MCROBIOLOGY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. The following are true about Clostridium tetani: a.

it is a Gram positive bacilli with terminal spore b. tetanus can occur weeks after the initial infection c. the symptoms of tetanus is produced by an endotoxin d. tetanus antitoxin is ineffective when the toxin enters the nervous tissue e. gas gangrene can result from Clostridium tetani infection

2. With regard to Treponema pallidum: a. the bacteria can be found in lesions of primary syphilis b. the bacteria can be found in lesions of secondary syphilis c. the bacteria can be found in the cerebrospinal fluid of tertiary syphilis d. VDRL is specific for Treponema pallidum infection e. it is resistant to penicillin

3. The following are true about hepatitis B: a. it is a RNA virus b. immunity can be acquired by vaccination with a live attenuated virus c. persistent presence of HBsAg increases the risk of chronic liver disease d. the average incubation period is 30 days

e. the presence of antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen is a reliable indicator of non-infectivity

4. Onchocerciasis: a. is transmitted by mosquito bite b. is only found in West Africa c. causes nodular lesions in the eyes and skin d. causes corneal scarring e. causes optic neuritis

5. The following are true about leprosy: a. it is caused by an acid fast bacteria b. it causes facial nerve palsy c. tuberculoid leprosy occurs in patients with poor cellular immunity d. more bacilli are found in the skin of patients with lepromatous leprosy than tuberculoid leprosy. e. granuloma is a feature of tuberculoid leprosy

Test 8 (microbiology)
1. Adenovirus: a. contains double stranded DNA b. possess an envelope c. causes adenoviral keratitis which responds well to topical acyclovir

d. can be classified into more than 40 serotypes e. causes skin papilloma

2. Rubella: a. is transmitted through the respiratory tract b. is a RNA virus c. has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days d. has maximal infectivity 24 hours before the patients develop a papulomacular rash e. more likely to cause fetal abnormalities when the mother becomes infected in late trimester

3. Measles: a. can be prevented through immunization with a live attenuated strains b. causes fetal abnormalities if the mother becomes infected during pregnancy c. is most infectious before the onset of symptoms d. is associated with secondary bacterial infection which is the main cause of mortality e. causes blindness through corneal scarring

4. Fetal abnormalities occurs if the mother becomes infected with: a. hepatitis A b. cytomegalovirus

c. syphilis d. toxoplasmosis e. Listeria monocytogenes

5. DNA virus include the following: a. hepatitis A b. hepatitis B c. hepatitis C d. molluscum contagiosum e. varicella zoster 6. Human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1): a. is a retrovirus containing RNA b. contains env gene which encodes the core nucleocapsid polypeptides c. binds specifically to B lymphocytes d. causes an increase in CD8 lymphocytes during seroconversion e. can be detected in infected individuals by measuring the p24 antigen

7. CD4: a. is a T helper cells b. in normal individual is around 600 - 1500 cells per mm3 c. contains receptors in its membrane for the gp120 envelop protein

d. is usually less than 100 cells per mm3 in patients with CMV retinitis e. is increased during treatment with HAART

8. Normal flora of the conjunctiva include: a. chlamydia b. Streptococcus viridens c. Streptococcus epidermidis d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Nocardia

9. Acanthoamoeba: a. is the most common cause of infective keratitis in contact lens wearer b. A. castellani and A. polyphaga are the two most common subtypes seen in acanthamoeba keratitis c. can be cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy individuals d. can be killed with 3% hydrogen peroxide e. causes corneal neovascularization early in the course of the disease

10. With regard to Moraxella lacunata: a. it is a Gram negative bacillus b. it causes chronic conjunctivitis

c. it is implicated in angular blepharitis d. it causes keratitis in debilitating patients e. it causes crystalline keratopathy

Test 186 (Microbiology) 1. The following are true about Reiter's syndrome: a. it is commoner in people with HLA-B27 b. it is more common in males than females c. it is most commonly seen in patients with gonococcal urethritis d. iritis is commoner than conjunctivitis in affected patients e. it is associated with circinate balanitis

2. Prophylactic antibiotic is recommended in patient with cardiac murmur undergoing: a. orbital floor fracture repair b. dacryocystorhinostomy c. trabeculectomy d. cataract extraction e. pterygium excision

3. The following conditions are associated with bacterial infection: a. acne rosacea b. marginal keratitis c. phlytenular conjunctivitis d. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome e. Mooren's ulcer

. 4. Bacteria that can penetrate intact corneal epithelium include: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Neisseria gonorrhoea d. Corynebacterium diptheriae e. Listeria monocytogenes

5. Demodex folliculorum: a. is a tick inhabiting the hair follicles b. is visible with slit-lamp c. produces clear cylinder case at the base of hair follicles d. can be easily removed with lid hygiene e. is most commonly seen in children

Test 152 (Microbiology ) 1. The following staphylococci are coagulase positive: a. S. aureus b. S. epidermidis c. S. intermedius d. S. hyicus e. S. haemolyticus

2. True statements about Staphylococcus include: a. they belong to the bacterial family Micrococcaceae b. only coagulase positive species cause human diseases c. they are oxidase negative d. they are all catalase positive e. the cells are about 1 micrometer in diameter

3. The following are true about Staphylococus aureus: a. under microscope they appears as diplococci b. they form yellow colony c. they are found in the nasal passage of normal population d. they cause haemolysis on blood agar e. they are often coagulase positive

4. True statements about Staphylococcus epidermidis: a. they form white colony b. they cause haemolysis on blood agar c. they form the normal flora on human skin d. they are often coagulase positive e. in hospital environment, they can become pathogen

5. The following features can distinguish Staphylococcus from Streptococcus: a. Staphylococcus is Gram positive whereas Streptococcus is Gram negative b. Staphylococcus has round cell whereas Streptococcus has slightly oblong cell. c. Staphylococcus is catalase positive whereas Streptococcus is catalase negative d. Staphylococcus appears as clusters under microscope whereas Streptococcus appears as long chain e. Staphylococcus divides in two planes whereas Streptococcus divides in one plane only

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Test 129 (Microbiology) 1. The following substances are used in Gram staining: a. iodine b. crystal violet c. alcohol d. safranin e. congo red

2. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria occurs through: a. mutation b. conjugation c. phagocytosis d. plasmid transfer e. spore formation

3. Fungi differ from bacteria in that the former: a. are eukaryotic b. contain both DNA and RNA c. contain cell walls d. can reproduce sexually e. can form spores

4. Chlamydia: a. possess a Gram negative cell wall b. contain muramic acid in the cell wall c. are obligate intracellular parasites d. can not grow in inanimate media e. appear as basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies on Giemsa stain

5. The following organisms are common causes of endophthalmitis following cataract surgery: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Candidiasis albican c. Streptococcal species d. Bacillus species e. Neisseria species

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Test 122 (Ocular microbiology) 1. Bacteria that can invade intact corneal epithelium include: a. Pseudomonas aeurginosa

b. Neisseria gonorrhoea c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Listeria species

2. Chocolate agar contains: a. bovine haemoglobin b. NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) c. vancomycin d. colistin e. nystatin

3. Moraxella lacunata: a. is a Gram positive bacillus b. causes angular blepharitis c. grows on MacConkey agar d. causes corneal ulcer in debilitated patients e. is sensitive to chloramphenicol 4. Adenovirus: a. is a double stranded DNA virus b. can be cultured on HeLa cell lines c. causes conjunctivitis which responds well to oral acyclovir d. causes pharyngoconjunctival fever

e. is implicated in acute retinal necrosis

5. With regard to chlamydia trachomatis: a. it contains both DNA and RNA b. it can be grown on McCoy cell culture c. trachoma is caused by subtypes D to K d. subtypes A to C are usually sexually transmitted e. it is sensitive to rifampicin

More MCQs Test 95 (microbiology) 1. The following intrauterine infection are known to cause ocular anomalies: a. cytomegalovirus b. chickenpox c. hepatitis A d. Epstein-Barr's virus e. Listeria

2. The following are used to detect antibodies: a. polymerase chain reaction

b. complement fixation c. haemaglutination inhibition d. coagulase test e. indirect immunofluorescence

3. The following are aminoglycoside antibodies: a. vancomycin. b. amikacin c. neomycin d. streptomycin e. clindamycin

4. Neuroretinitis occurs with the following infection: a. cat-scratch fever b. Lyme disease c. toxoplasmosis d. cosackie virus e. syphilis

5. Bacteria spores: a. are resistant to antibiotics

b. allow the bacteria to multiple in adverse condition c. are usually formed by Gram-negative bacteria d. can be identified with Gram stains. e. are killed by temperature of 1200 for 20 minutes.

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Test 41 (microbiology)
1. With regard to Neisseria gonorrhoea: a. they are Gram negative anaerobic cocci b. they ferment glucose and maltose c. they are oxidase positive d. they contain proteases which break down Ig A e. they are sensitive to silver nitrate

2. The following may be found as commensals in the conjunctivitis: a. Neisseria gonorrhoea b. Corynebacteria c. Micrococcus d. coagulase negative Staphylococci e. Chlamydia trachomatis

3. Stains useful for identifying fungus include:

a. Gram stain b. haematoxylin and eosin c. Gomori methanamine silver d. PAS (periodic acid-Schiff) e. Giemsa

4. Chlamydia trachomatis with serogroups A-C cause: a. non-specific urethritis b. trachoma c. ophthalmia neonatorum d. adult inclusion conjunctivitis e. lymphogranuloma venerum

5. The following contain live attenuated live vaccines: a. polio b. hepatitis A c. yellow fever d. measles e. rubella

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Test 40 (microbiology)
1. The following are true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound: a. the diagnosis is depends on microbial findings b. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord c. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin acts on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission.

d. the patient should be given antitoxin intravenously e. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound can be identified by a positive Nagler reaction

2. Hepatitis B virus: a. is a DNA virus b. the presence of e antigen indicates increased infectivity c. antibody to surface antigen usually appears within 2 weeks of infection d. the carrier rate is about 0.1% in the UK e. is a recognized cause of liver cancer

3. The following drugs act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis of the micro-organisms: a. vancomycin b. gentamicin c. cefuroxime d. amphotericin B e. erythromycin.

4. The Mantoux test: a. is positive in all patients with tuberculosis b. involves injecting PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermally c. is more sensitive than the tine test d. becomes positive within 3 weeks of acquiring tuberculosis

e. involves the CD4 cells

5. The following are true about Pseudomonas aeruginosa: a. it is the most common cause of contact lens acquired infection b. it is a Gram negative bacteria c. it can cause osteomyelitis d. it is sensitive to chloramphenicol e. it is sensitive to ciprofloxacin

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Test 26 (microbiology) k
1. Staphylococcus aureus: a. is sensitive to fusidic acid b. is resistant to phagocytosis by neutrophils c. produces exotoxins d. is the most common cause of carbuncle e. phage type I and II are the commonest cause of boils

2. The following can be used to identify Staphylococcus aureus: a. identification of Lancefield groups through serology b. phosphatase positivity c. coagulase positivity d. fermentation of mannitol

e. golden appearance of colonies

3. The effect of endotoxins include: a. inhibition of platelet aggregation b. inhibition of Hageman factor c. release of interleukin 1 d. initial leucopenia e. activation of the alternative complement pathway.

4. True statements about Actinomyces israeli include: a. it is a strict anaerobe b. it is a bacteria c. it causes chronic canaliculitis d. it is usually sensitive to penicillin e. infection is associated with discharges containing yellow sulphur granules.

5. With regard to antibiotics: a. vancomycin and penicillin inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the same mechanisms. b. vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the gut c. metronidazole crosses the blood-brain barrier readily d. sulphonamides crosses the blood-brain barrier readily e. chloramphenicol is active against Pseudomonas bacteria

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Test 25 (MCQs on microbiology)

1. The following are true about disinfectants that can be used effectively for skin: a. glutaraldehyde b. chlorhexidine c. ethyl alcohol with povidone-iodine d. ethylene oxide e. chloramphenicol drops

2. Viral with oncogenic properties in humans include: a. measles virus b. hepatitis B virus c. papovavirus d. Epstein-Barr virus e. cytomegalovirus

3. Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis include: a. cefuroxime b. erythromycin c. vancomycin d. sulphonamide e. benzylpenicillin

4. Micro-organisms that can cause latent infection include: a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. varicella-zoster virus

c. cytomegalovirus (CMV) d. hepatitis A e. chlamydia trachoma

5. Aminoglycoside: a. are active against streptococcus b. acts on the bacterial cell wall c. are useful against anaerobes d. should not be used in patients with renal failure e. damages the cochlear nerve

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Past Part 1 MRCOphth: 15 1. Herpes simplex: a. herpetic keratitis is usually caused by type 1 herpes simplex b. is a RNA virus c. is sensitive to ganciclovir d. causes congenital cataract e. causes PORN (progressive outer retina necrosis) 2. Subretinal fluid contains: a. globulin b. hyaluronic acid c. fibrinogen d. ascorbic acid e. protein concentration is higher than the serum 3. Regarding the ocular cardiac reflex: a. the afferent is through the trigeminal nerve

b. it is mediated through the vagus nerve c. it only occurs in children d. it is suppressed by atropine e. it is more common in retrobulbar than peribulbar anaesthesia 4. The aetiologies of congenital cataract include: a. toxoplasmosis b. Refsum's disease c. anirida d. thalassaemia e. congenital icthyosis 5. Chloroquine: a. is a slow acting anti-rheumatic drug b. is ototoxic c. its usual dosage is 200mg b.d. d. bull's eye maculopathy is reversible e. premaculopathy can be detected by visual field 6. The following arises from the neural crest: a. corneal stroma b. corneal endothelium c. uveal melanophore d. retinal vessel endothelium e. trabecular meshwork 7. The following are found in the lower pons: a. inferior salivatory nucleus b. inferior olivary nucleus c. facial nucleus d. abducent nucleus e. nucleus of descending spinal tract 8. Regarding the venous drainage of the eyeball: a. anterior ciliary artery drains into the anterior ciliary vein b. short posterior ciliary artery drains into the central retinal vein c. iris drains into vortex vein d. episcleral venous pressure is always negative e. choroidal venous pressure always greater than the intraocular pressure 9. Blood supply of the optic nerve include: a. branches of the central retinal artery b. branches of the long posterior ciliary artery c. main contribution from the central vessels of the optic nerve d. contributed by choroidal vessels e. branches of the pial vessels 10. -blockers: a. are all lipid soluble b. universally decreases the heart rate c. prevents cathecholamine from acting on the receptors d. causes dry eyes e. increases uveoscleral outflow More MCQs

. Regarding the photoreceptor outer segment:

a. the cone pigments differ in opsin b. phagocytosis occurs only in the rod outer segment c. abnormal phagocytosis of RPE is a cause of some forms of retinitis pigmentosa d. phagocytosis of the rod outer segment is increased in darkness e. there are joined together by tight junctions 5. The following are known components of cataract: a. urate b. haemosiderosis c. oxalate crystals d. calcium phosphate e. creatinine crystals

6. Cholesterol crystals are found in: a. subretinal space in Coat's disease b. lipid keratopathy c. disciform macular degeneration d. lattice degeneration e. synchysis scintillans

7. Morphea basal cell carcinoma: a. is cystic b. has a later presentation than the nodular form c. has a higher recurrence rate after excision biopsy d. contains pallasading of cells e. contains fibrosis in the surrounding tissue

8. Optic chiasm: a. is anterior to the olfactory bulb b. in albinism has decrease crossing of fibres c. has a variable relationship to the pituitary gland d. supplied by anterior communicating artery e. forms part of the wall of the third ventricle 9. Regarding CMV virus: a. it is a RNA virus b. it belongs to the same family as Epstein-Barr virus c. it is sensitive to acyclovir d. it rarely caused retinitis in HIV patients with normal CD4+ counts e. it causes foetal abnormalities if the mother acquires the infection during pregnancy

10. The following are causes of hyperviscosity syndrome:

a. iron deficiency anaemia b. multiple myeloma c. hyperlipidaemia d. sickle cell anaemia e. haemorrhagic shock