1.

Fentanyl
A . Has a potency 10 times that of morphine
B. Is water soluable
C. Has a large volume of distribution
D. Does not accumulate even after repeated doses
E. Is metabolized to norfentanyl

2. The relatively rapid awakening after a single intravenous bolus dose of thiopentone is due to
A. Metabolism by the liver
B. Distribution to fat
C. Distribution to brain, liver and kidneys
D. Elimination in the urine
E. Ester hydrolysis

3. The following are negative inotropes

A. Nifedipine
B. Lisinopril
C. Amiodarone
D. Glucagon
E. Atenolol

4. The following are recognized side-effects of the drugs listed in the brackets
A. Pancreatitis ( Frusemide )
B. Nasal congestion ( Phenoxybenzamine )
C. Cough ( Enalapril )
D. Dry mouth ( Cyclizine )
E. Increased bronchial secretion ( Chlormethiazole )
5. The following drugs are readily cross the normal blood brain barrier
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Physostigmine
C. Neostigmine
D. Glycopyrollate
E. Vecuronium

6. The following drugs may be used as antidotws for the treatment of the associated overdoses or poisonings
A. Naloxone and co-proxamol overdose
B. Methionine and paracetamol overdose
C. Sodium calciumedetate and cyanide poisoning
D. Desferrioxime and lead poisoning
E. Pralidoxime mesylate and organophosphorus poisoning

7. The following are anti-hypertensive agents

A. Moxonidine
B. Pentolamine
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Prazocin
E. Losartan

8. The following local anaesthetic agents are esters

A. Amethocaine
B. Chloroprocaine
C. Cocaine
D. Ropivacaine
E. Prilocaine
9. Drugs with greater than 50% oral bioavailability include
A. Morphine
B. Propanolol
C. Methadone
D. Atenolol
E. Gentamicin

10. The following are metabolized by zero-order kinetics in clinical dose

A. Phenytoin
B. Paracetamol
C.Ethanol
D.Aspirin
E. Thiopentone

11. The following drugs have a Vd greater than 100 litres in a 70kg adult
A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Digoxin
D.Thipentone
E. Fentanyl

12. Pharmacological effects of morphine include

A. Constipation
B. Biliary spasm
C. Histamine release
D. Cough
E. Release of antidiuretic hormone
13. The following are recognized side effects of digoxin
A. Nausea
B. Xanthopsia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hyperuricaemia
E. Gynaecomastia

14. The following drugs exhibit significant hepatic first pass metabolism
A. Aspirin
B. Morphine
C. Propanolol
D. Glyceryl trinitrate
E. Alcohol

15. Adenosine
A. Is effective in ventricular tachycardia
B. Has a half life of approximately 10 minutes
C. Should be given as a slow intravenous bolus
D. Can result in wheezing
E. Causes a coronary vasodilatation

16. Frusemide
A. Has a duration of 24 hours when given orally
B. Should be given in lower doses in renal impairment
C. May cause hyperuricaemia
D. May cause hypomagnesaemia
E. May cause hypochloraemic alkalosis
17. Nitric oxide
A. Was formerly known as endothelium-derived relaxing factor
B. Causes pulmonary vasodilatation
C. Inhibit platelet aggregation
D. When released into the circulation, results in rapid deactivation
E. Should be administered in combination with oxygen

18. Antibiotics which are bactericidal

A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin
E. Metronidazole

19. Dopexamine
A. Is a precursor of noradrenaline
B. Exerts its predominant effect by stimulating beta-1 adrenoceptors
C. Is a weak beta-2 adrenoceptor agonist
D. Reduces atrial filling pressures
E. Produces pulmonary hypertension

20. In the Vaughn-William classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs

A. Digoxin is a class III drug
B. Adenosine is a class Ia drug
C. Flecainide is a class IV drug
D. Lignocaine is a class Ib drug
E. Amiodarone is a class III drug
21. Dantrolene
A. Can be administered intramuscularly
B. Contains 3g mannitol in each 20mg vial
C. The dose for the treatment of MH should not exceed 1mg/kg in 24 hours
D. Interacts with verapamil
E. Causes hyperkalaemia

22. Drugs to be avoided in heart failure include

A. Verapamil
B. Atenolol
C. Lisinopril
D. Enalapril
E. Glyceryl trinitrate

23. Adverse effects of amitriptyline overdose include

A. Dilated pupil
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. Convulsion
D. Hyperreflexia
E. Metabolic acidosis

24. Treatment with metformin

A. Is a recognized cause of hypoglycaemia in an elderly diabetic patient
B. Is a recognized cause of diarrhea
C. Reduces serum triglyceride concentration
D. Increases serum insulin concentration
E. Is contraindicated in presence of liver disease
25. Epileptiform activity may be seen with
A. Propofol
B. Atracurium
C. Neostigmine
D. Etomidate
E. Ketamine

26. The following are halogenated ethers

A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Enflurane
D. Desflurane
E. Sevoflurane

27. Drugs with a prolonged action in the presence of defective plasma acetylcholinesterase include
A. Atracurium
B. Prilocaine
C. Procaine
D. Trimetaphan
E. Esmolol

28. Drugs which may cause a decrease in serum potassium concentration include
A. Insulin
B. Frusemide
C. Digoxin
D. Theophylline
E. Calcium antagonist
29. The following interactions are antagonistic
A. Naloxone and morphine
B. Acetylcysteine and paracetamol
C. Atenolol and salbutamol
D. Protamine and warfarin
E. Tranexamic acid and streptokinase

30. The metabolism of morphine involves

A. Acetylation
B. Demethylation
C. Oxidation
D. Methylation
E. Conjugation with glucuronide