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1. Bacteria are single celled organisms. What is the number of chromosomes in Agrobacterium tumefaciens? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 2.

The circular chromosomes after replication will still be interlocked which has to be separated before cell division. This task is done by a. DNA topoisomerase b. DNA gyrase c. Nucleases d. Restriction enzymes. 3. If in evolutionary time scale Nucleosomes had not been evolved, what would have been the entire length of human DNA molecule (2n) present in one cell? ( human cell has 3 x 10^9 bp and rise in helix is 34nm) a. 1 meter b. 2 meter c. 3meter d. 0.5 meter 4. Consider the following statement. I. All human cells are diploid, except Megakaryones. II. Megakaryones have 128 copies of each chromosome. III. All human cells are diploid, except germ cells and a few other specialized cells . IV. Every human cell has a neuron, a lymph and blood source. Choose the correct statement. a. b. c. d. Only 1) Both 1) and 2) Only 3) 1), 2), 3) and 4)

5. What is the reason for the reduced gene density among the Eukaryotes than prokaryotes? a. Presence of Intergenic sequences b. Larger cell volume c. Larger body size d. Less no.of genes. 6. Chromosome can have multiple replication sites but not multiple centromeres. What would be the effect on chromosome if you engineer it to have multiple centromeres? a. Results in aneuploid cells. b. Results in non-disjunction of chromosomes c. Results in breakage of chromosomes during strand separation. d. Results in duplication of chromosome.

7. Microsatellite instability is associated with a. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer b. Familial adenomatous polyposis c. Neurofibromatosis d. Hereditary breast cancer 8. In DNA, Adenosine pairs with Thymine, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine. If Adenosine constitutes 18% and Guanine constitutes 24% of all nucleotides in a DNA preparation, it must be a a. Triple stranded DNA b. double stranded DNA c. very short stretch of double stranded DNA d. multi-chromosomal DNA 9. Why a DNA duplex melts at a specific temperature (Tm) on heating? a. Gain of base stacking energy b. The double helix is intrinsically unstable c. The single helix is more stable as compared to the double helix d. The DNA double helix is a co-operative structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds and base pairing. 10. The average human genome has approximately 3109 base pairs coding for various proteins. If an average protein contains 400 amino acids, what is the maximum number of proteins that can be encoded by the human genome? a. 2.5 106 7 2.5 10 c. 3.0 106 7 d. 3.5 10 b.

11. The DNA from the bacteriophage X174 has a base composition of 25% A, 33% T, 24% G, and 18% C. Which of the following best explains this observation? a. In viral genomes, the base pairing b. does not follow the standard c. Nucleic acids from viruses are tightly complexed with nucleic acid-binding proteins and so cannot base-pair with one another. d. The genome of bacteriophage X174 is single-stranded. 12. Eukaryotic genomes are organized into chromosomes and can be visualized at mitosis by staining with specific dyes. Heat denaturation followed by staining with Giemsa produced alternate dark and light bands. The dark bands obtained by this process are mainly a. AT -rich and gene rich regions. b. AT -rich and gene desert regions. c. GC-rich and gene rich regions. d. GC-rich and gene desert regions

13. If there were 5 different bases in DNA and the genetic code consisted of 4 bases per codon then the possible number of codons would be a. 125 b. 256 c. 625 d. 1024 14. One complete turn of the double helix contains 10 pairs of bases and is 3.4nm long. What is the approximate length of the DNA coding sequence of lysozyme, a protein of 129 amino acids? a. 132nm b. 113nm c. 66nm d. 44nm 15. The minimum number of genes in an autonomous replicating organism is a. 50 -100 b. 300 400 c. 1000 1500 d. 4000 5000 16. If bacteria possess two copies of certain genes then they are referred as a. Amphidiploids b. Merodiploid c. Euploid d. Poltploid 17. A plasmid o f 2200 bp size was isolated from E..coli and found to have a linking number (Lk) of 190. The negative value of the writhe (W,) for this plasmid would a. be more if the DNA adopted an A-form structure than if it did a E-form structure b. be less if the DNA adopted an A-form structure than if it did a B-form structure c. be independent of the A-form and the B-form structures of the DNA d. vary only if the DNA in the plasmid adopted a Z-form structure 18. Which one of the following covalent modifications occurs both in DNA as well as histones and coniributes to repression of iranscription w gene silencing in eukaryotic cells? a. Acetylation b. Phosphorylation c. Methylation d. Sumoylation 19. In eukaryotic chromatin, 30 nm fiber (solenoid) can open up to give rise to two kinds of chromatin. In one type (A), the promoter of a gene within the open chromatin is occupied by a nucleosome whereas in the other (B), the promoter is occupied by histone H1. The following possibilities are suggested.

A. The gene in (A) is repressed. B. The gene in (B) is repressed. C. The gene in (A) is active. D. The gene in (B) is active. Which of the following sets is correct? a. A and D b. A and B c. Band D d. C and D 20. Sum total of gene at any time in a unit of evolution is termed a a. Genome b. Gene poll c. Genotype d. Gene library 21. A gene when present in homozygous form cause the death of person and disturbs phenotypic ratio from 3 : 1 to 0 : 2 : 1 (or simply 2 :1) a. Lethal gene b. Pleiortopic gene c. Epistatic gene d. Supplementary gene 22. The symptoms representing a particular disease due to chromosomal abnormalities are referred to as a. Sex mosaic b. Pedigree c. Syndrome d. Lethal 23. Male honey bee has 16 chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in worker and queen Honey bee? a. n = 32 b. 2n = 32 c. n = 16 d. 2n = 16 24. Chiasmata are formed by exchange between nonsister Chromatids of homologous chromosomes. These were reported by a. Mc Clung b. Janssens c. Morgan d. Altman 25. In human males, even some recessive sex linked alleles are able to express their effect because a. There is single genome b. Autosomes are single but sex chromosomes are two c. There is only one X- chromosome d. There is only one Y-chromosome 26. Phenomenon of linked genes being inherited together for two or more generations is known as a. Continuous linkage b. Complete linkage

c. Consistent linkage d. All of the a bov 27. A child receives genes from his father to the extent of a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% 28. Sex of the human child is due to a. Size of egg b. Size of sperm c. Y-chromosome d. Autosomal chromosome 29. Consider the following statement. i. Most human cells are diploid, except Megakaryones. ii. Megakaryones have 128 copies of each chromosome. iii. All human cells are diploid, except some specialized cells iv. Every human cell has a neuron, a lymph and blood source. Choose the correct statement. a. b. c. d. Only 1) Both 1) and 2) Only 3) 1), 2), 3) and 4)

30. If in evolutionary time scale Nucleosomes had not been evolved, what would have been the entire length of human DNA molecule (2n) present in one cell? ( human cell has 3 x 10^9 bp and rise in helix is 34nm) a. 1 meter b. 2 meter c. 3meter d. 0.5 meter

31. The circular chromosomes after replication will still be interlocked which has to be separated before cell division. This task is done by a. DNA topoisomerase b. DNA gyrase c. Nucleases d. Restriction enzymes 32. Compaction ratio achieved by nucleosome formation is a. 1/3 b. c. 1/8 d. 1 33. Which of the following statement is true? A. Chromosomes are membrane bound and are stable in entire life span of a cell. B. If barr body is formed in female, no genes form father will be expressed in the child. a. Only A b. Only B c. Both A and B d. None of these. 34. Some of the heterochromatin region can convert into Euchromatic regions, in different cell cycle stages. They are called as a. Constitutive Heterochromatin b. Facultative Heterochromatin c. Euchromatin d. None of the above 35. Telomerases are the a. Ends of the chromosomes b. Enzymes involved in replicating ends of chromosomes c. Central part of chromosomes d. Proteins which are necessary for termination of replication 36. Telomerases are over expressed in a. Actively dividing cells b. Gamete cells c. Bone marrow cells d. Cancer cells 37. Every chromatid contains, how many DNA strands a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. Different chromosomes have different DNA number 38. Topoisomerases are a. Different structural forms of DNA b. Different 3D topology of cccDNA c. Enzymes which neutralize Supercoiling d. DNA supercoils 39. Topoisomerase I a. Requires ATP b. Cleaves only one strand at a time c. Called as Gyrase in E.coli d. Decreases linking number 40. Active site of Topoisomerase I contains a. Tyrosine b. Tryptophan c. Glycine d. Fe+3 ions 41. No. of chromosomes present in Yeast, S. cereviseae is a. 14 b. 16 c. 18 d. 32 42. Writhe corresponds to a. Coiling of ssDNA to form dsDNA b. Coiling of dsDNA to form triplex DNA c. Decoiling of cccDNA to form supercoiled DNA d. No. of times the dsDNA crosses another dsDNA strand in supercoiled cccDNA 43. Types of writhe a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 44. If Twist is +ve , helix coiling is a. Right handed b. Left handed c. Both d. Cannot be determines

45. If interwound writhe is ve then, the supercoiling is said to be a. Right handed b. Left handed c. East handed d. West handed 46. If Spiral writhe is +ve , the DNA Supercoiling is a. Right handed b. Left handed c. East handed d. West handed 47. Barr body is an example of a. Constitutive heterochromatin b. Facultative heterochromatin c. X chromosome expression d. Y chromosome dominance 48. A cell nucleus was found to have 10 nucleosomes. Considering the DNA wound around Histones is 146 bp and linker DNA is 40 bp. What would be the length of DNA strand if all Histones are removed. a. nm b. 200 A c. 0.5 nm d. 0.589 micrometer 49. The DNA in sperm, is coiled by modified Histones called a. Vitrous DNA proteins b. Amino Histones c. Protamins d. Acetyles 50. Heterochromatins are rich in a. LINE elements b. Sine elements c. Tandem repeats and satellite DNA d. Visual band 51. If DNA concentration is kept constant, which of the following will show long renaturation time? a. DNA with less inverted and mirror repeats b. DNA with no repeats

c. DNA with many direct and tandem repeats d. DNA with Transposons 52. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes prokaryotic organisms from eukaryotic organisms? a. Prokaryotes are unicellular, while all eukaryotes are multicellular. b. Prokaryotes are aquatic, while eukaryotes are terrestrial. c. Prokaryotes are structurally less complex than eukaryotes are. d. Prokaryotes require a host to replicate, while eukaryotes do not. 53. If the genetic code consisted of four bases per codon rather than three, the maximum number of unique amino acids that could be encoded would be a. 16 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256 54. Which mutation cannot occur in a tRNA encoding gene? a. Deletion b. Transition c. Transversion d. Nonsense mutation Part-c 55. In the experiments by Meselson and Stahl that demonstrated the semiconservative replication of DNA, the researchers cultured bacteria in a medium containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen, 15N . They then moved the bacteria to a medium containing 14N , the lighter, more common isotope of nitrogen. After each round of replication, the researchers extracted the DNA and centrifuged the solution to separate the DNA bands by density. The test tubes below illustrate the possible banding pattern found after two bacterial generations (two rounds of DNA replication). Which test tube best illustrates the bands predicted by the semiconservative model of DNA replication?

56. MATCH THE FOLLOWING A. Nonsense codon B. Anticodon C. Ribosome D. Poly-A tail a) A-1; B-4, C-2; D- 3; b) A-4; B-1, C-3; D- 2; c) A-3; B-4, C-2; D- 1; d) A-2; B-4, C-1; D- 3; 57. Match the following: A. Extra-chromosomal circular DNA B. Unpaired replicated linear chromosomes C. Paired replicated linear chromosomes D. Circular chromosomes a) A-1; B-4, C-2; D- 3; b) A-3; B-1, C-4; D- 2; c) A-3; B-4, C-2; D- 1; d) A-2; B-4, C-1; D- 3;

1. Protein synthesis termination triplet 2. Site of protein synthesis 3. Base sequence on messenger RNA that aids its transport across the nuclear envelope 4. Triplet on tRNA

1. Eukaryotic cells at prophase of mitosis 2. Typical of prokaryotic cells after fission 3. Plasmid exchanged by conjugating bacteria 4. Eukaryotic cells at metaphase I

58. Why might we expect to see chromosomal puffs that are tissue- and stage-specific, constitutive, and environmentally induced a. Puffs are the site of replication, different cells have different ori sites and time of replication b. Puffs are the sites of transcription, transcription is time specific and different cells show different puff formation

c. Puffs are due to chromosomal aberrations, which are not uniform in nature, and hence cells show different puff formation d. Puffs are sites of Mutation, and hence they vary from cell type to cell type 59. X inactivation is one mechanism of dosage compensation; it ensures that male (XY) and female (XX) mammals contain the same concentrations of gene products encoded by the X chromosome. What is the other mechanism found in insects, for dosage compensation? a. Doubling of X chromosome expression in males, than found in females b. Doubling of X chromosome expression in females, than found in males c. Reduction in Y chromosome expression in females , than in males d. Halfing the X chromosome expression in male, than in females. 60. Nucleosomes are the structural unit of chromatin. In the formation of nucleosomes about 200 bp are wrapped around the histones. The nucleosomes ( diameter 11nm) are folded into a second order structure to form a solenoid consisting of 6 nucleosomes per turn. Calculate the total packaging ratio of DNA at the level of nucleosomes and the solenoid. Further if the genome size of a Eukaryotic microorganism is 2 x 10^7 bp and the size of its chromosome is 4 micro meter, what will be the final packaging ratio of DNA in the chromosome? a. 1500 b. 1900 c. 1700 d. 2000 61. Bacteriophage lambda infects E. coli by integrating its DNA into the bacterial chromosome. The success of this recombination depends on the topology of the E. coli DNA. When the superhelical density () of the E. coli DNA is greater than _0.045, the probability of integration is <20%; when is less than _0.06, the probability is >70%. Plasmid DNA isolated from an E. coli culture is found to have a length of 13,800 bp and an Lk of 1,222. Calculate for this DNA? a. -0.001 b. -0.067 c. +0.067 d. -0.0067 62. Early evidence that helped researchers define nucleosome structure is illustrated by the agarose gel below, in which the thick bands represent DNA. It was generated by briefly treating chromatin with an enzyme that degrades DNA, then removing all protein and subjecting the purified DNA to electrophoresis. Numbers at the side of the gel denote the position to which a linear DNA of the indicated size would migrate. What does this gel tell you about chromatin structure? Why are the DNA bands thick and spread out rather than sharply defined?

a. Chromatin structure repeats for every 200 bp and the treatment was insufficient to nick at every accessible point b. Chromatin structure has repeating nucleosomes situated at 146 bp apart. c. Chromatin structure is not degraded completely by the enzyme, thus we get all bands of 200 bp only. d. The proteins coding region of chromatin has 200 bp length. 63. YACs are used to clone large pieces of DNA in yeast cells. What three types of DNA sequences are required to ensure proper replication and propagation of a YAC in a yeast cell? a. Centromere and Ori site b. Centromere and Terminators c. Centromere and linkage groups d. Centromere, telomere and Ori site. 64. Which are the two structural features required for a DNA molecule to maintain a negatively supercoiled state? a. cccDNA with constraint b. covalently closed DNA strands with circular nature c. covalently closed DNA strands either circular or constrained at both ends d. relaxed form of cccDNA

ANSWER KEYS:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

D A B D A

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

C A B D A

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

D B C A B

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

B C C A B

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62.

A C B C C D B C D B C A B D B B D A C B A D D B A B A B D C C B C D D D A B B A C B

63. A 64. D 65. C