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Flight Planning

Exam 3, 60 questions 1. The highest obstacle on a navigation leg is 8900ft amsl. Calculate the minimum flight level using IFR semi-circular levels given the QNH of 985mb, a required safety margin of 2000ft, track 060 M, and ISA conditions. Assume 1mb = 30ft. (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. FL 90 FL100 FL110 FL130

The MOCA of an airway segment is 5500ft. Given a QNH of 993mb and ISA conditions, calculate the minimum safe semi-circular flight level for a course of 245M. (Assume 1mb=30ft) (a) (b) (c) (d) FL50 FL60 FL70 FL80

3.

The still air distance in a descent from FL240 is 103nm and the time taken is 21 minutes. What is the ground distance covered if the mean wind component during the descent is 33kts tail wind? (a) (b) (c) (d) 103nms 114nms 92nms 136nms

4.

Referring to Chart ED6, Danger Area ED(R-130) (N4830 E00930) is active: (a) (b) (c) (d) Between 14000ft and 18000ft amsl, activated by NOTAM. From surface to 14000ft permanently. From surface to 14000ft or 18000ft, activated by NOTAM. From surface to 18000ft permanently.

5.

Referring to Chart ED6, the magnetic heading required for the direct track between KARLSRUHE VOR/DME (N4900 E00835) and SULZ VOR (N4823 E00839) assuming a TAS of 160kts and a wind of 300/25kts is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 170M 183M 176M 180M

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Flight Planning Exam 3

6.

Referring to Chart ED6, the navigation aid at MENGEN airfield (N4803 E00922) is: (a) (b) (c) (d) VOR VOR/DME DME NDB

7.

Referring to the SEP example aircraft planning charts, calculate the maximum range at FL95, assuming ISA conditions and full throttle at 2100RPM. (a) (b) (c) (d) 903nms 868nms 827nms 891nms

8.

Referring to the MEP example aircraft planning charts, calculate the fuel used and time required to climb from an airfield at 3500ft amsl (OAT +15C) to a cruising altitude of 11000ft (OAT 0C). Assume a take off mass of 4750lbs. (a) (b) (c) (d) 12 mins / 7lbs 18 mins / 42lbs 12 mins / 7US gallons 18mins / 7US gallons

9.

Referring to the MEP example aircraft planning charts, the ground distance covered in a descent from 16000ft (OAT 0C) to an airfield at sea level (OAT +25C), assuming a mean wind component of 40kts head wind, is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 44nms 55nms 33nms 38nms

10.

Referring to the MRJT example aircraft planning charts (FIG 4.3.6), the fuel required for an alternate, ground distance 375nms, wind component 50kts, and a landing mass of 44000kgs is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2550kgs 2350kgs 2000kgs 2150kgs

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Flight Planning Exam 3

11.

An aircraft flying from A to B requires a trip fuel of 74 US gallons. At the half way point it has used 45 US gallons. The diversion and reserve fuel required at B is 20 US gallons. The total fuel at departure was 98 US gallons. The aircraft: (a) (b) (c) (d) must return to the point of departure. may proceed to destination. does not have enough fuel to continue and must proceed to an en route diversion. may continue, but only if he gets permission to use diversion and reserve fuel.

12.

Which of the following statements are true concerning taxy fuel? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d) It is the amount expected to be used prior to take off. An allowance for local conditions (length of taxy, anticipated delays) should be taken into account An allowance for delays or extra taxying is included in the contingency fuel. It should include the fuel required to get airborne. i i and iii i and ii i, ii, and iv

13.

When completing an ATS Flight Plan, an intended change in flight rules from IFR to VFR over beacon BRS should be indicated by: (a) (b) (c) (d) ITEM ITEM ITEM ITEM 8 8 8 8 I/V Y I ITEM 15 ..BRS VFR Y ITEM 15 ...BRS VFR

14.

Under ITEM 9 of an ATS Flight Plan, the letter M inserted for wake turbulence category indicates: (a) (b) (c) (d) An aircraft with planned take off mass greater than 7000 kgs and less than 136000kgs An aircraft with a certified maximum take off mass greater than 7000 kgs and less than 136000kgs An aircraft with a regulated take off mass greater than 7000 kgs and less than 136000kgs An aircraft with planned take off mass less than 136000kgs

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Flight Planning Exam 3

15.

An aircraft cruising at FL310 at M0.78 is planning to change level to FL 350 at a point on the 050R / 74nm DME from the WAL VOR / DME beacon. The cruising mach is to remain unchanged. This should be entered in ITEM 15 of the ATS flight plan as: (a) (b) (c) (d) WAL050074/M078F350 WAL050/074/M078F350 WAL050074/F350 WAL/050/074/M078/F350

16.

A flight plans to cross the LONDON(EGTT) / FRANCE(LFFF) UIR boundary at 1130Z. Block time is planned at 1010Z. This should be entered on an ATS flight plan as: (a) (b) (c) (d) ITEM ITEM ITEM ITEM 15./LFFF1130/ 15..EGTT/LFFF0120. 18 EET/LFFF1130 18 EET/LFFF0120

17.

Prior to a VFR flight for which an ATS flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be re-submitted or amended if a delay in departure occurs in excess of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 20 mins 30 mins 1 hr 10 mins

18.

When on an IFR flight under an ATS flight plan, inadvertent changes from the plan must be reported to the appropriate ATS unit.. Which of the following statements are true? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d) if the TAS varies or is expected to vary by 5% from that indicated in the plan it must be reported. if the ETA at a significant reporting point is likely to change by 3 minutes or more from that already notified it must be reported. an inadvertent deviation in position need not be reported as long as planned track is regained within 3 minutes. in an emergency there is no need to inform ATC of any required changes. i i and ii i, ii and iii i, ii, iii and iv

19.

When a flight under an ATS flight plan lands at an aerodrome other than the intended destination, the destination field must be informed: (a) (b) (c) (d) as soon as possible, but prior to the estimated arrival time. as soon as possible, but within 30 minutes of ETA. As soon as possible, but before the total endurance time has elapsed. There is no need to as the diversion field will do it. Flight Planning Exam 3

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20.

Referring to Chart ED6, the magnetic course and distance between KEMPTEN VOR/DME (N4745.8 E01021.0) and DINKESBUHL VORTAC (N4908.6 E01014.3) are: (a) (b) (c) (d) 97nm 83nm 97nm 83nm 358 358 178 178

21.

Refer to chart 5AT(HI). Given an initial true track between KEFLAVIK (N6400 W02240) and THULE (N7632 W06814) of 330T, the initial Grid track would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 330G 353G 319G 307G

22.

Refer to chart ED6. The * attached to the MEMMINGEN (N4759 E01015) CLASS D & E airspace means: (a) (b) (c) (d) Special military rules Activated by NOTAM Part-time operation Daylight hours only

23.

Refer to the MEP example aircraft planning charts. Calculate the mean ground speed achieved during a descent from FL 170 (OAT -5) to an airfield at 5000ft amsl (OAT +10C) assuming a mean wind component of +30kts. (a) (b) (c) (d) 181kts 190kts 173kts 205kts

24.

Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, the most likely significant weather encountered when overhead PARIS (N4900 E00200)at FL 330 is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Isolated embedded CB, moderate airframe icing and clear air turbulence. A westerly jetstream of 160kts, moderate airframe icing. A westerly jetstream of 160kts, moderate occasionally severe turbulence. A westerly jetstream of 130kts, light occasionally moderate clear air turbulence.

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Flight Planning Exam 3

25.

Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, on a flight from ANKARA (N40 E033) direct to ABU DHABI (N25 E54) at FL290, the most likely significant weather encountered en route is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Isolated Cumulus clouds. Initially, no significant weather, for the second half of the route isolated CB with associated precipitation. Initially, no significant weather, for the second half of the route isolated embedded CB with associated moderate to severe icing and turbulence. Isolated embedded CB with Moderate or Severe Turbulence and icing throughout the route.

26.

Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, overhead MOSCOW (N56 E37), which of the following statements are true: (i) There is no significant weather. (ii) There is a NE jetstream at 130kts. (iii) The tropopause is at FL300. (iv) The freezing level is at FL30. (a) (b) (c) (d) i i and ii i and iv i and iii

27.

Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, overhead BANGKOK (N14 E101) which of the following statements is true: (a) (b) (c) (d) Isolated embedded CBs from surface to FL 450; light, occasionally moderate turbulence and icing. Light, occasionally moderate airframe icing. Isolated embedded CBs up to FL 450; moderate or severe turbulence and icing. Isolated embedded CB above FL450; moderate or severe turbulence and icing.

28.

Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex B, overhead DUBAI (N26 E050) significant weather is: (a) (b) (c) (d) A A A A westerly westerly westerly westerly jetstream jetstream jetstream jetstream of of of of 140kts, 120kts, 120kts, 120kts, moderate turbulence. light turbulence. moderate turbulence. severe turbulence

29.

Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex B, on a flight from LONDON (N51 W000) to MADRID (N40 W004) at FL310, the significant weather is: (a) (b) (c) (d) A A A A mean mean mean mean headwind headwind headwind headwind of of of of 140kts, moderate turbulence. 140kts, light turbulence. 140kts, isolated embedded CB. 40kts, moderate turbulence.

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Flight Planning Exam 3

30.

Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex B, details of volcanic ash from Mt Etna (N37.7 E015.0) would be found in: (a) (b) (c) (d) NOTAMS Computer flight plans. Actual and forecast weather reports. SIGMETS

31.

Given the following forecast for EGBB, what is the worst visibility forecast for an arrival at 0830Z? EGBB 231026Z 231812 32005KT 9999 BKN020 TEMPO 1821 8000 BKN012 BECMG 2124 5000 TEMPO 0009 1500 BR BKN002 PROB40 0009 0500 FG BECMG 1012 9999 NSW BKN020= (a) (b) (c) (d) 8000m 5000m 1500m 500m

32.

The following forecast for EGKK is valid for the time period: EGKK 231039Z 231812 24010KT 9999 -RADZ SCT010 BKN020 BECMG 1822 7000 PROB40 TEMPO 1822 BKN005 BECMG 2024 33004KT BECMG 2202 3000 BR BKN010 PROB40 0208 0300 FG BKN001 BECMG 0811 8000 NSW BKN012= (a) (b) (c) (d) 23rd 23rd 23rd 23rd 1039Z to 23rd 1812Z 1812Z to 24th 0100Z 1812Z to 23rd 2401Z 1800Z to 24th 1200Z

33.

Given the following forecast for EGKK, the most likely conditions for an arrival at 0300Z on the 24th are: EGKK 231039Z 231812 24010KT 9999 -RADZ SCT010 BKN020 BECMG 1822 7000 PROB40 TEMPO 1822 BKN005 BECMG 2024 33004KT BECMG 2202 3000 BR BKN010 PROB40 0208 0300 FG BKN001 BECMG 0811 8000 NSW BKN012= (a) (b) (c) (d) 3000m in mist, broken cloud at 1000ft 300m in fog, broken cloud at 100ft 7000m, broken cloud at 500ft Light rain/drizzle, scattered at 1000ft, broken at 2000ft

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Flight Planning Exam 3

34.

Given the following forecast for EHAM, the most likely conditions for an arrival at 0900Z are: EHAM 231043Z 231812 26009KT 4000 BR -DZ SCT006 BKN012 BECMG 1922 2500 BKN004 BECMG 2201 VRB03KT 0800 BCFG BKN003 PROB40 0308 0300 FG VV001 BECMG 0709 3500 BR SCT004 BKN006 BECMG 0912 10008KT 9999 NSW SCT018 SCT025= (a) (b) (c) (d) 3500m in mist, broken cloud at 400ft Better than 10 kms with no significant weather 300m in fog. 3500m in mist, scattered cloud at 400ft., broken at 600ft

35.

Given the following forecast. The worst weather conditions forecast for an arrival at LFPO at 2330Z on the 23rd are: LFPO 230500Z 231206 23015G25KT 9999 SCT018 BKN030 PROB30 TEMPO 1217 6000 -SHRA SCT014TCU BKN018 BECMG 1820 24012KT SCT030 SCT050 BECMG 2023 CAVOK BECMG 0104 17005KT TEMPO 0306 6000= (a) (b) (c) (d) Light rain showers 6000m CAVOK Scattered clouds at 3000ft

36.

Referring to chart E(LO)1, on the section of airway between DEAN CROSS (N5443 W00320) and NEW GALLOWAY (N5511 W00410), the following statement is true: (a) (b) (c) (d) MEA MEA MEA MEA FL70, FL70, FL80, FL80, MOCA MORA MORA MORA 5500ft 3900ft 4200ft 3900ft

37.

Referring to chart E(LO)1, the grid MORA at AMMAN (N5150.4 W00359.9) on airway G1 is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3000ft 2900ft 4100ft 4200ft

38.

Referring to the STAR charts for Amsterdam Schipol, on a DENUT arrival for Rwy 27, IAS overhead DENUT should be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 240kts max 280 300kts 250kts 220kts

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Flight Planning Exam 3

39.

Referring to the SID charts for Amsterdam Schipol, on an ARNEM departure Rwy 27, the following speed profile is correct: (a) (b) (c) (d) Max 250kts IAS below FL100 Max 220kts until tracking 138 inbound to SCHIPOL NDB NV, then max 250kts below FL100 Max 220kts Max 250kts

40.

Referring to the AMSTERDAM SCHIPOL JAA minimums chart and/or the appropriate approach chart, the DH and minimum RVR for an ILS approach Rwy 27, CAT D aircraft, are: (a) (b) (c) (d) 200ft 188ft 200ft 188ft 800m 800m 550m 550m

41.

Referring to the London Heathrow STAR charts, on a LAM3A arrival, when LAM VOR is unserviceable the clearance limit is to: (a) (b) (c) (d) SABER BRASO TAWNY LON VOR

42.

Referring to the London Heathrow SID charts, on a MID 2K departure from Rwy 09L, the initial turn should be made at: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.5 2.0 1.5 2.0 DME DME DME DME LON LON LON and above 580ft LON and above 580ft.

43.

Referring to the London Heathrow terminal charts, the airport elevation is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 92ft 80ft 77ft 75ft

44.

Referring to the London Heathrow Approach charts for Rwy 09L, the missed approach procedure is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Climb straight ahead to Climb straight ahead to OCKHAM VOR 067R Climb straight ahead to Climb straight ahead to 185kts 3000ft then left turn to OCKHAM VOR 3000ft then left turn inbound to 3000ft then left turn to EPSOM NDB 3000ft then as directed by ATC max

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Flight Planning Exam 3

45.

Referring to the Munich approach charts, the touchdown elevation for Rwy 26L is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1486ft 1670ft 1470ft 1570ft

46.

Referring to the Munich STAR chart 10-2, when arriving from the North on a flight from the UK, the expected STAR for Rwy 26R would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) RDG 1R ALB 3R ALB 3T Radar vectors from ATC

47.

Refer to chart E(HI)5, overhead LIMOGES (N4549 E00102) at FL330, ATC would be contacted on the following frequency: (a) (b) (c) (d) 126.85 133.57 112.1 133.1

48.

The purpose of a missed approach point is: (a) (b) (c) (d) That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed. That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure decision altitude is not infringed. That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure decision height is not infringed. That point in an instrument procedure at or before which missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure OCA is not infringed.

49.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, calculate the fuel used and time taken during an en route climb from an airfield at 6000ft amsl to FL330 given a brake release weight of 56000kgs and ISA +17C conditions. (a) (b) (c) (d) 15 mins 20mins 15mins 20mins 1300kgs 1600kgs 1150kgs 1400kgs

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Flight Planning Exam 3

50.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, the TAS for Long Range Cruise, FL310, at a gross weight of 49000kgs at ISA -17C will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 450kts 433kts 416kts 420kts

51.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, calculate the fuel required for a navigation leg C to D given the following information: Mach 0.74 cruise FL310 Mass at C 54500kg ISA +20C Nautical ground miles C D 553nms Mean wind component 33kts (a) (b) (c) (d) 3050kgs 3140kgs 3250kgs 3340kgs

52.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, the ground distance covered during a descent from FL330 to SL, assuming an economy descent profile, landing weight 51000kgs and a mean wind component of +25kts is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 101nms 95nms 116nms 110nms

53.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, calculate the critical fuel reserve required given the following data: Weight at critical point Distance from CP to diversion airport Mean wind component Temperature conditions (a) (b) (c) (d) 5800kgs 5900kgs 6050kgs 6200kgs 55000kgs 675nms +25 kts ISA +20C

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Flight Planning Exam 3

54.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, determine the area of operation, in nautical air miles, given the following data: EROPS clearance LRC operations Diversion point mass (a) (b) (c) (d) 766nms 783nms 792nms 743nms 120mins 55000kgs

55.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, determine the fuel and time required for an In Flight Diversion (LRC), one engine inoperative, given the following data: Diversion distance Wind component Cruise level Weight at point of diversion ISA conditions (a) (b) (c) (d) 4650kgs 5200kgs 5200kgs 4650kgs 100mins 135mins 105mins 130mins 750nms 40kts tail FL180 55000kgs

56.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, when tankering fuel o a sector, calculate the percentage surplus burn given the following information: Trip distance Cruise level Landing weight Long range cruise (a) (b) (c) (d) 11.0% 18.4% 21.3% 15.9% 1800NAM FL350 52000kgs

57.

Referring to the MRJT planning charts, determine the break even fuel price at destination that would justify tankering fuel on a leg A to B given the following information: Trip distance Cruise level Landing weight Long range cruise Price of fuel at departure field (a) (b) (c) (d) 150 135 140 145 cents cents cents cents / / / / gallon gallon gallon gallon Flight Planning Exam 3 2100NAM FL330 45000kgs 120 cents / gallon

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58.

Given the following information, calculate the time from A to the Point of Equal Time. Leg Distance A to B TAS Mean wind comp A to B (a) (b) (c) (d) 45mins 1hr 30mins 1hr 17mins 55mins 595nm 230kts +38kts

59.

Calculate the distance from the departure point to the Point of Safe Return given the following data: Total fuel at departure Fuel required on return for Div/Res Fuel consumption TAS Outbound wind component (a) (b) (c) (d) 990nm 870nm 830nm 790nm 12600kgs 1500kgs 2900 kgs / hour 438kts -39kts

60.

The distance from point of departure to the Point of Safe Return is greatest in a: (a) (b) (c) (d) Tail wind Still wind Head wind Cross wind

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Flight Planning Exam 3

Intentionally Blank

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Flight Planning Exam 3

Annex A

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Flight Planning Exam 3

Annex B

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Flight Planning Exam 3

Flight Planning
Exam 3, 60 questions, 3 hours

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A B C D 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A B C D

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Flight Planning Exam 3

Intentionally Blank

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Flight Planning Exam 3

Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 d d b c b d a c c a c c d b a d c b b b 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 b c d c c d c c a d d d a d c c d b b c 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 c c b d c a b a d c d d c d d b d d c b

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Flight Planning Exam 3