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1 Critical Agendas 2012 Letter

Figures Words

VCE Unit 4 PSYCHOLOGY


Practice Written Examination 2b from Exam Pack A
Reading time: 15 minutes Writing time: 1 hour 30 minutes

QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOK


Structure of book
Section A B C Number of questions 45 12 1 Number of questions to be answered 45 10 1 Number of marks 45 35 10 Total 90

Students are permitted to bring into the examination room: pens, pencils, highlighters, erasers, sharpeners, rulers and one scientific calculator. Students are NOT permitted to bring into the examination room: blank sheets of paper and/or white out liquid/tape. No calculator is allowed in this examination.

Materials supplied Question and answer book of 24 pages. Answer sheet for multiple-choice questions. Additional space is available at the end of the book if you need extra paper to complete an answer.

Instructions Write your student number in the space provided above on this page. Check that your name and student number as printed on your answer sheet for multiple-choice questions are correct, and sign your name in the space provided to verify this. All written responses must be in English.

At the end of the examination Place the answer sheet for multiple-choice questions inside the front cover of this book

Students are NOT permitted to bring mobile phones and/or any other unauthorised electronic devices into the examination room.

COPYRIGHT 2012 Please read important notice next page

2 Multiple Choice Response Grid for Section A Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D

SECTION A- Multiple-choice questions

3 Instructions for Section A Answer all questions in pencil on the answer sheet provided for multiple-choice questions. Choose the response that is correct or that best answers the question. A correct answer scores 1, an incorrect answer scores 0. Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers. No marks will be given if more than answer is completed for any question. Question 1 Which of the following behaviours is not a learned behaviour? a) Blinking when air is blown into your eyes b) Talking with your friends c) Refusing a Chinese food because it made you sick last time you ate Chinese. d) A dog salivating at the sound of a bell Question 2 The process of strengthening new and frequently activated neural connections through experience, and eliminating weak connections that are not used is called a) graded potentiation b) developmental potentiation c) developmental plasticity d) graded plasticity Question 3 A neurotransmitter closely associated with the process of learning due to the pleasurable effects it facilitates is a) serotonin b) gamma-aminobutyric acid c) dopamine d) glutamate Question 4 Which of the imaging techniques below can be used to gain information about plasticity and functional changes that occur in the brain? a) computed tomography b) positron emission tomography c) x-ray d) magnetic resonance imaging

4 Question 5 In Pavlov's experiments, the dogs salivated to the sound of a bell. This illustrated that the neutral stimulus had evolved into a) a conditioned stimulus b) a conditioned response c) an unconditioned stimulus d) an unconditioned response Question 6 Classical conditioning is based on a) reinforcing different stimuli b) forming an association between different stimuli c) discriminating between different stimuli d) spontaneous recovery of different stimuli Question 7 One of the key differences between classical and operant conditioning is that a) in classical conditioning, learning is based on voluntary behaviour, while in operant conditioning learning is based on a reflexive response. b) in classical conditioning, responses can be extinguished, while in operant conditioning responses cannot be extinguished. c) in classical conditioning responses cannot be extinguished, while in operant conditioning responses can be extinguished. d) in classical conditioning learning is based on reflexive responses, but operant conditioning is based on voluntary behaviour. Question 8 An unintentional side effect of Punishment can be to act as a reinforcer when a) it is applied too long after the undesirable behaviour has been exhibited. b) it is applied too soon after the undesirable behaviour is exhibited. c) the frequency of the undesirable behaviour goes down. d) the frequency of the undesirable behaviour goes up. Question 9 In operant conditioning, extinction occurs if enough conditioning trials occur in which a) the response is not followed by the consequence associated with it on earlier occasions. b) the response is generalised to similar but alternative situations. c) the unconditioned stimulus is presented without the presentation of the conditioned stimulus d) variable-ratio schedules of reinforcement are used as opposed to fixed ratio schedules.

5 Question 10 The word 'Operant' in Skinner's operant conditioning refers to a) the means by which an organism learns to discriminate between different types of reinforcers. b) the environment an organism inhabits when it is conditioned c) the positive or negative outcome associated with an organisms behaviour d) the response or behaviour an organism makes to act on its environment and cause some sort of outcome Question 11 An appropriate example of a Response Cost is a) being given a lolly for following instructions. b) Being sent to the corner for throwing a tantrum in the kitchen c) the removal of a shock when a rat presses a lever in a Skinner Box d) having your mobile phone confiscated for texting in class Question 12 Thorndike's law of effect is best illustrated by a) A girl learning to iron a shirt by watching her mother. b) blinking when a puff of air is blown into your eye. c) folding and putting away the washing because you were praised when you did it last time. d) being scared of the dark Question 13 The major distinction between one-trial learning as proposed by Garcia and Koelling and the model of classical conditioning put forward by Ivan Pavlov is that a) in one-trial learning, the learning takes a more active role in the learning process than in classical conditioning b) in one-trial learning, the conditioned response is quick and simple to extinguish, however considerable time and effort is required to extinguish a classically conditioned response. c) un one-trial learning, the stimulus and the response may be separated by many hours, whereas the response must coincide with the stimulus being presented in classical conditioning. d) in one-trial learning the strength of the conditioned response is weaker than that experienced in classical conditioning when spontaneous recovery occurs Question 14 In Tolman and Honzik's (1930 research on Latent Learning, rats roamed a maze once a day. One group of rats was rewarded each time they worked their way through the maze, one group received no reward throughout the study and a third group was rewarded for their efforts on day 10 of the experiment. The rats in the thirds group a) showed no improvement in performance compared to groups 1 and 2. b) showed performances that were as good as rats rewarded from their first day in the maze. c) responded better than rats that were never rewarded, but not as well as the group of rats that were always rewarded. d) responded equally with the rats that were never rewarded when in the maze.

Question 15

6 Which one of the following option is not a characteristic of the work done by Kohler (1927) on Learning by Insight. a) The initial time the solution is performed it is done with few if any errors. b) Solutions generated by this method are more resistant to forgetting, than if learned by trial and error. c) The solution is demonstrated with few if any errors the first time it is performed. d) The learning is gradual and partially complete. Question 16 Bandura's Bobo doll experiments found that a) children are less willing to imitate the actions of someone they have observed being punished for their actions. b) children are willing to imitate the behaviour of a model regardless of the observed consequences. c) girls are more willing to imitate aggressive behaviours than boys. d) children are willing to imitate the actions of someone they have observed being punished for their actions. Question 17 According to Bandura's Observational Learning Theory, the five elements that underlie observational learning (in sequence) are a) motivation, attention, reproduction, reinforcement, retention b) attention, retention, reproduction, motivation, reinforcement c) retention, reinforcement, reproduction, attention, motivation d) attention, motivation, retention, reproduction, reinforcement Question 18 Dale carefully watches his older brother play a game on the X-Box. When it gets to the stage he always fails at he pays particular attention to how his brother negotiates his way around the hazards. When it is his turn, to play he succeeds in getting to the next level using his brothers strategy. Which learning theory below best reflects the manner in which Dale has learnt how to get to the next level of the X Box game? a) Classical Conditioning b) Operant Conditioning c) Learning by Insight d) Observational Learning

7 Question 19 If applying for a research grant to conduct an experiment that identically replicates Watson and Rayner's 1920 study using a child like Little Albert, a modern ethics committee would state that the design does not meet ethical requirements. Their primary argument for why such a proposal would be rejected is because a) Little Albert's fear response was generalised b) they caused distress to the animals they used c) the participant was an infant d) they did not inform the mother of Little Albert about the nature of the experiment Question 20 Throughout history, many influential and successful people have experienced mental health illnesses a one point of their lives. This indicates that mental illness a) is not an abnormal condition and is in fact necessary to achieve success. b) is a normal aspect of everyones lifespan development and does not need special treatment. c) is more common than society thinks, but it is still important to diagnose and treat. d) is frightening and these people used deception to achieve their successful station in life. Question 21 Beryl likes to be clean and washes her hands regularly to prevent herself from getting sick. Indicate the behaviour pattern that would make her hand washing a dysfunctional behaviour. a) Washing her hands after she goes to the toilet. b) Washing her hands before and after she touches any object in her house. c) Washing her hands before and after she prepares food. d) Washing her hands after working in the garden. Question 22 Which of the following is an advantage of the dimensional approach to classification of mental disorders? a) avoids labelling b) enables categorical grading of a persons condition c) is based on clear diagnostic guidelines d) can be used by any mental health practitioner Question 23 The DSM-IV TR is a multi-axial system used to assist mental health practitioners in the diagnosis of mental health disorders. How many axis are there in the DSM-IV-TR? a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7

8 Question 24 Which axis of the DSM-IV-TR is used to indicate a persons Global assessment of functioning _______________? A low score on this axis indicates ______________ . a) 1; the person has superior functioning b) 3; the person has superior functioning c) 5; the person is severely unwell d) 7; the person is severely unwell Question 25 A biopsychosocial model or framework was proposed by George Engel in 1977 to explain the interaction of biological, psychological and social factors in explaining mental health and mental illness. An example of a psychological factor that is relevant to health of illness is a) Genetic factors b) Poverty c) Medication d) Coping style Question 26 A stressor can be explained as a) any change in the internal environment that indirectly affects an organism. b) any change in the immediate environment which directly affects an organism. c) the presence of external cues that lead to tension in an organism d) the presence of internal cues that lead to tension in an organism Question 27 A persons physiological response to stress can be traced back to the neural activation of the __________________ and the HPA Axis. a) SA system b) SP system c) PAM system d) SM system Question 28 The three interrelated organs involved in the HPA axis are a) hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal gland b) hepatic gland, pituitary gland, adrenal gland c) homers gland, pancreas, ACTH d) hepatic ganglia, placenta, ACTH Question 29 The 'fight or flight' response to a stressor is triggered by the release of which two chemicals? a) dopamine and GABA b) acetylcholine and serotonin c) noradrenalin and melatonin d) adrenaline and noradrenaline Question 30 Seyle described dystress as

9 a) stress that has a positive effect b) prolonged stress that results in physiological damage c) stress that has a negative effect d) a subjective experience of stress Question 31 The transactional model of stress and coping holds that an event is assessed as stressful, beneficial or irrelevant at the __________________ stage. a) Primary Appraisal b) Secondary Appraisal c) Problem-focussed d) Emotion-focussed Question 32 A major advantage of the transactional model of stress and coping in accounting for the stress response is in its emphasis on a) the socio-cultural appraisal of stress b) the biological appraisal of stress c) the cognitive appraisal of stress d) all of the above Question 33 According to Lazarus and Folkman, when a person assesses the resources available and their own abilities to apply coping strategies to deal with a stressor they have entered the a) primary appraisal stage of the transactional model of stress and coping. b) secondary appraisal stage of the transactional model of stress and coping. c) decided to apply problem focussed coping. d) decided to apply emotion focussed coping. Question 34 Which of the following is an example of a primary appraisal according to the Lazarus and Folkman transactional model of stress and coping? a) deciding the point where additional resources are needed to cope b) any interaction between the individual and their environment c) evaluating the usefulness of coping resources that are at hand d) evaluating the potential effect of the stress Question 35 Allostatic overload is similar to the ______________ stage of the GAS whereas heterostasis is similar to the __________________ stage. a) alarm; resistance b) alarm; exhaustion c) shock; resistance d) resistance; exhaustion

Question 36 An example of how homeostasis differs from allostasis can be shown by

10 a) hunger and appetite being highly adaptive to the amount of food available as an example of allostasis b) the bodies need to maintain core temperature within very narrow limits as an example of homeostasis c) the bodies need to maintain core temperature within very narrow limits as an example of allostasis d) both A and B Question 37 In which of the following scenarios is allostatic overload least likely to occur? a) adapting and changing to the stressor b) ongoing and recurrent stressors c) continuing presence of an allostatic response after a stressor has been eliminated d) one allostatic system failing and another system leading to the over activation of another system Question 38 The relationship between stress-related disorders and socio-economic status is said to be linear. a) People with high socio-economic status have high levels of stress-related disorders. b) People with low socio-economic status have low levels of stress-related disorders. c) People with high socio-economic status have low levels of stress-related disorders. d) Socio-economic status has no impact on levels of stress-related disorders. Question 39 Social support is said to 'offset the effects of stress'. Which of the following options is not a form of social support people use to help or assist them deal with stress? a) Appraisal Support b) Tangible Assistance c) Emotional Support d) Cultural Support Question 40 Acculturation and acculturative stress is most common in a) Migrants who maintain traditional language and customs in a new society. b) Migrants who are able to join a supportive expatriate community where cultural traditions and language are maintained. c) Migrants who must interact with a dominant cultural group but feel alienated and confronted by the societies cultural norms. d) Migrants who must interact with a dominant cultural group and adopt the values, behaviours and cultural persona associated with the societies cultural norms.

11 Question 41 Social phobia, obsessive-compulsive disorder, Agoraphobia and Post-traumatic stress disorder are all example of a) Somatoform Disorders b) Phobias c) Dimensional Disorders d) Anxiety Disorders Question 42 Panic attacks are a major symptom of Specific Phobia. But which symptoms below are not associated with a Panic Attack? a) Sweating b) Fainting c) Nausea d) Chest pain and discomfort Question 43 When using cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) in the treatment and management of a specific phobia, the mental health practitioner will emphasise a) medication as the means of treating anxiety b) resolving unconscious conflicts c) specific environmental triggers d) cognitive biases Question 44 As a treatment for phobias, Flooding involves a) systematically introducing a patient to increasingly real examples of the phobic stimulus b) challenging the perceptions and beliefs about the dangerousness of the phobic stimulus c) allowing the patient to use talking therapy to explore the root cause of the phobia d) exposing the patient to the phobic stimulus or event until their levels of anxiety dissipate. Question 45 Anti-anxiety drugs have been successfully used to reduce the effects of phobic stimuli on people with a specific phobia by a) being able to mimic the excitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA b) being able to mimic the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABBA c) being able to mimic the antagonistic effects of the neurotransmitter ACTH d) being able to mimic the neurotransmitter dopamine that is an agonist inhibiting anxiety.

End of Section A

12 SECTION B Short answer questions Instructions for Section B Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Write using black or blue pen. Question 1 a. Define developmental plasticity.

1mark b. Explain and justify the pattern of neurological changes associated with developmental plasticity that occur when a person is very young compared to later stages of the lifespan.

2 marks 2 Describe how a SPECT could be used to measure the developmental plasticity of a person who is a participant in a research study on the effect of temporal lobe development on the learning of a musical instrument.

2 marks Question 2 a. Amanda has developed a phobia of mobile phones. Compare and contrast graduated exposure and flooding as techniques that could be used to treat her unwanted learnt behaviour.

3 marks b. Identify one socio-cultural factor that may have led Amanda to developing a phobia of phones.

13

1 mark Question 3 Mali has just bought home a new addition to the family, a 10 week old German Shepherd Pup. Mali is determined to train her dog how to go to the toilet in one corner of the yard. With reference to the three-phase model of Operant Conditioning as informed by B.F. Skinner, suggest how Mali could use shaping to achieve her goal. __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ 3 marks Question 4. Demonstrate your understanding of Kohlers theory of insight learning and Tolmans theory of latent learning by stating one difference and two similarities between their findings on learning. Difference: __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ 1 mark

Similarities: __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ 2 marks

14 Question 5 a. Name 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally healthy by a mental health practitioner.

2 marks

b. State 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally ill by a mental health practitioner. __________________________________________________________________________________

2 marks Question 6 a. Name one strength and one limitation of the categorical (DSM IV TR & ICD 10) approach to classifying mental disorders.

2 marks

b. How is the dimensional (graded and transitional) approach to classifying mental disorders different to the categorical approach?

2 marks

Question 7 a. Which element of biopsychosocial framework does Hans Seyles General Adaptation Syndrome aligns itself with?

1 mark

15 b. State one strength of the GAS

1 mark

c. State one limitation of the GAS (limitation should be distinctly different to the area addressed in part b of this question.

1 mark

Question 8 How does meditation improve a persons ability to cope with stress

2 marks

Question 9 What is Psychodynamic therapy and how would a mental health practitioner use this technique to treat a person with a phobia of feathers?

2 marks

16 Answer one of the following questions. Tick the box next to the question you are answering.

Question 10 (Mood disorder: major depression) or Question 11 (Addictive disorder: gambling) or Question 12 (Psychotic disorder: schizophrenia)

Question 10 Mood disorder: major depression a. Jessica has been diagnosed with major depression. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign and one symptom Jessica would have presented during her clinical interview with a mental health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.

2 marks

b. How would anti-depressant medication change Jessicas physiology to provide treatment for her depression?

2 marks

c. Why people in poverty have higher rates of depression than those with wealth?

2 mark

17

or
Question 11 Addictive disorder: Gambling a. Simon has been diagnosed with a gambling addiction. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign and one symptom Simon would have presented during his clinical interview with a mental health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.

2 marks

b. What is the relationship between the dopamine reward system and gambling addiction?

2 marks

c. Why are recovery groups like gamblers anonymous beneficial as a potential treatment for a gambling addiction?

1 mark

18

or
Question 12 Psychotic Disorder: schizophrenia a. Eugene has been diagnosed with Schizophrenia. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign and one symptom Eugene would have presented during his clinical interview with a mental health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.

2 marks

b. How do antipsychotic drugs (APD) provide treatment for sufferers of Schizophrenia?

1 mark c. How would removing the social stigma of Schizophrenia aid Eugenes recovery?

2 marks End of Section B

19 SECTION C Extended answer question Instructions for Section C Answer the question in the space provided. Write using black or blue pen. Your response may include diagrams, charts and tables.

Dr Radiocab conducted an experiment of methods used to train taxi drivers. He compared standard training with his own super training program. Participants in the super training program saw educational videos, participated in driver/client simulations as well as receiving standard training. Both courses were run over six weeks. The researcher trained the super training group and an assistant trained the other group. All participants were given a test of their knowledge of principles of safe driving both before and after training. The table below indicates the results of the study. Higher scores indicate better knowledge. Table 1. Mean scores on Taxi Driver Road Rules and Traffic Safety Testing Standard Training Group Super Training Group Before training 5 4 After training 8 19 Statistical testing of the findings indicated a significantly different result at p<0.025.

Your task: You are required to write two parts of a psychological report on this research. i. Introduction: Write the final section of the Introduction which should contain the variables to be studied, the way they are operationalized and a statement of the hypothesis (or hypotheses) that was being investigated. Discussion: Write the initial section of the Discussion which should contain the conclusion(s) based on the hypothesis (or hypotheses) and a statement of the implications of the conclusion(s). Weaknesses of this experimental design and procedures to eliminate these should be described.

ii.

20

21

10 marks

End of Section C

22 Suggested Solutions: Section A: Multiple Choice ----------Key----------

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d)

16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c)

31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (a)

Suggested Solutions- Section B Question 1 Define developmental plasticity. The ability of synapses in the brain to be modified the process of strengthening new and frequently activated neural connections through experience with the environment and eliminating weak connections that are no longer used. 1 mark Explain and justify the pattern of neurological changes associated with developmental plasticity that occur when a person is very young compared to later stages of the lifespan. There is a significant amount of developmental plasticity the occurs in the initial years of life. This is when infants are stimulated by a wealth of new experiences and environmental stimuli for the first time. The make new neural connections every day. Thousands of synapses are created for each neuron in the cerebral cortex early in ones life.

23 Developmental plasticity continues throughout the lifespan as a person continues to learn, but neural growth and development slows with age which in turn limits the rate of developmental plasticity as a person gets older. 2 marks

Describe how a SPECT could be used to measure the developmental plasticity of a person who is a participant in a research study on the effect of temporal lobe development on the learning of a musical instrument. The person would be scanned prior to the training to establish baseline data on the functionality of the temporal lobe. During the training phase learning a musical instrument there would be one or two instances where the participant would be measured to indicate whether or not developmental plasticity was occurring. When the participant can autonomously play the instrument, a final scan would be conducted to compare the changes in the way the temporal lobe functions as an indicator of the effect treatment (learning a new instrument) had on temporal lobe functioning. 3 marks Question 2 Amanda has developed a phobia of mobile phones. Compare and contrast graduated exposure and flooding as techniques that could be used to treat her unwanted learnt behaviour. Graduated Exposure:
A process where individuals extinguish the association between the phobic stimulus and anxiety through a series of graded steps known as a fear hierarchy. Incremental exposure allows the patient to gradually face the phobic stimulus and replace the fear response with the specific relaxed response.

Flooding:
Flooding involves exposing a phobic person repeatedly to the object of fear either in vivo (real life/natural setting) or indirectly by imagination or virtual reality. The technique initially creates significant distress in the patient. It is not suggested for most individuals because it can trigger a higher level of sensitisation or fear reinforcement. It works well when the individual is highly motivated and given appropriate support through the process. Eventually through sustained contact the patient learns to relax in the presence of the phobic stimulus.

Flooding would be a much quicker therapy, however, it would also be far more traumatic for the patient compared to graduated exposure therapy which would take much longer (many more sessions) but have only moderate distress causing episodes (more often though). 3 marks Identify one socio-cultural factor that may have led Amanda to developing a phobia of phones. Students could refer to any one of the following three options:

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Specific Environmental Triggers: where something in the environment triggers the anxiety-fear response. All Specific Phobias have a direct relationship to the persons environment or their knowledge of it. Parental Modelling: where parental influences have shaped the development of anxiety disorders of their children, particularly relevant in social anxiety. Transmission of Threat Information: Where parental modelling has transmitted strong threat information from specific stimuli to their children. Often occurs for stimuli a parent has a phobic response with themselves. - Also occurs through other gatekeepers including peers, friends, teachers and the media.

1 mark Question 3 Mali has just bought home a new addition to the family, a 10 week old German Shepherd Pup. Mali is determined to train her dog how to go to the toilet in one corner of the yard. With reference to the three-phase model of Operant Conditioning as informed by B.F. Skinner, suggest how Mali could use shaping to achieve her goal. 3 marks
Shaping Method of successive approximations & Chaining Shaping is a procedure in which a reinforcer is given for any response that successively approximates and ultimately leads to the desired response or target behaviour. Often used with animal training. Skinner applied this technique to teach a pigeon, amongst other things to turn a complete circle in an anti-clockwise direction and to 10-pin bowl but Mali could easily use the technique to train her dog to poop in a specific location. Where more complicated animal tricks are concerned, chaining is often used which is similar to shaping except that it involves stringing together a number of individual tricks into a sequence and is achieved by working backwards.

In terms of shaping, if the dog motions towards the desired location and poops reward it initially, then the dog would need to walk towards the location before being rewarded. Eventually the dog would only be rewarded if it did its business in the correct location. Therefore, sequentially she would catch the dog about to go to the toiled and take it to the spot and then associate a verbal cue (discriminative stimulus), the dog does its stool (behaviour) and then she rewards the dog with praise and affection (consequence). If the dog has an accident, no fuss (punishment) would be forthcoming. She would again take the dog to the spot, give it a chance to relieve itself again and if it did, reward it for the positive behaviour. Using the verbal cue would also help teach the dog to go to the toilet on demand. 3 marks

25 Question 4. Demonstrate your understanding of Kohlers theory of insight learning and Tolmans theory of latent learning by stating one difference and two similarities between their findings on learning. Difference: The primary differences between these two cognitive theories of learning are that:
-in latent learning the participant can learn materials / skills etc via observation, but not exhibit the behaviour. In insight learning the organism has not watched another organism perform the behaviour.

-in latent learning the organism learns the behaviour without intending to, and it is not done with the intent of obtaining information (kind of passive), in insight learning, the organism must choose to manipulate the environment to get the correct environment (active?)

-insight learning is said to have occurred when the relationships relevant to the solution are found, and this could happen in a split second (aha-phenomenon), whereas latent learning can occur over a period of time

Students only need to provide one option from above for 1 mark Similarities:
-in both, non-observable mental calculations are done (in insight this is done in the incubation stage, in latent learning this is the cognitive map)

-the learning appears to be "sudden", in one moment/trial it appears that the participant has not learned anything, in the next, they suddenly have all this exhibited knowledge. learning is not exhibited until needed 2 marks

Question 5 Name 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally healthy by a mental health practitioner. To have Mental Health: Any two of the following criteria should be provided for 2 marks A state of emotional and social wellbeing in which a person can fulfil his or her abilities Cope with normal stresses of life, Work productively and be able to contribute to the community. With sound mental health, individuals feel good about themselves and are able to get on with their lives smoothly.

26 State 2 criteria a person must meet to be considered mentally ill by a mental health practitioner. A health condition that affects the way a person thinks, feels and acts and that causes the person distress and difficulty functioning. The condition is overwhelming to the point where the individual has great difficulty coping with day-to-day activities and maintaining relationships. Symptoms occur for significantly longer periods of time than is the case with a mental health problem. To be diagnosed with a mental illness a qualified mental health professional (such as a psychiatrist, a psychologist or a social worker) must evaluate a person on the basis of the symptoms he or she has, how long the symptoms have persisted and how his or her life is being affected. 2 marks

Question 6 Name one strength and one limitation of the categorical (DSM IV TR & ICD 10) approach to classifying mental disorders.

Strengths: (One needed for credit)

1 mark

A major advantage of classification systems for mental disorders is that inappropriate behaviours can be distinguished from functional ones. A range of mental disorders are arranged, organised and described in a particular manner and order. Psychologists and other mental health practitioners use these manuals as they provide a common language for therapists, researchers, social agencies and health workers worldwide. This aids diagnosis, selection of appropriate treatments / therapies for the given conditions. It allows for consistent diagnoses and treatments from hospital to hospital, clinic to clinic, all over the world. 1 mark

Limitations: (One needed for credit)

The DSM-IV-TR does not explain the causes of the various psychological disorders. This approach boxes people into one of the available categories, sometimes inappropriately, and it does not accommodate the unique nature of the human condition. These classifications do not account for people who have atypical symptoms or those that do not clearly follow the script. Critics claim that categorical systems reduce humans to one-dimensional sources of data rather than encouraging practitioners to treat the whole person. Critics also see these systems as tools for social control giving mental health professionals control over peoples lives.

27 How is the dimensional (graded and transitional) approach to classifying mental disorders different to the categorical approach? 2 points from the list below are required for credit (2 marks)
The dimensional approach is a method of categorising mental illness where an individual has a profile of scores on different continuums of diagnoses and symptoms. Clinicians grade or rate the severity of the symptoms or disorder by allocating a score or grade on specified dimensions. Compared to categorical measures of mental health and mental illness: Dimensional classification does not attempt to place people into discrete, diagnostic categories. Instead, key characteristics are identified upon which all persons can be placed, recognising that mental disorders lie on a continuum with mildly disturbed and normal behaviour, rather than being qualitatively distinct. The dimensional approach is better able to capture many of the subtleties and complexities of persons life that are missed within the categorical systems. The dimensional approach evaluates symptoms not only on their presence, but also on their severity or degree. The distinction between normal and abnormal is not absolute, but rather a zone where there can be a varying degree of the symptom or characteristic. Dimensional approach is more nuanced and provides an accurate reflection of the state of a given characteristic or symptom in a person. It allows sufferers to see improvement in their condition more readily and help to identify which factors have the largest impact on their well-being.

In making a diagnosis using the dimensional approach there is much scope for variable judgements on the part of the clinician evaluating or rating the symptom or characteristic much more inconsistency in its use. The dimensional approach increases the complexity of the communication of the disorder to fellow professionals and the public. Most theorists cannot agree on how many dimensions are required; some say one dimension is enough, while others have identified as many as 33 dimensions.

Question 7 Which element of biopsychosocial framework does Hans Seyles General Adaptation Syndrome aligns itself with? Biological Level of Analysis 1 mark

State one strength of the GAS - Options include:


1 mark

There are a number of stages in response to a stressor If the stressor is prolonged or too severe the organism can no longer adapt and is exhausted. This provides an explanation for the link between stress and disease

28 State one limitation of the GAS (limitation should be distinctly different to the area addressed in part b of this question. 1 mark
Definition of stress states that all stress is non-specific and the body responds the same way this is not true. There are a number of chronic stress related disorders if stress was non-specific, the bodys response to all types of stressors would be identical and therefore there would be only one type of stress-related disorder. This also is not true. Individuals stress responses differ in the specific components of the stress response due to genetic, environmental and social factors.

Question 8 How does meditation improve a persons ability to cope with stress 2 marks

Meditation: A collection of different strategies that aim to direct a persons focus away from current everyday concerns the techniques redirect the flow conscious thought to a focussed pathway which causes alpha brain waves which promote calmness and relaxation. There are two major methods of meditation which improve a persons ability to cope with stress: Concentration method: where the person focuses on a single thought or function, such as breathing, and dismisses all other thoughts, ideas, emotions or distractions. Non-concentration meditation: where the person focuses on their current thought or emotion not directly, but observes it as if they were in someone elses shoes.

Question 9 What is Psychodynamic therapy and how would a mental health practitioner use this technique to treat a person with a phobia of feathers? (one relevant point defining Psychoanalytic therapy and one relevant point on techniques of treatment are required for 2 marks).
Psychodynamic psychotherapy is based on the theories proposed by Freud It is a type of psychological treatment that aims to help people understand the roots of emotional distress by exploring unconscious conflicts, motives, needs and defences Based on Freuds theory that all mental disorders are caused by unresolved psychological conflicts that occur in the unconscious with their origins being in early childhood These conflicts show up in fantasies and dreams but the conflicts are so threatening that they appear in disguised forms, in the shape of symbols. The aim of this treatment is to help people to understand the cause of the emotional distress (what the symbols mean) and resolve the unconscious conflicts

Through talk therapy the psychoanalyst would explore the persons past to enable the patient to identify the manifestation behind the phobia of feathers using a range of the techniques below: Free association is when the client is encouraged to say whatever comes to their minds in order to identify the themes involved in their gambling Dream interpretation involves clients sharing their dreams as the psychodynamic perspective has the belief that dreams symbolically represent information stored in the unconscious mind

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Identification of defence mechanisms is essential for treatment to work as it prevents the unconscious conflicts from being explored and resolved. Denial and omnipotence are two common defence mechanisms that gamblers use Denial is the refusal to believe whatever it is that may be causing ones anxiety or emotional conflict; omnipotence refers to the feeling of being all powerful and is a direct defence against feelings of inadequacy and helplessness Transference provides a valuable source of information by the client unconsciously responding to the therapist as though they are a significant person in their life

Question 10 Option 1 - Mood disorder: major depression Jessica has been diagnosed with major depression. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign and one symptom Jessica would have presented during her clinical interview with a mental health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made. 2 marks One Sign and One Symptom from the list below for 2 marks: Depressed mood most of the day Less interest or pleasure in all activities Weight loss or gain (when not dieting) Sleeping difficulties Slowed or fastened movements Tiredness or loss of energy Feeling worthless Difficulty concentrating Thoughts of death

How would anti-depressant medication change Jessicas physiology to provide treatment for her depression? 2 marks

Despite a delayed onset of two to six weeks for action, antidepressants relieve symptoms and make people feel better but they do not change their personality or the psychological / socio-cultural underlying issues that may have caused the condition in the first place. SSRIs: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) reduce or block the reabsorption of serotonin by the presynaptic neurons that release that neurotransmitter. Consequently, a relatively normal or high level of serotonin is allowed to accumulate in the synapse which influences the activity of postsynaptic neurons and reduces negative affect. MAOIs: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and tricyclics increase the level of noradrenaline and serotonin in the brain which relieve depressed feelings, elevate arousal and mood and reduce anxiety. These changes restore normal sleeping patterns and appetite.

30 Why people in poverty have higher rates of depression than those with wealth? 1 mark Any of the options below are appropriate. People in poverty have an undermined sense of competence, personal control and selfesteem. For people in poverty, the concept of learned helplessness is also a relevant consideration, as in many cases, it doesnt matter what they do to break the poverty cycle, they can never get ahead. These factors all contribute to and act as triggers for depression in people who are already predisposed to suffer from it.

However, not all people will react in the same way so one should be careful not to pigeon hole all people who live in poverty as being depressed.

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Question 11 Option 2 - Addictive disorder: Gambling Simon has been diagnosed with a gambling addiction. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign and one symptom Simon would have presented during his clinical interview with a mental health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made.
Two points below are needed for credit: 2 marks

The individual experiences excessive and persistent fear of a specific object or situation. Examples of common specific phobias are listed in the next section. The individual experiences feelings of anxiety, fear, or panic immediately upon encountering the feared object or situation. The person recognizes that the fear is excessive, unreasonable, or out of proportion to the actual risk in the situation. The individual tends to avoid the feared object or situation, or if he or she doesnt avoid it, endures encounters with the feared object or situation with intense anxiety or discomfort. The individuals fear, anxiety, or avoidance causes significant distress (i.e., it bothers the person that he or she has the fear) or significant interference in the persons day-to-day life. For example, the fear may make it difficult for the person to perform important tasks at work, meet new friends, attend classes, or interact with others. In children younger than 18 years of age, the problem must be present for at least six months before a diagnosis of specific phobia would be considered appropriate. The persons fear, panic, and avoidance are not better explained by another disorder. For example, an individual with an extreme and impairing fear of public speaking only, and who is concerned that others will judge him or her negatively, might be considered to have social anxiety disorder, rather than a specific phobia.

31 What is the relationship between the dopamine reward system and gambling addiction? 2 marks
The dopamine is commonly associated with the reward-seeking system of the brain, providing pleasure and reinforcement /motivation for a person to perform certain activities. When dopamine is released into certain areas of the brain (dopamine reward pathway), feelings of satisfaction and enjoyment occur and this experience becomes desirable to a point where people will repeat behaviours that elicit those same feelings / satisfy that desire. Each time a person has a gambling win enormous amounts of dopamine are released. It does not appear to matter how much a person loses, the dopamine reward pathway of the brain is powerful enough to motivate the individual to keep gambling to satisfy the desire and they become addicted.

Why are recovery groups like gamblers anonymous beneficial as a potential treatment for a gambling addiction? 1 mark The programs are free to the public (so do not add financial strain to the individual) They are facilitated by peers, use group support and a set of guided principles (the 12 steps) to obtain and then maintain sobriety from the addictive behaviour. Gamblers have easy access to social support and advice from others on how to deal with their addiction. The use of a sponsor a former gambler who has had experience in remaining sober provides guidance and assistance.

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Question 12 Option 3 Psychotic Disorder: schizophrenia Eugene has been diagnosed with Schizophrenia. According to the DSM IV TR, name one sign and one symptom Eugene would have presented during his clinical interview with a mental health practitioner for this diagnosis to be made. 2 marks Characteristic symptoms: Two (or more) of the following, each present for a significant portion of time during a 1-month period (or less if successfully treated): delusions hallucinations disorganized speech (e.g., frequent derailment or incoherence grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviour negative symptoms, i.e., affective flattening, alogia (poverty of speech), or avolition (lack of motivation)

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How do antipsychotic drugs (APD) provide treatment for sufferers of Schizophrenia?


1 mark

Antipsychotic drugs reduce dopamine activity are the most effective in controlling the positive symptoms (delusions and hallucinations) of schizophrenia. They lower dopamine activity by occupying dopamine receptor sites in the neuron and blocking its activity.

How would removing the social stigma of Schizophrenia aid Eugenes recovery?

2 marks

Stigma when an individual or group is characterised as being unacceptable, outside the social or community group. There are 3 key elements to stigma: Labelling of someone as unacceptably different Stereotyping the person as having a number of undesirable fixed characteristics Devaluing or excluding the labelled and stereotyped person. To reduce stigma all three aspects need to be addressed to eliminate the ignorance, prejudice and discrimination it creates. Removal of social stigma is important to reduce social isolation and stress.

SECTION C Extended answer question Dr Radiocab conducted an experiment of methods used to train taxi drivers. He compared standard training with his own super training program. Participants in the super training program saw educational videos, participated in driver/client simulations as well as receiving standard training. Both courses were run over six weeks. The researcher trained the super training group and an assistant trained the other group. All participants were given a test of their knowledge of principles of safe driving both before and after training. The table below indicates the results of the study. Higher scores indicate better knowledge. Table 1. Mean scores on Taxi Driver Road Rules and Traffic Safety Testing Standard Training Group Super Training Group Before training 5 4 After training 8 19 Statistical testing of the findings indicated a significantly different result at p<0.025.

Students were required to write two parts of a psychological report on this research. iii. Introduction: Write the final section of the Introduction which should contain the variables to be studied, the way they are operationalized and a statement of the hypothesis (or hypotheses) that was being investigated.

33 iv. Discussion: Write the initial section of the Discussion which should contain the conclusion(s) based on the hypothesis (or hypotheses) and a statement of the implications of the conclusion(s). Weaknesses of this experimental design and procedures to eliminate these should be described.

Elements to be included in the introduction: Variables to be studied: IV: Super Training Program in addition to normal training vs normal training alone DV: Taxi driver knowledge of principles of safe driving. Independent Variable operationalized as educational videos, participated in driver/client simulations as well as receiving standard training. Dependent variable operationalized as the improvement in testing scores on a taxi driver road rules and traffic safety test. Possible Hypothesis: That trainee taxi drivers who participate in a super training program in will achieve a greater knowledge of road rules and traffic safety than trainee taxi drivers who complete a standard training course. Elements to be included in the discussion: Conclusion: The results are significant at p<0.025 The hypothesis is supported, trainee taxi drivers perform significantly better in road rule and traffic safety tests when they complete the super training program when compared to trainee taxi drivers who complete the standard training program. Implication: This suggests that adding the use of educational videos and participation in driver/client simulations on top of standard taxi driver training will significantly enhance trainee taxi driver knowledge of road rules and traffic safety. Weaknesses: Initial road rule and traffic safety knowledge was not controlled for and this may influence their ability to learn these aspects. (repeated measures or matched participants designs would eliminate this problem).

Different teachers taught the training programs and the chief experimenter ran the experimental condition. Hence, experimenter effect was not eliminated. To control this the same teacher should have conducted both programs and the teacher needed to be nave of the variables or hypothesis.

To assess this extended answer section a rubric based on the information below should be utilised:

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Criteria 1: Knowledge and Comprehension

(5 marks)

The following points should be assessed as being present on the basis of Very High, High, Medium, Low, Very Low or Not Shown: Introduction contains IV and DV, acknowledges different levels of the IV and correctly explains operationalization of the DV. The hypothesis includes population, IV, DV Discussion contains a conclusion (accepted/rejected hypothesis) Implications for the conclusion are correct Weaknesses of the design are correctly identified and appropriate procedures for elimination are identified.

Criteria 2: Higher Order Thinking Skills

(5 marks)

The following points should be assessed as being present on the basis of Very High, High, Medium, Low, Very Low or Not Shown: Effectiveness and clear application and use of report-writing conventions Effective and clear written communication Critical and insightful interpretation and evaluation of the study to draw conclusions Comprehension correct use of psychological terminology and information

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