HOTS- Based

NAT REVIEWER
in Physics
( For Fourth Year Students)
For the division of Bulacan

Dr. Dominador M. Cabrera EPS-1 Science ( Secondary)

Table of Contents

Part One- Pointers for the NAT

NAT : Overview-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------2 Parts of the Test------------------------------------------------------------------------------------3 5- Year NAT Results in Second Year High School----------------------------------------5 Tips for Taking Exams----------------------------------------------------------------------------6 Multiple Choice Strategies-----------------------------------------------------------------------7 Part Two- Reviewer

Mechanics---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------8 Electricity and Magnetism/ Electromagnetism-----------------------------------------------21 Optics/ Light------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------31 Acoustics/ Sound------------------------------------------------------------------------------------39 Thermodynamics/ Thermostatics----------------------------------------------------------------44 Nuclear/ Atomic Physics---------------------------------------------------------------------------48 Electronics---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------53 Part Three- Key to Correction

Key to Correction-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------58

National Achievement Test: Overview The Department of Education aims to lead young Filipinos in the discovery of their own potential through the academe provided for every Filipino enabling them to create their own destiny to the global community. To achieve this vision, DepEd reaches out responsive efforts for the students educational and worthwhile needs. One way is to determine the students capacity of learning. There comes, National Achievement Test. The National Achievement Test (NAT) is administered by the Department of Education though the National Educational Testing and Research Center (NETRC) which heads on research and assessment of the education provided for our youth, specifically in the Basic Education.

National Achievement Test in a nutshell The examination is designed to determine the students academic strengths and weaknesses though the five key-major subjects: Mathematics, Science, English, Filipino, HeKaSi (Heograpiya, Kasaysayan at Sibika) in elementary and Araling Panlipunan in high school. Ratings obtained from NAT for Grade VI and Fourth Year serves also as a tool to measure the schools competency and effectiveness as well as the students aptitude and mastery towards the basic learning areas. The nationwide exam is taken every near-end of the school year basically every first week March.

Whats New about NAT? The National Achievement Test were originally designed and administered for Grade Six and Fourth Year Students. However, due to the changes indicated in the enclosure of DepEd Order No. 28, s. 2011 and DepEd Memorandum No. 266, s. 2011, instead of the sophomores, our seniors shall take the National Achievement Test in absence of the National Career Assessment Exam which will be administered now for the juniors.

Whats with the National Achievement Test To give you a hint, here are the parts of the NSAT last 2011:

PARTS OF THE TEST No. of Items Time Limit () Examinees Descriptive Questionnaire (EDQ) Filipino Araling Panlipunan Mathematics Science English Critical Thinking Test TOTAL 15 60 60 50 60 60 20 325 items 5 60 60 70 80 60 15 350 min.

More about the Parts of the Test Examinees Descriptive Questionnaire (EDQ) This is not actually a test. This consist more of a survey of information about the examinee. (eg. family background, school organizations, teacher evaluation, facilities accessible by the examinee, etc.) The questions are all in multiple choices and some of the questions can have multiple answers. Filipino, Mathematics, Science, English, Filipino and Araling Panlipunan These tests determine the mastery of the examinee in the subjects. The tests may include: Analysis, Vocabulary, Reading Comprehension, Problem Solving, General Knowledge and et cetera. Critical Thinking Test The test is more of analysis and reasoning within the given situation. Some, are really easy to answer but dont belittle this subtest, some items are really tricky. You should analyze the situation/question given in the item and choose the answer given in the selection only. This does not test your general knowledge but on how you analyze, your reasoning, logic and of course, your critical thinking ability. 3

Going NUTS on NAT? Dont cram reviewing yourself though. Your school will hold a week (or so) dose of review for the test. So better stay attentive while reviewing and dont, Im telling you, be absent during these review days. Mock Test or Review Exams are also regularly scheduled by your school/institution for the preparation for the exam. The scores in the mock test can be recorded but however the actual NAT scores shall not be incorporated in your actual grades.
Source: Kevin San Miguel Cuevas, NAT Overview, posted April 3, 2012, http://www.deped.gov.ph/cpa nel/uploads/issuanceImg/DM %20No.%20266,%20s.%202 011.pdfhttp://www.depedmun tinlupa.com/images/gallery/2 011%20NAT%20Orientation. pdf ( Retrieved, December 12, 2012)

TIPS FOR TAKING EXAMS RIGHT BEFORE THE EXAM Get a good nights sleep. Having a clear head is valuable. Eat something sensible. Dont go hungry or get too crazy on caffeine. Gather your supplies. Pen, paper, slide rule. Arrive early. Get a good seat. Get comfortable. Manage your anxiety. Some anxiety is natural and helpful. It sharpens your senses and gets the adrenaline going. Yet do try to stay calm. Remember, the exam is only one part of the learning process.

MOMENT OF TRUTH

Read the directions thoroughly. Sounds obvious, but its key. Is there a time limit? Will some questions count more than others? Relax. Take a deep breath. Take relaxing breaths at the start and continue breathing calmly. Skim through the entire test before you begin. Examine the structure. Count the pages. Think about how you should divide your time. If the test includes different types of questions (such as multiple choice and essay), begin with the type you do best on. Budget your time. Answer what you do know first. Leave more time for parts that require more effort. Plan some time at the end to review. When you get stuck, identify the problem and move on. If time is left over at the end, return to the parts you skipped. Concentrate. Dont daydream. Do the test at your own pace dont worry about who gets done first. Ask for clarification. Make sure you understand what each question is asking. Give instructors exactly what they ask for. When youre confused, ask for help. Most instructors try to clarify a question if they can. 6

Proofread your work. Under pressure its easy to misspell, miscalculate, and make errors.

MULTIPLE CHOICE STRATEGIES Read and consider ALL the options before you identify the best one. Read the test items carefully. Cover up the alternatives and just read the stem. See whether you can answer the question in your head before you look at the alternatives. Eliminate the obviously incorrect answers first. reduce anxiety. This will save time and

Mark answers clearly and consistently. Use the same method of marking your choices throughout the test. This may be important if questions arise later about an unclear mark. If your test is machine scored, avoid having extra marks on the answer sheet. They can be costly. Change your answers cautiously. Make sure you have a good reason. If you arent certain, its best not to change. Your first impulse may be best. Guess!! Some tests subtract points for incorrect answers. However, most multiple-choice tests give credit for correct answers without penalty for wrong answers. If so, answer every question. Look for structural clues. When the item involves completing a sentence, look for answers that read well with the sentence stem. If a choice doesnt work grammatically, its probably not the right choice. In complex questions, the longest alternative may be the best one. The instructor may simply require more words to express a complex answer. Be cautious when the answer includes every, always, and never. There are few situations in which something is always or never true.

Mechanics

MECHANICS

1. It is more difficult to walk on a sandy road than on a concrete road because. A. Sand is soft and concrete is hard. B. The friction between sand and feet is less than that between concrete and feet. C The friction between sand and feet is more than that between concrete and feet. D. The sand is grainy but concrete is smooth. 2. Kevin is driving a car on an icy road. Which of the following conditions applies to the situation? A. Friction is essential B. Pressure is essential C. Friction is no necessary D. Friction is both essential and nuisance 3. What will happen when you stand in equilibrium on only one foot? A. your centre of mass will be directly above the other foot. B. your center of mass will be directly above a point equidistant between your two feet. C. your center of mass will be directly above a point equidistant between your two feet. D. your rotational inertia will be zero. 4. If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same time, then both bodies will acquire the same. A. Velocity B. momentum C. acceleration D. kinetic energy 5. Which graph shows deceleration? (All choices below are velocity-time graph) A. B. C. D. All of them

MECHANICS

6. The graph in the left shows the velocity v of an object moving along the x axis, function of time. Which graph below is a possible acceleration versus time for this object? A a A. B. v

t C. a D. a

t t

7.A box of the same weight is placed at different positions on one end of a lever. Which one requires the least force to lift the box?

A. B.

C.

D.

8. If the resultant force acting on a body of constant mass is zero, the bodys momentum is. A. Increasing B. decreasing C always zero D. constant 9. A pendulum which is suspended from the ceiling of a railroad car is observed to hang at an angle of 10 degrees to the right of vertical. Which of the following answers could explain this phenomenon? A. The railroad car is at rest. B. The railroad car is accelerating to the left. C. The railroad car is moving with constant velocity to the right. D. The railroad car is accelerating to the right 10

MECHANICS

10.If the moving body at increasing speed rightward will be summarized, the following graphs will describe the diagram below except; A. B. v v

t C. v D. v

t=0s

1s

2s

3s

4s

X=0m

2m

8m

18m

32m

11. A crane lifted a 200kg load to a height of 25 meters from the ground. Applying the Law of Conservation of Mechanical Energy, at which position is the PE and KE of the load equal? A. When the load is still on the ground. B. When the load is 12.5 meters from the ground. C. When the load reaches a height of 25 meters from the ground. D. When the load is anywhere between the maximum height and the ground. 12. How much potential energy of the water atop the water fall if a cubic meter of water ( 1000 kg) atop a waterfall 37m high. No other force acts on the water except gravity. Let g= 10m/s2. A. 370, 500 J B. 370, 000 J C. 370 J D. Zero 11

MECHANICS

13. Why do you feel more tired when running up two flights of stairs rather than walking up them? A. you do more work when you run than when you walk. B. your power output is greater when you run than when you walk. C. the gravitational force is greater on a running person than on a walking person. D. the gravitational acceleration is greater on a running person than on a walking person. 14. A ball is thrown upward at an angle of 300 to the horizontal and lands on the top edge of a building that is 20m away. The top edge is 5.0m above the throwing point. How fast was the ball thrown? A. 13 m/s B. 20 m/s C. 16 m/s D. 52 m/s 15.The graph shows position as a function of time for two runners running side by side. Which of the following statements is true? A.At time T, both runners have the same velocity B. Both runners increase their speed all the time C.Both runners have the same speed at some time before D.Both runners have the same acceleration everywhere on the graph.
Position

Time

16.A block of mass m initially at rest, is pulled along the floor by a force T, inclined at an angle as shown in the diagram. The coefficient of friction between the block and the floor are given by us and uK. The magnitude of the force T is such that the block moves with uniform velocity.

12

MECHANICS

While the block is in motion, the magnitude of the normal force exerted on the block by the floor is: A.mg B.mg+Tsin C.mg- Tsin D.Tsin 17. What is the displacement of the cross- country team if they begin at the school, run 10 miles and finish back at the school? A. 0 B. 10miles C. 10 miles to the school D. 20 miles 18.How an inclined plane help you do work? A. by changing the direction of forces B. by having an output distance greater than the input distance C. by having an output force greater than input force D. all of the above 19.Two baseball are fired into a pile of hay. If one has twice the speed of the other, how much farther does the faster baseball penetrate. ( assume that the force of the haystack on the baseballs is constant). A. two times as far B. three times as far C. four times as far D. none of the above

13

MECHANICS

20. In a Physics lab, Ernesto and Amanda apply a 34.5 N rightward force to a 4. 52 kg cart to accelerate it across a horizontal surface at a rate of 1. 28m/s/s. Determine the friction force acting upon the cart. A. 28. 7 N, left B. 28. 7 N, right C. 28.7S, left D. 28.7 S, right 21.Suppose a rescue airplane drops a relief package while it is moving, with a constant horizontal speed at an elevated height. Assuming that air resistance is negligible, where will the relief package land relative to the plane? A. B. C. D. Below the plane and behind it Directly below the plane Below the plane and ahead of it None of the above

Drop point A B C

14

MECHANICS

22.Use the diagram below to determine the average speed and the average velocity of the skier during these three minutes

A t=0 min.

B t=1min

40m

100m

40m

t=2min. C

t=3min. D

A. B. C. D.

46.8 m/min., right 46.7 m/min., right 46.6m/min. right 45.5 m/min., right

23.Otis L. Evadez is conducting his famous elevator experiments. Otis stands on a bathroom scale and reads the scale while ascending and descending the John Hancock building. Otis mass is 80kg. He notices that the scale readings depend on what the elevator is doing. What is the scale reading when Otis accelerates upward at 0.40m/s 2? A. 817 N B. 816N C. 815 N D. 814 N

15

MECHANICS

24. The diagram below is a graph of an objects motion. Which sentence is the best interpretation? A. The object is moving with a constant, non- zero acceleration B. The object does not move C. The object is moving with a uniformly increasing velocity D. The object is moving with a constant velocity
Position

Time

25. Why do racing cars streamlined? A. Air flow around an object is smooth when streamlined B. It improves the looks of the cars C. It lessens the weight of the cars D. It is an indication that the car is racing one 26.When you carry a heavy load with one arm, why do you tend to hold your free arm away from your body? A. to change the mass of your body B. to change the weight of your body C. to shift your bodys center of gravity D. feel good and look good 27.Why are doorknobs placed near the edge of a door rather than the center? A. to give more momentum to the door B. to increase the force in the door C. to increase the lever arm D. to make the door look better 28.How can you increase your momentum as you run? A. by stopping suddenly B. by slowing down C. by sitting down D. by running faster 16
MECHANICS

MECHANICS

29. A coin is placed on a cardboard which is placed on the top of a glass. When the cardboard is suddenly pulled sideward, the coin does not go in its direction but falls inside the glass instead. This phenomenon shows ; A. inertia B. interaction C. friction D. impulse For numbers 30- 31, refer to the cases below: A. A car moving at 70kph in a straight path B. A jeepney moving on a straight road and then slowing down to a stop C. A storm initially moving at 50kph northeastward and then at 60kph eastward D. A bus moving at 40kph around a curve 30. Which bodies move with constant speed? A. C and D only B. A and D only C. B and C only D. A, B and C only 31. Which bodies are accelerating? A. A and B only B. B and C only C. C and D only D. B, C and D only 32. When a carabao pulls a cart, the forces that causes the carabao to move forward is______________. A. the force the carabao exerts on the cart B. the force the carabao exerts on the ground C. the force the cart exerts on the carabao D. the force the ground exerts on the carabao

33. A bag lies on the top of a table. Which of the following statements correctly describes the situation? A. the bag is absolutely at rest in any reference frame B. there is no force acting on the bag C. there are no forces acting on the bag, but they balance one another D.the bag exerts no force on the table 34. Which of the statement describe(s) a pendulums energy as it swings back and forth? i. its potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy ii. its kinetic is transformed into potential energy iii. at the lowest of its swing, its energy is all kinetic 17

MECHANICS

A. B. C. D.

i only i and ii i and iii i, ii, and iii

35. Describe the type of motion depicted in the given graph between points E and Y. A. constant positive acceleration B. zero acceleration C. constant negative velocity D. zero velocity

R V (ms) E M t(s) Y

36. Based on the distance- time graph, at what time interval is the object at rest? A. 0 and S B. A and N C. T and D D. S and A

d(m)

D S

t(s)

18

MECHANICS

37. In a billiard ball interaction, the first ball stops and the second ball moves after collision. Which statement is correct? A. the total momentum before collision is equal to the total momentum after collision B. the second billiard ball moves with the speed of the first ball billiard ball C. both A and B D. the masses of the two balls are equal

38. The diagram below shows a worker using a rope to pull a cart. The workers pull on the handle of the cart can be described as a force having:

A. B. C. D.

magnitude only direction only both magnitude and direction neither magnitude and direction

39. A body is thrown horizontally at the same time and from the same height , another body is dropped. Which of the following statements correctly describes the motion of the objects? A. a body thrown horizontally reaches the ground first B. they both reach the ground at the same time C. the freely falling body reaches the ground first D. only the freely falling body is affected by gravity 40.What is the most probable reason why a life jacket helps you float in water? A. The jacket makes you weigh less. B. The jacket has the same density as an average human. C. The jacket repels water. D. You and the jacket together have density less than your density alone.

19

MECHANICS

41. An egg is placed at the bottom of a bowl filled with water. Salt is slowly added to the water until the egg rises and floats. From this experiment, one can conclude that. A. Calcium in the egg shell is repelled by sodium chloride. B. The density of salt water exceeds the density of the egg. C. Buoyant force does not always act upward. D. Salt sinks to the bottom. 42. If the part of an iceberg that extends above the water were removed, the __________. A. B. C. D. Iceberg would sink. Buoyant force on the iceberg would decrease. Density of the iceberg would change Pressure on the bottom of the iceberg would increase...

43. A cylinder contains 30ml of water. A stone is dropped into the water and sinks. The water level rises to 50ml. The density of water is 1.0 x 10 -3 kg/ml. How much buoyant force is exerted by water on the stone underwater? ( hint g= 10m/s 2) A. zero B. 0.1 N C. 0.3N D. 0.2 N For questions 44- 45 refer to the table below. Five bottles contain equal volumes of different liquids. The densities of the liquids are given in Table 1. Densities of Liquids Liquid A B C D Density ( kg/ml) 1.30 x 10-3 0.79 x 10-3 1.60 x 10-3 1.40 x 10-3

44.A solid sinks in all the liquids. Which liquids exerts the greatest buoyant force on the solid? 45. A stone of density 3 X 10 -3 kg/ml is dropped in each liquid.

20

Electricity and Magnetism/ Electromagnetism

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

1. Point A is at a lower electrical potential than point B. An electron between them on the line joining them will. A. Move towards A B. more at right angles to the line joining A and B. C. More towards B D. remain at rest 2. A magnet will attract a wire if A. the wire is long B. The wire has a small mass C. the wire exets D. the wire has current flowing through it. 3. A positively charged ball A is between two oppositely charged balls B and C . How is ball B affected? A. ball A will not move at all B. ball A will move up and down C. ball A will move towards B D. ball A will move towards C

22

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

4.Why does the bulb not light up in the figure below? A. There is a gap in the connection B. The electrons do not flow continuously in the circuit C. The circuit is open D. All of these

5. How will the circuit below be affected if the battery is suddenly removed from the connection?

A. B. C. D.

The bulb stays on The bulb gets brighter The bulb goes off None of these

23

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

6.Describe the diagram below with words

A. B. C. D.

A circuit contains a bulb and a 1.5V dry cell A circuit contains a bulb and a battery A circuit contains a bulb and a wire A circuit contains a bulb in a 1.5 battery

7. Why is it that household electrical appliances are not usually connected in series? A. because there will be an increase in power consumption B. because when one appliance is used, the fuse will blow-up C. because there will be an interference as soon as two or more appliances are used D. switching one appliance would switch off the rest 8. How does conductor differ from an insulator? A. conductor has many free electrons unlike insulator B. insulators hold electrons very tightly C. molecules move faster in conductor D. all of these 9. How much amount of electrical energy supply can be consumed by an electric appliance if both the current and voltage are doubled for the same length of time? A. doubled B. increased four times C. the same D. reduced to one half 10. How much heat is produced in an electric stove if the current is increased three times for the same length of time? A. nine times as much B. three times as much C. twice as much D. one- third 11. How does energy conversion proceed in a hydroelectric power plant? A. PE- KE- ME- EE 24

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

B. PE-KE-EE-ME C. ME-PE-KE-.EE D. ME-PE-EE-KE 12. Two light bulbs A and B are connected in series with a constant voltage source. When a wire is connected across B as shown, which of the following statements is true? A. Bulb A burns brighter and bulb B dims B. Bulbs a and B burn brighter C. Bulb a is as bright as before and bulb B dims D. Bulb A dims and bulb B burns brighter
A B

For number 13 , please refer to the figure below

V= 11 Volts R1= 1 ohm R2= 2 ohms R3= 3 ohms

13. What are the current across R1, R2, and R3 respectively? ( in ampere) A.11, 5.5, 3, 6.7 B. 9, 8, 1 C. 5, 2, 3 D. 5, 3,2

25

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

14. The table shows the power rating and duration of use of the following applications at home. Appliance Power Rating Duration of use

Electric stove 1000W 1hr Florescent bulb 49 W 8hrs Rice cooker 600 W 2 hrs Television 70W 6hrs Which appliance contributes most to your energy consumption per day? A. B. C. D. Electric stove Florescent bulb Rice cooker Television

15.Two resistors A and B have the same size and dimension. If resistor A uses twice the power than resistor B for the same voltage across their terminals, what is the resistance of A compared to B? A. the resistance of B is twice that of A B. The resistance of B is one-half that of A C. The resistance of B is four times that of A d. the resistance of B is one- fourth that of A 16. Shown in the figure is an infinitely long ideal solenoid of conducting wire. Inside, a bar magnet moves ( arrow shows the direction)along the axis of the solenoid with some constant velocity. What is the direction of the net induced current on the solenoid? ( Refer to the cross- section shown)

26

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

A.Clockwise B.Counter- clockwise C.None, the net current on the solenoid is zero D.None, there are no induced currents in the solenoid 17. You have two light bulbs, one with a power rating of 60W and one with a power rating of 75w. Remember that the voltage across each would be the same if they were placed in a light socket. How would the current through each compare and why? A. the bulb using the most power would have to draw a larger current B. the bulbs would have the same currents in the same socket C. the bulb with the lower wattage would draw the most current D. None of the above 18. Two charges have a force of attraction between them. If you double the distance between the charges what happens to the force? A. the force is reduced to of its value B. the force is halved C. the force is doubled D. the force is increased four times 19. Can you create electricity with a magnet? Why? A. No, because only friction on electric charges or batteries create electricity B. Yes, by moving a wire through a magnetic field C. Yes, by putting a current through a wire around a magnet D.Yes, because magnets use electricity to stay effective 20. How much power is used by an appliance connected to a 220V line and draws a current of 12A? A. 2640kW B. 208kW C. 18.3kW D. 2.63kW 21. Why are octopus wiring connections fire hazards? A. current becomes very high B. voltage becomes very high C. resistance becomes very high D. all of these 22. How to reduce current in a conductor? A. by relative motion between the current and magnetic field B. current changes in a nearby coil C. both A and B D. none of these

27

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

23. Which of the following uses more electrical energy? A. a 40W lamp used for 5 hours B. a 60 W electric fan used for 4 hours C. an 80 W Tv used for 2 hours D. a 100W flat iron used for 10minutes 24. How can we avoid power loss during transmission of electricity? A. by transmitting power at high current B. by using high resistance coil C. by using thick wire in transmission lines D. by using high voltage 25. Fifty identical Christmas lights are connected in series and plugged into a 220V line. ( Neglect wire resistance). Calculate the voltage across each light bulb. A. 2.2 V B. 4.4 V C. 110V D. 220V 26. Current flows through the rectangular loop as shown in the diagram. The plane of the loop is parallel to the plane of this page. In which direction will side AB of the loop move? A. toward the north pole of the magnet B. toward the south pole of the magnet C. into the plane of this page D. out of the plane of this page
N B A I

27. How should the wire in the figure be moved in order to get the maximum induced current through the wire? A. vertically upward B. horizontally toward the south pole C. horizontally toward the north pole D. none of the above 28

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

28. Current flows downward through a vertical wire. How will the compass needle placed at point P behave?

29. The resistance offered by conducting wire can be reduced by using all of these except. A. shorter conducting wire B. bigger diameter wire C. material with low resistivity D. high temperature conducting wire 30. Which of the following statement is true? A. ammeter is connected in series with the loads in the circuit B. voltmeter is connected in series with the load in the circuits C. ammeter is connected in parallel with the load in the circuits D. the unit of current is volt and potential difference in ampere 31. Select the statement below which describes the contribution of Michael Faraday to the science of electricity and magnetism. A. Two current- carrying wires exert forces on the each other B. A changing electric field produces a magnetic field C. An electric current exerts a force on a magnet D. A changing magnetic field induces an electric current inn a wire. 32.Large transformers when used for some time become very hot and are cooled by circulating oil. The heating of the transformer is due to. A. The heating of the current alone. B. Hysteresis loss alone. C. Both the heating effect of current and hysteresis loss. D. Intense sunlight at noon. 29

ELECTRICITY and MAGNETISM / ELECTROMAGNETISM

33. Fuses and circuit breakers are safety devices designed to protect our household electrical appliances about them is NOT TRUE? A. Bothe devices are connected in parallel to the circuits. B. Both devices can be found in the main services panel. C. Both devices break the circuit when the current exceeds the rated value. D. If a fuse blows or a circuit breaker trips, it is usually because there are too many appliances drawing power through the circuit. 34. Which could have prevented the woman using the washing machine from serious electric shock? A. Tying the wire B. Removing water out C. Replacing the socket D. Grounding the appliance 35. When we touch switches with wet hands, we experience an electric shock. Why is this so? A. Wet hands can increase the amount of current in the circuit. B. Wet hands cause a short circuit. C. Electricity flows more easily through wet things than dry things. D. Electricity will flow to the earth through the body.

30

Optics/ Light

OPTICS/LIGHT

1. A ray of light IO passes from water to air ( Figure 2). Which is the refracted ray?
B A Air C D Water I O

2. Which diagram correctly shows the path of light through a glass prism?
A B

3. Why do we see the sun for several minutes after it has usually disappeared from the horizon? A. due to the angle of incidence B. due to the angle of refraction C. due to the index of refraction D. due to refraction

32

OPTICS/LIGHT

4.Why cant you see your face on this paper? A. because there is poor lighting system B. because there is a regular reflection in this paper C. because there is an irregular reflection in this paper. D. Because there is a less space available in this paper. 5. When white light shines on Peters shirt, the shirt looks blue. Why does the shirt look blue? A. it absorbs all the white light and turns most of it into blue light. B. it reflects the blue part of the light and absorbs most of the rest. C. it absorbs only the blue part of the light. D. It gives off its own blue light. 6. How is the letter A. B. C. D. 7. Study the illustration. What property of light is shown? seen on a plane mirror?

A. Reflection B. refraction C. Dispersion D. Diffraction 8. All statements about flat mirrors are true except one A. Flat mirrors are also known as plane mirrors. B. Flat mirrors reflect light that strike through it. C. Flat mirrors produce virtual images D. Flat mirrors produce larger image

33

OPTICS/LIGHT

9. A spear fisher at A sees a fish which appears to be at N. Where should the fisher aim so as to hit the fish? Observer A

M N O A. M B. O C. neither M or O D.none of these apparent position of fish

10.Light travels from medium X into medium Y. Medium Y has a higher index of refraction. Consider each statement below: (i) The light travels faster in X. (ii) The light will bend towards the normal. (iii) The light will speed up. (iv) The light will bend away from the normal. A.i only B.ii only C. i and ii only D. iii and iv only 11. A person in a dark room looking through a window can clearly see a person outside in the daylight. But a person outside cannot see the person inside . Why does this happen? A. there is not enough light reflected off a person in the room B. light rays cannot pass through the window C. outside light does not pass through the windows D. sunlight is not intense enough to be a source of light

34

OPTICS/LIGHT

12. Why do rainbows appear?

A. Because sunlight is refracted by water in the raindrops B. Because sunlight is selectively absorbed by water in the raindrops C. Because sunlight falls on different size of raindrops D. Because different colors of raindrops arrange themselves in bands of color 13. Why cant we see an object for a moment in a dark room after exposing ourselves from bright sunlight? A. the pupil dilates B. the retina does not work well C. the cornea may not bend light D. the rods cannot adjust at once For numbers 14- 17, refer to the figure below
C D E

500 A F B

14. The incident ray on the reflecting surface is A. AB B.CF

35

OPTICS/LIGHT

C. DF D. EF 15. The reflected ray on the reflecting surface is A. AF B. BF C. CF D. FE 16. The normal drawn from the point of incidence is A. BF B. CF C. DF D. AF 17. The angle of reflection is equal to A. 200 B. 300 C.400 D.500 18. Why is it that during a thunderstorm, the flash of lightning is seen before the thunderclap is heard? A. light travels faster than sound B. sound travels faster than light C. the lightning is produced first before the thunderclap D. the eye is more sensitive than the ear 19.Endoscopy is used in medicine to view internal organs without undergoing the patient to surgical operation. This illustrates what property of light? A. refraction B. diffraction C. polarization D. total internal reflection

36

OPTICS/LIGHT

20 Why do we use concave mirrors in flashlights, headlights and spotlights? A. to make an object bigger B. to produce an intense beam C. to enlarge the image D. to avoid blurred vision

21. Which of the following are characteristics of LASER? i.it is coherent ii.it is highly intense iii.it is monochromatic iv.it does not travel in one direction A. i and ii B. i , ii and iii C. ii and iii D. i, ii, and iv 22. If you were to buy a mirror which you could use to see your full body image, what considerations should you take to minimize the cost of the mirror? A. buy a mirror whose height is the same as yours B. buy a mirror whose height is just half as yours C. the mirror that you will buy should be taller than your height D. the height of the mirror should be twice your height 23. If yellow light is shining on a shirt with a blue pigment, what would be the color appearance of the shirt? A. black B. white C. magenta D. yellow 24. Which of the following statements best compare green light and yellow light? A. green light has heavier wavelengths than yellow light B. yellow light has lower frequencies than green light C. green light is more intense than yellow light D. yellow light is more noticeable than green light 37

OPTICS/LIGHT

25. The glare of reflected sunlight is much greater around a body of water in late afternoon than when the sun is directly overhead. Why? A. vertical rays are mostly reflected B. more light rays are transmitted at an angle C. more light rays are transmitted at noon time D. vertical rays at noon time are mostly transmitted

38

ACOUSTICS/ SOUND

ACOUSTIC/SOUND

1. How might infrasonic waves be useful for elephants? A. Communication for long distance B. Communication for short distance C. Helps them to find prey D. Keeps them away from prey 2. Which of these situations best describes the reflection of sound? A. Sounds the conversion of the potential to kinetic energy from the loud radio of your neighbour B. The conversion of the potential to kinetic energy from the swinging of the pendulum C. The different lights which look like a rainbow at the spaced track of CD/DVD hardware D. Sounds that you hear inside the audio- visual room 3. Which of the following is true regarding a vibrating string? A. The longer the string, the lower the volume B. The longer the string , the higher the pitch C. The shorter the string, the higher the note D. The shorter the string, the lower the note

4. An explosion is heard 34km away. If the velocity of sound in air is 340m/s, how long will it take for the sound to reach you? A. 1s B. 10s C. 20s D. More than 20s 5. Which describes the motion of the particles of a medium when a sound wave passes through the medium? A. The particles do not move B. The particles move back and forth C. The particles move in one direction D. The particles move in all direction 40

ACOUSTIC/SOUND

6. Why sound waves travel fastest in solids and slowest in gases? A. Molecules of solids are closest to one another B. Molecules of solids are farther apart C. Molecules of gases are closest to one another D. Molecules of solids are free to move about 7. Will you hear anything when you set the alarm clock on the table and place it under a bell jar? A. Yes, because the bell jar will vibrate B. No, because sound does not travel in a vacuum C. No, because the bell jar is too large D. Yes, because the bell jar will not vibrate 8. Which of the following BEST describes a property of sound? A. Sound is whatever we hear B. Transmitted even in a vacuum C. Sound is slowest in solids D. Produced by any vibrating body 9. An observer at a distance hears the starters gun A. As soon as it is fired B. Ahead of the flash of the gun or the puff of the smoke from the gun C. A little after the flash of the gun or the puff of the smoke from the gun D. If the temperature of the air is high

10. Which of the following statements about audio is true? A. Helps to make speaking in a large hall more distinct B. Has a different velocity from the original sound C. Helps one to find out the distance to a cliff D. Is louder than the original 41

ACOUSTIC/SOUND

11.A hiker stands in front of a tall mountain on a cold day ( 150C). He shouts yahoo! and hears an echo after 5s. What is the speed of the sound he created? A. 240m/s B. 340m/s C. 322m/s D. 2,979 m/s

12. Generally, a high pitch sound is often inaudible to an older, than it is to a younger one because as a person gets older, the limits of his hearing range shrink, causing him to have difficulty hearing high frequency sounds. Pitch is recognized by the human ear in terms of A. watts B. decibels C. watts per square meters D. joules per second 13.Why does your voice sound fuller in the classroom than in the grandstand? A. concrete walls reflect sound waves well than an open space does. B. The classroom is smaller as compared to the grandstand. C. Sound waves travel faster in gasses than it does in solids. D. Sound waves travel slower in gases than they do in solids. 14.Which is quieter; a room hung with curtains or one with bare concrete walls? Why? A. A room hung with curtains because it is more elegant. B. A room with bare concrete walls because it minimizes repeated reflection of sounds. C. A room hung with curtains because the curtains absorbs sounds, therefore minimizing reverberation D. A room with concrete walls because it absorbs sounds, thereby minimizing reverberation.

42

ACOUSTIC/SOUND

15.What is the main reason why you can hear noise a long distance away over water at night? A. B. C. D. There are fewer noises at night. Water conducts sound better at night. Sound bounce of water better at night. Sound waves are bent towards the cool air over the water.

43

THERMODYNAMICS/ THERMOSTATICS

THERMODYNAMICS/THETMOSTATICS

1.Which of the following is ordered from the least thermal energy to the most? A. water to ice to steam B. steam to water to ice C. ice to steam to water D. ice to water to steam 2. It is not possible for a refrigerator to transfer heat from a colder body to another body at a higher temperature unless: A. the engine is first cooled B. work is done on the engine C. the body is first cooled D. work is done on the other body 3. Why does your skin feel cool upon applying alcohol? A. fast evaporation of alcohol helps your skin feel cool B. slow evaporation of alcohol helps your skin feel cool C. your skin has an alcohol that is wet D. the alcohol sticks on your skin longer 4. A hot water bottle containing 1000g of water cools from 60 0C to 150C. The heat given off by the water is : A. 1000cal B. 45,000cal C. 850cal D. 602 cal 5. Which statement(s) distinguish(es), internal combustion from steam engine? A. internal combustion is less efficient than steam engine B. burning takes place inside the engine chamber in an internal combustion engine while burning occurs outside the engine in steam engine C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 6. Sometimes drinking glasses get struck when piled on top of each other. They may be disengaged by dipping them in warm water because: A. the top glass contracts in warm water B. the lower glass expands and releases the upper glass C.the enclosed air expands and presses upward against the top glass D. the water makes the glasses slippery for an easy manipulation 7. Which is not true when a hot object is brought into contact with a cold object? A. the cold object absorbs heat from the hot object B. the two objects will eventually have the same temperature because there is heat transfer 45

THERMODYNAMICS/THETMOSTATICS

C. there is a continuous flow of heat from the hot to the cold object D. thermal equilibrium will be attained after some time 8. In an experiment, a bottle of juice is submerged in a basin of water which is warmer than that of the juice. According to the second law of thermodynamics, which of the following statements is true? A. heat will flow from the bottle to the basin until the two are of the same temperature B. heat will flow from the basin to the bottle until the bottle is warmer than the basin C. heat will flow from the basin to the bottle until the two are of the same temperature D. heat will flow from the bottle to the basin of water until the bottle is cooler than the water in the basin 9. Which principle is the basis for the operation of a pressure cooker? A. boiling point increases as pressure increases B. boiling point decreases, as pressure increases C. freezing point increases as pressure increases D. freezing point decreases as pressure decreases 10. Two bodies of different temperatures come in contact. Which of the following would not happen? A. Heat flows from a body of high temperature to a body of low temperature. B. The temperature to the hot body would increase. C. The two objects would have the same temperature after some time. D. Particles in the colder object would move faster after sometime. 11. When you accidentally put your hand near the Kettles spout, you cried ouch. But when you moved your hand a few inches away, you found that the steam was cool why? A. The steam cooled as it expanded. B. The steam condensed into liquid. C. The steam absorbed energy from the surrounding air. D. Energy transferred to your skin was greater when it was near the Kettles spout. 12. During warm days, you cool yourself by damping your skin with wet towel. Which of the following takes place? A. Your skin absorbs the coldness of the water. B. Your skin releases energy when water from your skin evaporates. C. The temperature of water on your skin decreases as it evaporates. D. The temperature of your skin increases as water evaporates from your skin. 46

THERMODYNAMICS/THETMOSTATICS

13. The transfer of energy form the source to an object by direct contact between them is A. convection B. Radiation C. conduction D. insulation 14. As more heat is added to a sample of water boiling in a stove, its temperature A. remains the same B. decreases C. increases D. increases then decreases 15. It is not possible for a refrigerator to transfer heat from a colder body to another body at a higher temperature unless A. the engine is first cooled B. the body is first cooled C. work is done on the engine D. work is done on the other body

47

NUCLEAR/ ATOMIC PHYSICS

NUCLEAR/ATOMIC PHYSICS

For questions 1and 2, consider the following graphs. Beta and Gamma radiation hit materials A,B, C, and D of the same thickness. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 17. Which material can best stop beta radiation? 12. A. A 13. B. B 14. C. C 15. D. D C 16. 18. Which material can best stop gamma radiation?

1. Which material can best stop beta radiation? A. A B. B C. C D. D 2. Which material can best stop gamma radiation? A. A B. B C. C D. D For questions 3- 4, refer to the following conditions: Five grams each of the radioactive samples A, B,C, and D kept separately in a drawer at the same time. Suppose the halflife of A is 2 days, and of B is 4 days, C is 6 days and d is 8 days. 3. Which sample has the last amount remaining after 4 days? A. A B. B C. C D. D 4. Which sample has about one half its original amount after days? A. A 49

NUCLEAR/ATOMIC PHYSICS

B.B C. C D. D 5. Why are nuclear radiations dangerous to the human body? A. because they are uncharged B. because they have very small mass compared to gamma and beta radiation C. because they can easily pass through air D.because they have high energies. 6. Which statements uphold the chain reaction result of Uranium 235 reactions? i.a neutron starts the reaction but the reaction itself produces 2 or 3 neutrons ii. the neutron produced can then initiate 2 or 3 new reactions, which in turn would produce more neutrons iii. the energy involved in such reaction is very large iv. fission reactions produce radioactive products A. i and ii B. i and iii C. i and iv D. iii and iv 7. Imagine that a new particle y is discovered among the radiations emitted by a certain radioactive element. The y particle is found to have an atomic number of 3 and a mass number of 5. Which one of the following nuclear equations describe the emission of a y particle from a nucleus of 239Pu.
94

A. 94Pu 239 B. 94Pu 239 C. . 94Pu 239 D. 94Pu 239

5 3y 5 3y

+ 91Pa234 + 97Bk234 5 244 3y + 91Pa 3 236 5y + 89Ac

8. Within the nucleus of an atom are 1 or more positive charges ( protons). Why dont the positive charges repel one another and cause the nucleus to blow apart? A. because of the strong nuclear force in the nucleus of an atom B. because of the gravitational force in the nucleus of an atom C. because of the weak force existing in the nucleus of an atom D. because of the electrostatic force existing in the nucleus of an atom 9. Polonium- 214 has a half- life of 1.644 x 10-4 seconds while Carbon- 14 has a half life of 5730 years. What can we infer about their radioactivity? A. Carbon- 14 is much more radioactive than Polonium- 214 B. Polonium- 214 is much more radioactive than Carbon- 14 50

NUCLEAR/ATOMIC PHYSICS

C. Carbon- 14 and Polonium- 214 have the same activity D. None of them are radioactive 10. What would be the order of statements below to describe how nuclear fission happens? 1. the splitting of Uranium 2. the production of Krypton and Barium 3. the bombardment of neutron 4. the release of neutron after the reaction A. 3-1-2-4 B. 3-1-4-2 C. 2-1-3-4 D.4-1-2-3 11. Which of the following activities makes use of the radioactive Carbon 14 isotope? A. generate electricity B. dating boulders and rocks C. surgical operations of tumors D. dating remains of plants and animals 12. What type of nuclear reaction is represented by the diagram and the overall energy change that takes place?

ELECTRONICS

A. B. C. D.

nuclear fusion; energy is released nuclear fusion; energy is absorbed nuclear fission; energy is released nuclear fission; energy is absorbed 51

NUCLEAR/ATOMIC PHYSICS

For number 13, refer to the situation below Engr. Toledo is tasked to inspect a newly built nuclear power plant. He observed the following conditions: a. The radioactive sources are shielded with lead and concrete. b. The nuclear reactors operate in closed systems with low air pressure. c. The workers work far from the source of radiation Why is it necessary to enclose the nuclear reactor at low pressure? A. To maintain the temperature at low level B. To prevent leakage of radioactive waste C. To keep the environment inside the power plant cool D. To prevent radiation from being inhaled by the workers 14. Suppose hydrogen bombs were exploded in a box that could contain all the energy released by the explosion, the weight of the box after explosion would be. A. Less B. more C. the same D. none of the above 15. An experimenter finds that 50 % of samples of U-238 have decayed. Since U-238 has a half life of 4.5 billion years, the sample age is about ___________. A. 0.60 billion years B. 1.12 billion years C. 2.25 billion years D. 4.5 billion years

52

ELECTRONICS

ELECTRONICS

1. Why is it important to understand the fundamentals of diodes operation? A. because a diode is the simplest semiconductor device B. because the operation of diode applies to all types of semiconductor device C. because the diode can perform both switching and amplifying function D. all of these 2. Why does a PN junction act as a one- way value for electrons? A. since when electrons are pumped from N to P, free electrons and holes are forced B. since when all attempt to pump electrons from P to N, free electrons and holes are forced apart leaving no way for electrons to cross the junction C. since the circuit in which the diode is used attempts to pump electrons in one direction D. all of these For number 3, use the following diagrams as choices
A A B C B A B C

D. none of these

A B

3. A+ B = C 4. Which logic gate is represented by the following truth table? Input A 0 1 A. NAND gate B. NOT gate C. OR gate Output B 1 0

54

ELECTRONICS

D. AND gate 5. A truth table helps to: A. analyze and analog circuit B. explain the internal construction of logic gates C. prove which output is true or false D. all of the above 6. Which of the following best describes a resistor? A. it is used to limit the flow of electric current in the circuit and give the needed amount of voltage drop in the circuit B. it is used to amplify electricity C. it is used to filter the voltage output of the power supply circuit D. it is used to bypass some of the signals from the collector to the ground

7. Compute for the resistance of the resistor below.

A. 25 x 10 1 +/- 5% B. 55X 10 2 +/- 1% C. 15 X 10 1+/- 5% D. 22x 10 1+ /- 1% 8. Four electromagnetic waves are arranged in increasing energy. The greater the energy, the greater the effect is on objects they interact with.
radiowaves microwave ultraviolet x-ray

Increasing energy

55

ELECTRONICS

Based on this information, which electromagnetic source is LEAST HARMFUL? A. UV lamp B. X- ray machine C. Radio transmitter D. Microwave oven 9. Which of the following electronic devices is used for digital displays in electronic calculators? A. photodiodes B. fever diodes C. LEDs D. SRCs 10. The transistor stands for A. transfer of resistance B. transfer of current C. transfer of power D. transfer of voltage 11. What is the frequency used in telephones? A. 20 Hertz to 20K Hertz B. 20KHertz to 30M Hertz C. 200Hertz to 2000Hertz D. 400Hertz to 4000 Hertz 12. A vacuum diode as compared to a crystal diode is: A. less efficient B. bigger in size C. heavier D. all of the above 13. Of the following metals, which are used for thermionic emission? A. tungsten B. iron C. aluminium D. germanium 14. How is the transmission of picture and sound done in a television set? A. through dish antennas B. through audio waves C. through radio waves D. through satellites 15. Which is the correct sequence of transmission of sound via telephone? i.the electrical signals are carried by the cables to the receiver or earpiece at the other end of the line ii.the callers voice is converted to varying signals by mouthpiece 56

ELECTRONICS

iii.the earpiece of the other telephone converts the electrical signals back to sounds iv.the phone of the caller And the person being called are connected by copper cables. A. i,ii,iii and iv B. iv,ii,i,iii C. i,iii,ii,iv D. iv,ii,iii,i 16. How is interference avoided between the signals that come to your cordless phone transceiver and those that it sends? A. The signals have different amplitudes B. The signals are modulated differently C. The signals travel at different speed D. The signals have different frequency

57

KEY TO CORRECTION MECHANICS

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. C A A C C B B C D D B B B B C C A C D A A B B D A C C D A B D B C D B B C C B D B C B D D

ELECTRICITY- MAGNETISM/ ELECTROMAGNETISM

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. A D C D C A D D A A A A D C C C A A B A A C B D B B B B D A D C A D C

OPTICS/ LIGHT
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. D D D C B C A D A C A A A B D C D A D B B C B B D

ACOUSTIC/ SOUND
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. D D C B B A B D C B B B A C D

THERMODYNAMICS/ THERMOSTATICS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. D B A B B B C C A A B B C A C

NUCLEAR/ ATOMIC PHYSICS

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. C C A B C C A A A A D A B B C

ELECTRONICS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. C C A B D A A C C C D D A C A A