Fiitjee Aits Paper

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FULL TEST I

Paper 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240
Pl ease r ead t he i nst r uct i ons car ef ul l y. You ar e al l ot t ed 5 mi nut es
speci f i cal l y f or t hi s pur pose.
You ar e not al l owed t o l eave t he Exami nat i on Hal l bef or e t he end of
t he t est .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-B.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
1. Section A (01 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section A (09 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section A (13 18) contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +4 marks for
correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer.

2. Section B (01 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2
columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second
column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 mark will
be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any
wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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AITS-FT-I(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/13

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
2

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2

Planck constant h = 6.6 10
34
J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 10
19
C
Mass of electron m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg
Permittivity of free space
0
= 8.85 10
12
C
2
/N-m
2
Density of water
water
= 10
3
kg/m
3

Atmospheric pressure P
a
= 10
5
N/m
2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K
1
mol
1

= 1.987 2 Cal K
1
mol
1

Avogadro's Number N
a
= 6.023 10
23

Plancks constant h = 6.625 10
34
Js
= 6.625 10
27
ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10
27
kg
1 eV = 1.6 10
19
J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.


3
P Ph hy ys si ic cs s PART I

SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In the circuit shown below, what will be the reading of the
voltmeter and ammeter?
(A) 800 V, 2A (B) 300 V, 2A
(C) 220 V, 2.2A (D) 100 V, 2A

L
A
C
300V V
R = 100
300V
A V V V
220V, 50 Hz

2. A ball of mass m is projected from a point P on the ground as shown in the
figure. It hits a fixed vertical wall at a distance l from P. Choose the most
appropriate option :
(A) the ball will return to the point P if l = half of the horizontal range.
(B) the ball will return to the point P if l half of the horizontal range.
(C) the ball can not return to the initial point if l > half of the horizontal range.
P
l
u
(D) the ball will return to the initial point, if the collision elastic and l < half of the range.

3 What is the equivalent capacitance across the battery?
(A)
79
C
30
(B)
59
C
30

(C)
41
C
30
(D)
21
C
30

C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
E
2C

4. Initial charge on conducting sphere of radius r is Q
0
. If S is closed at
t = 0 then charge on the sphere at any time t is
(A)
t/rR
0
Q e
(B)
0
t
4 R
0
Q e

(C)
0
t
4 Rr
0
Q e
(D) none of these

+

+

+

+
+

+

+

+

R
S
r
Rough work

4

5. Two resistances of 10 and 20 and an ideal inductor of inductance
5H are connected to a 20V battery through a key K, as shown in
figure. The key is closed at t = 0. What is the final value of current in
the 10 resistor?
(A) (2/3) A (B) (1/3) A
(C) (1/6) A (D) zero

( )
20
K
10
5H
20V

6. A tank is filled upto a height 2H with a liquid and is placed
on a platform of height H from the ground. The distance x
from the ground where a small hole is punched to get the
maximum range R is
(A) H (B) 1.25 H
(C) 1.5 H (D) 2 H
x
H
2H
R

7. The measure of radius of a sphere is (4.22 + 2%) cm. The volume of the sphere is
(A) ( ) 315 6% cm
3
(B) ( ) 315 2% cm
3

(C) ( ) 315 4% cm
3
(D) ( ) 315 8% cm
3

8. A planet moves around Sun in an elliptical orbit of eccentricity e. The ratio
of the velocity at perigee V
p
and at apogee V
a
is given by
(A)
P
a
V 1 e
V 1 e
+
=
(B)
P
a
V 1 e
V 1 e
=
+

(C)
P
a
V 1 e
V 1 e
+
=
(D)
P
a
V 1 e
V 1 e
=
+

Sun
V
P
V
a
Rough work


5
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

9. The string shown in the figure is passing over small smooth pulley
rigidly attached to trolley A. If speed of trolley is constant and
equal to V
A
. Speed and magnitude of acceleration of block B at
the instant shown in figure is
(A) v
B
= v
A
, a
B
= 0 (B) a
B
= 0
(C)
B A
3
v v
5
= (D)
2
A
B
16v
a
125
=
x=3cm
h
=
4
c
m
A
B
h = 3 m
h

=

4

m

10. In the figure, a man of true mass M is standing on a weighing machine
placed in a cabin. The cabin is joined by a string with a body of mass m.
Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of cabin and weighing
machine, the measured mass of man is (normal force between the man
and the machine is proportional to the mass)
m
(A) measured mass of man is
Mm
(M m) +
(B) acceleration of man is
mg
(M m) +

(C) acceleration of man is
Mg
(M m) +
(D) measured mass of man is M.

11. A charged particle of mass 2 kg and charge 2 C moves with a velocity

v 8i 6j = +
G
m/s in a
magnetic field
B 2k =
G
T. Then
(A) The path of particle may be x
2
+ y
2
= 25. (B) The path of particle may be x
2
+ z
2
= 25.
(C) The time period of particle will be 3.14 s. (D) None of these.

12. Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) The density of nuclear matter is independent of the size of the nucleus.
(B) The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei of middle mass numbers, is about 8 MeV.
(C) A free neutron is unstable.
(D) A free proton is stable.
Rough work

6
Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15

A small particle of mass m is given an initial velocity v
0
tangent to the horizontal
rim of a smooth cone at a radius r
0
from the vertical centerline as shown at
point A. As the particle slides to point B, a vertical distance h below A and a
distance r from the vertical centerline, its velocity v makes an angle with the
horizontal tangent to the cone through B.

A
B r
r
0
v
0
v

13. The value of is
(A)
1 0 0
2
0 0
v r
cos
v 2gh(r htan )
+
(B)
1 0 0
2
0 0
v r
cos
v 2gh(r htan )
+ +

(C)
1 0 0
2
0 0
v r
cos
v 2gh(r htan )

(D)
1 0 0
2
0 0
v r
cos
r v 2gh
+

14. The speed of particle at point B
(A)
2
0
v 2gh + (B)
2
0
v 2gh
(C)
2
0
v gh + (D)
2
0
2v 2gh +

15. The minimum value of v
0
for which particle will be moving in a horizontal circle of radius r
0
.
(A)
0
2gr
tan
(B)
0
gr
2tan

(C)
0
gr
tan
(D)
0
4gr
tan

Rough work

7

The world is focusing its attention on renewable sources of energy
like solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy and wave energy. These
sources are non-polluting, do not cause the emission of greenhouse
gases, or cause any large scale damage to the ecology or
environment.
Waves on the surface of the ocean are a good source of power. To
illustrate this, we calculate the mechanical energy carried by an
average wave of crest 1m, wavelength 20 m and a period of 5 s. The
wave profile is taken as approximately step-like, instead of a
sinusoidal function.
10m
2m

A simple minded calculation gives us a contribution of 200 kW from the release of potential energy by
such a wave over a 1 m wavefront.

16. The speed of the wave is
(A) 100 ms
1
(B) 4 ms
1

(C) 0.25 ms
1
(D) none of these

17. Wave energy provides an inexpensive source of power. In the paragraph above, only the
potential energy carried by the wave was calculated. The contribution to power due to kinetic
energy, assuming that all the water in the crest is moving forward at the speed of the wave gives
us, over a 1 m wavefront approximately, of the order of
(A) 10 W (B) 100 W
(C) 10
3
W (D) 10
4
W

18. The momentum carried by the crest of the wave, per metre of the wavefront, is of the order of,
(A) 10
5
kg ms
1
(B) 10
2
kg ms
1

(C) 10 kg ms
1
(D) 10
8
kg ms
1

Rough work

8
SECTION - B
Matrix Match Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as
illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
D
C
B
A
t
t
t
t
t

1. For the following statements, except gravity and contact force between the contact surfaces, no
other force is acting on the body.
Column A Column B
(A) When a sphere is in purerolling on a fixed
horizontal surface.
(p) Upward direction
(B) When a cylinder is in pure rolling on a fixed inclined
plane in upward direction then friction force acts in
(q) v
cm
> R
(C) When a cylinder is in pure rolling down a fixed
incline plane, friction force acts is
(r) v
cm
< R
(D) When a sphere of radius R is rolling with slipping on
a fixed horizontal surface, the relation between v
cm

and is
(s) No frictional force acts.

2. Match the column I with column II
In simple harmonic motion: x = 1.0 sin [12t] and mass of particle executing SHM,
m = 1/4 kg
Column A Column B
(A) Frequency with which kinetic energy oscillates = (p)
1
12

(B) Speed of particle is maximum at time = . (q)
2
18
(C) Maximum potential energy = (r) 12
(D) Force constant k = (s)
2
36
Rough work

9
C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y PART II

SECTION A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1.
Et
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
3
2 4
4
1 O
2 Ag O/NH OH
3 NaBH
4 H
A, Product A is :
+

(A)
O
Et
O

(B)
O
Et
O
(C)
Et
O

(D)
Et
O

2.
C
O
C
O
O
5 4
PCl LiAlH PCC OH
A B C D

Product (D) is:

(A)
CH
2
OH
COO

(B)
CH
2
O
COOH

(C)
CH
2
OH
COO

(D)
O
O

Rough Work


10
3. The two forms of D-glucopyranose obtain from the solution of D-glucose are called
(A) Isomer (B) Anomer
(C) Epimer (D) Enantiomer

4. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 160 and 60 torr respectively. The mole
fraction of toluene in vapour phase in contact with equimolar solution of benzene and toluene is:
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.27 (D) 0.73

5. Consider the modes of transformations of a gas from state A to state B as shown in the
following P V diagram. Which one of the following is true?

(A) H q along A C =
(B) S is same along both A B and
A C B
(C) W is same along both A B and
A C B
(D) W > O along both A B and A C
P
V
C
A
B

6. Select the group of species in which all show trigonal bipyramidal geometry:
(A) PF
5
, IF
5
, XeF
4
(B)
2
4 7 3
ClO ,IF ,CO

(C)
3 2 4
I , XeF ,SF
(D)
6 6 2
XeF ,PF ,ICl
+

7. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d
4
octahedral complex is:
(A) - 1.8
o
(B) - 1. 6
o
+ P
(C) - 1.2
o
(D) - 0.6
o

8. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5 10
-13
. The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass
taken as 120 g mol
-1
) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate just to start the
precipitation of AgBr is:
(A) 5 10
-8
g (B) 1.2 10
-10
g
(C) 1.2 10
-9
g (D) 6.2 10
-5
g

Rough Work


11
Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl crystal is 8
(B) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12
(C) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells
(D) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm

( )
Na Cl
r 95 pm, r 181pm
+
= =

10. Which of the following statements are correct for cis-1,2-dibromocyclopentane?
(A) It contains two chiral centres, but is optically inactive
(B) It can exist in two enatiomeric forms but cannot be optically active
(C) It is a meso compound
(D) It is with two chiral centres and is optically active

11. Which of the following pairs can be distinguished by using Lucas Test?
(A) PhCH
2
OH, CH
3
CH
2
OH (B) PhCH
2
OH, PhOH
(C) (CH
3
)
2
CHOH,CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH (D) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH, CH
3
CH
2
OH

12. Which reagent does not give oxygen as one of the products during oxidation with ozone?
(A) SO
2
(B) SnCl
2
+ HCl
(C) H
2
S (D) PbS
Rough Work


12
Comprehension Type

correct.

For an electrode reaction written as
n
M ne M
+
+
o
red red
n
RT 1
E E ln
nF M
+
=
(

(Nernst equation)
o
red
n
0.0591 1
E log
n M
+
=
(

at 298 K
For the cell reaction, aA bB xX yY + +
ZZZX
YZZZ

| | | |
| | | |
x y
o
cell cell a b
X Y
RT
E E ln
nF
A B
=
| | | |
| | | |
x y
o
cell a b
X Y
0.0591
E log
n
A B
= at 298 K
For pure solids, liquids or gases at 1 atm, molar concentration = 1
Standard free energy change
o o
cell
G nE F = where n is the number of electrons transferred in the redox
reaction of the cell,
o
cell
E is the standard emf of the cell. F stands for 1 Faraday, i.e. 96500 C mol
-1

(approx.).
Standard free energy change
o
eq
2.303RT
G logK
nF
= . Where
eq
K is the equilibrium constant at TK.
eq
K

can be calculated from
o
cell
E by using the relation,
o
cell eq
0.0591
E logK
n
=
13. The e.m.f. of the cell
( ) ( )
2 2
Zn | Zn 0.01M || Fe 0.001M | Fe
+ +

at 298 K is 0.2905 V. The value of the equilibrium constant for cell reaction is:
(A)
0.32
0.0295
e (B)
0.32
0.0295
10
(C)
0.26
0.0295
10 (D)
0.32
0.0591
10

14. On the basis of information available from the reaction

1
2 2 3
4 2
Al O Al O , G 827 kJ mol
3 3

+ =
The minimum emf required to carry out an electrolysis of Al
2
O
3
is (F = 96500 mol
-1
)
(A) 2.14 V (B) 4.28 V
(C) 6.42 V (D) 8.56 V

15. E
o
for the cell,
( )
2 2
eq eq
Zn | Zn || Cu | Cu;
+ +
is 1.1 V at 25
o
C. The equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction
( ) ( )
2 2
aq eq
Zn Cu Cu Zn
+ +
+ +
ZZZX
YZZZ
is of the order of
(A) 10
-37
(B) 10
37

(C) 10
-17
(D) 10
17

Rough Work


13


In oxoacids of phosphorus, P is tetrahedrally surrounded by other atoms. All these acids contain one P =
O and P OH bond. The oxoacids in which phosphorus has lower oxidation state (less than +5) contain,
in addition to P = O and P OH bonds, either P P (e.g., in H
4
P
2
O
6
) or P H (e.g., in H
3
PO
2
) bonds but
not both. These acids in +3 oxidation state of phosphorus tend to disproportionate to higher and lower
oxidation states. For example, orthophosphorous acid (or phosphorus acid) on heating disproportionate to
give orthophosphoric acid (or phosphoric acid) and phosphine.
3 3 3 4 3
4H PO 3H PO PH +

16. ( )
3 2 4
H PO CuSO X , + a red ppt.
X is:
(A) Cu (B) Cu
2
O
(C) CuO (D) Cu
2
H
2

17. ( ) ( ) ( )
4
P white J an alkaline solution K reducing gas L + +
L + dil. H
2
SO
4
N (ppt.) + M (oxyacids P)
N gives apple green colour in the flame.
Thus J, K, L, M and N respectively are:
(A) Ba(OH)
2
, PH
3
, Ba(H
2
PO
2
)
2
, H
3
PO
2
, BaSO
4
(B) Ca(OH)
2
, P
2
H
4
, Ba(H
2
PO
2
)
3
, H
3
PO
2
, CaSO
4

(C) Ba(OH)
2
, PH
3
, Ba(H
2
PO
2
)
3
, H
3
PO
3
, BaSO
4

(D) Ba(OH)
2
, P
2
H
4
, Ba(H
2
PO
2
)
2
, H
3
PO
2
, BaSO
4

18. Which of the following represents the isopolyacid of phosphorus?

(A)

H P
O
O H
O P
O
O
O
H
H

(B)
H P
O
OH
P
O
OH
O H

(C)
H P
O
OH
O P
O
H
H

(D)
O H P
O
OH
O P
O
OH
OH

Rough Work

14
SECTION-B
(Matrix Type)

p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
D
C
B
A
t
t
t
t
t

1. Acids given in Column I are treated with OH

and then with H
+
, if required. The results are given
in Column II. Match correctly:
Column I Column II
(A) 2-bormopropanoic acid (p) Product is optically active
(B) 3-bromobutanoic acid (q) Product shows geometrical
isomerism
(C) 4-bromobutanoic acid (r) Involves S
N
2 attack

(D) 5-boromobutanoic acid (s) Product contains a ring
(t) Product contains OH group

2. Match the reactions given in Column-I with the facts given in Column-II:
Column I Column II
(A)
2
D O
N
+
CH
3
H HC
H
2
C
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
(p) Develops a racemic mixture
(B)
2
NaNO
HCl
C H
3
D
C
2
H
5
NH
2
( ) One enantiomer
(q) An alkene is obtained
(C)
3
H O
+
C H
3
D
C
2
H
5
CN
( ) One enantiomer
(r) Configuration is retained
(D)
H
C H
3
CH
3
D
( )
3
3
N CH OH
+
( ) One isomer

(s) Product may contain deuterium
(t) No stereogenic centre in the
product
Rough Work


15

M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s PART III

SECTION A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If a function y = f(x) is such that f(x) < 0, then the number of integral values of a for which the
major axis of ellipse f(a + 11)x
2
+ f(a
2
+ 2a + 5)y
2
= f(a + 11)f(a
2
+ 2a + 5) becomes xaxis is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

2. In a ABC, A, B, C are in AP and a, b, c are in GP then value of a
3
+ b
3
+ c
3
a
2
b b
2
c c
2
a is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4

3. The four points A, B, C, D in space are such that angle ABC, BCD, CDA and DAB are all right
angles, then
(A) A, B, C, D cannot be coplanar (B) A, B, C, D are necessarily coplanar
(C) A, B, C, D may or may not be coplanar (D) no such points A, B, C, D exist

4. b and c are arithmetic means between a and d (a > d > 0) and h and k are the geometric mean
between a and d then
(A) bc is always greater than hk (B) bc is always less than hk
(C) bc may be equal to hk (D) none of these

5. If P be a point on ellipse 4x
2
+ y
2
= 8 with eccentric angle
4
. Tangent and normal at P intersects

the axes at A, B, A and B respectively. Then the ratio of area of APA and area of BPB is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Rough work


16
6. If sin x + sin y cos cos x x R then sin y + cos is equal to
(A)
1
2
(B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 1

7. Let
1
0
sinx
I dx
x
=
and
1
0
cosx
J dx
x
=
. Then which one of the following is true?

(A)
2
I
3
> and J > 2 (B)
2
I
3
< and J < 2
(C)
2
I
3
< and J > 2 (D)
2
I
3
> and J < 2

8. Tangent to hyperbola xy = c
2
at point P intersects the xaxis at T and the yaxis at T. Normal to
hyperbola at P intersects the xaxis at N and the yaxis at N. If the area of the triangles PNT and
PNT are and respectively then
1 1
'
+

, is equal to
(A) c
2
(B)
2
2
c

(C)
2
1
c
(D)
2
c
2

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. If
( )
2 2
2sin cos x 1 cos sin2x
2
| |
=
|
\ .
,
( )
x 2n 1
2
+ , n I, then
(A) cos 2x is
3
5
(B) cos 2x is
1
2

(C) tan x is
1
2
(D) tan x is
1
3

Rough work


17
10. A circle having centre at C is made to pass through the point P(1, 2), touching the straight lines
7x y = 5 and x + y + 13 = 0 at A and B respectively, then
(A) area of quadrilateral ACBP is 100 sq. units (B) radius of smaller circle is 50
(C) area of quadrilateral ACBP is 200 sq. units (D) radius of smaller circle is 10

11. If ax
2
+ bx + c = 0 has no real root and a + b + c < 0 then
(A) 4a 2b + c > 0 (B) 4a 2b + c < 0
(C) 13a + 5b + 2c < 0 (D) 5b 25a c > 0

12. Let f(x) = (x + |x|) |x|, then for all x
(A) f is continuous (B) f is differentiable x R
(C) f is continuous (D) f is continuous

Comprehension Type

correct.


Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
At times the methods of coordinates becomes effective in solving problems of properties of triangles, we
may choose one vertex of the triangle and one side passing through this vertex as xaxis. Thus, without
loss of generality, we can assume that every triangle ABC has a vertex B situated at B(0, 0), vertex C at
(a, 0) and A as (h, k).

13. If in ABC, AC = 3, BC = 4 medians AD and BE are perpendicular, then area of triangle ABC
must be equal to
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 2 2 (D) 13
Rough work


18
14. Suppose the bisector AD of the interior angle A of ABC divides sides BC into segments BD = 4,
DC = 2. Then we must have
(A) b > c and c < 4 (B) b (2, 6) and c < 1
(C) b (2, 6) and c (4, 12) (D) none of these

15. If altitude, CD = 7, AE = 6 and E divides BC given that
BE 3
EC 4
= then c must be
(A) 2 3 (B) 5 3
(C) 5 (D) 4 3


Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let
1 1
2 2
0 0
f(x) 12x yf(y) dy 20 xy f(y) dy 4x = + +

16. The maximum value of f(x) is
(A) 8 (B)
1
8

(C) 16 (D)
1
16

17. The number of solutions of the equation ( )
x
f x e =
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 3

18. The range of
( )
x
f 2 is
(A) (, 0) (B) (0, )
(C)
1
,
8
| |
|
\ .
(D)
1
,
8
| |
|
\ .

Rough work


19
SECTION B

(Matrix Type)

p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
p q r s
D
C
B
A
t
t
t
t
t

1. Let
[x] ; x [ 2, 0)
f(x)
x ; x [0, 2]

=

; where [.] represent G.I.F. and g(x) = sec x, x R (2n + 1)

2
.
Match the following statements in columnI with their values in columnII in interval
3 3
,
2 2
| |
|
\ .
.
Column I Column II
(A) Limit of fog exist at (p) 1
(B) Limit of gof does not exist at (q)
(C) Points of discontinuity of fog is/are
(r)
5
6

(D) Points of differentiability of fog is/are (s)

(t)
3

2. Match the following columnI with columnII.
Column I Column II
(A) One ball is drawn from a bag containing 4 balls and is found to
be white. The events that the bag contains 1 white, 2 white, 3
white and 4 white balls are equally likely. If the probability that all
the balls are white is
p
15
then the value of p is
(p) 9
(B) From a set of 12 persons if the number of different selection of a
committee, its chairperson and its secretary (possibly same as
chairperson) is
10
13 2 m then m is
(q) 3
(C) If x, y, z > 0 and x + y + z = 1, then the least value of
5x 5y 5z
2 x 2 y 2 z
+ +

is
(r) 8
(D) If
12
12 11
K K 1
K 1
12K C C

=

is equal to

12
12 21 19 17 ..... 3
2 p
11!

the p is
(s) 6
(t) 12
Rough work

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(D) none of these

. Tangent and normal at P intersects

. Then which one of the following is true?

; where [.] represent G.I.F. and g(x) = sec x, x R (2n + 1)

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