F3 (OIC) 1.

In Lathe machine, the gear between the driver and the follower gears in a simple train is known as a/an _________ or intermediate. A. Pinion B. Helical C. Idler D. Reduction Ans. C 2. Milling consists of machining a piece of metal by bringing it into contact with a rotating _________ with many cutting edges. A. Tool bit B. Gear C. Cutter D. Shaper Ans. C 3. It is the machining of a surface by moving the object forward and backward under a stationary cutting tool.
A. Planning/Shaping

B. Reaming C. Milling D. Boring Ans. A

4. The type of reamer that can outlast high speed reamers many times in castings where sand or hard scale is encountered. A. Graphite steel B. Carbon steel C. High speed steel D. Carbide Ans. D

5. When working on an engine lathe, operators sleeve must be rolled _________the elbow for safety. A. Below B. Up to C. Above D. At the wrist Ans. C 6. Occasionally when drilling cast iron, it is advisable to rub a little_________ on the lands of the drill. A. Water B. Oil or grease C. Acid D. Degreaser Ans. A 7. A crack in the engine cylinder head will indicate? A. Low lube oil temperature B. Too high fuel pressure C. Hunting of jacket cooling pressure and abnormal rise in temperature D. Decrease in fuel injection pressure Ans. C 8. What is the effect if moisture that will enter a typical refrigeration system. A. Will cause sweating and frost in the evaporator coil B. Will freeze in the expansion valve C. Oil in the condenser D. Will be remove by the strainer Ans. B 9. If fuel is only burned from the starboard tanks the ship will_____________. A. Go down by the head B. List to port C. Trim by the stern D. List to starboard Ans. B
2

10. In a desk type centrifugal purifier the contaminated oil enter to bowl.
A. At the top through the regulating tube

B. At the button through the oil inlet C. Through the neck of the disk D. Through the funnel body Ans. A 11. The most crucial time for any bearing in regard to lubrication.

A. After proper oil viscosity is reached B. During starting C. During low loads D. After cleaning filter Ans. B 12. More modern lathes are provided with_____________ for feeds and thread leads. A. Quick change gear B. Reduction gears C. Cutting tool D. Pulley Ans. A

13. is prohibited Allowed to carry product oil but from carrying oil. A. Product carrier

B. Bulk carrier C. Automobile carrier D. Crude tanker Ans. A

14. What serves to relieve the strains set up by forging and to give the steel an even close grain or texture? A. Tempering B. Hardening C. Annealing D. Hammering Ans. A 15. The welded joint between two plates in the same stroke of hull plating is called. A. Map B. Scarf C. Bracket D. Butt Ans. D 16. Instrument used to measure diameters. A. Viscosimeter B. Thread gage C. Tachometer D. Caliper Ans. D 17. Could determine leak in refrigeration system. A. Halide torch B. Water C. Torch D. Candle Ans. A 18. Most synchronous motors are similar in construction to: A. Alternator B. Emergency unit C. Dynamo D. Feeders Ans. A

19. The main features of different pumps of which they are working under non-cavitating condition is: A. Output is identically proportional B. They are not self priming C. It will develop a discharge pressure equal to the resistance to be overcome in respectively of speed D. Output is increased at increased pressure Ans. C 20. Which of the following should be done so that fuel oil viscosity at the atomizer can be reduced? A. Increase the FO heater steam supply B. Used lighter kind of FO C. Increase deliver pressure of FO D. Increase FO specific gravity Ans. A 21. The lube oil plate of shell and lube type heat exchanger are usually of: A. Copper nickel tube B. Naval brass C. Aluminum brass D. Aluminum bronze Ans. B 22. The pump deal with large volumes liquid while running in maintaining discharge pressure: A. Rotary vain pump B. Axial C. Screw displacement pump D. Close loop system Ans. B

23.

The reverse current relay prevent DC generator motorized by:

5

A. Automatically speeding up the prime maneuver B. Automatically directing C. Tripping circuit breaker D. Tripping circuit breaker Ans. D 24. Boiler tube can result from: A. Mechanical stress B. Overheating C. Corrosion D. Leakage Ans. C 25. Which of the following is the primary operational difference between a huddling chamber safety valve and a nozzle reaction safety valve? A. Adjustment of lifting pressure B. Valve relieving capacities C. Principle in accomplishing blow down D. Initial valve opening cause by steam pressure Ans. D

26. As soon as a diesel engine starts; what operating condition should be checked first A. Air box pressure B. Raw water pressure C. Lube oil pressure D. Exhaust temperature Ans. C 27. On law temperature condition on air stared the engine turn over too slow and fails to start the probably cause:
A. High oil viscosity

B. Faulty air starting v/v

6

C. Low oil temperature D. Low oil viscosity Ans. A 28. In an air conditioning room if the people complained of being too cool the problem might be: A. Relative humidity to high B. Air velocity is too low C. Heater failure to cut out at proper temperature D. Relative humidity too low Ans. D

29. Ship found discharge water containing more than ____ of oil can be heavily fined. A. 62.0 mg/liter B. 100.0 mg/liter C. 58.0 mg/liter D. 86.0 mg/liter Ans. B 30. Ejector is simple reliable inexpensive effective and ________. A. Inexpensive B. Utilized high grade of metal C. Maintenance free D. Heavy Ans. C 31. The minimum internal diameter of main bilge piping permitted on a vessel over 150 gross tons is: A. 4 cm B. 6.5 cm C. 9 cm D. 12 cm Ans. B
7

32.

R 718 is known as: A. Ammonia B. Carbon dioxide C. Water D. dichlorodifluoromethane

Ans. C 33. When there is constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve indicates: A. Lack of refrigerant B. Prop refrigerant control C. A faulty refrigerant control valve D. Liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator Ans. A 34. On low temperature condition on air started diesel engine turn over too and fails to start the probable cause is: A. High on viscosity B. Faulty air starting valve C. Low oil temperature D. None of the above Ans. D 35. According to the text D/E piston are connected to the crankshaft by: A. Connecting rod B. Push rod C. Piston guide D. Piston pin Ans. A

36. As soon as diesel engine starts what opening condition should be checked first? A. Air box pressure B. Lube oil pressure C. Raw water pressure
8

D. Exhaust temperature Ans. B 37. What is the possible cause of a marine diesel engine having a poor combustion? A. Very high compression pressure B. Exhaust pressure low C. Low intake air temperature D. High scavenge pressure Ans. C 38. What is the use of a re-circulating line in the potable hot water system? A. Maintain desired water temperature to system B. For constant speed of pumps C. For return overflow D. Maintain flow rate Ans. A

39. What is provided for use on bilge systems evaporator and gas fusing system on tankers? A. Velocity pump B. Ejectors C. Convergent nozzle D. Divergent nozzle Ans. B 40. Which should be check before starting a diesel engine?
A. Crankcase oil level

B. Oil filter C. Gas temperature D. Oil filter Ans. A

9

41. Cleaning of the Lathe machine should be done when the machine is _________________. A. Running B. Idle C. On slow running D. On low gear Ans. B

42. The Shapers cutting tool has a ______________ motion with the work usually held in a vise: A. Forward B. Reciprocating C. Vertical D. Circular Ans. B 43. Two stroke D.E pistons are connected to the crank shaft by_______.
A. Connecting rod

B. Crank pin C. Push rod D. Piston guide Ans. A 44. When the engine is running what part in a large slow speed engine is under tension? A. Bed plate B. Tie rod C. Column D. Rod Ans. B

10

45. What possible cause of an air-started engine turns too slow and fails to start on cold weather? A. Low compression B. Faulty valve C. Low temperature D. High lube oil viscosity Ans. D 46. What is the purpose of thrust bearing? A. To control axial movement of the crankshaft B. Absorb vibration C. Transmit engine thrust D. Prevent propeller thrust Ans. A 47. What measures the degree of hardness of a substance?

A. Brinell scale B. Simpson scale C. Plimsell scale D. Bernoullis scale Ans. A 48. Leaky valves in main air compressor may cause _________.

A. No air filter B. High discharge pressure C. Compressor running fast D. Too much suction pressure Ans. D 49. What is the main purpose why check valve is located between economizer and steam drum? A. Pressurize water flow B. Prevent back pressure C. Prevent steam and water drum losses should an economizer casualty occur D. Positive feed water flow Ans. D
11

50.

What provides the force required to vary the pitch of the blades?

A. Hydraulic B. Mechanical C. Pneumatic D. Electrical Ans. A 51. What is the part found between engines and pinion?
A. Flexible coupling

B. Duplex coupling C. Main coupling D. Auxiliary coupling Ans. A

52.

Capability of safety valve must be _______.

A. Closing quickly B. Remaining open until pressure drop C. Opening gradually D. Remain open Ans. B 53. Freon 12 tends to short cycle when at ____.

A. Light loads

B. Normal condition C. Starting D. Heavy loads Ans. A 54. What cause a safety valve to pops up continuously even manually operating it close? A. Clogged line B. Damaged seat C. Dirty seat
12

D. Poor adjustment Ans. B 55. What causes excessive scale in an evaporating plant?
A. Low boiling temperature

B. Poor distillate C. Low vacuum D. Low pressure Ans. A 56. What should be done for sudden loss of oil in crankcase of reefer system? A. Inspect oil separator B. Renew oil C. Adjust thermo-expansion valve D. Check for leak Ans. C 57. Next to the lathe, it is perhaps the most adaptable and interesting machine in the shop. A. Planer B. Drill C. Welding D. Milling Ans. D 58. What causes a pump fails to deliver liquid?

A. Air in suction line B. RPM too high C. Faulty relief valve D. Damaged impeller Ans. A 59. As per regulation, what is the minimum I.D of main bilge pump for 150 GRT? A. 14 cm B. 90 cm C. 6.5 cm D. 7.0 cm
13

Ans. C 60. What causes lube oil pump unable to build pressure?
A. Suction valve closed

B. By pass valve closed C. Discharge valve open D. Suction valve high Ans. A 61. Where will the sludge in a boiler accumulate? A. Floor B. Screen C. Generating D. Down comer Ans. A 62. When a reefer is having high condensing pressure you should _______.
A. Purge air from condenser

B. Check leaky valves C. Decrease cooling water D. Check thermo bulb Ans. A 63. One special feature of ejectors is?

A. Maintenance free

B. High grade metal C. Heavy weight D. Light weight Ans. A 64. What sewage treatment using bacteria acceptable for discharge in water?
A. Bio-sewage plant

B. External flushing C. Heavy weight D. Treatment tank Ans. A 65. Maceration refers to be sewage treatment for _________.
14

A. Chemical treatment B. Decomposing waste C. Chemical plant D. Breaking up of solid matter Ans. D 66. Speed of turbo charges depends on _____.

A. Engine load B. Engine speed C. Gas temperature D. Cylinder Ans. A 67. What may cause a leaky oil seal in a turbo charge? A. Low scavenge temperature B. Blow by C. Over speeding D. Insufficient air-fuel ration Ans. C 68. The effect of defective injector nozzle in D.E. is:

A. Poor combustion B. High exhaust temperature C. Smoky exhaust D. Late injection Ans. C 69. What regulates the flow of refrigerant: A. Expansion valve B. Compressor C. Evaporator D. Condenser Ans. A 70. What causes cylinder liner to crack?

A. Operating at low speed B. Worn piston tings C. Poor lubrication D. Restricted cooling water passage
15

Ans. D 71. In a machine shop, it consists of laying out, assembling, and the final fitting of parts.
A. Bench work

B. Bench mark C. Deck work D. Job order Ans. A 72. What is the requirement for potable and non-potable water system? A. Never be connected by any means B. Temporarily be connected with a removal spool C. Connected if they are used only for wash water D. Permanently connected through a double stop valve Ans. A 73. What would happen if at low pressure a nozzle reaction safety valve will lift? A. Insufficient spring compression B. Adjustment too high C. Scale on seat D. Broken valve seat Ans. A 74. What is the variation from zero loads to full load of D.E? A. Synchronization B. Speed droop C. Speed rate D. Speed lag Ans. B

16

75. What is used particularly in reference to movement of an air in the cylinder and combustion chamber? A. Silencer B. Turbocharging C. Scavenging D. Generator Ans. B 76. What important property of oil affects engine performance? A. Specific gravity B. Flash point C. Pour point D. Viscosity Ans. D 77. What is the purpose of the pneumatic pressure tank in a sanitary system? A. Provide higher-pressure B. Reduce pressure fluctuation C. Increase water flow D. Prevent losing suction Ans. A 78. These are three distinct stages in fire fighting? A. Alarm control and detection B. Control detection and alarm C. Detection alarm and control D. Alarm detection and control Ans. C 79. This a device which uses a mercury manometer in conjunction with a hemispherical belt and piping to measure tank level; A. Height glass B. Float operated C. Pneumatic gauge D. Gauge glass Ans. C

17

80.

What engine part included in the classification of running gears? A. A frame B. Piston C. Bed plate D. Cylinder liner Ans. B

81.

In starting up the lube oil cooler, what is the first thing to do?
A. Open the cooling water pump discharge

B. Never close the gravity tank discharge C. Start the lube- oil pump D. Personally start the cooling water pump Ans. A

82. The joining of two pieces of copper tubing of the same diameter by expanding or stretching the end of one piece of fit over the other so the joint may be soldered or base is called: A. Swaging B. Vis breaking C. Expanding D. Trimming Ans. A 83. Cylinder lubricating has the primary function of forming a film between liner and rings and to: A. Have increase thermal expansion in liner and rings B. Increase friction between liner and rings C. Reduce friction between liner and rings D. Totally add more pressure in the liner Ans. C

18

84. To sure that the maintenance work is done properly and according to the schedule for each engine for each month of the current year, the operator should have a: A. Watch clearance as indicated by engine builders B. Schedule of engine equipment inspection C. Log operating data D. Maintenance log sheet Ans. D

85. In a direct connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine would be fitted with a: A. Isochronous hunting governor B. Rotating governor disc C. Variable speed governor D. Constant frequency governor Ans. C 86. Pipes installed in salt water supply lines to plumbing fixtures and plumbing drains also for bilge lines:
A. Copper pipe

B. Lead pipe C. Brass pipe D. Aluminum pipe Ans. A 87. The instrument used to determine the velocity of the lubricating oil: A. Gage pressure B. Flow meter C. Say bolt viscosimeter D. Hydrometer Ans. C

19

88.

A total measurement using zero pressure as datum: A. Absolute pressure B. Barometric pressure C. Gauge pressure D. Vacuum pressure Ans. A

89. When building up speed a turbine start to vibrate, what would you do? A. Immediately stop engine B. Built up high speed C. Slow down immediately D. Immediately transfer at stop speed Ans. C 90. Present cooling of injectors that is more widely used is by: A. Blower B. Air cooling C. Fuel itself D. Lubricant Ans. C

91. In any modern system equipped with a variable pitch screw, the blades are driven by: A. Running in oil B. Oil pressure C. Air pressure D. Butter with system Ans. B

20

92.

If fires go out in the boiler what is the first thing to do?

A. Call the engineer on watch

B. Resign all the bridge C. The chief engineer D. Secure the feed pump Ans. A 93. What percentage of oil travels with the refrigerant? A. 25% B. 10% C. 11% D. 33% Ans. B

94. This value not only a stop valve but also serves as check to prevent flow reversal in the event of unbalanced pressure: A. Wedge nozzle valve B. Non return valve C. High pressure glove valve D. Check operated valve Ans. B 95. The most important single piece of equipment in any steam power plant is? A. Operators B. Pumps C. Boilers D. Machine Ans. C 96. A wheel located aft in the steering engine room and is normally disconnected and if will be used in the vent the telemotor become disable:
21

A. Magic-steering wheel B. Strick wheel C. Trick steering wheel D. Zenith steering wheel Ans. C

97. Any water present in the refrigerant side of a Freon refrigerating system causes a/an: A. Cold sweating on trap B. Clogged scale trap C. Frozen expansion valve D. Clogged oil trap Ans. C 98. A space between a moving and a stationary part: A. Space B. Thrust C. Clearance D. Retrieve Ans. C 99. The rate of at which a system will absorbed heat from refrigerated space or substance is known as: A. Coefficient of performance B. Total heat C. Refrigerating capacity D. Displacement volume Ans. C 100. The throttle valve jam or stick open should be closed by: A. Gear teeth B. Stop valve C. Valve unit D. Gear valve Ans. B
22

101. Used to designate the combination of all parts which control the admission of the air charge and discharge of exhaust gases in four stroke engines. A. Valve gear B. Valve union C. Valve timing D. Timing valves Ans. C 102. When reciprocating pumps run by steam the power end is called: A. Steam end B. Liquid steam C. Steam base D. Liquid rectifier Ans. A 103. The sedimentation tank receives the fuel from the storage tanks where after settling:
A. Daily purging is effectuated

B. Monthly purging is necessary C. Gas purging is necessary D. Hourly purging is effectuated Ans. A

104. Of the following safety informations which can be found in the fire control plans posted: A. B. C. D. Ans. C Bridge station Hall station Location of fire doors Escape tunnel

23

105. Is an eccentric projection on a revolving disc used for the opening and closing of a valve through various intermediate parts: A. B. C. D. Ans. B 106. The temperature at which the oil vapor above oil will flash when a small flame is applied: A. B. C. D. Ans. A Flash point Quick point Set point Reaction point Piston Cam Nozzle Oppressor

107. An axial flow pump uses a: A. Piston B. Screw propeller C. Oscillating vane D. Volute Ans. B 108. The oil system fails while underway, what is the first thing to do?
A.

B. C. D. Ans. A

Re-start the stand by lube-oil pump Secure the boiler Open the outlet value on the gravity tank Tap the main engine

24

109. You are testing leaks in a newly repaired refrigeration circuit. Which substance should not be used to develop pressure in the circuits? A. Oxygen B. Brine C. Carbon dioxide D. Aluminum gel Ans. A

110. The term used when a number of individually small holes are bored within the thickness of a part so that water can be passes closed to the heated surface.
A.

B. C. D. Ans. A

Bore cooling Reduce effect Saturated cooling Thermal cooling

111. In avoiding excessive pressure during bunkering, you should:

A.

B. C. D. Ans. A

Reduce the loading rate when topping off Close main talk filling valves Top of all tanks at the same time Close non-return valve

112. It is essential to smooth operation? A. B. C. D. Ans. A Alignment Under stress Vibration Torsion

25

113. What oil is passed by the relief valve and is turned to the oil fan? A. B. C. D. Ans. C 114. What refrigerated that will operate on lowest pressure and therefore required the lowest compressor power consumption. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 115. This is a type if electrical thermometer which uses resistance change to measure temperature:
A. Thermocouples

Mineral oil Natural oil Surplus oil Linseed oil

Brine Careen 707 Freon A 1309

B. Watt meter C. Optical pyrometer D. Piezo electric pyrometer Ans. A

116. This is an inert vapor, non-poisonous, odorless and has no corrosive action of the metals: A. Carbon naphtha B. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon peroxide D. Carbon monoxide Ans. B

26

Immediately after any diesel engine is started the engineer should check the ______. Crankcase pressure Lube oil pressure Saltwater pressure Exhaust temperature Ans. B What is the main reason why heavy fuel oil must be pre-heated prior to use in a low speed engine? Decreased moisture content Increase cetane number Decrease viscosity Increase ignition quality Ans. C

The cubic inch displacement of an engine or cylinder is determined by the diameter of the piston and the _________. Length of the crankshaft Volume of the clearance space Weight of the piston Length of the stroke Ans. D One disadvantage of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine is ________. More power stroke per revolution The use of scavenge air More complicated value gear Higher working temperature of piston and cylinder Ans. D A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is _______.

27

Opening the exhaust ports Closing the fuel ports Farthest from the cylinder head Nearest to the cylinder head Ans. D

117. Improper (poor) combustion in a diesel engine could be cause by__________. A. High compression pressure B. Low intake air temperature C. Low exhaust pressure D. High scavenge air pressure Ans. B 118. Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed propulsion diesel engines is admitted to each cylinder during: A. Power stroke B. Compression stroke C. Low load operation only D. Periods of standby Ans. B 119. Loop, uniflow and return flow are terms uses to describe various types of: A. Control air circuits B. Super changing C. Turbo changing D. Scavenging Ans. D

28

120. Normally the greatest cavitations erosion on the waterside of wet cylinder liners is ______. Throughput the lower one-half of the liner A. Throughout the upper one-half of the liner B. At DC opposite the thrust side of the liner C. Near the middle of the thrust side of the liner Ans. D 121. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of a/an ______.
A.

B. C. D. Ans. A

Worn cylinder liner Faulty cylinder relief value Excessive lube oil pressure Excessive scavenge air pressure

122. What instrument is used to take crankshaft web deflection readings? A.

B.

C. D. Ans. C

A feeler An outside micrometer A strain gauge A gauge block

123. In a diesel engine, blow by __________. A.

B.

C. D.

Increase exhaust back pressure Causes excessive crankcase pressure Can only be detected by a compression check Decreases fuel consumption

Ans. B 124. An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates ________. A.

B.

C. D. Ans. B

Worn connecting rod bearings Worn engine cylinder liners High cylinder firing pressure Stuck spring loaded manhole covers

125. Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine because the ________ there.
29

A.

B. C. D. Ans. C

Side thrust is greatest Skirt makes greatest contact Highest pressures are exerted Acceleration rate is greatest

126. In what portion of two cycle opposed piston diesel engine cylinder does maximum wear occur? A. B.
C.

D. Ans. C

Upper end Lower end Middle Thrust side

127. A properly honed cylinder liner in an diesel engine will __________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 128. Which of the following will have the direct impact on the rate of wear in cylinder liner _________? A.
B.

Prevent piston ring wear Shorten the ring break-in period Prevent cylinder liner glazing Appear slick and glazed

C. D. Ans. B

Amount of scavenge air to the cylinder Quality of fuel injected Viscosity of the lube oil Compression ratio of the piston

129. At what condition could cause cylinder relief valves on a large diesel engine to lift? A.
B.

C.

Plugged injection nozzles Excessive fuel injection Very late injection timing
30

D. Ans. B

Incorrect crankshaft clearance

130. If the relief valve or a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be _______.
A.

B. C. D. Ans. A

Liquid in the cylinder Low compression in the cylinder High exhaust temperature Poor fuel penetration

131. When compression pressure is checked, the indicator is connected to the _______.
A.

B. C.
D.

Cylinder exhaust ports Injection line Cylinder indicator cock Banjo oiler line

Ans. C 132. What is called the lower section of a piston? A. B. C. D. Ans. B Land Skirt Crown Plate

31

133. The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt, this done to _________. A. Facilitate the installation of a piston rings B. Allow for the expansion of the piston during operation C. Prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber D. Reduce wearing of the upper cylinder lines Ans. B 134. Turbulence ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 135. In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason the piston skirt is knurled to _______.
A.

in

the

compressed

air

charge

increases

Ignition lags Piston side thrust The efficiency of the engine Compression pressure

B. C. D. Ans. A

Improved skirt lubrication Allow for expansion Transmit forces evenly Improve the piston seal

136. What would cause a diesel engine to use too much lube oil? A. B. C. D. Ans. B 137. Black areas on the sealing surface of piston rings indicates _______. A. Lube oil pumping
32

Dirty lube oil filter Too much piston ring wear High lube oil viscosity Low lube oil temperature

B. C. D. Ans. D

Rotating rings Gas pressure behind the ring Hot gas escaping

138. Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can cause ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. A Excessive lube oil consumption Lower than normal lube oil temperature Higher than normal exhaust back pressure Excessive crankshaft end play

139. A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 140. The easiest way to locate defective exhaust valve in a propulsion diesel engine is by: A. B. C. D. Ans. C 141. Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine will result in the exhaust valve opening
A.

Firing pressure Exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder Cooling water temperature Compression pressure

Taking compression readings Inspecting the valves visually Exhaust pyrometer readings Listening to the engine

B. C. D.

Later and closing earlier Later and closing later Earlier and closing earlier Earlier and closing later
33

Ans. A

142. In a diesel engine, the time period between full injection and ignition is usually defined as: A. B. C. D. Ans. D 143. The low-pressure steam drain system drains to the _______.
A.

Injection duration Ignition timing Pre combustion lag Ignition delay

B. C. D. Ans. C

Deacrating feed water heater Contaminated drain inspection tank Atmospheric drain tank Main condenser hot well

144. Testing the viscosity of engine lube oil where result may indicate _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 145. A metal scribe should only be used to A.
B.

Fuel oil dilution Oxidation of the lube oil (Both a and b) oxidation and dilution Salinity and hardness

C. D.

Remove packing Mark the metal Punch gaskets holes Clean file teeth

Ans. B 146. What is the tool used to removed a ball bearing from the shaft of a motor?

34

A. B. C. D. Ans. B

Sluggish wrench Gear puller Drift pin Came along

147. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the A. B. C. D. Ans. C 148. A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drills _________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B Length Diameter Clearance angle Web thickness Set Rake Pitch Thread gauge

149. Which materials can be drilled at the highest speed?

A.

B. C. D. Ans. A

Aluminum Medium cost iron Copper High carbon steel

150. When checking Zinc plates in the condenser cooler, you should ______. A. B. C. D. Replace the plates if 50% deteriorated Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion Renew the plates File the plates to change the negative value

35

Ans. A 151. What is that device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed space? A.
B.

C. D. Ans. B

Flame relief value Flame/spark arrester Flame stopper Safety valve

152. Which of the listed decreases the total dissolve solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler? A. B. C. D. Ans. C 153. At normal operating conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in an R-12 refrigeration system as a ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 154. What harmful effect can result if a diesel engine is operated at very high loads for lone period of time? A. B. C. D. Ans. A Increase carbon build up Increase fuel consumption Burning of intake bulb Excessive firing pressure Liquid Super heated vapor Dry saturated gas Wet saturated gas Frequent compounding Chemical cleaning Bottom blowing Hydrazine treatment of condensate

36

155. What kind of lube oil on reciprocating pump rods? A. Oil mixed with kerosene B. Graphite and oil C. Used engine oil D. Cold grease Ans. B 156. The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 157. A secondary refrigerant commonly conditioning system is ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 158. Which is a secondary refrigerant? A. B. C. D. Methyl alcohol Brine Carbon dioxide Cuprous chloride Methyl chloride Water Carbon dioxide Trichloro ethylene used in shipboard/air Pressure Volume Weight Temperature

Ans. B 159. Refrigerant enters the condenser as an

A.

B. C. D.

High pressure liquid Low pressure vapor High pressure vapor Low pressure liquid
37

Ans. C 160. When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it next goes to the ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 161. What will cause an automatically controlled R 12 compressors to start? A. B. C. D. Ans. C 162. The low-pressure side of a refrigeration system is from the ________.
A.

Evaporator coils Liquid strainer Compressor Condenser

Closing of the solenoid valve Closing of the expansion valve Increasing suction pressure Decreasing suction pressure

B. C. D.

Expansion valve to the compressor Receiver to the expansion coil Expansion valve to the evaporator Condenser to the expansion valve

Ans. A 163. In refrigeration plant purpose of the receiver is to ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 164. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. C
38

Cool the refrigerant gas Superheat the refrigerant liquid Store the refrigerant Condense the refrigerant

Flow Temperature Superheat Pressure

165. In refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the: A.

B.

C. D. Ans. B

Condenser Dehydrator Liquid strainer Hygrometer

166. When air is at its dew point it is at its ______ humidity. A. B. C. D. Lowest absolute Lowest relative Highest absolute Highest relative

Ans. D 167. In an air-conditioning system, moisture system moisture is removed from the air by _____. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 168. Compressor crankcase sweating is an indicator of ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 169. Efficient combustion in a boiler is indicated by a ________ haze. A. B. C. D. Ans. B White Brown Yellow Black Insufficient lube oil Excessive lube oil Liquid refrigerant in the compressor An overworked compressor Filters Separator Ducted traps Dehumidifiers

39

170. Pulsating fires in a boiler furnace can be caused by ________. A. Low fuel temperature B. Too much air C. Low fuel pressure D. Too little air Ans. D 171. Oil or scale in boiler tubes will cause ________.
A.

B. C. D. Ans. A

Those tubes to overheat Decreased boiler steam pressure Increased boiler steam pressure An explosion in the boiler

172. The fusible plugs used in the fire-tube auxiliary boilers are installed in the _____. A. B. C. D. Ans. D 173. The air cock on a boiler allows the _______.
A.

Furnace End bell Stay tube Crown sheet

B. C. D.

Waterside to be purged of air Boiler casing to be purged of air Super heater to be completely vented Economize to be vented

Ans. A 174. The bottom blow valve on a water tube boiler is usually attached to the ______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B Steam and water drum Boiler mud drum Extend down comers Floor tubes

40

175. Sodium phosphate in boiler water can be measured by a/an _______ lost. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 176. Phenolphthalein in indicator is used to test boiler water for _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B Dissolved oxygen Alkalinity Chloride content Hardness Alkalinity Phosphate Chlorinity Calcium hardness

177. A sulfide test is conducted on boiler water to check for _______. A. Nitrates B. Sulfates C. Phosphates D. Excess oxygen scavenging agents Ans. D 178. The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by ______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 179. A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a: A. B. Center drill Finish drill
41

Distillate Sea water Brine Air

C. D. Ans. D

Broach Reamer

180. The drill size is marked on the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 181. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 182. To ensure the stock is running in a lathe you should use a ______. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 183. The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B Flexible blade All-hard blade All soft blade Hollow care blade Center gage Gage block Dial indicator Micrometer Cutter Stock and die Tap Chaser Point Shank Margin Flute

42

184. A hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch should be used to cut _____. A.
B.

C. D. Ans. B

Angle icon and heavy pipe Cost iron and soft steel Thin tubing or sheet metal Drill rod and tool sheets

185. File lengths are determined by the ______. A. B. C. D. Ans. C 186. Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges? A. B. C. D. Ans. B Mile Pillar Half round Knife Over all length of the file Distance between the face and the edge of the file Distance between the point and the heel of the file Length of the tong only

187. It is the name given to decrease in boiler metal thickness in which this decrease appears as small holes eaten in the metal. A. Foaming B. Pitting C. Priming D. Grooving Ans. B 188. Fusible plugs are installed in fire tube boilers to: A. Provide a means of draining the boiler
43

B. Cool the crown sheet at high firing rates C. Warn the engineer of low water level D. Open the burners electrical firing circuits Ans. C
189.

If a tube failure results from low water level and you cannot maintain water in sight in the gauge glass, you should ____________. A. Immediately secure the force draft fans B. Blow down the gauge glass to verify a low water condition C. Immediately secure the fuel oil supply to the burners D. Increase the feed pump speed to maximum Ans. C

190.

Gasket leakage around boiler hand holes may be caused by____________. A. Pitted seating surfaces B. Improper positioning of the gasket C. Loose bolts D. All of these

Ans. B 191. When a vessel is dry docked for inspection, which of the following valves are required to be opened during this period? A. High and low suction valves on fuel oil settling tanks B. Bottom blow skin valves to the main auxiliary boilers C. Ballast pump manifold valves D. Pooling water control valves on refrigeration condensers Ans. B
192.

A broken intake valve on an operating air compressor is indicated by ____________. A. Air blowing out through the inlet air filter B. Excessive temperature in the after cooler C. Excessive compression in the cylinder D. Short cycling valve of the compressor Ans. A
44

193.

A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two-stage, high pressure air compressor can cause excessively high____________. A. Pressure in the after cooler B. Second-stage discharge pressure C. First-stage discharge pressure D. Compressor discharge temperature Ans. C

194. The rate of expansion of heated fuel varies with the specific ____________. A. Volume B. Viscosity C. Conductivity D. Gravity Ans. D 195. The process of minimizing the friction and wear between moving metal parts by the formation of a film of oil between them is called ______.
A. Lubrication

B. Atomization C. Injection D. Force feed Ans. A

196. A grease lubricating ball or roller bearings will run cooler if the grease____________. A. Has a low grease penetration number B. Fills 10% of all avoid space within the bearing C. Is heated prior to packing the bearing D. Is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil Ans. A

45

197. Engines which run with petrol (or paraffin) as the fuel are sometimes called

as___________. a. b. c. d. Gasoline engines Internal combustion engine Light oil engines Petrol engines

Ans. C 198. How is tubing measured and sized? A. Cross-sectional area B. Outside diameter C. Normal wall thickness D. Inside diameter Ans. B
199.

A tail stock dead center has been given that name because it ____________. A. Must be removed by clamping in the chuck B. Does not revolve C. Is dead centered on the tail stock spindle D. Fits into the dead center of the work piece

Ans. B 200. A dirty intercooler on the ships service air compressor will result in____________. A. Decreased compression ratio B. Water in the lubricating oil C. Higher than normal power consumption D. Unloaded malfunction Ans. C 201. When steel is tempered it becomes ________? A. Softer B. Less brittle C. More brittle D. Harder Ans. B 202. Which of the following may be determined by conducting a simple spot test of engine lube oil?
46

A. Approximately degree of contamination B. Approximately lube oil viscosity C. Percent of fuel dilution of lube oil D. NB number Ans. A

203. A mechanical property of material which enables it to be drawn easily into

wire form like elongation called____________. A. Plasticity B. Malleability C. Elasticity D. Ductility Ans. D

and

contraction

from

tensile

test

is

204. Cutting tools used in planer work are the same as those used in______________. A. Circular saw B. Grinder C. Shaper D. Lathe Ans. C 205. A machine tool which uses an abrasive wheel as a cutting tool to obtain a very high degree of accuracy and a smooth finish on a metal part. A. Milling B. Grinding C. Shaper D. Lathe Ans. B

47

206.

If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a lathe machine and see blue chips coming of the workpiece, you should _________.
a. b. c. d.

Decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the tool Reduce the cutting tool height above the center Reduce the tool feed or the depth of cut Decrease the cross compound speed

Ans. C
207.

One method of accurately checking the alignment of lathe centers is by moving the dial indicator securely mounted on compound rest between the two positions indicated on the test bar. If the dial indicator reading on the tailstock end of the testbar shows a higher (plus) reading than the dial indicator reading at the headstock end, you should move the tailstock ___________.

Away from you to correct alignment Toward you to correct alignment Closer to the headstock to reduce offset Away from the headstock to decrease misalignment Ans. A

208.

Workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If a test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

Away from you to correct alignment Toward you to correct alignment Closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset Away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment Ans. A
209.

If you are machining a work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first _________.

48

Lubricate the center Stop the lathe Change the cutting bit Run the lathe at a slower speed Ans. B
210.

When a stock is turned in a lathe, the outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to ________.

The depth of cut One half the depth of cut Twice the depth of cut Twice the rate of feed Ans. C
211.

Which of the statement best described the term depth of cut in lathe work?

The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece The distance the workpiece circumference past the cutting tool point in 1 minute The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute Ans. B
212.

The dead center of the work can properly be used only after the end of the work piece has been __________.

Counter bored Tapered Center drilled Convexed Ans. C

213.

Which lathe operation is best done with the carriage locked in position?

Facing work held in chuck Turning work held between centers Threading internal threads Boring an angled hole Ans. A

214.

When drilling a hole in the piece of work being chucked, you should mount the chuck drill in the _________.
49

Compound rest Cross feed Tailstock Headstock Ans. C

215.

The maximum size of fillet weld can be used at _________.

2 mm 3 mm 0.5 mm 10 mm Ans. A
216.

An example of active flux is _________.

Potassium oxide Sodium peroxide Zinc chloride Calcium nitride Ans. C

217.

A process whereby two metals is to be heated to produce a joint which is strong or stronger than the parent metal is called __________.

Making bonding Arc welding C. Soldering Gas welding Ans. B

218.

The heat of brazing melts the borax to form a protective _________.

Dye penetrant Slag Coat Base Ans. B

50

219.

The weld used to join shell plates in flush construction is known as ________ welds.

Fillet Butt Continuous Seam Ans. B

220. The first metal used in steel ship construction is _________. Brass Wrought iron Pig iron Cast iron Ans. B 221. The maximum stress at which the material can support without failure is known as ______ strength. Ultimate Ductile Breaking Compressive Ans. A 222. A kind of packing used in steam joints is _________. Asbestos Copper gasket Elastic packing Diathermal packing Ans. A

51

223. The capability of a material to be able to absorb large quantity of energy before fracture is called __________. Toughness Ductility Elasticity Free stress Ans. A 224. Which material is excellent for use as seals and diaphragm for water lubricated bearings? Rubber Titanium alloy Silicon Uranium Ans. A 225. The proportionality of stress and strain under certain condition is called _________. Hookes law Luminous intensity Newtons law Mutual inductance Ans. A

226. The casing of lead-acid battery is made of __________. Hard rubber Hard asbestos Soft copper Soft bismuth Ans. A 227. A strong plastic which is machinable for use in fabrication of gears, bushing, washers, spacers, etc. is __________.

52

Teflon Nylon Polymer Silicon Ans. A 228. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and _________. Cooling slowly in air Dousing in oil Dousing in cold water Dousing in hot water Ans. A

229. Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by cold ________. Heading Rolling Swagging Turning Ans. A 230. Silver solder is an alloy of silver and _________. Tin or lead Brass mixed bronze Copper and zinc Bronze or tin Ans. A 231. The product of mechanical efficiency and the compression efficiency is known as _______ efficiency. Pascals Overall Mechanical-electrical Compression-mechanical Ans. D
53

232. The process of mixing oil and water is called ___________. Contamination Filtration Emulsification Vaporization Ans. C 233. All energy received as heat by a heat engine cannot be converted into mechanical work is a demonstration of ___________. The 2nd law of thermodynamics The 3rd law of thermodynamics Superheated steam Newtons 3rd law of motion Ans. A The form of energy associated with the random motion of large numbers of molecule is known as _________. Heat Work Youngs modulus of elasticity X-ray Ans. A

234. A metal used in piping on board ships that is more durable than copper pipes and is also used in cooling water installations, sanitary installations, oil coolers, and heat exchangers, heat coils etc. is called ___________.

54

Aluminum brass (Yorcalbro) White meal (Babbitt Metal) Cunifer Bronze Ans. A
235.

How is annealing process carried out?

By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time in a furnace and then allowing it to cool as slowly as possible By cooling the material in a furnace and then heating it again as slowly as possible By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower temperature and finally allowing it cool as slowly as possible Ans. A

236. How is hardening process carried out? By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time in a furnace and finally allowing it to cool in still air By melting the material in the furnace and then allowing it to cool inside the furnace By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower temperature and finally it to cool as slowly as possible Ans. C 237. Why do we apply tempering process on metals?

55

To increase the hardness and lessen the ductility of the material To soften the material for easy pressing or bending purposes To remove some of the hardness, making the steel less brittle and more tough To produce a hard strong steel with a refined grain structure Ans. C

238. What is meant by the term pig iron? The basic material used in the manufacture of various steel and iron Sand channel into which molten metals flow The molten iron collected in the hearth of the furnace A crude, high-carbon iron produced by reduction of iron ore in a blast furnace Ans. D 239. Which statement is true regarding the purpose/use of the alloying element chromium? Used in removing the possibility of embrittlement in steel It does not greatly reduce ductility until 8% chromium is reached It is extensively used in heat exchangers, usually of the plate type variety Increases grain size, induces hardness, improves resistance to corrosion and erosion Ans. D 240. Why are metallurgical tests carried out upon materials? For maintenance purposes To test the mechanical properties of the materials So that the life span of the material will be known To determine their suitability for use in engineering Ans. D 241. Which is not true about non-destructive testing?

56

Special test pieces are used which are damaged during the process These tests are carried out on components, not test pieces These tests give no indication of mechanical properties They are used to detect flaws or imperfections during manufacture or those that develop during service Ans. A 242. A method of detecting surface defects (e.g. cracks) by the use of microscope or hand lens is called _________. Radiography Visual examination or inspection Oil and whitewash Magnetic crack detection Ans. B 243. What is the main reason for using glass fiber as a filler material in polymers? For reducing electrical conductivity To improve corrosion resistance For strength To improve heat resistance Ans. C

244. Rubbers are used ________. For choking engines, winches, pumps, etc. As a framework to give strength, produce insertion jointings and also used in packing As seals in place of bronze wear rings in sea water pumps For fresh and salt water pipe joints, water lubricated bearings and is used for bucket rings in feed pumps Ans. D 245. What are the factors/material properties to consider in the use of Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)? Resistant to corrosion and a good electrical conductor Unaffected by steam, petrol, paraffin, fuel oils and lubricants Unaffected by waters and oils Resistant to water and chemicals, and is a good electrical insulator
57

Ans. D 246. What are some of the uses of nitrile on board ships? It is used in place of rubber, can be used for anti-vibration mountings, jointings, etc. It is used as thermal insulation It is used for pipes and fittings, electrical conduits, for cable and wire insulation, etc. It is used for water lubricated bearings, gland rings, jointing tape, etc. Ans. A 247. How is electric arc produced in electric arc welding process? By closing the circuit thereby allowing the continued flow of electricity By touching the electrode and then withdrawing it By lowering the voltage and increasing the electric current By passing an electric current between two electrodes separated by a small gap Ans. D 248. Which statement is NOT true about brazing process? Brazing process is used to join similar or dissimilar metals Brazing filler metals are lead & tin or aluminum & zinc alloys Brazing filler metals are alloys of copper, nickel, silver and aluminum Brazing uses a flux to dissolved or remove oxides Ans. B

249. What is the appropriate action for the plate edge of a metal that has acquired local hardness due to rapid cooling after the gas cutting operation? Plate edges should be machined or grinded Plate edges should be heat treated by means of the torch Plate edges should be treated (plated) with chromium Plate edges should be soaked in a hot water
58

Ans. A 250. The change in length of an object in some direction, not necessarily the same that is produced by an externally applied load is called __________. Tension Contraction Strain Stress Ans. C 251. When a material on one side pushes on the material on the other side of the surface with a force parallel to the surface, the stress is said to be a __________. Shearing stress Compacting stress Tensile stress Resisting stress Ans. A

252. How is the vertical position welding carried out? By positioning the weld with the axis perpendicular to the ground By placing the weld with the axis parallel to the ground By starting to weld only the lower portion of the joint going up By welding on the upper side of the joint with the face of the weld parallel to the ground Ans. A
253.

The composition of hazardous fumes will depend on the following EXCEPT the ____________.

Filler material Method of welding Weld slag Base material Ans. C 254. Melting, cutting or welding of lead can cause lead poisoning because lead fumes _________.

59

Enter the blood stream if inhaled Enter and irritates the skin when exposed for a period of time Enter the lungs and clog the air sac In large concentration can cause asphyxiation Ans. A

255. How can we prevent incomplete fusion in a weld? By pre heating the workpiece before the start of weld By careful pre weld cleaning, correct current and good welding technique By not allowing the slag to get in front of the molten metal By using the correct variations weave weld pattern Ans. B 256. How are gas pressures regulated in the cylinder tanks of gas welding and cutting operations? By attaching a safety device and other accessories necessary for the required operation By attaching regulators to the cylinder top valves and then setting it to the recommended working pressure By cracking the top valve of the gas cylinder tank and then adjusting it to a required operating pressure By directly connecting the welding hoses on the outlet and letting the torch valve regulate and control the gas pressure Ans. B

257. When cutting a piece of material, the size of the cutting tip will depend on the ________. Center orifice of the nozzle Thickness of the material to be cut Position of the pre heat orifices Type of metals to be cut
60

Ans. B 258. You were about to start oxy acetylene gas cutting operation to create a slot and holes in the middle portion of a metal plate. What is the correct and proper approach when conducting the piercing operation at the start of a cut? I. Direct then preheat flame against the starting point slightly above the surface plate until the portion is red to white hot. II. Press the preheat lever immediately at the very start of the cutting operation directly at the top of the plate. III. Lift the nozzle slightly above the preheat position, press down the cutting lever and then bring down the torch tip slightly above the plate to start the cut. IV. Move the torch tip immediately in contact with the metal plate to the direction of travel and guide the torch steadily along the line. I only Both I and III Both II and IV II, III and IV Ans. B 259. When starting the bevel cut, the torch tip should be _________. Exactly in vertical position Horizontal position Perpendicular to the metal surface Inclined to a desired/required Ans. D 260. The following statements holds true for tempering process EXCEPT ______. It is carried out after hardening process is done on the material The cooling process for tempering can be done in several ways. After heating, the process of tempering can be applied immediately to the material. The main purpose of tempering is to lessen the hardness and brittleness of the material Ans. C 261. The science of measurement is called ________.
61

Numerology Meteorology Mensuration Metrology Ans. D

262. Which statement is true about crankshaft deflection gage? It is the simplest and the most accurate method of checking alignments It used for measuring linear dimensions, thickness or diameter A tool for measuring angles formed by lines on the plane An instrument for measuring narrow slots, small gaps and clearances Ans. D 263. What is the main difference between British standard threads and the Metric standards threads for a variety of sizes? The British standard threads uses 55 thread angle while Metric standards uses 60 thread angle. The British standard threads have the lower depth of thread as compared with Metric Standards thread. The British standard threads has a flat root while the Metric standards has a rounded root. The British standard threads have rounded crest while the metric standard threads have flat crest. Ans. A

62

264. What is the principle involved in bonding materials using adhesives? The sealing and bonding of two or more materials temporarily either metallic or nonmetallic by capillary means The joining or establishing permanent bond on similar or dissimilar materials by the application of pressure The fastening together of two or more solids with or without the application of heat The bonding together of a wide variety of like and unlike materials by resins and their chemical combinations Ans. D 265. What will happen to an elastic material if loaded above a point known as the elastic limit? The material will return to its original dimensions when the load is removed. The material will not return to its original dimensions and will be permanently deformed when the load is removed The material will sustain then load conditions without failure. The material will break easily when given a sudden blow. Ans. B

266. The main difference between ferrous metals from nonferrous metals is ________. Its substantial amount of alloying elements The amount of carbon content The presence of other impurities Its substantial amount of iron Ans. D 267. What is your observation and conclusion regarding the effect of carbon content w hen comparing the tensile strength, ductility, and hardness low-, medium-,and high - carbon steel?

63

As the carbon content increases, the hardness, tensile strength and ductility also increases. As the carbon content increases, the hardness also increases but the tensile strength and ductility decreases. As the carbon content increases, the tensile strength, hardness and ductility decreases. As the carbon content increases, the hardness and tensile strength also increases but ductility decreases. Ans. D 268. What is the main purpose of Alloy? To change the grain structure of the material To create a new chemical element To enhance the mechanical property of the material To eliminate carbon content Ans. C 269. Which is true about the uses of gray cast iron? It is used for axle and differential housing and gears. Suitable material for cylinder heads, and break and clutch applications in motor vehicles. It is wanted for such product as rail wheels, rolls for crushing grains and jaw crusher plates. Used for pipe fitting, frame sockets, and steering column housing. Ans. A 270. The main purpose of a grinding machine is for ___________. Cutting small amount of material to bring the work to a very fine and accurate finish Removing very large amount of material to bring the work to near finish Removing large amount of material to bring the work to close finish Removing small amount of material to bring the work to a smooth finish Ans. A

64

271. Why it is important to obtain accuracy when measuring materials/workpieces? To obtain closeness of agreement among repeated measurement of same characteristics by same characteristics by same method under same condition To get the permissible deviation from a basic dimension To bring about the best possible feature outcome for a particular material or workpiece To meet and comply with the standard requirements/s needed for the job Ans. D 272. When applying linear measurement (e.g. to determine length, width, height, depth, etc.), it is usually made ________. Indirectly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of the material or workpiece Directly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of the material or workpiece Using measuring tools with contact points only on the material/workpiece Using measuring tools with contact surfaces only on the material/workpiece Ans. B

273. Which statement is true when obtaining correct measurement using a steel tape rule? Start the measuring tool setting from one end to any point of the steel rule to obtain correct measurement reading Use the hook and extend the tape in any position directly on the surface of the material or workpiece Place the steel tape rule in any position directly on the surface of the material or workpiece Start the tool setting from the 1 in. line (10mm.line for metric) or other major graduations, rather from one end of the rule Ans. B 274. Which statement is true when using outside caliper on a round stock to get the correct measurement?

65

Slightly drag the caliper leg points against the outside diameter (so it lightly touches the center line) of the stock Clamp the caliper leg points very tightly against the outside diameter of the stock Move the caliper leg points in and out the hole gently Adjust the caliper leg points loosely against the outside diameter of the stock. Ans. A

275. Which does the term marking out refer to? Locating lines, circles, arcs, points of drilling holes Measuring different lines on the workpiece/s Scratching of lines on the surface of a workpiece Indenting of lines on the workpiece Ans. C 276. Laying out means ________. Measuring lines, circles, arcs, points for drilling holes and making cuts on workpiece/s Locating and scribing points for machining and forming operations Removing or chipping off some portions in a workpiece Transferring drawing dimensions to the workpiece Ans. A 277. Which statement best describes the purpose of a scriber? A sharp piercing tool for drawing wide lines on any workpiece/s Any writing implement for making lines on a workpiece Any sharp pointed object that can mark out lines on a metal workpiece A sharp pointed tool used to make clean narrow lines on a metal workpieces Ans. D 278. You were tasked to mark out circles and arcs on a metal workpiece. Which marking tool are you going to use?

66

Compass Divider Trammel Scriber Ans. B 279. A center punch is used to _________. Locate the centers of a round stock Make a slight indentation on a workpiece to locate the intersection of center lines Produce holes in metals Make starting mark for drill when hole are to be drilled on metal workpieces Ans. D 280. Straightedge is used for _________. Measuring long irregular shape surfaces for accuracy Checking long flat surfaces for accuracy Testing small and short flat surfaces for accuracy Checking flat and square surfaces for accuracy Ans. B

281. Clamps are used for ________. Holding small object, bending and shaping wires Joining two or more workpiece/machine parts temporarily Gripping and locking small parts together Binding and pressing two or more parts together, holding them firmly in their relative position Ans. D 282. Pliers are generally used for _________. Holding parts together while they are worked on Holding and/or positioning material while it is being worked Holding small object and cutting, bending and shaping wire Binding and pressing two or more pieces together Ans. C
67

283. You were tasked to file keyway and other smaller square or rectangular holes with 90 degrees sides. What would do to accomplish the job? Use any file to finish the job Select a suitable square file to accomplish the job Get the triangular file to the corners holes Use a bastard file to accomplish the job. Ans. B

284. You were given the task to scrape an internal curved surface and to remove the sharp edges from curved surfaces and holes. Which type/s of scrapers are you going to use? Flat scraper, half-round scraper and triangular (three-square) scraper Flat scraper and half-round scraper only Half round scraper and triangular (three-square) scraper only Half-round scraper only Ans. D 285. Which statement is NOT true regarding the proper use of chisel employing safety precautions? Remove any chisel head mushrooming by grinding becomes dangerous Wear any type of eye protection equipment against flying chips Edges cut on metal with a chisel are sharp and can cause bad cuts. Remove them by grinding or filing Hold chisel so that if you miss the hammer it will not strike the injure your hand Ans. B 286. Threading dies are used for cutting __________. Internal threads Small holes External threads Big holes Ans. C 287. What will be the most logical thing to do after identifying the hazards in your work place such as the machine shop?

68

Control the hazards Evaluate and eliminate the hazards Wear personal and protective equipment (PPE) Follow rules and regulations Ans. B 288. Why is it necessary to wear a pair of safety shoes when performing an electric arc welding operation? Because it will protect the wearer against slippages Because it can relied upon for protection against falling objects and floor obstructions Because the wearer can depend on it against sharp objects Because it can protect the wearer against excessive heat on the floor area Ans. B 289. Electric arc welding means _______. A welding terminology which means a filler metal and base metal, or base metal only, melting together to form a weld Simply that the welding is done with an arc between a covered metal electrode and the work A welding process in which the joint is heated to fusion by a large electric current To establish an arc for welding and cutting by the use of electrical current Ans. C 290. Which statement is true about the function of an electrode as an essential part of a typical arc welding circuit? It carries electric current from the power source to melt the parent metal An essential part through which the current flow s between the electrode holder and the arc The filler metal used for filling in the gap to fused metal parts together. The part of an arc welding circuit that is produced by passing an electric between two electrodes separated by a small gap. Ans. B 291. Carbon or Tungsten welding electrodes which establish the arc and maintain it without being melted are classified as ________ electrodes. Consumable Non-consumable Coated Rutile
69

Ans. B 292. The materials used to prevent, dissolve or help remove oxides or undesirerable materials from weld are called _________. Coatings Fluxes Fillers Metal cores Ans. B 293. Which statement is true regarding the difference/s between alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC)? I - AC uses transformer to lower the voltage while DC uses rectifier to elevate the current II - AC continuously vary in value and reverses its direction of flow at regular intervals while DC current flowing in one direction, from a negative pole to a positive pole III - AC cannot be sent long distances and its energy is lost along the way while DC can be sent long distances in almost all power distribution system. IV - AC flows at the same strength until it is turned off while DC flows in a variable manner. A.I only II only Both III and IV Both II and IV Ans. B 294. What is the effect of straight polarity in a given workpiece? It produces a higher electrode melting rate. It provides a wider weld surface area. It increases penetration of weld. It does not have any effect at all on the workpiece. Ans. C

295.

The fused metals at the joint is referred to as _______.

70

Joint Weld Weave Weld joint Ans. B 296. The components or the necessary parts that need to function properly when using the modern center lathe machine onboard for a smooth and effective outside threading are __________. I carriage assembly II quick change gear III end gear train a. I, II & III b. II & III c. I & II d. I & III Ans. A 297. What are the ways or systems that can easily change the speed of the center lathe machine onboard during operation? I Gears a. I & III b. I, II & III c. I & II d. II & III Ans. A 298. What kind of clothing should be worn when working in a center lathe machine? a. Coverall b. Light c. Tight d. Loose Ans. C 299. What is the best thing to do to hard and irregular form of metal object to be machined to its designed shape on a lathe machine? a. Boring b. Tempering c. Centering d. Refacing
71

II Belts

III Motors

Ans. C 300. Which of the following tools is/are commonly used on a modern center lathe machine onboard? I Facing tool II Boring tool III Cutoff tool a. II & III b. I, II & III c. I & III d. I & II And. B 301. Which of the following parts of a center lathe machine has the ability to rotate clockwise and counter clockwise for an effective operation? a. Tailstock b. Apron c. Carriage d. Chuck Ans. D 302. For a safe and effective threading operation on a lathe machine, the desired number of threads can be perfectly attained by using the_________. a. speed of chuck b. adjustment of belts c. series of gears d. angle tool bit Ans. C 303. Which of the following items below is the hardest tools tip than can endure the highest speed and have the smallest wear when used in the operation of a center lathe or electric driven shaper onboard? a. Cast alloy b. High speed steel c. Diamond d. Ceramics
72

Ans. C

304. What do you call an operation where one end the product diameter is smaller that the other end? a. Tapering b. Boring c. Drilling d. Refacing Ans. A 305. Which of the parts of the center lathe listed below is needed to turn a right head thread into a left hand thread? a. Feed screw b. Indexing dial c. Tool post d. Universal chuck Ans. A 306. A metal file has been clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file ____. a. b. c. d. steel brush card hair brush remover Ans. B

307. When using the draw file method, which of the listed types of files below will produce a fine finish? a. A double cut file b. A fine cut file c. A single cut file d. A second cut file
73

Ans. C 308. A taper shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a ____________. a. taper punch b. vice grip c. drill drift d. leather mallet Ans. C 309. The type of force that tends to move toward the center is _____________. a. centrifugal force b. rotary force c. centripetal force d. accelerated force Ans. C

310. For feed and cutting works, most modern lathes are provided with ___________. a. b. c. d. jaw chucks universal chucks quick change gear all of these choices Ans. D 311. Which angle are you looking for when center gage is used? a. b. c. d. Thread pitch Center punch Drill center 60 deg cutting tool Ans. D

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312. What do you call a procedure wherein a uniformly roughened or checkered surface is made in a lathe machine? a. b. c. d. Checkering Roughening Knurling Cross cutting Ans. C

313. Which of the following items below is another term for a lathe dog fitted with a headless screw? a. b. c. d. Fixing clamp Holding clamp Standard clamp Safety lathe dog Ans. D 314. In a lathe machine tapering attachment, the taper produced is determined by setting the ________. a. b. c. d. guide bar automatic cross angle feed tool bit angle compound rest angle Ans. A 315. To ensure that the stock remains on center in a lathe, you should use with the aid of a/an _____________. a. b. c. d. gauge block dial indicator micrometer tool bit feed Ans. B

75

316. Which of the following is gibbed to the bed and form similar to letter H? a. b. c. d. Saddle Head stock Tool post tailstock Ans. A 317. Which of the following defines the amount of the tool advanced per revolution on a lathe machine? a. b. c. d. Feed Speed Depth Gear Ans. A 318. To properly drill an oil hole in a bushing in a lathe machine, you would mount the crotch center in the ___________. a. b. c. d. universal chuck 3-jaw chuck tailstock tool post Ans. C

319. Which of the following cutting tool is commonly used on the shaper? a. Right-hand roughing b. Carbide tip c. Finishing d. Left hand Ans. A

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320. The Shaper can be used to produce either concave or convex surfaces although it was intended originally to produce only plane surfaces like ___. a. flat steel plate b. bulkhead c. door d. ball Ans. A 321. What shape or form of the metal material to be machined can the electric shaper onboard are used safely and effectively? a. Circle b. Flat c. Triangular d. Round Ans. B

322. In order to obtain an economical and efficient operation of a shaping machine, which of the following factors should be put into good use? a. Proper feed rate b. Tool selection c. Stroke adjustment d. All of these choices Ans. D 323. For the prevention of distortion or springing of the work fastened to the Shapers table, an important consideration is to tighten the clamp bolts holding the work ________________. a. no more than is necessary to hold the work firmly on the table b. very tightly to hold the work in place c. lightly to prevent breakage of the clamping unit d. and assist by holding it firmly by hand Ans. A

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324. Which of the following cuttings is/are commonly used on a shaping machine? a. b. c. d. Right-hand roughing Gooseneck Round nose All of these choices Ans. D

325. Which type of motion does a cutting tool of a shaping machine encounters in cutting a work secured in a vise? a. b. c. d. Rotary Circulate Back and forth Up and down Ans. C 326. The shapers cutting and sliding motion on the object to be machined can be adjusted by means of the ___________. a. b. c. d. feed handle speed of the stroke sharpened of the tool bit height of the object Ans. A 327. Which of the listed hand files is the best tool for carrying out a smooth finish on the metal? a. b. c. d. Mill Second cut Single cut bastard Ans. A

328. After some heavy filing, the teeth may be filled up with the metal filings and may harm your work. This condition is called ______________.
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a. b. c. d.

jamming pinning binding choking Ans. A

329. Which of the following factors may affect the efficient operation of a Shaper? a. b. c. d. expertise of the operator depth of feed speed of the stroke depth and speed Ans. D 330. What do you call a cutting tool that moves an object in a horizontal motion on a ram and it cuts the work in the forward stroke? a. b. c. d. Shaper Hacksaw Grinder Lathe Ans. A

331. Double cut file is usually employed in ___________. I. finishing II. quick removal III rough work a. b. c. d. I & II II only II & III I, II and III Ans. C 332. Which of the following types of file is used generally for finishing the work?
79

a. b. c. d.

Single cut Double cut Bastard cut all of these choices Ans. A

333. In cutting metal with a machine driven cutting tool, what is the most important factor in the cutting action? a. Pressure b. Material c. Sharpness d. Depth Ans. A

334. Which of the following statement below is NOT true for a cutting tool to give maximum production with the least amount of trouble and maintenance? a. The right kind of tool material for the purpose of the tool must be selected b. The tool must be given the correct hardening and heat-treatment. c. The tool must be applied with a deep cut d. The tool must be ground every use Ans. D 335. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied ONLY on the _____________. a. backward stroke b. forward stroke c. material being cut d. all of these choices Ans. B 336. How should the teeth of the blade for a power hacksaw be installed? a. The teeth should be pointing in accordance with the machine maker's instructions. b. The teeth should be pointing towards the motor end of the machine
80

c. The teeth pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade d. None of these choices Ans. B 337. Normally, why is a hand hacksaw blade installed in the saw frame, with the teeth pointing away from the saw handle? a. The blade will less likely to break b. Cutting fluid must flow to the material being cut c. The cutting speed is better d. Cutting pressure is most easily put on the forward stroke Ans. D 338. When sharpening any tool, the finishing cut of the grinding wheel is too rough. The use of a/an ____________is recommended. a. leather cloth b. emery cloth c. grinding compound d. oilstone Ans. D 339. The tool used in a precision work to smoothen or enlarge a slightly undersize hole, is called a/an ____________. a. b. c. d. round file flat point drill reamer drill bit Ans. C

340. What procedure below should be followed when coming to the end of a cut, using a hand hacksaw? a. Support the piece that may fall b. Reduce cutting speed and pressure c. Change to a fine cut blade d. Increase cutting speed and pressure Ans. B
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341. Which among the materials listed below is used in the manufacture of cutting tools that retains hardness at the highest temperature? a. Cemented carbide b. Ceramics c. High speed steel d. Cast alloy Ans. A 342. When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode thus getting only shallow penetration, you should ___________. a. b. c. d. use a lower current speed up your electrode travel use larger electrodes increase the amperage Ans. D

343. The temper is likely to be drawn out on the chisel edge when you _________. a. b. c. d. hold it next to a wet grinding wheel soak it in hot oil for long periods grind the cutting angle too small grind it for long period of time with much pressure Ans. D 344. What should you do with chisel that has a mushroomed head? a. b. c. d. Remove the ragged edges by grinding Do not strike the mushroomed head portion Use only right hammer blows to the chisel Knock-off the ragged edges with a hammer Ans. A

345. For mild steel and general work, the correct angle of a drill point is _______ degrees.
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a. 29 b. 118 c. 90 d. 45 Ans. B

346. Increasing the feed pressure on a drill as the drill point begins top break through the bottom of the work piece will cause the drill to ___________. a. b. c. d. break cleanly through the bottom of the work piece cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the work piece form a tapered hole in the bottom of the work piece dig into the work piece and tend to whirl around Ans. D 347. Which of the following sets compose a hand tap set? a. Taper, plug, and finish b. Taper, plug, and bottom c. Short, medium, and long d. Starting, through, and finishing Ans. B 348. Round, split dies are usually adjustable to ____________. a. Allow threading on oversized stock b. Control the diameter of thread cut c. To help start the die squarely on the round stock d. Allow threading up to a shoulder Ans. B

349. Mill files are always ___________. a. single cut

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b. double cut c. fine cut d. triple cut Ans. A 350. What is the type of milling machine cutter that is suited for surface milling, profiling, slotting and so on? a. Fly cutter b. Flitting cutter c. Rough cutter d. End mill Ans. D 351. By means of a multi-tooth rotating cutter, which of the listed power driven machine cuts metal? a. Lathe b. Milling c. Honing d. Cutting Ans. B

352. For a safe and effective metal machining, the factors in determining the right feed and cutting speed during the operation of the modern milling machine onboard are _________. I Kind of material to be machined II Machinability of the metal to be cut III Material of cutting tool to use a. I & II b. I, II & III c. II & III d. I & III Ans. B

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353. What is/are the method listed below can be used in securing a metal object during milling operation? I Special jig with clamping bolts II Secure to an angle plate III Use vise bolted to table a. I & II b. II & III c. I, II & III d. I & III Ans. C

354. Which among the types of milling machines below is the most versatile and widely used effectively in the manufacture of helical grooves to drill buts, helical gears and milling cutters? a. Horizontal b. Universal c. Plain d. Vertical Ans. B 355. Which of the metal materials that uses the highest cutting speed for an effective rough cutting in a modern milling machine? a. Carbon steel b. Milleable iron c. Bronze d. Brass Ans. D 356. In order to prevent accident and danger to the operator of a milling machine, proper precautions should be followed thereby ensuring the ______________. a. b. c. d. safe and profitable operation fast turn around of work high production of work operators employment
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Ans. A

357. When operating a milling machine, a liquid coolant should not be used with cast iron because the coolant tends to _____________. a. b. c. d. create sticky mass and clogs the cutting teeth cost more to fabricate an object make the work brittle and easy to crack make a mess on the floor Ans. A 358. Prior to operating a milling machine, it should be well-oiled and there must be an ample supply of ______________. a. b. c. d. liquid coolant in the reservoir fresh air in the area cutting tools on standby eye wash liquid in the area Ans. A 359. Proficiency in the use and care of milling machine is a necessity for an operator and he should be capable of determining the cutting tools proper __________. a. b. c. d. speed size tension rotation Ans. A

360. A type of milling machine cutter that is used to cut curved or irregular surfaces is called ___________. a. b. c. d. end mill helical cutting forward side cutting Ans. A
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361. Milling machine oil channel can be clogged with chips coming from work and may ____________. a. b. c. d. interfere with the precision-machining damage the cutting tool teeth heat up the work none of these choices Ans. A 362. Milling machine feed rate should be decreased for a better finish and if the cutter begins to produce long chips, the feed rate should be ___________. a. b. c. d. raised increased decreased stopped Ans. C

363.

Many kinds of work pieces could be produced ___________. In a milling machine than on a shaper or planer. a. b. c. d. economically faster costly slowly Ans. A

364. The purpose of supercharging the diesel engine is _________. I - to increase the power output of an engine II - to give sufficient air for the combustion III - to make it easy to overhaul a. I & II b. I & III c. II & III d. I, II & III Ans. A

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365. Which of the following will result if operator continues to operate a centrifugal bilge pump while the discharge valve is closed? a. Pump will stop. b. Relief valve will open. c. Motor will overload d. Motor will overheat. Ans. C

366. What is the function of an expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system? a. b. c. d. Eliminate addition of fresh water Cooling exhaust gases without using coolant Lower lubricating oil pressure when operating long period Allow changes of the cooling water volume due to heating or cooling Ans. D 367. Which of the following components listed below whose function is to clean air before sending it to pneumatic controllers? a. b. c. d. Air remover Dehumidifier Control air drain valve Air controller Ans. B 368. If an emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an automotive type thermostat, what will happen if it losses its charge? a. b. c. d. Open, and the coolant temperature will increase Open, and the coolant temperature will decrease Close, and the engine coolant temperature will increase Close, but with no effect in coolant temperature Ans. B 369. In large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines, piston ring groove wear usually occurs at the ____________. a. top of the ring groove b. back of the ring groove
88

c. bottom of the ring groove d. none of these choices Ans. C 370. Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should always ___________. a. b. c. d. close control air supply allow the boiler to cool completely put all safety interlock switches to standby mode close all manually operated fuel valves

Ans. D 371. Which of the following is used extensively to lubricate rolling contact bearings? a. b. c. d. Grease Petroleum jelly Bearing oil Roller oil Ans. A

372. An air-compressor can be unloaded at start-up by ___________. a. b. c. d. relieving the intercooler pressure to the atmosphere holding the discharge valve open using an enlarged, permanently opened expansion space a pre-charged accumulator Ans. A 373. One boiler of a 2-boiler plant has ruptured a tube and the water cannot be maintained in sight in the gage glass. After securing the fires, your next action should be to _____________. a. repair the damaged tube b. open the steam drum air vent c. increase load on the remaining running boiler d. close the boiler main steam stop valve Ans. D
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374. Vapor is produced in a fresh water evaporator by introducing ____________. a. b. c. d. heated water in a high pressure area steam through cooling coils heated water in a low pressure area sea water and heated water in a vacuum container Ans. D

375. In a diesel engine cooling water system, the expansion tank is connected to the ____________. a. b. c. d. none of these choices freshwater pump suction freshwater pump discharge high pressure water pump suction Ans. B 376. Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools can be avoided if the operators will _______. I - always use new equipments II - use color coded hose only III - inspect hoses for cracks and other defects IV - bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connections a. I & III only b. II & IV only c. I and II only d. III and IV only Ans. D 377. What is the use of a hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch? a. It is used to cut any type of metal b. It is used to cut soft iron such as brass rods c. It is used to cut any type of tubings d. It is used to cut iron such as stainless steel Ans. B

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378. Assume that impeller diameter, width, and speed are identical, which of the following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity? a. A multi-stage straight vane impeller b. A single-stage curved vane impeller c. A multi-stage curved vane impeller d. None of these choices Ans. C 379. When an engine will not start on air, which of the following maybe the cause of the problem? a. b. c. d. Stop valves between air reservoirs and engine are open Starting air distributor valves are not properly lubricated The turning gear is engaged Telegraph lever in wrong command Ans. C 380. Which of the items listed below is normally describe a ventilating fan? a. b. c. d. Rotary vane Axial flow Positive displacement Centrifugal Ans. B

381. If the fresh water jacket cooling spaces of generator engine has plenty of scales, the most possible cause is _____________. a. high ph value b. idled for long period c. low water temperature d. low water pressure Ans. C 382. Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will _____________. a. cause high load current b. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland
91

c. cause damage in the stuffing box d. reduce pumping rate Ans. B 383. What is the reason why condensate must be removed from the intercooler and after cooler in an air compressor? a. Water causes erratic operation in pneumatic components b. The volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains in it c. A danger of explosion is possible if water is present in the compressor d. It affects the compressor cooling effect Ans. A

384. Which of the following fresh water generator components is/are used for boiling the seawater? I Boiler II Evaporator III - Condenser a. I, II & III b. II & III c. I & II d. I & III Ans. B 385. The temperature of the refrigerant is highest just before it enters the __________. a. frosting region b. evaporator c. condenser d. gage pressure Ans. C 386. Sensible heat can be possibly measured with the use of a/an __________. a. b. c. d. thermometer anemometer barometer colloids Ans. A
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387. A perfect vacuum is represented by _________. a. 30 in. Hg b. 25 in. Hg c. 15 in. Hg d. 10 in. Hg Ans. A 388. The purpose of an exhaust pyrometer is to determine the __________________. a. b. c. d. exhaust temperature cylinder loads engine temperature firing temperature Ans. A 389. A shortage of refrigerant in the refrigeration system is indicated by ___________. a. the compressor short cycling b. high head pressure c. high suction pressure d. bubbles in the sight glass Ans. D 390. The type of pump that is usually used to transfer engine room bilges is the ____________. a. reciprocating b. rotary c. vane d. centrifugal Ans. A 391. Purging air from a hydraulic oil system is necessary when _________. a. system has been overheated b. adding small amount of oil to the system
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c. system has been idle for a long period d. system has been drained and filled with new oil Ans. D 392. When there is a leak in a freon system, the flame color of the halide torch will turn to ___________. a. red b. violet c. gray d. green Ans. D 393. In a freon system, the filter direr is filled with ___________. a. activated alumina b. activated chloride c. sodium nitrate d. sodium compound Ans. A

394.

Which factor tends to increase scale formation at the salt-water side of the heat exchanger? a. operating the engine with a high seawater outlet temperature b. leaks in the cooler tube nest c. baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal d. punctured seawater strainer supplying cooling water to the heat exchanger Ans. A

395. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel engine to have __________. a. higher firing pressure b. more power output c. lower fuel pressure d. less power output
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Ans. D 396. While overhauling a jerk-type pump and you must replace the pump plunger, what other part must also be replaced? a. delivery check valve b. pump barrel c. pipe to the injector d. fuel nozzle Ans. B

397. FAULTY operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be caused by ______. a. b. c. d. water in the fuel oil supply excessive fuel nozzle cooling a distorted fuel spray pattern leakage past the plunger into the oil rain Ans. A 398. Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by __________. a. b. c. d. fuel oil pressure a cam operated follower a spring loaded pressure plate timing gears keyed to the crankshaft Ans. A 399. In a diesel engine, the fuel consumption is expressed in _____________. a. b. c. d. grams per horsepower per hour tons per day liters per horsepower per hour kiloliters per day Ans. A

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400. Which part is common to both diesel and gasoline engines? a. Piston b. Carburetor c. Injector d. Distributor Ans. A 401. The oil scraper ring of a 4-stroke engine piston is installed at the __________. a. top ring b. lowest ring c. 2nd ring d. 3rd ring Ans. B 402. In refrigeration, what type of compressor is used where the driving motor is sealed in a dome? a. reciprocating b. air c. hermetic d. rotary Ans. C

403. Having high exhaust temperatures would affect the __________: a. efficiency of the engine b. speed of the turbocharger c. high temperature of air receiver d. fuel consumption of the engine Ans. A 404. A light brown haze color of the smoke coming out from the stack is an indication of ___________.
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a. proper combustion b. no supply of air c. lost compression d. delayed ignition Ans. A 405. The shaft coupling for the gear pump is prevented from rotating on the shaft by a _________. a. key b. set screw c. universal fittings d. lock nut Ans. A

406. Which of the valves listed below permits its flow in only one direction? a. b. c. d. Globe bulb Check valve Gate valve Plug cock Ans. B 407. What part of a refrigeration system reduces the pressure of a liquid refrigerant? a. Expansion valve b. Liquid receiver c. Tube condenser d. Reefer compressor Ans. A 408. In air conditioning system, which part of the system where the refrigerant begins to boil and flash into gas? a. Evaporator b. Condenser c. Compressor
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d. Receiver Ans. A

409. To prevent fire inside scavenge air spaces in marine diesel engines, it is important that it should be occasionally ___________. a. drained b. oiled c. watered d. steamed Ans. A 410. What part of an engine that transmits the reciprocating motion of the piston to the driven unit in the form of rotary motion? a. camshaft b. tail shaft c. propeller shaft d. crankshaft Ans. D 411. One horsepower is equal to ___________. a. 955 ft-lb b. 778 ft-lb c. 746 watts d. 270 ft-lb/min Ans. C

412. Two hundred twelve degrees Fahrenheit is equal to __________. a. 75 C

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b. 100 C c. 25 C d. 0 C Ans. B 413. Dirty condenser in a refrigeration system would indicate ___________. a. emulsifying b. flooding c. high pressure discharge d. drifting Ans. C 414. Which of the following is used as moisture arrester and dryer in the refrigeration system? a. Silica gel b. Compressor c. Drain valve d. Bimetallic thermostat control Ans. A

415. Humidity is the measure of the __________. a. water vapor content b. dry-bulb temperature c. efficiency of cooling d. fluidity of the refrigerant Ans. A
416.

The type of heat exchanger that has gained great advantage in terms of specific output in a turbo-changed diesel engine is _______________. a. plate type heat exchanger b. shell-and-tube type heat exchanger c. charge air cooler
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d. single-cut file Ans. C

417.

The functional difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke cycle engine is in the number of ________. a. piston stroke needed to one complete revolution b. piston stroke needed to complete a combustion cycle c. strokes in each combustion event d. combustion event occurring in each stroke Ans. B

418. Which turbocharger component increases air density and helps improve engine-operating efficiency? a. compressor b. impeller c. exhaust diffuser d. air cooler Ans. D 419. Which of these bearings listed below is preferred by makers for use in the engine room supply blowers? a. Ball b. Roller c. Sleeve d. Thrust Ans. A
420.

A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector would be caused by ___. a. increase in engine speed b. increase in cylinder turbulence c. leaking needle valve d. reducing cylinder turbulence Ans. C
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421. A DEFECTIVE nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause _________. I - engine power loss II - smoke due to unburned fuel III - high exhaust temperature reading a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II, and III Ans. D 422. Fuel oil to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the __________. a. turbocharger b. injector nozzle tip c. carburetor d. fuel oil pump Ans. B 423. Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system having individual plunger-type pumps __________. a. b. c. d. changes the position of the fuel inlet ports changes the length of the pump stroke varies the quantity of fuel delivered varies the compression of the delivery valve spring Ans. C

424. What causes hizzing sound during the operation of a heavy fuel oil transfer pump? a. Low suction temperature b. High suction temperature c. Defective relief valve d. Defective suction valve Ans. A
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425. What is the main reason why the pressure of water in the domestic water service faucet aboardship is low? a. Hydrophore tank valve close b. Hydrophore tank full c. Pump delivery pressure low d. Return line shut Ans. B 426. What is the proper pH value to be maintained on diesel engine F.W. jacket cooling water in order to avoid scale formation and corrosions? a. 4-7 b. 8-11 c. 12-15 d. 16-19 Ans. B OR a. 7 April b. 11 August c. 15 December d. 08 October

427.

What is the ideal temperature in C to be maintained in air trunk of diesel engines to maximize air to cylinder and avoid condensation? a. 30-35 b. 35-40 c. 41-45 d. 46-50 Ans. C

428. In a tank or compartment that is not gas free, the only portable electric equipment permitted is a lamp that is ____________. a. approved explosion proof, self contained & battery operated b. lamp that is easy to replace c. made of tungsten d. made of light emitting diode Ans. A 429. International Regulations require watertight doors in cargo vessels to be _________.
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a. b. c. d.

pneumatically operated only for opening hydraulically powered only for closing tested at each inspection for certification tested within 24 hours before entering port Ans. C

430. Which of the items listed below is a planned and formalized activity to verify and improve the General Management System suitability and effectiveness at regular intervals? a. b. c. d. Master's Management Review Chief Officer Quarterly Review ISO 2000 system Chief Officer Safety Plan Ans. A 431. According to International Regulations, lamps, paints, and oil lockers and similar compartments shall ____________. a. b. c. d. suitably insulated from wood works be constructed of steel or shall be wholly lined with metal shall not be situated in a corridor be fitted with hand rails and wooden pallets Ans. B 432. When a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a smallenclosed space, what danger awaits the crew if they are exposed? a. Frost bites b. Zero visibility c. Suffocation d. Eye irritation Ans. C

433. Before you commence using the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish a serious fire, you should ___________. a. activate the fire alarm b. request permission from Master c. evacuate all engine personnel
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d. turn off electrical power Ans. C

434.

Where should the Muster lists to be posted?

*NOTE: 3 Possible answers 1. Engine room 2. Navigating bridge 3. Crew Accommodation Space

a. In crews recreation space b. In each alleyway c. On the navigating bridge d. In the emergency equipment room Ans. C

435. In which of the following areas where a fire resulting from spontaneous combustion most likely to occur? a. b. c. d. Laundry room Galley exhaust duct Engine workshop gas welding room Paint locker Ans. D

436. Who will decide the watch keeping arrangements and the make up of watch on the engine department? a. b. c. d. Master Technical director Chief engineer STCW 95 Ans. C 437. The usual symptom/s of cavitations in a centrifugal pump is/are _____ a. noise and vibration b. an increase in pump casing temperature c. an increase in suction pressure d. a decrease in discharge pressure Ans. A

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438. Scavenging trunks are more prone to fire because they are ________. a. b. c. d. located below the cylinder always over pressure accumulating oily substance recipient of fresh air Ans. C

439. Which of the following marine inspection would require the officer in-charge to be notified? a. b. c. d. Renewal of steel plates Vessel being placed in drydock Oil transfer operation None of these choices Ans. B 440. Upon completion of bunkering operation, these bunkering hoses should be ____. a. plugged to eliminate leakage b. stowed with their ends open for venting c. drained into drip pans or tanks d. stowed to its proper location Ans. C 441. Which of the fire fighting agents listed below is NOT suitable for fighting liquid paint fire? a. b. c. d. Dry chemicals Foam Water Carbon dioxide Ans. C

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442. Prior to bunkering operation from the shore side facility, what should be determined in order that all the requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer? a. Checklist before oil transfer operation has been completed b. Determine if the Coast Guard of the port has inspected the vessel and bunker facility c. Determine if the bunker facility was inspected by the designated person incharge of the vessel and vice versa d. Determine if the vessel and bunker facility are jointly inspected by their respective designated person in-charge Ans. A 443. All of the following items listed below are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT ____. a. b. c. d. combustibles oxygen heat conduction Ans. D 444. A class C fire would most likely to occur in the __________. a. b. c. d. electrical motor waste rag fire in engine room main switchboard laundry room

Ans. C 445. The signal given to begin lowering the lifeboat is _____________. a. three short blasts of the ship's whistle b. one short blast of the ships whistle c. three long blasts of the ship's whistle d. one long blast of the ship's whistle Ans. B 446. Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard any vessel should include ___.
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I - posting a fire watch in the immediate area II - providing an extinguisher that is ready for immediate use III - requiring the fire watch to leave his post immediately after completion of welding or burning IV - running of emergency fire pump until the completion of welding or burning a. I only b. II only c. I, II and III only d. III and IV only Ans. C

447. International Regulations require tank sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels to be located in which of the listed spaces below? a. b. c. d. Engine room Laundry rooms Crew lounge Aft deck Ans. A 448. Which of the following personnel reports to the chief officer but directs the deck seaman, pumpman and multi-purpose crew assigned to deck service? a. b. c. d. AB OS 3rd officer Bosun Ans. D 449. Which extinguishing agent is the BEST for fighting electrical fires? a. Foam
107

b. Water fog c. Dry chemicals d. Halon Ans. D

450. A segregated ballast system is a system where __________. a. all ballast is processed through the oily water separator b. ballast tank is isolated from oil tank c. ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams d. all ballast lines, tanks and pumps are independent of those used for oil Ans. D 451. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, the precaution should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an _____________. a. orsat apparatus b. flame safety lamp c. halide torch d. combustible gas apparatus Ans. D 452. Before the sea gets rough, it is a good safety practice to ___________. a. b. c d. secure loose gear move quickly about the ship inform your fellow seafarers carry out inspection Ans. A

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453. On the muster list ("Station Bill"), you find: Three (3) short blasts on the whistle and three (3) short rings on the general alarm bells. This signal is for _______________. a. lower lifeboat b. end of emergency drills c. fire and emergency d. man overboard Ans. B 454. Engine room bilge water can be pumped out overboard safely by the use of which equipment listed below? a. Foam type filter b. Oil separator c. Fine mesh filter d. Oil purifier Ans. B 455. What physical or chemical property of fuel oil that greatly affects the good efficiency of the pump during the transfer of fuel oil from one tank to the other? a. Viscosity b. Pour point c. Density d. Flash point Ans. A

456. Which personal equipment is NOT included in the firemans outfit being used onboard the vessel? a. Life jacket b. Protective helmet c. Fire axe d. Protective clothing Ans. A 457. What kind of tank is being used onboard that collects the dirty water from basins and sinks when the vessel is in port so that water pollution can be prevented?
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a. Drain b. Sewage c. Bilge d. Sludge Ans. B 458. What procedure must be made before making repairs on the evaporator of a refrigeration system? a. b. c. d. Pump the refrigerant from the system to a clean empty drum Drain the system through the purge valve connection Exhaust the refrigerant to the atmosphere Pump the refrigerant to the receiver Ans. D

459. When there is excessive formation of frost in the evaporator coils it will ____. a. b. c. d. keep compartment cooler lessen load on compressor reduce efficiency of refrigerating plant system in normal condition Ans. C 460. Excessive vibrations created by the main propulsion machinery are detrimental to the _________ equipment. a. galley b. electronic c. cabin d. navigation Ans. D 461. When maintenance is undertaken at sea, the engine personnel shall take precaution to ______. a. sudden roll of the ship b. ballast the tanks c. fill fuel service tank d. empty the bilges Ans. A
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462. When an area is made slippery by snow during bunkering and fixing the hose connection on deck, what material should be spread over the snow? a. Pebble b. Sand c. Gravel d. Stone Ans. B 463. Without the permission of the master and chief engineer officer, no console alarms should be ____________. a. b. c. d. acknowledged isolated switched tested Ans. B 464. Which of the following items listed below are fire hazards in the machinery spaces? I. Warm water in the cascade tank II. Arc welding activity at the lowest flat III. Exposed exhaust manifold a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II and III Ans. B 465. Which of these areas is considered an enclosed space? a. Cofferdam b. Machinery c. Battery d. Generator
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Ans. A 466. Where is the safest place to do hot work in the engine room? a. Purifier room b. Electrical shop c. Boiler room d. Work shop Ans. D 467. Which of the following practices should be avoided to minimize fire hazard? a. b. c. d. Smoking near the burner front Smoking in the machine shop Stowing oily rags in a paint locker Stowing portable acetylene bottles in the vertical position Ans. C

468. When using a chisel or similar tool, you should ___________. a. wear gloves b. hold the tool lightly c. be certain it is non-sparking type d. wear safety goggles Ans. D 469. When an engineer on duty is inspecting an UMS-mode operated engine room at night, what precaution should be taken? a. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode b. Switch the engineers call alarm to notify other engineers c. Do not silence the alarm so the other engineer can hear d. Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the control room Ans. D 470. What material does a zinc anode protects?
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a. Iron b. Bronze c. Aluminum d. Brass Ans. A

471. What is the minimum standard rest of a rating forming part of an engineering watch within a 24-hour period? a. 12 hours b. 10 hours c. 8 hours d. 6 hours Ans. B 472. During relieving time, the outgoing officer in charge of the engineering watch should ___________. a. check that the reliever is capable to carry out watch keeping duties b. stop the bilge pump before relieving time c. hand over the main engine console d. leave the engine room immediately Ans. A 473. To prevent the spread of fire by convection, you should ____________. a. b. c. d. cool the bulkhead around the fire remove combustibles from direct exposure close all openings to the area shut off all electrical power Ans. C

474. A diesel engine fuel leak in high-pressure fuel pipe between the injection pump and fuel nozzle needs immediate repair because of the __________.
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a. high cost of fuel b. serious fire hazard c. possibility of pollution d. poor combustion will occur in that cylinder Ans. B 475. The proper storage of oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be ________. a. b. c. d. upright with the cylinder caps off upright with the cylinder caps screwed on horizontal with the cylinder caps off horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on Ans. B 476. An incinerator is a waste disposal unit that will burn ______________. a. b. c. d. liquid material solid material and all types of liquid waste gases solid material Ans. B

477. The purpose of shielding the fuel oil high-pressure injection pipe between the injection pump and injector is to prevent __________ hazard. a. flood b. injury c. fire d. accident Ans. C 478. Heating the oil makes the oil____________. a. less viscous b. extremely viscous c. frictionless d. easy to store
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Ans. A 479. The process of killing the harmful bacteria from the water so as to make it safe for use is called ____________. a. sterilization b. disinfection c. filtration d. carbonization Ans. B

480. Which of the following conditions is indicative of the oil flowing through a lube oil gravity tank bulls eye? a. b. c. d. Excessive oil is stored in a gravity tank Turbine bearing failure has occurred Insufficient oil is being pumped to the gravity tank Sufficient oil flow is being supplied to the gravity tank Ans. D 481. What type of electric light fittings is used in oil tanker pump room? a. Shock proof b. Water proof c. Flame proof d. Acid proof Ans. C 482. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to ___________. a. flood the burn with water for two minutes b. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area c. cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility d. apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth Ans. C

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483. If there is a fire inside the engine room, where does a running fuel oil service pump be switched off? a. b. c. d. Accessible place outside the engine room Switch at the CO2 room At the emergency generator room From the oxy/acetylene room Ans. A 484. When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is LOWER THAN that specified by the engine manufacturer, the effect would be a/an_________. a. b. c. d. delay in the start of injection reduction in the duration of injection decrease in the quantity of fuel injected increase in quantity of fuel injected Ans. D 485. What could be the main cause why a crew fell while working aloft? a. No safety belt b. No safety helmet c. Broken bosun chair d. Broken slings Ans. A

486. What is lowest oxygen content in percent of oxygen where a crew can work safely inside enclosed spaces? a. 19 b. 20 c. 21 d. 22 487. An advantage of aluminum piston when compared to cast iron piston is ___________? A. greater high temperature strength
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B. better heat conductivity C. greater weight per cubic inch D. increased resistance to wear Ans. B 488. The service life of worn aluminum piston, with no spare available can be extended by ___? A. turning down the piston skirt to concentric values B. building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then remachining C. knurling the piston skirt surface D. increasing the dimension of the ring land grooves Ans. C

489. Cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminum piston and the cylinder liner is about ___? A. twice as large as with a cast iron piston B. the same size as with a cast iron piston C. half as large as with a cast iron piston D. the same size as the crown of an aluminum piston Ans. A 490. Cast iron piston are constructed with ________________? A. no taper what so ever B. the crown being tapered and smaller than the skirt C. the skirt being tapered and smaller than the crown D. the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown Ans. B 491. A measurement of 0.625 is equal to ________________? A. inch B. 9/16 inch C. inch D. 5/8 inch
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Ans. D 492. The term 5/16 24 is describe ______________? A. steel plate gauge size and thickness B. bearing puller size C. machine bolt size and threads per inch D. cutting torch tip size Ans. C 493. What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw describe as - 13 NC 2? A. 2 B. 2-Jan C. 13 D. NC Ans. A 494. A tap marked 1/4 inch 20 will cut a thread ____________? A. inch long having a total of 20 threads B. 1/20 of an inch long inch in diameter C. a total of 20 threads with a pitch of inch D. inch in diameter wit a pitch of 20 threads per inch Ans. D 495. Fire main outlet valves or hydrants shall be installed _________? A. pointing downward or horizontal to prevent kinking of the fire hose B. in screened enclosure in all passageway C. where they are protected from the weather D. in a protected location to prevent cargo damage Ans. A

496. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal, in order to _____? A. avoid kinking of the fire hose B. avoid personal injury during connection C. make connecting easier
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D. prevent spray on electrical equipment Ans. A 497. A wrench that completely surrounds a nut or bolt head is a ____________? A. adjustable wrench B. tappet wrench C. opened wrench D. box wrench Ans. D 498. When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is ________? A. read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench B. indicated by an audible click C. read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench D. indicated by a release or break of the handle Ans. C

499. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _________? A. chain pipe wrench B. monkey wrench C. basin wrench D. strong back Ans. A 500. A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on __________? A. hexagonal objects B. square objects C. round objects D. flat objects Ans. C 501. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when ________.
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A. the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting B. a maximum pull is exerted with one hand C. an extension is placed on the wrench handle D. The bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth Ans. D

502. Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________. A. allow it to be used as a pry bar B. prevent the shank from bending C. Allow turning with a wrench D. permit striking with a hammer Ans. C 503. Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force open a valve frozen in positioning by using a wrench on the handwheel? A. Over compression of the packing B. Rapid corrosion of the valve disc C. Bending of the valve stem D. Cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve Ans. C 504. A hacksaw blade is normally pointed in the saw frame with the _________. A. maximum possible tension on the blade B. teeth pointing away from the handle C. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting width D. teeth angled toward the saw handle Ans. B

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505. For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the proper hacksaw blade should have __________. A. 32 teeth per inch B. the teeth pointing towards the handle C. the blade and teeth of all-hand quality D. 14 teeth per inch Ans. A 506. Copper tubing is best with a _________. A. hand hacksaw B. tubing cutter C. pipe cutter D. flare cutter Ans. B 507. To cut iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch? A. 4 B. 18 C. 32 D. 24 Ans. D

508. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you __________. A. applying maximum pressure at the start of the cut B. coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut C. turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame D. File a nick where the cut is to be started Ans. D

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509. The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth _________. A. pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine B. pointing away from the motor end of the machine C. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade D. Pointing toward the motor end of the machine Ans. D 510. Fir cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw blade should have ______. A. 14 teeth per inch B. 18 teeth per inch C. 24 teeth per inch D. 32 teeth per inch Ans. A 511. Which of the saw blades listed, when mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, can be used to cut an intricate shape with precision, will cut on both the forward and reverse strokes and cut smoothly through a metal file? A. hardened B. rod C. dull D. flexible Ans. B 512. A saw blade produced of bonded tungsten-carbide particles and mounted in a hacksaw frame is known as a _________. A. wave set blade B. Rod saw blade C. hardened blade D. flexible blade Ans. B 513. To cut drill rod, light angle iron, or tool steel with a hand hacksaw, it is best to use a blade with __________. A. 14 teeth per inch B. 18 teeth per inch
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C. 24 teeth per inch D. 32 teeth per inch Ans. B

514. Which of the saw listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters or flush to a surface where a hand held hacksaw frame could not be used? A. coping saw B. Stab saw C. back saw D. hole saw Ans. B 515. Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short sections of teeth in opposites directions? A. alternate B. rake C. double alternate D. Wave Ans. D 516. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are continuously staggered with one to the left and one to the right known as __________. A. Alternate B. double alternate C. raker D. wave Ans. A

517. The term referring to the amount or degree the teeth of a hacksaw blade are pushed out or canted from the blade center is known as _________. A. Set B. pitch
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C. choke D. blade cut Ans. A 518. Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per minute while using a hand held hacksaw will generally ______________. A. sharpen the blade B. cause the blade to cut faster C. Dull the blade D. not change how the blade cuts Ans. C 519. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where every third tooth remains straights, while the other two are alternately set is known as _______. A. alternate B. double alternate C. raker D. wave Ans. C

520. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth are staggered to the right, then the two to the left, and continue to alternate in this manner is known as _______. A. alternate B. Double alternate C. raker D. wave Ans. B 521. The piston full floating wrist pin is prevented from contacting the cylinder walls by ___?

A. piston relief groove B. piston pin cup

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C. snap ring D. bronze bushing Ans. C 522. The term describe the piston pin having a surfaces in both the piston bosses and connecting rod eye _________.

A. stationary B. full floating C. semi-floating D. free rolling Ans. B

523. The type of wrist pin which uses bearing in the piston bosses, but is fixed to the small end of the connecting rod ________.

A. semi floating B. full floating C. solid D. fixed Ans. A 524. The main purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of auxiliary boiler is to _______.

A. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels B. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss C. direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer casings, to maintain a pressure seal D. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank
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Ans. B 525. Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boiler are protected from direct heat of hot gas by ________.

A. refractory and insulation B. several rows of screen tubes C. steel baffles D. water wall tubes Ans. A 526. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes?

A. chilled water system supply temperature B. chilled water system return temperature C. compressor discharge temperature D. compressor suction pressure Ans. A 527. When operating the oily-water separator, why is it necessary to avoid detergents mixing with the bilge water?

A. The detergent will aggitate within the separator and cause it to explose B. The detergent will damage the special protective coating in the inside of the unit C. The detergents may cause the oil and water to become an emulsion which this unit is not capable of separating D. The detergent will foam causing the main bilge pump to become airbound
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Ans. C

528. Under what conditions would the oily-water separator system illustrated fail to effectively process a mixture of oily-water?

A. When the oily-water mixture is an emulsion the effectiveness of the separator is greatly reduced B. Without detergents the effectiveness of the separator is greatly reduced C. When there are small air leaks in the discharge piping, the effectiveness of the separator will greatly reduced D. When the oily-water separator is in the process mode it will effectively handle emulsions Ans. A 529. Validity of work permit in an enclosed space is _________?

A. 12 hours B. 1 hour C. 6 hours D. 18 hours Ans. A 530. As the pH of the boiler water approaches zero, the water becomes increasingly ________.

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A. soft B. alkaline C. neutral D. Acidic Ans. D 531. The amount of sodium phosphate in treated boiler water can be measured by a/an ___.

A. alkalinity test B. Phosphate test C. chloride test D. sodium phosphorous test Ans. B 532. A test of boiler water for chloride content indicates the amount of ______.

A. suspended matter present B. dissolved gases present C. Seawater contamination present D. all of the above Ans. C 533. Any feedwater testing done on a routine basis would normally include testing for ______.

A. Chloride B. phosphate C. electrical conductivity (total dissolved solids) D. all of the above

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Ans. A

534. Testing boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of ________.

A. total alkalinity in the water B. phosphates present in the water C. methyl orange that should be added D. Dissolved salts from sea contamination

Ans. D

535. Boiler water samples should be circulated through a cooling coil prior to analysis because _______.

A. This keeps the water from flashing into steam as it is drawn from the higher pressure of the boiler to the lower pressure of the fireroom B. it reduces the amount of suspended matter that frequently finds its way into the dead end lines C. the cool sample has a higher conductivity measurement and the total dissolved solids in the water are easier to identify

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D. the degree of acidity as measured on the pH recorded is amplified by cool water temperatures

Ans. A

536. The end product of reactions occurring when boiler water is chemically treated, remain in the boiler and increase the need for _______.

A. acid cleaning B. makeup feed C. boiler blowdown D. waterside corrosion treatment

Ans. C

537. If a routine boiler water test indicates high salinity, you should blowdown the boiler to reduce salinity and the ________.

A. add carbonates to control sludging B. treat the boiler water with phosphates C. reduce the firing rate to prevent scaling D. increase the firing rate to prevent foaming

Ans. B

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538. Phosphates are used in the chemical treatment of boiler water to ______.

A. control alkalinity and neutralize vanadium B. convert scale forming salts to relatively harmless sludge C. neutralize the harmful effects of hydrogen embrittlement D. decrease dissolved oxygen content

Ans. B

539. The concentration of total dissolved solids in boiler water could increase as a result of ______.

A. infrequent bottom blows B. zero water hardness C. dissolved oxygen deaeration D. priming and carryover

Ans. A

540. Scale prevention in boiler water is accomplished by adding treatment chemicals to ______.

A. precipitate scale forming salts as sludge B. solidify the scale as powder C. Increase boiler water acidity D. cause the water to be neutral

Ans. A

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541. High salinity can be reduced in a steaming boiler by adding caustic soda, phosphate, and then _______.

A. using the continuous blowdown B. steaming at a low firing rate for 24 hours C. adding hydrazine to control dissolved oxygen D. adding calcium carbonate to precipitate solids

Ans. A

542. Dissolved oxygen can be removed from the boiler water by _________.

A. frequent surface and bottom blows B. dumping and refilling the boiler weekly C. passing the water through obsorbent filters D. treating the water with chemical scavengers

Ans. D

543. The most troublesome corrosive substances in boiler water are oxygen and ________.

A. hydrogen sulfide B. sulfur dioxide

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C. carbon dioxide D. ammonia

Ans. C

544. Chemicals are added to boiler feedwater to ________.

A. reduce the frequency of blowdowns B. prevent precipitation of sludge C. retard heat transfer D. prevent oxygen corrosion

Ans. D

545. Chemicals are added to boiler water by injecting them ________.

A. as a powder into the mud drum B. as a powder into the steam drum C. insolution into the main feed line D. in solution through the chemical feed pipe

Ans. D

546. Which of the following precautions should be observed when adding treatment chemicals to the boiler compound tank?
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A. Cool the feedwater before it enters the tank B. Ensure there is no pressure on the tank before opening it C. Raise the boiler water level before adding chemicals D. All of the above

Ans. B

547. Treatment of boiler feedwater for the control of hardness is necessary to prevent ______.

A. excessive feedwater alkalinity B. foaming C. carryover D. waterside scale deposits

Ans. D

548. Chemicals are added to boiler water to ________.

A. eliminate the need for blowdown B. stabilize feedwater if a boiler becomes salted up C. prevent scale forming deposits D. maintain on acidic condition in the feedwater

Ans. C

549. What is the purpose of chemically treating boiler water?

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A. To reduce formation of scale on the waterside of the boiler B. To reduce to a minimum corrosion of boiler metal C. To reduce foaming and moisture carryover D. All of the above

Ans. D

550. Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs?

a. More fuel efficient b. More flexible c. Lighter d. Less maintenance

Ans. B

551. If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment of the diesel engine, the cause maybe?

a. Excess valve clearance b. Stuck valve

c.

Broken valve stem

d. All of the above

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Ans. D

552. If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment of the diesel engine, the cause maybe?

a. Excess valve clearance b. Worn valve seat c. Tight rocker arm d. Weak rocker arm

Ans. A

553. How many ton is a 24,000 BTU? (One Refrigeration ton = 12,000 BTU/hr)

a. 1 ton b. 2 ton c. 3 ton d. 4 ton

Ans. B

554. 70% of the body is ________.

a. Blood b. Water
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c. Tissue d. Bone

Ans. B

555. What is the function of the blower type crankcase ventilation system on some diesel engines?

a. Prevents accumulation of combustible gas b. Improves cold weather starting c. Increase the sludge forming ability of the lube oil d. Improves lube oil cooling

Ans. A

556. If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently while the engine is running, the cause maybe an _______.

a. Excessively late injection b. Incorrectly adjust fuel injector c. Incorrectly adjust intake valve timing d. Incorrectly adjust intake valve clearance

Ans. B

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557. Which of the listed parts in a lobe-type rotary pump to reduce the wear of the lobe wedges?

a.

Replaceable Gibs

b. Spur gear c. Liner plates d. Casing gear

Ans. A

558. Respiratory heat is a term applied primarily to which of the following cargoes?

a. Fresh vegetables b. Meat c. Frozen vegetables d. All of the above

Ans. A

559. If you notice smoke coming from crankcase exhaust fan outlet of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect that _______.

a. A crack cylinder liner b. Clogged intake port c. A broken piston rings d. A faulty head gasket

Ans. C

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560. The tube sheet is usually installed in a fire tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by?

a. Girder stays b. Fire tube and stay tubes c. External boiler plating d. Separate crown sheet

Ans. B

561. A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapor is noted in the exhaust, this indicate _______.

a. Excessive cylinder lubrication b. A lugging engine c. A leaking cylinder liner d. Overloading of one cylinder

Ans. C

562. Which of the following electric motors would be the safest and most reliable to use on the main deck of a vessel foul in weather conditions?

A. Sealed motor B. Drip proof motor

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C. Enclosed motor D. Watertight motor Ans. D

563. Which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electrical brake?

A. The brake will be set by spring B. The motor will overspeed and burn up C. The load suspended from the cargo boom will fall D. Nothing will happen, the winch will continue to operate as usual Ans. A 564. How much heat can a 5 ton refrigeration unit remove from a refrigerated space?

A. 60,000 BTU/HR B. 80,000 BTU/HR C. 100,000 BTU/HR D. 120,000 BTU/HR Ans. A 565. If a refrigeration system extracted 48,000 BTU per hour, the equivalent tonnage of the unit would be ______.

A. 2 tons B. 4 tons C. 6 tons D. 8 tons Ans. B

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566. The function of screen tube is to protect the _________.

A. superheater B. refractory C. steam drum D. water wall

Ans. A

567. The advantage of installing water wall tubes in a boiler furnace is to _____.

A. increase the flow of gases through the furnace B. decrease the flow of gases through the furnace C. increase heat transfer to the mud drum D. permit higher combustion rate

Ans. D 568. One advantage of installing water wall take in a boiler furnace is to _____.

A. Increase furnace size B. Reduce furnace temperature C. Decrease refractory maintenance D. Reduce combustion rates

Ans. C

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569. If a diesel engine fails to start, one of the likely cause is _________________. a. b. c. d. low compression temperature low ambient air pressure high lube oil pump pressure high fuel oil booster pump pressure

Ans. A 570. What could be the cause of inadequate starting speed during the cranking of a cold diesel engine. a. b. c. d. high lube oil viscosity low lube oil viscosity late fuel injection early fuel injection

Ans. A 571. Which of the statement describe the correct procedure for closing a watertight door. a. Loosely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinge, snugly set up two dogs on the hinge side, then evenly set up all remaining dogs b. Loosely set up two dogs adjacent to the hinges, snugly set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges then evenly set up all the remaining dogs c. Snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs d. Loosely set up one dog on the hinge side, snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs Ans. A 572. One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the _____________. a. lower thermal expansion rates than wet liners b. greater heat transfer rate than wet liners c. greater wear resistance than wet liners
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d. procedure to replace dry liners is simple than wet liners Ans. D 573. One of the advantages in the use of dry liner over a wet liner is _________________. a. it is fitted with neoprene Oring seals b. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film c. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion space d. it fits more loosely due to the decrease in heat transfer through the composite wall Ans. C 574. Which of the following instrument can be use to measure the rate of airflow ________. a. b. c. d. Anemometer Thermometer Psychometer Aerometer

Ans. A

575. The temperature of fuel oil in a storage tank before pumping is ________. Ans. 40-45oC 576. Carbon dioxide formed by improper chemical treatment in the boiler, may cause corrosion in the ________. Ans. Condensate lines

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577. During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too slowly and FAILS TO START, this problem is most likely the result of _______________. a. b. c. d. high lube oil viscosity low fuel oil temperature high fuel oil viscosity energized glow plugs

Ans. A 578. A diesel engine fails to start, even though it can be barred over, but not cranked over. The probable cause is _________________. a. b. c. d. a seized piston an improperly fitted bearing a closed or obstructed air starting line valve insufficient compression

Ans. C

579. A diesel fails to start because of water in the fuel, in order to start the engine you should _______________. a. drains filters and strainers and bleed off water at each injection pump. b. Turn engine with jacking gear c. Use ether to start the engine with blowndown valves d. Blow through the cylinders and fuel lines with a drying agent Ans. A 580. Which of the following statement is correct for the design and installation of diesel engine cooling water system. a. An alarm device with audible and visible signals is required for all cooling system b. Propulsion engines with bore over 200mm are to use fitted with cooling water thermometer at each cylinder c. Each totally enclosed cooling system shall be provided with a suitable head tank d. Drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest points of all cylinder water jackets Ans. D
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581. Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system vary the flow of through the engine. a. changing the rate of flow in the jackets could cause localized hot spot b. emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through the jackets were controlled c. excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high loads d. excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the cooler Ans. A 582. A closed fresh water cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel engines because the ______________. a. b. c. d. need for water treatment is eliminated cooling water temperature differential is greater cooling water pumps are directly reversible jacket water temperature is more easily controlled

Ans. D

583. In a closed cooling system for a turbocharged four stroke / cycle engine, fluctuating water pressure can be caused by ____________. a. b. c. d. improper venting of the cooling system carrying the expansion tank level too high a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pump an incorrectly set cooling system temperature control

Ans. A
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584. An oil FO6 lubrication system is recommended for ___________. a. b. c. d. gear shaft bearing high speed continuous operation of roller bearing low and moderate speed ball bearing heavily loaded and high speed ball bearings

Ans. B 585. The sea painter on a rescue boat / lifeboat should be led _____________. a. b. c. d. forward and outside of all obstruction forward and inside of all obstructions up and down from the main deck to the foremost point of the vessel

Ans. A

586. Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the lasting effect on the crew with respect to SAFETY________. a. b. c. d. Posting posters illustrating practice Showing video tapes of actual accident Incorporating safety practice in daily routine Publishing comprehensive safety rules

Ans. C 587. According to Regulation, how many means of ESCAPE must be provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered or employed______________. a. Two, both of which must be through watertight doors b. Two, both of which are located as close as possible to centralized escape route c. Two, at least one of which shall be independent of watertight doors d. Two, both of which must be vertical ladders terminating in locked watertight doors Ans. C 588. If a matching nut and bolt have a Class 4 or No.4 fit, they will __________.

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a. b. c. d.

Be loosely and only suitable for rough construction work Be difficult to turn by hand but easy to turn with a wrench Require less torque than specifications Require a hydraulic torque wrench to obtain the specified torque

Ans. B 589. Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of shutdown, prior to starting may result in ________. a. b. c. d. an air bound fuel system damage to cylinder heads and piston excessive fuel injection excessive air value lift

Ans. B 590. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to __________. a. closely observe the pump discharge temperature b. close off the discharge value, and watch for a rise in pressure c. momentarily close off the suction value, and watch for a rise in pressure d. use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records Ans. B 591. The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel electric drive vessel is usually a _________. a. fixed foam extinguisher b. fixed CO2 system c. steam smothering system d. carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system Ans. B 592. An air conditioning system, required to remove from 33,000 to 35,000 BTU per hour, should have a minimum capacity of __________. A. 1.5 tons B. 2.0 tons C. 2.5 tons D. 3.0 tons

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Ans. D 593. A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed and no ignition occurs. This could be the result of __________. A. low lube oil temperature B. low starting air temperature C. air bubbles in the fuel oil system D. water in the starting air system Ans. C 594. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut will not loose it self due to vibration? A. Square nut B. Wing nut C. Cap nut D. Castellated nut Ans. D

595. When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in a windy location, you should direct the stream from __________. A. down wind B. up wind C. across the wind D. directly above Ans. B 596. Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only? A. handheld red flare B. self-contained rocket propelled parachute red flare C. orange smoke signal D. red aerial pyrotechnic flare Ans. C 597. Small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are an indication of _________.
148

A. corrosion fretting B. insufficient lubrication C. abnormal wear D. fatigue failure Ans. D

598. Fire doors are released by a/an __________. A. method that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption of control system power B. pneumatic heat sensor C. spring loaded catch Ans. A 599. Emergency signals for use on a river passenger vessel are to be listed on/in the ___________. A. bank card B. master lister C. vessels logbook D. ships articles Ans. B

600. In order to convert taper per inch to taper per foot, you should ________.

a. Subtract 12 b. Add 12 c. Divide by 12 d. Multiply by 12 Ans. D

149

601. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?

a. The driving engine will overspeed b. The anchor will immediately drop c. The clutch will overheat d. The brakes effectiveness will be reduced Ans. D 602. The purpose of the energy all, or air cell, is to _____.

a. cause auto-ignition in the cell rather than in the main combustion chamber b. create a high turbulence within the main combustion chamber c. allow the spray to hit the piston rim rather than the cooler cylinder wall d. make a blast in the main chamber prior to the piston expansion stroke Ans. B 603. Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a large, low-speed, diesel engine is operated with one cylinder secured?

a. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increased b. Only the turbocharger speed should be reduced c. Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increased

150

d. Engine speed should be reduced Ans. D 604. Which of the listed problems would be indicated by an accumulation of water in one cylinder, in addition to the crankcase of an idle diesel engine?

a. Excessive condensation in that cylinder b. Water in the fuel system c. Cracked cylinder liner d. Leaking lube oil cooler Ans. C 605. You hear the general alarm bell and ships whistle sound for over or not less than 10 seconds. Traditionally this is the signal for _______.

a. abandonship b. dismissal from drills c. fire and emergency (go to fire station) d. lower lifeboat Ans. C 606. The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel engine is to ______.

a. b. c. d. Ans. D

improve piston cooling stratify the fuel charge prevent carbon buildup provide a fuel/air mixing or place for combustion

151

607. In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, wearing rings are prevented from rotating by ________. a. Swelling the wearing rings into the casing b. Using wear rings with larger outside diameter c. Using one dowel pin pressed into the side of the ring d. Using an extended lip formed on one half of the ring and using the upper casing half to trap the lip when the casing is reassembled Ans. D 608. If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, operating at unequal speeds, are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to ________. a. b. c. d. Ans. C Stop Turn back Overheat Overspeed the driving end

609. When relieving the watch in the fireroom, you should first check the boiler water level and then next _________. a. b. c. d. Ans. A 610. A piece of tapered round stock 36 inches long, 4 inches in diameter at the large end and 2 inches in diameter at the small end. What tailstock set over was used to machine the taper?
152

Inspect the fires and burners Prepare to blow tubes Empty all the oil drip pans Report to the engineer on watch being relieved

a. 0.375 inches b. 0.750 inches c. 1.500 inch d. 2.500 inch

Ans. B

611. Electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors are required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be _________.

A. protected by a circuit breaker set at 125% and a thermal overload device B. provided with a running motor overcurrent protection device C. served by a single two conductor cable D. served by two feeder circuits Ans. D 612. A power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering gear would cause the rudder to ________.
153

A.

swing 35o right or left

B. remain locked in its last position C. move to the midship position automatically D. jam against the rudder emergency stops Ans. B 613. To obtain a inch per foot taper on an 18 inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over ____________. A. 3/8 inch B. inch C. 3/6 inch D. 7/8 inch Ans. A 614. An American standard tapered pipe thread has a taper of ________________. A. inch per foot B. inch per foot C. inch per foot D. 1 inch per foot Ans. C 615. By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture? A. 24 months B. 36 months C. 42 months D. 54 months Ans. C 616. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the __________________. A. dew point temperature B. condensation temperature C. psychometric temperature D. absolute humidity temperature

154

Ans. A

617. The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the ________. I Quality of air filtration II Effectiveness of lubrication III Type of fuel A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I, II & III Ans. D 618. Which cannot be ground/grind on ordinary wheels? A. High speed steel B. Carbide C. Carbon steel D. Graphite steel Ans. B
619.

What is the rate at which a point on the circumference travels? A .Rpm B. Cutting speed C. Feed rate D. Depth Ans. B

620. While filing, you can prevent pinning by keeping the file clean and rubbing the file with? A. Light oil B. Chalk C. Graphite
155

D. Talc Ans. B
621.

Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block , are characterized by which of the following disadvantages? a. b. c. d. the conduct heat poorly they are expensive they cannot be replaced they require special toll for removal

Ans. C 622. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubricant of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign pressures and lubricants below are required? A. water under positive B. water under negative pressure C. oil under positive pressure D. oil under negative pressure Ans. A

623. What type of material is used in the mechanical seal of most centrifugal water pumps? A. Copper and carbon B. Carbon C. Casing volutes Ans. B 624. The letters NC in - 20 , NC means that the bolt is______. a. b. c. d. not coated with any coating made of non-corrosive metal made of nickel cadmium metal threaded with national coarse threads

Ans. D

156

625. The number of screw threads per inch for a standard National Coarse inch bolts is ____. a. b. c. d. 13 16 18 20

Ans. A 626. Pinning is often caused by_____. a. b. c. d. dropping the file chalking the fide cleaning the file bearing to hand on the file

Ans. D 627. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of steering system would be indicated by_____. a. b. c. d. ram relief valves lifting Improper or sluggish rudder response Bubbles in the sight glass Pump over-speeding

Ans. B 628. The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel engines is to____. a. b. c. d. improve piston cooling stratify the fuel charge prevent carbon build-up provide a place for combustion

Ans. D 629. A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause_______. a. b. c. d. High firing pressure Abnormally high cooling water temperature Rapid wearing of piston rings Combustion gases in the cooling water

Ans. C

157

630. A 4 stroke, cycle, turbocharged, 1000 hp diesel engine has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases, causing excessive black exhaust smoke and a rapid use in the lube oil temperature. In response to this condition, you should ________. a. b. c. d. reduce load check your exhaust adjust cooling water temperature increase lube oil flow

Ans. A 631. A 4 stroke/cycle, 1000 hp diesel engine fails to start at normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient temperature. The reason for the failure could be____. a. b. c. d. Glazed liners or pistons Excessive value clearance A stuck value All of the above

Ans. D 632. PAC (Poly Aluminum Chloride) A. Emulsion B. Demulsification C. Solid mix D. Flux flotation Ans. C

633. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of ________. A. vapor pockets B. water hammer action C. fluid friction
158

D. steam knock Ans. A 634. Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before they are use because. A. Hydraulic fluid must be at proper viscosity or at operating room temperature B. Warm-up allows the relief value to be properly tested C. Warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil D. Hydraulic strainer operate only during the warm-up period Ans. A 635. The lathe steady rest is normally use for supporting one end of a ________. A. short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuck B. long workpiece for facing, drilling and boring C. short workpiece being machine to an internal taper D. tubular workpiece being parted between centers Ans. B 636. Which centrifugal pump component converts kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure. A. Impeller B. Electric motor C. Volute D. Eye Ans. C 637. Which centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic energy is the _______. A. Electric motor B. Volute C. Impeller D. Diffusion nozzle Ans. C 638. When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another, if the fresh water pump loses suction, you should ________.
159

A. loosen the mechanical seal B. vent the pump casing C. check the discharge strainer D. all of the above Ans. B

639. The ring lands on a large, low speed, main propulsion diesel engine piston may crack due to ____. A. Insufficient cylinder liner wear B. Contaminated lubricating oil C. High main lubricating oil system temperature D. Insufficient ring groove clearance Ans. D 640. Which of the following areas should be check first when taking over a fire watch? A. The fuel pressure to the burner B. The boiler water level C. The boiler steam pressure D. The condition of the furnace fire Ans. B 641. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck? A. The jaws on the 3-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted B. The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted C. The 3-jaw chuck will hold square, round and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an eccentric position D. Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically selfcentering, it is always more accurate than the 4-jaw independent chuck Ans. B 642. A man aboard a vessel , signaling by raising & lowering his out stretched arms to each side , & indicating _______. a. A distress signal
160

b. Danger , stay away c. All is clear , it is safe to pass d. All is clear , it is safe to approach Ans. A 643. Which of the listed pressure vessels is normally exempt from hydrostatic testing at the regular coast guard inspection for certification occurring 4 years after the initial inspection? a. b. c. d. Potable system hydrophore tank A hydraulic occumulator Main boilers Air receiver repaired by a certified welder

Ans. B 644. Where should be the suction of a portable tank cleaning machine___. a. b. c. d. Fire main Inert gas scrubber Muckling supply system Pump room sea chest

Ans. A

645. Open combustion chamber are designed to ? a. b. c. d. Eliminate carbon build-up Improve piston cooling Prevent air charge turbulence Provide place for combustion

Ans. D
646.

A chisel with a mushroom head should not be use because ________? a. b. c. d. The chisel cannot be struck squarely Pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eye The hammer head may be may be chipped It must be held firmly by the head to strike it.

Ans. B
161

647. Radial thrust developed in a high pressure centrifugal pumps can be eliminated bys the use of a __________. a. b. c. d. single volute a single diffusion nozzle a diffusion ring a modified kingsburry thrust bearing

Ans. C

648. An efficient seal between the cylinder block an cylinder heads on many diesel engine is obtained with ________. a. b. c. d. graphite packing sealing compound lubricating oil gasket

Ans. D 649. If an auxiliary diesel engine frequently stalls, the trouble may be caused by _______. a. b. c. d. low exhaust back pressure air/water in the fuel system gasket blow-by or leakage incorrect assembly of idler spring

Ans. B 650. After the main engine has reached full sea speed, which of the following conditions could cause the water level in the boiler steam drum to keep falling? a. b. c. d. Open cut out valves on the boiler gauge Condensate recirculating line is excessively Feed pump discharge pressure is set to lo Feed pump recirculating valve is closed

Ans. C

162

651. To provide emergency feed water supply to a steaming boiler if it becomes necessary to secure the DC heater, suction should be taken on the DISTILLATE WATER TANK using the_____

a. Emergency ejector discharge b. Feed booster pump c. Main feed pump d. Main condensate pump Ans. C 652. The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following condition a. b. c. d. Type of pump Condition of the shaft Length of time in use All of the above

Ans. D

653. What factor determines the service life of packing in a pump? a. Condition of the shaft b. Condition of the valve c. Condition of the motor Ans. A

163

654. The pump packing gland has been respectfully tightened by small increments until the gland has bottomed. Which of the actions listed should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive? A. Replace all of the packing B. Replace with larger cross-sectional turns of packing C. Replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with lead wrap D. Continue to add more turns of packing Ans. D 655. It is the fastest and most effective system of giving information to the crew if there is malfunction of running machinery? A. Alarm gong B. Electric siren C. Blinkering lights D. All of these Ans. B 656. Which of the following is the most important action to be done after receiving information from the barge master that the bunkering process is already completed? A. Ask for the receipt B. Remove the hose connection C. Calculate the fuel oil received D. Ask for the sample Ans. C 657. What is the most important thing to do after declaring that a tank is already empty? A. Remove the hose B. Close the suction valve C. Ask fuel sample D. Take ships draft Ans. B 658. What does the bore of a diesel engine describes? A. Length of the piston B. Height of the piston C. Volume of the cylinder D. Diameter of the cylinder
164

Ans. D 659. Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing water? A. Main circulating pump jacket water cooling B. Saltwater service pump C. Auxiliary condensate pump D. Bilge pump Ans. D 660. An inert gas used as shielded gas in MIG & TIG welding is ________. A. Argon B. Acetylene C. Cadmium D. Copper Ans. A 661. Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piston? A. A nickel-bearing insert is cast into the top ring groove B. A heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston head C. The top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possible D. The inside surface of the piston head is rounded into the ring bell Ans. B 662. A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose fire fighting nozzle when the handle is ________. A. Pushed all the way forward B. Pushed forward one notch C. Pulled halfway back D. Pulled all the way back Ans. D 663. A sudden breakdown/trouble happened in the main engine while underway & it cannot be remedied. A. Notify the Chief Engineer B. Call 2nd Engineer C. Inform the bridge D. None of these Ans. A
165

670.

For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a ______. a. faceplate b. steady rest c. draw-in collet chuck d. compound rest Ans. B

671.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the tool feed when referring to lathe work? a. The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work b. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece c. The distance of the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point per minute d. The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute Ans. A When knurling a piece of work in a lathe, it is important to ___________. a. operate the lathe at the slowest speed b. use plenty of oil c. mount the knurling tool securely in the tool post d. all of these choices Ans. D

672.

673.

To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the ____. a. feed-change lever b. split or half-nut c. back gear lever
166

d. thread-chasing dial Ans. B 674. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first _________. a. disengage the spindle clutch b. engage the feed change lever c. disengage the feed reverse lever d. stop the lathe rotation Ans. D 675. If all of the metals listed below are two inch in diameter, which of those listed can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed? a. Cast iron b. Machine steel c. Aluminum d. Soft brass Ans. C 676. If you are cutting off a piece of work in a lathe and the piece tends to climb over the top of the cut-off, you should ___________. a. increase the lathe spindle speed b. increase the height of the tool cutting edge c. stop the lathe and tighten the chuck d. stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center 677. Ans. B When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale are being turned, the first roughing cut should be taken ___________. a. slowly to prevent tool chatter b. deep enough to get under the scale c. lightly to avoid dulling the tool d. rapidly in a continuous chip Ans. B 678. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the __________.
167

a. drive motor and spindle b. spindle and feed rod c. lead screw and head stock spindle d. lead screw and feed stock Ans. C 679. The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the ________. a. guide (swivel) bar b. automatic cross feed c. tailstock off center d. compound rest angle Ans. A 680. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a_________. a. crotch center b. Chuck c. lathe dog d. spindle 681. Ans. B A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine _________. a. cutting-off tool b. threads on long slender shafts c. work mounted on a lathe carriage d. round stock to a finish dimension Ans. B 682. Which of the file listed can be used for sharpening a tool? a. A double cut file b. A single cut file c. Any bastard cut file d. Only a double bastard cut file Ans. B 683. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a smooth fine finish on metal? a. Mill b. Float a. Mill OR b. Second cut
168

c. Warding d. Second cut Ans. A 684.

c. Single cut d. bastard

Which of the item listed below is a metal-removing machine, wherein the cutting tool is moved in a horizontal plane by a ram having a reciprocating motion, and it cuts on the forward stroke? a. Lathe machine b. Milling machine c. Shaper d. Planer Ans. C

685.

What is the use of a mill file? a. To produce a very fine finish by draw filing b. To produce a coarse finish by push filing c. To file lead d. To file plastic Ans. A

686.

Regarding Shapers construction, which of the item listed below is a heavy casting attached to the base by means of gib plates and bolts? a. Crossrail b. Base c. Saddle d. Table Ans. A

687.

Double cut files are most effective when used for ____________. a. sharpening tools b. draw filing c. finish work d. rough work Ans. D

688.

What factor affects the efficient operation of the shaper? a. Selection of the cutting tool
169

b. Adjustment of the stroke c. Selection of proper fed and cutting speed d. All of these choices Ans. D 689. Pinning is often caused by _____________. a. dropping the file b. chalking the file c. cleaning the file d. bearing too hard on the file Ans. D 690. The Shaper can be used to produce either concave or convex surfaces although it was intended originally to produce only plane surfaces like _________________ . a. angular b. horizontal c. vertical d. all of these choices Ans. D 691. Aside from the shape of the cutting edges, what other factor determines how the tool must be applied and what shape and finish will it produce? a. Sharpnessaw b. Curve c. Location d. Point Ans. C 692. What controls the shapers cutting tool and tool slide? a. Vertical feed handle at the top of the head b. Number of cutting strokes made by the ram c. Horizontal fed handle at the bottom of the head d. Rocker arm movement Ans. A 693. Which of the following is a fine wire bristled brush for cleaning files?
170

a. File brush b. File card c. Pulling brush d. Cleaning card Ans. B 694. The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such as brass, is the ____________. a. smooth cut file b. warding file c. mill file d. second cut file Ans. C 695. A twist drill gage can be used to measure the ________________. a. drill's length b. drill's diameter c. drill's clearance angle d. web thickness Ans. B 696. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting ______________. a. oil grooves in bearings b. v-grooves and inside sharp angles c. holes through metal plates d. keyways having square corners Ans. B 697. Which of the items below should you apply pressure when using a handheld hacksaw? a. Only when cutting thin wall tubing b. Only when cutting carbon steel c. Only when cutting conduit d. At all times Ans. D 698. What is the proper use of a flat chisel? a. For cutting inside corners
171

b. For cutting slots or keyways c. For cutting half-round grooves d. For cutting flat stock Ans. D 699. Which of the chisels listed below should be used for cutting oil grooves? a. Diamond point b. Flat cold chisel c. Round nose d. Square nose Ans. C 700. Which of the following statement below is NOT true for a cutting tool to give maximum production with the least amount of trouble and maintenance? a. The right kind of tool material for the purpose of the tool must be selected b. The tool must be given the correct hardening and heat-treatment. c. The tool must be correctly designed d. The tool must be ground every use Ans. D 701. What is the best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway? a. Round nose chisel b. Flat cold chisel c. Diamond point chisel d. Cape chisel Ans. D 702. Which of the following tools below has only one straight cutting edge set at right angles to the tool shank? a. necking b. roughing c. round nose d. v-threading Ans. A 703. Which of the following number of teeth per inch should be used to cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand
172

hacksaw? a. 14 b. 18 c. 24 d. 32 Ans. D

704.

Cutting tool must combine sufficient _____________ to maintain a sharp cutting edge. a. strength b. wear resistance c. toughness d. hardness Ans. A

705.

Which of the items listed below indicates that the plane that forms the flank on the side of the tool has been ground aback at an angle sloping down from the side cutting edge? a. End clearance b. Side rake c. Side clearance d. Sloping rake Ans. C

706.

When sharpening any tool, the finishing cut of the grinding wheel should be light. The use of a/an ____________is recommended. a. file b. emery cloth c. grinding compound d. oilstone Ans. D

173

707.

In tool and die shops, which type of milling machine is more frequently used than any other kind of milling machine? a. Knee and column b. Knee and row c. Knee and elbow d. Multi-tooth Ans. A Which of the following milling machine is generally in better mechanical position than in one which dirt has been allowed to accumulate? a. Clean and Oiled b. Greased and Oiled c. Clean and Painted d. Painted and Greased Ans. A

708.

709.

A liquid coolant should not be used with cast iron because the ___________ while operating a milling machine a. chips mix with the liquid, resulting in a sticky mass that clogs the cutter teeth and is difficult to remove b. liquid coolant may mix with the oil c. the chips may scatter and dust d. none of these choices Ans. A

710.

Proficiency in the use and care of the milling cutters is a must for every operator and he should be capable of determining the _____________. a. correct feeds and speeds for their operation
174

b. names and sizes c. correct speed of feeds d. both a and c Ans. A 711. Who among the persons below should first understand thoroughly the construction and the operating action of the machine before attempting its operation? a. Chief Engr. b. Operator c. Fitter d. Owner Ans. B 712. By knowing the construction and the operating action of the milling machine, the chance of the machine from being ____________ will be lessened. a. used frequently b. cleaned frequently c. damaged seriously d. dirtied quickly Ans. C

713.

As a safety precaution, the operator of a milling machine should _____________ . a. not move an operating level without knowing in advance the action that is going to take place b. never play with the control levels or carelessly turn the handles of the milling machine while it is stopped c. remove chips with a brush or other suitable means but NEVER with the fingers or hands d. call the chief engineer before he start working on a project Ans. A What is the type of milling machine cutter that is
175

714. suited for surface milling, profiling, slotting and so on? a. Fly cutter b. Flitting cutter c. Slotting cutter d. End mill Ans. D 715. Who is the person responsible for the practical keep-up of machinery and the manning of the engine room and will decide the watch keeping arrangements and the make up of watch? a. 2nd engineer b. 3rd engineer c. Chief engineer d. 4th engineer Ans. C OR a. Master b. Technical director c. Chief engineer d. STCW 95

716.

The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output at the end of the crankshaft available for ork. doing wWhat kind of horsepower is this? a. Net b. Indicated c. Brake d. Friction Ans. C

717.

What is the principal characteristic of governor stability? a. To have speed droop incorporated b. The ability of the governor to maintain constant speed with various engine c. The ability of the governor to return the engine to the set speed after each load change. d. The speed of action of the governor from no load to full load Ans. C

718.

A change in the degree of fuel atomization in

176

a diesel engine cylinder has the greatest effect on the ____________. a. fuel injection rate b. fuel spray nozzle c. combustion in the cylinder d. cylinder air turbulence Ans. C

719.

When do you pump diesel oil into the burners of an auxiliary boiler? a. Overload capacity is required b. Starting a "dead" ship c. Heavy smoking persists d. Heavy fuel must be blended Ans. B

720.

Which of the following conditions can result from low fuel oil temperature at a steam atomizer? I - shorter flame, II - higher than normal burner air pressure a. Both I and II b. II only c. I only d. Neither I nor II Ans. C

721.

In a fuel oil burner having a standard mechanical atomizer, the fuel and air are mixed as the fuel leaves the __________. a. oil passage b. orifice c. annular slots d. tangential slots Ans. B

722.

Which of the following does not occur during air leaking into a flash type distilling plant? a. Valve stems air leakage b. Gasketed joints leaking
177

c. Air ejector d. Gage glass packing not sealing Ans. C 723. What causes air to blow out through the inlet air filter of a running compressor? a. A dirty inlet filter element b. An improper adjusted discharge valve c. A broken intake valve d. High compression pressure in the cylinder Ans. C 724. Why would you cut a hole in a boiler tube which has been plugged? a. To prevent pressure build up b. To allow it to turn out more quickly c. To identify tube when it is time to renew d. To replace it with a new tube Ans. A 725. What maybe attributed to an irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to flash evaporator? a. Excessive pressure in the seawater feed heater b. Dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump suction line c. Erratic water flow through the air eductor d. Clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser Ans. B

726.

In refrigeration system with multiple evaporators, the metering of the refrigerant to each refrigerated space is accomplished by ___________. a. individual coil expansion valves b. individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest box
178

c. a solenoid valve in the liquid line d. the king expansion valve Ans. A What should you do FIRST to correct a condition wherein a diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperature on all cylinders? a. Increase the cooling water flow b. Reduce the engine load c. Increase the lube oil pressure d. Adjust the fuel rack Ans. B 728. A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water cooled condenser is used to ______. a. ensure positive air circulation b. remove non-condensable gases c. free tubes of accumulated scale d. charge the systems with refrigerant Ans. B

727.

729.

What is the proper time to take water test to obtain better chemical results? a. Before adding chemicals or blowing down b. After bottom blow c. After surface blow d. After adding chemicals to the boiler Ans. A

730.

Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing ____________. a. heated water in a high pressure area

179

b. steam through cooling coils c. heated water in a low pressure area d. steam through heating coils Ans. C What could be the cause of an excessive cylinder exhaust back pressure in a diesel engine? a. An obstruction in the exhaust silencer b. Slight timing discrepancies c. Heavy fuel injection d. A fouled intake manifold Ans. A

731.

732.

How are cylinders and intercoolers of most small air-compressors being cooled? a. By water b. By air c. By oil d. By carbon dioxide Ans. B

733.

What is the possible fault when compressor capacity is low? a. Defective, non-return valve b. Dirty or damaged valve c. Air nozzle flapper signal d. Air line delivery valve Ans. B

734.

What causes oil to foam in the compresssor crankcase? a. Load change

180

b. Pressure change c. Temperature change d. Mechanical change Ans. B 735. What is the purpose of the stuffing box seal? a. Make the unit start up easily after lying idle overnight b. Prevent refrigerant from leaking out of the crankcase c. Totally ensure air will not be drawn into the crankcase d. Lubricate the bearings with cup grease Ans. B 736. The purpose of a demister in alfa-laval fresh water generator is to _____________. a. secure down the vapour of seawater droplets b. conceal any particles with glues in the vapour droplets c. ensure that vacuum condition is attained in the evaporator d. divert the passage of oil travels with the refrigerant Ans. C 737. What would result in an overcharge of refrigerant? a. Increase in capacity with an increase in suction pressure b. Increase in capacity with an increase in head presssure c. Decrease in capacity with an increase in head pressure d. Increase in horsepower with an increase in capacity Ans. B 738. Jacket water temperature in a closed cooling system of a diesel engine is normally controlled by _____________. a. quick level of the fresh water expansion tank b. varying the engine load to meet temperature requirements
181

c. regulating the chromate level in the primary d. the operation of the thermostatic valve Ans. D

739.

What is the BEST way to determine the quantity of refrigerant charged into the system ? a. Open the petcock on the liquid receiver b. Zone the temperature change of the receiver shell c. Weigh the cylinder charge of refrigerant d. Put a gas meter on the liquid line Ans. C

740.

In accordance with International regulations, it is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until the _____________. a. voyage is completed b. U.S. port where upon it must sent ashore for chemical analysis c. particular supply oil is exhausted d. water has cleared with any residual Ans. C

741.

Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling temperature from an individual cylinder begins to rise, what should you suspect? a. That there is an overloading of cylinder b. That there is an overloading of the adjacent cylinder c. That there is an increase blow-by of the cylinders d. That there is an incomplete combustion in that cylinder Ans. A

742.

The expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is located at

182

_____________. a. the lowest point in the system b. or near the floor plate level c. the highest point in the system d. or near the tank top level Ans. C 743. Combustion gas venting through the expansion tank could be caused by a _____________. a. cracked cylinder head b. leaking oil cooler c. leaking exhaust valve d. worn piston Ans. A 744. What effect does the film of alkaline chromate have in the metal surfaces of the cooling system of a diesel engine? a. It protects metallic surfaces from corrosion b. It increases the rate of heat transfer c. It retards the flow of cooling water d. It tends to increase corrosion Ans. A

745.

What do you call the lowest portion of a diesel engine where the crankshaft is laying and absorbed the impact of the piston during combustion? a. Cylinder block b. Cylinder head c. Bedplate d. Propeller shaft Ans. C

746.

Which of the following can cause crankshaft misalignment of a crankshaft?

183

a. Engine overload b. Worn main bearings c. Uneven M.E.P. of the cylinders d. Worn thrust bearing Ans. B 747. To take main bearing clearances of the crankshaft, we use the following except _____________. a. feeler gauge b. clock or dial gauge c. lead wire method d. deflection gauge Ans. D 748. What do you call that instrument use to take misalignment of the crankshaft? a. Feeler Gauge b. Clock or Dial Gauge c. Lead Wire Method d. Deflection Gauge Ans. D 749. Bolts that hold the cylinder block to the bedplate is called _________. a. foundation bolts b. holding down bolts c. tie bolt or tie rod d. connecting rod bolts Ans. A 750. Corrosion on the piston rings can occur due to which of the following? a. Insufficient cylinder oil b. Incorrectly fitted rings c. Overheating d. Attack from corrosive elements in the fuel ash deposits Ans. D 751. The advantages of water-cooling for piston are as follows EXCEPT
184

for ______________. a. it is relatively cheap and plentiful b. internal surface are kept free from deposits c. water can operate at higher temperature d. leakage into the crankcase does not present contamination problem Ans. D

752.

One common cause of cylinder liner wear is __________. a. correct scavenge air temperature b. engine load changes carried out gradually c. burning heavy fuel oil with significant amount of sulphur d. correctly fitted piston rings Ans. C

753.

Oxidation of the oil is one of the major causes of its deterioration, and it is caused by high temperature due to ___________. a. incorrect grade of oil b. excessive S.W. at the oil cooler c. small bearing clearances d. correct use of oil pre-heater for the oil purifier Ans. C

754.

One of the major causes of oil deterioration, which is caused by high temperature in main engine is called ____________. a. oxidation b. scale c. corrosion d. pitting Ans. A

185

755.

Slight damage to the thrust face (nozzle joint face) of the holder can be rectified by which of the following? a. Honing b. Boring c. Welding d. Lapping Ans. D

756.

When tightening the nozzle nut of fuel injector, which of the following tool/s is used? a. A spanner and an extension b. Applied a force that there will be no leak found c. Torque wrench d. Simply tighten it Ans. C

757.

A control system for typical marine diesel engine that comprises of automatic valve, a pilot valve, a distributor and starting valves is called ___________. a. governor b. interlocks c. starting gear d. air distributor Ans. C

758.

Which of the following will lead to lower efficiency because of the reduction in heat transfer rates? a. Scale b. Pitting c. Corrosion d. Caustic cracking Ans. A

759.

Which of the following boiler fitting is the most important in the boiler that prevents over
186

pressure? a. Check Valve b. Main Valve c. Safety Valve d. Globe Valve Ans. C 760. Burning electrical insulation is extinguished by __________. a. soda acid b. foam c. water fog d. dry chemical or carbon dioxide Ans. D 761. When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially ______________. a. leave the access door partially open b. enter from the lowest possible level c. enter from the highest level with breathing apparatus d. attempt to start the main engine and generator Ans. C

762.

When fighting a liquid natural gas fire, you should _________. a. use only carbon dioxide b. use only dry chemical powder c. extinguish the fire then secure the source of gas d. secure the source of the gas then extinguish the fire Ans. D

763.

If the fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST ____________.
187

a. secure the ventilation b. find a soda acid extinguisher c. shut off the fuel supply d. secure the generator Ans. C When there is a fire in an electric motor, normally the FIRST step is to _____. a. secure the electrical supply b. ventilate area to remove the smoke c. start the fire pump and lead out hoses d. apply foam extinguisher Ans. A

764.

765.

When fighting a fire inside a tank with fuel the FIRST action you should attempt is __________ a. secure all sources of fresh air to the tank b. begin transferring fuel to other tanks c. top off the tank to force out vapor d. station someone at the fixed CO2 release control Ans. A

766.

A fully charged standard SCBA can be expected to supply air under non-stressful condition for approximately __________. a. 15 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 25 minutes d. 30 minutes Ans. D

767.

The temperature at which liquid will change to gas is called _________. a. flash point b. boiling point c. condensation point
188

d. reactive point Ans. B

768.

Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition source? a. Explosion point b. Flash point c. Fire point d. Danger point Ans. B

769.

As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil in the tanks will ________. a. remain the same b. Increase c. decrease d. vaporize Ans. B

770.

On tanker vessels, the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur would be _________. a. at the midship house b. at the main deck manifold c. in the engine room d. in the pump room Ans. D

771.

What is the use of a hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch? a. It is used to cut angle iron and heavy pipe b. It is used to cut cast and soft iron such as zinc rods
189

c. It is used to cut thin tubing or sheet metal d. It is used to cut drill rod and tool sheets Ans. B What is the main purpose of an aftercooler when used in conjuction with a turbocharging? a. Increase the density of the cylinder air charge b. Prevent turbocharger from overheating c. Eliminate the need of a pre-cooler d. Remove moisture from air compressor by the turbocharger Ans. A 773. Which of the following is the term SWL in cargo handling? a. Sea Water Level b. Safe Working Load c. Safety Working Limit d. Summer Water Loadline Ans. B 774. One method of keyless propeller fitting is the ________. a. tailshaft b. oil injection system c. c. coupling d. flanged Ans. B

772.

775.

The attachment of this substance to the propeller would result in a loss of efficiency, an increase in absorbed power and a lower speed is ____. a. copper
190

b. nickel c. barnacles d. lignum vitae Ans. C 776. These are the effects of a barnacles in the propeller except for the _________. a. increase in absorbed power b. increase in speed c. loss of propeller efficiency d. lower revolution per minute Ans. B 777. This is an intense discrete frequency sound radiating from the propeller and is much like a steady bell tone called ___________. a. vibration b. humming c. pounding d. singing Ans. D

778.

It is a kind of special seal attached to the stern to be with a projecting edge, which is held in contact with a shaft to prevent oil leakage or water entry. a. lignum vitae b. lip seal c. face seal d. none of these choices Ans. B

779.

These were arranged to operate in conjunction with motor cut-outs when cranes has reached its hoisting and luffing limits,
191

or if slack turns occur on the hoist barrel is the ____________. a. relief valve b. cylinder rod c. brakes d. jib Ans. C 780. Which of the following prevents the entry of large object to the pipeline and safeguard the internal parts of the pumps? a. Mud Box b. Safety Valve c. Suction Valve d. Perforated Plate Ans. A

781.

What should be ensured to avoid back fire explosion during start-up of boiler? a. Fuel oil valve to burner is opened b. Air damper to burner is opened c. Fuel vapour in furnace is eliminated by running the forced draught fan for a few minutes d. The burner should be ignited manually Ans. C

782.

In the water tube boiler, the fire in the furnace is located ___________. a. inside the tubes b. outside the tubes c. inside and outside the tubes d. none of these choices Ans. B

783.

In fire tube boiler, the fire in the furnace is located ____________. a. inside the tubes
192

b. outside the tubes c. inside and outside the tubes d. none of these choices Ans. A

784.

In preparing the boiler for survey, the boiler should be cooled down slowly until the pressure gauge registers zero. Which of the following should be opened to avoid formation of a vacuum? a. Drain Valve b. Manhole Cover c. Air Cock d. Main Steam Valve Ans. C

785.

The alternative methods of treating the feed water to eliminate scaleformers are either _________. a. to evaporate the make-up feed water to produce good quality distillate. b. to pass the water through a base-exchange unit which will exchange sodium ions for the scale forming calcium and magnesium ions c. to use demineralization to remove all dissolved solids. d. all of these choices Ans. D

786.

Which of the following are the major source of scale problems? a. Sodium and Chloride b. Calcium and Magnesium c. Magnesium and Hydroxide d. Sodium and Carbonate Ans. B
193

787.

Which of the following is the normal pH valve range of feed water to the boiler? a. 7.5 8.2 b. 8.5 9.2 c. 9.5 10.2 d. 10.5 11.2 Ans. B

788.

Governor is a means of engine speed _____________. a. limitation b. regulation c. acceleration d. all of these choices Ans. B

789.

Isochronous governor, regardless of load, maintains a _______ speed. a. constant b. variable c. higher d. lower Ans. A

790.

In a governor, the fall in speed which occurs as the load on the engine increases is called ________. a. slip b. droop c. decreased d. reduced Ans. B Which substance listed below that lubricating oil possesses but tends to deteriorate with age and becomes acidic in character and promotes corrosion
194

791.

to machinery parts? a. Minerals b. Grease c. Additives d. Water Ans. C 792. Oil mist detector is an instrument used to detect an oil mist formation in the engine crankcase caused by _____________. a. dirty oil b. overheating of oil c. low oil pressure d. low oil level Ans. B 793. The best way to recondition a defective fuel injector is to __________. a. overhaul and clean each parts b. overhaul, clean and lap with grinding compound c. lap the needle to its seat with metal polish d. send to the nearest authorized repairer Ans. D

794.

During injection, the cam nose of the camshaft will push up the plunger of the pump, forcing the fuel to the ____________. a. fuel injector b. fuel filter c. fuel viscometer d. fuel heater Ans. A

795.

Most of the fuel injection pumps will then close after injection, because they are fitted with a _______.
195

a. safety valve b. fuel regulating valve c. spring loaded discharge check valve d. spill valve Ans. C 796. In helix-controlled injection pump, rotation of the plunger is achieved by lateral movement and controls the amount of fuel injected by the ___________. a. fuel rack b. cam nose c. barrel d. delivery valve Ans. A

797.

Scavenging trunks are more prone to fire than they are to ________. a. explosion b. over pressure c. evaporation d. distillation Ans. A

798.

The causes of scavenge space deposit or flammable mixture usually comes from ___________. a. unburn fuel b. unburn cylinder oil c. carbon from defective piston rings d. all of these choices Ans. D

799.

A turbocharger is an air compressor driven by ________. a. gear or chain of the engine

196

b. air delivery c. engine exhaust gases d. compressed air Ans. C

800.

Which of the following admits air to the piston of a cylinder relay valves in a correct sequence for engine starting? a. Starting Air Distributor b. Starting Air Valve c. Reversing Air Valve d. Brake-Air Valve Ans. A Which component listed below that each cylinder is fitted with, to operate pneumatically by one of the starting air distributor control valve? a. Starting Air Distributor b. Starting Air Valve c. Reversing Air Valve d. Brake-Air Valve Ans. B

801.

802.

Which of the listed interlocks stops the valve in the remote operating valve line of air starting system from opening? a. Clutch Lever b. Shifting Lever c. Turning Gear d. All of these choices Ans. C

197

803.

A multi-stage flash evaporator will be unable to produce pure distillate if the ________. a. distillate meter stops b. vacuum is fluctuating c. tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internally d. distillate cooler is dirty Ans. B

804.

What could cause air to blow out through the inlet air filter of a running compressor? a. A dirty inlet filter element b. An improper adjusted discharge valve c. A broken suction valve d. High compression pressure in the cylinder Ans. C

805.

If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service fails to unload, the ________. a. compressor would run continuously b. compressor could be stopped abruptly by the high pressure protection switch c. air receiver indicates pressure would be excessively low d. compressor would require more than the normal amount of lubrication Ans. B

806.

What does low viscosity produce? a. Controlled passages of fuel flow b. Fine mist
198

c. Build up oil passage d. Automatic build up of fluidity Ans. B 807. What would result in the improper cooling of a cylinder liner due to scale deposits? a. Poor contact between compression rings and liner b. Piston seizure c. Low compression pressure d. Increased lube oil consumption Ans. B 808. What causes high temperature in the cooling system of a diesel engine? a. Clogged water passage in the engine b. Entrapped air in the cooling water c. Incorrectly set temperature controls d. All of these choices Ans. D 809. How would oil enter into the water cooling system of a diesel engine? a. Leaking oil cooler coil b. Leaking oil cooler baffle c. Leaking metal edge strainer d. Leaking automatic temperature regulator Ans. A

810.

A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates engine cooling water temperature by __________. a. passing a portion of the water around the cooler b. passing a portion of the water around the engine c. throtting water flow from the cooler d. throtting water to the engine Ans. D

811.

What results in higher than normal air temperature at the intake of a diesel engine?
199

a. Greater overall efficiency b. Lower compression rate c. Lower horsepower d. Greater fuel economy Ans. C 812. Which of the items listed below need to be reduced when operating large, low-speed main propulsion diesel at low loads? a. Injection pressure b. Control air supply pressure c. Tube oil temperature d. Cooling water flow through aftercoolers Ans. D 813. What is the principal difference between loop methods and single acting engine? a. Volume of air admitted to the cylinder b. Sequence of port opening c. Method of opening exhaust ports d. Direction of air flow in the cylinder Ans. D 814 Removing exhaust gases from a cylinder with the aid of a blower is known as ____________. a. forced draft b. Scavenging c. turbocharging d. aspiration Ans. B 815. Which scavenging method has exhaust valve in the cylinder head? a. Return flow b. Uniflow c. Cross flow d. Direct flow Ans. B 816. Which practices should be followed at all times when using electric grinding machine? a. Wear goggles or face shields
200

b. Be certain that the frame is properly grounded c. Be properly trained in the use of this tool d. All of these choices Ans. D 817. Safety glasses should be worn when ___________. a. using a hand portable grinder b. scraping paint with a hand scraper c. using a hammer and a chisel d. all of these choices Ans. D

818.

Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________. a. determine the size of the gasket b. hang a bucket below the joint c. have a first aid kit on hand d. be sure no pressure exists on the line Ans. D

819.

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the issuance and use of Port Authority "permit to proceed to another port for repairs? a. The permit can only be issued if the vessel has a valid certificate of inspection b. No freigt or passenger are allowed to be carried when the vessel is issued the permit c. The permit can only be issued upon written request from the Master, agent or owner representative d. All of these choices Ans. C

820.

The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its ___________. a. viscosity b. pour point c. volatility d. lower explosive limit
201

Ans. C

821.

The tendency of a flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated in its __________. a. ignition temperature b. flash point c. flammable range d. convection index Ans. B

822.

The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the ___________. a. lowest temperature fuel can ignite b. lowest temperature fuel can continue to burn c. temperature of fuel oil must be heated d. temperature of fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace Ans. A

823.

Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated conditions provides the largest shielding effect for the fire? a. A straight stream of water b. Light water and foaming agent c. A low velocity fog d. A sealed space of carbon dioxide Ans. C

824.

Which statements listed below describes the relationship between pour point and ignition point? a. Both are higher than normal burning temperatures b. The flash point temperature is higher c. The ignition temperature is always higher d. They are not necessarily related. Ans. C

825.

Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must
202

have tanks installed as far as practicable from the ___________. a. landing area and source of vapor ignition b. main deck c. engine room d. drill floor Ans. A 826. Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared __________. a. safe for personnel b. safe for hot work c. not safe for personnel d. not safe for hotwork Ans. B 827. International Regulations require tank sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels to be located in which of the listed spaces below? a. Washrooms b. Laundry rooms c. Crew lounge d. None of these choices Ans. D

828.

Which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge water for overboard discharge? a. A 100ppm oily water separator b. A 15ppm oily water separator c. A magnetic strainer d. Fine filter Ans. B

829.

According to International Regulations, which of the equipments below should be tested not more than
203

12 hours prior to leaving port? a. Steering gear b. Shaft generator c. All external communication equipment d. All of these choices Ans. A 830. Watertight doors on cargo vessels must be inspected and tested by a Coast Guard inspector ____. a. at each inspection for certification b. at each cargo gear inspection c. within 12 hours prior to departure d. at every fire and boat drills Ans. A 831. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency? a. Chief engineer b. Deck Officer on watch c. Master d. Engineer on watch Ans. C 832. Regarding battery rooms, ventilation should be provided _____________. a. at the lowest point of the room b. horizontally near the batteries c. at the highest point of the room d. only when charging is in progress Ans. C 833. While on watch on a steam propelled vessel, you suddenly hear a loud, piercing sound. Which of the following actions listed below should you take? a. Vacate everyone from the engine room immediately b. Rapidly move towards the direction of the noise to investigate the probable cause c. Cautiously move towards the source of the noise, sweeping the beam of your flashlight ahead of
204

you d. Move away from the noise to find a broom then cautiously advance, sweeping the handle ahead of you to locate the source Ans. D 834. Any abnormal condition or emergency occurring in the engine room must be immediately reported to the ____________. a. engineer on watch b. deck officer on watch c. first asst. engineer d. coast guard Ans. A 835. When required to work where there is possible explosive gases, you should use tools which are _____. a. coast guard approved b. high carbon steel c. fixed with ferrous lining d. non-sparking Ans. D 836. Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fire by __________. a. allowing better access in an emergency b. eliminating potential fuel sources c. eliminating trip hazards d. improving personal qualifications Ans. B 837. Which of the following precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury when you are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck? a. Position several men under the pipe so they can catch when it falls b. Attach lines to the end of the pipe so they can catch it if it falls c. Place an old mattress under the pipe to prevent it from hitting the deck d. Have a first aid kit at the job site
205

Ans. B

838.

What safety precautions should the crew observe while working around machinery in an engine room? I. They should wear safety helmets. II. They should wear ear protection. III. They should NOT wear jewelry. a. I only b. II only c. I and III d. I, II and III Ans. D

839.

To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near hoisting operation, which of the following precautions listed below should be observed? a. Keep load on the hoist until all personnel are finished working b. Set the load on a movable vehicle when transportation may be needed c. Have one man keep a hand on the load to steady it d. Ensure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded Ans. D

840.

According to International Regulations, all exposed and dangerous equipments such as gears and machineries shall be protected with ____________. a. Covers b. guards c. rails d. all of these choices Ans. D

841.

People should be protected from the rotating parts of machine by________.

206

a. vents b. bright lights c. reflective tapes d. guards Ans. D 842. Which of the listed conditions can be considered as the single greatest cause of accidents? a. Speed b. Excessive knowledge or skill c. Human error d. Excitement Ans. C 843. If accidents are considered as an "unexpected contact", you will be able to perform a better job by observing which of the following practices? a. Looking for unsafe practices b. Inspecting for unsafe conditions c. Analyzing jobs for safer methods d. Doing all of these choices Ans. D 844. Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents? a. Unsafe actions b. Orderliness c. Frequent inspection d. Good work habit Ans. A 845. Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness that may be maintained by __________. a. storing all items in its proper place b. storing all items in a common storage area c. tagging all items according to their age and then storing them together d. disposing of worn out items Ans. A
207

846.

Which of the following is NOT considered safe practice? a. Securing equipment against slipping or drifting b. Operating machinery at its recommended speed c. Repairing loose handles or tools before using d. Using tools for purposes which they are not designed Ans. D

847.

What does it signifies if during your watch you hear a sound of an oil mist detector alarm? I - There is leakage of cooling water to the crankcase II - There is a dangerous accumulation of gases in the crankcase III - It could be a false alarm but needs confirmation a. I & II b. I, II & III c. II & III d. I & II Ans. B

848.

Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for boat station or boat drill? a. More than six short blasts and one long blast of the whistle b. Less than five short blast and one long blast of the whistle c. Steady rapid ringing of the ship's bell and one long blast of the whistle d. Three short blasts and three long blasts of the whistle Ans. A

849.

While you are on your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle, it indicates ____________. a. abandon ship b. commence lowering the lifeboat c. stop lowering the lifeboat d. secure the boat stations
208

Ans. B 850. If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should _____. a. remove unnecessary weight from the boat b. adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism c. adjust the limit switch on the davit d. engage the motor friction clutch band Ans. B

851.

When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________. a. straight overhead b. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract c. into the wind d. at about 60 degrees above the horizon Ans. D

852.

When should distress flares and rockets be used? a. Only when there is a chance of them being sighted by a rescue vessel b. They should be set-off at half-hour interval c. They should be set-off at an hour interval d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel Ans. A

853.

Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed below would be the most suitable for night signalling at a ship on the horizon? a. Red parachute flare b. Red handheld flare c. Flashlight d. Lantern Ans. A

854.

Signalling devices required on an inflatable life rafts includes a/an __________.

209

a. pistol b. orange smoke signal c. air horn d. lantern Ans. B 855. Distress signals may be __________. a. red flares b. smoke signals c. sound signals d. all of these choices Ans. D 856. A burning mattress is considered, which of the following classes of fire? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D Ans. A 857. An example of Class A fire is a/an _________. a. burning papers in a garbage can b. electric fire in the engine room c. oil fire in the engine room d. oil fire involving a Class A petroleum product Ans. A 858. A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a/an ____________. a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D Ans. A

859.

A fire in a paint locker would probably be __________.

210

a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D Ans. B 860. Burning paint, turpentine or grease would be an example of which of the following classes of fire? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D Ans. B 861. A class B fire would most likely to occur in the __________. a. electrical motor b. waste rag fire in engine room c. main switchboard d. engine room bilge oil Ans. D 862. A class D fire would be considered as burning __________. a. wood b. oil c. electrical equipment d. magnesium Ans. D Fires occurring in combustible metals are classified as class ____________. a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class D Ans. D 864. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________. a. heat
211

863.

b. fuel c. oxygen d. any of these choices Ans. D 865. The three basic elements necessary for any fire are _________. a. heat, gas, and flames b. fuel, heat, and oxygen c. fuel, heat and nitrogen d. fuel, oxygen and nitrogen Ans. B 866. All of the following items listed below are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT _________. a. fuel b. oxygen c. heat d. electricity Ans. D

867.

Which of the toxic gases listed below is a product of incomplete combustion and is often present in closed compartment fire? a. Carbon dioxide b. Hydrogen sulfide c. Carbon monoxide d. Nitric oxide Ans. C

868.

A fuel/air mixture below the explosive limit is too ____________. a. rich to burn b. lean to burn c. cool to burn d. dense to burn Ans. B

869.

If a mixture containing air and a concentration of flammable vapor, is capable of ignition when exposed to a spark or other source of ignition, it is said to be ___________.
212

a. in the flammable range b. at the rich point limit c. at the auto ignition limit d. above the ignition point Ans. A

870.

Which of the following fire extinguishing agents listed below is the best for heat absorption? a. Water fog b. Dry chemicals c. Chemical foam d. Carbon dioxide Ans. A

871.

When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog has the ______. a. greatest ability to produce foam b. best cooling ability c. ability to completely remove toxic chemicals d. capability to remove combustible vapors Ans. B

872.

A definite advantage of water over other types of extinguishing agent is its ability to _________. a. alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid becomes vapor. b. absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from liquid to vapor c. rapidly contract as water is converted from liquid to vapor d. vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat Ans. D

213

873.

Which of the fire fighting agents listed below is least harmful to personnel? a. CO2 b. Steam c. Water d. Dry chemicals Ans. C

874.

Foam extinguishes the fire by __________. a. a chemically absorbing the oxygen b. smothering the burning metal c. chemically absorbing the burning metal d. releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide Ans. B

875.

Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving _________ a. oil b. burning insulation c. hot bulkheads d. electrical machinery Ans. A

876.

When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of foam is most effective when directed ___________. a. at the overhead b. at a vertical surface c. onto the deck d. directly into the bilge water Ans. B

877.

Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent? a. It is more effective than CO2 b. It leaves no residue
214

c. It destroys ozone layer d. All of these choices Ans. D 878. To use a portable CO2 extinguisher, you must FIRST ___________. a. turn the tank upside down b. pull the locking pin c. open the valve on the tank d. shake thoroughly Ans. B 879. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguishers includes ______. a. inspecting the pressure gauge for proper pressure b. weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight charge c. hydrostatic testing of the cylinder d. discharging, internal cleaning and recharging Ans. B 880. Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be easily recharged aboardship? a. Soda acid b. Carbon dioxide c. Dry chemicals, cartridge-operated d. Foam Ans. B 881. When is it necessary for dry chemical fire extinguisher to be recharged? a. After each use b. When the temperature exceeds 90 deg F c. Every six months d. Every 12 months Ans. A 882. The heat generated by a fire will be transferred through a bulkhead or deck as a result of _______. a. conduction
215

b. radiation c. convection d. wind flow Ans. A 883. The ventilation system aboardships has fire dampers restrained by fusible links that will ________. a. automatically open after a fire is extinguished and then reset the damper b. be replaced after each use c. be replaced before inspection by port authority d. need replacement if the damper remains closed Ans. D 884. Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel's ventilation system are operated by the use of a ____________. a. remote operated valve b. fusible link c. CO2 system pressure switch d. heat or smoke detector Ans. B 885. Fusible link fire dampers are operated by _________. a. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct b. electrical controls on the bridge c. the heat of a fire melting the link d. a break glass and pull-cable system Ans. C 886. Which of the gases listed below is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment on fire? a. Nitrogen b. Hydrogen c. Carbon dioxide d. Carbon monoxide Ans. D 887. At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel, you must FIRST _____. a. locate the fire
216

b. determine which type of fire is burning c. sound the alarm d. fight the fire Ans. C 888. A fire is considered "under control" when __________. a. all hands are at their fire stations b. all firefighting equipment is in the scene c. the fixed systems are activated d. the fire is contained and no longer spreading Ans. D To prevent the spread of fire by convection, you should ____________. a. remove combustible materials from direct exposure b. cool the bulkhead around the fire c. close all openings in the area d. shut-off electrical power Ans. C 890. What could be the probable cause in a full speed main engine when lube oil level in the sump drop rapidly in a clean weather condition? A. leaking on the lube oil pump shaft packing B. leaking lube oil cooler tubes C. Lube oil purifier is overflowing without alarm signal Ans. C 891. A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by ___________. a.
b.

889.

c. d.

only fuel injection burned valves too late fuel injection low fuel penetration

Ans. B 892. The cause if there is combustion gas venting through the expansion tank is ________. a. leaking oil cooler
217

b. c. d. Ans. B 893.

cracked cylinder head an overheated bearing excessive lube oil in the crankcase

What is piston displacement? a. Distance swept by the piston from bottom to center or center to top dead center b. Distance swept by the piston from top dead center to bottom dead center c. Volume swept by the piston from bottom to center or center to top dead center d. Volume swept by the piston from top dead center to bottom dead center

Ans. D 894. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for ____________. a. b. c. d. Ans. A restoring damage thread enlarging existing thread cutting original thread straightening tapered threads

895. For internal threading, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end tapping of the hole by using a __________. a. b. c. d. taper tap plug tap bottoming tap finishing tap

Ans. A 896. Many diesel engines have pistons with conceive heads to _______________. a. b. c. Increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing Decrease air turbulence and improve fuel mixing Prevent fuel after burning when injections ends
218

d.

Prolong fuel after burning when injection

Ans. A 897. An offset screwdriver is best used for ___. a. Screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver

Ans. A 898. During the test, what is the best solution in order to reduce the density of the auxiliary water boiler if found to be high? a. b. c. d. Ans. A 899. A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) as a _________. a. Sensitizer Add soda Reduce NaCl Reduce Hydrogen Reduce Oxygen

Ans. A 900. A reproductive health hazard listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a ____. a. Mutagen

Ans. A
901.

A liquid is listed on a MSDS having a flashpoint below 37.78oC is called a/an ______. a. Ans. A Flammable liquid

902. The temperature at which a liquid is listed on a MSDS, will change to gas is called ______. a. Boiling point
219

Ans. A

903. The lowest temperature at which a liquid as listed on the MSDS, gives off enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source is called its _______. a. Flash point

Ans. A 904. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _______. a. Move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley

Ans. A 905. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be _____. a. Prick punched

Ans. A 906. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called ____. a. Cross filing

Ans. A 907. A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the proper ring setting and lubrications is known as ______. a. Cross hatch honing cross

Ans. A 908. The process of flaring the section of a boiler tube extending beyond the tube sheet into the drum is known as ________. a. Belling

Ans. A

220

909. The device that is used for reducing the exhaust noise is called a/an ____. a. b. c.
d.

Exhaust pipe Funnel pipe De-noising pipe Muffler

Ans. D 910. One advantage of a vacuum feed sigh glass indicator used on cylinder lubricators over the side liquid filled type sight glass is ________. a. b. c. d. Ans. B 911. The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled periodically to ___. a. b. c. d. Prevent the gear box from leaking Prevent the oil from becoming inflammable Make sure it has not become contaminated Make sure the motor bearings are lubricated Adjustment is not required Better visual metering adjustment There are fewer moving parts A lower grade on oil may be used

Ans. C 912. When turning a new cylinder head stud on a lathe, the minimum effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the ______. a. b. c. d. Ans. B 913. Surging of a turbo charger is usually caused by a sudden shortage of ________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B
221

Stud length Stud diameter Head nut diameter Stud material

Exhaust gas Air delivery Cooled air Air cushion

914. What is the importance of counter boring the top of the cylinder liner, extending down to the top point of travel of the top compression ring? A. Increase cylinder turbulence B. Prevent wear of the liner from occurring C. Prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of the ring D. Decrease compression ratio for easier starting Ans. C

915. Which of the conditions listed occurring in a diesel engine would cause carbon deposits to develop in the piston ring belt? A. B. C. D. Faulty combustion Excessive ring temperatures Over lubrication All of these

Ans. D 916. Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of designed normal load for prolonged periods will result in ________. A. B. C. D. Extended value life Carbon formation on combustion chamber surfaces Decrease fuel consumption per brake horsepower More complete cylinder scavenging

Ans. B 917. Air pockets forming with the cylinder head circulation passages may cause _______. A. B. C. D. Ans. B Hydraulic stress and distortion will develop Hot spots will develop Fuel oil viscosity will increased An increased in trapped deposits of scale and dirt

222

918. The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine is always _________. A. B. C. D. Ans. B 919. Which of the following should a watchman needs to check at the steering gear while at sea? A. Oil leak in the system B. Accuracy of the rudder angle indicator C. Movement of the trick wheel D. Position of the six-way valve Ans. A 920. When boiler fires begin sputtering, indicating water in the fuel oil setting tank, you should _____. A. Charge suction to the alternate setting tank B. Reduce the fuel pump operating speed C. Start the alternate fuel oil service pump D. Shift to the service pump low suction Ans. A From top to bottom From bottom to top From left to right From right to left

921.

A power driven auxiliary steering gear is required by Coast Guard Regulations rudder over from 15o on one side to 15o on the other side with the vessel running ahead. For a 20 knot vessel, this test must be carried _____. A. 7 knots B. 10 knots C. 15 knots D. 20 knots
223

Ans. B 922. Coast Guard Regulations divide petroleum product into combustible liquids and flammable liquids. Flammable liquids will ______.
A. Give off flammable vapor at or below 80oF B. Have a flash point of 150oF or more

C. Always have a Reid vapor pressure of 14 pounds or more D. Will self-ignite at temperatures below 150oF Ans. A
923.

After an engine room has been flooded with CO2 due to fire the next thing to do is to _____. A. Send an investigating team (at the scene of the fire) B. Sealed the area C. Open the ventilation D. Open the skylight Ans. A

924. Which of the following statement is true if the oil temperature is allowed to become excessively high in the heaters? A. Excessive temperature will increase oil viscosity that results to poor combustion B. Excessive temperature will cause the oil to crystallize resulting in pulsating fires C. The fuel will carbonize and its heating ability will be reduced D. The fuel will ignite even it has not reached point of ignition Ans. C 925. Common part found in Plane and Universal milling machine? A. B. C. Ans. B 926. Parts of milling machine. I Tailstock II Headlining assembly
224

Speed dial Swivel table Over arm positioning

III Head dividing assembly A. B. C. D. Ans. B I and II II and III I and III I, II and III

927. A power driven auxiliary steering gear required by Coastguard regulation to be capable of putting the Rudder over from 15 degrees on one side to 15 degrees on the other side with the vessel running Ahead, For a 20 knots vessel, this test must be carried______. a. b. c. d. 7 knots 10 knots 15 knots 20 knots

Ans. B 928. According to Regulation, a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 20 knots service speed must be capable of producing a rudder movement at which of the minimum speed listed___ a. b. c. d. 7 knots 10 knots 15 knots 20 knots

Ans. B

929. According to Regulation, a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 12 knots service speed must be able to meet the rudder movement requirements at which of the minimum speed listed___
225

a. b. c. d.

6 knots 7 knots 9 knots 12 knots

Ans. B 930. The pH value of water in a diesel engine closed cooling water system should be maintained between____ a. b. c. d. 6.0 to 7.5 8.0 to 9.5 10.0 to 11.5 12.0 to 13.5

Ans. B 931. Pollution Prevention regulation (33 CFR) prohibit draining____. a. b. c. d. waste oil into the slop tank lube oil purifier into the bilge fuel oil heater into the bucket lube oil strainer into the drip pan

Ans. B

932. Coast guard regulation require an audible and visible alarm to be actuated in the pilot house when the actual position of the rudder differs from the position ordered by the follow-up control system by 5 degrees or more for more than_____ I. II. III. a. b. c. d. 30 seconds for ordered rudder position changes of 70 degrees 16 seconds for ordered rudder position changes of 5 degrees 10 seconds for ordered rudder position changes of 2.5 degrees I only II and III III only I,II and III

Ans. A 933. In the diesel engine installing a test cock has important purpose and it is ______.
226

I Pressure test the cylinder head II Purging the cylinder before the starting III Connect the pressure indicator A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III Ans. C

What is the term for a colorless gas with high carbon content, lighter than air with chemical formula of C2H2?
934.

A. Acetone B. Acetylene C. Argon D. Astatine Ans. B 935. Which property/s of heavy fuel oil will be affected if it will be heated to a certain undesired temperature? I Viscosity II Pour point III Calorific value A. I only B. II only C. I & II D. I, II & III Ans. C

227

936. What cutting edge is the part of the tool where two surfaces, one of which may be curved, intersect to form a curved line? OR A _________ cutting edge wherein the other part is curve? A. Shaped B. Curved C. Point D. Straight Ans. A 937. Which of the listed actions should be carried out if a ship is to be laid up for an indefinite period of time ______. I Boilers to be laid up wet should be completely filled II All fuel tanks should be cleaned & gas freed III All potable water tanks should be cleaned & disinfected A. I only B. II only C. I & II D. I, II & III Ans. A

938. Adding trisodium phosphate in boiler water will _______. I Decrease salinity II Increase salinity III Decrease alkalinity A. I only B. II only C. I & II D. I, II & III Ans. A Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of the listed practices?
939. 228

A. Throwing materials from high places to the deck B. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering material C. Examining material for sharp edges or protoding points before handling D. Closing, tagging or securing valves that permit entrance of steam, water or air into a fitting or other equipment Ans. A

940. Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include ___. I Frost burns to flesh II High toxicity in small quantities III Noxious odors A. I only B. II only C. I, II & III D. I & III only Ans. A 941. If an anchor windlass has been idle for sometime, you should _____. A. Repack all valve stems B. Lubricate it prior to use C. Replace the foundation bolts D. Balance the warping heads Ans. B 942. A process to determine the impurities contained in the fuel oil? A. Tank settling process B. Laboratory process Ans. B
229

943. Air intake system for diesel engine has an important purpose and what it is? I To supply the needed air to the combustion II To clean the intake air III To supply air for supercharging A. I & II B. I & III Ans. D 944. Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you must be certain the ______. A. carriage stop clamp is tightened B. pindle dutch is engaged C. carriage clamp screw is loosened D. thread dial indicator is zeroed Ans. A 945. In a single-acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most difficult to lubricate is the _______. A. Major thrust side B. Minor thrust side C. Top circumference D. Bottom circumference Ans. C C. II & III D. I, II & III

946. What kind of piping materials are used to produce piping in standard, extra strong and double extra strong weights? A. Copper pipe B. Plastic C. Iron D. Reinforce cast iron
230

Ans. C What factors to be consider in the requisition or ordering spare parts of milling machine ?
947.

I Capacity II Type III Horsepower A. I & III B. II & III C. I & II D. I, II & III Ans. D 948. What attachment can you find in air reservoir? I Safety/Relief valve II Fusible plug III Bursting disc A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I, II & III Ans. A 649. Most hand operated tools can be operated by the use of _______. A. Air B. Compressed gas C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen Ans. A 950. Which of the following flammable liquid has the Lowest Explosive Limit (LEL)? A. Hydrogen B. Naptha C. Gasoline D. Diesel oil Ans. B 951. What is the cause of depletion of oxygen in an enclosed space?
231

A. Rust in painted metal or rusting, organic cargo B. Petroleum products, chemicals C. No ventilation D. Toxic products/gas Ans. A

952. During departure from a 2 weeks anchorage, the reason why the windlass cannot lift the anchor up is _______. A. Low lube oil tank level B. Windlass defective by pass valve C. Anchor dragged sunken object D. Too cold hydraulic oil Ans. B 953. What should you do if the oxygen breathing apparatus (safety valve) starts to whistle/alarm? A. Go out/retreat to take fresh air B. Reset the safety valve C. Open the by-pass valve D. Activate the 10 min. to have more Ans. A 954. Where is the location of the backfire valve? A. Boiler furnace B. Scavenging area C. Gas cylinder Ans. C

232

955. The maximum speed for a rough machining of a carbon steel material if a high speed cutter is used in the operation of the modern milling machine onboard is _______. A. 80 rpm B. 110 rpm C. 100 rpm D. 90 rpm Ans. A Which of the following has the lowest cutting speed for an effective rough cutting operation if a high speed cutter is to be used in the modern milling machine onboard?
956.

A. Brass B. Bronze C. Malleable iron D. Carbon steel Ans. D 957. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, a steering gear feeder circuit from the emergency switchboard or alternate power supply must have the capacity for continuous operation of the rudder 15 degrees side to side in not more than 60 seconds for a period of _______. A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 120 minutes Ans. B OR A. hour B. hour C. 1 hour D. 2 hours

958. The action necessary to transfer the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control in order to use the steering gear room trick wheel, is to ____. A. align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position B. set the six way control valve in the trick wheel position C. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel D. always place the rudder in the midship position to engage in trick wheel

959.

Cause why cascade tank water temperature is high? OR

233

What could be the reason why the feed pump can hardly pump in water to the auxiliary boiler causing the cascade tank water level to rise & temperature too high? A. High ambient temperature B. Clogged condenser water tubes C. Filter dirty D. Low cascade water level

960. What could be the possible cause if the engine failed to start even if it turns freely? I Engine is too cold II No fuel is injected to the cylinder III Fuel is injected too late IV Fuel is injected too early A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III Ans. A 961. In the boilers combustion control system, when the demand for steam is increased, the ______. A. Air supply increases before fuel supply increases B. Fuel oil supply increases before air C. Steam pressure increases before air & fuel D. Flue gases increases before air & fuel Ans. A
962.

How does CO2 extinguish a fire? A. Smothering B. Cooling C. Absorb heat

234

D. Chemical reaction Ans. A

963. A _________ when properly ground, is a tool bit. A. Scriber B. File C. Tool steel D. Tool blank Ans. D 964. In an automatic auxiliary boiler when steam demand is reached, what takes place? A. A sensing device cuts out the fuel B. The stack switch cuts out the ignition electrode C. The stack switch cuts out the power supply D. A pressure switch cuts out the feed water Ans. A 965. Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing surface with porous chromium? A. The chromium will not wear out the piston rings B. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging air port C. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper ring D. Pores in the plating aid in maintaining the lube oil Ans. D

966. What effect on the pump if an impeller is replaced using a large suction eye? A. Impeller suction eye size will not affect the pumps capacity in gallons per minute
235

B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM C. The pump motor will electrically trip off the line D. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM Ans. B 967. In welding (gas) the color blue hose is _____. A. Oxygen B. Acetylene C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen Ans. A 968. The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to _________. A. reduce radial thrust to the impeller B. double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to a single volute C. reduce hydraulic end thrust D. provide the effect of multi-staging Ans. A

969. You vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than 48 hours duration. Coast Guard regulation require that the steering gear be examined & tested no earlier than _______. A. 0600 hours B. 0900 hours C. 1200 hours D. 1500 hours Ans. A 970. An AC synchronous transmission type remote steering control system consists of a _______. A. Transmitter at the steering station & a receiver at t6he steering engine B. Reversible motor at the steering station geared to the steering pumps
236

C. Small induction motor on the bridge which controls the rudder through pulleys D. Variable displacement hydraulic pump given by a reversible DC motor Ans. A 971. Which of the following survival craft onboard can be used alone by crew that was accidentally thrown from the vessel? A. Life ring B. Life boat C. Liferaft D. Rescue boat Ans. A 972. Adding chemical additive in the fuel oil tank is thru _______. A. sounding pipe B. hand pump C. during bunkering Ans. A 973. Boiler water test. A. Litmus paper 974. Change impeller diameter will vary ___. A. discharge rate/cap B. increase in suction C. motor will trip Ans. A 975. Soda get into your eyes.
A. Wash W/H2O & contact doctor by rapid

B. Go to doctor C. Notify the C/O Ans. A 976. Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scraper ring to _______. A. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine sump B. decrease piston side thrust pressure
237

C. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring land D. make it more flexible for scraping cylinder surfaces Ans. A 977. Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation can be caused by _______. A. high fluid level in the reservoir B. hydraulic fluid low floc point C. excessive discharge pressure from the pump D. clogged suction strainer in the reservoir Ans. D 978. Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced teeth? A. Second cut B. Dead smooth cut C. Bastard cut D. Smooth cut Ans. C 979. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _____. A. cavitation B. electrolysis C. abrasion D. corrosion Ans. A 980. Shapers cutting tool & tool bite is controlled by the ___. A. feed handle for vertical feed B. number of cutting strokes made bys the ram C. horizontal feed handle D. speed of stroke Ans. A 981. What is/are the immediate action to perform during normal operation of the boiler, if the water level drop that become completely out of sight in the sight glass ________. I Stop the boiler II Add feed water until the normal level is achieved III Cool the boiler before filling feed water
238

A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I, II & III Ans. C 982. Mechanical foam used for fire fighting is produced by mechanically missing & agitating ______. A. Foam chemical with air (high pressure) & water B. Soda acid & water C. Dry chemical & water D. Bicarbonate soda with air & water Ans. A
983.

What metallurgical process is used to produce metal parts from suitable metal powder place in a die for heating & compacting into desired shape? A. Sintering B. Extruding C. Forging D. Casting Ans. A

984.

By-passing exhaust gases to the atmosphere is essential during maneuvering when the engine is in variable speed in order to _______. A. Avoid condensation in the exhaust B. Prevent carbon accumulation in the exhaust boiler Ans. A

985.

What will happen to the pH value of the boiler H2O if you add water on A. Increase pH B. Decrease pH C. Become Neutral D. Nothing happen Ans. B

it?

239