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Aviation Law

Feedback Paper 4 1. Which of the following is NOT an emergency frequency? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 121.5 MHz 243 MHz 2182 KHz 243 KHz

What Obstacle Clearance is guaranteed at a range greater than 5 mm from the edge of the holding area of a holding pattern? (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 m 250 ft 300 ft none

3.

Which of the following contain administration, financial and legislative information? (a) (b) (c) (d) AIP AICs AIRAC NOTAM

4.

If there is sufficient time for information to be disseminated by other means, a NOTAM is not issued. What is the time limit? (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 days 28 days 14 days 7 days

5.

What is the minimum time separation applied between a light aircraft taking off behind a heavy? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 2 3 5 minute minutes minutes minutes

6.

Where two aircraft are taking off and following the same departure track, what is the minimum time separation applied? (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 1 2 5 minutes if they are both flying at the same speed minute if the speed difference is 15 kts minutes if the first is flying 40 kts faster than the second minutes

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7.

In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic? (a) (b) (c) (d) Class Class Class Class A B C D

8.

What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1000 1500 2000 3000 m m m m

9.

You are flying at 5000 ft (above the transition altitude) in class C airspace. What are the VMC criteria? (a) (b) (c) (d) 8 km visibility: cloud 5 km visibility: cloud 8 km visibility: cloud 5 km visibility: cloud 1000 m vertically and 1500 ft horizontally clear of 1500 ft vertically and 1000 ft horizontally clear of 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally clear of 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally clear of

10.

What is put in item 8 of a flight plan form if the flight is to start under VFR and then change to IFR at the point specified in item 15? (a) (b) (c) (d) I V Y Z

11.

The suffix Y is applied to the designator of an ATS route to indicate turn between 30 and 90, when: (a) (b) (c) (d) Above FL 200 with a tangential arc of 15 nm FL200 and above with a tangential arc of 22.5 nm Above FL190 with a tangential arc of 25 nm FL190 and below with a tangential arc of 15 nm

12.

If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC he must inform ATC and include the phrase: (a) (b) (c) (d) Cancelling Cancelling Cancelling Cancelling my my my my flight plan flight IFR flight IMC flight plan

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13.

Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach Number technique is applied. What is the minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes longitudinal separation? (a) (b) (c) (d) 150 nm 50 nm 80 nm 120 nm

14.

What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach? (a) (b) (c) (d) Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach Initial; Intermediate: Final; Landing; Missed Approach Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing

15.

What is the divergence angle that must be maintained from overhead an NDB to a range of 15 nm to allow one aircraft to climb/descend through the level of another? (a) (b) (c) (d) 15 30 45 60

16.

For a CAT 1 approach lighting system what is the length of the prethreshold centre line lighting? (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 150 600 900 m m m m

17.

An aerodrome reference field code is 4. What required take-off distance does this relate to? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1000 1200 1600 1800 m m m m

18.

In class C airspace, what flights are separated? (a) (b) (c) (d) All flights IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR

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19.

What service is provided to IFR/VFR traffic in class E airspace? (a) (b) (c) (d) ATC ATC ATC ATC to to to to IFR and VFR IFR; FIS to VFR IFR and radio equipped VFR; FIS to non radio VFR IFR; Advisory ATC to ER in VMC; FIS to VFR

20.

What colour is an aerodrome beacon at a land aerodrome? (a) (b) (c) (d) White or green/white Green Yellow or yellow/white Any colour that attracts attention may be used

21.

What colour are vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome? (a) (b) (c) (d) Green Dayglo orange A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green White and red chequered

22.

Which is the correct quadrantal flight level if your heading is 358T, variation is 3W and drift is 2P? (a) (b) (c) (d) FL FL FL FL 60 65 70 75

23.

What does element 2 of the aerodrome reference code refer to? (a) (b) (c) (d) Aircraft length Fuselage width Wing span Inner main gearwheel span

24.

Not more than how many copies of these forms are required? The general declaration The passenger manifest The stores list (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 outbound, 3 inbound 2 outbound, 2 inbound 3 outbound, 2 inbound none of the above

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25.

Which Annex of the Chicago Convention covers the handling of passengers and their baggage? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 16 9 15

26.

What is the limitation to airspeed in class C airspace below FL100? (a) (b) (c) (d) 200 250 125 225 kts kts kts kts IAS IAS IAS TAS

27.

Which freedom of the air permits an aeroplane to land in a state for the purpose of refuelling? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1st freedom 2nd freedom 3rd freedom 4th freedom

28.

Which international convention was concerned with terrorism against international civil aviation? (a) (b) (c) (d) Tokyo Montreal Rome Warsaw

29.

What does the SAR ground signal X mean? (a) (b) (c) (d) We We We We need assistance need medical assistance are here have all departed from this position

30.

You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (Total Estimated Lapsed Time)? (a) (b) (c) (d) Time Time Time Time from from from from brakes off to overhead the destination brakes released to landing time take off to overhead the destination take off to landing

31.

Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the maximum permitted interception angle to intercept the localiser (centreline)? (a) (b) (c) (d) 20 25 30 45
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32.

In a category A aeroplane which reversing turn takes 2 minutes in still air? (a) (b) (c) (d) 045/180 procedure turn 080/260 procedure turn Base turn Racetrack

33.

During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the minimum obstacle clearance provided? (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 m At least 300 m 150 m At least 150 m

34.

For a full Calvert cat 1 approach lighting system, how many bars are required and what is the configuration of the centreline? (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 bars and single centreline One bar and single centre line 5 bars and centreline of single, double and treble sources at increasing distance from threshold 5 bars with centreline barrettes

35.

Which of the following describes threshold lights? (a) (b) (c) (d) Red unidirectional Green omnidirectional Red omnidirectional Green unidirectional

36.

Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted? (a) (b) (c) (d) G-BERK SY-PAN 3T-SSS YT-LLL

37.

What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates apply brakes? (a) (b) (c) (d) Waving the arms across the face Drawing the palm across the throat Clenching a raised fist Holding both arms tip with palms facing forward

38.

Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft? (a) (b) (c) (d) Annex Annex Annex Annex 6 11 17 7
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39.

The Rome Convention and later amendments covers: (a) (b) (c) (d) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the ground Offences and Certain Other Acts Committed on Board an aircraft Regulations concerning transportation of dangerous goods The liability of the owner or operator of an aircraft which has caused damage to a person or property on land or water

40.

The Convention concerning offences and Certain Other Acts Committed on board an aircraft is (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The Paris Convention Chicago Convention Tokyo Convention Rome Convention

41.

The Convention signed by States concerning people who have had damage inflicted by foreign Airlines is (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The Tokyo Convention Paris Convention Rome Convention Warsaw Convention

42.

The Warsaw Convention and its later amendments cover: (a) (b) (c) (d) The permit of the operator for international flights The limitations of the responsibilities of the operator against transported passengers and cargo Regulations concerning transportation of Dangerous Goods The Aerodrome security system

43.

The minimum age for a CPL holder is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 17 18 16 21 years years years years

44.

The minimum and maximum age for an ATPL holder to exercise his/her privileges is (a) (b) (c) (d) 17 16 18 21 and and and and 59 60 60 59 years years years years

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45.

Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a crewmembers licence to be recognised by Contracting States: (a) (b) (c) (d) Annex Annex Annex Annex 2 3 1 4

46.

The holder of a pilots licence for fixed-wing and helicopters who has attained the age of 40, the period between Medical renewals decreases from (a) (b) (c) (d) 12 months to 6 months 12 months to 3 months 24 months to 12 months All of the answers are incorrect

47.

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1000 2000 1500 1000 feet feet feet feet and and and and less less less less than than than than 5 5 5 5 km km km km visibility visibility visibility visibility

48.

The minimum number of cross country hours needed for CPL issue (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 20 25 15 hours hours hours hours cross cross cross cross country country country country P1 P1 P1 P1

49.

Radar termination for an SRA is at: (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 nm 2.5 nm 2 nm 1 nm

50.

An aircraft is flying along an ATC route. How is it passed from one control activity to another? (a) (b) (c) (d) Automatically With the pilots consent After discussion with next ATC unit By central control unit

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Feedback Paper 4

Aviation Law
Feedback Paper 4, Answers

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B C D

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Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 d d b d b c cc b d d 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 b c c b b d d d b a 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 c b c d c b b a b c 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 c b b c d b c d a c 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 c b b d c a c b c c

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