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Exam 3 - 65 Questions, time allowed 90 minutes 1. Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 3000 to 30000 MHz 3000 to 30000 KHz 300 to 3000 MHz 300 to 3000 KHz

On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a VOR receiver (a) (b) (c) (d) A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial The lubber line will indicate the selected radial There will be no Omni Bearing Selector knob, as this function is automatic on this type of indicator

3.

With regard to types of transmission, which statement is true: (a) (b) (c) (d) continuous wave transmission varies only in amplitude pulse transmission is suitable only for periodic NDB's in pulse transmission the frequency is modulated to facilitate range measurement continuous wave transmission can be either frequency or amplitude modulated

4.

A VOR indication of 240 FROM is given. Variation at the aircraft is 9W and at the VOR is 7W. The heading (T) in nil wind to reach the station is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 231 051 053 233

5.

An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000 defined by a VOR ahead of the aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60nm to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position relative to the airway lateral boundary is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3nm 1nm 1nm 1nm inside the airways eastern boundary inside the airways western boundary outside the airways western boundary inside the airways eastern boundary

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B A
6 In the propagation diagram above the correct sequence for letters A, B, C and D is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 7. A dead space dead space skip distance skip distance B skip distance skip distance dead space dead space C sky wave ground wave sky wave ground wave D ground wave sky wave ground wave sky wave

MLS consists of: (a) (b) (c) (d) a common azimuth and elevation transmitter overlapping centre-line lobe transmission in azimuth angled to provide glide slope information an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter on separate frequencies and a DME an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a shared frequency and a DME

8. What antennae must be used to obtain an ADF bearing? (a) (b) (c) (d) 9. Loop Sense Loop and sense Radome

For long range NDB's the most common type is: (a) (b) (c) (d) LF NON AlA LF NON A2A MF NON A1A MF NON A2A

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10.

The maximum safe 'fly-up' indication on the glidepath needle (assuming a 5-dot indicator) is (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 dots 1.5 dots 2.5 dots 1 dot

11. An aircraft is tracking the 255 radial inbound to VOR X. With 15 port drift which of the following indications will be correct when crossing the 121 radial from VOR Y?

12.

Attenuation of radio waves means:(a) (b) (c) (d) the weakening of the radiated waves the atmospheric bending of the waves only the scattering of the waves by the tropopause only the absorbtion of radio energy by the sea

13.

The geodetic reference system used to define latitude and longitude by GPS equipment is:(a) (b) (c) (d) UKGRS 90 GDR 95 OSGB 36 WGS 84

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14.

Your QUJ is 335 by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is 12W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable signals in the aircraft's receivers from that VOR? (a) (b) (c) (d) 323 347 143 167

15.

If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: "your true bearing is 256, class alpha." This means:(a) (b) (c) (d) QTE accurate to 5 QUJ accurate to 3 QDR accurate to 2 QTE accurate to 2

16.

Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the approximate height of an aircraft 3nm from touchdown on a 2.9 glide slope. (a) (b) (c) (d) 880 765 840 825 ft ft ft ft

17.

The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR (a) (b) (c) (d) Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or from the CDI needle Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication

18.

The transmission band used by INMARSAT is: (a) (b) (c) (d) HF VHF UHF SHF

19.

The maximum range of a primary pulse radar can be affected by: (a) (b) (c) (d) PRF pulse width transmission frequency either (a), (b) or (c)

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20.

DME is a .....................radar which provides......................distances between the aircraft and a ground..................... Which sequence most accurately completes the above statement? (a) (b) (c) (d) primary secondary secondary primary accurate earth slant slant transmitter transmitter transponder transponder

21.

If a DME transponder becomes saturated it will; (a) (b) (c) (d) give give give give preference preference preference preference to to to to the the the the nearest 100 aircraft furthest aircraft up to a maximum of 70 aircraft with the strongest transmissions first 100 aircraft which interrogated it

22.

The tilt angle on Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4. If the beam width is 5 and the range of the cloud is 40nm, the height of the cloud above the aircraft is approximately: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3000 6000 4000 9000 ft ft ft ft

23.

Which of the ILS signal presentations shown below indicates that the aircraft is at its maximum recommended deviation below the glidepath and is to the right of the centreline?

a)

b)

c)

d)

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24.

The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 m to 10 m 1 m to 100 cms 10 m to 1m 100 cms to 10 cms

25.

119.70 Mhz is a typical frequency for; (a) (b) (c) (d) VOR Approach Control DME ILS localiser

26.

An aircraft bears 036(T) from a VOR beacon. Its heading is 330(T) and the variation at the beacon and aircraft is 8E. What OBS setting would make the CDI needle central with 'TO' showing? (a) (b) (c) (d) 028 208 232 052

27.

In the diagram above the correct action to regain glide slope and centreline is: (a) (b) (c) (d) fly fly fly fly left and decrease descent rate right and decrease descent rate left and increase descent rate right and increase descent rate

28.

The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:(a) (b) (c) (d) a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 400 hz modulated tone a white light and 6 dots per sec of a 30 hz modulated tone an amber light and alternate dashes/dots of a 1300 hz modulated tone a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 1300 hz modulated signal

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29.

The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR (a) (b) (c) (d) Is always directed towards the aircraft Is like a figure of 8 Is a pencil beam Rotates at 30 revolutions per second

30.

Microwave Landing Systems allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by means of: (a) (b) (c) (d) timing the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to reach the aircraft to define range information from four satellites transmitting microwaves timing the passage of two scanning beams integrated with DME directional aerials and DME

31.

32.

The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in nm is approximately (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 160 320 600

33.

By using a random PRF the airborne DME can:(a) (b) (c) (d) prevent interference from random transmissions recognise a beacons reply among a mass of ground returns reduce the effect of weather interference distinguish between its own replies and those replies triggered by other aircraft

34.

Which sequence completes the following statement? With regard to AWR, in the cosecant2 or ............. beam ............is progressively ........... as distances ........... to equalise screen brightness. (a) (b) (c) (d) weather mapping weather mapping power power gain gain increased decreased decreased increased decrease decrease increase decrease

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35.

The phase difference between the VOR reference signal and the variable phase signal measured at an aircraft bearing 297(T) from a VOR, where the magnetic variation is 23E, is:(a) (b) (c) (d) 320 274 297 none of the above

36.

With regard to SSR which of the following statements is true: (a) (b) (c) (d) it is a secondary radar system operating in the UHF frequency band. mode A is used for identification, with mode C for automatic height information it is compulsory when flying in Upper Airspace and in the whole of U.K. controlled airspace under IFR to carry Mode A 4096 codes and also Mode C all of the above

37.

What is the height of the cloud if an aircraft is at 5000ft, cloud range is 30nm, the AWR tilt angle is 5 and the beam width is 4? (a) (b) (c) (d) 9000ft 14000ft 21000ft 17000ft

38.

The rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3 glide-slope at a GS of 140 kt is (a) (b) (c) (d) 325 640 710 520

39.

A hyperbolic position line joins all points of (a) (b) (c) (d) equal range between two ground stations zero phase difference between two signals equal difference in range between two stations equal time taken by two simultaneous transmissions

40.

When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is working without error, the Mode C will report an pressure altitude of 35,064 ft as flight level: (a) (b) (c) (d) 350 35064 3506 351

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41.

The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is its frequency? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.5KHz 1.5GHz 1.5MHz 15MHz

42.

The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ...... and ...... respectively, with .... suffering more from atmospheric attenuation. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1500nm l000nm l000nm 500nm l000nm 500nm 300nm l00nm MF LF MF LF

43.

In UK airspace if an ATS unit is unable to verify the altitude of the aircraft or there is more than ...... feet between height indication and pilot reported altitude, mode ...... should be de-selected (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 200 300 200 Mode Mode Mode Mode A C C A

44.

The needle of a Course Deviation Indicator is showing 3 dots right on a 5 dot OBI, with 268 set and FROM showing. What radial is the a/c on? (a) (b) (c) (d) 082 094 262 274

45.

The AWR screen on the right is operating in the mapping mode. Given that the magnetic heading is 018 and the variation is 8E the true bearing of the aircraft from the island is............. and the .............. scale is selected. (a) (b) (c) (d) 176 160 176 160 120 nm 70 nm 100 nm 300 nm

46.

NDBs transmit mainly in the: (a) (b) (c) (d) VHF band UHF band HF band MF band

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47.

The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 7 10 3

48.

With reference to a VOR, the "cone of confusion" is: (a) (b) (c) (d) the area outside the DOC the area overhead the VOR the change over of the TO & FROM flag when the OBS is set 90 to the radial the area in which more than one VOR can be received on the same frequency

49.

Accurate glidepath signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the horizontal. The angle is:(a) (b) (c) (d) 0.45 5.25 1.35 1.75 x x x x the the the the glidepath glidepath glidepath glidepath angle angle angle angle

50.

If a NDB with a transmitter power of 25KW which has a range of 50nm is adjusted to give a power output of 100KW the range of the NDB will be about (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 nm 200 nm 50 nm 150 nm

51.

The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075(M) TO and deviation indicator central. A co-located NDB shows 012 relative. What are the drift and heading in (M)? (a) (b) (c) (d) 12S 12P 12S 12P 087 063 063 087

52.

The factor which determines the minimum range of a radar is: (a) (b) (c) (d) PRF Pulse interval Pulse width Radio frequency of transmission

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53.

The max theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 218 132 200 108 nm nm nm nm

54.

When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected OFF for the (a) (b) (c) (d) tone signal on NONAlA ident signal on NONAlA tone signal on NONA2A ident signal on NONA2A

55.

A transmitter using a wavelength of 4 cm moves directly towards a receiver at 240m/sec. The doppler shift is............. and of................ (a) (b) (c) (d) negative positive negative positive 60 Hz 6 KHz 6 KHz 60 Hz

56.

In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have: (a) (b) (c) (d) a a a a short pulse length high frequency long wavelength high PRF

57.

The range (in nm) at which an aircraft flying at 8500ft wi1l receive a VHF transmission from a station 520ft amsl is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 115 144 87 131

58.

The ILS localiser transmits VHF frequencies between:(a) (b) (c) (d) 108 112 108 118 and and and and 117.95 117.95 111.95 136.95 Mhz Mhz Mhz Mhz

59.

With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if: (a) (b) (c) (d) the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the stations classified limits the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology none of the above

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60.

The ILS localiser signal provides azimuth guidance. The signal is made up of two lobes (a) (b) (c) (d) on on on on the same frequency with the same modulation different frequencies with the same modulation different frequencies with different modulations the same frequency with different modulations

61.

As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will:(a) (b) (c) (d) Increase Decrease Decrease only at night Increase only over the sea

62.

With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is a: (a) (b) (c) (d) QDM QDR QUJ QTE

63.

An aircraft is tracking 060 (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035 at 1300. 12 min later the relative bearing is 070. If the G/S is 180kt, what is the aircraft's distance from the NDB at 1312 (a) (b) (c) (d) 18 36 24 30 nm nm nm nm

64.

A Class B VDF bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 7 3 5 degrees degrees degrees degrees

65.

Night effect is a quoted NDB error. It refers to the mixing of the: (a) (b) (c) (d) Groundwave and sky waves from the station being used Groundwave and sky waves from other stations Direct wave and sky waves from the station being used Direct wave and sky waves from other stations

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Exam 3, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min.

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

A B C D

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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

c a d c b d d c a c d a d d d a b c d c

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

c b c c b b a a d c c b d b b d b c c d

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

c c b c c d b b d a c c d d b c b c b d

61 62 63 64 65

b d b d a

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