3 COMEDK 2006

HUMAN ANATOMY
1. Blood supply of coronoid process of mandible is primarily from A. Inferior alveolar artery B. Deep temporal artery C. Facial artery D. Middle meningeal artery 2. Among the muscles of TMJ, the following muscle opposing stabilizing and antagonistic muscle force as far as the disc is concerned A. Medial pterygoid B. Temporalis C. Lateral pterygoid D. External pterygoid 3. Pterygopalatine ganglion is functionally connected to A. Facial nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Glosso pharyngeal nerve D. Maxillary nerve 4. Derivative of second pharyngeal arch is A. Spheno mandibular ligament B. Stylomandibular ligament C. Anterior ligament of maleus D. Stylohyoid ligament 5. Parotid duct traverses A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid
56

6. Deep surface of hyoglossus is related to A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Submandibular ganglion D. Glosso pharyngeal nerve 7. Suprasternal space contains the following structures except A. Jugular arch B. Anterior Jugular vein C. Sternal head of sternocleidomastoid D. External jugular vein 8. Deep part of submandibular salivary gland is in relation to A. Facial nerve B. Lingual nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Mandibular nerve 9. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of A. External carotid artery B. Internal carotid artery C. Common carotid artery D. Subclavian artery 10. Muscles of tongue are formed by A. First arch mesoderm B. Second arch mesoderm C. Occipital myotomes D. Cervical somites 11. The structure that does not traverse parotid gland is A. Superficial temporal artery B. Posterior auricular artery C. External carotid artery D. Internal carotid artery

COMEDK 2006

57

12. Sensory innervation of larynx as far as the vocal folds is by A. External laryngeal nerve B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Internal laryngeal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve 13. Nerve of the pterygoid canal is formed by union of A. Deep petrosal nerve with greater petrosal nerve B. Deep petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerve C. Greater petrosal and lesser petrosal nerves D. Greater petrosal and external petrosal nerves 14. Lymphatics of upper gum drains into A. Lingual nodes B. Retropharyngeal nodes C. Submandibular nodes D. Submental nodes 15. Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through A. Foramen lacerum B. Foramen rotundum C. Foramen spinosum D. Foramen ovale

18. In clinical practice Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is estimated using the plasma clearance value to A. Inulin B. PAH C. Glucose D. Creatinine 19. The number of muscle fibres in a motor unit are least in A. Laryngeal muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Muscles of middle ear D. Extra ocular muscles 20. Normal myeloid erythroid ratio is A. 3 : 1 B. 1 :3 C. 4 :1 D. 6 :1 21. Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess A. Acute pancreatic B. Carcinoma of head of pancreas C. Acinar function of the pancreas D. Endocrine dysfunction of pancreas

COMEDK 2006

BIOCHEMISTRY
22. Von Gierkes disease is associated with the deficiency of A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase B. Glucose 6 phosphatase C. Phosphorylase in liver D. Hexokinase 23. Deficiency of vitamin C causes the following except A. Painful swollen gums B. Abnormal collagen C. Anaemia D. Diarrhoea 24. Intestinal absorption of calcium is decreased by A. Proteins B. Lactose C. Phytic acid D. Acidity

PHYSIOLOGY
16. The normal pH of human blood is A. 7.0 B. 7.2 C. 7.35 7.40 D. 7.6 17. The following factors increase the cardiac output except A. Preload B. After load C. Heart rate D. Myocardial contractility

58

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

25. The fastest moving fraction of protein in serum when subjected to paper electrophoresis is A. Albumin B. Alpha 1 globulin C. Beta globulin D. Gamma globulin

C. Macrophage D. Natural killer cell 32. Polypeptide capsule is seen in A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Clostridium welchii C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Bacillus anthracis 33. Bacteria that grow best at temperatures below 20 C are called A. Mesophilic B. Psychrophilic C. Thermophilic D. Microaerophilic 34. Glasswares are sterilized by A. Autoclaving B. Hot air oven C. Incineration D. Formaldehyde 35. Negative staining is used to demonstrate A. Bacterial spore B. Bacterial flagella C. Bacterial capsule D. Bacterial fimbriae 36. Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except A. Through plasmids B. Incorporating part of host DNA C. Through bacteriophages D. Through configuration 37. Type of immunological response in transplant rejection is A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV 38. The organism MOST resistant to thermal inactivation is A. Bacterial spores B. Virus C. Spirochete D. Streptococcus mutans

GENERAL PATHOLOGY
26. The region of myocardium most prone for infarction is A. Right ventricular epicaudal B. Left ventricular epicaudal C. Right ventricular sub endocardial D. Left ventricular sub endocardial 27. Heart failure cells are seen in the following condition A. Chronic venous congestion of lung B. Chronic venous congestion of liver C. Chronic venous congestion of spleen D. Infarction of the heart 28. White infarcts occurs in A. Ovary B. Lung C. Intestine D. Heart
COMEDK 2006

MICROBIOLOGY
29. Most common fungus in diabetics A. Cryptococcus B. Aspergillus C. Rodotorula D. Nocardia 30. Actinomycosis is caused by A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungus D. Unknown factor 31. The cell which produces antibodies are A. Plasma cell B. Helper T cell

COMEDK 2006

59

PHARMACOLOGY
39. Heparin acts by A. Blocking thrombin formation B. Fibrinolytic action C. Preventing thrombin synthesis D. Potentiating antithrombin III activity 40. Which one of the following drugs will not produce allergic reactions? A. Pencillins B. Sulfonamides C. Cetrizine D. Cephalo sporins 41. Which one of the following drugs is not a reversible anticholinesterase drug? A. Edrophonium B. Demecarium C. Carbaryl D. Tacrine 42. Which one of the following drugs is not a nondepolarizing competitive neuromuscular blocker? A. Doxacurim B. Decamethonium C. Rocuronium D. Mivacurium 43. Which one of the following drug is not a long acting local anaesthetic? A. Tetracaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Dibucaine 44. Drug efficacy refers to A. Range of disease in which the drug is beneficial B. Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The therapeutic dose range of the drug D. The therapeutic index of the drug 45. Drug metabolism can be induced by following factors except A. Cigarette smoking

B. Acute alcohol ingestion C. Exposure to insecticides D. Consume charcoal boiled meat

GENERAL MEDICINE
46. One of the causes of finger clubbing is A. Carcinoma of the lung B. Cardiac failure C. Bronchial asthma D. Ischaemic heart disease 47. Patients with atrial fibrillation have A. Regularly irregular pulse B. Irregularly irregular pulse C. Anacrotic pulse D. Pulsus alternans 48. The most common cause of chronic bronchitis is A. Air pollution B. Optic fibrosis C. Smoking D. Recurrent aspiration pheumonia 49. Gall bladder enlargement occur in A. Carcinoma of pancreas B. Hepatic cirrhosis C. Chronic hepatitis D. Chronic cholelithiasis 50. Black water fever is caused by A. P. Vivax B. P. Falciparum C. P. Malariae D. P. Ovale 51. Neurogenic cause of dysphagia includes the following except A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tetanus C. Parkinsons disease D. Tetany

COMEDK 2006

60

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

GENERAL SURGERY
52. Nerve injury leading to contusion of the nerve in which continuity of both epineural sheath and the axons is maintained is known as A. Neurotimesis B. Axonotmesis C. Neuroproxia D. Traumatic neuroma 53. Factors influencing wound healing are the following A. Nutrition B. Adequate blood supply C. Size and location of wound D. All of the above 54. Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis refer to A. Tuberculous thyroditis B. Hashimotos thyroditis C. Dequervalis thyroditis D. Riedels thyroditis 55. Rigidity of facial muscle sardonicus is associated with A. Tetanus B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Actinomycosis Risus

58. Which of the following hardness test is independent of ductility of the material A. RHN B. VHN C. KHN D. BHN 59. Minimum thickness for typeI zinc phosphate cement should be A. 15 microns B. 25 microns C. 50 microns D. None of the above 60. Which cement base has the highest modulus of elasticity? A. Zinc polycarboxylate B. Polymer reinforced ZOE cement C. Zincphosphate D. Glass ionomer cement 61. In metal ceramic crowns the function of indium and tin is A. Improve bonding B. Decrease porosity C. React with porcelain to form and opaque layer D. Improve thermal expansion 62. Which die material has a hazardous potential during fabrication? A. Improved stone B. Silver amalgam C. Electro deposited silver D. Epoxy resin 63. The role of magnesium chloride in zinc oxide eugenol impression paste A. Retarder B. Modifier C. Plasticizer D. Accelerator 64. Quartz in dental procealin as A. Strengthener B. Binder C. Pigment D. Crack minimizer

COMEDK 2006

DENTAL MATERIALS
56. Subsurface porosity in metals can be prevented by A. Increased sprue length B. Increased sprue thickness C. Increased metal temperature D. Increased mold temperature 57. Cross linking in denture base resin is contributed by A. Benzoyl peroxide B. Glycol dimethacrylate C. Nparatoluidine D. Methylmethacrylate

COMEDK 2006

61

65. Space lattice refers to A. Inter atomic movement B. Inter atomic imbalance C. Arrangement of atoms D. Arrangement of molecules 66. Ammonia treated gold foil is also known as A. Cohesive foil B. Non cohesive foil C. Corrugated foil D. Non corrugated foil 67. The modules of elasticity of an alloy refers to A. Flexibility B. Ductility C. Stiffness D. Malleability

72. Gnarled enamel is seen in A. Proximal surface of tooth B. Cervical region of tooth C. Cusp tips of tooth D. All the above 73. Basic metabolic unit of bone is A. Osteon B. Osteoblast C. Osteocyte D. Osteoclast

COMEDK 2006

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE

74. The term thrush refers to A. Acute atrophic candidiasis B. Chronic atrophic candidiasis C. Acute pseudo membranous candidiasis D. Median rhomboid glossitis 75. Hecks disease is another name for A. Focal epithelial hyperplasia B. Fibromatosis gingiva C. Oral mealanotic macule D. Hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome 76. Which of the following is a precancerous lesions A. Speckled leukoplakia B. Benign migratory glossitis C. White sponge nevus D. Hairy leukoplakia 77. Target lesions are seen in A. Pemphigoid B. Lichenplanus C. Erythema multiforme D. Mickuliczs disease 78. The syndrome characterized by hyperkeratotic skin lesions, severe destruction of the periodontal ligament and calcification of the dura is A. Downs syndrome B. ChediakHigashi syndrome C. PapillonLefevre syndrome D. PlummerVinson syndrome

DADH
68. The teeth that are retained for the longest period of time are A. Maxillary incisors B. Maxillary canines C. Mandibular incisors D. Mandibular canines 69. Mesial developmental depression is the characteric feature of A. Maxillary first premolar B. Maxillary second premolar C. Mandibular first premolar D. Mandibular second premolar 70. The buds for the permanent teeth are formed A. Between 6 to 24 months after birth B. 6 years of postnatal life C. During 6th month of development D. During 3rd months of development 71. Cell rests of mallassez are found in A. Enamel B. Dentine C. Pulp D. Periodontal ligament

62

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

79. Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all the following conditions except A. Shell teeth B. Taurodontism C. Dentin dysplasia D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 80. Mucoceles are rarely seen in the A. Lower lip B. Upper lip C. Buccal mucosa D. Floor of the mouth 81. Animals maintained in a germ free environment did not develop caries even when fed on a high carbohydrate diet A. Gottlieb B. Miller C. Snyder D. Orland and Fitzgerald 82. Sjogrens syndrome is characterized by A. Dry eyes B. Dry mouth C. Destruction of salivary glands D. All the above 83. The premaligant lesions of the oral mucosa include all of the following except A. Leuko plakia B. Erythro plakia C. OSMF D. Melano plakia 84. Majority of salivary stones occur in A. Parotid gland B. Ectopic salivary gland C. Sub lingual gland D. Sub mandibular gland 85. Periapical granuloma can be differentiated from cementoma by A. Radiograph B. Pulp vitality test C. C T scan D. MRI scan

86. Cribriform, honey comb (or) swiss cheese histology pattern is seen in A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma B. Pleomorphic adenoma C. Acinic cell carcinoma D. Clear cell carcinoma 87. The cyst which is always associated initially with the crown of an impacted embedded or unerupted tooth A. Dentigerous cyst B. Periodontal cyst C. Odontogenic kerato cyst D. Primordial cyst 88. The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is A. Maxillary second molar B. Maxillary third molar C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar 89. Pain muscle tenderness, clicking or popping noise in T M joint and limitation of jaw motion are the four cardinal signs and symptoms of A. Costens syndrome B. Traumatic arthritis of TM joint C. Osteo arthritis D. Myo facial pain dysfunction syndrome 90. Cooleys anemia is also known as A. Erythro blastosis foetalis B. Aplastic anemia C. Thalassemia D. Pernicious anemia 91. Rubeola refers to A. German measles B. Measles C. Small pox D. Chicken pox 92. An interesting association of lichen planus, diabetes mellitus and vascular hypertention is described as A. Gardeners syndrome B. Grinspans syndrome C. Costens syndrome D. Cowdens syndrome

COMEDK 2006

COMEDK 2006

63

93. Cyst arising fom rest of malassez is A. Dental cyst B. Dentigerous cyst C. Radicular cyst D. Kerato cyst 94. Commonest salivary gland tumour in children A. Lymphoma B. Pleomorphic adenoma C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Muco epidermoid carcinoma 95. Most common organism causing caries A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Streptococcus viridans C. Streptococcus mutans D. Staphycococcus albus 96. Most common site of tuberculous lesion in the oral cavity is A. Buccal mucosa B. Lips C. Tongue D. Palate

100. Which layer of epithelium of oral mucous membrane is more sensitive to radiation A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum granulosum C. Stratum basale D. Stratum corneum 101. In recent avulsion of tooth, the image of laminadura of the empty socket in the radiograph is usually A. Lost B. Discontinuous C. Persisting D. Widened 102. Which of the following materials is easily confused with dental caries when viewed radiographically A. Calcium hydroxide cement B. Dental amalgam C. Zinc oxide Engenol cement D. Zinc phosphate cement

COMEDK 2006

ORTHODONTICS
103. The most rapid growth in human occurs during A. Prenatal period B. 612 months after birth C. 35 years of life D. Beginning of teenage years 104. Spheno occipital synchondroses carries the growth of anterior half of the cranial base of the cranium and upper part of the face in A. Forward and downward direction B. Forward and lateral direction C. Upward and forward direction D. Only forward direction 105. The first typical orthodontic fixed appliance was introduced by A. Begg B. Johnson C. EH Angle D. Roth

ORAL RADIOLOGY
97. One of the following is not capable of replication A. Neuron B. Liver C. Kidney D. None of the above 98. The milliampere (MA) control of Xray machine controls A. The speed of electrons B. The quantity of electrons C. The speed of protons D. The quantity of protons 99. The size of actual focal spot is A. 1 3 mm B. 1 1 mm C. 1 4 mm D. 1 2 mm

64

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

106. For best result in class III malocclusion correction the orthopedic appliance should be worn at least A. 1216 hours per day B. 810 hours per day C. 58 hours per day D. Throughout night 107. A change in the intensity and direction of functional forces would produce demonstrable changes in the internal architecture and external form of bone was started by A. Kelvin Moss B. E. H Angle C. Zadmison D. Julies Wolff 108. Sved type of bite plane is an example of A. Simple anchorage B. Reciprocal anchorage C. Extra oral anchorage D. Reinforced anchorages 109. The labial bow in activator is constructed with A. 0.6 mm wire B. 0.5 mm wire C. 0.7 mm wire D. 0.8 mm sire or slightly heavier 110. Incisal liability in the upper jaw is A. 1.7 mm B. 6 mm C. 0.9 mm D. 7.6 mm 111. In the maxillary arch the primate space is found A. Distal to deciduous canine B. Distal to maxillary lateral incisor C. Mesial to maxillary deciduous lateral incisor D. Distal to deciduous first molar 112. Pain is normally felt after heavy force application in A. 3 to 5 second later

B. 3040 second later C. 1 to 2 minutes later D. 4 to 5 minutes later 113. Cleft lip repair is commonly performed during A. 36 months of age B. 36 years of age C. Puberty D. At the time of birth 114. Skull at birth contains A. 22 bones B. 34 bones C. 45 bones D. 54 bones

COMEDK 2006

PEDODONTICS
115. The most difficult form of child maltreatment to identify and treat is A. Sexual abuse B. Physical abuse C. Emotional abuse D. Munchausen syndrome by proxy 116. The first macroscopic indication of morphologic development of primary incisors occurs approximately at A. 11 weeks in utero B. 14 weeks in utero C. 16 weeks in utero D. 6 weeks in utero 117. Lap to lap position is the recommended position for performing oral hygiene procedures in A. 01 years old B. 13 years old C. 36 years old D. 612 years old 118. Primary anterior teeth intruded after a traumatic injury may often reerupt within A. 34 weeks B. 812 weeks C. 68 weeks D. 710 weeks

COMEDK 2006

65

119. The concept of Dental home was introduced by A. Arthur Nowak B. Evangeline Jordan C. Paul Casayassimo D. George White 120. More than 90% of growth of the brain or brain vault has been achieved by A. 12 years of life B. 5 years of life C. 18 years of live D. 21 years of live 121. Fluoride substitutes the following components of hydroxyapatite crystal A. Calcium B. Hydroxyl C. Phosphate D. All of the above

B. Category II C. Category III D. Category IV 126. The castration complex is associated with which income group A. Upper middle class B. Lower middle class C. Upper lower class D. Lower class
COMEDK 2006

127. The point at which chlorine demand of water is met is termed A. Chlorine point B. Super chlorination C. Break point D. Dechlorination 128. Emporiatrics is the word used to describe the science of A. Epidemics B. Feet C. Health of travelers D. Child health 129. Blinding can be done to eliminate which type of bias A. Berkensonian B. Recall C. Confounding D. Interviewers 130. The prevention of emergence or development of risk factors in countries where they have not appeared is what type of prevention? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Primordial 131. The first dental college in India was started in 1926 at A. Delhi B. Calcutta C. Bombay D. Chennai

P AND SD
122. The method of presenting data of geographic distribution is A. Histogram B. Pie chart C. Frequency polygon D. Cartogram 123. The number of independent members in the sample is A. Null B. Degrees of freedom C. Bias D. Significance 124. The method of prepayment wherein the patient pays a percent of total cost A. Loan B. Co-insurance C. Reasonable fee D. Fee for service 125. Tasks involving exposure to blood, body fluids, tissues are called A. Category I

66

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

132. The index age group for deciduous teeth in year is A. 12 B. 5 C. 3544 D. 65 74 133. When a disease spreads from one country to another in a short time it is called A. Endemic B. Pandemic C. Epidemic D. Sporadic 134. The period of infancy usually refers to A. First 2 years after birth B. First 1 years after birth C. First 6 months after birth D. First 3 years after birth

B. Pre molar region C. 1st molar region D. Pre molar and molar region 139. Guiding plane in RPD should be located at A. In between edentulous space B. Abutment surface adjacent to an edentulous area C. Edentulous area D. Abutment area 140. Identify the material used in maxillofacial prosthesis is A. Poly urethane polymers B. Poly carbonate C. Auto polymerizing acrylic resin D. Poly vinyl chloride 141. Retruded tongue position in an edentulous patient results in A. Good peripheral seal B. Over extended impression C. Under extended impression D. Increased stability of lower denture 142. Determining the relative parallelism of proximal tooth surface by contacting with the surveyor blade is known as A. Guiding planes B. Angle of cervical convergence C. Height of contour D. Interference 143. Tissue conditioning materials are A. Elatomers B. Elasto polymers C. Polymers D. Impression plaster 144. Which component of a removable partial denture used to retain or prevent dislodgement A. Indirect retainer B. Rest C. Minor connector D. Direct retainer

COMEDK 2006

PROSTHODONTICS
135. The preferred gingival finish line for veneer metal restoration is A. Shoulder B. Chamfer C. Shoulder with bevel D. Radial shoulder 136. Functional impression technique can be applied in A. Uniformly firm ridge consistency B. All variety of residual ridges C. KNIFE edge ridge D. Displaceable alveolar ridge 137. A rigid reciprocal arm of a clasp may also act as A. Direct retainer B. An auxillary indirect retainer C. Major connector D. Minor connector 138. Complete denture patients have a preference for which region when the consistency of food is tough A. 2nd molar region

COMEDK 2006

67

145. Bone loss following extraction is A. Less for first 6 months B. Less for first 1 months C. More for first 6 months D. Process uniformly for first year

C. Refractory periodontitis D. Localised periodontitis 152. Linear gingival erythema is a characteristic finding in A. Chronic gingivitis B. Chronic periodontitis C. Human immuno deficiency virus D. Aggressive peridontitis 153. Subgingival scaling alters the microflora of periodontal pocket A. Never gets altered B. Aerobes only C. Gets altered D. Anerobes only 154. The primary etiologic factor in the development of furcation defect is A. Calculus B. Plaque C. Cemental caries D. Root infection 155. The most widely recommended tool for removing plaque from proximal tooth surfaces A. Tooth brush B. Mouth Wash C. Dental Floss D. Tooth paste 156. Reshaping of bone without removing tooth supporting bone is known as A. Odontoplasty B. Osteoplasty C. Coronoplasty D. Ostectomy 157. Plaque begins to form on tooth surface after brushing in A. 4 Hours B. 8 Hours C. 6 Hours D. 2 Hours
COMEDK 2006

PERIODONTICS
146. Oral hygiene was first practiced by A. Chinese B. Etrusians C. Sumgerians D. Sustuta 147. Length of junctional epithelium A. 0.0 to 1.0 mm B. 0.01 to 0.02 mm C. 0.25 to 1.35 mm D. 0.30 to 0.40 mm 148. Recent classification of periodontal disease organized by American Academy of Periodontology was introduced in the year A. 1989 B. 1997 C. 1998 D. 1999 149. EM study of the four zones of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis was coined by A. Listgarten B. Slot C. Pindborg D. Socransky 150. Plateau like bone margins caused by resorption of thickened bony plates is called A. Lipping B. Crater C. Reverse architecture D. Ledge 151. Arcshaped alveolar bone loss is seen radio graphically in A. Chronic periodontitis B. Localized Jeuvenile periodontitis

68

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

158. Mouth examination of a patient with HIV/ AIDS may commonly reveal A. Macroglossia B. Periodontal diseases C. Loss of sensation of taste D. Red tongue

163. The cavosurface angle for inlay cavity preparation A. 90 degree B. 150 degree C. Less than 90 degree D. 180 degree 164. Which of the following drugs is commonly used to control salivation in operative dentistry A. Pilocarpine B. Propanolol C. Atropine D. Muscarine 165. Ferrier double bow separator works on the principles of A. Wedge principle B. Traction principle C. Slow separation D. Delayed tooth movement 166. Peso reamer is used for A. To remove lingual shoulder of anterior teeth B. To enlarge root canal orifices C. Post space preparation D. To remove gutta percha 167. RCprep is a combination of A. EDTA with carbamide peroxide B. EDTA with hydrogen peroxide C. EDTA with sodium peroxide D. EDTA with urea peroxide 168. What fraction of inhaled mercury vapours retained in the body? A. 45 55% B. 55 65% C. 65 85% D. More than 85%

CONS AND ENDO

COMEDK 2006

159. The modified class III preparation uses a dovetail on the lingual side in A. Maxillary canine B. Mandibular canine C. Mandibular central incisor D. Mandibular lateral incisor 160. When restoring a tooth with resin material acid etching can do all of the following except A. Increase the surface area B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting 161. Radio opacity of composite resins is achieved by the addition of A. Borax B. Barium and strontium glasses C. Small amount of lead and carbon D. Rare earthmetallic oxides 162. Preparation of class I cavities for dental amalgam, direct filling gold or gold in lays have in common A. Occlusally diverging facial and lingual walls B. Occlusally diverging mesial and distal walls C. Occlusally converging facial and lingual walls D. Occlusally converging mesial and distal walls

ORAL SURGERY
169. The primary excretory organ for the local anaesthetic and its metabolites is A. Lungs B. Kidneys C. Rectum D. Skin

COMEDK 2006

69

170. The site of action of the local anaesthetic is on A. Axoplasm B. Epineurium C. Nerve membrane D. Perineurium 171. In a receding chin where the occlusion is acceptable the choice of surgical procedure for correction would be A. Sliding genioplasty B. Sagittal split osteotomy C. Kole procedure D. Oblique ramus osteotomy 172. When the malignancy involves the jaw bones the success with radiotherapy alone is A. Fair B. Good C. Reduced D. Increased 173. For patients who are deficient of endogenous steroids undergoing maxillofacial surgery, the most preferred full spectrum cortico steroid for pre, intra and post operative prophylactic steroid therapy is A. Dexamethasone B. Methyl prednisolone C. Triamcinolone D. Hydrocortisone 174. In pericoronal abscess related to disto angular impacted lower third molars the infection may spread to A. Submasseteric space B. Sublingual space C. Submental space D. Buccal space 175. Which of the following organism has been postulated to have a aetiological role in the development of dry socket? A. Streptococcus haemolyticus

B. Treponema denticola C. Treponema pallidum D. Staphylo coccus 176. A primary rotatory movement is used in extraction of A. Mandibular central and lateral incisors B. Maxillary central incisor and mandibular II premolar C. Maxillary I premolar D. Maxillary and mandibular canines 177. In children with mixed dentition fracture mandible is treated by A. Bone plating B. Trans osseous wiring C. Eyelet intermaxillary wiring D. Cap splint with circumferential wiring 178. The reduction of the nasal bone fractures are done by A. Walshams and Asches forceps B. Rowes disimpaction forceps C. Bristows elevator D. Taylormonks elevator 179. In bilateral parasymphyseal fractures of the mandible the fractured segment is displaced posteriorly under the influence of A. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid B. Masseter and medial pterygold C. Buccinators and post belly of digastric D. Genioglossus, geniohyoid and posterior belly of digastric 180. Severe cellulitis beginning in the submaxillary space and secondarily involving the sublingual and submental space is known as A. Submandibular cellulitis B. Submaxillary cellulitis C. Ludwigs angina D. Supra hyoid cellulitis

COMEDK 2006

70

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

ANSWERS
Explanation Investing layer of deep cervical fascia splits to enclose two spaces Suprasternal Supraclavicular Suprasternal space contains, 1. Sterna heads of the right and left sternocleido mastoid muscles 2. Jugular venous arch 3. Lymph node 4. Lowest parts of the anterior jugular veins 8. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p.268 9. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p.278 Explanation Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk (which arises from the subclavian artery). 10. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 274 Explanation The muscles of tongue develop from occipital myotomes which are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve. 11. Ans: D Ref: B.D Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 244 Explanation The structures within parotid gland a. Arteries: External carotid artery Maxillary artery Superficial temporal vessels Posterior auricular artery b. Veins Retromandibular vein c. Nerves Facial nerve d. Parotid Lymph node

HUMAN ANATOMY
1. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 255 2. Ans: C
COMEDK 2006

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 259 3. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 385 4. Ans: D Ref: Inderbir Singh Text Book of Embryology, 8/E, p. 109 5. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 245 Explanation The parotid duct turns medially and pierces a. Buccal pad of fat b. Buccopharyngeal fascia c. Buccinator (pierces obliquely thus preventing inflation of duct during blowing). 6. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p.266 Explanation Superficial relation The lingual nerve with submandibular ganglion and hypoglossal nerve running on the hyoglossus muscle from lateral to medial side. 7. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p.186, Cunninghams Manual of Practical Anatomy, 15/E, Vol 3, p. 38

COMEDK 2006

71

12. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p.347 Explanation The Internal laryngeal nerve supplies the mucous membrane upto the level of the vocal folds The Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies it below the level of the vocal folds. 13. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 213 14. Ans: C Ref: Sicher & Dubruls Oral Anatomy, 8/E, p.222 15. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia 1/E, p.139 Explanation Foramen ovale transmits, M Mandibular nerve A Accessory meningeal artery L Lesser petrosal nerve E Emissary vein

Explanation
Muscle
Laryngeal muscles Pharyngeal muscles Ocular muscles Leg and back muscles

No. of muscle fibres/unit

23 26 36 120165

20. Ans: C Ref: R. L. Bijlani Medical Physiology, 3/E, p. 81 21. Ans: D Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 975

COMEDK 2006

BIOCHEMISTRY
22. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 269 23. Ans: D Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 134 Explanation Deficiency of Vitamin C results in scurvy and is characterized by Spongy and sore gums Loose teeth Anaemia Swollen joints Fragile blood vessels Decreased immunocompetence Delayed wound healing Sluggisa hormonal function of adrenal cortex gonads Hemorrhage Osteoporosis 24. Ans: C Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 406 Explanation Factors promoting Ca absorption 1. Vitamin D

PHYSIOLOGY
16. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 53 17. Ans: B Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 114 18. Ans: A Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 245 Explanation Glomerular filtration rateInulin Renal plasma flow - creatinine Renal blood flow are paraaminohippuric acid. 19. Ans: A Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p.81

72

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2006

2. Parathyroid hormone 3. Low pH 4. Lactose 5. Lysine and arginine Factors inhibiting Ca absorption 1. Phylates and oxalates 2. High content of dietary phosphate 3. Free fatty acids 4. High pH 5. High content of dietary fibres 25. Ans: A Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 183 Explanation In electrophoresis of agar gel, the normal serum is separated into 5 parts, Albumin 55 65% - maximum mobility in electric field 1 globulin 24% 2 globulin 612% globulin 812% globulin 1222% - least mobility

28. Ans: D Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 138 Explanation Red (haemorrhagic) infacts with venous occlusions - lungs ovary, small intestine White (anaemic) infarcts spleen, heart, kidney with arterial occlusions.

MICROBIOLOGY
29. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panickers, 8/E, p. 613 30. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panickers, 8/E, p. 391 31. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 140 Explanation Immune response is brought by 3 cells, 1. T cells 2. B cells 3. Antigen presenting cells 32. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 19 Explanation Polysaccharide capsule pneumococcus Polypeptide capsule anthrax Both capsule and slime layer streptococcus salivarius 33. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 27 Explanation Mesophilic: 25 40C Psychrophilic: < 20C Thermophilic: 55 80C

GENERAL PATHOLOGY
26. Ans: D Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 576 Explanation The subendocardial region of myocardium is the most poorly perfused region of the ventricular wall and the relatively high intramural pressure in this area further compromises the inflow of blood. 27. Ans: A Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 199 Explanation CVC lungs occurs in left heart failure The breakdown of RBCs liberates haemosiderin pigment which is taken by alveolar macrophages so called heart failure cells present in the alveolar lumina

COMEDK 2006

73

34. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 32 35. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 19 36. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 19 37. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 145 38. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panickers Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 31 Explanation Therefore spores are used as sterilization control.

Edrophonium Rivastigmine Donepezil Galantamine b. Acridine - Tacrine 42. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 339 Explanation Neuromuscular blocking agents Nondepolarizing (Competitive) blockers 1. Long acting: d- Tubocurarine, Pancuronium, Doxacurium, Pipecuronium 2. Intermediate acting: Vecuronium, Atracurium, Cisatracurium, Rocuronium, Rapacuronium 3. Short acting: Mivacurium Depolarizing blockers 1. Succinylcholine (SCh., Suxamethonium) 2. Decamethonium (C - 10) 43. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 351 44. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 54 45. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 27 Explanation Enzyme inducers: 1. Anticonvulsant including phenobarbitone, (CYP 2 B 1 ) rifampin (CYP 2 D 6 ) glucocorticords induce CYP 3 A isoenzymes 2. Isoniazid and chronic alchol consumption induces CYP2E1 3. Polycyclic hydrocarbons foundin cigarette smoke, charcoal and industrial pollutants induce CYP1A isoenzymes 4. Otherschloralhydrates, phenylbutazone, griseofulvin, DDT.
COMEDK 2006

PHARMACOLOGY
39. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 597 40. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 158 Explanation Cetrizine is a second generation antihistamine so it has antiallergic mechanism. 41. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 99 Explanation Reverssible a. Carbamates Phyostigmine Neostigmine Pyridostigmine

74

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

GENERAL MEDICINE
46. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1283 Explanation Causes of digital clubbing: 1. Respiratory Bronchogenic Ca Suppurative lung disease Fibrosing alveolitis 2. Cardiac congenital cyanotic heart disease, SABE 3. Others Inflammatory bowel disease Biliary cirrhosis Thyrotoxicosis Familial 47. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 562 48. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 678 49. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 910 50. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1035 Explanation Plasmodium falciparium causes malaria associated with intravascular haemolysis when severe this is termed black water fever due to the associated hemoglobinuria. 51. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 775

COMEDK 2006

Explanation Neuropraxia Intact axons Complete recovery Axonotenesis Axons rupture intact CT Wallerian degeneration Slow regeneration of axons Neurotenesis partial or complete division of nerve fibres 53. Ans: D Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 6 54. Ans: B Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 669 Explanation Hashimotos disease autoimmune/ chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis De quervainss disease subacute/ granulomatous thyroiditis 55. Ans: A Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 136 Explanation Other features of a. Lock jaw contraction of masseter muscle b. Opisthotonus muscle of neck and trunk become rigid and the pact is slightly arched.

DENTAL MATERIALS
56. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 345. Explanation Ref to Table 3.1 57. Ans: B Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 723. Explanation Cross linking agents are incorporated into the liquid component at a concentration of 12% by volume.

GENERAL SURGERY
52. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 244

COMEDK 2006 Table 3.1: Effects of technical factors on the Porosity resulting from Metal Solidification

75

Type of Porosity
Localized shrinkage Subsurface porosity Microporosity

Increase in sprue thickness

Reduced Increased No effect

Increase in sprue length

Increased Reduced No effect

Increase in melt temperature

Reduced Increased Reduced

Increase in mold temperature

Reduced Increased Reduced

58. Ans: C Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 98. Explanation Knoop and Vickers test Microhardness tests Brinell and Rockwell test Macrohardness tests 59. Ans: B Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 468. 60. Ans: C Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 468. Explanation Highest modulus of elasticity is ZnPO4 13.7 GPa Least modulus of elasticity is resin cements: 3.1 3.1 61. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 674. Explanation Metals like iron, indium or tin are applied to the metal surface and fired similar to opaque porcelain Functions Improves metal ceramic bonding Better aesthetics 62. Ans: C Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 319. Explanation The silver plating process consists of an electroplating bath primarily of silver cyanide solution care must be taken to

avoid the addition of acids to the cyanide solution Which can cause release of cyanide vapour a death chamber gas 63. Ans: D Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 254 Explanation Composition of a Zinc Oxide - Eugenol Impression paste
Components Tube No. 1 (Base) Zinc oxide (French processed or USP) Mixed vegetable or mineral oil Tube No. 2 (Accelerator) Oil of cloves or eugenol Gum or polymerized rosin Filler(silica type) Lanolin Resinous balsam Accelerator solution (CaCl2 ) and color Percentage
87 13 12 50 20 3 10 5

COMEDK 2006

64. Ans: B Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 667 65. Ans: C Ref: Craig, 12/E, p. 133 Explanation There are 14 possible space lattice forms. 66. Ans: B Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 549. Explanation Functions of ammonia It minimizes adsorption of other less volatile substances and prevents premature cohesion of sheets that may come into contact.

76

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

67. Ans: C Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 80. Explanation Elastic modulus is the relative stiffness or rigidity of a material.

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE

74. Ans: C Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 363 75. Ans: A Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 24 76. Ans: A Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 94 Explanation Speckled leukoplakia is a clinical variant of erythroplakia. 77. Ans: C Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p.806 78. Ans: C Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 402 Explanation It is an autosomal recessive disorder. 79. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 54 80. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 541 Explanation Mucocele most frequently occurs on the lower lip but may also occur on the palate, cheek, tongue (involving the glands of BlandinNuhn) and floor of the mouth. 81. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 414 82. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 247 83. Ans: D Ref: Burkitt, 11/E, p. 85, 88

DADH
68. Ans: B
COMEDK 2006

Ref: Orbans, 12/E, p. 302 69. Ans: A Ref: Wheelers, 8/E, p. 226 70. Ans: A/B/C/D Ref: Orbans, 12/E, p. 291 Explanation
Teeth
First permanent molar Second permanent molar Third permanent molar

Initiation
4th month in utero 1st year after birth After 4th or 5th year

71. Ans: D Ref: Orbans, 12/E, p. 30 72. Ans: C Ref: Orbans, 12/E, p. 50 Explanation If the crown is cut in an oblique plane, especially near the dentin in the region of the cusps or incisal edges, the rod arrangement appears to be further complicated the bundles of rods seem to intertwine more irregularly. This optical appearance of enamel is called gnarled enamel. 73. Ans: A Ref: Orbans, 12/E, p. 189 Explanation The haversian (vascular) canal and the concentric lamellae together is known as the Osteon or haversian system.

COMEDK 2006

77

84. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 544 Explanation Sialolithiasis stone is salivary duct or salivary duct calculus Submandibular 64% Parotid 20% Sublingual 16% 85. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 482, 732 86. Ans: A Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 234 87. Ans: A Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 255 88. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 494 89. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 742 90. Ans: C Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 760 Explanation Thalassemia is also known as Cooleys anaemia, Mediterranean anaemia or Erythroblasts anaemia 91. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 341 Explanation It is also known as duct of Morbilli 92. Ans: B Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 800 Explanation 1. Gardeners syndrome Multiple polyposis of large intestine, osteomas of bone, multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of skin particularly scalp and back

2. Costens syndrome Impairment of hearing timitus, otalgia, dizziness and headache about the vertex, occiput and behind the ears Burning sensations in the throat, tongue and side of nose 3. Cowdens syndrome Autosomal dominant Facial trichilemmomas Papillomatous lesions Oral fibromas 93. Ans: C Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 268 94. Ans: D Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 232 Explanation Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant salivary gland tumour in children. 95. Ans: C Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 415 96. Ans: C Ref: Shafers , 5/E, p. 440

COMEDK 2006

ORAL RADIOLOGY
97. Ans: A Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22
High
Colon Stomach Lung Bone marrow (leukemia) Female breast

Intermediate
Bladder Liver Thyroid

Low
Bone surface Brain Salivary glands Skin

98. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 7 99. Ans: A Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 6

78

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

100. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22 101. Ans: C Ref:White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 544 102. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 304 Explanation Newer calcium hydroxide liner contains barium lead or zone which renders the radioopacity But the older Ca (OH)2 appear radiolucent and resemble recurrent caries or residual caries Composite, plastic or silicate restoration also may simulate caries.
COMEDK 2006

physical demands made upon it with the greatest amount of economy of structure. This is the basis of wolffs law of transformation of bone. 108. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 208 109. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 341 110. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 44 Explanation The difference between the amount of space needed for the accommodation of the incisors and the amount of space available for this is called incisal liability. It is 7 mm in maxillary and 5 mm in mandibular arch 111. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 41 112. Ans: A Ref: Proffit, 4/E, pp. 337, 348 113. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E p. 446 Explanation Cleft lip Milliards rule of 10 10 weeks of age 10 pounds weight 10 gms of Hb Cleft palate , 12 24 months of age 114. Ans: C Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 1/E, p. 26

ORTHODONTICS
103. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 09 104. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 31 105. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 320 Explanation In 1912, Edward H Angle introduced the pin and tube appliance. 106. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 365 Explanation Intermittent forces ranging from 1214 hrs a day to bring about minimum tooth movement but maximum skeletal change. 107. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 54 Explanation Bone is formed in just the quantity and shape that will enable it to withstand the

PEDODONTICS
115. Ans: D Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 26

COMEDK 2006

79

116. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 53 117. Ans: B Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 15 118. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 480 119. Ans: A Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 227 120. Ans: B Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 69 Explanation Growth of the brain completes by 10 yrs of age 121. Ans: B Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 267 Explanation Fluoride continues to enter the enamel surface causing crystals to change from carbonated apatite and hydroxyapatie to fluorapatite and fluorhydroxyapatite (FHAP) crystals These fluoride rich crystals are less acid soluble than original enamel apatite

127. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 744 128. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 115 129. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 70 Explanation
COMEDK 2006

Bias
Confounding bias Selection bias Interviewers bias

Method of elimination
By matching By prevention By double blinding

130. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 39 131. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.11 Explanation The Father of Indian Dentistry in India is Dr R Ahmed He started the Dr R Ahmed Dental College at Kolkata in 1926. 132. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 589 Explanation The recommend age for examination primary of teeth is between 5th and 6th birthday 133. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 800 134. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 455 Explanation Childhood can be divided into the following age periods. 1. Infancy upto 1yr a. Neonatal first 28 days of life b. Post neonatal period 28th day to 1 year 2. Preschool age 1 4 yrs 3. School age 5 14 yrs

P AND SD
122. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 33 123. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 40 124. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 647 125. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 753 126. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 659

80

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

PROSTHODONTICS
135. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 572 136. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 409 137. Ans: B
COMEDK 2006

143. Ans: A/C Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 198 144. Ans: D Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 291 145. Ans: C Ref: Zarb & Bolender, 12/E, p. 44

Ref: Mc Crackens , 11/E, p. 93 138. Ans: B Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 16 139. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 325 140. Ans: A & D Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 714 141. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 30 Explanation Wrights classification of tongue positions 1. Class I tongue lies in the floor of mouth with tip forward and slightly over the incisal edges of the mandibular anterior teeth. It is ideal layer position 2. Class II tongue is flattened and broadened but the tip is in a normal position 3. Class III the tongue is retracted and depressed into the floor of the mouth with the tip curled upward, downward or assimilated into the body of the tongue In class II and III cases, the floor of the mouth is too low hence the dentist tends to overextend the denture flange leading to loss of retention. 142. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 323 146. Ans: C

PERIODONTICS
Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 1 147. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 53 Explanation Junctional epithelium is formed by the confluence of the oral epithelium and the reduced enamel epithelium during tooth eruption It is attached to tooth surface by internal basal lamina and gingival connective tissue by external basal lamina 148. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 100 149. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 9/E, p. 299 Explanation Zone 1 Bacterial zone: Large mass of bacteria including spirochaetes Zone 2 Neutrophil rich zone: Leukocytes rezone dominantly neutrophils with bacteria interspersed between them. Zone 3 Necrotic zone: Dead cells and many spiroclasts Zone 4 Spirochetal infiltration zone: Only spirochetes no other bacteria 150. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 462

COMEDK 2006

81

151. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 508 Explanation In radiographic findings of LJP, an arch shaped bone loss is seen from the distal surface of 2nd premolar to the mesial surface of 2nd molar. 152. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 527 153. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 1195 154. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 991 Explanation The primary etiologic factor in the development of furcation defects is bacterial plaque and the inflammatory consequence from its long term presence However the extent of attachment loss required to produce a furcation defect is variable and related to local anatomic facts For example: Root trunk length, root morphology and local developmental anomalies, e.g.: Cervical enamel projections). 155. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 735 156. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 952 Explanation Odontoplasty Reshaping of teeth Osteoplasty Reshaping of bone without removing the tooth Ostectomy Includes Removal of tooth supporting bone. 157. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 146

158. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 516 Explanation Oral lesions commonly seen in HIV patients Oral candidiasis Oral hairy leukoplakia Kaposis sarcoma Non Hodgkins syndrome A typical periodontal disease (linear gingival erythema)

COMEDK 2006

CONS AND ENDO

159. Ans: A Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p.787 160. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 246 fig 5 - 4 Explanation Acid etching transforms the smooth enamel into a very irregular surface and also increases its surface energy. 161. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 197 Explanation Barium, zinc, boron, zirconium and yttrium ions are used to produce radioopacity in the filler particles. 162. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, pp. 712, 925 163. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 859 Explanation A cavosurface angle of > 150 is incorrect because it results in a less defined enamel margin and the marginal cast metal alloy is too thin and week if its angle is less than 30 If enamel margin is 140 or less, the metal is bulky and difficult to burnish when its angle is >40

82

COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

164. Ans: C Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 491 165. Ans: B Ref: Marzouk, p. 247 Explanation Rapid teeth movement Wedge method elliot separation , wood/ plastic wedges Fraction method non interfering true separator, ferric double bow separator Slow tooth movement Separating wires, elastics Oversized temporaries Orthodontic appliances. 166. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 232 Explanation Pesoreamers Made of hardened carbon steel Cuts laterally Primarily used for preparation of post space when GP has to be removed from obturated root canal. 167. Ans: D Ref: Cohen, 9/E, p. 323 168. Ans: C Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 164

Altering the threshold potential Decreasing the rate of depolarization Prolonging the rate of repolarisation. 171. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 291 172. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 732 173. Ans: D Ref: Peterson, 2/E, p. 17 174. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 619 Explanation Infection of submassetric space is due to, Pericoronitis related to vertical and distoangular third molars Periapical abscess that spreads sub periosteally in a distal direction. 175. Ans: B Ref: Laskin, Vol. 2, p. 42 176. Ans: B Ref: Geoffrey.P. Howe, 2/E, p. 27 177. Ans: D Ref: Killeys, 4/E, p. 108 178. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 376 Explanation Nasal fractures should be repaired within 710 days 179. Ans: D Ref: Killeys, 4/E, p. 14 180. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 624

COMEDK 2006

ORAL SURGERY
169. Ans: B Ref: Malamed LA, 5/E, p. 31 170. Ans: C Ref: Malamed LA, 5 /E, p.12 Explanation Mode of action of LA on nerve membrane can be one of the following ways Altering the basic resting potential of the nerve membrane