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CHAPTER FIVE AMINO ACIDS, PEPTIDES, AND PROTEINS 1) Which of the following is a function of proteins?

A) Defense B) Metabolic regulation C) Transport D) Catalysis E) All of the above are correct Ans E

2) The term protein refers to amino acid polymers with greater than ________amino acids. A) 10 B) 20 C) 50 D) 70 E) 90 Ans C

3) Which of the following is a nonstandard amino acid? A) Glycine B) Cysteine C) 5-Hydroxyproline D) Valine E) Alanine Ans C 4) Which of the following is a heterocyclic amino acid?

A) Alanine B) Valine C) Proline D) Tyrosine E) Cystine

Ans C 5) Which of the following is not a class of amino acid? A) Nonpolar and neutral B) Polar and neutral C) Acidic D) Basic E) Asymmetric Ans E 6) Which of the following amino acids lacks a center of asymmetry? A) Alanine B) Glycine C) Valine D) Isoleucine E) Aspartic acid Ans B 7) Given the following pKs what is the principal form of serine at pH 5? pKa1 = 2.21 A)
H2 O H + C C H O CH O H NH3

pKa2 = 9.15

B)

H2 O H C C H O CH O NH3

2 H + C

O H

CH O NH3

O C

C) D) E)
H2 O H C C _ O CH O HNH3 O 2 H C+ C H O CH O NH2

Ans E 8) Given the following pKas the isoelectric point of serine is ________. pK1 = 2.21 pK2 = 9.15 A) 2.21 B) 5.68 C) 9.15 D) 6.62 E)11.36 Ans B

9) Consider the following dipeptide. Which letter indicates a peptide bond

B A
H N H H O H H C C H H N C C O H O

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Ans C

10) The amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is referred to as ________structure. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) Peptide Ans A

11) The overall three-dimensional structure of a polypeptide is referred to as _________ structure. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary

E) Peptide Ans C

12) Invariant amino acids in a protein are presumed: A) To be unimportant in the structure and function of the protein B) To be essential to the structure and function of the protein C) Always to occur at the beginning of the amino acid sequence of an enzyme D) Always to occur at the end of the amino acid sequence of an enzyme E) To be part of the prosthetic group. Ans B 13) -pleated sheets are associated with what level of protein structure? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) Superquaternary Ans B

14) Which of the following amino acids would foster an -helix? A) Glycine B) Alanine C) Proline D) Tyrosine E) Serine Ans B

15) The Greek key is associated with which of the following? A) -helix B) Parallel -pleated sheets C) Antiparallel -pleated sheets D) Disulfide bridges E) Salt bridges Ans C

16) Which of the following interactions do not stabilize tertiary structure? A) Hydrophobic interactions B) Electrostatic interactions C) Hydrogen bonds D) Covalent bonds E) None of the above Ans E

17) Detergents denature proteins by disrupting which of the following? A) Hydrogen bonds B) Disulfide bridges C) Hydrophobic interactions D) Salt bridges E) Both A and B are correct Ans C

18) Fibrous proteins typically have large amounts of: A) -Helix B) -Pleated sheets C) Disulfide bridges

D) Salt bridges E) Both A and B are correct Ans E

19) The identity and arrangement of amino acids on the surface of a globular protein are important because they may: A) Interact to form specific binding cavities B) Stabilize the tertiary structure of the protein C) Bind regulatory molecules D) Both A and C are correct E) All of the above are correct Ans E 20) Which of the following statements regarding cooperative binding is true? A) Two or more proteins aid the binding of a ligand. B) The binding of one ligand aids the binding of a second ligand C) The folding of part of a protein aids in the folding of the remainder of the protein D) All proteins engage in cooperative binding E) The binding of a cofactor to a protein aids in the binding of a ligand. Ans B 21) Which of the following statements is true of the Bohr effect? A) Oxygen is delivered to cells in proportion to their needs B) Binding of protons to hemoglobin molecules facilitates the binding of oxygen C) Metabolic waste products bond to oxyhemoglobin D) A and B are both true E) All of the above are true Ans A

22) A polypeptide has a high pI value. Which of the following amino acids are likely to be present? A) Glycine B) Serine C) Valine D) Aspartic acid E) Arginine Ans E

23) Structural proteins freeze large amounts of water. Which of the following interactions is not likely to be involved in the binding of water? A) Salt bridges B) Hydrogen bonding C) Hydrophilic interactions D) Disulfide bridges E) Both C and D are correct. Ans D

24) Why is the peptide bond stronger than the ester bond? A) Greater electronegativity of nitrogen B) Greater electronegativity of oxygen C) Resonance stabilization of the amide bond D) Increased basicity of nitrogen E) Size of the nitrogen atom compared to the oxygen atom Ans C 25) Which of the following amino acids would be classified as a nonstandard amino acid

A) B) C) D) E) Ans C

Tyrosine Lysine Cystine Glycine Arginine

26) Given that pK1 = 2.35 and pK2 = 9.69 for alanine. What is its isoelectric point A) B) C) D) E) Ans C 27) When not at the terminal of a protein which of the following amino acids cannot contribute to the PI of a protein? A) B) C) D) E) Ans E 28) When part of a polypeptide chain other than the N-terminus, which of the following amino acids can form a aldimines? A) B) C) D) E) Glycine Alanine Proline Histidine Lysine Arginine Lysine Cysteine Tyrosine Alanine 9.69 2.34 6.02 12.03 7.00

Ans E

29) Collagen is classified as which of the following types of protein? A) B) C) D) E) Ans B Enzyme Structural Movement Defense Regulatory

30) A prosthetic group is a : A) Repair enzyme B) Group other than an amino acid that is part of a protein C) Group that generates the native form of a protein D) Disulfide link E) Group that reduces enzyme activity Ans B

31) The major component of the dry weight of cells is _______. A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Fats D) Minerals E) The major component will vary from organism to organism

Ans B

32) The total number of proteins that can be produced from any 10 amino acids is? A) 1020 B) 2010 C) 100 D) 200 E) 1010 Ans B

33) Schiff bases are also referred to as: A) Aldimines B) Amines C) Carbinolamines D) Amino acids E) Both A and C are correct Ans A

34) Which of the following amino acids would be found in a -turn? A) Proline B) Alanine C) Phenylalanine D) Lysine E) Tyrosine Ans A 35) Which of the following is not a function of IUPs? A) Signal transduction

B) Transcription C) Translation D) Cell proliferation E) Oxygen transport Ans E 36) The source of energy for motor proteins in addition to ATP is: A) NAD+ B) GTP C) PEP D) ADP E) PPi Ans B

37) Keratin is classified as which of the following types of protein? A) B) C) D) E) Ans B Enzyme Structural Movement Defense Regulatory

38) In which of the following mechanical properties does spider silk exceed all synthetic fibers? A) Toughness B) Tensile strength C) Elasticity D) Resilience

E) All of the above Ans E

39) Which of the following is a hydrophobic amino acid? A) Glycine B) Serine C) Lysine D) Phenylalanine E) Both C and D are hydrophobic Ans E 40) A conjugated protein consists of a simple protein combined with a _________. A) Apoprotein B) Holoprotein C) Prosthetic group D) Answers B and C are correct E) All of the above are correct Ans C

41) Which of the following amino acids is not one of the twenty standard amino acids? A) B) C) D) E) Ans D Glycine Phenylalanine Tyrosine Cystine Arginine

42) How many standard amino acids are there?

A) B) C) D) E) Ans C

5 17 20 12 32

43) How many octapeptides containing only two amino acids are possible? A) B) C) D) E) Ans D 8 148 16 256 35

44) Amino acid polymers with a molecular weight between several thousand and several million Daltons are called A) B) C) D) E) Ans C Dipeptides Polypeptides Proteins Peptides None of the above

45) Which of the following is not a function of proteins? A) Structural materials

B) C) D) E) Ans E

Catalyst Metabolic regulation Transport All of the above are functions of proteins

46) Which of the following is a polar amino acid? A) B) C) D) E) Ans B Phenylalanine Tyrosine Methionine Tryptophan Proline

CHAPTER NINETEEN PROTEIN SYNTHESIS 1) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a A) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds IF-3 B) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds 16S rRNA of the small ribosomal subunit C) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds the 16S RNA of the large ribosomal subunit D) Eukaryotic rRNA sequence that binds the AUG codon of mRNA E) None of the above are correct Ans B 2) The initiation phase of prokaryotic translation ends as the GTP molecule bound to ________ is hydrolysed to GDP and Pi A) IF-1 B) IF-2

C) IF-3 D) IF-4 E) None of the above are correct Ans B 3) During the elongation phase of prokaryotic translation the aminoacyl-tRNA must first bind _________ before it can be positioned in the A site. A) EF-Ts B) EF-Tu C) EF-Ts-GDP D) EF-Ts-GTP E) EF-Tu-GTP Ans E

4) ________ is an enzymatic activity that hydrolyses the bond linking the completed polypeptide chain and the P site tRNA A) RF-1 B) EF-G C) Peptidyl transferase D) Ribosomal esterase E) Signal peptidase Ans C 5) Prominent prokaryotic posttanslational modifications include all of the following except __________. A) Glycosylation B) Methylation C) Proteolytic processing D) Prenylation E) Phosphorylation Ans D

6) In prokaryotes most of the control of protein synthesis occurs at the level of ______. A) Translation B) Transcription C) Replication D) Reverse transcription E) Posttranslational modification Ans B

7) The enzymatic activities coded by the lac operon include all of the following except: A) Thiogalactoside transacylase B) Lactose transferase C) -Galactosidase D) Galactose permease E) None of the above are correct Ans B

8) Translocation in eukaryotes requires _____, which is a GTP binding protein. A) eEF-1 B) eEF-2 C) eEF-3 D) eEF-4 E) None of the above are correct Ans B

9) In eukaryotic translation the 40S complex binds the 60S subunit to form the _______ initiation complex. A) 80S

B) 88S C) 90S D) 100S E) 108S Ans A

10) ________ provides the energy needed to move the ribosome along the mRNA. A) ATP B) GTP C) UTP D) TTP E) All of the above are correct Ans B

11) Polypeptides containing signal peptides are called ________. A) Zymogens B) Preproproteins C) Proproteins D) All of the above are correct E) None of the above are correct Ans B

12) Phosphorylated dolichol, a polyisoprenoid found in ER membrane, is involved in A) Polypeptide synthesis B) Proteolytic cleavage reactions C) Lipophillic modification reactions D) Hydroxylation reactions E) Glycosylation reactions Ans E

13) All of the following are involved in signal peptide processing except A) Ribosomal polypeptide translocation factor B) SRP receptor protein C) Docking protein D) Translocon E) Stop transfer signal Ans A

14) The phrase global control refers to A) Large alterations in mRNA translation patterns B) Large alterations in mRNA synthesis patterns C) Specific changes in rRNA synthesis D) Specific changes in mRNA synthesis E) Changes in transcript localization patterns Ans A

15) Translational frameshifting A) Results in the synthesis of more than one polypeptide from a single mRNA B) Has been observed in cells infected by retroviruses C) Is the result of a +1 or 1 change in the reading frame of an mRNA D) Both A and C are correct E) All of the above are correct Ans E

16) All of the following statements concerning eukaryotic mRNA are true except A) Only a small portion of mRNA enters the cytoplasm

B) Most hnRNA is processed into mRNA C) Export of mRNA through muclear pores is carefully controlled D) mRNA export usually requires a 5-cap and a 3-poly A tail E) None of the above are correct Ans B

17) Eukaryotic mRNA stability involves A) Reversible adenylation B) The length of poly (A) tails C) The binding of specific proteins to certain mRNA sequences D) The action of various nucleases E) All of the above are correct Ans E

18) _______ are a group of molecules that mediate protein folding. A) Hsp 70s B) Chaparonins C) Docking protein D) Both A and B are correct E) All of the above are correct Ans D 19) The mRNA that codes for ________ possesses an iron response element. A) Collagen B) Elastin C) Globin D) Ferritin E) Thiogalactoside transacetylase

Ans D

20) Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to the 30S subunit C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to 30S subunit D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation Ans A

21) Cycloheximide is an antibiotic that A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30s subunit C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation Ans D

22) Tetracycline is an antibiotic that A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding to the 30S subunit D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation Ans C

23) Erythromycin is an antibiotic that A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit C) Interferes with aminoacyl-tRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation Ans E 24) Which of the following antibiotics would be most toxic for humans A) Tetracycline B) Chloramphenicol C) Streptomcyin D) Cycloheximide E) Erythromycin Ans D

25) Ribonucleoprotein particles A) Contain an mRNA B) Contain several types of protein C) Are found only in prokaryotes D) Both A and B are correct E) All of the above are correct Ans D

26) _________ is a translation factor that possesses a unique histidine residue that can be modified to form dipthamide

A) IF-2 B) EF-Tu C) EF-Ts D) eEF-1 E) eEF-2 Ans E

27) Hydroxylation is a posttranslational modification that A) Requires ascorbic acid B) Is catalyzed by several mixed function oxidases C) Is required for the structural integrity of globin D) Both A and B are correct E) All of the above are correct Ans D

28) In prokaryotes posttranslational methylation reactions are associated with A) Signal transduction B) Chemotaxis C) S-Adenosylmethionine D) All of the above are correct E) None of the above are correct Ans D

29) The half-lives of prokaryotic mRNA usually varies between A) 1 and 3 seconds B) 1 and 3 minutes C) 1 and 3 hours D) 3 and 10 hours E) None of the above are correct

Ans B

30) Peptidyl transferase is an enzymatic activity that A) Catalyzes the release of polypeptides from the ribosomes B) Is found in an rRNA component of ribosomes C) Catalyzes the nucleophilic attack of the A site -amino group on the carbonyl carbon of the P side amino acid D) Catalyses peptide bond formation E) All of the above are correct Ans E

31) Energy for ribosome function is provided by A) B) C) D) E) ATP GTP Phosphoenolpyruvate Hydrolysis of pyrophosphate Both A and B are correct

Ans B

32) Unlike the protein synthesis mechanism in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, mitochondria have _______ stop codes. A) B) C) D) E) 1 2 3 4 5

Ans D

33) An analysis of the wobble hypothesis suggests that a minimum of _______ RNAs are required to translate all 61 codons plus one for a start codon. A) B) C) D) E) 22 32 16 62 30

Ans B

34) Translation begins with A) B) C) D) E) Elongation Initiation Termination Targeting tRNA synthesis

Ans B

35) Which of the following is a type of posttranslational modification? A) B) C) D) E) Removal of signal peptides Carboxylation Methylation Phosphorylation All of the above

Ans E

36) Protein synthesis requires _____ high energy phosphate bonds per peptide bond. A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Ans D

37) An amino acid coded for by a stop signal is A) B) C) D) E) Pyrrolysine Lysine Cysteine Selenocysteine Both A and D are correct

Ans E

38) In eukaryotes which of the following amino acids is often hydroxylated after protein synthesis? A) B) C) D) E) Proline Tyrosone Arginine Methionine All of the above

Ans A 39) Which of the following amino acids is sometimes carboxylated after protein synthesis in eukaryotes A) B) C) D) E) Glutamate Aspartate Phenylalanine Lysine Arginine

Ans A 40) Prokaryotes exclusively use which of the following translational control mechanisms? A) B) C) D) E) Negative translational control of ribosomal proteins Global controls RNA specific controls Allosteric modifications of ribosomes Energy depletion

Ans A 41) Which of the following is a synonymous codon with UCU?

A) AAU B) UCA C) GAU D) AAA E) CUG Ans B

42) Protein synthesis in bacteria involves six functional centers. Which of the following is not one of those centers?

A) B) C) D) E)

Decoding center Aminase transfer center Pepidyl transfer center GTPase associated region A site

Ans B

43) The peptide emerging from the exit tunnel first encounters a molecular factor called A) B) C) D) E) Ans A Trigger factor Signal factor Linkage chaperone P-site Translation factor

44) Eukaryotic initiation begins with the assembly of ________________. A) B) C) D) E) Ans A Preinitiation complex Cap-binding complex Poly-binding complex 48S Initiation complex Translational initiation complex

45) Which of the following compounds is referred to as the twenty first amino acid A) B) C) D) Selenocysteine Glucolysine Cysteine Dehydroxyalinine

E) D-Lysine Ans A

46) During synthesis of secreted proteins; binding of the ribosome to the ER membrane is mediated by

A) B) C) D) E) Ans B

The translocon SRP and SRP receptor protein Signal peptidase Cotranslational transfer Posttranslational translocation