ANSWER SHEET 1. PRIMARY REACTION is the specific recognition and combination of antigen with antibody 2.

SECONDARY REACTION is the conformation of amino acid chain resulting from inter chain hydrogen bonding 3. In dean webb or alpha titration technique, there is an excess of ANTIGEN during the prozone phase 4. It is the pH at which proteins exist in an ampholyte state? ISOELECTRIC POINT 5. During agglutination reaction, the involved particulate antigen is called AGGLUTINOGEN 6. In radioimmunoassay, the sold crystal gamma counter is used to quantify GAMMA RAY emissions 7. The common substrate used for the enzyme peroxidise? TETRAMETHYLBENZIDINE O DIANISIDINE 8. What is the enzyme produced from E. coli? B-GALACTOSIDASE 9. What is the source of the enzyme alkaline phosphatise? BOVINE INTESTINES 10. What is the ANTIBODY class used for the neutralization of endotoxin? IgM 11. During agglutination, the initial sensitization phase occurs followed by lattice formation TRUE 12. During precipitation sensitization occurs in the area of optimal ratio between antigen and antibody FALSE, WRONG WORD= SENSITIZATION, RIGHT WORD = LATTICE FORMATION 13. In CFT the antigen control contains the antibody and its end result is lysis FALSE, WRONG WORDS= CONTAINS THE ANTIBODY, RIGHT WORD=HAS NO ANTIBODY 14. In CFT, the haemolytic system control is positive for the antigen and the antibody hence lysis is the end result FALSE, WRONG WORD=IS POSITIVE, RIGHT WORD=IS NEGATIVE 15. Double diffusion-single dimension gel precipitation test by Oakley and fulthrope determines the number of antigen and antibody in the specimen TRUE 16. For serologic application of the principle of precipitation are: a) CRP DETERMINATION b) ASCOLI RING TEST c) CRP d) TESTING FOR ADULTERATED FOOD 17. In electrophoresis, movement is dependent on: a) THE TAGGING BY NON-SEPARATION OF BOUND FROM FREE FRACTION b) DEGREE OF IONIZATION OF PROTEIN AT pH OF BUFFER SOLUTION c) THE USE OF ORGANIC SOLVENTS d) THE USE OF ABSORPTION MEDIA 18. In radial immunodiffusion, consider the following: a) POLYMERIC Ig DIFFUSE SLOWLY AND THUS MAY LEAD TO UNDERESTIMATION b) HIGH MOL. WEIGHT IMMUNE COMPLEXES RESULT TO FALSELY LOW VALUES c) FALSE HIGH VALUES FOR LOW MOLECULAR WEIGHT Ig d) REVERSE PRECIPITATION MAY OCCUR IN CONDITIONS WHERE THE TESTED SERUM CONTAINS ANTI-Ig

19. Application of RICE test: a) TREPONEMA PALLIDUM CF b) REITER PROTEIN CF c) WASSERMAN-KOLMER CF d) BLASTOGENESIS CF 20. Application of indirect immunofluorescence a) FADF b) FITC c) DANSYL d) BAIF NON ARE CORRECT 21. 5 points. For heterogenous RIA give 5 methods that may result to the precipitation of proteins/separation step Salting out technique/farr technique Use organic solvents Double antibody technique Use absorption media Use of capture/immobilizing media/solid phase

1. Serodiagnostic test for Myco. Pneumonia: a) CFT b) EIA c) PCR d) DIRECT IF 2. Diseases caused by Rickettsiae typhus group: a) BRILL ZINSER DSE b) BOUTONNEUSE FEVER c) MURINE /ENDEMIC d) SCRUB TYPHUS 3. Causative agent/s for rickettsia spotted fever group: a) R. rickettsi b) R. tsutsugamishi c) R. prowazeki d) R. akari 4. Microbial features of B-hemolytic group A streptococci: a) Erythrogenic toxins b) L-fucosyl transferase c) Hyaluronidase d) Galactosyl transferase

5. Using the rantz-randall test for ASO titer determination: a) The red cell control must not display hemolysis b) The erythrocyte suspension is composed of human O RBC at 5% suspension c) The Streptolysin O ctrl must display complete hemolysis d) The erythrocyte suspension is composed of rabbit erythrocytes 6. In the WIDAL test rapid slide method: a) Makes use of the kline slide b) Rotates at 180 rpm for 5 minutes c) Gently shake the commercially prepared salmonella antigens to ensure heterozygous suspension d) A serum volume of 0.08 mL is approximately a 1:20 dilution 7. Serologic features of Myco. pneumonia: a) Cold hemagglutinins b) Heterophile antibody production which cross reacts with capsular polysaccharide of Strep. Pyo group c) Cross reactive antigens d) Allo antibody production 8. For Q fever: a) The area of occurrence is Europe, Africa b) The etiologic agent is Coxiella burnetti c) Its reservoir hosts are mites and rodents d) Its mode of transmission is via recrudescence 9. Rules in the performance of febrile agglutinin test: a) Tests are preferably done every 6-12 days b) Definite diagnosis is by 2-3 days c) Antibodies are occasionally formed by related infectious groups d) Battery test is not advocated for brucella and rickettsia spp. NON ARE CORRECT 10. In heterophile antibody test for IM: a) In Forsman Ab: with GPK, antibodies are absorbed. Hence no agglutination with sRBC b) In serum sickness: with GPK, antibodies are not absorbed. Hence agglutination with sRBC. c) In IM: with GPK, antibodies are not absorbed. Hence agglutination with sRBC. d) In serum sickness: with BE, antibodies are not absorbed. Hence agglutination with sRBC. 11. For cold hemagglutinins in Prim. Atyp. Pneumonia a) It appears during the 1st week of infection b) It reaches its peaks on 1st to 5th week of infection c) Declines to low levels on the 7th week 12. A heterophile antibody test for rickettsia: WEIL FELIX TEST 13. During paratyphoid fever antibody titer reaches its peak within how many weeks? 3-4 WEEKS 14. Significant titer for vaccinated persons? 160 15. Flagellar antigen: H antigen

16. Unit used for ASO rapis slide latex: IU/mL 17. For cold hemagglutinin test for PAP, the highest dilution that shows a 2+ result is considered a positive result. FALSE, WRONG WORD=2+, RIGHT WORD=1+ 18. In Ehrlichioses, the mode of transmission for E. canis is the lone star tick bite. TRUE 19. In tularaemia infection, antibodies usually appear within 3-5 weeks. FALSE, WRONG WORD=3-5, RIGHT WORD=2 20. What does CEDIA mean? CLONE ENZYME DONOR IMMUNO ASSAY 21. Significant titer for unvaccinated persons using the WIDAL RAPID SLIDE TEST? 80 22. 4 points: Give 4 methods used to determine Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis Rose-waaler Ziff Modification by heller Euglobin hemagglutination

1. Also known as progressive systemic sclerosis: SCLERODERMA 2. ANA pattern that is seen in progressive systemic sclerosis and sjogrens syndrome? NUCLEOLAR PATTERNS 3. Also known as heavy chain disease? FRANKLINS DISEASE/MALIGNANT LYMPHOMA 4. Causes hyperthyroidism due to thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin: GRAVES DISEASE 5. Primary hypothyroidism: HASHIMOTOS THYROIDITIS 6. Autoimmune disease due to impaired T cell production: DIGEORGE SYNDROME 7. Autoimmune disease caused by a defect in the maturation of B cells: BRUTONS DISEASE 8. Highly associated to the presence of immunoglobulin light chains in the urine: MULTIPLE MYELOMA 9. Breast cancer associated antigen: CA 15-3 10. Tumor marker for pancreatic cancer: CA 19-9 11. 4 POINTS: Give 4 types of hypersensitivity Basophil mediated hypersensitivity Antibody mediated cytotoxicity hypersensitivity Immune complex hypersensitivity Delayed type hypersensitivity 12. AFP is a major fetal protein that resembles globulin. FALSE, WRONG WORD=GLOBULIN, RIGHT WORD=ALBUMIN 13. CA 125 is a high molecular weight purine- like glycoprotein useful for non mucinous epithelial ovarian cancer FALSE, WRONG WORD=PURINE, RIGHT WORD=MUCIN