u b. sec u c. sin u d. tan u
14.Given: sin A =
3
/
5
; cos A < 0 and cos B =
-12
/
13
; tan B < 0, determine cos (A-B)
a.
123
/
845
b.
123
/
845
c.
33
/
65
d.
63
/
65

14.Simplify cos (30-u) cos (30+u) as a function of u only
a. cos u b. sec u c. tan u d. sin u
15.Express sin 145 in terms of a function of a positive acute angle
a. cos 35 b. sin 35 c. cos 55 d. cos -55

16. If sin 4x = cos (40 + x), solve for x
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
17. cos (A+B) cos A + sin (A+B) sin A
a. sin B b. cos B c. sin A d. cos A
18. What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
a. 7.39 b. 3.79 c. 3.97 d. 9.37

19. Find the value of sin (arc cos
15
/
17
).
a.
8
/
9
b.
8
/
21
c.
17
/
9
d.
8
/
17


21. A pole cast a shadow 15-m long when the angle of elevation of the sun is 61
o
. If the pole has lean 15
o
from the
vertical directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
a. 54.23 b. 48.64 c. 36.84 d. 64.84
22. The area of the isosceles triangle is 36-sq. m with the included angle of 30
o
between the two equal sides. Find the
perimeter of the triangle.
a. 30.21 b. 32.12 c. 28.43 d. 29.65
23. If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius 10-cm, determine the side of the triangle.
a. 34.64 b. 64.12 c. 36.44 d. 32.1
24. Find the length of the side of a regular octagon that is inscribed in a circle of radius 243 inches.
a.143 b.154 c.165 d. 186
25. Find the area of a parallelogram whose sides are 67 cm and 43 cm, the acute angle between them being 65.
a. 1305 b. 1611 c. 1805 d. 2611
26. Express in radian the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:25 PM.
a. 0.73 b. 0.83 c. 0.93 d. 1.0
27. The three dimensions of a rectangular parallelepiped are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the volume is 810 cu cm, what is the
length of the longest side?
a. 6 b. 9 c. 15 d. 18

28. Three spheres of radii 1, 2 and 3 inches, respectively, are melted and formed into a new sphere. Find the radius
of this new sphere.
a. 3.3 b. 4.3 c. 5 d. 6
29. The two bases of a trapezoid are 12 inches and 18 inches respectively. If the angles at the extremities of one base
are 65 and 40 respectively, find the longer leg.
a. 5.63 b. 6.23 c. 7.21 d. 7.81
30. Find the radius of circle circumscribed about the triangle for which A = 50, B = 20, and a = 35 inches.
a. 22.84 b. 25.64 c. 31.25 d. 36.55
31. At one side of a road is a pole 25 ft. high fixed on the top of a wall, 15 ft high. On the other side of the road, at a
point on the ground directly opposite, the flagstaff and the wall subtend equal angles. Find the width of the road.
a. 25 ft b. 40 ft c. 60 ft d. 30 ft
32. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower B from the top of tower A is 28 and the angle of elevation of the
top of tower A from the base of the tower B is 46. The two towers lie in the same horizontal plane. If the height of
tower B is 120 m, find the height of tower A.
a. 87 m b. 91 m c. 79 m d. 66 m
33. Express 18 in mils
a. 220 mils b. 320 mils c. 330 mils d. 400 mils
34. A circle is divided into two parts by a chord 3 cm away from the center. Find the area of the smaller part, in
square cm, if the circle has an area of 201 cm
2
.
a. 372.5 b. 363.6 c. 368.4 d. 53.7
35. Given a triangle whose sides are 24 cm, 30 cm, and 36 cm. Find the radius of a circle which is tangent to the
shortest and longest side of a triangle, and whose center lies on the third side.
a. 9 cm b. 12 cm c. 11 cm d. 18 cm
36. If a steel ball is immersed in an 8 cm diameter cylinder, it displaces water to a depth of 2.25 cm. The radius of the
ball is
a. 6 cm b. 3 cm c. 2 cm d. 4 cm
37. Each interior angle of a regular nonagon is equal to
a. 140 b. 144 c. 135 d. 150
38. A polygon has 350 diagonals. How many sides are there?

39. One angle is 20 less than thrice its supplement. What are the angles?
a. 20, 160 b. 45, 135 c. 55, 125 d. 50, 130
40. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 30 cm. The perimeter is 72 cm. Find the length of its shortest side.
a. 16 b. 24 c. 18 d. 27


ANALYTIC GEOMETRY

1. Find the area of the triangle with vertices (2,-1), (-3, 4) and (0,-3).
a. 10 b. 9.5 c. 10.5 d. 9
2. A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20%. The area of the triangle is reduced by
a. 36% b. 20% c. 18% d. 40%
3. A spherical balloon is being inflated so that the surface increases by 20%, then the volume of the sphere
increases by
a. 20% b. 30% c. 31.5% d. 31.45%
4. The midpoint of the line segment between P
1
(x
1
,y
1
) and P
2
(-2,4) is P
m
(2, -1). Find the coordinate of P
1

a. (6,-5) b. (5,-6) c. (6,-6) d. (-6,6)
5. If the distance between the points (8,7) and (3,y) is 13, what is the value of y?
a. 5 b. 19 c. 19 or 5 d. 5 or 19
6. The slope of the line joining ( 2,-3) and the midpoint of the line segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
a. 8 b. 8 c. 3 d. 3
7. Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x+4y+9=0
a. 5 b. 5.4 c. 5.8 d. 6.2
8. Find the acute angle formed by the lines 2x + y 8 = 0 and x + 3y + 4 = 0.
a. 30
o
b. 35
o
c. 45
o
d. 60
o

9. If the points (-2, 3) , (x,y) and (-3, 5) lie on the straight line, then the equation of the line is _____.
a. x + 2y 1 = 0 b. 2x + y 1 = 0
c. x + 2y + 1 = 0 d. 2x + y + 1 = 0

a. 28 b. 25 c. 32 d. 30
10. Two vertices of a triangle are (2,4) and (-2, 3) and the area is 2 square units, the locus of the third vertex is
a. x 4y = -10 b. x 4y = -18
c. none of the above d. both a and b
11. Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x 3y + 6 = 0 forms with the coordinate axis.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
12. The intercepts of a straight line on the x and y axes are 4 and 6, respectively. Find its equation.
a. 3x + 2y = 12 b. 2x + 3y = 12 c. 3x 2y = 12 d. 2x 3y = 12
13. What is the distance between the center of the circles X
2
+ Y
2
+ 2X + 4Y 3 = 0 and X
2
+ Y
2
- 8X -
6Y + 7 = 0 ?
a. 7.07 b. 7.77 c. 8.07 d. 8.77
14. Find the radical axis of the circle x
2
+ y
2
+ 8x 6y = 0 and the circle x
2
+ y
2
-12x 16y + 20 = 0.
a. 2x + y = 2 b. 2x y = 2 c. x + 2y = 2 d. x 2y = 2
15. Find the eccentricity of the curve: 9X
2
- 4Y
2
- 36X + 8Y = 4.
a. 1.76 b. 1.80 c. 1.86 d. 1.92
16. The moons orbit is an ellipse with the earth at one focus. The length of the major axis is 478,000 miles and the
eccentricity e = 0.055. Find the least distance from the earth to the moon in miles.
a. 239,000 b. 225,855 c. 210,755 d. 190,255
17. Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining the points A (4, 1, 8) and B (6, -3, 4).
a. (5, -1, 6) b. (10, -2, 12) c. (-2, 4, 4) d. (0, 0, 0)
18. Find the angle between two vectors whose direction numbers are (2, 1, 1) and (1, -1, 2).
a. 30
0
b. 40
0
c. 45
0
d. 60
0

19. Find the polar equation of a circle with center at the (3, 0) and the radius 3.
a. r = 3cos b. r = 3sin c. r = 6cos d. r = 6sin
20. Find the angle that the line 2y-9x-18=0 makes with the x-axis.
a. 74.8 b. 4.5 c. 47.8 d. 77.5
21. Find the length of the chord common to the circles x
2
+y
2
=64 and x
2
+y
2
-16x=0
a. 14 b. 13 c. 12 d. 11
22. Find the area of the circle whose center is at (2,-5) and tangent to the line 4x+3y-8=0
a. 6t b. 9t c. 3t d. 12t
23. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x
2
= - 12y
a. 12 b. 3 c. 12 d. 3
24. Find the equation of the axis of symmetry of the function y = 2x
2
7x+5.
a. 4x+7=0 b. x-2=0 c. 4x-7=0 d. 7x+4=0
25. Find the length of the latus rectum of the following ellipse:
25x
2
+9y
2
-300x-144y+1251=0
a. 3.4 b. 3.2 c. 3.6 d. 3.0
26. The eccentricity of the ellipse x
2
/4 + y
2
/16 = 1 is
a. 0.725 b. 0.256 c. 0.689 d. 0.866
27. Find the eccentricity of the curve 9x
2
16y
2
= 144
a. 0.6 b. 0.8 c. 1.25 d. 5/3
28. The area of the region enclosed by the curve 4x
2
+ 25y
2
= 50
a. 5t b. 10t c. 20t d. 15t
29. What is the equation of the asymptote of the hyperbola
1
4 9
2 2
=
y x
?
a. 2x-3y=0 b. 3x-2y=0 c. 2x-y=0 d. 2x+y=0
30. An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The length of a horizontal beam placed across
the arch 8m from the top is 64m. Find the width at the bottom.
a. 86m b. 96m c. 106m d. 76m
31. The collection of all points in the plane equidistant from two fixed points is
a. ellipse b. parabola c. line d. circle
32. Find the value of k for which the equation x
2
4y
2
+ (k+1)x + k
2
= 0 represents two intersecting lines.
a. k =1 b. k = 0 c. k = 1, -1/3 d. k = -1,
1/3

DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS

1. Find
2
lim
x
2
1 3

x
x

a. 0 b. 1 c. d.
infinite

2. Find
x
lim
8 2
9 2
3
3

+
x
x x

a. 0 b. 2 c. d.

3. Find
1
lim
x
( ) 2
tan
2
x
x
t

a. e
2t
b. e
2/t
c. 0 d.

4. Find Lim
x
( 7 x
3
) / (4 x
3
- 2x + 10 )
a. 0 b. 1.75 c. indeterminate d. infinity

5. Find Lim
x 0
( 1 e
x
) / x
a. -1 b. 1 c. -2 d. 2

6. Find Lim
x 0
sin 3x / x
a. 0 b. 1/3 c. 1 d. 3

7. Find the derivative of y if x
2
+ y
2
= 1.
a. x/y b. x/y c. y
-3
d. y
-3


8. Find the derivative of y if xy + y
2
= 1.
a. y / (x + y) b. y / (x + y) c. y / (x + 2y) d. y /(x + 2y)

9. Find the derivative of y = e
x
cos x
2

a. e
x
sin x
2
b. e
x
(cos x
2
2x sin x
2
) c. e
x
cos x
2
2x sin x
2
d. 2x e
x
sin x




10. Find the partial derivatives with respect to x of the function xy
2
5y +6.
a. y
2
5 b. y
2
c. xy 5y d. 2xy
11. The length of a rectangle of constant area 800 q cm is increasing at a rate of 4 cm per second. What is the width of
the
rectangle at the moment the width is decreasing at a rate of 0.5 cm per second?
a. 10 cm b. 20 cm c. 30 cm d. 40 cm

12. A particle moves around a curve y = x
2
+ 2x. At what point on the curve are the x and y coordinates of the
particles changing
at the same rate?
a. (1, 3) b. (0, 0) c. (-1/2, -3/4) d. (-1, -1)

13. Find the slope- intercept equation of the normal line to the graph y = x
3
x
2
at the point where x=1.
a. y = x + 1 b. y = -x + 1 c. y = x 1 d. y = -x 1

14. Find the point on the graph of y = x
2
at which the tangent line is parallel to the line y = 6x-1.
a. (0,0) b. (1,1) c. (2,4) d. (3,9)

15. At a point (1,2) of the curve x
2
xy + y
2
= 3, find the slope of the tangent line.
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
16. If x + y = 6, find the maximum value of xy
2

a. 32 b. 30 c. 36 d. 40

17. If f(x) =
x
x
cos 1
sin
+
, then f (x) = ?
a.
x cos 1
1

b.
x cos 1
1
+
c. 1 + cos x d. 1 cos x
18. If xy = 6, find the minimum value of 2x + 3y
a. 12 b. 10 c. 9 d. 15
19. Find a point on the curve y = e
2x
whose tangent line is perpendicular to the line x + 4y-8 = 0
a. (0,1)
b. (ln 2 , 2)
c. (ln2, 4) d. (l, e
2
)
20. Find the derivative of y = x
x

a. x
x
b. x
x
(lnx) c. x
x
( l + lnx ) d. none of the
above

21. Find the largest area of a rectangle that could be inscribed in the ellipse, 4x
2
+ 9y
2
= 36
a. 12 b. 24 c. 6 d. 48
22. A balloon leaving the ground 18m from the observer rises 3m/sec. How fast is the angle of elevation of the line of
sight increasing after 8 sec?
a. 0.12 rad/s b. 0.08 rad/s c. 0.03 rad/s d. 0.06 rad/s
23. A box is to be constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in
2
by cutting equal squares from each corner and turning up the
zinc to form the side. What is the maximum volume (cubic inch) of the box that can be constructed?
a. 600 b. 593 c. 580 d. 622
24. Water is flowing into a conical vessel 15 cm deep and having a radius of 3.75 cm across the top. If the rate at
which the water rises in 2 cm/sec, how fast is the water flowing (m
3
/sec) into the conical vessel when the water is 4 cm
deep?
a. 6.28 b. 2.37 c. 4.57 d. 5.73
25. At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line to a curve is
a. zero b. negative c. positive d. unity


26. Given a function, y = f(x) whose f (x) = - f(x). Determine the function
a. logarithmic
b. exponential1
c. transcendental
d. sinusoidal

27. At the maximum point, the value of f (x) is
a. negative b. positive c. zero d. unity
28. The function,
3 2
2
) (
2
+

=
x x
x
x f
is discontinuous at
a. x = -1, 3 b. x = 1, -3 c. x = 1, -2 d. x = -1, 2
29. Find the slope of the line tangent to y = -4/x at x=2
a. 1 b. 0 c. 1 d. 2
30. Find the 3
rd
derivative of y= x ln x
a. 1/x b. 1/x
2
c. 1/x
3
d. 1
31. The graph of y = x
5
x will cross the x-axis
a. twice b. thrice c. 4 times d. 5 times
32. Which of the following functions will have an inflection point?

33. Find C so that the line y = 4x + 3 is tangent to the curve y = x
2
+ C
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7


INTEGRAL CALCULUS

1. Find the (x + 1) (x 1) dx
a. x
2
+ x + C b. x
2
x + C c. 0.33 x
3
+ x + C d. 0.33 x
3
x + C
2. Find the x \x dx
a. 2/5 x
5/2
+ C b. 5/2 x
5/2
+ C c. 2 x
1/2
+ C d. x
1/2
+
3. Find the (5 x
2
+ 1) dx / \x
a. 2 x
5/2
+ 2 x
1/2
+ C b.

2 x
5/2
2 x
1/2
+ C c. 5 x
5/2
+ 2 x
1/2
+ C
d. 5 x
5/2
2 x
1/2
+ C
4. Find the 5sin
4
x cos x dx
a. sin
4
x cos
2
x + C b. 5 sin
4
x cos
2
x + C c. 5 sin
5
x + C d. sin
5
x + C
5. Find the dx / ( 1 + sin x)
a. tan x + sec x +C b. tan x sec x +C
c. 2 (1 sin x )
1/2
+ C d. 2 (1 + sin x )
1/2
+ C
6. Find the ( 1 sin x)
1/2
dx
a. tan x + sec x +C b. tan x sec x +C
c. 2 (1 sin x )
1/2
+ C d. 2 (1 + sin x )
1/2
+ C
7. Find the cot x dx
a. y = x
4
b. y = x
3
c. y = x
2
d. y = x
a. ln sin x + C b. ln sin x + C c. ln cos x + C d. ln cos x + C
8. Find the x sin x dx
a. x cos x + sin x + C b. x cos x sin x + C c. x cos x + sin x + C d. none of these
9. Find the ln x

dx / x
a. ln x + C b. 2 ln x + C c. x ln x x + C d. ln
2
x + C
10. Find the ln x

dx
a. ln x + C b. 2 ln x + C c. x ln x x + C d. ln
2
x + C
11. Find the (2x + 2)dx / ( x + 2)
a. 2x 2ln( x + 2 ) +C b. 2x + 2ln( x + 2 ) +C
c. 2x ln( x + 2 ) +C d. 2x + ln( x + 2 ) +C
12. Find the 6dx / ( x
2
9)
a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C c. 2 arctan x/3 + C d. 6 arctan x/3 + C
13. Find the 6dx / ( x
2
+ 9)
a. ln ( x-3)/(x+3) + C b. ln ( x+3)/(x-3) + C c. 2 arctan x/3 + C d. 6 arctan x/3 + C
14. What is the integral of x (x+1)
8
dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 22.76 b. 34.76 c. 45.52 d. 54.52
15. What is the integral of x
3
dx / (x + 1) if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 0.14 b. 0.28 c. 0.34 d. 0.38
16. What is the integral of x e
3x
dx if the lower limit is zero and the upper limit is 1.
a. 1.57 b. 2.57 c. 3.57 d. 4.57

17. What is the integral of dx / (x
2
-9) if the lower limit is 4 and the upper limit is 5.
a. 0.093 b. 0.193 c. 0.293 d. 0.393
18. What is the area bounded by the curve y = x
3
, the x-axis , and the line x = -2 and x= 1.
a. 2.45 b. 4.25 c. 5.24 d. 5.42
19. Find the area bounded by y = e
x
, x = 0 and y = 0.
a. 1 b. 2 c. e d. infinity
20. Find the length of arc in one branch of the curve y
2
= x
3
from x = 0 to x = 1.
a. 1.2 b. 1.44 c. 1.64 d. 1.84
21. If
}
x
1
4
0
sin2ycos2ydx =
, then x is equal to
a.
t
/
2
b.
t
/
6
c.
t
/
3
d.
t
/
4

22. T o integrate
} 4
xdx
1+ x
, by the u-substitution method, let u
a. 1+x
2
b. x
2
c. 1+x
4
d. x
4

23. Evaluate
}

2
0
2
4 dx x


24. Evaluate
( )
}

+
2
1
2
5 4 3 dx x x

a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3

25. Evaluate
=
}
dx xe
x
1
0
?
a. 1 b. e c. e1 d. e+1

26. Evaluate
}
t
6
0
8
3 cos dA A

a.
35t
/
768
b.
45t
/
786
c.
125t
/
768
d.
5t
/
768


27. Find the area of the region bounded by the lines x = y, x = 2 ; y = 1/x
2

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 0.5

28. Determine the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by the line 2x+y-4=0 about the y-axis
a.
16t
/
3
b.
4t
/
3
c.
2t
/
3
d. none of these
29. Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and y
2
=4x, about the x-axis from x=1 and x=4.
a. t b. 2t c. 3t d. 9t

a. 4t b. 2t


c. t d. 3t
30. The area bounded by the curve y
2
=12x and the line x=3 is revolved about the line x=3. What is the volume
generated?
a. 186 b. 179 c. 181 d. 184



STATISTICS

1. In how many different ways can a ten-question true-false examination be answered?
a. 12 b. 10 c. 20 d. 2
10

2. A team of 5 students is to be chosen for a math contest. If there were ten male and eight female students to choose
from, what is the probability that three team members will be male and two will be female?
a. 5/18 b. 20/51 c. 5/9 d. none of the above
3. In how many ways can seven trees be planted in a circle
a. 720 b. 5040 c. 1440 d. 49
4. What is the number of permutation of the letters in the word banana?
a. 36 b. 60 c. 52 d. 42


5. In a mathematics examination, a student may select 15 problems from a set of 20 problems. In how many ways can
he makes his choice?
a. 3,000 b. 15,504 c. 1,860,480 d. 2.027 x 10
16

6. There are 10 basketball teams in NCAA. If each team plays every team twice, how many games are played?
a. 45 b. 90 c. 180 d. 120
7. How many different three-digit numbers greater than 300 can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if no
repetitions are allowed?
a. 3,125 b. 1,875 c. 120 d. 36
8. In how many different ways can 5 persons be seated in an automobile having places for 2 in the front seat and 3 in
the back seat if only 3 can drive?
a. 30 b. 60 c. 36 d. 72
9. How many ways can 4 boys and 4 girls be seated alternatively in the row of eight chairs?
a. 40320 b. 24 c. 48 d. 1152
10. In how many different ways can 4 persons be seated in consecutive seats in a row of 7 seats?
a. 72 b. 96 c. 120 d. 168
11. How many different committees of 6 can be formed from 12 boys and 20 girls if each committee is consisting of
4 boys and 2 girls?
a. 34,560 b. 69,120 c. 94,050 d. 4,514,45
12. How many different signals each consisting of 6 flags hung in a vertical can be formed from 4 identical red flag
and 2 identical yellow flag?
a. 720 b. 24 c. 15 d. 12
13. How many 4 digits number can be formed from the number 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 if repetition is allowed?
a. 4,536 b. 10,000 c. 5040 d. 9,000
14. Which of the following can not be a probability value?
a. (0.99)
2
b. 13/12 c. 8/10 d. 0.01
15. If A and B are complimentary events and probability of occurrence of event A is zero or Pr(A) = 0, then Pr(B) is
a. less than one b. more than one c. one d. zero
16. Determine the probability of throwing a total of 7 in a single throw with two dice.
a. 1/3 b. c. 1/6 d. 1/12
17. In one of the parlor games, nineteen tickets from 1 to 19 are in the box. If two tickets are drawn at random.
Determine the probability that both are odd.
a. 4/19 b. 5/19 c. 6/19 d. 7/19
18. A box contains 4 red, 7 white and 5 blue balls. Two balls are chosen at random with replacement. What is the
probability they are both red?
a. 1/16 b. 1/10 c. 1/12 d. 1/8
19. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a king in a single draw from a deck of 52 playing cards?
a. 1/13 b. 2/13 c. 7/52 d. 1/6
20. What is the probability of drawing either an ace or a heart in a single draw from a deck of 52 playing cards?
a. 17/52 b. 4/13 c.9/26 d. 15/52
21. From a bag containing 4 black balls and 5 white balls, two balls are drawn. Find the probability that one is white
and the other is black.
a. 4/9 b. 5/9 c. 2/3 d. 1/3
22. Two cards are drawn at random on an ordinary deck of cards. What is the probability that both cards are either a
king or a diamond?
a. 16/169 b. 20/221 c. 4/13 d. 17/52
23. Two red books and 4 blue books are placed at random on a shelf. What is the probability that the blue books will
be together?
a. 0.1 b. 0.143 c. 0.2 d. 0.341
24. A number from 1 to 10,000 inclusive is selected at random. What is the probability that it is a perfect square?
a. 0.01 b. 0.015 c. 0.02 d. 0.025
25. What is the probability of drawing 3 face cards in 3 draws from an ordinary deck of card?
a. 0.0123 b. 0.00995 c. 0.123 d. 0.0995
26. If 10 coins are tossed, what is the probability that it will show 5 heads and 5 tails?
a. 0.246 b. 0.256 c. 0.0246 d. 0.0256

27. What is the probability of getting a number "4" thrice in five tosses of a dice?
a. 0.232 b. 0.322 c. 0.0232 d. 0.0322
28. If the probability that Ginebra, Alaska and Shell will win the PBA open conference championship are 1/5, 1/6 and
1/10 respectively. Find the probability that one of them will win the title.
a. 7/15 b. 1/300 c. 7/100 d. 1

29. An urn contains 4 black balls and 6 white balls. What is the probability of getting one black ball and one white
ball in two consecutive draws from the urn?
a. 0.24 b. 0.27 c. 0.53 d. 0.04
30. There is 1 defectives per 100 items of a product in a long run. What is the probability that there is one and only
one detective in a random lot of 100.
a. 0.3697 b. 0.3967 c. 0.3796 d. 0.3679
31. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in a set of statistical data is called?
a. Mean
b. Histogram
c. Frequency Polyhedron
d. Mass Diagram
32. A shoe store sells 10 different sizes of shoes; each in both high cut & low cut variety, each either rubber or
leather, and each with white or black color. How many different kinds of shoes does he sell?
a. 64 b. 80 c. 72 d. 92
33. In a poker game consisting of 5 cards, what is the probability of holding 2 aces and 2 queens?
a.
5!
/
52!
b.
5
/
52
c.
33
/
54145
d.
1264
/
45685

34. In how many ways can PICHE Chapter with 15 directors choose a president. a vice president, a secretary, a
treasurer and an auditor, if no member can hold more than one position.
a. 630630 b. 3300 c. 360360 d. 3003
35. A two-digit number is chosen randomly. What is the probability that it is divisible by 7?
a.
7
/
50
b.
13
/
90
c.
1
/
7
d.
5
/
7

36. In raw data, the term that occurs most frequently is known as:
a. mean c. mode
b. median d. quartile
37. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an experiment is termed as:
a. sample space c. a set of random variables
b. set of random counts d. a fuzzy set


ENGINEERING ECONOMY

1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of an enterprise is:
a. interest b. depreciation
c. taxes d. supplies
2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the investment is called:
a. receivable turnover b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio d. payback period
3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest products / model
a. depreciated cost b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost d. obsolescence
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production b. break even point
c. balance method d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
a. earning value b. scrap value
c. book value d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that subsequent interest is based on the
cumulative amount.
a. compound interest b. simple interest
c. interest rate d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point b. investment
c. depreciation d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the
demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.
a. break even point b. cash flow
c. interest d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.
a. book value c. salvage value
c. depreciation d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity available as a coal, oil and timber in forests.
a. depletion b. depreciation
c. amortization d. investment
12. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period of net loss that ten years and guaranteed by a
mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.
a. appraisal b. bond
c. written contract d. equity capital
13. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that profit will be earned.
a. equity capital b. investment
c. working capital d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt be repaid at a specific place
and time
a. discount b. cash flow
c. working capital d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given place and time.
a. supply b. demand
c. discount d. investment
17. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that action of one will lead to almost the same
action by the other.
a. monopoly b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
18. Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
19. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
20. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could do.
a. sole proprietorship b. enterprise
c. partnership d. corporation
21. An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure d. capital stock
22. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. capital expenditure b. capital loss
c. loss d. deficit

23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income b. gross profit
c. rate of return d. gross national product
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently high in relation to its supply
a. money market b. hard currency
c. treasury bill d. certificate of deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and
guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation
a. bonds b. T-bills
c. stock d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit b. bond
c. capital gain d. certificate of deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary
shareholders
a. dividend b. return
c. share stock d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond b. bank note
c. coupon d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite reasons
a. valuation b. appraisal
c. estimate d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock
c. common stock d. incorporators stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at some time in the future
a. discount b. amortization
c. depletion d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in order to establish a price that is fair to
both seller and buyer.
a. fair value b. market value
c. salvage value d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value b. salvage value
c. fair value d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons
a. amortization b. appraisal
c. investment d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing corporation
a. debenture bond b. lien bond
c. collateral bond d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment continue indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to produce at a profit
a. write off period b. physical life
c. economic life d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each year
a. Matheson formula b. Straight line method
c. SYD method d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which can engage in practically any
business transaction which a real person can do.
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. all of the above
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in operation or policy which is made.
a. fixed cost b. increment cost
c. variable cost d. differential cost

41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a unit have already been recovered.
a. economic life b. write off period
c. physical life d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest b. nominal interest
c. simple interest d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a given region of the country.
a. franchise b. branch
c. extension d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent
additional vendors entering the market
a. free market b. perfect competition
c. open market d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as a cost.
a. rate of return b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern d. capital cost
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset decreases at a decreasing rate.
a. SYD method b. sinking fund
c. straight line method d. declining balance
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost b. expenses
c. labor cost d. investment
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic b. gratuitous
c. private d. pure
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a percentage of sale is called
a. profit margin b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return) d. price earnings
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
a. interest b. depreciation
c. annuity d. amortization
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services
a. contract b. barter
c. memorandum d. pro-forma
52. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio
53. Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods b. supply
c. consumer goods d. cash flow
54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made several periods
after the beginning of the payment
a. deferred annuity b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity d. simple annuity
55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitute
a. monopoly b. monopsony
c. oligopoly d. oligopsony
56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property when neither one is
under the compulsion to buy or sell
a. fair value b. goodwill value
c. book value d. market value
57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first period
a. ordinary annuity b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity d. perpetuity
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciated book
value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies
a. straight line b. sinking fund method
c. SYD method d. declining balance method

59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event based on the earning power of equivalent
invested funds capital should or will earn
a. present worth factor b. interest rate
c. time value of money d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
a. sole proprietorship b. partnership
c. corporation d. enterprise
61. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a sinking fund resulting from
specific periodic deposits
a. sinking fund factor b. present worth factor
c. capacity factor d. demand factor
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to provide a specific product or service in a
stated region of the country
a. market value b. book value
c. goodwill value d. franchise value
63. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it was designed and
manufactured.
a. economic life b. business life
c. insular life d. physical life
64. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.
a. supply b. consumer goods
c. producer goods d. cash flows
65. A change in cost for a small change in volume of production.
a. fixed cost b. sunk cost
c. first cost d. differential cost
66. An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost b. first cost
c. increment d. fixed cost
67. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value b. resale value
c. sunk cost d. fixed cost
68. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier and entry of all other possible
suppliers presented.
a. competition b. monopoly
c. inventory d. profitability
69. A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market b. shop
c. department store d. parlor
70. Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion b. rate of return
c. load factor d. use factor
71. The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value b. market value
c. book value d. scrap value
72. The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value b. book value
c. resale value d. market value
73. An interest earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of time
a. annuity b. sinking fund
c. interest d. investment
74. A term describing wealth which is placed in a business and could include cash equipment, raw materials and
finished products
a. capital b. investment
c. collateral d. assets
75. The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above