RAJEEV KUMAR .

TALAKAYALA Address:
D.no: 26-4-20/A, Near stall girl high school, Nagarampalem ,Guntur-522004 Email id: rajeevk135@gmail.com Phone:9703418270

Objective:
Intend to build a carrier in the pharmacy field with committed and dedicated people, which help me to explore myself fully and realize my potential. Willing to work as a key player in the challenging and creative environment.

Academic Records:

Year of College/ School University/ Board p Project Name Course & Duration a s ANTI-INFLAMMATORY ACTIVITY s OF BERGENIA B.Pharmacy-final i LIGULATA BY HRBC MEMBRANE STABILIZATION year n METHOD. g M. Pharmacy CHARACTERIZATION 69.3% 2012 AND Hindu College of SYNTHESIS, BIOLOGICAL (Pharm Pharmacy, EVALUATION OF 1,3,4-THIADIAZOLE DERIVATIVES. aceutic Guntur al Chemis try) B. Pharmacy D. Pharmacy 65.33% 2010 2007 Hindu College of Pharmacy, Guntur Hindu College of Pharmacy, Guntur. Venus junior college,Guntur Rosette English Medium School, Guntur. Acharya Nagarjuna M. Pharmacy University, Guntur

Qualification

Percentage

Acharya Nagarjuna University, Guntur Acharya Nagarjuna University, Guntur Board of Intermediate Education
Board of Secondary Education

67.8%

Intermediate

63%

2005

SSC

66%

2003

PROJECT SUMMARY:

ACHIEVEMENTS Qualified in Ecet exam and PGcet exam INDUSTRIAL TRAINING

As a part of my D. pharm study, undergone a pprenticeship for three months at Drug Dispensing Section of Guntur Government Hospital (GGH), Guntur

COMPUTER SKILLS
A brief experience in handling of internet, & collection of scientific literature I successfully completed computer training course in MS-OFFICE in TICT Operating systems: Skilled in operating Windows Office suite: Worked intensively with Ms Office 2003, 2007and 2010 Soft wares: chem draw ultra, Chem draw 8.

AREAS OF INTEREST:
Research and development Quality assurance Quality control Industrial Pharmacy Therapeutic Drug Monitoring. Drug Regulatory Affairs Teaching Formulation research and development Hospital Pharmacy

INSTRUMENTS OPERATED
Rotary vaccum evaporator (Heidolph 2), U.V- Vis Spectrophotometer (Elico), Microwave.

STRENGTHS
Good Communication Skills and Dedicated to the work assigned to me. Team work Problem solving and decision making Strategic thinking, creativity and innovation, Skillful in the art of writing Research Papers and Articles Capable of handling projects independently

 Interested to learn new things which will help to buld up my carrier Hard workining with Dedication and Sincerity Sharp, driven with a positive attitude and dedication towards work

CONFERENCES AND SEMINARS ATTENDAD

Participated in national seminar of pharmaceutical sciences in new century:

emerging trends and challenges with emphasis on environmental aspects , in September 2011 held at KVSR Siddhartha College of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Vijayawada Participated in national seminar held in March 2009 at Hindu college of ,Guntur. Has attended and presented a paper on SYNTHESIS AND BIOLOGICAL EVALUATION OF SUBSTITUTED PHENYL QUINOLINE DERIVATIVES in the scientific poster session of 63rd IPC held at Bangalore international exhibition centre during 16th 18th December 2011. Attended national workshop on Opportunities in Clinical Research for Pharmacy and Biotechnology in vignan college. Attended National seminar in CHIPS college of pharmacy and presented a poster on Multiple Emulsions Participated extensively for 5 days in PHARMA EXPO conducted by Hindu college of pharmacy &counseled people on the importance of chemistry, presented a poster on QSAR. Anti-Inflammatory Activity Of Bergenia Ligulata By HRBC Membrane Stabilization Method, IJPWR VOL 2 ISSUE 4 (Oct-Dec) 2012.
Novel Approach for Improvement of Solubility and Bioavailability of Poorly Soluble

Drugs: Liquisolid Compact Technique, ISSN: 2229-3701, Review Article.

PERSONAL INFORMATION:

FULL NAME FATHERS NAME MOTHERS NAME DATE OF BIRTH GENDER NATIONALITY MARITAL STATUS HOBBIES LANGUAGES KNOWN

: RAJEEV KUMAR .TALAKAYALA : ADAIAH. : CHITTEMMA. : 10-10-1987 : Male. : Indian. : Single : Listening music, Playing cricket, Browsing Internet. : English ,Telugu and Hindi.

DECLARATION:
I hereby declare that the particulars furnished above are true to the best of my knowledge.

Date: Place: Guntur T.RAJEEV KUMAR

Select the best answer 1. Mr. and Mrs. Cremasteric arrive at the clinic for their first pre natal visit. Mr. Crema tells the nurse that the women in his family usually have girl babies first and wonders why some women always have girls. The nurse correct response is: a. The sex of the baby is determined by the sperm. b. Some women are just more fertile with females. c. Nature determines whether the baby will be a girl or a boy. d. The sex of the baby is determined by the egg. 2. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is? a. b. c. d. Estrogen Progesterone Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteneizing hormone (LH)

3. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of male reproductive organs during fetal life? a. Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI) b. Dyhydrotestosterone

c. Dehydroepiandosterone sulfate d. Testosterone 4. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic? a. b. c. d. Cervical mucus changes Secretion of the Skenes gland The action of the doderlein bacillus Secretion of the bartholins gland

5. Family centered nursing care for women and newborn focuses on which of the following? a. Assisting individuals and families achieve their optimal health b. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly c. Preventing further complications from developing d. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills 6. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and newborn nurses today, which of the following has contributed to their complexity? a. Limitation of available options b. Support for one viable action c. Advancement in technology d. Consistent desirable standards

7. The frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the? a. Fossa Navicularis b. Mons veneris c. Labia majora d. Labia minora 8. The vas deferens is a: a. b. c. d. storage for spermatozoa Site of spermatozoa production Conduit of spermatozoa Passageway of sperm

9. Cremasteric visits the clinic and is told that his sperm count is normal. A normal sperm count ranges from: a. 20 to 100/ml b. 100, 000 to 200, 000/ml c. 100 to 200/ml d. 20 to 100 million/ml 10. During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur?

a. Ischemic phase b. Menstrual phase c. Proliferative phase d. Secretory phase 11. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to variations in the number of days in which of the following phase? a. Proliferative phase b. Luteal phase c. Ischemic phase d. Secretory phase Situation: Mrs. Calamares G2P1 1001, comes out of the labor and delivery room and reports ruptured amniotic membranes and contractions that occur every 3 minutes lasting 50-60 seconds. The fetus is in LOA position 12. The nurses first action should be to: a.Check the FHR b.Call the physician c. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper d.Admit Mrs. Calamares to the delivery area

13. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs. Calamares states that it is browntinged. This indicates that: a. The fetus had infection b. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation c. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately d. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress 14. The nurse established an IV line, and then connects Calamares to an electronic fetal monitor. The fetal monitoring strip shows FHR deceleration occurring about 30 sec after each contraction begins; the FHR returns to baseline after the contraction is over. This type of deceleration is caused by: a. b. c. d. Fetal head compression Umbilical cord compression Utero-placental insufficiency Cardiac anomalies

15. With this type of deceleration, the nurses first action should be to: a. Do nothing, this is a normal occurrence b. Call the physician c. Position the patient on her left side

d. Continue monitoring the FHR 16. Which of the following methods would be avoided for a woman who is 38 years old, has 3 children and smokes a pack of cigarette per day? a. Oral contraceptives b. Cervical cap c. Diaphragm d. IUD (Intra-uterine device) 17. A woman using diaphragm for contraception should be instructed to leave it in place for at least how long after intercourse? a. 1 hour b. 6 hours c. 12 hours d. 28 hours 18. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most helpful criterion? a. sperm count b. sperm motility c. Sperm maturity d. Semen volume

19. A couple with one child had been trying, without success for several years to have another child. Which of the following terms would describe the situation? a. Primary Infertility b. Secondary Infertility c. Irreversible infertility d. Sterility Situation: Melanie a 33y/o G1P0 at 32 weeks AOG is admitted to the Hospital with the diagnosis of PIH. 20. Magnesium Sulfate is ordered per IV. Which of the following should prompt the nurse to refer to the obstetricians prior to administration of the drug? a. b. c. d. BP= 180/100 Urine output is 40 ml/hr RR=12 bpm (+) 2 deep tendon reflex

21. The nurse knows that Melanie is knowledgeable about the occurrence of PIH when she remarks:

a. It usually appears anytime during the pregnancy b. Its similar to cardio-vascular disease c. PIH occurs during the 1st trimester d. PIH occurs after the 20th wks AOG 22. After several hours of MgSO4 administration to Melanie, she should be observed for clinical manifestations of: a. b. c. d. Hyperkalemia Hypoglycemia Hypermagnesemia Hypercalcemia

23. The nurse instructs Melanie to report prodromal symptoms of seizures associated with PIH. Which of the following will she likely identify? a. Urine output of 15ml/hr b. (-) deep tendon reflex c. sudden increase in BP d. Epigastric pain

Situation: The following questions pertain to intrapartum complications: 24. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes over stimulated by oxytocin during induction of labor? a. Weak contractions prolonged to more than 70 sec b. Titanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec c. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding d. Increased restlessness 25. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia? a. b. c. d. Nutritional Environmental Mechanical Medical

26. When Umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the placenta is termed: a. b. c. d. Central insertion Battledore insertion Velamentous insertion Lateral insertion

27. When fetal surface of the placenta presents a central depression surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring, the condition is known as: a. Placenta succenturiata b. Placenta marginata c. Fenestrated placenta d. Placenta Circumvallata 28. Which of the following is derived form mesoderm? a. lining of the GI tract b. liver c. brain d. skeletal system 29. The average length of the umbilical cord in human is: a. 35 cm b. 55 cm c. 65 cm d. 45 cm

30. Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between which days of gestation? 50-60 40-50 60-70 30-40 31. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus? a. deciduas b. amniotic fluid c. fetus d. membranes 32. Protection of the fetus against syphilis during the 1st trimester is attributed to: a. amniotic fluid b. langhans layer c. syncitiothrophoblast d. placenta Situation: Diane is pregnant with her first baby. She went to the clinic for check up.

33. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual period will you ask? a. first b. last c. third d. second 34. According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using the Naegles rule what is her EDC? a. August 22, 2003 b. August 18, 2003 c. July 22, 2003 d. February 22, 2003 35. She complained of leg cramps, which usually occurs at night. To provide relief, the nurse tells Diane to: a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occurs c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramp occur

Situation: Marita is a nurse working in a STD clinic (question 36-45) 36. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is: a. Maculopapular rash b. Jaundice c. Urinary retention d. Urethral discharge 37. In providing education to your clients, you should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is: a. b. c. d. Premarital serological screening Prophylactic treatment of exposed person On going sex education about preventive behaviors Laboratory screening of pregnant woman

38. You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes genitalis concerning follow up care. Women who have developed the disease are at risk of developing: a. Heart and CNS damage b. Cervical cancer c. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection

d. Sterility 39. Cremasteric, 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. In performing assessment, the nurse should expect to identify which of the following symptoms? a. Lesion on the palms and soles b. A pinpoint rash on the penis c. Urinary dribbling d. Dysuria 40. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to: a. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes b. Ovarian cysts c. Ulceration of the cervix d. Endometrial polyps 41. Diane, a 16 y/o female high school student has syphilis. Treatment is initiated. Before the client leaves the clinic, which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to take? a. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months b. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts c. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening d. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test

42. Kris complains of fishy smelling, white cheeslike vaginal discharge with pruritus. You suspect that Kris may have: a. Moniliasis b. Trichomoniasis c. Syphilis d. Gonorrhea 43. Demi who has history of repeated Trichomonas infections was advised to have Papsmear by her physician. She asked you what the test is for. Your appropriate response is: a. Its a screening for cervical cancer b. Its a screening test for presence of cancer in the female reproductive tract c. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas infection d. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not. 44. The result of the pap-test is class II. This means that: a. Presence of malignant cells b. Presence of benign or possible malignancy c. Normal finding

d. Possible inflammation or infections 45. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing spread of gonorrhea is that many women who have the disease: a. Is un aware that they have it b. Have milder form of the disease than most men c. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men d. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact Situation: Mrs. Rhona Mahilum was admitted to the hospital with signs and symptoms of pre-eclampsia 46. Because of the possibility of convulsive seizures, which of the following should the nurse have available at the clients bed side? a. Oxygen and nasopharyngeal suction b. leather restraints c. cardiac monitor d. venous cutdown set

47. One morning, Rhona tells the nurse that she think she is having contractions. Which of the following approaches should the nurse use to fully assess the presence of uterine co tractions? a. Place the hand on opposite side of the upper part of the abdomen, and curve them somewhat around the uterine fundus. b. Place the heel of the hand on the abdomen just above the umbilicus firmly c. Place the hand flat on the abdomen over the uterine fundus, with the fingers apart and press lightly d. Place the hand in the middle of the upper abdomen and then move hand several times to different parts of the abdomen 48. Exposure of a woman pregnant of a female offspring to which of the following substance increases the risk of the offspring during reproductive years to cervical and uterine cancer steroids thalidomides diethylstilbestrol tetracyclines 49. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most prominent? a. multiparous women

b. before menopause c. after menopause d. nulliparous waman 50. The deepest part o the perineal body surrounding the urethra, vagina and rectum that when damaged can result to cystocele, rectocele and urinary stress incontinence is the? a. Pubococcygeus muscle b. Spinchter of urethra and anus c. Bulbocavernous muscle d. Ischiocavernous muscle Situation: Review of concepts of parturition was made by the clinical instructor to a group of nursing students preliminary to their assignment to Labor and delivery room 51. Which plays an important role in the initiation of labor? a. maternal adrenal cortex b. fetal adrenal cortex c. fetal adrenal medulla d. maternal adrenal medulla

52. Which is not considered an uteroronin? a. Prostaglandin b. Endothelin-1 c. Oxytocin d. Relaxin 53. Which is a primary power of labor? a. uterine contractions b. pushing of the mother c. intrathoracic pressure d. abdominal contraction 54. The lower uterine segment is formed from the: a. cervix b. isthmus and cervix c. body of the uterus d. isthmus 55. Ripening of the cervix occurs during the: a. first stage

b. second stage c. third stage d. fourth stage 56. In the second stage of labor, uterine contraction last: a. b. c. d. 20 seconds 30 seconds 60 seconds 120 seconds

57. The time between uterine contractions is: a. intensity b. interval c. duration d. frequency 58. Midpelvic capacity may be precisely determined by: a. imaging studies b. clinical measurement of the sidewall convergence c. clinical measurement of the ischial spine prominence d. sub pubic angel measurement

59. The inanimate bone of the pelvis is not composed of the: a. sacrum b. ilium c. Pubis d. Ischium 60. Which does not refer to the transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet? a. Bi-ischial diameter b. Bi-spinous diameter c. Bi-tuberous diameter d. Intertuberous diameter 61. The Antero-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet where the fetus will likely most difficulty during labor is the: a. Diagonal conjugate b. True conjugate c. conjugate Vera d. obstetric conjugate 62. The true conjugate can be measured by subtracting ______ to the diagonal

conjugate? a. 2.5 3 cm b. 3.5 4 cm c. 3 4 cm d. 1.5 2 cm 63. The most important muscle of the pelvic floor is the: a. levator ani muscle b. ischiocavernous c. bulbocavernous d. pubococcygeous 64. Which pelvic shape has the poorest prognosis fro vaginal delivery? a. b. c. d. platypelloid anthropoid android gynecoid

65. The two pubic bones meet anteriorly at the: a. symphysis pubis b. coccyx c. sacrococcygeal d. sacro-illiac joint 66. In the second stage of labor, expulsion of the fetus from birth canal depends on which important factor? a. Maternal bearing down b. Cervical dilatation c. Uterine contractions d. Adequate pelvic size 67. In what presentation is the head in extreme flexion? a. b. c. d. sinciput brow vertex face

Situation: a 26 y/o primigravida admitted to the hospital. Vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 5cm dilated, 80% effaced and the presenting part in zero station, membranes still intact, occiput is in posterior position 68. Due to fetal position, the nurse caring for her would be correct in telling her that: a. she will not have the urge to bear down when she becomes fully dilated b. she can expect to have more back discomfort than most woman in labor

c. the position of babys head is optimum for passing through the pelvis d. a caesarian section may be necessary to deliver the baby in thin position 69. Upon IE, you noted that the cervix ix its original length. This mean that effacement is: a. 25% b. 75% c. 100% d. 50% 70. Because of the position of the fetus, an episiotomy has to be performed to enlarge the birth canal. Which of the following is an advantage of episiotomy over lacerations? a. it is more difficult to repair than laceration b. it is more painful than laceration c. it involve a more blood loss than laceration d. heals more faster than laceration 71. Supporting the perenium at the time of crowning will facilitate: a. b. c. d. flexion of the fetal head external rotation extension of the fetal head expulsion

72. When the bi-parietal diameter of the fetal head passes through the pelvic inlet, this is referred as: a. b. c. d. descent flexion engagement extension

73. Sudden gush of blood or lengthening of the cord after the delivery of infant should warn the nurse of: a. placenta acrreta b. placental separation c. placental retention d. abruption placenta Situation: Nurse Tsunade is a staff nurse in the OB ward of Konoha Medical Hospital 74. When separation begins at the center of the placenta and slides down the birth canal like a folded umbrella this is referred as: a. Duncan mechanism

b. Shultz mechanism c. Brandt Andrews mechanism d. Ritgens maneuver 75. Which of the following is not true regarding the third stage of labor? a. Care should be taken in the administration of bolus of oxytocin because it can cause hypertension b. Signs of placental separation are lengthening of the cord, sudden gush of blood and sudden change in shape of the uterus c. It ranges from the time of expulsion of the fetus to the delivery of the placenta d. The placenta is delivered approximately 5-15 minutes after delivery of the baby 76. In the immediate postpartum period the action of methylegonovine is to: a. cause sustained uterine contractions b. causes intermittent uterine contractions c. relaxes the uterus d. induces sleep so that the mother can rest after an exhausting labor 77. Rhina is a primipara hospitalized due to preeclampsia. The doctor decided to perform NST. The nurse should apply the fetal transducer over the fetus: a. chest b. back c. head d. buttocks 78. Marisse, a newly delivered multipara complains of heavy and painful breast accompanied by fever. The nurse tells Gina that it is normal breast engorgement as the fever is characterized by a. More than 38 degrees b. Does not last more than 24 hours c. Caused by infection d. Needs to be treated with antibiotic 79. Postpartum depression occurs during which time frame? a. within weeks after delivery b. within 12 weeks c. within 16 weeks d. within 24 hours 80. Demi, a 38 y/o multipara is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of femoral thrombophlebitis. The nurse assesses the patient with: a. burning on urination b. leg pain c. abdominal pain

d. increased lochial flow 81. Fever, foul lochial discharge and subinvolution of the uterus are signs of: a. puerperal psychosis b. puerperal sepsis c. postpartum hemorrhage d. hypertensive disorder 82. Which is most important when caring for a high risk postpartum clients? a. discussing hygiene and nutrition b. referring the mother to others for emotional support c. discussing complications and treatment d. promoting mother-newborn contact 83. A direct cause of mis-management of the third stage of labor is: a. inversion of the uterus b. cord prolapse c. prolonged labor d. all of these

84. Rachel, a diabetic woman at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for biophysical profile in order to: a. b. c. d. ascertain correct gestational age determine fetal lung maturity determine fetal well being determine fetal size and obvious congenital anomaly

85. In a primigravida, the following demotes contracted pelvis except: a. absence of quickening b. absence of lightening c. absence of engagement d. none of these 86. Which of the following changes in Dianes BP would nurse Tsunade not expect? a. it tends to be highest in sitting b. BP may increase a little in the 2nd tri c. It should be taken at every visit at the clinic d. It is normal for blood pressure to increase as much as 33 in systolic in the 3rd tri when a woman is near delivery

87. Nurse Tsunade referred to Diane to an Obstetrician. At 8 months she was orderd for a contraction stress test and the result is negative. Diane asked when she should be back for her next check up? a. b. c. d. Monthly Within 24-hours Within a week Weekly for 2 weeks then monthly

89. Diane wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal. The correct response of Nurse tsunade is: a. twice b. thrice c. four times d. 10-12 times

90. Which of the following statement about L/S ratio in amniotic fluid is correct? a. a slight variation in technique does not significantly affect the accuracy of result b. a L/S ratio of 2:1 is incompatible with life c. a L/S ratio of less than 1:0 is compatible with fetal survival d. when L/S ratio is 2:1 below, majority of infants develop respiratory distress

91. Every visit, you obtain the pregnant womans fundic height.. At what age of gestion does the fundic height in cm strongly correlates with gestational age in wks? a. b. c. d. 20-24 wks 18-24 wks 18-32 wks 12-38 wks

92. Which is not an indication of amniocentesis? a. previous pregnancy with chromosomal abnormal fetus b. down syndrome in siblings c. pregnancies in women over 35 y/o d. at 8 wks gestation for chromosomal study Situation: Erica is 24 y/o Filipina married to an American. She is pregnant for the second time and now at 8 weeks AOG. She is RH (-) with blood type B 93. Erica gave birth to a term baby with yellowish skin and sclera. The baby is placed on phototherapy. The treatment is effective when blood test shows: a. Low serum bilirubin

b. O2 level of 99% c. Normal RBC and WBC count d. Low platelet count 94. Because of rapidly rising bilirubin level, exchange transfusion was performed on Ericas NB. The nurse understands that the blood to be transfused to the baby should be: a. Type B, RH + b. Type O, RH c. ABO compatible, RH d. Type B, RH 95. Immediately after delivery of Ericas Baby, the nurse should remember to: a. delay clamping of the cord to previde the newborn with more blood b. cut immediately after birth of the baby c. administer RHoGam to the NB immediately on the 3rd stage of labor d. place the NB in an isolette for phototherapy 96. The doctor ordered Kleihauer-Betke. The nurse know which of the following to be wrong about the test: a. it is used to identify the amount of antibodies in the maternal serum b. it is used to determine presence of fetal blood c. it is used to asses whether the mother is RH or RH + d. It is used to determine fetal blood type and RH factor

97. Which of the following findings in Ericas history would identify a need for her to receive RHo (d) immune globulin? a. Rh -, coombs + b. Rh -, Coombs c. Rh +, Coombs d. Rh +, Coombs + 98. The portion of the placenta overlying the blastocyst a. decidua capsularis b. decidua vera c. decidua basalis d. decidua parietalis 99. The cardinal function of deciduas is a. b. c. d. Immune resonse Production of hormones Maintenance of pregnancy None of the above

100. O2 and Co2 are exchanged in the placenta through the process of: a. pinocytosis b. diffusion c. facilitated diffusion d. active transport

Interview
What made you choose nursing as a career?

I wanted to do something in my career that is challenging, interesting, and makes a difference in people's lives on a daily basis. My mother is a nurse, and seeing the satisfaction she feels every day by helping people in her job inspired my own interest in the field. I believe that nursing is one of the most interesting and growing careers available today, and I enjoy the difference I can make in my patient's hospital experience.

When you're interviewing for a nurse position, you'll be asked about your skills and experience, your training, and your interests. Review sample answers for the job interview question "How has your training prepared you for the challenges you will face in this position?" I had an internship position at an Oncology Center after graduating last May, which gave me hands on experience with patients, and I am anxious to pursue my career specializing in cancer treatment.

My clinical training in the ER of City Hospital prepared me for the fast paced care required of an ER Nurse. I had the opportunity to work as a research assistant for Dr. Zane, who was writing about new findings in the treatment of heart disease when I was working at City Hospital. The knowledge I gained during that time prepared me for assisting with cardiac patients in a more effective way.

"What interests you about working at this facility?" Your facility has one of the top rated Cardiac units in the country, and I am interested in utilizing my experience with Cardiac patients in a hospital engaging in the latest research and techniques. I really enjoy working in Geriatrics, and your facility has a vibrant and innovative reputation for its programs and population.

I have worked in very large hospitals, where I gained valuable experience, but I enjoy working in a small hospital, where you can get to know your patients, the doctors, and your colleagues on a more personal level.

"Do you have any professional affiliations?" Absolutely, I feel it's important to stay informed about the nursing profession. I'm a member of the American Nurses Association, and the New York State Nurses Association.

"What do you feel you contribute to your patients?" I offer my patients the very best care and advocacy I can. I believe that I offer my patients comfort and confidence that they are being well cared for.

I feel that my patients know that I am there to provide comfort and understanding, that I will listen to their concerns, and that I will act as their advocate if necessary.

"How do you handle stress on the job?" By focusing on the most important thing, the care of the patient. I feel I owe it to my patients to stay calm and focused on them. In the ER setting, there are often stressful situations that arise. I just make sure that the stresses of the job don't interfere with the care of the patient.

I am generally an easy going person, and I don't allow on the job stress to interfere with my work.

"How would you deal with a doctor who was rude and demeaning to you?" I would bring the question to my supervisor. If the doctor was displeased with me in some way, I would want to find out so I could take action to rectify the situation. I would ask the doctor if there was something in my care of the patient that she felt needed discussion.

If it were a one time occurrence, I would figure that she was just having a bad day. If it happened repeatedly, I would notify my supervisor.

"How would you handle a patient who complains constantly of pain?" I would confer with the attending doctor to make sure that the patient's pain was being managed in the most effective way. I would reassure the patient that everything possible was being done to alleviate their discomfort.

I would listen sympathetically to their complaint, reassure them that their concerns were being heard, and that we were doing everything possible to help them.

"How would you handle a patient who complains about everything?" I would first be sure that the patient had no valid complaints, and then just be patient and reassure them that we were doing our very best for them. I understand that some patients will complain about everything, just because they are unhappy about what brought them to our care. I just reassure them that everything possible is being done to make them comfortable.

I would tell them to stop being so mean, and leave me alone! (But don't tell your interviewer

"How would you handle the family of a patient in your care who is displeased with your care of the patient?" I would listen to their concerns, and reassure them that I was doing my very best for their loved one. Sometimes family members are looking for someone or something to blame for what their loved one is going through. I would try to reassure them that the patient was getting the best quality of care available.

I would listen to their concerns, and make sure that if any were well founded they were addressed immediately.

"What do you feel you contribute to your patients?" I offer my patients the very best care and advocacy I can. I believe that I offer my patients comfort and confidence that they are being well cared for.

I feel that my patients know that I am there to provide comfort and understanding, that I will listen to their concerns, and that I will act as their advocate if necessary.

"What do you find difficult about being a nurse?" Sometimes I find it difficult to leave work at work, as I tend to become very involved with my patients. I think the most difficult part of being a nurse is when I have a patient that is very unhappy, or in a lot of pain, and I can't comfort them to the degree I'd like.

I prefer to look at difficulties as challenges, and I enjoy conquering challenges.

"What do you find most rewarding about being a nurse?" The most rewarding thing for me as a nurse is seeing the joy when a family first holds their baby. Interacting with the patients and their families is what I find most rewarding.

I find helping patients through recovery after surgery, which is often one of their greatest challenges, to be most rewarding.

"What would you do if your replacement didn't arrive on time?" I would wait until she arrived, or until someone else was called in. I would notify the supervisor, and offer to stay until my replacement arrived.

Try calling her to see if she were on the way, or if she needed help making arrangements for someone to take her shift.

"If you had the opportunity to become a doctor, would you take it?" No, I enjoy the personal contact with my patients, and the comradeship with my colleagues unique to nursing. I chose to become a nurse because I find the field fascinating. I plan on advancing my career as a nurse, not a doctor.

Yes, I enjoy the medical field tremendously, and plan to continue my education throughout my career.

"Would you describe yourself as an organized person?" Absolutely. I like to have a check list, and make sure that each item gets the attention it needs. Yes, sometimes a little too much so. I make sure that everything is neat and in order.

I am a very organized and thorough person, which I think contributes to my success as a nurse.

"Are you a self motivator?" Absolutely. I can always find something productive that needs doing. I'm very motivated to do a good job at what I take on, and I like to stay busy.

I am a self motivator, and I take great pride in my job as a nurse.

"Do you prefer to work alone, or as part of a team?" That depends on the circumstances. I enjoy being part of a treatment and support team, but I also like the autonomy of working alone. I believe that nursing in a hospital is a team effort, and I really enjoy making my contribution to the team.

You need a certain amount of independence to work without the daily support of a team. As an in home nurse, I enjoy the one-on-one with my patients.

1. Which of the following disorders is characterized by joint inflammation that is usually accompanied by pain and frequently accompanied by changes in structure?

a. Synovitis b. Arthritis c. Bursitis d. Tendinitis

2. Which term refers to the expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract? a. A hemorrhage b. Hematopoiesis c. Hemoptysis d. Hemopexis

3. Which term describes lack of coordination in performing planned, purposeful movements, resulting from a neurologic deficit? a. Apraxia b. Ataxia c. Fasciculation d. Myokymia

4. An elevation in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2) indicates that the patient has: a. Hypernatremia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypoxemia d. Hypercapnia

5. The latest laboratory values indicate that the patient has thrombocytopenia. The combining form penia means: a. Rupture b. Deficiency

c. Formation d. Stupor

6. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a urine specific gravity of 1.030, a temperature of 102F (38.9 C), and flushed, dry skin. Based on these data, the nurse writes which of the following nursing diagnoses? a. Potential for impaired skin integrity b. Fluid volume deficit related to fever c. Potential for fluid volume deficit caused by fever d. Altered cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion related to fluid excess

7. The guidelines for writing an appropriate nursing diagnosis include all of the following except: a. State the diagnosis in terms of a problem, not a need b. Use nursing terminology to describe the patients response c. Use statements that assist in planning independent nursing interventions d. Use medical terminology to describe the probable cause of the patients response

8. Based on a physicians order for oxygen by nasal catheter at 3 liters/ minute, an appropriate nursing order would be: a. Cover the tip of the catheter with a water-soluble lubricant before insertion. b. Measure the length of the catheter from the tip of the patients nose to the tip of the earlobe before insertion c. Add sterile distilled water to the humidification container, as needed d. All of the above

9. A nurse observes a dazed and apparently confused co-worker taking two diazepam (Valium) tablets by mouth as the co-worker is about to pour medications. What should the nurse do? a. Call the head nurse immediately before the co-worker pours and administers the medications b. Pour the medications for the co-worker while she goes for a cup of coffee

c. Report the co-worker to hospital security because she may be addicted to drugs d. Watch the co-worker closely and report the incident to the head nurse at the end of the day.

10. A nurse manager notices that one of the staff nurses is always 15 to 20 minutes late. When the nurse manager discusses the problem with her, the nurse says that she has been late because her sons nursery school does not open until 7 am. The nurse manager should respond by telling her to: a. Ask one of the night nurses to cover for her b. See if a neighbor can take the child to school c. Find out if other schools open earlier d. Find some way to solve the problem and be on time

11. A nurse has just moved to a new state, where she has accepted employment in a hospital-based hemodialysis unit. She needs information about her specific duties in caring for hemodialysis patients. She will find this information in: a. Policy statements set by the National Kidney Foundation b. The states nurse practice act c. Medicare and Medicaid regulations d. The hospitals procedure manual

12. Which of the following is an example of nursing malpractice? a. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and has cerebral damage resulting from anoxia. b. The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal cramping c. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position; the patient slips and fractures his right humerus d. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient and the patient vomits. This information is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing supervisor

1. Which intervention is an example of primary prevention? a. Administering digoxin (Lanoxicaps) to a patient with heart failure b. Administering a measles, mumps, and rubella immunization to an infant c. Obtaining a Papanicolaou smear to screen for cervical cancer d. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis 2. The nurse in charge is assessing a patients abdomen. Which examination technique should the nurse use first? a. Auscultation b. Inspection c. Percussion d. Palpation 3. Which statement regarding heart sounds is correct? a. S1 and S2 sound equally loud over the entire cardiac area. b. S1 and S2 sound fainter at the apex c. S1 and S2 sound fainter at the base d. S1 is loudest at the apex, and S2 is loudest at the base 4. The nurse in charge identifies a patients responses to actual or potential health problems during which step of the nursing process? a. Assessment b. Nursing diagnosis c. Planning d. Evaluation 5. A female patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg P.O. b.i.d. in the plan of care, the nurse should emphasize teaching the patient about the importance of consuming: a. Fresh, green vegetables b. Bananas and oranges c. Lean red meat d. Creamed corn 6. The nurse in charge must monitor a patient receiving chloramphenicol for adverse drug reaction. What is the most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol? a. Lethal arrhythmias b. Malignant hypertension c. Status epilepticus d. Bone marrow suppression 7. A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive highest priority at this time? a. Impaired gas exchanges related to increased blood flow b. Fluid volume excess related to peripheral vascular disease c. Risk for injury related to edema d. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion 8. When positioned properly, the tip of a central venous catheter should lie in the: a. Superior vena cava

b. Basilica vein c. Jugular vein d. Subclavian vein

9. Nurse Margareth is revising a clients care plan. During which step of the nursing process does such revision take place? a. Assessment b. Planning c. Implementation d. Evaluation 10. A 65-year-old female who has diabetes mellitus and has sustained a large laceration on her left wrist asks the nurse, How long will it take for my scars to disappear? which statement would be the nurses best response? a. The contraction phase of wound healing can take 2 to 3 years. b. Wound healing is very individual but within 4 months the scar should fade. c. With your history and the type of location of the injury, its hard to say. d. If you dont develop an infection, the wound should heal any time between 1 and 3 years from now. 11. a. b. c. d. One aspect of implementation related to drug therapy is: Developing a content outline Documenting drugs given Establishing outcome criteria Setting realistic client goals

12. A female client is readmitted to the facility with a warm, tender, reddened area on her right calf. Which contributing factor would the nurse recognize as most important? a. A history of increased aspirin use b. Recent pelvic surgery c. An active daily walking program d. A history of diabetes 13. Which intervention should the nurse in charge try first for a client that exhibits signs of sleep disturbance? a. Administer sleeping medication before bedtime b. Ask the client each morning to describe the quantity of sleep during the previous night c. Teach the client relaxation techniques, such as guided imagery, medication, and progressive muscle relaxation d. Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as pillows, back rubs, and snacks 14. While examining a clients leg, the nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. Until a wound specialist can be contacted, which type of dressings is most appropriate for the nurse in charge to apply? a. Dry sterile dressing b. Sterile petroleum gauze c. Moist, sterile saline gauze d. Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze

15. A male client in a behavioral-health facility receives a 30-minute psychotherapy session, and provider uses a current procedure terminology (CPT) code that bills for a 50-minute session. Under the False Claims Act, such illegal behavior is known as: a. Unbundling b. Overbilling c. Upcoding d. Misrepresentation 16. A nurse assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that hes impotent and says that hes concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this clients care, the most appropriate intervention would be to: a. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality b. Provide time for privacy c. Provide support for the spouse or significant other d. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional 17. Using Abraham Maslows hierarchy of human needs, a nurse assigns highest priority to which client need? a. Security b. Elimination c. Safety d. Belonging 18. A male client is on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound shows no signs of healing even though the client has received skin care and has been turned every 2 hours. Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to heal? a. Inadequate vitamin D intake b. Inadequate protein intake c. Inadequate massaging of the affected area d. Low calcium level 19. A female client who received general anesthesia returns from surgery. Postoperatively, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client? a. Acute pain related to surgery b. Deficient fluid volume related to blood and fluid loss from surgery c. Impaired physical mobility related to surgery d. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia 20. Nurse Cay inspects a clients back and notices small hemorrhagic spots. The nurse documents that the client has: a. Extravasation b. Osteomalacia c. Petechiae d. Uremia 21. Which document addresses the clients right to information, informed consent, and treatment refusal? a. Standard of Nursing Practice

b. Patients Bill of Rights c. Nurse Practice Act d. Code for Nurses

22. If a blood pressure cuff is too small for a client, blood pressure readings taken with such a cuff may do which of the following? a. Fail to show changes in blood pressure b. Produce a false-high measurement c. Cause sciatic nerve damage d. Produce a false-low measurement 23. Nurse Danny has been teaching a client about a high-protein diet. The teaching is successful if the client identifies which meal as high in protein? a. Baked beans, hamburger, and milk b. Spaghetti with cream sauce, broccoli, and tea c. Bouillon, spinach, and soda d. Chicken cutlet, spinach, and soda 24. A male client is admitted to the hospital with blunt chest trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The first nursing priority for this client would be to: a. Assess the clients airway b. Provide pain relief c. Encourage deep breathing and coughing d. Splint the chest wall with a pillow 25. A newly hired charge nurse assesses the staff nurses as competent individually but ineffective and nonproductive as a team. In addressing her concern, the charge nurse should understand that the usual reason for such a situation is: a. Unhappiness about the charge in leadership b. Unexpected feeling and emotions among the staff c. Fatigue from overwork and understaffing d. Failure to incorporate staff in decision making 26. A male client blood test results are as follows: white blood cell (WBC) count, 100ul; hemoglobin (Hb) level, 14 g/dl; hematocrit (HCT), 40%. Which goal would be most important for this client? a. Promote fluid balance b. Prevent infection c. Promote rest d. Prevent injury 27. Following a tonsillectomy, a female client returns to the medical-surgical unit. The client is lethargic and reports having a sore throat. Which position would be most therapeutic for this client? a. Semi-Fowlers b. Supine c. High-Fowlers d. Side-lying

28. Nurse Berri inspects a clients pupil size and determines that its 2 mm in the left eye and 3 mm in the right eye. Unequal pupils are known as: a. Anisocoria b. Ataxia c. Cataract d. Diplopia 29. The nurse in charge is caring for an Italian client. Hes complaining of pain, but he falls asleep right after his complaint and before the nurse can assess his pain. The nurse concludes that: a. He may have a low threshold for pain b. He was faking pain c. Someone else gave him medication d. The pain went away 30. A female client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain shortness of breath. The nurses assessment reveals jugular vein distention. The nurse knows that when a client has jugular vein distension, its typically due to: a. A neck tumor b. An electrolyte imbalance c. Dehydration d. Fluid overload Answer B. Immunizing an infant is an example of primary prevention, which aims to prevent health problems. Administering digoxin to treat heart failure and obtaining a smear for a screening test are examples for secondary prevention, which promotes early detection and treatment of disease. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis is an example of tertiary prevention, which aims to help a patient deal with the residual consequences of a problem or to prevent the problem from recurring. Answer B. Inspection always comes first when performing a physical examination. Percussion and palpation of the abdomen may affect bowel motility and therefore should follow auscultation. Answer D. The S1 soundthe lub soundis loudest at the apex of the heart. It sounds longer, lower, and louder there than the S2 sounds. The S2 the dub soundis loudest at the base. It sounds shorter, sharper, higher, and louder there than S1. Answer B. The nurse identifies human responses to actual or potential health problems during the nursing diagnosis step of the nursing process. During the assessment step, the nurse systematically collects data about the patient or family. During the planning step, the nurse develops strategies to resolve or decrease the patients problem. During the evaluation step, the nurse determines the effectiveness of the plan of care. Answer B. Because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, the nurse should plan to teach the patient to increase intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges. Fresh, green vegetables; lean red meat; and creamed corn are not good sources of potassium. Answer D. The most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol is bone marrow suppression. Chloramphenicol is not known to cause lethal arrhythmias, malignant hypertension, or status epilepticus.

Answer D. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion takes highest priority because venous inflammation and clot formation impede blood flow in a patient with deep-vein thrombosis. Option A is incorrect because impaired gas exchange is related to decreased, not increased, blood flow. Option B is inappropriate because no evidence suggest that this patient has a fluid volume excess. Option C may be warranted but is secondary to altered tissue perfusion. Answer A. When the central venous catheter is positioned correctly, its tip lies in the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, or the right atriumthat is, in central venous circulation. Blood flows unimpeded around the tip, allowing the rapid infusion of large amounts of fluid directly into circulation. The basilica, jugular, and subclavian veins are common insertion sites for central venous catheters. Answer D. During the evaluation step of the nursing process the nurse determines whether the goals established in the care plan have been achieved, and evaluates the success of the plan. If a goal is unmet or partially met the nurse reexamines the data and revises the plan. Assessment involves data collection. Planning involves setting priorities, establishing goals, and selecting appropriate interventions. Answer C. Wound healing in a client with diabetes will be delayed. Providing the client with a time frame could give the client false information. Answer B. Although documentation isnt a step in the nursing process, the nurse is legally required to document activities related to drug therapy, including the time of administration, the quantity, and the clients reaction. Developing a content outline, establishing outcome criteria, and setting realistic client goals are part of planning rather than implementation. Answer B. The client shows signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The pelvic area is rich in blood supply, and thrombophlebitis of the deep vein is associated with pelvic surgery. Aspirin, an antiplatelet agent, and an active walking program help decrease the clients risk of DVT. In general, diabetes is a contributing factor associated with peripheral vascular disease. Answer D. The nurse should begin with the simplest interventions, such as pillows or snacks, before interventions that require greater skill such as relaxation techniques. Sleep medication should be avoided whenever possible. At some point, the nurse should do a thorough sleep assessment, especially if common sense interventions fail. Answer C. Moist, sterile saline dressings support would heal and are costeffective. Dry sterile dressings adhere to the wound and debride the tissue when removed. Petroleum supports healing but is expensive. Povidone-iodine can irritate epithelial cells, so it shouldnt be left on an open wound. Answer C. Upcoding is the practice of using a CPT code thats reimbursed at a higher rate than the code for the service actually provided. Unbundling, overbilling, and misrepresentation arent the terms used for this illegal practice. Answer D. The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other professional. Making appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the clients care. The nurse doesnt normally provide sex counseling. Therefore, providing time for privacy and providing support for the spouse or significant other are important, but not as important as referring the client to a sex counselor.

Answer B. According to Maslow, elimination is a first-level or physiological need, and therefore takes priority over all other needs. Security and safety are second-level needs; belonging is a third-level need. Second- and third-level needs can be met only after a clients first-level needs have been satisfied. Answer B. A client on bed rest suffers from a lack of movement and a negative nitrogen balance. Therefore, inadequate protein intake impairs wound healing. Inadequate vitamin D intake and low calcium levels arent factors in poor healing for this client. A pressure ulcer should never be massaged. Answer D. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia takes priority for thins client because general anesthesia may impair the gag and swallowing reflexes, possibly leading to aspiration. The other options, although important, are secondary. Answer C. Petechiae are small hemorrhagic spots. Extravasation is the leakage of fluid in the interstitial space. Osteomalacia is the softening of bone tissue. Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogen products in the blood. Answer B. The Patients Bill of Rights addresses the clients right to information, informed consent, timely responses to requests for services, and treatment refusal. A legal document, it serves as a guideline for the nurses decision making. Standards of Nursing Practice, the Nurse Practice Act, and the Code for Nurses contain nursing practice parameters and primarily describe the use of the nursing process in providing care. Answer B. Using an undersized blood pressure cuff produces a falsely elevated blood pressure because the cuff cant record brachial artery measurements unless its excessively inflated. The sciatic nerve wouldnt be damaged by hyperinflation of the blood pressure cuff because the sciatic nerve is located in the lower extremity. Answer A. Baked beans, hamburger, and milk are all excellent sources of protein. The spaghetti-broccoli-tea choice is high in carbohydrates. The bouillon-spinach-soda choice provides liquid and sodium as well as some iron, vitamins, and carbohydrates. Chicken provides protein but the chickenspinach-soda combination provides less protein than the baked beanshamburger-milk selection. Answer A. The first priority is to evaluate airway patency before assessing for signs of obstruction, sternal retraction, stridor, or wheezing. Airway management is always the nurses first priority. Pain management and splinting are important for the clients comfort, but would come after airway assessment. Coughing and deep breathing may be contraindicated if the client has internal bleeding and other injuries. Answer B. The usual or most prevalent reason for lack of productivity in a group of competent nurses is inadequate communication or a situation in which the nurses have unexpected feeling and emotions. Although the other options could be contributing to the problematic situation, theyre less likely to be the cause. Answer B. The client is at risk for infection because WBC count is dangerously low. Hb level and HCT are within normal limits; therefore, fluid balance, rest, and prevention of injury are inappropriate. Answer D. Because of lethargy, the post tonsillectomy client is at risk for aspirating blood from the surgical wound. Therefore, placing the client in the side-lying position until he awake is best. The semi-Fowlers, supine, and

high-Fowlers position dont allow for adequate oral drainage in a lethargic post tonsillectomy client, and increase the risk of blood aspiration. Answer A. Unequal pupils are called anisocoria. Ataxia is uncoordinated actions of involuntary muscle use. A cataract is an opacity of the eyes lens. Diplopia is double vision. Answer A. People of Italian heritage tend to verbalize discomfort and pain. The pain was real to the client, and he may need medication when he wakes up. Answer D. Fluid overload causes the volume of blood within the vascular system to increase. This increase causes the vein to distend, which can be seen most obviously in the neck veins. A neck tumor doesnt typically cause jugular vein distention. An electrolyte imbalance may result in fluid overload, but it doesnt directly contribute to jugular vein distention.