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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.

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Manipal academy of higher education PG entrance test
2003 recollected questions.
MAHE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
25th March 2003 10. Brush burns refers to
1. Which of the following is the remnant of the a. Injury due to friction
transverse obliterated ligament b. Injury due to electrocution
a. Flexor pollicis longus c. Injury due to steam
b. Flexor carpi ulnaris d. None of the above
c. Flexor carpi radialis 11. Erythema ab igne
d. Flexor digitorum sublimes a. Is due to excessive heat
2. The failure of degeneration of the the part of aorta b. Due to excessive cold
from the 4th arch to the segmental artery is c. Due to increased friction
a. Double arch of aorta d. None of the above
b. Patent ductus arteriosus 12. The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is
c. Coarctation of aorta a. Co2
d. Hypoplastic aorta b. Oxygen
3. Bunion is c. No
a. Exostosis of the base of the 1st metatarsal d. Hbo3
bone 13. The left to right shunt is seen in all of the
b. Bursa at the base of the metatarsal bone following except
c. Inflamed adventitial bursa at the base of a. PDA
the 1st metatarsal bone b. VSD
d. Exostosis at the head of the 1st metatarsal c. ASD
bone d. TGA
4. Unexpectedly increase in diffusing capacity is 14. Digoxin is used in which of the following
found in conditions
a. Cystic fibrosis a. Atrial ectopics
b. Pulmonary heamorrage b. Flutter with 2:1 block
c. Bronchitis c. Ventricular tachyarrhythmia
d. Bronchiectasis d. Ventricular bigeminy
5. The adenylate cyclase is found is associated with 15. Digoxin toxicity can be recognized when there is
a. cAMP a. QT interval is shortened
b. Phosphodiesterase b. Ventricular bigeminy
c. GTP regulating proteins c. Atrial flutter
d. Nuclear receptors d. Mobitz II degree heart block
6. AMP activates which of the following 16. The duration of the depolarisation of the heart
a. Phosphofructokinase I from the SA node to the AV node is reflected on
b. Pyruvate kinase the ECG by
c. Phosphoglucomutase a. QT interval
d. Hexokinase b. PR interval
7. Packed cells are formed by c. RS interval
a. Filtration d. RR interval
b. Centrifugation 17. An adult female presented with thickening of base
c. Precipitation of nail plate of all the fingers .The most likely
d. Sedimentation cause for her condition would be
8. The sequence in respiratory chain in the a. Lead poisoning
mitochondria is b. Psoriasis
a. c-c1-b-a-a3 c. Lichen Planus
b. c1-c-b-b1-a3-a d. Pemphigus
c. b-c1-c-a3-a 18. A 13 year old boy presented with a 6 year old
d. a-a3-b-c-c1 lesion over his buttock.On examination the lesion
9. The riders bone is due to calcification of which of showed scarring at one side and also there was
the following bones puckering of the overlying skin. The lesion is
a. Adductor longus most likely to be
b. Adductor magnus a. Tuberculous Chancre
c. Popliteus b. Lupus vulgaris
d. Vastus lateralis c. Scofuloderma
d. None of the above

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
d. Peroneus brevis

19. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction 29. Which of the following structures enter through
in an adult is the greater sciatic notch and leave through the
a. Diverticula lessor notch
b. Adhesions a. Obturator nerve
c. Trichobezoar b. Pudendal artery
d. Volvulus c. Femoral vessels
20. In pheochromocytoma there is increased level of d. Lesser sciatic nerve
a. Serum HMA 30. The sacrotuberous ligament represents the origin
b. Serum bradykinin of
c. Urinary VMA a. Gluteus Maximus
d. All of the above b. Semimembrabus
21. In Werdnig Hoffman’s disease the lesion is at c. Medial head of biceps femoris
a. Posterior horn cell d. Sacrospinus lig
b. Anterior horn cell 31. Ventral hernia includes
c. Peripheral nerve a. Obturator hernia
d. Motor end plate b. Incisinal hernia
22. Neonatal seizures with best prognosis is seen c. Femoral hernia
a. Hypoglycemia d. Indirect inguinal hernia
b. Late onset hypocalcemia 32. Strangulated hernia is commonly seen in which of
c. Hypoxia the following
d. Kernicterus a. Direct inguinal hernia
23. In a 30 year old patient presenting at 38weeks b. Indirect inguinal hernia
gestation with increased reflexes and hypertension c. Femoral hernia
and pedal edema all of the following can be seen d. Obturator hernia
except 33. In a child who presented with twitching
a. Hypocalcemia movements of the face and the upper extremities
b. Increased platelets ,most probably has lesion involving
c. Increased uric acid levels a. Precentral gyrus
d. Increased creatine levels b. Post central gyrus
24. In toxic shock syndrome all of the following can c. Caudate nucleus
be seen except d. Frontal lobe
a. Shock 34. The root values of the pudendal nerve is
b. Fever a. S1,2,3
c. Hypercalcemia b. S4
d. Rash
25. Muscle crossing both shoulder and elbow joint is
c. L1,2,3
a. Corochobrachialis d. L2,3,4
b. Medial head of triceps 35. In a patient with thyroid surgery the block to be
c. Biceps bracii given is at the
d. Brachilais a. Stellate ganglion
26. The main bone of the nasal septum is b. Upper cervical ganglion
a. Vomer c. Dorsal sympathetic ganglia
b. Nasal bones d. Any of the above
c. Maxillary bone 36. The stellate ganglion block would cause which of
d. None of the above the following
27. All of the following open in the middle meatus a. Myosis
except b. Flushing of skin
a. Anterior ethmoidal sinus c. Ptosis
b. Nasolacrimal duct d. All of the above
c. Maxillary sinus 37. The muscle arising from the scaphoid fossa is
d. Frontal sinus a. Tensor tympani
28. Deep peronial nerve supplies all of the following b. Levator pelatii
except c. Stylopharyngeus
a. Tibialis anterior d. Tensor palitii
b. Extensor Hallusis longus 38. EB virus belongs to which virus
c. Extensor digitorum longus a. Retro virus

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
b. Herpes virus a. FTAbs
c. RNA virus b. VDRL
d. Pox virus c. Microheamglutination
d. TPI

39. Butchers thigh would refer to 48. In brain the breakdown of L-DOPA is prevented
a. Lipodystrophy of subcutaneous tissue by
b. Section of femoral vessels during boning a. Deprinyl
c. Rupture of vastus lateralis b. Pyridoxine
d. Fracture of femur c. Haloperidol
40. The abnormal deposition of calcium pyro d. Bromocriptine
phosphate dyhydrate crystals(CPPD) would cause 49. Selective reuptake inhibitor of serotonin but not
all of the following except norepinephrine is by
a. Pseudogout a. Protryptiline
b. Pseudoosteoarthritis b. Flouxetine
c. Pseudorheumatoid arthritis c. Meprotriline
d. Pseudoankylosing spondylitis d. Amytrptiline
41. All of the following procedures can be done in 50. Presence of sensation without the presence of a
osteoarthrosis except stimuli would refer to
a. Synovectomy a. Delusion
b. Osteotomy b. Hallucination
c. Arthrodesis c. Illusion
42. 1 change in TB spine is
st d. Projection
a. Erosion of pedicle 51. Spider leg appearance is seen in
b. Narrowing of disc space a. Polycystic kidneys
c. Abcess with soft tissue swelling b. Horse shoe kidney
d. Disc collapse c. Angiomyolipoma’s
43. LeFort’s fracture would include all of the d. Renal TB
following except 52. PQLI would include all of the following except
a. Maxilla a. IMR
b. Mandible b. MMR
c. Zygoma c. Life expectancy at 1 year
d. Nasal bones d. Literacy rate
44. An infant was brought with history of running 53. The treatment of choice in otosclerosis is
nose ,fever ,myalgia. There were also similar a. NaF
complaints seen in 3 other family members. Over b. Stapedectomy
the last 8 hours the infant has developed wheeze c. Cochlear implant
hyperexpansion of chest with difficulty in d. Antibiotics
breathing ,but there were no rales on examination. 54. The response to iron administration would be
The likely diagnosis is earliest seen by
a. Viral croup a. Increased TIBC
b. Epiglotitis b. Increased haemoglobin
c. Bronchiolitis c. Reticulocytosis
d. Bronchiectasis d. Increased hematocrit
45. On examination of a specimen the lung showed 55. Which of the following is true in the nitrogen
exudation of inflammatory cells with metabolism
displacement of air .This is a pathologic feature of a. Ammonia is the most important nitrogen
a. Bronciectasis containing substance in urine
b. Bronchial asthma b. There is breakdown and resynthesis of 56
c. Lobar pneumonia gms of protein everyday
d. Bronchitis c. The enzymes aminotransferase and
46. At the end of a 48 hours fast the substance likely glutamate dehydrogenase are the main
to be involved in the formation of blood glucose enzymes in the formation of urea
would be d. Excess of aminoacid are used in the
a. Muscle glycogen synthesis of proteins
b. Liver glycogen 56. Methyl trap which occurs due to vitamin B12
c. Aminoacid deficiency would be due to
d. Acetoacetate a. Methionine metabolism is decreased
47. The test commonly used to follow up patients to b. Conversion of glutamyl coA to Succinyl
check for response of treatment in syphilis is coA

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
c. Conversion of methyl coA to succinyl 66. Addition of detergent which causes disruption of
coA phospholipid membrane in all of the following
except
a. Polio virus
b. Vaccinia
57. RNA is extracted through which of the following c. Variola
a. Northern blot d. Eastern equine encephalitis virus
b. Southern blot
c. Eastern blot 67. Anterior uveitis is seen in which of the following
d. Western blot a. Rheumatoid arthritis
58. X linked inheritance is seen in all of the following b. Ankylosing spondylitis
except c. HLA B27
a. Fabry’s disease d. All of the above
b. G6PD deficiency 68. All of the following are dimorphic fungi except
c. Myotonic dystrophy a. Blastomycosis
d. Heamophilia A b. Candida
59. All of the following are true about ZES except c. Coccidiodomycosis
a. Multiple ulcers may be seen d. Histoplasmosis
b. Ulcers at unusual places may be seen 69. Which of the following is true about IV
c. Gastrin level is increased administration of gamma globulin
d. Urease breath test is positive a. Should be given slow IV because it
60. In a 40 year patient there was pleural fluid induces anticomplementary activity
.Analysis of this fluid showed a protein ratio of b. Can be safely given in IgA deficiency
0.38 and a LDH level of 125 U/L and LDH ratio c. Known to cause AIDS
of pleural fluid to serum of 0.48. The most d. Large doses in ITP cause remission
probable diagnosis is 70. Aschoff nodules are seen in
a. Ureamia a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Congestive cardiac failure b. Rheumatic fever
c. Sarcoidosis c. SLE
d. Pulmonary embolism d. Sjogren’s syndrome
61. Horner Trantas spots are seen in which of the 71. Raynouds phenomenon is seen in all of the
following following except
a. Trachoma a. Scleroderma
b. Vernal Cataarh b. Beurgers disease
c. Disciform keratitis c. Thoraxic outlet syndrome
d. Fungal infection d. Vibratory tool users
62. Cromolyn’s are used in the treatment of Asthma to 72. Heamorhagic cystitis is seen in use of
prevent recurrecnces. The mechanism of action is a. Adriamycin
by b. Cyclophosphamide
a. Leukotreine antagonist c. Bleomycin
b. Beta 2 agonist d. Busulphan
c. Mast cell stabilizer 73. Cardiac toxicity is seen most in
d. Inhibits neutrophils a. Bleomycin
63. Corneal guttata is seen b. Adriamycin
a. Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy c. Methotrexate
b. Senile endothelial dystrophy d. Busulphan
c. Secondary endothelial dystrophy 74. Hepar lobatum is associated with
64. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with which of a. Hepatitis A
the following b. Syphillis
a. Anterior capsular cataract c. Yellow fever hepatitis
b. Posterior capsular cataract d. Dengue
c. Zonular cataract 75. All of the following arise from the ovum except
d. Nuclear cataract a. Teratoma
65. Most unstable vaccine is b. Struma ovarii
a. OPV c. Krukenberg’s
b. BCG d. Dysgerminoma
c. DPT 76. Endometrial hyperplasia is seen to be associated
d. Measles with
a. Cystic terratoma
b. Endodermal tumor

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
c. PCOD a. Closed angle glaucoma
d. Sertoli leydig cell tumor b. Open angle glaucoma
c. Senile cataract
d. Vitreus heamorrage

87. Increased field of vision is associated with which

77. Endometrial carcinoma is associated with all of of the following
the following except a. Yellow
a. Obesity b. Blue
b. Multiparity c. White
c. Hypertension d. Green
d. Diabetes Mellitus 88. Cough is an adverse effect seen in administration
78. A young male presented with gynecomastia and of which of the following
was found to have 47 XXY. He is also likely to a. Nifedipine
have b. Enalapril
a. Decreased levels of LH and FSH c. Prazocin
b. Estrogen excess d. Furesimide
c. Azoospermia 89. Drug which can be safely used in pregnancy is
d. Progesternoe excess a. Tetracycline
79. All of the following are seen in turners syndrome b. Sulphonylurea
except c. Heparin
a. Short stature d. Warfarin
b. Mental retardation 90. Cauliflower ear is due to
c. Primary amenorrhea a. Otitis externa
d. Coarctation of aorta b. Haematoma of the ear
80. Regulation of registered medical practitioner is c. Mastoiditis
under the purview of d. Congenital
a. State medical health council 91. All of the following are true about achondroplasia
b. Medical council of India except
c. Health welfare ministry a. Large skull
d. Central health ministry b. Dwarfism
81. Somniferous toxin is c. Mental retardation
a. Dhatura d. Short trunk
b. Opium 92. Digoxin is used in
c. Belladona a. HOCM
d. Cannabis b. Atrial fluttet
82. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in c. Ventricular arrhythmia’s
a. Carbolic acid poisoning d. Ectopics
b. Sulphuric acid poisoning 93. The antibioitic which can be safely used in
c. Barbiturate poisoning pregnancy is
d. Benzodiazepine poisoning a. Tetracycline
83. Gall stone is commonly impacted at b. Ampicillin
a. Ileum c. Streptomycin
b. Colon d. Sulphonomides
c. Stomach 94. Ototoxicity is seen in all of the following except
d. Rectum a. Ampicillin
84. MTP act of 1971 provides for termination of b. Streptomycin
pregnancy till what age c. Kanamycin
a. 12 weeks d. Gentamycin
b. 16 weeks 95. To differentiate between supraventricular
c. 20 weeks tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia of
d. 24 weeks aberrant conduction all the following points
85. Zero order kinetics is followed by all of the support the latter except
following except a. Wide QRS >0.16 secs
a. Phenytoin b. Carotid massage causes a 2:1 block
b. Ethanol c. Oesophageal leads show A-V
c. Barbiturates dissociation
d. Salycilates 96. Carotid sinus massage produces
86. Frequent changes in glasses is associated with a. Reflex bradypnea
which of the following diseases b. Reflex bradycardia

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
c. Reflex tachycardia
d. Hyperpnea

107.In a diabetic lady the head is delivered but there is

97. Cardiospasm is difficulty to deliver the shoulder. The condition
a. Coronary artery stenosis that is likely suspected is
b. Presbyoesophagus a. Omphalocele
c. Esophageal webs b. Hydrocephalus
d. Cricoid narrowing c. Shoulder dystocia
98. Hirudin is d. Siamese twins
a. Blood coagulant 108.Carcinoma in situ is treated by all of the following
b. Found in human saliva except
c. Inhibits thrombin a. Laser ablation
d. Is an antidote for heparin b. Cryosurgery
99. The treatment of choice for resistant gonococcal c. Radical hysterectomy
infection is d. Conization
a. Erythromycin 109.Calot’s triangle is in relation to
b. Benzathine pencillin a. Right hepatic artery
c. Benzylpencillin b. Left Gastric artery
d. Ceftriaxone c. Right gastric artery
100.Theophylline levels are increased by d. Cystic artery
a. Ciprofloxacin aIp p g.com
b. Cotrimoxazole 110.Urokinase and streptokinase are contraindicated in
c. Erythromycin a. Malignancy
d. All of the above b. A-V fistula
101.Best muscle relaxant effect is seen by c. Pulmonary embolism
a. Halothane d. Thrombophlebitis
b. Nitrous oxide 111.The 2nd stage of labour is defined as
c. Ether a. Onset of true labour pains to expulsion of
d. Theophylline fetus
102.True about halothane is b. Complete dilation of cervix to expulsion
a. Colourless liquid stored in amber of fetus
coloured bottles c. Labour pains to expulsion of placenta
b. Used in vaporizers like floutec d. Dilatation of cervix to expulsion of
c. Used in neurosurgery placenta
d. All of the above 112.Early deceleration is seen with
103.Regarding Pentothal sodium is a. Cord compression
a. Amorphous yellow powder b. Placental hypoxia
b. General anaesthetic c. Head compression
c. Both A and B d. None of the above
d. Inhalational anaesthetic 113.Best (specific) assessment of foetal well being is
104.True regarding Ozeana is all of the following by
except a. Biophysical profile
a. More common in females b. Oxytocin challenge test
b. Unilateral c. Non stress test
c. Feotor is essential feature d. Urinary estradiol estimation
d. Full of greenish crusts 114.Which of the following precipitates an attack of
105.Ectopic pregnancy is more common seen in all of glaucoma in a patient
the following except a. Dark environment
a. IUCD use b. Atropine
b. Adenomyosis c. Sleep
c. Endometriosis d. Timolol
d. Tuberculosis 115.Prostaglandins are generally not used in tocolysis
106.Genital tuberculosis affects predominantly because
a. Uterus a. They are terratogenic and cause fetal
b. Ovary structural abnormalities
c. Fallopian tubes b. They may close the patent ductus
d. Cervix arteriosis prematurely
c. Cause placental hypoxia

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
d. None of the above 124.The most common complication of H. Infleunza
meningitis is
a. Otitis media
b. Bronchopneumonia
c. Orchitis
116.Engagement refers to passage of d. Sub dural effusion
a. Presenting part through the inlet
b. Passage of occiput through inlet 125.The factor which is responsible for the virulence
c. Passage of greatest diameter of the of H. Influenza is
presenting part through the inlet a. Potent endotoxin
d. Passage of presenting part through the b. Pili
outlet c. A rubital and a ributol containing capsule
117.In a diabetic patient post renal transplant there d. Exotoxin
was decreased renal function within one month
All of the following could explain the cause 126.Which of the following features about
except campylobacter jejuni is true
a. Acute transplant rejection a. It releases an enterotoxin
b. Uretric rejection resulting in its b. Bloody diarhea is rare
obstruction c. Presents within 6 hours of ingestion of
c. Recurrence of disease process contaminated food
d. Renal artery stenosis d. Organism can be detected in stools
118.The most common cause of secondary 127.The polymorphous rash which develops due to
hypertension in children is exposure to light is due to what wave length
a. Renal artery stenosis commonly
b. Adrenal tumors a. 210-300
c. Renal disease b. 290-400
d. Coarctation of aorta c. 400-700
119.Carcinoid tumors of the GIT commonly are d. 700-900
known to affect which of the following valves 128.The most common cause of occupational skin
a. Pulmonary cancer is
b. Mitral a. UV rays
c. Tricuspid b. Coal tar
d. Aortic c. Aniline dye’s
120.All of the following drugs are known to cause d. Crysolite
cholestatic jaundice except 129.The causal agent associated with mesothelioma is
a. INH a. Lead
b. Chlorpromazine b. Arsenic
c. O.C.Pills c. Asbestos
d. Erythromycin d. Silica
121.Mid day meal contains proteins and calories in 130.Vinyl choride is known to cause which of the
what proportions following
a. ½ proteins and ½ calories a. Hepatoma
b. ½ proteins and 1/3rd calories b. Angiosarcoma of the liver
c. 1/3rd proteins and 1/3rd calories c. Angiosarcoma of the kidney
d. Small cell carcinoma
d. 2/3rd calories and 1/3rd proteins 131.The lymphatic spread is seen in all of the
122.The optimum calories to be provided by proteins following except
should be a. Terratoma
a. 5-10% b. Seminoma
b. 10-15% c. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. 15-20% d. Basal cell carcinoma
d. 20-30% 132.Which of the following is true regarding ESR
123.If a drug is given repeatedly at approximately the a. Increased in polycythemia
same time as its half life, after hom many dosings b. Increased in sickle cell anemia
will the drug achieve a steady state in plasma c. Useful in monitoring the treatment
a. 2-3 response in temporal arteritis
b. 4-5 d. Decreased in pregnancy
c. 8-9 133.Which of the following is a T cell malignancy
d. 6-8 a. CML
b. Hodgkins disease

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
c. Mycosis fungoides d. Anaplastic
d. Burkits lymphoma 143.KFD is transmitted by
a. Soft tick
b. Hard tick
c. Mosquito
d. Body louse

134.Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in which 144.Supraclavicular lymphnode involvement is

of the following conditions commonly commonly seen in
a. Hairy cell leukaemia a. Primary lymphoma’s
b. Chronic myeloid leukaemia b. Stomach and lung cancer
c. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia c. Lateral 1/3rd tumors of tongue
d. Lymphomas d. Tumors of the ear
135.The phildelphia chromosome is classically 145.In a 48 year old patient the serum osmolality was
associated with which of the following found to be low. His serum sodium was 120
a. CLL meq/l. To make a diagnosis of SIADH which of
b. CML the following would be consistent
c. Burkits lymphoma a. Persistently urine osmolality<300 mosm
d. Hairy cell leukaemia “AI PP G”. c om b. Serum potassium 6 mmol/l
136.All of the following are poor prognosticators c. Presents with nocturia
except d. Collapse of right apical lobe on X-Ray
a. Mediastinal tumors 146.Uncinate fits are commonly preceded by
b. Leucocyte count>100000 cells/cmm at a. Visual hallucinations
the time of presentation b. Unpleasant olfactory sensations
c. Age between 2-10 years c. Feeling of unreality
d. Aneuploidy d. Auditory hallucinations
137.The treatment of choice in pancreatic abcess is 147.The olfactory tract ends by passing through which
a. Cystogastrostomy of the following
b. Cystoenterostomy a. Medial olfactory striae
c. External drainage b. Lateral olfactory striae
d. Antibiotics c. Diagonal band of broca’s
138.Chronic pancreatitis is associated with all of the 148.Mondor’s disease is
following except a. Terratoma of the mediastinum
a. Calcification of pancreatic duct b. Thrombophlebitis of the breast vessels
b. Steatorrhea c. Associated with renal carcinoma
c. Bronze skin discoloration d. None of the above
d. Diabetes mellitus 149.The origin of the medial epiphyseal centre is
139.Pyloric stenosis is associated with all of the a. 3 years
following except b. 7 years
a. Weight loss c. 11 years
b. Diarrhea d. 5years
c. Ramsteads operation 150.Which of the following peptides antogonizes the
d. Hypokalemia is seen actions of insulin
140.Functions of the amniotic fluid include a. Neuropeptide Y
a. Decreased fetal weight b. Growth hormone
b. Reduce trauma to fetus c. Substance P
c. Conjugate and store hormones d. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
d. All of the above 151.The discovery of the small pox vaccination is
141.True about medullary carcinoma of thyroid is all credited to
of the following except a. Pasteur
a. Arises from parafollicular cells b. Jenner
b. APUD tumor c. Lister
c. Familial association with parathyroid d. Koch
adenoma’s and pheochromocytoma’s 152.The audiometry in noise induced hearing loss
d. Intense lymphocytic infiltration would show a dip at what frequency
142.Best prognosis is seen in which of the following a. 2000 Hz
thyroid carcinoma’s b. 1000 Hz
a. Papillary c. 3000 Hz
b. Follicular d. 4000 Hz
c. Medullary 153.The treatment of choice in otosclerosis is

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MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
a. NaF a. Methyldopa
b. Stapedectomy b. Propranolol
c. Cochlear implant c. Insulin
d. Antibiotics d. Betamethasone

154.Epiphyseal dysgenesis is seen in which of the 163.True about spina bifida and anencephaly is all of
following the following except
a. Hypoparathyroidism a. May be familial
b. Hyperparathyroidism b. Always caused by toxin
c. Hypothyroidism c. Can be reliably diagnosed by ultrasound
d. Hyperthyroidism and AFP levels
155.A farmer after several hours after entering his d. Associated with hydramnios
farm develops fever myalgia and dyspnea. All of 164.TB cases can be detected in mass populations by
the following are true about his disease except which of the following
a. PFT would reveal a restrictive pattern a. Sputum AFB
b. Precipitating antibodies can be b. Tuberculin
confirmative c. Sputum culture
c. Thermophilic actinomycetes can be the d. MMR
causative agent 165.A technologist forgets iodine fixation step while
d. Immediate IgE is not associated with this doing the gram stain preparation of a
disease process ataphylococci containing specimen. The
156.Social pathology would refer to organisms would appear
a. Determinants of disease in community a. Pink
b. Frequency of disease in community b. Blue
c. Type of disease in community c. The organisms would be washed off the
d. Relation between disease and social slide
pathology d. Colourless
157.KF rings are found in 166.Retinitis pigmentosa would affect
a. Heamochromatosis a. Rods predominantly
b. Wilson’s disease b. Cones predominantly
c. Diabetes Mellitus c. Both equally
d. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Rods only
158.Epidemic typhus is caused by 167.Cyclic trends are seen in which of the following
a. R. typhii a. Rabies
b. R. prowazaki b. Measles
c. R. akari c. Cholera
d. R. Rickettsiae d. Hepatitis
159.Which of the following can be found in chronic 168.Most labile vaccine is
active hepatitis a. OPV
a. HbsAg positive HbsAb negative b. Measles
b. HbsAg negative HbcAb positive and c. BCG
HbsAb negative d. DPT
c. HbsAg negative HbsAg positive 169.Which of the following are true about ANP
d. HbsAg positive HbcAb negative a. Increased blood pressure
160.All of the following are included as causes of b. Increased GFR
maternal death except c. Increased sodium reabsorption
a. Following abortion d. Causes decreased sodium secretion
b. During lactation 1st month 170.Basophilic stippling is seen which of the
c. During lactation 8th month following cells
d. During the last trimester due to APH a. Neutrophils
161.PQLI would include all of the following except b. RBC’s
a. IMR c. Basophils
b. MMR d. Eosinophils
c. Life expectancy at 1 year 171.Median is defined as
d. Literacy rate a. The most repeatable value in a sequence
162.Inspite of use of tocolytics there were labour b. Core value in a randomly arranged set of
pains, to increase the fetal lung maturity the drug values
to be used is

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 AIPPG.com Recollected Papers section.
MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
c. The mid value in a set of values arranged a. Composed of phosphosphingolipids
in ascending or descending way b. Decreased compliance
d. Sum of all the value divided by the c. Secreted by type II cells
number of variables d. Prevents lung collapse

172.All of the following about turners syndrome are

true except 182.True regarding atopic dermatitis is
a. Amennorhea a. Can be reliably diagnosed by history of
b. Mental retardation atopy and pruritus and the clinical
c. Short stature features
d. Coarctation of aorta b. Involves the extensor aspect in adults
173.True regarding cystic hygroma is c. Is an autoimmune process
a. Is a type of cavernous hemangioma 183.Ingestion of eggs with the passage of the larva to
b. Is brilliantly translucent the lungs is the life cycle seen in
c. Is due to defect in 2nd arch a. Strongoloides stercoralis
174.Genetic counselling is helpful in decreasing the b. Ankylostoma duodenale
incidence of c. Ascaris
a. AIDS d. Shistosomiasis
b. Coronary artery disease 184.In the life cycle of anopheles mosquito the
c. Sickle cell disease humans are
d. Cleft palate a. Accidental hosts
175.Blood supply of nasal mucosa is through b. Intermediate host
a. Mostly Internal carotid artery c. Definitive host
b. Mostly external carotid artery d. Obligatory hosts
c. Only internal carotid artery 185.Accole forms are seen in
d. Only external carotid artery’ a. P.vivax
176.True about cerebellum is b. P. falciparam
a. Is largely a negative output from the c. P.malraie
cortex d. P.ovale
b. Has a inhibitory tone on the muscle 186.The root values of the pudendal nerve is
c. Causes conscious motor activity a. S1,2,3
d. The deep cerebellar nuclei have a b. S4
predominantly a excitatory output c. L1,2,3
177.Dapsone is useful in all of the following except
a. Dermatitis herpetiformis
d. L2,3,4
b. Mycetoma 187.The most common complication of H. Infleunza
c. Lymphoma meningitis is
d. Leprosy a. Otitis media
178.Space spray is b. Bronchopneumonia
a. Malathion c. Orchitis
b. Pyrethrum d. Sub dural effusion
c. DDT 188.Aschoff nodules are seen in
d. Chlorfos a. Rheumatoid arthritis
179.Index case is defined as b. Rheumatic fever
c. SLE
a. The 1st case to start the epidemic d. Sjogren’s syndrome
b. The 1st case to come to the notice of the 189.The optimum calories to be provided by proteins
investigator should be
c. The 1st confirmed case responsible for a. 5-10%
the epidemic b. 10-15%
180.The common problem seen in tracheostomy in c. 15-20%
children is d. 20-30%
a. Vocal cord granuloma 190.False regarding embrolyologic development is
b. Decannulation a. Fossa ovalis is from primary septum
c. Vocal cord paralysis b. Septum fossa ovalis is from ostium
d. Tracheal stenosis secundum
181.Regarding surfactant all of the following are true c. Foramina venereum is arising form the
except interventricular septum

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 AIPPG.com Recollected Papers section.
MANIPAL 2003 PG Exam.
d. Foramina venereum is arising form the Visit www.aippg.com for all pg entrance
left side
/ plab downloads.
Send in more corrections / papers / questions to
contribute@aippg.com Suggested answer Key (beta version)

1. B 49. B 97. B 145.D

2. * 50. B 98. C 146.B
3. C 51. A 99. D 147.B
4. B 52. B 100.D 148.B
5. A 53. B 101.B 149.B
6. C 54. C 102.D 150.B
7. C 55. C 103.C 151.B
8. C 56. C* 104.B 152.D
9. B 57. A 105.B 153.B
10. A 58. C 106.C 154.C
11. A 59. D 107.C 155.D
12. A 60. B 108.C 156.D
13. D 61. B 109.D 157.B
14. B 62. C 110.A 158.B
15. B 63. A 111. B 159.B
16. B 64. C 112.C 160.C
17. C 65. A 113.A 161.B
18. * 66. A 114.B* 162.D
19. B 67. D 115.B 163.B
20. D 68. B 116.C 164.A
21. B 69. D 117.C 165.*
22. B 70. B 118.C 166.A
23. B 71. C 119.B 167.B*
24. C 72. B 120.A 168.A
25. C 73. B 121.B 169.B
26. A 74. B 122.C 170.B
27. B 75. C 123.B 171.C
28. D 76. C 124.D 172.B
29. B 77. B 125.C 173.B
30. * 78. C 126.D 174.C
31. B 79. B 127.B* 175.B
32. C 80. A 128.A 176.A
33. C 81. B 129.C 177.C
34. A 82. B 130.B 178.B
35. B 83. A 131.D 179.B
36. D 84. C 132.C 180.B
37. * 85. C 133.C 181.B
38. B 86. B 134.B 182.A
39. B 87. A 135.B 183.C
40. D 88. B 136.C 184.B
41. * 89. C 137.C 185.A
42. B 90. B 138.C 186.A
43. B 91. C 139.B 187.D
44. C 92. B 140.B 188.B
45. C 93. B 141.D 189.C
46. D 94. A 142.A 190.C
47. B 95. B 143.B
48. A 96. B 144.B

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